I.

PLAN AND CONDUCT A PASSAGE AND DETERMINE POSITION

1. A cumulative list of notices to mariners are published _____ a year. twice
2. A marine sextant has the index arm set at zero and the reflected image of the horizon forms a continuous line with
the actual image. When the sextant is rotated about the line of sight the images separate. The sextant has
____side error
3. A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar __________can use radar information from one object to fix the
position
4. A polyconic projection is based on a __________. d. series of cones tangent at selected parallels
5. A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and advanced to a common time is a(n)
__________.running fix
6. A position obtained by taking lines of position from one object at different times and advancing them to a common
time is a(n) __________. d. running fix
7. A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel's course and speed is a(n)
__________. b. estimated position
8. A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken at nearly the same time, is a(n)
__________. c. fix
9. A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a __________.positive correction
10. A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a __________. negative correction
11. A ship is navigating in the Caribbean in August when it receives the warning of a Hurricane. To determine the
centre of the storm the Master uses "Buys Ballot's Law" and faces the wind. On what side of the Master would
the low pressure area be located?On the right side
12. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from ____________. fixed known objects on the shore
13. A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n) __________. b. estimated position
14. A vertical sextant angle gives _________. c. a position circle
15. A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and crosses the International Date Line on an eastbound
course at 0900 zone time. What is the date and time at Greenwich when the vessel crosses the line? b. 2100, 24
January
16. A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of __________. b. fixed known objects on shore
17. A voyage passage plan is made from _____. c. berth to berth
18. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in 1912, the ratio of length to width at
the entrance for cargo vessels is c. 7.4 and 7.8 to 1
19. All Loran-C transmitting stations are equipped with cesium frequency standards which permit __________. b. each
station to transmit without reference to another station
20. At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you again fix your position and it is 0.5 mile east
of your DR. Which statement is TRUE? d. The drift is 0.25 knot.
21. Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude reads 60° on the limb, the actual arc of the
limb from 0° to the 60° reading is __________. b. 30°
22. Charted depth is the __________. b. vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom
23. Civil twilight begins at 1910 zone time on 20 July 1981. Your DR position at that time is LAT 22°16'N, LONG
150°06'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for evening sights is TRUE?Venus will have a
westerly meridian angle.
24. Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December 1981. Your DR position at that time is LAT 15°02'N, LONG
46°02'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for morning sights is TRUE?At 0558, Mars can be
used for an ex-meridian observation.
25. Coastal radio navigational warnings are issued _____. by port and harbour authorities within their respective limits
26. Controls testing of bridge equipment should be carried out _______. c. one to two hours prior sailing
27. Define the required interval between position fixes. d. Such that the vessel cannot be set appreciable off
course, or into danger by the effects of wind, tide or current
28. Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the __________. latitude scale near the
middle of the track line
29. During the month of October the Sun's declination is __________. c. south and increasing
30. For navigational purposes, each great circle on the Earth has a length of __________. d. 21,600 miles
31. From the following data: Sextant altitude (LL): 38?12.4'; Index error : 3.0' on the arc; Corr'n for HE : 6.6'; Total corr'n
for sun : for UL -17.0' , for LL + 14.8. What is the true altitude of the Sun's Lower limb? b. 38?17.6'
32. How can an ARPA assist the ship to steer a suitable course to make good the entrance to a channel? Select ground
stabilised true motion display and alter course so that own ships true vector passes through the middle of the
entrance to the channel.
33. How can the error of the Gyro compass be determined?By taking a transit bearing with the gyro compass of two
prominent fixed shore objects and comparing it with the bearing of the same objects on the chart
34. How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix? b. One
35. How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea voyage if the ship is in open waters ? c.
At least every 30 minutes
36. How should a vessel cross a traffic lane when obliged to do so? c)On a HEADING as nearly as practical at right angles
to the direction of traffic flow
37. If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver operator is warned because __________.signals begin to
blink
38. If the radar is set onto the Relative Motion Display, what would an echo of a target with no trail indicate? Note this
the trail of the echo and not a vector.The target is on the same course and speed as own ship.
39. If the radar scanner of one ship is at the same height as the cargo deck of the other during transfer operations,
which type of radar would pose a greater danger of the induced ignition ? F. A 10cm radar.
40. If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less distance than the minimum skywave distance, there is an area
in which no signal is received. This is called the __________. a. skip zone
41. If the strength of the wind is related to the pressure gradient and the space between the isobars, which of the
following statements is correct? The closer the isobars are together the stronger will be the predicted wind.
42. In Loran C ___________. c. the master station transmits 9 pulses and the secondary stations transmit 8 pulses each
43. In Mercator sailing ________---. c. DMP = D'long x Secant Course
44. In order to remove index error from a sextant, you should adjust the __________. b. horizon glass to make it
parallel to the index mirror with the index set at zero
45. In the Beaufort Scale of Wind Force, what is the Beaufort number associated with the wind force known as a
"Gale"? This should not be confused with a "Near Gale" or "Strong Gale"Eight (8)
46. In which country would you expect the channels to be marked with the IALA-B Buoyage System? c. Peru
47. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic area? b. Catalog of Charts
48. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT approximately the same as the great circle
distance? b. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere.
49. Is the location of the Compass Binnacle critical?Yes, for the reasons stated in all of the suggested answers
50. It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54°E longitude. Which statement is TRUE? c. The observer is in time zone -4.
51. Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important changes to aids to navigation by means of __________.
a. marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
52. Mean high water is the reference plane used for __________. b. heights above water of land features such as lights
53. Merencanakan dan melaksanakan pelayaran dan menentukan posisi. (Plan and conduct a passage and determine
position ) Before the voyage commences.
54. On 6 July 1981, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westward. What is your local time? d. It
is 1000, 7 July.
55. On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing white with a red sector. The red
sector __________. b. indicates a danger area
56. Pick up the correct statement from the following: d. All the above
57. Plotting position using the method of a running fix is used when _______. b. only one bearing line is available
58. Spring tides are tides that __________.have lows lower than normal and highs higher than normal
59. The azimuth of a body whose LHA is 195? will be _____. b. easterly
60. The compass binnacle on the ship has various specific functions, which of the following answers reflect its most
important functions.All of the answers provided
61. The date is the same all over the world at __________. b. 1200 GMT
62. The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide tables is __________. b. the same as
that used for the charts of the locality
63. The Decca green zone has ________. 18 lanes
64. The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of the body and the longitude of the observer is the
__________. b. meridian angle
65. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is indicated by the ______equation of
time
66. The difference in local time between an observer on 114°W and one on 119°W is __________. c. 20 minutes
67. The distance covered by a ship on four successive days were 320, 300, 310 and 330 nautical miles respectively. Find
the average daily run speed if each day is 24 hours long d. 315 naut. Miles
68. The DMP between latitude 20? 30' N and latitude 10? 15' S is _________. 1863.07
69. The drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents refer to the ____speed and direction toward which the current
flows
70. The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun. If you are on the central meridian
of your time zone, at what zone time will the apparent Sun cross the meridian?1212
71. The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean Sun. If you are on the central meridian of
your time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your meridian at __________. 11-51-20 ZT
72. The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315° and the GHA of a planet is 150°. What is the right ascension of the planet?
b. 11 hours
73. The gyro compass can suffer from a compass error and may need to be allowed for, when steering a course in a
dangerous navigational area. What is the probable cause of the error?An uncorrected course and speed error.
74. The horizon glass of a sextant is __________.silvered on its half nearer the frame
75. The index error is determined by adjusting the __________.micrometer drum
76. The latest edition of a chart can be found from _______.the latest cumulative notices to mariners
77. The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70°30'E. Which time would you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to
determine the declination of the Sun at LAN? 0728
78. The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of errors, four of which may be corrected by the navigator.
An error NOT correctable by the navigator is __________prismatic error
79. The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year for __________.Venus
80. The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the __________. a. index mirror
81. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line drawn from the point of departure to
the point of arrival, is the __________track line
82. The period at high or low tide during which there is no change in the height of the water is called the __________.
c. stand of the tide
83. The position accuracy of Loran-C degrades with increasing distance from the transmitting stations as __________.
b. a result of variation in propagation conditions
84. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a magnetic compass. How should an error of 5
degrees WEST be applied to the compass bearings?Subtract 5 degrees to the bearings
85. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be confirmed by other means, when possible. Which of
the following suggested methods would be the most accurate? The ranges of three distinctive shore objects on
the radar.
86. The range of tide is the __________difference between the heights of high and low tide
87. The rate of increase in hour angle is the slowest for __________the Moon
88. The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most charts is __________mean high
water
89. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on __________coastal anchorages
90. The SHA of star "VEGA" to the nearest minute is _______80?47'
91. The ship is navigating in dense fog where the visibility is less than one mile. The Arpa radar is set on a range 12
miles on a course of 314 degrees and own ship has a vector as shown. What is the vector mode selected on the
Arpa?True vectors
92. The time interval between the transmission of signals from a pair of Loran-C stations is very closely controlled and
operates with __________.an atomic time standard
93. The true wind is from 330°T, speed 6 knots. You want the apparent wind to be 30 knots from 10° on your port bow.
To what course and speed must you change? d. Cn 090°, 32.5 knots
94. The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is __________. c. predicted in Tidal Current Tables
95. The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of important marine information. Which NAVAREAS
include the Indonesian? XI
96. The zone time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73°15'E. What time would you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to
determine the declination of the Sun at LAN? 0659
97. To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply? Those adopted by the International Maritime Organization
98. Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate the __________speed of
the vessel over the ground or through the water
99. What action should the Officer of the Watch (OOW) take if he is forced to make a major deviation from the voyage
plan?Inform the Master
100. What are the limits of a passage or voyage plan?From berth to berth
101. What are the main components causing the magnetic compass to require a regular evaluation and compass
correction?Permanent and induced magnetism in the ships structure
102. What are the required data inputs into most gyro compasses to reduce any possible compass error?Latitude and
Speed
103. What are the two parts of the magnetic compass error?Variation and Deviation
104. What chart should be used when navigating ?The largest scale chart onboard for the area which is properly
corrected
105. What corrections must be applied to the echo sounder reading to compare the depth of water with the depth
printed on the chart?Draught of the ship
106. What could be the reason for the magnetic compass to swing through large angles when the ship is rolling in a
seaway?The heeling error magnets are upside down and/or not in the correct position.
107. What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position?Fix
108. What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant?Prismatic error
109. What is important to check when transferring a position from the GPS output to a paper chart?Any necessary
corrections are applied to convert between the GPS datum and the chart datum
110. What is the advantages of a GPS satellite system compared to other navigational aids?The GPS system gives
information about position, speed and time continuously world wide.
111. What is the correct setting of the "Anti sea clutter" control on the radar?A few sea returns remaining on the screen.
112. What is the correct understanding of the term "Isobar"?An "Isobar" is a line joining places of equal pressure.
113. What is the correct understanding of the term "Lapse Rate" when used in Meteorology?The change of the
temperature in the atmosphere with height above sea level.
114. What is the depth of an iceberg below the surface of the sea? The draught of an iceberg varies with the type of
berg and its age.
115. What is the direction of wind associated with an anticyclone (area of high pressure) in the Northern Hemisphere?
Clockwise around the high pressure
116. What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 232°27'?127°33'E
117. What is the probable cause of an error in position of the ship obtained from the GPS system?Incorrect height of the
antenna.
118. What is the shortest distance between two points on the surface of the earth?Great Circle
119. What is the weather associated with being in the centre of an Anticyclone (a region of High Pressure)?Light winds
and fair weather, sometimes fog.
120. What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists?New editions are corrected through the date shown on the
title page.
121. What is understood by the term "Dew point" of the air?The temperature at which condensation in the air forms
into water droplets.
122. What methods could be introduced into a passage plan for continuous monitoring of the ships position when
navigating along a coastline?Parallel Index lines
123. What possible reason could there be for the identification mark associated with a Racon not being visible on the
radar screen?All of the suggested answers.
124. What publication contains information about the port facilities and passage entry to port ?World Port Index
125. What should a passage plan include ? The plan should include the entire voyage from berth to berth.
126. What will be the d?long for departure of 66.5? when the ship is on m?lat of 29 degrees N. 76
127. When a ship is steaming along a course line, what is the importance of determining the set and rate of drift due to
wind and current?All of the suggested answers
128. When navigating a vessel, you __________should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position
129. When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites that your receiver is locked onto?
Horizontal Dilution of Precision
130. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the accuracy of the displayed position is
reduced?A large HDOP value is displayed on the screen
131. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?Only when fixed aids are not available
132. When should voyage planning be done? Prior to leaving the berth
133. When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed on the visible horizon when ________in high
latitudes
134. When the range of a ship is decreasing and its bearing remains constant,the ships are on: collision courses
135. When the temperature of the air increases with height it is known as a "Temperature Inversion" and may influence
the performance of some instruments on the ship. What should the bridge Officer of the Watch be prepared to
happen?Abnormal ranges of VHF RT and Second Trace Returns on the radar
136. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be considered? c. The buoy may not be in
the charted position.
137. When using a radar in a unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from __________. c. ranges
138. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a two-dimensional fix? c. 3
139. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a three-dimensional fix that takes into
account altitude? d. 4
140. When using the echo sounder in a river the soundings indicated may be incorrect, what would be the most
probable cause of the error?The density of the water
141. Where can a ship expect an act of piracy to take place?All over the world
142. Where can the size of the Magnetic Compass Error be found?By taking a transit bearing of two fixed geographical
positions and comparing it with the bearing of the same points on the chart
143. Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle? d. Aero light
144. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs and shoals?General charts
145. Which of the answers best summarises the information which should be provided for the bridge Officers of the
Watch within an effective Voyage plan.All of the suggested answers
146. Which of the following factors may not be taken into consideration when planning a passage in coastal waters?
Choice of ocean route
147. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is correct for an observer in position Latitude
30°00' North; Longitude 15°00' West, when observing the sun on the meridian, if the sun's Declination is 15°00'
South?Figure 4 is correct.
148. Which of the following methods do you think will give the most accurate ship?s position?Two distances off two
objects subtending an angle of about 90 degrees.
149. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error? Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the
frame
150. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of index error? b. Index mirror and horizon
glass not being parallel
151. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to determine the latitude of the observer when the sun
is on the meridian? Calculation 3 is correct.
152. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for the following situation: Latitude 50°00'N,
Longitude 30°00'W, Time 1200 GMT. Course steered: 090° True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing of the sun: 200°,
Intercept correction: 00°02' Towards (observed altitude - computed altitude).Figure 2 is correct.
153. Which of the suggested navigational systems is a "Hyperbolic" navigational system and has hyperbolae as position
lines?Loran C
154. Which one of the following land marks on the coast line must be depicted on hydrographic maps ?all the above
155. Which part of the magnetic compass error changes with a change in the course steered?Deviation
156. Which position includes the effects of wind and current? c. Estimated position
157. Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE?The topics for warnings included in HYDROLANTS,
HYDROPACS, and NAVAREA warnings are the same.
158. Which would you consult for information about the general current circulation in the North Atlantic Ocean?Pilot
chart
159. While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe a body for a latitude check. What would the azimuth have to
be?000°T
160. Who is ultimately responsible for the voyage plan?The Master
161. Why should Ground Stabilised True Motion display mode be avoided when using the Arpa for anti-collision
purposesThe collision regulations are based on ship courses through the water.
162. You are asked to find if a particular port you are expected to visit has an Indian Embassy. Which of these
publications would you consult?Guide to Port Entry
163. You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course 233°T, and bears 264°T at 68 miles
from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to intercept vessel A? b. 256°
164. You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation by __________. d. All of the above
165. You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which publication provides information about channel depths,
dangers, obstructions, anchorages, and marine facilities available in that port? c. Coast Pilot
166. You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR. Good seamanship would require that you have on
board, available for reference and use, all of the following EXCEPT the __________. c. Sailing Directions
(Enroute)
167. You expect to sight land at 2100 where an alteration of course is marked on the chart. By 2120 no land has been
sighted, the visibility is very good. What action would you take? b. Call Master.
168. You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft of 32'06". The charted depth of an obstruction in the
channel near Boston Light is 30 feet and you wish to have 3 feet of keel clearance. The steaming time from the
pier to the obstruction is 01h 05m. What is the latest time (ZD +4) you can sail on 17 May 1983 and meet these
requirements? b. 1728
169. You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System in __________. b. Australia
170. Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using vertical letters. This indicates the
__________. rock is dry at high water
171. Your longitude is 179°59'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m of the 4th day of the month. Six minutes later
your position is 179°59'E longitude. Your LMT and date is now __________.00h 02m on the 6th

II.MAINTAIN A SAFE NAVIGATIONAL WATCH

1. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside will display __________. b. two masthead lights
in a vertical line
2. A man is reported to have fallen overboard and the Officer of the Watch releases the lifebuoy and starts a man
overboard manoeuvre, who are the first persons onboard he should inform? Master and Engine Room
3. A sailing vessel is overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel, so as to pass on the power-driven vessel's
port side. The overtaken vessel will have to move to facilitate passage. The sailing vessel is the __________. d.
give-way vessel and would sound two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts
4. A ship is being overtaken by another ship while proceeding along a river. What should be the required procedure?
The overtaking vessel should request permission from the other ship by sounding two prolonged blasts followed
by two short blasts on the whistle or by direct VHF contact.
5. A vessel constrained by her draft may display __________.three all-round red lights
6. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel __________. d. All of the above
7. A vessel sounds one short blast. This signal indicates the vessel __________. c. is altering course to starboard
8. A vessel sounds two short blasts. This signal indicates the vessel __________. c. is altering course to port
9. According to rule 13 of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, what is the definition of "an
overtaking vessel"?When coming up with another vessel from a direction more than 22.5 degrees abaft her beam.
10.Can the OOW be the sole lookout? During daylight when visibility and traffic allows
11.How can a new officer, just boarding a ship, ensure that he knows the location and operation of all navigational and
safety equipment and take account of the operating limitations of such equipment?By asking other officers and
practicing with the use of the equipment
12.If whistles are fitted on a vessel at a distance apart of more than 100 metres, will manoeuvring and warning signals,
as defined by rule 34 of the International regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, be given on one or both
whistles?They shall be given on one whistle only.
13.In a crossing situation on international waters, a short blast by the give-way vessel indicates that the vessel
__________. b. is turning to starboard
14.In which case would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged followed by one short blast? b.
When overtaking in a narrow channel
15.Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others? c. A vessel on pilotage duty
16.Rule 12 of the International Collision Regulations prescribes the action to be taken by a sailing vessel when meeting
another sailing vessel. This depends on the direction of the wind relative to each vessel. In the situation shown
here, which sailing vessel (A or B) must keep out of the way of the other? Sailing vessel A must keep out of the
way of sailing vessel B.
17.SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations, Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of
Navigation and applies to which vessels?All vessels and on all voyages
18.The bridge Officer of the Watch (OOW) is plotting the ship's position in the chartroom, when the ship is in collision
with a fishing vessel. Why would the OOW be held responsible for the collision?Under the Rules a proper lookout
should be maintained at all times and by all available means
19.The following vessels are all required to make the same sound signal when in or near an area of restricted visibility: a
vessel not under command; a vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre; a vessel constrained by her draught / a
sailing vessel; a vessel engaged in fishing; a vessel engaged in towing or pushing another vessel. What is that
signal?One prolonged blast, followed by two short blasts, at intervals of not more than two minutes.
20.The lights displayed here indicate that this is one of two types of vessel. What are the two options? A power-driven
vessel engaged in towing, less than 50 metres in length, length of tow under 200 metres, towing vessel and tow
restricted in their ability to manoeuvre, seen head-on OR a power-driven vessel underway, more than 50 metres
in length, or less than 50 metres in length and showing a second masthead light, restricted in her ability to
manoeuvre, seen head-on.
21.The lights here show those that must be exhibited by a vessel engaged in towing, as per rule 24 of the International
Collision Regulations. But how long is the tow behind this vessel? It exceeds 200 metres.
22.The ship is drifting in the open sea with a temporary engine breakdown. The ship is equipped with GPS navigation
equipment. What should the bridge Officer of the Watch do in this situation?All of the possible answers.
23.The vessel is steaming off the coast when the engine room informs the bridge it must stop engines immediately.
Shortly afterwards they informed the bridge they would need a least three hours to fix it. Which of the following
actions would be the most suitable taken by the bridge? Display the NUC signal, maintain the watch and
determine how the ship is drifting and the probable position after three hours.
24.The vessel is to anchor with Pilot onboard. Which of the suggested answers most accurately define the main duties
of the Officer of the Watch on bridge?Assist the Master and pilot and monitor the ships position.
25.This vessel is encountered at the mouth of a river which leads to your discharge port. What do the various shapes
tell you?This is a vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations. The two balls in a vertical line indicate the
side on which an obstruction exists; the two diamonds in a vertical line indicate the side on which it is safe to
pass; the ball / diamond / /ball in a vertical line indiacte that the vessel is restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.
26.This vessel is sighted ahead and slightly to port. What is her situation? What will you do? This vessel is aground. I
will navigate with extreme caution given the nature of the hazard.
27.Two power-driven vessels are meeting. A two blast whistle signal by either vessel means __________. d. "I am
altering course to port"
28.Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal which could be sounded by a __________.
d. vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel
29.Under what circumstances would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged followed by one short
blast? b. When overtaking in a narrow channel
30.Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters and will pass without changing course. Vessel "A" __________. d.
will not sound any whistle signals
31.What are the additional duties required by the Officer of the Watch when navigating in fog?Sound fog signal,
effective radar watch reporting ship movements to Master and keep a good lookout for ships and fog signals.
32.What are the immediate duties of the bridge Officer of the Watch when the ship suddenly runs into a fog bank?
Commence sounding the fog signal, engines on standby, call the Master and lookout, if not already on duty
33.What are we seeing here? A sailing vessel less than 20 metres in length, displaying the optional combined lantern in
lieu of standard sailing lights, seen head-on.
34.What day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft? d. A cylinder
35.What do the shapes that this vessel is displaying tell us about her?That she is not under command.
36.What is correct UTC in this example? Approx. Pos: N49°51' W35°23', zone +2, Local Time 0900.11 00
37.What is happening here?These are two vessels engaged in fishing (pair trawling), showing the additional volutary
signals for hauling nets.
38.What is the colour and characteristic of a "towing light", as defined in the International Regulations for Preventing
Collisions at Sea?Yellow, fixed, seen over an arc of 135 degrees and so arranged as to display 67.5 degrees from
right aft on each side of the vessel.
39.What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way?An effective detailed passage plan fully
understood and followed by a competent bridge team.
40.What is the description for a sidelight, as shown in rule 21 of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions
at Sea?A green light on the starboard side and red light on the port side, showing an unbroken light over an arc of
112.5 degree, from right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on the respective side.
41.What is the main purpose of VTS?Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the
vicinity.
42.What is the situation of this vessel? This vessel is not under command, but is making way through the water.
43.What signal may be given by sound and by light to indicate that a vessel fails to understand the intentions or actions
of another vessel, or is in doubt that sufficient action is being taken by the other to avoid collision?Five short and
rapid blasts (flashes).
44.What sound signal shall be used on ship's whistle when there is a man overboard?3 long blasts repeatedly
45.What type of vessel is this and from what direction are you seeing it? This is a vessel engaged in fishing other than
trawling, making way through the water, with outlying gear extending more than 150m in the direction of the all-
round white light. I am looking at her port side.
46.What would the Second Officer report to the Master when entering an area where the visibility is reduced to 2
n.miles?The Second Officer would report to the Master that the visibility is reduced to probable range of 2 n.miles
and the engines are on standby.
47.What, by definition in the International Collision Regulations, is a "vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre"?A
vessel which from the nature of her work is restricted in her ability to manoeuvre as required by the Rules and is
therefore unable to keep out of the way of another vessel.
48.When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over many hours, what management issues
should the Master consider?All of these answers
49.When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in discussing the passage plan with the
pilot while he is there to use his local knowledge and advice on the navigation of the ship?A passage plan should
be discussed between the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge
team when deep sea
50.When is the Officer of the Watch officially relieved of his responsibilities of being in charge of the watch? When the
Master informs the Officer of the Watch that he is taking over the "con" (watch responsibilities)
51.When should operational checks on navigation equipment be done?When preparing for sea and entering port and at
regular intervals during the voyage
52.When steering by autopilot, how often should manual steering be checked?At least once a watch
53.When vessels are in sight of one another, two short blasts from one of the vessels means __________. b. "I am
altering my course to port"
54.Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"?Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger
and includes both identification of the occurrence and the likelihood that it will happen.
55.Which statement applies to a vessel "constrained by her draft"?She is severely restricted in her ability to change her
course because of her draft in relation to the available depth of water.
56.Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning light signals? b. The time between successive signals shall be not less
than ten seconds.
57.Which vessel may NOT exhibit two red lights in a vertical line?A vessel constrained by her draft
58.Which vessel would NOT sound a fog signal of one prolonged and two short blasts? c. A vessel being towed
59.Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the event of a vessel emergency when
transiting the Panama Canal?The Panama Canal Authority
60.You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's
speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2
nm. What aspects would you consider when establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?Deciding safe speed
consider: 2 miles visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability of vessel; effectiveness of navigational equipment
(ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and navigational hazards.
61.You are approaching a port in a snowstorm. You hear this signal. What kind of vessel is it and what is it doing?It
comes from a vessel engaged in pilotage duties and it is making way through the water.
62.You are close to the entrance to a port in thick fog. You hear the following signal. What does it mean?That there is a
vessel at anchor in the vicinity. She is less than 100 metres in length.
63.You are in an area of restricted visibility and hear this signal. It is repeated at two minute intervals. What does it
indicate?That there is another vessel nearby, that she is underway, but stopped and making no way through the
water.
64.You are in an area of restricted visibility, close to a port. You hear this signal. What vessel does it come from and
what additional information does the signal provide?A vessel at anchor, more than 100 metres in length. She is
sounding the additional signal to give warning of her position.
65.You are in an area of restricted visibility. You hear this sound signal. What does it mean?That there is a vessel in
distress nearby.
66.You are in open water and clear conditions. You are approaching the pilot station when you hear this signal from a
vessel ahead of you. What does it signify?That the vessel is operating astern propulsion.
67.You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. This vessel is sighted directly ahead. The distance is
closing slowly. What action will you take under the International Collision Regulations and why?I will keep out of
her way. I am the overtaking vessel and am obliged to keep clear under rule 13.
68.You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. This vessel is sighted on the port bow on a steady
bearing. What kind of vessel is it and what will your action be?This is a sailing vessel underway, seen head-on. It
is my responsibility to keep clear under rule 18 and I will take appropriate avoiding action.
69.You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. This vessel is sighted wide on the port bow. It's bearing
is opening, but its distance is closing rapidly. Which of the following is a correct assessment of the situation and
the action to be taken? Risk of collision is deemed not to exist and I will maintain my course and speed. I will
continue to monitor the situation.
70.You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. You observe this vessel, directly ahead, on a steady
bearing, with the distance closing steadily. What can you tell about this vessel from the lights it is displaying?This
vessel is not under command and is not making way through the water. I cannot tell its aspect.
71.You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. You sight these lights on the port bow, on a steady
bearing. The distance is closing. What are you looking at and what action will you take in compliance with the
International Regulations for Preventing Collision at Sea?This is a power-driven vessel engaged in towing, less
than 50 metres in length, length of tow under 200 metres and the tow, both being restricted in their ability to
manoeuvre, seen from the starboard side. Under rule 18, I am required to keep clear and will take appropriate
avoiding action.
72.You are on a sailing vessel, underway in open water. This vessel is sighted on the starboard bow, on a steady bearing
and the distance is closing. By the International Regulations for the Preventing Collisions at Sea, what action will
you follow?By Rule 18, a power-driven vessel underway shall keep out of the way of a sailing vessel. I will
maintain my course and speed, but will continue to monitor situation to ensure the other vessel takes avoiding
action.
73.You are on a tug and are towing an unmanned barge. You are restricted in your ability to manoeuvre. The total
length of the tow is 219 metres. What daylight signals are required by the International Regulations for
Preventing Collisions at Sea?A diamond shape, where it can best be seen shall be displayed on the tug and the
tow. Three shapes shall also be displayed in a vertical line, the upper and lower being balls and the middle one a
diamond. Diamond shape
74.You are proceeding along a coastal route when you hear this signal. The visibility is severely restricted. What does
the signal mean?There is a vessel aground in the vicinity. She is more than 100 metres in length. She is sounding
an additional warning to approaching vessels that they are "running into danger".
75.You are proceeding along a narrow channel and approaching a bend, on the inside shore of which is a large hill,
which obsures your view further up channel. What sound signal will you make to indicate your presence to any
vessel that is behind the obstructing hill?One prolonged blast.
76.You are proceeding along a narrow channel behind another vessel. You have a higher speed and have signalled your
intention to the vessel ahead that you intend to overtake him on his port side. The vessel responds with this
sound signal. What does it mean?That the vessel is indicating her agreement with my proposed manoeuvre.
77.You are proceeding along a narrow channel in front of another vessel, both heading for port. You hear this signal
from the vessel behind you. What does it mean?I intend to overtake you on your starboard side.
78.You are underway in a narrow channel, and you are being overtaken by a vessel astern. After the overtaking vessel
sounds the proper signal indicating his intention to pass your vessel on your starboard side, you signal your
agreement by sounding __________. d. one prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast in that
order
79.You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to pass along the vessel's port side. How should
you signal your intention? d. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
80.Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has a right-handed propeller and
there is equal space either side of the ship (as illustrated). What would be the most suitable method to make the
turn using as little space as possible?Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway, rudder hard to
starboard and full ahead

III. USE OF RADAR AND ARPA TO MAINTAIN SAFETY OF NAVIGATION

1. How can an ARPA assist the ship to steer a suitable course to make good the entrance to a channel?Select ground
stabilised true motion display and alter course so that own ships true vector passes through the middle of the
entrance to the channel.
2. How is attenuation affected when using waves of shorter wavelength? Attenuation is greater
3. If the radar is set onto the Relative Motion Display, what would an echo of a target with no trail indicate? Note this
the trail of the echo and not a vector.The target is on the same course and speed as own ship.
4. Target detection ranges are considerably reduced due to shipboard structures like the Samson posts etc. What are
such areas known as? Blind sectors
5. The best land target to use for a radar bearing is : a large headland
6. The function of the waueguide is to : generate the R.F. pulses
7. The purpose of the TM cell is to : paint the heading marker on the display. protect the receiver during transmission.
radiate the radar pulses to the targets. shape the beam in the horizontal plane
8. The purpose of the transmitter unit is to : detect the returning radar pulses
9. The ship is navigating in dense fog where the visibility is less than one mile. The Arpa radar is set on a range 12 miles
on a course of 314 degrees and own ship has a vector as shown. What is the vector mode selected on the Arpa?
True vectors
10.What can be used on the radar screen to eliminate automatic plotting in selected areas? Guard zones
11.What corrections must be applied to the echo sounder reading to compare the depth of water with the depth
printed on the chart? Draught of the ship
12.What indicates the true movement of the target being tracked? True vector
13.What is the ability of a radar set to clearly distinguish two targets, on the same range and slightly different bearings,
as two separate targets on the PPI known as? Range discrimination
14.What is the advantages of a GPS satellite system compared to other navigational aids?The GPS system gives
information about position, speed and time continuously world wide.
15.What is the correct setting of the "Anti sea clutter" control on the radar?A few sea returns remaining on the screen.
16.What is the probable cause of an error in position of the ship obtained from the GPS system? Incorrect height of the
antenna.
17.What is the rate at which two moving objects approach or separate from each other called? Relative movement
18.What is used as a portable, plotting device which is clamped on top of the radar screen? Plotting sheet
19.What is used to control the amplification of echoes received? Brilliance
20.What is used to warn the observer if any distinguishable target closes to a range or transits a zone chosen by the
observer? Guard rings and zones
21.What possible reason could there be for the identification mark associated with a Racon not being visible on the
radar screen? All of the suggested answers.
22.When choosing objects for position fixing by radar ranges you should, if possible, avoid : small isolated features
23.When two tracked targets are very close to each other, the data of one target shifts over to the other target. What is
this called? Plotting
24.When using the echo sounder in a river the soundings indicated may be incorrect, what would be the most probable
cause of the error?The density of the water
25.Which are the four main elements of a radar system?Transmitter, servo link, antenna, target
26.Which are the two most important input information required to operate the ARPA accurately? Speed and heading
27.Which control on the radar is used to suppress clutter? Anti- clutter
28.Which of the suggested navigational systems is a "Hyperbolic" navigational system and has hyperbolae as position
lines?Loran C
29.Which of these factors govern the echo presentation? All of these.
30.Which of these glues only a bearing and not a range? Racon
31.Which of these is a result of true motion display? Course, speed and aspect of any target obtained only by plotting of
triangle of relative velocities
32.Who should conn the vessel at the time of a search and rescue operation? Master
33.Why should Ground Stabilised True Motion display mode be avoided when using the Arpa for anti-collision
purposesThe collision regulations are based on ship courses through the water.
34.Why should ground stabilised true motion display mode be avoided when using the arpa for anti-collision purpose?
the collision regulations are based on ship course through the water
What does this control on the radar indicate? (see
figure) Transmitted power monitor
What is this on the PPI? (see figure) Clearing bearing.

What does the above diagram indicate? (see figure)

Bearing discrimination.
What is this mark? (see figure) Racon

What type of spurious echoes are these? (see figure)

Multiple echoes.

What is no.4 ? (see figure) Modulator

What is no.12 ? (see figure) CRT

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

Between 2 - 2.2

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

Between 1 - 2 miles
What is the time of closest point of approach of target
A? Now or passedl;
What is the closest point of approach of target A ?
Less than 1 mile
Which target will have the closest point of approach ?
Target A
Target ranges are obtained from: the range marker

A reference for target bearings is provided by a line on

the radar screen called the : heading marker
Edges of land should be avoided if
possible when position fixing by radar
because of : the effect of vertical beamwidth
The use of radar ranges in
preference to radar bearings for
position fixing is because : they are more accurate.
The best land target to use for radar ranging is : a
small rock
A radar presentation feature which can
often be used to advantage for position
fixing is : relative motion
Targets echoes appear along a line called the : heading
marker
Radar uses pulse transmission in order to: detect close
range targets
In the equation d = (t x s) r2, the quantity S is ? 57.The
speed of the radar waves
The unit which radiates the radar pulse is the: scanner

The main component in the display unit is the cathode

ray unit
The purpose of the anodes in the CRT. Is to : attract the
electrons to the screen
The main component of the transmitter is power supply

The unit which sends returning ragets echoes to the

receiver is the: scanner unit
The magnetron sends the R.F. pulses to the display unit
The commonest type of radar scanner is the : Horizontal
slotted waveguide
The transmitted pulse length is determined by the
action of the : magnetron
The transmitter P.R.F. is determined by the : trigger unit
Radar does not transmit continuously because it
would reduce the life of components
The purpose of radar is to enable:The range and bearing
of objects to be obtained
Radar navigational techniques should : only be used in
poor visibility
Positions obtain by radar : should only be used in
restricted visibility
If parts of an adjacent coastline do not show on the
radar, one possible reason is the : presence of horizontal
radar shadow sectors
A useful aid to identifying land at long range is : the
calculation of distance to the radar horizon
If the highest part of the coast is not the
first target detected, the most likely
reason is : that the scanner is positioned too low
The preferred method of radar position fixing for
greatest accuracy is : taking a radar range and radar
bearing
An aid to identifying land features at long range is: a
chart with topographic details
A radar fix at long range from land should be used in
preference to other methods.

IV.USE OF ECDIS TO MAINTAIN THE SAFETY OF NAVIGATION

1. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods of determining positions and include
which of the following?All of these suggested answers
2. A typical ecdis “base display”shows the following information? Coastline, seamarks and traffic separation schemes
3. An ECDIS is required to display which information ? : Depth contours
4. An ECDIS is required to display which information ? : Soundings
5. An ECDIS is required to display which information? Hydrographic data
6. As a licensed merchant marine officer you are expected to : All of the above
7. Before using a pre-progammed ECDIS route, what should you do ? : Check all route data throughly
8.Can A Raster Chart Be Displayed In Head-Up Mode On To Days Ecdis? Yes
9.Can Raster Charts Provide Navigational Warnings? Only When Used On A Rcd
10.Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?Yes
11.Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest edition of information originated by a
government-authorized hydrographic office and conform to the standards of (the) . International
Hydrographic Organization
12.Define the required interval between position fixes.Such that the vessel cannot be set appreciable off course, or
into danger by the effects of wind, tide or current
13.Does,IMO specify special training in use of ECDIS ? : YES
14.ECDIS must be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT? Determine magnetic compass deviation
15.ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases? All of the above, When the specified limit for deviation
from the planned route is exceeded---- If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to
cross a safety contour
16.ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases? If the ship is going to reach a critical point on the
planned route
17.ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases? When the specified limit for deviation from the planned
route is exceeded
18.ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the track for the previous : 12 hours
19.ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which include Vector and raster
20.How can the ships course change be described in detail ? : by specifying ships present and future heading
21.How Many Stages Are There In The Planning Of A Safe Voyage Eight
22.How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea voyage if the ship is in open waters ? At least
every 30 minutes
23.If own ships position in errorneus on an ECDIS system, what is the result ? : all position, direction & courses taken
from the ECDIS are errorneus
24.If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS, it must display the minimum data required by IMO/IHO, to
include all of the following EXCEPT . Tidal currents
25.Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or river, when under pilot?A
passage plan is always required, irrespective of the length of the voyage, or if the ship is under pilot
26.Raster-scan chart data is Organized into many separate files
27.Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and embarkation/disembarkation of a pilot should be supervised by:A responsible Officer
28.SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations, Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of
Navigation and applies to which vessels?All vessels and on all voyages
29.The level of database information which cannot be removed from the ECDIS display and consists of
information which is required at all times in all geographic areas and under all circumstances is the
.Display base information
30.The database information that should be shown when a chart is first displayed on ECDIS is the
_.Standard display information
31.The database resulting from (1) the transformation of the electronic navigational chart (ENC) by ECDIS for
appropriate use, (2) the updates to the ENC by appropriate means, and (3) the additional data added by the
mariner, is called the System electronic navigational chart
32.The Ecdis System Can Operate In How Many Does? Five
33.The highnest level of commercial navigation accuracy is provided by : DGPS, whitin a coverage area
34.The paths of intented travel between three or more point is the : Bearing
35.The typical operating range of automatic identifitation system (AIS) at sea is nominaly : 20nm
36.Vector Chart Can? Can Be Displayed With Any Direction Up
37.What chart should be used when navigating ?The largest scale chart onboard for the area which is properly
corrected
38.What does a navigator who user and ECDIS require ? : Good navigation knowledge and a professional job attitude
39.What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way?An effective detailed passage plan fully
understood and followed by a competent bridge team.
40.What is the effect of sailing in “course mode” ? : Ships course will not be corrected for off set, but the course wil be
Adjusted towards the nearest waypoint
41.What Is The Imo Definition Of Ecdis? A System That Display Hydrographic Information In Order To Assist The Safe
Navigation
42. What is the main purpose of VTS? Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the
vicinity
43.What is the main purpose of VTS?Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the
vicinity.
44.What is the main purpose the zoom funtion : to select appropriate chart scale to the actual situation
45.What is the most inportant thing to know about computerized systems ? : their functions
46.What is the purpose of the “off track” limit ? : assist in controlling the ship track from planned track
47.What Is The Purpose Of Voyage Planning? To Support The Bridge
48.When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over many hours, what management issues
should the Master consider?All of these answers
49.When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in discussing the passage plan with the
pilot while he is there to use his local knowledge and advice on the navigation of the ship?A passage plan should
be discussed between the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge
team when deep sea
50.When initially setting up the GPS to provide positions for use with a paper chart, what Chart Datum should be
selected? Select WGS84 and when plotting on the chart apply the stated corrections.
51.When own ships position input to ECDIS is wrong,what is the result ? : ECDIS will give warning
52.When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following answers would most suitably cover the most
critical aspects to be considered when deciding the courses to steer?The anticipated weather and the need for
weather routing. The distances gained by sailing by great circle. The ship's draught and the loadline limits
53.When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following answers would most suitably cover the most
critical aspects to be considered when deciding the courses to steer? The methods of determine position and
avoiding areas of increased traffic density. The limitations of the ships draught and the loadline limits
54.When the route planning process is completed,what should then be done ? : validate and check all route data
55.Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one minute intervals ? : Course made good history
56.Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"?Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger
and includes both identification of the occurrence and the likelihood that it will happen.
57.Which of the following are data layer categories to be displayed on ECDIS?All of the above
58.Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on ECDIS?Ship hydrodynamic information
59.Which of the following must an ECDIS system be able to perform ? : transformation of local datum to WGS-’84
datum
60.Which of the following must the electronic chart of an ECDIS display, as required by IMO/IHO?All of the above
61.Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satelites does a GPS receiver need in order to provider
an exact three demincional position ? : Two
62.Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from several satelite simultaneusly? :
Continuous
63.While navigating using a paper chart marked WGS84 the OOW plots the ships position by four different methods and
they all give slightly different positions. Which of the following would be considered the most accurate.Radar
ranges from two radar destinctive headlands
64.Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the event of a vessel emergency when
transiting the Panama Canal?The Panama Canal Authority
65.With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receiver should provide at a minimum : None of the
above
66.With respect to failure warnings and status indications,GPS receivers should provide,at a minimum : A warning of
losse of position
67.You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's
speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2
nm. What aspects would you consider when establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?Deciding safe speed
consider: 2 miles visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability of vessel; effectiveness of navigational equipment
(ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and navigational hazards.
68.You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's
speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2
nm. What aspects would you consider when establishing? Safe speed should be where the vessel can come to a
stop within the visible range
69.You are ploting a running fix in an area where there is a determinable current. How should this current be treated in
determining the positon ? : The course and speed made good should be determined and used to advance the
LOP
70.Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has a right-handed propeller and
there is equal space either side of the ship (as illustrated). What would be the most suitable method to make the
turn using as little space as possible?Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway, rudder hard to
starboard and full ahead

V.RESPOND TO EMERGENCIES
1. As a probable result of being in collision with your vessel, the other vessel involved is on fire? What are your
responsibilities to the other vessel?After checking the extent of the damage and welfare of your crew, if possible
your vessel should standby and offer assistance, until being relieved of that obligation by the other vessel.
2. If a distress signal is received on board your ship, what should be the first action that should be taken? Attempt to
establish contact with the distressed vessel
3. Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is navigating in a coastal region when it is in collision with ship B, causing
ship A to take in water in several holds. What is the best course of action by ship A to save the vessel and the
cargo?Put the ship aground on a soft sandy bottom as soon as possible
4. The bridge wheelman has not reported for duty and there is a suspected "Man Overboard" situation on your vessel.
The ship has been searched and there is one seaman missing? The vessel turns round and retraces the course
back, calling for assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal point for any search
pattern to be established?Determine when the seaman was last sighted and concentrate the search round the
course line between the last sighting and present position, taking into account any prevailing current.
5. The engines have failed and will require at least 24 hours to be available as a reliable means of propulsion. Your
vessel is about 20 miles off the coast in a tidal area. What are the initial steps that should be taken to ensure the
safety of the ship?Display NUC lights and investigate the tidal flow over the next 24 hours and the probable drift
of the vessel.
6. The Master arrives on the bridge obviously under the influence of alcohol and states he is taking over the "con" of
the ship. What actions should the Officer of the Watch (OOW) take in this situation?Attempt to diplomatically
avoid taking any actions that would put the ship or crew into danger and call the Chief Officer for assistance.
7. The ship is involved in a collision, what is the immediate action by the Officer of the Watch after the incident has
taken place? Sound the General Alarm and stop engines.
8. The vessel is passing through the English Channel when the ARPA radars fail completely and navigation must
continue without any operational radars. Should there be any changes to your passage plan or bridge
procedures. Your vessel is equipped with an operational ECDISIncrease the officers on the bridge to allow
greater use of visual navigation
9. What action should be taken by the Officer of the Watch in the event of fire being reported to the bridge during the
00.00 to 04.00 watch?Sound the Fire Alarm
10. What actions should the Officer of the Watch take when the ship's steering gear fails?All of the suggested answers
11. What can be used to reduce the effect of the state of sea-waves?Vegetable / Fish Oil
12. What immediate actions should the Officer of the Watch take when the ship goes aground on an uncharted shoal in
the middle of the ocean?Stop engines and call the Master
13. What special equipment can often provide assistance in locating a survival craft or man overboard and in the
water?A SART
14. Which method is used to make a physical connection between a rescue vessel and a wreck?Rocket line
15. You are Sen.Off.Deck / Duty officer onboard one of the vessels involved in a collision. What will your actions be
following the collision?Make sure your vessel + crew are safe and then offer your assistance to the other vessel
16. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have been in a collision with a sail boat and
there are no signs of life in the water. What would you do?Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for
any survivors
17. You are witness to a collision between two other ships close to your vessel. What immediate action should you
take?Nothing, just standby and wait to see if any assistance is required.
18. Your vessel has been in collision and it is uncertain whether the vessel has the required residual stability to remain
afloat. After sounding the general alarm on board and informing the nearest Coast Radio Station of your
situation, what other immediate steps should be taken?Complete soundings of all compartments to determine
the number of compartments flooded. Check the vessels stability limitations within its statutory loadline
requirements to determine if still adequate.
19. Your vessel has been in involved in a collision with an other vessel. As Master responsible for the ship and persons
on board, what is the first step to take?Organise someone to assess the extent of damage and the residual
stability of the vessel.

VI.RESPOND TO A DISTRESS SIGNAL AT SEA

1. " On area A1 the function "" Reception of shore to ship distress alerts"" is mainly based on:"the use of VHF DSC
2. " On area A1 the function "" Transmission and reception of signals for locating "" is mainly based on:"the use of
SART transponders
3. " On area A1 the function "" Transmission of ship to shore distress alerts"" is mainly based on:"The use of VHF DSC
4. " On area A2 the function "" Transmission and reception of on scene communications"" is mainly based on:"The use
of MF and/or VHF R/T
5. " On area A2 the function "" Transmission of ship to shore distress alerts"" is mainly based on:"The use of MF DSC
6. " On area A3 the function "" Reception of shore to ship distress alerts"" is mainly based on:"The use of HF DSC and
INMARSAT C SAFETYNET
7. " On area A3 the function "" Transmission and reception of on scene communications"" is mainly based on:"The use
of MF and/or VHF R/T
8. " On area A3 the function "" Transmission and reception of signals for locating "" is mainly based on:"the use of
SART transponders
9. " On area A4 the function "" Transmission and reception of on scene communications"" is mainly based on:"the use
of MF and/or VHF R/T
10. " On area A4 the function "" Transmission and reception of signals for locating "" is mainly based on:"The use of
SART transponders
11. " On area A4 the function "" Transmission of ship to shore distress alerts"" is mainly based on:" The use of HF DSC
and COSPAS SARSAT Epirbs
12. "Overshoot" is an expression related to a ship's steering ability. What is the correct understanding of this
expression? It is how many degrees of the compass a ship continues to turn after applying counter-rudder
13. “RECEIVED MAYDAY” is used in a:Receipt of a distress alert
14. A "Standard Format for Search and Rescue Situation Reports" (SITREPs) should be used by vessels in distress. The
SITREP can be compiled as a short form (urgent essential details). Which of the following information shall be
included when using the "short form"?Weather on-scene.
15. A Cospas-Sarsat EPIRB can be used in:All sea-areas (A1 to A4)
16. A distress alert has accidentally been sent with the Inmarsat-C installation. One should now:Make contact with an
RCC
17. A distress alert on board may only be transmitted on explicit order of:The captain
18. A distress alert sent by Inmarsat to an RCC is sent via:LES
19. A distress call has been sent accidentally on your MF DSC equipment. Which of the following is correct for
cancelling the false distress alert?Make broadcast on 2182 kHz ""Mayday all stations…"" and cancel the false
distress alert."
20. A distress-call received via RCC should:Only be given receipt, if the master has confirmed that assistance indeed can
be given
21. A distress-call, onboard via RCC, may only be given Receipt if: The O.O.W deems it necessary
22. A DSC distress alert is received. The message states that communication by radiotelex is preferred. One preferably
uses:FEC mode ARQ mode
23. A DSC distress alert single frequency call attempt is awaiting acknowledgement:Automatically repeated after 3 and
a half to 4 and a half minutes
24. A DSC-message of the “safety” category is received from another vessel on VHF channel 70. Conforming to the
GMDSS rules, for the continuation of the safety traffic, you must change to VHF-channel:16
25. A received DSC ‘distress alert’ contains the following information: “UNDESIGNATED DISTRESS” Of this distress
case:The nature of distress is unknown
26. A SART must, when the vessel sinks: Be taken by the crew to the rescue-boat and turned on manually
27. A satellite receives the transmissions of the 406 MHz Cospas-Sarsat EPIRB. The transmissions of the EPIRB will be:
Always passed on to a LUT
28. A ship in distress should transmit the appropriate alarm signal followed by the distress call and message on one or
all of the international distress frequencies. Which of frequencies is in accordance with the present
recommendations?500 kHz, 2182 kHz and 156.8 MHz
29. All designated SAR aircraft and civil aircraft carry equipment operating on the international aeronautical distress
frequencies (amplitude modulation). The aeronautical distress frequencies are?121.5 MHz and/or 243.0 MHz
30. An EPIRB has been activated accidentally. Which of the following is correct for cancelling the false distress alert?
Call the nearest coast station and inform it that a false distress alert has been transmited
31. Anyone of the crew who is assigned to watch duties in port has a number of important tasks to carry out. Which
one of the listed tasks should be included in the watchman's duties? Check the moorings for correct tightness
and ensure the gangway remains safe and secure.
32. Apart from steering the helmsman should also: Regularly check the gyro against the magnetic compass
33. At sea red rocket signals are seen. This is not reported by radio. You have to begin the distress alert procedure via
VHF with the term:MAYDAY RELAY
34. At sea there is a container adrift which can be a danger for navigation. The call starts with:SECURITE (3x)
35. Distress MF communications should normally be operated : In J3E mode – on simplex basis
36. During restricted visibility, you are posted as bridge lookout and you hear 1 long blast at intervals of about 2
minutes on your port bow. What will you report to the OOW (officer on watch)? Fog signal of one long blast
heard on the port bow at regular intervals of about 2 minutes
37. For a “distress alert” via the DSC, the MF-band is used in the frequencies:TX: 2187.5 kHz RX: 2187.5 kHz
38. How can an azimuth or bearing be indicated by signal flags? The letter A + three numerals.
39. How is a EPIRB (Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon) activated? Most EPIRBs are automatically activated
when they enter the water
40. How many total frequencies are available for DSC distress alerting?Seven (7).
41. How should you, as helmsman, give feedback to the OOW (officer on watch) that his orders are understood? By
repeating the order
42. How will you act if you are helmsman and the OOW (officer on watch) gives you the order: ”Nothing to port” Don’t
allow the ship to swing at all to port
43. How will you start a cancelling message after you send by mistake a distress call on your VHF DSC equipment "All
Stations - This is ""SAINT-ROMAIN""""
44. If one requires medical advice by means of an Inmarsat-C terminal one should use the following address:32
45. If requested by a coastal radio station to participate in a rescue operation, what is the most important information
you may give? Your position, name, call sign and speed
46. If the relief for the bridge lookout does not appear at the end of the watch, when required, what should be the
actions of the existing lookout He should inform the Officer of the Watch and wait for instructions
47. If you are the helmsman on duty, what would be the correct action if the OOW (officer on watch) gives you the
order to: "Change over from Automatic pilot to Hand steering". Apply the controls to disconnect the Automatic
pilot and engage hand steering. Start steering the vessel using the wheel and confirm with the OOW the change-
over is complete and the course you are to steer
48. In a distress-situation a MF/HF-DSC transmission is used in the 8MHz frequency. In this case always: Indicate on
what frequency communication will be continued
49. In radio telephony what is the "URGENCY CALL" which should be used to indicate that you have a very urgent
message to transmit concerning the safety of another vessel or person?Pan Pan (3 times)
50. In radio-telex distress traffic preference is given to FEC because: Everybody can read along
51. On board an accident happened. Urgent radio-medical advice is needed. We choose the category: Urgency
52. On board they want to make a DSC-call with a foreign coast-station. It is an urgent call. Preferably choose: The
national DSC-call frequecies of the coast-station concerned
53. On board they want to send a safety-call to other vessels. The DSC safety-call: Has to contain a work-frequency
54. On the diagram provided, there are four (4) possible directions indicating the term "AHEAD". Which one is the
correct? Ahead is given by A on the figure
55. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "AFT" shown. Which one is the correct one? Aft is
defined as A on the figure
56. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "AIR DRAUGHT" given. Which one is the correct
one? Air draught is given by D on the figure
57. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "ASTERN" shown. Which one is the correct one?
Astern is defined as D on the figure
58. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "BOLLARD" given. Which one is the correct one?
Bollard is given by D on the figure
59. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "BREADTH" given. Which one is the correct one?
Breadth is given by B on the figure
60. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "CENTRE LINE" given. Which one is the correct one?
Centre line is given by A on the figure
61. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "MIDSHIPS" given. Which one is the correct one?
Midships is given by B on the figure
62. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "QUAY" given. Which one is the correct one? Quay
is given by A on the figure
63. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "STARBOARD QUARTER" given. Which one is the
correct one? Starboard quarter is given by C on the figure
64. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "WINDLASS" given. Which one is the correct one?
Windlass is given by B on the figure
65. On the figure there are four (4) possible directions shown by the arrowed lines. Which one would correctly shows
the direction understood by the term "AFTER SPRING"? After spring is defined as A on the figure
66. On the figure there are four (4) possible directions, shown by the arrowed lines, which could be the correct
direction associated with the term "HEAD LINE". Which one is the correct one?Head line is given by B on the
figure
67. On the figure there are four possible definitions of the term "STARBOARD BOW" given. Which one is the correct
one? Starboard bow is given by A on the figure
68. Onboard the following message is received on the DSC controller: DOO: 245329000 CH16 ; S distress ack
244123000 What station sent the distress acknowledgement?245329000
69. Regular ‘updating’ of a ships’ position in an Inmarsat-C installation is necessary To have the correct position in case
of accidents
70. Signals are often used by aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations to direct ships towards a casualty. This
aircraft flies across your stern, rocking his wings. What is the meaning of the signal? The assistance of your
vessel is no longer required.
71. Silencing by a station, not in charge of the distress-traffic, is done as follows: “SEELONCE DISTRESS” followed by the
silencing station's call-sign
72. The authority to order the use of distress signal or distress alerts is: Only with the master
73. The diagram shows the direction that a rope runs during a mooring operation and a possible place where it may
break. Where would be considered the safest position to stand? Outside the blue coloured zone.
74. The diagram shows the lead of a rope during mooring operations and the possible point where it may break. Where
would be considered the safest place to be standing? Outside the coloured zone.
75. The distress message is used when the vessel is threatened by a serious and imminent danger and is in need of
immediate assistance. What is the telegraphy and telephony distress message like? S O S (Telegraphy) /
MAYDAY (Telephony)
76. The DSC-controller display the following: DOO: 244562000 CH16 ; S distress sinking After receiving this
DSC message the following is done immediately:Listen out on VHF channel 16
77. The DSC-controller displays the following: DOO: 246321000 CH16 ; S distress flooding After receiving
this DSC message nothing more is received. Sending receipt on channel 16 does not give any response. One
should first: Send a DSC distress alert relay
78. The figure shows a cross section through a ship floating in water, with the hull in red and the seabed below the ship
shaded. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "FREEBOARD" given. Which one is the
correct one? Freeboard is given by D on the figure
79. The figure shows the cross section of a ship floating in water with the hull coloured in red and the seabed below the
vessel shaded. On this figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "UNDERKEEL CLEARANCE" given.
Which one is the correct one? Underkeel clearance is given by A on the figure
80. The first time you send a DSC distress alert via the HF-band, you prefer the? 8 MHz band
81. The frequency 121,5 MHz is used for : SARSAT-COSPAS EPIRBS
82. The number of frequencies on which a MF/HF-DSC distress alert multi-frequency call attempt can be transmitted
is: 6
83. The receipt of a distress alert is to be pronounced as followed: Mayday (1x), call-sign of ship in distress (3x) / this
is / own call-sign (3x) / received mayday
84. The relay of a distress-call by an RCC for coast-station begins with: MAYDAY RELAY (3x)
85. The safety message announces that a station: Will relay a message concerning an important navigational or
meteorological warning
86. The Urgency Message from a ship is used to notify other traffic of a situation where the ship is not in imminent
danger, but where the development of the situation is uncertain and may need assistance in the near future.
What is the telephony urgency message like?PAN-PAN
87. To announce an important navigational –or meteorological warning via the VHF-installation, one should use the:
Safety call
88. To get priority with radio-communication, one must notify the coast-station that the call is: An urgent call
89. To receive distress alerting and MSI via an Inmarsat-C set vessels must have: SES or an EGC receiver
90. Under what circumstances should gangway nets be rigged under the gangway? Whenever the gangway is rigged
between ship and shore.
91. Via a coast-station radio medical advice is asked using NBDP. What command has to be given after ga +? med +
92. Visual signals are used by aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations to direct ships towards a casualty. The
signals shown here are part of a sequence. What does it indicate? The aircraft is directing a vessel towards the
casualty.
93. What are the duties of an effective bridge look out? Keeping a constant observation around the ship.
94. What are the duties of the "Standby Watch keeper" when he is not on the bridge? Remain in the expected location,
available for immediate call from the bridge
95. What do you do after receiving a VHF DSC DISTRESS call ? You set watch on VHF channel 16
96. What does the term "Hard a Starboard" or "Hard to Starboard" mean? Put the wheel fully over to starboard.

97. What does this flag mean? I have a diver down; keep well clear at slow speed.

98. What does this signal hoist mean? I require immediate assistance.

99. What does this two flag hoist signal indicate? I am in distress and require immediate assistance.
100. What is meant by the term "keeping a proper lookout" as applied to the bridge lookout?Keeping a visual lookout all
round the ship and also actively listening out for audio signals
101. What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received? The Operator
should immediately set continuous watch on the radiotelephone frequency that is associated with frquency
band on which the distress alert was received.
102. What is the correct understanding of the term "boat deck"? The deck where the lifeboats davits are positioned.
103. What is the correct understanding of the term "boat drill"? Practical exercise for the people on board to practice
their duties and be prepared in the case of an emergency abandon ship.
104. What is the correct understanding of the term "Bottlescrew"? A bottlescrew is a metal threaded sleeve which
adjusts the length and tension on rigging or stays
105. What is the correct understanding of the term "FAIRLEAD"? The access point where mooring lines are lead when
making fast to the shore.
106. What is the correct understanding of the term "gangway"? Portable bridge arrangement between ship and shore,
when alongside.
107. What is the correct understanding of the term "LEE SIDE"? The lee side is the side of the ship which is facing away
from the wind.
108. What is the correct way that the lookout should report the appearance of a light, in clear visibility, on the port side
of the ship in a direction half way between right ahead and abeam? The lookout should state "Light 4 points to
port"
109. What is the emergency channel on VHF? Channel 16
110. What is the emergency frequency on M.F. (Medium frequency) radio?2182 Hz
111. What is the main responsibility of a bridge lookout at night? Inform the bridge of any new lights when they appear
over the horizon or any other items observed which may affect the ship
112. What is the meaning of the term "Steady as she goes" when acting as helmsman? While altering the ships head, the
instruction "steady as she goes" means reduce the ships swing as rapidly as possible and steady on present
course
113. What is the necessary protection when you are rust chipping with air tools? Protective clothing, safety shoes,
gloves, goggles, earmuffs.
114. What is the two letter signal, to be used by flags, radiotelephony or radiotelegraphy, meaning "Calling All Ships".
CQ
115. What items of clothing should be avoided during mooring operations? All of the items specified in the alternative
answers.
116. What kind of safety clothing should be worn during a mooring operation? Helmet, safety shoes, gloves and
protective clothes.
117. What kind of safety equipment must be worn during anchoring? All of the mentioned equipment.

118. What letter is represented by this flag and what is it's meaning when displayed by a vessel in port? P - All
persons should report on board as the vessel is about to proceed to sea.
119. What safety clothing should be worn during an anchoring operation? All of the equipment mentioned in the
alternative answers.
120. What special safety measures are required by a seaman when working aloft on a stage? Safety harness with a rope
secured to a safe point above.
121. What will you do if you are helmsman and the OOW (officer on watch) gives you the order: “Port 20” and after a
while the order: "Ease to 10"? Apply 20 degrees of rudder towards port and then after the second command
reduce the wheel to 10 degrees of helm.
122. What will you do if you are helmsman and the OOW (officer on watch) gives you the order: ”Starboard ten” Repeat
the command back and then turn the wheel to make the rudder turn 10 degrees to starboard of amidships
123. When a coastguard-station wants to send a gale-warning by DSC it will happen in the category: Safety
124. When a DSC-message of the ‘distress’ category is received, in order to start distress alert communication in so far
as not indicated in the alert, you will switch to VHF channel: 16
125. When a vessel arrives at a port to pick up a pilot and enter harbour, there should be someone required to stand by
the anchor forward. How should the anchor be prepared and ready? The brake securely applied, all
cement/covering into the chain locker and securing arrangements from windlass removed. The guillotine can
remain for removal when ready
126. When acting as helmsman would you expect the reading of the gyro compass to be the same as the magnetic
compass? Very seldom would they be the same
127. When could there be a demonstration of how to start a lifeboat engine? A demonstration could be arranged during
a lifeboat drill
128. When may a call for radio medical advice be preceded by the urgency-signal: In urgent cases
129. When on HF band a DSC distress alert is received, you have to listen to: The radio telephony distress frequency in
the band in which the DSC distress alert was received
130. When reeving a new wire onto a self-stowing winch drum you should, after looking at brake arrangement, reeve it
to pay out as follows: Direction B
131. When two ships are lying alongside each other in a ship to ship operation and one ship is lying at anchor, anchor
watch duties must be carried out as follows: Both ships have normal anchor watch responsibility in addition to
watching ship to ship fendering, mooring etc.
132. When you are on watch during a stay in port, what should you always ensure is ready at the head of the gangway?
Life buoy with line.
133. Which of the following channels and modes should be used when initiating a distress alert transmission? Channel
70 DSC
134. Which of the following two digits codes is used to obtain maritime assistance ? 39
135. Which of the following two digits codes is used to obtain medical advice ?32
136. Which one of the following types of rope is the most dangerous to work with? Nylon.
137. Which one of the listed items has to be included in a distress message?Identification of the ship.
138. Which radio frequency/channels are reserved for emergency communication? 2182 kHz/VHF channel 16
139. Which type of call will be sent by a ship adrift and needing the assistance of a tug ? (The weather is not bad and the
ship will be aground 24 hours later) Urgent call
140. Which type of call will be sent by a ship in danger of capsizing and needing assistance from all vessels in her
vicinity ?Distress call
141. Which type of call will be sent by a ship sighting another ship in distress which is not itself in position to transmit a
distress alert ? Distress relay call
142. Which type of call will be sent by a ship sighting containers adrift in vicinity of her position ? (No message about
this problem was previously transmitted via NAVTEX or INMARSAT C SAFETYNET) Safety call
143. Which VHF channel should be used for intership navigation safety communications? Ch.13
144. Which word will precede a distress message ? MAYDAY
145. Which word will precede a safety message ? SECURITY
146. Which word will precede an urgency message ? PAN PAN

147. You are approaching the port entrance. What do these lights mean? A vessel may proceed only when
she has received specific orders to do so.
148. You are proceeding up a river, with berths on both banks. You see this flag hoist on a vessel moored on a berth

ahead. What does it mean? You should proceed at slow speed when passing me.
149. You have an important navigational or meteorological warning to transmit. What call should proceed this message
when made on the radio telephone? Securite Securite (3 times)
150. You receive a distress alert on HF Radio. What should you do? Wait three minutes and if no acknowledgement is
heard from a coast station you should relay the alert.
151. You receive via the 8 MHz a DSC distress alert. The received DSC message is however distorted. The MMSI as well
as the position are illegible. After listening at the 8 MHz telephone distress frequency, nothing is heard. This is
because: Telephone signals in the same frequency band are generally weaker than DSC signals
152. You wish to send a DSC-message because of a m.o.b. situation and assistance by other ships is required. You have
to choose the category: Distress
153. Your vessel is acting as the on scene commander during a distress rescue. Various vessels are interfering the
distress traffic on the VHF. What message would you use to stop them interfering with this traffic? Seelonce
mayday
154. Your vessel is not in distress and not taking part in a distress operation. How would you impose radio silence on
vessels which are interfering the distress traffic? Seelonce Distress

VII.IMO STANDARD MARINE COMMUNICATION PHRASES AND USE ENGLISH IN WRITTEN AND ORAL FORM
1. During the anchoring procedure, what would the 2nd Officer understand by the following request from the bridge,
"How is the chain"? The bridge would like to know the direction of the anchor cable from the hawse pipe.
2. How should the tug be secured to the ship, when the bridge tells the poop that "It is the tug's wire"?? The tug will
send a wire to the ship for making fast.
3. How would you alert others onboard if you saw a person falling overboard? If I saw a person falling overboard I
would shout repeatedly, "Man overboard"
4. In the diagram which line would be the "AFT SPRING", if the vessel was port side alongside a jetty? The Aft Spring is
indicated by A, in the figure
5. In the diagram, the depth of water under the keel is indicated by the letter "C". Which bridge instrument would
indicate this depth? Echo Sounder
6. In the diagram, which arrow is pointing at the position known as the "Bridge"? The Bridge is indicated by A, in the
figure
7. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the "bits" which would probably be used by the "FORWARD SPRING" when
mooring the ship? The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by D, in the figure
8. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the position "MIDSHIPS"? Midships is indicated by B, in the figure
9. In the diagram, which letter is pointing at the area known as the "BOW" of the ship?The Bow is indicated by B, in the
figure
10.In the diagram, which letter is pointing to the area of the ship known as the "STERN"?The Stern area is indicated by
C, in the figure
11.In the figure is shown the direction of possible mooring lines from the stern of a vessel, when moored port side
alongside a jetty. Which letter shows the direction which would be used by a "STERN LINE"? The Stern Line is
indicated by A, in the figure
12.In the figure, which arrow indicates the direction "ASTERN"? Astern is indicated by D, in the figure
13.In the figure, which letter gives the correct understanding of the term "LENGTH OVERALL"?Length Overall is
indicated by B, in the figure
14.In the figure, which letter indicates the "BREADTH” of the vessel? Breadth is indicated by B, in the figure
15.In the figure, which letter indicates what is known as "mooring bits"? The mooring bits are indicated by D, in the
figure
16.In the figure, which letter indicates which item is the "WINDLASS"? The Windlass is indicated by B, in the figure
17.In which direction would the "FORWARD HEAD LINE" normally run? The forward head line would normally lead
forward from the bow
18.Is it always possible to use the word "ship" instead of the word "boat"? Normally a small vessel is called a "boat"
rather than a "ship", otherwise it is not important.
19.On the diagram, what is the area at the forward end of the vessel shown by the letter "A"? It is normally raised by
one deck above the main deck Fo'c's'le or Forecastle
20.On the diagram, which arrowed line is indicating the "Breadth" of the vessel? The breadth is indicated by letter B, in
the figure
21.On the diagram, which letter indicates what is meant by the word "DRAUGHT" of the ship? Draught is indicated by D,
in the figure
22.On the diagram, which letter is indicating the "BOW"? The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure
23.Read the text in the diagram and answer the following question: When should training in personal survival

techniques be given? Before being employed

24.Read the text in the diagram and answer this question: What should be given to prospective seafarers?

Approved training in survival techniques

25.Read the text in the picture before answering the question. What is the fundamental requirement relating to the

older ships, which are still in service? The older ships must be in
good condition.
26.The IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases are recommended to be used when the ship's Officer is verbally
talking to whom?In circumstances described in all of the answers provided
27.The Second Officer, when on watch on the bridge, is often referred to as the OOW. What does OOW actually stand
for? Officer of the Watch
28.What are the duties of the bridge lookout during the night, when the vessel is in the middle of the ocean? The
lookout must keep a lookout all-round the ship and report anything sighted, or heard, to the Officer of the Watch
29.What are the lists called that give the position and task during a lifeboat drill for all persons on board the ship? The
Muster List
30.What could the wheelman be asked to do, to help in the preparations to leave the berth and go to sea? Test the
steering by putting the wheel hard over both ways
31.What do you call the wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents the ladder from twisting? The wide rung on a pilot
ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a 'Spreader'
32.What do you understand by the order: "Move the pilot ladder to the other side"?Move the pilot ladder to the other
side, means: to shift the pilot ladder to the opposite side of the ship.
33.What do you understand by the term "Let Go" when applied to mooring and unmooring? Let Go means to cast off
the mooring ropes and wires
34.What do you understand by the term: "Let go the tug"?Let go the tug means: to cast off the lines that secure the tug
to the ship
35.What do you understand by: Bitter end?Bitter end means: the end link of an anchor cable that is secured within the
chain locker
36.What do you understand by: Let go the port anchor? Let go the port anchor means: open the port windlass brake
37.What do you understand by: Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder? Rig the
accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the accommodation ladder and rig the
pilot ladder right next to it
38.What do you understand by: Secure the tug?Secure the tug means: to make fast the tug
39.What does the word "pirates" mean?Pirates are persons who attempt to board and take over a ship at sea
40.What is "AIR DRAUGHT", in the figure? Air draught is indicated by C, in the figure
41.What is "DRAUGHT", in the figure? Draught is D, in the figure
42.What is "FREEBOARD", in the figure? Freeboard is indicated by B, in the figure
43.What is "LENGHT OVERALL", in the figure? Length overall is indicated by B, in the figure
44.What is a "cargo plan", when applied to a ship? The plan indicating where cargo is to be loaded and in what
quantities
45.What is a "Fairlead"? A Fairlead is a special device through which is passed ropes or wires to stop them moving
sideward’s and reduces friction and chafing
46.What is a mooring line? A mooring line is a thick rope used to moor the ship
47.What is a ship's "Gangway"? A Gangway is a portable means of access between the ship and the shore
48.What is meant by the term "Single up" when a vessel is preparing to leave the jetty to which it was moored? Single
up is the term used to describe the process of letting go most of the moorings lines and just leaving sufficient lines
to stay safely alongside.
49.What is name of the machine shown, used to heave on the ropes during mooring and unmooring? Winch
50.What is the correct understanding of the term "Block Coefficient" as applied to a ship? The comparison of the
underwater shape of the ship, to a rectangular block of the same extreme dimensions.
51.What is the daytime signal to be shown when the vessel is at anchor? A black ball forward where it can best be seen
52.What is the meaning of "make fast" To secure a rope
53.What is the meaning of the term "Make Fast", when mooring the ship?Make Fast means secure the ropes to the bits
54.What is the name of the portable walkway or access between ship and shore? Gangway
55.What is the normal name given to the fuel oil used for the ship's main engines?Bunkers
56.What is the normal name of the special wire/rope on board the ship used to make a tug fast? Towing spring
57.What is the normal name of the waterproof suit shown in the picture? Survival suit
58.What is the normal term used for the regular training of how to launch the lifeboat? Lifeboat drill
59.What is the objective of the merchant navy? To safely transport goods by sea
60.What is the output shown on the "Rate of Turn" display fitted on the bridge?The Rate of Turn indicator displays the
rate the ship is swinging in degrees per minute
61.What is the role of a tug in a port? A tug assists the ships to moor and unmoor
62.What is the room often called where the crew eat their meals? The crew mess
63.What is understood by the term "Boat Drill"? "Boat Drill" means the practical training in the various aspects of
getting all the people onboard safely off the ship, in the event of abandoning ship
64.What is understood by the term "take the helm"?Take over the steering of the ship.
65.What is understood by the term, "The Lee Side"? Lee Side is the side that faces away from the wind
66.What is understood by the word "Bollard", when mooring a ship? A Bollard is a thick steel post to which mooring
lines are secured
67.What letter indicates the direction "AHEAD", in the figure? Ahead is indicated by A, in the figure
68.When acting as helmsman, what should be the method of responding to an order? When receiving an order, the
order should be repeated back to the person who gave it before carrying out the order.
69.When keeping a lookout, what would be the correct understanding of the question "What is the aspect of the other
ship"? The question is requesting some indication of the direction the other ship is heading.
70.When should the lookout report another vessel? As soon as it is sighted or heard.
71.Where is "AFT", in the figure? Aft is A, in the figure
72.Where is the "BRIDGE", in the figure? The Bridge is A, in the figure
73.Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure? The Forecastle is B, in the figure
74.Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure? The Forecastle is indicated by B, in the figure
75.Where is the "PORT QUARTER", in the figure? The Port quarter is D, in the figure
76.Where on a ship is the deck known as the "Boat Deck"? The Boat Deck is the deck from which persons embark into
the lifeboats
77.Which approved publication should be used by a seafarer to help overcome any misunderstanding in
communications?The (IMO) Standard Marine Communication Phrases (SMCP) booklet
78.Which is the "CAPSTAN", in the figure? The Capstan is indicated by A, in the figure
79.Which is the "CENTRE LINE", in the figure? The Fore and aft Centreline is indicated by A, in the figure
80.Which is the "MOORING BUOY", in the figure?The Mooring Buoy is indicated by B, in the figure
81.Which is the "PANAMA LEAD", in the figure?The Panama Lead is indicated by C, in the figure
82.Which is the "QUAY", in the figure? The Quay is indicated by A, in the figure
83.Which is the "STARBOARD BOW", in the figure? The Starboard bow is indicated by A, in the figure
84.Which is the "STARBOARD QUARTER", in the figure? The Starboard quarter is C, in the figure
85.Which of the mooring lines shown in the figure is known as the "AFT BREAST LINE"? The Aft Breast Line is B, in the
figure
86.Which of these statements is NOT correct ?Kerosene is good for cleaning the skin.
87.Why could dirty and oily areas of the deck be dangerous? They may cause people to slip over and hurt themselves
88.With reference to the text in the frame: what is stated as a threat to lives at sea and the marine environment?

Bad management and poorly maintained older ships.

89.Would there ever be the need for two lookouts on the Bridge watch? Yes, possibly when there is dense fog and
heavy traffic.

VIII. Transmit and receive information by visual signaling

1. In what operations would a ship showing this flag be engaged ? Diving operations
2. What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Charlie

3. What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Delta

4. What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Echo

5. What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Foxtrot

6. What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Golf

7. What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Hotel

8. What is the phonetic word for this flag ? India

9. What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Juliet

10.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Kilo

11.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Lima

12.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Mike

13.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? November

14.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Oscar

15.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Papa

16.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Quebec

17.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Romeo

18.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Sierra

19.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Tango

20.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Uniform

21.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Victor

22.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Whisky

23.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Xray

24.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Yankee

25.What is the phonetic word for this flag ? Zulu

26.What sort of vessel would display this day signal ?A sailing vessel which is aground

27.What type of vessel is this? A trawler

28.What type of vessel shows these shapes? A tug and tow where the length of tow exceeds 200m
29.Which flag group means " You appear not to be complying with the traffic separation scheme ? B

30.Which flag group means "Do not pass too close to me." ? B
31.Which flag group means "I am ( or vessel indicated is ) in charge or coordinating a search" ? B

32.Which flag group means "I am calibrating radio direction finder or adjusting compasses" ? A

33.Which flag group means "I am engaged in submarine survey work ( underwater operations }. Keep well clear of me at

slow speed." ? D
34.Which flag group means "I am going to communicate with your station by means of the International Code of

Signals" B

35.Which flag group means "I am in distress and require immediate assistance ? C

36.Which flag group means "I require health clearance" ? A

37.Which flag group means "I wish to communicate with you by VHF channel 16" ? C

38.Which flag group means "Light vessel out of position" ? A

39.Which flag group means "Look-out for a rocket-line" ? D

40.Which flag group means "The groups which follow are from the International Code of Signals"? D

41.Which flag group means "The words which follow are in plain language ? B
42.Which flag group means "Vessel indicated is reported as requiring assistance in lat..long..(or bearing. from lace

indicated, distance..)." ? D

43.Which flag group means "What is the name or identity signal of your vessel" ? D
44.Which flag group means "You should keep away from me or the vessel indicated" ? B
45.Which flag group means "You should proceed with great caution; Submarines are exercising in this area" ? A

46.Which flag group means Have you a doctor " ? A

47.Which flag group means Interrogative or the significance of the previous group should be read as a question" ? B

48.Which flag group means It is not safe to fire a rocker ? B

49.Which flag group means You should proceed at slow speed when passing me or vessels making this signal." ? B

50.Which flag means ? "I am altering my course to starboard." Flag 2

51.Which flag means ? "I am disabled. Communicate with me." Flag 1

52.Which flag means ? "I am on fire and have dangerous cargo on board, keep well clear of me?'Flag 3

53.Which flag means ? "I am operating astern propulsion." flag 4

54.Which flag means ? "I am taking in, or discharging, or carrying dangerous goods." Flag 2

55.Which flag means ? "I have a diver down, keep well clear at slow speed." Flag 1
56.Which flag means ? "I require a tug. When made by fishing vessels operating in close proximity on the fishing

grounds, it means: I am shooting my nets." Flag 3

57.Which flag means ? "I require assistance." Flag 3

58.Which flag means ? "I wish to communicate with you." Flag 2

59.Which flag means ? "Keep clear of me, I am engaged in pair trawling." Flag 1

60.Which flag means ? "Keep clear of me, I am maneuvering with difficulty." Flag 4

61.Which flag means ? "My vessel is 'healthy-and I request free pratique." Flag 1

62.Which flag means ? "Stop carrying out your intentions and watch for my signals.Flag 3

63.Which flag means ? "You are running into danger."Flag 2

64.Which flag means ?" You should stop your vessel instantly." Flag 4

65.Which flag means? "I have a pilot on board." Flag 1

66.Which flag means? "I require a medical assistance." Flag 3
67.Which flag means? "I require a pilot. When made byfishing vessels operating in close proximity on the fishing

grounds it means: I am hauling nets." Flag 1

68.Which flag means? "In harbour. All persons should report on board as the vessel is about to proceed to sea. At sea, it
may be used by fishing vessels to mean: My nets have come fast upon an obstruction." Flag 2

69.Which flag means? "Man overboard." Flag 2

70.Which flag means? "My vessel is stopped and making no way through the water." Flag 4

71.Which flag means? "No ( negative )." Flag 1

72.Which flag means?"' am altering my course to port." Flag 2

73.Which flag means?"' am dragging my anchor’’ Flag 2

74.Which is the correct day signal for a vessel engaged in hydrographic surveying ? Day signal B

IX.MANOEUVRE THE SHIP

1. A balanced rudder has some of the rudder area forward of the rudder axis. About how much area should this be to
call it a balanced rudder? It should be about 20%
2. A ship is equipped with a right-handed fixed pitch propeller, which when going from Full Ahead to Full Astern will
make the ship sheer to starboard. Can anything be done to reduce this change in heading? The rudder can be put
to Hard to Port to reduce the water flow to the right side of the propeller
3. A ship is passing through a narrow channel and keeping to the starboard side of the fairway, as illustrated. What
could be expected in this situation? The ship will suffer bank rejection and the bow will be pushed away from the
bank
4. A ship is steaming at "Full Ahead" when the engines are changed to "Full Astern". Would this reversal of engines
produce the same results in deep water as in shallow water (where the under keel clearance is equal to about half
the draught)? The effectiveness of the rudder and propeller are greatly reduced and therefore the results will be
considerably different
5. A ship normally turns (swings) around a point which is not the centre of gravity. What is this point normally called?
Pivot Point
6. A ship turns around a point known as the "pivot point". Where is the position of this invisible point when the ship is
stopped and "dead" in the water? At about same position as the centre of gravity of the ship
7. A tug is moving towards the bow of the ship to make fast and is in the vicinity of the ship's shoulder, as illustrated.
What specific danger should be considered when making this approach to the bow? The tug may be turned across
the bow of the ship and also suffer a lose of stability with a danger of being turned over if touched by the ship
8. How can the effects of Squat be minimized, when a ship is proceeding in shallow water? Maintain a slow speed just
sufficient to maintain steerage
9. If a ship requires 2 nautical miles to stop in the water from a "crash stop" when proceeding at full ahead in deep
water. What will the stopping distance be in shallow water? A greater distance
10.On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "AIR DRAUGHT" given. Which one is the correct one?
Air draught is given by C on the figure
11.Ships vary considerably in design and underwater shape, but does the ship's trim ever have any influence on its
steering abilities? Yes, the ship often steers better if trimmed by the stern
12.The engines are going astern and the ship is making sternway of about 1.5 knots with the rudder hard to starboard.
What effect will this have on the ship's progress? This will give the stern a lift force to starboard
13.The maximum rudder angle on your ship is 35 degrees. Do you think this is the angle that the rudder is most
effective? No, the most effective rudder angle is about 25 to 30 degrees, this is because the rudder is "stalling" at
35 degrees angle
14.The rudder is in the hard over position with the propeller stopped and the ship turning slowly. On a ship with a single
fixed pitch right handed propeller and no thrusters, what can be done to make the ship increase the speed of turn
without significantly increasing the forward speed of the ship? Give the engines a short kick ahead
15.The ship has a right-handed propeller and is swinging to starboard when the engines are slow ahead and the rudder
is to starboard. The engines are stopped and the rate of swing rapidly slows down. How could the swing to
starboard be maintained without the ship making much headway. Astern on the engines will allow Transverse
Thrust to continue the swing
16.The ship has completed a 360 degree turn at full speed in deep water. The ship is now to repeat the turn at full speed
in shallow water. What will be the difference in the turning circle diameter? The turning diameter will be increased
in shallow water
17.The ship is required to be stopped in the water as quickly as possible, but without major changes to the ship's
heading. What is the most effective method to achieve this? The use of the rudder hard over both sides combined
with reducing engine power, a method known as "high frequency rudder cycling"
18.The ship is sailing in shallow water with reduced Under Keel Clearance. If the ship is steaming with the engines at full
RPM, what would be the speed in comparison to the speed achieved in deep water? Slower than deep water
19.The ship is starting to slow down after steaming at full ahead speed. What will happen to the position of the "pivot
point"? It will move aft as the ship slows down
20.The ship is steaming at Full Ahead when the engines are reversed to "Full Astern" to stop the ship. The ship has a
single, right-handed fixed pitch propeller. What would be the anticipated reaction of the ship, if there is no wind or
current? The ship will probably sheer to starboard and gradually lose headway
21.The ship is to berth alongside a quay in calm conditions of no wind or current. The ship has a single fixed pitch right
handed propeller. Which angle of approach would be considered the most favourable? No. 2
22.The ship's engine is going astern and the ship is picking up sternway. The rudder is amidships and the ship has a
single, right-handed, fixed pitch propeller. What would be expected to happen? The ship will probably start to
change heading to starboard and stern speed will increase
23.The ship's rudder is full over when the ship's engines are full ahead. Will the turning effect (lift force) of the rudder
be changed when the engine is stopped? Yes, the lift force will be dramatically reduced when the engines are
stopped
24.The vessel is in a 360 degrees turn with engine full ahead. If the engine speed is reduced during the turn, will there
be any change in the turning diameter? Yes, the turning diameter will increase if the speed is reduced.
25.Two ships are meeting in a restricted channel as illustrated. Which of the following actions would be the most
suitable to take on both vessels as they approach and pass each other? Slow down if possible without losing
steerage and be prepared for prompt application of rudder to counteract any swing as they approach and pass
each other.
26.Two ships travelling in opposite directions are to pass each other in a narrow river, as illustrated. Explain what is
likely to happen as they pass each other? Due to interaction, the bows will repel each other, and then when
alongside each other the two ships will be sucked together and finally the sterns will be repelled as they start to
pass clear
27.Two vessels are meeting each other in confined waters. What would be the effects of interaction between the two
vessels as they approach each other? The bows of the ships will be pushed away from each other
28.What depth of water would be considered as "Shallow Water" in relationship to a change of the ships manoeuvring
characteristics? When the "Under Keel Clearance" is less than 50% of the draught of the ship
29.What is the correct understanding of the term "a ship with good Directional Stability"? A ship which when the rudder
is left amidships, it will continue on approximately a straight course
30.What is the correct understanding of the term "bank effect"? If a ship was approaching the bank at an angle, what
would be the effect on the ship? The vessel's bow is pushed away from the bank
31.What would be the correct definition of the term "Squat"? Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance and the
possible change of trim of a ship when it moves through shallow water due to a reduction in water pressure.
32.What would be the effects of a ship passing into shallow water? The ship is less responsive to both rudder and
propeller.
33.When a ship is lying at anchor in a tidal area using both forward anchors, to what particular aspect should the officer
of the watch be paying special attention? When the ship swings to the tide the direction of swing should be
controlled to avoid the anchor cables becoming wrapped round each other.
34.Where would the "pivot point" be considered to be located when the ship is proceeding at full speed ahead and
there is no wind or current? At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the bow
35.Which of the following answers correctly specify the following most common rudders? a) UNBALANCED, b)
BALANCED, c) SEMI-BALANCED and d) UNDERHUNG BALANCED. i.e. The number in the picture is related to the
letter adjacent to the name of the rudder. 1 = a, 2 = b, 3 = c and 4 = d
36.Which of the following hull shapes would normally provide a directionally stable ship? A long ship with a narrow
beam.
37.Which type of vessel suffers from the greatest squat effects? Vessel with a high Block Coefficient
38.Who is responsible for the number and the position of any tugs to be used during a mooring operation? The Master,
with consideration of the advice of the pilot
39.You are sailing in shallow water with a 15% Under Keel Clearance. Turning the ship around, what space do you need
compared to deep water? Need more space than normal

X.MONITOR THE LOADING, STOWAGE, SECURING, CARE DURING THE VOYAGE AND THE UNLOADING
1. A bulk carrier loading to summer marks would load to The top of the summer load line mark
2. A cargo of steel swarf and borings (waste steel material from industrial processes) carried on a Bulk Carrier is
particularly liable to? Oxygen depletion in the cargo space and self-heating of the cargo
3. A Combination Carrier is: A ship designed to carry either oil or solid bulk cargoes.
4. A good indicator of the possibility of cargo damage on a bulk carrier is The presence of hatch cover sealing tapes
5. A partly loaded bulk cargo space, whilst the vessel is at sea, may be entered: Under no circumstances except possibly
in an emergency.
6. A stevedore is working in a cargo hold of a bulk carrier while completing discharge of a concentrate cargo. You
suddenly notice that he appears to be taken ill. You should: Assume problem due to lack of oxygen and/or toxic gas
and rescue with self-contained breathing apparatus.
7. A very dusty cargo is to be loaded in bulk on your vessel. You should: Ensure that all cranes, deck storerooms etc. are
fully closed to prevent entry of dust.
8. After a fresh water rinse, presence of salt in the hold of a bulk carrier can be tested By carrying out silver nitrate tests
which should turn milky in the presence of chlorides
9. After completion of cleaning and testing of the bilge spaces in a cargo hold of a bulk carrier, it should be checked that
the: Drain plate over bilge has been fitted and then covered with burlap.
10.After completion of discharging coal with a high sulphur content from a bulk carrier, cargo holds should be inspected
and checked for: Areas of corrosion.
11.After discharge of a bulk cargo by grabs and bulldozers (bob cats), you should carefully check: Access ladders for any
signs of damage.
12.After discharge of a bulk cargo by grabs, tank tops and lower hopper side plating must be checked for: Damage and
possible leaks
13.Before starting to ballast double bottom tanks with sea water, the officer responsible for the operation must ensure
that: Correct valves have been opened, air ventilators are open and ballasting plan has been agreed.
14.Bulk coal cargoes may produce methane and carbon monoxide gases, their main feature being that both these gases
are Flammable and lighter than air
15.Cargo holds are usually swept completely prior to washing on a bulk carrier. This is carried out so that: Cargo
residues will not clog the bilge lines and associated suctions and valves.
16.Cargo sweat is generally caused when Warm and moist air is introduced into a cooler cargo hold
17.Carrying coal with a high sulphur content in bulk could result in Corrosion of steelwork in the cargo holds if the cargo
becomes wet
18.During bulk cargo operations, it is required by International regulations that: Ship's personnel must continuously
monitor cargo operations.
19.During cargo watch keeping on a bulk carrier, it is required under International regulations that: The vessel's
draughts must be frequently checked and recorded.
20.During the draft survey it is noticed that the vessel is trimmed outside the limits of its trim correction tables.
Immediate actions should be to: Bring the vessel to within the trim limits imposed by the tank sounding tables
prior to carrying out the survey
21.For which of the following reasons would a bulk carrier cargo hold inspection be most likely to fail? Loose rust all
around the cargo hold
22.Hague-Visby rules are applicable to Contracts of carriage evidenced by a bill of lading
23.If the cargo loading rate on a bulk carrier exceeds the de-ballasting rate and thereby affecting the hull stresses, the
OOW must Notify the port state authority with whom the loading plan has been lodged
24.If the temperature of bulk coal cargo during voyage is noted to be above 55 degree Celsius, the recommended
procedure is to Seal the hold and monitor the cargo using suitable instruments
25.In a side rolling hatch cover arrangement of a bulk carrier, wedging ensures that: The compression bar on one panel
fits against the seal on the opposite panel.
26.It is common practice for all bulk carriers to be trimmed and levelled on completion of loading, so as to: Reduce the
possibilities of the cargo shifting at sea
27.It is important to remove all traces of salt after washing the cargo holds of a bulk carrier, because: Salt encourages
the corrosion of steelwork.
28.Loading rates of bulk iron ore must be controlled so that: The vessel can manage with de-ballasting operations
29.On a bulk carrier at the completion of loading and before closing hatch covers, the track ways must be: Swept and
checked clear of obstructions.
30.On a bulk carrier scheduled to load sugar, the cargo holds will certainly fail a pre-loading inspection if there are signs
of: Insect infestation in the bilges.
31.On a bulk carrier, provided it is considered safe to do so, the most effective method of cleaning a cargo hold that
contained grain is to: Sweep and clean cargo holds from the top down as discharge progresses followed by a final
wash.
32.On a Bulk Carrier, which of these statements is correct? Steel slabs must never be permitted to rest directly against
any part of the ship's structure
33.Prior starting the ballasting of tanks on a bulk carrier in extremely cold conditions, it must be checked that: All air
ventilators are open and free from ice build- up.
34.Prior to loading of steel coils in a bulk carrier, all cargo hatch covers must be tested in the presence of a surveyor. In
preparation for this test all hatch covers should be: Fully secured to sea going condition with all cleats in place.
35.Prior to opening side-rolling hatch covers of a bulk carrier, it must be ensured that: Cross wedges have been
removed.
36.Prior to starting the ballasting operations on a bulk carrier, the responsible officer must check: That all air pipes are
open and that the pipeline and valve system is correctly set up.
37.Prior to starting the hatch cleaning operations on a bulk carrier, a responsible officer of the ship must carry out a:
Risk Assessment, Permit to work /enter and tool-box talk.
38.Prior using ship’s cranes for loading cargo on a bulk carrier, the crane operator must ensure that: Crane controls are
operational, limit switches are functioning properly and weights to be lifted are within the SWL of the crane
39.The cargo residues inside the hold space of a bulk carrier is least likely to remain hidden within: Bulkhead
corrugations
40.The main problem when a dry bulk cargo develops a flow state is that The cargo shifts easily causing major stability
problems
41.The maximum possibility of sea water entering the cargo hold of a bulk carrier is through: Hatch covers and coamings
42.The most practical means for inspection of the upper parts of a cargo hold in a bulk carrier is by the use of: A cherry
picker.
43.The recommended way to stow steel wire rod coils on a bulk carrier is With their cores aligned fore and aft
44.The term cargo sweat refers to Condensation of moisture directly onto the cargo
45.The used dunnage of a bulk carrier is classified under MARPOL: Garbage
46.To conform with "best practise", can you drive a crane and stand-by for a colleague who has entered a cargo tank at
the same time? No.
47.Under international regulations entries be made with regard to the disposal of bulk cargo residues into the sea in the
ships: Garbage record book.
48.Under way to discharging port temperature tests indicate fire in a hold loaded with coal. What is the first action to be
taken? Close all air ventilators and other openings to the hold in question
49.Upon completion of ballasting operations on a bulk carrier, it must be ensured that: All valves have been closed, tank
ventilators are in open position and sounding pipe caps replaced.
50.Upon completion of discharging cargo on a bulk carrier by using grabs, the most important item to check before
closing a hatch cover is to: Check that hatch coaming and sealing bar have not been damaged by grab contact
51.Ventilation of steel cargoes carried on a bulk carrier should be carried out When atmospheric air temperature is
falling
52.What are the people probably doing in the picture? The people are hosing down the cargo hold to clean it.
53.What do the letters IMDG stand for? International Maritime Dangerous Goods.
54.What do you understand by the term "Slewing"? Turning or rotating a crane boom.
55.What general background colour is used on warning signs that indicate emergency or first-aid features, or indicate a
safe condition? Green.
56.What is shown in the picture, a crane or a derrick using what loading gear? A deck crane using grabs.
57.What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SWL" as stamped on lifting gear around the ship? Safe Working Load.
58.What might safely be used to prevent a load swinging when lifted by a crane? Guide or tag lines, tended from a safe
location.
59.What should you know about the emergency stops on deck? Where they are located and how to operate them.
60.When accurate draft readings are required, it is recommended to read both port and starboard drafts. This is
because: The vessel may appear up right but may have a slight list causing difference in the port and starboard
actual drafts
61.When ballasting double-bottom tanks on a bulk carrier, the responsible officer must: Avoid ballasting all tanks
together including fore peak tank (FP) and after peak (AP) tank.
62.When carried in bulk, which of the following cargoes is most likely to liquefy due to compression and/or vibrations?
Iron ore concentrates
63.When carrying dry bulk cargoes, a low angle of repose indicates that The cargo is more liable to shift than cargo with
a high angle of repose
64.When carrying grain in the hold space of a bulk carrier, the type of paint to be used should be: Paints approved for
use in cargo spaces that may carry edible cargoes.
65.When carrying high sulphur coal on a bulk carrier, the areas of a cargo hold that are most prone to corrosion are:
Steelwork with which wet cargo is in contact.
66.When discharging a bulk cargo, it is required by international regulations that: The method of unloading must not
damage the ship's structure.
67.When loading a bulk carrier at a high loading rate, the vessel will experience highest tension in bottom structure:
During loading of heavy cargo in midship section
68.When loading, it is recommended not to drop iron ore cargo from a height into the cargo hold bottom because this
can cause: Damage to the tank top and double bottom internals
69.When preparing a previously ballasted hold of a bulk carrier for cargo, it must be checked that: The ballast lines must
be blanked off and the bilge lines opened and tested.
70.When washing a cargo hold of a bulk carrier prior to loading a cargo of steel products, it is usual practice to carry out
a fresh water wash after the sea water wash. This is carried out to: Remove all traces of salt that could possibly
contaminate the steel cargo.
71.When washing down during hatch cleaning operations, the officer responsible for the operation must ensure that:
The ship has a large trim by the stern.
72.Who is authorised to operate lifting equipment around the ship? Those ship's personnel who have been assessed as
competent and are duly authorised to do so by the master as per the procedures as outlined in the ship's SMS
system.
73.With a bulk ship in port, when it would it normally be permissible allowed to start painting over-side only after: The
necessary permission has been obtained from the port authority.
74.With respect to carriage of heavy metal cargoes in bulk, the term liquefaction means that The cargo may suffer
moisture migration and become semi-liquid near the top of the stow
75.You are driving a crane and the signalman on deck gives this signal. What does it mean? (Hand signals as per the
Code of Safe Working Practices for Merchant Seamen). Danger, or emergency stop!
76.You have been assigned to enter a hold and check the general cargo stowed in it, as part of an on-passage
monitoring procedure. What must be in place before you can do that? The necessary permits, based on valid
atmospheric and other applicable tests.
77.You have just witnessed a crew member collapse inside a cargo hold. You should: Raise the alarm and wait for the
rescue party to arrive.
XI.INSPECT AND REPORT DEFECTS AND DAMAGE TO CARGO SPACES, HATCH COVERS AND BALLAST TANKS
1. A bulk carrier has to complete loading at a draft of 10 metres. The current amidship drafts are 9.96 metres (port side)
and 9.98 metres (starboard side). The sinkage remaining to maximum draft is: 0.03 metres
2. A bulk carrier is loading to complete at a draught of 10.00m when in salt water. She is currently floating in dock
water and the Dock Water Allowance (DWA) is 80 mm. Her maximum draught at completion of loading should be
10.08 metres
3. A draft survey is carried out on a bulk carrier to calculate: The quantity of bulk cargo loaded or discharged
4. After completion of discharge of a dry bulk cargo, the CO2 lines in each cargo hold should be Blown through with
compressed air to ensure that they are clear of any cargo traces
5. Before a bulk carrier can load a full cargo of grain, what additional stability information is required? Grain loading
conditions must be shown and the vessel is in possession of a Document of Authorization
6. Cargo on a bulk cement carrier is normally discharged by Using its own pumping system and equipment
7. How much liferaft capacity should be provided on a conventional cargo ship of more than 85 meters in length ? 100%
of the complement if it can be readily launched on either side of the ship. If it cannot be readily launched on either
side, 100% must be provided on each side
8. It is common practice on bulk carriers to fill only one set of ballast tanks at any one time so as to Ensure that free
surfaces in ballast tanks do not become excessive during the ballasting operation
9. Normally, a vessel sails in salt water and therefore salt water draughts are those which are referred to. If there is a
change in density however, this must be taken into account because the true draughts of the ship will change.
Which of the definitions below is that of this "Fresh Water Allowance"? The number of millimetres by which a
vessel's True Mean Draught changes when she passes from salt water to fresh water, or vica versa.
10.Reserve Buoyancy is: The buoyancy provided by all enclosed spaces above the waterline
11.The CO2 injection lines into the designated ballast hold of a bulk carrier are sealed Prior to ballasting the hold
12.The drain pipe covers fitted on the hatch coamings of a bulk carrier are secured In the event of a cargo hold fire
13.The first line of defence against flooding of a bulk carrier is its: Shell plating
14.The full name for the BC Code is The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk Cargoes
15.The full name for the IMSBC Code is The International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargo Code
16.The hatch cover hydraulic system of a bulk carrier can be damaged by Dust and cargo particles around the piston
seals
17.The perforated plate cover of the cargo hatch bilges are normally covered with burlap, so as To prevent small
particles of cargo draining into the bilges
18.The purpose of the cargo hold ventilator grill is to Prevent any sparks from entering the hold space
19.To withstand flooding of any one cargo hold, a bulk carrier constructed after 1 July 1999 can be loaded to: The
Summer load line
20.What do the letters "TPC" stand for? Tonnes per Centimetre.
21.What do you understand by the term "luffing"? The raising or lowering of a crane jib, moving the head of the crane
and therefore a suspended load horizontally towards or away from the crane.
22.What facility exists under the ISM Code for the provision of individual control measures for specific work-related
tasks? The Permit to Work system.
23.What general background colour is used on warning signs which require a specific "mandatory" action, such as one
which might require the wearing of a safety harness during a particular work task? Blue.
24.What is a "consignee"? Any person, organization or government entitles to take delivery of a consignment.
25.What is meant by the term "segregation"? The planned, separated stowage of cargoes that may react dangerously
with each other in the event of leakage or other damage.
26.What is of utmost concern when steel cargoes are carried in a bulk carrier? Bending moments being greatly
exceeded in the seagoing condition
27.What is the name given to the special list of cargo loaded on board a ship that needs to be prepared for reporting
and other administrative purposes?Manifest.
28.What is this? The United Nations Packaging symbol used for Dangerous Goods.
29.What kinds of checks must be carried out on slings, wires and other items of lifting equipment before they are used
in routine operations? They must be visually inspected and ascertained, so far as is possible, as being in good
working order and fit for purpose.
30.What name is given to the inspection and measurements at the end of a bulk carrier's loading operation, that
determines the weight of cargo lifted based on the observed draughts, any list, hog or sag, the dock water density
and the calculation of ballast and consumables on the vessel? Draught Survey.
31.When carrying bulk coal cargo, during the voyage methane and carbon monoxide gases are measure by Using the
approved sampling ports fitted on each hatch coaming
32.When loading coal on a Bulk Carrier, the vessel should be provided with Means for measuring cargo temperatures
33.Which of these is not used to discharge bulk grain? Pumps
XII.ENSURE COMPLIANCE WITH POLLUTION PREVENTION REQUIREMENTS
1. An Oil Record Book, Part 1,shall be provided to every ship of 400 tons gross tonnage and above to record machinery
space operations.Out of below mentioned operations, it is compulsory to record: Bunkering of bulk lubricating oil.
2. Any ship of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and above shall be fitted with oily-water separating equipment for the control
of machinery space bilges.What kind of equipment is required in this connection? Either Oil fitting equipment , or
Oily-water separating equipment , or combination of both.
3. Are there any restrictions about how much sludge we can pump overboard on the sea voyage? Maximum is 30 litre
pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage.
4. For how long time must the printout from the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) be retained onboard?
Three years
5. If you use chemicals for cleaning up an oil-spill on the water, what would the chemicals do? Disperse or dissolve the
oil into the water
6. In case of a pollution in US waters, who shall notify the cleaning up contractor (OPA-90) Qualified Individual
7. In which areas is plastic material accepted for overboard disposal? Not permissible any where.
8. Is there any special area under MARPOL where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues? There are
special areas where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
9. MARPOL - Annex I. Your vessel sailed from Bahrain heading for Singapore. 2 days after departure, you would like to
empty your machinery space bilges. What will be the correct procedures in this connection? Call the bridge and
request for position and permission to discharge overboard through oily water separating and filtering equipment.
10.MARPOL - Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an approved sewage treatment plant certified by the Administration.
During discharge, while vessel is awaiting pilot off Cape Henry, USA, the surrounding water is iscoloured. What kind
of action would be appropriate to take? Stop discharge.
11.MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage outside "Special Areas". After unpacking spares, you are left with a limited
amount of packing materials. Is this prohibited, if not, what will be the nearest distance to land for disposal into the
sea of these materials? This is prohibited
12.MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage. Your vessel is in the Red Sea (Special Area) and the Chief Cook is requesting
to have some food waste burned in the incinerator. Due to problems with incinerator, you decide to have the
waste ground in the Grinder (Lump size max. 25 mm) and disposed off into the sea. Is this prohibited, if not, how
far from nearest land is this legal? 12 miles
13.Most minor oilspills are caused by: Human error
14.New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the previous instantaneous rate of discharge of
oil content (60 litters per nautical mile) was changed to: 30 litters per nautical mile
15.Notification logging procedures .(OPA-90) Every report or message must be logged including time and date
16.Shipboard Emergency Drills must be carried out at least (OPA-90):Once a month
17.Ships of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and more, shall be fitted with oil filtering equipment, complying with Reg.14 (7)
of MARPOL for the control of machinery space bilges. What would be the maximum oil content of oily-water
mixture to pass through the filter? 15 ppm
18.Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by doing what? Plugging the scuppers
19.The OPA-90 notification requirement is: Notify as soon as you have knowledge of any spill, or threat of a spill
20.What does the term DISCHARGE mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations? All the other alternatives
21.What is definition on clean ballast as per MARPOL Annex 1? Ballast with an oil content of less than 15 ppm
22.What is the best way to avoid pollution from small oil-spills aboard a ship? Contain any oil-spill onboard the ship
23.What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oil-spill on the water? The chemicals make it difficult to remove
the oil from the water
24.What is the purpose of the O.D.M.E. (Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment) printer ? To prove that oil has been
pumped overboard according to regulations
25.What should you do with the ashes from your vessels incinerator which had burned garbage containing plastics?
Discharge to a shore facility only
26.What would be the preferred colour to use when maintaining the paint on shell, plating, structure and
bottom/tanktopp in the engine room White or light grey to ensure all minor spills and leakages are noticed and
dealt with.
27.When a pollution incident occurs there is a plan for actions to be undertaken. State which of following priority
sequences to be considered: Stop pumps - report - clean up?
28.Which of the connections you are shown, are the dedicated shore connection (MARPOL-connection) for discharging
of sewage ? 4
29.Which of the following would be considered pollution, when discharged overboard, under the US water pollution
laws? All of the mentioned
30.Which PPM is allowed for discharging of "Bilge Water" overboard? 15 PPM
31.Which statement(s) is true of a gasoline spill? It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill
32.Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any potential polluting operation? To avoid pollution.
33.You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Algeria, in the Mediterranean Sea. Are you allowed to dump
food waste overboard? No, food waste can not be dumped overboard
34.You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you allowed to dump empty glass
bottles overboard ? Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass
through a screen with 25 mm openings
35.You are onboard a vessel off the West African coast. You want to dump a mixture of food waste, glass bottles and
floating packing materials. Is this allowed? and if so, how far off the coast would you have to be? This is prohibited
36.You are taking fuel on your vessel in the US when you notice oil on the water around your vessel. You are to stop
taking fuel and: Notify the US Coast Guard

XIII.MAINTAIN SEAWORTHINESS OF THE SHIP

1. “Parametric Rollin” on a container ship results in: A large unstable roll motion suddenly occurring in head or stern
seas.
2. A ‘free flow system’ with reference to an oil tanker means: A vessel without ordinary bottom lines where the cargo
flows from tank to tank through bulkhead valves.
3. A common cause for the weakening of a turnbuckle on container vessels is: Pitting
4. A common problem associated with twist-locks is: Left hand and right hand types exist, causing uncertainty
whether a fitting is locked or open
5. A large GM on a container ship will result in: Quick rolling period and increasing angles of roll.
6. A loaded VLCC ship is stopped and Not Under Command in open sea and is observed to be drifting towards the SSE
at a rate of two (2) knots. Will the direction and rate of drift be the same for the ship if it was in ballast
condition? No, the drift in ballast condition may be quite different
7. A partially loaded ship is steaming slowly ahead in shallow, confined waters as illustrated in the diagram. Which of
the suggested answers are the most critical external influences experienced by the vessel? All of the suggested
answers are critical
8. A ship moving through heavy seas is affected by the water pressure at the bows causing an effect known as
"Panting". What structure in the forward region of the ship combats the effects of Panting?Panting beams and
stringers
9. After completing all pre-starting checks on the flue gas plant, the first thing that the operator would do is to: Open
the flue gas isolating valve.
10. As per SOLAS a fast rescue boats shall be capable of: Manoeuvring for at least 4 hrs at a speed of 20 knots in calm
water
11. As per SOLAS every fast rescue boat shall be provided with: Thermal protective aids for at least 10% of the persons
the boat is permitted to accommodate or two, which ever is greater
12. As per SOLAS requirement fast rescue boats shall be constructed in such a way that: They are self righting or
capable of being readily righted by its crew
13. As per SOLAS the Inert Gas System of an oil tanker must deliver the inert gas with a maximum level of oxygen of:
Not more than 5% by volume.
14. At the design phase of a container ship, the loss of strength resulting from the large deck openings are
compensated by: Large deck beams longitudinally and athwartships at the sides and ends of hatches.
15. Before departing the berth to ensure the stability of a RoRo vessel which if the following should be completed Close
all Ramps and hatch covers
16. By what means can we monitor and control the integrity of the hull? Automatic detection systems, television
surveillance and patrolling of ro-ro cargo spaces
17. Car decks on board ro-ro passenger ships are nomally closed during sea passage. Why are passengers not allowed
to be on the car-deck during sailing? In case of an emergency situation it can be difficult for passengers to
escape. Vehicles, lorries, trailers and other cargo are maybe lashed and it is a substantial chance for passengers
to get injured. Vehicles and other cargo might also shift when the ship is rolling.
18. Container ships without hatch covers are deemed to comply with the International Convention on Load line Rules
after: An International Load Line Exemption certificate is issued in accordance to Article 6.
19. During Crude Oil Washing, those areas of the cargo tank which are not directly struck by the oil jet from the tank
washing machines are referred to as: Shadow areas.
20. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins. What information shall as a
minimum be included in the emergency instructions? The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and
alarm signals
21. Fast rescue boats construction should be: Rigid, inflated or rigid / inflated
22. Fast rescue boats shall be capable of carrying: At least 5 seated persons and a person lying down
23. Fast rescue boats shall be stowed and kept in a state of continuous readiness for launching: In less than 5 minutes
24. From which locations is it normally possible to close watertight doors? Watertight doors can be closed adjacent to
the door and remotely from bridge and also one emergency remote control station
25. How are the officers informed of the ship's stability in damaged conditions? By permanently exhibited damage
control plans
26. How are the surfaces of ro-ro vehicle decks and ramps treated? With non-skid paints
27. How can an approximate value of the initial transverse Metacentric Height (GM) be found from the Curve of
Statical Stability (GZ curve)? Drawing a tangent to the curve through the origin and erecting a perpendicular
through the angle of heel of 57.3 degrees
28. How long should it take to release at least two thirds of the charge of CO2 that is provided for a ro-ro cargo space
protected with a fixed carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing system? Not more than 10 minutes
29. How many crews are required to be trained and regularly drilled in all aspects of fast rescue boats in various
conditions, including righting after capsizing? At least 2
30. How many fast rescue boats are required to be carried by a passenger ship of 500 GRT and above? At least one of
the rescue boats shall be a fast rescue boat
31. How many lifejackets are required in a passenger cabin? Same number as beds in the cabin
32. How many rescue boats should be provided on passenger ships of 500 gross tons and above? Two, one on each
side of the ship
33. How often shall liferafts be serviced? At intervals not exceeding 12 months
34. How should cargo hold ventilation be carried out on a Ro-Ro vessel loading or discharging cargoes? With the
ventilation fans set to ‘exhaust'
35. How should lashing belts be stowed on board a RoRo vessel? According to their Safe Working Load (SWL)
36. If a twist lock is found cracked at the base, it should be: Removed from service.
37. If the general alarm is sounding and evacuation of the ship is required. What is the best way to ensure that all
passengers are aware of the situation? Inform the passengers through Public Address system. Crew with
designated emergency duties should proceed to their cabin section and search all cabins. Guide and evacuate
passengers. If the area is inaccessible report to their superior or the bridge.
38. In context of cargo oil depth and ullage measurements, the abbreviation UTI stands for: Ullage Temperature
Interface.
39. In oil cargo calculations, ASTM table 53A/B is used for: Finding the density of oil at 15°C from the given density at
observed temperature.
40. Is it required to have supplementary emergency electric lighting on board passenger ships? Yes, all passenger
public spaces and alleyways shall be provided with supplementary electric lighting
41. It is considered essential that container ships should have a large ballast capacity and high powered ballast pumps,
because: These are required for trimming the ships and offsetting longitudinal bending moments.
42. It is not possible to install double stacking cones on container ships which has: Loaded out-of-gauge containers.
43. Maximum shearing forces are likely to occur on an oil tanker: At the bulkhead between empty and full tanks
44. Most search patterns consists of: Parallel track covering a rectangular area
45. Normally, a twist lock should be greased: Between the twistlock cone and associated housing
46. OIf container lashings fail at sea, the normal procedure for the vessel would be to: Enter the number and type of
failed equipment into the lashing equipment file on board
47. On a RoRo vessel carrying no more than 36 passengers, what is the minimum capacity of the ventilation system
protecting standard cargo spaces intended for carriage of motor vehicles with fuel in their tanks for their own
propulsion. 6 air changes per hour
48. On a Ro-Ro vessel what would be the effect of a small GM? A slow roll period
49. On a RoRo vessel why is it important to ensure the vessel is correctly trimmed prior to commencing cargo
operations To ensure the angle between the Ramp and the Quay are in acceptable limits
50. On a RoRo vessel, how should additional lashings be applied to vehicles if they do not have sufficient lashing
points? As detailed in the instructions provided by the manufacturer or shipper
51. On a RoRo vessel, if the Manufacturer and shipper of a vehicle have not provided instructions and the vehicle does
not have fixed lasing points what can be used to secure the lashings The wheel apertures, or other suitable fixed
point on the vehicle
52. On a RoRo vessel, what danger is associated with damaged expanded metal gratings on loading ramps? Vehicles'
tyres may be damaged during cargo operations
53. On a RoRo vessel, what is of major concern when a shallow draught ro-ro vessel is in river transit in high winds ? Air
draught
54. On a RoRo vessel, when cargo has shifted at sea, what could help in reducing acceleration forces? Operating anti-
heeling devices
55. On a RoRo vessel, when loading Double Stacked containers on Maffi Trailers how many twist locks should have
used between the 2 containers One on every corner 4 in total
56. On a RoRo vessel, where is the best place to find information on loading ramp limitations? In the loading ramp
manual
57. On a RoRo vessel, where on board a ship will cargoes experience the least accelerations? At the intersection of the
fore and aft, athwartships and vertical axes of the ship
58. On a RoRo vessel, which of the following can cause an unplanned list at sea? Ballast water exchange
59. On board a crude oil tanker, guidance on the washing system and equipment along with the applicable operating
procedures, can be found in: The Operating and Equipment (COW) Manual.
60. On oil tankers, Cargo tanks can be isolated from machinery spaces by: All the answers are good
61. On the bridge of a RoRo vessel, which of the following doors have no open/closed bridge indicator requirements?
Doors leading into the engine room
62. One water fog applicator is required for each pair of breathing apparatus on board which type of ship? Passenger
ships carrying more than 36 passengers
63. Parallel sweep search in a co-ordinated manner is achieved when? All facilities proceed with same speed
64. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10% for children. In addition to this, how
many lifejackets have to be stowed in conspicuous places on deck or at the muster stations? 5% extra
65. Passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or canopied reversible liferafts. What does it
mean that a liferaft is automatically self-righting? The liferaft will automatically turn back into an upright
position when it is empty of people
66. Segregated Ballast Tanks on an oil tanker may best be defined as: Tanks which are completely separate from cargo
or fuel oil systems, being permanently allocated to the carriage of ballast and fitted with their own pumps and
associated piping
67. SOLAS requires the tank coatings in dedicated seawater ballast tanks on oil tankers to be of: Preferably any light
colour.
68. Tanks lids and other access points on an oil tanker are usually shaped round so as to: Avoid localized stress points
at any corners.
69. The ‘buckling’ of strength members of an oil tanker results due to high: Compressive forces
70. The chemical characteristics of effluent water from an inert gas scrubber and the condensate which collects in the
deck mains would be: Acidic in nature.
71. The design features of a container ship with pronounced bow flare, a wide flat transom stern and wall sided
amidships section contribute to: Parametric Rolling
72. The first tier of under-deck containers, on a non-cellular container vessel, are usually loaded: Onto dunnage laid
fore and aft over the tank top.
73. The function of double stacking cones on container vessels is: To link adjacent container stacks together particularly
those in line with buttresses.
74. The function of the scrubber within an Inert Gas system is: To quench, cool and clean the flue gas.
75. The limitations of a Cargo Securing Manual of a container vessel may include the fact that: They are drafted whilst
the ship is still under construction and need to be checked against the ship's 'as completed' condition in order to
be fully reliable.
76. The longitudinal bending moments caused by cargo distribution on an oil tanker need to be taken into
consideration: During loading, discharging and on loaded passage
77. The main factor when determining the way containers must be lashed is by: Referring to the cargo securing
manual.
78. The main function of a buttress on a container ship is: To support container stacks in a non-cellular cargo hold.
79. The main function of twist-locks is: To couple containers vertically.
80. The main movements experienced by a container ship, which will create the largest forces exerted on the container
frames and lashings, are: Rolling, Pitching and Heaving.
81. The method to avoid adverse effects of free surface on an oil tanker with full liquid cargo would be to ensure that:
There are at least two longitudinal bulkheads and a large initial GM
82. The one particular hazard to be taken care against, when using portable steam driven blowers for ventilating oil
cargo tanks is: That the exhaust does not vent into the cargo tank, in order to prevent possible build-up of static
electricity.
83. The primary purpose of the water seal within an inert gas system is: To prevent the passage of petroleum gases
back to the machinery spaces.
84. The proper funtioning of a bridge fitting on containers is prevented due to: Buckling
85. The purpose of having corrugations in the bulkheads of cargo tanks of an oil tanker is to: Provide strength, but with
clean and clear surfaces within the tank.
86. The purpose of the ‘mud box’ fitted on a tanker is to: Restrict any particles and solids entering the pipeline system.
87. The purpose of the decanting line between two slop tanks, where fitted, is: To enable most of the recovered oil to
be retained in the primary slop tank, while the cleaner part of the water will flow into the secondary slop tank,
where it can be re-used as wash-water.
88. The purpose of the demister unit within the Inert Gas System is: To remove water from the IGS stream.
89. The purpose of the dovetail foundation on container vessels is: Act as a sliding base for twistlocks.
90. The residual stability requirements of a container ship state that: A container ship must always comply with the
stability requirements of the International Loadline Rules.
91. Twist locks are preferred over cone-based lashing systems on container vessels because: Cone-based lashing
systems are more prone to failure than twistlocks.
92. What are safety cones used for on a RoRo vessel,? All of the alternatives
93. What are the ideal conditions required to satisfactorily conduct an Inclining Experiment? All of the suggested
answers
94. What are the main elements in a damage control plan? Boundaries of the watertight compartments for decks and
holds. Position of controls for opening and closing of watertight compartments. Arrangement for correction of
list due to flooding.
95. What are the operational requirements for a fast rescue boat? It shall be served by a suitable launching appliance
to launch and retrieve the boat even under severe adverse weather conditions
96. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical flooding in damaged condition?
Cross flooding arrangement
97. What can be done to minimize the reduction of GM due to free surface? Reduce the number of slack tanks.
98. What extra precautions should be taken by the officers and crew if some of the passengers are disabled, i.e. using
wheelchair, cane, blind etc.? All passengers that will require extra assistance, also in case of an emergency
situation/ evacuation, must be registered in order to allocate crew to assist them if needed.
99. What has a major adverse effect on the manoeuverability of a RoRo car carrier? Wind
100. What is a low location lighting system? A light system powered by battery or fluorescent signs mounted at deck
level indicating the way to the nearest exit
101. What is a Marine Evacuation System? Evacuation Chute(s)/Slide(s) and Liferafts
102. What is most important when using expanded square search? Accurate navigation
103. What is the adequate marking of liferafts for passenger ships on short international voyages? SOLAS B PACK
104. What is the anticipated rolling period of a ship with a large initial Transverse Metacentric Height (GM) and would
there be any associated dangers to consider? Short sharp period of roll associated with breaking lashings and
shifting cargo
105. What is the correct understanding of the tem "Angle of Loll" when applied to ships stability? The angle the ship will
lie when the ship has a negative GM
106. What is the correct understanding of the term "Bending moments" when applied to ships? The longitudinal
Bending Moment at any section within the ship is the total moments tending to alter the longitudinal shape of
the ship
107. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing with stability of passenger ships? The International
Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
108. What is the minimum Initial Transverse Metacentric Height (GM) allowed under the International Load Line Rules?
0.15 metres
109. What is the name of this unit? A hydrostatic release unit
110. What is the time limit for abandonment of passenger ships? 30 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is
given
111. What is very important to monitor when distributing cargo? You should always ensure the ship has sufficient
stabilty at all times. Cargo shall preferably be distributed evenly to avoid heavy list/ trim
112. What must be ensured immediately after lowering and securing the stern ramp on a RoRo vessel? Control levers
should be locked in the ‘neutral' position
113. What new stability problems would be caused by having deep double bottom tanks on double hull oil tankers? The
Metacentric Height (GM) would have to be considered.
114. What should be observed concerning a ship's water tight integrity? That all water tight ramps and doors are locked
and secured at sea
115. What special requirements applies to fire alarm signalling systems in passenger ships Fail safe, Centralized in a
continuously manned control station, Remote control of fire doors, Indication of open or closed fire doors,
Reactivation of ventilation, Detector status, Back up powered
116. When a ships derrick or crane lifts a weight off the deck of a ship, from which position can the centre of gravity of
the weight be considered to act? From the head of the derrick or crane
117. When cargo discharge reaches stripping levels on an oil tanker, it is necessary to reduce the inert gas pressure so as
to: Minimise blowback.
118. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and excessive heel angels in damaged
condition are installed in passenger ships, what is the maximum angle of heel after flooding but before
equalization? 15 degrees
119. When is sector search most effective? Position of the search object is accurately known
120. When is the parallel sweep search used? When searching large area
121. When is track line search normally used? When a vessel or aircraft has disappeared without a trace
122. When shutting down the flue gas plant, the last step that the operator shall carry out would be to: Shut down of
inert gas blower.
123. Where and for what are rubber mats used on board a pure RoRo car carrier? Under the loading ramp flap to
prevent vehicle damage
124. Where on board a RoRo ship will cargoes experience the greatest accelerations? In the highest stowage positions to
each side of the ship
125. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board passenger ships? From the navigation
bridge and in at least one other location
126. Which of the following appliances are compulsorily in any ro-ro cargo space intended for the carriage of motor
vehicles with fuel in their tanks for their own propulsion? At least one portable foam applicator unit
127. Which of these is not a Cargo Transport Unit under the IMDG Code? Road tank vehicle
128. Which one of the following international regulations is normally used when handling dangerous goods? IMDG code
129. Who is normally deciding which search pattern to use? OSC
130. Why are all RoRo passenger ships divided into vertical ’zones’? Vertical zones are fire zones which can be divided
from each other with fire doors. In case of fire, all fire doors in front and aft of the fire will be closed to prevent
spreading of smoke/fire.
131. With reference to container ships, “TEU” refers to: Twenty foot equivalent unit.
132. With reference to oil tanker equipment, the abbreviation VECS stands for: Vapour Emission Control System.
133. With reference to the efficiency of cargo pumps on oil tankers, the abbreviation NPSH stands for: Net Pressure
Suction Head.

XIV.Prevent, control and fight fires on board

1. "A" Class divisions in ships are constructed so that they are capable of preventing the passage of smoke and flame
to the end of a standard fire test held for how many minutes? 60 minutes
2. A class "D" fire involves what type of material? Metals
3. A drip tray containing oil is on fire. The only fire fighting equipment available is water hose with spray jet/spray
nozzle. How, if at all, should you attempt to put out this fire using water? The water can be applied in a fine
spray starting from the front in a sweeping motion.
4. A fire bulkhead of the "C" class must be constructed of: Non-combustible material
5. According to basic principles regarding fire protection the ship is to be divided in zones by structural and thermal
boundaries. (SOLAS II-2/2.2.1) In main vertical zones
6. According to European standards (E.N.) fire can be classified… A, B,C,D
7. According to their physical state, extinguishing agents may be classified in to: Solid, liquid and gases
8. After smoking, cigarettes should be disposed off as follows: Disposed of in an ashtray, ensuring that it is
extinguished
9. Among the additives used to improve the effectiveness of water in the fight against fire there are the moisturing
ones. What is the task they perform? They reduce the surface tension of water
10. Apart from red, what other colour is frequently used for a CO2 extinguisher? Black
11. Apart from red, what other colour is frequently used for a dry powder extinguisher? Blue
12. As a fire fighter, what should you always consider when fighting a fire in a confined space? The confined space
always has six sides
13. As a general rule, what is the minimum flash point of an oil used as a liquid fuel on board? 60ºC
14. As a general rule, where would you expect to find a portable fire extinguisher in any space? Near to the entrance to
the space
15. B Class divisions in ships are constructed so that they are capable of preventing the passage of flame to the end of a
standard fire test held for: 30 minutes
16. Before extinction of an electric fire we need To disconnect the power source
17. Besides certain other factors, a BOILOVER takes place: When the container also contains water
18. Breathing apparatuses is an important piece of equipment for being able to fight a fire onboard a vessel. What
routine precautions to be observed with regard to use and maintenance of such equipment? All the mentioned
alternatives.
19. Could a lift be considered as an escape route from the engine room ? No
20. Dry chemical powders extinguish fire by... Inhibition and smothering
21. Fire provokes: Gases, flames, smoke and heat
22. For which of the following groups of substances or materials is the use of water as an extinguishing agent
dangerous? Sodium hydrosulphite , potassium hydroxide, magnesium
23. Fuel oil from a leaking fuel pipe has been collected in a drip tray under the boiler furnace.The oil is suddenly ignited
by a backflash from the boiler burner.The boiler room is manned and the person present has the choice of
various extinguishers. The fire is purely a surface fire. What would be the preferable extinguisher? Powder
24. Generally speaking, what is the value commonly recognised as the maximum concentration of CO allowed in the
breathing air of a breathing apparatus? 20ppm
25. Generally speaking, what is the value commonly recognised as the maximum concentration of oil vapours allowed
in the breathing air of a breathing apparatus? 5mg/m3
26. Give the meaning of the following symbol A class division

27. Give the meaning of the following symbol A class fire door self closing

28. Give the meaning of the following symbol Area protected by CO2

29. Give the meaning of the following symbol Area protected by halon

30. Give the meaning of the following symbol Area protected by sprinkler

31. Give the meaning of the following symbol B class fire door self closing

32. Give the meaning of the following symbol CO2 horn

33. Give the meaning of the following symbol Fire alarm panel

34. Give the meaning of the following symbol Fire main with fire valves

35. Give the meaning of the following symbol Fire station

36. Give the meaning of the following symbol Flame detector

37. Give the meaning of the following symbol Foam installation

38. Give the meaning of the following symbol Foam monitor gun

39. Give the meaning of the following symbol Foam release station

40. Give the meaning of the following symbol Gas detector

41. Give the meaning of the following symbol Heat detector

42. Give the meaning of the following symbol International shore connection
43. Give the meaning of the following symbol Manually operated call point

44. Give the meaning of the following symbol Portable fire extinguisher

45. Give the meaning of the following symbol Portable foam applicator
46. Give the meaning of the following symbol Primary means of escape

47. Give the meaning of the following symbol Push button for fire alarm

48. Give the meaning of the following symbol Remote controlled fire pumps

49. Give the meaning of the following symbol Secondary means of escape

50. Give the meaning of the following symbol Smoke detector

51. Give the meaning of the following symbol Space protected by foam

52. Give the meaning of the following symbol Sprinkler horn

53. Give the meaning of the following symbol Sprinkler section valve

54. Give the meaning of the following symbol Wheeled fire extinguisher
55. Having a CO2 alarm during normal working hours, what immediate action should be taken? Get out of the engine
room as soon as possible.
56. How do the extinguishing agents act? by cooling, smothering, combustible suppression, inhibition
57. How does low expansion foam act as an extinguishing agent when dealing with oil fires? By smothering and also by
providing some cooling
58. How many separate means of escape are provided from each fire zone above the bulkhead deck? At least two
59. Hydrocarbon gas encountered in oil tankers cannot burn in an atmosphere containing less than approximately what
percentage of oxygen (by volume)? 11%

60. Identify this symbol: Emergency fire pump?

61. If a fire starts in the fuel tanks of a vessel, the fire will be ? A class B fire
62. If circumstances permit, how should low expansion foam be applied to oil burning near a bulkhead of the engine
room? The foam should be aimed at the bulkhead behind the fire and allowed to spread out slowly over the fire.
63. If you detect a fire on board the ship, dependent on the situation, which of the following actions is the first to be
taken? Raise the fire alarm.
64. If you have to carry out hot work close to a smoke detector in the engine room, what precautions should be taken?
Notify Master, Deck officer and Engineer in charge.The loop for this special sensor to be switched off and take
normal precautions for hot work.
65. In a liquid fire the surface of which is about 100m², Flames are usually higher than the diameter of the fire
66. In a smoke filled alleyway where will the cleanest air be found, and how should you proceed out? Near to the deck,
crawl out keeping your face as near to the deck as possible.
67. In case of a fire inside the Acetylene-line in the ac/ox gas welding equipment, what action is deemed necessary?
Close the valves on both the Acetylene and the Oxygen bottles.
68. In case of a fire on the line of an oxyacetylene gas-welding equipment, what action should be taken? Close the
valves on both bottles, first the acetylene and then the oxygen bottle
69. In case of fire in the switch board, what kind of extinguisant to be preferred? CO2
70. In general what is the proportion of concentrate to water to produce foam? Between 3% and 6%
71. In general, what is the best extinguishing agent to put out a class A fire? Water
72. In order to extinguish a fire with a portable extinguisher, we must proceed in the following way: Maintain a safe
distance, apply the extinguishing agent to the base of the flames with the wind behind us
73. In order to extinguish a flammable liquid of the same kind as alcohol, we can use: Anti-alcohol foam
74. In the fire fighting of fires of a type C with dry chemical powder extinguishers, the application is performed in a
continuous way so that the powder spray is in the same direction as the one of the flame
75. In which one of the following an oil, the flash point of which only needs to be over 43°C, may be used? In
emergency generators
76. In which ways is heat transmitted? Conduction, convection and radiation
77. Mention some important thoughts for what you have to do when you recognise that fire break out onboard.
Report to bridge or duty officer, actuate the fire alarm, call the persons around the fire and join the fire squad
78. Monoammonium phosphate used as a dry powder can be effective on which of the following type of fire? Solid,
liquids, and gases
79. Oily rags and metal turnings: Are a fire hazard because they are liable to spontaneous combustion
80. On a fire patrol at night you see smoke coming from a closed cabin door. What action should you take first?
Activate the nearest fire alarm button and advise bridge of the location of the fire.
81. One of the checks during the annual Class survey of the UMS functions is focusing on cleanliness of the engine
room. What is the reason for such a check ? To reduce the general risk of fire in an unmanned engine room.
82. Proteinic foams have the feature of being? Of low expansion, viscous and solid, easily contaminated by
hydrocarbons
83. The aim of fire detection is: All the answers are correct
84. The basic components of the self-contained breathing apparatus are… Mask, bottle, frame, medium pressure valve
and low pressure valve
85. The duty engineer of a UMS ship is approached by a member of the ship's staff, seeking permission to hang wet
working clothes in the engine room to dry. He should: Not allow the clothes to be hung anywhere in the
unmanned machinery spaces
86. The effectiveness of CO2 as an extinguishing agent is based on: Combustion suppression
87. The effectiveness of foam is based on: smothering and cooling
88. The engine room is equipped with regular fire hoses and nozzles. What is important to observe when using water
as an extinguisant in the engine room? All the mentioned alternatives.
89. The extinguishing agent which can be applied on any fires of class A, B, or C is: Multipurpose powder
90. The fire integrity of any bulkhead shall be maintained At the openings and penetrations
91. The fire point is The minimum temperature at which a combustible gives off vapours that may burn in contact with
oxygen in air, and at which combustion persists once the source of ignition has been removed
92. The lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air is
known as the:Flash point
93. The main risk for people when using CO2 as an extinguishing agent in a closed space is: Air suppression
94. The method of extinction by smothering is based on this basis; The fire is extinguished by avoiding the contact
between the fuel vapours and the oxygen
95. The necessary elements to create fire are combustible, oxygen, heat and chain reaction
96. The presence of smoke represents one of the greatest dangers in the fire fighting. Why? It reduces the visibility,
provokes panic, is irritating and may be toxic
97. The pressure in a flexible fire hose must be set up After it has been laid down
98. The superstructure and deck houses of passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers shall be divided into
main vertical zones by Class "A" division
99. The use of combustible material is restricted in the accommodation spaces in order to: Contain and suppress fire
and explosion in the compartment of origin
100. To maintain a fire, three conditions need to be met: Oxygen, combustible material and sufficient temperature for
combustion. What subject must be removed to extinguish the fire? Either of the mentioned alternatives.
101. Water is the extinguishing agent which is the most widely employed and its action as an extinguishing agent is due
to a combination of the following phenomena: Cooling, smothering and dispersion
102. We must clean the spots of oil on hot surfaces because: all the answers are correct
103. Welding and flame cutting are among the factors which give the highest risk of fire on board ships. Precaution has
to be taken to avoid this risk. Which of the following safety rules may be regarded as the most important? The
welder shall have been instructed in the use of the ship's welding plant
104. What are class "C" bulkheads? Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials but do not meet any
of the requirements relative to smoke and flame nor limitations relative to temperature rise.
105. What are the characteristics of CO2? All the mentioned alternatives.
106. What are the components of the personal equipment of the fireman's outfit All the items mentioned
107. What are the main basic components of a portable extinguisher? The container, the extinguishing agent, the
impulsion system
108. What are the main components of the atmospherical air? O2: 21% N2: 78% H2O: traces CO2: traces, Rare gases:
traces
109. What are the three diameters of fire hoses most commonly found on ships? 25, 45, or 70 mm
110. What class of fire involves gas? Class C fire
111. What class of fire involves liquids? Class B fire
112. What class of fire is a smouldering fire of wood, textiles, paper and other carbonaceous materials? Class A
113. What is a polar (liquid)? A liquid that mixes with water
114. What is class "A" division Bulkhead constructed of steel, suitably stiffened and insulated so as to be able to meet a
prescribed fire test of one hour duration
115. What is flashpoint of an oil or liquefied gas? The flash point for an oil or liquefied gas is the temperature at which it
is possible to ignite the vapour above the liquid
116. What is the "international shore connection" used for? To connect the ship fire main to the shore lines
117. What is the absolutely main purpose with fighting a fire on board? Rescuing of life
118. What is the factor that makes the difference between a deflagrating and a detonating explosion? The speed of the
shock wave created by the initial combustion
119. What is the inherent danger in welding/cutting in piping containing freon? Development of nitrous gases?
120. What is the main advantage of a positive pressure breathing apparatus? If the face mask has a leak toxic
fumes/smoke would still not enter the mask
121. What is the main criterion generally taken into account to classify portable extinguishers: The extinguishing agent
122. What is the maximum length of a fire zone on any deck? 40 meters
123. What is the minimum capacity of the portable tank of a portable foam applicator ? 1 litre
124. What is the minimum necessary condition for the start and permanence of an oil fuel fire? The temperature is
equal to or over the flash point
125. What is the minimum volume of air contained in the cylinders of a SOLAS compliant self-contained compressed-air
operated breathing apparatus (SCABA)? 1200 litres
126. What is the most common fixed fire fighting extinguishing system fitted in an engine room? A carbon dioxide (CO2)
system
127. What is the name given to a devastating explosion that may occur when a rigid container containing a liquefied gas
is exposed to a very high *temperature? BLEVE
128. What is the only reliable way of checking that the CO2 cartridge in a dry powder extinguisher is full? Remove the
cartridge and weigh it to check that it has the full weight stamped on it
129. What is the signal actuated by a fire detection system? A visual and audible alarm signal at the control panel
130. What is the term used to designate the work that may cause heat, sparks or flames and that cannot be performed if
specific compulsory precautions are not taken in places where nearby flammable products could be present?
Hot work
131. What kind of extinguishing-remedy would you choose to put out an electrical fire? Dry extinguishing remedy.
132. What kind of fuel will originate a class A fire? a solid (cardboard or wood…)
133. What kind of measure is the division of the vessel in upright areas by using thermic and structural separations? It is
both a prevention and protection measure
134. What kind of process is a fire? All the mentioned alternatives
135. What type of construction material should be avoided regarding fire protection purposes? (SOLAS II-2/2.2.3) All
combustible materials
136. What type of fire integrity must be provided for an engine control room ? A 60
137. What type of nozzles for fire hoses can be provided aboard ships? Dual purpose (jet/spray) type incorporating a
shutoff
138. What types of fire extinguishers shall be used in the engine room? Fire extinguishers equipped for powder or CO2
only.
139. When at sea, you discover that the bilges in the engine room have a large quantity of oil residues floating around.
What action should you take? Notify Chief Engineer, find cause of leakage, remedy the leakage and then
immediately start to clean the bilges
140. When fighting fire, why shall you never pour water into hot fat? The water will explode into steam causing hot fat
to be thrown far away thus possibly causing severe burns or fire.
141. Where is the International Shore Connection to be stored? Easy accessible by the gangway
142. Where would you find out which fire sections are enclosed by "A" or "B" class divisions on a ship? On the Ship's fire
control plans
143. Which activity will have the greatest fire-fighting effect in case of a fire? Extinguishing attempt is started
immediately
144. Which deck is the "bulkhead deck"? The uppermost deck to which transverse bulkheads are carried
145. Which element must be removed to extinguish a fire? All alternatives. It is enough that one of the mentioned
elements are removed.
146. Which of the following actions will most effectively prevent fire in a cabin? Ensuring that all persons avoid smoking
in bed.
147. Which of the following are frequent causes of fires in accommodation? 1 Smoking in bed. 2 Covering of electric
fires with blankets. 3 Overloading electric plugs.
148. Which of the following hose lengths corresponds best to the most common ones found onboard? 20 m
149. Which of the following is a characteristic that is required for a "class A" bulkhead or deck? It stops the spreading of
smoke and flames during one hour
150. Which of the following is a combustion reaction? All the answers are good
151. Which of the following is a precautionary measure to prevent fire in general: All the answers are good
152. Which of the following may cause a fire in the accommodation spaces? All the mentioned alternatives
153. Which of the following measures should be applied when hot work is to be undertaken in a harbour. To have a hot-
work permit
154. Which of the following measures should rather be considered as a prevention measure than as a protection
measure? Restriction in the usage of combustible materials
155. Which of the following statements applies to fire doors in main vertical zone bulkheads and stairway enclosures in
passenger ships? All the alternatives are correct
156. Which of these series of sizes corresponds to the international standard for nozzles 12 mm, 16 mm and 19 mm
157. Which one of the following appliances is allowed to burn an oil fuel, the flash point of which may be a little bit
lower than the one used for the main *engine? The emergency generators
158. Which one of the following is a limitation on the use of chemical powders? All the below mentioned alternatives
159. Which one of the listed fire-extinguishing medium is most effective against an open oil fire? Foam
160. Which one of the listed fire-extinguishing medium is to be preferred to fight a fire in an electric installation (for
example the main switchboard)? Powder.
161. Which spaces, in regard to fire protection, shall be separated from the rest of the ship by thermal and structural
boundaries? (SOLAS II-2/2.2.2) Accommodation
162. Whilst in the Engine room you hear the CO2 release alarm, what action if any should you take. Leave the engine
room as quickly as possible, closing all doors behind you.
163. Why are accommodation spaces separated from the remainder of the ship by thermal and structural boundaries?
To provide means of escape for the passenger and crew
164. You are carrying out a search in a smoke filled compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. At what stage should
you start to make your way out of the compartment? Regularly check your pressure gauge and note how much
air you used to reach your work area. Start to return when you have this amount left plus a reasonable reserve
165. You are carrying out a search in a smoke filled room, wearing a breathing apparatus. How would you conduct this
search? Carry out a right or left hand search and proceed carefully, feeling the area in front with the foot and
using the back of the free hand to check the area around.
166. You are leading a team fighting an interior fire. If you see the colour of the smoke changing from dark black to grey,
what is the most probable reason for that change? The team is applying water and the temperature is
decreasing

XV.OPERATE LIFE-SAVING APPLIANCES

1. A 6-men inflatable liferaft shall be carried as far forward as is reasonable and practicable. Where is the best stowing
position? Aft of the forecastle
2. A davit-launched liferaft on board a ship is so arranged to be boarded by its full complement of persons in less than: 3
min
3. A floating liferaft is capable of withstanding repeated jumps on to it from a height of at least: 4,50 m
4. A lifebuoy is constructed to withstand a drop into the water from a height of: 30 m
5. A lifebuoy light is capable of working at minimum for a period of, and has a luminous intensity of: 2 h, 2 candela
(about 1,7 mile range at normal meteorological sight)
6. A lifejacket has sufficient buoyancy and stability to lift the mouth of an unconscious person at a minimum of: 120 mm
above the water (in calm water)
7. A lifejacket is so constructed that a person can correctly don it within a period of: 1 Min
8. A lifejacket must not sustain burning or continue melting after being totally enveloped in a fire for a period of: 2 sec
9. A lifejacket should be provided with: A whistle and a light
10.A person wearing a thermal protective aid shall be able: to wear a lifejacket inside
11.A person wearing an adult lifejacket shall be able: to swim a short distance through the water and board a survival
craft
12.A person wearing an anti-exposure suit shall be able to: perform all duties associated with abandonment, assist
others and operate a rescue boat
13.A person wearing lifejacket or immersion suit, shall be able to turn from a face-down to a face-up position in not
more than:5 seconds
14.According to SOLAS, every persons assigned to crew the rescue boat or assigned to the marine evacuation system
party shall be provided with:An immersion suit or an anti-exposure suit
15.An evacuation-slide must be capable:of being deployed by one person
16.An immersion suit is constructed such that it can be unpacked and donned within: 2 min
17.An immersion suit is: Not allowing undue ingress of water after a jump from a heoght of not less than 4.5 m into the
water
18.An immersion suit which has its own buoyancy is fitted with: A light plus a whistle
19.An immersion suit will not sustain burning or continue melting after being totally enveloped in a fire for a period of: 2
sec
20.An inflatable lifejacket has: 2 separate compartments
21.An inflatable lifejacket will inflate: Either automatically on immersion or by a single manual motion or by mouth
22.An inflatable liferaft accommodating 6 persons is fitted with: 1 entrance fitted with semi-rigid boarding ramp

23.Give the meaning of the following symbol: child's lifejacket

24.Give the meaning of the following symbol: Davit launched liferaft

25.Give the meaning of the following symbol: Liferaft

26.Give the meaning of the following symbole: Lifebuoy with light

27.Give the meaning of this symbol: Lifebuoy

28.Give the meaning of this symbol: lifebuoy with light and smoke

29.Give the meaning of this symbol: Lifebuoy with line

30.Having boarded the liferaft, how do you release the painter? Cut it with the safety knife stowed on the exterior of
the canopy close to the painter attachment point
31.How many buoyant smoke signals are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS A pack? 2
32.How many buoyant smoke signals are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS B pack? 1
33.How many hand held distress flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS A pack? 6
34.How many hand held distress flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS B pack? 3
35.How many rocket parachute flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS A pack? 4
36.How many rocket parachute flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS B pack? 4
37.How many thermal protective aids are carried in each liferaft? 10% of the number of persons the liferaft is designed
to carry, or two, whichever is more
38.How much food per person is supplied on a liferaft marked SOLAS B PACK? Not less than 10000 Kj
39.How much food per person is supplied on a liferaft? Not less than 10000 kJ
40.How much water per person is provided in a liferaft equipped with a desalting apparatus? 1 litre
41.How much water per person is provided in a liferaft not equipped with a desalting apparatus? 1.5 litre
42.How should the hook be released from a davit lowered liferaft? Just prior to reaching the water, the lanyard should
be pulled. This sets the hook which will automatically release once the raft is waterborne
43.How should the painter of a liferaft which is fitted with a hydrostatic release be secured to the ship? Secured via a
weak link to a secure part of the ship
44.If conditions permit, which is the best way to board a liferaft that is floating close to the ship? Use a rope ladder close
to the raft to climb down and board
45.In the life raft, the manually controlled inside lamp must be capable of working at minimum for a period of: 12 h
46.In which way shall a survivor be hauled out of the sea? Horizontal
47.On a dark night with a clear atmosphere, the outside manually controlled lamp of a liferaft is visible at minimum at a
distance of: 2 mile
48.On board a ship, how many lifebuoys can you expect to be fitted with a self-igniting light ? Half of the total number
of lifebuoys provided on board
49.The breaking strength of the painter in a liferaft permitted to accommodate 6 persons is at least: 7.5 kN
50.The breaking strength of the painter in a liferaft permitted to accommodate 15 persons is at least: 10 kN
51.The container for an inflatable liferafts shall be made: watertight, as far as possible,except for drain holes in the
container bottom
52.The grabline of a lifebuoy has a length of: 4 times the outer diameter of the lifebuoy
53.The main buoyancy chamber of an inflatable liferaft must be divided into: 2 compartments
54.the minimum number of lifebuoys required on a cargo ship depends on: the length of the ship
55.The outside manually controlled lamp of a liferaft must be capable of working at minimum for a period of: 12 h
56.The rescue quoit of a liferaft is attached to a buoyant line whose length is at least: 30 m
57.The stability and strength of a liferaft when loaded with its full complement of persons and equipment is such that it
can be towed in calm water at speeds of up to: 3 knots
58.The weak link of a float-free arrangement for liferafts must break under a strain of: 2,2 kN ± 0,4 kN
59.The wearer of a lifejacket can jump into the water without injury and without damaging the jacket from a height of
at least: 4,50 m
60.Wearing an immersion suit when abandon ship is effective permits the person: to jump from a height of 4.5m into
the water without being injured or damaging the suit
61.What equipment is provided in a liferaft to help you keep warm in cold weather? The floor of the raft has a second
layer which can be inflated to help insulation, inaddition to the thermal protective aids (10% of complement,
minimum 2)
62.What is a hydrostatic release unit? A unit which automatically releases the liferaft/lifeboat at a depth of approx 4
metres.
63.What is the first thing you are doing when having a lifeboat drill? Put on the life jacket
64.What is the greatest interest of the "help" position ? It lessens the survivor's heat escape
65.What is the main characteristic of the weak link in a float-free arrangement for inflatable liferafts? be of sufficient
strength to permit to pull the painter from the container and the inflation of the liferaft

66.What is the meaning of this symbol ? Immersion suit

67.What is the minimum length of the buoyant lifeline that is fitted to a lifebuoy which is stowed at a distance of 10
metres above the waterline (light condition)? 30 metres
68.What method shall be used when hauling survivors out of the sea (state of survivors is critical)? Using nets
69.What shall a rescue person use if he has to jump into the water in order to assist a survivor? Survival suit and lifeline
70.What will you bring in a lifeboat if the ship is abondoned? Warm clothes, blankets and lifevests.
71.What will you do when all the fresh water in the survival craft is finished or about to finish? Start collecting rain
water
72.Which item among those below is included in the normal equipment of every liferaft ? Two sponges
73.Which of air and water is the fluid that transfers the greatest amount of heat during the same time, given that the
fluid is not flowing along the immersed body Water
74.Which of the following actions should be done before throwing this type of inflatable liferaft over the side? Check
that the painter is made fast to a secure point and that the sea below is clear
75.Which of the following features is required for an anti-exposure suit ? is fitted with a light and a whistle
76.Which one of the following requirements regarding lifebuoys corresponds to present SOLAS regulations ?not less
than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with self-ignition lights.
77.Which one of the listed requirements regarding inflatable liferafts corresponds to present regulations? Every liferaft
shall be so constructed that: be prevented from pressure exceeding twice the working pressure, either by relief
valves or by limited gas supply
78.Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-jackets corresponds to present SOLAS regulations ? A life-jacket
shall be so constructed that: it allows the wearer to jump from height of at least 4.5 m into the water without
injury and without damaging the life-jacket
79.Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of liferafts corresponds to present SOLAS regulations?
Liferafts shall be stowed with its painter permanently attached to the ship
80.Which part of the float-free arrangement for inflatable liferafts is made to provide a connection between the ship
and the liferaft? the painter
81.Which part of the float-free arrangement for inflatable liferafts is made to release the liferaft after being
automatically inflated during the ship is sinking? The weak link
82.Which part of the fresh water quantity provided for each person the liferaft is permitted to accommodate may be
replaced by a de-salting apparatus? 0,5 l if the de-salting apparatus is capable of producing this quantity in 2 day
83.You have abandoned ship in a liferaft. In most cases, which of the following actions should you generally take?
Organise a lookout system. Join up with other survival craft if possible. Stream the sea anchor
84.You have abandoned ship in a liferaft. Which of the following actions should you take? Organize a lookout system
and join up with other survival craft if possible. You should also stream the sea anchor

XVI.APPLY MEDICAL FIRST AID ON BOARD SHIP

1. A burn may occur when electricity of high current and voltage passes through the body. Most damage occurs at the
points of entry and exit of electricity. What is the treatment of electrical burns? Place sterile dressing over the
burn and secure with a bandage.
2. A casualty suddenly loses consciousness and falls to the ground letting out a strange cry. The pasient is red-blue in
the face and froth may appear around the mouth. You are witnessing a major epileptic attack. What should you
do? Loose tight clothing, ask all unnecessary bystanders to leave and carefully place something soft under the
head. If casualty is unconscious, place the person in Recovery position.
3. A faint is a brief loss of consciousness of no more than momentary duration caused by a temporary reduction in the
flow of blood to the brain.How to prevent anyone from fainting? Tell the person to sit down and lean forward
with the head between the knees taking deep breaths.
4. Abdominal Thrust is the name on a technique which involves applying a series of thrusts to the upper abdomen in an
attempt to force air out of a choking casualty's lungs. How to perform this technique? Stand behind the casualty.
Clench your fist with the tumb inwards in the center of upper abdomen. Grasp your fist with your other hand and
pull quickly inwards.
5. After checked for open airway, given the first two inflations and checked the pulse to make sure that the heart is
beating, what is the rate of inflations given until natural breathing is restored ? 12 - 16 times per minute
6. If a person has been overcome by fumes from toxic cargoes such as acetone cyanohydrin and has ceased breathing,
you would: Wait for a resuscitator to be brought from the ship's first aid locker and use it?
7. If a person is in a state of shock, what of the following is the correct thing of you to do? Treat and reassure the
casualty and stay with the person at all times.
8. If Mouth - to - Mouth (M-T-M) ventilation by itself is unsuccessful and the casualty's heart stops, or has stopped
beating, you must perform External Chest Compression (ECC) in conjunction with M-T-M. What is the rythm
when performing M-T-M in combination with ECC with one First Aider only ? 15 compressions followed by 2 full
ventilations.
9. If Mouth - to - Mouth (M-T-M) ventilation by itself is unsuccessful and the casualty's heart stops, or has stopped
beating, you must perform External Chest Compression (ECC) in conjunction with M-T-M. When performing ECC,
where do you place your hand on the casualty's body? Place the heel of one hand, two finger breadths above the
bottom of breastbone. Cover the hand with the heel of the other hand.
10.If Mouth - to - Mouth (M-T-M) ventilation by itself is unsuccessful and the casualty's heart stops, or has stopped
beating, you must perform External Chest Compression (ECC) in conjunction with M-T-M. What is the complete
rate when performing ECC? Complete 30 compressions at the rate of 100 compressions per minute
11.In which way may intake of poisonous material occur? All mentioned.
12.Inflatable splints are made in various sizes and are shaped to the upper and lower limbs. What is the advantages of
an inflatable splint? It is more easy to give correct pressure to the fractured/injured area, and the control of
swelling and bleeding is more easy to observe.
13.It is important that a compress is done correctly. One of the alternative signs , after completed compress bandage,
shows that the bandage may be to tight. Which one? Swelling below the bandage and heavy pain.
14.Shock is a manifestation of changes in which the circulation fails because either pressure or volume of circulating
blood has fallen to a dangerous level. What is the skin colour of a patient in shock? Pale or grey.
15.The passage of electrical current through the body may result in severe and sometimes fatal injuries. You are witness
to man getting electric current through his body and is stuck to the dangerous area. It is impossible to switch off
the current by any main switch. How to break the current safely? Stand on dry insulating material and pull the
person away with isolating material.
16.Treatment of burns and scalds depends on the severity of the injury. What is the correct thing to do for minor burns
and scalds? Place the injured part under slowly running cold water for at least 10 minutes, but preferably until
the pain is gone. If no water is available, use any cold, harmless liquid.
17.Unconscious casualties who are breathing and whose hearts are beating should be placed in the Recovery Position.
What is the Recovery Position? As shown in figure 1.
18.Unconscious casualties who are breathing and whose hearts are beating should be placed in the Recovery Position.
Why is this position so important? The position ensures that an open airway is maintained.
19.Unfortunately a fish hook has entered someone's finger. The barb of the hook is even inside the skin. How to remove
the fish hook? Push the hook through the skin until the barb protrudes, then cut the hook between the barb and
the skin and gently withdraw the hook.
20.Unfortunately an insect has become lodged in the ear. How to remove the insect? Gently flood the casualty's ear
with terpid water so that the insect will float out.
21.What do you call the method used for bone-soft part injuries? ICE-method.
22.What does the abbreviation ABC mean in first aid? Air, Breathing, Circulation.
23.What is one of the dangerous states a survivor may suffer from? Hypothermia
24.What will you serve seafarers who has been exposed to cold? Warm nutritious drinks.
25.What will you serve seafarers who have been exposed to heat? Cold drinks and salt.
26.Which muscle is the most persevering one in the body? The heart.
27.Which position is the best to stop bleeding from the nose? Sitting on a chair, leaning forward, with two fingers
pressing the nose together.
28.You are part of a team of two First Aiders in a resuscitation situation. What is the rythm of resuscitation with two
First Aiders? 5 compressions after every 1 inflation
29.You are witnessing someone about to faint. What are the symptoms ? The person may be very pale, and pulse is slow
at first and weak.

XVII.MONITOR COMPLIANCE WITH LEGISLATIVE REQUIREMENTS

1. A master of a Norwegian ship who without sufficient cause refuses to receive onboard persons whom Norwegian
authorities must provide transportation for shall be liable to: Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding
three months.
2. A master or any other person in authority on board treating a person in an improper manner or fails to prevent his
being so treated by other persons onboard shall be liable to: Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6
months.
3. A subordinate who unlawfully brings intoxicating beverages on board shall be liable to: Fines or in especially
aggravating circumstances to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months.
4. An Oil Record Book, Part 1,shall be provided to every ship of 400 tons gross tonnage and above to record
machinery space operations.Out of below mentioned operations, it is compulsory to record: Bunkering of bulk
lubricating oil.
5. Any master who makes or permits a false entry to be made in the log book, shall be liable to fines or imprisonment
for a term not exceeding 1 year according to: The Ship Safety and Security Act, Section 65..
6. Any person serving on board who without the permission of the shipmaster leaves the ship in distress or other
danger while the master still on board shall be liable to Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6
months.
7. Any ship of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and above shall be fitted with oily-water separating equipment for the
control of machinery space bilges.What kind of equipment is required in this connection? Either Oil fitting
equipment , or Oily-water separating equipment , or combination of both.
8. Any shipmaster who in distress or other danger abandons the ship without this being necessary shall be liable to:
Imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year.
9. Any shipmaster who refuses to provide any person carried on the ship with anything which he is entitled to receive
in such capacity, or who permits such refusal, shall be liable to: Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding
6 months, but not exceeding 1 year if there are especially aggravating circumstances.
10. Anyone who violates the provisions of Norwegian law or the provisions of regulations laid down by virtue of
Norwegian law, relating to contract of engagements and account book, to notification to, appearance before, or
to the taking of evidence, shall be liable to: Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months.
11. Anyone who without valid reason places, removes, changes or conceals nationality marks or registration marks of a
registered ship shall be liable to: Fines.
12. Are the seafarers entitled to free boat service to exercise their right to go ashore? Where possible the master shall
provide such service. Cost and other circumstances may be taken into consideration. Yes, but only if it is
combined with the agent's use of the same boat.
13. Are there any restrictions about how much sludge we can pump overboard on the sea voyage? Maximum is 30 litre
pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage.
14. As per the legislation in question, a copy of the provisions, as you know, shall generally speaking be accessible to
the crew. Does this apply as well as to a collective wage agreement? Yes, if an employment agreement refers to
the collective wage agreement
15. At what number of crew members is it mandatory to have an Working Environment Committee on board?
Minimum eight crew members.
16. Can a Norwegian Consulate execute authority on behalf of the Norwegian Maritime Directorate (NMD)? A
Norwegian Consulate has already duties on behalf of the NMD and the directorate can in addition instruct a
Consulate to act on the directorate's authority.
17. Can an agreement of employment for service on a NIS ship be verbal or has it to be confirmed in writing? The
company has to ensure that an agreement is always confirmed in writing
18. Can any ground be given for dismissing a seafarer? No, only those listed in the Seamen's Act as dereliction of duty.
19. Do regulations on the scope of the Seamen's Act apply: to both passengers and cargo ships? Yes.
20. Do you confirm that personal safety provisions of the Seamen's Act cannot, as per the NIS Act, be deviated from in
a collective wage agreement? Yes
21. Does the employer have to give a reason for a notice of termination?Yes, if the seafrers demands it
22. Does the nationality of the shipowning company have any importance in general to the application of Norwegian
law on NIS ships?No.
23. Does the seafarer have a right to leave service on board for special reasons? Yes, if the ship, for example, is not in a
seaworthy condition for the voyage and the master fails to take steps to remedy the defects
24. Editing (Preparation)of the book "Excerpts from The Norwegian Passenger and Cargo Ship Legislation, etc. " is done
by: The Norwegian Maritime Directorate.
25. Exemption to serve as master on board a NIS ship for Non Norwegian citizens needs to be given by: The Norwegian
Maritime Directorate
26. For a person whose hours are not divided into watches, the regular working hours on board a NIS-ship shall be
between: 0600 - 1700 hrs
27. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board? For at least two years
28. For how long shall time sheets concerning working hours on board ships be kept after their completion? For
minimum 3 years
29. For how long time must the printout from the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) be retained onboard?
Three years
30. For whom does the qualification requirements apply? For personnel assigned to shipboard duties.
31. How can the master ensure obedience? He shall ensure obedience by the use of force if he finds it necessary, but
not use harsher means than the circumstances make necessary.
32. How does the Norwegian Maritime Directorate keep the master/ shipowners updated on the new and amended
legislation relatives to the book "Excerpts from the Norwegian Passenger and Cargo Ship Legislation, etc"
Through stapled-in supplements in the quarterly NMD magazine "Navigare" and Ships Documents.
33. How is a Safety Management Certificate obtained? Ship owner has Document of Compliance issued, and vessel is
assessed and holds all statutory certificates
34. How is the basic safety manning determined? The Norwegian Maritime Directorate determines the basic safety
manning after an evaluation which includes, inter alia, job specifications and qualification requirements.
35. How is the Maritime Employer/Employee Register kept up to date? By reports prepared by the master/employer.
36. How many Working Environmental committee members should be elected on a ship with a crew of 13 members? 1
member
37. How shall accidents and health hazards be prevented? By all the other mentioned alternatives.
38. How shall the Norwegian Maritime Directorate be informed when a seafarer is seriously injured on board? By a
telecom report followed by a report on a personal injury report form
39. How should you, methodically speaking, get to know and to find relevant provisions in the book "Excerpts Excerpts
from the Norwegian Passenger and Cargo Ship Legislation, etc" ? By help of the Headword Register, the
Chronological Register, the table of contents, the tables of contents in the respective provisions, the Preface,
etc.
40. If the master goes ashore, he is obliged to inform: The deck officer of the highest rank present
41. If the subject is subject to manning control, which documentation must the master have at hand? Master's record
and Documentation file.
42. If you use chemicals for cleaning up an oil-spill on the water, what would the chemicals do? Disperse or dissolve
the oil into the water
43. In case of a pollution in US waters, who shall notify the cleaning up contractor (OPA-90) Qualified Individual
44. In which areas is plastic material accepted for overboard disposal? Not permissible any where.
45. Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the Norwegian Maritime
Directorate. Which of the following requirements regarding welding or hot work corresponds to these
instructions? If the hot work is to be carried out at the bottom of the tank, the entire bottom shall be
thoroughly cleaned and all sediments removed.
46. Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the Norwegian Maritime
Directorate. Which of the following requirements regarding welding or hot work corresponds to these
instructions? Before hot work or welding in tanks is started, a complete set of duly signed check lists and
certificates shall be provided.
47. Is a repairman not comprised by the specification of crew under obligation to public supervision of maritime
service? Yes, if engaged by the owner.
48. Is there any special area under MARPOL where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues? There are
special areas where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
49. MARPOL - Annex I. Your vessel sailed from Bahrain heading for Singapore. 2 days after departure, you would like to
empty your machinery space bilges. What will be the correct procedures in this connection? Call the bridge and
request for position and permission to discharge overboard through oily water separating and filtering
equipment.
50. MARPOL - Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an approved sewage treatment plant certified by the
Administration. During discharge, while vessel is awaiting pilot off Cape Henry, USA, the surrounding water is
iscoloured. What kind of action would be appropriate to take? Stop discharge.
51. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage outside "Special Areas". After unpacking spares, you are left with a limited
amount of packing materials. Is this prohibited, if not, what will be the nearest distance to land for disposal into
the sea of these materials? This is prohibited
52. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage. Your vessel is in the Red Sea (Special Area) and the Chief Cook is
requesting to have some food waste burned in the incinerator. Due to problems with incinerator, you decide to
have the waste ground in the Grinder (Lump size max. 25 mm) and disposed off into the sea. Is this prohibited, if
not, how far from nearest land is this legal? 12 miles
53. Most minor oilspills are caused by: Human error
54. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the previous instantaneous rate of discharge of
oil content (60 litters per nautical mile) was changed to: 30 litters per nautical mile
55. Notification logging procedures .(OPA-90) Every report or message must be logged including time and date
56. Prior to entering service on a vessel in foreign trade for the first time you are required to have a health certificate
not older than? Three months.
57. Service as master on board a NIS-ship for non-Norwegian citizens has to be approved by: The Norwegian Maritime
Directorate
58. Shall a special form for employment agreement be used for service on NIS ships? Yes, on a form prescribed or
approved by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate
59. Shipboard Emergency Drills must be carried out at least (OPA-90): Once a month
60. Ships of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and more, shall be fitted with oil filtering equipment, complying with Reg.14 (7)
of MARPOL for the control of machinery space bilges. What would be the maximum oil content of oily-water
mixture to pass through the filter? 15 ppm
61. Ships registered in the Norwegian International Ship Register are subject to public control in accordance with: The
Seaworthiness Act
62. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by doing what? Plugging the scuppers
63. The book "Excerpts from The Norwegian Passenger and Cargo Ship Legislation, etc." has notes about whether
international regulations have been implented by Norway. Where can you find these notes? In the main Section
numbered VII
64. The OPA-90 notification requirement is: Notify as soon as you have knowledge of any spill, or threat of a spill
65. To achieve safe maritime operation, the Norwegian Maritime Directorate works in compliance with: The
International Maritime Organization (IMO)
66. To which Act(s) do(es) the special provisions relating to the seafarers in the NIS Act chiefly relate? The Act relating
to hours of work and the Seamen's Act
67. To which document does the following clause relate? "The contract is subject to Norwegian laws and Norwegian
courts, but cases concerning the employee's service on the ship may be brought against the owner before a
Norwegian court or before a court in the employee's country of residence. The agreement as mentioned in the
first sentence is not a hindrance to a case being brought before a court in another country when it ensues from
the lugano Convention that such action shall be permitted" To individual employment agreements for service on
NIS ships
68. To whom do the certification requirements apply on a NIS cargo vessel? To persons in certificated positions as per
the manning certificate and certificated positions of additional manning, if any
69. To whom working on Norwegian ships does the Seamen's Act in principle apply? To everyone engaged in work on
board, except those who only work on board while the ship is in port
70. Under ISM, what is a "non-conformity"? An observed situation where objective evidence indicates the non-
fulfilment of a specified requirement
71. Watch keeping engineers shall have a minimum of knowledge of the vessel's engine room and operation of its
functions prior to being accepted as Engineer on Duty, and shall acknowledge his familiarization with the
equipment by signing a check list listing all units he shall be able to operate. Minimum knowledge is: He shall
have all the knowledge as listed in the other alternatives
72. What are the average maximum working hours which may not be exceeded, in a year on NIS-ships? 2912 hours
73. What are the duties of the master regarding a sick or injured seafarer? He shall arrange for proper, including
medical, care.
74. What are the duties of the master, specially stated in the NIS act chapter 3? To make a copy of the NIS act and the
CBA accessible to the crew if referred to in a contract
75. What are the master's duties if punishable acts are committed on board? If at sea, the master shall immediately
undertake an investigation, secure evidence and take statements, inform Norwegian Consulate/Maritime
Directorate
76. What are the ordinary working hours on NIS ships? Maximum 8 hours per day, or 40 hours per week
77. What are the prerequisites for a CBA (Collective Bargaining Agreement) to be applied to service on NIS ships? That
the CBA expressly states that it applies to NIS ships and is subject to Norwegian laws and courts of law unless
courts of another country is explicity mentioned.
78. What are the prerequisites for having a ship registered in NIS? That the shipowner is a Norwegian subject or fulfils
other requirements stated in Norwegian acts
79. What can be the result of public supervision of maritime service of seafarers? It could be any of the alternatives
listed.
80. What do you understand by the term “Risk Assessment”, and how would this be carried out on board? Identify the
hazards, quantify the risks, put control measures in place, monitor the work activity and review
81. What does ISM stand for? The International Management Code for the Safe Operation of Ships and for Pollution
Prevention
82. What does it mean in relation to the Seamen's Act that no collective wage agreement applies to the employment
relationship? That the Seamen's Act applies in full
83. What does normally form the basis for permission to a Non-Norwegian deck or marine engineer officer to serve in a
position for which a certificate of competency is required on NIS ships? A certificate issued by the authorities of
a state which has acceded to the STCW-Convention
84. What does the term DISCHARGE mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations? All the other alternatives
85. What is an endorsement/qualification document? A document, which together with the national certificate is
entitling the holder to serve in a position for which a certificate of competency is required
86. What is definition on clean ballast as per MARPOL Annex 1? Ballast with an oil content of less than 15 ppm
87. What is supervision of maritime service of seafarers? Control by the master/employer and public supervisory
authority that the requirements of law or agreement concerning the employee's service on board are satisfied.
88. What is the best way to avoid pollution from small oil-spills aboard a ship? Contain any oil-spill onboard the ship
89. What is the book named: "Excerpts from the Norwegian Passenger and Cargo Ship Legislation, etc"? An unofficial
translation of "Den norske skipskontrolls regeler" leaving out some provisions, such as speed limits, relating to
local Norwegian waters. (The authorised Norwegian original applies in cases of discrepancies etc.);
90. What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oil-spill on the water? The chemicals make it difficult to remove
the oil from the water
91. What is the main theme of modern safety practice? Making use of Risk Assessment as a means to improving safety
92. What is the minimum age for a seafarer on a NIS ship (foreign trade)? A person may serve on board as from the
17th. calendar year
93. What is the period of validity of the Safety Management Certificate 5 years
94. What is the purpose of the O.D.M.E. (Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment) printer ? To prove that oil has been
pumped overboard according to regulations
95. What must be done before a holder of a Non- Norwegian certificate can serve in a position for which a certificate of
competency is required on NIS ships? A duly completed application with certificate etc. must be made to the
public supervisory authorities as an endorsment/ qualification document
96. What shall the master do upon the termination of the employment relationship as to supervision of maritime
service? Verify that the sefarer has been given his rights according to law or agreement, make entries in the sea
service book or record of service, have a report on seamen sent to the Maritime Employer/Employee Register.
97. What should you do with the ashes from your vessels incinerator which had burned garbage containing plastics?
Discharge to a shore facility only
98. What would be the preferred colour to use when maintaining the paint on shell, plating, structure and
bottom/tanktopp in the engine room? White or light grey to ensure all minor spills and leakages are noticed and
dealt with.
99. When a pollution incident occurs there is a plan for actions to be undertaken. State which of following priority
sequences to be considered: Stop pumps - report - clean up?
100. Where is the master's responsibility for observing the provisions related to supervision of maritime service stated?
In the Act relating to the enrolment of employees onboard ships.
101. Which Act has a provision that reads as follows: " The shipmaster shall take care that a copy of this Act and of the
regulations issued in pursuance of the Act is to be found on board" ? The Seaworthiness Act.
102. Which document must a foreign master definitely have before his documents may be considered for public
supervision of maritime service? A letter "Exemption from the nationality requirement for foreign shipmasters"
103. Which documents shall the master submit to the consulate for supervision of maritime service of a Non- Norwegian
rating? Employment agreement, report on seamen and documentation that the seafarer has the necessary
qualifications, health certificate, record of service etc.
104. Which entries shall the master make in the sea service book or record of service in connection with supervision of
maritime service? Entries regarding the seafarer's service time, vacation days due etc.
105. Which institution gives regulations concerning certificates of competency for marine deck and engineer officers?
The Norwegian Maritime Directorate
106. Which law applies to NIS-ships? Norwegian law unless otherwise provided in or pursuant to a statue?
107. Which of the connections you are shown, are the dedicated shore connection (MARPOL-connection) for discharging
of sewage ? 4
108. Which of the following signal letters states that the ship is registered in NIS? LAPQ4
109. Which of the following would be considered pollution, when discharged overboard, under the US water pollution
laws? All of the mentioned
110. Which personnel must undergo familiarization training on board Everyone
111. Which PPM is allowed for discharging of "Bilge Water" overboard? 15 PPM
112. Which provisions concerning holidays must the master ensure that is carried onboard? The Act relating to holydays
and Regulations relating to holydays for employees on ships.
113. Which provisions generally speaking govern the rights and duties of the employee and employer on NIS ships?
Norwegian Seamen's Act, NIS Act
114. Which ships does the ISM code apply to All passenger ships, all cargo ships of 500GRT or above
115. Which statement(s) is true of a gasoline spill? It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill
116. Which, if any, are the restrictions for trading areas on NIS ship when cargo is concerned? They may not carry cargo
between Norwegian ports.
117. Who are required to have participated in emergency preparedness training on a NIS cargo ship? All members of the
crew
118. Who are to pay the expenses in connection with public supervision of maritime service? The employer.
119. Who is responsible for ensuring that ratings forming part of a watch and personnel assisting or performing cargo
operations on tankers are properly qualified? It is incumbent on the shipowners and the master to ensure that
the requirements are complied with and documented.
120. Who is responsible for implementation of working environment work on board? Both master and shipping
company.
121. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned? The master and the shipowner are responsible for the
adequate manning of the ship.
122. Who issues an international load line certificate for a NIS cargo vessel of 500 gross tons and above? The recognized
classification society, were the vessel is classified.
123. Who may through delegation/agreement be given authority to survey a NIS cargo vessel of 500 gross tons and
above (offshore units excepted)? A ship's classification society recognized by the Norwegian Maritime
Directorate.
124. Who shall submit a request for trade certificate for a NIS cargo vessel of less then 500 gross tons? Owner or master
125. Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any potential polluting operation?To avoid pollution.
126. Will an individual contract of engagement for service on NIS ships be legally accepted? Yes, provided it appears,
amongst others, the wages and overtimepay and that it is subject to Norwegian laws and courts, but may be
brought before a court in the employee's country of residence
127. With respect to the ISM, what training in additional to lifeboat and fire drills must be carried out? Familiarization,
and other drills identified as necessary by the ship
128. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Algeria, in the Mediterranean Sea. Are you allowed to dump
food waste overboard? No, food waste can not be dumped overboard
129. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you allowed to dump empty glass
bottles overboard ? Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass
through a screen with 25 mm openings
130. You are onboard a vessel off the West African coast. You want to dump a mixture of food waste, glass bottles and
floating packing materials. Is this allowed? and if so, how far off the coast would you have to be? This is
prohibited
131. You are taking fuel on your vessel in the US when you notice oil on the water around your vessel. You are to stop
taking fuel and: Notify the US Coast Guard

XVIII.APPLICATION OF LEADERSHIP AND TEAMWORKING SKILLS

1. All necessary information for the next port of call should be: Procured before departure from a port
2. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a foreign port and fails to return. The first report you
make should be to the __________Immigration Service
3. An emergency situation on board must be reported to the company by: The fastest means available
4. Berapa tahunkan berlakunya DOC ( Documen Of Compliance ) ? 3 th
5. Bukti objective yang ditemukan menunjukkan kondisi yang tidak memenuhi persyaratan keselamatan yang
ditetapkan sewaktu dilakukan external audit dan diberi catatan untuk diperbaiki namun sewaktu external audit
berikutnya tidak dilakukan perbaikan disebut dengan temuan : Finding
6. Identify 4 of the Five Steps in Team Formation and Development. Forming, Storming, Norming and Performing
7. If Master finds reason to doubt whether the agent is giving the vessel's interest full and proper attention he should:
Investigate the matter carefully and report the findings to the company
8. It is the Master's responsibility to ensure that: concerned personnel carry out the on-board traing progamme
effectively
9. Manajemen yang cenderung pada pengaturan massa yang banyak dimana kita harus mampu mengatasinya, disebut :
Crowd Management
10.Manajemen yang mengatur segala sesuatu keadaan yang susah diatur atau dalam situasi krisis, disebut : Crisis
Management
11.Master of every ship must provide: A link between the shipboard training officer and the company training officer
ashore
12.Onboard training should be organised in such a way that: It is an integral part of the overall training plan
13.Pihak – pihak mana sajakah yang tidak terlibat dalam pemberlakuan ISM Code ? Buruh
14.Prior to arrival at a US port from a foreign port, as per present regulation, the USCG requires: 96 hours notice of
arrival
15.Prior to ordering stores for any department; The store inventory should be checked so that you order only the items
required
16.Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintained inorder to: Control the ship's budget
17.Representative of the port authorities should always receive the best possible treatment: For ship's clearance to
take place quickly and without complications
18.Salah satu keuntungan adanya ISM Code bagi pelaut adalah : Menjadikan kapal sebagai tempat bekerja yang aman
bagi pelaut
19.Suatu manajemen kapal yang sudah berjalan dengan baik dapat dilihat dari indicator – Indikator, diantara indicator –
indicator tersebut adalah SMC :
20.Suatu proses atau sejumlah aktivitas yang berkesinambungan dan saling berhubungan yang melibatkan manusia,
tekhnologi, metode, modal untuk mencapai suatu tujuan organisasi didalam pengoperasian kapal disebut :
Shipping Management
21.The majority of convensions adopted under the auspices of IMO fall into which of the three main categories:
Maritime Safety, Prevention of Marine pollution, Liability and compensation
22.The office phone, fax, telex and after office hours telephone numbers can be found in: The Ship's emergency
contingency manual
23.The proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook is to ___draw one line through the entry, rewrite, and initial the
correction
24.The responsible person for maintaining budget on board normally is: Master
25.The Roles and Responsibilities of a team includes: c) Quality Management
26.To be an effective communicator in a team c) Never Listen by yourself
27.To help Create and Manage Diversity in a team you need to b) Actively discourage members to ask for help as it is a
sign of weakness
28.To help turn an individual into becoming a Team Player we would need to d) Reward and motivate them
29.To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel, one must be:Understanding, Co-operative, and
have respect from both sides
30.What Individual or Group Behaviours might lead to an effective Team? d) Able to listen to feedback
31.When observing how teams communicate what signs do we see when identifying effective team decision making? b)
Decision reached by voting or by consensus
32.Where will you normally find the ship's documents including Crew Passports and CDC on board a vessel? Ship's Office
33.Which of the Following is not a Type of Team?Individual
34.Which of the following will be reported to a company on the emergency phone? All accidents where crew are injured
or killed
35.Which of these is a Disadvantage of Teamwork?More time is taken to perform the tasks
36.Which of these is an Advantage of Teamwork? Can provide Support
37.Who is responsible for the safe keeping of the ship's documents?Master
38.Why is it important to have good relationship on-board a vessel? It leads to better work performance and positive
atmosphere among the crew
39.Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds in the accomodation areas? To ensure that cabins and common
spaces are maintained in a clean, safe and hygienic condition
40.Yang bertugas tanggung jawab semua peralatan keselamatan yang ada diatas kapal adalah : Mualim III
41.Yang tidak termasuk setifikat sesuai dengan ISM Code adalah : CLC

XIX.CONTRIBUTE TO THE SAFETY OF PERSONNEL AND SHIP

1.As per SOLAS regulations, the general emergency alarm system must be tested: Every week
2.During a bomb search, which of the following is an important principle to follow?" Do not touch any suspicious
packages
3.During test and/or maintenance work of the CO2 system affecting the release system, precautions to ensure that the
gas is not released into the engine room due to a mistake are to be ensured. What precautions should be taken?
The main supply line to be blanked off prior to the work.
4.Every inflatable liferaft , inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release units shall be serviced: Every 12 months.
5.How often must the Emergency Steering Gear be tested, and how is this information recorded in the OLB? Every three
months. Details of test with signatures of Master and witness
6.How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed? Turned at intervals of not more than 30 months and
renewed every 5 years
7.On all UMS operated vessels and also on most other vessels the engine room is equipped with fire detectors. What
requirements of testing and checking of the detectors are to be observed? All the mentioned alternatives.
8.Ship Security Plans all look the same. FALSE
9.The best way to identify an IED is to? Recognize its components.
10.The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be proportioned as it follows: length = 480 mm, breadth = 115 mm,
depth = 25 mm
11.The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be spaced apart by a distance of: Equally spaced and not less than
300 mm or more than 380 mm
12.This device can detect a package of drugs inside a large delivery of ship’s stores. What is it? Pallet scanner
13.What do crew, visitors and contractors all have in common?" They all have opportunity to smuggle drugs.
14.What is an IED? A homemade bomb
15.What is the purpose of the Ship Security Plan? Protect your ship from risks posed by security threats or incidents.
16.When handling drugs…Wear skin protection and a facemask.
17.When is a visitor onboard required to present an ID? "On SECURITY Level 1, 2 & 3"
18.Which of the following areas may be possible restricted areas? (Review all answers) All alternatives
19.Which of the following requirements regarding life-buoys correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/7.1) Not less
than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with self-ignighting lights
20.Which of these actions should crew take if a suspicious object that may be a bomb is located during a search?
Confirm with their search partner that the object found is suspicious.
21.Which of these are indications that a parcel is suspicious? "The parcel is addressed to no one in particular, arrives
unexpectedly and seems heavy for its size."
22.Which of these are indicators that an individual may be a drug smuggler? The individual wears bulky or out of season
clothing.
23.Which of these procedures should crew follow when conducting a bomb search? "Stand quietly in various spots
around the space, listening for unusual sounds like the tick tock of a clock mechanism."
24.Which of these types of information is considered sensitive? Voyage itinerary and departure and arrival times.
25.Which of these weapons are widely available and commonly used by criminals and terrorists to further their aims?
Gun
26.Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-saving appliances corresponds to present regulations? All
prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire retardant material
27.Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of life-saving appliances correspond to
present regulations? Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving appliances in accordance with the
regulations shall be provided
28.Which Security Levels requires the highest security alert? Security Level 3
29.Which statement about IED’s is true? All IED’s have four common components.
30.Which type of equipment can be used to detect explosives? Particulate detector