CRIMINOLOGY BOARD REVIEW QUESTIONS

CRIMINALISTICS

I. POLICE PHOTOGRAPHY

1. It is the inability to focus light passing through the center of the lens and its edge at the same place on the film.
a. Aberration c. Spherical aberration
b. Chromatic Aberration d. All of the foregoing

2. Refers to a picture of the original object photographed.

a. Print c. Negative Print
b. Positive Print d. Contact Print

3. Looking at the object closely with one eye while the other is finding that the object is not seen from the same angle and has apparently a
different position and shape.
a. Parallax c. Depth of field
b. Lock trough d. Focal distance

4. Characteristic of photographic paper usually utilized in police.

a. Single, glossy,white c. Double, glossy, white
b. Single, matte, cream d. Double, matte ,cream

5. When a photograph was developed, the objects in open space cast a deep and uniform shadow, what was the lightning condition when the
shot was taken?
a. Bright c. Hazy
b. Dull d. Cloudy

6. Refers to the presence of all colors.

a. White light c. Rainbow
b. Gray light d. Black

7. Are devices which allow the photographer to watch the object he is photographing. It is usually made up of small lens and mirror.
a. Range finder c. Tripod
b. View finder d. Shutter

8. Refers to the response of the film different wave length of light source.
a. Spectral sensitivity c. Light sensitivity
b. Color sensitivity d. Film Sensitivity

9. A film sensitive to ultra violet rays and blue color only.

a. Blue sensitive c. Panchromatic
b. Orthochromatic d. Infra red

10. Lighting condition when objects in open space casts no shadow.

a. Bright c. Hazy
b. Dull d. Cloudy

11. Lens corrected for astigmatism.

a. Aprochomat lens c. Achromatic lens
b. Normal lens d. Narrow angle lens

12. A camera used for surveillance must have a lens with focal length that is :
a. Wide angle lens c. Telephoto lens
b. Normal lens d. Narrow angle lens

13. When a material does not allow light to pass its medium it is said to be:
a. Transparent c. Opaque
b. Translucent d. All of these

14. To separate colors, this homogenous medium absorbs and transmit light rays passing through it.
a. Filter c. Developer
b. Stop bath d. Fixer

15. Refers to the most difficult lens defect.

a. Wide angle lens c. Telephoto lens
b. Normal lens d. Narrow angle lens

16. Refers to the most different lens defect.

a. Astigmatism c. Distortion
b. Coma d. Chromatic aberration

17. It is use to allow light to enter through the lens for a predetermined time interval.
a. View finder c. Light light box
b. Shutter d. Holder otsensitized material.

18. Its primary use in photography is focusing the light to the subject.
a. Light tight box c. Lens
b. Shutter d. View finder

19. It refers to the nearest distance at which a lens is focused with a given particular diaphragh opening.
a. Depth of field c. Focal distance
b. Hyper Focal distance d. Scale bed

20. It is the distance measured from the nearest to the farthest object.

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a. Depth of field c. Scale bed
b. Hyper- Focal Distance d. focal distance

21. Which among the following is not a primary color?

a. Red c. yellow
b. Blue d. Green

22. It is microscopically small photograh.

a. Microphotograph c. Photomicrograph
b. Photomicrograhp d. Macrophotograph

23. The normal developing time of paper or film.

a. 1 to 1 ½ minutes c. 20 to 30 minutes
b. 5 to 10 minutes d. 30 to 60 minutes

24. In enlarging a photograph what would be the ideal paper for printing.
a. Chloride paper c. Contact paper
b. Bromide paper d. Cholo- bromide paper

25. This refers to the absence of all colors.

a. White c. Blue
b. Red d. Black

26. A lighting condition wherein subject in open space cast a transparent shadow.
a. Hazy c. Cloudy bright
b. Cloudy dull d. Bright

27. To view watermark in disputed documents, what particular method of photography is utilized.
a. Bounce light c. Transmitted light
b. Side light d. Reflected light

28. Its primary function is to prevent the contamination of two chemical solutions in chemical processing in photography.
a. Development c. Fixation
b. Stop bath d. Bleaching

29. Which among the following compromises the essential parts of the camera?
a. Body, lens, shutter, holder of sensitized material, view finder
b. Light tight box, shutter, holder of sensitized material, view finder, lens aperture
c. Body, lens, Range finder, holder of sensitized material, shutter
d. Light tight box, Shutter, Range finder, Lens, holder of sensitized material

30. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative material.
a. Wide angle lens c. Long lens
b. Normal lens d. Telephoto lens

31. Mechanism that is used to measure the angle of convergence of light coming from a subject as seen from two apertures.
a. Focusing scale c. View finder
b. Scale bed d. Range finder

32. It is a magnified picture of small object produced by connecting the lens of a camera with the ocular of a compound microscope.
a. Microphotograhp c. Photomacrograhp
b. Photomicrograph d. Macrophptograph

33. Attributed as the person who first discover first true photograghy.
a. William Henry Fox Talbot c. Louis Jacques Daguirre
b. Thomas Wedgewood d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce

34. Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of 100 at bright sunlight with normal subject.
a. 1/30 f- 8 c. 1/60 f-4
b. 1/125 f-11 d. 1/250 f-8

35.In police photograph, to obtain a general view of the scene we use a camera at what particular level?
a. Elevated c. Bird’s eye view
b. Eye level d. Worm’s eye view

36. The wavelength of electromagnetic energy expressed in milli- microns in reference to visible light is:
a. 001 to 100 c. 400 to 700
b. 300 to 400 d. 700 to 1000

37. Photography is defined as drawing with what particular element?

a. Light c. Film
b. Camera d. Developer

38. It refers to a lens that is characterized as by the thicker center and thinner sides.
a. Positive lens c. Convex lens
b. Negative lens d. Concave lens

39. It is the film with the widest range of sensitivity to the various energies of the electromagnetic spectrum.
a. Infra- red c. Orthochromatic
b. X- ray d. Panchromatic

40. The first use of photography in police work is in what particular field?
a. Crime prevention c. Surveillance work

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b. Identification files d. Crime scene investigation

41. The chemical processing step wherein the latent image recorded on the paper or film becomes visible.
a. Fixer c. Stop bath
c. Bleacher d. Developer

42. Refers to the process of taking picture with the use of microscope.
a. Microphotography c. Macrophotography
b. Photomicrography d. Photomacrography

43. The primary controlling factor of the sharpness of image refers to:
a. Hyper- focal distance c. Focusing
b. Focal distance d. Focal Length

44. Infrared radiation is also referred to as:

a. Laser light c. Black light
b. Coherent light d. Heat rays

45. The emulsion speed rating of films expressed in logarithmic values refers to:
a. ISO rating c. DIN rating
b. ASA rating d. BSI Rating

46. Commonly used hardening agent in an acid fixing solution.

a. Hypo or silver halide c. Sodium sulfate
b. Potassium alum d. Acetic acid

47. Chemical Used as accelerator in a developer solution.

a. Hydroquinone c. Sodium carbonate
b. Sodium sulfite d. Potassium bromide

48. Refers to the product of illumination and time.

a. Exposure c. Sensitized material
b.Development d. Photograph

49. Chemical used in developing to prevent fogging.

a. Potassium bromide c. Sodium carbonate
b. Sodium sulfite d. Boric acid

50. A homogenous mixture which absorbs and transmits differentially light rays passing through it:
a. Stop bath c. Filter
b. fixer d. dektol

51. An instrument which measures the intensity of light falling on the subject, which indicates the proper F stop and shutter speed to use with a
specific film Also know as a light meter.
a. Range finder c. Shutter
b. View finder d. Exposure meter

52. It refers to the taking photographs of arrested persons for identification purposes.
a. Rouge gallery c. Booking
b. Line- up d. Mugging

53. Alight sensitized material placed inside the camera.

a. Filter c. Negative
b. Paper d. Film

54. It is a coating which consists of light sensitive silver salts and gelatin medium use for all photographic films and paper.
a. Solution c. Dektol
b. Halides d. Emulsion

55. A sheet of brass which has a chromium plated surface on one side used for producing a highly glossy picture.
a. Platen c. Developer
b. Tripod d. Forrotype plate

56. It includes the inability of the lens to image straight lines.

a. Aberretion c. Chromatic Aberration
b. Distortion d. Spherical aberration

57. The tonal difference between the darkest and lightest portion of a negative or print.
a. Degree c. Hue
b. Contrast d. Light

58. A photographic positive made while exposing the photographic paper being held tightly against the negative.
a. Print c. Negative print
b. Contact print d. Positive print

59. Commonly known as “hypo” the purpose of this solution is to harder the gelatin emulsion on the film and to dissolve all undeveloped and
unexposed silvers halides.
a. Developer c. Emulsion
b. Clearing or fixing d. Dektol

60. The inability of the lens to focus both horizontal and vertical plane at the same time.
a. Aberration c. Coma

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b. Astigmatism d.Distortion

61. The simplest type of camera.

a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflect type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

62. Using this camera, the entire coverage is seen behind the lens, the image is reflected to the viewer and inables the photographer to compose
and focus the objects being photographed.
a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

63. This type of camera will eliminate parallax error and will work well with all lenses, but difficult to focus under dim condition.
a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

64. In this type of camera the image being photographed can be seen in flat surface as reflected by the mirror behind the viewing lens. The
viewing screen will help the photographer in the accurate composition of the object to photograph as he looks into the camera at his waist level.
a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

65. The biggest and most sophisticated type of camera.

a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

66. This camera is useful in law enforcement photography especially in the reproduction of document and photomicrography wherein minute
object can be enlarged and composed accurately in the large viewing screen of this type of camera.
a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

67. Usually this camera is made up of a lens located at peephole of the camera. More often the focusing system this camera is in the finder itself.
a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

68. This type of camera can be provide an excellent focusing system especially at dim light condition.
a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

69. Which among the following camera utilized by means of tripod?

a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

70. This filter is used in excessively bright light and would protect the camera len from accidental scratches and abrasion.
a. Contrast filter c. Neutral density filter
b. Correction filter d. Polarizing filter

71. the most dependable device that will measure the brightest of light.
a. Extinction meter c. Photo- electric meter
b. Light meter d. Flash unit
72. It refers to a lens which forms a real image on the opposite side of the lens.
a. Positive lens c. Convex lens
b. Negative lens d. Concave lens

73. It is thinner on the middle than the edge and this lens forms a virtual image on the same side of the lens. Also known as a diverging lens
because of its power to swerve rays of light that passes through it.
a. Positive lens c. Convex lens
b. Negative lens d. Concave lens

74. The failure of the lens to produce a point imager of an object point.
a. Astigmatism c. Coma
b. Curvature of field d. Distortion

75. A combination of two achromatic lens with almost the same focal length.
a. Simple meniscus lens c. Anastigmatic lens
b. Rapid rectilinear lens d. Proceess lens

76. Court recommended size of the photograph submitted as evidence.

a. 5 x 7 c. 8 x 9
b. 5 x 6 d. 8 x 10

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II. PERSONAL IDENTICATION

1. Fingerprint patterns are ________, as all fingerprint expert agree.

a. Always inherited c. Inherited as mendelian characteristics.
b. Sometimes inherited d. Never inherited

2. In the process of developing the impressions, the fingerprint powder should be applied as soon as the ridges become visible;
a. Across the ridge c. In the direction of the ridge trend
b. In the interspaces d. In the center of the ridge

3. Refers to as fingerprint pattern wherein the ridge flow from one side to the other without recurving, and ridges rising in the center.
a. Plain arc h c. Plain whorl
b. Tented arch d. Plain loop

4. A pattern in which the ridges flow from one circle to another without recurving, usually forming a slight upward curve in the center having
a resemblance of an arc.
a. Plain arc h c. Plain whorl
b. Tented arch d. Plain loop

5. It is a fingerprint pattern in which the ridge or downward slant from the little finger toward the radius bone or thumb.
a. Loop c. Radial loop
b. Ulnar loop d. Tented arch

6. The system of fingerprinting is referred to as:

a. Poroscopy c. Dactyloscopy.
b. Podoscopy d. Palmistry

7. In the taking the fingerprint, it is a must to instruct the subject to:

a. Stiffen the finger c. Relax the finger
b. Wash both hands before taking the print d. Exert pressure on the inking process

8. It is a ridge in the center of the fingerprint pattern which resembles a rod, loop, or a spiral in the interior of the pattern.
a. Core c. Delta
b. Loop d. Bifurcation

9. A German criminologist who discovered that fingerprint for identication purpose were already used in the far east during Tang Dynasty
from 618 to 906 A.D
a. Henry Faulds c. Robert heindle
b. DR. Nehemiah Greu d. Alphonse Bertillon

10. Regard as the “ Father of Fingerprint.”

a. Sir Edward Richard Henry c. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Sir Francis Galton d. gilbert Thompson

11. Basis of fingerprint identification.

a. Pores c. Friction ridges
b. Ridges d. Latent print

12. Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable method of identification due to the following reason except;
a. Fingerprint are not changeable c. Wounded or burned out pattern will re- appear
b. There two identical fingerprints d. It is formed in the ninth month of pregnancy

13. Period of person’s life wherein papillary ridges are formed and developed?
a. 3rd month of fetal life c. At birth
b. 6th month of infancy d. 3 months after birth

14. Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a loop, spiral or rod.
a. Delta c. Ridge
b. Core d. Whorl

15. Minimum identical Characteristic detail to justify the identity between two points.
a. Nine c. Fifteen
b. Twelve d. Eighteen

16. A British Scientist who devoted his work to the study of fingerprint and established his system of fingerprinting classification in England.
a. Sir Francis Galton c. Samuel Clemens

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b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thompson

17. An American who first utilized fingerprint classification to prevent forgery in New Mexico.
a. Sir Francis Galton c. Samuel Clemens
b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thompson

18. First chief of the identification Bureau in Paris who was known his anthropometric measurement.
a. Alphonse Bertillon c. Samuel Clemens
b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thom

19. First Filipino Expert on fingerprinting.

a. Atty. Agustin Patricio c. Atty. Lorenzo Sunico
b. Gen. Rafael Crame d. Col. Jose Lukban

20. First judicial dicision within Philippine jurisprudence relying on the science of fingerprinting.
a. People of the Philippines Vs. Medina, 59, Phil. 330
b. People of the Philippines Vs. Ponferada, 54 Phil. 68
c. People of the Philippines Vs. Arseni, 34 Phil. 750
d. People of the Philippines Vs. Pacana, 47 Phil. 48

21. Papillary or friction ridges may be located at:

a. Figers c. Soles of the feet
b. Palms d. All of the above

22. The finger classification which is used in the United States.

a. Henry system c. Bertillon system
b. Batley system d. All of the for going

23. Which among the following is considered as a basic type of ridge characteristics?
a. Ridge ending c. Dots
b. Bifurcation d. All of the for going

24. Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of the papillary ridge as means of identification.
a. Edgeoscopy c. Podoscopy
b. Poroscopy d. Chiroscopy

25. In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the subject’s hand is:
a. Necessary c. Optional
b. Unnecessary d. Excessive

26. Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is;

a. Temporary c. Lasting
b. Permanent d. Stable

27. An inking pad which requires no ink or roller.

a. Porelon c. Inkless pad
b. Special pad d. None of these

28. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the impression is held to be:
a. Plain whorl meeting c. Arches
b. Loops d. Dependent on ridge tracing
29. Referred to as cutter terminus:
a. Delta c. Bifurcation
b. Dots d. none of these

30. Failure to clean the slab after using it produces:

a. Impression of false markings c. Pattern reversals
b. Accentuation of patterns d. Difficulty in photographing

31. In taking fingerprints_________ are rolled away from the body of the subject.
a. All fingers c. Both thumbs
b. All fingers except the thumbs d. Both little fingers

32. Impression Which are taken simultaneously on the finger card are referred to as:
a. Rolled impression c. Fragmentary impression
b. Plain impression d. Visible impression

33.Known for his rule which states that “ no two individuals in world are exactly the same size and the human skeleton does not change after 20
years.
a. Darwin c. Galton
b. Mendel d. Bertillon

34. The easiest means of dis covering latent fingerprint is to view the area:
a. Obliquely c. Directly
b. About half an inch d. About one inch distance

35. Fingerprint pattern in which two or or different types of pattern are represemted.
a. Accidental Loop c. Double Loop
b. Central pocket Loop d. whorl

36. A distinct fingerprint pattern in which two separate loops, with its respective shoulders and deltas.
a. Double loop c. Central Pocket Loop
b. Accidental Loop d. Whorl

37. A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but has two deltas.

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a. Accidental Loop c. Whorl
b. Double Loop d. Central pocket Loop

38. What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from the thumb toward the little finger?
a. Tented arch c. Ulnar Loop
b. Radial Loop d. Loop

39. Fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of the impression by a recurve, And terminate on the same side where the
ridge has entered.
a. Tented arch c. Ulnar Loop
b. Radial Loop d. Loop

40. It is triangular shaped and formed by the bifurcation of a ridge at the outer portion of the pattern.
a. Latent print c. Core
b. Ridge d. Delta

41. The three basic types of ridge characteristics are:

a. Enclosure, long ridge, and upthrusts
b. Criss- crossing ridges, incipient ridges and spurs
c. Ridges endings, dots, and bifurcation
d. Type lines, converging ridge and recurving ridge

42. A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form a single ridge is called:
a. Enclosure ridge c. Short ridge
b. Dot ridge d. resembling a loop

43. Which part of the human body has no papillary ridges.

a. Soles of the foot c. Finger
b. Palm d. Both A and B

44. Points often missed in rolling impression.

a. Bifurcation c. Delta
b. Core d. Ridge

45. Fingerprints left at the crime scene which may be an impression or imprint.
a. Latent print c. Loop
b. Pattern d. Arches

46. Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint pattern?
a. Loop c. Whorl
b. Arch d. Accidental

47. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spiral around core axes.
a. Whorl c. Double loop
b. Central pocket loop d. Accidental

48. Refers to the study of sweat gland opening found on papillary ridges as a of means of identification.
a. Poroscopy c. Podoscopy
b. Edeoscopy d. Dactyloscopy

49. A ridge which forks out into two ridges.

a. Delta c. Core
b. Bifurcation d. Pores

50. Fingerprints pattern in which the downward slant or ridges from the little finger toward the thumb.
a. Ulnar loop c. Arch
b. Radial Loop d. Whorl

51. To held identify a subject who is an alien, the most vital information to be obtained at the Bureau of Immigration and Deportation is…
a. Educational attainment of the alien c. Occupation of the alien
b. Residence of the alien d. Port of entry of the alien

52. In tracing the suspected person at large in a criminal case, the least vital among the following would be...
a. His appearance and how to dress
b. Know associates and companions
c. His occupation or mean of livelihood
d. Where’s the suspect hang’s out

53. What does the first two digit of the person’s Social Security Number indicates?
a. The occupation of the member at the time of the registration
b. The month of the registration
c. The income bracket or group where the member belongs
d. The region where the member originally registered

54. In Determining the identity of unknown dead body found in a river, wherein no identifying papers are to be found, and the body is badly
mutilated and swollen, which among the following means of identification is least dependable?
a. Fingerprints c. Scars on the body
b. Tattoo markings on the body d. Measurement of the body

55. In reporting in missing person, which among the following is the most vital information necessary to locate said person?
a. Clinical or medical history of the person
b. Personal trait and habits
c. Mental attitude and condition at the time of disappearance
d. Physical description

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56. Given to a complete set of ten fingers as they appear on a fingerprint card generally based on pattern type, ridge tracing or ridge counting.
a.Henry System c. Fingerprint Classification
b. Battley System d. Classification Formula

57. It constitutes Approximately 65% of all fingerprints.

a. Loops c. Whorl
b. Arches d. Accidentals

58. That part of the fingerprint wherein we find the core and delta.
a. Bifurcation c. Type lines
b. Pattern Area d. none of these

59. Refers to innermost ridges that run parallel, diverge and surround or tend to surround the pattern area.
a. Delta c. Core
b. Divergence d. Type lines

60. A smooth spreading apart of two ridges which have been running parallel or nearly parallel.
a. Island c. Divergence
b. Dot d. Convergence

61. A small ridge attached to another ridge.

a. Island c. Bifurcation
b. Dot d. Appendage

62. In ridge counting of loops, which among the following is not counted?
a. Delta c. Intervening ridges
b. Core d. Both A and B

63. When the traced is whorl is on the outside or core outside of right delta three or more ridges, the traced is determined to be:
a. (I) Inner c. (M) Meet
b. (O) Outer d. none of these

64. Represents the total numerical value of the even numbered fingers plus one over the total number numerical value of the odd numbered
fingers plus one.
a. Primary c. key
b. Secondary d. Final

65. In the classification, this is always shown in capital letters with the right hand over the help.
a. Primary c. key
b. Secondary d. Final

66. It tells us the classification of the thumb prints on the fingerprint card and appears showing the right hand over the left hand.
a. Major division c. Key
b. Primary d. Final

67. If all fingers are amputated or missing at birth, the classification will be:
a. M 32 W MMM c. M 30 W MMM
M 32 W MMM M 30 W MMM
b. M 31 W MMM d. None of the above
M 31 W MMM

68. If one finger is amputated, it is given a classification with that of;

a. The opposite finger c. The first finger
b. The next finger d. none of these

69. It consist of recording of all friction ridges present on palmar surface of the hands and the inner surface of the fingers. They are commonly
utilized to make accurate and conclusive comparison with all latent prints obtain during the investigation of major case.
a. Major case print c. Special case print
b. Fingerprint chart d. none of these

70. In trying to obtain print on fingers o a dead person which is stiff or when rigor mortis has set in, injection of tissue builder by a hypodermic
needle at the joint of the finger up to the tip of the finger is undertaken. Which among the following is the most commonly utilized tissue
builder?
a. Glycerine c. Saline Solution
b. Water d. both A and B

III. FORENSIC CHEMISTRY AND TOXICOLOGY

1. The most reliable and delicate for the determination of the presence of blood by means of an optical instrumental.
a. Precipitin test c. Microscopic test
b. Spectroscopic test d. Florence test

2. It is used to characterized and locate seminal fluid.

a. Florence test c. Barberio’s test
b. Microscopic examination d. Acid Phosphate test

3. A test used if the powder particles of nitrates and nitrites are deeply embedded in the clothing, the visible result of which is the fact that the
nitrates are converted to a dye.
a. Walker’s test c. microscopic test
b. Diphenylamine test d. Spectroscopic test

4. An examination which is used to determine the general group to which the fibers belongs.
a. Chemical test c. Fluorescence test
b. Florence test d. Burning or ignition test

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5. A reliable test which is used to identify and compare ballpoint ink.
a. Spot test c. Paper Chromatography
b. Chemical test d. Dissolution test

6. A rapid and convenient method of determining the density of small glass fragments.
a. Density Gradient test c. Immersion method
b. Flotation Method d. Polish mark examination

7. A test which shows the constituent elements of glass which is key to establish the origin of the glass samples examined.
a. X- ray diffraction test c. Spectographic analysis
b. Ultra violet light examination d. Physical property examination

8. Simon’s Reagent and shabu combined will yield what visible result?
a. Yellow c. Green
b. Blue d. Red

9. Used to determine human semen under microscopic examination.

a. Spermine nitrate c. Spermatozoa
b. Hemochromagen crystals d. Choline periodic crystals

10. Positive result of marijuana if combined with HCI.

a. Yellow fluorescence c. blue specks
b. Effervescence d. No reaction

11. A person who fired a gun woul be positively identified when DPA solution is used with the visible result of :
a. Blue specks c. Orange brown specks
b. Bluish fluorescence d. Green specks

12. Fundamental unit of heredity.

a. Sperm cell c. Gene
b. Egg cell d. DNA

13. Which among the foregoing is not usually used specimen in DNA typing.
a. Hair c. Blood
b. Bones d. Semen

14. A very large molecule made by linking together a series of repeating units.
a. Gene c. nucleotide
b. Polymer d. Double helix

15. The production of amino acid is controlled by sequence of how many bases on the DNA molecules?
a. Two c. Four
b. Three d. Five

16. The circulating tissue of the body?

a. Semen c. Cell
b. Blood d. Muscles

17. A man of a average built would normally have how many quarts of blood.
a. 6 quarts c. 8 quarts
b. 7 quarts d. 9 quarts

18. It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and comprises about 65% of the blood.
a. Platelets c. Leucocytes
b. Fibrin d. Plasma

19. It is oxygen carriers of the blood.

a. Plasma c. Erythrocytes
b. Hemoglobin d. Fibrin

20. Reliable and easy way to test blood even when it is decomposed and stained with contamination.
a. Benzidine test c. Phenolphthalein test
b. Van deen’s test d. Precipitin test

21. Stage of blood examination wherein the actual proof that subject is definitely blood.
a. Preliminary test c. Precipitin test
b. Confirmatory test d. Blood typing and grouping

22. Test to determine whether blood is of human origin or not.

a. Preliminary test c. Precipitin test
b. Confirmatory test d. Blood typing and grouping

23. Positive result in the preliminary examination for semen in Barberio’s test.
a. Picric acid c. Napthol diazonium
b. Spermine picrate d. Anthraquinous chloride

24. Coffee when given to drunken persons is what kind of antidote?

a. Cathartic c. Physiological
b. Chemical d. Demulcent

25. Animal fiber may be best described by:

a. It is composed of protein
b. Gives yellow fluorescenceunder U.V light

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c. It burns fast
d. It has acid like odors when burned

26. Restriction enzymes are used to cut out sequences of DNA having deffirent _______.
a. Length c. Weight
b. Width d. Height

27. How many different bases are associated with the made- up of DNA?
a. Two c. Four
b. Three d. Five

28. DNA requires the pairing of A ( adenine) to ___________?

a. C (cytosine) c. T ( thymine)
b. G ( guanine) d. A ( adenine)

29. G (guanine) is to be paired with _______ in a double helix configuration.

a. C (cytosine) c. T ( thymine)
b. G ( guanine) d. A ( adenine)

30. The base sequence of T- G – C – A can be paired with the base sequence of _____ to complete a double helix configuration.
a. A-C-G-T c. G-T-A-C
b. C-A-G-T d. A-T-G-C

31. When gunpowder explosives, this would determine the approximate time of firing the gun?
a. Soot c. Gases
b. Nitrates and Nitrites d. Metallic fragment

32. In determining the hair is of human or animal origin what should the chemist examine under the microscope?
a. Parts of the shaft c. Parts of the hair
b. Parts of the tip d. Parts of the root

33. A fiber which burn rapidly and fumes turns blue litmus to red, it is:
a. Cotton c. Fiber glass
b. Silk d. Steel wool

34. It is the part of the hair which is referred to as a race determinant?

a. Cortex c. Medulla
b. Cuticle d. Shaft

35. A test for fiber used in determining whether it is of human or animal origin.
a. Ignition test or burning c. Chemical analysis
b. Fluorescence analysis d. microscopic analysis

36. Kind of ink is wherein the use of chemical bleaches is ineffective.

a. Carbon c. nigrosine
b. Logwood d. Gallotanic

37. Refers to any agent which neutralizes poison and its effects.
a. Emetics c. Alkaloid
b. Antidotes d. Tetanics

38. Which among the following exhibits bluish fluorescence when exposed to U.V light?
a. Blood c. Saliva
b. Semen d. Urine

39. Oldest known explosive.

a. Black powder c. Dynamite
b. Smoke powder d. TNT

40. Deals with the study of and identification of blood fluids.

a. Immunology c. Posology
b. Serology d. Pharmacology

41. Study which deals poison, and their origin, physical and chemical properties, physiological action, treatment and method of detection.
a. Forensic Chemistry c. Posology
b. Toxicology d. Forensic Medicine

42. A substance which when introduced into the body is absorbed in the blood stream and acting chemically is capable of producing noxious
effect.
a. Drugs c. Poison
b. Dangerous Drug d. Antidotes

43. Refers to poisons which produces inflammation of the mucous membrane and characterized by vomiting, pain in the abdomen and purging.
a. Corrosives c. Narcotics
b. Irritants d. Tetanics

44. When a substance acts directly upon the spinal cord producing immobility or stiffness to the parts to which they are attached, it is classified
as:
a. Corrosives c. Narcotics
b. Irritants d. Tetanics

45. In criminal investigation metallurgy plays an important application in:

a. Counterfeit coin c. Bombs and explosives

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b. Theft and Robbery d. Restoration of tampered serial

46. Agents which depress or retard the physiological action of an organ.

a. Corrosives c. Tetanics
b. Sedatives d. Narcotics

47. According to the method of isolation, what poison is isolated by means of distillation?
a. Volatile poison c. Metallic poison
b. Non- volatile poison d. Tetanic poison

48. When the effect of the poison is mark by disturbance of function or death within a short time, the poisoning is classified as:
a. Acute poisoning c. Chronic poisoning
b. Sub- acute poisoning d. Suicidal poisoning

49. When the action of the poison is marked by disturbance produced in distant part from the site of application, it is classified as:
a. Local c. Combined
b. Remote d. Acute

50. Refers to that branch of science which treats of the form and quantity of medicine to be administered within a certain period.
a. Pharmacy c. Toxicology
b. Posology d. Pharmacology

51. The application of chemical principles in the examination of evidence.

a. Forensics c. Instrumentation
b. Criminalistics d. Forensic Chemistry

52. To positively determine the presence of blood in stained material, what test is used?
a. Takayama Test c. Barberio’s test
b. Phenolphatalien test d. Florence test

53. According to the method of isolation, volatile poisons may be isolated by what means of process?
a. Extraction c. Distillation
b. Dilution d. Dialysis

54. Which of the following is not an accurate test for presence of alcohol in the human body.
a. Saliva test c. Fecal test
b. Harger breath test d. Drug test

55. A disturbance produced by poison on the part with which the poison came into contact.
a. Acute c. Remote
b. Local d. Combined

56. A material which is used to improved the quality of the paper.

a. Sizing material c. Gelatin
b. Rosin d. Starch

57. By adding millon’s reagent, a pink color would be formed if it is present.

a. Rosin c. Casein
b. Starch d. Gelatin

58. Oldest ink material known to man.

a. Logwood c. Carbon
b. Nigrosine d. Gallotanic

59. Only type of ink wherein age may be determined.

a. Logwood c. Carbon
b. Nigrosine d. Gallotanic

60. It refers to the obscuring of writing by superimposing ink, pencil or other marking material.
a. Erasure c. Indented writing
b. Obliterated writing d. Contact writing

61. The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster moulds.

a. Casting c. Moulage
b. Cementing d. Pickling

62. Major component of a glass.

a. Lime c. Soda
b. Silica d. Lime

63. Highly irritant poison which causes local destruction of tissues and causes nausea.
a. Corrosives c. Tetanics
b. Irritants d. Asthenics

64. Poisons which produces stupor and less feeling.

a. Neirotics c. Depressants
b. Irritants d. Narcotics

65. A super cooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity.
a. Lime c. Glass
b. Soda d. Gel

66. An organic bacterial poison.

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a. Strychnine c. Brucine
b. Ptomaine d. Chloroform

67. This test is used to detect the presence of semen particularly in the staining clothing.
a. Microscopic test c. Florence test
b. Barberio’s test d. Ultraviolet test

68. The best method in comparative soil analysis.

a. Chemical examination c. U.V light examination
b. Destiny gradient test d. Microscopic test

69. To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test is utilized?
a. Accelerated aging test c. opacity examination
b. Bursting strength test d. Microscopic examination

70. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by decaying body.
a. Chloride c. Carbon dioxide
b. Oligospremia d. Rigidity

71. A condition whereby males have no spermatozoa in their seminal fluid.

a. Aspermia c. Sterility
b. Oligospremia d. Serumnology

72. It is a scientific study of serums which describeds the analysis of antigen- antibody reaction.
a. Serology c. Biology
b. Posology d. Serumnology

73. An incendiary device made of glass bottle filled with gasoline or any inflammable mixture with a piece of absorbent cotton for a fuse or
wick.
a. Tear gas c. Molotov bomb
b. Molotov cocktail d. RDX

74. Cheapest form of solid oxidizer in an explosive mixture.

a. C-4 c. Ammonium nitrate
b. RDX d. TNT

75. Most utilized and important military explosive.

a. C-4 c. Ammonium nitrate
b. RDX d. TNT

76. Earliest substance used for writing.

a. Leaves c. Linen
b. Paper d. Egyptian papyrus

77. Agents which produce intestinal evacuation.

a. Emetics c. Antidotes
b. Cathartics d. Demulcents

78. A product of decomposition found nearly in all soils.

a. Sedentary soil c. Primary minerals
b. Clay minerals d. Organic constituents

79. For radial cracks it states that stress lines on radial crack will be at right angle to the rear side.
a. RFC rule c. Flotation
b. 3 R’s rule d. Immersion

80. Normally responsible for retraction of the blood cloth.

a. Whiter blood cells ( leucocytes )
b. Red blood cells ( erythrocytes )
c. Blood phatelets (thrombocytes )
d. Fibribogen

IV. FORENSIC MEDICINE

1. Builder of the first pyramid, he was considered as the first or earliest recorded medico- legal expert.
a. Antistius c. Paulus Zacchias

12
b. Imhotep d. San Juan de Bautista

2. First chief medico- legal officer of the Philippine Commonwealt.

a. Dr. Sixto Delos Angeles c.Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
b. Dr. Pedro Solis d. Dr. Enreque V. Delos Santos

3. Regarded as the Father of Forensic Medicine.

a. Antistius c. Paulus Zacchias
b. Imhotep d. San Juan de Bautista

4. Earliest known forensic pathologist or police surgeon, who performed the autopsy of Julius Ceasar, reporting that out of 23 stab wounds, only
one penetrated the chest cavity between the first and the second rib which was Ceasar’s proximate cause of death.
a. Antistius c. Paulus Zacchias
b. Imhotep d. San Juan de Bautista

5. First chief of medico- legal division of Bureau of Investigation.

a. Dr. Sixto Delos Angeles c.Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
b. Dr. Pedro Solis d. Dr. Enreque V. Delos Santos

6. This states that’s the greater number of points of similarities and variation between two persons, the greater the probability of the conclusion
to be accurate.
a. Prima Facie evidence c. Law of multiplicity of evidence identification
b. Conclusive evidence rule d. Chain of custody of evidence

7. Color of blood when exposed to the atmosphere.

a. Red c. Reddish- brown
b. Clay d. Black

8. It has for its characteristic as, bright scarlet in color, with high oxygen content and leaves the blood vessel with pressure.
a. Arterial blood c. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood d. Human blood

9. Dark red in color, with low oxygen content and usually does not spill far from the wound.
a. Arterial blood c. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood d. Human blood

10. This blood contains a high number of deodorleins bacillus, it does not clot and has acidic reaction.
a. Arterial blood c. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood d. Human blood

11. A condition in which foreign matter are introduced in the blood stream blocking the blood circulation in the finer capillaries and arterioles.
a. Infection c. Hemorrhage
b. Embolism d. Hematoma

12. It is the disorder of the fluid balance due to peripheral deficiency, characterized by decreased blood volume, its flow, hemo-concentration
and renal deficiency.
a. Infection c.Hemorrhage
b. Shock d. Hematoma

13. Extravasation or loss of blood from the circulation due to infected wounds in the cardio-vascular system.
a. Infection c.Hemorrhage
b. Shock d. Hematoma

14. The growth and development of micro- organism in the location of the injury or wound.
a. Infection c.Hemorrhage
b. Shock d. Hematoma

15. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skin due to the rupture of blood vessels as a result of the application of blunt force.
a. Contusion c. Hemorrhage
b. Shock d. Hematoma

16. Wounds produced to man’s instinctive reaction of self- preservation to repel attacks or an aggressor.
a. Defense wound c. Patterned wound
b. Self – inflicted wound d. Mutalited wound

17. A wound which resembles the shape or object of the instrument which cause it.
a. Defense wound c. Patterned wound
b. Self – inflicted wound d. Mutalited wound

18. Pulverization of the body into ashes with the use of intense heat.
a. Exhumation c. Charring
b. Cremation d. Pounding

19. Prescribed depth of a grave under P.D 856, section 19 of the code of sanitation.
a. Atleast ½ meters deep c. Atleast 1 and ½ meters deep
b. Atleast 1 meter deep d. Atleast 2 meters deep

20. A person who died of a communicable disease must be buried within….

a. 6 hours after death, unless the local health officer permits otherwise
b. 12 hours after death, unless the health officer permit extension
c. 24 hours after death, unless the health officer allows extension
d. 48 hours after death

21. A significant difference between the male and the female skull is that in males, the supercialiary ridges are _________ than compared with
females.

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a. Less sharp c. More pointed
b. Sharper d. Smoother

22. Female pelvis diameter is

a. Greater c. Lesser
b. Equal d. Less significant

23. How many minutes is necessary persistent cessation in respiration, circulation and brain function is sufficient to declare a person clinically
dead?
a. 10 – 15 minutes c. 30 – 45 minutes
b. 15 – 30 minutes d. 45 – 60 minutes

24. A simple test used to determined cessation of respiration by placing water or mercury in a container on the top of the chest of a person and
no visible movement are noticed.
a. Winslow test c. Barberio’s test
b. Florence test d. Castle meyer test

25. A muscular change characterized by the softness of the muscles and in which is longer responds to a mechanical or electrical stimulus due to
the dissolution of proteins.
a. Stage of primary flaccidity c. Rigor mortis
b. Stage of secondary flaccidity d. Livor mortis

26. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from a dead body in how many days?
a. 7 c. 21
b. 14 d. 28

27. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within how many days from death?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

28. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the bone, loss of alignment of the affected bones and separation of fragment bones.
a. Simple fracture c. Communicated fracture
b. Compound fracture d. None of these

29. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body.

a. Internal hemorrhage c. Contusion
b. Compound fracture d. Internal wound

30. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object.

a. Imprint abrasion c. Friction abrasion
b. Pressure abrasion d. Graze

31. Reduction of oxygen in the blood.

a. Hypoxia c. Hypercapnea
b. Asphyxia d. None of the foregoing

32. Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and with accompanying movement over the skin.
a. Pressure abrasion c. Impact abrasion
b. Imprint abrasion d. Graze

33. A nervous disease marked by seizures with convulsion and loss of consciousness.
a. Epilepsy c. Catalepsy
b. Apoplexy d. Uremia

34. Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily eliminated in the urine; specifically a toxic condition seen in urinary suppression, marked
by nausea, vertigo, vomiting, coma, and convulsion.
a. Epilepsy c. Catalepsy
b. Apoplexy d. Uremia

35. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is complited in how many hours when the blood has already clotted
Or diffused to different parts of the body wherein discoloration is permanent and darker in color?
a. 12 hours c. 36 hours
b. 24 hours d. 48 hours

36. In blood grouping, should there no agglutination with either group A or B what would be the particular blood group of samples?
a. Group A c. Group AB
b. Group B d. Group O

37. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
a. 10 years c. 30 years
b. 20 years d. 40 years

38. It is a formation of the soft, friable and brownish white greasy substance in the soft fatty tissue after death.
a. Saponification ` c. Mummification
b. Rigor mortis d. Maceration

39. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent portion of the body and start
20 to 30 minutes after death and is completed by 12 hours.
a. Rigor mortis c. Maceration
b. Primary flaccidity d. Livor mortis

40. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents after meals.
a. 2 to 3 hours c. 4 to 5 hours
b. 3 to 4 hours d. 5 to 6 hours

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41. Rate of growth of human hair.
a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm./day c. 0.6 to 0.7 mm./day
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm./day d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm./day

42. aa person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body temperature is about:
a. 10 to 15 F c. 20 to 25 F
b. 15 to 20 F d. 25 to 30 F

43. Sudden inflammation of the pacreas caused by infections carried in the blood stream. It may follow the obstruction of the pancreatic duct
and sudsequent congestion of the gland.
a. Perforated peptic ulcer c. Acute intestinal obstruction
b. Generalized peritonitis d. Acute pancreatitis

44. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.

a. Wound c. Bruise
b. Trauma d. Scratch

45. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that will endanger one’s life.
a. Non- mortal wounds c. Trauma
b. Mortal wounds d. Coup injury

46. A collection of blood underneath the skin.

a. Contusion c. Petechiae
b. Bruise d. Hematoma

47. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and muscles causing skin discoloration and extreme pain.
a. Sprain c. Fracture
b. Contusion d. Dislocation

48. It is a fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is evident.

a. Simple c. Comminuted
b. Compound d. Dislocation

49. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without external wounds.
a. Sprain c. Hematoma
b. Fracture d. Dislocation

50. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained that it is near contact fire
meaning that the distance of the body to the is approximately:
a. 6 inches c. 18 inches
b. 12 inches d. 24 inches

51. A physical injury which is found st the site and also the opposite site of the application of force.
a. Extensive injury c. Contre coup injury
b. Coup injury d. Coup and contre coup injury

52. A physical injury found at the site of the application of force.

a. Extensive injury c. Contre coup injury
b. Coup injury d. Coup and contre coup injury

53. A wound produced by blunt instrument such as log and stone.

a. Punctured wound c. Lacerated wound
b. Hack wound d. Incised wound

54. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what wound would be exhibited?
a. Punctured wound c. Lacerated wound
b. Hack wound d. Incised wound

55. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.

a. Punctured wound c. Lacerated wound
b. Hack wound d. Incised wound

56. The basic building block of DNA are as follow ACGT, A stands for what?
a. Adenine c. Adenum
b. Hair d. Adenoid

57. In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what sample should be obtained for DNA testing?
a. Fingernails c. Skeleton
b. Hair d. Teeth

58. It is inherited from the mother found in the mitochondria which is in the cell body.
a. Nuclear DNA c. Mitochodrial DNA
b. Helix d. DNA nucleus

59. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
a. 10 years c. 30 years
b. 20 years d. 40 years

60. A complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration, circulation and almost all brain function of an organism.
a. Somatic death c. Molecular death
b. Cellular death d. Apparent death

61. Manners of walking a person which may natural or secondary.

a. Mannerism c. Gait
b. Tic d. Body language

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62. This muscular change upon the death last about 20 to 30 minutes and is characterized by the relaxation of the muscles and loss of their
natural tone.
a. Stage primary flaccidity c. Cadaveric
b. Post mortem rigidity d. Secondary flaccidity

63. Approximate time completion of one case for DNA testing.

a. Minimum of 2 weeks c. Minimun of 6 weeks
b. Minimum of 4 weeks d. Minimum of 8 weeks

64. Period of time wherein there body would be completely skeletonized, under normal condition in tropical countries.
a. 1 month c. 6 month
b. 3 month d. 12 month

65. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable muscular change.

a. Cold stiffening c. Instantaneous rigor
b. Heat stiffening d. Putrefaction

66. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body.
a. Diffusion lividity c. Rigor mortis
b. Clotting of the blood d. Hypostatic lividity

67. Approximate average amount of semen per ejaculation under normal conditions.
a. 2 to 2.5 cubic centimeters c. 5 to 10 cubic centimeters
b. 2.5 to 5 cubic centimeters d. 10 to 15 cubic centimeters

68. DNA, is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is regarded as the fingerprint of life. What is that stand for?
a. Deonatural acid c. Deoxyribunucleic acid
b. Dynamic natural anti body d. Deoxyribunucliec acid

69. A powerful tool in identification which points to source of biological evidence by matching it samples from the victims, suspects and their
relatives.
a. DNA profiling c. Instrumentation
b. Serology d. Forensics

70. Body fluids routinely tested because they are good source of cells.
a. Saliva and tears c. Urine and semen
b. Semen and saliva d. Semen and blood

71. Human being’s tissue attached to the body which may undergo DNA testing.
a. Hair c. Skin
b. Bone d. Fingernails

72. It is the dissolution of tissues by the digestive action of its bacteria and enzymes.
a. Primary flaccidity c. Cadaveric spasm
b. Post mortem rigidity d. Putrefaction

73. Conclusive evidence that the subject person is a female.

a. Possession of vagina c. Possession of astrogen
b. Possession of ovaries d. Possession of progesterone

74. A person with big face and prominent cheek bones.

a. Hippocratic facie c. Myxedema facie
b. Mongolian facie d. Facies lionine

75. Conclusive evidence that a person is a male.

a. Presence of testis c. Possession of penis
b. Presence of androsterone d. Possession of testosterone

76. A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to mucous secretion of the respiration track after death.
a. Cutis anserine c. Champignon d’ ocume
b. Washerwoman d. Cadeveric spasm

77. It is a death that occurs due to illness of the body.

a. Natural death c. Somatic death
b. Molecular death d. Apparent death

78. A type burn produced as a result of the body coming into contact with a moving object.
a. Thermal burn c. Radiation burn
b. Friction burn d. Electrical burn

79. A condition of a woman who has one or more sexual experience but not had conceived a child.
a. Moral virginity c. Physical virginity
b. Demi – Virginity d. Virgo – intacts

80. Refers to the action of the bacteria to a dead body.

a. Flaccidity c. Lividity
b. Rigidity d. Putrefaction

81. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of the body which produces mechanical disruption of cell structure
characterized by cold stiffening and diminished body temperature.
a. Gangrene c. trench foot
b. Frostbite d. Immersion foot

82. Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the breakdown of sweating mechanism.

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a. Heat cramp c. Heat stroke
b. Heat exhaustion d. Burning

83. In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton, which part is not used?
a. Skull c. Sternum
b. Pelvis d. Tibia

84. A serious burn involving skin, nerves, muscles and bones, considered as the most severe burn causing death due to loss of fluids and
electrolytes in the body and massive infection.
a. Sunburn c. 2nd degree burn
b. P” degree burn d. 3rd degree burn

85. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5 minutes would die, the cause of death would be:
a. Stupor c. Asphyxia
b. Stroke d. Exhaustion

86. Most effective method in determining sex of an individual.

a. Gonodal test c. Genital test
b. Social test d. Chromosomal test

87. Its medico-legal importance is to approximate the time death.

a. Cadaveric spasm c. Mascular contraction
b. Putrefaction d. Rigor mortis

88. Defloration is the laceration of hymen due to:

a. Masturbation c. Sodomy
b. Fingering d. Sexual intercourse

89. In cellular or molecular death, death of individual cell occurs in:

a. 20 to 30 minutes c. 12 to 24 hours
b. 3 to 6 hours d. 24-36 hours

90. Most noticeable sign of death.

a. Cessation of respiration
b. Progressive fall of body temperature
c. Insensibility of the body and loss of power to move
d. Cessation of heart action and circulation

91. It applies to disease or trauma kills, wherein there is no change for complication or sequelae to develop.
a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death
b. Immediate of primary cause of death
c. Cardio- respiratory arrest
d. Nocturnal death

92. An injury or disease which survived for a prolonged interval which allowed the development of serious sequelae which become the cause of
death. It is usually common to cases involving stab wounds.
a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death
b. Immediate of primary cause of death
c. Cardio- respiratory arrest
d. Nocturnal death

93. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate the death has occurred more than 24 hours hence are useful to proximate the time of death.
a. Flies c. Bees
b. Earthworms d. Butterflies

94. A complete study of dead body, under taken by trained physician.

a. Autopsy c. Medical examination
b. Embalming d. Post- mortem examination

95. Average time of the decomposition for tropical countries such as the Philippines.
a. 12 to 24 hours c. 36 to 48 hours
b. 24 to 48 hours d. 48 to 72 hours

96. After death, the metabolic process inside the body ceases, heat is no longer produced and the body slowly loses its temperature.
a. Algor mortis c. Cadaveric spasm
b. Rigor mortis d. Suspended animation

97. Transient loss of consciousness with temporary cessation of the vital function of the body.
a. Death c. Suspended animation
b. Coma d. Rigor mortis

98. Hair on the body surface usually:

a. Thick c. Fine
b. Tampering d. All of the above

99. Characterized by no breathing and heart action, chill in the body and non- existent reflexes.
a. Death c. Suspended animation
b. Coma d. Rigor mortis

100. The larger area of contact between the forces applied on the body, the lesser is the damage inflicted to the body.
a. Kinetic energy c. Time
b. Vital reaction d. Area of transfer

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V. POLYGRAPHY

1. An examination wherein an informal interview of the subject is undertaken between 20 to30 minutes.
a. Post test interrogation c. Actual interrogation
b. Pre – test interview d. Lie detector test

2. Which among the following is not a required qualification for a polygraph examiner?
a. Criminology Graduate c. Technical know how
b. Honesty d. Integrity and morals

3. Which among the forgoing is part in the conduct of a polygraph examination?

a. Pre- test interview c. Post test interview
b. Instrumental test d. Psychological test

4. Which among the following is not included in recording the psycho- physiological response of the subject.
a. Use of water therapy c. WAT/ World Association test
b. PSE/ Psychological Test Evaluator d. Polygraph machine

5. A person who is capable of detecting deception with the use of instrumentation or mechanical device.
a. Interrogator c. Medico- legal officer
b. Detective d. Polygraph Examiner

6. Which among the following statement is not among the limitations of the polygraph.
a. It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent
b. It is admissible as evidence
c. It is an aid and not a substitute for investigation
d. It is a scientific diagnostic instrument which records responses

7. An invaluable aid in investigation, it refers to the instrumentation in the detection of crime at a scientific police method.
a. Photography c. Lie detection
b. Chemistry d. Medicine

8. Questions inconnection to the matters under investigation.

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a. Relevant c. Control
b. Supplementary d. Irrelevant

9. Refers to the query having no bearing or weight to the case under investigation.
a. Relevant c. Control
b. Supplementary d. Irrelevant

10. A test usually administered as part of the standard test to draw a better conclusion.
a. Relevant c. Control
b. Supplementary d. Irrelevant

11. This measures, detects and graphically display voice modulation.

a. Word association test c. Truth serum
b. Psychological stress evaluator d. Water therapy

12. In this examination stimulus and non- stimulus words are read to the subject who in turn is instructed to answer quickly as possible.
a. Word association test c. Truth serum
b. Psychological stress evaluator d. Water therapy

13. A test conducted wherein the subject is instructed not to produce verbal response.
a. Peak of tension c. Narrative
b. Silent answer d. Guilt complex

14. Using the psychological stress evaluator, a lying subject or when a person is under stress, the frequencies…
a. Tends to disappear c. Increases
b. Rises d. Stop

15. This test is not concerned with the answer whether it is yes or no, what is relevant in the time of response in relation to delay the answer.
a. Word association test c. Truth serum
b. Psychological stress evaluator d. Water therapy

16. A test undertaken when the subject is not aware of the details of the offense for which he is under scrutiny.
a. Guilt complex c. Peak tension
b. Silent answer d. Narrative

17. When response and control questions are consistent similar this is administered.
a. Guilt complex c. Peak tension
b. Silent answer d. Narrative

18. This test uses hyosine hydrobromide drug administered hypedermicallywhich produces a state of delirium.
a. Hypnotism c. Narco- synthesis
b. Narco- analysis d. Administration of truth serum

19. It is base on the maxim “ in vino veritas” meaning in wine there is truth.
a. Hypnotism c. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage
b. Narco- analysis d. Administration of truth serum

20. In this examination, psychiatric sodium penthotal is administered.

a. Hypnotism c. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage
b. Narco- analysis d. Administration of truth serum

21. Most common scientific method of detecting deception.

a. Polygraphy c. Truth serum
b. Polygraph d. Interrogation

22. Devised an instrument capable of continuously recording pulse rate, respiration and blood pressure.
a. William Marston c. John Larson
b. Angelo Mosso d. Sticker

23. Psychological response to any demand.

a. Reaction c Pressure
b. Stress d. All of the above

24. For male subject, what is the amount of air pressure is to utilized in the system on cardio or vent.
a. 30 mm c. 90 mm.
b. 60 mm d.120 mm.

25. A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep considered fit for polygraph examination.
a. 5 c. 7
b. 6 d. 8

26. Type of question related to the fact of the case and is answerable by NO.
a. Relevant Question c. General Question
b. Irrelevant Question d. Immaterial Question

27. A question known to subject and answerable by YES.

a. Relevant Question c. General Question
b. Irrelevant Question d. Immaterial Question

28. An act of discovery, indicative of the fact that something is hidden or obscure.
a. Fear c. Detection
b. Deception d. Reaction

29. An inhibition of the previous activity of an effector organ or organism as a result of stimulation.

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a. Response c. Detection
b. Deception d. Reaction

30. Refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power.
a. Response c. stimuli
b. Reaction d. Fear

31. This component drives the chart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches per minute.
a. Cardiosphymograph c. Galvanograph
b. Keymograph d. Pneumograph

32. Part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of the subject.
a. Finger electrode plate c. Rubber convoluted tube
b. Diacritic d. Keymograph

33. This component record changes of the subject’s blood pressure and pulse rate.
a. Cardiosphymograph c. Galvanograph
b. Sphygmomanometer d. Pneumograph

34. It record the subject’s skin resistance to a small amount of electricity.

a. Cardiosphymograph c. Galvanograph
b. Sphygmomanometer d. Pneumograph

35. This component record the changes in the breathing of the subject.
a. Cardiosphymograph c. Galvanograph
b. Sphygmomanometer d. Pneumograph

36. Kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity to deceive others.
a. Black lie c. Red lie
b. White lie d. Yellow lie

37. Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question.
a. Reaction c. Specific response
b. Normal response d. Positive response

38. Chart tracing of the subject when irrelevant questions were answered.
a. Cardiosphymograph c. Galvanograph
b. Sphygmomanometer d. Pneumograph

39. Normal time interval for pre test interview.

a. 20 to 30 minutes c. 60 to 90 minutes
b. 30 to 60 minutes d. 90 to 120 minutes

40. The primary objective of post test interview.

a. To thank the subject c. To make the subject calm
b. To obtained confession d. To explain polygraph test procedures

41. The purpose of pre test interview.

a. To prepare subject for polygraph test c. To make the subject calm
b. To obtained confession d. To explain polygraph test procedures

42. Test undertaken when both relevant and control questions are similar in degree and consistency.
a. Guilt complex test c. Peak tension test
b. Silent answer d. None of the above

43. Refers to the questions to ascertain the subject’s normal pattern of response.
a. Relevant questions c. Supplementary questions
b. Irrelevant question d. Control question.

44. The number of basic tracings in a modern polygraph.

a. 3 c. 5
b. 4 d. 6

45. Did you hide Senator Lacson in your beach resort? Is an example of interrogation in lie detection which is :
a. Control question c. Relevant question
b. Irrelevant question d. Leading question

46. Developed the systolic blood pressure method for detecting deception.
a. William Marston c. John Larson
b. Harold burtt d. Leonard Keeler

47. He noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure changes were signs of deception.
a. William Marston c. Leonard Keeler
b. Harold Burtt d. Jonh Larson

48. Italian scientist who used hydrosphygmograph procedure for persons charged with the commission of the crime.
a. Angelo Mosso c. Lombroso
b. Veraguth d. Vittorio Benussi

49. Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin reflex.
a. Angelo Mosso c. Lombroso
b. Veraguth d. Vittorio Benussi

50. Who first incorporated the galvanograph with measurement, respiration component and blood pressure.

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a. Harold Burtt c. Leonarde Keeler
b. Hans Gross d. John Larson

51. A primitive practice of detecting deception whereby controversies are settled by means of duel, the victor will be spared from the
consequences
And the loser pronounce guilty.
a. Ordeal c. Combat
b. Trial by combat d. None of these

52. Practiced even by the Roman Catholic Church in 1150 AD this Indian practice of ordeal based on the premise that a person conscious of
their crime and fearful of punishment from God would feel a suffocating sensation on their throat thus preventing them from swallowing the
object of the ordeal.
a. Bread chewing ordeal c. Rice chewing ordeal
b. Cheese chewing ordeal d. All of these

53. A form of trial undertaken when the accused is asked to fast for twelve hours and asked to swallow a small amount of rice and drink a dark
colored water, if this acts as an emetics the accused reject all the rice, he is then pronounced innocent.
a. Red hot iron ordeal c. Red water ordeal
b. Rice chewing ordeal d. Balance ordeal

54. Practiced in the early 600 B.C this is undertaken by determining the veracity of the statement of the accused by placing him on the scale of
balance and in the other scale is given. He is then asked to go down while the exhortation on the scale is given, when the accused is placed on
the scale and found to be lighter than before he is acquitted.
a. Boiling water ordeal c. Donkey’s tail ordeal
b. Balance ordeal d. Red hot iron ordeal

55. Prevalently practiced in Africa, this test of deception is undertaken by asking those persons suspected of committing a crime to place their
right arm into a boiling pot of water, the person who lost some of skin or showed blisters would be determined as the one guilty of the crime.
a. Boiling water ordeal c. Donkey’s tail ordeal
b. Balance ordeal d. Red hot iron ordeal

56. The polygraph examination enjoys general acceptance among varied authorities, except the court because it possess a high degree of
reliability. The result are estimated to be more than ___% accurate.
a. 70 c. 80
b. 75 d. 90

57. The best indication of deception in polygraph examinations is the simultaneous specific responses in _________ tracings.
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. None of these

58. If a YES answer is given by the subject, the examiner marks this on the chart.
a. X c. +
b. XX d. –

59. Conducted immediately after the completion of the first test while blood pressure cuff is still deflated. This is used to stimulate lying
subjects into specific responses to the subsequent relevant questions and to afford the lying subject an opportunity to try to distort the polygraph
examination tracings which woul eventually result in exposing his deception.
a. Silent Answer test c. Mixed Question Test
b. Card test d. Guilt complex test

60. As part of the customary test procedures, the polygraph examiner should prepare a list of not more than questions to be asked in a planned
sequence.
a. 10 c. 15
b. 12 d. 20

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VI. FORENSIC BALLISTICS

1. Rifling in the bore of small arms is primarily designed for:

a. Increase the speed of the bullet c. Increase the impact damage
b. Decrease the amount of recoil d. Prevent the bullet from turning end over in the air.

2. Scientific examination of the bullets and firearms presumably used in the commission of a crime.
a. Interior ballistics c. Terminal ballistics
b. Exterior ballistics d. Forensic ballistics

3. A result of a wear and tear, corrosion which affect the normal operation of the firearm.
a. Factory defect c. Individual Intentional Characteristics
b. Precipitate d. Individual Accidental Characteristics

4. Cannelure is used in firearms identification to determine?

a. Manufacturer of the firearm c. Type of the gun
b. Manufacturer of the bullet d. Weapon that fired the shot

5. A barrel of the firearm is legally classified as :

a. Part of the firearm c. Accessory
b. Nomenclature d. Complete firearm

6. Rate of twist in the rifling of a rifle or pistol barrel.

a. Land c. Leed
b. Grooves d. Ogive

7. A test used to determine the distance from the bullet hole at which the gun was fired.
a. Triangulation c. Alphanothylamine
b. Photo- micrographic test d. Diphenylamine

8. After repeated firing of a revolver, this is deposited frequently on the index finger of the hand which the shooter used to fire a gun.
a. Powder burn c. Precipitin
b. Residue d. Dirt

9. To link a shell with a shotgun that fired it, in the laboratory examination it should be given:
a. Wadding c. Pellets
b. Cap d. Wads

10. In firearms identification, it is essential to supplement the serial number with…

a. Caliber c. Make and model number
b. Frame number d. All of these

11. It is a result when the firearm is shot at around 2 to 8 inches to the target.
a. Smudging c. Contact burn
b. Tattooing d. Contact wound

12. It is produced when the muzzle is held against the target or body when fired.
a. Smudging c. Contact burn
b. Tattooing d. Contact wound

13. In the effort to identify the shell with the revolver which fired it, which among the following is essential?
a. Marks of the breechblock c. None of these
b. Marks of the firing pin hole d. Both A and B

14. In shots fired from automatic pistol, the shell in most cases…
a. Will be found on the scene of the crime
b. Will remain in the chamber
c. Will be rarely found in the scene of the crime
d. Will be usually disposed by the perpetrator

15. When booking a fired bullet, the mark used to identify it is placed on.
a. Its base c. Its side and base
b. Its side d. Its nose

16. Danao made firearms or homemade weapon are usually classified as:
a. Flare guns c. Matchlock
b. Zip guns d. Freakish device

17. The reliable in all individual characteristics, when fired cartridges are concerned.
a. Extractor mark c. Chamber marks
b. Ejector marks d. Breechface mark

18. It literally means delay is discharge or the cartridges failure to explode on time.
a. Misfire c. Ricochet
b. Hang fire d. Key hole shot

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19. A bullet fired from the firearm with an oversized or oily barrel or its lands have been worn down would produce what kind of markings?
a. Slippage marks c. Rifling marks
b. Skid marks d. Shearing marks

20. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of projectiles.

a. Caliper c. Test bullet
b. Chronograph d. Bullet recovery box

21. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet.

a. Projectile c. Shell
b. Ball d. Missile

22. The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles at the same time it leaves the muzzle of the firearm to the it hits the target.
a. Interior ballistics c. Terminal ballistics
b. Exterior ballistics d. Posterior ballistics

23. The science which deals with the effect of the impact of the projectile on the target.
a. Interior Ballistics c. Terminal Ballistics
b. Exterior Ballistics d. Posterior Ballistics

24. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin.

a. Trigger c. Sear
b. Hammer d. Main spring

25. Applied to a shot gun which indicates bore diameter is equal to the diameter of the lead ball whose weight in pound is equal to reciprocal
gauge index.
a. Caliber c. Shot
b. Gauge d. Pistol

26. Ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a single round lead ball.
a. Shotgun c. Musket
b. Rifle d. Pistol

27. A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number of leas pellets in one charge.
a. Shotgun c. Musket
b. Rifle d. Pistol

28. Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the bore against the force of the charge.
a. Breechblock c. Ejector
b. Breechface d. Extractor

29. Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to be withdraw from the chamber.
a. Breechblock c. Ejector
b. Breechface d. Extractor

30. Refers to channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel.

a. Rifling c. Groove
b. Land d. Cannelure

31. Rearward movement of a firearm from firing.

a. Recoil c.Back fire
b. Force d. Shot force

32. Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of the bore due to sliding friction when the bullet passes through it.
a. Erosion c. Corrosion
b. Rusting d. Decomposition

33. Distance that the rifling advances to make one complete turn.
a. Pitch of rifling c. Trajectory
b. Choke d. Recoil

34. Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a complete unfired unit.

a. Bullet c. Gunpowder
b. Primer d. All of these

35. Most common individual characteristic that are visible on the base portion of then fired cartridge.
a. Firing pin impression c. Extractor marks
b. Ejector Marks d. Chamber marks

36. Failure of a cartridge to discharge.

a. Misfire c. Ricochet
b. Hang fire d. Key hole shot

37. Invented the gunpowder.

a. Chinese c. Van Amberg
b. James Forsyth d. Berthold Schwartz

38. Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition placed into gun chamber.
a. Cartridge c. Bullet
b. Primer d. Shell

39. The measurement of the bore diameter from the land to land.
a. Gauge c. Caliber
b. Mean diameter d. Rifling

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40. This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing the firing of the cartridge.
a. Hammer c. Trigger
b. Ejector d. Firing pin

41. Term used in referring to the tip of the bullet.

a. Breech c. Rim
b. O’give d. Pitch

42. A smooth bore military firearm which has no rifling:

a. Shotgun c. Pistol
b. Rifle d. Revolver

43. A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy to prevent leading.
a. Jacketed bullet c. Metal point bullet
b. Metal case bullet d. Planted bullet

44. The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and hitting the target sideway.
a. Key hole shot c. Hang fire
b. Ricochet d. Misfire

45. A part of ballistics dealing with firearm identification.

a. Interior c. Terminal
b. Exterior d. Forensic

46. Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusion in forensic ballistics.

a. 3 test bullets/shells c. 5 test bullets/shells
b. 4 test bullets/shells d. 6 test bullets/shells

47. It refers to the placement of the right and left specimen in side by the side position.
a. Drag marks c. Juxtaposition
b. Positively matched d. Psuedomatch

48. Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.

a. Range c. Velocity
b. Trajectory d. Yaw

49. Bullet containing nitrate compounds which is set on fire when it is projected.
a. Incendiary bullet c. Tracer bullet
b. Ball bullet d. Explosive bullet

50. Refers to the defection of the bullet from its normal path after striking a resistant surface.
a. Mushroom c. Ricochet
b. Key hole shot d. Misfire

51. Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel from what particular part?
a. From land to land c. From groove to groove
b. From land to groove d. From groove to land

52. Revolver is distinguished from pistol by:

a. Frame c. Slide assembly
b. Barrel d. Rotating cylinder

53. The term double action in the firearm means.

a. Cocks and releases the hammer simultaneously
b. Manually cocks the hammer
c. Auto- loads before firing
d. Double pressing the trigger

54. The capacity of the bullet to expand on or after impact.

a. Mushroom c. Ricochet
b. Keyhole shot d. Schorching

55. Regarded as the father of ballistics.

a. Albert Osborn c. Hans Gross
b. Col. Calvin H. Goddard d. Charles Waite

56. Raised portion between the grooves found inside of the barrel.
a. Land c. Gauge
b. Caliber d. Rifling

57. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet.

a. Yaw c. Velocity
b. Trajectory d. Gyroscopic action

58. A lead type bullet is usually fired from what particular firearm?
a. Rifle c. Pistol
b. Revolver d. Sub- machine gun

59. It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore.
a. Rifling c. Ogive
b. Breaching d. Swaging

60. A primer with two vent or flash holes.

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a. Bordan primer c. Boxer primer
b. Berdan primer d. Battery primer

61. Ballistics was derived from the Greek word __________ which means to throw.
a. Ballo c. Ballien
b. Ballista d. Any of these

62. This event was instrumental in the acceptance of ballistics in court proceeding in the United States.
a. St. Valentine’s day massacre c. Gunfight at the OK coral
b. Chicago shootout in 1929 d. 9/11

63. Placed in the barrels of the firearm to impart a spin on the bullet that pass through it.
a. Lands c. Rifling
b. Grooves d. All of these

64. The modern method of rifling which uses a hardened steel rod with the several cutting rings spaced down the rod.
a. Button rifling c. Polygonal rifling
b. Broach rifling d. Electrochemical rifling

65. The most common method of rifling used today, wherein the grooves are formed in the barrel under very high pressure forming the rifling in
the barrel which hardens and polishes the inside of the barrel.
a. Button rifling c. Polygonal rifling
b. Broach rifling d. Electrochemical rifling

66. This produces a type of rifling called polygonal rifling, common in Glock, Steyr, IMI and a few other manufacturers.
a. Button rifling c. Polygonal rifling
b. Broach rifling d. Hammer forged rifling

67. Part of exterior ballistics which refers to the sound created at the muzzle end of the barrel.
a. Muzzle energy c. Muzzle noise
b. Muzzle blast d. Range

68. A type of the rimmed cartridge wherein the diameter of the rim is greater than the diameter of the body of the body of the cartridge case.
a. Rimmed type c. Belted type
b. Semi- rimmed type d. Rebated type

69. A type of firearm which the pressure upon the trigger both cocks and release the hammer.
a. Automatic c. Double action
b. Single Action d. Slade action type

70. A metallic cup charged with a priming composition, usually made up of potassium chlorate, antimony sulfide and fulminate of mercury.
a. Primer c. Cartridge
b. Gunpowder d. Primer cup

VII. QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS

1. It is committed by giving any payable instrument to bearer such as treasury or bank notes the appearance of a genuine document.
a.Estafa c. Forgery
b. Falsification of document d. All of these

2. It applies to documents whether public, official or commercial wherein handwriting or signature contained therein is imitated.
a.Estafa c. Forgery
b. Falsification of document d. All of these

3. The act of making it appears that persons have participated in any proceeding or act when in fact they have not participated in any document.
a.Estafa c. Forgery
b. Falsification of document d. All of these

4. A persons who alters by means, the letters, figures, words or signs contained in any bank or treasury note is liable for:
a.Estafa c. Forgery
b. Falsification of document d. All of these

5. It refers to the assessment or altered, forged or suspected papers to determine if they are genuine or otherwise.
a.Estafa c. Forgery
b. Falsification of document d. Questioned Document Examination

6. Iodine fumes is useful in questioned document examination because:

a. It can be used to develop secret writing
b. It can be used to determine whether erasures have been made
c. It can be determine the kind of ink used in writing
d. both A and B

7. Which among the foregoing may be utilized as a means to carry out mechanical erasures?
a. Rubber eraser c. Blade
b. Sharp knife d. All of these

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8. An erasure with the use of ink eradicators.
a. Mechanical c. Electronic erasure
b. Chemical erasure d. All of the foregoing

9. Instruments whose origin are known and proven; which are used in comparison with a questioned document.
a. Simulated documents c. Standard documents
b. Falsified document d. Forged document

10. A document executed without the intervention of a notary public or any competent public official by which some agreement or disposition
is proved.
a. Public document c. Private document
b. Official document d. Commercial document

11. To obtained conviction for the charge of possession of false bank or treasury notes this is an essential requisite:
a. Intention to use it c. Intention to surrender it to authorities
b. Intention to keep it d. Intention to display it

12. A city Mayor executed a document under his legal capacity as local executive, that document is classified as:
a. Public document c. Private document
b. Official document d. Commercial document

13. A document notarized by a notary public or any competent authority is legally classified as:
a. Public document c. Private document
b. Official document d. Commercial document

14. A man who is unable to write may use this to legally signify a signature.
a. Crude X c. Thumb mark
b. Cross mark d. A and B

15. Refers to the designed of letters which are fundamental to a writing system.
a. Copy book form c. Line quality
b. System of writing d. Writing movement

16. It refers to any abnormality or maladjustment in the type writer which is reflected in its product.
a. Defect c. Misalignment
b. Mal alignment d. Alteration

17. Enlarged photographic court exhibit usually referred as bromide enlargements of a document.
a. Standard Document c. Collected Document
b. Questioned Document d. Display Exhibit

18. The appearance of paper when viewed by transmitted light, which discloses the formation and texture of the sheet.
a. Lock – through of paper c. Cross marks
b. Watermark d. Sidelight marks

19. It consist of the chemical solutions.

a. Non aqueous ink c. Ink eradicators
b. Aqueous ink d. All of these

20. Any characteristics of hand writing which is sufficiently well fixed and unique to serve as a fundamental point in the identification of the
writer.
a. Copy book form c. System of writing
b. Line quality d. Significant writing habits

21. Refers to any specimen of writing executed normally without any attempt to change or control its identifying habits and its usual quality of
execution.
a. Natural writing c. Cursive writing
b. Disguised writing d. System of writing

22. Jose Pidal in trying to alter his own signature to hide his identity is using:
a. Natural writing c. Cursive writing
b. Disguised writing d. System of writing

23. Writing in which are for most part joint together.

a. Natural writing c. Cursive writing
b. Disguised writing d. System of writing

24. Usual deviations found between repeated specimen of any individual handwriting or in the product of any typewriter.
a. Normal variation c. Tremor
b. Natural variation d. Wrong hand writing

25. A person executing a signature while his arm is steadied and assisted produces a:
a. Guided signature c. Scribble
b. Normal signature d. Handwriting signature

26. A preliminary embellished initial common to capital letters.

a. Embellishment c. Buckle knot
b. Beard d. Diacritic

27.A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal strokes.

a. Hook c. Loop
b. Spur d. Staff

28. An oblong curve found in small letter f, g, h and l.

26
a. Hook c. Loop
b. Spur d. Staff

29. The introductory backward stroke added to the start of many capital letters and which can also be seen occasionally in introductory strokes
of small letters.
a. Embellishment c. Buckle knot
b. Beard d. Hitch

30. A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter.

a. Embellishment c. Buckle knot
b. Beard d. Diacritic

31. Visible record in the writing stroke of the basis movement and manner of holding the writing instrument.
a. Line quality c. Baseline
b. Rhythm d. Writing pressure

32. Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes.

a. Embellishment c. Diacritic
b. Hump d. Knot

33. Balance quality of movement of the harmonious recurrence of stress of impulse.

a. Line quality c. Baseline
b. Rhythm d. Writing pressure

34. Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or intermittent forcing the pen against the paper surface with increase pressure.
a. Writing pressure c. Pen emphasis
b. Shading d. Natural variation

35. An imaginary line upon which the writing rests.

a. Line quality c. Foot
b. Baseline d. Hitch

36. A signature written by the forger in his own style of handwriting without attempting to copy to form of the genuine signature.
a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery
b. Disguised forgery d. Simple forgery

37. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skillful type of forgery.
a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery
b. Disguised forgery d. Simple forgery

38. Which among the following is an indication of genuineness of handwriting?

a. Continuity c. Skillful writing
b. Smoothness d. Tremor

39. Combination of the basic design of letters and writing movement as taught in school.
a. Letter form c. Copy book form
b. Line quality d. System of writing

40. Document which is completely written and signed by one person.

a. Genuine document c. Holographic document
b. Disputed document d. Authenticate document

41. A document which contains some changes either as an addition or deletion.

a. Altered document c. Obliterated document
b. Disputed document d. Inserted document

42. Signature use to acknowledge delivery, purchase of goods and mail.

a. Complete c. Cursory
b. Formal d. Careless Scribble

43. It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the original undecipherable.
a. Decipherment c. Obliteration
b. Restoration d. Interlineation

44. A class of signature for routine document or day today correspondence.

a. Formal c. Cursory
b. Complete d. Careless Scribble

45. Refers to class of signature to acknowledge important documents.

a. Complete c. Informal
b. Cursory d. Careless scribble

46. A process by which a canal like outline is produced on a fraudulent document underneath the genuine and tracing it with the use of a pointed
instrument.
a. Carbon process c. Projection process
b. Indention process d. Transmitted light process

47. A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier than the rest of its outline.
a. Off its feet c. Clogged type face
b. Twisted letter d. Rebound

48. It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is almost unconscious expression of fixed muscular habits reacting from fixed mental
impressions.
a. Handwriting c. Typewriting
b. Writing d. Writing movement

27
49. A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation and pen lift difficult.
a. Ballpoint pen c. Iron nutgall ink
b. Fountain pen d. Markers

50. Disconnection between letters or letter combination due to the lack of movement control.
a.Pen lift c. Patching
b. Retouching d. Retracing

51. A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on the paper during manufacture.
a. Water marks c. Paper marks
b. Fiber marks d. Wire marks

52. In utilizing a stereo- graphic photomicrograph, what particular condition is manifested?

a. Grainy image c. Overlapping image
b. Two image d. Three dimensional image

53. An element which is added to complete another letter.

a. Spur c. Diacritic
b. Beard d. None of the above

54. It is a signature signed at a particular time and place, purpose and normal writing conditions.
a. Complete signature c. Evidential signature
b. Standard signature d. Model signature

55. Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening of the ink stroke.

a. Shading c. Pen lift
b. Pen Emphasis d. pen pressure

56. The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity of paper money.
a. Quality or sharpness of the engraving c. Wet strength of the paper
b. Color of the seal d. Watermark

57. A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but made inferior or superior intrinsic value to that of the genuine coin.
a. Priceless coin c. False coin
b. Mutilated coin d. All of these

58. It is a deviation showing free connecting and terminal strokes made by the momentum of the hand.
a. Tremor c. Genuine tremor
b. Tremor of fraud d. Deterioration

59. Any arcade form in the body of the letter.

a. Staff c. Diacritic
b. Slant d. Humps

60. A type face ordinarily space 10 characters to the horizontal inch.

a. Pica c. Proportional Spacing Machine
b. Elite d. Adding machine

61. Develop the system of handwriting classification utilized by most police department.
a. Lee and Abbey c. Levine
b. Rolando Wilson d. Land Steiner

62. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private parties but notarized by competent officials.
a. Official document c. Commercial Document
b. Public Document d. Private Document

63. An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine coin.

a. False coin c. Priceless coin
b. Counterfiet coin d. Mutilated coin

64. It refers to the printing surface of the type block.

a. Character c. Pitch
b. Design d. Type face

65. Widening of the ink stroke due to added pressure on a flexible pen point.
a. Shading c. Patching
b. Pen pressure d. All of these

66. It represent the backbone or main stroke of letters.

a. Slant c. Staff
b. Pen pressure d. All of these

67. It is the process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced.
a. Decipherment c. Obliteration
b. Collation d. Comparison

68. An act of setting two or more items to weigh their identifying characteristics.
a. Comparison c. Conclusion
b. Collation d. Examination

69. An examination of documents wherein it is viewed with the source of illumination behind it and the light passing through the paper.
a. Transmitted light examination c. Infrared examination
b. Oblique photography examination d. Ultraviolet examination

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70. The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a person from his handwriting.
a. Questioned Document Examination c. Graphology
b. Polygraphy d. Psychology

71. An identifying typewriter characteristic which can be eliminated by cleaning the machine or replacing the ribbon.
a. Transitory defect c. Permanent defect
b. Alignment d. Defect

72. Defect in typewriter’s due to the wear and tear of the type block in which some letters lean to the left or right of their correct slant.
a. Off its feet c. Twisted letter
b. Clogged type d. Rebound

73. And angle or inclination of the axis of the letter relative to the baseline.
a. Foot c. Staff
b. Slant d. Hitch

74. A distinct and peculiar character used to identify handwriting to any identifying factor related to the writing movement itself.
a. Quality c. Skill
b. Line quality d. System of writing

75. Going back over a defective portion of a writing stroke,it is a common defect in forgeries and is also known as retouching.
a. Patching c. Erasure
b. Smeared over writing d. Interlineations

76. Refers to the written documents in the ordinary course of business or in the regular course of man’s activity. Also known as procured
standard.
a. Requested standard c. Standard document
b. Collected standard d. Holographic documents

77. Also known as “ post litel motam” or dictated standards is a document which are executed and prepared at one time upon request.
a. Requested standard c. Standard document
b. Collected standard d. Holographic documents

78.Also known as formal signature it is executed in signing contracts, certifications, checks, and other important documents.
a. Complete c. Careless scribble
b. Cursory d. None of these

79. A signature usually executed in the contract of person’s daily affairs.

a. Formal c. Informal
b. Cursory d. Both B and C

80. For signing mail, receipts and other insignificant documents such as signatures executed by celebrities to their fans.
a. Complete c. Careless scribble
b. Cursory d. Informal

**NOTHING FOLLOWS**

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