13/05/2022 RMPRE

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Minutes

NEET PREP TEST SERIES

for Regular Medical - 2022
Test - 06
Topics covered
Physics : Thermal Properties of Matter, Thermodynamics, Kinetic Theory
Chemistry : Solid State, Solutions
Botany : Transport in Plants, Mineral Nutrition

Zoology : Excretory Products and their Elimination; Locomotion and Movement

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.
PHYSICS

SECTION-A (2) Characteristics of its material

1. For measurement of temperature using a thermometer (3) Is dependent of its length
(1) Thermometers are calibrated so that a numerical (4) Is same for most of the material
value can be assigned to a given temperature in 3. The relation between coefficient of linear expansion
an appropriate scale (alpha) and coefficient of volume expansion (gama)
(2) Mercury and alcohol are commonly used in most for solids is
liquid in glass thermometers (1)  = 2 (2) 3 = 
(3) Fixed point on thermometers may be corelated (3)  = 3 (4) 2 = 3
to the physical phenomena that always occur at 4. Specific heat of copper is 390 J Kg–1 K–1. How much
the same temperature heat energy is required to change temperature of
(4) Statement (1), (2) and (3) are correct 500 gm of copper from 37°C to 337°C.?
2. The coefficient of linear expansion of a material is (1) 58.5 kJ (2) 72.6 kJ
(1) Independent of its temperature (3) 32.5 kJ (4) 54.5 kJ
NEET PREP Test Series-06
5. Iron rod and copper rod of equal lengths with (1) a, b, c, d, e (2) b, c, d, e, f
coefficient of thermal conductivities 80 Wm–1K–1 and (3) b, c, d, e (4) a, b, c, d, e, f
120 Wm–1K–1 are kept side by side between two
12. In Newton’s law of cooling, someone plot a curve
reservoirs maintain at 373 K and 273 K temperature
between logarithmic of temperature difference and
respectively. Both rods carry equal amount of heat
time. The plotted curve will be
energy per unit time. What is the ratio of their cross-
sectional area? (1) Decreasing exponential
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 1 (2) Increasing exponential
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 3 (3) Hyperbolic
6. Iron and copper rods are soldered end to end. Their (4) Straight line
free ends are maintained at 120°C and 20°C 13. Select incorrect statement about work and heat
respectively. The coefficient of conductivity of iron (1) Both are modes of energy transfer
and copper at 80 W m –1K –1 and 120 W m –1K –1
(2) Both are not state variable
respectively. If both rods are identical in geometry
what is equivalent thermal conductivity of compound (3) Both are energy transfer due to temperature
bar. difference
(1) 96 Wm–1K–1 (2) 100 Wm–1K–1 (4) (1) and (3)
(3) 50 Wm–1K–1 (4) 109 Wm–1K–1 14. In a solid, the average energy of an atom in one
dimension at a temperature T is
7. A pan filled with hot soup cools from 54°C to 48°C in
2 minutes when room temperature is 30°C. How long [Given Boltzmann constant is k]
will it take to cool from 48°C to 40°C assuming (1) KT (2) 2 KT
medium is still (3) 3 KT (4) 4 KT
(1) 3 min (2) 2 min 15. The molar specific heat capacity of the substance
(3) 6 min (4) 4 min does not depend on
8. The pressure versus temperature plot of a low density (1) Temperature of the substance
gas kept at constant volume, intersects the (2) Nature of the substance
temperature axis at (In degree Celsius) (3) Condition under which heat is supplied
(1) 0 (2) – 273.15 (4) Change in temperature
(3) 100 (4) 273.16 16. Select the incorrect statement about the second law
9. The triple point of carbon dioxide is 216.55 K. This of thermodynamics
temperature on the Fahreheit scale is (1) It does not allow many phenomena consistent
(1) – 56.6 F (2) – 69.88 F with the first law of thermodynamics
(3) 55 F (4) – 248.58 f (2) It gives a fundamental limitation to the efficiency
10. Consider the following statements. of a heat engine
(a) Water contracts on heating between 0 Celsius (3) Reversible process does not violate the second
to 4 Celsius law
(b) There will be maxima at 4 Celsius in plot of (4) None of these
volume-temperature for water 17. Consider following statements.
(c) There will be minima at 4 Celsius in plot of (A) For a process to be quasistatic reversible, there
density-temperature for water should be finite temperature difference between
Choose the correct statements the system and surroundings
(1) a only (2) b and c only (B) In a reversible heat engine operating between
two temperatures reservoirs, heat should be
(3) a and b only (4) a, b and c
absorbed isothermally and released isothermally.
11. Which among the following are greenhouse gases
Select correct statement.
(a) N2
(1) (A) only (2) (B) only
(b) N2O
(3) Both (A) and (B) (4) Neither (A) nor (B)
(c) CH4
18. For one mole of water, total energy at temperature of
(d) CF2Cl2 27°C is [ Given R is gas constant ]
(e) CO2 (1) 300 R (2) 600 R
(f) O2 (3) 900 R (4) 2700 R
Page 2
NEET PREP Test Series-06
19. An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a (1) Low temperature and high pressure
rate of 150 W. If system performs work at a rate of (2) High temperature and low pressure
6000 Joules per minute. At what rate is the internal
(3) High temperature and high pressure
energy increasing?
(4) Low temperature and low pressure
(1) 50 W (2) 100 W
27. A polyatomic molecule has 3 translational,
(3) 285 W (4) 5850 W
3 rotational degrees of freedom and 3 vibration
20. For one mole of a solid, total energy at temperature modes. The ratio of specific heat of the gas Cp/Cv is
T is [Given: gas constant is R ]
(1) 6/5 (2) 5/3
(1) RT (2) 2 RT
(3) 3/2 (4) 7/6
(3) 3 RT (4) 3RT/2
28. Zeroth law of thermodynamics suggest that when
21. Which of the following statement is incorrect. The two system A and B are in thermal equilibrium then
RMS speed of the molecules of a given mass of an
ideal gas will increase by (1) Both A and B have equal pressure
(1) Increasing pressure keeping volume constant (2) Both A and B have equal volume
(2) Increasing temperature keeping pressure (3) Both A and B have equal temperature
constant (4) Both A and B have equal internal energies
(3) Increasing pressure keeping temperature 29. Choose the incorrect statement among the following
constant
(1) Internal energy of thermodynamic system can
(4) Increasing temperature, keeping volume be changed by doing mechanical work on it.
constant (2) Internal energy of thermodynamic system can
22. Two containers of equal volume contains equal be changed by supply of heat to it.
masses of hydrogen and helium at same (3) Heat and work are two modes of changing the
temperature. Then state of a thermodynamic system and changing
(1) Total kinetic energy of all molecules of hydrogen internal energy
is more than double of that of all molecules of (4) Heat and work are state variable
helium
30. Molar specific heat capacity
(2) Pressure of hydrogen is equal to that of helium
(1) Depends upon amount of substance
(3) Translational Kinetic energy of all molecules of
(2) Depends on condition under which heat is
hydrogen is equal to that of helium
supplied
(4) The pressure of hydrogen is half to that of helium
(3) Is independent of temperature of substance
23. A vessel contains gas A at pressure P, volume V
(4) Is constant for solids at very low temperature
and temperature T. Another vessel contains gas B
at pressure 2P, volume V/2 and temperature 2T. 31. Intensive thermodynamic variables are
What is ratio of number of molecules of B to A? (1) Heat supplied to thermodynamic system
(1) 1/2 (2) 2 (2) Volume change of a gas
(3) 4 (4) 1/4 (3) Pressure and temperature
24. Which of the following statement is correct for the (4) Total mass of the gas in a cylinder
molecules of the gas at equilibrium temperature? 32. According to second law of thermodynamics
(1) All molecules have same speed (1) Many thermodynamic process can violate energy
(2) They don’t collide with one another conservation law
(3) Molecules have different speed distribution but (2) Carnot engine can have efficiency equal to unity
average speed remains constant (3) Coefficient of performance of a refrigerator can
(4) The RMS speed is less than average speed of be infinite
molecules (4) No process is possible whose sole result is the
25. The ratio of translational and rotational kinetic energy transfer of heat from a colder object to a hotter
at 200 K temperature is 3:2. What is internal energy object
of one mole of gas at this temperature? 33. For a polyatomic gas molecule having 3 translational,
(1) 3200 J (2) 4150 J 3 rotational and 2 vibrational modes, the value  will
(3) 3600 J (4) 5200 J be
26. A gas deviates maximum from the ideal gas law at (1) 5/3 (2) 4/3
(3) 7/5 (4) 6/5
Page 3
NEET PREP Test Series-06
34. If water is treated like a solid, each molecule of water 41. When a iron piece is heated in hot flame, it first
at temperature T will have energy equal to becomes dull red, then reddish yellow and finally
(1) 9 RT (2) 9 kT while hot. This was explained by
(3) 3 RT (4) 3 kT (1) Kirchoff’s Law
35. In Thermodynamics, the internal energy is the sum (2) Wien’s Law
of molecular kinetic and potential in the frame of (3) Newton’s law of cooling
reference relative to which the centre of mass of the (4) Boltzmann law
system is
42. A rod of length L having coefficient of linear expansion
(1) At rest a is lying freely on the floor. It is heated so that
(2) Moving with constant velocity temperature changes by b. The longitudinal strain
(3) Independent of reference frame developed in the rod
(4) None of the above (1) zero (2) ab
(3) –ab (4) 2ab
SECTION-B
43. Two stars A and B radiates wavelength 3600A° and
36. An iron ring is to be fixed on the rim of a wooden 2700A° respectively corresponding to maximum
wheel of a bullock cart. The radius of the rim and emission. The ratio of absolute temperature of both
iron ring are 2.520 m and 2.505 m respectively at stars A and B is
40°C. To what temperature should the ring be heated (1) 256:81 (2) 81:256
so that it fits on rim of the wheel. ( = 1.2 × 10–5 k)
(3) 3:4 (4) 4:3
(1) 615°C (2) 312°C
44. A geyser heats water flowing at the rate of 1 litre per
(3) 319°C (4) 539°C minute from 30°C to 80°C. If the geyser operates on
37. 15 gm of ice at 0°C is mixed with 300 gm of water at a gas burner and the heat of combustion is 20000 J/
50°C in a container. There is no heat loss due to g. Then the rate of combustion of fuel will be
radiation and water equivalent of container is ignored. (1) 12 g/min. (2) 10.5 g/min.
What will be final temperature of water?
(3) 9.4 g/min. (4) 8 g/min.
(1) 5.3°C (2) 6.7°C
45. In changing the state of a gas adiabatically from an
(3) 12.3°C (4) 43.8°C equilibrium state A to another equilibrium state B,
38. A brass rod 2.0 m long at 37° C is held taut with an amount of work equal to 20 J is done on the
negligible tension between two rigid supports. If the system. If the gas is taken from state A to B via a
rod is cooled to temperature of –33°C. What is tension process in which the net heat absorbed by the
developed in the rod if cross-sectional area of rod is system is 7 cal, then the work done by the system
12 mm^2 and its Young’s modulus is 9 × 1010 Pa. in the latter case is
(Assume coefficient of volume expansion of brass (1) 9.33 Cal (2) 29.33 Cal
3 × 10–5 K–1) (3) 9.33 J (4) 29.33 J
(1) 756 N (2) 1724 N 46. The heat is supplied to 16g of helium (at room
(3) 127 N (4) 972 N temperature) to raise its temperature by certain
39. A blacksmith fixes iron ring on the rim of the wooden amount at constant pressure. The specific heat
wheel of a horse cart. The diameter of the rim and capacity for 1g of helium at constant pressure is
iron ring are 5.243 m and 5.231 m respectively at 27 [ Given: gas constant is R ]
degree Celsius. To what temperature (in degree (1) 5R/4 (2) 5R/8
Celsius) should the ring be heated so as to fit the
(3) 7R/4 (4) 7R/8
rim of the wheel (coefficient of linear expansion of
iron is 0.000012 per kelvin) 47. A cylinder having one mole of a monoatomic gas at
standard temperature and pressure. The walls of the
(1) 218 (2) 200
cylinder are made of a heat insulator and the piston
(3) 195 (4) 238 is insulated by having a pile of sand on it. By what
40. When 0.15 kg of ice at 0 degree Celsius is mixed factor does the pressure of the gas increase if the
with 0.3 kg of water at 50 degree Celsius in a gas is compressed to one eighth its original volume?
container, the resulting temperature is 6.7 degree (1) 8 (2) 16
Celsius. The Latent heat of fusion of ice will be (given (3) 32 (4) 64
specific heat capacity of water = 4186 SI units)
(1) 334000 J/kg (2) 3340 J/kg
(3) 41860 J/kg (4) 418600 J/kg
Page 4
NEET PREP Test Series-06
48. The mass of oxygen molecule is 16 times that of a (1) 5T0/3 (2) 2T0
hydrogen molecule. At room temperature the RMS (3) 3T0 (4) 2T0/3
speed of oxygen molecules is v. The RMS speed of
50. A flask contains hydrogen and helium gases in the
hydrogen molecule at same temperature will be
ratio 1:2 at temperature 300 K. The ratio of masses
(1) v/4 (2) v/8 of helium and hydrogen molecules is 2:1. What is
(3) 2 v (4) 4 v the ratio of average translational kinetic energies of
49. If two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas at these molecules at 500 K?
temperature T0 is mixed with 4 moles of another (1) 3:5 (2) 5:3
monoatomic gas at temperature 2T 0 , then (3) 2:1 (4) 1:1
temperature of mixture is
CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 59. Zinc oxide with metal excess defect can be

characterised by
51. Find out the incorrect statement about quartz glass.
(1) Yellow colour (2) Zn1+xO
(1) It is long range order solid
(3) ZnO (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) It is amorphous solid
60. Which of the following is not true about Fe0.93 O?
(3) It is isotropic in nature
(1) It is electrically neutral
(4) It has irregular arrangement of its constituent
particles. (2) It is non-stoichiometric compound
52. Some glass objects from ancient civilisations are (3) It contains of Fe2+ and O2- ions
found to become milky in appearance due to (4) It shows metal deficiency defect
(1) Isotropy (2) Crystallisation 61. Conductivity of semiconductors can be increased
(3) Melting (4) Fluidity by
53. Which of the following is not a molecular solid? (1) rise in temperature
(1) Ar (2) H2 (2) doping
(3) SiC (4) SO2 (3) decreasing temperature
54. Which of the following is/are good conductor(s) of (4) Both (1) and (2)
electricity and very high melting network solid(s)? 62. How many Schottky defects are generally observed
(1) Quartz (2) AIN in NaCl at room temperature?
(3) Graphite (4) All of these (1) One Schottky defect per 106 ions
55. How many types of body centred unit cells are (2) One Schottky defect per 1016 ions
possible in crystal system? (3) One Schottky defect per 1022 ions
(1) 4 (2) 3 (4) One Schottky defect per 1018 ions
(3) 2 (4) 1 63. Solids exhibit an amazing range of electrical
56. An example of Rhombohedral crystal system is conductivities, extending over _____ orders of
magnitude ranging from ______.
(1) Zinc blende (2) Rhombic sulphur
(1) 27, 10-20 to 107 ohm -1 m -1
(3) Calcite (4) White tin
(2) 27, 10-7 to 1020 ohm -1 m -1
57. How many variations are possible in monoclinic type
of crystal system? (3) 20, 10-13 to 107 ohm -1 m -1
(1) 4 (2) 3 (4) 20, 10-20 to 1010 ohm -1 m -1
(3) 2 (4) 1 64. Crystal system having edge lengths a = b = c and
axial angles alpha = beta = gamma  90° is called
58. If aluminium crystallises in a ccp structure (Metallic
radius = 125 pm) then the length of the side of unit (1) Tetragonal
cell will be (2) Orthorhombic
(1) 350.7 pm (2) 412.2 pm (3) Triclinic
(3) 397.7 pm (4) 490.5 pm (4) Rhombohedral
Page 5
NEET PREP Test Series-06
65. Select incorrect statement(s) among the following 72. Select the correct option among the following
(a) Number of octahedral voids per hcp unit cell is 6 (1) Van’t Hoff factor of MgSO4 in very dilute solution
(b) Number of possible variations in Hexagonal is 2
crystal system is 3 (2) In solvent of low value of dielectric constant, Van’t
Hoff factor of ethanoic acid is more than one
(c) In a fcc unit cell, number of tetrahedral voids on
each edge is 1 (3) Observed molar mass of acetic acid in water is
more than 60
(d) Primitive cubic unit cell forms AAA…pattern
(4) Ideal solution in which a solute has Van’t Hoff
(1) Only (b) (2) Only (c) factor greater than 1, has greater average
(3) Both (b) and (c) (4) Both (b) and (d) intermolecular forces in solution than individual
66. Defects in solids are found when intermolecular forces of solvent and solute
particles
(1) Crystallisation process occurs extremely slow
73. In order to complete the given sentences a, b and c,
(2) Crystallisation process occurs at fast rate
choose the correct option.
(3) Crystallisation process occurs at moderate rate
(a) For an Ideal solution, enthalpy change of mixing
(4) All of these is ….....…… and entropy change of mixing
67. An element has bcc structure (atomic mass 93u). is ………......
If density is 8.55 gcm-3, atomic radius of the (b) For chloroform and acetone mixture, enthalpy
element is change of mixing is, ……… and entropy change
(1) 728 pm (2) 143.1 pm of mixing is …………
(3) 375.4 pm (4) 623.4 pm (c) Ethyl alcohol and water on mixing form ……….
boiling azeotrope for which Gibbs energy change
68. Select the incorrect statement. is ………
(1) In Frenkel defect usually cation is dislocated (1) (a) Positive, positive, (b) Positive, positive, (c)
from its normal site Maximum, positive
(2) Stoichiometric defects are the point defects. (2) (a) Zero, Zero, (b) Negative, positive, (c)
They are also called thermodynamic defects Maximum, negative
(3) Excess of lithium makes LiCl crystals violet (3) (a) Zero, positive, (b) Negative, positive, (c)
(4) Due to metal excess defect ZnO turns yellow Maximum, negative
on heating (4) (a) Zero, positive, (b) Negative, positive, (c)
69. Select the correct statement among the following Minimum, negative
(1) Semiconductors are the solids with conductivities 74. Which has highest osmotic pressure?
ranging from 104 to 107ohm-1m-1 (1) 100 ml of 1M glucose solution
(2) Crystalline solids are isotropic in nature
M
(3) Quartz is an example of molecular solid (2) 200 ml of NaCl solution
2
(4) Metallic lustre is due to the presence of free M
electrons in metals (3) 300 ml of MgCl2 solution
3
70. Select incorrect statement of the following (4) All have same value
(1) Close packing in two dimensions may result in 75. Which of the following solution will have least vapour
coordination number 6 pressure?
(2) In one dimensional close packed arrangement, (1) 1L 1M NaCl solution
the coordination number is 2
(2) 1L 1M BaCl2 solution ( = 70%)
(3) The primitive cubic unit cell has ABAB… type
pattern (3) 1L 1M AlCl3 solution ( = 60%)
(4) Octahedral voids are surrounded by six spheres. (4) All have same value
71. In an 1.0 molal aqueous solution of KI, on addition of 76. A mixture of benzene and toluene have a vapour
(1) NaCl osmotic pressure will remains the same pressure of 290 mm at 300 K. The vapour pressure
of toluene is 200 mm. If the mole fraction of benzene
(2) Na2SO4 freezing point of the solution increases
is 0.6, its vapour pressure at same temperature will
(3) Water, vapour pressure of solution increases be
(4) 1 molal aqueous KI solution, vapour pressure of (1) 300 mm (2) 350 mm
solution increases
(3) 360 mm (4) 700 mm
Page 6
NEET PREP Test Series-06
77. A solution which cannot be separated to its
constituent by fractional distillation is (4) P0solvent
0
(1) Minimum boiling azeotrope P solute
(2) Maximum boiling azeotrope
(3) Ideal solution
Xsolute = 1 Xsolute = 0
(4) Both (1) and (2)
Xsolvent = 0 Xsolvent = 1
78. Which of the following is a correct statement of
Henry’s law?
82. Which has highest freezing point?
(1) Solubility of any gas in a liquid is directly
(1) 1 molal solution of Glucose
proportional to temperature
(2) Solubility of any gas in a liquid is directly (2) 1 molal solution of NaCl
proportional to atmospheric pressure (3) 1 molal solution of MgCl2
(3) Solubility of any gas in a liquid is directly (4) All have same value
proportional to partial pressure of gas
83. Which of the following is correct for ideal solution?
(4) Solubility of any gas in a liquid is inversely
(1) Hmix  0 (2) Vmix  0
proportional to mole fraction of gas
79. An organic compound pentamerises in benzene. (3) PT = PºAxA + PºBxB (4) PT > PºAxA + PºBxB
Calculate value of Van’t Hoff factor for it, if percentage 84. Which of the following components on mixing will
of pentamerisation is 75%. evolve energy?
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.6 (1) Ethanol + water (2) Benzene + Toluene
(3) 0.75 (4) 0.25 (3) n-hexane + n-heptane(4) Nitric acid + water
80. The density (in g/mL) of a 1.8 M H2SO4 solution that 85. Which of the following is incorrect expression for an
is 29% H2SO4 by mass will be electrolyte undergoing dissociation in a solvent?
(1) 0.61 (2) 0.72
(1) i > 1
(3) 0.82 (4) 0.94
(2) Molar massabnormal > Molar massnormal
81. Which of the following graph correctly expresses the
variation of vapour pressure with mole fractions of a (3) Value of coligative propertyobserved > Value of
solution containing non-volatile electrolyte? coligative propertynormal
(4) All of these
0
(1) P solvent
P0solute
SECTION-B
86. The total number of voids in 0.5 mol of a compound
that forms hexagonal close-packed structure is
Xsolute = 1 Xsolute = 0 (1) 6.011 × 10^23 (2) 3.033 × 10^21
Xsolvent = 0 Xsolvent = 1
(3) 5.055 × 10^24 (4) 9.033 × 10^23
87. A unit can of a mineral contains calcium, titanium
(2) P0solvent and oxygen atoms at corners, body centre and face
centres respectively. What is the oxidation number
of titanium in the mineral?

Xsolute = 0
(1) +1 (2) +2
Xsolute = 1
Xsolvent = 1 Xsolvent = 0 (3) +3 (4) +4
88. An ionic compound crystallizes like NaCl
0 coordination number of cation in crystal is
(3) P solvent
0
P solute (1) 8 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 12
89. MgFe2O4 and ZnFe2O4 are
Xsolute = 1 Xsolute = 0 (1) Ferrimagnetic (2) Ferromagnetic
Xsolvent = 0 Xsolvent = 1 (3) Ferrites (4) Both (1) and (3)

Page 7
NEET PREP Test Series-06
90. How many unit cells are present in 2g potassium
crystallising as body centred cubic lattice? 2x 0
(1) –x0C (2)  C
(1) 2.16 × 1021 (2) 1.54 × 1022 3
18
(3) 2.9 × 10 (4) 3.9 × 1024
3x0
91. A solid is made up of atoms P and Q. ‘Q’ are in ccp (3)  C (4) Data insufficient
2
arrangement while ‘P’ occupy all the tetrahedral
voids. Co-ordination number of Q is 98. For the given setup :
(1) 2 (2) 4
Semipermeable
(3) 8 (4) 12 membrane
92. Atoms of element B form hcp lattice and those of
the element A occupy 3/4th of tetrahedral voids.
2N Solution I II 1N Solution
Formula of the compound formed by the elements of glucose of glucose
A and B is in solvent Y in solvent X
(1) AB (2) AB2
(3) A2B3 (4) A3B2
When compound X reacts with compound Y, green
93. A compound is formed by two elements A and B.
colouration is produced. Green colouration will be
The element A forms fcc and atoms of B occupy
observed in which compartment?
½ of tetrahedral voids. Formula of the compound is
(1) A2B (2) A2B3 (1) Compartment I
(2) A3B4 (4) AB (2) Compartment II
94. Which of the following statement(s) is /are true? (3) Both the compartments
(a) If a ccp unit cell is divided into four equal parts, (4) None of the compartments
there is one tetrahedral void in each part 99. 1L 1M BaCl2 is added to 1L 1M Na2SO4 solution
(b) At each edge of the cube, two octahedral voids and solution is filtered. What is the change brought
are present in a fcc unit cell in freezing point, if the following reaction takes place
(c) hcp structure involves ABCABC ….. pattern on mixing 2 solutions,
(d) Both fcc and hcp have 74% space in the BaCl2 + Na2SO4  BaSO4 + 2NaCl?
crystal filled
(1) Freezing point is raised
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (d) (4) Only (d) (2) Freezing point is lowered
95. Molality of an aqueous solution of urea in which mole (3) No change in freezing point
fraction of urea is 0.2, is (4) Data insufficient
(1) 12.33 m (2) 13.89 m 100. If mole fraction of NaCl in its aqueous solution is
(3) 10.33 m (4) 13.33 m 0.2. Then, correct expression for boiling point
96. If Henry constants of gases H2, N2 and O2 at 293 K elevation is
are related as KH(O2) < KH(H2) < KH(N2), then select
the correct statement among the following 2  K b  0.2  1000
(1) Tb 
(1) With increase in temperature solubility of oxygen 0 .8
gas increases while of nitrogen gas decreases
(2) Magnitude of slope of graph of partial pressure 2  K b  0.2  1000
and mole fraction is more for hydrogen gas than (2) Tb 
nitrogen gas
0.8  18
(3) At 393 K solubility of gases oxygen, hydrogen
and nitrogen will be same
K b  0.2  1000
(3) Tb 
(4) Solubility of hydrogen gas will be less than 18
oxygen gas at 1 bar pressure
97. If equimolar aqueous solution of Na2SO 4 and K b  0.2  1000
(4) Tb 
BaSO4 are prepared and freezing point of BaSO4 0.8  18
is –x0C then freezing point of Na2SO4 is

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NEET PREP Test Series-06

BOTANY

SECTION-A (2) Energy related chemical compounds do not

contain the elements obtained from air
101. Julius van Sachs for the first time demonstrated
that (3) Calcium ion does not act as an activator for
ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase
(1) Plants can be grown in the absence of water
(4) Monovalent cations do not help in determining
(2) Plants can be grown to maturity even in complete
the solute concentration
absence of soil
107. Zinc is involved in the
(3) Minerals are essential for the proper growth of
(1) Activation of carboxylases only
plants
(2) Activation of alcohol dehydrogenase only
(4) Soil is the source of nutrients for plants
(3) Synthesis of auxin
102. By the technique of hydroponics we can do all of the
following, except (4) Synthesis of phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
(1) Finding out the deficiency symptoms 108. The element which is not common to both proteins
and nucleic acid is
(2) Identification of essential elements
(1) Nitrogen (2) Sulphur
(3) Calculation of the rate of photosynthesis
(3) Oxygen (4) Hydrogen
(4) Commercial production of various plants
109. Match the following columns and select the correct
103. Following tests regarding the elements E1, E2, E3 option.
and E4 in a plant are given below
Column I Column II
A : E1 is involved in flowering but its deficiency can
a. Potassium (i) Helps to maintain
be met by other element E3.
ribosome structure
B : E3 is directly involved in photosynthesis and it
b. Magnesium (ii) Needed during the
cannot be replaced by any other elements.
formation of mitotic
C : Without E2, the plant cannot complete its life spindle
cycle and no other elements can function as E2
c. Iron (iii) Involved in opening
in plant.
and closing of
D : Only E 4 am ong all nutrient elements is stomata
responsible for a particular step occurs during
d. Calcium (iv) Absorbed by the
nitrate assimilation.
plants in the form of
Based on above information, identify the elements(s) trivalent cation
which is/are said to be essential for the plant and (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
choose the correct option
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) All E1, E2, E3 & E4 (2) Only E2, E3 & E4
110. The element absorbed by the plants either as
(3) Only E3 & E4 (4) Only E1 monovalent anion or bivalent anion is
104. Amongst the essential elements for plants, how (1) Phosphorus (2) Sulphur
many of them are obtained by desert plants from
(3) Copper (4) Nitrogen
air?
111. Read the following statements:
(1) Two (2) Three
(a) Presence of boron and excess of manganese
(3) Four (4) Five
show opposite response with respect to calcium
105. Which of the following elements is present in a in plants.
healthy plant tissues in excess of 10mole Kg-1 of (b) Molybdenum is a component of both the
dry matter? enzymes involved in nitrogen fixation and
(1) Manganese (2) Boron conversion of nitrate to nitrite.
(3) Iron (4) Magnesium (c) Iron competes with manganese for uptake in
106. Select the correct statement w.r.t. nutrient elements plants
in plants The incorrect one(s) is/are
(1) Structural elements of cells do not involve mineral (1) (a) & (b) (2) (b) & (c)
element (3) Only (c) (4) (b) only
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NEET PREP Test Series-06
112. The critical concentration of nitrogen in dry matter c. Maintains turgor of cells
of plant is less than that of d. Is readily mobilised from older tissues
(1) Potassium (2) Carbon Select the correct statements?
(3) Sulphur (4) Magnesium (1) a, d only (2) b, d only
113. During the process of imbibition, water movement (3) a, c & d only (4) All a, b, c & d
is
123. Match the columns and select the correct option
(1) Against the concentration gradient
Column-I Column-II
(2) By the process of active transport
a. Mo (i) Splitting of water
(3) Always uphill b. B (ii) Required for uptake
(4) Along the concentration gradient & utilisation of Ca
114. If the external solution balances the osmotic c. Cl (iii) Nitrogen metabolism
pressure of the cytoplasm of the cell, it is said to
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
be
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(1) Hypertonic (2) Hypotonic
124. Combination of some elements delays flowering.
(3) Isotonic (4) Highly concentrated Which of the given options contains such an element
115. The responsibility of absorption of water and minerals pair?
is more specifically the function of the (1) N, Zn (2) Ca, Cu
(1) Root hairs (2) Apoplast (3) Mo, S (4) S, Fe
(3) Casparian strip (4) Plasmodesmata 125. A - Excess of Mn may induce deficiency of Fe, Mg
116. Majority of water transport in most of the plants is and Ca.
met by B - Mn toxicity induce formation of brown spot
(1) Guttation (2) Root pressure surrounded by chlorotic veins.
(3) Transpiratory pull (4) Plasmolysis (1) Only A is incorrect
117. The plant factor that affects the rate of transpiration (2) Only B is incorrect
is (3) Both A & B are incorrect
(1) Humidity (2) Canopy structure (4) Both A & B are correct
(3) Wind speed (4) Light 126. Transport of water, mineral and organic nutrients in
118. Transpiration pull for absorption and transport of water plants, which proceeds over longer distances
by plants is created by through the vascular system is called
(1) Photosynthesis (2) Evaporative cooling (1) Cytoplasmic streaming
(3) Turgidity (4) Transpiration (2) Active transport
119. Most of the minerals enter the root and into the (3) Translocation
cytoplasm of epidermal cells by (4) Diffusion
(1) Active absorption (2) Passive transport 127. In rooted plants, transport of organic and mineral
(3) Diffusion (4) Facilitated diffusion nutrients is
120. Elements most readily mobilised by the plants are (1) Unidirectional
(1) N, P, K (2) Ca, S, Mg (2) From roots to stem only
(3) Mg, Fe, Ca (4) Mn, S, Ca (3) Over short distance
121. Which of the following is an essential element for (4) Multidirectional
higher plants? 128. Diffusion is very important to the plant since it is
(1) Sodium (2) Sulphur the only means for
(3) Selenium (4) Silicon (1) Short distance movement
122. Potassium (2) Long distance movement
a. Helps to maintain cation – anion balance (3) Gaseous movement within plant body
b. Is involved in protein and DNA synthesis (4) Passive movement
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NEET PREP Test Series-06
129. Value of which of the following cannot be zero? (1) Calcium (2) Nitrogen
(1) TP of a flaccid cell (3) Potassium (4) Carbon
(2) OP of a turgid cell 137. Deficiency of N, S and Mo in a plant can cause which
of the following symptoms?
(3) OP – TP of a turgid cell
I. Delay in flowering
(4) ψp of a flaccid cell
II. Necrosis
130. If some solute is dissolved in solution III. Chlorosis
(1) The solution will have more free water molecules IV. Inhibition of cell division
(2) Concentration of water increases The correct one(s) is/are
(3) Free energy of water increases (1) I & IV only (2) All I, II, III & IV
(4) Its solute potential is reduced (3) I only (4) I, III & IV only
138. Appearance of brown spots surrounded by chlorotic
131. Which of the following type of transport mechanism
veins in plants is due to toxicity of
requires ATP energy?
(1) Phosphorus (2) Sulphur
(1) Facilitated diffusion
(3) Calcium (4) Manganese
(2) Uphill transport
139. With which of the following groups of organisms,
(3) Downhill transport plants compete for the limited nitrogen available in
(4) Simple diffusion the soil?
132. Condition necessary for imbitition is (1) Insectivores (2) Parasites
a. Affinity between adsorbant and absorbent (3) Microbes (4) Herbivores
b. Water potential gradient 140. If there is no nitrogenase enzyme on the earth, there
will be no
c. Energy in the form of ATP
(1) Nitrogen fixation in the nature
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(2) Nitrification by microorganisms
(3) a and c (4) All a, b and c
(3) Nitrogen fixation by microorganisms
133. Water potential of a cell is affected by
(4) Denitrification carried by bacteria
(1) Only solute potential
141. Ammonia is oxidised to nitrate by
(2) Only pressure potential (1) A single genus of microbes
(3) Both solute and pressure potential (2) Group of chemoautotrophs
(4) Neither solute nor pressure potential (3) A symbiotic bacterium
134. The term used to refer specifically to the diffusion (4) Green plants
of water across a differentially or selectively 142. In the presence of Rhizobium, division and growth of
permeable membrane is which tissues cells lead to nodule formation?
(1) Active transport (1) Cortex and pericycle
(2) Osmosis (2) Endodermal and vascular cambium
(3) Uphill movement (3) Pericycle and phloem
(4) Imbibition (4) Epidermal and cortex
135. Which of the following is ultimately responsible for 143. Which amino acid is formed first from α-ketoglutaric
enlargement and extension growth of cells acid by reductive amination?
(1) Plasmolysis (2) Water potential (1) Aspartate (2) Glutamate
(3) Turgor pressure (4) Diffusion (3) Arginine (4) Glycine
144. Water, sucrose along with other sugars, hormones
SECTION-B and amino acids are translocated
136. A mixture of mineral nutrients deficient in a particular (1) Unidirectionally always
element X is supplied to a plant. After few days, the (2) Upwards only
first appearance of deficiency symptom is seen in
(3) Through phloem
apical tissues. Which of the following elements X
may be? (4) Through xylem
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NEET PREP Test Series-06
145. The accepted mechanism used for the translocation 148. Identify the incorrect statement
of sugars from source to sink is called (1) Osmotic pressure is the function of solute
(1) Cohesion-adhesion hypothesis concentration
(2) Surface tension in gas phase (2) Numerically osmotic pressure and osmotic
(3) Pressure flow hypothesis potential are same

(4) Transpiration driven ascent of sap (3) Pressure potential is always positive

146. A - Facilitated diffusion of substance across cell (4) Active transport may saturate before equilibrium
membrane involve membrane proteins to set 149. Identify the correct match
up a concentration gradient. (1) Flaccid cell - p can not be zero
B - Short distance transport of substance involves (2) Turgid cell - TP = 0(zero)
cytoplasmic streaming, diffusion but not active
transport. (3) Plasmolysed cell - DPD = 0
(1) Only A is correct (4) Flaccid cell - Flow of water in and out
of the cell is in equilibrium
(2) Only B is correct
150. Mark these statement true (T) or false (F) and select
(3) Both A & B are correct
the correct option.
(4) Both A & B are incorrect
A. In mycorrhiza, roots provide sugar and N-
147. “A solute ‘X’ is dissolved in pure water at atmospheric compound to fungus.
temperature and pressure. B. Suberised band of endodermis in stem act as
Choose the correct option for above statement. check point for water.
(1) The solution has more water potential than the C. Pinus seeds show obligate association with
pure water. mycorrhiza.
(2) The s of this solution is zero (1) A-T, B-T, C-T (2) A-T, B-F, C-F
(3) The w of this solution remains unchanged (3) A-T, B-F, C-T (4) A-F, B-F, C-F
(4) Adding solute in this solution decreases its solute
potential
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A A
B
151. The cup shaped cavity of pelvic girdle for the
articulation of the head of the femur is called C
(1) Glenoid cavity (2) Acetabulum (1) A-Tropomyosin, B-troponin, C-F-actin
(3) Obturator foramen (4) Sigmoid notch (2) A-Tropomyosin, B-myosin, C-F-tropomyosin
152. Which of the following is true about vertebral column? (3) A-Troponin, B-Tropomyosin, C-Myosin
(1) Each vertebra has a central hollow neural canal (4) A-Troponin, B-tropomyosin, C-F-actin
for spinal cord 155. Which statement is correct for muscle contraction?
(2) The first vertebra is atlas and it articulates with (1) Length of H-band increases
the occipital condyle (2) Length of A-Band remains constant
(3) Vertebral column protects spinal cord, supports (3) Length of I-band increases
the head
(4) Distance between two Z-lines increases
(4) All of these
156. Select the total number of true statements from the
153. Relaxation of muscle is due to the following
(1) Pumping of Ca++ into sarcoplasmic reticulum (a) Each myosin filament is a polymerised protein
(2) Decrease in the level of cytosolic Ca++ (b) Many monomeric proteins called meromyosins
(3) Conformational change in tropomyosin constitute one thick filament
(4) All of these (c) Each meromyosin has two important parts
154. Following is the figure of thin filament. Identify A, B called the heavy meromyosin (HMM) and the
and C light meromyosin (LMM)

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NEET PREP Test Series-06
(d) The HMM component, i.e., the head and short (4) It inhibits reabsorpotion of NaCl and water
arm project outwards at regular distance and 167. RAAS system operates in the following manner
angle from each other from the surface of a
polymerised myosin filament and is known as Angiotensinogen Renin Angiotensin— A
Angiostesin—
cross arm
(1) 2 (2) 3 Stimulates
aldosterone
(3) 4 (4) 1 secretion

157. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? The labelled-A is an enzyme, secreted principally
(1) Hinge joint – between vertebrae from which organ ?
(2) Gliding joint – between carpals (1) Liver (2) Kidney
(3) Cartilagenous joint – skull bones (3) Lungs (4) Adrenal gland
(4) Fibrous joint – between phalanges 168. Renal failure is indicated by
158. The vertebral formula of human is (1) Oliguria (2) Anuria
(1) C7T12L5S5Co1 (2) C5T12L(5)S(5)Co5 (3) Uremia (4) All of these
(3) C7T12L5S(5)Co(4) (4) C7T12L5S(5)Co4 169. Land snails are
159. Two curvatures are found in (1) Ammonotelic (2) Ureotelic
(1) Vertebral column (2) Ribs (3) Uricotelic (4) Guanotelic
(3) Sternum (4) Clavicle 170. Which of the following is the osmoregulatory organ
of crustaceans ?
160. Regulatory protein of muscle is
(1) Malphigian tubules (2) Nephridia
(1) Actin (2) Troponin
(3) Green gland (4) Jacobson’s organ
(3) Tropomyosin (4) Both (2) and (3)
171. Flame cells are excretory organ in
161. Which of the following is the contractile protein of
a muscle? (1) Earthworm (2) Planaria
(1) Tubulin (2) Myosin (3) Ascaris (4) Periplaneta
(3) Tropomyosin (4) All of these 172. In which of the following conditions the RAAS
system operates ?
162. Which has major role in muscle contraction?
(1) Increase in osmolarity of blood
(1) Ca2+ (2) Na+
(2) Decrease in blood volume
(3) K+ (4) Mg2+
(3) Decrease in B.P.
163. The joint in our neck which allows us to rotate our
head left to right is (4) All of these
(1) Pivot joint (2) Hinge joint 173. Match the following and choose the correct option
(3) Saddle joint (4) Ellipsoid joint Column A Column B
164. Which pair does not posses corresponding bones? A. PCT (i) Selective secretion of
H+ and K+ ion
(1) Carpals and tarsals
B. DCT (ii) 70-80 percent of
(2) Atlas and ribs
electrolytes and
(3) Pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle water reabsorbed
(4) Humerus and Femur C. Descending limb (iii) Allows secretion of
165. Presence of which substance in urine gives an small amount of urea
evidence of kidney damage ? D. Ascending limb (iv) Permeable to water
(1) Glucose (2) Albumin E. Collecting duct (v) Permeable to salt
(3) H+ (4) Ketone bodies (1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v
166. Which of the following is incorrect about the ANF?
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii, E-i
(1) It inhibits RAAS
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-v, E-iii
(2) Increases urine formation
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-v, D-iv, E-iii
(3) Stimulates adrenal gland to secrete aldosterone

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NEET PREP Test Series-06
174. Which of the following parts in renal tubule absorbs 181. Which of the following are facial bones
maximum amount of substances from glomerular (1) Nasal and Frontal
filtrate ?
(2) Maxilla and Mandible
(1) PCT (2) DCT
(3) Nasal and Parietal
(3) Ascending limb (4) Collecting duct
(4) Maxilla and Temporal
175. Which of the following regions of nephric tubules
have highest concentration of filtrate ? 182. Choose the incorrect match with respect to
number of bones
(1) PCT
(1) Vertebrae in embryo : 33
(2) Upper portion of ascending limb
(2) Ribs : 24
(3) Lower portion of descending limb
(3) Carpals : 16
(4) DCT
(4) Tarsals : 16
176. Read the following
183. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body
(i) Inhibition of RAAS fluid is
(ii) Stimulate reabsorption of Na+ (1) Arthritis (2) Gout
(iii) Increase secretion of aldosterone (3) Tetany (4) Myasthenia gravis
(iv) Increase Na+ in urine 184. Choose the incorrect statement about cranium
Which of the above physiological processes is (1) Total number of bones are 8
directly or indirectly affected by ANF ?
(2) Bones fused together to form sutures
(1) i, ii (2) ii, iii
(3) Occipital bone has a large opening called
(3) i, iv (4) iii, iv foramen of Monro
177. Match the Column A with Column B and choose the (4) Human cranium has 2 occipital condyles
correct option
185. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle largely
Column A Column B due to genetic disorder occurs in
I JG cell A Phagocytosis (1) Gout (2) Arthritis
II Podocyte B Renin secretion
(3) Muscular dystrophy (4) Osteoporosis
III Mesangial cell C Filtration slit
(1) I - A, II - B, III - C (2) I - B, II - C, III - A SECTION-B
(3) I - A, II - C, III - B (4) I - C, II - B, III - A 186. Which of the following is to be expected if Henle’s
loop were absent from mammalian nephron ?
178. Cortex extending between the medullary pyramids
in kidney is called as (1) No urine formation
(1) Minor calyx (2) Major calyx (2) No change in the quality and quantity of urine
formed
(3) Column of Bertini (4) Renal papilla
(3) Concentrated urine formation
179. Which of the following are true for sarcomere?
(4) Formation of dilute urine
A. It is the functional unit of muscle contraction
187. Expulsion of urine from urinary bladder is due to
B. It consists of complete A band and half of
contraction of which muscle ?
I-band on either side
(1) Phrenic muscle (2) Skeletal muscle
C. It is the portion between two I-bands
(3) Smooth muscle (4) Voluntary muscle
(1) A and C (2) A and B
188. Which is incorrect about the RAAS ?
(3) B and C (4) A, B and C
(1) Renin is secreted from macula densa
180. Choose the incorrect one
(2) Angiotensinogen is produced in liver
(1) A-band is made up of both actin and myosin
filament (3) It operates when BP falls
(2) H-zone is present in the middle of A-band (4) ACE of lung is required for operation of RAAS
(3) The thin filaments are firmly attached to the 189. Which of the following is a non-metabolite for
Z-line human body ?
(4) ATPase activity is associated with actin (1) Insulin (2) Ketones
(3) Inulin (4) Starch
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NEET PREP Test Series-06
190. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F) 196. Which statement is not correct for white muscle
I. Excess of urea in urine is called uremia fibres ?
II. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is called (1) They rely on aerobic respiration
glomerulonephritis (2) They have less mitochondria and more ER
III. Counter current mechanism in mammals is
(3) They soon get fatigued
essential to concentrate urine
IV. Reabsorption of H 2O at PCT is under the (4) They have a faster rate of contraction for short
influence of ADH periods
197. Which of the following shows amoeboid movement?
I II III IV
(1) T F F T (1) RBC (2) WBC
(3) Macrophages (4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) T F T F
(3) F T T T 198. Each coxal bone is formed by fusion of
(1) 2 bones (2) 3 bones
(4) F T T F
(3) 4 bones (4) 6 bons
191. Part of pelvic girdle joined by sacral vertebrae is
199. Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) Ischium (2) leum
(A) Z-line is present in the center of the light band
(3) lium (4) Pubis
(B) Thin filaments are firmly attached to the M-line
192. Which of the following does atlas-axis joint belong
to? (C) The central part of thick filaments, not
overlapped by thin filaments is called Z-line
(1) Angular joint (2) Ellipsoid joint
(D) Light band contains thin filaments
(3) Gliding joint (4) Pivot joint
(1) A and D (2) B and C
193. Which of the following is incorrect for ribs?
(3) A and C (4) B and D
(1) 7 pairs of vertebrosternal ribs
200. Put the following statements in proper sequence
(2) 3 pairs of vertebro-chondral ribs
with respect to muscle contraction
(3) 2 floating ribs
(a) Formation of actin-myosin complex
(4) 2 pairs of vertebral ribs
(b) Generation of action potential in the
194. Choose the correct example for saddle joint sarcolemma
(1) Occipital condyle and atlas joint (c) Release of Ca++ from sarcoplasmic reticulum
(2) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb (d) The neurotransmitter acetylcholine released at
(3) Metacarpo-phalangeal joint motor end plate
(4) Atlas and axis joint (e) Sarcomere shortens
195. Only movable bone of skull is (f) Actin filaments slide over myosin
(1) Vomer (2) Maxilla (1) c, b, d, a, e, f (2) d, b, c, a, f, e
(3) Mandible (4) Zygomatic (3) a, d, c, b, f, e (4) d, e, c, b, a, f

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