MCQ Based Questions ICSE-PHYSICS-10th
MCQ Based Questions ICSE-PHYSICS-10th
.
1. What is the SI unit of force? a) Newton b) Watt c) Joule d) Kilogram
3. What is the angle of incidence equal to in the case of total internal reflection?
a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 0 degrees d) Depends on the medium
4. Which law of motion states that "To every action, there is an equal and
opposite reaction"? a) Newton's First Law b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's
Third Law d) Archimedes' Law
7. Which color of light has the highest frequency? a) Red b) Blue c) Green d)
Yellow
11. The nucleus of an atom consists of: a) Electrons and protons b) Electrons and
neutrons c) Protons and neutrons d) Positrons and neutrons
12. Which law of electromagnetic induction states that the induced
electromotive force (EMF) is directly proportional to the rate of change of
magnetic flux? a) Faraday's First Law b) Faraday's Second Law c) Lenz's Law d)
Ampere's Law
13. What is the focal length of a convex lens? a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d)
Depends on the material
17. What is the speed of light in a vacuum? a) 300,000 km/s b) 150,000 km/s c)
500,000 km/s d) 1,000,000 km/s
20. In a parallel circuit, what happens to the total resistance as more resistors
are added? a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains the same d) Depends on the
type of resistors
Answers:
1. a) Newton
2. b) Ammeter
3. a) 90 degrees
4. c) Newton's Third Law
5. b) Sublimation
6. a) V = I × R
7. b) Blue
8. c) To prevent excessive current
9. a) Convex mirror
10. a) Watt
11. c) Protons and neutrons
12. b) Faraday's Second Law
13. a) Positive
14. c) Solar power
15. a) 50 Hz
16. b) First Law
17. a) 300,000 km/s
18. d) Magnetic force
19. b) Volt
20. b) Decreases
Set 21:
.
1. What is the SI unit of frequency? a) Newton b) Hertz c) Joule d) Watt
2. The process by which a liquid turns into a gas at its surface, below its boiling
point, is known as: a) Evaporation b) Condensation c) Sublimation d)
Vaporization
4. The force of attraction between any two masses in the universe is called: a)
Electrostatic force b) Magnetic force c) Gravitational force d) Nuclear force
5. What is the phenomenon where light waves change direction as they pass
through a medium with varying density? a) Reflection b) Refraction c)
Diffraction d) Dispersion
7. In which state of matter do particles have the most energy and are farthest
apart? a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) Plasma
15. Which law of motion is also known as the law of inertia? a) Newton's First
Law b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's Third Law d) Archimedes' Law
16. The energy stored in a stretched or compressed object, like a spring, is called:
a) Kinetic energy b) Potential energy c) Thermal energy d) Electrical energy
17. What is the primary source of energy for the Earth? a) Wind b) Solar c)
Geothermal d) Nuclear
18. The bending of light waves around obstacles and openings is known as: a)
Reflection b) Refraction c) Diffraction d) Dispersion
20. The process of conversion of a gas into a liquid is known as: a) Evaporation b)
Condensation c) Sublimation d) Vaporization
.
Answers:
1. b) Hertz
2. a) Evaporation
3. d) Both a and c
4. c) Gravitational force
5. b) Refraction
6. c) Plane mirror
7. c) Gas
8. a) 2 ohms
9. b) Energy cannot be created or destroyed
10. d) Velocity
11. b) Coulomb
12. b) Barometer
13. a) Tension
14. a) Increase voltage
15. a) Newton's First Law
16. b) Potential energy
17. b) Solar
18. c) Diffraction
19. c) To prevent the flow of electric current
20. b) Condensation
Set 22:
.
1. Which of the following statements is true about parallel circuits? a) Voltage
is the same across each resistor b) Current is the same across each resistor c)
Total resistance is the sum of individual resistances d) Both b and c
2. What is the formula for calculating work done? a) Work = Force × Time b)
Work = Force × Displacement c) Work = Power × Time d) Work = Mass ×
Acceleration
6. The property of a body to resist a change in its state of motion is known as: a)
Acceleration b) Inertia c) Force d) Velocity
8. The force that opposes the relative motion or tendency of such motion of two
surfaces in contact is called: a) Frictional force b) Gravitational force c)
Tension force d) Magnetic force
12. The SI unit of magnetic field strength is: a) Tesla b) Ohm c) Weber d) Volt
15. The force of attraction between two charges is directly proportional to the
product of their charges and inversely proportional to the square of the
distance between them. This statement is known as: a) Coulomb's Law b)
Ohm's Law c) Newton's Law d) Archimedes' Law
18. What is the relationship between the frequency and wavelength of a wave? a)
Directly proportional b) Inversely proportional c) No relationship d) Depends on
the medium
20. The product of force and displacement in the direction of the force is known
as: a) Power b) Work c) Energy d) Momentum
Answers:
1. d) Both b and c
2. b) Work = Force × Displacement
3. a) Joule/second
4. c) Longitudinal wave
5. b) Sublimation
6. b) Inertia
7. c) Copper
8. a) Frictional force
9. b) Refraction
10. a) V = I × R
11. b) Speed
12. a) Tesla
13. b) It diverges light rays
14. a) Increases
15. a) Coulomb's Law
16. a) Convex lens
17. b) Farad
18. b) Inversely proportional
19. d) To protect the circuit from excessive current
20. b) Work
Set 23:
1. The unit of electric power equivalent to one joule per second is called: a)
Ampere b) Watt c) Volt d) Coulomb
3. The process of transfer of heat through the actual motion of the molecules in
a fluid is known as: a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Insulation
10. The velocity of sound is maximum in which of the following media? a) Solids
b) Liquids c) Gases d) Vacuum
11. Which law states that the pressure of a given mass of gas is directly
proportional to its absolute temperature, provided the volume remains
constant? a) Boyle's law b) Charles' law c) Gay-Lussac's law d) Avogadro's law
12. The SI unit of frequency is: a) Hertz b) Newton c) Watt d) Coulomb
13. What is the process of conversion of light energy into chemical energy in
plants called? a) Respiration b) Photosynthesis c) Transpiration d) Fermentation
14. In a series circuit, how does adding more resistors affect the total resistance?
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains the same d) Depends on the type of
resistors
15. What is the angle of incidence equal to in the case of total internal reflection?
a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 0 degrees d) Depends on the medium
16. The unit of electric charge is named after which scientist? a) Ampere b)
Coulomb c) Volt d) Ohm
17. The phenomenon where a vibrating object forces another object into
vibrational motion through the air is called: a) Reflection b) Refraction c)
Resonance d) Diffraction
19. The process of conversion of a liquid into vapor at its boiling point is called:
a) Evaporation b) Condensation c) Sublimation d) Vaporization
Answers:
1. b) Watt
2. a) Weber
3. b) Convection
4. a) Real and inverted
5. b) Pascal's principle
6. a) Newton-second
7. b) Low resistance
8. b) High frequency
9. b) Faraday's law
10. a) Solids
11. b) Charles' law
12. a) Hertz
13. b) Photosynthesis
14. a) Increases
15. a) 90 degrees
16. b) Coulomb
17. c) Resonance
18. c) Strong nuclear force
19. d) Vaporization
20. a) Faraday's law
Set 24:
7. What is the force that opposes the motion of one layer of fluid over another
layer in fluids like water or air? a) Tension force b) Gravitational force c)
Frictional force d) Magnetic force
9. The angle of reflection is measured between: a) The incident ray and the
normal b) The reflected ray and the normal c) The incident ray and the reflected
ray d) The incident ray and the surface
13. Which of the following statements is true about a convex lens when the
object is placed at the focus? a) Real and inverted image is formed b) Real and
erect image is formed c) Virtual and inverted image is formed d) Virtual and erect
image is formed
15. The splitting of white light into its constituent colors is known as: a)
Reflection b) Refraction c) Dispersion d) Diffraction
16. In which state of matter do particles have the least energy and are closest
together? a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) Plasma
17. The force of gravity on an object is also known as its: a) Mass b) Weight c)
Volume d) Density
18. The process by which a liquid is converted into a gas below its boiling point
is called: a) Evaporation b) Condensation c) Sublimation d) Vaporization
20. The SI unit of potential difference is equivalent to: a) Ampere b) Volt c) Ohm
d) Watt
Answers:
1. c) Ohm
2. d) Watt
3. a) Conduction
4. a) Tesla
5. d) Both a and c
6. c) The net force and net torque acting on it are zero
7. c) Frictional force
8. a) Greater than the number of turns in the primary coil
9. b) The reflected ray and the normal
10. c) Velocity
11. a) Increases
12. b) Sublimation
13. c) Virtual and inverted image is formed
14. a) Newton
15. c) Dispersion
16. a) Solid
17. b) Weight
18. a) Evaporation
19. c) Rubber
20. b) Volt
Set 25:
.
1. What is the SI unit of angular displacement? a) Radian b) Degree c) Joule d)
Newton
3. In a concave lens, if an object is placed between the focus and the lens, the
image formed is: a) Real and inverted b) Real and erect c) Virtual and inverted d)
Virtual and erect
7. The work done by a force is zero if: a) The force is applied at an angle of 90
degrees to the displacement b) The force and displacement are in the same
direction c) The force is applied at an angle of 180 degrees to the displacement d)
The force is perpendicular to the displacement
9. In a series LCR circuit, the current reaches its maximum value when the: a)
Inductive reactance equals the capacitive reactance b) Inductive reactance is
greater than the capacitive reactance c) Capacitive reactance is greater than the
inductive reactance d) Resistance is minimum
10. The phenomenon where a wave is divided into two separate waves when it
encounters a narrow slit is called: a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Diffraction d)
Interference
11. What is the specific heat capacity of a substance? a) The amount of heat
required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of the substance by 1 degree Celsius b)
The heat energy released when 1 gram of the substance changes from liquid to
gas c) The rate at which a substance conducts heat d) The total heat content of a
substance
12. What is the purpose of the Van de Graaff generator in physics experiments?
a) To generate high-frequency waves b) To produce X-rays c) To create a strong
magnetic field d) To generate high-voltage static electricity
13. Which law of thermodynamics deals with the concept of absolute zero
temperature? a) Zeroth Law b) First Law c) Second Law d) Third Law
14. In a nuclear reactor, the control rods are used to: a) Generate electricity b)
Absorb neutrons and control the rate of the nuclear reaction c) Shield the reactor
from radiation d) Facilitate the fission process
16. The phenomenon where a sound wave encounters a surface and is absorbed
without reflection is called: a) Reverberation b) Absorption c) Diffraction d)
Refraction
18. Which of the following statements is true about a convex lens when the
object is placed beyond 2F? a) Real and inverted image is formed b) Real and
erect image is formed c) Virtual and inverted image is formed d) Virtual and erect
image is formed
19. The angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray in the process of
reflection is called the: a) Angle of incidence b) Angle of reflection c) Angle of
refraction d) Critical angle
20. Which electromagnetic wave has the shortest wavelength? a) Radio waves b)
Microwaves c) X-rays d) Infrared rays
Answers:
1. a) Radian
2. a) Archimedes' Principle
3. c) Virtual and inverted
4. d) Dimensionless
5. b) Oscillatory motion
6. d) Electric Field
7. a) The force is applied at an angle of 90 degrees to the displacement
8. a) Movement of an electron between energy levels
9. a) Inductive reactance equals the capacitive reactance
10. c) Diffraction
11. a) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of the
substance by 1 degree Celsius
12. d) To generate high-voltage static electricity
13. d) Third Law
14. b) Absorb neutrons and control the rate of the nuclear reaction
15. b) Photoelectric Effect
16. b) Absorption
17. c) Henry
18. a) Real and inverted image is formed
19. b) Angle of reflection
20. c) X-rays
Set 2:
.
1. What is the phenomenon where the apparent frequency of a wave changes
due to the relative motion between the source and the observer? a) Doppler
effect b) Huygens' principle c) Photoelectric effect d) Compton effect
10. The point in a vibrating object that remains stationary during vibration is
called the: a) Amplitude b) Antinode c) Node d) Crest
11. Which law of motion is described by the equation F = ma, where F is the
force applied, m is the mass, and a is the acceleration? a) Newton's First Law
b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's Third Law d) Kepler's Law
14. The work done on a gas in a closed system depends only on the initial and
final states, not the path taken. This statement is based on: a) Boyle's Law b)
Charles' Law c) Joule's Law d) Bernoulli's Law
15. What is the SI unit of magnetic field strength? a) Tesla b) Weber c) Henry d)
Ampere
16. The process of converting a substance directly from a gas to a solid without
passing through the liquid phase is known as: a) Condensation b) Sublimation
c) Vaporization d) Freezing
19. The potential difference across a resistor is 12 volts, and the current flowing
through it is 2 amperes. What is the resistance of the resistor? a) 6 ohms b) 8
ohms c) 10 ohms d) 14 ohms
20. Which of the following statements is true about a concave mirror when the
object is placed between the focus and the mirror? a) Real and inverted image
is formed b) Real and erect image is formed c) Virtual and inverted image is
formed d) Virtual and erect image is formed
Answers:
1. a) Doppler effect
2. a) Momentum
3. a) Michael Faraday
4. b) Weber
5. b) First Law
6. b) Resonance
7. a) Resistance only
8. a) It always forms a virtual and erect image
9. a) Refractive index
10. c) Node
11. b) Newton's Second Law
12. b) Weber
13. a) Polarization
14. c) Joule's Law
15. a) Tesla
16. b) Sublimation
17. d) Velocity
18. a) Hooke's Law
19. a) 6 ohms
20. c) Virtual and inverted image is formed
Set 1:
.
1. A car accelerates uniformly from rest to a speed of 30 m/s in 10 seconds.
What is the acceleration of the car? a) 1 m/s² b) 3 m/s² c) 2 m/s² d) 5 m/s²
6. The distance-time graph for an object is a straight line starting from the
origin. What does the slope of the graph represent? a) Displacement b)
Acceleration c) Speed d) Time
7. A spring has a force constant of 200 N/m. If a force of 50 N is applied to it,
what is the displacement of the spring? a) 0.25 m b) 1 m c) 0.5 m d) 2 m
8. A diver jumps off a 10-meter diving board. What is the diver's speed just
before hitting the water? (Take g = 10 m/s²) a) 20 m/s b) 14 m/s c) 10 m/s d) 5
m/s
9. If an object weighs 80 N on Earth, what is its weight on the Moon where the
acceleration due to gravity is approximately 1.6 m/s²? a) 20 N b) 80 N c) 40 N
d) 10 N
Answers:
1. c) 2 m/s²
2. c) 40 m
3. a) 250 J
4. a) 40 V
5. b) 5 N
6. c) Speed
7. a) 0.25 m
8. b) 14 m/s
9. a) 20 N
10. b) 0.02 F
Set 2:
.
1. A force of 30 N is applied to an object, and it moves a distance of 5 meters.
What is the work done? a) 150 J b) 6 J c) 35 J d) 25 J
7. If a spring is compressed by 0.2 meters and has a force constant of 500 N/m,
what is the potential energy stored in the spring? a) 5 J b) 10 J c) 2 J d) 20 J
8. A particle moves along a straight line. If its initial velocity is 5 m/s, and it
accelerates at a rate of 2 m/s² for 3 seconds, what is its final velocity? a) 11
m/s b) 5 m/s c) 8 m/s d) 9 m/s
Answers:
1. a) 150 J
2. c) 8 N
3. a) 2 s
4. c) 18 V
5. c) 80 m
6. a) 2 m/s²
7. a) 5 J
8. c) 8 m/s
9. a) 2 C
10. c) 280 J
Set 1:
.
1. A car accelerates from rest at a rate of 2 m/s². What is its velocity after 8
seconds? a) 4 m/s b) 16 m/s c) 64 m/s d) 128 m/s
3. A spring with a force constant of 400 N/m is compressed by 0.1 meters. What
is the potential energy stored in the spring? a) 2 J b) 4 J c) 8 J d) 16 J
4. If a force of 30 N is applied to an object and it moves a distance of 5 meters,
what is the work done if the force is applied at an angle of 60 degrees to the
direction of motion? a) 120 J b) 90 J c) 60 J d) 30 J
8. A car travels at a constant speed of 25 m/s for 40 seconds. How far does it
travel during this time? a) 400 m b) 1000 m c) 1600 m d) 2000 m
Answers:
1. b) 16 m/s
2. b) 500 J
3. c) 8 J
4. a) 120 J
5. b) 30 m
6. c) 60 C
7. b) 7.5 N
8. a) 400 m
9. c) 64 W
10. c) 100 J
Set 2:
.
1. A force of 50 N is applied to move an object horizontally, and it covers a
distance of 20 meters. If the force is applied at an angle of 30 degrees to the
direction of motion, what is the work done? a) 1000 J b) 866 J c) 750 J d) 500
J
10. A particle moves in a circular path with a radius of 5 meters. If its speed is
10 m/s, what is the centripetal acceleration? a) 2 m/s² b) 4 m/s² c) 6 m/s² d) 8
m/s²
.
Answers:
1. b) 866 J
2. b) 100 J
3. d) 80 m
4. a) 0.5 F
5. a) 3 rad/s²
6. b) 60 W
7. c) 40 m/s
8. b) 62.5 m
9. c) 100 V
10. b) 4 m/s²
Set 50:
.
1. A car accelerates uniformly from rest at a rate of 4 m/s². What is its velocity
after 6 seconds? a) 8 m/s b) 16 m/s c) 24 m/s d) 30 m/s
3. A spring with a force constant of 300 N/m is compressed by 0.2 meters. What
is the potential energy stored in the spring? a) 3 J b) 6 J c) 9 J d) 12 J
8. A car travels at a constant speed of 30 m/s for 50 seconds. How far does it
travel during this time? a) 1500 m b) 1800 m c) 2000 m d) 2500 m
Answers:
1. b) 16 m/s
2. c) 250 J
3. c) 9 J
4. b) 240 J
5. a) 20 m
6. c) 75 C
7. c) 60 J
8. c) 2000 m
9. c) 144 W
10. c) 256 J
.
1. Which of the following is a scalar quantity? a) Force b) Energy c) Power d)
Velocity
11. A machine with 80% efficiency does 2000 J of work. What is the input
energy? a) 2500 J b) 1600 J c) 2400 J d) 200 J
12. If the displacement of an object is zero, the work done is: a) Maximum b)
Minimum c) Zero d) Cannot be determined
14. If the velocity of an object is doubled, how does its kinetic energy change? a)
Doubled b) Quadrupled c) Halved d) Remains the same
15. The potential energy of an object at a height 'h' above the ground is given by:
a) mgh b) 1/2 mgh c) mg/h d) mgh²
16. The work done by a force acting on an object is equal to the: a) Displacement
b) Force times displacement c) Force squared divided by displacement d) Force
divided by displacement
19. If the angle between force and displacement is 180 degrees, the work done is:
a) Maximum b) Minimum c) Zero d) Cannot be determined
20. The power of a machine is 150 W. How much work can it do in 5 seconds? a)
750 J b) 600 J c) 300 J d) 225 J
.
Answers:
1. b) Energy
2. a) Net force acting on the object is zero
3. c) Displacement is zero
4. b) Velocity squared
5. c) Watt
6. a) 50 W
7. b) Gravity
8. c) 25 N
9. b) Work done
10. b) Newton's Second Law
11. c) 2400 J
12. c) Zero
13. a) 500 J
14. b) Quadrupled
15. a) mgh
16. b) Force times displacement
17. d) 500 J
18. c) Elastic potential energy
19. c) Zero
20. a) 750 J
.
1. Which of the following is a luminous object? a) Moon b) Mirror c) Candle
flame d) Book
2. When light travels from air to glass, it bends. This phenomenon is known as:
a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Diffraction d) Dispersion
4. A concave mirror always forms a virtual and erect image when the object is
placed: a) Between focus and mirror b) Beyond the center of curvature c) At the
center of curvature d) Beyond the focus
6. Which color of light is deviated the most when passing through a prism? a)
Red b) Blue c) Green d) Yellow
7. The focal length of a convex lens is negative because: a) The lens is concave
on one side b) The lens is thicker in the center c) The lens converges light d) The
lens diverges light
8. The image formed by a plane mirror is always: a) Real and inverted b) Real
and erect c) Virtual and erect d) Virtual and inverted
9. The lens that converges light and is thicker in the center is: a) Convex lens b)
Concave lens c) Biconcave lens d) Biconvex lens
10. A lens forms a real, inverted image. This lens is: a) Convex b) Concave c)
Biconcave d) Biconvex
12. The unit of power of a lens is: a) Diopter b) Watt c) Newton d) Ohm
13. The phenomenon where a ray of light changes direction when it passes
through a medium of different optical density is known as: a) Reflection b)
Refraction c) Dispersion d) Diffraction
14. In a lens, the distance between the optical center and the principal focus is
known as: a) Aperture b) Focal length c) Radius of curvature d) Refractive index
15. The critical angle for total internal reflection depends on the: a) Color of
light b) Angle of incidence c) Nature of the medium d) Wavelength of light
17. The process of separating white light into its constituent colors is called: a)
Reflection b) Refraction c) Dispersion d) Diffraction
Answers:
1. c) Candle flame
2. b) Refraction
3. b) Laws of reflection
4. d) Beyond the focus
5. c) Diffraction
6. b) Blue
7. d) The lens diverges light
8. c) Virtual and erect
9. a) Convex lens
10. b) Concave
11. b) Concave mirror
12. a) Diopter
13. b) Refraction
14. b) Focal length
15. c) Nature of the medium
16. c) Plano-convex lens
17. c) Dispersion
18. c) Critical angle
19. b) Short-wavelength light
.
1. Sound cannot travel through: a) Solids b) Liquids c) Gases d) Vacuum
4. The part of the ear responsible for maintaining balance is the: a) Pinna b)
Eardrum c) Cochlea d) Semicircular canals
6. The persistence of sound after the source has stopped is known as: a)
Reverberation b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Diffraction
7. The unit of measurement for the intensity of sound is: a) Decibel b) Hertz c)
Watt d) Pascal
9. The frequency of a sound wave is 200 Hz. What is its wavelength in air?
(Speed of sound in air is approximately 340 m/s) a) 0.5 m b) 1.7 m c) 3.4 m d)
5m
11. The part of the ear where vibrations are converted into electrical signals is
the: a) Pinna b) Eardrum c) Cochlea d) Semicircular canals
12. The pitch of a sound is determined by its: a) Amplitude b) Frequency c)
Intensity d) Wavelength
13. If the amplitude of a sound wave is doubled, what happens to its intensity? a)
It doubles b) It quadruples c) It remains the same d) It is halved
14. The speed of sound is maximum in: a) Solids b) Liquids c) Gases d) Vacuum
17. The phenomenon where sound waves bend around obstacles is called: a)
Reflection b) Refraction c) Diffraction d) Dispersion
18. The speed of sound in air increases with an increase in: a) Temperature b)
Pressure c) Humidity d) Altitude
19. The frequency of a sound wave is 500 Hz. What is its time period? a) 0.002 s
b) 0.004 s c) 0.01 s d) 0.02 s
20. The part of the ear that collects and directs sound waves to the eardrum is
the: a) Pinna b) Eardrum c) Cochlea d) Semicircular canals
.
Answers:
1. d) Vacuum
2. c) Steel
3. c) Pitch
4. d) Semicircular canals
5. b) They have frequencies above the audible range
6. a) Reverberation
7. a) Decibel
8. b) Refraction
9. c) 3.4 m
10. c) Decibels
11. c) Cochlea
12. b) Frequency
13. b) It quadruples
14. c) Gases
15. d) Earthquake waves
16. b) Wavelength
17. c) Diffraction
18. a) Temperature
19. a) 0.002 s
20. a) Pinna
.
1. In a simple electric circuit, if the resistance is increased, what happens to the
current? a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains constant d) Becomes zero
12. The SI unit of magnetic field strength is the: a) Tesla b) Ohm c) Weber d)
Ampere
13. The property of a substance due to which it loses its magnetism when
removed from a magnetic field is called: a) Retentivity b) Permeability c)
Diamagnetism d) Electromagnetism
14. The number of magnetic lines of force passing through a surface is known as:
a) Magnetic field strength b) Magnetic flux c) Magnetic induction d) Magnetic
dipole moment
15. If the current in a solenoid is reversed, the direction of the magnetic field: a)
Remains the same b) Becomes zero c) Reverses d) Decreases
20. The instrument used to detect the presence and direction of an electric
current is: a) Voltmeter b) Ammeter c) Galvanometer d) Ohmmeter
.
Answers:
1. b) Decreases
2. b) Ampere
3. c) Motor
4. a) Watt
5. a) 10 V
6. b) Resistance
7. c) Fleming's Left-Hand Rule
8. c) 20 W
9. a) Ohm's Law
10. d) Copper
11. b) Ammeter
12. a) Tesla
13. a) Retentivity
14. b) Magnetic flux
15. c) Reverses
16. c) Aluminum
17. a) Circles
18. a) Magnetic permeability
19. a) Michael Faraday
20. c) Galvanometer
"Heat" for ICSE Class 10:
.
1. Which of the following is a unit of heat energy? a) Joule b) Watt c) Newton d)
Pascal
2. The specific heat capacity of a substance is the heat required to raise the
temperature of one gram of the substance by: a) 1°C b) 10°C c) 100°C d)
1000°C
10. The process by which heat is transferred from the sun to the Earth is
primarily through: a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Sublimation
13. The heat energy required to change a substance from a liquid to a gas at its
boiling point is known as: a) Latent heat of fusion b) Latent heat of vaporization
c) Specific heat d) Sensible heat
14. The process of changing from a gas to a liquid is known as: a) Vaporization b)
Condensation c) Sublimation d) Evaporation
15. The process of heat transfer where energy is transmitted by the movement of
currents within a fluid is called: a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d)
Insulation
16. Which of the following statements about the expansion of substances with
heat is correct? a) Solids expand more than liquids b) Liquids expand more than
gases c) Gases expand more than solids d) All substances expand equally
17. The cooling effect experienced when we sweat on a hot day is due to: a)
Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Evaporation
18. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the
atmospheric pressure is called: a) Melting point b) Boiling point c) Sublimation
point d) Freezing point
19. The device used to measure temperature using the principle of thermal
expansion is called: a) Thermocouple b) Thermometer c) Barometer d)
Hydrometer
20. The process of heat transfer in which heat travels through a material
without any apparent movement of the material itself is called: a) Conduction
b) Convection c) Radiation d) Insulation
.
Answers:
1. a) Joule
2. a) 1°C
3. b) Convection
4. d) Copper
5. a) Sublimation
6. b) Convection
7. a) Melting point
8. c) Specific heat
9. a) Prevent buckling
10. c) Radiation
11. c) Radiation
12. d) Wood
13. b) Latent heat of vaporization
14. b) Condensation
15. b) Convection
16. c) Gases expand more than solids
17. d) Evaporation
18. b) Boiling point
19. b) Thermometer
20. a) Conduction
.
1. The particle that is neutral and located in the nucleus of an atom is the: a)
Electron b) Proton c) Neutron d) Positron
2. The process by which a heavy nucleus splits into two lighter nuclei with the
release of energy is known as: a) Fusion b) Fission c) Annihilation d) Decay
7. The theory that describes the behavior of particles on the atomic and
subatomic scale is known as: a) Classical mechanics b) Quantum mechanics c)
Special relativity d) General relativity
9. The concept that electrons in an atom occupy the lowest energy levels first
before moving to higher energy levels is known as: a) Hund's rule b) Aufbau
principle c) Pauli exclusion principle d) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
10. The half-life of a radioactive substance is the time taken for: a) Half of the
substance to decay b) One-fourth of the substance to decay c) The entire
substance to decay d) One-tenth of the substance to decay
11. The process by which an unstable nucleus transforms into a more stable
nucleus with the emission of particles or electromagnetic radiation is called:
a) Fusion b) Fission c) Radioactivity d) Decay
12. The minimum energy required to remove an electron from the outermost
shell of an atom is known as: a) Ionization energy b) Electron affinity c)
Nuclear energy d) Binding energy
13. The elementary particle that carries a positive charge and is found in the
nucleus of an atom is the: a) Electron b) Proton c) Neutron d) Positron
14. The phenomenon where light behaves as both particles and waves is known
as: a) Photoelectric effect b) Dual nature of light c) Compton effect d) Doppler
effect
15. The maximum number of electrons that can occupy the third energy level of
an atom is: a) 2 b) 8 c) 18 d) 32
16. The modern model of the atom, which is based on probability distributions
of electron positions, is known as the: a) Rutherford model b) Bohr model c)
Quantum model d) Dalton model
17. The process of combining two light nuclei to form a heavier nucleus with the
release of energy is known as: a) Fission b) Fusion c) Radioactivity d) Decay
19. The elementary particle with no electric charge and negligible mass is the: a)
Quark b) Photon c) Neutrino d) Electron
20. The force responsible for holding the protons and neutrons together in the
nucleus of an atom is the: a) Gravitational force b) Electromagnetic force c)
Weak nuclear force d) Strong nuclear force
.
Answers:
1. c) Neutron
2. b) Fission
3. a) Photoelectric effect
4. b) Atom
5. a) Bohr's model
6. d) All of the above
7. b) Quantum mechanics
8. a) E = mc²
9. b) Aufbau principle
10. a) Half of the substance to decay
11. c) Radioactivity
12. a) Ionization energy
13. b) Proton
14. b) Dual nature of light
15. c) 18
16. c) Quantum model
17. b) Fusion
18. d) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
19. c) Neutrino
20. d) Strong nuclear force
.
1. Which of the following particles is emitted during alpha decay? a) Proton b)
Electron c) Alpha particle d) Neutron
2. The process in which a heavy nucleus splits into two lighter nuclei is called: a)
Alpha decay b) Beta decay c) Nuclear fission d) Nuclear fusion
6. The half-life of a radioactive substance is: a) The time taken for the substance
to become non-radioactive b) The time taken for half of the radioactive atoms to
decay c) The time taken for the substance to decay completely d) The time taken
for the substance to become super-radioactive
8. The primary source of energy in the sun is: a) Nuclear fission b) Nuclear
fusion c) Radioactive decay d) Chemical reactions
11. The isotope used as a fuel in most nuclear reactors is: a) Uranium-238 b)
Uranium-235 c) Plutonium-239 d) Thorium-232
12. The process in which two light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus is
known as: a) Nuclear fission b) Nuclear fusion c) Alpha decay d) Beta decay
13. The moderator in a nuclear reactor is used to: a) Absorb neutrons b) Slow
down neutrons c) Produce neutrons d) Reflect neutrons
14. The process by which a nucleus captures a beta particle (electron) and
converts a neutron into a proton is called: a) Alpha decay b) Beta decay c)
Nuclear fission d) Nuclear fusion
15. The unit of measurement for the activity of a radioactive substance is the: a)
Curie b) Sievert c) Rutherford d) Fermi
16. Which of the following statements about nuclear fission reactors is correct?
a) They use uranium-238 as fuel b) They do not produce nuclear waste c) They
utilize the process of nuclear fusion d) They produce electricity by splitting
uranium-235 nuclei
17. The process in which a nucleus spontaneously emits a beta particle (electron)
is known as: a) Alpha decay b) Beta decay c) Nuclear fission d) Nuclear fusion
18. The element produced during the process of nuclear fusion in stars is: a)
Helium b) Hydrogen c) Uranium d) Plutonium
19. The energy released during nuclear fission is primarily in the form of: a)
Light b) Heat c) Sound d) Electromagnetic waves
20. The safety control rods in a nuclear reactor are made of materials that can:
a) Absorb neutrons b) Reflect neutrons c) Increase the reactor temperature d)
Produce neutrons
.
Answers
1. c) Alpha particle
2. c) Nuclear fission
3. b) Uranium-235
4. b) Alpha decay
5. a) It releases energy by combining light nuclei
6. b) The time taken for half of the radioactive atoms to decay
7. c) Special relativity
8. b) Nuclear fusion
9. c) Neutron
10. b) Nuclear fission
11. c) Plutonium-239
12. b) Nuclear fusion
13. b) Slow down neutrons
14. b) Beta decay
15. a) Curie
16. d) They produce electricity by splitting uranium-235 nuclei
17. b) Beta decay
18. a) Helium
19. b) Heat
20. a) Absorb neutrons