Classifiaction Practice Test

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Most human-infecting viruses are maintained in the human population only. However, a zoonosis is a
disease that is transmitted from other vertebrates to humans, at least sporadically, without requiring viral
mutation. Which of the following is the best example of a zoonosis?
a. rabies
b. herpesvirus
c. smallpox
d. HIV
e. hepatitis virus

____ 2. Which of the following statements describes the lysogenic cycle of lambda () phage?
a. After infection, the viral genes immediately turn the host cell into a lambda-producing
factory, and the host cell then lyses.
b. Most of the prophage genes are activated by the product of a particular prophage gene.
c. The phage genome replicates along with the host genome.
d. Certain environmental triggers can cause the phage to exit the host genome, switching
from the lytic to the lysogenic.
e. The phage DNA is incorporated by crossing over into any nonspecific site on the host
cell's DNA.

Refer to the treatments listed below to answer the following questions.

You isolate an infectious substance that is capable of causing disease in plants, but you do not know whether
the infectious agent is a bacterium, virus, viroid, or prion. You have four methods at your disposal that you
can use to analyze the substance in order to determine the nature of the infectious agent.

I. treating the substance with nucleases that destroy all nucleic acids and then
determining whether it is still infectious
II. filtering the substance to remove all elements smaller than what can be easily seen
under a light microscope
III. culturing the substance by itself on nutritive medium, away from any plant cells
IV. treating the sample with proteases that digest all proteins and then determining
whether it is still infectious

____ 3. Which treatment could definitively determine whether or not the component is a viroid?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. first II and then III

____ 4. If, someday, an archaean cell is discovered whose SSU-rRNA sequence is more similar to that of humans
than the sequence of mouse SSU-rRNA is to that of humans, the best explanation for this apparent
discrepancy would be
a. homology.
b. homoplasy.
c. common ancestry.
d. retro-evolution by humans.
e. co-evolution of humans and that archaean.
____ 5. The best classification system is that which most closely
a. unites organisms that possess similar morphologies.
b. conforms to traditional, Linnaean taxonomic practices.
c. reflects evolutionary history.
d. corroborates the classification scheme in use at the time of Charles Darwin.
e. reflects the basic separation of prokaryotes from eukaryotes.

____6. The common ancestors of birds and mammals were very early (stem) reptiles, which almost certainly
possessed 3-chambered hearts (2 atria, 1 ventricle). Birds and mammals, however, are alike in having 4-chambered
hearts (2 atria, 2 ventricles). The 4-chambered hearts of birds and mammals are best described as
a. structural homologies.
b. vestiges.
c. homoplasies.
d. the result of shared ancestry.
e. molecular homologies.

Figure 26.1

____ 7. A common ancestor for both species C and E could be at position number
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
e. 5.

____ 8. If this evolutionary tree is an accurate depiction of relatedness, then which of the following should be
correct?
1. The entire tree is based on maximum parsimony.
2. If all species depicted here make up a taxon, this taxon is monophyletic.
3. The last common ancestor of species B and C occurred more recently than the last
common ancestor of species D and E.
4. Species A is the direct ancestor of both species B and species C.
5. The species present at position 3 is ancestral to C, D, and E.

a. 2 and 5
b. 1 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 2, 3, and 4
e. 1, 2, and 3

____ 9. A taxon, all of whose members have the same common ancestor, is
a. paraphyletic.
b. polyphyletic.
c. monophyletic.
d. paraphyletic, polyphyletic, and monophyletic.
e. both paraphyletic and monophyletic.

____ 10. The term that is most appropriately associated with clade is
a. paraphyletic.
b. polyphyletic.
c. monophyletic.

A researcher compared the nucleotide sequences of a homologous gene from five different species of
mammals with the homologous human gene. The sequence homology between each species' version of the
gene and the human gene is presented as a percentage of similarity.

Figure 26.3

____ 11. What conclusion can be drawn validly from these data?
a. Humans and other primates evolved from rabbits within the past 10 million years.
b. Most of the genes of other organisms are paralogous to human genes, or with chimpanzee
genes.
c. Among the organisms listed, humans shared a common ancestor most recently with
chimpanzees.
d. Humans evolved from chimpanzees somewhere in Africa within the last 6 million years.

____ 12. A researcher wants to determine the genetic relatedness of several breeds of dog (Canis familiaris). The
researcher should compare homologous sequences of ____ that are known to be ____.
a. carbohydrates; poorly conserved
b. fatty acids; highly conserved
c. lipids; poorly conserved
d. proteins or nucleic acids; poorly conserved
e. amino acids; highly conserved

____ 13. Species that are not closely related and that do not share many anatomical similarities can still be placed
together on the same phylogenetic tree by comparing their
a. plasmids.
b. chloroplast genomes.
c. mitochondrial genomes.
d. homologous genes that are poorly conserved.
e. homologous genes that are highly conserved.
____ 14. The lakes of northern Minnesota are home to many similar species of damselflies of the genus Enallagma
that have apparently undergone speciation from ancestral stock since the last glacial retreat about 10,000
years ago. Sequencing which of the following would probably be most useful in sorting out evolutionary
relationships among these closely related species?
a. nuclear DNA
b. mitochondrial DNA
c. small nuclear RNA
d. ribosomal RNA
e. amino acids in proteins

____ 15. What kind of evidence has recently made it necessary to assign the prokaryotes to either of two different
domains, rather than assigning all prokaryotes to the same kingdom?
a. molecular
b. behavioral
c. nutritional
d. anatomical
e. ecological

____ 16. What important criterion was used in the late 1960s to distinguish between the three multicellular
eukaryotic kingdoms of the five-kingdom classification system?
a. the number of cells present in individual organisms
b. the geological stratum in which fossils first appear
c. the nutritional modes they employ
d. the biogeographic province where each first appears
e. the features of their embryos

____ 17. Which eukaryotic kingdom includes members that are the result of endosymbioses that included an ancient
proteobacterium and an ancient cyanobacterium?
a. Plantae
b. Fungi
c. Animalia
d. Protista
e. Monera

The following questions refer to this phylogenetic tree, depicting the origins of life and of the three domains.
Horizontal lines indicate instances of gene or genome transfer.
____ 18. Which of these processes can be included among those responsible for the horizontal components of this
phylogeny?
a. endosymbiosis
b. mitosis
c. binary fission
d. point mutations
e. S phase of the cell cycle

____ 19. Though plants, fungi, and prokaryotes all have cell walls, we place them in different taxa. Which of these
observations comes closest to explaining the basis for placing these organisms in different taxa, well before
relevant data from molecular systematics became available?
a. Some closely resemble animals, which lack cell walls.
b. Their cell walls are composed of very different biochemicals.
c. Some have cell walls only for support.
d. Some have cell walls only for protection from herbivores.
e. Some have cell walls only to control osmotic balance.

____ 20. Which statement about bacterial cell walls is false?

a. Bacterial cell walls differ in molecular composition from plant cell walls.
b. Cell walls prevent cells from bursting in hypotonic environments.
c. Cell walls prevent cells from dying in hypertonic conditions.
d. Bacterial cell walls are similar in function to the cell walls of many protists, fungi, and
plants.
e. Cell walls provide the cell with a degree of physical protection from the environment.
____ 21. Which two structures play direct roles in permitting bacteria to adhere to each other, or to other surfaces?
1. capsules
2. endospores
3. fimbriae
4. plasmids
5. flagella
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 and 4
e. 3 and 5

The following questions refer to structures found in a gram-positive prokaryotic cell.

____ 22. Which of the following requires ATP to function, and permits some species to respond to taxes (plural of
taxis)?
a. endospore
b. sex pilus
c. flagellum
d. cell wall
e. capsule

____ 23. If this structure connects the cytoplasm of two bacteria, one of these cells may gain new genetic material:
a. endospore
b. sex pilus
c. flagellum
d. cell wall
e. capsule

The following questions refer to Figure 27.1 below, which is the same as Figure 27.10 in the textbook.

In this 8-year experiment, 12 populations of E. coli, each begun from a single cell, were grown in low-glucose
conditions for 20,000 generations. Each culture was introduced to fresh growth medium every 24 hours.
Occasionally, samples were removed from the populations, and their fitness in low-glucose conditions was
tested against that of members sampled from the ancestral (common ancestor) E. coli population.

Figure 27.1

____ 24. Which term best describes what has occurred among the experimental populations of cells over this 8-year
period?
a. microevolution
b. speciation
c. adaptive radiation
d. sexual selection
e. stabilizing selection

____ 25. If the vertical axis of Figure 27.1 refers to "Darwinian fitness," then which of these is the most valid and
accurate measure of fitness?
a. number of daughter cells produced per mother cell per generation
b. amount of ATP generated per cell per unit time
c. average swimming speed of cells through the growth medium
d. amount of glucose synthesized per unit time
e. number of generations per unit time
____ 26. Among the six statements below, which two best account for the results obtained by the researchers (see
Figure 27.1)?
1. Low-glucose conditions caused mutations that made individual E. coli cells better suited to these
conditions.
2. Daughter cells acquired the ability to tolerate low-glucose conditions as they received the enzymes and
membrane components that had been modified by their mother cell.
3. The initial E. coli population may have included some cells whose genes favored their survival in low-
glucose conditions–OR–such genetic variants arose by chance early in the experiment.
4. The first few generations of E. coli in low-glucose conditions responded to the challenge by increasing the
use of certain enzymes and ion pumps, while decreasing the use of others. This behavior was recorded in their
gene sequences, which were later transmitted to daughter cells.
5. From generation to generation, there was an increase in the proportion of the experimental populations
adapted to low-glucose conditions, because such bacteria produced relatively more offspring than did
ancestral bacteria under low-glucose conditions.
6. During each generation, individual cells evolved to increase their survival in low-glucose conditions.
a. 3 and 5
b. 1 and 5
c. 2 and 4
d. 1 and 6
e. 1 and 3

Figure 27.2 depicts changes to the amount of DNA present in a recipient cell that is engaged in conjugation
with an Hfr cell. Hfr-cell DNA begins entering the recipient cell at Time A. Assume that reciprocal crossing-
over occurs (i.e., a fragment of the recipient's chromosome is exchanged for a homologous fragment from the
Hfr cell's DNA). Use Figure 27.2 to answer the following questions.

Figure 27.2

____ 27. What is occurring at Time C that is decreasing the DNA content?
a. crossing-over
b. cytokinesis
c. meiosis
d. degradation of DNA that was not retained in the recipient's chromosome
e. reversal of the direction of conjugation
Match the numbered terms to the descriptions that follow. For each item, choose all appropriate terms, but
only appropriate terms.

1. autotroph
2. heterotroph
3. phototroph
4. chemotroph

____ 28. an organism that relies on photons to excite electrons within its membranes
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
e. 1, 3, and 4

____ 29. Which of the following are responsible for many human diseases?
a. photoautotrophs
b. photoheterotrophs
c. chemoautotrophs
d. chemoheterotrophs that perform decomposition
e. parasitic chemoheterotrophs

____ 30. Which of the following are responsible for high levels of O2 in Earth's atmosphere?
a. photoautotrophs
b. photoheterotrophs
c. chemoautotrophs
d. chemoheterotrophs that perform decomposition
e. parasitic chemoheterotrophs

____ 31. Modes of obtaining nutrients, used by at least some bacteria, include all of the following except
a. chemoautotrophy.
b. photoautotrophy.
c. heteroautotrophy.
d. chemoheterotrophy.
e. photoheterotrophy.

____ 32. Only certain prokaryotes can perform nitrogen fixation, but nitrogen-fixing prokaryotes are not known to
live inside animals. Thus, how do animals gain access to fixed nitrogen?
a. They may breathe it in from air that has experienced lightning discharges.
b. They may ingest nitrogen fixers.
c. They may ingest plants that harbor nitrogen fixers, or plants that absorbed fixed nitrogen
from the soil.
d. They may ingest other animals that had done either (B) or (C) above.
e. Answers (B), (C), and (D) above are all possible.

____ 33. Carl Woese and collaborators identified two major branches of prokaryotic evolution. What was the basis
for dividing prokaryotes into two domains?
a. microscopic examination of staining characteristics of the cell wall
b. metabolic characteristics such as the production of methane gas
c. metabolic characteristics such as chemoautotrophy and photosynthesis
d. genetic characteristics such as ribosomal RNA sequences
e. ecological characteristics such as the ability to survive in extreme environments
____ 34. How can prokaryotes be considered to be more successful on Earth than humans?
a. Prokaryotes are much more numerous and have more biomass.
b. Prokaryotes occupy more diverse habitats.
c. Prokaryotes are more diverse in metabolism.
d. Only B and C are correct.
e. A, B, and C are correct.

____ 35. Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system by frequently changing their
surface proteins?
1. Plasmodium
2. Trichomonas
3. Paramecium
4. Trypanosoma
5. Entamoeba
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
e. 4 and 5

____ 36. Which statement regarding resistance is false?

a. Many of the oomycetes that cause potato late blight have become resistant to pesticides.
b. Many of the mosquitoes that transmit malaria to humans have become resistant to
pesticides.
c. Many of the malarial parasites have become resistant to antimalarial drugs.
d. Many humans have become resistant to antimalarial drugs.
e. Trichomonas vaginalis is resistant to the normal acidity of the human vagina.
____ 37. Which of these statements about dinoflagellates is false?
a. They possess two flagella.
b. Some cause red tides.
c. Their walls are composed of cellulose plates.
d. Many types contain chlorophyll.
e. Their dead cells accumulate on the seafloor, and are mined to serve as a filtering material.

____ 38. You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using many
short extensions of the cytoplasm, each featuring the 9+2 filament pattern. It has well-developed organelles
and three nuclei, one large and two small. This organism is most likely to be a member of which group?
a. foraminiferans
b. radiolarians
c. ciliates
d. kinetoplastids
e. slime molds

____ 39. Why is the filamentous morphology of the water molds considered a case of convergent evolution with the
hyphae (threads) of fungi?
a. Fungi are closely related to the water molds.
b. Body shape reflects ancestor-descendant relationships among organisms.
c. In both cases, filamentous shape is an adaptation for the absorptive nutritional mode of a
decomposer.
d. Filamentous body shape is evolutionarily ancestral for all eukaryotes.
e. Both A and B are correct.

The following questions refer to the description and Table 28.1 below.

Diatoms are encased in Petri-plate-like cases (valves) made of translucent hydrated silica whose thickness can
be varied. The material used to store excess calories can also be varied. At certain times, diatoms store excess
calories in the form of the liquid polysaccharide, laminarin, and at other times, as oil. Below are data
concerning the density (specific gravity) of various components of diatoms, and of their environment.

Table 28.1: Specific Gravities of Materials Relevant to Diatoms

Material Specific Gravity (kg/m3)

Pure water 1000
Seawater 1026
Hydrated silica 2250
Liquid laminarin 1500
Diatom oil 910

____ 40. Judging from Table 28.1 and given that water's density and, consequently, its buoyancy decrease at warmer
temperatures, in which environment should diatoms (and other suspended particles) sink most slowly?
a. cold freshwater
b. warm freshwater
c. cold seawater
d. warm seawater
e. warm brackish water

____ 41. A snail-like, coiled, porous test (shell) of calcium carbonate is characteristic of which group?
a. diatoms
b. foraminiferans
c. radiolarians
d. gymnamoebas
e. ciliates

____ 42. The largest seaweeds belong to which group?

a. red algae
b. green algae
c. brown algae
d. golden algae

____ 43. The best evidence for not classifying the slime molds as fungi comes from slime molds'
a. DNA sequences.
b. nutritional modes.
c. choice of habitats.
d. physical appearance.
e. reproductive methods.

You are given five test tubes, each containing an unknown protist, and your task is to read the description
below and match these five protists to the correct test tube.
In test tube 1, you observe an organism feeding. Your sketch of the organism looks very similar to Figure
28.1. When light, especially red and blue light, is shone on the tubes, oxygen bubbles accumulate on the
inside of test tubes 2 and 3. Chemical analysis of test tube 3 indicates the presence of substantial amounts of
silica. Chemical analysis of test tube 2 indicates the presence of a chemical that is toxic to fish and humans.
Microscopic analysis of organisms in tubes 2, 4, and 5 reveals the presence of permanent, membrane-bounded
sacs just under the plasma membrane. Microscopic analysis of organisms in tube 4 reveals the presence of an
apicoplast in each. Microscopic analysis of the contents in tube 5 reveals the presence of one large nucleus
and several small nuclei in each organism.

Figure 28.1

____ 44. Test tube 4 contains

a. Paramecium
b. Navicula (diatom)
c. Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate)
d. Entamoeba
e. Plasmodium

The following questions refer to the description below.

Healthy individuals of Paramecium bursaria contain photosynthetic algal endosymbionts of the genus
Chlorella. When within their hosts, the algae are referred to as zoochlorellae. In aquaria with light coming
from only one side, P. bursaria gathers at the well-lit side, whereas other species of Paramecium gather at the
opposite side. The zoochlorellae provide their hosts with glucose and oxygen, and P. bursaria provides its
zoochlorellae with protection and motility. P. bursaria can lose its zoochlorellae: (1) if kept in darkness, the
algae die, and (2) if prey items (mostly bacteria) are absent from its habitat, P. bursaria will digest its
zoochlorellae.

____ 45. Which term best describes the symbiotic relationship of well-fed P. bursaria to their zoochlorellae?
a. mutualistic
b. commensal
c. parasitic
d. predatory
e. pathogenic

____ 46. Which protists are in the same eukaryotic "supergroup" as land plants?
a. green algae
b. dinoflagellates
c. red algae
d. brown algae
e. A and C are both correct

____ 47. In life cycles with an alternation of generations, multicellular haploid forms alternate with
a. unicellular haploid forms.
b. unicellular diploid forms.
c. multicellular haploid forms.
d. multicellular diploid forms.
e. multicellular polyploid forms.
____ 48. The following are common to both charophytes and land plants except
a. sporopollenin.
b. lignin.
c. chlorophyll a.
d. cellulose.
e. chlorophyll b.

____ 49. In animal cells and in the meristem cells of land plants, the nuclear envelope disintegrates during mitosis.
This disintegration does not occur in the cells of most protists and fungi. According to our current knowledge
of plant evolution, which group of organisms should feature mitosis most similar to that of land plants?
a. unicellular green algae
b. cyanobacteria
c. charophytes
d. red algae
e. multicellular green algae

Choose the adaptation below that best meets each particular challenge for life on land.

____ 50. protection from predators

a. tracheids and phloem
b. secondary compounds
c. cuticle
d. alternation of generations

____ 51. Plant spores are produced directly by

a. sporophytes.
b. gametes.
c. gametophytes.
d. gametangia.
e. seeds.

____ 52. A botanist discovers a new species of plant in a tropical rain forest. After observing its anatomy and life
cycle, the following characteristics are noted: flagellated sperm, xylem with tracheids, separate
gametophyte and sporophyte generations with the sporophyte dominant, and no seeds. This plant is
probably most closely related to
a. mosses.
b. charophytes.
c. ferns.
d. gymnosperms.
e. flowering plants.

____ 53. Working from deep geologic strata toward shallow geologic strata, what is the sequence in which fossils of
these groups should make their first appearance?
1. charophytes
2. single-celled green algae
3. hornworts
4. plants with a dominant sporophyte
a. 1  3  2  4
b. 3  1  2  4
c. 2  1  3  4
d. 3  2  4  1
e. 2  4  1  3

____ 54. During glacial periods in the early evolution of land plants, which of these is a beneficial adaptation
regarding the number of stomata per unit surface area, and what accounts for it?
a. increased numbers of stomata, to maximize absorption of increasing levels of atmospheric

b. increased numbers of stomata, to maximize ability to absorb ever-decreasing levels of

atmospheric
c. decreased numbers of stomata, to retain produced by the chloroplasts
d. decreased numbers of stomata, to maximize absorption of ever-decreasing levels of
atmospheric

____ 55. Which of the following is not evidence that charophytes are the closest algal relatives of plants?
a. similar sperm structure
b. similarities in chloroplast shape
c. similarities in cell wall formation during cell division
d. genetic similarities in chloroplasts
e. similarities in proteins that synthesize cellulose

____ 56. Which of the following do all fungi have in common?

a. meiosis in basidia
b. coenocytic hyphae
c. sexual life cycle
d. absorption of nutrients
e. symbioses with algae

____ 57. Which of the following vary tremendously from each other in morphology and belong to several fungal
phyla?
a. lichens
b. ascomycetes
c. club fungi
d. arbuscular mycorrhizae
e. ergot fungi

____ 58. Which of the following characteristics is shared by both chytrids and other kinds of fungi?
a. presence of flagella
b. zoospores
c. autotrophic mode of nutrition
d. cell walls of cellulose
e. nucleotide sequences of several genes

____ 59. The multicellular condition of animals and fungi seems to have arisen
a. due to common ancestry.
b. by convergent evolution.
c. by inheritance of acquired traits.
d. by natural means, and is a homology.
e. by serial endosymbioses.

____ 60. You are given an organism to identify. It has a fruiting body that contains many structures with eight haploid
spores lined up in a row. What kind of a fungus is this?
a. zygomycete
b. ascomycete
c. deuteromycete
d. chytrid
e. basidiomycete

____ 61. Which has the least affiliation with all of the others?
a. Glomeromycota
b. mycorrhizae
c. lichens
d. arbuscules
e. mutualistic fungi

____ 62. In which phylum are mushrooms and toadstools classified?

a. Basidiomycota
b. Ascomycota
c. Deuteromycota
d. Zygomycota
e. Chytridiomycota

____ 63. If haustoria from the fungal partner were to appear within the photosynthetic partner of a lichen, and if the
growth rate of the photosynthetic partner consequently slowed substantially, then this would support the
claim that
a. algae and cyanobacteria are autotrophic.
b. lichens are not purely mutualistic relationships.
c. algae require maximal contact with the fungal partner in order to grow at optimal rates.
d. fungi get all of the nutrition they need via the "leakiness" of photosynthetic partners.
e. soredia are asexual reproductive structures combining both the fungal and photosynthetic
partners.
____ 64. The last common ancestor of all animals was probably a
a. unicellular chytrid.
b. unicellular yeast.
c. plant.
d. multicellular fungus.
e. flagellated protist.

____ 66. Whatever its ultimate cause(s), the Cambrian explosion is a prime example of
a. mass extinction.
b. evolutionary stasis.
c. adaptive radiation.
d. A and B only
e. A, B, and C

____ 65. Arthropods invaded land about 100 million years before vertebrates did so. This most clearly implies that
a. arthropods evolved before vertebrates did.
b. extant terrestrial arthropods are better adapted to terrestrial life than are extant terrestrial
vertebrates.
c. ancestral arthropods must have been poorly adapted to aquatic life, thus experienced a
selective pressure to invade land.
d. vertebrates evolved from arthropods.
e. arthropods have had more time to co-evolve with land plants than have vertebrates.

____ 66. An obsolete taxon, the "Radiata," included all phyla whose adults had true radial symmetry. Today, the
"Radiata" is more correctly considered to be
1. a clade.
2. a grade.
3. monophyletic.
4. paraphyletic.
5. polyphyletic.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 2 and 5
e. 1, 2, and 3

____ 67. Soon after the coelom begins to form, a researcher injects a dye into the coelom of a deuterostome embryo.
Initially, the dye should be able to flow directly into the
a. blastopore.
b. blastocoel.
c. archenteron.
d. pseudocoelom.

____ 68. Organisms showing radial symmetry would likely

a. be good swimmers.
b. have rapid escape behavior.
c. move from place to place relatively slowly, if at all.
d. be able to fly.
e. have many fins.

____ 69. You have before you a living organism, which you examine carefully. Which of the following should convince
you that the organism is acoelomate?
a. It responds to food by moving toward it.
b. It is triploblastic.
c. It has bilateral symmetry.
d. It possesses sensory structures at its anterior end.
e. Muscular activity of its digestive system distorts the body wall.

____ 70. An animal that swims rapidly in search of prey that it captures using visual senses concentrated at its
anterior end is likely to be
a. bilaterally symmetrical and cephalized.
b. coelomate and a protostome.
c. eumetazoan and asymmetrical.
d. diploblastic and radially symmetrical.
e. heterotrophic and sessile.
____ 71. The blastopore is a structure that first becomes evident during
a. fertilization.
b. gastrulation.
c. the eight-cell stage of the embryo.
d. coelom formation.
e. cleavage.

____ 72. Which of the following organisms are deuterostomes?

a. molluscs
b. annelids
c. echinoderms
d. chordates
e. both C and D

The following eight questions refer to Figure 32.2A (morphological) and Figure 32.2B (molecular)
phylogenetic trees of the animal kingdom.

Figure 32.2A: Morphological Phylogeny

Figure 32.2B: Molecular Phylogeny

____ 73. In the traditional phylogeny (Fig. 32.2A), the sponges are considered to be a clade, whereas in the molecular
phylogeny (Fig. 32.2B), sponges
a. do not all have a common ancestor that is unique only to them.
b. are polyphyletic.
c. called the Calcarea should actually be included among the eumetazoa.
d. called the Silicea are the sole organisms that should be properly called "sponges."
e. called the Calcarea diverged from the lineage that eventually produced the eumetazoa
earlier than did the Silicea.
____ 74. Which of the following was the least likely factor causing the Cambrian explosion?
a. the emergence of predator-prey relationships between animals
b. the accumulation of diverse adaptations, such as shells and different modes of locomotion
c. the movement of animals onto land
d. the evolution of Hox genes that controlled development
e. the accumulation of sufficient atmospheric oxygen to support the more active metabolism
of mobile animals
____ 75. The distinction between sponges and other animal phyla is based mainly on the absence versus the
presence of
a. a body cavity.
b. a complete digestive tract.
c. a circulatory system.
d. true tissues.
e. mesoderm.