MCQ Atd

1.

In an open system, for maximum work, the process must be entirely

a) irreversible b) reversible c) adiabatic d) none of the mentioned
2. Which of the following is true for a closed system?
a) mass entering = mass leaving b) mass does not enter or leave the system
c) mass entering can be more or less than the mass leaving d) none of the mentioned
3. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one degree at constant
volume, is called
a) specific heat at constant volume b) specific heat at constant pressure
c) kilo Joule d) none of these
4. An adiabatic process is one in which
a) no heat enters or leaves the gas b) the temperature of the gas changes
b) the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical workdone
c) all of the above
5. Workdone in a free expansion process is
a) Zero b) Minimum c) Maximum d) Positive
6. In the polytropic process pvn = Constant if n = 1 the process is termed as
a) Constant volume b) Constant pressure c) Constant temperature d) Adiabatic
7. A law which is applicable only to ideal vapours and liquids, that equates the equilibrium partial pressures
of a solution component in the coexisting phases, is known as
a) Henry's law b) Roult's law c) Joule's law d) Maxwell's equation
8. An open system
a) Is a specified region where transfers of energy and/or mass take place
b) Is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed to cross the boundaries
c) Cannot transfer either energy or mass to or from the surroundings
d) Has a mass transfer across its boundaries, and the mass within the system is not necessarily
9. The processes or systems that do not involve heat are called
a) Isothermal processes b) Equilibrium processes c) Thermal processes d) Steady processes
10. According to kinetic theory of heat
a) Temperature should rise during boiling b) Temperature should fall during freezing
b) At low temperatures all bodies are in solid state
c) At absolute zero there is absolute no vibration of molecules
11. The relation of the vapour pressure to the enthalpy of vaporization is expressed in
a) Energy equation b) Van der Waal's equation c) Gas equation d) Maxwell's equation
12. If a process can be stopped at any stage and reversed so that the system and surroundings are exactly
restored to their initial states, it is known as
a) Adiabatic process b) Isothermal process c) Reversible process d) Thermodynamic process
e) Ideal process
13. The cycle generally used for gas turbines is
a) Otto cycle b) Carnot cycle c) Rankine cycle d) Brayton cycle
14. At critical point the latent enthalpy of vaporisation is
a) Only depends on temperature b) Zero c) Maximum d) Minimum
15. For an ideal gas the value of Joule Kelvin coefficient is
a) Zero b) 0.5 c) Unity d) Infinite
16. Kelvin's law deals with
a) conservation of heat b) conservation of work
b) conversion of heat into work d) conversion of work into heat
17. All of the following cycles consist of two isentropic processes EXCEPT
a) Otto cycle b) Carnot cycle c) Stirling cycle d) Diesel cycle
18. Which of the following introduces irreversibility in the actual Carnot engine operation?
a) Friction between moving parts b) Higher operating speeds
b) Losses from working fluid in transit d) Changes in pressure and temperature during the cycle
19. In case of real gases, Cp will be equal to Cv
a) at critical temperature b) above critical temperature
b) at triple point d) at absolute zero
20. For a pure substance at its triple point, the number of degrees of freedom is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) None of these
UNIT 3
Which among the following is correct relation between COP of heat pump and COP of refrigerator?

a. [COP]H.P. = 1 + [COP]ref
b. [COP]H.P. = 1 – [COP]ref
c. [COP]H.P. = [COP]ref
d. none of the above
The irreversibility of a process occurs due to
a. lack of equilibrium during the process

b. involvement of dissipative effects
c. either a. or b. or both
Efficiency of heat engine cycle is the ratio of
a. total heat input to the cycle (Qin) to net work output of the cycle (Wnet)
b. net work output of the cycle (Wnet) to total heat input to the cycle (Qin)
c. net work output of the cycle (Wnet) to heat rejected from the system (Qout)
PMM2 is the machine which violates ___________
a. Kelvin-Planck statement
b. Clausius statement
c. both a. and b.
A cyclic heat engine operates between a source temperature of 927 oC and a sink temperature of 27 oC. What
will be the maximum efficiency of the heat engine?
b. a. 100 %
b. 80 %
c. 75 %
d. 70 %
When a process becomes irreversible due to heat interaction between system and surrounding at the
boundary due to finite temperature gradient, then the irreversibility is______
a. internal irreversibility
b. external irreversibility
c. mechanical irreversibility
d. chemical irreversibility
The irreversibility in the system caused by friction is an example of
c. frictional irreversibility
Assume that a reversible heat engine is operating between a source at T1 and a sink at T2. If T2 decreases,
the efficiency of the heat engine ______
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
Any attainable value of absolute temperature is ________
a. always less than zero

b. always equals to zero
c. always greater than zero
To achieve a definite zero point on the Kelvin scale, we have to violate
a. first law of thermodynamics

b. second law of thermodynamics
c. both first law and second law of thermodynamics
d. no law has to be violated
Arbitrarily, the value of triple point is taken as
a. 0 K
b. 273.16 oC
c. 273.16 K
All spontaneous processes are
a. reversible
b. irreversible
c. quasi-static
considering relation between Kelvin-Planck and Clausius statement, if one statement between the two is
violated then
a. other one may be or may not be violated

b. other one is also violated
c. other one must be correct
COP of a heat pump is

a. always less than infinity (COP < ∞ )
b. always less that 1 (COP < 1)
c. always equals to 1 (COP = 1)
d. always equals to infinity (COP = ∞ )
It is impossible to produce a heat engine, whose sole effect is to absorb energy in the form of heat from a heat
source and produce an equal amount of work. This statement is
c. Third law of thermodynamics
Which among the following are the examples of mechanical energy reservoir?
(1) Furnace where fuel is continuously burning

(2) Raised weight
(3) Flywheel in running condition
(4) Compressed spring
a. (1), (2) and (4)

b. (1), (2) and (3)
c. (1), (3) and (4)
d. (2), (3) and (4)
A thermal energy reservoir (TER) has
a. a finite heat capacity

b. an infinite heat capacity
c. a finite mass
The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one degree at constant volume,
is called
A. specific heat at constant volume
B. specific heat at constant pressure
C. kilo Joule
D. none of these
The processes occuring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the system, are known as
A. flow processes
B. non-flow processes
C. adiabatic processes
D. none of these
Workdone in a free expansion process is

A. zero
B. minimum
C. maximum
D. positive
The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is __________ of the kinetic energy of all the molecules contained in a unit
volume of gas.
A. one-half
B. one-third
C. two-third
D. three-fourth
The degree of disorder of a mixture of two gases
a. is always less than the degrees of disorder of individual gases

b. is always greater than the degrees of disorder of individual gases
c. is always equals the degrees of disorder of individual gases
What is the equation for entropy of a system if two parts 1 and 2 having entropies S1 and S2 are considered
in equilibrium?
a. S = S1 – S2
b. S = S1 + S2
c. S = (S1 + S2) / 2
d. S = √S1 S2
What is the entropy chosen at the triple point of water?
a. zero
b. less than zero
c. more than zero
When heat is transferred from body A which is at temperature T1 to body B which at temperature T2 and
there is no heat loss to the surrounding, what will be the change in entropy (dS) of the universe? (Given T1 >
T2)
a. dS will remain constant

b. dS will be positive
c. dS will be negative
d. dS will either positive or negative
What is the criterion provided by Clausius inequality for the process which is impossible?
a. Cyclic ∫ (đQ/T) = 0
b. Cyclic ∫ (đQ/T) > 0
c. Cyclic ∫ (đQ/T) < 0
d. all above processes are possible
The entropy is
a. an intensive property
b. an extensive property
c. both a. and b.
Which type of function the entropy is?
a. a path function
b. a point function
c. both a. and b.
Any reversible path may be substituted by a reversible zigzag path between the same end processes such that
the heat transfer during this zigzag path is equal to the heat transfer during original path. What are the
processes involved in the zigzag path?
a. reversible polytropic and isobaric process

b. reversible polytropic and isothermal process
c. reversible adiabatic and isothermal processes
Which property of a system is constant in reversible adiabatic process?
a. pressure
b. volume
c. temperature
d. entropy
Two reversible adiabatic paths
a. can intersect with each other

b. cannot intersect with each other
c. may intersect or may not intersect
What is the perfect condition for dehumidification of air?
a. air is heated above its dew point temperature

b. air is cooled up to its dew point temperature
c. air is heated below its dew point temperature
d. air is cooled below its dew point temperature
Answer Explanation
2) When the rate of evaporation of water is zero, the relative humidity of the air is
a. 0%
b. 100%
c. 50%
d. unpredictable
Answer Explanation
3) When,
H1 = Total heat of air entering the coil (heating or cooling)
H2 = Total heat of air leaving the coil (heating or cooling)
H3 = Total heat of air at the end of the process (humidification or dehumidification)
then, the sensible heat factor (H2 – H1) / (H3 – H1) represents the process of
a. cooling and humidification

b. cooling and dehumidification
c. heating and humidification
d. heating and dehumidification
Answer Explanation
4) The dew point temperature is less than the wet bulb temperature for
a. saturated air
b. unsaturated air
c. both saturated and unsaturated air
Answer Explanation
5) At 100% relative humidity, the wet bulb temperature is
a. lower than the dew point temperature

b. higher than the dew point temperature
c. equal to the dew point temperature
Answer Explanation
6) Humidification is the process of addition moisture in air at
a. constant wet bulb temperature

b. constant dry bulb temperature
c. constant latent heatn
Answer Explanation
7) Air at dry bulb temperature Td1 is passed through the heating coil and some amount of air is by passed unaffected and leav
dry bulb temperature Tb2 and the temperature of heated air is Td3 (where Td2 < Td3), what is the correct formula for by pass
(The amount of air by passed unaffected)?
a. Bypass Factor = (Td3 – Td2) / (Td3 – Td1)

b. Bypass Factor = (Td3 – Td1) / (Td3 – Td2)
c. Bypass Factor = (Td2 – Td1) / (Td2 – Td3)
d. Bypass Factor = (Td2 – Td3) / (Td2 – Td1)
Answer Explanation
8) The horizontal line in psychrometric chart joining the change of state of air represents
a. humidification
b. sensible cooling or heating
c. sensible cooling or heating with humidification
d. sensible cooling or heating with dehumidification
Answer Explanation
9) The moisture content lines in psychrometric chart are also called as
a. relative humidity lines

b. specific humidity lines
c. both a. and b.
Answer Explanation
10) At any point on the saturation curve in psychometric chart, the dry bulb temperature is always
a. less than the corresponding wet bulb temperature

b. more than the corresponding wet bulb temperature
c. equal to the corresponding wet bulb temperature
d. cannot predict
Answer Explanation
1 2 3
Related Content
On psychrometric chart, wet bulb temperature lines are
a. horizontal with uniformly spaced

b. horizontal with non-uniformly spaced
c. inclined with uniformly spaced
d. inclined with non-uniformly spaced
Answer Explanation
12) When the dew point temperature is equal to the air temperature then the relative humidity is
a. 0%
b. 50%
c. 100%
d. unpredictable
Answer Explanation
13) The formation of fog starts when,
a. air temperature is equal to the dew point temperature

b. air temperature is greater than the dew point temperature
c. both a. and b.
Answer Explanation
14) The temperature, at which the air cannot hold all the water vapour mixed in it and some vapour starts condensing, is calle
a. humidification temperature
b. dehumidification temperature
c. dew point temperature
Answer Explanation
15) When the humidity ratio of air increases the air is said to be
a. dehumidified
b. humidified
c. heated
d. cooled
Answer Explanation
16) What is sensible cooling of air?
a. the cooling in which sensible heat of air is removed in order to reduce temperature
b. the cooling in which temperature of air is reduced without changing in its moisture content
c. both a. and b.
Answer Explanation
17) When dry bulb temperature (DBT) and wet bulb temperature (WBT) are measured, greater the difference between DBT a
a. greater the amount of water vapour held in the mixture

b. smaller the amount of water vapour held in the mixture
c. same the amount of water vapour held in the mixture
Answer Explanation
18) Which temperature can be measured by an instrument called psychrometer?
a. dry bulb temperature

b. wet bulb temperature
c. both a. and b.
Answer Explanation
19) The temperature of air recorded by thermometer when the bulb is covered by a cotton wick saturated by water is called as
a. dry bulb temperature

b. wet bulb temperature
c. stream temperature
d. psychrometric temperature
Answer Explanation
20) What is the temperature at which the water vapour in the mixture of water vapour in air, starts condensing called?
a. condensation temperature
b. dew point temperature
c. vaporization temperature
d. all of the above
The degree of saturation varies between
a. 1 to infinity
b. 0 to infinity
c. 0 to 1
Answer Explanation
22) What is the degree of saturation?
a. the ratio of the actual relative humidity to the saturated specific humidity at the same temperature
b. the ratio of the actual specific humidity to the saturated specific humidity at the same temperature
c. the ratio of the saturated specific humidity to the actual specific humidity at the same temperature
Answer Explanation
23) What is the relative humidity for a saturated air?
a. 0%
b. 50%
c. 100%
d. cannot say
Answer Explanation
24) What is the specific humidity?
a. the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of the total mixture of air and water vapour
b. the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of the total mixture of air and water vapour
c. the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in a mixture of air and water vapour
d. the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of dry air in a mixture of air and water vapour
Answer Explanation
25) The ratio of partial pressure of water vapour in a mixture to the saturation pressure of water at the same temperature of t
is called as
a. humidity
b. partial humidity
c. specific humidity
d. relative humidity
Answer Explanation
26) Dry air does NOT contain
a. krypton
b. argon
c. neon
UNIT 5
The engines which are operating on gas power cycle are
a. cyclic
b. non-cyclic
c. either cyclic or non-cyclic
View Answer / Hide Answer
Q2. Internal combustion engine is the example of
a. cyclic heat engine

b. non-cyclic heat engine
c. both a. and b.
Q3. The cycle which consists of two reversible isotherms and two reversible isochores is called as
a. Rankine cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Stirling cycle
d. Ericsson cycle
Q4. Two reversible isothermal processes and two reversible isobaric processes are carried out in
a. Rankine cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Stirling cycle
d. Ericsson cycle
Q5. Which thermodynamic cycle, for the same condition, has highest efficiency among the others?
a. Carnot cycle
b. Stirling cycle
c. Ericsson cycle
d. None. All of the above have same efficiency
What is the difference between the Brayton cycle and the Rankine cycle?
a. Brayton cycle has two reversible isobars whereas Rankine cycle has two isotherms
b. The working fluid of Brayton cycle always remains in gaseous phase whereas in Rankine cycle the working fluid undergoes phase ch
c. Brayton cycle operates between higher pressure ratio than the Rankine cycle for same capacity
d. all of the above
Answer Explanation
2) What is the effect of increasing bypass ratio of a turbofan engine on its thrust?
a. thrust increases with increase in bypass ratio of turbofan engine

b. thrust decreases with increase in bypass ratio of turbofan engine
c. thrust of the turbofan engine only depends upon the fuel rate, so no change of thrust with increase in bypass ratio
d. cannot say
Answer Explanation
3) In turbofan engine, the bypass ratio is the ratio of
a. total mass flow rate of exhaust stream to the mass flow rate of stream from turbine exhaust
b. total mass flow rate of exhaust stream to the mass flow rate of stream from fan exhaust
c. the mass flow rate of stream from turbine exhaust to the mass flow rate of stream from fan exhaust
d. the mass flow rate of stream from fan exhaust to the mass flow rate of stream from turbine exhaust
Answer Explanation
4) In turbofan engine, fan is used
a. to compress the inlet air more efficiently

b. to increase the total thrust of the engine
c. both a. and b.
Answer Explanation
5) The propulsive efficiency is the ratio of
a. the propulsive power to the energy input rate

b. the exit velocity rate of exhaust gases to the energy input rate
c. the work done by the turbine to the energy input rate
d. velocity of aircraft to the energy input rate
Answer Explanation
6) The propulsive power developed by the thrust of engine is given by
a. mair (Vexit – Vinlet)

b. mair (Vexit – Vinlet) × Vaircraft
c. (Vexit – Vinlet) × Vaircraft
Answer Explanation
7) Why do the airplanes fly at higher altitude during the long flights?
a. to avoid collisions as they are at very high speed and controlling will be difficult if something (like towers, hills) comes in the way
b. it is easy to communicate with satellites at high altitudes
c. to save the fuel as air at higher altitude exerts smaller drag force on aircraft
Answer Explanation
8) In working condition of turbojet engine, velocity of air entering the engine is
a. higher than the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine

b. lower than the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine
c. equal to the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine
d. cannot say
Answer Explanation
9) Which among the following engines is NOT the type of aircraft gas turbine which works on jet propulsion cycle?
a. turbojet
b. turbofan
c. turboprop
Answer Explanation
10) Gas turbines are suitable for aircraft propulsion because
a. gas turbines are light weight

b. gas turbines are compact in size
c. gas turbines have a high power-to-weight ratio
d. all of the above
Answer Explanation
In the gas power plant, the free-shaft turbine is placed
a. right before the turbine used for running compressor

b. right after the turbine used for running compressor
c. right after the heat addition process
Answer Explanation
12) What is the purpose of using free-shaft turbine?
a. to increase net work output of the turbine

b. to decrease net work output of the turbine
c. to increase part load efficiency
Answer Explanation
13) What is a free-shaft turbine?
a. the separate turbine which is used only to run compressor

b. the separate turbine which is placed on another shaft on which the compressor is not run
c. the separate turbine which is used only to run condenser
d. all of the above
Answer Explanation
14) The maximum limit of the pressure ratio of the Brayton cycle for maximum efficiency
a. is less than the pressure ratio of the Carnot cycle

b. is more than the pressure ratio of the Carnot cycle
c. is equal to the pressure ratio of the Carnot cycle
d. cannot say
Answer Explanation
15) If pressure ratio in Brayton cycle increases
a. the efficiency of the cycle increases

b. the efficiency of the cycle decreases
c. there is no any effect on the efficiency of the cycle
d. cannot say
Answer Explanation
16) What is the effect of regeneration on net work output in Brayton cycle?
a. net work output decreases because of regeneration

b. net work output increases because of regeneration
c. net work output is not affected by use of regenerator
Answer Explanation
17) What is the effect of regeneration on mean temperature of heat addition in Brayton cycle?
a. mean temperature of heat addition decreases because of regeneration

b. mean temperature of heat addition increases because of regeneration
c. mean temperature of heat addition is not affected by use of regenerator
Answer Explanation
18) What is the effectiveness of the regenerator in gas power plant?
a. ratio of actual rise in temperature of air to the maximum possible rise in temperature of air
b. ratio of the maximum possible rise in temperature of air to actual rise in temperature of air
c. difference between maximum possible rise in temperature of air and actual rise in temperature of air
Answer Explanation
19) Which among the following is the basic air standard cycle for all modern gas turbine plants?
a. Brayton cycle
b. Rankine cycle
c. Otto cycle
d. Diesel cycle
Answer Explanation
20) Which cycle is more efficient for electricity generation plant?
a. Brayton cycle
b. Rankine cycle
c. Otto cycle
Answer Explanation
Which cycle is more suitable for the reciprocating engines?
a. Brayton cycle
b. Rankine cycle
c. Otto cycle
d. All of the above are similarly efficient for same capacity
Answer Explanation
22) What is the relation between the pump work (WP) in Rankine cycle and the work of compressor in Brayton cycle (WT), w
are operating between the same pressures?
a. (WT) < (WP)

b. (WT) > (WP)
c. (WT) = (WP)
d. cannot say
Answer Explanation
23) Arrange the followings in the group of Brayton cycle and the Rankine cycle
(1) Steam
(2) Gas turbine
(3) Pump
(4) Steam turbine
(5) Gas
(6) Compressor
a. Brayton cycle: (1), (2), (3)

Rankine cycle: (4), (5), (6)
b. Brayton cycle: (2), (3), (5)
c. Brayton cycle: (2), (5), (6)
d. Brayton cycle: (1), (3), (4)
Answer Explanation
24) The Brayton cycle used in gas-cooled nuclear reactor plant is
a. a closed cycle
b. an open cycle
c. either closed or open cycle
d. cannot say
Answer Explanation
25) For the same compression ratio, how is the efficiency of the Brayton cycle compared with the efficiency of Otto cycle?
a. Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is higher than the efficiency of the Otto cycle, for the same compression ratio
b. Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is lower than the efficiency of the Otto cycle, for the same compression ratio
c. Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is same as that of the Otto cycle, for the same compression ratio
d. cannot say
Answer Explanation
26) Which processes do occur in the Brayton cycle?
a. two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isochoric processes

b. two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isobaric processes
c. two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isothermal processes
d. two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isentropic processes
Answer Explanation
27) The Brayton cycle is the air standard cycle for
a. gas turbine power plant

b. SI engine
c. CI engine
Answer Explanation
28) The Brayton cycle which is used in aircraft, automotive is
a. a closed cycle
b. an open cycle
c. either closed or open cycle
d. cannot say
Answer Explanation
29) For the same maximum pressure and temperature, what is the relation among the efficiencies of the Otto cycle, the Diesel
the Dual cycle?
a. ηDual > ηDiesel > ηOtto

b. ηDiesel > ηDual > ηOtto
c. ηDiesel > ηOtto > ηDual
d. ηOtto > ηDiesel > ηDual
Answer Explanation
30) The below diagram is the p-v diagram of the Otto, Diesel and Dual cycles for the same compression ratio. Which in the dia
the path followed by the Diesel cycle?
a. 1-2-4-7-1
b. 1-2-3-5-7-1
c. 1-2-6-7-1
How is the heat added in the Diesel cycle?
a. reversibly at constant pressure

b. irreversibly at constant pressure
c. reversibly at constant volume
d. irreversibly at constant volume
Answer Explanation
32) Rate of burning in the compression ignition engine can be controlled by
a. rate of injection of fuel

b. rate of air taken into carburetor
c. both a. and b.
Answer Explanation
33) For the same capacity engines, the compression ratio of diesel engine
a. is lower than the compression ratio of SI engine

b. is higher than the compression ratio of SI engine
c. is same as the compression ratio of SI engine
d. cannot say
Answer Explanation
34) How is the efficiency of the SI engine affected by change in specific heat ratio (γ) of the working fluid?
a. the efficiency of the engine increases with increase in specific heat ratio (γ) of the working fluid
b. the efficiency of the engine decreases with increase in specific heat ratio (γ) of the working fluid
c. the efficiency of the engine does not affected by change in specific heat ratio (γ) of the working fluid
Answer Explanation
35) Use of gasoline blend like gasoline mixed with tetraethyl lead in internal combustion engine
a. increases the octane rating of the fuel

b. allows engine to operate at higher compression ratio
c. avoids auto-ignition of fuel
d. all of the above
Answer Explanation
36) The compression ratio cannot be increased beyond certain limit, because it results to
a. auto-ignition of fuel
b. detonation
c. engine knocking
d. all of the above
Answer Explanation
37) What is the relation between compression ratio (rk) and the efficiency of the Otto cycle?
a. efficiency decreases with increase in compression ratio
b. efficiency increases with increase in compression ratio
c. efficiency does not affected by change in compression ratio
Answer Explanation
38) What is the formula for compression (rk) ratio of the Otto cycle?
a. rk = Volume of cylinder at the beginning of compression / Volume of cylinder at the end of compression
b. rk = Volume of cylinder at the end of compression / Volume of cylinder at the beginning of compression
c. rk = Volume of cylinder at the end of compression / clearance volume
Answer Explanation
39) How is the heat added in the Otto cycle?
a. reversibly at constant pressure

b. irreversibly at constant pressure
c. reversibly at constant volume
d. irreversibly at constant volume
Answer Explanation
40) Otto cycle is the air standard cycle of
a. spark ignition (SI) engine

b. compression (CI) ignition engine
c. both SI and CI engines
Answer Explanation
The purpose of study of air standard cycle is
a. to simplify the analysis of internal combustion engine

b. to increase the efficiency of internal combustion engine
c. both a. and b.
Answer Explanation
42) What is the reason of the fact that the internal combustion engine does not complete thermodynamic cycle?
a. because every time fresh air is taken inside the engine and combustion products are thrown out of the engine
b. because permanent chemical change is undergone by the working fluid in combustion chamber
c. both a. and b.
Answer Explanation
43) What is the correct formula for net work done of reciprocating engine?
a. Wnet = mean effective pressure × clearance volume

b. Wnet = mean effective pressure × total volume of cylinder
c. Wnet = mean effective pressure × displacement volume
Answer Explanation
44) Which thermodynamic cycle, for the same condition, has highest efficiency among the others?
a. Carnot cycle
b. Stirling cycle
c. Ericsson cycle
Answer Explanation
45) Two reversible isothermal processes and two reversible isobaric processes are carried out in
a. Rankine cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Stirling cycle
d. Ericsson cycle
Answer Explanation
46) The cycle which consists of two reversible isotherms and two reversible isochores is called as
a. Rankine cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Stirling cycle
d. Ericsson cycle
Answer Explanation
47) Internal combustion engine is the example of

c. both a. and b.
Answer Explanation
48) The engines which are operating on gas power cycle are
a. cyclic
b. non-cyclic
UNIT 2
A quasi-static process has main characteristics as it is
a. a stationary process
b. an infinitely slow process
c. a random process
d. a spontaneous process
Answer Explanation
2) A machine which can supply mechanical work continuously without consumption of any energy is called as
a. Perpetual Motion Machine of the First kind (PMM1)

b. Perpetual Motion Machine of the Second kind (PMM2)
c. Perpetual Motion Machine of the Third kind (PMM3)
Answer Explanation
3) Which among the following statements are correct?

(1) Energy is an extensive property
(2) Specific energy is an extensive property
(3) Energy is a point function
(4) Heat capacity is an extensive property
a. Statement (1), (2) and (3)

b. Statement (1), (3) and (4)
c. Statement (2), (3) and (4)
d. Statement (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Answer Explanation
4) Total amount of energy in the universe is
a. increasing
b. decreasing
c. constant
Answer Explanation
5) Which of the following is/are mode/s of storage of internal energy in a system?
a. Macroscopic energy mode

b. Microscopic energy mode
c. both a. and b.
Answer Explanation
6) Which of the following is NOT a path function?
a. Internal energy
b. Heat energy
c. Work energy
Answer Explanation
7) Consider the below diagram of heat transfer and work transfer for a system. What will be the first law equation for the belo
a. (Q1 – Q2) = ΔE – ( W2 + W3 – W1 )
b. (Q1 + Q2) = ΔE + ( W2 – W3 + W1 )
c. (Q1 – Q2) = ΔE + ( W2 + W3 – W1 )
Answer Explanation
8) A system changes its state from state 1 to state 2 through path A and returns from state 2 to state 1 through path B. Path C
alternate returning path from state 2 to state 1 as shown in figure. What will be the effect on change in internal energy of the sy
if the system undergoes these different paths A, B and C?
a. ΔE of path C will be greater then ΔE of path B and path A

b. ΔE of path A and path C are equal but ΔE of path B is different than rest
c. ΔE of all the paths are equal
Answer Explanation
9) When the heat transfer into a system is more than the work transfer out of the system, then
a. the internal energy of the system remains constant

b. the internal energy of the system decreases
c. the internal energy of the system increases
Thermodynamics Test Questions Set - 1

 Home >> Category >> Mechanical Engineering (MCQ) questions and answers
1) The energy of an isolated system
a. is always decreasing
b. is always constant
c. is always increasing
Answer Explanation Related Ques
2) The term which can differentiate thermodynamics from other sciences is ____.
a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Mass
3) The thermodynamic work done by the system on the surrounding is considered as ____.
a. positive
b. negative
c. neutral
4) When the heat transfer into a system is more than the work transfer out of the system, then
a. the internal energy of the system remains constant

b. the internal energy of the system decreases
c. the internal energy of the system increases
5) Practically heat and work are completely interchangeable forms of energy
a. True
b. False
6) First law of thermodynamics provides
a. a statement that energy balance occurs when a system undergoes the change of state or the process
b. a statement about whether the change of state or the process is at all feasible or not
c. both a. and b.
7) The thermodynamic cycle in which net heat is transferred to the system and a net work is transferred from the system is cal
a. refrigeration cycle
b. heat engine cycle
c. both a. and b.
8) Which of the following is NOT the heat engine cycle
a. refrigerator
b. stem power plant
c. mass of gas confined in a cylinder and piston machine
9) Efficiency of heat engine cycle is the ratio of
a. total heat input to the cycle (Qin) to net work output of the cycle (Wnet)
b. net work output of the cycle (Wnet) to total heat input to the cycle (Qin)
c. net work output of the cycle (Wnet) to heat rejected from the system (Qout)
10) A thermal energy reservoir (TER) has
a. a finite heat capacity

b. an infinite heat capacity
c. a finite mass
11) Two reversible adiabatic paths
a. can intersect with each other

b. cannot intersect with each other
c. may intersect or may not intersect
12) Which property of a system is constant in reversible adiabatic process?
a. pressure
b. volume
c. temperature
d. entropy
13) Thermodynamics is the study of
a. energy
b. equilibrium
c. entropy
14) What is the cyclic integral of dQ/T for reversible process?
a. less than zero

b. zero
c. more than zero
15) What is the cyclic integral of dQ/T for irreversible process?
a. less than zero

b. zero
c. more than zero
16) Any reversible path may be substituted by a reversible zigzag path between the same end processes such that the heat tran
during this zigzag path is equal to the heat transfer during original path. What are the processes involved in the zigzag path?
a. reversible polytropic and isobaric process

b. reversible polytropic and isothermal process
c. reversible adiabatic and isothermal processes
17) When a system is taken from state A to state B through a reversible path 1 and again the system is taken to its initial state
through different reversible path 2, then what will be the effect on entropy?
a. entropy increases
b. entropy decreases
c. entropy remains constant
18) What is the exergy of a system?
a. The minimum work that can be extracted from a system till it reaches thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings
b. The maximum work that can be extracted from a system till it reaches thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings
c. The maximum entropy that can be increased in a system till it reaches thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings
19) What is the effect on quality of the energy when it is conserved?
a. the quality of the energy increases while conserving its quantity

b. the quality of the energy decreases while conserving its quantity
c. the quality of the energy remains same while conserving its quantity
20) Which analysis/analyses is/are required to make energy conversion or energy conveying system more efficient?
a. First law or energy analysis

b. Second law or exergy analysis
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above
21) What is a pure substance?
a. a homogeneous mixture of two substances of same composition

b. a substance with constant chemical composition throughout its mass
c. both a. and b.
22) A pure substance exists in
a. solid phase
b. liquid phase
c. gaseous phase
d. all of the above
23) What is a mole of a substance?
a. One mole has a mass numerically equal to half the molecular weight of the substance
b. One mole has a mass numerically equal to the molecular weight of the substance
c. One mole has a mass numerically equal to double the molecular weight of the substance
24) According to the Avogadro's law, what is the relation between volume of 1 kg mol of oxygen and volume of 1 kg mol of nitr
normal pressure and temperature? (Mass of 1 kg mol of oxygen is 32 kg and mass of 1 kg mol of nitrogen is 28 kg)
a. volume of 1 kg mol of oxygen is greater than that of nitrogen

b. volume of 1 kg mol of oxygen is less than that of nitrogen
c. volume of 1 kg mol of oxygen is same as that of nitrogen
25) A single phase pure substance has following properties p, V, T, S, U, H, F (Helmholtz function) and G (Gibbs function). Any
these properties may be expressed
a. as a function of the same property

b. as a function of any one other property
c. as a function of any two other properties
26) Joule-Kelvin effect can be carried out by
a. throttling process of gas

b. Joule-Thomson expansion of gas
c. both a. and b.
27) What will be the net change in internal energy of working fluid of power cycle over the complete cycle?
a. net change in internal energy of working fluid will be positive

b. net change in internal energy of working fluid will be negative
c. no any net change in internal energy of working fluid
28) What is the relation between net energy transferred to unit mass of the working fluid as heat in the power cycle and net en
transfer as work from the working fluid in the same power cycle, if the cycle works ideally?
a. net energy transferred to unit mass of the working fluid as heat in the power cycle is greater than net energy transfer as work from t
fluid in the same power cycle
b. net energy transferred to unit mass of the working fluid as heat in the power cycle is less than net energy transfer as work from the w
c. net energy transferred to unit mass of the working fluid as heat in the power cycle is equal to net energy transfer as work from the w
d. cannot say
29) What is the formula for efficiency of vapour power cycle?
a. ηcycle = Wnet / Qin

b. ηcycle = (WT – WP) / Qin
c. ηcycle = (Qin – Qout) / Qin
d. all of the above
30) Which processes do the Rankine cycle contain?
a. two isothermal and two isochoric processes

b. two isentropic and two isobaric processes
c. two isentropic and two isothermal processes
d. two isothermal and two isobaric processes
31) At ideal condition of vapour power cycle, reversible constant pressure heat rejection is carried out at
a. boiler
b. turbine
c. condenser
d. feed pump
32) Which ideal process is carried out at the turbine in vapour power cycle?
a. reversible adiabatic compression

b. reversible adiabatic expansion
c. reversible constant pressure heat addition
d. reversible constant pressure heat rejection
33) In the T-s diagram of vapour power cycle, what is the condition of stem at the starting of turbine expansion?
a. wet with dryness fraction 0.8

b. wet with dryness fraction 0.99
c. dry saturated
d. superheated
34) The engines which are operating on gas power cycle are
a. cyclic
b. non-cyclic
35) Internal combustion engine is the example of

c. both a. and b.
36) The cycle which consists of two reversible isotherms and two reversible isochores is called as
a. Rankine cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Stirling cycle
d. Ericsson cycle
37) Two reversible isothermal processes and two reversible isobaric processes are carried out in
a. Rankine cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Stirling cycle
d. Ericsson cycle
38) Which thermodynamic cycle, for the same condition, has highest efficiency among the others?
a. Carnot cycle
b. Stirling cycle
c. Ericsson cycle
39) What is the correct formula for net work done of reciprocating engine?
a. Wnet = mean effective pressure × clearance volume

b. Wnet = mean effective pressure × total volume of cylinder
c. Wnet = mean effective pressure × displacement volume
40) What is the reason of the fact that the internal combustion engine does not complete thermodynamic cycle?
a. because every time fresh air is taken inside the engine and combustion products are thrown out of the engine
b. because permanent chemical change is undergone by the working fluid in combustion chamber
c. both a. and b.
41) The heat pump
a. receives heat from high temperature region and discharge it to low temperature region with production of useful work
b. receives heat from low temperature region and discharge it to high temperature region with production of useful work
c. receives heat from high temperature region and discharge it to low temperature region with utilization of external work
d. receives heat from low temperature region and discharge it to high temperature region with utilization of external work
42) What is correct formula for calculating COP of heat pump?
a. [COP]H. P. = Q1 / W
b. [COP]H. P. = Q2 / W
c. [COP]H. P. = W / Q1
d. [COP]H. P. = W / Q2

43) How is the COP of a refrigerator calculated?
a. [COP]Ref. = Q1 / W
b. [COP]Ref. = Q2 / W
c. [COP]Ref. = W / Q1
d. [COP]Ref. = W / Q2
44) Where is main concentration in refrigeration for its calculation?
a. high temperature reservoir

b. low temperature reservoir
c. both high temperature and low temperature reservoirs
45) What is the relation between [COP]H. P. = [COP]Ref.?
a. [COP]H. P. = [COP]Ref.
b. [COP]H. P. + [COP]Ref. = 1
c. [COP]H. P. – [COP]Ref. = 1
d. [COP]H. P. × [COP]Ref. = 1
46) What is the effect of decrease in temperature difference between two reservoirs of heat pump on its COP?
a. COP increases with decreases in temperature difference between two reservoirs

b. COP decreases with decreases in temperature difference between two reservoirs
c. COP does not affected by change in temperature difference between two reservoirs
d. cannot say
47) Dry air does NOT contain
a. krypton
b. argon
c. neon
48) The ratio of partial pressure of water vapour in a mixture to the saturation pressure of water at the same temperature of t
is called as
a. humidity
b. partial humidity
c. specific humidity
d. relative humidity
49) What is the specific humidity?
a. the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of the total mixture of air and water vapour
b. the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of the total mixture of air and water vapour
c. the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in a mixture of air and water vapour
d. the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of dry air in a mixture of air and water vapour
50) The boiler in which the tubes are surrounded by hot gases is called as
a. fire tube boiler

b. water tube boiler
c. both a. and b.
SET 2
Quasi-static process
a. is infinitely slow process

b. experiences thermodynamic equilibrium at every small point on its path
c. reversible process
d. all of the above
2) The thermocouple circuit which is used to measure temperature works on ____.
a. Seebeck effect
b. Peltier effect
c. Thomson effect
3) Heat is transferred across a boundary by virtue of a temperature difference. The heat is transferred, that means
a. force transfer takes place

b. energy transfer takes place
c. temperature transfer takes place
d. all of the above
4) Total amount of energy in the universe is
a. increasing
b. decreasing
c. constant
5) To achieve a definite zero point on the Kelvin scale, we have to violate
a. first law of thermodynamics

b. second law of thermodynamics
c. both first law and second law of thermodynamics
d. no law has to be violated
6) The temperature at which a system undergoes a reversible isothermal process without transfer of heat is called as ________
a. critical temperature
b. Kelvin temperature
c. absolute zero temperature
d. reversible temperature
7) Any attainable value of absolute temperature is ________
a. always less than zero

b. always equals to zero
c. always greater than zero
8) Assume that a reversible heat engine is operating between a source at T1 and a sink at T2. If T2 decreases, the efficiency of
engine ______
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
9) The irreversibility in the system caused by friction is an example of
c. frictional irreversibility
10) When a process becomes irreversible due to heat interaction between system and surrounding at the boundary due to finit
temperature gradient, then the irreversibility is______
c. mechanical irreversibility
11) The degree of disorder of a mixture of two gases
a. is always less than the degrees of disorder of individual gases

b. is always greater than the degrees of disorder of individual gases
c. is always equals the degrees of disorder of individual gases
12) What is the relation between thermodynamic probability (W) and entropy?
a. thermodynamic probability increases with entropy

b. thermodynamic probability decreases with entropy
c. thermodynamic probability does not change with change in with entropy
13) At the most probable state of a system the entropy of the system is
a. minimum
b. maximum
c. constant
14) If the two parts A and B in a system are considered to be in equilibrium and having thermodynamic probabilities WA and
will be the thermodynamic probability of the system?
a. W = WA . WB
b. W = WA + WB
c. W = (WA + WB) / 2
d. W = √(WA – WB)
15) At the state of perfect order (W = 1) of pure crystalline substance, how is the zero entropy defined?
a. entropy at 0 °C temperature
b. entropy at absolute zero temperature
c. entropy at the freezing point of the substance
16) What is the reason behind the fact that the absolute zero entropy value is not attainable?
a. because absolute zero temperature is not attainable in finite number of operations

b. because theoretically absolute zero temperature has negative value of entropy and it is not possible
c. both a. and b.
17) What is the entropy chosen at the triple point of water?
a. zero
b. less than zero
c. more than zero

18) What is the difference between work done by a system through an ideal reversible process and actual work done by the sys
called?
a. irreversibility
b. degradation
c. dissipation
d. all of the above
19) Which will be a suitable condition of exergy loss and entropy generation for thermodynamically efficient process?
a. maximum exergy loss with minimum rate of entropy generation

b. minimum exergy loss with maximum rate of entropy generation
c. maximum exergy loss with maximum rate of entropy generation
d. minimum exergy loss with minimum rate of entropy generation
20) What is the value of exergy in general?
a. only negative
b. only positive
c. sometimes positive sometimes negative
d. cannot say
21) What is the dryness fraction (x) on saturated vapour line?
a. x = 0
b. x = 1
c. x = 0.9
d. x = 0.5
22) What is the line which starts from critical point having constant dryness fraction throughout the line as shown in figure (L
called?
a. constant vapour line

b. constant liquid line
c. constant quality line
23) In a mixture of ideal gases of volume V and temperature T, what is the pressure exerted by each individual gas if it occupie
volume V alone at temperature T called?
a. individual pressure
b. divided pressure
c. partial pressure
d. total pressure

24) A mixture of ideal gases of volume V at temperature T, contains n1 moles of gas A, n2 moles of gas B and n3 moles of gas C
a correct formula for partial pressure (pB) of gas B?
a. (pB) = ((1/3)(n1+n2+n3) RT) / V
b. (pB) = ((n1 + n3) RT) / V

c. (pB) = (n2 RT) / V
d. (pB) = (n2(n1 + n3) RT) / V
25) What is the entropy change when the system is at stable equilibrium state?
a. the entropy change will be positive

b. the entropy change will be negative
c. the entropy change will be zero
d. cannot say
26) What is the entropy of the system at equilibrium state?
a. zero
b. minimum
c. maximum
d. constant but not maximum
27) A closed feedwater heater system
a. has high heat transfer capacity

b. requires pump at each heater to handle the large feedwater stream
c. requires only single pump regardless of the number of heaters
d. does not require any pump as the extracted steam and feedwater are not allowed to mix
28) What is the drawback of the steam as a working substance in a power cycle?
a. in a vapour power cycle, maximum temperature which can be obtained with best available material is more than the critical
temperature of water and requires large superheating
b. it allows only small amount of heat addition at the highest temperature
c. it requires reheat and reheater tubes are costly
d. all of the above
29) As the heat rejection temperature decreases in the vapour power cycle below atmospheric pressure,
a. the vacuum in the condenser also decreases

b. the vacuum in the condenser increases
c. it does not produce any vacuum in condenser
30) What should be the critical temperature of working fluid for maximum efficiency of vapour power cycle?
a. the working fluid should have critical temperature as low as possible

b. the working fluid should have critical temperature as high as possible
c. the critical temperature does not affect the efficiency of the vapour power cycle

31) The specific heat of the ideal working fluid used in vapor power cycle
a. should be constant
b. should be large
c. should be small
32) What is the importance of the freezing point of the working fluid in the vapour power cycle?
a. freezing point of working fluid should be below the room temperature

b. freezing point of working fluid should be above the room temperature
c. freezing point of working fluid should be equal to the room temperature
d. does not have any importance
33) When two vapor cycles are coupled in series and heat rejected by one is absorbed by another, the cycle is called as
a. Dual vapour cycle

b. Binary vapour cycle
c. Coupled vapour cycle
34) In working condition of turbojet engine, velocity of air entering the engine is
a. higher than the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine

b. lower than the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine
c. equal to the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine
d. cannot say
35) Why do the airplanes fly at higher altitude during the long flights?
a. to avoid collisions as they are at very high speed and controlling will be difficult if something (like towers, hills) comes in the w
b. it is easy to communicate with satellites at high altitudes
c. to save the fuel as air at higher altitude exerts smaller drag force on aircraft
36) The propulsive power developed by the thrust of engine is given by
a. mair (Vexit – Vinlet)

b. mair (Vexit – Vinlet) × Vaircraft
c. (Vexit – Vinlet) × Vaircraft
37) The propulsive efficiency is the ratio of
a. the propulsive power to the energy input rate

b. the exit velocity rate of exhaust gases to the energy input rate
c. the work done by the turbine to the energy input rate
d. velocity of aircraft to the energy input rate
38) In turbofan engine, fan is used

a. to compress the inlet air more efficiently
b. to increase the total thrust of the engine
c. both a. and b.
39) In turbofan engine, the bypass ratio is the ratio of
a. total mass flow rate of exhaust stream to the mass flow rate of stream from turbine exhaust
b. total mass flow rate of exhaust stream to the mass flow rate of stream from fan exhaust
c. the mass flow rate of stream from turbine exhaust to the mass flow rate of stream from fan exhaust
d. the mass flow rate of stream from fan exhaust to the mass flow rate of stream from turbine exhaust
40) What is the effect of increasing bypass ratio of a turbofan engine on its thrust?
a. thrust increases with increase in bypass ratio of turbofan engine

b. thrust decreases with increase in bypass ratio of turbofan engine
c. thrust of the turbofan engine only depends upon the fuel rate, so no change of thrust with increase in bypass ratio
d. cannot say
41) Heat pump is used
a. to transform low grade rejected heat into high temperature heat source
b. to transform high grade rejected heat into low temperature heat sink
c. both a. and b.

42) Which of the following is NOT a type of heat pump?
a. vapour compression type

b. vapour absorption type
c. both a. and b.
43) In year-round air conditioning, by reversing refrigerating cycle
a. condenser acts like evaporator

b. evaporator acts like condenser
c. both a. and b.
44) In gas cycle refrigeration system, the throttle valve of a vapour compression refrigerant system is replaced by
a. capillary tube
b. expander
c. reverse throttle valve
45) How much is the temperature drop of real gas by throttling?
a. vary big temperature drop

b. very small temperature drop
c. no temperature drop
d. cannot say
46) The ideal gas-refrigeration cycle is similar to
a. Brayton cycle
b. Reversed Brayton cycle
c. Rankine cycle
d. Reversed Rankine cycle
47) The horizontal line in psychrometric chart joining the change of state of air represents
a. humidification
b. sensible cooling or heating
c. sensible cooling or heating with humidification
d. sensible cooling or heating with dehumidification
48) Air at dry bulb temperature Td1 is passed through the heating coil and some amount of air is by passed unaffected and lea
dry bulb temperature Tb2 and the temperature of heated air is Td3 (where Td2 < Td3), what is the correct formula for by pass
(The amount of air by passed unaffected)?
a. Bypass Factor = (Td3 – Td2) / (Td3 – Td1)

b. Bypass Factor = (Td3 – Td1) / (Td3 – Td2)
c. Bypass Factor = (Td2 – Td1) / (Td2 – Td3)
d. Bypass Factor = (Td2 – Td3) / (Td2 – Td1)

49) Humidification is the process of addition moisture in air at
a. constant wet bulb temperature

b. constant dry bulb temperature
c. constant latent heatn
50) Which device used to separate condensate from the steam without letting steam escape?
a. condenser
b. steam valve
c. steam trap
The substance which is homogeneous and invariable in chemical composition throughout its mass is called as ____.
a. ideal substance
b. pure substance
c. solid substance
2) The two-property rule statement consists that ____.
a. to fix state of pure substance of a given mass, the system should be in equilibrium
b. to fix state of pure substance of a given mass, any two independent intensive properties of the substance should be specified
c. both a. and b. conditions should be satisfied

3) Absolute pressure is measured as
a. Gauge pressure – Atmospheric pressure

b. Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
c. Gauge pressure / Atmospheric pressure
4) A platinum resistance thermometer has a resistance of 2 ohm at 0° C and 3 ohm at 100° C. What will be the temperature wh
resistance indicates 5 ohm?
a. 300° C
b. 200° C
c. 350° C
d. 400° C
5) Heat flow is a quantity of heat transfer
a. within definite time

b. within definite cross-sectional area
c. within definite volume of the system
6) The process in which no heat transfer takes place through boundaries is called as
a. isothermal process
b. adiabatic process
c. isochoric process
7) Heat transfer is
a. a point function
b. a path function
c. a transfer function
8) The equation for calculating amount of heat transfer through a system boundary
when,
T is temperature, an intensive property
X is an extensive property which is result of heat transfer is
a. Q1-2 = 1∫2 T dX
b. Q1-2 = 1∫2 X dT
c. Q1-2 = 1∫2 (1/T) dX
9) The amount of heat required to raise a unit mass of substance through a unit rise in temperature is called as
a. heat capacity of a substance

b. specific heat of a substance
c. latent heat of a substance
10) The amount of heat transferred to convert unit mass of solid to vapour or vice versa is called as
a. latent heat of vaporization

b. latent heat of fusion
c. latent heat of sublimation
d. specific heat
11) Which among the following statements are correct?

(1) Energy is an extensive property
(2) Specific energy is an extensive property
(3) Energy is a point function
(4) Heat capacity is an extensive property
a. Statement (1), (2) and (3)

b. Statement (1), (3) and (4)
c. Statement (2), (3) and (4)
d. Statement (1), (2), (3) and (4)
12) A quasi-static process has main characteristics as it is
a. a stationary process
b. an infinitely slow process
c. a random process
d. a spontaneous process

13) Match the following irreversibilities
(1) Mechanical irreversibility ------ (A) Refrigeration cycle

(2) Thermal irreversibility --------- (B) Forming of water by combination of Hydrogen and Oxygen
(3) Chemical irreversibility -------- (C) Free expansion of gas in a system
(4) External irreversibility --------- (D) Melting of ice cube under the sunlight
a. (1)-(A), (2)-(B), (3)-(C), (4)-(D)

b. (1)-(A), (2)-(D), (3)-(B), (4)-(C)
c. (1)-(C), (2)-(D), (3)-(A), (4)-(B)
d. (1)-(C), (2)-(D), (3)-(B), (4)-(A)
14) A cyclic heat engine operates between a source temperature of 927 oC and a sink temperature of 27 oC. What will be the m
efficiency of the heat engine?
a. 100 %
b. 80 %
c. 75 %
d. 70 %
15) PMM2 is the machine which violates ___________
c. both a. and b.
16) What is the equation for entropy of a system if two parts 1 and 2 having entropies S1 and S2 are considered in equilibrium
a. S = S1 – S2
b. S = S1 + S2
c. S = (S1 + S2) / 2
d. S = √S1 S2
17) Exergy is not conserved but destroyed in the process. What is the reason behind this?
a. reversibility
b. irreversibility
c. both reversibility and irreversibility
18) What does the exergy principle state?
a. The exergy of an isolated system can never decreases, but always increases
b. The exergy of an isolated system can never increases, but always decreases
c. The exergy of an isolated system can either increases or decreases
d. cannot say
19) People use electric energy to heat and light homes. What does it indicate?
a. People are destroying energy

b. People are creating energy
c. People are converting energy from more exergy value to less exergy value
d. People are converting energy from less exergy value to more exergy value
20) The ratio of minimum exergy which must be consumed to perform the task to the actual amount of energy consumed in pe
the same task is called as
a. first law efficiency

b. second law efficiency
c. exergy efficiency
21) The dryness (x) fraction of superheated steam is taken as
a. x= 0
b. x= 0.9
c. x= 0.999
d. x= 1
22) What is a liquid, whose temperature is less than the saturation temperature at the given pressure, called?
a. compressed liquid
b. subcooled liquid
c. both a. and b.

23) What is the degree of subcooling?
a. the difference between saturation temperature of liquid and actual temperature of liquid
b. the difference between saturation temperature of vapour and actual temperature of liquid
c. the difference between saturation temperature of liquid and actual temperature of vapour
d. the difference between saturation temperature of vapour and actual temperature of vapour
24) Dalton's law of partial pressure states that
a. the total pressure of a mixture of ideal gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of individual gases divided by numbe
mixed
b. the total pressure of a mixture of ideal gases is equal to the partial pressure of any individual gas in the mixture
c. the total pressure of a mixture of ideal gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of individual gases
25) What is the partial volume of a gas in a mixture?
a. volume occupied by a single gas alone of a mixture at the same temperature and pressure of the mixture
b. total volume of the mixture at a certain pressure and temperature divided number of gases mixed in the mixture
c. both a. and b.

26) The sum of partial volumes of all gases in a mixture is equal to
a. less than the total volume of the mixture

b. the total volume of the mixture
c. more than the total volume of the mixture
d. cannot predict
27) In binary vapour cycle, the cycle which is operated in high pressure ratio is called as
a. bottoming cycle
b. topping cycle
c. upper cycle
d. pressure cycle
28) What is the correct formula for brake efficiency of the turbine in vapour power cycle?
Where out flow is as following,Ideal output(Actual work given to turbine) ----> Internal losses ----> Internal output (Actual wor
produced by turbine turbine) ----> External losses -----> Brake output (Actual work at the shaft)
a. ηBrake = Brake output / Ideal output

b. ηBrake = Brake output / Internal output
c. ηBrake = Ideal output / Brake output
d. ηBrake = Internal output / Brake output
29) What is the relation between brake efficiency, internal efficiency and mechanical efficiency?
a. ηInternal = ηMech * ηBrake

b. ηMech = ηInternal * ηBrake
c. ηBrake = ηInternal * ηMech
30) How is the COP of gas-refrigeration cycle compared with the COP of vapour compression cycle, for the same capacity?
a. the COP of gas-refrigeration cycle is lower than the COP of vapour compression cycle, for the same capacity
b. the COP of gas-refrigeration cycle is higher than the COP of vapour compression cycle, for the same capacity
c. the COP of gas-refrigeration cycle is same as the COP of vapour compression cycle
31) The gas-refrigeration system is
a. more heavy and bulky than the vapour compression cycle

b. less heavy and bulky than the vapour compression cycle
c. same in construction with the vapour compression cycle
32) What is the perfect condition for dehumidification of air?
a. air is heated above its dew point temperature

b. air is cooled up to its dew point temperature
c. air is heated below its dew point temperature
d. air is cooled below its dew point temperature

33) At 100% relative humidity, the wet bulb temperature is
a. lower than the dew point temperature

b. higher than the dew point temperature
c. equal to the dew point temperature
34) The dew point temperature is less than the wet bulb temperature for
a. saturated air
b. unsaturated air
c. both saturated and unsaturated air
35) When,
H1 = Total heat of air entering the coil (heating or cooling)
H2 = Total heat of air leaving the coil (heating or cooling)
H3 = Total heat of air at the end of the process (humidification or dehumidification)
then, the sensible heat factor (H2 – H1) / (H3 – H1) represents the process of
a. cooling and humidification

b. cooling and dehumidification
c. heating and humidification
d. heating and dehumidification
36) When the rate of evaporation of water is zero, the relative humidity of the air is
a. 0%
b. 100%
c. 50%
d. unpredictable
37) What is the pH value of water permissible for boiler?
a. 0
b. 7
c. slightly less than 7
d. slightly more than 7
38) The formation of scale boiler leads to
a. decrease in efficiency of boiler

b. increase in efficiency of boiler
c. increase in heat transfer
d. decrease in maintenance of boiler

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1.

In an open system, for maximum work, the process must be entirely

The irreversibility of a process occurs due to

a. lack of equilibrium during the process

Efficiency of heat engine cycle is the ratio of

PMM2 is the machine which violates ___________

Any attainable value of absolute temperature is ________

a. always less than zero

To achieve a definite zero point on the Kelvin scale, we have to violate

a. first law of thermodynamics

Arbitrarily, the value of triple point is taken as

All spontaneous processes are

a. other one may be or may not be violated

COP of a heat pump is

(1) Furnace where fuel is continuously burning

a. (1), (2) and (4)

A thermal energy reservoir (TER) has

a. a finite heat capacity

B. specific heat at constant pressure

Workdone in a free expansion process is

The degree of disorder of a mixture of two gases

a. is always less than the degrees of disorder of individual gases

What is the entropy chosen at the triple point of water?

a. dS will remain constant

Which type of function the entropy is?

a. reversible polytropic and isobaric process

Which property of a system is constant in reversible adiabatic process?

Two reversible adiabatic paths

a. can intersect with each other

What is the perfect condition for dehumidification of air?

a. air is heated above its dew point temperature

a. cooling and humidification

5) At 100% relative humidity, the wet bulb temperature is

a. lower than the dew point temperature

6) Humidification is the process of addition moisture in air at

a. constant wet bulb temperature

a. Bypass Factor = (Td3 – Td2) / (Td3 – Td1)

9) The moisture content lines in psychrometric chart are also called as

a. relative humidity lines

a. less than the corresponding wet bulb temperature

On psychrometric chart, wet bulb temperature lines are

a. horizontal with uniformly spaced

13) The formation of fog starts when,

a. air temperature is equal to the dew point temperature

16) What is sensible cooling of air?

a. greater the amount of water vapour held in the mixture

18) Which temperature can be measured by an instrument called psychrometer?

a. dry bulb temperature

a. dry bulb temperature

The degree of saturation varies between

22) What is the degree of saturation?

23) What is the relative humidity for a saturated air?

24) What is the specific humidity?

26) Dry air does NOT contain

The engines which are operating on gas power cycle are

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Q2. Internal combustion engine is the example of

a. cyclic heat engine