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READ CAREFULLY EACH MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTION AND SELECT

the heat and the work done?

A. Heat is added to the system and work is done by the system

B. Heat is removed from the system and work is done by the system

C. Heat is removed from the system and work is done on the system

D. Heat is added to the system and work is done on the system

2. If a thermodynamic system undergoes a process in which its internal energy

increased by 400J while doing 200J of work on its surrounding, then what is the

energy absorbed in or extracted from it in the form of heat?

A. -600J C. 600J

B. -200J D. 200J

3. Which the following statement is NOT correct?

A.The spontaneous transfer of energy from a cooler body to hotter body is quite possible

B. A system can absorb heat from a hot reservoir and can convert it entirely into work.

C. No process is possible in which there is an overall decrease in the entropy of the universe

D.The complete conversion of energy from hot source into work is not possible

4. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Irreversible process is a process that can be reversed though finite change in the system

B. Complete conversion of energy from a hot source into work is possible

C. There are processes in which there is an overall decrease in entropy

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D. Entropy is a measure of the disorder of a system

5. A heat engine is being designed to have a Carnot efficiency of 65.0% when

operating between two energy reservoirs. If the temperature of the cold reservoir

is 20.00C, what must be the temperature of the hot reservoir?

A. 570C C. 5640C

B. 3100C D. 8070C

6. Which statement is NOT among the assumptions made in the kinetic theory of

gases?

A. There is no interaction between particles or between particles and the wall except during

collision.

B. Collisions between particles and between particles and walls are perfectly elastic.

C. The distribution of velocities of particles is uniform

D. The volume occupied by the particle us negligible compared to the volume of the whole

gas

7. A cup of coffee at a temperature of 80oC is placed on a table in a 20oC room. What

happens to the thermal energy and molecular motion of the coffee when it is left

on the table?

A. The thermal energy decrease and the molecules move more slowly

B. The thermal energy increase and the molecules move more slowly

C. The thermal energy decreases and the molecules move faster

D. The thermal energy increases and the molecules

8. What does a curve drawn between two points on P-V diagram represent?

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A. The state of the system C. Work done in a cyclic process

B. A thermodynamic process D. Work done on or by the system

9. The temperature of a gas is due to

A. The kinetic energy of the molecules

B. The attractive force between the molecules

C. The potential energy of the molecules

D. The repulsive force the molecules

10. The direction of heat flow in conduction method is forced:

A. high pressure to low pressure

B. a point of higher emissivity to lower one

C. high density to low density

D. high temperature to low temperature

11. A heat engine operating at maximum efficiency has an efficiency of 25%. The

temperature of the cold reservoir is 300 K. What is the temperature of the hot

reservoir?

A. 500 K C. 350 K

B. 450 K D. 400 K

12. The point in the phase diagram where the fusion curve, the vapor pressure curve,

and the sublimation curve join is called the

A. boiling point. C. critical point.

B. triple point. D. melting point.

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13. The number of joules of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a body by

1 K is:

A. Heat capacity C. Specific heat capacity

B. expansion coefficient D. calorific value

14. Two bodies that are separately in thermal equilibrium with third body must be in

thermal equilibrium with each other. This statement is a statement of:

A. The first law of thermodynamics.

B. The second law of thermodynamics.

C. The zeroth law of thermodynamics.

D. The third law of thermodynamics

15. In the adiabatic process of thermodynamics:

A. heat can be transferred in to the system but not out of the system

B. heat is transferred neither into nor out of the system

C. heat can be transferred out of the system but not in to the system

D. heat transfer is possible in to and out of the system

================OSCILLATION AND WAVES==============================

16.Which of the following statement is correct for a simple harmonic motion?

A. The acceleration of the motion is directly proportional to the velocity

B. The velocity of the motion is directly proportional to the displacement

C. The acceleration of the motion is directly proportional in magnitude but opposite in

direction to the displacement

D. The velocity of the motion is inversely proportional to the displacement

17. Which one of the following is NOT the use of Doppler Effect?

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A. Energy transmission C. Radar

B. blood flow measurement D. Astronomy

18. Which of the following is NOT correct about a simple harmonic oscillator?

A. Total mechanical energy is conserved

B. The acceleration is directly proportional to and opposite in direction to displacement

C. The period of small oscillation of a pendulum with string length l, a bob mass m

attached to it is T = 2π√

D. The frequency of an oscillating mass attached to a massless spring is independent of

the spring constant

19. Which of the following indicates the wavelength of a travelling wave?

A. The distance between an adjacent trough and a peak

B. The amplitude of then wave

C. The distance between a node and antinodes

D. The distance between two adjacent points which are in phase

20. The total energy of a practice executing simple harmonic motion is

A. Zero

B. Directly proportional to the square of the amplitude

C. Directly proportional to the amplitude

D. Inversely proportional to the square of the amplitude

21. A transverses sinusoidal wave is traveling on a string. Which statement is correct

about appoint on the string

A. The point moves in the same direction as the wave.

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B. The point moves in simple harmonic motion with a different frequency than that of

the wave.

C. The point moves in simple harmonic motion with the same angular frequency as the

wave.

D. The point moves in uniform circular motion with a different angular speed than the

wave.

22. An object of mass is hung from a spring and set into oscillation. The frequency of

the oscillation is measure and recorded as . If the object of mass is replaced with

an object of mass and set into oscillation, what will be the frequency of the

motion?

A. . C.
B. D.

23. The period of oscillation of a particle undergoing simple harmonic motion is :

A. Independent of the amplitude of the motion

B. Directly proportional to the frequency of oscillation

C. Independent of the frequency of oscillation

D. Directly proportional to mass of oscillating object

24. A mass suspended from the end of a spring vibrates up and down times in

.What are the frequency and period of the vibration?

A. C.

B. D.

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25. Which one of the following is not an example of simple harmonic motion?

A. A mass attached to a spring system oscillating in horizontal direction to the surface of

the Earth

B. Rotation of second pointer in hand watch

C. Oscillation of simple pendulum

D. A mass attached to a spring system oscillating in vertical direction to the surface of

the Earth

26. An observer is moving towards a stationary source of frequency with a

velocity of . If the velocity of sound is , the apparent frequency

heard by the observer will be;

A. 300 Hz C. 260 Hz

B. 280 Hz D. 320 Hz

27. For an object performing SHM the magnitude of maximum velocity is given by

A. ω √(A2 - x2) C.

B. ω √(x2 - A2) D. ω2A

28. When sound travels through air, the air particles ______.

A. vibrate along the direction of wave propagation

B. vibrate but not in any fixed direction

C. vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation

D. do not vibrate

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=================ELECTROSTATICS========================

29. Suppose that three point charges are placed along a straight line and the

electrostatic force on the middle charge is zero. What can we concluded about the

charges?

A. The charge at the ends must have the same sign

B. The signs of the three charges should be the same

C. The middle charge should be placed at the center between the two charges

D. The charge at the middle and at the left end should have the same sign

30.A capacitor of capacitance can be charged after it is connected between

potential differences of . How much electrical energy is used in charging the

capacitor?

A. 1x10-3J C. 4.86x10-4J

B. 54x10-4J D. 9.72x10-4J

31. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is 10μF. If the distance b/n the plates is

halved, keeping all other quantities constant, then what is the new capacitance of

the capacitor?

A. C. 10

B. D.

32. Two positive charges of magnitude 2.4x10-9C and 1.6x10-9C are separated in air

by a distance of . How much electrostatic potential is produced by the two

charges at midway b/n them?

A. 3.6KV B. 0.72KV

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C. 2.16KV D. 1.44KV

33. Three capacitors of capacitance 8µF, 12 µF, and 24µF are connected first in series

and then in parallel. The equivalent capacitance in case series and parallel are

respectively,

A. 0.25 µF, 34.00 µF C. 0.25 µF, 44.00 µF

B. 4.00 µF, 34.00 µF D. 4.00 µF, 44.00 µF

34. Two capacitors, and , are connected in a parallel across a potential

difference. What is the total energy in joules stored in the capacitors?

A. 0.27 J C. 0.32 J

B. 0.18 J D. 0.41J

35. Two points charges Q1and Q2 having positive sign are placed on the x axis. They

are separated by a distance of a and at what distance on the x axis b/n

the charges & measured from charge Q1will the electric field vanishes?

A. 2a C. a/3

B. 2a/3 D. a & c

36. If the Coulomb force b/n two like charges Q1 and Q2 separated by a distance r is

equal to Fo, what would be the new force of repulsion if the magnitude of the

charges Q1 is doubled and that of Q2 is halved?

A. Fo/3 C. Fo

B. F0/2 D. 2F0

37. What is the SI-unit of electric field?

A. Am-1 C. NC-1

B. Vm-1 D. Cm

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38. What is electric potential energy of a system of 4 point charges, each charge q

located at the corners of a square of side a?

A. C.

B. D.

39. Why is it logical to say that the potential of a ground object is zero?

A. the earth is an insulator

B. the net charge on earth is practically zero

C. a grounded object can neither give nor take charge from the earth

D. a grounded object can neither is at a higher potential than the earth

40. Two negative point charges are apart and repel each other with a force of .

When the distance between the charges is doubled, the force between them is

A. One fourth as great C. Twice as great

B. One-half as great D. Four times as great

41. Which of the following is not property of a conductor in electrostatic equilibrium?

A. The electric field is zero everywhere inside the conductor

B. Any net charge on the conductor resides entirely on its surface

C. The surface charge density is greatest where the radius of curvature of the surface is the

smallest.

D. The electric field just outside the conductor is tangent to its surface

42. Coulomb’s law for the force between electric charges most closely resembles

A. The law of conservation of B. Newton’s law of gravitation

energy

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C. Newton’s second law of motion D. The law of conservation of mass

43. What is the magnitude of the electric force between two protons separated by

A. 67.5N C. 57.5N

B. 115.0N D. 83.4N

44. Moving 2.5  10-6 C of charge from point A to point B in an electric field requires

6.3  10-4 J of work. The potential difference between points A and B is

approximately

A. 4.0 x103V C. 1.6x109V

B. 2.5x 102V D. 1.0x 10-14V

45. The distance between two point charges is doubled. What will happen to the force

of interaction between the charges

A. The force will be doubled.

B. The force will be reduced by a factor four times.

C. The force will be reduced by half.

D. The force will not be affected.

46. A sheet of polythene (ϵr= 2.3) and 0.25 mm thick is to be used in a capacitor by

Sandwiching it between two sheets of aluminum foil. What area must the sheets

have it the capacitor is to have a capacitance of 0.5μF?

A. 12 m2 C. 6.14 m2

B. 0.6 m2 D. 0.12 m2

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47. Two equal and opposite charges are located along X-axis at and

as shown in the figure below. How much would be the electric potential

at the origin?

A. 1.8 MV C. Zero

B. 3.6 MV D. 4.5 MV

48. When two capacitors are connected in parallel, the effective capacitance is 4F. If

the same capacitors are connected in series; the effective capacitance is one-fourth

the capacitance of one of the two capacitors. What is the capacitance of the two

capacitors?

A. 3F and 4F C. . 1F and 4F

B. 1F and 3F D. 2F and 2F

49. A dielectric is inserted into a capacitor while the charge on it is kept constant. What

happens to the potential difference and the stored energy?

A. The potential difference decreases and the stored energy increases

B. Both the potential difference and the stored energy increase

C. The potential difference increases and the stored energy decreases

D. Both the potential difference and the stored energy decreases

====== CURRENT AND CIRCUIT============

50. Which of the following is NOT correct about the circuit shown below?

A. Voltage across R is

B. Current flowing through R is r R

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C. Current flowing through r is

D. Power drop in R is

51. If a cell supplies a current of 0.9A when connected to a 2Ω resistor and a current of

0.3A, then what will be the internal resistance of the cell when connected to a 7Ω

resistor? Check it

A. 2 Ω C. 1 Ω

B. 1.2 Ω D. 0.5 Ω

52. Household light bulbs are normally connected in parallel to a power supply.

Suppose a 40w and a 60W light bulbs are, instead, connected in series. Which bulb

is brighter? Check

A. The 60W bulb

B. The bulbs are equally bright

C. The 40W bulb

D. The bulbs will not give fight in series connection

53. Determine the current in the 5 Ω resistor in the figures shown below Check it

A. 7.85 A

B. 1.09 A

C. 0.48 A

D. 0.18 A

54. A cell supplies a current of 0.9 A through a 2 Ω resistor and a current of 0.3 A

through a 7 Ω resistor. The internal resistance of the cell is?

A. 0.5 Ω B. 1.0 Ω

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C. 1.2 Ω D. 2.0 Ω

55. A rod is made of two materials connected to each other. Each conductor has a

square cross – section of 3mm on a side. The first material has resistivity of ρ1 = 4x

10-3 Ω m and is 25cm long while the second material has resistivity of ρ2 = 6 x 10 – 3

Ωm and is 40cm long. What is the resistance between the ends of the rod?

A. 378 Ω C. 436 Ω

B. 267 Ω D. 363 Ω

56. The maximum power delivered to the load resistance R occurs when the load

resistance R and internal resistance r have the following relation:

A. r = 2R C. r = 3R

B. r = R D. r = 7R

57. A galvanometer many as used as an ammeter by

A. Shunting the galvanometer with a high resistance

B. Connecting a high resistance in series

C. Connecting a low resistance in parallel with the galvanometer

D. Connecting a high resistance in series

58. Wire B has twice the length and twice the radius of wire A. Both wires are made

from the same material. If wire A has a resistance R, what is the resistance of

Wire B?

A. 4R C. R/2

B. 2R D. R/4

59. If the terminals of a battery with Zero internal resistance are connected across two

identical resistors in series, the total power delivered by the battery is . If the

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same battery is connected across the same resistors in parallel, what is the total

power deceived by the battery?

A. 2W C. 16W

B. 4W D. 32W

60. If a piece of aluminum is cooled from room temperature to 80K, then the resistance

of the piece?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain the same.

D. It is not possible to tell, as all material do not show the same electrical

characteristics upon cooling.

61. A copper wire is stretched so that its length increases & its diameter decreases as a

result its

A. resistance decreased & its resistivity remains the same

B. resistivity decrease & its resistance remains the same

C. resistance increase & its resistivity remains the same

D. resistivity increase & its resistance remains the same

62. The terminal voltage of a cell supplying energy to a circuit is usually less than its

emf because of the cell’s

A. Size C. mass

B. Internal resistance D. Energy

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63. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE?

A. Any device such as battery or generator can be considered as source of emf

B. The terminal voltage can be equal to emf in real system

C. Emf forces electrons move in a direction opposite to the electrostatic force

D. Emf can be defined as work done per unit charge

64. Two resistors connected in series have an equivalent resistance of  . When they
are connected in parallel, their equivalent resistance is . What is the resistance

of each resistor?

A. 5.5Ω , 1.5 Ω C. .6 Ω , 1 Ω

B. 5 Ω , 2 Ω D. 4 Ω , 3 Ω

65. The current in the 16Ώ resistor is:-

A. 0.64A

B. 0.15 A

C. 0.49 A

D. 1.28A

66. The statement of Kirchhoff’s point rule follows from:

A. dependence of resistance on temperature

B. conservation of energy

C. Ohm's law

D. conservation of charge

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67. A metal rod is measured to have a resistance R. lf the same metal rod is stretched to

reduce its radius by half without affecting its density, what is its new resistance?

A. 2R C. 8R

B. 16R D. 4R

68. A battery is composed of six cells, which are connected in series. Each cell

has an internal resistance of 0.2. What is the highest current that can be obtained

from such a battery?

A. 7.5A C. 2A

B. 4.5A D. 3A

69. A battery with internal resistance and a battery with internal resistance

are connected to a 10 Ω resistor as shown in the figure. Then current in the 10

Ω resistor is,

A. 0.27 A, P1 to P2

B. 0.27 A, P2 to P1

C. 0.03 A, P1 to P2

D. 0.03 A, P2 to P1

70. Suppose you obtain a piece of iron from your laboratory shelf. How can you

experimentally determine, for use, that it is magnetized?

A. If it attracts another magnet

B. If it diverges a charged electroscope

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C. There is no single and sure way to determine its magnetization

D. If it repels another magnet

71. Two parallel wires each carrying current in the same direction are separated

by . What is the magnitude of the force per unit length acting on the wires?

A. 4x10-6 N/m, repulsive C. 8x10-5 N/m, repulsive

B. 2x10-4 N/m, attractive D. 5x10-6 N/m attractive

72. A positive charged particle of charge q = 3.2x10-19C is moving parallel to x- axis

with speed of 1000m/s a magnetic field of 0.5T parallel to y- axis as shown in the

diagram below. What is the magnetic force on the charge

A. 8x10-16N C. 8x10-17N

B. 3.2x10-16N D. 1.6x10-16N

73. Which of the following statement is NOT correct about magnetic field?

A. Magnetic field lines are closed

B. The closer the field lines are, the stronger the magnetic field

C. Magnetic monopoles exist

D. Magnetic field is produced by moving charge

74. Two parallel cooper wires are apart. Lightning sends a pulse of

current along each conductor. What is the force per unit length on one conductor

A. 1000 N/m C. 20 N/m

B. 200 N/m D. 2000N/m

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75. Find the magnitude of the force felt by an electron traveling at an angle of 600 to the

earth’s magnetic field at 1.4 x 107 m/s. The charge on an electron is 1.6 x 10-19 C and

the magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field is 5 x 10-5 T

A. 0 N C. 1.1 x 10-16 N

B. 9.7 x 10-17 N D. 8.6 x 10-17 N

76. A long straight wire carrying a steady current of 3A flowing in direction parallel to

a unit vector ( ̂ + ̂+ ̂ ) is placed in a magic field ⃗⃗ =(0.75 ̂+0.4 ̂ )T. What is the

magnetic force per unit length of the wire?

A. (0.69 ̂ -0.61 ̂ – 1.3 ̂ ) C. ( ̂– ̂ – 1.37 ̂ )

B. ( ̂– ̂– ̂) D. (0.59 ̂ -0.7 ̂ -0.13 ̂ )

77. A rectangular loop 0 of area 0.4m2 is placed in a magnetic field that is changing at a

rate of 100T/s. If the normal of the loop makes angle 600 with the magnetic field.

What is the magnitude of induced EMF?

A. 34.64V C. 80v

B. 20V D. 40V

78. Two 1ong wires of 10 m in length carries a current of 2.0 A and 0.5A in the same

direction. The wires are separated by 4.0 cm. What is the magnetic force wires

exerted on each other?

A. 5x10-6N C. 4x10-6N

B. 5x10-5N D. 5x 10-7N

HU Physics Practice Questions

79. What is the expression of the centripetal acceleration of a particle of charge n mass

m moving in a uniform magnetic field B on a circle of radius r it B is

perpendicular to the particle's direction of motion?

A. C.

B. D.

80. A charged particle is moving in a circular orbit in a magnetic field. If the strength

of the magnetic field doubles, how does the radius of the particle’s orbit change?

A. It is halved C. It is quadrupled

B. It is doubled D. It is quartered

81. An electron moving horizontally along the +x axis enters a region of space with a

horizontal uniform magnetic field pointing in the +y direction. The electron will be

deflected to

A. negative direction C. negative direction

B. positive direction D. positive direction

82. An inductor has a self-inductance of 12mH. The current in the circuit decreases at

a rate of 2A/s. What is the magnitude of the induced electromotive force?

A. 2.4x10-2V C. 2.4πV

B. 1.2πV D. 1.2x10-2V

83. Which of the following is correct about the characteristic of current and voltage in

A.C. circuits?

A. If the current is in phase with the voltage, the circuit is inductive

B. If the current leads the voltage, it is inductive circuit

C. If the current lags the voltage, the circuit is capacitive

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D. If the current leads the voltage, its capacitive reactance is greater than inductive

reactance

84. An RLC circuit is designed to have a resistance of capacitive reactance of

and inductive reactance of . The circuit is connected to an alternative

voltage source of effective value 50V, and frequency of 50Hz. What is the output

average power?

A. 400W C. 40W

B. 4W D. 62.5W

85. Which of the following quantity has an electronvolt unit?

A. energy C. charge

B. potential difference D. electromagnetic intensity

86. A magnetic field of strength 5x10-5 T passes through an area of 20cm2 that is at an

angle of 600 to the magnetic field. What is the magnetic flux?

A. 0Wb C. 8.7x10-8 Wb

B. 2.5x10-8 Wb D. 5x10-8 Wb

87. An electric generator has a coil of 400 turns and cross- sectional area 5m2 rotating

at angular frequency 0.524rad/s in a uniform magnetic field of 0.2T. What is the

induced EMF produced from the electric generator in each second?

A. 209.6V C. 200V

B. 104.8V D. 182.4V

88. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The direction of induced E.M.F. is such a direction as to enforce the change produces

it

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B. Self-inductance of a coil is E.M.F. divided by magnitude of rate change of current

with time

C. The induced E.M.F. in a coil is inversely proportional to its number of turns

D. Self-inductance of a coil is inversely proportional to the cross- sectional area of the

coil

89. The induced electromotive force in a current carrying coil placed in a magnetic

field does NOT depend on which of the following?

A. The speed at which the coil moves if the relative motion does not result in changing

the magnetic flux

B. The length of the coil that is moving in a direction perpendicular to that of the

magnetic field

C. The area of the coil outside the field

D. The change of magnetic flux density

90. Which statement is correct about a purely inductive circuit?

A. The current leads the voltage by

B. The current is in phase with the voltage

C. The current lags behind the voltage by

D. The current lags by at law frequencies and leads by a high frequencies.

91. What is the main reason why alternation current is used to transmit electricity?

A. To minimize power gain C. To maximize voltage gain

B. To minimize energy loss D. To maximize current gain

HU Physics Practice Questions

92. . Two coils, held in fixed positions, have a mutual inductance of 100 µH. what is the

peak voltage in one when the sinusoidal current given by I (t) = (10.0 A) sin (1000 t)

flows in the other?

A. 1.0 µV B. 100.0 V C. 10.0 V D. 1.0V

93. Determine the total impedance for the circuit shown blow

A . 0Ω

B. 4 Ω

C. 27 Ω

D. 31 Ω

94. A 6.00 – V battery is connected across the primary coil of a transformer having 50

turns. If the secondary coil of the transformer has 100 turns, what voltage appears

across the secondary?

A. 24.0V C. 6.00 V

B. 12.0V D. 3.00V

95. The peak voltage of the alternating emf is 141 volts. The effective value of the

voltage in volts is

A. 70.5 C. 141

B. 100 D. 200

96. The voltage output of a generator is given by V = (300V) sin (ωt). What is the rms

current in the circuit when this generator is connected to a 100Ω resistor?

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A. 1.50A C. 1.12A

B. 2.12 A D. 1.41A

97. Which device functions with the principle of mutual induction?

A. Electromagnet C. Electric motor

B. Transformer D. Transistor

98. Lenz's law in electromagnetic induction follows from which law of conservation

A. charge C. energy

B. momentum D. mass

99. Self-inductance is a quantity that describes:

A. the number of turns in a circuit.

B. the 1nduction of an electric field by an AC current n lone coil.

C. the induction of a magnetic field by an AC current in a lone coil.

D. the steady state current in a coil.

100. Which conversion process forms the basis for the function of an electric

generator?

A. alternating current to direct.

B. electrical energy to mechanical.

C. mechanical energy to electrical.

D. low voltage to high or vice versa.

==============END=========

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