06/04/2024

Evening

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Memory Based
Answers & Solutions
Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2024 (Online) Phase-2

(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The maximum marks
are 300.

(3) This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is
Mathematics. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.

(4) Section - A : Attempt all questions.

(5) Section - B : Attempt any 05 questions out of 10 Questions.

(6) Section - A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(7) Section - B (21 – 30) contains 10 Numerical value based questions. The answer to each question
should be rounded off to the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and
–1 mark for wrong answer.

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

PHYSICS
SECTION - A 3. If kinetic energy of a block of mass m increases 36
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 times. By what percentage will the momentum
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices increase?
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (1) 6%
(2) 600%
Choose the correct answer:
(3) 60%
1. There are two fixed charged spheres P and Q
(4) 500%
repelling each other with force of 16 N. A third
Answer (4)
neutral sphere is placed between the charged
P2
spheres. The new force between spheres is Sol. k =
2m
(assuming all three spheres are insulating spheres)
P2
36k = 1  P1 = 6P (Increased by 500%)
(1) 8 N 2m

(2) 32 N 4. A ball is projected vertically upward from a building.

Time taken to reach ground is T1. Another ball is
(3) 16 N projected downward from the same building with
(4) 4 N same speed. Time taken to reach ground is T2. If a
third ball is released from the building, time taken to
Answer (3) reach ground is

Sol. Electric force between two charges doesn’t depend (1) T1T2 (2) T12 + T22
on intervening medium.
(3) T12 – T22 (4) 2 T1T2
2. A tree branch holds a weight of 200 N by a uniform
Answer (1)
chain of mass 10 kg. The force applied by branch
1 2
to hold this weight is (take g = 10 m/s2) Sol. – H = V0T1 – gT1
2
(1) 150 N 1 2
– H = –V0T2 – gT2
2
(2) 100 N
2 2
1  T1 + T2  1  T1 – T2 
(3) 200 N H= g  – g 
2  2  2  2 
(4) 300 N
2H
T =
Answer (4) g

Sol. F = 200 + 100 = 300 N  T = T1T2

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

5. The weight of an object measured on the surface of 7. An isolated system contains one mole of helium,
earth is 300 N. What will be weight of the same given a heat of 48 J. If the temperature of system
R
object at depth inside the earth? changes by 2°C, then find work done.
4
(take R = 8.35/mole-K)
(R = radius of earth)
(1) 220 N (1) 32.20 J

(2) 225 N (2) 37.34 J

(3) 200 N
(3) 40.74 J
(4) 210 N
(4) 41.74 J
Answer (2)
Sol. W1 = mg = 300 N Answer (4)

 d Sol. Q = 48 J
W2 = mg  = mg  1 − 
 R
Q = V + W
3
= mg   3R
4 48 = 1 ( 2) + W
2
= 225 N
3
6. An ammeter consists of 240  galvanometer and W = 48 − ( 8.35 )
4
10  shunt resistance is connected in circuit as
shown. Reading of ammeter is = 41.74

8. Find the longest wavelength of Paschen series for

hydrogen atom. (Rydberg constant = 107/m)

(1) 2.06 m

(2) 20.6 m
(1) 0.18 A (2) 0.16 A
(3) 4.86 m
(3) 0.32 A (4) 3.2 A
(4) 48.6 m
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
10  240
Sol. RA = = 9.6 
250 1  1 1
Sol. = R 2 − 2 
R = 140.4 + 9.6 = 150   3 4 

24 144
i= = 0.16 = = 20.57  10– 7
150 7  107

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

9. Find net kinetic energy (maximum possible) 11. The displacement (x) of a particle vary as x2 =
associated with 20 diatomic molecules (Here kB is 1 + t2 and acceleration is given function of x as x–n,
then find n.
Boltzmann constant and T is absolute temperature
of diatomic gas). (1) 1 (2) 3

(1) 35 kBT (3) 4 (4) 2

Answer (2)
(2) 70 kBT
Sol. x = 1 + t 2
(3) 60 kBT
1
1(
1 + t 2 ) 2 (2t )
–
(4) 30 kBT v=
2
Answer (2) t
=
1 a + 1+ t 2
Sol. Ei = ( 5 + 2 ) kT
2 1
a= = x –3
7 x3
= kT
2 12.
7 13.
ET = 20  kT
2 14.
= 70 kBT 15.
10. Statement-I : Dimensions of specific heat capacity 16.
is [L2T–2K–1] 17.
Statement-II : Dimensions of universal gas 18.
constant is [ML2T–1K–1] 19.
(1) Both statements are incorrect 20.
(2) Both statements are correct
SECTION - B
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
incorrect
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is each question should be rounded-off to the nearest
correct integer.
Answer (3)
21. A convex lens has a focal length of f = 20 cm,
2 –2
Q ML T R1 = 15 cm, R2 = 30 cm. The refractive index of the
Sol. S = = = [L2 T –2K –1 ]
mT mK x
lens is . The value of x is _______ .
ML T2 –2 2
R= = [ML2 T – 2K –1 ]
K Answer (3)

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

1  1 1  Answer (52)
Sol. = ( − 1)  − 
f  1
R R2 
rg (  + tan  ) 300  10 ( 0.2 + tan30 )
Sol. Vmax = =
1  1 1  3 1 −  tan  1 − 0.2 tan30
 = ( − 1)  +  = ( − 1)
20  15 30  30
Vmax = 2680 = 51.76 m/s
1
  −1=   = 1.5
2 25. Two sources produce, individually, intensities of I
22. For a device, power consumed = 110 W and and 4I at a location. If they are coherent, then
voltage supplied is 220 V. The number of electrons
difference between Imax and Imin is nI. Find n.
x
that flow in 1 s is  1017. Find x.
4 Answer (8)
Answer (125)
( )
2

Sol. P = VI Sol. Imax = I1 + I2 = 9I

 I = 0.5 A
( )
2
Imin = I1 – I2 =I
 Number of electrons
0.5  1  n=8
=
1.6  10–19
26. An object of mass 30 kg and relative density 5 is
1000
=  1017 immersed inside water. The weight of the object
32
= 31.25 × 1017 inside water is 10x N. Find the value of x.

23. In a photoelectric setup, work function of the Answer (24)

material is 2.13 eV, wavelength used in 300 nm. If
hc = 1240 eV.nm, stopping potential for the set-up Sol. W = mg – Vobject × water· g
is ____________ V.
mobject
Answer (2) W = 300 − ·water ·g
object
hc
Sol. –  = eVs
 30
W = 300 –  1 10
 (4.13 – 2.13) eV = eVs 5

 Vs = 2 Volts W = 240 N
24. A car of mass 800 kg is moving in a circular path of
radius 300 m on a banked road with angle 30°. 27.
Coefficient of friction between the car and road is
0.2. Find the maximum safe speed (to the nearest 28.
integer in m/s) with which the car can travel. 29.
( Take 3 = 1.7 ) 30.

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A Answer (3)

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices Sol.
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Choose the correct answer :
1. The molarity of NaCl solution is 3 M. Calculate the
molality of the solution. [Given density of the
solution = 1.25 g/mL]
(1) 2.9 (2) 2.79
(3) 1.85 (4) 3.85
Answer (2)
Sol. Given molarity of solution = 3 M means 3 moles of
NaCl is present in 1000 mL of solution.
Mass of solution = d × v
= 1.25 × 1000
3.
= 1250 g
Mass of solute = 3 × 58.5 = 175.5 g
2. Identify the major product formed in the following Product B is:
reaction.

(1) (2)

(1)

(2)
(3) (4)

(3)

(4) Answer (A)

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

5. Which of the following d-block elements has

maximum unpaired electron in ground state
Sol. electronic configuration?
(1) Ti(22) (2) V(23)
(3) Mn(25) (4) Cr(24)
Answer (4)
Sol. Ti(22) = [Ar] 3d24s2 n=2
V(23) = [Ar] 3d34s2 n=3
Mn(25) = [Ar] 3d54s2 n=5
Cr(24) = [Ar] 3d54s1 n=6
Cr(24) has maximum unpaired electron i.e., 6.
6. Find out shortest wavelength of Paschen series for
H-atom.
9 16
(1) (2)
R R
4. 144 7R
(3) (4)
7R 144
Product P is :
Answer (1)
1 1 1
Sol. = R(1)2  − 
 9 
(1) (2)
1  1
= R 
 9

9
(3) (4) =
R

7. Match the column.

Answer (3)
Column-I Column-II
(Compounds) (Configurations)

A. TiCl4 (1) e3 t 32
Sol.
B. FeO24− (2) e2 t 02

C. FeCl24− (3) e2 t 32

D. MnCl24− (4) e0 t 02

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

(1) A(4), B(2), C(1), D(3) Sol. (1) Enzymes are biocatalyst that catalyse
(2) A(4), B(3), C(2), D(1) numerous biological process.

(3) A(1), B(2), C(3), D(4) (2) They are very specific in nature

(4) A(2), B(4), C(3), D(1) (3) Enzymes are mainly globular proteins

Answer (1) (4) Oxidase are enzymes specific to oxidation –

reduction reactions involving oxidation of C-N
Sol. TiCl4  Ti4+  e0 t 02
and C-O bonds
FeO24−  Fe6+  e2 t02 10. Find relation between KP and KC for given
reaction :
FeCl24−  Fe2+  e3 t32
1
C(s) + O2 (g) ⎯⎯
→ CO(g)
MnCl24−  Mn2+  e2 t 32 2

8. CH3COOH ⎯⎯⎯→
LiAlH4
A ⎯⎯⎯
PCC
→B ⎯⎯⎯
(i) CN −
⎯
→ C ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Hydrolysis
→D (1) KP = KC(RT)1
(ii) H+
(2) KP = KC(RT)–1
Select the correct option
(3) KP = KC(RT)1/2
(4) KP = KC(RT)–1/2
(1) A is CH3CHO (2)
Answer (3)
Sol. KP = KC(RT)ng
(3) B is CH3CH2OH (4) C is CH3CH2CO2H 1
n g =
Answer (2) 2
KP = KC(RT)1/2
Sol.
t11/2 2
11. Given for two first order reactions 2
= .
t1/2 5

t12/3
Then =?
t 24/5

(1) 0.273
(2) 0.468
(3) 0.318
9. Which of the following statement is incorrect-
(1) Enzymes are biocatalyst (4) 2.55

(2) Enzymes are not specific Answer (1)

(3) Enzymes are globular protein K2 2

Sol. =
K1 5
(4) Oxidase enzymes catalyse the oxidation of C-
N and C-O bonds 2.303
t12/3 = log3
Answer (2) K1

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

2.303 Sol. Rate of EAS is

t 24/5 = log5
K2

t12/3 K 2 log3
=
t 24/5 K1 log5
(i) is activated due to resonance and (ii) due to
2 0.477
=  hyperconjugation, (iv) is deactivated due to reverse
5 0.699
hyperconjugation.
= 0.273
14. IUPAC name of complex compound
12. Among the following anions, identify the anion
[Pt(Br)2(PPh3)2].
which gives pale yellow precipitate with aq. AgNO3.
The precipitate is partially soluble in aq. NH4OH (1) Dibromido di(triphenyl phosphine) platinum(II)
solution. (2) Dibromido bis(triphenyl phosphine) platinum(II)
(1) I– (2) Cl– (3) bis(triphenyl phosphine) dibromide platinum(II)

(3) Br– (4) NO2– (4) bis(triphenyl phosphine) dibromide platinate(II)

Answer (3) Answer (2)

Sol. Dibromido bis(triphenyl phosphine) platinum(II) is
Sol. I− + Ag+ ⎯⎯→ AgI (Yellow ppt.)
the correct IUPAC name of given complex
Cl− + Ag+ ⎯⎯→ AgCl (White ppt.) compound.
15.
Br − + Ag+ ⎯⎯→ AgBr (Pale yellow ppt.)
16.
+
NO2– + Ag ⎯⎯→ AgNO2 (White ppt.) 17.
AgBr is partially soluble in aq. NH4OH solution 18.
whereas AgI is insoluble in aq. NH4OH solution. 19.
13. Arrange the following compounds in increasing 20.
order of electrophilic aromatic substitution.
SECTION - B
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest
integer.
(1) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i) 21. For a certain reaction. rH is 400 kJ/mol and
(2) (ii) < (iii) < (iv) < (i) S = 0.2 kJ/mol K. Above what minimum
(3) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) temperature in kelvin, the reaction become
spontaneous
(4) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
Answer (1) Answer (2000)

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

Sol. For reaction to be spontaneous, 23. Among the following, how many metal ions act as
oxidising agents?
G < O
Sn2+, Sn4+, Pb4+, Pb2+, Tl+, Tl3+
H – TS < O
Answer (2)
H 400
T = = 2000 K Sol. Due to inert pair effect, Pb2+ is more stable than
S 0.2
Pb4+ and Tl+ is more stable than Tl3+. Therefore,
Minimum temperature for spontaneity = 2000 K Pb4+ and Tl3+ only will act as oxidising agents

22. The number of compounds having central atom is 24. Calculate the magnetic moment in B.M. of the one
sp2 hybridised from VO2 , MnOO-4 and Cr2O72− which is having
least oxidizing property
HCHO, C2H4, SO2, C6H6, B2H6, BF3, SiO2(s),
CH2Cl2 Answer (0)

Answer (5) Sol. For 3-d transition series,

Oxidizing power V +5  Cr +6  Mn−7

spin of V+5 :

V+5 → [Ar] 4s03d0

Number of unpaired e– = 0

spin = 0
25. How many geometrical isomers are there in but-2-
ene?
Answer (2)
Sol. But-2-ene has one stereogenic centre and it has
two geometrical isomer as given below.

Sol.

26.
27.
28.
29.
If steric number is 3, then hybridisation is sp2. 30.

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - A Sol. We know that,

–1 ≤ sin5x ≤ 1
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices –1 ≤ –sin5x ≤ 1
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 6 ≤ 7 – sin5x ≤ 8
Choose the correct answer: 1 1 1
≤ ≤
dx 1 8 7 − sin5 x 6
1. If ∫a 2
=
sin2 x + b 2 cos2 x 12
tan−1(3 tan x ) + c
 1 1
∴ Range is  , 
then the maximum value of asinx + bcosx is 8 6 
(1) 10 (2) 20 3. There are letters to be delivered to 5 different
location, then find the probability that letter is
(3) 2 10 (4) 2 5 delivered to exactly 2 correct address assuming
Answer (3) each letter is delivered to unique address.

sec 2 xdx 1 1
Sol. I = ∫ (1) (2)
b 2 + a 2 tan2 x 6 5

tanx = t ⇒ sec2xdx = dt 1 1
(3) (4)
12 4
dt 1  at 
=I ∫=
b +a t 2 2 2
ba
tan−1  
b Answer (3)
Sol. ⇒ Select any two correct address
1 a 
⇒ I tan−1  tan x  + c
=
ab b  ⇒ ( 5
C2 )
⇒ ab = 12 ⇒ a2 = 36 Remaining 3 have to be dearranged
a  1 1 1
=3 ⇒ b2 = 4 ⇒ 3!  1 − + − 
b  1! 2! 3! 
⇒ Maximum value of asinx + bcosx is  1 1
= 6  1 − 1 + −  = 3 − 1 = 2 ways
 2 6
a2 + b2 = 40 = 2 10
5
⇒ C2 ⋅ 2 =
10
1
2. Range of equals to
7 − sin5x 10 1
Probability
= =
5! 12
 1 1  1 1
(1)  ,  (2)  ,  4. The 315th word in dictionary arranged in order for
7 5  7 6 
the word ‘NAGPUR’ is
 1 1  1 1 (1) NRAGPU (2) NRPGUA
(3)  ,  (4)  , 
8 5  8 6 
(3) NPRGUA (4) NRAPGU
Answer (4) Answer (4)

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

Sol. Letters N,A,G,P,U,R. (2, 3) ∈ R So (3, 2) ∈ R

Total words start with letter A (2, 4) ∈ R So (4, 2) ∈ R
5! = 120 (2, 5) ∈ R So (5, 2) ∈ R

Words start with G (3, 4) ∈ R So (4, 3) ∈ R

(3, 5) ∈ R So (5, 3) ∈ R
5! = 120
to make R symmetric
Words with N at first place and A at 2nd place
So n = 9
4! = 24
m + n = 25
Words with N at first and G at 2nd place 6. If the area bounded by the region (x, y) such that
4! = 24  a 1
( x, y ) 2 < y < such that 1 < x < 2, 0 < a < 1}
Words with N at first and P at 2nd place  x x
4! = 24  2
is  ln 2 −  sq. units then (7a – 3) is equal to
 7 
So total words 120 + 120 + (24)3
= 312 (1) 0 (2) 1

313th word = NRAGPU (3) 2 (4) 4

314th word = NRAGUP Answer (2)

2
315th word = NRAPGU 2
1 a   a
So, 315th word = NRAPGU
Sol. ⇒ ∫  x − x 2  dx = ln x + x 
1 1
5. Let A = [1, 2, 3, 4, 5], m be the number of relation
 a a
such as 4x < 5y XRY and n be the minimum number  ln 2 + 2  − (ln1 + a ) = ln 2 − 2
of elements to be added from A × A to make  
symmetric relation. Then the value of n + m. 2 a
= ln 2 − = ln 2 −
(1) 26 (2) 25 7 2
(3) 24 (4) 23 4
⇒ a=
Answer (2) 7

Sol. A = [1, 2, 3, 4, 5] ⇒ 7a – 3 =1
2x
XRY when 4x < 5y  1
7. f (x)  
If the function= x > 0, attains the
So R = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (2, 2), x
(2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (4, 4), (4, 5), 1
(5, 4), (5, 5)} maximum value of x = , then
e
m = 16 e
(1) e π < πe (2) e 2π < ( 2π )
As (1, 2) ∈ R then (2, 1) is to be added
(1, 3) ∈ R So (3, 1) will be added (3) ( 2e )π > ( π )2e (4) e π > πe
(1, 4) ∈ R So (4, 1) ∈ R
Answer (4)
(1, 5) ∈ R So (5, 1) ∈ R

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

 1  1
Sol. f   < f   9. lim
∑ (n 4 − 2n3 + n 2 ) is equal to
π e n →∞
∑ ((3n )4 + n3 − n 2 )
1 1
(1) (2)
81 72
1 1
(3) (4)
57 93
Answer (1)
2 2
∑ (n 4 − 2n3 + n 2 ) = lim ∑ n 4
( π) π < ee ⇒π 2e
<e 2π Sol. lim
n →∞
∑ ((3n )4 + n3 − n 2 ) n →∞ ∑ (3n )4
e π > πe (As Σn 2 will dominate and has highest powers of n)

((a × ( iˆ + jˆ) × iˆ) × iˆ) then

 
If a = 2iˆ − jˆ + kˆ and b = 1 ∑n
4
8.
= lim
 
the square of projection of a on b is
n →∞ 34
∑ n4
1
1 =
(1) (2) 2 81
3
10. If (α,β,γ) is the mirror image of Q (3, –3, 1) in the
1 2
(3) (4) x −0 y −3 z−5
2 5 line = = and R (2, 5, 3). If the area
1 1 −1
Answer (4) λ2
of ∆PQR is λ, then equals to
546
iˆ jˆ kˆ

(
Sol. a × iˆ + jˆ = ) 2 −1 1 (1)
125
(2)
25
1 1 0 81 81
1 5
=− iˆ + ˆj + 3kˆ (3) (4)
81 81

((a × ( iˆ + jˆ)) × iˆ) =−kˆ + 3 jˆ Answer (1)

Sol.

(((a × (iˆ + ˆj )) × iˆ) × iˆ ) =− ˆj − 3kˆ (b )



  
 a⋅b
∴ Projection of a on b = 
b

−2
= (λ – 3) + 1 (λ + 6) – 1(–λ + 4) = 0
10
1
4 2 3λ –1 = 0 ⇒ λ =
Square of projection = = 3
10 5

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

1 12. The locus of P such that the ratio of distance P from

Area of ∆PQR = 2 × (QM ⋅ MR)
2 A(3, 1) and B(1, 2) is 5 : 4 is
(1) 81x2 – 92x + 81y2 – 180y = 35
 2 2 2 
 1   −10   14   (2) 81x2 + 92x + 81y2 – 19y = 35
( )( )  
QM =
MR  3 − + −3 + 1 −
 3   3   3   (3) 81x2 – 48x + 81y2 + 20y = 35
 
(4) 81x2 – 90x + 81y2 – 180y = 35
 2 2 2 
Answer (4)
  2 − 1  +  5 − 10  +  3 − 14  
  3   3   3   Sol. Take point P(x, y)
 

(QM )( MR
= )
1
9 ( 64 + 192 + 112 )( 25 + 25 + 25 )
=x
5 + 12
= ,y
10 + 4
9 9
546 × 125
=  17 14 
9 P =  ,  (internally)
 9 9 
5 for externally division.
= 546 × 5
9
7 6
− ,y =
x=
11. Sides of a triangle are AB = 9, BC = 7, AC = 8. Then 9 9
cos 3C equals to
 −7 6 
P′ =  , 
–262 181  9 9
(1) (2)
343 247 Locus of P is the circle whose diameter is PP′
81 –283  −17  7  14  6
(3) (4)  x − 9  x + 9  +  y − 9  y − 9  =0
93 285      
Answer (1) (9x – 17)(9x + 7) + (9y – 14) (9y – 6) = 0
So 81x2 – 90x + 81y2 – 180y = 35

z1 − 2z2
13. If = 2 then
Sol. 1
− z1z2
2
(1) z1 lie on circle with radius 1 and z2 lie on circle
with radius 2
(2) z1 lie on circle with radius 1 and z2 lie on circle
82 + 72 – 92 32 2 with radius 1
cos C
= = =
2×8×7 2×8×7 7 1
(3) z1 lie on circle with radius and z2 lie on circle
cos3C = 4 cos3C – 3cosC 2
with radius 1
8 6 32 – 6 × 49
4×
= – = (4) z1 lie on circle with radius 1 and z2 lie on circle
343 7 343
1
with radius
–262 2
=
343
Answer (4)

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

Sol. z1 − 2z2 =−
1 2z1z2

⇒ ( z1 − 2z2 )( z1 − 2z2 ) =
(1 − 2z1z2 )(1 − 2z1z2 )
2 2
⇒ z1 + 4 z2 − 2z1z2 − 2z1z2

2 2
= 1 − 2z1z2 − 2z1z2 + 4 z1 z2
−3
2 2 2 2 (h, k) lie on (y – 1) = ( x − 6)
⇒ z1 + 4 z2 − 4 z1 z2 − 1 =0 2
2y –2 + 3x – 18 = 0
(z1
2
)(
− 1 4 z2 − 1 =
0
2
) 2y + 3x = 20 …(1)

1 (h, k) lies on circumcircle eg. of circumcircle is x2 +

⇒ z1 = 1 and z2 = y2 = 68
2
15.
14. If the orthocentre of triangle formed by (8, 3), (5, 1)
and (h, k) is (6, 1), then (h, k) lie on 16.
17.
(1) x2 + y2 = 64
18.
(2) x2 + y2 = 68 19.
(3) x2 + y2 = 65 20.
(4) x2 + y2 = 71 SECTION - B

Answer (2) Numerical Value Type Questions: This section

contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to
Sol. each question should be rounded-off to the nearest
integer.

21. If α, β are the roots of the equation x 2 − 2 x − 8 =0

and An = αn + βn, n∈N, then the value of
A10 − 2 A9
2 A8
Answer (4)
Sol. x 2 − 2 x − 8 =0
Slope of BF = 1 A10 − 2 ⋅ A9 − 8 A8 =
0
 α −1 A10 − 2 ⋅ A9
⇒ Slope of AC ≡  =−1 ⇒ =8
8−5 A8
⇒α–1=–3 A10 − 2 ⋅ A9
⇒ =4
⇒ α = –2 2 ⋅ A8

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Evening

n +1
22. If Cr +1 : nCr : n −1Cr −1 = 55 : 35 : 21 1 236
=46.312.224. = 312.
The value of n + r is | A |8 38
Answer (16) = 34. 236
n +1 n r m = 36 n = 4 ⇒ m + 2n = 36 + 8 = 44
Sol. × Cr : nCr : nCr =
55 : 35 : 21
r +1 n 3
2
 x2  
⇒
n + 1 55
= and
n 35
=
24. If ∫
 [ x ] +    dx
 2  
r + 1 35 r 21 0

n + 1 11 n 5 =a + b 2 + c 6 − 3 − 5 − 7 (a, b, c ∈ I) then
⇒ = and =
r +1 7 r 3 (a + b + c) equals

⇒ 7n + 7 = 11r + 11
7n – 11r = 4 … (1) Answer (23.00)
3  x2   1 2 3
3n – 5r = 0 … (2) 2
Solving (1) and (2)
Sol. ∫
 [ x ] +    dx
 2  
= ∫ 0dx + ∫ 1dx + ∫ 3dx +
0 0 1 2
r = 6 and n = 7 2 5 6 7 8 3
⇒ n + r = 10 + 6 = 16 ∫ 4dx + ∫ 6dx + ∫ 7dx + ∫ 9dx + ∫ 10dx + ∫ 12dx
3 2 5 6 7 8
23. If the order of matrix A is 3 and |A| = 3 then the value
of det(adj(–4adj (–3adj (2A–1))) is 2m. 3n. The value =31 − 6 2 − 3 − 5 − 7 − 2 6
of m + 2n =
⇒ a = 31, b = –6, c = –2
Answer (44)
⇒ a + b + c = 23
Sol. |adj(–4adj(–3adj(2A–1)))|
25.
= |–4adj(–3adj(2A–1))|2
26.
=46 |–3adj(2A–1)|4
27.
=46.312 |adj(2A–1)|4
28.
=46.312 |2A–1|8
29.
=46.312.224 |A–1|8
30.

  

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