Q1 – When someone exercises the qualitative aspects of a skill such as

Ans – Effectiveness or appropriateness, we judge that person as competent

Q2 – The LPC scale requires a leader to describe the one person with whom he or she

Ans – Worked the least well with

Q3 – Innovativeness as one dimension of the Organizational Culture indicates whether high or low value attached to

Ans – Being innovative, open to new opportunities, risk taking

Q4 – Decision making by groups in the high uncertainty work environments enables

Ans – Faster or more effective decision

Q5 – A company organizes a family annual day for the employees, it can be considered as

Ans – A rite of integration

Q6 – Team orientation as one dimension of the Organizational Culture comprises

Ans – The values of being people orientation, collaborative and team oriented

Q7 – An employee oriented supervisor’s behaviour conveys his belief that

Ans – The ‘human relations’ are important aspect of the job

Q8 – Socialized power orientation is found to result into accumulative of power into the hands of one person for

Ans – Larger group benefit

Q9 – Power comes to individual from two major bases

Ans – Position power & Personal power

Q10 – Cohesiveness refers to the forces that bind members to each other and to their group, giving them a feeling of

Ans – Groupness

Q11 – When the powerful people reinforce it by preferring personal status and adoption of personalized leadership
style, job involvement and organizational commitment weaken, leading to poor.

Ans – Work Motivation

Q12 – Power is known as a

Ans – Capacity to influence another person or a group to accept one’s ideas or plans

Q13 – Hersey & Blanchard define employee readiness / maturity is defined as the extent to which a follower has

Ans – The ability and willingness to accomplish a given function

Q14 – Several Theorists present motivation, perception, and learning as interacting forces shaping

Ans – Personality

Q15 – Leaders who have socialized power orientation

Ans - Empower their subordinates, share information and delegate authority

Q16 – The trait theories highlight that

Ans – The leader brings personal skills and traits to everything he does

Q17 – The early studies at Ohio State & Michigan Universities brought in a shift in focus from skills and traits to
leader’s behaviour classified as

Ans – Consideration and Initiating Structure

Q18 – One possible group process loss is attenuation blocking – members who are prevented from contributing
comments as they occur, forget or suppress them later in the meeting because they seem

Ans – Less original, relevant or important

Q19 – Employees and groups can achieve higher levels of productivity, quality & team member satisfaction through

Ans – Delegation of more task related decisions to the team

Q20 – Management literature generally the term “Interpersonal” refers to relationships and interactions with

Ans – bosses, leaders, subordinates, peers, suppliers and customers

Q35 – A Clan-type culture is characterized by

Ans – The relationships structured by the hierarchy, mutual interests and a shared fate

Q36 – Norm stage is when eventually dialogue emerges amid disagreement about roles and activities leading to

Ans – Conflict and confrontation

Q37 – Presenting to share information can be crucial for

Ans – Problem assessment and collaboration

Q38 – Opportunism refers to self-interested between behavior understood as ‘taking advantage’ of others or using
other ‘weakness for one’s own benefit, especially in an

Ans – ambiguous, non-routine context

Q39 – According to Maslow, the higher needs are different because they do not arise out of

Ans – Deficiency, and they are (cyclical or not cyclical) – <doubt>

Q40 – Individualism and Low Power distance promote perception of

Ans – Internal Locus of control and causality

Q41 – Planned organizational change is aimed at

Ans – Involving everyone in the organization

Q42 – When power is so legitimated, it denotes

Ans – Authority

Q48 – The first double-bind causing

Ans – Weak work motivation and performance

Q49 – The factors such as the salary, good work conditions, etc. which Herzberg called

Ans – Context or Hygiene or maintenance factors

Q50 – Self-awareness involves

Ans – Knowing one’s strengths, weakness, drives, values and impact on others

Q54 – The term “Skill’ in the behavioral science is defined as

Ans – intentionally repeatable, goal directed behaviors and behavior sequences

Q55 – Reward power includes

Ans – Allocation of resources, selection performance evaluation, approvals, giving of higher salary, incentives, bonus or
even better work

Q56 – The word ‘trait’ and ‘predisposition’ indicates unique

Ans – Individual attributes

Q57 – The transactional focus on leadership suggested that

Ans – Leaders manage resources (guess)

Q58 – Position power is obtained by a combination of one’s

Ans – Job title or designation, job description and prescribed responsibilities

Q59 – Assertive skills refer to acting or communicating in ways that are polite, aimed at maintaining respect for self as
well as others and not being either

Ans – Aggressive or Submissive

Q60 – The three levels of organizational culture as

Ans – Artifacts, values and basic assumptions

Q61 – Familial collectiveness, high power distance and deep rooted traditionalism promote perception of

Ans – External locus of control and causality

Q62 – Threat reducing behavior implies actions on our part that intend to minimize or eliminate others perception
that we might negatively impact their

Ans – Goals, concerns or well-being

Q63 – Fielder’s situational leadership model suggests that when the situation is highly favorable or unfavorable, a
leader should use

Ans – A low task oriented style

Q64 – Territory is often demarcated by the

Ans – Hierarchy, structure and formal authority

Q65 – Team leadership marks

Ans – All of the above (a – a break from a command and control perspective of management, b –movement towards
facilitative, collaborative leadership, c – ensuring empowerment and continuous improvement, d – all of the above)

Q68 – Culture helps:

Ans – All of the above

Q69 – Task structure as a situational variable could be measured as high if

Ans – The task entrusted to the subordinate was definite, routine and specific, and could be predicted
Q70 – The first meaning of personality refers to the way an individual is perceived by others – personality from the
observer’s perspective

Ans – Public and verifiable (guess)

Q4 – Experience & satisfaction of secondary needs requires

Ans – Presence of & interaction with others

Q6 – The Path Goal theory suggested that

Ans – Management styles can be placed on the grid coordinates along two axes of leader’s concern for task & people

Q11 – To be effective culture tools, stories must be

Ans – All the above (motivational, credible & real)

Q12 – Greater cohesion in a group can also

Ans – Encourage internal contact and influence vital to the low-performing teams

Q19 – Power can be seen as a function of structure, as one gains due to one’s position in the organization, which gives
access to

Ans – people, information and functional resources

Q20 - How people address each in an organization refers to a practice of

Ans – Culture

Q23 – Three basic needs are important for internalization

Ans - The need for competence, the need for autonomy and the need for relatedness

Q24 – The social context of work plays an important role

Ans – Not only in satisfying the need for connectedness and social effectiveness but also in managing the thresholds for
social needs

Q26 – P-I motive relates with the need for

Ans – Pioneering – Innovating

Q31 – The situational focus by Hersey & Blanchard highlighted that

Ans – In order to be effective, a leader should adopt leadership style depending upon subordinate maturity

Q32 – Individuals join group because through the group membership, they can satisfy their needs for

Ans – Safety, belongingness and esteem needs

Q33 – Power culture draws from

Ans – Defined jobs, rules and procedures (guess)

Q37 – Elements of Institution building are

Ans – Organizations should be tailored to its purpose

Q38 – Dominant culture represents

Ans – The core values of the organization that are valid and essential to the organization
Q40 – The second meaning of personality refers to the

Ans – Structures, dynamics, processes & propensities

Q41 – Cohesion increases member tendency to confirm to the group norms, which can be harmful for

Ans – Creativity & Innovation

Q43 – It is believed that the levels of our emotional psychological & physical wellbeing go as high as allowed by the
levels of our

Ans – Interpersonal Skills

Q44 – Level-2 leader contributes individual capabilities

Ans – to the achievement of group objectives

Q46 – The individual is then central point in

Ans – Person Culture

Q47 – The basic skills practiced by interpersonally competent people include

Ans – Listening, questioning & Presenting, Facilitating others, asserting self, Negotiating & Group working

Q52 – The belief behind coercive power similar to the life position

Ans – I am OK, you are not OK

Q59 – Leader member relationship is favourable to the extent to which

Ans – the employees get along with the leader (guess)

Q60 – Strong cultures tend to

Ans – All the above (be homogeneous or uniform across the org, stable across time & situations, create congruent
expectations among members from one another)

Q61 – Intrinsic motivation is considered superior, more enduring source of motivation that has positive association
with important outcomes such as

Ans – Creativity, risk taking and work quality

Q63 - Sometimes the norm for the group consensus overrides motivation to realistically appraise alternative courses
of action, this is called

Ans – Groupthink

Q3 –___________ is deeply connected to organizational culture

Ans – Social Psychology

Q70 – A culture with a consensus on the values that drive the company and with an intensity is

Ans – A strong culture

Q65 – Group working also involves difficulties or limitations including

Ans – slowed decision making, conflicts, less than full participation and so on

Q66 – Needs are important for optimal human development and integrity because prolonged deprivation of important
needs may lead to
Ans – Negative results & serious problems

Q52 – Richer perspective, diverse cognitive resources and general problem solving capacity can be gained out of
members

Ans – Diversity in the group

Q53 – The acronym ERG stands for

Ans – Existence, Relatedness & Growth

Q51 – A high LPC score suggests that the leader has a

Ans - human relations orientation

Q47 – Role modeling is done by

Ans – Anyone

Q35 – The culture can influence some of the important performance variables like

Ans – Job commitment & turnover

Q39 – Personality refers to a wide range of

Ans – Individual attributes

Q26/25 – The enduring nature and consistency of personality characteristics lead to

Ans – predictable patterns of behaviour in similar ways across situations and settings

Q30 – The Storm stage is characterized by interaction amid

Ans – the lack of clarity, confrontation & conflict

Q27 – Informal groups are spontaneously created when the group members are

Ans – located within close distance with each other and interact more

Q29 – Use of coercive power might create

Ans – Anger, resentment & even retaliation

Q15 – The major contentions against the drive theory are that its assumptions take

Ans – Mechanistic view of humans

Q16 – Organizations with strong cultures have

Ans –

Q5 - Threat regulations requires

Ans – Perspective taking, threat reducing behaviour and reflection

Q7 – Non contingent rewards induce employees to develop

A:

Q: Experience and satisfaction of secondary need requires

A: The presence of and interaction with others

OB(H11) Answer
Perception is a ---- Psychological
one must follow--- Collaborating
BATNA stands for Best alternative to a negotiated agreement
for a non supervisory Legitimate
Herzberg's two factor Recognition
Which one of the following is not the result
of Participative Increased power
when a person makes up Compensation
Emotional intelligence, as an Understand emotional outburst
Competencies developed by an
Leader behaviour aimed at defining Initiating Structure
An interdisciplinary field, dedicated to the Organizational behavior
Espoused values as against Are expected to uphold
Sometimes the norm for group Groupthink
the critical tradition to studying multi-purpose
In the USA, employees may view Decision making
What links the three parts of circle LSC
The westeren persective of
Leadership style that enhances
Personality refers to a unique Behavior and Goals
OCTAPACE is a UDAI PAREEK
including culture, gender, age, ability, religion, personality, social status
Diversity encompasses all and sexual orientation.
When a company changes its That a new culture is taking shape in org
Use of power requires minimum An actor or agent and An influence
Personality refers to a wide range individual attributes
When people are motivated to work Charismatic
As per Maslow's Correct
If an employee is hostile Emotional / All of the above
Socialized power orientation is Larger group benefit
Several theorists present motivation Personalities
the second meaning of personality structures, dynamics, processes and propensities
John Kotter and Strong culture
The survey instument Job diagnostic survey
Which of the three levels of analysis all of the above
the fact is that about do no planning…. Detrenchment
Organisations are a continuing differentiated
A--- is an everyday orga Culture
The reason why people resist change is :1. 1,2 &3
Self-awareness Knowking ones
the process of becoming self actualization
Job enlargment is an aproach all of the above
which of the following interventions would
be most the training the leader
Needs are important for optimal human negative results and serious problems
Power culture draws from the power and
The chinese way of doing business is called Guanxi
Influence tactics are used for perception management
People and environmental factors complexity and uncertainty
which of the following are NOT part of 1&3
While the modern, fast
As per ---, the group Tuckman
two computer operators have an perception management
Who amongst the following have not
commented Friedman
The leader need to adopt a coaching Forming
Threats regulation requires perspective taking,threat reducing & affection
the tool that clarifies role analysis
Personality is shaped by Heredity and environment
If you are acting in place of the manager by giving non financial incentives
Subhash's declining work Effect
The manager is trying to understand theory Y
Subhash was amongst the top-- 10%
The problem in the case is of Change

Chapter-1
1. The description of an organization as more like a snake pit, with daily conflict, distress, and struggle, would come from
which level within the organization?
(c) individual level

2. The description of an organization as clockworks, in which human behavior is logical and rational, would come from
which level within the organization?
(c) organizational level

3. The study of organizational behavior is concerned with:

(d) psychosocial, interpersonal, and group dynamics in organizations

4. An internal perspective of human behavior tends to explain a person's actions in terms of:
(b) personal value system

5. The science of human behavior and individual differences is:

(d) psychology

6. When Black & Decker placed a special emphasis on human productivity and efficiency through the application of
organizational goal setting and differential piece rate systems, they were borrowing ideas from the discipline of:
(d) Engineering

7. Culture and the study of learned behavior comprise the domain of:
(a) management

8. The recent growth of corporate wellness programs is an example of a contribution from which discipline?
(d) management

9. Which of the following is not an internal component of a work organization?

(a) Structure

10. In an open system the transformation or conversion of inputs to outputs is accomplished with:
(a) technology
11. An organization's suppliers, customers, and federal regulators is called the:
(a) task environment

12. The human, informational, material, and financial resources of an organization system would be considered:
(a) inputs

13. The Hawthorne Studies uncovered the importance of:

(c) the informal organization

14. The beliefs and assumptions about people, work, and the organization best reflects the:
(c) informal organization

Chapter-2
1. Which of the following is NOT one of the major challenges that managers must deal with in order to remain
competitive?
(d) anticipating changes in foreign currency valuations

2. Globalization implies all of the following except:

(d) an organization's nationality is held strongly in consciousness

3. A transnational organization is one where:

(b) the global viewpoint supersedes national issues

4. Given the increasing attractiveness of U.S. business ventures in China, a major challenge for Western managers will be
understanding the Chinese practice of guanxi, which is:
(b) the use of personal connections to conduct business

5. The work of Hofstede is important because his studies revealed that more differences in work-related attitudes can be
explained by:
(c) culture

6. Hofstede's cross-cultural research found that Japanese managers valued:

(b) group decisions

7. Hofstede's work casts doubt on the:

(d) the universal applicability of U.S. management theories

8. An expatriate manager is one who:

(c) works in a country other than his or her home country

9. Which of the following was NOT recommended as a technique for increasing the sensitivity of differences between
people from various cultures?
(c) role analysis technique (RAT)

10. Attention to diversity has particularly increased in recent years because of:
(c) the changing demographics of the working population

11. The globalization of business and changing demographic trends will present organizations with a tremendously
culturally diverse workforce which represents the risk that:
(a) prejudices and stereotypes will prevent managers and employees

12. Emphasizing the use of inclusive language such as “partner” instead of “spouse” would be directed at what type of
diversity?
(c) sexual orientation

13. The major difference between prejudice and discrimination is:

(d) prejudice refers to an attitude and discrimination refers to behavior

14. Assume you are the manager of a department with a diverse work group, but white males comprise the largest
subgroup. Many of the white males resent having to work along side of female and minority employees who have less
seniority and work experience but are paid the same. Several conflicts and incidents have taken place between the white
males and others that have disrupted the workplace. Which of the following approaches would be more appropriate and
effective in dealing with this situation?
(d) Indicate that discriminatory and other inappropriate behavior will not be tolerated and initiate a series of meetings to
address the problems and encourage open and frank discussion of the issues.

Chapter-3
1. According to the proponents of interactional psychology, all of the following are correct except:
(a) behavior is a function of heredity and physical stature

2. The basis for understanding individual differences stems from:

(d) Lewin's contention that behavior is a function of the person and the environment

3. The way in which factors such as skills, abilities, personalities, perceptions, attitudes, values, and ethics differ from one
individual to another is referred to as:
(b) individual differences

4. All of the following are examples of individual differences except:

(d) Norming

5. What is considered the single best predictor or work performance across many occupations studied both here in the
United States and across different cultures?
(a) GMA

6. A relatively stable set of characteristics that influence an individual's behavior defines:

(b) personality

7. Personality is shaped by:

(d) heredity and environment

8. The traits associated with high-performing employees are:

(c) conscientiousness and emotional stability

9. Which of the following is not considered one of the “Big Five” personality traits?
(a) heredity

10. The approach to the study of personality that focuses on both person (dispositions) and situational variables as
combined predictors of behavior is known as:
(b) the integrative approach

11. Which of the following statements regarding internals and externals is FALSE?
(d) Externals may be more reluctant than internals to participate in decision making.

12. Which of the following is NOT a component of CSE.

(a) General Mental Ability
13. An individual's generalized belief about internal control versus external control is called:
(c) locus of control

14. Which type of situation is interpreted the same way by different individuals, evoking agreement on the appropriate
behavior in the situation?
(d) strong situation

15. Individuals possessing an internal locus of control:

(c) prefer participative management styles

16. Individuals possessing a Type A personality:

(c) may become aggressive, even somewhat hostile when faced with conflict and other work-related difficulties

17. Assume you are a supervisor of ten employees, one of whom is clearly a Type A personality. Which of the following
approaches would you follow to effectively manage this employee?
(d) Assist the employee through encouraging time management applications and convincing the person to pace him or
herself.
Chapter-4
1. All of the following are characteristics of the target of one's perceptions, except:
(d) purpose and context of encounter or interaction

2. The process of interpreting information about another person is:

(b) social perception

3. The three major categories of factors that influence one's perception of another person include:
(a) characteristics of the perceiver, the target, and the situation

4. Which of the following is NOT an important characteristic of the perceiver that can affect social perception?
(d) emotional stability

5. The perceiver's pattern of thinking or manner in which they assemble and interpret information about another person
(b) cognitive structure

6. The ability of an individual to perceive multiple characteristics of another person rather than attend to just a few traits
is a function of their:
(d) cognitive complexity

7. All of the following are characteristics of the target that influence social perception except:
(d) cognitive complexity

8. In which of the following situations are situational cues and social context most formalized?
(a) job interview

9. The discounting principle is a characteristic of the:

(a) Situation

10. An employee who does not get along well with other employees but generates the most sales is evaluated only on
sales performance. This is an example of:
(d) selective perception

11. Suppose, for example, that a sales manager is evaluating the performance of his employees. One employee does not
get along well with colleagues and rarely completes sales reports on time. This employee, however, generates the most
new sales contracts in the office. The sales manager chooses to ignore the negative information and evaluates the
salesperson only on contracts generated. The manager is exercising:
(b) selective perception

12. A supervisor's high expectations of a new employee and the subsequent high performance of that employee is
known as:
(d) self-fulfilling prophecy

Chapter-5
1. In managing organizational behavior, the importance of attitudes:
(c) lies in their link to behavior

2. An individual's psychological tendency expressed by evaluating an entity with some degree of favor or disfavor
reflects:
(a) an attitude

3. All of the following are indications of affect except:

(a) he believes that young employees are error prone
4. Asking an employee whether he or she would use a new computer software package is an attempt to determine:
(d) behavioral intent

5. An individual does not have an attitude until he or she responds to an entity on a:

(d) cognitive, behavioral, and affective basis

6. When one's attitudes and required job behavior conflict, ________ may develop.
(d) cognitive dissonance

7. Attitudes are learned and two major influences include:

(b) direct experience and social learning

8. A major reason why attitudes derived from direct experience are so powerful is because:
(b) they are easily accessed and are active in our cognitive processes

9. When one's attitudes and required job behavior conflict, ________ may develop.
(d) cognitive dissonance

10. If a salesperson is required to sell a defective TV set but believes this act to be unethical, he or she would:
(b) experience the discomfort of cognitive dissonance

11. Which of the following is not an important aspect or process of modeling?

(b) The model must not be aware of the learner's presence.

12. In social learning, the family, peer group, religious organizations, and culture shape an individual's attitudes in a(n):
(b) indirect manner

13. Assume you are a supervisor and you strongly endorse keeping an open line of communication with your employees,
you always keep your office door open and you instruct your secretary to not screen phone calls from employees. These
conditions include:
(a) attitude specificity

14. Which of the following is NOT one of the five things the attitude–behavior correspondence depends upon?
(d) the experimental model used to test the relationship
15. If an individual from a country holds a negative attitude towards women in management because of a cultural belief
system, but does not reflect behavior consistent with that attitude in a group, the link between the attitude–behavior is
probably weak because:
(b) of social constraints

16. An enduring belief that a particular behavior or end state of existence is preferred is known as a/an:
(b) value

17. All of the following are considered terminal values except:

(c) self-control

18. Which of the following is not an instrumental value?

(c) self-respect

19. The goals to be achieved, or the end states of existence, are called:
(b) terminal values

20. Recent research found four values exerted the most influence on job choice decisions. Which of the following was
not one of those values?
(d) Pay

21. Which of the following work values is LEAST relevant to individuals?

(d) Professionalism

22. What type of work culture would you most likely find in Iran?
(d) collectivist culture

Chapter-6
1. Acting in ways consistent with one's personal values and the commonly held values of the organization and society is:
(b) ethical behavior

2. Ethical behavior is influenced by which two major factors?

(d) individual characteristics and organizational factors

3. An enduring belief that a particular behavior or end state of existence is preferred is known as a/an:
(b) Value

4. Which of the following qualities has NOT been suggested as important to making ethical decisions?
(d) Commitment

Chapter-7
1. The process of arousing and sustaining goal-directed behavior is called:
(c) motivation

2. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the current state of motivation theories?
(c) There are several approaches to motivation, and one or another may be useful in specific organizational contexts,
with specific individuals or groups, at different times.

3. Maslow's hierarchy of needs model begins with ________ needs and ends with ________ needs.
(d) physiological, self-actualization
4. Assume you own and operate a small printing and specialty advertising business that employs 25 persons. With
increased health care costs and related insurance premiums you are contemplating the cancellation of health and
hospitalization insurance for your employees. Your decision may cause your employees to become greatly concerned
about:
(c) safety and security needs

5. Assume you have accepted a job offer and will shortly begin working in your first professional position. The firm
provides a very competitive salary and benefit package. Your attention is now directed to learning and advancement
opportunities. According to Alderfer and McGregor, these are:
(c) growth and Theory Y concerns

6. McGregor believed that Theory X assumptions were appropriate for:

(c) individuals motivated by lower order needs

7. Maslow's progression hypothesis states:

(a) only ungratified needs motivate behavior

8. According to Herzberg, a major difference between motivator and hygiene factors includes:
(d) motivators deal with job characteristics that are intrinsic to the job and hygiene factors deal with characteristics of
the work environment or factors extrinsic to the job

9. After working as a sales associate in an appliance store for six months, you begin to become dissatisfied with various
rules and regulations, or:
(c) hygiene factors

10. Which of the following has been identified as both a hygiene and motivational factor in research done on Herzberg's
two-factor theory?
(d) pay

11. Which of the following is considered a motivating factor in Herzberg's two-factor theory?
(a) recognition

12. Which of the following would be considered a valid conclusion regarding Herzberg's two-factor theory?
(d) Hygiene factors are of some importance up to a threshold level.

13. Which of the following would NOT be considered a valid criticism of Herzberg's two-factor theory?
(c) Extrinsic factors may be more important in determining satisfaction or dissatisfaction on the jo(b)

14. According to Herzberg, which factors are related to job dissatisfaction?

(b) hygiene factors

15. A prerequisite for successful goal-setting programs, such as management by objectives (MBO), is:
(d) organizational commitment

16. An important function of goal setting is:

(a) reducing role stress associated with conflicting and/or confusing expectations

Chapter-8
1. Work groups place a strong emphasis on:
(a) shared leadership
2. A group is a collection of two or more persons with common interests or objectives, whereas a work team:
(d) is usually a small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common goal for which they
are mutually accountable

3. A small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common mission, performance goals,
and approach for which they hold themselves mutually accountable is known as a/an:
(c) work team

4. Groups emphasize all of the following except:

(a) collective work products

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-functioning group?

(d) people express both their feelings and their thoughts

6. The two sets of social benefits available to team or group members includes:
(d) psychological intimacy and integrated involvement

7. Integrated involvement as a social benefit of group or team membership includes:

(c) opportunity for influence
8. The standards that a work group uses to evaluate the behavior of its members are called:
(c) norms of behavior

9. The behavioral norms expected within work groups and considered to be among the most important from the
organization's perspective are known as:
(b) organizational culture and credos

10. Which of the following statements regarding group cohesion is NOT accurate?
(c) highly cohesive groups tend to have higher interpersonal exchanges away from the workplace.

11. According to the group development model discussed in the text, a group addresses which of the following issues?
(d) interpersonal, task, and authority issues

12. An emergent group is known as a/an:

(c) informal group

13. Dependence on guidance and direction is the defining characteristic in what stage of group development?
(b) forming

14. At what stage of group development does the leader need to adopt a coaching style due to team challenges?
(b) storming

15. A good group decision approach when an objective is to maximize the number of alternatives is:
(a) brainstorming

Chapter-9
1. Teams are appropriate where:
(a) the knowledge and talent of workers are dispersed across members and require integration

2. A beneficial team environment is one where an individual does the following:

(c) comes up with initiatives

3. Which stage requires that team members feel they are a part of the team for further progression in group
development to occur?
(a) forming

4. An effective team exhibits:

(b) shared leadership

5. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the impact of dissimilarity on teams and team members?
(c) value dissimilarity is negatively related to team involvement

6. Some experts believe that only individuals within a team can be creative, but a professor at Northwestern University
suggests that team creativity can be achieve(d) Which of the following practices would NOT enhance team creativity?
(d) Conformity

7. A team-oriented work environment places emphasis on:

(a) empowerment and collaboration

8. Which of the following is not considered to be a foundation for successful teamwork?

(c) goal clarity

9. Self-managed teams are sometimes called:

(c) autonomous work groups

Chapter-10
1. The legitimacy inherent in one's job is _____, whereas the ability to influence someone else is _____.
(c) authority; power

2. If a person can affect the thoughts, behavior, and feelings of another person, she has:
(a) influence

3. Enlarging an employee's zone of indifference is accomplished by:

(b) the use of power

4. Which of the following power sources is LEAST likely to be available to a non-supervisory, technical employee?
(d) legitimate

5. The power base of the future will likely be:

(d) expert

6. As a student, you are developing _____ power.

(b) expert

7. Which base of power has the strongest relationship with performance and satisfaction?
(c) expert

8. Your authors suggest the addition of another source of power to French and Raven's five sources of power. Which of
the following best reflects this additional source of power?
(d) information power

9. An important aspect of a manager's exercise of reward power in the determination of employee salary increases is:
(c) distributive justice

10. To use power ethically an manager should examine the behavior by asking three questions regarding criterion
outcomes of:
(c) distributive justice, utilitarian, and individual rights

11. Which of the following is NOT a positive power-oriented characteristic according to

McClelland?
(a) Explain just enough to pacify employees sufficiently so they won't ask questions.

12. McClelland's two faces of power include:

(c) personal and social

13. McClelland's positive face of power is:

(a) social power

14. McClelland's perspective of power is best reflected by which statement?

(a) The concept of power is value free and neutral.

15. McClelland has found that the best managers are those who have:
(d) a high need for social power and a low need for affiliation

16. According to McClelland, when a manager treats others as objects to be utilized to get ahead, or views situations as
win-lose, the manager is using which form of power?
(a) personal power

Chapter-11
1. According to John Kotter, leadership (in contrast to management) entails:
(d) setting a direction for the organization

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the leadership theory categorization factors?
(b) attitudes

3. Kotter suggests that leadership and management:

(d) are two distinct, yet complementary systems of action in organizations

4. Trait leader theories focus on all the following except:

(d) situational characteristics

5. Which of the following statements best reflects the support for trait theories to identify universal distinguishing
attributes of leaders?
(c) Findings on traits as a basis for explaining leader effectiveness are neither strong nor uniform.

6. Trait theories of leadership attempt to:

(d) focus on leaders physical attributes, personality, and abilities

7. When considering the type of leadership style exhibited according to the behavioral theories, which of the following is
most accurate?
(c) Situational characteristics are not important because the leader's style does not vary over different situations.

8. When comparing autocratic leadership style to democratic leadership style, democratic leaders:
(c) do not closely supervise and allow employee initiative and decision making

9. Fiedler would advocate which of the following in effecting a match of the leader to a favorable leadership situation?
(d) reengineer the situation

10. The LPC scale is:

(b) a projective technique that evaluates the person a leader has least preferred to work with

11. According to Fiedler, the effectiveness of leaders is dependent on:

(a) the favorableness of their situation

12. According to Fiedler's leadership research, high LPC (relationship-oriented) leaders are most successful in situations
where:
(c) leader-member relations are good, the task is unstructured, and position power is weak

13. As a manager using Fiedler's approach to leadership, which of the following interventions would be most effective?
(d) Reengineer the situation to fit the leader's predisposition.

Chapter-12
1. Conflict involves disagreement between two or more parties because of:
(b) incompatible goals

2. EI is defined as:
(d) the power to control one's emotions and perceive emotions in others

3. Estimates show that managers spend what percent of their time dealing with conflict?
(b) 21%

4. The power not only to control emotions but also to perceive them is termed:
(b) emotional intelligence

5. Conflict can be functional, or a positive force, in all of the following situations except:
(a) when group and organizational cohesion is broken down

6. All of the following are negative conflict diagnostic questions except:

(d) Do the potential losses exceed any potential benefits?

7. As a manager, your ability to diagnose conflict as good or bad is contingent upon your looking at all of the following
except:
(d) the presence of groupthink

8. One occasion in which managers should work to stimulate conflict is when:

(d) the group suffers from groupthink

9. Two departments in a university are engaged in a conflict because one had its budget cut. This is an example of conflict
based on:
(d) common resources

10. At a software company there is one person for databases, one for statistical packages, and another for expert
systems. The structural cause for conflict between these individuals is:
(d) specialization

11. Which of the following is NOT a structural cause of conflict in organizations?

(a) skills and abilities
12. You have a problem with your computer, so you call the company that made it. They inform you that the problem is
caused by software, so you call the software division and they tell you it's the hardware. This is an example of:
(c) jurisdictional ambiguities

13. Two machine operators disagree over the cause of an equipment breakdown. This conflict is based on differences in:
(b) perception

14. Long lasting and difficult conflicts between individuals usually stem from differences in:
(c) perceptions

Chapter-13
1. A pattern of basic assumptions that are considered valid and that are taught to new members as the way to perceive,
think, and feel in the organization is known as:
(b) corporate culture

2. Organizational culture is most rooted in which of the following fields of study?

(d) anthropology

3. Which of the following is NOT an important attribute of organizational culture?

(d) pervasiveness and endurance

4. Which of the following include the three levels of culture identified by Edgar Schein?
(d) artifacts, values, and basic assumptions

5. The key to understanding culture through artifacts lies in:

(c) figuring out what they mean

6. The most visible and accessible level of culture is:

(c) Artifacts

7. When a corporate president is the first employee to give blood during a corporate blood drive, this is an example of:
(d) personal enactment

8. The employees of Stillwater Designs know that if monthly sales are higher than sales in the same month of the
previous year that Steve Irby (founder and CEO) will hold a cookout for the employees the following Friday. This would be
a result of the CEO's use of:
(d) personal enactment

9. Which of the following would NOT provide an indication of an organization's culture?

(d) number of products produced

10. When the president of your college or university awards scholarships at a banquet to high-achieving students, this is
an example of:
(d) a ceremony

11. An early fall semester convocation on your campus can be considered a:

(b) rite of renewal

12. When Southwestern Bell emphasizes the importance of management training by kicking off classes using a high-
ranking executive and has a graduation ceremony when classes are completed, they have utilized:
(b) a rite of enhancement and a rite of passage
13. Everyday organizational practices that are repeated over and over defines:
(c) a ritual

14. A corporate logo is:

(b) a symbol

Chapter-14
1. All of the following are planned corporate changes except:
(b) responding to an increase in the excise tax on gasoline

2. Which of the following is NOT a term to describe the organizations that will succeed in meeting the competitive
challenges that businesses face?
(d) mechanistic

3. While downsizing can increase shareholder value by better aligning costs and revenues, the effective organizations are
the ones that excel at:
(d) systematic innovation

4. Workout sessions at GE are designed to:

(d) make the organization faster, less complex, and able to respond effectively to change

5. Which of the following is NOT an external force that can stimulate the need for change?
(c) changes in employee's expectations

6. Technological changes bring about profound change because they are not just changes in the way work is performed,
but also result in:
(b) changes in work relationships and organizational structures

7. When an organization moves to a radically different, and sometimes unknown, future state, they have made what type
of change?
(c) transformational

8. When the organization changes its mission, culture, culture, goals, strategy, and structure it has:
(c) made a transformational change

9. When the organization makes a large-scale change such as moving to a new structure, the change would be
considered:
(a) strategic

10. A price adjustment in gasoline by an oil company in response to an excise tax increase is a/an _____ change.
(a) incremental

11. A person who acts as the initiator and assumes responsibility for change management is called a/an:
(b) change agent

12. The most massive scope of change is known as:

(d) transformational