And here’s what was decided. There are absolutely zero references, zero evidence that any of the Middle Ages terms for Judeans actually linguistically morphed into the word Jew.

Even if correct, which I doubt, this does not prove that there were no Jews:

In Jewish literature, there is no generally accepted term to designate these “indigenous� Jews, and they are often simply called Italiani, the Italian word for “Italians.� For many centuries, Rome, whose Jewish population was already large in antiquity, was home to the most populous Italiani communities.

The largest category of surnames is based on the names of places — usually the names of towns in the vicinity of Rome from which these families came to the capital city of the Papal States. Among them are Di Segni, Piperno, Pontecorvo, Rieti and Tivoli.

https://forward.com/opinion/407472/neither-ashkenazi-nor-sephardi-italian-jews-are-a-mystery/

So Jews were simply called Italiani.

The Khazar theory has been debunked, see :

More recently, thousands of SNPs were used by Need et al. to infer the relationships between Ashkenazi Jews and non-Jewish Europeans and Middle Easterners. They concluded that Ashkenazi Jews lie approximately midway between Europeans and the Middle Easterners, implying that Ashkenazi Jews may contain mixed ancestry from these two regions, and that they are close to the Adygei population from the Caucasus. However these conclusions are ill-founded, because, they used a highly selected set of SNPs, which were selected specifically for the purpose of distinguishing between Ashkenazi Jews and other populations and they inferred the origin of Ashkenazi Jews from principal components analysis (PCA), but as Tian et al. show “PCA results are highly dependent on which population groups are included in the analysis. Thus, there should be some caution in interpreting these results and other results from similar analytic methods with respect to ascribing origins of particular ethnic groups’” Tian et al. also published a table of paired Fst distances based on 10,500 random SNPs, which demonstrates that Ashkenazi Jews are not at all close to the Adygei population, and similarly to what is seen in table 1, their smallest distance is to Italians and then to Greeks. Unlike the assertion of Need et al. on the midway position, and again similarly to what is seen in table 1, Italians and Greeks are closer to the Middle Eastern populations than Ashkenazi Jews.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2964539/

During Greco-Roman times, recorded mass conversions led to 6 million people practicing Judaism in Roman times or up to 10% of the population of the Roman Empire. Thus, the genetic proximity of these European/Syrian Jewish populations, including Ashkenazi Jews, to each other and to French, Northern Italian, and Sardinian populations favors the idea of non-Semitic Mediterranean ancestry in the formation of the European/Syrian Jewish groups and is incompatible with theories that Ashkenazi Jews are for the most part the direct lineal descendants of converted Khazars or Slavs. The genetic proximity of Ashkenazi Jews to southern European populations has been observed in several other recent studies. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3032072/

Overall, we estimate that most (>80%) Ashkenazi mtDNAs were assimilated within Europe. Few derive from a Near Eastern source, and despite the recent revival of the ‘Khazar hypothesis’, virtually none are likely to have ancestry in the North Caucasus. These analyses suggest that the first major wave of assimilation probably took place in Mediterranean Europe, most likely in the Italian peninsula ~2 ka, with substantial further assimilation of minor founders in west/central Europe. There is less evidence for assimilation in Eastern Europe, and almost none for a source in the North Caucasus/Chuvashia, as would be predicted by the Khazar hypothesis,—rather, the results show strong genetic continuities between west and east European Ashkenazi communities, albeit with gradual clines of frequency of founders between east and west. https://www.nature.com/articles/ncomms3543

“We found that most of the maternal lineages don’t trace to the north Caucasus, which would be a proxy for the Khazarians, or to the Near East, but most of them emanate from Europe,� said coauthor Martin Richards, an archaeogeneticist at the University of Huddersfield in the U.K. https://www.the-scientist.com/genetic-roots-of-the-ashkenazi-jews-38580

Loco-LD confirms and sharpens the lack of evidence for the Khazar hypothesis observed in PCA, placing the Ashkenazi Jewish sample in close proximity to Italian Jews, North African Jews, Sephardi Jews, and Mediterranean non-Jewish populations such as Cypriots and Italians. In brief, judging from the similarity of the membership proportion distributions (Figure 4), Admixture demonstrates the connection of Ashkenazi, North African, and Sephardi Jews, with the most similar non-Jewish populations to Ashkenazi Jews being Mediterranean Europeans from Italy (Sicily, Abruzzo, Tuscany), Greece, and Cyprus. https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/25079123/

This guy’s oats ain’t all in his feedbag.

There are significant legal restrictions for dna tests in Israel.

There is no genetic definition of Jewishness because Halakic law does not allow it.

How can a race be Chosen , if they have 6 or seven different haplogroups for the males alone.

And to be Jewish the mother has to be Jewish, but almost all Askanazi Jews have European haplogroups, 5 or 6 as well, for their mothers back to 1000 ad approx.

Compare with Irish men, 81% R1b haplogroup, But no claims of a divine relationship with the creator.

My Irish wife’s people are X2b, 8,000 years in the north of Ireland, Scotland and the Orkneys.

My Irish mom, K1a, 4500 years in Eastern Ireland.

My R1b sub group has a common ancestor from 2100 bc, Yarnton Man 21182.

He was found buried close to the Archer and the Companion, very famous burials that infer the arrival of R1b sub group L21, the biggest of the R1b subgroups, also heavily Gaelic and Breton.

The Basque are the oldest R1b .

The dna tests in Israel are not illegal, but prove they are mongrels with no shared history, culture, or land, and as such these tests are not encouraged.

Same as their archeological studies, no evidence or support at all for the Old Testament stories, try as they might to connect the dots. It was during their Babylonia captivity that they had access to the libraries of Babylon, and used them to create a fake history of a fake people.

That’s what the bs weapons of mass destruction war 2003 was cover for, all the libraries of Iraq were emptied and looted of the treasures and of all documents that are proof of their fake history.

Their own dna proves they are just usurpers who attract fellow psychopaths , who share a love of inflicting misery wherever they go. Aka Satanists.

Palestinians however are of an ancient middle eastern dna, J1, and originate from the Taurus mountain region of the Caucuses , probably cousins of and related to our Lord and Savior, Jesus The Christ
☘�🇨🇦��😣

26 gauge wire and circuit boards? Oh man I thought those sectors of my brain was atrophied never to process again.

Do you still have your slide rule in a random box in your basement? I have one that is a circular disk. : )

People of the Jewish faith or the Judean Hebrew faith or the Judeo-Samaritan Hebrew faith, which if you’re being more accurate, before the 18th century cannot be called Jews because there was no such word.

I’m not sure that I understand Duff’s claim here. Is his claim that before the 18th century, the word “Jews� (and analogous words in other languages, e.g. French juifs, German Juden, etc.) only refers to people from Judea of any faith, and never refers to adherents of Judaism from anywhere in the world?

There are absolutely zero references, zero evidence that any of the Middle Ages terms for Judeans actually linguistically morphed into the word Jew. It never happened. The French term, the German term are not the root for the term Jew. “Jew� was a fabrication that came with Zionism. It is not related in any way linguistically whatsoever to the word Judean, Hebrew, or anything tied to the Middle East at all.

How did Duff’s group define “the Middle Ages�? Was his group aware of the archaic English word “Judew�, which can be found in the Oxford English Dictionary, cited to c. 1200? It appears to me that it could be a step in the linguistic morphing from Old English iúdéisċa to modern English “Jew�. (A brief overview of other etymological and orthographic details can be found here.)

What did his group make of the title of Christopher Marlowe’s play The Famous Tragedy of the Rich Jew of Malta, from c. 1590? A Maltese Jew has no geographic connection to Judea, so “Jew� must refer to his religious affiliation—and 1590 was before the 18th century.

(Read the full transcript at my Substack)

Kevin, in my browser, your link only shows a “Kevin’s Newsletter� page, with no link to the full transcript on that page. However, my browser and my computer are old, so perhaps Substack relies on JavaScript features that my browser doesn’t support.

Duff says there were only 50,000 people in Italy, and less than 100,000 in Europe?

Where are these population numbers coming from?

His Khazar theory is just wrong.

See these genetic studies:

There is no genetic definition of Jewishness because Halakic law does not allow it.

Ahem: https://www.haaretz.com/israel-news/2020-01-24/ty-article/.premium/israeli-high-court-allows-dna-testing-to-prove-judaism/0000017f-e13b-d804-ad7f-f1fb85f90000

I wonder if Gordon Duff, who has periodically asserted that he is a Vietnam Marine Corps combat vet, will ever comply with repeated requests to post a copy of his DD-214 on the Internet so as to back up his claim. He has spent many long years exposing all kinds of this and that but apparently clings to his own privacy when it comes to his DD-214.

Is his claim that before the 18th century, the word “Jews� (and analogous words in other languages, e.g. French juifs, German Juden, etc.) only refers to people from Judea of any faith, and never refers to adherents of Judaism from anywhere in the world?

If this is the case and the Jewish people were just called from where they came from, then the Jews were called Italiani (as cited above) or other geographical names, since that is where they came from.

How does this prove that there were no Italiani in Western Europe? It does not.

What about the Jewish catacombs and tombs of Italy? Nothing of similar scale is known from any other European region.

What about the southern Loez elements in Yiddish?

Many Loter celebrities had Italian pedigrees, and many Jews who died in Loter at the time of the First Crusade had southern Loez names

An illustrating example is the famous Kalonymos family originating from Lucca and Rome settling in Mainz and Speyer. Like other Italiani, they were Italian converts who migrated to Germany.

This image shows the autosomal genetic distance matrix

As you can see, the Khazar theory is not confirmed by genetics.

If Khazar were true then the Russians would be the closest to the Ashkenazi.

In fact the distance between EEJ and Italians is the smallest distance in the matrix.

Ashkenazi Jews are Europeans probably of Roman descent who converted to Judaism

The close genetic resemblance to Italians accords with the historical presumption that Ashkenazi Jews started their migrations across Europe in Italy and with historical evidence that conversion to Judaism was common in ancient Rome.

Populations names are:

EEJ – Eastern European Jews
It – Italians
Ru – Russians

IqJ – Iraqi Jews, InJ – Iranian Jews, MJ – Moroccan Jews, YJ – Yemenite Jews, Pa – Palestinians, Tur – Turks, Gr – Greeks, , Ge – Germans, Br – British, Fr – French, , Po – Poles.

Is [Duff’s] claim that before the 18th century, the word “Jews� (and analogous words in other languages, e.g. French juifs, German Juden, etc.) only refers to people from Judea of any faith, and never refers to adherents of Judaism from anywhere in the world?

If this is the case and the Jewish people were just called from where they came from, then the Jews were called Italiani (as cited above) or other geographical names, since that is where they came from.

How does this prove that there were no Italiani in Western Europe? It does not.

The article at Forward that you’d linked to noted that “indigenous� Italian Jews were often called italiani, but the relevant sentence in that article was a bit ambiguous; were they called italiani only in Jewish literature, or were they called italiani by Italian speakers in general?

Since I’m not sure what Duff’s claim entails, I don’t know if my take on it above accurately represented it. If my take was accurate, then it would seem as though his claim would not apply to the term italiani, since that word is unrelated to giudei, which is the Italian analogue of “Jews�, juifs, Juden, etc.

Nothing can be done while the United States continues to engage in the genocide and protect Israel. However, the world now knows the truth and
ultimately, the price paid by both countries will be high indeed. pic.twitter.com/2rgjfVEhP4

— Kerry Burgess (@KerryBurgess) December 30, 2024

UR readers, be warned. This ‘anon’ bloke is a mendacious Jew that’s been posted here by his Talmudic controllers to discredit the Khazar Reality*.
(*I don’t call it a ‘theory’ since the evidence is beyond overwhelming that the Ashkenazi are descended from the Khazars).

Anon thinks that by posting 5000 words of conjured up drivel (in his comment # 6), that he’ll convince people that there must be some substance to his garbage theory.
He believes that if he can bamboozle people by ‘weight of words’, that he’ll gain some traction.

Well UR readers, I have already slapped down this ‘anon’ fool and his falsehoods in other UR threads. And will do so again. Readers need only click on the link below and educate themselves:
https://academic.oup.com/gbe/article/5/1/61/728117?login=false

Taken from the link above, we have these choice bits:

The results of all PC analyses …. show that over 70% of European Jews and almost all Eastern European Jews cluster with Georgian, Armenian, and Azerbaijani Jews within the Caucasus rim. Approximately 15% of Central European Jews cluster with Druze and the rest cluster with Cypriots.

Strong evidence for the Khazarian hypothesis is the clustering of European Jews with the populations that reside on opposite ends of ancient Khazaria: Armenians, Georgians, and Azerbaijani Jews (fig. 1). Because Caucasus populations remained relatively isolated in the Caucasus region and because there are no records of Caucasus populations mass-migrating to Eastern and Central Europe prior to the fall of Khazaria (Balanovsky et al. 2011), these findings imply a shared origin for European Jews and Caucasus populations.

Our findings thus reject the Rhineland hypothesis and uphold the thesis that Eastern European Jews are Judeo–Khazars in origin.
Consequently, we can conclude that the conceptualisation of European Jews as a “population isolate,� which is derived from the Rhineland hypothesis, is incorrect and most likely reflects sampling bias in the lack of Caucasus non-Jewish populations in comparative analyses.

The most parsimonious explanation for our findings is that Eastern European Jews are of Judeo–Khazarian ancestry forged over many centuries in the Caucasus.
Jewish presence in the Caucasus and later Khazaria was recorded as early as the late centuries BCE and reinforced due to the increase in trade along the Silk Road (fig. 1), the decline of Judah (1st–7th centuries), and the uprise of Christianity and Islam (Polak 1951).
Greco–Roman and Mesopotamian Jews gravitating toward Khazaria were also common in the early centuries and their migrations were intensified following the Khazars’ conversion to Judaism (Polak 1951; Brook 2006; Sand 2009).

The eastward male-driven migrations (fig. 7) from Europe to Khazaria solidified the exotic Southern European ancestry in the Khazarian gene pool (fig. 5), and increased the genetic heterogeneity of the Judeo–Khazars. The religious conversion of the Khazars encompassed most of the empire’s citizens and subordinate tribes and lasted for the next 400 years (Polak 1951; Baron 1993) until the invasion of the Mongols (Polak 1951; Dinur 1961; Brook 2006).

At the final collapse of their empire (13th century), many of the Judeo–Khazars fled to Eastern Europe and later migrated to Central Europe and admixed with the neighbouring populations.

Conclusions

We compared two genetic models for European Jewish ancestry depicting a mixed Khazarian–European–Middle Eastern and sole Middle Eastern origins. Contemporary populations were used as surrogates to the ancient Khazars and Judeans, and their relatedness to European Jews was compared over a comprehensive set of genetic analyses.
Our findings support the Khazarian hypothesis depicting a large Near Eastern–Caucasus ancestry along with Southern European, Middle Eastern, and Eastern European ancestries, in agreement with recent studies and oral and written traditions.

We conclude that the genome of European Jews is a tapestry of ancient populations including Judaised Khazars, Greco–Roman Jews, Mesopotamian Jews, and Judeans and that their population structure was formed in the Caucasus …. .

Summary: Mr anon has been instructed by his ADL handlers to smear the Khazar Reality at every opportunity.
It is imperative that Malignant International Jewry keep propagating the falsehood that the Ashkenazi Jews are descended from the biblical Jews – when all objective evidence demonstrates that absolutely are not.

Lastly, I’ll leave you with this 4 min video titled ‘Noam Chomsky on Khazar Theory & Israel DNA Claims’:

Video Link
In the first few seconds of the clip the interviewer says:
‘There’s a theory [that the Ashkenazi are descdended from the Khazars] that’s widely accepted as anti-Semitic … ‘.

ACCEPTED BY WHOM? WHO goes around calling anyone/amy theory anti-Semitic?
Of course it’s mendacious Jews who are trying to discredit the Khazar Reality – because it is imperative that people (esp. Evangelical Christians) keep believing that the Ashkenazi Jews deserve to occupy Palestine because it is the land of their forefathers.

But the Ashkenazi are impostors. They are Khazars.
Mr Anon is one such Khazar and is not to be trusted.
There is a REASON why Ashkenazi Jews are called the Khazarian Mafia.

“Yeah, and what we’ve managed to do is utterly disassemble all things European history. That’s all totally fake. And anything that said that Jews lived in Europe before the 10th century is fake. ”

The Khazar Empire predates the 10th century, as does the conversion of the empire into Judaism (full or partial still not known).

The Radanite Jews were in Europe before the 10th century.
These Jews were merchants along the Silk Road who either converted the Khazars (fully or partially) or became its leaders. Though another leading candidate for leadership was the Turkic Ashina clan.
The Khazars were multiethnic but largely dominated by Turkics.

“There is no genetic definition of Jewishness because Halakic law does not allow it.

How can a race be Chosen , if they have 6 or seven different haplogroups for the males alone.

And to be Jewish the mother has to be Jewish, but almost all Askanazi Jews have European haplogroups”

Weird indeed. The small amount of Karaite Jews follow the father line. So they might originate around the time of Rome and Jesus. Wonder why the split. Maybe they are hiding something or there is a feud. Maybe the Khazar and Karaites have a connection.

In the preceding video I posted, Chomsky says unambiguously:

THE ASHKENAZI JEWS ARE KHAZARS.

And, although Gordon Duff would ramble and go off on a tangent every couple of minutes, he did manage to say effectively the same thing in that video interview with Dr Kevin Barrett.

Summary: If anyone is trying to smear the Khazar Reality (that the Ashkenazi are descended from the Khazarians), then this is a Red Flag.
It’s almost always a clear marker that they have a (((tribal))) axe to grind. Be very wary of such people.

As I recall, Ron Unz believes in the Rhineland hypothesis.
I don’t believe he is trying to deliberately mislead anyone – it appears he’s being sincere.
Nevertheless, I believe he’s got it wrong.

The dna tests in Israel are not illegal, but prove they are mongrels with no shared history, culture, or land, and as such these tests are not encouraged.

They are just your typical Mediterranean people being Italian converts. It is true that they have no shared history and culture and with the other Jewish groups and no claim to Israel.

Tian et al. also published a table of paired Fst distances based on 10,500 random SNPs, which demonstrates that Ashkenazi Jews are not at all close to the Adygei population, and similarly to what is seen in table 1, their smallest distance is to Italians and then to Greeks. Unlike the assertion of Need et al. on the midway position, and again similarly to what is seen in table 1, Italians and Greeks are closer to the Middle Eastern populations than Ashkenazi Jews.

The same phenomenon is seen in the table of Fst distances of Atzmon et al. North Italians (Bergamo and Tuscany) are a little closer to the Jewish and Middle Eastern populations than Ashkenazi Jews. The Italians from Tuscany in Behar et al. are also closer to the Jewish and Middle Eastern populations than Ashkenazi Jews. The Italians from Tuscany are in fact the closest population to Ashkenazi Jews in Behar et al.

The article at Forward that you’d linked to noted that “indigenous� Italian Jews were often called italiani, but the relevant sentence in that article was a bit ambiguous; were they called italiani only in Jewish literature, or were they called italiani by Italian speakers in general?

Since I’m not sure what Duff’s claim entails, I don’t know if my take on it above accurately represented it. If my take was accurate, then it would seem as though his claim would not apply to the term italiani, since that word is unrelated to giudei, which is the Italian analogue of “Jews�, juifs, Juden, etc.

The governmental census also called them Italiani, but maybe the government was also run by Italiani. The Italiani were clearly an elite in Rome originating from high status Italians (if they had intermarried with Italian peasants, they would not have a high IQ), and had such great elite status that they could change the state religion.

If Duff’s theory is correct, which I still much doubt, then it is possible that the first wave of Italian emigrants to France and Germany were predominantly Italiani, and that the Germans just called them Italiani. To them, Race (Italians) was more important than religion (Judaism), so they simply called them Italiani, and the first wave were mostly Italianis anyway. Only in later centuries, their religious aspect was noticed more and they started calling them Jews.

That is, if Duff’s theory is correct, which I doubt.

UR readers, be warned. This ‘TV’ bloke is a mendacious Jew that’s been posted here by his Talmudic controllers to resurrect the discredited Khazar theory which the Jews need so they can go forward with their Ukraine plans. By claiming that the Jews are Khazars, they can justify the theft of Ukraine from Russia.

I have already commented on (((Eran Elhaik))) and have nothing more to add on this crank.

https://www.unz.com/article/why-did-churchill-have-britain-fight-on-after-summer-1940-its-bad-news/#comment-6916157

(((Noam Chomsky))) is also a Jew like all the main inventors and promoters of the theory.

Duff once said : About 40% of what I write, is at least purposely, partially false, because if I didn’t write false information I wouldn’t be alive

His new theory seems to be part of the 40%.

As I recall, Ron Unz believes in the Rhineland hypothesis.

No, he believes in the Punic theory.

You have also (in the other thread) wrongly claimed that Shlomo Sand supports the Khazar theory.

You don’t even know what you are talking about and who supports or doesn’t support your theory.

Does the crossword clue ‘Jew’ have more thesaurus alternatives than any other word? Perhaps an entire crossword worth – with a different ‘Jew’ definition for every clue. Could be an antisemitic pursuit for someone in the new year.

Anywho it’s 2:55am on January the 1st here in NZ, my new years eve night is effectively over. A message from the future – it was crazy busy out there yesterday, so be extra careful today during drunken accidents peak hour.

Did you read the Intel Drop article? Duff seems to think the Khazars were jolly good fellows back there in 1000 ACDC. It is sort of kind of elder abuse to invite a man with significant cognitive irregularity onto the the live audio video internet.

I never saw Duff on camera that I recall before the accident. Maybe it’s same difference?

“The Khazars were multiethnic but largely dominated by Turkics.”

Shalom Aleichem.

That’s right!

Why do you think Israel gets 80% of its oil from two Turkic countries: Azorbidzhan, and Kazakhstan (where Borat was born).

And why you you think our Turkic turkeys evicted Iran from Syria, stabbed Lebanon in the back, allowing Israel ��😂😉🤣😂 to grab prime land in southern Lebanon and Syria?!

Thank you to great Khazarian Caliph ErdoÄŸan who helped make Israel great again, under the guidance of our Lubavitcher Rebbes and their great friends Donald Trump and Vladimir Putin.

https://youtube.com/shorts/Wl_XyJCBkrE?si=oP1pk-VEmZh___tN

Mazeltov!!

That is, if Duff’s theory is correct, which I doubt.

I think that our respective understandings of Duff’s theory might be different. My take is that his theory is purely linguistic, on what the word “Jews� meant before the 18th century—that before the 18th century, “Jews� was a purely geographic descriptor, and never a religious descriptor. (If my take is accurate, then at this time I think that his theory is incorrect, since I don’t know what his supporting data are.)

I don’t see his theory as claiming that there were no adherents of Judaism at all before the 18th century—only that the word “Jews� wasn’t used to refer to them then. Since I wasn’t able to access the full transcript on Kevin’s site, I don’t know which word(s) Duff’s group believes were used before the 18th century to refer to adherents of Judaism, to clearly distinguish them from inhabitants of Judea.

What is your interpretation of his theory?

https://www.bollyn.com/is-gordon-duff-and-veterans-today-disinfo/

I hadn’t actually read the Intel Drop article before you mentioned it.
Thanks Emil for bringing that up. It was a good read and further confirms the deluge of evidence to support the Khazar Reality.

As for seeing Gordon Duff on camera before the accident, I have watched countless episodes of Dr Kevin Barrett’s FFWN (False Flag Weekly News) over the years, and Gordon Duff was an interviewee/co-host on many occasions over that period.

He looks no different to me post accident to what I recollect of him before his motorcycle mishap.
(I recall one episode of FFWN that was made shortly after Duff’s accident – where his arm was in a sling, from injuries sustained).
He always appeared a bit the worse for wear every time he appeared on FFWN, as I recall.

My take is that his theory is purely linguistic … that before the 18th century, “Jews� was a purely geographic descriptor, and never a religious descriptor. … I don’t see his theory as claiming that there were no adherents of Judaism at all before the 18th century—only that the word “Jews� wasn’t used to refer to them then.

Every six months or so, some crank—almost invariably a hasbara peddler—revives this patently unsupportable thesis that Jew (or its cognate terms in other European languages) didn’t refer to actual “religious” Jews* till the day before yesterday. The commenter or columnist who in each instance is pushing the lie seldom hangs about to discuss or defend it for long, however, since it is child’s play to demonstrate, with numerous examples, the utter falsity of the thesis.

The link embedded here leads back almost two full years to discussion of this selfsame thesis. Although I recall at least two more sightings of this rubbish that are more recent, the material in the present link should be sufficient to the purpose.

The thing that most needs to be understood about those who push the thesis is that they are invariably agents of distraction. That is, they are working to undermine awareness of and divert attention from the criminality and destructiveness of the Jews throughout the entire two and a half millennia of their presence in Europe and, later, in Europe’s progeny in the New World and Oceania.

Blather about Judeans and the assertion of factitious distinctions between supposedly disjunct classes of Jews is intended primarily to distract readers from the central fact of the Jewish presence in the West since, at the latest, the birth of rabbinic Judaism around 70 AD: their imperishable hatred for the Gentile populations among whom the Jews have lived and moved and whose subversion they unceasingly plot.

With regard to the Jews, the theoretician whose insight ought to be most highly esteemed and best remembered is a young girl named Juliet Capulet, who is reputed to have lived in medieval Mantua. Her insight—viz., “What’s in a name? A rose by any other name would smell as sweet”—when applied to the Jews, should serve as a reminder that we who are the objects of their hatred need to stay alert lest their odorous deceptions and distractions tempt us to lose focus on their reality.
__________
*I put “religious” in sneer quotes because the distinction between “secular” and “religious” Jews made by liars and fools since the year 1 of the Christian calendar is demonstrably specious. That is to say, the difference between them is merely cultic. Indeed, it is an abuse of the proper understanding of the word religion to state or imply that any Jew worships anyone except himself.

No more than 5%. I’ll be back with more details. Be prepared to explain the Penelope Paradox which is the central part of the so-called Odyssey’s Hypothesis (OH).

Duff is saying : People of the Jewish faith or the Judean Hebrew faith or the Judeo-Samaritan Hebrew faith, which if you’re being more accurate, before the 18th century cannot be called Jews because there was no such word.

If Duff is correct, then the Germans just called them Italiani at first, their self-designation, and later started calling them Jews.

In this Duff scenario, the first wave of Italian emigrants to France and Germany were predominantly Italiani, and the Germans simply called them Italiani.

Duff also claims there were no Jews before 10th century in Europe, which is also false, Jewish history in Italy goes back to antiquity.

He is also trying to resurrect the discredited Khazar theory. No wonder the flat eathers like TV like him so much.

It is sort of kind of elder abuse to invite a man with significant cognitive irregularity onto the the live audio video internet.

Here you see the neighbor joining tree based on the autosomal polymorphisms.

As you see, the Jews are far away from the Russians (Khazar theory)

In fact the distance between Ashkenazi Jews and Italians is the smallest distance in the matrix.

None of the mainstream theories (Rhineland, Punic, Khazar) can explain what I call the Penelope Paradox. Currently, only the Odyssey’s Hypothesis, which was discussed earlier, can explain it. All mainstream theories also fall on Yiddish, for which they know neither the origin, nor the place of its origin, nor the way in which it spread. The OH hypothesis also explains that. Before that, it is necessary to verify the existence of the Penelope Paradox.

Related to some previous comments, it is necessary to see the movement of the population of Europe in the past 500-600 years. Does Penelope Paradox exist or not?

From Wiki: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Medieval_demography#Demographic_history_of_Europe

By the 14th century, the frontiers of settled cultivation had ceased to expand and internal colonization was coming to an end, but population levels remained high. Then a series of events—sometimes called the Crisis of the Late Middle Ages—collectively killed millions. Starting with the Great Famine in 1315 and the Black Death from 1348, the population of Europe fell abruptly. The period between 1348 and 1420 saw the heaviest loss. In parts of Germany, about 40% of the named inhabitants disappeared.[1] The population of Provence was reportedly halved and in some parts of Tuscany, 70% were lost during this period.[1]

So, let’s assume that the population of Europe in the 15th century was 80 million and 70 million a hundred or so years earlier. If the number of Jews in Europe was 8 million before ww2, we will calculate the multiplication factor (MF) and assume that it was the same for non-Jews.

We will use numbers of Jews in Western Europe from scientific articles (#1 and #2), as well as two (((down under TV Reality))) speculative numbers (#3 and #4), so as one hypothetical (#5).
Let’s see what the number of Europeans would be in 1939 if the same multiplication factors (MF) were used.

Btw, Wiki says that the number of Europeans in 1939 was 558 million (including USSR 140 million).
China today has 1.4 and India 1.42 billion inhabitants.

Scientific articles:
1. 25-35-K (based on Euro-population, EP, of 70 million) …. (MF=320-230) …. Europe (1939): 22-16 B (billion)
2. 50 K (based on EP of 80) …. (MF=160) …. Europe (1939): 13 billion

TV (((DU Reality))):
3. 300K (based on EP of 80 million) … (MF=27) …. Europe (1939): 2,160 billion
4. 500K (based on EP of 80M) … (MF=16) …. Europe (1939): 1.280 billion

Hypothetical number of Jews in the 15 c.AC:
5. 1 million (based on EP of 80 M) …. (MF=8) …. Europe (1939): 640 million

From the above, it can be concluded that the Penelope Paradox – exists!

Yiddish has many German words, but it is neither (Judeo)Germanic, nor is it a German dialect, nor does it have an Italic or Turkic layer in it.

All mainstream theories also fall on Yiddish, for which they know neither the origin, nor the place of its origin, nor the way in which it spread.

There is evidence of southern Loez elements in Yiddish.

There is strong proof for actual southern Loez immigration: the Italian pedigree of certain Loter celebrities, and primarily the tradition about the Calonymuses; southern Loez names of Jews who died a martyr’s death in Loter at the time of the First Crusade; and the evidence of the Loez component in Yiddish, representing not only western Loez, but also southern Loez elements.

Yiddish came into existence in Loter because western Loez speakers and southern Loez speakers, with Hebrew as their mediated language, created a small gathering of exiles in an area where the coterritorial non-Jewish population spoke different variants of German.

in the Period o f Earliest Yiddish, we must reckon with inter­nal multilingualism in Loter: Loshn-koydesh (the mediated language, §4.3), Western or Southern Loez, and Yiddish, which was then coming into existence; added to these is German, from the outside. As at least the glosses indicate, some scholars in Loter used both Yiddish and Loez, and the same must be as­sumed about their workaday contemporaries

Basically the tradition is no more than an item of folklore, but a historical kernel may nevertheless be extracted from it. When the tradition can be linked with other corresponding proofs they form a construct that tells us that there was an immigration of southern Loez Jews to Loter and that it was conspicuous enough to impress itself on the people’s memory. We may probably go still further: The Calonymuses are among the most prominent representatives of the Loter-Ashkenazic elite. We see them among the liturgical poets, among the great scholars, among the community leaders. This may be taken as an indication that among the southern Loez Jews that settled in Loter there were porportionately more eminent scholars than among the western Loez Jews that came at the same time in larger numbers.

The Italiani obviously came from Italy to Germany, and it is reflected in the southern Loez elements.

So, if the number of Ashkenazi Jews in Western Europe in the 15th century was 1.14 million (i.e. for the multiplication factor, MF=7), then the population of Europe in 1939 would have been the same as that year’s census (Wiki: 558 million), and that is the point at which the Penelope Paradox ceases to be valid.

Max Weinreich was wrong.
Yiddish – Italian or German (some even say French) language (dialect)?
How did it spread to 8 million people, especially in Eastern Europe??
When did Italiani come to Germany and how many were there?

You are promoting the (((Koestler’s Reality))) that the Ashkenazi descended from the Khazars, which almost everyone has determined to be false (except maybe a few percent of Khazars).

Perhaps you mean that the Ashkenazi and Zelensky have a right to Ukraine because their ancestors were there long before the Serbs first established colonies in present-day Ukraine in 1750???

Just because the Ashkenazi ARE NOT of Khazar origin DOES NOT mean they are of Biblical-Palestinian origin.

Is the Government of Israel using tactical nukes again, this time on Syria?

Negev Nuclear Research Center, Dimona
Negev Nuclear Research Center. Plutonium production and extraction facilities, along with other weapons-related infrastructure.

31.001504°N, 35.146723°E

Eilabun
Eilabun is Israel’s second weapons storage facility. Tactical nuclear shells and land mines are among its contents.

32.760226°N, 35.412077°E

Kfar Zekharya
Suspected nuclear missile base and bomb storage storage facility.

31.766267°N, 34.88142°

Nahal Soreq
Soreq is the equivalent of the U.S. national weapons laboratories. The lab handles weapons design and construction as well as research.

31.766267°N, 34.88142°E

Yodefat
Suspected nuclear weapons assembly facility.

32.85093°N, 35.27916°E

Tirosh
Reportedly one of two Israeli nuclear weapons storage facilities. It is speculated that that Tirosh is the strategic weapons storage site, while Eilabun is the tactical weapons storage site.

31.751963°N, 34.863524°E

Rafael
Rafael has been responsible for the actual assembly of Israeli nuclear weapons.

32.889534°N, 35.09119°E

Since we are talking demographics, can you make any sense of Duff’s population numbers?

He says in the video:

only 8,000 people of the 2 million people were still alive in Rome. The entire population of Italy was less than 50,000. the entire population of Europe outside of Britain was quite possibly less than 100,000 for all of Europe. All of Europe. How many of those people were Jews or Judean-Hebrews from the Holy Land?

In other words, Duff is saying the entire population of Italy was almost half of the entire population of Europe.

And the numbers are very very low. Of course we know Duff believes in crazy theories (Khazar theory).

Gordon Duff: “Are Jews Khazars?”

Why ask Gordon Duff anything, unless you are in the mood for some comedy. Jews (with some honorable exceptions that prove the rule) are scum. That’s all you need to know.

The calculation used slightly rounded figures. The most palatable (to me) is variant #2:

2) 50 K (based on Euro-population of 80 million) …. (MF=160) …. Europe (1939): 13 billion.

What does it mean?

If in the 15th century there were 50 K Jews in Western Europe and in the whole of Europe there were about 80 million inhabitants. The number of Ashkenazi increased in 500 years to 8 million (before ww2), which means 160 times.

If the population of Europe had increased by the same number of times, it would have had 13 billion inhabitants in 1939 (according to the census it had 558 million). Today there are 742 million inhabitants of Europe, which means that the projected number of inhabitants of Europe today would be 17 billion inhabitants, which is truly fantastic.

Some authors explained it with a ‘demographic miracle‘ but had no idea of ​​the magnitude of that miracle. How to explain it? TV called it the Rabbitohs effect (although he personally advocates the (((Khazar Exodus))) to Eastern Europe and from there after a few generations to Western Europe).

So, we still cannot (except for the OH hypothesis) explain that enormous increase that even escaped Ron’s sharp eye, who advocates the Punic hypothesis which I see as a variant of the Rhineland hypothesis. But my wife Penelope immediately noticed that Paradox with her naked eye, so I named it after her.

Go to https://kevinbarrett.substack.com/p/gordon-duff-are-jews-khazars. Above the video image to the right is a “transcript� button.

Thanks for the URL above. In my browser, no “transcript� button is shown on that page. There are two instances of the plain text word “transcript� found on it using a case-insensitive search; one (with an initial capital “T�) was not rendered with a button, and the other is part of a (Read the full transcript at my Substack) message. (I had to resort to a page search because at the default resolution, part of the left-hand side of the page was not rendered; I had to zoom out the page to make the text tiny enough to find the second instance of the word. No “transcript� button is shown even when the page is zoomed out.)

Does a direct URL exist for just the full transcript?

The link embedded here leads back almost two full years to discussion of this selfsame thesis. Although I recall at least two more sightings of this rubbish that are more recent, the material in the present link should be sufficient to the purpose.

Thanks for the link to the other two linked comments. The first of those two comments, referring to “The Merchant’s Tale� in the Canterbury Tales, uses “Jew� only to refer to Solomon. In my interpretation of Duff’s claim (which is not necessarily his intended meaning), it could be argued that the use of “Jew� there was geographical, since Solomon was the king of Judah (and Israel). It certainly demonstrates that the word itself was not invented in the 18th century, though, which was the explicit claim that you were refuting in that comment; this is why I think that Duff’s group might be claiming a different definition for the word then, rather than the word’s non-existence then.

In the second of those two comments, referring to Les Estatutz de la Jeuerie / Statutum de Judeismo / The Statutes of Jewry of Edward I, the context of the statutes is clearly that of regulating the affairs of Jews in England (i.e. no lending at usury; where Jews can dwell within England; immunity from “scot and lot� [local levies] and city/borough taxes; etc.). In my view, the likelihood of these statutes only applying to people from Judea who live in England, rather than to adherents of Judaism who live in England, is zero, since many of these statutes contrast “Jews� with “Christians�. For example, if “Jews� had a purely geographic definition in these statutes, then the sentence “But that no Christian, for this Cause or any other, shall dwell among them [Jews].� would be rather strange, since Judeans could theoretically be Christian themselves.

In any case, since the evidence of Duff’s group was not included in the article, I don’t yet know what exactly Duff’s claim is.

Duff is saying : People of the Jewish faith or the Judean Hebrew faith or the Judeo-Samaritan Hebrew faith, which if you’re being more accurate, before the 18th century cannot be called Jews because there was no such word.

Since it requires precious little effort to show that the word “Jews� itself actually did exist before the 18th century (with a wide variety of spellings), to say nothing of its cognates in many other languages, I took his contextual meaning there to be “… because there was no such word to describe people of the Jewish faith or …�. If that sentence represents the full extent of his actual claim—that the word itself didn’t exist before the 18th century at all, with any meaning whatsoever—then his claim would be completely false.

The Vandals were NOT a Germanic tribe.
Eastern Roman Empire was not Greek.

You are promoting the (((Koestler’s Reality))) that the Ashkenazi descended from the Khazars, which almost everyone has determined to be false

It depends on who you define as ‘almost everyone’.
Certainly among those enclaves you associate with (that are infested with mendacious Jews), this may well be so.
But among OBJECTIVE researchers that don’t have a (((tribal))) axe to grind, there is unanimity that the Ashkenazi are Khazars.

BTW, I’m still waiting for you to show some guts (rather than be concerned about offending your numerous Jewish pals), and admit that the Holohoax is a Jewish concocted mind fuck.
And don’t forget to mention that there were NO gas chambers for killing humans/systematic mass extermination of Jews by other means (or mass murder of any other ethnic subset) in those work camps that were falsely labelled as extermination centres.

Failure to come clean and admit this would be proof that you’re working in cahoots with Malignant International Jewry (like that ‘Anon’ clown earlier in this thread – who’s posted all manner of B.S to suggest that the Ash-ke-Nasties came out of Italy).

Is the Government of Israel using tactical nukes again, this time on Syria?

The Apartheid Israeli state have form as far as using mini and micro nukes (aka tactical nukes), over recent decades.
Mini (or micro) nukes were used in the Mossad orchestrated 9/11 False Flag, as we witnessed a floor by floor disintegration of the WTC towers.
There is strong evidence to suggest a micro nuke was used in the Mossad orchestrated 2002 Bali Bombing (and likely also for the 2004 Madrid Train Bombing).

We know for certain that a largish tactical nuke/mini nuke was dropped by Apartheid Israel in Beirut on August 2020 (estimated about 4-6 kT of TNT equivalent – compared to the 12-18 kT A-bomb used on Hiroshima).

And now we have this from a couple of weeks ago (article below titled ‘Israel drops ‘earthquake bomb’ on Syria causing huge mushroom cloud as Americans urged to leave’:
https://au.news.yahoo.com/israel-drops-earthquake-bomb-syria-082953307.html

Yeah right, it was an ‘Earthquake Bomb’ – as if anyone has ever heard of that terminology to describe any bomb.

Listening to Gordon Duff makes me not want to read his writings!

Thank you for that.

You are promoting the (((Koestler’s Reality))) that the Ashkenazi descended from the Khazars, which almost everyone has determined to be false (except maybe a few percent of Khazars).

This image of a PCA is from a larger study that is not just about Jews, and mendacious Jews have been promoting it to prove that all Jews are all closely related to each other, while in reality it proves the exact opposite. This PCA is also another proof that Jews are not Khazars.

All the Ashkenazi Jews who are the red points are inside the smaller circle at the bottom (together with all the Sicilians and south Italians).

And Khazars are in the big circle at the top.

Judaism once was proselytising, or certain elements were. After all Judaism is no monolith, despite the efforts of some deranged Jews and goyim (Melanie we’re talking of you)to declare themselves one, united, ‘Holy people’. Just look at Jews today-different schools, many detesting one another, secular fascists and neo-Nazis, and sane, human, Jews who see Zionazism for what it is-pure evil and driving the Jews towards another catastrophe.
So, throughout history, Khazars converted, Berbers and others as well, because Judaism was a Mafia that appealed to those who wished to live, not in peace with their neighbours, but in eternal strife, discord and hatred. Despite which, Jews often lived in peace with their host societies for centuries in a combination of tolerance by the hosts in all their factions and rational self-interest by the Jews . It was the growth of capitalism and the use of usury to beggar their neighbours that made Jews increasingly hated, not any gobbldegook about ‘murdering Christ’, although that was used when a mob needed riling up so that the Jews ill-gotten gelt could be stolen back.
Jews needed to live as outsiders according to their cult, but once that morphed fully into parasitism, they were destined to be hated and suffer for it. So some Jews convinced themselves that a ‘State’ of their own, stolen from some untermenschen, would make them ‘safe’ to pursue their predations in peace, and look how that’s worked out. ‘The Light unto the Nations’ is that of the charnel-house, chewing through children with frantic delight and unprecedented mendacity.

thanks…. if these jews were so upright and righteous why do they continually anglicize their names and pretend to be Christians…. same tactic as their turkic khazarian forebears who would take the identity of their murdered victim for economic gain I am sure….. easy to fabricate fake papers when you control the funding and the editorial boards.

It was the growth of capitalism and the use of usury to beggar their neighbours that made Jews increasingly hated

As Capitalism grew, the wealth was more equitably distributed – because Capitalism is a meritocratic system.

In all of recorded history there was no example even remotely close, where the bulk of its citizenry rose to the middle class and beyond, as there was in the case of the U.S in the 130 or so years from the founding of the republic until the Jews took control of the monetary system/introduced the income tax in the early 20th century.
This was more or less the case in Australia and Canada too during the same period, and per capita GDP was among the highest in the world there because Capitalism flourished (Gubmint was tiny, taxes were negligible and citizens were left alone to focus on generating wealth for the nation – without having their lives being constantly micromanaged by busy-body bureaucrats).

That’s because the U.S came as near to being an unfettered Free Market Capitalist society as any in history – hence the enormous wealth that followed in its wake.
China abandoned the Socialist experiment and adopted Capitalism in the late 70’s and likewise reaped the phenomenal rewards that accompany introduction of that system.

But then came the creation of he ZOG controlled Federal Reserve – because Jews despise Capitalism.
They despise having to compete in the market place to produce the best quality goods and services at the best price.
That’s HARD WORK you know – and the Jews want no part of that.

ZOG much prefers to print/digitally conjure endless trillions ex nihilo and loan it out at interest.
That’s much easier to do than work to satisfy the needs of consumers.
They prefer to schmooze up to Big Gubmint and get the latter to enact legislation/regulatory impediments to new entrants, so that their monopolies are protected.
This is the OPPOSITE of Capitalism. It is Crony Corporatism with huge dollops of Socialism.

Summary: It was the DIMINISHMENT of Capitalism that was accompanied by the exponential increase in power of Malignant International Jewry.
As Capitalism decreased, widespread impoverishment accompanied it and those rows of tent cities housing the homeless, those countless thousands sleeping under freeway overpasses and bridges (or just roaming the streets in an opioid induced stupor), expanded at an increasing rate.

There is a direct correlation between the growth of Big Gubmint/Socialism and the deterioration of America’s standard of living.
But, committed Marxist that he is, Mulga refuses to acknowledge it.

Finally I read Duff’s transcript. Pretty average. Although he says that an incredible amount of European history are a forgeries, he himself perpetuates them. I have already mentioned the Vandals as the alleged Germans and East Roman Empire as the alleged Greek empire.

It turns out that he is a vain military retiree who spends his time on amateur history and in the absence of major battles (like, for e.g. the heroic conquest of Grenada) writes about things he has half heard, such as the situation at the time of the fall of the Roman Empire, although he himself does not know where it fell (certainly not in the city of Rome).

The information about sitting on 7200 references is meaningless considering that these references write directly or indirectly about the untrue origin of the Ashkenazim. That would be similar to saying that he has read hundreds of commentaries on the unz but not 2-3 commentaries by Odyssey.

Thousands of repetitive references will not revive the Rhineland hypothesis, but neither will the Khazar one. In this respect, expressing some claims but without the ability to explain the contradictions and arguments against them reminds me of TV. I am also stubborn by nature, but I am always ready without shame to change my mind if someone points out contradictions to me. Therefore, it would be best for TV to cut his losses and abandon the unfounded claim about the Khazar Reality, because it compromises everything else he writes (especially since he is already deeply immersed in the meaningless thesis of a preemptive attack on the USSR).

The title was provocative (Are Jews Khazars?) but I do not understand why Kevin wasted time on something without any arguments and Ron in addition conveyed all of it, especially since he has much more knowledge and interest in the subject.

on wikipedia i am reading:

Cecil Roth estimated that by the year 1500, the number of the Historic Ashkenazim in Germany, France and Austria was about 150,000 combined;

this is already more than your 50k. and even this could be a low estimate

and this is only central europe. add to this the constant stream of Italiani pouring into western and eastern europe, and then there is nothing really surprising

Let’s see:
If the number of Ashkenazim was 150K and the number of Europeans was 80 million, then the number of Europeans in 1939 would have been 4.240 billion. Today, the projected number of Europeans would be about 5.7 billion.

So, that number also confirms the existence of the Penelope Paradox.

You need to find where the name – Italiani – comes from.

Also from wikipedia

The 13th-century author Bar Hebraeus gave a figure of 6,944,000 Jews in the Roman world; Salo Wittmayer Baron considered the figure convincing.[5] The figure of seven million within and one million outside the Roman world in the mid-first century became widely accepted, including by Louis Feldman.

With so many Jews just on the borders of Central and Eastern Europe, there is nothing paradoxical here. It is also not paradoxical that we don’t have exact population and migration numbers from so many centuries ago.

Below some further proof of mass conversions to Judaism in Italy and of the population size of Italiani :

Your figure of 150K in 1500 (that is already the 16th century) is compatible with 50K, 100 years earlier or 25-35K, 200 or so years earlier. The Paradox is in the enormous increase in the number of Jews that the Rhineland (and Ron’s Punic) hypothesis explains by natural increase.

It is true that there were almost 8 million Jews in the Roman Empire (I have already mentioned that) but there were certainly not a million Ashkenazim in Western Europe in the 15th century. There is not a single document that explains when and how these Jews came to Western Europe. I have already said that the fact that not a single Ashkenazim came (supposedly from Italy) to the Balkans for hundreds of years is proof that this thesis is wrong.

Yiddish is a separate story and your claim is wrong and especially incompatible with the potential migration of millions of Ashkenazi Jews from Italy that no one registered like the imperceptible TV Khazar Exodus of several million Khazars, outside the system, first to Eastern and later to Western Europe.

Even if there were a million Ashkenazi in the 15th century, now Europe would have almost a billion inhabitants and not 742 million which again says that the Paradox exists. So, the Paradox is still valid and you should wait for the presentation of the OH hypothesis that explains all this.

A million Ashkenazi Jews in Western Europe in the 15th century is simply incredible and other scholarly papers do not mention 25-35K and 50K in the 15th century by chance.

Can you show the sources for your population numbers for Jews and Europeans. Does your number for Europeans include all of Europe? Does your number for Jews include which countries?

by natural increase.

Jews had an advantage over Gentiles because there was a constant influx of Italiani. If each generation 50,000 Italiani migrated, then the Jews needed less children for the same increase.

Take a look at this

Italy: migration 1815 to present

https://www.academia.edu/35723224/Italy_migration_1815_to_present

it shows the mass migration of Italians to Europe. 15 millions Italians migrating to the rest of Europe in only 100 years.

This is only for 1876 to 1976. We can imagine that in 1500 to 1876 it was also substantial.

With these numbers, and since we know that a large part of these were Italiani , there can be no paradox.

If you would account for the fact that only the Jewish population had an additional increase in each generation due to the immigration of new Italiani, then there would be no paradox.

Of course the mass migration was noticed back then, but this was many centuries ago and forgotten and now we would be lucky if there is still some records in some old Jewish books about the migration of the Italiani.

How many people today know that between 1876 and 1976 , 15 million of Italians migrated to the rest of Europe, and this was only recently.

I have already said that the fact that not a single Ashkenazim came (supposedly from Italy) to the Balkans for hundreds of years is proof that this thesis is wrong.

You orignally said there no Ashkanzi only Shephardic in Balkans. What is your source? Yes, genetics shows there was no Italian influence in Balkans, but if the Italiani were already by then more strict with Jewish marriage rules then they did not intermarry and it would not show up in the genetics.

Yiddish is a separate story and your claim is wrong

It is Max Weinreich that said that evidence of the southern Loez component in Yiddish. Are you a better linguist than Weinreich?

there is strong proof for actual southern Loez immigration: the Italian pedigree of certain Loter celebrities, and primarily the tradition about the Calonymuses; southern Loez names of Jews who died a martyr’s death in Loter at the time of the First Crusade; and the evidence of the Loez component in Yiddish, representing not only western Loez, but also southern Loez elements.