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�⇅All / On "Aryans"
    The theory of an ancient Aryan invasion of the Indian subcontinent was first proposed by William Jones, a British philologist in the 18th Century. At the time a stunning and original theory, Jones proposed a common root language to European languages and Sanskrit, writing that: Observing what he took to be two distinct Aryan and...
  • @Dumbo
    I never understood this fixation that some "white nationalists" have with India and their religion.

    Whether "Aryans" invaded or not, the place is a dump.

    Apparently they mixed with natives, despite the "caste system".

    I don't care about the Vedas or Upanishads, thanks so much.

    It would have been better if they had just left the brown savages alone.

    Now we have Indians everywhere.

    Replies: @Low-carb Political Movement, @YetAnotherAnon

    To be fair, India might be a dump, but it’s one that a Brit can walk around and not worry too much about being robbed, beaten, or killed – certainly not the case in parts of Africa and even the US and UK.

    And that’s even though many, many Indians are very poor.

    I think we should also remember the words of Bronze Age Pervert:

    when the lord indra arrived on the Ganges in his chariot to slaughter 6 million Daysu aboriginals, the first word he said was ‘namaste’

  • @Odyssey
    An encouraging text, especially when considering the mainstream's silence and concealment of the truth. So, do we now know who the Aryans were? Of course not.

    I would recommend to the author that, if he truly seeks to uncover the foundational pillars of our civilization, he avoid using the vague and speculative term "(Proto)Indo-Europeans." This meaningless term lacks clarity, adds confusion, and often leads to fiction-like narratives. For instance, the idea that some Proto-Indo-Europeans from the Caucasus migrated to Europe and then returned to Southeast Asia in a reflux movement is questionable. Why was such a convoluted sequence necessary? This narrative suggests that these elusive Indo-Europeans encountered the so-called European culture (Corded Ware) and transported it back to Southeast Asia—a notion that is simply untrue.

    Let’s clarify this point: the so-called Indo-Europeans (as the mainstream refers to the Yamnaya nomads, often described as the ancestors of modern Westerners) have no connection to the Aryans. Their language is also unrelated to Sanskrit. The mainstream lumps the Aryans and the Yamnaya nomads together under the label "Indo-Europeans" to maintain the illusion that modern Westerners are descendants of the Aryans. Two other long-standing misconceptions persist today: that Greek (a name which itself is anachronistic) and Latin are connected to Sanskrit. These claims lack credible linguistic or historical basis.

    So, who were the Aryans?

    Interestingly, the author of the text hints at this twice without seeming to realize it. These moments are as follows:

    1) Many of the samples from this group are individuals buried in association with artifacts of the Corded Ware, Srubnaya, Petrovka, Sintashta and Andronovo complexes, all of which harboured a mixture of Steppe_EMBA ancestry and ancestry from European Middle Neolithic agriculturalists (Europe_MN).

    2) So, while Proto-Indo-Europeans expanded out of the Pontic-Caspian Steppe in all directions, it was their later Northern European branch which mixed with native European farmers that then expanded back eastward and became the founders of Vedic civilisation.

    3) The Steppe ancestry in South Asia has the same profile as that in Bronze Age Eastern Europe, tracking a movement of people that affected both regions and that likely spread the distinctive features shared between Indo-Iranian and Balto-Slavic languages.[7]
    �
    1. Ancestry of European Middle Neolithic Agriculturalists (Europe_MN):

    The mystery lies in who these ancestors were and what connections they (from around 12,000 BC) have to the Yamnaya nomads (circa 2500 BC). The evidence suggests they represent the oldest European civilization, which the Aryans brought to Asia.

    2. The Native European Farmers’ Eastward Expansion:

    Similar to the first point, native European farmers expanded eastward and became the founders of Vedic civilization. However, the narrative attempts to connect this movement to the Northern Branch (LOL) of the Yamnaya nomads. Even the mainstream rejects this claim based on genetic evidence.

    3. Invented Terms Like Balto-Slavic and Indo-Iranian:

    These terms did not exist at the time. The mainstream narrative posits that they share a common ancestor, with Indo-Iranian supposedly originating in Europe near the border of Poland and Belarus. If this were true, the language should logically be called Polish-Belarusian, not Indo-Iranian. The language was likely one, encompassing Balto, Slavic, Indo, and Iranian. It did not originate in Poland, as Europe was largely uninhabited and covered in ice during this period. Instead, this language emerged after the First Industrial Revolution (metal smelting) around 5000 BC, originating from the VinÄa culture. This language, which could rightly be called Serbian, spread when the VinÄa people expanded in all directions, having already identified themselves as Serbs.

    Conclusion
    The Aryans brought the VinÄa culture to India. Serbian mythology (misnamed as Slavic mythology by the mainstream) is the precursor to Vedic mythology. The Aryans also introduced the ancient Serbian language, which evolved locally into Sanskrit. Remarkably, even after 4,000 years, one-third of the vocabulary remains identical, as evidenced by specific linguistic comparisons (e.g., see comment #8[3]).

    Furthermore, Indra, the Vedic deity, is the Serbian (Slavic) god Perun, while Thor is a much younger replica of Perun. Similarly, Zeus is not an "Indo-European" invention but a borrowing from the indigenous Serbs by the tribes who later became the Greeks, following their migration from the Middle East and Africa.

    Replies: @craicaassmofo, @antibeast

    Similar to the first point, native European farmers expanded eastward and became the founders of Vedic civilization. However, the narrative attempts to connect this movement to the Northern Branch (LOL) of the Yamnaya nomads. Even the mainstream rejects this claim based on genetic evidence.

    I agree with you that the author’s narrative is dubious at best and deceptive at worst in its attempt at proving the Northern European or so-called “Nordic†origins of the Aryans and Indo-Aryans. In particular, notice how the author mentions the Corded Ware but omits any mention of the Petrovka, Sintashta and Andronovo complexes, as follows:

    However, genetic and archaeological evidence has shown that these Indo-European invaders of India did not come directly from the steppe, but actually originated from people of the kind we find in the Corded-Ware culture of Central and Eastern Europe. These Corded-Ware populations had mixed with early European farmers and are most closely related to modern Northern Europeans. So while Proto-Indo-Europeans expanded out of the Pontic-Caspian Steppe in all directions, it was their later Northern European branch which mixed with native European farmers that then expanded back eastward and became the founders of Vedic civilisation.

    Unlike the Yamnaya culture which practiced nomadic pastoralism, the Eastern Europeans who formed the Sintasha culture practiced metallurgy in fortified towns and traded metals with the BMAC culture near the Oxus River. The proto-Aryans from the Sintasha culture then migrated to Central Asia and intermixed with the native Iranian farmers in the BMAC culture to produce a mixed-race people who called themselves “Aryansâ€.

    The author then repeats his narrative in his conclusion implying a Northern European Corded-Ware or “Nordic†origin for the Indo-Aryan steppe ancestry in modern Indians of high-caste, as follows:

    1. An Indo-European language speaking group who called themselves Aryans entered North India and overturned the existing elite, leaving their genetic mark through a flurry of male mixing with native females;
    2. Genetic and archaeological evidence shows these original invaders belonged to the North European Corded-Ware culture;

    To rebut his first conclusion:

    The author is incorrect because the Indo-Aryans called themselves “Arya†which means “noble†in Sanskrit and used to refer to a class of people in Vedic India. The Indo-Aryans didn’t use the term “Aryan†which was specific to an ethnic group in Central Asia who later migrated to Iran to become the Persians as attested by the Inscription of Darius the Great at Naqsh-e-Rostam, as follows:

    I am Darius the Great King, King of Kings, King of countries containing all kinds of men, King in this great earth far and wide, son of Hystaspes, an Achaemenian, a Persian, son of a Persian, an Aryan, having Aryan lineage.

    To rebut his second conclusion:

    The author is incorrect because it was the Indo-Aryans from the Andronovo culture which practiced nomadic pastoralism who migrated southward to North India riding chariots with spoked wheels, separating from the Aryans in Central Asia.

    These Indo-Aryan invaders were not in any way connected to the North European Corded-Ware as falsely claimed by this author which is a rehash of Nazi Germany’s ideology of German Aryanism positing on the German origins of the Aryan peoples in Central Asia. The proof is in the pudding as admitted by the author himself as follows:

    The R1a DNA associated with the Indo-European expansion into India is found most in Southern Central Asia and Iran, and concentrated in the Northwest of India where the Aryan invasions would have begun.

    It’s important to note that had the origin of steppe DNA in India been the earlier Yamnaya culture, then males in the region would carry the R1b marker rather than the later R1a. But, as a 2018 study notes:

    Early Bronze Age Yamnaya-related migrations had limited direct genetic impact in Asia.

    That R1a is what is present in the region shows that the entrance of Indo-Europeans came from a later European expansion:

    The Steppe ancestry in South Asia has the same profile as that in Bronze Age Eastern Europe, tracking a movement of people that affected both regions and that likely spread the distinctive features shared between Indo-Iranian and Balto-Slavic languages.

    The author then links this image showing the spread of R1a in Europe:

    The scientific evidence proves without a doubt that Eastern Europeans from the Sintasha and Andronovo cultures moved to Central and South Asia as they share the R1a Y-DNA “Indo-Iranian†marker with Central Asians, Indians and Iranians, not Northern Europeans who have R1b Y-DNA from the Yamnaya culture.

    •ï¿½Thanks: Armageddon
  • india is a shithole and pajeets are subhuman. india will forever be a rat infested toilet.

  • @Bankotsu
    Alternative thesis here:

    Indus Valley not Aryan civilisation and language used not Sanskrit: Scholars


    Scholars including professors and archaeologists contended that the Indus valley civilisation is not an Aryan civilisation and that the language of the people of the Indus Valley was not Sanskrit. They also quoted the research done from time to time to prove that the Indus Valley Civilisation was pre-Vedic civilisation...

    https://www.msn.com/en-in/news/India/indus-valley-not-aryan-civilisation-and-language-used-not-sanskrit-scholars/ar-AA1utmnt?ocid=BingNewsVerp

    Replies: @Digital Samizdat

    Yes, the Indus Valley civilization long predates the Aryan invasion. But as far as I know, they left no written records, so it’s hard to be sure which language group they belonged to.

  • @Low-carb Political Movement
    Even though the philosopher Nietzsche was anti-racism, I think however that Nietzsche was a realist, not an utopian ideologist. Because in one of his great works "The Genealogy of Morals" he said that the blond races were superior, more revolutionary, more warrior than the races with darker skin and dark hair. He also wrote that the celts were specifically a blond race.

    However he was contradictory, he was also in favor of an international union of races, that's why he distanced himself from his friend Richard Wagner and from his sister for being racist and in favor of nazism.

    He hated nationalism and patriotism, he was in favor of a united european culture. Nietzsche claimed that an aristocratic system can produce a good society but in another part of one of his best books The Will to Power, he said that socialism was a necessary evil. And that some day the workers will be in power.

    Since he was realist, he also said that revolutions do not work, including the French Revolution and like the christian revolution that overthrew the Roman Empire and that was really the father of communism (he claimed that Jesus was the founder of communism) destroyed the real objectives of the Roman Empire which was to create a perfect global government. But i don't understand how Nietzsche supported the Roman Empire since it was a sort of fascist oppressive dictatorship.

    At the same time Nietzsche supported anarchist ideology in the book "Thus Spoke Zarathustra" he said the state is the coldest monster, what ever it says it is a lie, and what ever it has it is stolen.

    Even though eugenics is not an accepted ideology, i do believe in some of the positive benefits of eugenics. I read that the ruling class of Colombia tried to implement an eugenics program of the colombian race. Maybe that's why the colombian girls are so beautiful

    Replies: @RJ Macready

    I think during Nietzsche’s times and even today European races can exist and create good societies. So a multicultural nation of Italians Greeks, Anglos and Scandinavians can work. Today the issue comes from immigrants and peoples of most muslim nations, India and Africa. Remove these(and blacks) and the majority of immigration issues would be resolved.

    Nietzsche and Darwin are similar. Survival of the fittest should be the motto of society. Morality/Egalitarianism/Democracy et all are flawed systems that drag everything south..

  • Somehow, this is the Jew’s fault.

  • @Odyssey
    An encouraging text, especially when considering the mainstream's silence and concealment of the truth. So, do we now know who the Aryans were? Of course not.

    I would recommend to the author that, if he truly seeks to uncover the foundational pillars of our civilization, he avoid using the vague and speculative term "(Proto)Indo-Europeans." This meaningless term lacks clarity, adds confusion, and often leads to fiction-like narratives. For instance, the idea that some Proto-Indo-Europeans from the Caucasus migrated to Europe and then returned to Southeast Asia in a reflux movement is questionable. Why was such a convoluted sequence necessary? This narrative suggests that these elusive Indo-Europeans encountered the so-called European culture (Corded Ware) and transported it back to Southeast Asia—a notion that is simply untrue.

    Let’s clarify this point: the so-called Indo-Europeans (as the mainstream refers to the Yamnaya nomads, often described as the ancestors of modern Westerners) have no connection to the Aryans. Their language is also unrelated to Sanskrit. The mainstream lumps the Aryans and the Yamnaya nomads together under the label "Indo-Europeans" to maintain the illusion that modern Westerners are descendants of the Aryans. Two other long-standing misconceptions persist today: that Greek (a name which itself is anachronistic) and Latin are connected to Sanskrit. These claims lack credible linguistic or historical basis.

    So, who were the Aryans?

    Interestingly, the author of the text hints at this twice without seeming to realize it. These moments are as follows:

    1) Many of the samples from this group are individuals buried in association with artifacts of the Corded Ware, Srubnaya, Petrovka, Sintashta and Andronovo complexes, all of which harboured a mixture of Steppe_EMBA ancestry and ancestry from European Middle Neolithic agriculturalists (Europe_MN).

    2) So, while Proto-Indo-Europeans expanded out of the Pontic-Caspian Steppe in all directions, it was their later Northern European branch which mixed with native European farmers that then expanded back eastward and became the founders of Vedic civilisation.

    3) The Steppe ancestry in South Asia has the same profile as that in Bronze Age Eastern Europe, tracking a movement of people that affected both regions and that likely spread the distinctive features shared between Indo-Iranian and Balto-Slavic languages.[7]
    �
    1. Ancestry of European Middle Neolithic Agriculturalists (Europe_MN):

    The mystery lies in who these ancestors were and what connections they (from around 12,000 BC) have to the Yamnaya nomads (circa 2500 BC). The evidence suggests they represent the oldest European civilization, which the Aryans brought to Asia.

    2. The Native European Farmers’ Eastward Expansion:

    Similar to the first point, native European farmers expanded eastward and became the founders of Vedic civilization. However, the narrative attempts to connect this movement to the Northern Branch (LOL) of the Yamnaya nomads. Even the mainstream rejects this claim based on genetic evidence.

    3. Invented Terms Like Balto-Slavic and Indo-Iranian:

    These terms did not exist at the time. The mainstream narrative posits that they share a common ancestor, with Indo-Iranian supposedly originating in Europe near the border of Poland and Belarus. If this were true, the language should logically be called Polish-Belarusian, not Indo-Iranian. The language was likely one, encompassing Balto, Slavic, Indo, and Iranian. It did not originate in Poland, as Europe was largely uninhabited and covered in ice during this period. Instead, this language emerged after the First Industrial Revolution (metal smelting) around 5000 BC, originating from the VinÄa culture. This language, which could rightly be called Serbian, spread when the VinÄa people expanded in all directions, having already identified themselves as Serbs.

    Conclusion
    The Aryans brought the VinÄa culture to India. Serbian mythology (misnamed as Slavic mythology by the mainstream) is the precursor to Vedic mythology. The Aryans also introduced the ancient Serbian language, which evolved locally into Sanskrit. Remarkably, even after 4,000 years, one-third of the vocabulary remains identical, as evidenced by specific linguistic comparisons (e.g., see comment #8[3]).

    Furthermore, Indra, the Vedic deity, is the Serbian (Slavic) god Perun, while Thor is a much younger replica of Perun. Similarly, Zeus is not an "Indo-European" invention but a borrowing from the indigenous Serbs by the tribes who later became the Greeks, following their migration from the Middle East and Africa.

    Replies: @craicaassmofo, @antibeast

    And then we have to go back to before the last Ice Age. We know little to nothing but for sure everything did not start just 12,000 years ago.

    What about Thule? The Arctic Homeland?

  • @Maaster Blaaster
    I wonder, then, how two of India's most significant deities happen to be black? "Kali" literally means "the black one." Another name for Krishna is "Shyama", which means "dark like a freshly-formed storm cloud". Recently Krishna has been portrayed as having light blue skin, but all the older paintings and statues show him as being very dark, or black.

    Replies: @craicaassmofo

    The non-Aryan people corrupted Aryan spirituality. Easy.

  • Anonymous[777] •ï¿½Disclaimer says:

    I’ve long thought that South Africa, during and after Dr. Verwoerd’s leadership as the closest analogue we have in historical era to the development of Vedic India.

    The putative ‘Apartheid’ state of Verwoerd was basically the same thing as Vedic India, in that society was strictly regulated by a racial/occupational stratification founded on ‘moralistic’ principles.

    The only trouble was that the Republic of South Africa was founded a millennium or two too late.

  • @Judson Hammond
    I wonder how many people in South Carolina were aware that Nikki Haley was an Indian when she was elected governor. Given her married name, I was surprised to find that out myself. I don't know that she was descended from Brahmins or whether her appearance reflects a more recent admixture of English blood. It is also interesting to note that English film stars Boris Karloff and Merle Oberon are also part Indian. There may be many more "passing" in England. Of course, if it becomes "cool" to be Indian, then many a Brit might start boasting of having a smidgen of subcontinent blood coursing through his veins.

    Replies: @tamberlint

    It is already ‘cool’ for the English to claim foreign blood. Princess Diana brought Indian blood into the British royal line. Indians will sit on the throne through William and George.

    https://edition.cnn.com/2013/06/14/world/europe/britain-prince-william-india/index.html

    Vivien Leigh, accidental antebellum, antediluvian icon, had Parsi Indian blood also.
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vivien_Leigh

    Nikki Haley is just North Indian. She probably has old blood from the Aryan visitation.

  • @Low-carb Political Movement
    @Dumbo

    You are right, India is a dump like Africa, Guatemala, Honduras, Bangladesh, Pakistan, but I think that there is an international conspiracy by the global ruling classes, to keep ugly poor countries, ugly, and poor and dirty. Because if you think about it real well, according to statistics countries like India are one of the nations that are experiencing more economic growth and becoming a world power.

    We live in a world of lies, for instance the statistics about Human development Index, per capita income, happiness index, are all lies. Because in wikipedia many countries are real poor, full of
    hunger, starvation and extreme poverty are portrayed as nations that are part of the second world.

    So even though in theory and in statistics India is a great country, in reality is a shitty, ugly, and dirty country and dump. Just like the great majority of countries of the whole world that are full of poverty, dirt, ugliness, hunger and pain

    Remember that the role model of the global neoliberal capitalist jewish rulers is really oligarchic nations where a few are rich and the majority poor. That's the role model of zionist capitalist jewish economic schools from Harvard, Yale etc. They praise India, Dubai, Panama, Guatemala as great examples of what a perfect society should be

    Replies: @tamberlint

    Unless we distinguish remnant barbarism from virgin barbarism, we cannot properly understand the timeline and therefore the trajectory of current events. In India we see the remnants of one of the wealthiest civilizations in human history after half a millennia of punishing foreign rule. Her native people are scarred beyond the power of polite suggestion to correct; suffering, poverty, and injustice cover her streets as far back as they can remember.

    Dubai is a fresh pimple on the backside of the oil trade was conceived after the end of Bretton Woods, the lovechild Leviathan visited upon the six obscurities of Arabia.

  • I wonder how many people in South Carolina were aware that Nikki Haley was an Indian when she was elected governor. Given her married name, I was surprised to find that out myself. I don’t know that she was descended from Brahmins or whether her appearance reflects a more recent admixture of English blood. It is also interesting to note that English film stars Boris Karloff and Merle Oberon are also part Indian. There may be many more “passing” in England. Of course, if it becomes “cool” to be Indian, then many a Brit might start boasting of having a smidgen of subcontinent blood coursing through his veins.

    •ï¿½Replies: @tamberlint
    @Judson Hammond

    It is already 'cool' for the English to claim foreign blood. Princess Diana brought Indian blood into the British royal line. Indians will sit on the throne through William and George.

    https://edition.cnn.com/2013/06/14/world/europe/britain-prince-william-india/index.html

    Vivien Leigh, accidental antebellum, antediluvian icon, had Parsi Indian blood also.
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vivien_Leigh

    Nikki Haley is just North Indian. She probably has old blood from the Aryan visitation.
  • Planet Earth is a rough, colorful mudball in space.

  • @Cloverleaf
    @Anonymous

    I can't get my head around the fact that we are importing these filthy s!reet shi!!ers into Europa and America it blows my fckn mind.

    Replies: @tamberlint

    Realize that they are not being brought into Europa and America. Their bodies are being claimed for a civilization , a system of discipline the supporting matrix of International Capital. Europa, America, AND India are being digested. China too, but there’s so much accumulation there it’ll take a bit longer before you hear her bones rattle. Good eating.

    •ï¿½Thanks: Cloverleaf
  • @Dumbo
    I never understood this fixation that some "white nationalists" have with India and their religion.

    Whether "Aryans" invaded or not, the place is a dump.

    Apparently they mixed with natives, despite the "caste system".

    I don't care about the Vedas or Upanishads, thanks so much.

    It would have been better if they had just left the brown savages alone.

    Now we have Indians everywhere.

    Replies: @Low-carb Political Movement, @YetAnotherAnon

    You are right, India is a dump like Africa, Guatemala, Honduras, Bangladesh, Pakistan, but I think that there is an international conspiracy by the global ruling classes, to keep ugly poor countries, ugly, and poor and dirty. Because if you think about it real well, according to statistics countries like India are one of the nations that are experiencing more economic growth and becoming a world power.

    We live in a world of lies, for instance the statistics about Human development Index, per capita income, happiness index, are all lies. Because in wikipedia many countries are real poor, full of
    hunger, starvation and extreme poverty are portrayed as nations that are part of the second world.

    So even though in theory and in statistics India is a great country, in reality is a shitty, ugly, and dirty country and dump. Just like the great majority of countries of the whole world that are full of poverty, dirt, ugliness, hunger and pain

    Remember that the role model of the global neoliberal capitalist jewish rulers is really oligarchic nations where a few are rich and the majority poor. That’s the role model of zionist capitalist jewish economic schools from Harvard, Yale etc. They praise India, Dubai, Panama, Guatemala as great examples of what a perfect society should be

    •ï¿½Thanks: Cloverleaf
    •ï¿½Replies: @tamberlint
    @Low-carb Political Movement

    Unless we distinguish remnant barbarism from virgin barbarism, we cannot properly understand the timeline and therefore the trajectory of current events. In India we see the remnants of one of the wealthiest civilizations in human history after half a millennia of punishing foreign rule. Her native people are scarred beyond the power of polite suggestion to correct; suffering, poverty, and injustice cover her streets as far back as they can remember.

    Dubai is a fresh pimple on the backside of the oil trade was conceived after the end of Bretton Woods, the lovechild Leviathan visited upon the six obscurities of Arabia.
  • An encouraging text, especially when considering the mainstream’s silence and concealment of the truth. So, do we now know who the Aryans were? Of course not.

    I would recommend to the author that, if he truly seeks to uncover the foundational pillars of our civilization, he avoid using the vague and speculative term “(Proto)Indo-Europeans.” This meaningless term lacks clarity, adds confusion, and often leads to fiction-like narratives. For instance, the idea that some Proto-Indo-Europeans from the Caucasus migrated to Europe and then returned to Southeast Asia in a reflux movement is questionable. Why was such a convoluted sequence necessary? This narrative suggests that these elusive Indo-Europeans encountered the so-called European culture (Corded Ware) and transported it back to Southeast Asia—a notion that is simply untrue.

    Let’s clarify this point: the so-called Indo-Europeans (as the mainstream refers to the Yamnaya nomads, often described as the ancestors of modern Westerners) have no connection to the Aryans. Their language is also unrelated to Sanskrit. The mainstream lumps the Aryans and the Yamnaya nomads together under the label “Indo-Europeans” to maintain the illusion that modern Westerners are descendants of the Aryans. Two other long-standing misconceptions persist today: that Greek (a name which itself is anachronistic) and Latin are connected to Sanskrit. These claims lack credible linguistic or historical basis.

    So, who were the Aryans?

    Interestingly, the author of the text hints at this twice without seeming to realize it. These moments are as follows:

    1) Many of the samples from this group are individuals buried in association with artifacts of the Corded Ware, Srubnaya, Petrovka, Sintashta and Andronovo complexes, all of which harboured a mixture of Steppe_EMBA ancestry and ancestry from European Middle Neolithic agriculturalists (Europe_MN).

    2) So, while Proto-Indo-Europeans expanded out of the Pontic-Caspian Steppe in all directions, it was their later Northern European branch which mixed with native European farmers that then expanded back eastward and became the founders of Vedic civilisation.

    3) The Steppe ancestry in South Asia has the same profile as that in Bronze Age Eastern Europe, tracking a movement of people that affected both regions and that likely spread the distinctive features shared between Indo-Iranian and Balto-Slavic languages.[7]

    1. Ancestry of European Middle Neolithic Agriculturalists (Europe_MN):

    The mystery lies in who these ancestors were and what connections they (from around 12,000 BC) have to the Yamnaya nomads (circa 2500 BC). The evidence suggests they represent the oldest European civilization, which the Aryans brought to Asia.

    2. The Native European Farmers’ Eastward Expansion:

    Similar to the first point, native European farmers expanded eastward and became the founders of Vedic civilization. However, the narrative attempts to connect this movement to the Northern Branch (LOL) of the Yamnaya nomads. Even the mainstream rejects this claim based on genetic evidence.

    3. Invented Terms Like Balto-Slavic and Indo-Iranian:

    These terms did not exist at the time. The mainstream narrative posits that they share a common ancestor, with Indo-Iranian supposedly originating in Europe near the border of Poland and Belarus. If this were true, the language should logically be called Polish-Belarusian, not Indo-Iranian. The language was likely one, encompassing Balto, Slavic, Indo, and Iranian. It did not originate in Poland, as Europe was largely uninhabited and covered in ice during this period. Instead, this language emerged after the First Industrial Revolution (metal smelting) around 5000 BC, originating from the VinÄa culture. This language, which could rightly be called Serbian, spread when the VinÄa people expanded in all directions, having already identified themselves as Serbs.

    Conclusion
    The Aryans brought the VinÄa culture to India. Serbian mythology (misnamed as Slavic mythology by the mainstream) is the precursor to Vedic mythology. The Aryans also introduced the ancient Serbian language, which evolved locally into Sanskrit. Remarkably, even after 4,000 years, one-third of the vocabulary remains identical, as evidenced by specific linguistic comparisons (e.g., see comment #8[3]).

    Furthermore, Indra, the Vedic deity, is the Serbian (Slavic) god Perun, while Thor is a much younger replica of Perun. Similarly, Zeus is not an “Indo-European” invention but a borrowing from the indigenous Serbs by the tribes who later became the Greeks, following their migration from the Middle East and Africa.

    •ï¿½Thanks: craicaassmofo
    •ï¿½Replies: @craicaassmofo
    @Odyssey

    And then we have to go back to before the last Ice Age. We know little to nothing but for sure everything did not start just 12,000 years ago.

    What about Thule? The Arctic Homeland?
    , @antibeast
    @Odyssey

    Similar to the first point, native European farmers expanded eastward and became the founders of Vedic civilization. However, the narrative attempts to connect this movement to the Northern Branch (LOL) of the Yamnaya nomads. Even the mainstream rejects this claim based on genetic evidence.


    �
    I agree with you that the author’s narrative is dubious at best and deceptive at worst in its attempt at proving the Northern European or so-called “Nordic†origins of the Aryans and Indo-Aryans. In particular, notice how the author mentions the Corded Ware but omits any mention of the Petrovka, Sintashta and Andronovo complexes, as follows:

    However, genetic and archaeological evidence has shown that these Indo-European invaders of India did not come directly from the steppe, but actually originated from people of the kind we find in the Corded-Ware culture of Central and Eastern Europe. These Corded-Ware populations had mixed with early European farmers and are most closely related to modern Northern Europeans. So while Proto-Indo-Europeans expanded out of the Pontic-Caspian Steppe in all directions, it was their later Northern European branch which mixed with native European farmers that then expanded back eastward and became the founders of Vedic civilisation.


    �
    Unlike the Yamnaya culture which practiced nomadic pastoralism, the Eastern Europeans who formed the Sintasha culture practiced metallurgy in fortified towns and traded metals with the BMAC culture near the Oxus River. The proto-Aryans from the Sintasha culture then migrated to Central Asia and intermixed with the native Iranian farmers in the BMAC culture to produce a mixed-race people who called themselves “Aryansâ€.

    The author then repeats his narrative in his conclusion implying a Northern European Corded-Ware or “Nordic†origin for the Indo-Aryan steppe ancestry in modern Indians of high-caste, as follows:

    1. An Indo-European language speaking group who called themselves Aryans entered North India and overturned the existing elite, leaving their genetic mark through a flurry of male mixing with native females;
    2. Genetic and archaeological evidence shows these original invaders belonged to the North European Corded-Ware culture;


    �
    To rebut his first conclusion:

    The author is incorrect because the Indo-Aryans called themselves “Arya†which means “noble†in Sanskrit and used to refer to a class of people in Vedic India. The Indo-Aryans didn’t use the term “Aryan†which was specific to an ethnic group in Central Asia who later migrated to Iran to become the Persians as attested by the Inscription of Darius the Great at Naqsh-e-Rostam, as follows:

    I am Darius the Great King, King of Kings, King of countries containing all kinds of men, King in this great earth far and wide, son of Hystaspes, an Achaemenian, a Persian, son of a Persian, an Aryan, having Aryan lineage.


    �
    To rebut his second conclusion:

    The author is incorrect because it was the Indo-Aryans from the Andronovo culture which practiced nomadic pastoralism who migrated southward to North India riding chariots with spoked wheels, separating from the Aryans in Central Asia.

    These Indo-Aryan invaders were not in any way connected to the North European Corded-Ware as falsely claimed by this author which is a rehash of Nazi Germany’s ideology of German Aryanism positing on the German origins of the Aryan peoples in Central Asia. The proof is in the pudding as admitted by the author himself as follows:

    The R1a DNA associated with the Indo-European expansion into India is found most in Southern Central Asia and Iran, and concentrated in the Northwest of India where the Aryan invasions would have begun.

    It’s important to note that had the origin of steppe DNA in India been the earlier Yamnaya culture, then males in the region would carry the R1b marker rather than the later R1a. But, as a 2018 study notes:

    Early Bronze Age Yamnaya-related migrations had limited direct genetic impact in Asia.

    That R1a is what is present in the region shows that the entrance of Indo-Europeans came from a later European expansion:

    The Steppe ancestry in South Asia has the same profile as that in Bronze Age Eastern Europe, tracking a movement of people that affected both regions and that likely spread the distinctive features shared between Indo-Iranian and Balto-Slavic languages.


    �
    The author then links this image showing the spread of R1a in Europe:

    https://substackcdn.com/image/fetch/w_1456/https%3A%2F%2Fsubstack-post-media.s3.amazonaws.com%2Fpublic%2Fimages%2Faa4d5fc7-a27c-4633-bf12-0bd10bb9b0f7_800x581.png

    The scientific evidence proves without a doubt that Eastern Europeans from the Sintasha and Andronovo cultures moved to Central and South Asia as they share the R1a Y-DNA “Indo-Iranian†marker with Central Asians, Indians and Iranians, not Northern Europeans who have R1b Y-DNA from the Yamnaya culture.
  • I wonder, then, how two of India’s most significant deities happen to be black? “Kali” literally means “the black one.” Another name for Krishna is “Shyama”, which means “dark like a freshly-formed storm cloud”. Recently Krishna has been portrayed as having light blue skin, but all the older paintings and statues show him as being very dark, or black.

    •ï¿½Replies: @craicaassmofo
    @Maaster Blaaster

    The non-Aryan people corrupted Aryan spirituality. Easy.
  • @Anonymous
    Whatever theory of India, here is the modern India.

    https://odysee.com/@montysthinkingoutsidethebox:2/India-The-Worst-Country-On-Earth-Codex-Pajeet-II:cc

    Replies: @Cloverleaf

    I can’t get my head around the fact that we are importing these filthy s!reet shi!!ers into Europa and America it blows my fckn mind.

    •ï¿½Replies: @tamberlint
    @Cloverleaf

    Realize that they are not being brought into Europa and America. Their bodies are being claimed for a civilization , a system of discipline the supporting matrix of International Capital. Europa, America, AND India are being digested. China too, but there's so much accumulation there it'll take a bit longer before you hear her bones rattle. Good eating.
  • @Anonymous534
    @craicaassmofo

    "everywhere on earth?" Even in the Americas, Africa, the Pacific and in Australia?

    Replies: @craicaassmofo

    Yes. Anywhere the civilizational arts were known; agriculture, astronomy, philosophy, spiritual science, written advanced languages, woven cloth, metallurgy, the wheel, domesticated animals, plant science, God and demigods, meditation, and more.

    Most of the arts were later corrupted by the non-Aryans who genocided the Aryans. That is where we get them ripping beating hearts out of still alive human sacrifices in Central America and China.

    For some the arts were never known or were forgotten such as Sub Saharan Africa and Australia not to mention the Pacific cannibals.

  • Alternative thesis here:

    Indus Valley not Aryan civilisation and language used not Sanskrit: Scholars

    Scholars including professors and archaeologists contended that the Indus valley civilisation is not an Aryan civilisation and that the language of the people of the Indus Valley was not Sanskrit. They also quoted the research done from time to time to prove that the Indus Valley Civilisation was pre-Vedic civilisation…

    https://www.msn.com/en-in/news/India/indus-valley-not-aryan-civilisation-and-language-used-not-sanskrit-scholars/ar-AA1utmnt?ocid=BingNewsVerp

    •ï¿½Replies: @Digital Samizdat
    @Bankotsu

    Yes, the Indus Valley civilization long predates the Aryan invasion. But as far as I know, they left no written records, so it's hard to be sure which language group they belonged to.
  • @craicaassmofo
    Aryans founded all ancient civilizations everywhere on earth.

    The ego of the non-Aryans always leads them to genocide of their masters. Always.

    Replies: @Anonymous534

    “everywhere on earth?” Even in the Americas, Africa, the Pacific and in Australia?

    •ï¿½Replies: @craicaassmofo
    @Anonymous534

    Yes. Anywhere the civilizational arts were known; agriculture, astronomy, philosophy, spiritual science, written advanced languages, woven cloth, metallurgy, the wheel, domesticated animals, plant science, God and demigods, meditation, and more.

    Most of the arts were later corrupted by the non-Aryans who genocided the Aryans. That is where we get them ripping beating hearts out of still alive human sacrifices in Central America and China.

    For some the arts were never known or were forgotten such as Sub Saharan Africa and Australia not to mention the Pacific cannibals.
  • Written between 1,500-1,000 BC, the Rigveda is one of the foundational Hindu texts — one of the four Vedas, and the oldest Vedic Sanskrit text.

    Sanskrit is an oral language and was only written down much later, around the turn of the 1st-millennium CE, using other scripts.

  • Dumbo says:

    I never understood this fixation that some “white nationalists” have with India and their religion.

    Whether “Aryans” invaded or not, the place is a dump.

    Apparently they mixed with natives, despite the “caste system”.

    I don’t care about the Vedas or Upanishads, thanks so much.

    It would have been better if they had just left the brown savages alone.

    Now we have Indians everywhere.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Low-carb Political Movement
    @Dumbo

    You are right, India is a dump like Africa, Guatemala, Honduras, Bangladesh, Pakistan, but I think that there is an international conspiracy by the global ruling classes, to keep ugly poor countries, ugly, and poor and dirty. Because if you think about it real well, according to statistics countries like India are one of the nations that are experiencing more economic growth and becoming a world power.

    We live in a world of lies, for instance the statistics about Human development Index, per capita income, happiness index, are all lies. Because in wikipedia many countries are real poor, full of
    hunger, starvation and extreme poverty are portrayed as nations that are part of the second world.

    So even though in theory and in statistics India is a great country, in reality is a shitty, ugly, and dirty country and dump. Just like the great majority of countries of the whole world that are full of poverty, dirt, ugliness, hunger and pain

    Remember that the role model of the global neoliberal capitalist jewish rulers is really oligarchic nations where a few are rich and the majority poor. That's the role model of zionist capitalist jewish economic schools from Harvard, Yale etc. They praise India, Dubai, Panama, Guatemala as great examples of what a perfect society should be

    Replies: @tamberlint
    , @YetAnotherAnon
    @Dumbo

    To be fair, India might be a dump, but it's one that a Brit can walk around and not worry too much about being robbed, beaten, or killed - certainly not the case in parts of Africa and even the US and UK.

    And that's even though many, many Indians are very poor.

    I think we should also remember the words of Bronze Age Pervert:

    when the lord indra arrived on the Ganges in his chariot to slaughter 6 million Daysu aboriginals, the first word he said was 'namaste'
    �
  • “… the mood of anti-racism…” the mood?

    Is that another attempt at justifying the rape of India by another propagandist, remnant of the Brutish Clown?

    Didn’t Mr. Keith Woods disgust us with another of his English racist “moods” in an article about Pakistanis or Indian Muslims responsible for grooming gangs. Then we hear Ivor Caplin, a pedophile zionist Jew, (it’s the English that invented zionism and communism) was arrested for soliciting a 15 year old boy. The Brutish media, has ignored the story because Britain is zionist occupied territory. It turns out that Ivor Caplin was the Corbin’s main backstabber and Bliars chief drummer for the Iraq war.

    Mr. KW, how about a story about the Jewish grooming gangs, after all, we heard the Jewish state considers anal rapists as heroes.

    The English elite tested the world’s patience and would do well for themselves to shut down their secret societies and their lies.

  • so alfred rosenberg was right in myth of the 20 th century ?

  • lloyd says: •ï¿½Website
    @Priss Factor
    So, Aryans invaded and race-mixed themselves into Vivek Ramaswami.

    Was it worth it?

    Replies: @lloyd

    The advanced civilisations in India were the pre Aryans. The only scientifically clever dark race in the world are the Indians. The Aryan Indians such as Imran Khan seem to confine themselves to politics and cricket. Elon Musk wants the lower caste Indians to be his chattel slaves in Silicon Valley. Vivek Ramaswami is getting too big for his books and might suffer the same fate as the former CEO of Twitter.

  • Thanks Keith – very interesting.

    We are all very glad that ancient history is becoming more and more known. Especially after all those German lies about them being Aryans and a race. E.g. Silver Codex is a forgery, Pseudo-Porphyrogennetos, etc.

    ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

    [1] Srbinda (pron. Serbeenda) – Wikipedia
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Srbinda

    ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

    [2] Ancient Serbia’s connection with Vedic India #ancient #serbia #hindu – YouTube


    Video Link

    Video Transcript:

    Ancient Serbia’s connection with Vedic India is an intriguing subject. Archaeological discoveries within modern-day Serbia include the VinÄa and StarÄevo cultures, dating back to around 6400 BCE, indicating the region’s rich historical heritage. Many modern European languages have Indo-European origins, which can be traced back to migrations from the East around 4000 BCE. Serbian, an Indo-European Slavic language, contains thousands of words that are very similar to Sanskrit.

    Throughout Serbia, we find many place names that reflect Vedic culture. Most notably, the villages of Mala Krsna and Velika Krsna stand out. In Serbian, “Mala” means “little,” so Mala Krsna translates to “Little Krishna,” and “Velika” means “great,” making Velika Krsna “Great Krishna.”

    Traditional Serbian folk songs often reference the three-headed god, Triglav, believed to be from India, suggesting that this region was once their home. The three-headed god is reminiscent of the Vedic Trimurti. An old Serbian folksong called “The Children of India” echoes this connection: “From your tree, a branch are we… We think of you, sing of you from Himalaya to Hindukush, with you is our heart and soul…”

    The ancient connections between Serbia and India are numerous, though much of this shared history has been forgotten over time. Serbia’s geographical location made it vulnerable to many invasions, including by the Roman and Ottoman Empires. Despite these challenges, the ancient Serbian people, like those in India, recognized a cosmic administration run by gods or demigods. In Hinduism, there is Indra, the king of heaven, and the Serbs worshipped Yndra, the supreme God of thunder who battles to defend his heavenly realm. These two deities, Indra and Yndra, are clearly the same.

    The Serbian concept of Svarga Log is analogous to the Vedic Svarga Lok, the heavenly abode of Lord Indra. Similar to Vedic culture, the Serbians also believed in a three-tiered universe comprising heaven, earth, and the underworld. A major Serbian god, Dazbog, was once worshipped in all Slavic nations. The name “Da” in Sanskrit means “giving,” and “Bog” is derived from “Bhaga,” meaning “God,” translating Dazbog to “The God who gives.”

    Dazbog’s father is Svarog, and both are associated with fire, reflecting the ancient Serbs’ close relationship with the fire-worshipping Zoroastrians of Persia. Mater Sva, the Serbian solar goddess, is the mother of Svarog and the mother of heaven. “Mater” comes from the Sanskrit “matr,” meaning “mother,” and “Sva” means “sun” or “heaven,” making her the “Mother of heaven.”

    These connections between ancient Serbia and Vedic India are fascinating, highlighting a shared cultural and spiritual heritage that has endured through time. Thanks for watching!

    ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

    [3] Serbian & Sanskrit | YouTube


    Video Link

    ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
    700+ Anon001 Comments Archive @ The Unz Review | TUR
    https://www.unz.com/comments/all/?commenterfilter=anon001
    ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

  • Even though the philosopher Nietzsche was anti-racism, I think however that Nietzsche was a realist, not an utopian ideologist. Because in one of his great works “The Genealogy of Morals” he said that the blond races were superior, more revolutionary, more warrior than the races with darker skin and dark hair. He also wrote that the celts were specifically a blond race.

    However he was contradictory, he was also in favor of an international union of races, that’s why he distanced himself from his friend Richard Wagner and from his sister for being racist and in favor of nazism.

    He hated nationalism and patriotism, he was in favor of a united european culture. Nietzsche claimed that an aristocratic system can produce a good society but in another part of one of his best books The Will to Power, he said that socialism was a necessary evil. And that some day the workers will be in power.

    Since he was realist, he also said that revolutions do not work, including the French Revolution and like the christian revolution that overthrew the Roman Empire and that was really the father of communism (he claimed that Jesus was the founder of communism) destroyed the real objectives of the Roman Empire which was to create a perfect global government. But i don’t understand how Nietzsche supported the Roman Empire since it was a sort of fascist oppressive dictatorship.

    At the same time Nietzsche supported anarchist ideology in the book “Thus Spoke Zarathustra” he said the state is the coldest monster, what ever it says it is a lie, and what ever it has it is stolen.

    Even though eugenics is not an accepted ideology, i do believe in some of the positive benefits of eugenics. I read that the ruling class of Colombia tried to implement an eugenics program of the colombian race. Maybe that’s why the colombian girls are so beautiful

    •ï¿½Replies: @RJ Macready
    @Low-carb Political Movement

    I think during Nietzsche's times and even today European races can exist and create good societies. So a multicultural nation of Italians Greeks, Anglos and Scandinavians can work. Today the issue comes from immigrants and peoples of most muslim nations, India and Africa. Remove these(and blacks) and the majority of immigration issues would be resolved.

    Nietzsche and Darwin are similar. Survival of the fittest should be the motto of society. Morality/Egalitarianism/Democracy et all are flawed systems that drag everything south..
  • Aryans founded all ancient civilizations everywhere on earth.

    The ego of the non-Aryans always leads them to genocide of their masters. Always.

    •ï¿½Agree: Odyssey
    •ï¿½Replies: @Anonymous534
    @craicaassmofo

    "everywhere on earth?" Even in the Americas, Africa, the Pacific and in Australia?

    Replies: @craicaassmofo
  • So, Aryans invaded and race-mixed themselves into Vivek Ramaswami.

    Was it worth it?

    •ï¿½LOL: RJ Macready
    •ï¿½Replies: @lloyd
    @Priss Factor

    The advanced civilisations in India were the pre Aryans. The only scientifically clever dark race in the world are the Indians. The Aryan Indians such as Imran Khan seem to confine themselves to politics and cricket. Elon Musk wants the lower caste Indians to be his chattel slaves in Silicon Valley. Vivek Ramaswami is getting too big for his books and might suffer the same fate as the former CEO of Twitter.
  • Make India white again.

  • Anonymous[365] •ï¿½Disclaimer says:
    •ï¿½Replies: @Cloverleaf
    @Anonymous

    I can't get my head around the fact that we are importing these filthy s!reet shi!!ers into Europa and America it blows my fckn mind.

    Replies: @tamberlint
  • Harrapan civilization had modern sewage systems.

    The last modern sewage system known to India.

    Thanks, Aryans.

    •ï¿½LOL: tamberlint
  • I have never met an Indian who could pass as a Northern European, so I presume there is a reasonable amount of aboriginal blood in all the ð˜·ð˜¢ð˜³ð˜¯ð˜¢ð˜´ (apparently the Aryans did not adhere to the one drop rule).

    •ï¿½Agree: Franz
  • What is beauty? Specifically, what is it to be a beautiful person? This has long been considered one of those imponderable questions, akin to asking about the meaning of life. But this does not mean that we cannot have a valuable and substantive discussion. Beauty, of course, is partly subjective, but it is also partly...
  • More important – is no pointy or bulbous noses (Common in Middle East, but everywhere)

    Baby-like nose is best.

    No flat chested women – and no implants.

    Normal female voice

    No bitchiness.

    The causes behind these are personality – lying deliberately makes your nose grow bigger. But also PRIDE. Self-xxx, self-important type feelings.

    Flat-chested / voice / bitchiness – EMF exposure and microplastics (Affecting estrogen).

    HWP – Height – weight proportionate – EMF and diet.

    Light colored eyes – yes. Also has to do with the state of the soul.

    Less/ not concerned about hair color. A simple analysis of women I’ve been attracted to for example – would show black, brunette, or blond. For most of my life – I’ve been more attracted to brunettes. This also has to do with past lives…..but that’s another story.

    Skin color – has more to do with UV / sun exposure. Nina Jablowski research

    …oh…and preferably natural beauty – no makeup.

  • Slavocaust from the Semites. The Great Famine of the 1930s. Stalin and Jewish Bolsheviks implemented Forced-Collectivization that led to 7 million deaths in the Soviet Union. 3.5 million were in Ukraine alone, mostly Christian Slavs. As Jews were urban-dwellers and safely ensconced in elite positions, they evaded the brunt of the famine and ate well...
  • @gT
    Poor Russians, they defeated the best of the French under Napoleon, but are still inferior to the French. The Russians defeated the best of the Germans under Hitler, but are still inferior to the Germans. Looks like its one's culture which determines one's superiority instead of one's warfare ability. Funny enough, this is exactly what happened between the Muslims and the Mongols, the Muslims regarded themselves as superior to the Mongols even though the Mongols defeated them, and wiped out the biggest Muslim concentrations at that time.

    So the Russians have nothing better left to do than drown their inferiority in vodka while keeping warm with fossil fuels and eating healthy non-gmo food, while the people in the West are soon going to be without food or fuel. Inferiority is tragic.

    Replies: @karel, @Anonymous534

    The Western triple vaxxed half-nigger trannies obsessed with anal sex will surely prove once again their superiority to the world. They just need to import more Africans and fentanyl for their victory over the world to be complete.

  • What is beauty? Specifically, what is it to be a beautiful person? This has long been considered one of those imponderable questions, akin to asking about the meaning of life. But this does not mean that we cannot have a valuable and substantive discussion. Beauty, of course, is partly subjective, but it is also partly...
  • Well, I’ve always been reluctant to “toot my own horn”, as the saying goes, but I think my fourteen inch penis deserves a mention.

  • @Anon
    @Mary Marianne

    Your perspective seems tailor-made to suit the broken ego of a white female, who is struggling to compete with Asian women for men's attention.

    However, it isn't true. Marriages between white men and Asian women have risen since 1980. And, Asian men in the West have out-earned white men for decades. So money isn't a big deal at all.


    Asian women really do prefer white men, for reasons including their looks, like most women. However, the catch is that these intermarriages aren't motivated by Asian female desire for white men. It's the opposite. All races of men prefer Asian women, and it is this preference that drives the intermarriages.


    It has been demonstrated again and again that men tend to prefer women of East Asian and mixed-Asian appearance.

    https://abagond.files.wordpress.com/2013/05/lewis-2012.png

    https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Hongwei-Liang/publication/326561174/figure/fig1/AS:651692219572224@1532386941776/Response-patterns-in-the-Facebook-dating-app-Are-You-Interested-1-The-numbers.png


    https://www.economist.com/img/b/1280/672/90/sites/default/files/images/print-edition/20180818_FBC544.png



    The reason for this universal preference among men is biological. Asian women are the pinnacle of female beauty, whereas evolution has not cleaned up the latent "maleness" of white women.

    https://www.tandfonline.com/doi/abs/10.1080/13506285.2018.1475437

    Marriages between White men and Asian women are over twice as frequent as those between White women and Asian men. Recent research has proposed that this imbalance may be explained by the finding that, on average, White men are perceived as more attractive than Asian men, and Asian women are perceived as more attractive than White women, possibly because Asian faces are perceived as more feminine than White faces. Here, we explore whether Asian faces are perceived as more feminine than White faces.
    �
    Even white men who married white women don't truly prefer them. That much is obvious to married white women, who seem to seem to pay a psychological toll from proximity to Asian females.


    https://kjonnsforskning.no/en/2015/09/blond-sexy-and-immigrant

    According to Lundström there is much focus on whiteness in Singapore. Ads for skin whitening products are common, and whiteness is the ideal. But the ideal of beauty is not a white, blond western woman.

    “Western women were ranked below the Chinese in the racial hierarchy. The western whiteness is not as posh as the Singaporean, Chinese whiteness,†says Lundström.

    Swedish women in the US were very preoccupied with American men, whereas the Swedish women in Singapore were not the least interested in Asian men. They focused on their Swedish husbands. Asian women, on the other hand, represented a possible rival, since Swedish men found Asian women attractive.

    “The Swedish women in Singapore were almost desexualised. They felt less feminine,†says Lundström
    �
    Given that Asian women continue to select for white men in the West, even when Asian men have earned more money and built their countries up to 1st world status, I think your prediction is highly improbable.

    Replies: @Sean, @Red Pill Angel, @Vinnyvette, @Anonymous, @Mary Marianne

    Your perspective seems tailor-made to suit the broken ego of a white female, who is struggling to compete with Asian women for men’s attention.

    Lol, it’s funny that you think I’m white. 😂

    Asian women really do prefer white men, for reasons including their looks, like most women. However, the catch is that these intermarriages aren’t motivated by Asian female desire for white men. It’s the opposite. All races of men prefer Asian women, and it is this preference that drives the intermarriages.
    […]
    Asian women are the pinnacle of female beauty,

    As an Asian woman, I can assure you that I don’t prefer white men or their looks — at all. But thanks for telling me that men of all races apparently prefer women like us and that we are the pinnacle of beauty. ðŸ’ðŸ»â€â™€ï¸

    Given that Asian women continue to select for white men in the West, even when Asian men have earned more money and built their countries up to 1st world status

    Money is only one of the symbols of status and power, but not the end-all-be-all of the picture. A lot of Asian men in the west unfortunately act like submissive, neutered kittens. They have zero status, zero confidence, and zero power — and that’s not attractive no matter how much they earn. Money means nothing when a man can’t protect his woman. His income means nothing when he, due to his inferiority complex, keeps lowering his head in submission to other men that are clearly being aggressive to him and his entire race.

    This pattern is, however, starting to change in the east. Already, China is economically and geopolitically challenging (if not surpassing) the USA. White worship is in rapid decline in China, where especially the 90 and 00 generations have regained a new sense of appreciation for and confidence in their own culture. I estimate that China will still need another half century or so to also dominate over the west on a cultural level, but when that finally happens the status and power of Asian men will, along with their perceived attractiveness, also rise above that of white men in the eyes of women.

    As I said before:

    No one finds a man OD’ing in his tent on the side of the road attractive

    But with China’s steady rise and the west in rapid decline, this will increasingly be the perception that Asian women have of the modern white men.

  • After the Second World War, the study of race and heredity became taboo, partly as an understandable result of association with German atrocities. Talk of skull shape and race – whether “Nordic,†“Aryan,†or Jewish – used to be mainstream science but if you discuss any of these today, you are likely to be marginalized...
  • That was a very interesting article!

  • Slavocaust from the Semites. The Great Famine of the 1930s. Stalin and Jewish Bolsheviks implemented Forced-Collectivization that led to 7 million deaths in the Soviet Union. 3.5 million were in Ukraine alone, mostly Christian Slavs. As Jews were urban-dwellers and safely ensconced in elite positions, they evaded the brunt of the famine and ate well...
  • Anon[541] •ï¿½Disclaimer says:
    @jluker
    The author should get his facts straight. " White Americans in the South made a huge mistake by bringing black slave labor from Africa." It wasn't Southerners who brought black labor from Africa. It was Yankees. You need those things called ships that float on the water to carry that human cargo. The Yankees held the carrying trade, the South possessed no merchant fleet. Indeed, in 1859 more slave ships left New York to trade slaves in Cuba and South America than in the whole decade of the 1850s. The Yankee slave trade built all of New England as well as Philadelphia and New York. A mistake it may have been, but there would have no slaves had there been no Yankee slavers.

    Replies: @Sorel McRae, @JimmyCrackCorn, @Anon

    Awww, so yankees foisted the slaves on unsuspecting plantation owners.

  • Odyssey says:
    May 23, 2022 at 1:37 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Alexandros
    @Odyssey

    The story about how "Germans" came to Europe was written down.

    The first King of Athens was Sekrops, an Egyptian. He became King after mediating a conflict between immigrating Dutchmen and native Hellenes. The Dutchmen had a Mother called Gert. The deal was those who wanted to stay in Athens could do so, the rest, the followers of Gert, took to their ships and emigrated to India. This would be about 1600BC.

    There they stayed until Alexander the Great hired them to sail back to Babylon. Later they would fight in the campaigns of the Successors, particularly Demetrius Poliocertes. Their leader became Friso, another native Dutchman. After Demetrius had raped the children of Friso they decided to emigrate back to Holland. There they were allowed to settle and soon the people became "Greekified". Caesar mentioned this. When later the Romans met these "Gertmanne" the name "Germans" was born and would later come to describe all the peoples living North of the Rhine, much like the Hellenic tribe of Graekoi would become the name for all Hellenes.

    But I don't think any of this explains the haplogroup. The Gertmanne did not mix with the Indians as far as we know.

    A more probable explanation is that it arose from mixing between European genes and Asian genes in the steppes of Russia and Eastern Germany where the two races have met for millennia.

    Replies: @Odyssey

    What a nice and fantastic story. I was always wondering how famous German soccer player Gerd Muller got his name. Now, when we know when and where from Germans (and Dutch) came from (India!???), it would be interesting to know when and where from the (future) Greeks came to Europe.

  • Fufu says:
    May 21, 2022 at 8:39 pm GMT •ï¿½200 Words
    @Fox
    @Fufu

    But when did the notion of 'Slav" as a racial (or ethnic) group appear? Did the peoples living to the East of the Germanic and Celtic areas in Europe call themselves as a whole slavs , or was that done by someone else in order to give them a common designation through their languages which appear to be so closely related as to make it possible for a Russian to communicate with a Croatian based on that similarity alone (an example which I know of)? The earliest mention of "Sclavi" I have come across relates to Charlemagne in the year 805.

    Replies: @Fufu

    I’m not an expert in archeology.

    Frankly speaking, I don’t know when Slavs became calling themselves Slavs.

    I suppose that it happened around  V a.c. when Slaves migrated west due to climate change in Europe and they made more intensive contact with others. If this contact was peacefull (trade) they call themesalves Slavs from “Slovo” (Word). If this contact wasn’t peacefull (war) they call themesalves Slavs from “Slava” (Glory). But it’s my guess.

    Officially, Slavs are noted in western sources somewhere in  VI c. i.e. in Procopius in VI a.c. as “Sclaboi”

    https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavs

    Before VI c. Slavs had different names in western and southern chronicles:
    Hiperborean, Scythians, Sarmatians, Lechites, Tartarians ( not to be confused with turkish Tatars), Germans etc.

    Quick explanation.

    Germans are a mix of Celtic, Scandinavian and Slavic people.

    So part of Germany was composed of Slavs (in I a.c).

  • Fox says:
    May 20, 2022 at 5:26 pm GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Fufu
    Why Slavs call themselves Slavs?

    1. False "Slave-Slav" term is promoted by Westerners to keep Slavs low (put them in inferiority complex).

    2. Slav from "Slava"- "Glory, Fame" "Slava Ukraine!" means "Glory to Ukraine!" not "Enslave Ukraine!"

    3. "Slav" from "Slovo" - literally it means "Word",so Slavs are people who know language.

    In contrary to Germans (slavic "Niemtsy") it means people who don't speak clearly ("Niemtsy" from "niemy" which means "mute", "mumbling" or "what this guy from West is talking about??").

    Besides...

    How Slavs had conquered half Europe and survived 1500 years if they had though about themselves as "inferior people"? It has no sense.

    Replies: @Odyssey, @Fox

    But when did the notion of ‘Slav” as a racial (or ethnic) group appear? Did the peoples living to the East of the Germanic and Celtic areas in Europe call themselves as a whole slavs , or was that done by someone else in order to give them a common designation through their languages which appear to be so closely related as to make it possible for a Russian to communicate with a Croatian based on that similarity alone (an example which I know of)? The earliest mention of “Sclavi” I have come across relates to Charlemagne in the year 805.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Fufu
    @Fox

    I'm not an expert in archeology.

    Frankly speaking, I don't know when Slavs became calling themselves Slavs.

    I suppose that it happened around  V a.c. when Slaves migrated west due to climate change in Europe and they made more intensive contact with others. If this contact was peacefull (trade) they call themesalves Slavs from "Slovo" (Word). If this contact wasn't peacefull (war) they call themesalves Slavs from "Slava" (Glory). But it's my guess.

    Officially, Slavs are noted in western sources somewhere in  VI c. i.e. in Procopius in VI a.c. as "Sclaboi"

    https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavs

    Before VI c. Slavs had different names in western and southern chronicles:
    Hiperborean, Scythians, Sarmatians, Lechites, Tartarians ( not to be confused with turkish Tatars), Germans etc.

    Quick explanation.

    Germans are a mix of Celtic, Scandinavian and Slavic people.

    So part of Germany was composed of Slavs (in I a.c).
  • May 20, 2022 at 9:51 am GMT •ï¿½200 Words
    @Odyssey
    @j2

    That’s right. Under ‘future Scandinavians’ I meant ‘modern Scandinavians’ who relatively recently came to Scandinavia. Excellent observation re: I2 present since Palaeolithic. This confirms that I2 people are indigenous European people. I2 also populated the entire Europe, Scandinavia and British Isles. Before Yamnaya nomads came from Russian steppe to Europe in 2500BC, I2 was 100% on British Isles (e.g. Druids). I2 was subjected to genocides and now consists only 5% on British Isles, mostly on the north of Scotland. Some of I2 descendants, who migrated to US – US president Munro, Dave Crockett, Chuck Norris, Bill Gates, Elvis Presley, Ted Dunston, etc. I2 language from Vincha influenced Scandinavian and later Germanic languages. Germans are not European people and cannot be I1 or I2 genetics. We are waiting for someone (Fox?) to tell us when and where from they came to Europe.

    Replies: @Alexandros

    The story about how “Germans” came to Europe was written down.

    The first King of Athens was Sekrops, an Egyptian. He became King after mediating a conflict between immigrating Dutchmen and native Hellenes. The Dutchmen had a Mother called Gert. The deal was those who wanted to stay in Athens could do so, the rest, the followers of Gert, took to their ships and emigrated to India. This would be about 1600BC.

    There they stayed until Alexander the Great hired them to sail back to Babylon. Later they would fight in the campaigns of the Successors, particularly Demetrius Poliocertes. Their leader became Friso, another native Dutchman. After Demetrius had raped the children of Friso they decided to emigrate back to Holland. There they were allowed to settle and soon the people became “Greekified”. Caesar mentioned this. When later the Romans met these “Gertmanne” the name “Germans” was born and would later come to describe all the peoples living North of the Rhine, much like the Hellenic tribe of Graekoi would become the name for all Hellenes.

    But I don’t think any of this explains the haplogroup. The Gertmanne did not mix with the Indians as far as we know.

    A more probable explanation is that it arose from mixing between European genes and Asian genes in the steppes of Russia and Eastern Germany where the two races have met for millennia.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Odyssey
    @Alexandros

    What a nice and fantastic story. I was always wondering how famous German soccer player Gerd Muller got his name. Now, when we know when and where from Germans (and Dutch) came from (India!???), it would be interesting to know when and where from the (future) Greeks came to Europe.
  • Sarah says:
    May 19, 2022 at 1:33 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Odyssey
    @TempoNick

    1. There are many differences between Catholic and Orthodox Churches but the biggest is what you mentioned that RC has imperial character, they raised a man above the God and declared him infallible, they do not recognise the Holy spirit. They have a corporate and colonial character, don’t want to be equal with other religions and in every country, they require a special status above all other religions. Basically, they operate as a state within a state, having own banks, investments, court, education, diplomacy, marketing/lobby companies, media, hospitals, inquisition, political parties, secret service, army (crusaders), etc. In several centuries after the split up to today, they were considered as heretics by Orthodoxies.

    2. “I also think you had better check your dates on when Christianity first touched the Slavs.†Excellent question and I bet no one can and will not try to answer. Why? Because the history so falsified (mostly by Vatican and English) that is difficult to answer. In previous comments I expected from the researcher in this field, JayJay, to answer but he was so arrogant and plus, he repeated a falsification that for e.g. Serbs were baptised in 870 AC.

    3. You are right, the term ‘slav’ originated in the 7th c.AC and it is ‘slavophobia’ when it is equalised with 'slave'. ‘Slava’ is the family feast dedicated to a family saint patron which has been inherited for centuries from father to the son. It is a relic of pre-Christian pagan mythology and it is present only among Serbs (why?). Their ancestors revered their dead what remained until today. More than 10000 years ago, they buried their dead under the fireplace or under the doorstep, to preserve their spirits in their homes. They assumed that the spirit of their ancestor resides in some intentional traveler and because they offered the best hospitality, food and drink, to coincidental visitors. This hospitality remains until today everywhere, especially in rural areas. Guests are not officially invited but anyone is free to come (usually, extended family, neighbors and friends). It is incorporated in the Christianity, but no other Christians have ‘slava’. St Nicholas is the most frequent Serbian ‘slava’. For e.g., my ‘slava’ is St. George, which is always on May 6th.

    Replies: @Sarah

    1. There are many differences between Catholic and Orthodox Churches but the biggest is what you mentioned that RC has imperial character, they raised a man above the God and declared him infallible, they do not recognise the Holy spirit. They have a corporate and colonial character, don’t want to be equal with other religions and in every country, they require a special status above all other religions. Basically, they operate as a state within a state, having own banks, investments, court, education, diplomacy, marketing/lobby companies, media, hospitals, inquisition, political parties, secret service, army (crusaders), etc. In several centuries after the split up to today, they were considered as heretics by Orthodoxies.

    👌

    •ï¿½Agree: Odyssey
  • Fufu says:
    May 18, 2022 at 9:00 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Odyssey
    @Fufu

    All agree, except for ‘1500 years’. What Slavics were before and which language they spoke? Did they get their language from someone or it was organically developed for thousands of years? Where is the Slavic Urheimat? The answer on all questions – Lepenski Vir/Vinca was the cradle of the oldest European civilisation where the oldest European language originated!

    Replies: @Fufu

    In fact, I think that Slavs are a few thousand years old and I like idea that VinÄa culture from 5000 b.c. was a cradle of Slavs.

    I used ‘1500 years’ just to avoid being accused of ‘Slavic megalomania’.

    In my opinion, official theory that Slavs appeared in IV-V cc. and are the youngest ethnos in Europe is stupid.
    It is another attempt to put Slavs into inferiority complex.

    Western Anti-Slavic propaganda promotes:

    “Slave-Slav” association and
    “Slaves are the youngest and the most primitive ethnos in Europe”.

    Unfortunatelly, many Slavs still believe in this s**t.

    •ï¿½Agree: Odyssey
  • Odyssey says:
    May 18, 2022 at 12:38 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Fufu
    Why Slavs call themselves Slavs?

    1. False "Slave-Slav" term is promoted by Westerners to keep Slavs low (put them in inferiority complex).

    2. Slav from "Slava"- "Glory, Fame" "Slava Ukraine!" means "Glory to Ukraine!" not "Enslave Ukraine!"

    3. "Slav" from "Slovo" - literally it means "Word",so Slavs are people who know language.

    In contrary to Germans (slavic "Niemtsy") it means people who don't speak clearly ("Niemtsy" from "niemy" which means "mute", "mumbling" or "what this guy from West is talking about??").

    Besides...

    How Slavs had conquered half Europe and survived 1500 years if they had though about themselves as "inferior people"? It has no sense.

    Replies: @Odyssey, @Fox

    All agree, except for ‘1500 years’. What Slavics were before and which language they spoke? Did they get their language from someone or it was organically developed for thousands of years? Where is the Slavic Urheimat? The answer on all questions – Lepenski Vir/Vinca was the cradle of the oldest European civilisation where the oldest European language originated!

    •ï¿½Replies: @Fufu
    @Odyssey

    In fact, I think that Slavs are a few thousand years old and I like idea that VinÄa culture from 5000 b.c. was a cradle of Slavs.

    I used '1500 years' just to avoid being accused of 'Slavic megalomania'.

    In my opinion, official theory that Slavs appeared in IV-V cc. and are the youngest ethnos in Europe is stupid.
    It is another attempt to put Slavs into inferiority complex.

    Western Anti-Slavic propaganda promotes:

    "Slave-Slav" association and
    "Slaves are the youngest and the most primitive ethnos in Europe".

    Unfortunatelly, many Slavs still believe in this s**t.
  • Fufu says:
    May 17, 2022 at 8:10 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words

    Why Slavs call themselves Slavs?

    1. False “Slave-Slav” term is promoted by Westerners to keep Slavs low (put them in inferiority complex).

    2. Slav from “Slava”- “Glory, Fame” “Slava Ukraine!” means “Glory to Ukraine!” not “Enslave Ukraine!”

    3. “Slav” from “Slovo” – literally it means “Word”,so Slavs are people who know language.

    In contrary to Germans (slavic “Niemtsy”) it means people who don’t speak clearly (“Niemtsy” from “niemy” which means “mute”, “mumbling” or “what this guy from West is talking about??”).

    Besides…

    How Slavs had conquered half Europe and survived 1500 years if they had though about themselves as “inferior people”? It has no sense.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Odyssey
    @Fufu

    All agree, except for ‘1500 years’. What Slavics were before and which language they spoke? Did they get their language from someone or it was organically developed for thousands of years? Where is the Slavic Urheimat? The answer on all questions – Lepenski Vir/Vinca was the cradle of the oldest European civilisation where the oldest European language originated!

    Replies: @Fufu
    , @Fox
    @Fufu

    But when did the notion of 'Slav" as a racial (or ethnic) group appear? Did the peoples living to the East of the Germanic and Celtic areas in Europe call themselves as a whole slavs , or was that done by someone else in order to give them a common designation through their languages which appear to be so closely related as to make it possible for a Russian to communicate with a Croatian based on that similarity alone (an example which I know of)? The earliest mention of "Sclavi" I have come across relates to Charlemagne in the year 805.

    Replies: @Fufu
  • Anon[105] •ï¿½Disclaimer says:
    May 17, 2022 at 4:08 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words

    Rumkowski was the head of the Jewish Council of Elders in the Åódź Ghetto appointed by Nazi Germany during the German occupation of Poland.

    Rumkowski accrued much power by transforming the ghetto into an industrial base manufacturing war supplies for the Wehrmacht in the mistaken belief that productivity was the key to Jewish survival after the war. The Germans evacuayed the ghetto in 1944. All remaining prisoners were sent to camps in the wake of military defeats on the Eastern Front.

    As the head of the Judenrat, Rumkowski is remembered for his speech Give Me Your Children, delivered at a time when the Germans demanded his compliance with the deportation of 20,000 children to Chełmno camp. In August 1944, Rumkowski and his family joined the last transport to Auschwitz,[1] and he was murdered there on August 28, 1944, by Jewish Sonderkommando inmates who beat him to death as revenge

  • Odyssey says:
    May 16, 2022 at 11:52 pm GMT •ï¿½400 Words
    @TempoNick
    Three things:

    1. The difference between the Roman Catholic Church and the Eastern Orthodox Churches is mostly style over substance. The underlying dogma is virtually the same. In fact, they are both Catholic. It's more of a turf war than anything else. The Orthodox consider Rome just one of many bishops. Rome wanted to exert power over all of the other bishops. Given the problems the Roman Catholic church has had, the Eastern Orthodox got the better end of the deal.

    2. Most of the indigenous Christians in the holy land follow the Eastern liturgy. Some, like the MARONITES, are aligned with Rome. Others are Eastern orthodox, Oriental Orthodox / Coptic. I also think you had better check your dates on when Christianity first touched the Slavs.

    3. An alternate theory is that the word slav has nothing to do with the word slave and that it means something along the lines of being faithful to god. Slava means fame, honor worship and is believed to be in the context of honoring God.

    Replies: @Odyssey

    1. There are many differences between Catholic and Orthodox Churches but the biggest is what you mentioned that RC has imperial character, they raised a man above the God and declared him infallible, they do not recognise the Holy spirit. They have a corporate and colonial character, don’t want to be equal with other religions and in every country, they require a special status above all other religions. Basically, they operate as a state within a state, having own banks, investments, court, education, diplomacy, marketing/lobby companies, media, hospitals, inquisition, political parties, secret service, army (crusaders), etc. In several centuries after the split up to today, they were considered as heretics by Orthodoxies.

    2. “I also think you had better check your dates on when Christianity first touched the Slavs.†Excellent question and I bet no one can and will not try to answer. Why? Because the history so falsified (mostly by Vatican and English) that is difficult to answer. In previous comments I expected from the researcher in this field, JayJay, to answer but he was so arrogant and plus, he repeated a falsification that for e.g. Serbs were baptised in 870 AC.

    3. You are right, the term ‘slav’ originated in the 7th c.AC and it is ‘slavophobia’ when it is equalised with ‘slave’. ‘Slava’ is the family feast dedicated to a family saint patron which has been inherited for centuries from father to the son. It is a relic of pre-Christian pagan mythology and it is present only among Serbs (why?). Their ancestors revered their dead what remained until today. More than 10000 years ago, they buried their dead under the fireplace or under the doorstep, to preserve their spirits in their homes. They assumed that the spirit of their ancestor resides in some intentional traveler and because they offered the best hospitality, food and drink, to coincidental visitors. This hospitality remains until today everywhere, especially in rural areas. Guests are not officially invited but anyone is free to come (usually, extended family, neighbors and friends). It is incorporated in the Christianity, but no other Christians have ‘slava’. St Nicholas is the most frequent Serbian ‘slava’. For e.g., my ‘slava’ is St. George, which is always on May 6th.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Sarah
    @Odyssey


    1. There are many differences between Catholic and Orthodox Churches but the biggest is what you mentioned that RC has imperial character, they raised a man above the God and declared him infallible, they do not recognise the Holy spirit. They have a corporate and colonial character, don’t want to be equal with other religions and in every country, they require a special status above all other religions. Basically, they operate as a state within a state, having own banks, investments, court, education, diplomacy, marketing/lobby companies, media, hospitals, inquisition, political parties, secret service, army (crusaders), etc. In several centuries after the split up to today, they were considered as heretics by Orthodoxies.

    �
    👌
  • TempoNick says:
    May 16, 2022 at 7:09 am GMT •ï¿½200 Words

    Three things:

    1. The difference between the Roman Catholic Church and the Eastern Orthodox Churches is mostly style over substance. The underlying dogma is virtually the same. In fact, they are both Catholic. It’s more of a turf war than anything else. The Orthodox consider Rome just one of many bishops. Rome wanted to exert power over all of the other bishops. Given the problems the Roman Catholic church has had, the Eastern Orthodox got the better end of the deal.

    2. Most of the indigenous Christians in the holy land follow the Eastern liturgy. Some, like the MARONITES, are aligned with Rome. Others are Eastern orthodox, Oriental Orthodox / Coptic. I also think you had better check your dates on when Christianity first touched the Slavs.

    3. An alternate theory is that the word slav has nothing to do with the word slave and that it means something along the lines of being faithful to god. Slava means fame, honor worship and is believed to be in the context of honoring God.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Odyssey
    @TempoNick

    1. There are many differences between Catholic and Orthodox Churches but the biggest is what you mentioned that RC has imperial character, they raised a man above the God and declared him infallible, they do not recognise the Holy spirit. They have a corporate and colonial character, don’t want to be equal with other religions and in every country, they require a special status above all other religions. Basically, they operate as a state within a state, having own banks, investments, court, education, diplomacy, marketing/lobby companies, media, hospitals, inquisition, political parties, secret service, army (crusaders), etc. In several centuries after the split up to today, they were considered as heretics by Orthodoxies.

    2. “I also think you had better check your dates on when Christianity first touched the Slavs.†Excellent question and I bet no one can and will not try to answer. Why? Because the history so falsified (mostly by Vatican and English) that is difficult to answer. In previous comments I expected from the researcher in this field, JayJay, to answer but he was so arrogant and plus, he repeated a falsification that for e.g. Serbs were baptised in 870 AC.

    3. You are right, the term ‘slav’ originated in the 7th c.AC and it is ‘slavophobia’ when it is equalised with 'slave'. ‘Slava’ is the family feast dedicated to a family saint patron which has been inherited for centuries from father to the son. It is a relic of pre-Christian pagan mythology and it is present only among Serbs (why?). Their ancestors revered their dead what remained until today. More than 10000 years ago, they buried their dead under the fireplace or under the doorstep, to preserve their spirits in their homes. They assumed that the spirit of their ancestor resides in some intentional traveler and because they offered the best hospitality, food and drink, to coincidental visitors. This hospitality remains until today everywhere, especially in rural areas. Guests are not officially invited but anyone is free to come (usually, extended family, neighbors and friends). It is incorporated in the Christianity, but no other Christians have ‘slava’. St Nicholas is the most frequent Serbian ‘slava’. For e.g., my ‘slava’ is St. George, which is always on May 6th.

    Replies: @Sarah
  • @Odyssey
    @Fox

    It seems you are frustrated because of your lack of knowledge (‘when and where from Germans came to Europe’?). Have a look the title of the thread. Your behaviour indicates where all this came from (hundreds of times) in last 4800 years. Re Romans – two dozen of Serbs were Roman Emperors (Diocletian, Constantine, Jovian, Justinian, Justin, etc). Serbs were the iron fist of Roman army which consisted of 80% of ‘non-Italians’, the capital town was in Sirmium, 40 km from Belgrade. Is it chauvinism to say this? Towards whom? It is an idiotic statement that someone claims the land ownership from 10K years ago and now claims a right of return and ownership of this land. Simply, you know nothing about this topic and old history, but you very easily stick chauvinistic labels on someone. The genocide conducted by Yamnaya nomads on indigenous population (one estimate is almost 90% of men) is well documented.

    “Chauvinist Slavic greediness has led to the downfall of Europe�?? Unbelievable! Hundreds of wars and genocides came from the West, from Yamnaya descendants, not from Slavic people. Maybe Slavics are guilty for all genocides conducted on them??

    Schopenhauer? He was talking about people like you:

    “All truth passes through three stages: First, it is ridiculed; second, it is violently opposed; and third, it is accepted as self-evident.â€

    Replies: @Fox

    How do you know that I am frustrated? I can’t imagine that the acerbic Schopenhauer would have not made a dismissive remark about this, your opinion, and about its bearer, that all of Europe is rightfully a Serbian domain.

  • Fox says:
    May 14, 2022 at 6:46 pm GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @karel
    @Fufu

    Right on, Fufu. I started destroying Western Europe at the age of three and have not finished yet. How has this clever Foxie boy managed to sniff it out?

    Replies: @Fox

    You are a cleverly funny one! Subtlety in wit, a sharp-edged mind, quick and precise repartee and a self-assuredness based on a shining, sunny past and a future amongst neighbors who so dearly admire your attitude, all of that combines to an image of a fine holder of attitudes and opinions in the center of the Bohemian trough.

  • @Fufu
    @Fox

    #175 Fox

    "Chauvinist Slavic -i.e., Polish and Czech – covetousness has led to the downfall of Europe."

    Stupid Czechs and Poles are destroying whole Europe. Wow! I didn't know that! They must be really smart if their plot was unnoticed by brilliant Westerners until now.

    I add them to my list of enemies responsible for Fall of Western Europe:  jews, illuminati and reptilians.

    Replies: @karel

    Right on, Fufu. I started destroying Western Europe at the age of three and have not finished yet. How has this clever Foxie boy managed to sniff it out?

    •ï¿½Replies: @Fox
    @karel

    You are a cleverly funny one! Subtlety in wit, a sharp-edged mind, quick and precise repartee and a self-assuredness based on a shining, sunny past and a future amongst neighbors who so dearly admire your attitude, all of that combines to an image of a fine holder of attitudes and opinions in the center of the Bohemian trough.
  • Fufu says:
    May 13, 2022 at 6:46 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Fox
    @Munga Bulga

    Chauvinist Slavic -i.e., Polish and Czech - covetousness has led to the downfall of Europe. This covetousness was used by England and France to achieve their own goals, but it has backfired, now we are all in a big mess.

    Replies: @Fufu

    #175 Fox

    “Chauvinist Slavic -i.e., Polish and Czech – covetousness has led to the downfall of Europe.”

    Stupid Czechs and Poles are destroying whole Europe. Wow! I didn’t know that! They must be really smart if their plot was unnoticed by brilliant Westerners until now.

    I add them to my list of enemies responsible for Fall of Western Europe:  jews, illuminati and reptilians.

    •ï¿½Replies: @karel
    @Fufu

    Right on, Fufu. I started destroying Western Europe at the age of three and have not finished yet. How has this clever Foxie boy managed to sniff it out?

    Replies: @Fox
  • Odyssey says:
    May 13, 2022 at 1:04 am GMT •ï¿½200 Words
    @Fox
    @Odyssey

    What is it you re driving at? Are the Romans Serbs?, the Greeks, the Egyptians, etc.? No one denies that we all have ancestors, but you are approaching this common insight from the position of a chauvinist. All chauvinists claim to have had dominion over large swaths of land in the past and that they were deprived of their greatness through conquest, genocide, machinations, etc., and it is always coupled to the idea of a right of return and ownership.
    The fact that in Scotland, according to your statement, still 5 % are "I2 people" after several thousand years with all the attendant changes suggests that there was not a "genocide" but rather a slow assimilation or mixing of the various peoples moving in, moving out, or passing through.

    Ignorance (the notion you are bringing up) is not a lack of knowing more or less much - Schopenhauer makes the astute observation that people who read all day are reading themselves stupid by depriving themselves of the ability to think and substituting their own insights and thinking ability by morsels of others' productions - ignorance is the lack of understanding and insight. It is possible to be stupid and ignorant with a Ph.D. degree or whatever Nobel Prize of professorship, and it is possible to be knowledgable, insightful and understanding without attendance of public knowledge factories.

    Therefore, I am repeating my question: What are you driving at, what is it that drives you to pore over maps of gene distributions, seeing relationships between similar-sounding words in vastly different languages with the foregone conclusion that at the center of your system the Serbs are sitting? And what conclusion regarding the accomplishments and customs of their own people would you like others to draw?

    Replies: @Odyssey

    It seems you are frustrated because of your lack of knowledge (‘when and where from Germans came to Europe’?). Have a look the title of the thread. Your behaviour indicates where all this came from (hundreds of times) in last 4800 years. Re Romans – two dozen of Serbs were Roman Emperors (Diocletian, Constantine, Jovian, Justinian, Justin, etc). Serbs were the iron fist of Roman army which consisted of 80% of ‘non-Italians’, the capital town was in Sirmium, 40 km from Belgrade. Is it chauvinism to say this? Towards whom? It is an idiotic statement that someone claims the land ownership from 10K years ago and now claims a right of return and ownership of this land. Simply, you know nothing about this topic and old history, but you very easily stick chauvinistic labels on someone. The genocide conducted by Yamnaya nomads on indigenous population (one estimate is almost 90% of men) is well documented.

    “Chauvinist Slavic greediness has led to the downfall of Europe�?? Unbelievable! Hundreds of wars and genocides came from the West, from Yamnaya descendants, not from Slavic people. Maybe Slavics are guilty for all genocides conducted on them??

    Schopenhauer? He was talking about people like you:

    “All truth passes through three stages: First, it is ridiculed; second, it is violently opposed; and third, it is accepted as self-evident.â€

    •ï¿½Replies: @Fox
    @Odyssey

    How do you know that I am frustrated? I can't imagine that the acerbic Schopenhauer would have not made a dismissive remark about this, your opinion, and about its bearer, that all of Europe is rightfully a Serbian domain.
  • @Munga Bulga
    @Fox

    >expecting the most inferior, low IQ subset of Europeans to be capable of self instropection

    These subhumans are not capable of real philosophy or moral developement. Lets put their war mongering and barking in the 20th century on the side and look at the repetition of history before our eyes.

    Which cuntries in Europe ARE viruently pro USA/ZOG, begging pathetically for more nigger/spic mercenaries every year and threaten Europe with nuclear annihilation against the ruskies EVERY GODDAMN YEAR SINCE WE WERE BORN?

    The bohemian horde passed a law to put their own away for 3 years if they dare to speak against jewlensky's puppet government. You can't expect much from a loud mouthed cuntry of meth addicts and porn actresses.

    Honestly, like you said, either we survive this century of humiliation and put these subhumans back to where they belong again, or we all go lights out. But we will never have to worry about muh Visegrad, since we all know it is bullshit and the smarter slavs will never trust the kike puppets called "czechs" and poland.

    Replies: @Fox

    Chauvinist Slavic -i.e., Polish and Czech – covetousness has led to the downfall of Europe. This covetousness was used by England and France to achieve their own goals, but it has backfired, now we are all in a big mess.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Fufu
    @Fox

    #175 Fox

    "Chauvinist Slavic -i.e., Polish and Czech – covetousness has led to the downfall of Europe."

    Stupid Czechs and Poles are destroying whole Europe. Wow! I didn't know that! They must be really smart if their plot was unnoticed by brilliant Westerners until now.

    I add them to my list of enemies responsible for Fall of Western Europe:  jews, illuminati and reptilians.

    Replies: @karel
  • Fox says:
    May 12, 2022 at 5:34 pm GMT •ï¿½200 Words
    @Commentator Mike
    @Fox

    This may explain a few things to you:

    https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Origin_hypotheses_of_the_Serbs

    It covers the various theories.

    I suppose the traditional view is that Serbs migrated from regions in Germany and that the Sorbs are remnants of these original Serbs, but where is the evidence for this?

    It gets difficult to prove anything with hard evedence going back so far in time. I guess Odyssey's view is that Serbs were indigenous to the entire area from the Baltics to the Adriatic and Black seas and that later Asiatics like Huns, Mongols, Turkik peoples inserted themselves into certain regions like Hungary and Bulgaria, and by mixing with the Serbs produced modern day Hungarians and Bulgars. I suppose it is no worse than any other theory.

    Isn't there now genetic evidence that Serbs are indeed indigenous to the Balkans and that other Slavs, like Russians, originated from migration of Serbs to the north, a reversal of the traditional theory? So the Sorbs too could have resulted from migration of Serbs from the Balkans.

    Take your pick

    Replies: @Fox

    It is possible that the Sorbs moved to the small area in Eastern Central Germany where they are still living (unmolested, by the way, unlike what happens to on-Slavs in provinces under the rule of some Slavic peoples). The Sorbs used to be also called ‘Wenden’ in German. Incidentally, Western non-Germans used to be and still can be called ‘welsch’ in German, without the implication that they are ‘Welsh’ as if coming from Wales. Word similarities are by themselves not strong indicators of a relationship.
    Thank you for your link, which I will peruse, but haven’t had time yet to. The migration of peoples in Europe is an interesting facet of Europe came about, but to take more than a casual note of such events 1000 or 1500 years ago and even reach conclusions regarding rights is something I can’t subscribe to. The latter has unfortunately led to catastrophic events in the world, and no one was served by it.

  • Fox says:
    May 12, 2022 at 5:21 pm GMT •ï¿½300 Words
    @Odyssey
    Let’s employ the logic in our discussion. The genetic haplogroup ‘I’ is the only haplogroup originated in Europe. It split later to I1 and I2. During the Ice Age (up to 12K BC) almost all people lived in a Danube microclimate of Lepenski Vir/Vincha. After ice melted, people started migrating in all directions (roughly 7k BC). I1, future Scandinavians, moved to the north. So, I1 and I2 can be considered as indigenous European people. Germans have different haplogroup and it is easy to distinguish them from (proto)Slavics. Can anyone say, when they came to Europe and where from? I2 gen (one half of Serbs), 10 K years old was found in Lepenski Vir, it is confirmed in the Nature’s paper.

    Vincha developed the oldest and highest Euro civilisation. From these people and their language directly originated protoSlavics (i.e protoSerbs) and their languages. They called themselves ‘srb’ (‘serbs’ =cousin, the member of the same race’). From them, all future Slavic nations and languages (including modern Serbs, who preserved the original name) developed. Much before they became so-called ‘Slavics’ (7th cAC), they were Aryans (2000BC) who brought this language and mythology to India. There are still several thousands of Serbian toponyms in South and Central Asia, Tibet and China (so as in the whole Europe). Toponyms are a very reliable indicator of the prevailing language at that time.

    It is difficult to talk to someone who is ignorant. There was a question – were Prussians ethically Serbs or Germanics, have Serbs founded Berlin, Leipzig, Dresden, Brandenburg, etc? Was Martin Luther an ethnic Serb (and strong ‘serbophobe’, as all converts are)?

    Replies: @j2, @Fox

    What is it you re driving at? Are the Romans Serbs?, the Greeks, the Egyptians, etc.? No one denies that we all have ancestors, but you are approaching this common insight from the position of a chauvinist. All chauvinists claim to have had dominion over large swaths of land in the past and that they were deprived of their greatness through conquest, genocide, machinations, etc., and it is always coupled to the idea of a right of return and ownership.
    The fact that in Scotland, according to your statement, still 5 % are “I2 people” after several thousand years with all the attendant changes suggests that there was not a “genocide” but rather a slow assimilation or mixing of the various peoples moving in, moving out, or passing through.

    Ignorance (the notion you are bringing up) is not a lack of knowing more or less much – Schopenhauer makes the astute observation that people who read all day are reading themselves stupid by depriving themselves of the ability to think and substituting their own insights and thinking ability by morsels of others’ productions – ignorance is the lack of understanding and insight. It is possible to be stupid and ignorant with a Ph.D. degree or whatever Nobel Prize of professorship, and it is possible to be knowledgable, insightful and understanding without attendance of public knowledge factories.

    Therefore, I am repeating my question: What are you driving at, what is it that drives you to pore over maps of gene distributions, seeing relationships between similar-sounding words in vastly different languages with the foregone conclusion that at the center of your system the Serbs are sitting? And what conclusion regarding the accomplishments and customs of their own people would you like others to draw?

    •ï¿½Replies: @Odyssey
    @Fox

    It seems you are frustrated because of your lack of knowledge (‘when and where from Germans came to Europe’?). Have a look the title of the thread. Your behaviour indicates where all this came from (hundreds of times) in last 4800 years. Re Romans – two dozen of Serbs were Roman Emperors (Diocletian, Constantine, Jovian, Justinian, Justin, etc). Serbs were the iron fist of Roman army which consisted of 80% of ‘non-Italians’, the capital town was in Sirmium, 40 km from Belgrade. Is it chauvinism to say this? Towards whom? It is an idiotic statement that someone claims the land ownership from 10K years ago and now claims a right of return and ownership of this land. Simply, you know nothing about this topic and old history, but you very easily stick chauvinistic labels on someone. The genocide conducted by Yamnaya nomads on indigenous population (one estimate is almost 90% of men) is well documented.

    “Chauvinist Slavic greediness has led to the downfall of Europe�?? Unbelievable! Hundreds of wars and genocides came from the West, from Yamnaya descendants, not from Slavic people. Maybe Slavics are guilty for all genocides conducted on them??

    Schopenhauer? He was talking about people like you:

    “All truth passes through three stages: First, it is ridiculed; second, it is violently opposed; and third, it is accepted as self-evident.â€

    Replies: @Fox
  • Odyssey says:
    May 12, 2022 at 10:57 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @j2
    @Odyssey

    "I1, future Scandinavians, moved to the north."

    This is not so clear. No Y-DNA Hg. I1 is found in Scandinavia in older samples. The paleolithic population there had I2. I1 is usually thought to have developed in Denmark from I, with the implication that there was a population with I and I2. But is it also possible that I1 came to Scandinavia with Germanic people at some point and I1 was not a haplogroup of Scandinavians (hunter-gatherers) earlier. There were several waves of Indo-Europeans to the Baltic coast: Latvian and Lithuanian languages are from some early branch of Indo-European. They probably were the Battle-Axe people.

    Replies: @Odyssey

    That’s right. Under ‘future Scandinavians’ I meant ‘modern Scandinavians’ who relatively recently came to Scandinavia. Excellent observation re: I2 present since Palaeolithic. This confirms that I2 people are indigenous European people. I2 also populated the entire Europe, Scandinavia and British Isles. Before Yamnaya nomads came from Russian steppe to Europe in 2500BC, I2 was 100% on British Isles (e.g. Druids). I2 was subjected to genocides and now consists only 5% on British Isles, mostly on the north of Scotland. Some of I2 descendants, who migrated to US – US president Munro, Dave Crockett, Chuck Norris, Bill Gates, Elvis Presley, Ted Dunston, etc. I2 language from Vincha influenced Scandinavian and later Germanic languages. Germans are not European people and cannot be I1 or I2 genetics. We are waiting for someone (Fox?) to tell us when and where from they came to Europe.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Alexandros
    @Odyssey

    The story about how "Germans" came to Europe was written down.

    The first King of Athens was Sekrops, an Egyptian. He became King after mediating a conflict between immigrating Dutchmen and native Hellenes. The Dutchmen had a Mother called Gert. The deal was those who wanted to stay in Athens could do so, the rest, the followers of Gert, took to their ships and emigrated to India. This would be about 1600BC.

    There they stayed until Alexander the Great hired them to sail back to Babylon. Later they would fight in the campaigns of the Successors, particularly Demetrius Poliocertes. Their leader became Friso, another native Dutchman. After Demetrius had raped the children of Friso they decided to emigrate back to Holland. There they were allowed to settle and soon the people became "Greekified". Caesar mentioned this. When later the Romans met these "Gertmanne" the name "Germans" was born and would later come to describe all the peoples living North of the Rhine, much like the Hellenic tribe of Graekoi would become the name for all Hellenes.

    But I don't think any of this explains the haplogroup. The Gertmanne did not mix with the Indians as far as we know.

    A more probable explanation is that it arose from mixing between European genes and Asian genes in the steppes of Russia and Eastern Germany where the two races have met for millennia.

    Replies: @Odyssey
  • j2 says:
    May 12, 2022 at 6:31 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Odyssey
    Let’s employ the logic in our discussion. The genetic haplogroup ‘I’ is the only haplogroup originated in Europe. It split later to I1 and I2. During the Ice Age (up to 12K BC) almost all people lived in a Danube microclimate of Lepenski Vir/Vincha. After ice melted, people started migrating in all directions (roughly 7k BC). I1, future Scandinavians, moved to the north. So, I1 and I2 can be considered as indigenous European people. Germans have different haplogroup and it is easy to distinguish them from (proto)Slavics. Can anyone say, when they came to Europe and where from? I2 gen (one half of Serbs), 10 K years old was found in Lepenski Vir, it is confirmed in the Nature’s paper.

    Vincha developed the oldest and highest Euro civilisation. From these people and their language directly originated protoSlavics (i.e protoSerbs) and their languages. They called themselves ‘srb’ (‘serbs’ =cousin, the member of the same race’). From them, all future Slavic nations and languages (including modern Serbs, who preserved the original name) developed. Much before they became so-called ‘Slavics’ (7th cAC), they were Aryans (2000BC) who brought this language and mythology to India. There are still several thousands of Serbian toponyms in South and Central Asia, Tibet and China (so as in the whole Europe). Toponyms are a very reliable indicator of the prevailing language at that time.

    It is difficult to talk to someone who is ignorant. There was a question – were Prussians ethically Serbs or Germanics, have Serbs founded Berlin, Leipzig, Dresden, Brandenburg, etc? Was Martin Luther an ethnic Serb (and strong ‘serbophobe’, as all converts are)?

    Replies: @j2, @Fox

    “I1, future Scandinavians, moved to the north.”

    This is not so clear. No Y-DNA Hg. I1 is found in Scandinavia in older samples. The paleolithic population there had I2. I1 is usually thought to have developed in Denmark from I, with the implication that there was a population with I and I2. But is it also possible that I1 came to Scandinavia with Germanic people at some point and I1 was not a haplogroup of Scandinavians (hunter-gatherers) earlier. There were several waves of Indo-Europeans to the Baltic coast: Latvian and Lithuanian languages are from some early branch of Indo-European. They probably were the Battle-Axe people.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Odyssey
    @j2

    That’s right. Under ‘future Scandinavians’ I meant ‘modern Scandinavians’ who relatively recently came to Scandinavia. Excellent observation re: I2 present since Palaeolithic. This confirms that I2 people are indigenous European people. I2 also populated the entire Europe, Scandinavia and British Isles. Before Yamnaya nomads came from Russian steppe to Europe in 2500BC, I2 was 100% on British Isles (e.g. Druids). I2 was subjected to genocides and now consists only 5% on British Isles, mostly on the north of Scotland. Some of I2 descendants, who migrated to US – US president Munro, Dave Crockett, Chuck Norris, Bill Gates, Elvis Presley, Ted Dunston, etc. I2 language from Vincha influenced Scandinavian and later Germanic languages. Germans are not European people and cannot be I1 or I2 genetics. We are waiting for someone (Fox?) to tell us when and where from they came to Europe.

    Replies: @Alexandros
  • @Avery
    @Ron Unz

    {...and I’ve seen these sorts of claims floating around for years}

    Ron, in spite of Hitler's Table Talk, did Operation Intelligenzaktion -- whereby (reportedly) ~100,000 Polish intelligentsia were murdered by Nazi Einsatzgruppen -- happen or all the info about it is fake?
    Did it or did it not happen?

    That is just one example.
    There are many, many examples of what Nazi invaders actually did to the Slavic peoples (and others), despite what Hitler table-talked about.

    Did the Lidice massacre (...of women and children) happen or is it a myth?
    Did the Oradour-sur-Glane massacre (of French civilians, including women and children) happen or is it a myth?
    ................

    Replies: @Jon Halpenny, @bronek

    You forgot to mention the Jagiellon university of Krakow. The nazis had all the professors exterminated.

  • Odyssey says:
    May 12, 2022 at 12:43 am GMT •ï¿½300 Words

    Let’s employ the logic in our discussion. The genetic haplogroup ‘I’ is the only haplogroup originated in Europe. It split later to I1 and I2. During the Ice Age (up to 12K BC) almost all people lived in a Danube microclimate of Lepenski Vir/Vincha. After ice melted, people started migrating in all directions (roughly 7k BC). I1, future Scandinavians, moved to the north. So, I1 and I2 can be considered as indigenous European people. Germans have different haplogroup and it is easy to distinguish them from (proto)Slavics. Can anyone say, when they came to Europe and where from? I2 gen (one half of Serbs), 10 K years old was found in Lepenski Vir, it is confirmed in the Nature’s paper.

    Vincha developed the oldest and highest Euro civilisation. From these people and their language directly originated protoSlavics (i.e protoSerbs) and their languages. They called themselves ‘srb’ (‘serbs’ =cousin, the member of the same race’). From them, all future Slavic nations and languages (including modern Serbs, who preserved the original name) developed. Much before they became so-called ‘Slavics’ (7th cAC), they were Aryans (2000BC) who brought this language and mythology to India. There are still several thousands of Serbian toponyms in South and Central Asia, Tibet and China (so as in the whole Europe). Toponyms are a very reliable indicator of the prevailing language at that time.

    It is difficult to talk to someone who is ignorant. There was a question – were Prussians ethically Serbs or Germanics, have Serbs founded Berlin, Leipzig, Dresden, Brandenburg, etc? Was Martin Luther an ethnic Serb (and strong ‘serbophobe’, as all converts are)?

    •ï¿½Replies: @j2
    @Odyssey

    "I1, future Scandinavians, moved to the north."

    This is not so clear. No Y-DNA Hg. I1 is found in Scandinavia in older samples. The paleolithic population there had I2. I1 is usually thought to have developed in Denmark from I, with the implication that there was a population with I and I2. But is it also possible that I1 came to Scandinavia with Germanic people at some point and I1 was not a haplogroup of Scandinavians (hunter-gatherers) earlier. There were several waves of Indo-Europeans to the Baltic coast: Latvian and Lithuanian languages are from some early branch of Indo-European. They probably were the Battle-Axe people.

    Replies: @Odyssey
    , @Fox
    @Odyssey

    What is it you re driving at? Are the Romans Serbs?, the Greeks, the Egyptians, etc.? No one denies that we all have ancestors, but you are approaching this common insight from the position of a chauvinist. All chauvinists claim to have had dominion over large swaths of land in the past and that they were deprived of their greatness through conquest, genocide, machinations, etc., and it is always coupled to the idea of a right of return and ownership.
    The fact that in Scotland, according to your statement, still 5 % are "I2 people" after several thousand years with all the attendant changes suggests that there was not a "genocide" but rather a slow assimilation or mixing of the various peoples moving in, moving out, or passing through.

    Ignorance (the notion you are bringing up) is not a lack of knowing more or less much - Schopenhauer makes the astute observation that people who read all day are reading themselves stupid by depriving themselves of the ability to think and substituting their own insights and thinking ability by morsels of others' productions - ignorance is the lack of understanding and insight. It is possible to be stupid and ignorant with a Ph.D. degree or whatever Nobel Prize of professorship, and it is possible to be knowledgable, insightful and understanding without attendance of public knowledge factories.

    Therefore, I am repeating my question: What are you driving at, what is it that drives you to pore over maps of gene distributions, seeing relationships between similar-sounding words in vastly different languages with the foregone conclusion that at the center of your system the Serbs are sitting? And what conclusion regarding the accomplishments and customs of their own people would you like others to draw?

    Replies: @Odyssey
  • @Fox
    @Odyssey

    I don't know about the things you are presenting as established facts. I consider it very probable that the Sorbs living in a small area in Central Germany have their name not from the Serbs; a similarity of a name does not imply one origin. The Germans (who were many different tribes) came from the East and if I remember correctly, it was thought that the Germanic tribes had their origin Scandinavia.
    Such considerations are interesting, but they establish neither an ownership of land, nor any 'rightful dominion', nor a direct descendency. If 1500 years ago the Ostrigoths, a Germanic tribe, were settled in the Ukraine and then left on a long migration to the west, this does not establish that the Ukraine is Germanic. There is a remarkable number of words which occur both in Slavic and Germanic languages, suggesting that Slaves ad Germanics have had close contact, perhaps even a common origin in the past. When one looks at people from the East, one does get that idea.
    Why, in your opinion, did the Serbs quit all of the land you say they had inhabited?

    Replies: @Commentator Mike

    This may explain a few things to you:

    https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Origin_hypotheses_of_the_Serbs

    It covers the various theories.

    I suppose the traditional view is that Serbs migrated from regions in Germany and that the Sorbs are remnants of these original Serbs, but where is the evidence for this?

    It gets difficult to prove anything with hard evedence going back so far in time. I guess Odyssey’s view is that Serbs were indigenous to the entire area from the Baltics to the Adriatic and Black seas and that later Asiatics like Huns, Mongols, Turkik peoples inserted themselves into certain regions like Hungary and Bulgaria, and by mixing with the Serbs produced modern day Hungarians and Bulgars. I suppose it is no worse than any other theory.

    Isn’t there now genetic evidence that Serbs are indeed indigenous to the Balkans and that other Slavs, like Russians, originated from migration of Serbs to the north, a reversal of the traditional theory? So the Sorbs too could have resulted from migration of Serbs from the Balkans.

    Take your pick

    •ï¿½Replies: @Fox
    @Commentator Mike

    It is possible that the Sorbs moved to the small area in Eastern Central Germany where they are still living (unmolested, by the way, unlike what happens to on-Slavs in provinces under the rule of some Slavic peoples). The Sorbs used to be also called 'Wenden' in German. Incidentally, Western non-Germans used to be and still can be called 'welsch' in German, without the implication that they are 'Welsh' as if coming from Wales. Word similarities are by themselves not strong indicators of a relationship.
    Thank you for your link, which I will peruse, but haven't had time yet to. The migration of peoples in Europe is an interesting facet of Europe came about, but to take more than a casual note of such events 1000 or 1500 years ago and even reach conclusions regarding rights is something I can't subscribe to. The latter has unfortunately led to catastrophic events in the world, and no one was served by it.
  • Jon Chance says: •ï¿½Website
    May 11, 2022 at 7:17 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Truth Vigilante
    @Jon Chance

    You wrote:


    These Communist Jews quickly rebranded themselves as “Conservatives†and “Libertarians†and “Capitalistsâ€
    �
    You clearly know nothing about untainted Libertarianism (ie: that which is aligned with the Austrian School of Economic thought) .
    Nothing could be further from Communism than Libertarian ideals.
    To the extent that there have been some Jews that were prominent in the Libertarian movement (eg: Von Mises, Rothbard), these are far outnumbered by those that weren't.

    More importantly though, those few Jews that were affiliated with Libertarianism were righteous Jews. ie: Jews that exposed the financial chicanery of the Zionist owned Federal Reserve, those that exposed the corrupt machinations of Zio influenced politicians and bureaucrats.

    Bottom Line: You can rebrand yourself as anything you like, but if you're a war mongering Statist that promotes central planning, promotes the expansion of Big Government and control of the western financial system by the Zionist Usury Banking Cartel, you are no Libertarian.
    Such people are the antithesis of a Libertarian.
    �
    Meanwhile, I'm well aware of those Trotskyists (and their kin) that rebranded themselves as Conservatives and have since taken over the Republican party in the U.S over a couple of generations.
    They are of course the neocons that masterminded PNAC in the lead up to 9/11 and control the reins of the GOP today.
    These are the same neocons in the Republican National Committee (RNC) that cheated the prominent Libertarian Dr Ron Paul out of the GOP nomination to take on Obama in the 2012 Presidential election.
    That's why the GOP of today bears no resemblance to the GOP of the past.
    That's why the most profligate, the most socialistic President in the history of the republic was Donald J Chump.
    No POTUS has done more to ensure the demise of the USD as the world's reserve currency and bankrupt the U.S than this man.
    Biden follows in his footsteps and, as bad as he is (and he is very bad indeed), he has actually been less fiscally reckless than the Orange Man (or, as I like to call him, the Orang-u-tan).

    Replies: @Jon Chance

    Twenty years ago, I was suggesting that Ron Paul should be our Secretary of the Treasury.

    http://www.indypgh.org/news/2003/03/1663_comment.php

    Since then, I’ve learned why “Austrians” are clever liars.

    “Austrians” and “Federalists” are globalists, corporatists and socialists disguising themselves as “Libertarians”.

    Examine Fools’ Gold by Robert Carroll, Progress and Poverty by Henry George, Common Sense by Thomas Paine, and the 1776 Declaration of Rights by George Mason.

    Then read the First US Constitution (Articles of Confederation).

    https://HenryGeorge.Org

  • Fox says:
    May 11, 2022 at 4:59 am GMT •ï¿½200 Words
    @Odyssey
    @Fox, @Franklin Ryckaert

    Why you guys don’t say something specific to discuss this? For example, is it true that Prussians are germanised Serbs or not? Is it true that Serbs founded e.g. Berlin and gave the name? Is it true that Leibniz was a Serb or not? Is it true that Serbs are indigenous European people who originated in the oldest and highest culture in Europe? Is it true that Serbian language succeeded ancient Vincha language, several 000 years old and that is older than Greek, Latin and Hebrew? Is it true that Yamnaya nomads (the ancestors of modern w.European) came to Europe in 2800-2500BC. They did not know for metals, agriculture, houses, literacy, while indigenous people 5K before them had the first industrial revolution, gold processing, agriculture, multistorey temples, cosmetics, buildings, trades, literacy, calendar? Is it true that Aryans were proto-Slavics who brought the language (which became Sanskrit), Rg Veda and mythology to India and where 16% of Indians today have their genes?

    What is the contribution of Serbs to European culture? Vincha was a cradle of European civilisation? Have you heard about Lepenski Vir and Vincha? Who were Alexander the Great, Spartacus and dozens of Serbian Roman Emperors (Constantine, who legalised Christianity, Diocletian, Justinian who built St. Sophia and introduced the Roman Law which is still the basis for Euro legal system, except England)?

    Nikola Tesla changed the stream of human civilisation. What do you need more? Sports? Who were world champions in basketball, volleyball, water polo, handball, tennis, etc? Who plays basketball in NBA apart from Afro-Americans? If you guys knew G of genetics you would knew almost all previous. Serbian University professors can establish two universities in US and Canada. Do you have 1000+ years old monasteries and churches? Why don’t you tell us about your backgrounds to compare our notes and to see what is your contribution?

    OilcanFloyd> At some moment in time, the border was on the river Rhine. Can you tell us when Germans came to Europe and where from? Do you agree that all toponyms in East Germany and Baltic were Serbian (Germans started printing old historical maps with these toponyms)? Who gave the name to Germans? Who gave the name to Greeks?

    Replies: @Fox

    I don’t know about the things you are presenting as established facts. I consider it very probable that the Sorbs living in a small area in Central Germany have their name not from the Serbs; a similarity of a name does not imply one origin. The Germans (who were many different tribes) came from the East and if I remember correctly, it was thought that the Germanic tribes had their origin Scandinavia.
    Such considerations are interesting, but they establish neither an ownership of land, nor any ‘rightful dominion’, nor a direct descendency. If 1500 years ago the Ostrigoths, a Germanic tribe, were settled in the Ukraine and then left on a long migration to the west, this does not establish that the Ukraine is Germanic. There is a remarkable number of words which occur both in Slavic and Germanic languages, suggesting that Slaves ad Germanics have had close contact, perhaps even a common origin in the past. When one looks at people from the East, one does get that idea.
    Why, in your opinion, did the Serbs quit all of the land you say they had inhabited?

    •ï¿½Replies: @Commentator Mike
    @Fox

    This may explain a few things to you:

    https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Origin_hypotheses_of_the_Serbs

    It covers the various theories.

    I suppose the traditional view is that Serbs migrated from regions in Germany and that the Sorbs are remnants of these original Serbs, but where is the evidence for this?

    It gets difficult to prove anything with hard evedence going back so far in time. I guess Odyssey's view is that Serbs were indigenous to the entire area from the Baltics to the Adriatic and Black seas and that later Asiatics like Huns, Mongols, Turkik peoples inserted themselves into certain regions like Hungary and Bulgaria, and by mixing with the Serbs produced modern day Hungarians and Bulgars. I suppose it is no worse than any other theory.

    Isn't there now genetic evidence that Serbs are indeed indigenous to the Balkans and that other Slavs, like Russians, originated from migration of Serbs to the north, a reversal of the traditional theory? So the Sorbs too could have resulted from migration of Serbs from the Balkans.

    Take your pick

    Replies: @Fox
  • Munga Bulga [AKA "HeebHunter"] says:
    May 11, 2022 at 4:57 am GMT •ï¿½200 Words
    @Fox
    @karel

    I am sorry for you that you feel so smart and clever. What leads you to this opinion of yourself?
    What remains is that you and the people of your mindset will have to live with the incessant, whispering little voice in your mind that tells you over and over again that you put the torch to the world in order to titillate your organ of fanaticism and that your pathetic selfishness has initiated the chain of events that now lets us all stare in the abyss.
    And ahead of you stretches the future that promises you the same, and your old alliances will fade away, just as the might of the countries which signed these alliances will fade way, yet you will still be the neighbor of the people you so fanatically wronged.

    Replies: @Munga Bulga

    >expecting the most inferior, low IQ subset of Europeans to be capable of self instropection

    These subhumans are not capable of real philosophy or moral developement. Lets put their war mongering and barking in the 20th century on the side and look at the repetition of history before our eyes.

    Which cuntries in Europe ARE viruently pro USA/ZOG, begging pathetically for more nigger/spic mercenaries every year and threaten Europe with nuclear annihilation against the ruskies EVERY GODDAMN YEAR SINCE WE WERE BORN?

    The bohemian horde passed a law to put their own away for 3 years if they dare to speak against jewlensky’s puppet government. You can’t expect much from a loud mouthed cuntry of meth addicts and porn actresses.

    Honestly, like you said, either we survive this century of humiliation and put these subhumans back to where they belong again, or we all go lights out. But we will never have to worry about muh Visegrad, since we all know it is bullshit and the smarter slavs will never trust the kike puppets called “czechs” and poland.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Fox
    @Munga Bulga

    Chauvinist Slavic -i.e., Polish and Czech - covetousness has led to the downfall of Europe. This covetousness was used by England and France to achieve their own goals, but it has backfired, now we are all in a big mess.

    Replies: @Fufu
  • Fox says:
    May 11, 2022 at 4:37 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Franklin Ryckaert
    @Fox

    Exaggerated historical ethnic claims are always a sign of an ethnic inferiority complex.

    Consider for example Afrocentrism which not only claims that the ancient Egyptians were black, but also that the ancient Greeks derived all their culture from those "black" Egyptians, and that thus European culture has black roots. And of course farao Echnaton, Cleopatra and Hannibal were also black ("because they were African").This is of course an attempt at compensating an ethnic inferiority complex of black Africans, who never created a high culture.

    This Serb obviously suffers from a similar ethnic inferiority complex. What is the contribution of Serbs to European culture? Very little (if anything), hence the need to compensate.

    Replies: @Commentator Mike, @Fox

    I thought of the current Afrocentricism in leftist PC ideologising as well. It leaves out the answer to the obvious question: Why are there no traces of a once-flourishing culture in Black Africa? Likewise, the Serb with the name ‘anon’ ought to wonder why the Serbs would have retreated into the obscurity of a little area at the lower Danube after dominating most of Europe, as he says. However, there is one Serb you will know, Nikola Tesla, and yet, he needed to go abroad to succeed: He studied engineering in Germany and became the amazing inventor in the United States. He had to leave the confines of Serbia to become a notable element in the modern world.
    Exaggerated depictions of former glory and might suggest that they are a compensation for a lack of such power in the world, or an expression of resentment.

  • Fox says:
    May 10, 2022 at 5:50 pm GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @karel
    @Fox


    The “370000†Czechs you say were kicked out from the German provinces: Did they move into these areas in the years from 1919 to 1938 as promoted for the purposes of disrupting the German communities, expropriate German industries (such as the glass industry or mining) and establish a presence there by the government in Prague?
    �
    The same old nazi fables. Well, I am not certain how many moved there before 1938, but you are trying to insinuate that is fine to terrorize and expell people because they have lived say, in Karlovy Vary for only ten years? Most german-speaking jews, german communists and social democrats escaped with the Czechs to avoid being arrested or murdered. Not every German was a nazi in those days.

    A stipulation of the Munich agreement was that Czechs who wanted to stay and become citizens of the Reich could choose.

    Where is it written in the treaty? I cannot find it in the text bellow.

    Agreement concluded at Munich, September 29, 1938, between Germany, Great Britain, France and Italy

    GERMANY, the United Kingdom, France and Italy, taking into consideration the agreement, which has been already reached in principle for the cession to Germany of the Sudeten German territory, have agreed on the following terms and conditions governing the said cession and the measures consequent thereon, and by this agreement they each hold themselves responsible for the steps necessary to secure its fulfilment:

    (1) The evacuation will begin on 1st October.

    (2) The United Kingdom, France and Italy agree that the evacuation of the territory shall be completed by the 10th October, without any existing installations having been destroyed, and that the Czechoslovak Government will be held responsible for carrying out the evacuation without damage to the said installations.

    (3) The conditions governing the evacuation will be laid down in detail by an international commission composed of representatives of Germany, the United Kingdom, France, Italy and Czechoslovakia.

    (4) The occupation by stages of the predominantly German territory by German troops will begin on 1st October. The four territories marked on the attached map will be occupied by German troops in the following order:

    The territory marked No. I on the 1st and 2nd of October; the territory marked No. II on the 2nd and 3rd of October; the territory marked No. III on the 3rd, 4th and 5th of October; the territory marked No. IV on the 6th and 7th of October. The remaining territory of preponderantly German character will be ascertained by the aforesaid international commission forthwith and be occupied by German troops by the 10th of October.

    (5) The international commission referred to in paragraph 3 will determine the territories in which a plebiscite is to be held. These territories will be occupied by international bodies until the plebiscite has been completed. The same commission will fix the conditions in which the plebiscite is to be held, taking as a basis the conditions of the Saar plebiscite. The commission will also fix a date, not later than the end of November, on which the plebiscite will be held.

    (6) The final determination of the frontiers will be carried out by the international commission. The commission will also be entitled to recommend to the four Powers, Germany, the United Kingdom, France and Italy, in certain exceptional cases, minor modifications in the strictly ethnographical determination of the zones which are to be transferred without plebiscite.

    (7) There will be a right of option into and out of the transferred territories, the option to be exercised within six months from the date of this agreement. A German-Czechoslovak commission shall determine the details of the option, consider ways of facilitating the transfer of population and settle questions of principle arising out of the said transfer.

    (8) The Czechoslovak Government will within a period of four weeks from the date of this agreement release from their military and police forces any Sudeten Germans who may wish to be released, and the Czechoslovak Government will within the same period release Sudeten German prisoners who are serving terms of imprisonment for political offences.
    Munich, September 29, 1938.
    ADOLF HITLER,
    NEVILLE CHAMBERLAIN,
    EDOUARD DALADIER,
    BENITO MUSSOLINI.


    It is easy to catch you while lying. Not everyone is as stupid as you. Furthermore, to become a German was not as easy as you pretend , but Czechs just did not want to be Germans. Geddit?, as Glenda Slagg of Private Eye used to say.

    I would also like to know about “the whole regions in Bohemia that were emptiedâ€. I think that especially for Americans with their concept of vast spaces it is not immediately clear just how small the space you are talking about is.
    �
    Aha, so land expropriation was ok, if done on a small scale. The germans would have stolen much more if there was more land to steal like in there is in the USA. Geddit? Using this technique of land theft about a fifth of Okinawa is now covered by US military bases. Have you ever heard of Diego Garcia?

    https://i1.wp.com/eggbananatravels.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/08/military_bases_in_okinawa.jpg

    The Munich agreement is still a valid international treaty, by the way.
    �
    It may be your opinion but it is another lie. If I may conclude this, it must be clear to all, but the very stupid, that there are lies or confabulations in every sentence of yours and I have no time to deal with all of this.

    Replies: @Fox

    I am sorry for you that you feel so smart and clever. What leads you to this opinion of yourself?
    What remains is that you and the people of your mindset will have to live with the incessant, whispering little voice in your mind that tells you over and over again that you put the torch to the world in order to titillate your organ of fanaticism and that your pathetic selfishness has initiated the chain of events that now lets us all stare in the abyss.
    And ahead of you stretches the future that promises you the same, and your old alliances will fade away, just as the might of the countries which signed these alliances will fade way, yet you will still be the neighbor of the people you so fanatically wronged.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Munga Bulga
    @Fox

    >expecting the most inferior, low IQ subset of Europeans to be capable of self instropection

    These subhumans are not capable of real philosophy or moral developement. Lets put their war mongering and barking in the 20th century on the side and look at the repetition of history before our eyes.

    Which cuntries in Europe ARE viruently pro USA/ZOG, begging pathetically for more nigger/spic mercenaries every year and threaten Europe with nuclear annihilation against the ruskies EVERY GODDAMN YEAR SINCE WE WERE BORN?

    The bohemian horde passed a law to put their own away for 3 years if they dare to speak against jewlensky's puppet government. You can't expect much from a loud mouthed cuntry of meth addicts and porn actresses.

    Honestly, like you said, either we survive this century of humiliation and put these subhumans back to where they belong again, or we all go lights out. But we will never have to worry about muh Visegrad, since we all know it is bullshit and the smarter slavs will never trust the kike puppets called "czechs" and poland.

    Replies: @Fox
  • So, the Christian West once regarded Slavic peoples as unredeemed pagans. For this reason, the Christian West’s prohibition of slavery(among Christians) didn’t apply to pagan Slavs who were regarded as lowly heathens. The fact that the term ‘slave’ derives from ‘Slav’ is sure indication of the massive scale of the slave trade involving Slavs. Christian West and Jews sold millions of Slavs to North Africa and Near East. For much of Western and Central European history, the Slavs were regarded as barbarians, the last ones to be civilized and converted to Christianity.

    What on earth are you talking about? The Slavs had been Christian for nearly half a millennium by the time that the Teutonic Knights launched their crusade against the last significant holdouts of tribalism and paganism in Europe.

  • @Franklin Ryckaert
    @Fox

    Exaggerated historical ethnic claims are always a sign of an ethnic inferiority complex.

    Consider for example Afrocentrism which not only claims that the ancient Egyptians were black, but also that the ancient Greeks derived all their culture from those "black" Egyptians, and that thus European culture has black roots. And of course farao Echnaton, Cleopatra and Hannibal were also black ("because they were African").This is of course an attempt at compensating an ethnic inferiority complex of black Africans, who never created a high culture.

    This Serb obviously suffers from a similar ethnic inferiority complex. What is the contribution of Serbs to European culture? Very little (if anything), hence the need to compensate.

    Replies: @Commentator Mike, @Fox

    Maybe Odussey exaggerates some but by Serbian he implies those originating from the land of present day Serbia (and we could include medieval German Serbia also called Sorbia) going back all the way into prehistory.

    Now we could debate the ethnicity and genetics of all these people, and as people come and go, move, settle, conquer they could be quite mixed by now. Many historians assume that when one people conquers or settles in a land that they replace (genocide or ethnically cleanse) those who were there before and that is often not true, if you look at very few Mongols and Huns remaining in that region today although some of their genes sure did remain but were greatly diluted and mixed in with the locals. Many peoples were able to keep their own ethnic distinctions and distinct languages and folklores although some may have evolved or adopted those of their neighbours. Odyssey seems to think that they are all, more or less, ethnically Serbs some of whom adopted foreign languages and cultures so becoming distinct but that originally they were one people. I’m not quite sure about that but there is some sense in assuming that the ancient people living there did not disappear but that settlers over the ages just added their own, like the Ottoman Turks did too while they ruled those lands.

  • Odyssey says:
    May 10, 2022 at 10:51 am GMT •ï¿½400 Words

    ,

    Why you guys don’t say something specific to discuss this? For example, is it true that Prussians are germanised Serbs or not? Is it true that Serbs founded e.g. Berlin and gave the name? Is it true that Leibniz was a Serb or not? Is it true that Serbs are indigenous European people who originated in the oldest and highest culture in Europe? Is it true that Serbian language succeeded ancient Vincha language, several 000 years old and that is older than Greek, Latin and Hebrew? Is it true that Yamnaya nomads (the ancestors of modern w.European) came to Europe in 2800-2500BC. They did not know for metals, agriculture, houses, literacy, while indigenous people 5K before them had the first industrial revolution, gold processing, agriculture, multistorey temples, cosmetics, buildings, trades, literacy, calendar? Is it true that Aryans were proto-Slavics who brought the language (which became Sanskrit), Rg Veda and mythology to India and where 16% of Indians today have their genes?

    What is the contribution of Serbs to European culture? Vincha was a cradle of European civilisation? Have you heard about Lepenski Vir and Vincha? Who were Alexander the Great, Spartacus and dozens of Serbian Roman Emperors (Constantine, who legalised Christianity, Diocletian, Justinian who built St. Sophia and introduced the Roman Law which is still the basis for Euro legal system, except England)?

    Nikola Tesla changed the stream of human civilisation. What do you need more? Sports? Who were world champions in basketball, volleyball, water polo, handball, tennis, etc? Who plays basketball in NBA apart from Afro-Americans? If you guys knew G of genetics you would knew almost all previous. Serbian University professors can establish two universities in US and Canada. Do you have 1000+ years old monasteries and churches? Why don’t you tell us about your backgrounds to compare our notes and to see what is your contribution?

    OilcanFloyd> At some moment in time, the border was on the river Rhine. Can you tell us when Germans came to Europe and where from? Do you agree that all toponyms in East Germany and Baltic were Serbian (Germans started printing old historical maps with these toponyms)? Who gave the name to Germans? Who gave the name to Greeks?

    •ï¿½Replies: @Fox
    @Odyssey

    I don't know about the things you are presenting as established facts. I consider it very probable that the Sorbs living in a small area in Central Germany have their name not from the Serbs; a similarity of a name does not imply one origin. The Germans (who were many different tribes) came from the East and if I remember correctly, it was thought that the Germanic tribes had their origin Scandinavia.
    Such considerations are interesting, but they establish neither an ownership of land, nor any 'rightful dominion', nor a direct descendency. If 1500 years ago the Ostrigoths, a Germanic tribe, were settled in the Ukraine and then left on a long migration to the west, this does not establish that the Ukraine is Germanic. There is a remarkable number of words which occur both in Slavic and Germanic languages, suggesting that Slaves ad Germanics have had close contact, perhaps even a common origin in the past. When one looks at people from the East, one does get that idea.
    Why, in your opinion, did the Serbs quit all of the land you say they had inhabited?

    Replies: @Commentator Mike
  • @Fox
    @Odyssey

    You must be the anonymous who offered this piece of imaginative story about two weeks ago. Your version is the same as the one the Poles presented at Versailles, according to them, a good part of Europe had been Polish in the past. Now it's Servian. I don't know how to take it, who lived in these Servian areas before the Serbs came? Did the Poles and French and Romans etc. also take the rightfully Servish lands? What about the Bulgars or Greeks?

    Replies: @Franklin Ryckaert

    Exaggerated historical ethnic claims are always a sign of an ethnic inferiority complex.

    Consider for example Afrocentrism which not only claims that the ancient Egyptians were black, but also that the ancient Greeks derived all their culture from those “black” Egyptians, and that thus European culture has black roots. And of course farao Echnaton, Cleopatra and Hannibal were also black (“because they were African”).This is of course an attempt at compensating an ethnic inferiority complex of black Africans, who never created a high culture.

    This Serb obviously suffers from a similar ethnic inferiority complex. What is the contribution of Serbs to European culture? Very little (if anything), hence the need to compensate.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Commentator Mike
    @Franklin Ryckaert

    Maybe Odussey exaggerates some but by Serbian he implies those originating from the land of present day Serbia (and we could include medieval German Serbia also called Sorbia) going back all the way into prehistory.

    Now we could debate the ethnicity and genetics of all these people, and as people come and go, move, settle, conquer they could be quite mixed by now. Many historians assume that when one people conquers or settles in a land that they replace (genocide or ethnically cleanse) those who were there before and that is often not true, if you look at very few Mongols and Huns remaining in that region today although some of their genes sure did remain but were greatly diluted and mixed in with the locals. Many peoples were able to keep their own ethnic distinctions and distinct languages and folklores although some may have evolved or adopted those of their neighbours. Odyssey seems to think that they are all, more or less, ethnically Serbs some of whom adopted foreign languages and cultures so becoming distinct but that originally they were one people. I'm not quite sure about that but there is some sense in assuming that the ancient people living there did not disappear but that settlers over the ages just added their own, like the Ottoman Turks did too while they ruled those lands.
    , @Fox
    @Franklin Ryckaert

    I thought of the current Afrocentricism in leftist PC ideologising as well. It leaves out the answer to the obvious question: Why are there no traces of a once-flourishing culture in Black Africa? Likewise, the Serb with the name 'anon' ought to wonder why the Serbs would have retreated into the obscurity of a little area at the lower Danube after dominating most of Europe, as he says. However, there is one Serb you will know, Nikola Tesla, and yet, he needed to go abroad to succeed: He studied engineering in Germany and became the amazing inventor in the United States. He had to leave the confines of Serbia to become a notable element in the modern world.
    Exaggerated depictions of former glory and might suggest that they are a compensation for a lack of such power in the world, or an expression of resentment.
  • @Odyssey
    @Fox

    The original Germans’ land was in today’s France, on the west side of the Rhine river, which was the historical border between Serbs and Germans. Over time, Germans conquered today’s Germany, especially East Germany which was the Serbian land. All old East Germany’s toponyms were Serbian (Berlin, Dresden, Leipzig, Brandenburg, etc). Germans destroyed Serbian Baltic kingdoms/principalities and also fought Polish. Prussians are germanised Serbs who gave today’s Germans their typical (Aryans) physiognomy.

    So, Germans have no rights to complain that someone took their territory. They germanised and conducted genocides on indigenous Serbs. The last genocide was by Hitler who exterminated the most of pre-war Serbs in Germany. The paradox is that Serbs had a big role in the development of Germany – Bismarck united Germany, Leibniz founded the German Academy of Science, Martin Luther founded the Protestant Church, Empress Catherine II was also a Serb…

    Replies: @Fox, @OilcanFloyd

    The Roman’s spoke of the Germanic tribes being east of the Rhine, and the ancestors of the Germanic tribes entered Europe from the east, so it’s pretty much a given that the original homeland of the Germans was not west of the Rhine in what is now France.

  • karel says:
    May 10, 2022 at 9:36 am GMT •ï¿½900 Words
    @Fox
    @karel

    I suppose you leave much out of history. The "370000" Czechs you say were kicked out from the German provinces: Did they move into these areas in the years from 1919 to 1938 as promoted for the purposes of disrupting the German communities, expropriate German industries (such as the glass industry or mining) and establish a presence there by the government in Prague? A stipulation of the Munich agreement was that Czechs who wanted to stay and become citizens of the Reich could choose. I would also like to know about "the whole regions in Bohemia that were emptied". I think that especially for Americans with their concept of vast spaces it is not immediately clear just how small the space you are talking about is. In any case, the Czech state as existing between 1939 and 1945 was not part of Germany, but existed as a protectorate, I think Puerto Rico and Guam are protectorates of the US, to provide a point of reference.
    A Frenchman, Pierre-Antoine Cousteau characterized "Czecho-Slovakia" in Les originals secrêtes de la guerre 1939-1945 as a "nonsensical geographical harlequinade without the least historical or economical justification". That was in 1957. Since the time since 1945, the Czechs were killing the Slovak leaders Tiso and Tuka on the gallows for dissolving the forced membership in Benes' and Masaryk's "Czecho-Slovakia" and re-occupying the independent state of Slovakia. Remarkable, don't you agree?! I thought that you were so much for respecting other nations' independence, and Slovakia wasn't even in a military alliance to act as an airplane carrier, such as Czecho-Slovakia was to act in the various pacts it made under Czech leadership. However, by now the Slovaks re-opened the book on "Czecho-Slovakia" and decided on a divorce from this unhappy and forced marriage with a dictatorial and fanatical spouse.
    The Munich agreement is still a valid international treaty, by the way.
    The decision to make a pact with far-away powers to establish through a conflict, crowned by a murder spree of unimaginable extent, one's "independence" left out the possibility that these far-away powers might falter, lose interest or make another horse trade with someone else, and it also didn't take into account that the neighbor so brutalized will always be there, even in a hundred , or two hundred years.

    Replies: @karel

    The “370000†Czechs you say were kicked out from the German provinces: Did they move into these areas in the years from 1919 to 1938 as promoted for the purposes of disrupting the German communities, expropriate German industries (such as the glass industry or mining) and establish a presence there by the government in Prague?

    The same old nazi fables. Well, I am not certain how many moved there before 1938, but you are trying to insinuate that is fine to terrorize and expell people because they have lived say, in Karlovy Vary for only ten years? Most german-speaking jews, german communists and social democrats escaped with the Czechs to avoid being arrested or murdered. Not every German was a nazi in those days.

    A stipulation of the Munich agreement was that Czechs who wanted to stay and become citizens of the Reich could choose.

    Where is it written in the treaty? I cannot find it in the text bellow.

    Agreement concluded at Munich, September 29, 1938, between Germany, Great Britain, France and Italy

    [MORE]

    GERMANY, the United Kingdom, France and Italy, taking into consideration the agreement, which has been already reached in principle for the cession to Germany of the Sudeten German territory, have agreed on the following terms and conditions governing the said cession and the measures consequent thereon, and by this agreement they each hold themselves responsible for the steps necessary to secure its fulfilment:

    (1) The evacuation will begin on 1st October.

    (2) The United Kingdom, France and Italy agree that the evacuation of the territory shall be completed by the 10th October, without any existing installations having been destroyed, and that the Czechoslovak Government will be held responsible for carrying out the evacuation without damage to the said installations.

    (3) The conditions governing the evacuation will be laid down in detail by an international commission composed of representatives of Germany, the United Kingdom, France, Italy and Czechoslovakia.

    (4) The occupation by stages of the predominantly German territory by German troops will begin on 1st October. The four territories marked on the attached map will be occupied by German troops in the following order:

    The territory marked No. I on the 1st and 2nd of October; the territory marked No. II on the 2nd and 3rd of October; the territory marked No. III on the 3rd, 4th and 5th of October; the territory marked No. IV on the 6th and 7th of October. The remaining territory of preponderantly German character will be ascertained by the aforesaid international commission forthwith and be occupied by German troops by the 10th of October.

    (5) The international commission referred to in paragraph 3 will determine the territories in which a plebiscite is to be held. These territories will be occupied by international bodies until the plebiscite has been completed. The same commission will fix the conditions in which the plebiscite is to be held, taking as a basis the conditions of the Saar plebiscite. The commission will also fix a date, not later than the end of November, on which the plebiscite will be held.

    (6) The final determination of the frontiers will be carried out by the international commission. The commission will also be entitled to recommend to the four Powers, Germany, the United Kingdom, France and Italy, in certain exceptional cases, minor modifications in the strictly ethnographical determination of the zones which are to be transferred without plebiscite.

    (7) There will be a right of option into and out of the transferred territories, the option to be exercised within six months from the date of this agreement. A German-Czechoslovak commission shall determine the details of the option, consider ways of facilitating the transfer of population and settle questions of principle arising out of the said transfer.

    (8) The Czechoslovak Government will within a period of four weeks from the date of this agreement release from their military and police forces any Sudeten Germans who may wish to be released, and the Czechoslovak Government will within the same period release Sudeten German prisoners who are serving terms of imprisonment for political offences.
    Munich, September 29, 1938.
    ADOLF HITLER,
    NEVILLE CHAMBERLAIN,
    EDOUARD DALADIER,
    BENITO MUSSOLINI.

    It is easy to catch you while lying. Not everyone is as stupid as you. Furthermore, to become a German was not as easy as you pretend , but Czechs just did not want to be Germans. Geddit?, as Glenda Slagg of Private Eye used to say.

    I would also like to know about “the whole regions in Bohemia that were emptiedâ€. I think that especially for Americans with their concept of vast spaces it is not immediately clear just how small the space you are talking about is.

    Aha, so land expropriation was ok, if done on a small scale. The germans would have stolen much more if there was more land to steal like in there is in the USA. Geddit? Using this technique of land theft about a fifth of Okinawa is now covered by US military bases. Have you ever heard of Diego Garcia?

    The Munich agreement is still a valid international treaty, by the way.

    It may be your opinion but it is another lie. If I may conclude this, it must be clear to all, but the very stupid, that there are lies or confabulations in every sentence of yours and I have no time to deal with all of this.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Fox
    @karel

    I am sorry for you that you feel so smart and clever. What leads you to this opinion of yourself?
    What remains is that you and the people of your mindset will have to live with the incessant, whispering little voice in your mind that tells you over and over again that you put the torch to the world in order to titillate your organ of fanaticism and that your pathetic selfishness has initiated the chain of events that now lets us all stare in the abyss.
    And ahead of you stretches the future that promises you the same, and your old alliances will fade away, just as the might of the countries which signed these alliances will fade way, yet you will still be the neighbor of the people you so fanatically wronged.

    Replies: @Munga Bulga
  • Fox says:
    May 10, 2022 at 5:22 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Odyssey
    @Fox

    The original Germans’ land was in today’s France, on the west side of the Rhine river, which was the historical border between Serbs and Germans. Over time, Germans conquered today’s Germany, especially East Germany which was the Serbian land. All old East Germany’s toponyms were Serbian (Berlin, Dresden, Leipzig, Brandenburg, etc). Germans destroyed Serbian Baltic kingdoms/principalities and also fought Polish. Prussians are germanised Serbs who gave today’s Germans their typical (Aryans) physiognomy.

    So, Germans have no rights to complain that someone took their territory. They germanised and conducted genocides on indigenous Serbs. The last genocide was by Hitler who exterminated the most of pre-war Serbs in Germany. The paradox is that Serbs had a big role in the development of Germany – Bismarck united Germany, Leibniz founded the German Academy of Science, Martin Luther founded the Protestant Church, Empress Catherine II was also a Serb…

    Replies: @Fox, @OilcanFloyd

    You must be the anonymous who offered this piece of imaginative story about two weeks ago. Your version is the same as the one the Poles presented at Versailles, according to them, a good part of Europe had been Polish in the past. Now it’s Servian. I don’t know how to take it, who lived in these Servian areas before the Serbs came? Did the Poles and French and Romans etc. also take the rightfully Servish lands? What about the Bulgars or Greeks?

    •ï¿½Replies: @Franklin Ryckaert
    @Fox

    Exaggerated historical ethnic claims are always a sign of an ethnic inferiority complex.

    Consider for example Afrocentrism which not only claims that the ancient Egyptians were black, but also that the ancient Greeks derived all their culture from those "black" Egyptians, and that thus European culture has black roots. And of course farao Echnaton, Cleopatra and Hannibal were also black ("because they were African").This is of course an attempt at compensating an ethnic inferiority complex of black Africans, who never created a high culture.

    This Serb obviously suffers from a similar ethnic inferiority complex. What is the contribution of Serbs to European culture? Very little (if anything), hence the need to compensate.

    Replies: @Commentator Mike, @Fox
  • Odyssey says:
    May 10, 2022 at 2:11 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Fox
    @Anon 2

    Germany's territory has shrunk continuously over the last 600 years and is now perhaps a third of what it was then. Every neighbor, in the North, in the South, in the East and in the West has taken a bite out of it or undermining its unity. It was an easy task to make pacts between the neighbor surrounding Germany, attack and share the booty. Even the Americans from across the ocean joined in the fray to help divide up Germany.

    As an addition to your statement that many Scots were emigrating to Poland, I'll mention the interesting comment in Francis Neilson's Volume 6 of his Tragedy of Europe, namely that in 1939 there lived more people of Scottish descent in Danzig than Poles. A commentary that highlights nicely with what kind of neighbors Germany had (and has) to contend, as in 1939 Poland claimed the German city of Danzig as a Polish city.

    Replies: @Odyssey

    The original Germans’ land was in today’s France, on the west side of the Rhine river, which was the historical border between Serbs and Germans. Over time, Germans conquered today’s Germany, especially East Germany which was the Serbian land. All old East Germany’s toponyms were Serbian (Berlin, Dresden, Leipzig, Brandenburg, etc). Germans destroyed Serbian Baltic kingdoms/principalities and also fought Polish. Prussians are germanised Serbs who gave today’s Germans their typical (Aryans) physiognomy.

    So, Germans have no rights to complain that someone took their territory. They germanised and conducted genocides on indigenous Serbs. The last genocide was by Hitler who exterminated the most of pre-war Serbs in Germany. The paradox is that Serbs had a big role in the development of Germany – Bismarck united Germany, Leibniz founded the German Academy of Science, Martin Luther founded the Protestant Church, Empress Catherine II was also a Serb…

    •ï¿½Replies: @Fox
    @Odyssey

    You must be the anonymous who offered this piece of imaginative story about two weeks ago. Your version is the same as the one the Poles presented at Versailles, according to them, a good part of Europe had been Polish in the past. Now it's Servian. I don't know how to take it, who lived in these Servian areas before the Serbs came? Did the Poles and French and Romans etc. also take the rightfully Servish lands? What about the Bulgars or Greeks?

    Replies: @Franklin Ryckaert
    , @OilcanFloyd
    @Odyssey

    The Roman's spoke of the Germanic tribes being east of the Rhine, and the ancestors of the Germanic tribes entered Europe from the east, so it's pretty much a given that the original homeland of the Germans was not west of the Rhine in what is now France.
  • Fox says:
    May 10, 2022 at 1:21 am GMT •ï¿½400 Words
    @karel
    @Pratt

    I guess that you know nothing about history. After Munich treaty in 1938 the Nazis evicted almost all Czechs (about 370000) from the Novogermania. They would have kicked out more, had there been more. How many have to be expelled to justify the description of genocide? During the Protectorate the occupants emptied whole regions in Bohemia (e.g. SedlÄansko) to settle there all kinds of Volksdeutsche coming in their horse carriages from the East. This gradual process of land expropriation is what we have seen and still see in Palestine.

    Talking about robots, you probably meant Germans who have been convinced throughout centuries that everything east of the Böhmerwald belongs to them. Are you so ignorant or just spewing nazi propaganda to win some kind of ukroprize from Zelensky?

    Replies: @Fox

    I suppose you leave much out of history. The “370000” Czechs you say were kicked out from the German provinces: Did they move into these areas in the years from 1919 to 1938 as promoted for the purposes of disrupting the German communities, expropriate German industries (such as the glass industry or mining) and establish a presence there by the government in Prague? A stipulation of the Munich agreement was that Czechs who wanted to stay and become citizens of the Reich could choose. I would also like to know about “the whole regions in Bohemia that were emptied”. I think that especially for Americans with their concept of vast spaces it is not immediately clear just how small the space you are talking about is. In any case, the Czech state as existing between 1939 and 1945 was not part of Germany, but existed as a protectorate, I think Puerto Rico and Guam are protectorates of the US, to provide a point of reference.
    A Frenchman, Pierre-Antoine Cousteau characterized “Czecho-Slovakia” in Les originals secrêtes de la guerre 1939-1945 as a “nonsensical geographical harlequinade without the least historical or economical justification”. That was in 1957. Since the time since 1945, the Czechs were killing the Slovak leaders Tiso and Tuka on the gallows for dissolving the forced membership in Benes’ and Masaryk’s “Czecho-Slovakia” and re-occupying the independent state of Slovakia. Remarkable, don’t you agree?! I thought that you were so much for respecting other nations’ independence, and Slovakia wasn’t even in a military alliance to act as an airplane carrier, such as Czecho-Slovakia was to act in the various pacts it made under Czech leadership. However, by now the Slovaks re-opened the book on “Czecho-Slovakia” and decided on a divorce from this unhappy and forced marriage with a dictatorial and fanatical spouse.
    The Munich agreement is still a valid international treaty, by the way.
    The decision to make a pact with far-away powers to establish through a conflict, crowned by a murder spree of unimaginable extent, one’s “independence” left out the possibility that these far-away powers might falter, lose interest or make another horse trade with someone else, and it also didn’t take into account that the neighbor so brutalized will always be there, even in a hundred , or two hundred years.

    •ï¿½Replies: @karel
    @Fox


    The “370000†Czechs you say were kicked out from the German provinces: Did they move into these areas in the years from 1919 to 1938 as promoted for the purposes of disrupting the German communities, expropriate German industries (such as the glass industry or mining) and establish a presence there by the government in Prague?
    �
    The same old nazi fables. Well, I am not certain how many moved there before 1938, but you are trying to insinuate that is fine to terrorize and expell people because they have lived say, in Karlovy Vary for only ten years? Most german-speaking jews, german communists and social democrats escaped with the Czechs to avoid being arrested or murdered. Not every German was a nazi in those days.

    A stipulation of the Munich agreement was that Czechs who wanted to stay and become citizens of the Reich could choose.

    Where is it written in the treaty? I cannot find it in the text bellow.

    Agreement concluded at Munich, September 29, 1938, between Germany, Great Britain, France and Italy

    GERMANY, the United Kingdom, France and Italy, taking into consideration the agreement, which has been already reached in principle for the cession to Germany of the Sudeten German territory, have agreed on the following terms and conditions governing the said cession and the measures consequent thereon, and by this agreement they each hold themselves responsible for the steps necessary to secure its fulfilment:

    (1) The evacuation will begin on 1st October.

    (2) The United Kingdom, France and Italy agree that the evacuation of the territory shall be completed by the 10th October, without any existing installations having been destroyed, and that the Czechoslovak Government will be held responsible for carrying out the evacuation without damage to the said installations.

    (3) The conditions governing the evacuation will be laid down in detail by an international commission composed of representatives of Germany, the United Kingdom, France, Italy and Czechoslovakia.

    (4) The occupation by stages of the predominantly German territory by German troops will begin on 1st October. The four territories marked on the attached map will be occupied by German troops in the following order:

    The territory marked No. I on the 1st and 2nd of October; the territory marked No. II on the 2nd and 3rd of October; the territory marked No. III on the 3rd, 4th and 5th of October; the territory marked No. IV on the 6th and 7th of October. The remaining territory of preponderantly German character will be ascertained by the aforesaid international commission forthwith and be occupied by German troops by the 10th of October.

    (5) The international commission referred to in paragraph 3 will determine the territories in which a plebiscite is to be held. These territories will be occupied by international bodies until the plebiscite has been completed. The same commission will fix the conditions in which the plebiscite is to be held, taking as a basis the conditions of the Saar plebiscite. The commission will also fix a date, not later than the end of November, on which the plebiscite will be held.

    (6) The final determination of the frontiers will be carried out by the international commission. The commission will also be entitled to recommend to the four Powers, Germany, the United Kingdom, France and Italy, in certain exceptional cases, minor modifications in the strictly ethnographical determination of the zones which are to be transferred without plebiscite.

    (7) There will be a right of option into and out of the transferred territories, the option to be exercised within six months from the date of this agreement. A German-Czechoslovak commission shall determine the details of the option, consider ways of facilitating the transfer of population and settle questions of principle arising out of the said transfer.

    (8) The Czechoslovak Government will within a period of four weeks from the date of this agreement release from their military and police forces any Sudeten Germans who may wish to be released, and the Czechoslovak Government will within the same period release Sudeten German prisoners who are serving terms of imprisonment for political offences.
    Munich, September 29, 1938.
    ADOLF HITLER,
    NEVILLE CHAMBERLAIN,
    EDOUARD DALADIER,
    BENITO MUSSOLINI.


    It is easy to catch you while lying. Not everyone is as stupid as you. Furthermore, to become a German was not as easy as you pretend , but Czechs just did not want to be Germans. Geddit?, as Glenda Slagg of Private Eye used to say.

    I would also like to know about “the whole regions in Bohemia that were emptiedâ€. I think that especially for Americans with their concept of vast spaces it is not immediately clear just how small the space you are talking about is.
    �
    Aha, so land expropriation was ok, if done on a small scale. The germans would have stolen much more if there was more land to steal like in there is in the USA. Geddit? Using this technique of land theft about a fifth of Okinawa is now covered by US military bases. Have you ever heard of Diego Garcia?

    https://i1.wp.com/eggbananatravels.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/08/military_bases_in_okinawa.jpg

    The Munich agreement is still a valid international treaty, by the way.
    �
    It may be your opinion but it is another lie. If I may conclude this, it must be clear to all, but the very stupid, that there are lies or confabulations in every sentence of yours and I have no time to deal with all of this.

    Replies: @Fox
  • @Staudegger
    This article is more Freud than Jung. First of all, Slavs are Aryans. Aryans literally came from the Pontic Steppe. There is no conflict between Aryans and Slavs. Secondly, the Germans never committed genocide against Slavs. The National Socialists didn't hate Slavs, they literally had entire divisions of Slavs in the SS. The only people who committed genocide against Slavs were Jews and the only people who today continue to hate Slavs are Jews, and it's purely for racial reasons.

    Replies: @Marcion

    I don’t know whether to believe you or Freud -Jung’s opposite view. Somebody clear this up, please.

  • anon[209] •ï¿½Disclaimer says:

    The “slave” thing started with Turks. Ukrainians have some Asian blood too.

  • @James J O'Meara
    @Here Be Dragon


    Delusions of grandeur, as usual. You, the Christian West were the true barbarians. You learned science from the Arabs and forgot what the Greeks had taught.
    �
    Indeed. Byzantium was the true HQ of the Christian church, most of which was in the East (Antioch, etc., and as far as China), a fact buried by the Islamic conquest, which, after Constantinople was betrayed and sacked by the Pope and his pet "Holy Roman" Emperor, under the guise of a "crusade" to "liberate" the Holy Land (some things never change), left only a rump church of barely converted barbarians to claim to be "Christendom".

    Constantinople was also the center of what remained of Greek wisdom, which only flowed West after the aforementioned sacking of Constantinople, leading to the Renaissance and, you know, the modern world. Otherwise, we'd likely be living in mud huts and dominated by loony priests. Sort of like Africa.

    All this is either forgotten, or denied, or just not taught, or buried beneath the Islamic conquest, or attributed to the Arabs (anything rather than admit the existence of Constantinople; guilty much?)

    In fact, the chronological revisionists discussed here on Unz have proposed that ROME NEVER EXISTED, only Constantinople, and the whole story of Rome and the Western Empire was fabricated by Emperor Otto, retconning events from the true history of Byzantium.

    You Unz people should get together and get your stories straight, this back and forth is too confusing.

    Replies: @Poco, @Goonty

    Ah yes, the New Chronology, pioneered by a totally-Western guy named Anatoly Fomenko.

  • anon[164] •ï¿½Disclaimer says:
    May 9, 2022 at 7:11 pm GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Uncle Sam
    The word Slav has no connection whatsoever with slaves or slavery. That is a gross misconception. Depending on the Slavic language in question it can mean different things such as fame, greatness, glory, courage, nobility, a religious holiday, among things.

    The current war in Ukraine validates my point. The battle cry of the Ukrainians is "Slava Ukraina", which literally means "glory to Ukraine".

    People need to do their homework.

    Replies: @anon

    Yeah, it’s funny how that persists. “Slav” has nothing to do with “slave.” It’s a false cognate (I think that’s what they call it.) People with no background in other languages, which is true of most non-Spanish speaking people in the U.S., don’t always understand that. The words are not related.

  • karel says:
    May 9, 2022 at 6:57 pm GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Commentator Mike
    @karel

    I have been to the Balkans and Hungary but also I can tell the same countenance among East European and Russian residents in the West and their tourists I've seen in holiday locations around the world. I've no need to visit a Gypo camp but sure Gypsies seem much happier, laughing, dancing, singing, and generally fooling around. Look I'm not complaining but there seems to be this difference between western and Eastern Europeans, with exceptions. Of course there are grumpy and frowning Westerners too aplenty, and smiling happy East Europeans but it doesn't seem to be in their character to behave like say, Latin people and that's fine, that's the beauty of diversity.

    Replies: @karel

    If you come to Prague and buy me a drink I will smile at you. What more could you expect?

    The Reichsprotector Reinhard Heydrich had some appreciation of Czech humour that led him to describe his ”protected” inhabitans as “lachende Bestien”. Sadly, it failed to increase his popularity and he was assasinated in 1942.

  • English. Remember when their toddler daughter serenaded the visiting Xi with a traditional Chinese hymn of praise, in perfect (if childish-sounding) Mandarin? And Ivanka has converted to Judaism, taking the name Yael. They’re leaving the Trump family’s German-American heritage behind and joining what they believe will be the winning team.

  • Flo says:
    May 9, 2022 at 5:04 pm GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Emil Nikola Richard
    @Wokechoke

    Slava Ukraini indeed.

    Anyway the people who are on the top, many of whom are descended from Jews love antisemitism; and they are going to love reading this essay. I found it a little tiresome.

    Do you think Ivanka Trump's husband prays when he is alone or studies the Bible? Do you think any of their kids will?

    I'm pretty sure that her grandchildren will not. I doubt Jason or whatever his name is has done so for more than sixty seconds since his bar mitzvah. Pure speculation. I don't have any more of a window into the man's soul than jung freud does in any of his/her/its guises.

    Replies: @Flo

    The Trump grandkids are being taught Mandarin right alongside English. Remember when their toddler daughter serenaded the visiting Xi with a traditional Chinese hymn of praise, in perfect (if childish-sounding) Mandarin? And Ivanka has converted to Judaism, taking the name Yael. They’re leaving the Trump family’s German-American heritage behind and joining what they believe will be the winning team.

  • May 9, 2022 at 4:54 pm GMT •ï¿½100 Words

    This article is more Freud than Jung. First of all, Slavs are Aryans. Aryans literally came from the Pontic Steppe. There is no conflict between Aryans and Slavs. Secondly, the Germans never committed genocide against Slavs. The National Socialists didn’t hate Slavs, they literally had entire divisions of Slavs in the SS. The only people who committed genocide against Slavs were Jews and the only people who today continue to hate Slavs are Jews, and it’s purely for racial reasons.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Marcion
    @Staudegger

    I don't know whether to believe you or Freud -Jung's opposite view. Somebody clear this up, please.
  • Dule says:
    May 9, 2022 at 4:02 pm GMT •ï¿½200 Words

    It is not correct to say that at the time of the European invasion, led by Napoleon in 1812, Russia was the most backward part of Europe because it still had serfdom. Actually, at that time only two countries in Europe had abolished serfdom, France (in 1789) and Serbia (in 1804). All the rest retained some sort of it basically until 1848, mere 13 years before the emperor Alexander II’s proclamation. It is also worth noting that the Serbian uprising against the Turks that ended the feudalism in that country was fully endorsed and aided by Russia. So much so that the main achievements of the Serbian struggle, including the abolishment of the serfdom, were preserved by the Russia-Turkey peace treaty of Bucharest even after Serbia was temporarely occupied by the Turks after the Russian army retreated from the Balkans in 1812 because the ‘good and progressive liberator’ Napoleon invaded the ‘bad and backward’ Russia. Another interesting detail from this Serbian-Turkish war is the fact that the ‘backward Turks’ did not possess the state of the art artillery. It was immediately provided by the ‘good and progressive’ French, together with crews, officers, and technicians. These participated in several battles with the Serbs, attempting (unsuccessfully) to suppress their struggle for national freedom and emancipation from serfdom.

  • @Avery
    @Ron Unz

    {...and I’ve seen these sorts of claims floating around for years}

    Ron, in spite of Hitler's Table Talk, did Operation Intelligenzaktion -- whereby (reportedly) ~100,000 Polish intelligentsia were murdered by Nazi Einsatzgruppen -- happen or all the info about it is fake?
    Did it or did it not happen?

    That is just one example.
    There are many, many examples of what Nazi invaders actually did to the Slavic peoples (and others), despite what Hitler table-talked about.

    Did the Lidice massacre (...of women and children) happen or is it a myth?
    Did the Oradour-sur-Glane massacre (of French civilians, including women and children) happen or is it a myth?
    ................

    Replies: @Jon Halpenny, @bronek

    “Did the Lidice massacre (…of women and children) happen or is it a myth?”

    The Germans never denied Lidice. They admitted it.

  • karel says:
    May 9, 2022 at 2:25 pm GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Pratt
    @karel

    Karel,

    from your name (or chosen nick) I infer you are Czech. That assumption informs my following statements. Apologies in advance if my assumption is mistaken.

    Concerning the post-WWII ethnic cleansing of Germans from Eastern Europe you write: "Perhaps that was prize for their stupidity. If you loose money in a casino you can only blame yourself and not the white ball."

    Just to make sure I understand you correctly: Are you saying that the ethnic cleansing of Germans from Sudetenland specifically (how many were they? One million perhaps? Too lazy to google at the moment) happened with law-of-nature-like inevitability, without any moral calculus to be made on the part of the Czech authorities and population? That the Czech actors who drove out the Sudeten Germans out were mere automatons who could not possibly have acted otherwise, and whose actions therefore cannot come under moral scrutiny in any way?

    Replies: @karel

    I guess that you know nothing about history. After Munich treaty in 1938 the Nazis evicted almost all Czechs (about 370000) from the Novogermania. They would have kicked out more, had there been more. How many have to be expelled to justify the description of genocide? During the Protectorate the occupants emptied whole regions in Bohemia (e.g. SedlÄansko) to settle there all kinds of Volksdeutsche coming in their horse carriages from the East. This gradual process of land expropriation is what we have seen and still see in Palestine.

    Talking about robots, you probably meant Germans who have been convinced throughout centuries that everything east of the Böhmerwald belongs to them. Are you so ignorant or just spewing nazi propaganda to win some kind of ukroprize from Zelensky?

    •ï¿½Replies: @Fox
    @karel

    I suppose you leave much out of history. The "370000" Czechs you say were kicked out from the German provinces: Did they move into these areas in the years from 1919 to 1938 as promoted for the purposes of disrupting the German communities, expropriate German industries (such as the glass industry or mining) and establish a presence there by the government in Prague? A stipulation of the Munich agreement was that Czechs who wanted to stay and become citizens of the Reich could choose. I would also like to know about "the whole regions in Bohemia that were emptied". I think that especially for Americans with their concept of vast spaces it is not immediately clear just how small the space you are talking about is. In any case, the Czech state as existing between 1939 and 1945 was not part of Germany, but existed as a protectorate, I think Puerto Rico and Guam are protectorates of the US, to provide a point of reference.
    A Frenchman, Pierre-Antoine Cousteau characterized "Czecho-Slovakia" in Les originals secrêtes de la guerre 1939-1945 as a "nonsensical geographical harlequinade without the least historical or economical justification". That was in 1957. Since the time since 1945, the Czechs were killing the Slovak leaders Tiso and Tuka on the gallows for dissolving the forced membership in Benes' and Masaryk's "Czecho-Slovakia" and re-occupying the independent state of Slovakia. Remarkable, don't you agree?! I thought that you were so much for respecting other nations' independence, and Slovakia wasn't even in a military alliance to act as an airplane carrier, such as Czecho-Slovakia was to act in the various pacts it made under Czech leadership. However, by now the Slovaks re-opened the book on "Czecho-Slovakia" and decided on a divorce from this unhappy and forced marriage with a dictatorial and fanatical spouse.
    The Munich agreement is still a valid international treaty, by the way.
    The decision to make a pact with far-away powers to establish through a conflict, crowned by a murder spree of unimaginable extent, one's "independence" left out the possibility that these far-away powers might falter, lose interest or make another horse trade with someone else, and it also didn't take into account that the neighbor so brutalized will always be there, even in a hundred , or two hundred years.

    Replies: @karel
  • @karel
    @Commentator Mike

    Where have you been? East Europe is a hard to define entity. Perhaps you did seem amusing enough to the natives. Visit some gypsz camps man, or are you a woman?

    Replies: @Commentator Mike

    I have been to the Balkans and Hungary but also I can tell the same countenance among East European and Russian residents in the West and their tourists I’ve seen in holiday locations around the world. I’ve no need to visit a Gypo camp but sure Gypsies seem much happier, laughing, dancing, singing, and generally fooling around. Look I’m not complaining but there seems to be this difference between western and Eastern Europeans, with exceptions. Of course there are grumpy and frowning Westerners too aplenty, and smiling happy East Europeans but it doesn’t seem to be in their character to behave like say, Latin people and that’s fine, that’s the beauty of diversity.

    •ï¿½Replies: @karel
    @Commentator Mike

    If you come to Prague and buy me a drink I will smile at you. What more could you expect?

    The Reichsprotector Reinhard Heydrich had some appreciation of Czech humour that led him to describe his ''protected'' inhabitans as "lachende Bestien". Sadly, it failed to increase his popularity and he was assasinated in 1942.
  • karel says:
    May 9, 2022 at 1:56 pm GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Fox
    @karel

    I suppose it would be difficult for a German to have a laugh with a black-galled 'karel', desendant of Benes and Masaryk.

    Replies: @karel

    Very funny liÅ¡ko. Have to be careful with the diacritics as “lisko” means a lizard in Finnish. I read somewhere that laughing is infectious, does it affect you as well?

    I am a simple man and do not claim to be a descendant of any past or a living presidents. Do you take any pills to suppress confabulation?

  • @Commentator Mike
    @karel

    I noticed that East Europeans/Slavs tend to smile much less than Westerners or some Asians and often seem to have a sombre or serious countenance. A bloke told me once that only village fools and idiots go around smiling for no reason.

    Replies: @karel

    Where have you been? East Europe is a hard to define entity. Perhaps you did seem amusing enough to the natives. Visit some gypsz camps man, or are you a woman?

    •ï¿½Replies: @Commentator Mike
    @karel

    I have been to the Balkans and Hungary but also I can tell the same countenance among East European and Russian residents in the West and their tourists I've seen in holiday locations around the world. I've no need to visit a Gypo camp but sure Gypsies seem much happier, laughing, dancing, singing, and generally fooling around. Look I'm not complaining but there seems to be this difference between western and Eastern Europeans, with exceptions. Of course there are grumpy and frowning Westerners too aplenty, and smiling happy East Europeans but it doesn't seem to be in their character to behave like say, Latin people and that's fine, that's the beauty of diversity.

    Replies: @karel
  • @Bruce Waye
    Juat because Hitler had views of dominating the slavs doesn't prove that there was a genocide. It just reflects the slavs cultural achievements of that time, compared to where Hitler saw the Germans. So he was superior in his mind, i would say to Russians get over it, I think he would have a much greater respect in our time. But let's face it back then you weren't doing so well with the jews sitting on top of you as a communist state. And saying that "oh but Russia won the war so that's proof of who was actually greater", that also is dumb. The Russians had powerful allies, and also I believe that Stalin had the advantage in that he didn't care how many Russians got toasted in the scorched earth mode of fighting. Russia wants to blame it all on the Germans - hogwash.

    Replies: @Munga Bulga

    At least they are honest about not being real Christians. They built churches to venerate commie soldiers who massacred Christians! They still refuse to remove heeb lenin from the “mausoleum”, haha

    Devout Christians indeed.

  • Munga Bulga [AKA "HeebHunter"] says:
    May 9, 2022 at 12:04 pm GMT •ï¿½100 Words

    Funny how the slavs still worship kike lenin, mordechai levi and stalin then. They even built a cathedral with commie symbology.

    I pity these bunch tbh. Imagine calling yourself Christian and Commie at the same time. But this is why God has put the slavs for centuries at the place where they belong: cheap, drunken labor.

  • Dule says:
    May 9, 2022 at 9:54 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words
    @Anon 2
    Old Paradigm:

    Western Europe (non-Slavic): Good
    Eastern Europe (Slavic): Bad

    New Paradigm:

    Western Europe (and the US): Bad Why? Due to colonialism and slavery. The West is experiencing imperial blowback or racial reckoning. Colonialism was not primarily about resource extraction or territorial expansion. Modern (post-1500) Western European countries colonized pre-modern (often neolithic) societies. It was like shooting fish in a barrel. The dominant effect was humiliation, and humiliation is hard to forget or forgive. That’s why there is so much hatred toward whites today.

    Central Europe (Mostly Slavic but part of Western Christendom): Good It includes Poland, Czechia, Slovakia, Hungary, and possibly Lithuania, Slovenia, and Croatia. The triangle formed by Prague, Cracow, and Budapest is the heart of Central Europe. The countries within Central Europe like or even love each other. Poland and Hungary have been allies for at least 500 years. It’s even been said that the Polish like the Czechs a bit too much. None of the countries in Central Europe participated in colonialism or slavery, so unlike the West they feel no guilt in racial matters. No country in Central Europe is interested in opening its borders to illegal migrants, esp. Muslims and Africans.

    Eastern Europe (Slavic and part of Eastern Christendom): Bad It includes primarily Russia, Ukraine, and Belarus (to use modern terminology for regions that were never separate countries except very recently). A poor area with horrible history of tyranny and lawlessness, and not much to admire politically or economically.

    Due to racial reckoning raging in the West, for an American to land, for example, in Poland is to feel you’ve arrived from a Third World sh*thole into a country that’s truly civilized: cities are clean and safe, there is no urban blight, violent crime levels are very low, and almost everyone is white, and often blue-eyed blonde. Life expectancy in Poland is longer than in the U.S. There are no mass shootings or terrorist attacks. Moreover, Poland has consistently scored much higher on PISA exams than the U.S.

    Replies: @antibeast, @Dule

    To be consistent with your otherwise well-grounded argument of high scores at PISA tests in ‘good’ Poland, you should also try to explain the roots and consequences of the world-class accomplishments in math, physics and engineering in ‘bad’ Russia, as well as the undesputed Russian leadership in fundamental sciences, achieved without imports of high IQ individuals from non-Russian countries. Hint: development of hydrogen bomb in late 1940’s and of hypersonic missiles in 2010’s.

  • May 9, 2022 at 9:32 am GMT •ï¿½100 Words

    Juat because Hitler had views of dominating the slavs doesn’t prove that there was a genocide. It just reflects the slavs cultural achievements of that time, compared to where Hitler saw the Germans. So he was superior in his mind, i would say to Russians get over it, I think he would have a much greater respect in our time. But let’s face it back then you weren’t doing so well with the jews sitting on top of you as a communist state. And saying that “oh but Russia won the war so that’s proof of who was actually greater”, that also is dumb. The Russians had powerful allies, and also I believe that Stalin had the advantage in that he didn’t care how many Russians got toasted in the scorched earth mode of fighting. Russia wants to blame it all on the Germans – hogwash.

    •ï¿½Replies: @Munga Bulga
    @Bruce Waye

    At least they are honest about not being real Christians. They built churches to venerate commie soldiers who massacred Christians! They still refuse to remove heeb lenin from the "mausoleum", haha

    Devout Christians indeed.
  • @Athena
    I don't understand his logic:

    https://youtu.be/oc6-a8gdEeQ

    Replies: @mulga mumblebrain

    The war criminal Levy. The Ukrainian Institute of America? The ‘Genius of Judaism’?. My God. Words fail.

  • Miroslav says:
    May 9, 2022 at 6:02 am GMT •ï¿½200 Words

    I think the war on Slavic people has been going on for at least 2000 years, It started when they began calling the common language Koine Greek instead of just Koine. The Italian linguist Mario Alinei has shown that the Canaanites spoke( would you believe) Slavic. The Serbian linguist SlaviÅ¡a K. Miljković has shown that ancient Hebrew was full of Slavic words. My public library had many books some 60 years ago showing the connection between English and Serbian, but these books have now been banned and all books about Serbia are anti- Serbian. Instead of saying ‘ I goed” the English speaker says “I went” which is not logical. However by saying this he admits that he is a ‘Wendt” from Germany.My belief is that the English language is Slavic and that is not hard to prove. A common word is ‘dupe’ which is not of French origin,but Slavic, and it means your behind.

    •ï¿½Agree: Odyssey