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My question is, how much did rudimentary "AI" (or what we like to refer to as AI) contribute to the outcome of the 2024 US election? I haven't seen much written about this, but if there are articles on this subject, please point me to them. Viriditas (talk) 09:21, 21 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
If I am backing up my C: drive (which I still think of as a hard disk, although it is a solid-state device) to an external medium (a 4TB removable device), I get various error messages that I have to Skip. One of them says that it is unable to copy Clipchamp.exe, which has size 0 bytes. I can Try Again or Skip or Cancel. Only Skip makes any sense. I have looked up what Clipchamp is, and I see that it is a Microsoft video editor tool, but that it has a web-based architecture, so that the code resides on a web site and is loaded temporarily into my computer to run the application. My first question is: If I am doing the backup in the usual fashion, by dragging a folder from C: to a folder window on F: (the removable storage device), is there any way that I can tell Windows 11 in advance to Skip errors rather than prompting me for action? Second, is there any alternate easy-to-do way to copy folders from C: to a folder on F: other than dragging and dropping that allows me to specify action on errors? Third, I see that Clipchamp, and some of the other stuff that gives me errors on backup up, are in the Users folder. Do the error messages that I am getting mean that copying the Users folder is problematic, and that I should be backing up some of its subfolders instead?
Robert McClenon (talk) 04:00, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I found Robocopy, if you want a copy utility with sophisticated options. (Does figuring out a new tool save effort? Debatable.) This is built-in to Windows 11, I tried it out myself just now. Card Zero (talk)04:54, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
On the Internet I find many guides that explain how to delete a Telegram account but in none of these is it written after how long it is actually closed. Does anyone know the answer? 2.194.247.141 (talk) 21:24, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
It depends. I think for a lot of more sophisticated services nowadays, deletion isn't actually instant and you generally have X number of days to change your mind. E.g. Facebook is 30 days, Microsoft is 30 or 60 days [1]. Google seems to have a window too [2] but I didn't find what it is also I think it's 20 days for their business service Workspaces [3]. Discord is possibly 14-30 days [4].
I think these arise out of fact that traditionally, deleting your account on such services may not do much. Often it just marks stuff as deleted and hides it from the front end but the data is all still there and especially in the backups such services have to try and ensure they don't lose data. So depending on whether the service was willing it was potentially possible to get your account back or at least partially back months or years later. Laws and regulations especially from the EU (GDPR) has meant this isn't so accepted any more and so such services do actually have to try and delete your data now after some time.
But with password leaks etc, compromised accounts are common and there are limited additional verification steps that might be taken depending on the details held. So if they start to remove your data instantly people are going to get annoyed when some troll or whatever compromises their account and deletes all their data. (I mean even Jim Browning had his Youtube channel deleted.) And I'm sure plenty of people just delete their accounts when there is something going on in their lives then later regret it, especially common I'm sure for anything with a social aspect like Facebook, Discord and yes Telegram. So they set a defined recovery window before they actually start to delete your data.
I didn't find anything for Telegram but Telegram is known for operating fairly outside the laws of the EU. What I did find is suggestions that the way Telegram works mean deleting your account doesn't mean the data disappears, in fact it will still be visible in the accounts of anyone you chatted with etc unless you delete it first where possible. I'm not sure what happens for stuff in your saved messages but I wouldn't be surprised if it's all still somewhere, although this doesn't mean Telegram will allow you to recover your account.
That said this suggests Discord is possibly the same. Potentially because they interpret the GDPR as meaning they've complied if they remove any connections between your account and your real life identity in their details. And if you posted in some chat "Hi I'm @deleteddiscorduser12345 . I'm John Michael Smith, born on 21 September 1970 at the Flint Public hospital, raised in Flint with my mum Jane and dad George. I attended the Flint Grade School, Flint Middle School and Flint High School then went to MIT studying Computer Science from 1988-1992. Now I'm of Detroit, Michigan and live in 1000 West Street with my 2 cats Snowy and Larry." it's tough cookies I guess. (Of course such services always have a problem when it's someone else who posted it, or if they replied in such a way they they copied part of your message.)
Is anyone here a Reddit moderator or do any of you know well why the automod is glitching out badly on me? It keeps autoremoving my innocent posts no matter what subreddits I post in.
Please check out my account; what is it about my account that causes the automod to malfunction and keep autoremoving my posts?: https://www.reddit.com/user/AWrride/
My post karma is in the thousands and comment karma is in the hundreds so they're not getting removed for low karma, so why are they getting removed then? How do I stop getting bothered by the automod like this?
Also, most pleas in the subreddits' ModMails go unanswered. It's as if the mods don't read my pleas.
It is possible to link several WhatsApp phone numbers to a Facebook business account. One of them has to be set as the primary number: It will be contacted when someone writes a WhatsApp message to the business account. But what is the use of the other linked WhatsApp numbers? Do they just serve as spares, or do they have an actual, immediate use? --KnightMove (talk) 13:40, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Most commonly, they are used for different departments, different countries/target markets, or for specific campaigns being run by the company. "One of them has to be set as the primary number". Not really. One can be listed as the primary PER Facebook page, but a business account can have hundreds of FB pages (and instagram accounts, and as you noticed WhatsApp numbers). —TheDJ (talk • contribs) 21:37, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Ok, thanks. But we agree that one needs to be set as the primary number per page, and others can still be linked to that same page. Do they play any active role? If yes, which one? --KnightMove (talk) 09:07, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Is there a way to search for repeating (identical) images on a USB flash drive in Windows 10? Checking by eye becomes tedious for me, as I'm back-uping many of them and don't want to transfer identical jpg images with different file names. Brandmeistertalk20:52, 30 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Sorting by size would make it easier. If two images look the same but have different file sizes, there's probably a difference in quality or a filter has been applied, and you probably want to take a closer look to determine which is worth backing up.-Gadfium (talk) 21:36, 30 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Using a compressed image format like jpeg, it's indeed very unlikely that two different images have the same file size, but if there are thousands of images of a few megabytes each, you'll probably have some collisions. See birthday problem. Also, two identical images may still have different file size if there's a difference in their metadata. For example, one may have a caption added. Still, sorting by file size would be a good start. Only if you're dealing with a huge number of pictures it's worth finding a more advanced method. PiusImpavidus (talk) 09:27, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I don't see any real reason to use something as crude as exact filesize instead of file contents i.e. hash or checksum which is almost as trivial for any duplicate detection tool and even on a USB flash drive shouldn't take that long. E.g. Dupeguru definitely can and it sounds like Czkawka can as well although at least for Windows there must be thousands and even going by only free hundreds and I expect at least tens FLOSS. I mean you might occasionally have images which are basically duplicate but have some minor changes in the metadata or whatever which you'd miss by using contents, but it's still the better choice IMO. Dupeguru and Czkawka also have similar image functionality although I've never used such functionality since I've only ever been interested in removing exact dupes. This isn't a problem for images but if we're talking large files and you're concerned about time and you're fairly sure you don't have corruption etc, I think some tools allow only hashing a part of the file to speed things up. (OTOH, if you're worried about malicious damage/changes, make sure you choose a tool with a secure hash although this isn't a common concern.) Nil Einne (talk) 14:53, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
What exactly is making it difficult? Is it because the duplicates could be in different folders? How exact a duplicate do the images have to be to be considered a duplicate? If everything is in one directory, sorting by filesize would work, as others have mentioned. If I was doing the task, I'd sort by size and switch the view to large thumbnails or whatever. If pictures are in multiple directories, things get more complicated. When I had a similar task to do, I actually made use of the command line's DIR function to get me a list of every file in every directory and import that into Excel where I could easily check for duplicate file names, file sizes, creation dates, and so on. Matt Deres (talk) 16:52, 2 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Reddit automods produce a reason why posts are removed. You haven't provided us with the reason the posts were removed. If you don't know, you need to look at the change update and instead of quickly deleting it or clicking 'read' on it, read it. I have never ever seen any hint of any automod that looks to see if the user is using a DuckDuckGo web browser. It is far more likely that you are posting something that is not allowed and the automod is removing it and you are not reading the reason why it was removed. It can be trivial. For example, I asked a question on one Reddit page and it was immediately removed. The reason for removal explained that a different Reddit page was the correct place to ask the question, so I asked it there instead and it wasn't removed. 12.116.29.106 (talk) 15:25, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Given their mutual association with Philadelphia and their strong physical resemblance, it seems very likely, but I haven't been able to find any source confirming it with a cursory web search, so this might take some deep digging (better suited to someone in the USA, not Europe). John Balbus, incidentally, seems to me to be a good candidate for a Wikipedia article. {The poster formerly known as 87.812.230.195} 94.1.211.243 (talk) 02:13, 21 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
They are brothers, with a third brother named Peter.[5]Here on p. 33 is a photo of Steven en John side by side. Their father was Theodore G. Balbus,[6] a radiologist, and their mother Rita S. Frucht.[7] A bio of the father is found here, where you can also find that Peter runs a consulting firm called Pragmaxis. --Lambiam10:09, 21 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
There's something called the Griffiths phase. If you search for griffiths phase activity so, you'll find things with similar names. A Griffiths singularity, Griffiths effects, there's probably more than one thing people call Griffiths' formula since there's a physicist called Phillip and two named David J. Griffiths. How many things are we dealing with under this name? Is there a book where they're all listed right next to each other? Gongula Spring (talk) 19:37, 21 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The concept of a Griffiths phase is named after theoretical physicist Robert B. Griffiths, who was the first to describe the appearance of such phases in an Ising model of ferromagnetism.[8] He is also the eponym of the Griffiths inequality. Most uses of Griffiths singularity and Griffiths effect appear to be related. "Griffiths' formula" is a very general name that may refer to various formulas found by mathematicians with the surname Griffiths, such as Griffiths' integral formula for the Milnor number of an isolated hypersurface singularity, found by pure mathematician Philip A. Griffiths, also the eponym of the Griffiths group. See also Griffiths' theorem, named after yet another Griffiths. --Lambiam23:43, 21 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The bracketing is not as in ((Griffith phase) field theory) but like (Griffith ((phase field) theory)), a theory of fracture, based on a phase-field model, developed by Griffith. --Lambiam08:47, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Perhaps, as in #16 from that request as I get it "Temporal disorder in discontinuous non-equilibrium phase transitions: general results". The "long distances" discussion above being from 2002 by contrast. --Askedonty (talk) 16:39, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Number 16 uses "temporal" and "critical" terms, are we getting toward ideasabout long-range temporal correlations in critical brain dynamics? Are they spooky?
I don't think so. Or not so directly anyway. Number 16 seem to be about logic and geometry: distance in that context is fact, and can also be manipulated. Relevant quote if there was one regarding our subject - but their process define a temporal Griffiths inactive phase some time - relevant would be (see their pdf):
Disorder due to spatial or temporal inhomogeneities is almost an unavoidable ingredient in many real systems, it is then desirable to understand their effects on these phase transitions. For continuous phase transitions, it was earlier recognized that spatial and temporal disorder changes the critical behavior whenever the generalized Harris criterion is violated [11, 12]: quenched spatial disorder is relevant whenever dν⊥ > 2 is violated while temporal disorder is relevant when νk = zν⊥ > 2 is violated; with ν⊥, νk and z being critical exponents of the clean phase transition and d being the number of spatial dimensions. Since the critical exponents of the directed percolation universality class violate the Harris criterion, it was then argued that this was the reason why it was never seen in experiments [13] (see however Ref. 14).
(They describe their purpose as: Non-equilibrium phase transitions have constituted a rich and lively topic of research for many years. They occur in a wide variety of models in ecology [1], epidemic spreading [2], sociophysics [3], catalytic reactions [4], depinning interface growth [5, 6], turbulent flow [7], among other fields [8–10].) [8–10] refer to Nonequilibrium Phase Transitions in Lattice Models. Sociophysics is a product of Positivism#Logical positivism ( perhaps note there a spooky "component not derived from observation" ) --Askedonty (talk) 21:03, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
How hot, in terms of Scovilles, does a chilli need to be before a parrot can feel the burn? I just saw a video on Facebook of a macaw eating a ghost pepper without the slightest care. From what I read, parrots are extremely resistant to the capsicum from chillies. Or is it because we have thousands of taste buds and parrots have tens, which is also true. 146.90.140.99 (talk) 01:27, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
“The seeds of Capsicum plants are dispersed predominantly by birds. In birds, the TRPV1 channel does not respond to capsaicin or related chemicals but mammalian TRPV1 is very sensitive to it. This is advantageous to the plant, as chili pepper seeds consumed by birds pass through the digestive tract and can germinate later, whereas mammals have molar teeth which destroy such seeds and prevent them from germinating.” Card Zero (talk)03:22, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Yes, as Card Zero says, birds have different TRPV receptors (for vanilloids like capsaicin) than mammals. I guess chillis want their seeds distributed far and wide by birds. On the other hand, I've never seen anything eat the chillis that accidentally grow in my garden. Interestingly, my dog appears to have different TRPV receptors than me as they don't seem to notice very spicy chilli seeds on food and they won't be damaging the seeds. Sean.hoyland (talk) 03:32, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
My entire home crop of capsicums (bell peppers to Americans), and some chillis disappeared in one night last summer right after a colony of fruit bats arrived in my local park. Fruit bats, of course, are mammals. HiLo48 (talk) 10:08, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
That's interesting because there are many bats here. They often sleep individually or in small groups inside young banana leaves that haven't unfurled yet. They sometimes crash into me at night if I'm moving. I guess in bat-world tree-like things don't move. They seem to have a chilli-free diet but might eat some of the other fruit. Plenty of insects to eat. Bat teeth seem to be quite diverse molar-wise. Chilli is the only thing that survives the wildlife. It's a multi-belligerent fruit-based forever war over resources with the birds, squirrels, rats, countless insects, fungi, bacteria and viruses. Sean.hoyland (talk) 15:50, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Insect eating bats are very different from the fruit bats. There's a theory that peppers have the same sort of relation to fruit bats as chillis do to birds so I can easily imagine a fruit bat being partial to a couple of chillis even if it does find them rather hot. NadVolum (talk) 21:23, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
To my understanding (which may be deficient), testicles prior to puberty are secreting some levels of androgens (including testosterone) andestrogens, which contribute to the male body's normal development, even though these levels are well below what they become during and after puberty. I imagine (perhaps wrongly) that similar considerations apply to the ovaries.
Our immediately relevant articles seem not very informative about pre-pubertal operations of the sex organs. Perhaps someone more knowlegable could take a look at them. 94.1.211.243 (talk) 09:46, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Nevertheless, if I've understood the peripheral hints I've encountered, those pre-pubertal levels of androgen and estrogen (and steroid, etc.) secretions are necessary at the time (the pre-pubertal period) for ongoing normal development, which is kinda what the OP asked about. Of course, all this is well above my pay grade. {The poster formerly known as 87.81 230.195} 94.1.211.243 (talk) 13:36, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
This discussion seems to have focused on the testicles and ovaries but the penis is also a sex organ and is capable of an erection before puberty. This is mentioned in our erection article in a sort of weird way given the flow on sentence. Ejaculation however only happens after puberty. I assume there is similarly some level of function in female sex organs. As mentioned in our masturbation article it's normal in children even in infancy and may even happen in the womb and is only a concern when there are indications it may relate to sexual abuse. Nil Einne (talk) 20:46, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The penis as such is able to "ejaculate" well before puberty (somewhat dependent on definition) but because the prostata doesn't produce anything, there is nothing to ejaculate. So it's going through the motions way before the other organs are functional. 176.0.132.86 (talk) 05:20, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Is there a cryonic company that will freeze me while I'm still alive and healthy, and reanimate me 15 years later? If I arrest the aging process for 15 years this way, could I then pass for a Gen Z?
Could I have myself cryofrozen (without dying of another reason first) in 2025 with instructions to reanimate me in 2040 so that I could more convincingly pass for and live like someone born in the Gen Z generation?
What companies cryofreeze people who ask for it while still alive and healthy?
Or does such a cryonic plan and company exist anywhere in the world?
I wanted to be born in 2000, not the year I was actually born in. So if I get cryofrozen for enough years, I'll look as young as a Gen Z when I'm reanimated.
Lastly, Reddit's r/Cryonics subreddit's automoderator keeps glitching out because it keeps autoremoving any content of mine from there. I tried posting this question and above summary to other subreddits but their automod keeps autoremoving it too. Their persistent glitches kept bugging me enough to dust off the Wikipedian reference desk and post here again for the first time in many years. I used to be a regular on the refdesk, then moved to Reddit, and now I'm back. --2600:100A:B005:AFD5:B08A:71E6:8521:5D8E (talk) 01:48, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Short answer: No. As currently freezing a human adult, results in their death, as no resuscitation is possible. It would be some kind of murder to perform this, so only a crime syndicate would be willing. And then could you trust them for 15 years? Graeme Bartlett (talk) 01:59, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
At this point I feel bound to recommend that you watch Sleeper.Shantavira
Terraforming a planet around some distant star and setting up a population there sounds far easier and actually doable to me. Perhaps in the far future it'll be possible to create a new body and copy the brain fom one of those frozen blocks for it, or maybe set up an android with an artificial copied brain - but why would any people who could do that bother with anyone from this time, would it be ethical for us to try and make a Neanderthal clone? NadVolum (talk) 21:15, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
you must understand that reanimation from cryogenic stasis is not actually possible at present
read all you can about longevity esp. power laws, best practice, established dietary / exercise ('longevity athletics / olympics') / supplementation practices,
although, best practice will vary depending on whether you are interested in youthful appearance and/or extension of what is called healthspan
it is all very possible, although you are fighting an uphill battle in america (and much is contingent on financial resources)
Can any insurance company make a cryonics bankruptcy insurance policy for companies that preserve bodies in cryogenic preservation vats so that even when the company goes bankrupt, their insurance policies will keep these vats running and bodies preserved?
...So that we can continue the hope and possibility of reanimating these bodies back to life when medical science advances and finds cures to reverse whatever they died from?
An insurance policy defines the amount of money to be paid to the holder of the policy when a specified contingency occurs. If the contingency is bankruptcy and the idea is to keep the company running, the amount should be larger than the prospectively unknowable debt to preferential creditors. It should be obvious that no insurance company can offer a policy with an unlimited payout. Apart from this, even an insurance for a sufficiently large amount cannot guarantee that the company or trustee will use the money paid out for the intended purpose. --Lambiam02:53, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Creditors of Instant Immortality (the bankrupt cryonics company, for short II) could be: (1) the tax office; (2) II's bank; (3) the company from which II hired its cryogenic equipment; (4) II's provider of liquid nitrogen; (5) II's lawyers; (6) scores of estates of frozen clients, legally presumed dead, who won a class action lawsuit against II. --Lambiam11:43, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
A marginally better idea might be to create a testamentary trust fund, if you could find a willing trustee. I'm not sure how far into the future you might want this to extend (do frozen corpses have a "best before" date?) but a legal expert might advise on how to extend the trust beyond the lifetime of the trustee, and what incentives might be required for another person to accept that role. Alansplodge (talk) 11:45, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
There are two among them, which differ with one zero only: AR-M1000390 and AR-M100390. The difference seems too small to be just a coincidence, it looks like one must be a typo modification of the other.
Is there any way for a non-chemistry/medicine-professional to trace the origin of those specific symbols and learn whether they are actually the same, or genuinely different? --CiaPan (talk) 08:09, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
PS. The motivation for publishing this question here is it's not only me in doubt – another user called for discussion at Redirect discussion: AR-M100390. The sources refer to both names, so from the Wikpedia point of view both are valid, but... Out of curiosity, I just would like to know: are they independent, truly different? CiaPan (talk)
Usually, I would trust ChemSpider to validate such synonyms and that's where I'd send a non-expert. In this particular case, Chemspider seems to prefer AR-M1000390 but one possible source of misinformation/typo is this paper, which consistently uses AR-M100390 in the text but AR-M1000390 in the citation #23, which is correct at doi:10.1016/S0024-3205(03)00489-2. Mike Turnbull (talk) 12:14, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The earliest use of the name AR-M1000390 seems to be in a PhD thesis from 2003.[9] The same name was used in a 2003 journal article in Life Sciences describing the results of this PhD thesis.[10] The substance was synthesized by researchers from AstraZeneca R&D; their paper describing the design, synthesis, and pharmacological evaluation of the drug, published in 2000, does not use this name, but only the systemic name N,N-diethyl-4-(phenylpiperidin-4-ylidenemethyl)benzamide.[11] Plausibly, the "AR" bit is short for "AstraZeneca R&D" and the whole was originally a code for internal use in the AstraZeneca lab. Subsequently:
Ion density then equals electron density and the energy density of both electrons and ions together is given by
where is the temperature in electronvolt (eV) and is the particle density.
However, there is no clear explanation given as to why the energy density equals 3nT, rather than 2nT or just nT. If the electrons and ions are in equal parts within the plasma, shouldn't it equal 2nT?
Depends on what n is precisely. If n is the ion density (equal to the electron density), then is correct. If taken literally as "particle density" (i.e. ions and electrons combined), then it should still be . I assume that the former is meant, but the formulation seems ambiguous. --Wrongfilter (talk) 21:39, 27 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
"While there is no cure for metastatic breast cancer, it is possible to control it with treatment for a number of years. The cancer can also go into remission."[17] So "imminently" is not generally correct. --Lambiam15:17, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Gold(III) fluoride apparently undergoes "sublimation above 300 °C". Tracing the dewiki article's data suggests this comes from CRC 10th ed. doi:10.1016/0022-328X(87)80355-8 is a lead article about volatile gold compounds, but these (and others I found) are generally about transferring as a vapor for CVD, nanoparticle formation, or other short-timeframe processes, so probably low pressure and maybe not highly stable in the vapor phase. DMacks (talk) 03:58, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In mathematics, closures are pretty common, e.g. a sum of positive/negative numbers is a positive/negative sum - respectively, and a space of two/three dimensional bodies is a two/three dimensional space - respectively, and so forth.
I wonder if closures also exist in physics, i.e. when the closed properties are physical rather than mathematical, i.e. I'm not interested in applying mathematical properties - like a sum or a space - in physics: e.g. when we say that "a sum of two electric forces is an electric force": It's a bad example for closures in physics, because a "sum" is a methematical property, whereas I'm only interested in purely physical examples.
The above-mentioned example for closures in physics is bad also for another reason: Whereas there is a concrete difference between an electric field and a magnetic field (e.g. by how they influence a stationary body), there is no concrete difference between an electric force and a magnetic force: They influence a given body by the same way, e.g. if their value is 1 kg N they will accelerate a given body by the same acceleration, so the only difference (if at all) between an electric force and a magnetic force and a gravitaional force is "historical", i.e. it only tells us whether the source of that force, was an electric field or a magnetic field or a gravitational field.
Yes, I really meant Newton (sometimes people tend to replace weight by mass, but this mistake is so widespread - mainly in daily life, that it should be forgiven when readers understand what the speaker meant). Additionally I didn't want to mention the other forces becuase they are not useful in daily life.
As for your main response, I didn't fully understand the bottom lime: Do you eventually claim that there don't exist purley physical closures (although there are purely mathematical closures)? HOTmag (talk) 14:08, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In mathematics, a closure is always the closure if a set. The set of positive numbers is closed under addition. The concept of closure requires the notion of an operation such as addition that can be performed on elements of the set. What is closed is not a property but a set. --Lambiam15:08, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
A property is usually interpreted as a set. E.g. the property "Asian" is the set of all Asian objects, and when we say that a given object is Asian we only mean that it belongs to that set.
Here is a surprising example of closure: "a space of two/three dimensional objects is a two/three dimensional space - respectively". It really points at a closure because: on one hand, the operation is "to collect objects in a space": the result of this operation is the space in which those object are collected. On the other hand, the property is "two/three dimensional" (choose one option): this property is represented by the set of all two/three dimensional objects (respectively).
My original question was, if there was any physical property (i.e. a set of physical objects sharing an indentical physical property), closed under a physical operation. HOTmag (talk) 17:59, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Do you mean, in lay terms, 'is there any physical property of a physical object that can never be changed?' (I assume by a physical process – I don't think changing the host's accident by transubstantiation counts.)
Asymptotic freedom - We'd normally expect forces to increase as objects get closer, but surprisingly, the strong nuclear force
between quarks decreases as they get closer together.
Mpemba effect - The phenomenon where hot water can sometimes cool and freeze faster than cold water
The ultraviolet catastrophe is not actually a phenomenon (that's the point). 19th-century classical physics theories predicted it should happen and, because it doesn't, were superceded by improved, quantum theories. {The poster formerly known as 87.81.230.195} 94.1.211.243 (talk) 18:45, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
A list of counterintuitive phenomena can never be universally applicable because "intuitive believability" i.e. credibility is subjective and depends on a person's experience and education, that can both change. It is counterintuitive (for some) that the Earth can be spherical and yet have oceans that do not immediately drain off down the sides. It is incredible that my car registration number has the same digits as the winning lottery ticket of someone who knew a friend of a cousin of mine who lives in a different country because what are the infinitesimal chances of that happening? If apes can evolve into humans as we are told, why are there still apes around? Philvoids (talk) 16:54, 30 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In medical school, a lot of facts you have to learn by rote, since there is no overarching theory from which you can rationally deduce those facts. tgeorgescu (talk) 18:21, 30 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I'm working on the Displacement receiver page, which formerly had no citations, and the going is difficult because few things actually talk about displacement "receivers" rather than sensors/transducers/etc.. Does anyone know if these three terms refer to the same thing? The initial article talked about a carbon microphone as a displacement receiver because it responds to displacement internally, although what it measures is sound waves, whereas this book says displacement transducers measure the distance between a sensor and a target, and this one says they measure movement and the "occurence of a reference position", whatever that means. It doesn't seem like carbon microphones fit those definitions. But I've also seen e.g. this conference paper use "displacement receiver" to refer to a contact sensor measuring its change in distance from a concrete block to measure stress waves, which is an application actually measuring distance. The article defines it as "a device that responds to or is sensitive to directed distance", which also matches the concrete definition.
Does anyone know if a carbon microphone is really a displacement receiver? And is a displacement transducer the same as a displacement sensor? Mrfoogles (talk) 19:56, 30 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The intended useful function of a Microphone is to sense incoming sound and deliver a proportional electric signal. As Sound is a varying pressure wave, some varying displacement occurs inside the microphone. However, a microphone is not normally intended or calibrated to measure its internal displacements. They are microscopic movements in the case of carbon granules under pressure in a carbon microphone. I think it is as unreal (overparticularity) to call a Microphone, whether carbon or any other type, a displacement receiver as it is to call my Eardrum a Barometer. In general a Transducer converts energy from one form to another and receiving input is the first part and not the whole of its action. A Sensor must provide actual useful information about a specific physical phenomenon. Philvoids (talk) 12:41, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
This BBC News article about a smelly landfill site quotes a chemist as saying "One of the materials that is particularly bad for producing odours and awful emissions is plasterboard". I thought that plasterboard was a fairly inert substance. Why would it cause bad odours in landfill? (I assume that this is not faulty plasterboard suffering from the in-use 'emission of sulfurous gases' mentioned in the WP article.) -- Verbarson talkedits21:07, 30 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
When mixed with biodegradable wastes like manure and sewage, gypsum can produce hydrogen sulphide gas, which is odorous and toxic, and a threat to public health.
Well, gypsum is CaSO4·2H2O, which has a significant amount of sulfur and hydrogen in it, and hydrogen sulphide is just HS -- I imagine it's not too hard for a chemical reaction to release hydrogen sulphide gas and therefore as they occur they do. Probably there's a paper somewhere that goes over the various reactions that happen. Mrfoogles (talk) 01:07, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Hydrogen sulfide (however you like to spell it:) is H2S. According to our article about that chemical, it arises from gypsum by the action of sulfate-reducing microorganisms that are active "moist, warm, anaerobic conditions of buried waste that contains a high source of carbon". 11:48, 1 December 2024 (UTC) DMacks (talk)
In the late '90s / early 2000s I remember as a kid looking closeup to the TV screen. For The Simpsons, their yellow skin was red green red green lights next to each other to make yellow. You can't do this with the modern TVs now anymore, but what did cathode-ray TVs use for pink? Would it be dim red by itself, or all 3 colors? How do they make brown? And if Cathode rays can do red green red green, can they do for example, red red green, red red green? Thanks. 2603:8001:5103:AF08:2477:8D7F:1D4B:D0 (talk) 22:41, 30 November 2024 (UTC).[reply]
Brown is basically a darker shade of orange. Whether this is perceived as brown depends strongly on the context. There is no such thing as a brown light; only surfaces of objects can appear brown. --Lambiam03:18, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In straightforward terms, most human eyes have three color receptors — red, green and blue. The eye can be tricked into seeing any color of light by the right proportions of those three pure colors. The devil is in the details. Doug butler (talk) 06:41, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
It works out mathematically, but one of those details with a devil is that for some colour mixes you may need a negative amount of one of the primary colours – which is physically impossible. That's why some screens use a fourth colour in the mix. PiusImpavidus (talk) 10:35, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The colours are still red, green and blue, mixed in varying proportions. The exact hue may vary a bit and some screens add a fourth colour. The dots are pretty small though (maybe smaller than before; resolution has increased, but so have screen sizes) and you may no longer be able to watch them from as close as when you were a kid. Try a magnifying glass. PiusImpavidus (talk) 10:23, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
You're maybe thinking of printing, where the fourth color is black. Way off topic. The really cool thing about color tubes is how the manufacturer deposits the bunches of three phosphors on the inside of the glass screen. The (iron) shadow mask, with its millions of holes, is spaced a few mm back. Spray guns for each color, located where the electron guns will be located in the final manufacturing stage, blast their phosphors so a trio of dots get through each hole in the mask. Electrons from each gun that get through the mask will hit its respective phosphor. Costly, wasteful and inefficient but it worked. Doug butler (talk) 17:07, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I remember a TV manufacturer telling they added yellow to the standard blue-green-red to be able to make more intense yellows. It makes sense, as the alternative would be driving the blue component to negative.
I've stumbled upon a few freak Russian critics in the internet who still allege that fusion power is principally impossible. Perhaps the most notorious seems to be Soviet-era physicist Igor Ostretsov, who published an article in a Russian scientific journal, "On the Lawson Criterion in Thermonuclear Research". Since Ostretsov's criticism is too technical for me, I started to wonder how much weight does it carry, if any. Ostretsov writes in particular:
"It is perfectly clear to every competent physicist that thermonuclear plasma, i.e. plasma at temperatures at which a thermonuclear reaction occurs, cannot be transparent. At thermonuclear temperatures, most of the energy is concentrated in radiation. In the article, I cited Zeldovich on this subject: “In complete thermal equilibrium, a significant portion of the energy is converted into radiation; this circumstance limits the equilibrium average energy of charged particles to a threshold of 5–15 keV, which is completely insufficient for a fast nuclear reaction. A slow nuclear reaction of light elements at an average energy of about 10 keV is practically impossible because the removal of energy by radiation during a slow reaction will lead to a rapid drop in temperature and a complete cessation of the reaction.” If the engineers of thermonuclear fusion in magnetic traps "secretly" assume not a thermonuclear reaction, but the synthesis of hydrogen isotopes in high-energy beams, then this is how the problem should be formulated and consider its "efficiency" as extremely ineffective. The Lawson criterion has nothing to do with that problem, since it was obtained for the Maxwellian distribution of particles by velocity, which is shown in my article".
In a letter to physicist Valery Rubakov Ostretsov further asserts that
1. The Lawson criterion was obtained for the Maxwellian distribution of particles by velocity, which is established as a result of dissipative processes (collisions). 2. As shown in my article, the particle velocity distribution function in magnetic "thermonuclear" traps is determined only by external constant and variable fields, and therefore is not Maxwellian. Due to points 1 and 2, the Lawson criterion has no relation to modern "thermonuclear" research.
Ostretsov also claims that the "during thermonuclear fusion reactions, high-energy neutrons constantly fly into the inner walls of tokamak" and "it's difficult to withstand such bombardment, while a thermonuclear reactor must operate for many years". Is anything of it true? Brandmeistertalk16:57, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Plasma confinement is a primary issue in the design of fusion reactors. If the plasma is insufficiently confined, which could happen in a badly designed reactor, but also due to a malfunction, the inner walls will briefly be bombarded by high-energy neutrons. But insufficient confinement also means that the fusion process stops. Of course there will always be some stray neutrons, however excellent the confinement may be. Whether the damage they inflict significantly limits the lifetime of a reactor cannot be predicted without a detailed study of the specific design of a given reactor, but this is not an issue that the designers are somehow unaware of. --Lambiam15:27, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Neutrons, being electrically neutral particles, are not confined by magnetic field. They will just freely leave the reactor's volume. So, 17.6 MeV neutrons will constantly bombard the walls of the reactor. This is a serious problem but it is thought to be solvable. Ruslik_Zero20:28, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Imagine 3 framesA, B, C such that frame A is our ancestors stationary frame, B is an intermediate frame with velocity v1 relative to A, and C is our stationary frame after our ancestors traveled to it with a precise clock. Frame C has a relative velocity v2>v1 (all are in the x direction, in empty space without gravitational effects for simplicity).
We were born in Frame C without knowing anything about our ancestors journey and we decided to visit Frame A.
(Accelerating first to frame B then decelerating to frame A). In this case how come we will have another time dilation (additional slow ticking in clock) while we were just travelling back to the original (supposedly stationary frame)?
We are supposed to assume that we were stationary in frame C without knowing the truth, and so we will assume that we will have time dilation during our journey from C to A not the reverse (and if I am right then even our ancestors should not had been confident that they had time dilation unless they witnessed it).
I hope you can explain where I got wrong.Almuhammedi (talk) 20:05, 2 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The essence of the theory of relativity is that notions such as velocity are only meaningful relative to the frame of reference of an observer. Observers using different frames will measure different values. This is not a matter of being right or wrong. It is meaningless to say that an observer is stationary in their frame of reference "without knowing the truth". They are stationary by definition. Time dilation of a moving clock can only be observed from a frame of reference relative to which the clock is moving. For an observer holding the clock, the clock is not moving, so they will not themselves observe time dilation during their journey. Only outside observers can observe this. --Lambiam01:40, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I introduced the 3 frames to simulate what happens to an atomic clock on a traveling plane.
Of course there is a reference relatively (stationary clock) that is supposed to show the difference.
In this case assume that our ancestors traveled with 2 atomic clocks x, y to frame C but we used only one of their clocks, x to travel to frame A and then returned back with it to frame C.
From our perspective, we considered the travelling clock (x) as the accelerated clock (as well as us) which should suffer time dilation after returning to our frame C.
However, to an external observer relatively stationary to frame A, who witnessed our ancestors travel he will understand that Clock x only reduced its speed when traveled to its original frame A and then returned to frame C which means it suffered temporary less time dilation than clock y.Almuhammedi (talk) 06:50, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
So there are two clocks at C that show the same time. One clock, y, remains at rest at C. The other clock, x, is moved from C to A and back to C. Then, on return, x will be running behind y. What happened before x's journey from C to A and back is not relevant. --Lambiam15:14, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
What makes you so sure?
Just return both clocks to their original frame A and compare the results with a third stationary clock in frame A. I think you will see the opposite of what you you've said. Almuhammedi (talk) 16:50, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I suggest that you read our article on the twin paradox. BTW, I think that the (sourced) statement that "[t]here is still debate as to the resolution of the twin paradox" is misleading. The twin paradox is only paradoxical in the sense that it is a counterintuitive effect predicted by the laws of both special and general relativity. The issue is that the explanations commonly provided – other than "this is what the laws tell us; do the maths yourselves" – are ad hoc explanations for special cases and do not cover all conceivable scenarios exhibiting the counterintuitive effect. --Lambiam08:54, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Two questions related to snow that I have wondered in recent times, not homework.
Why do most European countries lack snowfall data in their weather observations? Without data, snowfall cannot be specified since snowfall is not same as change of snow depth from one day to next.
@40bus 1. Presumably because in a temperate climate it's almost impossible to measure. What falls as snow on higher ground (which may or may not settle as snow) may fall as sleet or rain on lower ground, or it will turn to water or ice in the rain-gauge. Shantavira|feed me10:01, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
But US, Canada and Japan have continental climate (at least in some areas), so why then they measure? And is snowfall deducible from precipitation value so that 5 mm of precipitation equals 5 cm of snowfall? --40bus (talk) 10:54, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
No, not accurately. Snow comes in many different consistencies and levels of moisture, from tiny dry flakes to huge wet masses that fall as almost pre-made snowballs. Our (Canada) weather forecasts include estimates for amounts of snow to land, but they're hilariously inaccurate for the simple reason that snow, unlike liquid water, can pile up and drift. We had a dumping of snow this past weekend and the thickness of snow on one varied quite a bit just across the width of my driveway. So, should the record show the 15 cm in my front yard, the 10 cm in my driveway or the 8 cm in my neighbour's driveway? Depending on the type of snow falling, that ratio would change as well. Matt Deres (talk) 18:15, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
"Hilariously inaccurate" seems a gross exaggeration to me. The measurement should indicate the average depth of new snow over an area large enough that the variations between your front yard, your driveway, and the next driveway are irrelevant. --142.112.149.206 (talk) 09:17, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Spoken like someone unfamiliar with snow. It's not really a knock on the forecasters; it's just the nature of the material. To measure rainfall, it's not so complicated: rain may get blown about, but it typically only lands once. Not so with snow. It lands, gets picked up, lands, gets picked, and so on. If you picked a spot in your yard to measure, you'd find the level going up and down as the day transpired. So, from 6pm to midnight you'd get 10 cm of accumulation, then from midnight to 6am you'd get -3 cm of accumulation. Rain also doesn't "pile up" in areas. It lands unevenly, of course, but that hardly matters because it drains and gets absorbed. Snow piles up in chaotic ways, depending on the wind, the nature of the snow, and the terrain. Some of the worst whiteout conditions occur when there's no precipitation at all. Matt Deres (talk) 20:21, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The Dutch weather office collects hourly snowfall data at some (not all) staffed weather stations, most of them at airfields, but apparently not at the more common unstaffed weather stations or the even more common precipitation stations. Maybe it's hard to measure automatically.
Snow can fall in temperatures slightly above freezing, rain can fall slightly below freezing, so the combination of precipitation and frost doesn't tell you about snow. Usually the snow melts within hours. On most days with frost, it only freezes part of the day; we used get about 50 freeze-thaw cycles per year in the east of the country, fewer along the sea, but I think that has halved in recent years. PiusImpavidus (talk) 14:54, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Re your question 2 - According to our article that you linked above "a fetch of at least 100 km (60 mi) is required to produce lake-effect precipitation". Lake Geneva, the largest lake in Europe, is only 95 km (59 mi) along its longest side (it's crescent-shaped, so the longest straight line would be somewhat shorter), so it seems unlikely (FYI: "fetch" is the distance that an air mass travels over a body of water). Alansplodge (talk) 21:15, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Even before the process of protein biosynthesis was discovered, it was known that small changes in the amino acid sequence could lead to major changes in protein structure. How the amino acid sequence determined the protein structure was an open question, but at the time one with no practical relevance, initially drawing little theoretical interest. That changed in 1969 when Cyrus Levinthal published the paper that gave rise to the term Levinthal's paradox. With the possibility to edit genes and synthesize proteins in the lab, it has now also become a problem of high practical relevance, but 1969 is a good starting date for the standing of the problem. --Lambiam15:05, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
An anomalous elliptic curve is a curve for which .
But in my case, the curve has order j×q and the underlying field has order i×q. In the situation I’m thinking about, I do have 2 points such as both G∈q and P∈q subgroup and where P=s×G.
So since the scalar lies in a common part of the additive group from both the curve along it’s underlying base field, is it possible to transfer the discrete logarithm to the underlying finite field ?
Or does anomalous curves requires the whole embedding field’s order to match the one of the curve even if the discrete logarithm solution lies into a common smaller group ?
If yes, how to adapt the Nigel’s smart algorithm used for solving the discrete logarithm inside anomalous curves ? The aim is to etablish an isomorphism between the common subgroup generated by E and 82.66.26.199 (talk) 19:47, 21 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
It depends on how you encode each symbol on a fourteen-segment display (in particular, the number 0 and the letter O will need to be distinguished). If we go by File:Arabic number on a 14 segement display.gif and File:Latin alphabet on a 14 segement display.gif, then there are ten valid inversions, which are as follows: 0 <-> 0, 2 <-> 5, 8 <-> 8, H (17) <-> H, I (18) <-> I, M (22) <-> W (32), N (23) <-> N, O (24) <-> O, X (33) <-> X, and Z (35) <-> Z. Of these, only 5, H, N, and Z are coprime to 36, so any dihedral prime must necessarily end with one of these. Duckmather (talk) 04:02, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
We can use an encoding that the inversions not only include the ones which you listed, but also include 1 <-> 1, 3 <-> E (14), 6 <-> 9, 7 <-> L (21), and S (28) <-> S, if so, then which numbers will be the dihedral primes in base 36 with <= 6 digits? (Also, why 2 <-> 5? They are not rotated 180 degrees) 210.243.207.143 (talk) 20:31, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
We can also consider “horizontal surface” “vertical surface”, and “rotate 180 degrees”, separately, and consider normal glyphs and fourteen-segment display glyphs separately (see Strobogrammatic number, we can also find the strobogrammatic numbers (as well as the strobogrammatic primes) in base 36):
On an x-y plane, draw a circle, radius r1 centered on the origin, 0,0. Draw a second circle centered on some offset value -x, y = 0, radius r2 which greater than r1+x so that the second circle completely encloses the first and does not touch it. Draw a line at angle a beginning at the origin and crossing both circles. How do I calculate the distance along this line between the two circles? ```` Dionne Court (talk) 06:07, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Given:
inner circle: centre at radius equation
outer circle: centre at radius equation
line through origin at angle parametric equation
The line crosses the inner circle at both obviously at distance from the origin.
To find its crossings with the outer circle, we substitute the rhs of the line's equation for into the equation of the outer circle, giving We need to solve this for the unknown . This is a quadratic equation; call its roots and The corresponding points are at distances and from the origin.
The crossing distances are then and
If you use and this will work for any second circle, also of it intersects the origin-centred circle or is wholly inside, provided the quadratic equation has real-valued roots. --Lambiam08:46, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
How much did UPS pay in workers comp claims for heat-related incidents last year? On the flip side, how much would it cost to air-condition their package vans and warehouses?
Did they also pay hazard bonuses for working in the heat?
Is it cheaper for UPS to just air condition their warehouses and package vans?
After paying the initial installation fees for the new HVAC systems, how much will it cost for UPS to run air conditioning and maintain their HVAC systems for one year (at least only when the weather is hot?)
And how much did they pay out in heat-related workers comp claims for one year?
The largest prime factor found by Lenstra elliptic-curve factorization is 16559819925107279963180573885975861071762981898238616724384425798932514688349020287 of 7337+1 (see [19]), and the largest prime factor found by Pollard's p − 1 algorithm is 672038771836751227845696565342450315062141551559473564642434674541 of 960119-1 (see [20]), and the largest prime factor found by Williams's p + 1 algorithm is 725516237739635905037132916171116034279215026146021770250523 of the Lucas number L2366 (see [21]), but what is the largest prime factor found by trial division? (For general numbers, not for special numbers, e.g. 7*220267500+1 divides the number 12220267499+1 found by trial division, but 12220267499+1 is a special number since all of its prime factors are == 1 mod 220267500, thus the trial division only need to test the primes == 1 mod 220267500, but for general numbers such as 3*2100+1, all primes may be factors) 61.229.100.16 (talk) 20:51, 27 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I don't have an answer, and Mersenne primes have properties that reduce the number of primes that need to be searched, meaning that it doesn't technically need full trial division, but I would nevertheless like to raise two famous examples which I'm fairly sure were done through manual checking:
In 1903, Frank Nelson Cole showed that is composite by going up to a blackboard and demonstrating by hand that it equals . It took him "three years of Sundays" to do so, and I'm fairly sure he would have done it manually.
In 1951, Aimé Ferrier showed that is prime through use of a desk calculator, and I imagine a lot of handiwork.
In finite fields of large characteristics, what does prevent shrinking the modulus field size down to their larger order in order to solve discrete logarithms ?
In the recent years, several algorithms were proposed to leverage elliptic curves for lowering the degree of a finite field and thus allow to solve discrete logairthm modulo their largest suborder/subgroup instead of the original far larger finite field. https://arxiv.org/pdf/2206.10327 in part conduct a survey about those methods. Espescially since I don’t see why a large chararcteristics would be prone to fall in the trap being listed by the paper.
I do get the whole small characteristics alogrithms complexity makes those papers unsuitable for computing discrete logarithms in finite fields of large charateristics, but what does prevent applying the descent/degree shrinking part to large characteristics ? 2A01:E0A:401:A7C0:68A8:D520:8456:B895 (talk) 11:00, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The problem with descent methods like the one described in large characteristic is that the complexity is . This is explained more clearly in [22]. If the characteristic is small, then the problem is O(k) bits, and the complexity id pseudo-polynomial in the number of bits. If the characteristic is large, then the compexity is which is exponential in the number of bits of q. Tito Omburo (talk) 16:36, 2 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Are you sure ? I’m not talking about the complexity of the index calculus part like chosing the factor base or computing individual discrete logarithms or the linear algebra phase. Only about the part consisting of shrinking the modulus through lowering it’s degree… 82.66.26.199 (talk) 10:26, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The paper I cited above finds the intermediate polynomials by a brute force search in small degree, which is thus polynomial in q. The general heuristic is that the search for intermediate polynomials takes about as long as the index calculus phase. But it looks like no one has a really good way to do it. Tito Omburo (talk) 10:45, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I'm not really convinced that the approach actually works. How are the elliptic curves constructed? The construction given is very implicit. I'm betting that if one actually writes out the details, it involves lifting something from the prime field. Tito Omburo (talk) 16:02, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I have been reading CNN post here: https://edition.cnn.com/politics/live-news/trump-transition-news-11-19-24/index.html
Where it says "The women said they were paid by the former congressman for sex on that trip, during which they also joined Gaetz at a Fox News studio while he filmed a TV appearance, their attorney Joel Leppard told CNN's Erin Burnett on "OutFront." Gaetz allegedly covered the women's travel costs as well, Leppard said."
Anyway, before Trump, it wasn't necessary for an American politician to commit an actual crime for their career to be derailed by a sex scandal (see Wilbur Mills etc). That standard still applies to Democratic politicians (see Al Franken and Katie Hill), but Republicans now seem to be rewriting the rules as they go along. (Trump himself is a judicially-adjudicated -- though not criminally convicted -- sexual assaulter.) AnonMoos (talk) 06:18, 20 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
1. A Member, Delegate, Resident Commissioner, officer, or employee of the House shall behave at all times in a manner that shall reflect creditably on the House.1. A Member, Delegate, Resident Commissioner, officer, or employee of the House shall behave at all times in a manner that shall reflect creditably on the House.
This brings up something important about the legality. Prositution laws are state laws. In one state, it may be illegal to be paid for sex as well as to pay for sex. In another state, it is legal to pay for sex, but not be paid for it. In another state, it may be legal to be paid for sex, but not pay for it. As a state law, a state can allow counties within a state to make their own laws. Therefore, the question is not about the legality of Gaetz paying for sex in the United States, it is about the legality in the specific location it was (reportedly) paid for. But, as mentioned, being legal does not mean being ethical. Many legal actions are not ethical and can be used to censure a congress person. 64.53.18.252 (talk) 22:29, 20 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Women are so much more than just objects for men to screw. But men only have a few brain cells and can’t control themselves around women, and being sexualized is all women know so they let themselves get exploited and think it’s perfectly okay. 2603:8001:C2F0:7D0:807F:7FE4:7205:E54E (talk) 00:04, 21 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The OP's question is not about ethics or morality or hypocricy or whether or not a woman who sells sex occasionslly should be classified as a prostitute, or whether or not Matt Gaetz committed a crime because he has neither been officially charged with nor convicted of a crime. The question is whether or not it is illegal for an American man to pay for sex. The answer is that it is illegal in many jurisdictions and legal in other jurisdictons. As long as he complies with the local laws, it is legal where it is legal. American men can and do travel to other countries where prostitution is legal but the laws are varied. As pointed out previously, prostitution is illegal in almost all areas of the United States, but there are a few rural counties in Nevada where it is legal, licensed, regulated and advertised. It is only legal in licensed brothels and there are only about 20 of them. So, even in those rural counties of Nevada where prostitution in brothels is legal, it is illegal for a man to connect with a prostitute in a bar or on a streetcorner or even on the internet, except through a brothel's website. But if a man goes to a licensed brothel and follows their rules and regulations, it is legal. I live in California not far from Nevada and love the remote mountains and deserts of Nevada, and have visited Nevada countless times. I have driven past legal brothels quite a few times with my wife and sometimes with my sons. If you take the short drive, for example, from the state capital of Carson City, Nevada to the historic silver mining town of Virginia City, Nevada, you will pass at least two legal brothels, with billboards and parking lots, doing business constantly and legally. Cullen328 (talk) 09:39, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Are there any buildings, or parts of buildings, within the present Tower of David that date from the crusader period? And if there are, do we have any photos of them on Wikipedia or Wikimedia Commons? Surtsicna (talk) 22:00, 20 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I remember sometime in the 1980s (I think the latter half) a proposal for a relief road to the west of St Austell in Cornwall, from somewhere like Stenalees or Penwithick to Sticker or thereabouts. I would be grateful for any information about the proposal, and any reasons for its abandonment. The records of local newspapers on the British Newspaper Archive do not appear to reach a recent enough date. Thank you. DuncanHill (talk) 00:34, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I don't know the answer, but Facebook groups are very good for this kind of question. Look for groups called things like Cornwall/St Austell History or Memories. --Viennese Waltz13:30, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Yes. In this case it was to take traffic off the old Bodmin Road, which is not wide enough in places for heavy traffic, and has the awkward corner outside the General Wolfe. DuncanHill (talk) 13:10, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
As a grockle/emmet more familiar with the north coast around Wadebridge/Trebetherick, I imagine that the A390 via St. Blazey and Lanivery would have been more attractive to the planners than making a whole new bypass just to put more traffic on the old Bodmin road via Bugle and Lanivet. Plus didn't they improve the A39 round Truro to make it easier to get on the A30 at the Carland junction rather than traipse through St. Austell anyway, despite the obvious attractions of Tresilian and Grampound to yer average holiday motorist?[23] The old General Wolfe seems not to be doing too well.[24] You could always ask the planning department at Cornwall County Council in Bodmin... PS Rock Bakery splits and Kelly's ice cream for ever, btw. MinorProphet (talk) 02:38, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Comparing with other South-Western cities and towns, congestion is not too bad in St Austell, so it may not be a high priority for Cornwall government. Stanleykswong (talk) 18:02, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Georgia guy, one of the films appears to be a straight filming of the jukebox musical play as performed onstage in a theater. That filming already happened. The other appears to be a dramatization of the play with its own script and would presumably be filmed in a studio instead of a theater. It is confusing. One wonders why Bob Dylan would approve both films, and if the movie watching audience would welcome two film adaptations of the same jukebox musical. On the other hand, Dylan has been successful for over 60 years, and was just on a national tour with Willie Nelson, Robert Plant, Alison Kraus and John Mellencamp this past summer. One must assume that he and his team know what they are doing. Cullen328 (talk) 03:16, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Out of each of the days of December, which ones would the ancient Romans have designated as dies fasti, which ones as dies comitali, which ones as dies nefasti, which ones as feriae, which ones as quando rex comitiavit fas, and which ones as endotercissus? That month's article remains the only one whose table lacks such information. (in fact, it didn't even have a table at all until just recently) - MrPersonHumanGuy (talk) 02:39, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
According to "The Calendar of the Roman Republic" by Agnes Kirsopp Michels, the 1st 2nd and 3rd are "N", the 4th "C", the 5th and 6th "F", 7th through 10th "C", the 11th "NP", the 12th "EN", the 13th "NP", the 14th "F", then there's an alternation of "NP" days (the 15th, 17th, 19th, 21st, 23rd) and "C" days (the 16th, 18th, 20th, and 22nd), while the rest are "C". Of course, that applies to the late Republic period... AnonMoos (talk) 15:28, 23 November 2024
The question, "Mr. President, they can't make you believe now that there are not some in Dallas who love and appreciate you, can they?" is rather hard to parse, including as it does two negatives and two conditionals. This makes the response—"No, they sure can't"—potentially ambiguous, although unintentionally so. SerialNumber5412915:47, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I may be missing something, since I don't see the ambiguity. There are only two potential antecedents for the pronoun they in the response. The first is the occurrence of this pronoun in the question. This is a perfect fit: they can't make you do X — no, [you're right,] they can't [make me do X]. The other potential antecedent is formed by the noun phrase some in Dallas who love and appreciate you. There is no potentiality in the claim some in Dallas love and appreciate you, whether explicit or implicit. If the claimed Dallas-based fans were the intended antecedent, a no response elicited by the claim would take a form as in some love and appreciate you — no, they don't[love and appreciate me]. --Lambiam20:36, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
OK, over-focusing on the response perhaps. Cut the tag question and let's stick to "they can't make you believe now that there are not some in Dallas who love and appreciate you", then... SerialNumber5412920:50, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I'm gonna go with Lambiam for once. It's not ambiguous. It might be easy to make a mistake in interpreting, but that's not the same as ambiguous. --Trovatore (talk) 20:56, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I'd be surprised if we can. When people don't want it known that they've bought an £8,000,000 painting they usually keep the secret pretty determinedly. But if you want to try and work it out by elimination I'll give you a start: he wasn't a Belgian. --Antiquary (talk) 12:01, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Not sure if this the right venue to ask this question. In the UK, where rivers form the boundaries between counties (and countries), are any of these rivers wholly in one county or are they all shared? Does the boundary always lie on one side or the other, or does it always follow the centre line of the river? Thank you. 79.77.181.116 (talk) 16:20, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Thats a good question. I'm not sure if I can help much, but...
The River Liddle runs almost the length of the England/Scotland border. It starts in Scotland and empties into the Esk just inside the English side. I think that as it originates in Scotland, it belongs to one of the water authorities in Scotland.So in that example it looks like even though its follow the border, it 'belongs' to Scotland. I'm going to look at the Welsh border to see how that works. I'm laying money on there not being a standard answer, 'cos, Britain. (I'm British, I'm allowed to say that). Knitsey (talk) 16:36, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Afon Dyfrdwy (River Dee) originates in Eryri (Snowdonia). It flows towards the Welsh/English border. It follows part of the boundary plus a tributary into the Irish Sea. It looks to mostly belong to Wales, with the portions that flow into England being cared for by Cheshire. There is also Afon Gwy (River Wye) further down which originates in Wales and forms part of the border. It looks like this is manages by Wales. I know this doesn't really answer your question but maybe someone with more knowledge about the subject. Knitsey (talk) 17:06, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
A quick look at a few Ordnance Survey maps shows that the boundaries tend to follow the centre of rivers, or at least the centre of the main course of the river. Alansplodge (talk) 22:44, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The OS map shows that the border follow the centre of the rivers Tweed, Liddle, Wye and Dee apart from a few places where the river has been diverted. Management is the responsibility of the regional water authority so the county it 'belongs' to is somewhat irrelevant. Shantavira|feed me09:55, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I see. So are all rivers in the UK within a single regional water authority? Or, in the cases where the river is a boundary between two authorities, which one looks after the river? Thanks. 79.77.181.116 (talk) 10:28, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Some rivers form semi-natural boundaries between counties such as the River Welland (in this case, Northamptonshire and Leicestershire, where the county border meanders from side to side across relatively straight sections of the river, suggesting that the channel has been engineered.
In England at least, there are 10 river basin districts, and 10 Water Authorities who are theoretically responsible for them, shown on this page. Some are based around the great river catchment areas such as the Thames, Severn, Dee, Humber, etc., other authorities include a number of unconnected streams and rivers flowing eg into the south coast (English Channel) or the east coast (North Sea). These are subdivided into individual Water Management Catchments, shown here. (The River Welland is No. 92 on this map, part of Anglian Water.) These authorities used to be publicly owned, but were sold off and privatised so their foreign owners can pump our untreated shit into the rivers and seas at vast profit to their shareholders. Thames Water, serving about 25% of the country's population, is just about to go bust with debts of £18 billion.[25]MinorProphet (talk) 03:40, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The following discussion has been closed. Please do not modify it.
How easy will it be for sons of Korean mothers to immigrate to Korea? I'm on the fence between Korea and Rwanda, but I need to find *somewhere* to permanently escape to, to escape Trump's hurtful policies.
I feel similar about America in 2024 as Germans likely felt in 1932. I see a crapstorm coming to all Americans not in the top 1%.
How much easier is it to escape permanently to Korea due to having a Korean mother and a whole family on my mother's side still living there?
I don't choose to post my age, but I'm Gen Y / a Millennial.
I have years of experience as a delivery driver and also hold a CDL. I can also take pictures of products to be sold, type up descriptions, and list them online. I can also be a social media representative.
I can read Korean letters and words and sound them out, but can't comprehend sentences yet. I have Duolingo and can download other Korean language-learning apps.
I have a Bachelor's in Social Sciences and a minor in Leadership.
Trump will not pull US troops out of Korea, will he? (I fear that if he does, Korea may be the wealthier version of Afghanistan and the North Korean military will be your Taliban.)
If my gig on Doordash ends, which it would upon emigrating, my SSDI would rise from $593 to around $1000, since there won't be another income to pull the SSDI down. How well would one survive on $1000/month in Korea?
What 3rd-party delivery driving gig apps are like Doordash, but for Korea? Will it have an English language mode? Do immigrants get to deliver for those apps? What are the typical earnings per day like?
How much do Korean language classes cost for foreign adults to take online or in-person?
What other tips must I know about emigrating to Korea as the son of a Korean mother? What does it take to earn a permanent residency permit? A full Korean citizenship?
Rwanda seems like an odd possibility. Can Trump really screw up the US in four years so badly that it is worse than that African nation? That would take real effort, and Trump's pretty lazy. Clarityfiend (talk) 10:03, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
NPS nomination forms have a section for "representation in existing surveys," as seen here on the bottom of the first page. What does this mean? Does it have something to do with a broader area-wide geographic survey, or a more specific historical site survey? Thanks so much!
It is useful to note whether the property is included in the State Historic Preservation Officer's statewide survey of historic properties; in inventories compiled by Federal agencies of properties under their jurisdiction or control, or in the environmental impact area of their projects; in the Historic American Buildings Survey; the Historic American Engineering Records; the National Historic Landmarks program; or in any other local, State, or private survey. Locating existing surveys can save duplication of time and effort in gathering survey data and in correlating data produced by the current survey with other documentation on the property. It may also be useful to indicate whether the property is a locally designated landmark or is part of a locally designated district.
When filling out his Cabinet and other high offices, Trump is selecting various (current) Senators, Representatives, etc. How do those (soon-to-be) vacancies get re-filled? Thanks. 32.209.69.24 (talk) 08:09, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
When a U.S. Senate seat is vacated, the governor of that state can appoint a successor, who is sworn in pretty promptly. This is the process that led to a criminal conviction and eight years in prison for Illinois governor Rod Blagojevich who tried to sell the Senate seat vacated by Barack Obama in 2008. As for vacant seats in the House of Representatives, they must be filled by a special election, which is a much more lengthy and risky process. The election to fill the seat vacated by Matt Gaetz will not take place until April 1, 2025, and that seat will probably be vacant for about six months. Cullen328 (talk) 08:23, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
With regard to vacant senate seats, the procedure varies from state to state. In 45 states, the governor can make a temporary appointment, either for the remainder of the term, or until the next election. In the five others, a special election must be held. See here for more details. Xuxl (talk) 15:05, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Thanks. So, as Trump picks off various Senators and Reps, how and when is the majority determined in those Congressional houses? And who holds the majority while we wait for these special elections and gubernatorial appointments? Thanks. 32.209.69.24 (talk) 17:04, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Membership doesn't "'ping pong' back and forth;" it is set on the day this congress holds its first session. If changes in minority-majority status occur, there can be a call for new leadership.DOR (ex-HK) (talk) 20:17, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
It's pretty rare for control to go back and forth in one session. The 107th United States Congress Senate was the busiest. Congress opened January 3 2001 with 50-50 in the Senate, so Al Gore got the tie-breaking vote until January 20th, when Dick Cheney became VP; but in June Jim Jeffords moved from R to I and caucused with the Democrats, so the Democrats had a majority through the rest of that congress. --jpgordon𝄢𝄆𝄐𝄇20:27, 27 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
There used to be a large body of water separating the Russian military in southern Ukraine from the Ukrainian military in northern Ukraine: the Kakhovka Reservoir. Now that that body of water is mostly land, who occupies it? When I asked a year ago there was no information available; I'm wondering if any is available a year on, now that it's overgrown with thick tree cover for soldiers to shelter under. It's larger than the area of Russia that Ukrainians control, it seems like someone would be trying to occupy it... -sche (talk) 21:52, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Willows grow fast, but not that fast. After one full growing season, they won't be big enough to find shelter under. Five years from now, they will, but the vegetation will be so dense that a human can't get through. A great habitat for beavers though. PiusImpavidus (talk) 10:05, 27 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
There's a story about the former reservoir with a few pictures in The Guardian. Apparently some of the willows are already four metres tall. Any attack across this land would have to make its way through dense and trackless vegetation, then cross a major river, then push through more vegetation to get to grips with the enemy. And not just the combat troops - all their supplies would have to make the same trip. I don't think it's surprising if both sides treat it as no man's land. OTOH, given the ingenuity displayed by the Ukranians so far, I wouldn't bet against them finding a way to pull it off. Chuntuk (talk) 09:29, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
How much did UPS pay in workers comp claims for heat-related incidents last year? On the flip side, how much would it cost to air-condition their package vans and warehouses?
Did they also pay hazard bonuses for working in the heat?
Is it cheaper for UPS to just air condition their warehouses and package vans?
After paying the initial installation fees for the new HVAC systems, how much will it cost for UPS to run air conditioning and maintain their HVAC systems for one year (at least only when the weather is hot?)
And how much did they pay out in heat-related workers comp claims for one year?
How well will UPS come out ahead from simply air conditioning all places and vehicles that need air conditioned?
If so, given that this is a global multinational company, are you interested in their facilities (which include far more that merely warehouses and vans) worldwide, or just in some particular country?
Guessing (with apologies if I'm wrong) that you are interested only in their parcel operations in the USA, answering your questions would require a very detailed and complete knowledge of their buildings and vehicle fleet, as well as (probably confidential) details of figures for their worker compensation payments. I would have thought that only UPS themselves would have access to the necessary information that would enable calculating, for example, the cost of installing air-conditioning in all their warehouses (etc.) in the US. My totally wild and uninformed guess is that this would cost something like $50 million.
The most satisfying answer other than - none - is perhaps (UPS): In 2021, UPS employees donated more than one million (community) hours of their time. Last year was 2023 and some information is still available, including a few figures. A succesfull agreement between workers and management led to a situation with comp claims predictably quite low, though, lorry AC upgrade cost could be approximately $3000 per unit but regarding warehouses we need to substract an unknown number of drivers from a total of 340,000 employees. See also https://oshadefensereport.com/2024/10/02/maryland-oshas-new-heat-stress-standard/ , for some forward context. --Askedonty (talk) 22:06, 27 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Today I discovered something really interesting, but I'm not sure I understand it, so I need to ask a question. How much did social mores about nudity in the media change in the US over the entirety of the 20th century? I'm not talking about the history of fashion, which is fairly well documented, but the use of nudity in newspapers, magazines, television, and film. I recall reading that they changed quite a bit for this or that reason, but I don't remember the precipitating events. Here's why I'm asking this question:
Google hosts a free archive for Life magazine, which I recall being adventurous, experimental, and innovative, but also fairly socially conservative for its time given that it was a vehicle for American advertisers to sell their products and they wouldn't want to upset their readers. Fast forward to today. I was browsing the Feb 4, 1952 issue, when there on page 77 is a woman turned away from the camera, completely naked. For 1952, and for Life magazine, this seems unusual. European readers might be laughing about now, but in the US, the only nudity in the media that was ever allowed, at least from what I recall, was in National Geographic, and I don't even know the history or story behind that, so that's a separate question.
My hunch is that the 1952 photo in Life got by the censors because 1) the photo is used to illustrate an article about art, and in this case, life drawing, and 2) if one isn't looking closely the nude woman looks like a statue, not a real person. Did this photo get by the censors, or was it allowed? The reason I'm asking, is that aside from National Geographic in 1952, I was unaware of nude photos in major American media. There's probably a really interesting history behind this, so if someone knows the answer, I'm all ears. Viriditas (talk) 23:38, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
It looks like things changed from 1947–1959 during the era of McCarthyism. Am I reading this right? Did the US become more conservative just before the rise of the counterculture in the 1960s? I was completely unaware that nude art photography was ever published in mainstream magazines. And it looks like it became quite liberal in the 1970s, swinging back to conservatism again in the 1980s. I remember in the 1970s there were all these seedy adult movie theaters that disappeared in the 1980s. Then in the late 1990s you had another liberalization occur. And now we're back to conservatism again. Viriditas (talk) 06:47, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Possibly tangential, but The Pawnbroker (1964) was "the first film featuring bare breasts to receive Production Code approval. Although it was publicly announced to be a special exception, the controversy proved to be first of similar major challenges to the Code that ultimately led to its abrogation." -- Jack of Oz[pleasantries]01:25, 30 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The flag of the American Indian Movement is fairly iconic and featured in the article about the movement. However I haven't been able to find any sources about who made the flag and when. Does anybody have any information on when it was first flown, who made it, etc? Thanks! Intervex (talk) 00:09, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
When I open Charles-Émile Trudeau on my Android phone I see in what I will call a subtitle below his name that he was a "French Businessman (1887-1935)". (Charles-Émile Trudeau was father of Canadian Prime Minister Pierre Trudeau and grandfather of current Canadian Prime Minister Justin Trudeau.) But he was French-Canadian (born in Quebec), not French, and I would like to correct this.
But I prefer to edit on my computer in Windows, where I don't see "French Businessman..." at all.
What Wikipedia 'element' is the (visible only on Android) subtitle "French Businessman (1887-1935)", and how can I edit it in Windows? Hayttom (talk) 00:14, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
If you go into your Preferences on desktop, in the Gadgets section there's a tick box under Editing which allows you to see and edit the short description. --Viennese Waltz06:56, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
What can I cite about Tommy Lasorda pitching during batting practice?
This is obviously for Baseball Bugs... Our Charles-Émile Trudeau article leads to the Montreal Royals article which leads to our Tommy Lasorda article which does NOT mention him often (?) throwing pitches during Dodgers batting practice, which I think I saw him do (before an Expos game) but possibly only on TV. I Googled "tommy lasorda pitching batting practice" but I don't think that provided any good enough information source. Baseball Bugs, can you find one? (Do you remember seeing Tommy throwing pitches at batting practice?) Hayttom (talk) 01:07, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
There were a couple of anecdotes in the wake of Lasorda's death which mentioned him throwing batting practice, at least during the time he was a coach for the Dodgers. Don't know if he still did that once he became the Dodgers' manager. ←Baseball BugsWhat's up, Doc?carrots→ 04:06, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Not any particular publication but any newspaper report(scanned or archived) during that period which mentions violence against minorities, like you posted few hours ago and then changed. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Sistersofchappel (talk • contribs) 02:23, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Based on the attire and attitude, the foreground monkey is not a member of the jolly company but a servant or perhaps the innkeeper. --Lambiam10:23, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The Amsterdam Pipe Museum states "we can hardly imagine how difficult it was to get your pipe lit. Our seventeenth-century ancestors used a coal, removed from the open fire with a fire tong and handed it in a brazier. With the fireplace tongs or a smaller one you could put a glowing coal on the pipe bowl." I think the monkey is crouched over a brazier, and the two little sticks propped up in the brazier are a tiny pair of tongs, another pair being in use by the monkey at the table. The monkey of interest certainly appears to be doing something with tobacco and paper, over the hot brazier. I don't know what.
In fact I'm not even right about the tongs: in this similar painting the same objects are clearly stick-like. But I think they hold embers somehow. There's a lot of them, I count 10, so presumably they're consumable, something like a Splint (laboratory equipment)?
Looking through Teniers's many paintings of smokers (there's a commons category), I see many figures doing the exact same thing over a little pottery brazier. #1, #2, #3, #4, #5, #6. Some are apparently rubbing the tobacco (what's meant by "ready-rubbed"?) but some are just heating it and placidly staring at it. Card Zero (talk)09:25, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
It might be much fresher than we get it, pre-dried, today. Also at this period Netherlandish smokers of the rougher sort typically mixed their (expensive) tobacco with rather dangerous local plants like deadly nightshade, in English going under the rather non-specific term dwale (which we cover very poorly). That might need drying. Johnbod (talk) 16:56, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Wow, that sounds very dangerous (especially the lettuce). I thought Curing of tobacco was always done, and since it involve weeks of drying, sometimes up a chimney, five minutes extra drying seems confusingly futile. But maybe they cut corners on the curing in the early days? Card Zero (talk)17:41, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Hmm, not sure I'm a big fan of that page. It has one blue link, to US state law. All the other links are red, and many are to titles that would not naturally exist at all, unless maybe as redirects-from-misnomers or something. For example state law (Germany)? What's that? The German Länder are not called "states". --Trovatore (talk) 21:56, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
(I went ahead and searched, and to my bemusement our article on the Länder is at states of Germany. Hmm. I don't think that's a good title. I've always heard them called Länder, untranslated. They're broadly analogous to US states, I suppose, but not really the same thing.) --Trovatore (talk) 22:13, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I've been looking at Law of Texas in order to verify if its specifical statutes visibly differ from the German cases where the concept of Succession of states comes into question: following analyses exposed in de:Land (Deutschland) in German Wikipedia. "Succession of states" as discussed in that last article has a focus probably more highly contrasted in matter of "rights and obligations" than would apply to U.S. States. In the case of Texas law for example I note the importance of Common law as a defining influence, whereas in German law the same unifying level is rooted very differently. I imagine that the american linguistic pluralism at root also implies some repercussions in classes of problems turning to the inside rather than to abroad. Consequently perhaps the specific problems that appear and were shown in the idea of Secession. --Askedonty (talk) 00:16, 5 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
@Askedonty: I'm really having trouble following that. What are you trying to figure out here? Is it about whether Land is reasonably translated as "state" in the sense that it's used in "US state"? If it is, I don't really follow the argument; I'm not even sure whether you're arguing for or against. If it's not then I'm even more confused. --Trovatore (talk) 01:06, 5 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
German Wikipedia define the U.S.A. as a "föderal aufgebaute Republik" which is absolutely similar to the German "Bundesrepublik". To anybody there is a strange feeling at equating "State" with "Land" so I do not see what reluctance there has to be seeing there is an explanation for it. --Askedonty (talk) 01:19, 5 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
No reluctance; I just wanted to understand better the structure of your argument. It was a little hard to figure out what you were getting at. --Trovatore (talk) 01:22, 5 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
(Actually now I'm not sure about the "no reluctance" part, because on re-reading "I do not see what reluctance there has to be", I don't actually understand what that means either.) --Trovatore (talk) 01:28, 5 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Ok, no problem. "Länder" means that Germans living there might be have their families rooted there for ages. I do not think that aspect can be translated without some circumlocutions. --Askedonty (talk) 01:44, 5 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The original question asks in countries like US...are there any local laws that differ.... In the US, "local" usually means city or county level. This will vary from state to state, but typically city and county laws are called "ordinances" and regulate comparatively lesser matters than state law (state law handles almost all one-on-one violent crime, for example). City ordinances tend to be about things like how often you have to mow your lawn or whether you can drink alcohol in public. Violations are usually "infractions" with relatively light penalties (though fines can be fairly heavy in some cases, like for removing a tree that you're not supposed to remove in Woodside, California). --Trovatore (talk) 23:02, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In languages other than English, how common is it for long vowels or diphthongs to be allowed in super-closed syllables ending in two or more consonant sounds? Example words are “minds,” “pounce,” and “paint.” Primal Groudon (talk) 18:18, 21 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
It's rare. It might be allowed in the Germanic languages in general [excluding creoles] if you allow for the fact that long vowels are often at least somewhat diphthongized. E.g. the name 'Heintz', or glaubst 'believe' in German. It's also been reconstructed for proto-Indo-European, but reconstructions are always iffy. I don't know of it elsewhere, but I doubt Germanic is unique. — kwami (talk) 21:01, 21 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Skimming diphthong, Faroese has nevnd (the diphthong is spelled 'ev'), Scots Gaelic cainnt, Welsh teyrn. Counting Latvian, that makes 3 branches of IE.
If you allow rising diphthongs, you'll find a lot more languages, such as Catalan with e.g. guant, but those depend on not analyzing e.g. /gwa/ as CCV (and some accounts even posit a phoneme /ɡʷ/ in this case). Of course, the same kind of argument can be made for English, where some sources analyze diphthongs as VC sequences (e.g. [aI] as /aj/), so you can probably find a way to argue all languages away if you have a theoretical model that predicts that such syllables cannot exist.
Hi everyone,
I am looking for the correct or best description of size classes in statistical tables, e.g. age groups. I have found those in use:
0 up to below 5
…
30 up to below 35
35 and more
and another version with "to under" instead of "up to below".
I'm not looking for a simplified version as in
30 to 34
35 and more
or even with a dash (–) instead of "to".
Since I'm not a native speaker of English (but instead of German) I am asking the native speakers here for correct English :-) Specifically for the correct translation of the widely used bis unter in German tables into English, such as in
If you use the 30 to under 35 style, you'll be following the example of the 1820 United States census, so I suppose that way of writing the table is idiomatic for 1820, at least. You have excluded the more modern idiom of 30 to 34. I wonder why. Are you doing a search-and-replace job on a large table? Card Zero (talk)20:02, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
30 to 34; 35 to 39; etc. works for discrete variables, limited to integers, but fails when the variable can reach a value like 34.5. If the variable is continuous, a style like 30 to 35; 35 to 40; etc. works, as the probability of the variable being exactly 35 is normally zero. I tend to think of age as continuous. To be rigorous, you could try the maths option from interval (mathematics): [30,35); [35,40); etc. It's in maths language, so it's the same in German or English, but assumes your readers have a basic understanding of mathematics. (Note: my native language isn't English, German or Maths, but I have a decent understanding of all of them.) PiusImpavidus (talk) 10:09, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Thank you. I'll use the 30 to under 35 style. I had been looking for the best translation, not for a simplification or a math expression :-) Greetings,--Ratzer (talk) 10:58, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
If what you're looking for is an idiomatic English translation of 30 bis unter 35, then I don't think 30 to under 35 is it. It's a literal translation, but a native English speaker would never use such an expression. I think "30 to 34" is fine, or "between 30 and 34". --Viennese Waltz08:37, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Once you are past 2 years old, your age is rarely going to be considered with such certainty as to include months or even half years. Someone born on 1 January 2000 and someone born on 29 November 2000 would both be described as being 24 years old today. As would anyone born between 30 November 1999 and 31 December 1999, for that matter. The normal usage for age groups would just use the integers: 30-34, 35-39, 40-44, etc. --User:Khajidha (talk) (contributions) 16:14, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
"Only" doesn't have a corresponding adjective form (ultimately it's derived from "one"). It's possible that "really" is more common than "real". The adverb and adjective "just" are written the same, but in some varieties of English they're pronounced with quite distinct vowels, and the adverb is almost certainly more common than the adjective. AnonMoos (talk) 08:22, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Rapidly and rapid are an interesting case in which the lead has swapped recently [34] (with the two still relatively close and rapid slightly ahead.) Similarly, relatively became more common than relative in 2014 [35], but it remains only slightly so. GalacticShoe (talk) 23:02, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Especially has essentially always been more popular than especial[36], and same goes for probably over probable[37], but interestingly enough definitely - which was only half as popular as definite in the 1980s and before - started trending up in the 90s, overtook in the early 00s, and has been skyrocketing ever since. [38]GalacticShoe (talk) 06:27, 2 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I remember back in school in the early 1990s, at computer class, one of my classmates made a simple point-and-click adventure game called (as far as I can remember) "Seremtrog na-kiskaa shinjerak". He added a note "The name of the game means 'The black cavern of the brown death cult'" or something (I don't remember the exact words). Does this name actually mean something in some language or is it something my classmate or someone else made up? Google Translate wasn't of much help. It identified the language as Russian but could not translate a single word to English. JIP | Talk00:28, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Does Spanish have any words where falling diphthongs occur before consonants, such as in made-up words loyto, peyre, sayl and muyche? I know no such words. --40bus (talk) 21:05, 27 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Does 12-hour clock have a written numeric form in any of continental European countries? Does it have a written numeric form in Finnish, Polish, Italian and Swedish, for example?
How do English speakers say leading zero of times such as 01:15?
Why does English not use word "clock" in expressions of time? Why is it not "Clock is five" but "It is five"?
Does English ever use expressions such as "It is 16", "I go to sleep at 22", "The shop opens at 7"? And are terms like "15 sunset" (meaning a sunset between 15:00 and 16:00) and "19 news" (meaning a news broadcast starting around 19:00) understood in the same way as "3 PM sunset" and "7 PM news"? --40bus (talk) 06:21, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
You have also asked questions 1 - 3 on the Miscellaneous desk, where I have already answered two of them. I suggest you transfer 4 there and strike out this query or the responses might become confused. If you do so I will also address 4 there. {The poster formerly known as 87.81.230.195} 94.1.211.243 (talk) 07:20, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
This is the place to ask these questions, not the Miscellaneous desk. These are related to language. I posted these on wrong desk because I replied to the ethnicity question there, and forgot to go to another desk. I think that this discussion should be continued there. --40bus (talk) 07:52, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
40bus -- As I'm sure you've been told before, in the United States, military people sometimes say things such as "Men, we hit the beaches at oh-two-hundred hours" (i.e. 02:00) or "We have an inspection at twenty-two hundred hours" (22:00), but 12-hour AM and PM usage without leading zeroes predominates almost exclusively in non-military and non-narrowly-technical contexts... AnonMoos (talk) 13:05, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I can only speak from a British point of view, so don't know how things are said in other English speaking countries, but
2) I would say "Oh one fifteen". This would imply 01:15 in the morning as opposed to 13:15. "One fifteen" could be either morning or afternoon, depending on context.
3) "Clock is five" isn't an English expression, however "five o'clock" is. I believe this is short for the formal "five of the clock", but that would never be used in full. "Five o'clock" could be 05:00 or 17:00, again depending on context. "Seventeen o'clock" wouldn't be used.
4) The 24 hour clock is used to avoid ambiguity, for example in railway timetables, and understood by most people, but would only be used for a precise time, for example "The train leaves at twenty-two fifteen", not "the train leaves at quarter past twenty-two".
P.S. George Orwell's "1984" starts with the sentence "It was a bright cold day in April, and the clocks were striking thirteen", but I hope you don't want to live in that world... AnonMoos (talk) 14:42, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Besides "occasion" and "equation," what other word pairs sound somewhat similar enough that foreigners may intend to pronounce one word but pronounce a whole 'nother word by mispronouncing what they had intended?
Both your examples have very different vowels (o versus e) in writing and to most people those sound very different too. Foreigners would tend to pronounce them differently. Very few languages don't distinguish front vowels from back vowels. English of course features very strong vowel reduction, so all unstressed vowels sound more or less the same. Foreigners are more likely to mishear occasion/equation than to mispronounce them.
Consider pairs differing in voicedness of a plosive. For example time/dime. In English, the t is aspirated, the d is voiceless or slightly voiced. If the foreigners native language has fully voiced d and unaspirated t (for example, French or Dutch), the foreigner's time may sound like dime to a native speaker. There's also bag/back. I think that phonetically the difference is mostly in the length of the vowel (but I'm no native English speaker and to me they sound pretty much the same), so this may be hard for speakers of languages with no phonemic vowel length.
Also consider pairs with similar vowels, like bit/beet. No problem for people who have those vowels in their native language, but if your native language only has 5 or 6 vowels (like Spanish or Italian), those are confusing. PiusImpavidus (talk) 10:35, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
There are several languages that reguarly unvoice consonant sounds in final positions, such as all Continental West Germanic and all (?) Slavic languages (I think). 惑乱 Wakuran (talk) 13:00, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Yes, AFAIK they unvoice their voiced obstruents in final position. That is, to the extend that they have voiced obstruents, which may be less than you might think on first sight. PiusImpavidus (talk) 10:05, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
It might not even need to be foreigners. I once met a British girl named Ella who spoke some British accent where it seemed like the vowel sounds of bAt and bEt had merged, so I thought at first she was named Alla. 惑乱 Wakuran (talk) 20:58, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Not really a complaint. I recognise that me feelings are not uncommon, across the generations, and wondered if this has been more broadly identified and even studied. HiLo48 (talk) 04:40, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I always detested the sound of electric guitars in my youth, and I only started enjoying myself on the dance floor when techno appeared in around 1997, plus plenty of MDMA. And now Charli xcx, of course. Is there a word for this? Guess how old I'll be next week. ("Will you still need me, will you still feed me...?") MinorProphet (talk) 04:23, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
That's good.. Interestingly, it mentions Katy Perry. A choir I'm in did her song Firework a few years ago, and now her music is one modern thing I'm keen on. Getting heavily involved, like learning to sing a song properly, does seem to make a difference. I feel the topic is worth an article, but it's become such a pain to create new articles here these days, I don't think I could be bothered. HiLo48 (talk) 00:54, 30 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Not sure why you think that. I created one just the other day, the first in quite a while because I've been involved in "other stuff", in which time all manner of rules and protocols could have changed - but it was quite painless. Did I do something wrong? -- Jack of Oz[pleasantries]01:22, 30 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Literally it's Director of veterinary services at the level of the minister of agriculture, but I guess you're not asking that. It is a curious formulation! —Tamfang (talk) 03:44, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
More fully: "directeur des services vétérinaires au niveau du ministre de l'agriculture et du développement rural". Google translates this as "Director of Veterinary Services at the level of the Minister of Agriculture and Rural Development". This seems a fair translation but would imply that this directorial position pulls the same weight as that of a minister. That is hard to imagine; the veterinary services at the Algerian Ministry of Agriculture and Rural Development are clearly subordinate.
Elsewhere I find his position named as "Directeur des services vétérinaires (DSV) au ministère de l'Agriculture, du Développement rural et de la Pêche".[40] It appears that Karim has been succeeded in this position by Imad Idres, also using the simpler title "directeur des services vétérinaires au ministère de l'agriculture et du développement rural".[41]
Buyers' remorse is when you buy something and then regret doing so. What if anything is it called if you resist (say) a tempting Black Friday deal, and then afterwards regret that you didn't take it? Thanks. 2601:644:8581:75B0:0:0:0:C426 (talk) 11:13, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In the Revised Romanization of Korean, is it possible to have triple consonants like -ttt- within a word if a stop is followed by a tense consonant? (I'm not fully acquainted with Korean phonology, so my apologies if this is a dumb question.) 71.126.57.88 (talk) 20:01, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
It's a reasonable question. This would not happen in the middle of a single morpheme, so it would have to be at a morpheme boundary. The example I can come up with is tteok-kkochi, where we add a hyphen. This seems sensible, but I can't see that the hyphen is mandatory in Revised Romanization of Korean. So maybe yes? --Amble (talk) 19:02, 2 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Can suffixes like -onym, -gram, -graph and -al be added to native English words? For example if oral means "mouth", could it be also mouthal, Or if hydronym is a name of wather body, is then lakonym a name of lake? --40bus (talk) 22:08, 2 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Not usually, but there a few humorous coinages and "nonce words". "Burial" is a native word with an "-al" suffix -- but not from the Latin adjective suffix. Some other non-Germanic-derived prefixes and suffixes are more promiscuous, such as "re-" (as in redo"), "-able" (as in "drinkable") etc. AnonMoos (talk) 23:26, 2 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Also "bridal", though originally from bride+ale, is used as an adjective, according to OED, "by association with adjectives (of Lat. origin) in -al, as nuptial, natal, mortal, etc.". - Lindert (talk) 23:00, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
But does "shadowgraph" really have a suffix, or is it an ordinary compound of the English words "shadow" and "graph"? And words like "candygram" do not really have the Greek -gram suffix, but have the second half of the word "telegram" appended to indicate a modified form of a telegram service, in exactly the same way that political scandals are often given names with the second half of "Watergate" appended. (Admittedly, that doesn't apply to "scattergram"...) AnonMoos (talk) 10:23, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
“The problem with defending the purity of the English language is that English is about as pure as a cribhouse whore. We don't just borrow words; on occasion, English has pursued other languages down alleyways to beat them unconscious and rifle their pockets for new vocabulary.” ― James D. Nicoll --User:Khajidha (talk) (contributions) 13:54, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Instead of lakonym, try limnonym. In scholarly coinage, there is an unwritten (and not always adhered to) convention that a term formed with -onym takes an Ancient Greek root as its first part. In popular coinage, there are no rules. --Lambiam09:29, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I suppose what the original author meant was the change from [ç] to [ʃ] implied in "Keerisch" and "Beerisch", but that's of course not really palatalization, but a fronting from palatal towards palatal-alveolar or thereabouts. And I can't see how the "Dorf" example would fit in with any of that, except with the vowel lengthening described in the previous sentence. But yes, the extra vowel would properly be described as epenthesis, I guess. Pity the whole article is unsourced. Fut.Perf.☼13:51, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Some digging strongly suggests the statement is based on: Roland Martin, Untersuchungen zur rhein-moselfränkischen Dialektgrenze, Deutsche Dialektgeographie Vol. 11a, Marburg, 1922. I could not find online access to this monography. --Lambiam22:14, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
What is the possessive form of "works" in the sense of a factory?
The word "works", in the sense of a factory, looks plural in form but can be singular or plural. What is the possessive of "works" in that sense? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 134.242.92.97 (talk) 15:28, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
1. (Brookfield zoo) - nobody knows. Examining this news report and this one, I see a lot of assumptions that it's domesticated (and therefore an escaped pet), based on, in the first place, nothing, and in the second place that it "doesn't hunt very well": but at the same time it's reported that it may be as young as five months old, so that might explain its lack of skill. Zoos aren't known to conceal their escapes. The lack of any other possibilities points to an escaped pet.
2. (Chicago P.D.) Even on the entertainment desk, we don't answer requests for predictions. You ask if it "would" inspire an episode. Looking at the plots in use so far this year I see topics like violent robbery, social work, homelessness, alcoholism, hate crime, drug trafficking, and a serial killer. Generally speaking the subject matter is gritty, and doesn't appear to be inspired by specific recent news stories, so I'll say no, it wouldn't. But again, nobody knows. Card Zero (talk)05:51, 20 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In the 1970 film Peter Sallis plays the role of Keresley and he's credited as the 17th cast member on IMDB but at the end of the credits he's not shown in the credits and I also did not see him in the film. Can any of you guys try and get a photograph of which scene were Peter Sallis appeared in and then I know he's in the movie and I can list his role on IMDB as uncredited. Matthew John Drummond (talk) 22:54, 20 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
It's extremely unlikely that someone is going to watch this 50-year-old movie more attentively than you did and snap a picture. However, our article on Peter Sallis lists The Reckoning among his screen credits and it's supported by a citation to the BFI. Whoever designed the BFI website search function hated the world and all who live on it, but this should give you the direct citation to confirm his presence in the movie (sixth name from the top). Matt Deres (talk) 15:24, 21 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Well, this is after all the world-renowned WP Entertainment desk, and I watched The Reckoning even more attentively (on DailyMotion) than Matt D might ever have expected, knowing who to look for: and if Peter Sallis is in the film, I reckon he's the uncredited pianist at the party at around 01:07 (the soundtrack continues for some time), and again at 01:13 but I'm not surprised you missed him. Sadly I have no drop box, and WP and Commons are unlikely to welcome a screenshot... But if you can manage to watch the film again, and with any version of Windows since Windows for Workgroups (3.11) you can pause the film and press Shift+PrintScreen at the desired moment. This takes a screenshot and copies it to the clipboard. Press WinKey and type mspaint (or open Paint), press Ctrl+V and save as .bmp file.
The following discussion has been closed. Please do not modify it.
we are angry 😡 because we cannot sleep 😴 because how come indian tv 📺 director refuses to tell people to use common sense to realise that dna 🧬 will prove that parvati is none other than babli’s sister pari still alive etc?(MissionWar123 (talk) 07:21, 22 November 2024 (UTC)).[reply]
😡 i do not care if it is fiction why is government allowing indian 📺 director to prevent parineti people actors actresses from using common sense to realise that 🧬 will prove that parvati is pari etc?(MissionWar123 (talk) 08:45, 22 November 2024 (UTC)).[reply]
OK, I went and read this article about the Indian government using media regulations for political censorship, and it does indeed seem that the Programme & Advertisement Code could be used to arbitrarily censor a soap if it "Criticises maligns or slanders any individual in person or certain groups, segments". (Wait, no, that only applies to online news. Perhaps some similarly vague restriction covers TV shows?) But who is maligned in this case, the actors? And how would the government benefit by intervening?
Idiot plot is perhaps a more relevant article than the one on plot holes. I wonder if any autocratic regime anywhere has ever been so annoyed by a badly plotted show as to use the law to change it. Card Zero (talk)09:00, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
@MissionWar123: If you think it's government job to allow or forbid TV directors to include any info or plot details in their production, ask them, the government, not us. We are not government, we are all-around-the-world volunteer editors of Wikipedia, with no power to solve your problems. Please stop your war mission here, it's pointless. Turn to local authorities instead. --CiaPan (talk) 09:04, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
@MissionWar123: We cannot, either. The overwhelming majority of us does not live in your country, does not know the movie and even does not speak your language. We, sitting in Australia, Brazil, China, Denmark, Iran, Laos, Portugal, Senegal or Vietnam definitely have no better access to any govenmental or political forces in your country than you have. So please stop your war here, it leads to nowhere. EOT (3). --CiaPan (talk) 10:01, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
that is your problem now, that is coast guard’s problem etc.
I would watch it if I were you. Your posts from an IP address have been regularly removed. Now that you have an account, you can be blocked if your posts don't follow RD guidelines. Just some friendly advice for you. --Viennese Waltz10:57, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
i found papers about parineti at bus station ok this is my first time to join wikipedia:
Hi, I was hoping someone could point me to where I might find the first male to win a women’s sports title? It can be any sport, it doesn’t matter, it’s just that I’m doing a school report and I want to find something inspirational. Degurumcqueen (talk) 04:09, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
My question needs a little bit of an introduction (apologies for that) but it finally arrives... Be patient.
The first time the circle of 5ths appears in Western Europe (it had already made its appearance in Russia some decades before) was in the theoretical works of Johann David Heinichen as a circle of major and minor keys. But there is something odd in the way Heinichen presents the circle of 5ths: he gives the major and minor keys interlaced (so his circle, which he doesn't call "circle of 5ths" but "musical circle", is in effect two circles of 5ths interlaced) and, most bizarrely, Heinichen puts the relative minor key *after* its relative major (in the direction of the sharps): ... F > d > C > a > G > e > ... If you want to interlace major and minor keys (or major and minor perfect chords which amounts to the same thing), a practice that was shortly thereafter abandoned, then logic would dictate that you put the relative minor *before* its relative major (in the direction of the sharps): ... d > F > a > C > e > G ... so that a lower root appears before a higher root. Also in this way every root is a 3rd apart and two adjacent chords in the "musical circle" always have two common tones, the 3rd and 5th of the 1st chord (the root and 3rd of the 2nd chord).
Now (finally) my question: Can anyone see *any* rationale to Heinichen's arrangement that I couldn't see?
I can't speak for everyone else, but I couldn't think of a reason. It always appeared to me that in teaching the theory of Western harmony, an approach based on a progression of alternating major and minor thirds would be easier to understand and also more convenient to learn from, thus:
A♭ E♭ B♭ F C G D A
/-----\ /-----\ /-----\ /-----\ /-----\ /-----\ /-----\ /-----\
A♭ C E♭ G B♭ D F A C E G B D F♯ A C♯ E G♯
\-----/ \-----/ \-----/ \-----/ \-----/ \-----/ \-----/ \-----/
c g d a e b f♯ c♯
The top line names major triads, the bottom line names minor triads, and the middle line gives the names of the individual notes of which the triads are comprised. In this chart, where the direction of the sharps is from left to right, a is between F and C, and not between C and G as in Heinichen's circle. --Lambiam22:00, 27 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
This is without doubt the only sane arrangement in my opinion. In fact schemes like the Tonnetz are arranged according to this very principle because, well, there is no alternative. Incidentally if you take the Tonnetz and construct a dual "Akkordnetz" by making every face (triangle) of the Tonnetz a vertex you get an extended version of what you have drawn above. But to get back to trying to understand Heinichen's reasoning, is it true that some theorists in the 17th c. and/or 18 c. took the diatonic scale of D (white keys from D to D, or in other words the "dorian" scale) as the prototype of the minor mode (instead of the scale of A, so called "aeolian", which is what is done nowadays)? I seem to remember statements to that effect, maybe when discussing incomplete key signatures used for the minor mode at that time. If that is indeed the case (and I'm not certain it is) could it be that Heinichen's "musical circle" which is a circle of keys would have d minor before C major, a minor before G major, etc. simply because to him the relative minor of C major is actually d dorian, and so on? 178.51.16.158 (talk) 10:51, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Are there any statistical sources regarding film and television awards such as the Oscars, Golden Globes and Emmys that highlight the distribution of nominations and winners based on narrative genre? In particular, I would need information regarding statistics on historical genre films and TV series. Sources regarding the general trend of historical cinema over the decades would also be good. Thank you
Sira Aspera (talk) 18:25, 27 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I do not know of a source that does exactly what you want. The best that I can think of is to search Google for IMDB lists of winners and nominees in various categories. For example, you can search "IMDB list best picture nominees" (without the quotation marks). You can then click on a page. There will be a blue oval icon to the left of where the page says, "Sort by." This should call up a window that will break the list down by genre among other things. You will have to check to see if the list is accurate and up to date. FreeKresge (talk) 16:28, 2 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I saw this question today and while I can't find the answer, I do remember that it exists. A recent television show always started with a cold open that ended with a curse word being cut off as the title was shown. What is the name of the series? 68.187.174.155 (talk) 01:09, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
TV Tropes mentions this as a running gag: The Cold Open for each episode ends with Zoey about to blurt out something like "What the..." and "Holy..." when the title appears, blocking over her mouth with the theme song.[44] --Lambiam04:30, 1 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Across a Crowded Room available to watch on DVD or available online to watch
I'm trying to find out if the 1978 TV play Across a Crowded Room produced by ITV Yorkshire has been released on DVD or available to watch online. The full movie is fully intact and has survived but I just don’t know where I can watch it. Matthew John Drummond (talk) 15:46, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I'm looking to try and find what critics thought about the 1956 TV play Kitty Clive but struggling to find any newspaper articles about the TV play. So can any of you try and find out what critics thought about the TV play as well as a link so then I can include in a draft I'm making about the TV play/TV movie. Matthew John Drummond (talk) 00:07, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In the future, could we have another planet that is very similar to Earth, except progress is not allowed, so the population are required to remain at Neolithic levels of technology? (The population are not informed about the outside world.)
For one thing, we are not supposed to offer predictions. Anything could happen in the future unless impossible by the laws of reason or by the laws of nature. So we can only discuss whether scenarios exist leading to this outcome while not violating known laws.
It is unclear who, in the sketched dystopia (or eutopia, depending on one's views), is enforcing the proscription of progress. Is this a culturally accepted restriction, in which the traditional way of life is revered so much that even the act of suggesting innovations is considered an abomination? In that case it is irrelevant whether they know about technologically advanced societies. Or are they ignorant about science, with an outside force eliminating people with an sharp mind who might discover and develop new technologies improving the way of life? --Lambiam23:43, 20 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Peter J. Bowler wrote a book called The invention of progress, and Robert Nisbet wrote A history of the idea of progress. I haven't read either of these, but would like to. Clearly Progress#Philosophyis an idea, which a culture can become aware of and mythologize. Prior to this awareness, the culture may believe itself to be static, to exist in eternal golden stability as a static society, and may mythologize that. As Lambiam indicated, if progress is considered sufficiently sinful, it may be successfully prevented indefinitely, even in the face of other cultures that embrace innovations. The Amish provide a kind of example, although they're more conservative about innovation than completely opposed to it. I've heard the interesting suggestion that the reason for the apparent excruciatingly slow rate of progress throughout the paleolithic era and to some extent the neolithic was that a lot of creative effort went into preventing innovation from taking place, because creativity is not identical to innovation.
@ApricotPine: This was the subject of multiple Star Trek episodes throughout the history of the franchise. It never turned out well. Ironically, (and take this with a grain of salt, please) there is amusing speculation among enthusiasts of the Fermi paradox (as a thought experiment), that one of these solutions, the Zoo hypothesis, however unlikely, implies that we, humans on Earth, are the species where "progress" (see the Kardashev scale) is not "allowed". While most people will dismiss this as total nonsense, something weird is going on with these numbers: our species has been around for 6 million years, modern humans evolved 200k years ago, and civilization is only 6k years old. From one POV, we've had plenty of time to adapt and overcome our limitations and progress as a species, and we've basically done nothing. We are still, pretty much the same hairless apes with the same biases and preferences and weird hopes and dreams. So in a way, we are the people you describe, Zoo hypothesis or not. Our values have not changed in 6000 years. Viriditas (talk) 20:48, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Our species (Homo sapiens) has only been around for about 300,000 years. 6 million years was the split between our ancestors and the ancestors of chimpanzees. The very long time it then took to develop civilization is (I suspect, I'm not an expert) that you needed a specific combination of enough people with the right ideas all living in the same area at the same time, and with the right environmental conditions to make it worthwhile. For much of human existence, our ancestors would have been too few and too spread out for civilization to be useful or even feasible, even if someone had come up with the idea. Iapetus (talk) 11:49, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Is it correct that the integrated LUFS is based on the momentary loudness rather than individual samples? BTW, I've have already implemented an option to select a source (either individual samples, momentary, or even short-term) to use for the integrated LUFS calculation on the loudness (LUFS) meter part of my own peakmeter so this can be tested. 2001:448A:3070:DF97:6CA1:FCBB:A642:E2B2 (talk) 03:57, 21 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The response of a moving-coil VU meter (black line) compared to an electronic PPM indicator (grey area) of a drum beat. Level is in dB and time is in seconds Audio samples have pressure amplitudes but do not individually exhibit Loudness that must be calculated by summation of energy in critical bands. See the EBU reference (EBU R 128) LOUDNESS NORMALISATION AND PERMITTED MAXIMUM LEVEL OF AUDIO SIGNALS. An estimate of momentarily perceived peak loudness in broadcasting is meaningful only if it integrates over long enough time to properly resolve the critical band containing the lowest audio frequency component that may be 20 Hz. Note that many broadcasting sound engineers prefer the ballistic response of VU meters with which they are familiar, see illustration. Philvoids (talk) 11:46, 21 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In arctic cities where there is no sun to melt snow for weeks and it can snow multiple inches each day, where do they put the snow? Is it just pushed to the edge of town as a massive snow wall? Do they truck it to a temporary snow fill? Do they snow melting facilities? 68.187.174.155 (talk) 01:32, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
And in some they include, in and between the buildings, walkways and retail outlets, etc. one floor level above the ground, from which snow can be swept, so they don't need to use the outdoor snow-buried ground. [Ob pers: Helsinki.] {The poster formerly known as 87.812.230.195} 94.1.211.243 (talk) 07:44, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Here is a video of snow removal in Tromsø, the third largest city in the Arctic Circle: [45]. You can see a few options including "spray it into the trees", but most of the snow in the video is collected into large dump trucks and then unloaded into the water of the straits surrounding the city. --Amble (talk) 18:09, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
During the snow season end of November to end of March Reykyavik, Iceland has a contingency plan for snow clearing whose priorities are 1: Main roads, important connecting roads for emergency services, busy collecting roads, and bus routes; 2: Other collecting roads and access to preschools and primary schools and 3: Residential streets. Roads are cleared by snow-removing machines that clear ice using salt or preferably brine to ensure safety with as little salt as possible. The city provides depots where residents can collect sand and salt for use in their neighborhoods and driveways. The reference gives service details and maps in English. National snow forecasts are shown here with past climate data in the first rerferenced article. Philvoids (talk) 18:21, 22 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In Moscow and St. Petersburg snow is transported by lorries to snow-melting machines. In ordinary Russian cities they transport piles of snow to huge snow dumps in the countryside. This transportation is a rather costly enterprise, so smaller towns and neighbourhoods just leave a pile of snow in each yard to wait until the sun melts it in late April. Ghirla-трёп-22:16, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The "dotted" area looks to me as if someone scattered road salt over that part of the snow, either by hand or machine. Especially at the bottom of the top photo, you can see some of the individual pieces of salt in each "dot". In the second photo, the snowless area could have been a strip cleared by use of a larger amount of salt and maybe it was not scattered evenly and spread into the "dotted" area. --142.112.149.206 (talk) 14:11, 23 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I'm reading about the California Impressionists circa 1914, and I can't get over the photos of these artists painting en plein air in full, three-piece suits. To my eyes in 2024, it seems absolutely ridiculous, but I am curious about the social conventions behind this. Was it considered improper for a "gentleman" to paint outside in a shirt and shorts? Why? And who was behind enforcing this? The whole thing makes no sense to me. Viriditas (talk) 21:02, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Appearing in your shirt without a jacket was definitely the mark of a labourer in the 19th-century. A saying was "From shirtsleeves to shirtsleeves in three generations" which meant that the wealth accumulated by one generation was likely to be squandered by their grandchildren. [46] This formality was a long time in passing; in the City of London office where I started work in the 1970s, a business suit was required for males and you were expected to put on your jacket if you were meeting a customer or even a manager (there was no air conditioning). Alansplodge (talk) 22:55, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
This photo was taken in 1874. He's sitting in the full Hawaiian sun with a suit on. You can't really tell, but it looks like a wool suit to me. All of this forced discomfort because they don't want to appear working class? It's really hard to believe and wrap my mind around. "Let's be as uncomfortable as possible because other people might think we work for a living." Makes no sense, sorry. I get that these strange ideas are passed along from generation to generation, but at some point you have to just say, "this is crazy, I don't care what people think". So why didn't people do that? Viriditas (talk) 23:33, 24 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Those jackets are super comfortable. I went through a vintage clothing phase in the 1980s (it was a thing before it was a thing) and got to wear a lot of old clothing, from the 1920s all the way up to the 1970s, and those Nixon jackets were everywhere. I can't remember what they were called, but when you wore them, there was a military and sporty aesthetic involved. The only thing I don't like about those jackets is that every time you sit down or stand up from a seated position, the versions of that jacket with an elastic waistband tend to bunch up and you have to adjust the jacket. I can't tell if Nixon's has the elastic or not. Viriditas (talk) 19:48, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Cultural expectations are very powerful, much more so than mere laws. Not only does one feel pressure from one's peers to conform, and expect their disapproval if one were to break a cultural norm, one absorbs them at a subconscious level and feels internally uncomfortable at breaking them.
I (born in the 1950s) was brought up in a culture (the UK) which expected male office workers at all levels to wear a suit (waistcoat optional) at work, and personally felt uncomfortable not doing so up until the mid 1980s, after which I transitioned to wearing (usually) a sports jacket given the choice, but several subsequent employers required me to wear a suit until around 2010, and expectation of a suit at, for example, job interviews are still widespread.
One of the reasons one sees men of the pre-WW2 era wearing suits outdoors is (I suggest) that most of them probably didn't even possess any less 'formal' (by modern standards) wear designed specifically for wearing outdoors/in public. If one is acclimatised to always wearing a particular type of clothes, their feel becomes the norm rather than 'uncomfortable', and it might never even occur to one that another, unfamiliar style might be 'more comfortable.' One of the reasons that Lawrence of Arabia won the trust of the Arabs he worked with was that he, very unusually, adopted their (climate-appropriate) dress rather than sticking to English style clothing as almost all others did.
L. P. Hartley wrote "The past is a different country, they do things differently there." I wonder how many things you, Viriditas, do today unthinkingly that people in the 22nd century will find ridiculous or inexplicable? {The poster formerly known as 87.81.230.195} 94.1.211.243 (talk) 05:24, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
What I was getting at has more to do with the sense of Victorian morality and its influence on fashion. But you raise a good point about climate-appropriate dress. Why does it seem that form wins out over function until about the 1960s? Viriditas (talk) 09:47, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
We lack an article about Station (sociological concept). It used to hold a powerful psychological grip on people, rather like Face (sociological concept). In 1669, Samuel Pepys had a new suit with gold lace and a "coloured camelott tunique". He was "afeard to be seen in it", not because he'd look like an idiot, but "because it was too fine". He worries about it on May 1st, and again on May 2nd, and still doesn't dare wear it. About 150 years before that, a startup was a kind of shoe (not to be confused with booting). Wiktionary has an etymology based on its height up the leg: actually many examples were only ankle-high. But note that one of the quotes is from A Quip for an Upstart Courtier, and another meaning of the word is the same as upstart. These are shoes that a peasant maybe shouldn't wear, because they're slightly too nice, and above the peasant's station. Back in 1669, on May 10th, Pepys is vexed by remarks a friend makes about how fine his coach is, and this friend "advises me to avoid being noted for it, which I was vexed to hear taken notice of, it being what I feared and Povy told me of my gold-lace sleeves in the Park yesterday, which vexed me also", and so he resolves never to appear in the royal court with the sleeves, and in fact has them cut off. Presumably if he went around dressed above his station - tricky to calculate - he risks social shunning, and wouldn't get his dream job (for instance, starting the Royal Navy, becoming a member of parliament, and being president of the Royal Society). This is clearly a load of bullshit: such appointments shouldn't depend on wearing the right amount of gold lace. Round about 1800, men seem to finally grasp this, and we have the Great Male Renunciation, which is where the custom of wearing sober suits in muted colors begins. Note that they were functional and practical, at the time, compared to what went before. But men are still really stupidly worried about what their clothes are asserting about their station in life, even with all the gold ornaments taken off and the color subdued, and this continues for another hundred years, at least. On the one day he actually dared to wear his fancy suit, Sam Pepys records: "This day I first left off both [!] my waistcoats by day, and my waistcoat by night, it being very hot weather, so hot as to make me break out, here and there, in my hands, which vexes me to see, but is good for me." People thought suffering in hot weather was healthy? To quote the great sage Butt-Head, "I don't know, maybe they're stupid". Clothes denoted status because cloth was expensive, hence the ruff, a display of cramming as much cloth as physically possible around one's neck. And these status-through-amount-of-cloth-worn anxieties are very old, and go back to the social status obsessed Romans, and the voluminous toga. Card Zero (talk)10:28, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I think that you might get used to being hot because of lots of clothes. If you've been brought up wearing multiple woolen layers in the summer, then it would be normal, whereas modern children are used to running around in shorts and T-shirts.
The French Army in both World Wars required their soldiers to wear a heavy woollen greatcoat all year around, which would be a lot hotter than a suit.
In the 1980s I worked for a small software house in Cambridge (the original Cambridge, not a foreign imitation) and we had no dress code (and, of course, people were responsible, and dressed appropriately if they were meeting visitors etc). We were acquired by a large US-based company, and I was posted to a facility near the headquarters for a few months in 1990. I knew that their dress code was shirt and tie, and that wasn't a problem. My first week there, they told me about dress-down Friday, and I honestly thought they were pranking me, because it was such a self-evidently bonkers idea. Either the management cared about your comfort or they didn't: what was the point of casual dress one day a week? ColinFine (talk) 11:59, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
All of this forced discomfort because they don't want to appear working class? It's really hard to believe and wrap my mind around. "Let's be as uncomfortable as possible because other people might think we work for a living. I think even a lot of working-class people wore suits back in the day. Wearing a suit of that sort (even when it was uncomfortable or climatically inappropriate) was I think more just due to social conventions about what was respectable, than a way to demonstrate that you didn't work for a living. Iapetus (talk) 12:50, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, the newly discovered X-ray was used to treat leukemia. Doctors found that radiation therapy worked best against chronic leukemias, but it was useless against acute types. X-rays could provide months or even years of remission for people with chronic leukemia, but the disease would always return.
The first medications for leukemia grew out of the horrors of World War I, when it was discovered that the chemical weapon mustard gas suppressed the production of blood cells.
According to Chlormethine § History the effect of mustard gas on bone marrow and white blood cells had been known since the First World War. Further chemical and biological research led in 1935 to the discovery of a related family of chemicals with nitrogen substituting for sulfur was discovered – the "nitrogen mustards" and the synthesis of chlormethine. World War II research led to clinical trials for use in chemotherapy. The research could only be published in 1946. There is no contradiction, but the path leading from the chemical weapon of WWI to the drug that became available after WWII is not straight. --Lambiam18:38, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In The Waltons episode The Gift, Jason's best friend Seth was stricken with leukemia and had only a year to live. They mentioned there was no cure and did not mention treatments. 86.130.15.246 (talk) 22:37, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Last week I ordered a small item on ebay and the seller (through ebay) sent me a tracking link that forwards to a usps.com tracking page. The message said the item should show up in tracking within a few hours, but that was 4 or 5 days ago and it's still not there. The tracking number is 31 digits starting "00040106..." which doesn't look like a USPS tracking number to me. I think I have seen 4010... tracking numbers before, but don't remember where. USPS ones seem to usually start with 9 though maybe not always.
Anyway it seems like too many digits. USPS, UPS, DHL, and Fedex don't recognize the number, with or without the leading 0's removed. Does anyone have any idea? Ebay makes it quite difficult to contact the seller since I checked out as "guest" rather than logging in. It wants me to either create an account to contact the seller (I don't want to do that since I already have an account) or log into my existing one (I can't for now, because of computer issues that aren't relevant here). So I'm asking for any wisdom about either ebay or about tracking number formats.
I do know that some shippers are doing a thing where they send the package by DHL to a post office near the recipient, and USPS brings it to the person's door. That might be the case with this package. It has become quite expensive to send small items by normal USPS methods.
I don't know that Wikipedia can be of much specific help here, but you might try putting your tracking number into a "global tracker" that runs the search through multiple carriers. I often use 17track (can't link to it) for tracking international orders into Canada. It's also possible that your seller (or eBay itself) created a shipping label and tracking number for the item but the seller hasn't actually shipped it yet. You probably will have to contact the seller to resolve this, which means you probably will have to create a throwaway account if you don't want to use your existing account. Ivanvector (Talk/Edits) 20:47, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Thanks, I tried 17track and it said something about Pitney Bowes creating the label. Yeah it's probably not shipped yet. I am reluctant to make a throwaway ebay account because the guest checkout had my name/address/cc# which match the ones in my existing account, and the two accounts might trigger their security alerts. I can't login to my normal account right now because the computer I use for that is broken and I have to fix or replace it. If the thing is simply pending shipping, it's no big deal. It's a $4 computer part and I can just buy another one locally for now, and maybe eventually have a spare. I was sort of hoping for an answer like "4010... is a tracking number for XYZ and it means [whatever]" but that would have been too good. 2601:644:8581:75B0:0:0:0:6B00 (talk) 21:17, 25 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The way it works is the seller prints a label and a tracking number is created. It does not mean that the item has shipped. It may never ship. It only means a label was created. For small sellers, it is expected that they make a shipping trip once a week. So a few days wait is normal. It will register shipped when actually shipped. If the seller is in a foreign country, the item won't show as shipped until it is in the domestic shipping system. I've had packages from China get a tracking number right after I ordered, but aren't listed as shipped for months because it apparently was sent through a bulk service by boat that waits for a container to be full until it is loaded on a ship and then has to get unloaded and sorted before showing up in the shipping system. 68.187.174.155 (talk) 01:08, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Hello. Who are the designers behind Kuwait Airways' current livery and MEA's livery from 2008 to 2021? I had researched but I could not find any answer. The closest leads were a newsroom article that celebrated the delivery of MEA's first Airbus A330[1] and a Kuwait Times article that celebrated the delivery of Kuwait Airways' first Boeing 777-300ER[2]. Both of the articles mentioned that the delivered airplanes were the first ones of the 2 airlines with the aforementioned liveries; however, the articles did not reveal the designer(s)/design agency behind the liveries. I would appreciate if someone did the
research and/or knew the designers.FSlolhehe (talk) 21:47, 26 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Why most Eastern European countries collect data on race and ethnicity but most Western European countries do not? And of Western European countries, why however UK and Ireland collect such data, despite having similar immigrant populations to rest of Western Europe? Which is the reason for that? --40bus (talk) 20:05, 27 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
I have wondered that in recent times. I find odd that UK and Ireland collect, whereas other Western European countries do not? --40bus (talk) 06:07, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The French Republic is officially colorblind making collection of data on "race" and "ethnicity" (whatever those might mean) essentially impossible and in many contexts illegal. I've heard, but cannot confirm, that this is in large part due to the sorry history of the use of certain ethnic data during the second world war. 2A01:E0A:CBA:BC60:78A5:3BD8:C150:36D (talk) 14:32, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In 1941, french social security numbers had an extra digit added 1 and 2 [depending on sex] designate French citizens including Jews, 3 and 4 “Natives of Algeria and all French subject colonies, with the exception of Jews”, 5 and 6 “Indigenous Jews French subjects », 7 and 8 “foreigners including Jews”. Not our finest hour. 78.244.166.180 (talk) 00:47, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In the UK, race and ethnicity data is collected by institutions in order to demonstrate that the services they provide are available to, or used by, customers of varying origins in proportion to the incidence of those origins in the general population (or the target need's population). It is driven by anti-discrimination legislation. -- Verbarson talkedits18:55, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Does 12-hour clock have a written numeric form in any of continental European countries? Does it have a written numeric form in Finnish, Polish, Italian and Swedish, for example?
How do English speakers say leading zero of times such as 01:15?
2. Usually we do not when the context is clear, and if it isn't we would usually add ". . . a.m." or ". . . in the morning." In some contexts (for example, in relation to a train or similar timetable) we might say "Oh-one fifteen"; "Zero-one fifteen" would be understood but is not usual. In a militarily related context "One-fifteen Zulu" might be used (my father, a retired soldier, sometimes uses this convention when talking to me).
3. We do. The usual expression is "It is five o'clock"; "It's five" is also used in hasty or informal conversation when the context is clear. However, this only applies to 'on the hour' times; we normally say "It's five-thirty" or "It's half-past five, for example. {The poster formerly known as 87.81.230.195} 94.1.211.243 (talk) 07:15, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
3. The expression is not "Clock is five" for the same reason one does not say "Thermometer is 40 degrees". The measuring instrument is not the measurement. One can say, "The clock shows five in the morning."[47] --Lambiam14:42, 28 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
For the same reason, there's no such thing as a hot or cold temperature. Temperature is a pure number with no attributes. What's hot or cold is the thing you're measuring. -- Jack of Oz[pleasantries]21:06, 29 November 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Both John Mearscheimer and Jeffrey Sachs have said that Viktor Yanukovych was overthtrown by the US.
I browsed the Viktor Yanukovych article and a few related articles, but I could not see any support for this.
Did I miss something?
Star Lord - 星爵 (talk) 15:26, 2 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Had I found any reliable sources, I would not have had to ask here.
I would like to add that both of them usually have good and reliable references in the books I have read, but neither of them have written any books written about this.
Star Lord - 星爵 (talk) 19:45, 2 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
So, one of them had better write a book about it, so I can get some reliable source. I have read several reliable sources that ChatGPT claims to support the thesis with good references, but I find the conclusion to weak to entertain. They mostly seem to focus on individual US representtives supporting the demonstrators in Kiev in 2014, and discussion whom they preferred as a successor ,which indeed they did, but which seems a to me not to be enough for the full accusation. Star Lord - 星爵 (talk) 11:52, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In his 2014 essay "Why the Ukraine Crisis Is the West's Fault: The Liberal Delusions That Provoked Putin", Mearsheimer wrote,
Although the full extent of U.S. involvement has not yet come to light, it is clear that Washington backed the coup. Nuland and Republican Senator John McCain participated in antigovernment demonstrations, and Geoffrey Pyatt, the U.S. ambassador to Ukraine, proclaimed after Yanukovych's toppling that it was "a day for the history books." As a leaked telephone recording revealed, Nuland had advocated regime change and wanted the Ukrainian politician Arseniy Yatsenyuk to become prime minister in the new government, which he did. No wonder Russians of all persuasions think the West played a role in Yanukovych's ouster.[48]
This does not (IMO) fit the qualification of a claim of Yanukovych being overthrown by the US, but at best being overthrown with approval by the West and moral support from some US politicians. What are the sources that claim that Mearsheimer claimed something substantially stronger than the quoted passage? What do they state, exactly? --Lambiam16:25, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Bugs, since this is coming from JSTOR it's presumably an academic article. In academic parlance "liberal" does not mean "center-left relative to the Overton window of United States politics". It means liberalism in the broad sense, which covers pretty much the entire US political spectrum prior to Trump, certainly everyone from Reagan to Sanders. --Trovatore (talk) 20:22, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Normally, when you need to pass gas in a public place, you excuse yourself and exit the room. What if you're somewhere where you can't leave spontaneously, like halfway during an interview? TWOrantulaTM (enter the web) 03:18, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Plan ahead. Arrive early. Use the restroom. Check yourself in the mirror. Use the restroom again just in case. Clean your teeth. Fix your hair. Check all your buttons and zippers. Then, start the interview. Overall, it looks much better than being the guy who comes running in at the last second. But, if you have to fart and absolutely cannot help it, you simply do it and politely appologize. Nobody is perfect. Giving a common fault to interviewers is better than letting them dig for weird faults. In the end, it makes you memorable. Nobody will forget the guy who let a big one rip in the middle of an interview. 12.116.29.106 (talk) 16:45, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
It's somewhat subjective, but essentially it's a pot taken on with safety in mind: an attempted pot which, if missed, will leave no easy pot for one's opponent. It's quite common at the start of frames, when a player breaks off and leaves a long red to a corner pocket. Instead of committing fully to the pot, the player could play it in such a way that the cue ball will return to the baulk end and be left safe behind the baulk colours. It's defined at Glossary of cue sports terms#S under "shot for nothing", its alternative name. Hassocks5489 (Floreat Hova!)11:24, 3 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
In Europe, nearly all floorboards and general-purpose wood sold in DIY stores is spruce, mostly Norwegian spruce or Sitka spruce - it's known in the timber trade as "white deal", although actually a very pale yellow colour. Scots pine or "red deal" is sometimes also used and can be distinguished by its prominent grain and darker colour (pine kitchen furniture was popular in the 1980s). Larch is used for fence panels, pallets and other purposes where a smooth finish is not required. Alansplodge (talk) 21:30, 4 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Why rebassed songs like this one involves replacing bass from original with a "new" one (essentially applying a highpass filter on original signal), instead of encoding the rebassed part into the LFE channel and keeping the original two channels intact (essentially making it a 2.1 stereo)? By 2.1 stereo, I mean 3 separate channels (first two are left and right channels respectively with the last one is dedicated LFE channel). 2001:448A:3070:D641:A0A3:AF2:596E:8A96 (talk) 00:28, 5 December 2024 (UTC)[reply]
Resolved
CiaPan (talk) 07:24, 26 November 2024 (UTC)
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