FIITJEE – Phase Test (JEE-Advanced)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Pattern - CPT-2 QP CODE: PAPER - 1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 186

NWCM123A1R,B1R,NWCM123G1W,A1W,B1W,C1W, Panini123A1 & B1_PT2

▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. All the section can be filled in PART-A & B of OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.

(i) Part-A (01-04) – Contains Six (04) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(ii) PART–A (05–12) contains (8) Multiple Choice Questions which have One or More Than One Correct
answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
BATCH –

Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result
in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in −1
marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

(iii) Part-B (01-06) contains six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries
+3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

2 Phase-2_Paper-1

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
(PART – A)
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If a wheel is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface at a constant linear speed then
the point of contact has
(A) backward acceleration (B) zero acceleration
(C) an upward acceleration (D) a downward acceleration

1. C

2. A uniform thin rod of mass ‘m’, length ‘’ is hanged with the
help of two identical massless springs of spring constant ‘k’ as
shown in figure. Just after one of the spring is cut, the k k
acceleration of the other end of the rod will be
(A) zero (B) g upward m
3g
(C) g downward (D) upward L
2

2. B

3. A uniform rod of length L and mass M rests against a smooth

vertical wall and a rough horizontal surface as shown. The force
of friction acting on the rod is
Mg L, M
(A) cot  (B) Mg tan 
2
3Mg Mg 
(C) tan  (D) tan 
4 2

3. A

4. A particle executing simple harmonic motion is having velocities v1 and v2 at distances x1

and x2 from the equilibrium position. The amplitude of the motion is
v12 x 2 − v 22 x1 v12 x12 − v 22 x 22 v12 x 22 − v 22 x12 v12 x 22 + v 22 x12
(A) (B) (C) (D)
v12 + v 22 v12 + v 22 v12 − v 22 v12 + v 22

4. C

(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

5 The end B of the rod AB which makes angle  with the floor is
being pulled with a constant velocity vo as shown. The length of
the rod is . At the instant when  = 37o y
A
4
(A) velocity of end A is v o downwards
3
5 vo  vo
(B) angular velocity of rod is
3 O B x
(C) angular velocity of rod is constant
(D) velocity of end A is constant
3 Phase-2_Paper-1

5. AB
6. A uniform rod of mass m and length l is placed in gravity free
space and linear impulse J is given to the rod at a distance A
x = l / 4 from centre and perpendicular to the rod. Point A is at a
x
distance l / 3 from centre as shown in the figure. Then
J
J
(A) Speed of centre of rod is (B) Speed of point A is zero
m
J 5 J
(C) Speed of upper end of rod is (D) Speed of lower end of rod is
2m 2m

6. ABCD

4 1
7. The moment of inertia of a thin square plate ABCD of uniform A B
thickness about an axis passing through the centre O and
perpendicular to plate is
O 3
(A) I1 + I2 (B) I2 + I3
(C) I1 + I3 (D) I3 + I4 D C
2

7. ABCD

8. A non-zero external force acts on a system of particles. The velocity and the acceleration of
the centre of mass are found to be V0 and a0 at an instant ‘t’. It is possible that
(A) v0 = 0, a0 = 0 (B) v0 = 0, a0  0
(C) v0  0, a0 = 0 (D) v0  0, a0  0

8. BD

9. In case of earth:
(A) Potential is minimum at the centre of earth
(B) Potential is same, both at centre and infinity but not zero
(C) Potential is zero, both at centre and infinity
(D) Field is zero, both at centre and infinity

9. AD

10. Two particles undergo SHM along the same line with the
same time period (T) and equal amplitudes (A). At a
particular instant one particle is at x = –A and the other A O B
is at x = 0. They move in the same direction. They will x=–A x=0 x=+A
cross each other at time t and at position x then
4T 3T A A
(A) t = (B) t = (C) x = (D) x =
3 8 2 2

10. BD

11. Which of the following questions remain constant in a planetary motion (consider elliptical
orbits) as seen from the sun?
(A) Speed (B) Angular speed
(C) Kinetic energy (D) Angular momentum

11. D
4 Phase-2_Paper-1

12. Inside a uniform spherical shell

(A) the gravitational potential is zero
(B) the gravitational field is zero
(C) the gravitational potential is same everywhere
(D) the gravitational field is same everywhere.

12. BCD

(PART – B)
(Integer Type)
Part-C (01-06) contains six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative
numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and there will be no negative marking.

A
1. A ball is dropped from a height of 16 m on a hard ground and
after collision it bounces back to a height of “h” m. If
16m
coefficient of restitution e = 3/4 and g = 10 m/s2, then find
h
value of . e=3/4
2 ground

1. 4.50
Range: 4.45 to 4.55

2. A projectile of mass 3m is projected from ground with velocity 20 2 m/ sec at 450.

At highest point it explodes into two pieces one of mass 2m and other of mass m. mass 2m
moves in the same direction after explosion & falls at a distance 100 m from point of
projection and mass m falls at a distance x 103 cm from point of projection. If g = 10 m/s2,
7x
find value of .
10

2. 2.80
Range: 2.75 to 2.85

3. A solid hemisphere has a mass m and radius r. Solid

xr hemispher
Its centre of mass is at a distance of from its
8 r
centre C. Find the value of ‘x’. mass m

3. 3

4. A satellite is moving in a circular orbit around earth at a height R above earth surface
(R being radius of earth) It’s velocity should be increased to k times its initial orbital speed
value, so as to make it escape from earth gravitational pull and reach infinity. Find k

4. 2

K
5. Figure below shows a massless pulley, a spring of constant
K = 250 N/m and a mass 1 kg. On displacing the mass slightly,
find its frequency (approximate) of its vertical oscillation

m
5 Phase-2_Paper-1

5. 5

6. A particle of mass 0.50 kg executes a simple harmonic motion under a force

F = − ( 50 N / m) x. If it crosses the mean position with a speed of 10 m/s, find the amplitude
(in m) of the motion.

6. 1

Space For Rough Work

6 Phase-2_Paper-1

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIII :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
(PART – A)
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. S ( s ) + O2 ( g ) SO2 ( g)
The equilibrium constant of the above reaction is equal to
(A)
O2  (B)
SO2 S
SO2  O2 
pSO2 pO2
(C) (D)
pO2 pSO2

1. C

2. For which reaction, KP = KC?

(A) 2CO ( g) + O2 ( g) 2CO2 ( g) (B) H2 ( g) + Br2 ( g) 2HBr ( g)
(C) 2NH3 ( g) N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g) (D) 2SO2 ( g) + O2 ( g) 2SO3 ( g)

2. B

3. In a zero order reaction, the concentration of reactant decreases form 0.4 M to 0.3 M in 10
sec. What is the rate constant of the reaction in mol L–1 s–1 unit?
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.1
(C) 1  10–2
(D) 1  102

3. C

4. A hydrocarbon of formula C5H12 has twelve primary hydrogen atoms. How many simplest +I
group(s) is/are present in the hydrocarbon?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

4. D

(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

5. H2O + H2O H3O+ ( aq) + OH− ( aq)

Choose correct statements
(A) Kw = 1  10–14 at 25oC (B) pH < 7 at 80oC
(C) [H3O+] = [OH–] at all temperature (D)  < 1 at 25oC

5. ABCD

6. Ka1 and Ka2 are the ionization constants of H2CO3 at 25oC. Choose correct statements:
p
Ka1 K a2
(A) K a1 > K a2 (B) p
+p
K a1 K a2

(D) Ka(H2CO3)  Kb ( HCO3− ) = 10-14

p
(C) pH of 0.1 M NaHCO3 =
2
7 Phase-2_Paper-1

6. ACD

7. NH4HS ( s ) NH3 ( g) + H2S ( g)

Above reaction attains equilibrium at 20oC and 6 atm pressure.
Choose correct statements regarding the reaction
(A) The partial pressure of NH3 is higher than that of H2S
(B) The equilibrium constant Kp = 9 atm2
(C) Kp = Kc
(D) Removal of NH3 increases the yield of H2S

7. BD

8. An aqueous solution of 0.01 M ZnCl2 forms precipitate of ZnS, when it is saturated with 0.1
M H2S. [Ksp of ZnS = 10-21, Ka1  Ka2 = 10-20]
Choose correct statements
(A) The concentration of sulphide ions in the solution is 10–19 M
(B) The minimum pH of the solution required to prevent precipitation of ZnS is 1
(C) The solubility of ZnCl2 in the solution is 10–2 M
(D) Addition of Na2S from outside facilitates the formation of ZnS ppt

8. ABD

9. Which of the following element(s) is/are present in cyclic hydrocarbons?

(A) Carbon (B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen

9. AB

10. Which of the following compound(s) is/are more acidic than CH3COOH?
(A) CH3OH (B) NO2CH2COOH
(C) FCH2COOH (D) C2H5OH

10. BC

11. Which of the following pair(s) is/are resonating structures?

 
(A) CH3CH = CH − CH − CH3 and CH3 CHCH = CHCH3
 
(B) CH3CH2CH = CH − CH2 and CH3CH2 CHCH = CH2
 
(C) CH2 = CH − CH − CH = CH2 and CH2 − CH = CH − CH = CH2
 
(D) CH3CH2 CH2 andCH3 CHCH3

11. ABC

12. Which of the following expression(s) is/are correct for a second order reaction?
1
(A) t1/2 = (B) t75% = 2  t50%
k  A o
(D) Rate   A 0 for a single reactant
2
(C) Unit of k = mol–1 L s–1

12. ACD
8 Phase-2_Paper-1

(PART – B)
(Integer Type)
Part-C (01-06) contains six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative
numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and there will be no negative marking.

1. How many asymmetric carbon atom(s) is/are present 2, 3-dihydroxy butane?

1. 2

2. If the bond angle between the two CH3 groups in the most stable conformation of n-butane is
expressed as (90  y)o, the value of ‘y’ is

2. 2

3. How many carbon atom(s) is/are present in vinyl chloride?

3. 2

4. A one litre solution contains 0.1 mole of acetic acid at 25oC. What is the value of pH of the
solution at constant temperature?
Ka of acetic acid = 10−5 
 

4. 3

5. 100ml of 1.1M of HCN was mixed with 200ml of 0.5M KOH at 25oC. What is the pOH value of
the resulting solution?[Ka of HCN = 10–10]

5. 3

6. The pH of the saturated solution of M(OH)2 is 12. If the molar solubility of M(OH)2 is
expressed as y  10–3, what is the value of ‘y’?

6. 5

Space For Rough Work

9 Phase-2_Paper-1

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIIIII :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
(PART – A)
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

 1 + 2i 
1. The complex number   lies in
 1− i 
(A) Ist quadrant (B) IInd quadrant
(C) IIIrd quadrant (D) IVth quadrant

1. B

2. If the cube roots of unity are 1, , 2 then the roots of the equation
(x − 2)3 + 27 = 0
(A) −1, −1, −1 (B) −1, −, −2
(C) −1, 2 + 2, 2 + 32 (D) −1, 2 − 3, 2 − 32
2. D

1 1
3. If the 7th term of a H.P. is and the 12th term is , then the 20th term is
10 25
1 1
(A) (B)
37 41
1 1
(C) (D)
45 49

3. D

4. Number of real roots of x4 + 5x2 + 1 = 0 , are

(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 0

4. D

(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

5. The sum of the first n odd natural numbers = then

(A) (B)
1 1 
(D) =  1 −
2  n + 2 
(C) =

5. AC

n
6. (
The positive integer ‘n’ for which 1 + i 3 ) 2
is real is
10 Phase-2_Paper-1

(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 12 (D) 18

6. BCD

2
7. The the real roots of the equation x − 2 + x − 2 − 2 = 0 is
(A) x = 0 (B) x = 4
(C) x = 5 (D) x = 6

7. BC

8. If the roots of the equation x3 – 12x2 + 39x – 28 = 0 are in A.P., then their common difference
will be
(A) 3 (B) – 3
(C) 4 (D) – 4

8. AB

9. If x 2 − 3x + 2 is a factor of a + bx + x 2 − x 4 = 0 then
(A) a = 12 (B) a = −12
(C) b = 12 (D) b = −12

9. BC

10. The real values of x which satisfy x2 – 3x + 2  0 and x2 – 3x – 4  0 are given by

(A) –1  x  1 (B) 1  x  2
(C) 2  x  4 (D) none of these

10. AC

11. The equation of a tangent to the hyperbola 4x2 – 5y2 = 20 parallel to the line x – y = 2 is:
(A) x – y + 1 = 0 (B) x – y + 7 = 0
(C) x – y - 1 = 0 (D) x – y – 3 = 0

11. AC

12. Equation of tangent to y2 = 4x from (2, 3) is

(A) y = x + 1 (B) y = 2x − 1
(C) 2y = x + 4 (D) None

12. AC

(PART – B)
(Integer Type)
Part-C (01-06) contains six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative
numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and there will be no negative marking.

13. Sum of 10 terms common to 17.21.25……and 16, 21, 26, is

13. 1110

3 + d 3 + 2d
14. If 3 + + + ...... = 8 then d=
4 42
14. 9
11 Phase-2_Paper-1

1 2
15. Maximum sum of the series 20 + 19 + 18 + .......... is
3 3
15. 310.

16. If , ,  are roots of the cubic x 3 − 4x − 7 = 0 , then 3 + 3 + 3 =

16. 21

17. If the line x + y − 1 = 0 touches the parabola y 2 = kx, then the value of |k| is

17. 4

18. The length of latus-rectum of the parabola y2 − x − 2y + 2 = 0 is:

18. 1

Space For Rough Work

12 Phase-2_Paper-1

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

BATCHES:
PHASE TEST–2: PAPER-1
JEE ADVANCED LEVEL
ANSWER KEY
ANSWER KEYS
Physics

Chemistry

Mathematics