NEET (Dropper)

MRNY/101 CLASS TEST-01 Phase-IV

DURATION: 200 Minutes DATE: 27/08/2023 [Link]: 720

Code-C
Topic Covered
Physics : Basic Maths & Calculus, Vector, Units & Dimension, Motion in straight Line
Chemistry : Some basic concept of chemistry, Redox reactions
Botany : Cell- The unit of life, cell cycle and cell division, The living world
Zoology : Breathing & Exchange of gases, Body fluids & circulation, Excretory products & their
elimination
GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four section in the Question paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-1 (Physics),
Section - II (Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section-IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each
Subject and each subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all
compulsory) and Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
Physics
Section-A 6. Ball is projected vertically upward with speed
Attempt All Questions Compulsory in this section. 𝑢 and its speed is 20 m/s at half of the
1. The correct statement among the following maximum height, then find maximum height.
is... (1) 10 m (2) 20 m
(1) When displacement is zero, distance travelled (3) 30 m (4) 40 m
is not zero. 7. A ball is dropped from a height of 125 m and
(2) When displacement is zero, distance travelled after 3 sec of its fall, it is stopped for a
may be zero. moment and released instantaneously, then
(3) When distance is zero, displacement is not find total time of flight.
zero. (1) 3 (2) 4
(4) Distance travelled and displacement are (3) 5 (4) 7
always equal. 8. Ball is projected up and constant air
2. The numerical ratio of displacement to 2
resistance of 4 m/s is acting on it, then find
distance is... 𝑡up
(1) always less than 1 𝑡down
.
(2) always greater than 1 2 3
(3) always equal to 1 (1) (2)
7 7
(4) may be less than 1 or equal to 1
4 5
3. A car travels from Delhi to Jaipur with speed (3) (4)
7 7
30 km/h, and it returns along the same path
9. A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers
with speed 60 km/h. Calculate average speed
distances h , h and h in the first 10 seconds,
of the car. 1 2 3
(1) 45 km/h (2) 50 km/h the next 10 seconds and the next 10 seconds
(3) 40 km/h (4) 55 km/h respectively. The relation between h , h , and
1 2
4. Object is projected vertically upward with 70
h is:
m/s then find distance travelled in last sec of 3

its upward journey. (1) h = h = h

1 2 3
(1) 7 m (2) 5 m (2) h = 2h = 3h
1 2 3
(3) 12 m (4) 14 m
h2 h3
5. Object is projected vertically upward and it is (3) h1 = =
3 5
at the same height at 𝑡 = 7 sec and 𝑡 = 13
(4) h = 3h and h = 3h
sec then find maximum height. 2 1 3 2
(1) 405 m 10. The vector sum of the forces of 9N and 7N can
(2) 500 m be
(3) 505 m (1) 1N (2) 8N
(4) None of these (3) 18N (4) 20N

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11. The vector 5iˆ + 2 ˆj − kˆ is perpendicular to the 18. In an experiment, four quantities 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 and d
are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3%
vector 3iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ for =
and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as
(1) 1 (2) 4.7
follows P= a3b2/cd, percentage error in P is
(3) 6.3 (4) 8.5
1 (1) 7% (2) 4%
12.  5dx will be (3) 14% (4) 10%
−2
1 1 1
(1) 15 (2) 16 19. The sum of the series 1 + + + + ..... is
2 4 8
(3) 17 (4) 18
13. Which of the following combinations of three 1 3
(1) (2)
dimensionally different physical quantities 2 2
𝑃, 𝑄, 𝑅 can never be a meaningful quantity? 2
(3) 2 (4)
(1) 𝑃𝑄 − 𝑅 (2) 𝑃𝑄
𝑅
3
𝑃−𝑄 𝑃𝑅−𝑄2 20. The slope of straight line 3y = 3x + 5;
(3) (4)
𝑅 𝑄𝑅

14. If velocity v varies with time(t) as v = 2t + 3, (1) 3 (2) 1

then the plot between v and t is best represented 3 5
(3) (4)
by: 2 2
21. When 92.63 is divided by 2.63, the result taking
significant figures into account will be
(1) 35.22 (2) 35.220
(1) (2) (3) 35.2 (4) 35.2205
22. A car starts towards east at 7 m/s and an
acceleration 2 m/s2 starts acting on it towards
(3) (4) west. Distance covered by the car in 4th second
15. log 25 + log 4 – log 5 is equal to of its motion is
(1) log 20 (2) log 25 (1) Zero (2) 0.25 m
(3) log 15 (4) log 10 (3) 0.5 m (4) 1 m
16. The equation of straight line having slope 5 and
23. Water drops fall at regular time interval from a
y intercept of -2 will be:
tap 5 m high. When first drop is about to hit the
(1) y = 5 x + 2 (2) y = 5 x − 2
ground, the third drop is starting off. The height
(3) y = −5 x − 2 (4) y = −5 x + 2
of second drop from the ground is
17. Two vectors of equal magnitude have a resultant
5 5
equal to either of them in magnitude. The angle (1) m (2) m
4 2
between them is -
(1) 60° (2) 90° 15
(3) m (4) 3 m
(3) 105° (4) 120° 4

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24. A body starts from rest with an acceleration 𝑎1 . 31. If rate of change of radius is 2 m/s, then find rate
After two seconds another body starts from rest 1
with acceleration 𝑎2 . If they travel equal of change of area of circle, when radius is m.
π
distances in fifth second of the first body then, the
(1) 3 m2/s (2) 4 m2/s
ratio 𝑎1 : 𝑎2 is
(1) 9 : 5 (2) 5 : 9 (3) 2 m2/s (4) 3 m2/s
(3) 5 : 7 (4) 7 : 9 32. Statement I : The sum of two vectors can be
dx
25. If t = x + 4, then at t = 4 is- zero.
dt
Statement II : The vector cancel each other,
(1) 4 (2) 0
(3) 8 (4) 16 when they are equal and opposite.
26. The vector component of vector (1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true
A = 3iˆ + 4ˆj + 5kˆ along vector B = ˆi + ˆj + kˆ is and statement 2 is correct explanation of
(1) 2iˆ + 2ˆj + 2kˆ (2) 3iˆ + 3jˆ + 3kˆ statement 1.
(3) 4(iˆ + ˆj + k)
ˆ (4) 5iˆ + 5ˆj + 5kˆ (2) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true
27. The vectors A and B are such that but statement 2 is not the correct
A + B = A − B . The angle between the two explanation of statement 1.

vectors is: (3) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.

(1) 45° (2) 60° (4) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
(3) 90° (4) 75° 33. Assertion (A): If the displacement of the body
28. If the error in the measurement of radius of
is zero, the distance covered by it may not be
circle is 4%, then calculate the error in
measurement of area of circle. zero.
(1) 5 % (2) 8 % Reason (R): displacement is a vector quantity
(3) 3 % (4) 6 % and distance is a scalar quantity.
29. If a vector 𝑃⃗ makes angle ,  and  with the X, (1) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True;
Y, and Z axes respectively, then
Reason (R) is a correct explanation for
sin2 + sin2 + sin2, =
(1) 0 (2) 1 Assertion (A)
(3) 2 (4) 3 (2) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True;
30. Find the differentiation of y w.r.t. x, Reason (R) is not a correct explanation for
if y = 4ln x + cos x
Assertion (A)
4
(1) + sin x (2) 4 ln x – sin x (3) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is False.
x
4 4
(4) Assertion (A) is False, Reason (R) is True.
(3) − sin x (4) + cos x
x x
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34. Assertion (A): A body may be accelerated even 
2

 ( sin  + cos  ) d
when it is moving with constant speed. 39.
Reason (R): When direction of motion of the 0

body is changing then body must have (1) 1 (2) 0

acceleration. (3) 2 (4) –1
(1) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True; 40. How many minimum number of non-coplanar
Reason (R) is a correct explanation for vectors having different magnitude can be added
Assertion (A) to give zero resultant ?
(2) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True; (1) 2 (2) 3
Reason (R) is not a correct explanation for (3) 4 (4) 5
Assertion (A) 41. The greatest and least resultant of two forces
(3) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is False. acting at a point is 10N and 6N, respectively. If
(4) Assertion (A) is False, Reason (R) is True. each force is increased by 3N, find the resultant
35. Assertion (A): An object can have constant of new forces when acting at a point at an angle
speed but variable velocity. of 90º with each other.
Reason (R): Speed is a scalar but velocity is a
(1) 142 N (2) 140 N
vector-quantity.
(1) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True; (3) 146 N (4) 144 N
Reason (R) is a correct explanation for 42. The sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector. The
Assertion (A) difference of those unit vectors is of magnitude
(2) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True; (1) 0 (2) 2
Reason (R) is not a correct explanation for (3) 2 3 (4) 3
Assertion (A) 43. The percentage error in the measurement of
(3) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is False. mass and speed are 1% and 2% respectively.
(4) Assertion (A) is False, Reason (R) is True. What is the percentage error in kinetic energy?
Section B (1) 5% (2) 2.5%
Attempt any 10 questions in this section. (3) 3% (4) 1.5%
36. Value of sin (37°) cos (37°) is 44. Value of 24.36 + 0.0623 + 256.2 will be
(A) 9/25 (B) 12/25 (considering rules of significant digits)
(C) 16/25 (D) 3/5 (1) 280.6 (2) 280.62
37. If x + y = 50, then the maximum value of xy is (3) 280.622 (4) 280.6224
(A) 400 (B) 600 45. The random error in the arithmetic mean of 100
(C) 625 (D) None of these observations is x; then random error in the

2 arithmetic mean of 500 observations would be
38. Value of  cos 3t dt is:
(1) 5x (2)
1
x
0
5
(1) 2/3 (2) –1/3 1
(3) –2/3 (4) 1/3 (3) 2x (4) x
2
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46. A vernier calliper has 20 divisions on the vernier 49. An experiment measures quantities x, y, z and
scale, which coincide with 19 on the main scale. xy 2
The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The then t is calculated from the data as t = . If
z3
main scale divisions are of percentage errors in x, y and z are respectively
(1) 0.5 mm (2) 1 mm 1%, 3%, 2%, then percentage error in t is:
1 (1) 10 % (2) 4 %
(3) 2 mm (4) mm
4 (3) 7 % (4) 13 %
47. If a and b are two physical quantities having 50. Two resistors R1 (24 ± 0.5) Ω and R2 (8 ± 0.3) Ω
different dimensions then which of the are joined in series. The equivalent resistance is
following can denote a new physical quantity? (1) 32 ± 0.33 Ω (2) 32 ± 0.8 Ω
(1) a + b (2) a – b (3) 32 ± 0.2 Ω (4) 32 ± 0.5 Ω
(3) a/b (4) ea/b
–1 –2
48. The dimensions ML T may correspond to
(1) Work done by a force
(2) Pressure
(3) Energy per unit volume
(4) Both (2) and (3)
Chemistry
51. Calculate the number of molecules in 1 ml of O2 54. 0.9 g Al reacts with dil. HCl to give H2. The
at NTP. volume of H2 evolved at STP is (Atomic weight
(1) 2.69 × 1019 mol (2) 3.70 × 1019 mol of Al = 27)
(3) 1.69 × 1019 mol (4) 0.69 × 1019 mol (1) 1.12 litre
52. The angular momentum of 'd' orbital electron is (2) 2.24 litre
2 h h (3) 3.33 litre
(1) (2) 6
2  (4) 4.44 litre
3 h 3 h 55. Which of the following statement is correct?
(3) (4)
2  2 (1) 28 g CO contains 12 g carbon and 16 g
53. What is the simplest formula of the compound oxygen
which has the following percentage composition (2) One mole of CO reacts completely with
Carbon 80%, Hydrogen 20%, if the molecular half mole of O2 to form CO2
mass is 30, calculate its molecular formula? (3) N2 and CO have same molar mass
(1) C2H6 (2) C2H4 (4) All of these
(3) C2H2 (4) C3H6

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56. Which of the following is correct? 60. Assertion (A) : The total sum of the mass
(1) The sum of mole fractions of all the during any chemical change remains constant.
Reason (R) : It is the definition of law of
components in a solution is always unity
multiple proportions.
(2) Mole fraction depends upon temperature (1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are
(3) Mole fraction is always negative correct statements and reason is the correct
(4) Mole fraction is independent of content of explantation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are
solute in solution
correct statements, but reason is not the
57. For the given reaction, P4 +5O2 → P4O10 correct explanation of the assertion.
If 31 g of P4 is reacted with excess of oxygen, (3) Assertion (A) is correct, but reason (R) is
the percentage yield is 60%, then the amount of wrong statement.
(4) Assertion (A) is wrong, but reason (R) is
product formed is
correct statement.
(1) 42.6 g 61. Assertion (A) : Atomicity of phosphorus is
(2) 12.8 g four.
(3) 71 g Reason (R) : Atomicity is the number of atoms
present in a molecule.
(4) 28.4 g
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are
58. An enzyme contains 11.2% Fe by mass. The correct statements and reason is the correct
number of Fe atoms present in 1 g of enzyme is explantation of the assertion.
(1) 1.20 × 1020 (2) 1.20 × 1022 (2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are
correct statements, but reason is not the
(3) 1.20 × 1021 (4) 1.20 × 1023
correct explanation of the assertion.
59. Which of the following is a false statement for (3) Assertion (A) is correct, but reason (R) is
the balanced equation given below? wrong statement.
(4) Assertion (A) is wrong, but reason (R) is
2H2S + SO2 → 2H2O + 3S
correct statement.
(1) The reaction of one mole of H2S will 62. What is the equivalent weight of hydride of
3 metal if equivalent weight of its oxide is 20?
produce mole of S
2 (1) 13 (2) 14
(2) One mole of SO2 will produce 3 mole of S (3) 11 (4) 12
N N
(3) The reaction of 32 gram of H2S produces 63. 200 ml H2SO4 is mixed into 300ml
10 100
16.94 gram of water NaOH. Calculate normality of resulting mixture.
(4) Two moecules of SO2 requires one (1) 0.040 (2) 0.34
molecule of H2S (3) 0.034 (4) 0.35

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64. 500 ml of 0.1 M AlCl3 is mixed with 500 ml of 70. The maximum number of molecules is present
0.1 M MgCl2 solution. Then calculate the in
molarity of Cl– in final solution. (1) 15 L of water at STP
1
(1) 4 (2) (2) 15 L of H2O gas at STP
2
(3) 15 g of ice
1
(3) (4) 3 (4) Same in all
4
65. Volume of CO2 obtained at STP by the complete 71. Assertion (A) : I2 is a mild oxidising agent.
decomposition of 9.85 g Na2CO3 is Reason (R) : I2 can be used for titrating sodium
(1) 2.24 litre (2) zero thiosulphate.
(3) 0.85 litre (4) 0.56 litre
nd 2+
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are
66. In the 2 shell of Li ion, total number of
correct statements and reason is the correct
degenerate orbitals is
(1) 4 (2) 2 explantation of the assertion.
(3) 3 (4) 9 (2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are
67. Which of the following is not permissible set of correct statements, but reason is not the
quantum numbers? correct explanation of the assertion.
1
(1) n = 5, l = 4, m = 0, s = – (3) Assertion (A) is correct, but reason (R) is
2
wrong statement.
1
(2) n = 4, l= 0, m = 0, s = + (4) Assertion (A) is wrong, but reason (R) is
2
1 correct statement.
(3) n = 3, l = 1, m = 0, s = –
2 72. Assertion (A) : Sn2+ and Fe3+ can't remain
1 together in a solution
(4) n = 2, l = 0, m = +1, s = +
2 Reason (R) : Sn2+ and Fe3+ will react mutually
68. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid to form Sn4+ and Fe2+
solution should be used to prepare 250mL of 2
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are
M HNO3? The concentrated acid is 70% (w/w)
correct statements and reason is the correct
HNO3.
(1) 90.0 g cone. HNO3 explantation of the assertion.
(2) 70.0 g cone. HNO3 (2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are
(3) 54.0 g cone. HNO3 correct statements, but reason is not the
(4) 45.0 g cone. HNO3 correct explanation of the assertion.
69. The ratio of radius of 1st orbit of hydrogen, 2nd
(3) Assertion (A) is correct, but reason (R) is
orbit of He+ ion and 3rd orbit of Li2+ ion will be
wrong statement.
(1) 1 : 4 : 9 (2) 6 : 3 : 2
(3) 1 : 2 : 3 (4) 4 : 2 : 1 (4) Assertion (A) is wrong, but reason (R) is
correct statement.
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73. Oxidation number of iodine varies from 80. Which element undergoes disproportionation in
(1) –1 to + 1 (2) – 1 to +7 water?
(3) + 3 to +5 (4) –1 to +5 (1) Cl2 (2) F2
74. Redox reaction have no concern with
(3) K (4) Cs
(1) Neutrailization of acid bases
81. The oxide, which cannot act as a reducing agent,
(2) Salt hydrolysis
is
(3) Esterification
(4) All of these (1) CO2 (2) ClO2
75. The energy of an exited H-atom is -1.51 eV. (3) NO2 (4) SO2
Angular momentum of e– in the given orbit will 82. Which has minimum number of atoms among
be? the following?
3h 3h (1) 32 g of O2 (2) 4 g of He
(1) (2)
 2 (3) 11 g of CO2 (4) 2.3 g of Na
2h h
(3) (4) 83. 10 g H2 (g) reacts with 80 g of O2 (g) to form
 
water. The maximum mass of water formed is
76. The number of electrons lost or gained during
(1) 90 g (2) 10 g
the change, 3Fe + 4H2O →Fe3O4 + 4H2 is
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 80 g (4) 45 g
(3) 6 (4) 8 84. Maximum frequency among the following
77. How many moles of KMnO4 are required to electromagnetic radiations is of
oxidise one mole of SnCl2 in acidic medium? (1) Microwaves (2) Radio waves
1 2 (3) IR waves (4) UV waves
(1) (2)
5 5 85. How many ways electron exchange is possible
3 4 for the d5 configuration?
(3) (4)
5 5
(1) 10 (2) 8
78. What is the change in oxidation number of
(3) 6 (4) 4
carbon in the following reaction?
SECTION – B
CH4 + 4Cl2 →CCl4 +4HCl
(1) 0 to + 4 (2) – 4 to + 4 Attempt any Ten Questions in this section
(3) 0 to – 4 (4) + 4 to + 4 86. Select the incorrect option among the following
79. Assuming complete ionization, same moles of (1) e/m ratio of proton is 1.758820 × 1011 Cg–1
which of the following compounds will require (2) e/m values of anode rays generated by
the least amount of acidified KMnO4 for discharge of different gases are different
complete oxidation? (3) Millikan's oil drop experiment was used to
(1) FeC2O4
calculate the charge on electron
(2) Fe(NO2)2
(4) e/m ratio of electron was determined by J.J.
(3) FeSO4
(4) FeSO3 Thomson
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87. The work function for a metal is 4 eV. To emit a 94. If n = 5, the correct sequence for filling of
photo-electron of zero velocity from the surface electrons will be
of the metal, the wavelength of incident light (1) ns → np → (n – 1)d
should be (2) ns → (n – 1)d → np
0 0 (3) (n – 1)d → ns → np
(1) 2700 A (2) 1700 A
(4) np → (n – 1) d → ns
0 0
(3) 5900 A (4) 3100 A 95. For the redox reaction,
88. How many electrons can fit in an orbital for Cr2 O 72 − + SO32 − + H + → Cr 3+ + SO 24 − + H 2 O
which The coefficients of the reactants for the balanced
n = 4 and l = 2? equation are
(1) 10 (2) 4 Cr2 O 72 − SO 32 − H+
(3) 32 (4) 2
(1) 1 3 8
89. Volume of CO2 obtained at STP by the complete (2) 2 3 14
decomposition of 8.4 g of MgCO3 (90% pure) at (3) 1 4 14
STP will be (4) 1 3 12
(1) 2.02 L (2) 1.46 L 96. The oxidation states of Br in Br3O8 are
(3) 2.91 L (4) 3.42 L (1) +4, +2 (2) +4, +6
90. In the reaction, (3) +6, +7 (4) +3, +6
2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) 97. In which of the following reaction (s) H2O2 acts
When 1 mole of C2H6 and 5 mole of O2 are as a reducing agent?
made to react to completion (I) I 2 + H 2 O 2 + 2OH − → 2l − + 2H 2 O + O 2
(1) 3 mole of CO2 will be produced
(II) HOCl + H 2 O 2 → H 3O + + Cl – + O 2
(2) 4 Mole of H2O will be produced
(III) H 2 O 2 + PbS → PbSO 4 + H 2 O
(3) 2 mole of O2 will be consumed
(4) All the ethane will be consumed (1) (I) only (2) (I) and (II) only
91. How many mole of CaCO3 will contain 0.12 (3) (II) and (III) only (4) (I), (II) and (III)
mole of oxygen atoms? 98. In which of the following compounds,
(1) 0.04 (2) 0.02 maximum peroxy linkages are present?
(1) H2SO5 (2) CrO5
(3) 0.06 (4) 0.08
(3) H2S2O8 (4) K3CrO8
92. An enzyme contains 0.01% Mg by mass. The
99. The number of spectral lines obtained when
minimum molecular mass of enzyme will be
electron jumps from 4th excited state to ground
(1) 2.4 × 103 u (2) 1.2 × 105 u
state in sample of H-atoms is
(3) 2.4 × 105 u (4) 3.6 × 106 u
(1) 4 (2) 6
93. 4.4 g of a gas occupies 2240 ml at STP. The gas (3) 10 (4) 3
may be 100. Velocity (in m/s) of an electron in the second
(1) NO2 (2) CO2 orbit of He+ is
(3) SO2 (4) NO (1) 2.18 × 106 (2) 1.09 × 105
6
(3) 3.27 × 10 (4) 2.18 × 108
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Botany
Section-A 103. Match each Item in Column-I with one in
Attempt All Questions Compulsory in this section. Column-II and choose your answer from the
codes given below:
101. Which is an incorrect statement?
Column-I Column-II
(1) Botanical gardens have a collection of (Taxonomical (Feature)
living plants for reference Aid)
a. Flora I. Useful in providing
(2) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and
information for
preserved plant specimens
Identification of
(3) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of names of species
specimens found in an area
b. Manuals II. Contains the actual
(4) A museum has collection of photographs of account of habitat and
animals and plants distribution of plants
of a given area.
102. The Indian Botanical Garden and the National
c. Monographs III. Contain information
Botanical Research Institute are located
on any one taxon
respectively at: (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(1) Pune and Howrah (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii (4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
104. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal
(2) Howrah and Lucknow rules. Which one of the following is not the rule
(3) Darjeeling and Lucknow of nomenclature?
(1) First word in a biological name represents
(4) Shimla and Dehradun the genus name and the second is a specific
epithet
(2) Biological names can be written in any
language
(3) When written by hand, the names are to be
underlined
(4) Names are written in Latin and are printed
in italics.

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105. Match Column-I and Column-II for housefly 108. Which of the following statements is not
classification and select the correct option using correct?
codes provided below: (1) Lysosomes are formed by the process of
Column-I Column-II
packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum.
a. Family i. Diptera
(2) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic
b. Order ii. Arthropoda
enzymes.
c. Class iii. Muscidae
d. Phylum iv. Insecta (3) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii active under acidic pH.
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) Lysosomes are membrane-bound
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i structures.
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
109. Select the incorrect statement.
106. Assertion(A): Cellular organization of the body
(1) The diameter of human red blood cell is 7
is the defining feature of life forms.
Reason(R): Metabolic reactions cannot be m
demonstrated outside the body in cell-free (2) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in
system motility of bacterial cells
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (3) Plasmid DNA confers certain unique
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
phenotypic characters to bacteria
of Assertion (A).
(4) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true but Reason (R) is not a correct 110. Statement-I: Mitochondria are called ‘power
explanation of Assertion (A). house’ of the cell.
(3) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is Statement-II: They produce cellular energy in
true. the form of ATP.
(4) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is (1) Statement-I & statement-II both are correct
false.
(2) Statement-I is correct & statement-II is
107. An attribute found in plants but not in animals
wrong
(1) Metabolism
(2) Sexual reproduction (3) Statement-I is wrong & statement-II is
(3) Spore formation correct
(4) Asexual reproduction (4) Statement-I & statement-II both are wrong

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111. The most obvious & complicated feature of all 115. Meiotic apparatus assembles in which phase?
living organisms is (1) Telophase - I (2) Diplotene
(1) The ability to sense their surroundings or (3) Diakinesis (4) Pachytene
environment and respond to these 116. The DNA content is 72 pg in pachytene, what
environment stimuli. will be the DNA content after completion of
(2) Reproduction - sexual or asexual - for
meiosis-II in each cell?
production of progeny of own kind.
(1) 72 pg (2) 36 pg
(3) The ability to growth in size due to cell
(3) 144 pg (4) 18 pg
division.
117. The plasma membrane consists mainly of
(4) Presence of complex organs systems such
as digestive and nervous system. (1) phospholipids embedded in a protein
112. The scientific term for biological classification bilayer
categories is the: (2) proteins embedded in a phospholipid
(1) Species (2) Taxon bilayer
(3) Phylum (4) Domain (3) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose
113. Arrange the following events of meiosis in molecules
correct sequence (4) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate
(i) Terminalisation of chiasmata bilayer.
(ii) Complete separation of homologous 118. The main area of various types of activities of a
chromosomes of bivalents
cell is
(iii) Formation of synaptonemal complex
(1) plasma membrane (2) mitochondrion
(iv) Splitting of centromere in each
(3) cytoplasm (4) nucleus
chromosome
119. Which one of the following has its own DNA?
(v) Crossing over
(vi) Bivalent chromosomes align on the (1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi body
equatorial plate (3) Lysosome (4) Peroxisome
(1) iii, v, i, iv, ii, vi (2) iv, iii, ii, vi, i, v 120. Which connect the cytoplasm of neighbouring
(3) iii, v, i, vi, ii, iv (4) iv, iii, v, i, ii, vi cells?
114. Spindle fibres attach on to (1) Plasmodesmata
(1) kinetochore of the chromosome (2) Mesosome
(2) centromere of the chromosome (3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) end of the chromosome (4) Plasmalemma
(4) chromatid of the chromosome

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121. An elaborate network of filamentous 126. Match the column I with column II.
proteinaceous structures present in the Column-I Column-II
cytoplasm which helps in the maintenance of A. Golgi apparatus (i) Synthesis of
cell shape is called lipids
(1) thylakoid B. Lysosomes (ii) Store waste
(2) endoplasmic reticulum and excretory
(3) plasmalemma Products
(4) cytoskeleton C. Vacuoles (iii) Formation of
122. Ribosomes are the centre for glycoproteins
(1) respiration (2) photosynthesis and
(3) protein synthesis (4) fat synthesis glycolipids
123. Which one of the following is not considered as D. SER (iv) Digesting
a part of the endomembrane system? biomolecules
(1) Golgi complex (2) Peroxisome (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) ER (4) Lysosome (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
124. Select the wrong pair (3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(1) Axoneme Core of cilium (4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) Perinuclear space 10 nm – 50 nm 127. Which of the following statements about
(3) Chloroplast Is component of inclusion bodies is incorrect?
endomembrane (1) They are not bound by any membrane.
system (2) These are formed by engulfing of food
(4) Gas vacuoles prokaryotes particles.
125. (i) Chromosomes clusters at opposite poles (3) They lie free in the Cytoplasm.
and their identity is lost as discrete (4) These represent reserve materials in
elements. cytoplasm.
(ii) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform 128. The site of respiration in bacteria is
(iii) Nuclear envelope develops (1) ribosome (2) plasmid
Above features are related with (3) chromatophore (4) mesosome
(1) Prophase 129. The functions of cell wall is/are-
(2) Telophase-I (1) Protects the cell from mechanical damage
(3) Telophase and infection
(4) Anaphase-II (2) Helps in cell to cell interaction
(3) Provides barrier to undesirable
macromolecules
(4) All of the above.

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130. The cell wall of a young plant cell the ________ 134. Which of the following statement is false in
is capable of growth which gradually diminishes reference to chloroplast?
as the cell matures? (1) Majority of the chloroplast of the green
(1) Primary wall plants are found in the mesophyll cells of
(2) Secondary wall the leaves.
(3) Tertiary wall (2) These are lens shaped, oval, spherical,
(4) None of the above discoid or even ribbon like organelles.
131. In amoeba the contractile vacuole is important (3) Having variable length (2-4 m) and width
for- (5-10 m).
(1) Nutrition (2) Excretion (4) Their number varies.
(3) Respiration (4) Locomotion 135. Which of the following statement is/are true in
132. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true the reference to centrioles?
in the reference to mitochondria? (1) They are surrounded by amorphous
(1) Mitochondria unless specifically stained are pericentriolar materials.
not easily visible under the microscope (2) Centrioles are made up of 9 evenly spaced
(2) It is sausage shaped or cylindrical peripheral fibrils of tubulin protein.
(3) Having a diameter of 0.2-1.0 m and length (3) Each of the peripheral fibril is a triplet.
1.0-4.1 m. (4) All of the above.
(4) All of the above. Section-B
133. Match the columns Attempt Any Questions in this section.
P. Chloroplast I. Potato 136. Select the wrong pair.
Q. Chromoplast II. Colourless Type of Cells Shape of cells
plastids (1) Red blood Cells Round &
R. Leucoplasts III. Carotenes biconcave
S. Amyloplasts IV. Chlorophyll (2) Columner epithelial Long & narrow
P Q R S cells
(1) IV III II I (3) Nerve cell Unbranched &
(2) I II III IV long
(3) III I IV II (4) Mesophyll Cells Round & Oval
(4) II I IV III

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137. Match column-I with column-II and select the 139. Read the given statements.
correct option from the codes given below. (i) Centromere is present in the middle of the
Column-I Column-II chromosome and forms two equal arms.
a. Leeuwenhoek i. First saw and (ii) Chromosome has a terminal centromere.
described a living (iii) Centromere lies close to the end of the
cell chromosome forming one extremely short
b. Robert ii. Presence of cell and one very long arm.
Brown wall is unique to (iv) Centromere lies slightly away from the
plant cells middle of the chromosome resulting into
c. Schleiden iii. Discovered the one shorter arm and one longer arm.
nucleus Select the correct option as per the codes given
d. Schwann iv. All plants are above.
composed of Metac- Submeta Acro- Telocentric
entric centric centric
different kind of
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
cells
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
140. Choose the correct one for the chromosome given
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
below:
138. Select the incorrect statement regarding the
plasma membrane.
(1) Ratio of proteins and lipids varies
(1) It is with one chromatid and one molecule
considerably in different cell types.
of dsDNA
(2) 52%proteins and 40% lipids constitute the
(2) It is with two chromatids and two
membrane of human RBC
molecules of dsDNA
(3) Arrangement of proteins (P) and Lipids (L)
(3) It is with two chromatids and two arms
is L-P-P-L.
(4) It is one arm and two chromatids
(4) Head of lipid is hydrophilic.

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141. How many given characters are relate with 144. Statement-I: Meiosis, per se, paradoxically
prokaryotic cell? results in reduction of chromosome number by
(A) Membranous cell organelle are absent half to conserve chromosome numbers in one
(B) Histone protein present in genetic material generation to another.
(C) It present in cyanobacteria Statement-II: Meiosis occurs in bacteria to
(D) Nuclear membrane absent produce gametes.
(E) Contain dsDNA (1) Both statement-I & statement-II are correct
Choose right option (2) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is
(1) 3 (2) 4 incorrect
(3) 2 (4) 1 (3) Statement-I is incorrect, statement-II is
142. Consider 2 statements. correct
Statement–(i) : The RER are intensive and (4) Statement-I & statement-II both are
continuous with the inner membrane of the incorrect
nucleus. 145. Tetrad is clearly visible during
Statement–(ii) : In SER, lipid–like steroidal (1) Leptotene
hormones are synthesized in animal cells. (2) Zygotene
(1) Both (i) and (ii) are correct. (3) Interphase
(2) (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect. (4) Pachytene
(3) (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct. 146. Nuclear division occurs ______ whereas DNA
(4) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect. replication occurs _______ respectively during
143. Below figure represents meiosis.
(1) Once, once
(2) Once, twice
(3) Twice, once
(4) Twice, twice
147. If a gamete has 23 chromosomes & 3.3 pg DNA,

(1) Splitting of centromere then find the number of chromosomes & DNA
(2) Separation of homologous chromosomes content at G2 phase respectively in meiocyte.
(3) Crossing over (1) 23, 3.3 pg (2) 46, 6.6 pg

(4) Compaction of chromosomes (3) 46, 13.2 pg (4) 46, 3.3 pg

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148. Read the following statements: 149. Ribosomes are located in Eukaryotic cells in
A. Transport of Na+ /K+ is an example of how many out of given below locations:
active transport. A. Outer surface of membrane of ER
B. Number of chloroplasts in mesophyll cells B. Outer membrane of nucleus
are higher than that of a cell of C. Inside mitochondria
Chlamydomonas. D. Freely in cytoplasm
C. Chloroplast is responsible for formation of E. Inside chloroplast
carbohydrate & protein (1) Five (2) Three
D. Nuclear pore is formed due to fusion of (3) Two (4) One
both membranes 150. Vesicles from ER fuse with which surface of
How many of the above statements are correct? GB?
(1) Four (2) Three (1) Cis/Maturing (2) Cis/Concave
(3) Two (4) One (3) Trans/Convex (4) Cis/Forming
Zoology
Section-A 153. Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the mid-
Attempt All Questions Compulsory in this section. thoracic cavity, which divides at the level of
151. Read the following statements w.r.t. Periplaneta (1) 5th cervical vertebra
americana.
(2) 2nd cervical vertebra
(1) Entire body is covered by a hard calcareous
exoskeleton (3) 5th lumbar vertebra
(2) Head is triangular and lies anteriorly at (4) 5th thoracic vertebra
right angle to the longitudinal axis of body 154. The volume of air remaining in the lungs even
(3) A pair of walking legs arise from each after forced expiration is
thoracic segment (1) Expiratory capacity
(4) The abdomen in both male and female
(2) Expiratory reserve volume
consists 10 segments
How many of the given statements are (3) Residual voiume
correct? (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) One (2) Two 155. The maximum volume of air a person can
(3) Three (4) Four breathe in after forced expiration is
152. Choose the correct match w.r.t. the structures (1) Vital capacity
present in cockroach and their number
(2) ERV + TV + IRV
(1) Malpighian tubules- 100 to 150
(2) Alary muscles- 12 (3) TLC - RV
(3) Thoracic spiracles 10 pairs (4) All of these
(4) Salivary glands-4

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156. Which of the following is a chronic respiratory 159. The oxygen - haemoglobin dissociation curve
disorder caused majorly by cigarette smoking in will show a right shift in case of.
which alveolar walls are damaged due to which (1) High PCO2
respiratory surface decreases?
(2) High PO2
(1) Emphysema
(2) Asthma (3) Low PCO2
(3) Pneumonia (4) Less H+ concentration
(4) Silicosis 160. A: Inspiration occurs when intra-pulmonary
157. Which of the following statements is incorrect pressure is lower than the atmospheric pressure
w.r.t. mechanism of breathing?
R: Inspiration is initiated by the relaxation of
(1) Movement of air into and out of of the
lungs is carried out by creating a pressure diaphragm and intercostal muscles
gradient between the lungs and the (1) A is false but R is true.
atmosphere (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) Inspiration is initiated by contraction of explanation of A
diaphragm which increases the volume of (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the
thoracic chamber
correct explanation of A
(3) Contraction of external intercostal muscles
lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing (4) A is true but R is false
decrease in the volume of thoracic chamber 161. Which of the following is correct w.r.t.
(4) On an average, a healthy human breathes Periplanata?
12-16 times/minute. (1) The entire body is covered by a hard
158. Read the following statements with respect to
chitinous exoskeleton
regulation of respiration:
(i) Neural signal from pneumotaxic centre (2) In each segment, exoskeleton has hardened
(pons) can reduce the duration of plates called sclerites
inspiration and thereby alter the respiratory (3) Sclerites are joined to each other by a thin
rate and flexible articular membrane or
(ii) The role of oxygen in the regulation of arthrodial membrane
respiratory rhythm is highly significant
(4) More than one option is correct
(ii) A chemosensitive area situated in the
rhythm centre (medulla) is highly sensitive 162. In female cockroaches :
to CO2 and hydrogen ions (1) The 7th sternum is boat shaped
(iv) Receptors associated with aortic arch and (2) The 7th sternum together with the 8th and
carotid artery can recognise changes in CO2 9th sterna forms a brood or genital pouch
and H+ concentration
(3) The anterior part of genital pouch contains
(v) Medulla of brain has insignificant role in
the respiratory regulation Which of the female genopore, spermathecal pores and
above statements are correct? collateral glands
(1) (i) (iii), (iv) (2) (ii) , (v) (4) All of the above are correct
(3) (i) , (ii) (4) (ii), (iii) , (iv)

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163. Which of the following is not incorrect ? 167. Which of the following is incorrect for bones
(1) The alimentary canal of cockroach is present in mammals ?
divided into two regions - foregut and (1) They are the main tissue that provide
structural framework to the body
midgut
(2) Osteocytes are present in the spaces called
(2) Pharynx is absent in cockroaches
lacunae
(3) Malpighian tubules help in the removal of (3) Are never involved in haematopoiesis
excretory products from haemolymph (4) They interact with skeletal muscles
(4) The hind gut is narrower than midgut and is attached to them to bring about Movements
differentiated into ileum, colon and rectum 168. Read the following statements:
(i) The smooth muscle fibres taper at both
164. Simple squamous epithelium
ends (fusiform)
(1) Is absent in wall of Bowman's capsule and
(ii) Smooth muscle may show striations
loop of Henle of nephrons (iii) Smooth muscle fibres may have cell
(2) Are found in the walls of blood vessels and junctions and are bounded together in a
air sacs of lungs connective tissue sheath
(3) Has no role in diffusion of gases (iv) Intercalated discs and cross connections are
(4) All are incorrect the characteristics of cardiac muscles and
skeletal muscles
165. The tubular parts of nephrons of kidneys and
(V) Striated muscles are cylindrical, syncytial
ducts of glands have :
and unbranched
(1) Cuboidal epithelium Which of the above statements are correct ?
(2) Columnar epithelium (1) (i), (iv)
(3) Compound epithelium (2) (i), (v), (iii)
(4) Squamous epithelium (3) (i), (iv)
(4) (ii),(iii), (iv)
166. Which of the following is true for simple
169. Peristalsis is performed by:
columnar epithelium ?
(1) Non-striated muscle
(1) Cells are composed of single layer of tall (2) Striated muscles
and slender cells (3) Cardiac muscle
(2) Their nuclei are located at the base (4) Voluntary muscles
(3) These are found in the lining of stomach
and intestine and help in secretion and
absorption
(4) All of the above
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170. Given below are two statements: 173. Assertion: Simple epithelium covers surfaces
Statement-I : Ligaments are dense irregular exposed to mechanical or chemical abrasions.
tissue. Reason: Protection of underlying tissues is the
Statement-II : Cartilage is dense regular tissue. major function of simple epithelium
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) A is false but R is true.
correct answer from the options given below- (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false explanation of A
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true correct explanation of A
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) A is true but R is false
171 Statement-I: Endocrine glands secrete wax, 174. Neuroglia :
saliva, mucous, oil, enzymes and other cell (1) Make up more than one-half the volume of
products neural tissue in our body
Statement-II: Endocrine glands do not have (2) Are present in the brain but absent in spinal
ducts and their secretion is known as hormone. cord
Choose the correct option- (3) Are essentially ectodermal
(1) Both statement I and II are correct (4) Helps role in neurotransmission
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is 175. Choose the incorrect statement :
incorrect (1) When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is electrical disturbance is generated which
correct swiftly travels along its plasma membrane
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect and its cytoplasm
172. Assertion : Urinary bladder can considerably (2) Arrival of disturbance at the neuron's
expand to accommodate urine. endings, or output zone, triggers events that
Reason : It is lined by stretchable squamous may cause stimulation or inhibition of
epithelium. adjacent neurons and other cells
(1) A is false but R is true. (3) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) Neural tissue exerts the greatest control
explanation of A over the body's responsiveness to changing
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the conditions
correct explanation of A 176. Which of the following helps in excretion in
(4) A is true but R is false cockroaches ?
(1) Nephrocytes (2) Uricose glands
(3) Fat body (4) All of these

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177. Choose the correct statement for epithelial 180. Which of the following is not correct according
tissue. to Bohr's effect?
(1) Possesses loosely packed cells with little (1) Low temperature favours the dissociation
of oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin
intercellular matrix
(2) A rise in pCO₂ of blood decreases oxygen
(2) The free surface of epithelium faces the
affinity of haemoglobin
body fluid but not the outside environment (3) Low pCO₂ at alveoli favours the formation
(3) Has a basal surface and a free surface of oxyhaemoglobin
(4) This tissue is always made of only one (4) High H+ concentration in blood causes
layer of cells dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin
181. Which of the following factors are favourable
178. Read the following statements :.
for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin?
(i) Goblet cells are multicellular glands
(A) Lesser H+ concentration, lower temperature
(ii) Compound squamous epithelium occurs in (B) High pO2, low pCO2
stomach, intestine and trachea (C) High H+ , higher temperature
(iii) Simple epithelium is made of single layer (C) Low pO2, high CO2
of cells (1) (A) and (B) (2) (A) only
(iv) Ciliated epithelium occurs in fallopian (3) (C) and (D) (4) (B) and (C)
182. Residual volume is:
tubes and bronchioles
(1) lesser than tidal volume
(v) Tight junction helps to stop substances
(2) greater than vital capacity
from leaking across a tissue (3) greater than inspiratory volume
How many of the above statements are (4) greater than tidal volume
correct ? 183. About 97% of oxygen is transported by RBC
(1) One (2) TWo remaining 3% is :-
(1) Dissolved in plasma & transported
(3) Five (4) Three
(2) Retained in lungs
179. Every 100 mL oxygenated blood delivers about
(3) Attached to cell membranes
oxygen to tissues under normal conditions while (4) Found inside mitochondria
100 mL deoxygenated blood delivers 184. The majority of carbon dioxide produced by our
approximately CO₂ to alveoli. body cells is transported to the lungs
(1) 5 mL 4 mL (1) Dissolved in the blood
(2) 4 mL. 5 mL (2) As bicarbonates
(3) As carbonates
(3) 20 mL. 15 mL
(4) Attached to hemoglobin
(4) 15 mL. 20 mL
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185. During swallowing of food which of the 190. What is the function of respiratory part of
following structures prevent the entering of food human respiratory system?
into the glottis? (1) It clears the incoming air from foreign
(1) Semilunar Valve particles
(2) Circular Muscular flap (2) It brings the temperature of air upto the
body temperature
(3) Cartilaginous flap
(3) It transports the atmospheric air
(4) Circular sphincter
(4) It exchanges 02 and CO2 between blood
SECTION – B
and atmospheric air
Attempt any Ten Questions in this section 191. Diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscular structure
186. The function of conducting part in respiratory which separates
system of human is :- (1) Coelomic cavity from pelvic cavity
(1) Clears foreign particles. (2) Pleural cavity from thoracic cavity
(2) Humidifies atmospheric air (3) Thoracic cavity from abdominal cavity
(3) Brings the air to body temperature (4) Pelvic cavity from abdominal cavity
(4) All of the above 192. Normal expiration occurs due to
187. When there is no air in initial bronchioles, they (1) Relaxation of diaphragm and external
does not collapse. it is due to :- intercostal muscles
(2) Contraction of internal intercostal muscles
(1) Presence of Lecithin
and diaphragm
(2) Presence of incomplete cartilagenous rings
(3) Relaxation of abdominal and internal
(3) Presence of complete cartilagenous rings
intercostal muscles
(4) Presence of mucous (4) Contraction of diaphragm and relaxation of
188. Ventrally and laterally, the thoracic chamber is abdominal muscles
formed by 193. Which are the three main layers that form the
(1) Diaphragm and sternum respectively diffusion membrane?
(2) Ribs and sternum respectively (1) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli,
(3) Sternum and ribs respectively basement membrane of bronchioles and
(4) Vertebral column and diaphragm basement substance
respectively (2) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli,
189. Which group of animals respire through lungs? endothelium of alveolar capillaries and the
basement substance
(1) Earthworm and insects
(3) Basement substance, cuboidal epithelium
(2) Sponges, coelenterates and flatworms
of alveoli and stratified epithelium of
(3) Fishes and aquatic arthropods
bronchiole
(4) Amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals (4) Ciliated epithelium of trachea, endothelium
of capillaries and basement substances

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194. What is the value of pO2 in alveoli and tissues 199. Read the following statements.
respectively? Statement-A: The strength of inspiration and
(1) 104 mm Hg and 150 mm Hg expiration can be increased with the help of
(2) 45 mm Hg and 0.3 mm Hg abdominal muscles.
(3) 104 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg Statement-B: Contraction of diaphragm
(4) 95mm Hg and 159 mm Hg increases the volume of thoracic chamber in
195. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume anteroposterior axis. Choose the correct option.
of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL, (1) Only A is correct
respectively. What will be his Expiratory (2) Only B is correct
Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200mL?
(3) Both A and B are correct
(1) 1500 mL (2) 1700mL
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) 2200 mL (4) 2700 mL
200. Given is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain
196. Which of the following statement is not true for
type of connective tissue. Identify the parts
man?
labelled as A, B, C and D and select the correct
(1) Forceful expiration is an active process
option.
(2) Mammals have negative pressure breathing
(3) Internal intercostal and abdominal muscles
are muscles of forceful inspiration
(4) Respiration excretes CO2 , water etc.
197. The ventilation movements of the lungs in
mammals are governed by
(1) Muscular walls of lung
A B C D
(2) Diaphragm
(1) Macro- Fibroblast Collagen Mast
(3) Costal muscles
phage fibres cell
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(2) Mast Macro- Fibroblast Collagen
198. Assertion : The squamous epithelium is made
cell phage fibres
of a single thin layer of flattened cells with
(3) Macro- Collagen Fibroblast Mast
irregular boundaries.
phage fibres cell
Reason : They are found in walls of blood
(4) Mast Collagen Fibroblast Macro-
vessels and air sacs of wings.
cell fibres phage
(1) A is false but R is true.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false

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CITY TEST - 01
Class: NEET-Dropper 2024 (PHASE-IV)
DURATION: 180 DATE: 27/08/2023 [Link] : 720
Minutes

1. (2) 41. (3) 81. (1) 121. (4) 161. (4)

2. (4) 42. (4) 82. (4) 122. (3) 162. (4)
3. (3) 43. (1) 83. (1) 123. (2) 163. (3)
4. (2) 44. (1) 84. (4) 124. (3) 164. (2)
5. (2) 45. (2) 85. (1) 125. (3) 165. (1)
6. (4) 46. (3) 86. (1) 126. (1) 166. (4)
7. (4) 47. (3) 87. (4) 127. (2) 167. (3)
8. (2) 48. (4) 88. (4) 128. (4) 168. (2)
9. (3) 49. (4) 89. (1) 129. (4) 169. (1)
10. (2) 50. (2) 90. (4) 130. (1) 170. (1)
11. (4) 51. (1) 91. (1) 131. (2) 171. (1)
12. (1) 52. (4) 92. (3) 132. (4) 172. (3)
13. (3) 53. (1) 93. (2) 133. (1) 173. (4)
14. (3) 54. (1) 94. (2) 134. (3) 174. (1)
15. (1) 55. (4) 95. (1) 135. (4) 175. (1)
16. (2) 56. (1) 96. (2) 136. (3) 176. (4)
17. (4) 57. (1) 97. (2) 137. (1) 177. (3)
18. (3) 58. (3) 98. (4) 138. (3) 178. (4)
19. (3) 59. (4) 99. (3) 139. (1) 179. (1)
20. (2) 60. (3) 100. (1) 140. (1) 180. (1)
21. (3) 61. (1) 101. (4) 141. (2) 181. (1)
22. (3) 62. (1) 102. (2) 142. (3) 182. (4)
23. (3) 63. (3) 103. (3) 143. (1) 183. (1)
24. (2) 64. (3) 104. (2) 144. (2) 184. (2)
25. (2) 65. (2) 105. (4) 145. (4) 185. (3)
26. (3) 66. (1) 106. (4) 146. (3) 186. (4)
27. (3) 67. (4) 107. (3) 147. (3) 187. (2)
28. (2) 68. (4) 108. (1) 148. (1) 188. (3)
29. (3) 69. (3) 109. (2) 149. (1) 189. (4)
30. (3) 70. (3) 110. (1) 150. (4) 190. (4)
31. (2) 71. (2) 111. (1) 151. (3) 191. (3)
32. (1) 72. (1) 112. (2) 152. (1) 192. (1)
33. (1) 73. (2) 113. (3) 153. (4) 193. (2)
34. (1) 74. (4) 114. (1) 154. (3) 194. (3)
35. (1) 75. (2) 115. (3) 155. (4) 195. (1)
36. (2) 76. (4) 116. (4) 156. (1) 196. (3)
37. (3) 77. (2) 117. (2) 157. (3) 197. (4)
38. (2) 78. (2) 118. (3) 158. (1) 198. (2)
39. (2) 79. (3) 119. (1) 159. (1) 199. (3)
40. (3) 80. (1) 120. (1) 160. (3) 200. (1)