RTS 2 - July To December 2022 A

CURRENT AFFAIRS

TEST SERIES
(Prelims 2023)

(RTS-2)
(JULY'22- December'22)

(SOLUTIONS& EXPLANATION)
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CURRENT AFFAIR TEST SERIES-2023| RTS-2
REVISION CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST -2
(July'22- December'22)
(SOLUTIONS & EXPLANATION)
1. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct:Biosphere reserves are sites established by countries and recognized under
UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme to promote sustainable development based on
local community efforts and sound science. The programme of Biosphere Reserve was initiated by
UNESCO in 1971. Under Section-37 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002 the State Government in consultation
with local bodies may notify areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS). Whereas,
under Section-37 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002 the State Government in consultation with local
bodies may notify areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS).the ‘Biodiversity
Heritage Sites’ (BHS) are unique ecosystems having rich biodiversity comprising of any one or more of
the following components:
o Richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific categories.
o High endemism.
o Presence of rare and threatened species, keystone species, species of evolutionary significance.
o Wild ancestors of domestic/cultivated species or their varieties.
o Past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds and having significant cultural,
ethical or aesthetic values and are important for the maintenance of cultural diversity, with or without a
long history of human association with them.
● Statement 2 is correct but statement 3 is not correct:The Biological Diversity Act, 2002, was enacted for
the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair and equitable sharing of the
benefits arising out of the use of biological resources and traditional knowledge. A three-tier structure
composed of the National Biodiversity Authority, the State Biodiversity Board, and the Biodiversity
Management Committee implements this Act under which local communities are assisted to maintain
areas designated as BHSs. The creation of a BHS does not put any restriction on the prevailing
practices and usages of local communities and also does not affect existing land ownership. The purpose
of declaring BHS is to enhance the quality of life of the local communities through conservation of such
sites. The Biodiversity Management Committee is constituted by local bodies in the States to prepare the
People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs), in consultation with local people.
2. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 and 2 are correct:In natural farming, neither chemical nor organic fertilizers are added to
the soil. In fact, no external fertilizers are added to soil or given to plants whatsoever. In natural farming,
decomposition of organic matter by microbes and earthworms is encouraged right on the soil surface itself,
which gradually adds nutrition in the soil, over the period. In natural farming there is no ploughing, no tilling
of soil and no fertilizers, and no weeding is done just the way it would be in natural ecosystems. Zero Budget
Natural Farming (ZNBF) means raising crops without using any fertilizers and pesticides or any other external
materials. The word Zero Budget refers to the zero cost of production of all crops. A study – “Life Cycle
Assessment of Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) and Non-ZBNF in Andhra Pradesh” - reports the
following benefits:
o ZBNF processes require 50–60 per cent less water and less electricity (than non-ZBNF) for all the
selected crops.
o ZBNF reduces methane emissions significantly through multiple aeration. It also has the potential to
avoid residue burning by practicing mulching.
o The cost of cultivation is lower in ZBNF.
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● Statement 3 is not correct: Although, both organic and natural farming systems are non-chemical
systems of farming largely relying on diversity, on-farm biomass management, rejuvenation of natural
nutrient recycling, crop rotation, multiple cropping and efficient resource recycling but with following
differences:
o Organic systems in addition to above are open to use of off-farm purchased organic and biological
inputs and need based soil correction through natural mined minerals.
o Natural farming systems are based on-farm biomass recycling, biomass mulching, round the year green
cover, indigenous cow-based dung and urine formulations in exclusion of all purchased inputs organic,
biological or otherwise. Bhartiya Prakritik Krishi Padhati (BPKP) as a sub scheme of Paramparagat Krishi
Vikas Yojana (PKVY) since 2020-21 for the promotion of traditional indigenous practices.
3. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 and 2 are not correct:The United Nations is an international organization founded in 1945.
Currently made up of 193 Member States. CITES is an international agreement that stands for the
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). It was
drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 by the members of the International Union for Conservation
of Nature (IUCN). It entered into force in July 1975. Currently, there are 184 parties (including countries
or regional economic integration organizations). The CITES Secretariat is administered by UNEP (The
United Nations Environment Programme) and is located in Geneva, Switzerland. The Conference of the
Parties to CITES is the supreme decision-making body of the Convention and comprises all its parties.
Recently Conference of the Parties to CITES ended on November 25, 2022 in Panama. Whereas, The
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is known informally as the Biodiversity Convention is a
multilateral treaty. The convention was opened for signature at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992
and entered into force in 1993.
● Statement 3 is correct: CITES is legally binding on its members. However, it cannot take place of national
laws. It is in fact a framework for all its members to adopt in their own domestic legislation. The domestic
legislation should ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level. The aim of CITES is to ensure that
international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.
4. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option (a) is not correct: Year 2025 is declared as the International Year of Glaciers’ Preservation bythe
United Nations General Assembly. Moreover, date 21st March of each year will be observed as the World
Day for Glaciers starting in 2025.
● Option (b) is correct: The United Nations General Assembly has declared 2023 the International Year of
Millets.
● Option (d) is not correct: The United Nations General Assembly had declared 2022 the International Year of
Artisanal Fisheries and Aquaculture (IYAFA 2022). FAO is the lead agency for celebrating the year in
collaboration with other relevant organizations and bodies of the United Nations system.
● Option (c) is not correct: The United Nations General Assembly has declared 2026 the International Year of
Rangelands and Pastoralists.
5. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Option (c) is correct: A country is at risk of a ‘doom loop’ when a shock to one part of its economic
system is amplified by its effect on another. In simple terms Doom loop describes a scenario in which
one negative factor creates another negative factor, which in turn worsens the first or creates a third,
similar to a vicious cycle. Excess government debt can trigger an economic doom loop, as happened in
Greece in 2010. In the context of economics, a doom loop is a negative spiral that can occur when banks
hold sovereign bonds and governments with weak public finances bail out such banks. Whereas,
‘Bullwhip Effect’ is a phenomenon wherein small changes in consumer demand for a product at the retail
stage can cause exponentially larger changes in the demand experienced by other members of the supply
chain.
6. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1, 2 and 3 are not correct:The Corruption Perception Index, or CPI is released by the anti-
corruption watchdog Transparency International (TI).This Index ranks 180 countries on their
perceived levels of corruption in the public sector. The index for 2022 draws on 13 expert assessments and
surveys of businesspeople. Countries are evaluated on a scale from 0 to 100, where 100 is very clean and 0 is
very corrupt. As per 2022 index, majority of the countries have stagnant levels of corruption, while the
number of them with reducing level of corruption is super low. This means that the world continues to fail
in fighting off corruption. What’s striking however is that at least 95 per cent of the nations have made
little to no progress since 2017. The only countries with improved ranks on the CPI were Ireland (score of
77), South Korea (score of 63), Armenia (score of 46), Vietnam (score of 42), Maldives (score of 40),
Moldova (score of 39), Angola (score of 33) and Uzbekistan (score of 31).
● Statement 4 is correct:India is the 85 least corrupt nation out of 180 countries, according to the 2022
Corruption Perceptions Index reported by Transparency International.
7. Answer: D
Explanation:
● The Commitment to Reducing Inequality (CRI) Index which is prepared by Oxfam International and
Development Finance International (DFI). The 2022 Commitment to Reducing Inequality (CRI) Index is
the first detailed analysis published looking at governments' policies and actions to fight inequality during the
first two years of the pandemic. The Commitment to Reducing Inequality (CRI) is a ranking of 161
governments worldwide on the extent to which they are taking steps to reduce inequality. The index ranks
governments’ efforts based on actions in three areas or pillars vital to reducing the level of inequality. The
three areas are public services (health, education, and social protection), taxation and workers’ rights. The CRI
2022 shows clearly that most of the world’s governments failed to take major concrete steps to mitigate this
dangerous rise in inequality.
o Despite the biggest global health emergency in a century, half of low- and lower-middleincome countries
cut health spending during the pandemic.
o Despite widespread destitution caused by the pandemic, half of the countries tracked bythe CRI actually
cut social protection spending, and 70% cut education spending.
o Despite big losses in tax revenue, and huge increases in the wealth of the richest people and corporations
during the pandemic, 143 countries out of 161 failed to increase taxation of the richest people, and 11
countries inexcusably cut taxes on rich people.
o Two-thirds of countries failed to increase their minimum wage in line with gross domestic product (GDP).
India ranks 123 out of 161 countries for reducing inequality.
8. Answer: B
Explanation:
As part of its 2022 Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) goals, India has committed to a number of
ambitious objectives such as reducing GDP emissions intensity by 45% from 2005 levels by 2030, increasing
its renewables capacity to 500 GW by 2030 and achieving net zero status by 2070.Moreover, Budget 2023-24
call out “Green Growth” as one of the seven priorities for future growth.
● Statement 1 is correct: Green GDP is calculated by subtracting net natural capital consumption from the
standard GDP. Though the Economic Survey and the annual budget did not touch upon green GDP, the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has published a paper in October 2022, where researchers have estimated
India’s greenGDP to be somewhere between Rs 165.9 trillion to 167.7 trillion for 2019. The actual GDP
(calculated using the standard formula without factoring in environmental costs) was Rs 145.69 trillion.
Moreover, while traditional GDP accelerated at an annual average pace of 6.27% and 6.61% in the
2000s and 2010s, the “green GDP" rose 6.34% and 6.71%.
● Statement 2 is correct: The recently launched National Green Hydrogen Mission, with an outlay of Rs
19,700 crores, will facilitate transition of the economy to low carbon intensity, reduce dependence on fossil
fuel imports, and make the country assume technology and market leadership in this sunrise sector. India
aims to reach a target of an annual production of 5 MMT of green hydrogen by 2030.
● Statement 3 is not correct: A new “PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment and
Amelioration of Mother Earth” PM-PRANAM, will be launched to incentivize States and Union
Territories to promote alternative fertilizers and balanced use of chemical fertilizers. Whreas, Bhartiya
Prakritik Kheti Bio-Input Resource Centres has been proposed in Budget 2023 to facilitate over the next
three years 1 crore farmers to adopt natural farming. For this, 10,000 Bio-Input Resource Centres will be set-
up, creating a national-level distributed micro-fertilizer and pesticide manufacturing network.
9. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct:The Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment of India is done
periodically by Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) in collaboration with States/UTs. As per the
2022 assessment, total annual ground water recharge, annual extractable ground water resource, annual
ground water extraction (for all uses) are 437.60 Billion Cubic Meter (BCM), 398.08 BCM and 239.16 BCM
respectively. The Stage of ground water extraction, which is a measure of annual ground water extraction for
all uses (irrigation, industrial and domestic uses) over annual extractable ground water resource is 60.08% for
the country as a whole.
● Statement 2 is correct but statement 3 is not correct: As per assessment 2022, the total annual ground
water recharge for the country is 437.6 billion cubic meters (BCM), which is 5.74 bcm more as
compared to the 2017 assessment (431.86 BCM). Further, the annual ground water extraction has been
assessed as 239.16 BCM in the 2022 assessment which is approximately 9.53 BCM less as compared to
the 2017 assessment (248.69 BCM).
10. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct:The Transport4All Challenge, an initiative of the Ministry of Housing and
Urban Affairs of the Government of India, aims to bring together cities, citizens and startups to develop
solutions that improve public transport to better serve the needs of all citizens.
● Statement 2 is correct but statement 3 is not correct:Stage-2 of the Challenge is open for startups to
develop solutions for the issues and problems identified by the cities. Interested startups can register with
their idea pitches on the Startup India portal. The Transport4All Challenge is organised in partnership
with The Institute for Transportation and Development Policy (ITDP) as co-host and challenge
coordinator, the Word Bank as knowledge partner, Startup India and City Innovation Exchange as
technology partners, and Association of State Road Transport Undertaking (ASRTU) as city-
engagement partner.
11. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: FSDC monitors macro-prudential supervision of the economy and assesses the
functioning of large financial conglomerates.FSDC, or the Financial Stability and Development Council, is
tasked with monitoring and assessing the stability of the financial sector and the economy as a whole. This
includes monitoring macro-prudential supervision, which is the process of ensuring that the financial sector
operates in a safe and stable manner, and assessing the functioning of large financial conglomerates, which are
groups of financial companies that are interconnected and could potentially pose a threat to financial stability
if one component fails.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: FSDC is a statutory apex council under the Ministry of Finance.FSDC is actually a
non-statutory apex council under the Ministry of Finance, meaning that it does not have statutory powers.
Instead, it operates through an executive order issued by the government in 2010.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is not the chairman of FSDC.
Instead, the council is chaired by the Finance Minister and its members include the heads of all financial
sector regulators, the Finance Secretary, the Secretary of the Department of Economic Affairs, the Secretary
of the Department of Financial Services, the Chief Economic Adviser, and others. The FSDC sub-committee
is headed by the Governor of RBI, but this is a separate body within FSDC.
12. Answer: A
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: Green Fins was established in Thailand in 2004 as a tool for supporting adoption and
implementation of best practices in the diving and snorkeling tourism industry. It aims to protect coral reefs
through environmentally-friendly guidelines promoting sustainable diving and snorkeling. The Green Fins
approach provides the only internationally recognized environmental standards for marine tourism and its
robust assessment system measures compliance.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Green Fins is not implemented by World Bank and IUCN. Green Fins is actually
implemented internationally by The Reef-World Foundation and the United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP).
13. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The ministry responsible for this revision is the Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(MCA).
● Statement 2 is correct: According to the latest revision, the definition of a small company has been revised
by increasing the threshold for paid-up capital from Rs 2 crore to Rs 4 crore. This means that companies with
a paid-up capital of not exceeding Rs 4 crore will now be considered as small companies.
● Statement 3 is correct: The threshold for turnover has increased from Rs 20 crore to Rs 40 crore. This means
that companies with a turnover of not exceeding Rs 40 crore will now be considered as small companies.
● Statement 4 is correct: Small companies have certain benefits in terms of compliance, such as not having to
prepare a cash flow statement as part of their financial statements, not being required to have mandatory
rotation of auditors, holding only two board meetings in a year, having their annual return signed by the
company secretary, and facing lesser penalties compared to other companies. These requirements are less
strict than those for regular-sized businesses or corporations.
14. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Shrinkflation is a term used to describe a business strategy used by companies,
particularly in the food and beverage industry, where the size of a product is reduced, but the price remains the
same. The purpose of shrinkflation is to increase the profit margins for the producer by reducing the cost of
producing the product, without impacting the sales volume.
● Statement 2 is correct: By reducing the size of the product, the producer can still maintain the same retail
price, but the cost of production will be lower due to the decrease in quantity of the product. As a result, the
producer's profit margins are increased, while the average consumer will not necessarily notice the reduction
in product size and sales volume is not affected.
15. Answer: C
Explanation:
The Ethereum blockchain platform has recently undergone a significant change known as the Merge. This change fully
transitioned the Ethereum platform from a "proof of work" consensus mechanism to a "proof-of-stake" mechanism.
In the old proof of work mechanism, transactions were approved on the Ethereum network by miners who
competed to solve complex mathematical puzzles using powerful computer hardware. This process was energy-
intensive and was becoming a major concern in terms of environmental sustainability.
The new proof of stake mechanism, on the other hand, assigns randomly selected validators to approve
transactions and earn a small reward. This eliminates the need for miners on the Ethereum network and reduces
energy consumption by nearly 99.95%. Additionally, this new mechanism makes transactions on the Ethereum
network much more secure.
16. Answer: B
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: The whale shark is indeed the largest species of fish in existence today, reaching
lengths of up to 18 meters and weighing as much as 21.5 metric tons. Their massive size is what makes them
so distinctive and sets them apart from other shark species.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Whale sharks are not predators, but rather filter feeders. They do not hunt for large
prey like seals and sea lions, but rather consume small organisms like plankton and small fish. The whale
shark's method of feeding is unique among sharks, making them an important part of the ocean's ecosystem.
● Statement 3 is correct: The whale shark is indeed protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972, which grants the species the highest level of protection possible under Indian law.
Additionally, the whale shark is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List and is protected under the
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) Appendix
17. Answer: B
Explanation
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) is a statutory body that
was established in 1972, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not under the Ministry of Fisheries,
Animal Husbandry, and Dairying. The main aim of MPEDA is to promote and support the export of marine
products from India to other countries.
● Statement 2 is correct: MPEDA plays a crucial role in guiding and supporting the development of the
seafood industry in India. As an official agency, MPEDA is responsible for setting standards for the fishing,
storage, and processing industries, ensuring that the industry operates in a manner that is both sustainable and
safe for the environment. MPEDA works with other stakeholders in the industry, including fishing
communities, processors, and exporters, to provide support and guidance to help the industry grow.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The headquarters of MPEDA is located in Kochi, Kerala, not Mumbai. Kochi is a
city that is located in the state of Kerala, and is known for its thriving seafood industry. MPEDA has a
presence in many other cities and states across India, with regional offices that are focused on supporting the
industry and promoting exports in their respective regions.
18. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect:The correct name for the chemical used in anti-radiation pills is Potassium Iodide
(KI), not Sodium Iodide.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The thyroid gland uses iodine to produce hormones that regulate the body's
metabolism and has no way of distinguishing between radioactive and non-radioactive iodine. By taking
potassium iodide (KI) tablets, the thyroid gland can become "full" with non-radioactive iodine, preventing it
from absorbing any more iodine, including radioactive iodine, which can lead to an increased risk of
developing thyroid cancer.
19. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Legionnaires' disease is not caused by a virus, but rather by a type of bacterium called
Legionella. This bacterium can cause a severe form of pneumonia, which is why the disease is named after it.
● Statement 2 is correct: It is possible to become infected by breathing in water droplets containing Legionella
or by accidentally ingesting contaminated water. This bacterium is commonly found in artificial water systems
like hot tubs, air conditioning systems, and large plumbing systems in buildings.
● Statement 3 is correct: Legionnaires' disease is not transmitted from person to person, so direct person-to-
person transmission is not possible. Instead, exposure to contaminated water or air is necessary for infection to
occur.
● Statement 4 is correct: Currently, there is no vaccine available to prevent Legionnaires' disease. Minimizing
exposure to contaminated water or air is the best way to reduce the risk of infection. This can include
regularly cleaning and disinfecting water systems, using water treatments to reduce the growth of the
bacterium, and avoiding exposure to contaminated water or mist, especially for individuals with weakened
immune systems.
20. Answer: C
Explanation:
Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy is a type of immunotherapy that uses the body's own immune
system to fight cancer. The principle of action behind this therapy is to genetically modify a patient's T cells, a
type of white blood cell that is involved in the immune response, so that they can recognize and destroy cancer
cells.
In this therapy, T cells are removed from the patient's blood and modified in a laboratory to express CARs, which
are artificial molecules that are designed to recognize specific targets on cancer cells. The CARs are then
introduced back into the patient's body, where they can bind to and kill cancer cells.
CAR T-cell therapy has shown promising results in the treatment of certain types of cancer, such as acute
lymphoblastic leukemia and lymphoma, as well as other types of cancer such as melanoma and glioblastoma. The
therapy works by harnessing the power of the immune system to recognize and attack cancer cells, and has the
potential to provide long-lasting and effective treatment for some patients.
21. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Digi Yatra is a project launched under the Ministry of Civil Aviation in India, with
the aim of making air travel more convenient and hassle-free for passengers. The objective is to provide a
contactless and seamless passenger processing experience at airports. This is achieved through the use of
advanced technologies such as Facial Recognition Technology (FRT).
● Statement 2 is correct: Blockchain technology is used in Digi Yatra to store data in a secure and
decentralized manner. This means that the data is stored in multiple locations, reducing the risk of data theft or
unauthorized access. The use of blockchain technology in the storage of data is seen as a more secure option
than traditional storage methods, as the data is not stored in a central location.
● Statement 3 is correct: Facial Recognition Technology is used in Digi Yatra to identify the passenger and
establish their identity. The system uses the traveler's facial features to match them with the information
stored on their Digi Yatra account. The process is quick, easy and eliminates the need for manual checking
and verification.
● Statement 4 is incorrect: In Digi Yatra, the privacy of the passengers is of utmost importance. To ensure this,
there is no central storage of Personally Identifiable Information (PII). The passenger's ID and travel
credentials are stored in a secure wallet on the passenger's smartphone. This reduces the risk of data breaches
or unauthorized access to sensitive information. The data is also purged from the servers within 24 hours of
use, further enhancing the privacy and security of the passengers.
22. Answer: D
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: Bancassurance can reduce transaction costs for customers by making insurance
products more accessible and convenient to purchase. By offering insurance products through their existing
banking channels, banks can save customers time and money that would have otherwise been spent on visiting
separate insurance offices or dealing with multiple providers. Additionally, banks can leverage their existing
customer relationships to provide a seamless and efficient experience for purchasing insurance products.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is responsible for regulating bancassurance
activities in India and overseeing the partnerships between banks and insurance companies. The RBI sets
guidelines and regulations for the sale and distribution of insurance products through banking channels.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Bancassurance can increase competition in the insurance market by increasing the
number of insurance providers and products available to customers. By partnering with banks, insurance
companies can reach new customer segments that may have previously been untapped, increasing the overall
level of competition in the insurance market.
23. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The exchange rate between the currency of the country where the migrant worker
resides and the home country can greatly impact the value of remittances. For example, if the currency of the
home country appreciates against the currency of the country where the migrant resides, the value of
remittances would increase. On the other hand, if the currency of the home country depreciates against the
currency of the migrant's country of residence, the value of remittances would decrease.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: High inflation rates can erode the purchasing power of the currency and can impact
the ability of migrants to transfer money. For example, if the inflation rate is high, the cost of living in the
home country would increase and the real value of remittances would decrease.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the World Bank, the top five countries receiving the highest
remittance inflows in 2022 are India, Mexico, China, the Philippines, and Egypt.
24. Answer: A
Explanation:
● The National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) is an annual legislative bill that sets the budget and policies
for the U.S. Department of Defense.
● The NDAA is typically passed by Congress every year and signed into law by the President.
● The NDAA covers a wide range of defense-related issues, including military personnel policies, weapons
procurement, and funding for national security programs.
● The NDAA also includes provisions on cybersecurity, counter-terrorism, and contingency operations.
25. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Global Wage Report was not released by the World Economic Forum (WEF),
but by the International Labour Organization (ILO). The ILO is a specialized agency of the United Nations
that was established to promote social justice and promote decent working conditions.
● Statement 2 is correct: The wage was defined as the total gross remuneration received by employees,
including regular bonuses, during a specified period worked as well as for time not worked.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the ILO Global Wage Report 2022-2023, global wages decreased in
2022 for the first time since 2008. The report found that in the first half of 2022, monthly wages declined by
0.9% in real terms, marking the first negative growth of real global wages.
26. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The UNCLOS is an international treaty that provides a legal framework for the use
and conservation of the world's oceans and their resources, including the establishment of an Exclusive
Economic Zone. The EEZ was created as a way for coastal countries to have greater control over their
maritime resources and to provide a framework for the sustainable use of these resources.
● Statement 2 is incorrect:The EEZ is a maritime zone extending 200 nautical miles from the baseline of a
coastal state, and it gives the coastal state sovereignty over the resources within the zone, including the rights
to explore, exploit, conserve, and manage the natural resources found in that area. This includes both living
and non-living resources such as fish stocks, seabeds, and oil and gas reserves.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The rights and responsibilities for the exploration, exploitation, conservation, and
management of natural resources within the EEZ are given to the Central Government, rather than to the State
Governments. This is because the EEZ is considered a federal issue, and the Central Government is
responsible for the foreign and economic policies of the country.
27. Answer: D
Explanation:
● In 2021, the Department of Science and Technology released guidelines for obtaining and creating geospatial
data and services.
● The guidelines aimed to encourage private sector involvement in the geospatial industry by relaxing
restrictions on data acquisition and production.
● The National Geospatial Policy of 2022 provides a comprehensive framework for the advancement of the
geospatial sector.
● The policy was established during a period of rapid growth in India's geospatial economy, which is projected
to reach 63,000 crore Rupees by 2025.
● The 2021 guidelines for geospatial data production and acquisition aimed to improve ease of business in the
sector.
● The National Geospatial Policy of 2022 builds upon the liberalization of the geospatial industry through the
2021 guidelines.
● The policy is aimed at promoting a thriving and dynamic geospatial ecosystem in India.
28. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The SAARC currency swap facility was actually established and came into
operation on November 15th, 2012. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India and is
responsible for operating the framework within the overall corpus of USD 2 billion. The framework provides
support to member countries of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) through
currency swap arrangements, which can be drawn in US dollar, euro or Indian rupee.
● Statement 2 is correct: The SAARC currency swap facility is available to all member countries of the South
Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), which include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan,
India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. The member countries must sign bilateral swap agreements
in order to take advantage of the facility and access the currency swap support provided by the RBI.
● Statement 3 is correct: Currency swap operations are designed to provide support for short-term foreign
exchange liquidity requirements and are entered into between central banks and governments. The transaction
terms are established beforehand, which means that there is no exchange rate or other market risk involved.
The risk of fluctuations in the value of a base currency against a foreign currency, also known as exchange
rate risk or currency risk, is typically borne by companies or individuals holding assets or obligations in
foreign currencies.
29. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Community Innovator Fellowship (CIF) is an initiative of the Atal Innovation
Mission (AIM) in collaboration with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India, not the
World Bank.
● Statement 2 is correct: The CIF is aimed at providing infrastructure support and knowledge building to
individuals with an entrepreneurial mindset and an idea to solve community challenges through their
enterprises. The fellowship is structured into 5 phases to support the fellows in their entrepreneurial journey
and help them achieve their goals of creating positive change in the community.
30. Answer: C
Explanation:
● SHE STEM is a signature event of the Nobel Memorial Week.
● The event is designed to bring recognition to women in the fields of STEM and sustainability.
● Women innovators, technologists, scientists, and founders are the main focus of SHE STEM.
● The Embassy of Sweden in India is the primary organizer of the event.
● The Atal Innovation Mission and NITI Aayog are collaborating partners of the Embassy of Sweden for SHE
STEM.
● The German Centre of Innovation and Research (DWIH New Delhi) is also a partner of the event.
● The goal of SHE STEM is to inspire young women to pursue careers in STEM fields.
● The event encourages interaction between women in leadership positions in STEM fields and others.
● SHE STEM seeks to raise awareness about the contributions of women in STEM and sustainability.
● The event provides a platform for women in STEM to showcase their work and ideas.
31. Answer: C
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: According to the Indus Waters Treaty, 80% of the water from the Indus River System
is reserved for Pakistan, while the remaining 20% is for India. The treaty allocates the three western rivers—
Indus, Chenab and Jhelum—to Pakistan for unrestricted use, with certain restrictions on non-consumptive,
agricultural and domestic uses by India, and the three Eastern rivers—Ravi, Beas and Sutlej—to India for
unrestricted usage.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Indus Waters Treaty requires both India and Pakistan to establish a Permanent
Indus Commission, which is constituted by permanent representatives from both countries. The Permanent
Indus Commission is required to meet at least once a year, as per the provisions of the IWT.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Pakistan has exclusive rights over the three western rivers—Indus, Chenab and
Jhelum, while India has exclusive rights over the three Eastern rivers—Ravi, Beas and Sutlej. The IWT
allocated the three western rivers to Pakistan for unrestricted use, but with certain restrictions on non-
consumptive, agricultural and domestic uses by India.
● Statement 4 is correct: The Indus Waters Treaty provides a three-step dispute resolution mechanism under
Article IX of the Indus Waters Treaty, through which “questions” on both sides can be resolved at the
Permanent Commission, or can also be taken up at the inter-government level. In case of unresolved questions
or “differences” between the countries on water-sharing, either side can approach the World Bank to appoint a
Neutral Expert (NE) to come to a decision. And eventually, if either party is not satisfied with the NE’s
decision or in case of “disputes” in the interpretation and extent of the treaty, matters can be referred to a
Court of Arbitration.
32. Answer: D
Explanation
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Alfred Nobel, who was a Swedish chemist, engineer, and industrialist, is credited
with the establishment of the Nobel Prizes. The prizes were first awarded in 1901, just after Nobel's death, and
were initially established to reward achievements in the fields of Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine,
Literature, and Peace.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Nobel Prizes are awarded in six different categories, including Physics,
Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine, Literature, Peace and economic sciences. The memorial prize in
economic sciences was added in 1968 . These prizes are considered to be some of the most prestigious awards
in the world and are awarded annually to individuals or organizations who have made significant contributions
to their respective fields.
33. Answer: A
Explanation:
● In a traditional brick and mortar branch, the bank has to maintain a physical building, hire a large number of
staff to manage transactions, and maintain the infrastructure required for traditional banking activities such as
check processing and cash management.
● On the other hand, a DBU relies on digital infrastructure to deliver its products and services.
● This results in a reduced need for physical space and staff, which translates into lower operational costs for the
bank.
● Moreover, digital banking units can provide a better customer experience, thanks to the use of technology.
● Customers can access banking services at any time, from any location, and through multiple channels, such as
mobile banking, internet banking, and ATMs.
● This increased convenience and accessibility of banking services can lead to a more satisfied customer base
and increased usage of digital banking services.
34. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The United Nations Charter gives the United Nations Security Council (Not
UNGA) the power and responsibility to take collective action to maintain international peace and security.
● Statement 2 is incorrect:
A peacekeeping mission is funded collectively by the United Nations member states, while the establishment and
maintenance of its operations are decided by the United Nations Security Council.
As per the UN charter, each member is legally bound to pay their individual share for peacekeeping. (Not a
voluntary contribution).
The expenses for a peacekeeping operation is divided by the United Nations General Assembly based on a
formula that takes into account the economic condition of member states as one of the factors.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: In 2007, India became the first country to deploy an all-women contingent to a UN
Peacekeeping Mission in Liberia.
35. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The FATF is an inter-governmental body established at the G7 (Not G-4) summit at
Paris in 1989 with the objective to set standards and promote effective implementation of legal, regulatory and
operational measures to combat money laundering and terrorist financing and other related threats to the
integrity of the international financial system.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The 39-member body (Not all UN members) sets international standards to ensure
national authorities can effectively go after illicit funds linked to drugs trafficking, the illicit arms trade, cyber
fraud and other serious crimes.
● Statement 3 is correct:
India membership status with FATF
▪ India- Observer status in 2006
▪ India- Full member in 2010
▪ India is also a member of its regional partners, the Asia Pacific Group (APG) and the Eurasian Group (EAG).
36. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Interpol is like the UN. But it is not meant for dispute resolution. It is designed to
assist the police forces of member nations. Interpol is neither an investigative agency like the CBI nor a front-
line police force. It is mandated to share information and provide back-end technical assistance to law
enforcement agencies.
● Statement 2 is correct: INTERPOL notices are international requests for cooperation or alerts allowing
police in member countries to share critical crime-related information.
 Notices are issued by the General Secretariat at the request of a member country’s INTERPOL National
Central Bureau (NCB) and are made available for all our member countries to consult in our Notices
database. Central Bureau of Investigation.
 The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) assumes this role in India with one of its senior officers
heading its exclusive Inter-weong National Central Bureaus) for collation of information and liaison with
the world body.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Interpol facilitates information exchange, knowledge sharing and research
between nations by issuing colour-coded ‘notices’ in four languages – English, Spanish, French, and
Arabic.
RED NOTICE: It is a request to locate and provisionally arrest an individual pending extradition. It is issued by
the General Secretariat at the request of a member country or an international tribunal based on a valid national
arrest warrant. However, the arrest of the fugitive is based on the rule of the member nation where he or she is
located.
37. Answer: D
Explanation:
Mars Orbiter Mission – Objectives of the Mangalyaan Mission:
The Primary Objectives of the Mars Orbiter Mission are listed below.
 Statement 1 is correct: Study of Martian atmosphere
 Statement 2 is correct: Study of Martian Surface Features, Morphology and Minerology.
 Statement 3 is correct: To develop technologies required in planning, designing, management and operations
of an interplanetary mission.
 Search for signs of past or present life on Mars, including the possibility of water.
 Test the performance of key technologies that would be required for future manned missions to Mars, such as
autonomous navigation, propulsion, and communication.
 Gain international recognition for India’s space program and encourage more international collaboration in
space exploration.
Additional Information:
● The Mars Orbiter Mission, also called Mangalyaan, was a space probe orbiting Mars since 24 September
2014.
● It was launched on 5 November 2013 by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
● The Mangalyaan spacecraft was launched aboard a Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) rocket from the
Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) in Sriharikota.
● The PSLV is a four-stage launch vehicle with solid and liquid propulsion stages. It is capable of launching
satellites into a variety of orbits, including polar and geostationary orbits
Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) – Achievements:
 It is the 1st Interplanetary Space Mission of India.
 India is the 1st country in the world to achieve Mars Orbit Insertion in the very 1st attempt. The cost of this
mission was $ 74 million, it cost less than a famous Hollywood movie named Gravity.
 MOM is the cheapest Interplanetary Space Mission in the World.
 It is the 1st Indian spacecraft to survive the Van Allen Belt, by crossing it 39 times.
38. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Most green crackers do not contain barium nitrate, which is the most dangerous
ingredient in conventional crackers.
Green crackers use alternative chemicals such as potassium nitrate and aluminium instead of magnesium and
barium as well as carbon instead of arsenic and other harmful pollutants.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Green crackers can only be legally manufactured by firms that have signed
agreements with the CSIR, no small-scale business or cottage business house can manufacture green crackers.
There are three types/brands/categories of green crackers available in India:
 SWAS (Safe Water Releaser)
 STAR (Safe Thermite Cracker)
 SAFAL (Safe Minimal Aluminium)
 Green Crackers dubbed as ‘eco-friendly’ crackers and are known to cause less air and noise pollution as
compared to traditional firecrackers.
 These crackers were first designed by the National Environmental and Engineering Research Institute
(NEERI), under the aegis of the Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) in 2018.
 NEERI is a constituent of CSIR to conduct research and developmental studies in environmental science and
engineering.
Features of green crackers
 Manufacturers need to sign a deal with the CSIR to make fireworks using the green cracker formulation.
 Regular crackers emit about 160 decibels of sound whereas green crackers’ emission rate is limited to 110-
125 decibels.
 To differentiate green crackers from traditional ones, a green logo and Quick Response (QR) have been
developed.
39. Answer: D
Explanation:
Common Sources of Lead Exposure:
 Lead in water from the use of leaded pipes;
 Lead from active industry, such as mining and the unsound recycling of used lead-acid batteries (ULABs);
 Lead-based paint and pigments;
 Leaded gasoline
 Lead solder in food cans; and
 Lead in spices, cosmetics, ayurvedic medicines, toys and other consumer products.
 Children are also exposed to lead in-utero through exposure of their mothers, with adverse impacts on neuro-
behavioural development.
40. Answer: C
Explanation:
Reasons for failure of Project:
 Statement 1 is correct: The field staff and tiger reserve management were not prepared.
 Statement 2 is correct: The major reason which contributed to the failure of the project was the lack of
confidence and trust-building between the forest department and the villagers.
 Statement 3 is correct: As per wildlife conservation activists and former forest officials from the state, the
translocation was done in haste.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: There was no Absence of prey.
 The capacity for tiger monitoring was poor.
 The local communities were not taken into confidence nor conveyed the benefits of tourism that tigers could
bring them.
 The arrival of the tigers was followed by severe protests by villagers living on the fringes of the reserve and
the matter eventually snowballing into a poll issue.
 The villagers feared the big cats would endanger their livelihoods, lives and livestock. They also alleged that
they were not consulted or informed prior to the translocation.
 Within months of the translocation, Mahavir (Tiger) was found dead and was killed in poaching.
41. Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to accelerate the introduction of FFVs, the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme has included
automobile and auto components of flex fuel engines.
o Flex fuel vehicles are similar to their conventional petrol-only counterparts, other than an ethanol-
compatible fuel system and a different powertrain (ECM) calibration.
o The engine is equipped with a fuel mix sensor and an engine control module (ECM) programming that
sense and automatically adjusts for any ratio of designated fuels.
Fuel Flex Vehicles:
 Pros:
▪ The use of ethanol blending reduces harmful pollutants such as carbon monoxide, sulphur, and carbon and
nitrogen oxides.
▪ Also reduces the country’s dependence on oil imports for fuelling vehicles.
 Cons:
▪ The fuel economy is generally lower (Not Higher) with increased levels of ethanol.
▪ Over 90% of ethanol produced in the country came from sugarcane, a water intensive crop.
42. Answer: D
Explanation:
Significance of the scheme:
● Affordability: Scheme will ensure affordable quality fertiliser of Bharat brand to the farmers. This scheme
will result in reduction of the cost of fertilisers and increase their availability. (Statement 1 is correct)
● Single branding: Competition among companies that push their brands will get reduced with this single
branding, which will ensure sufficient supply of fertilisers across the country. (Statement 2 is correct)
● Reduced freight charges: A single brand name will help in the reduction of freight charges due to stopping
of crisscross movement of fertilizers this will help in reducing the transit time. (Statement 3 is correct)
● Standardisation: This will standardise fertiliser brands across the nation irrespective of the company that
manufactures it.
● Stopping urea diversion: It will also stop the diversion of urea for industrial purposes.
One Nation One Fertilizer (ONOF) Scheme:
 The scheme is also known as “Pradhanmantri Bhartiya Janurvarak Pariyojna” (PMBJP).
 Under the “One Nation One Fertilizer” (ONOF) scheme, all manufacturers participating in the Center’s
fertilizer subsidy scheme will be required to use a single brand and logo for fertilizers.
 Under this, all types of fertilizers, including Di-ammonium Phosphate (DAP), Nitrogen, Phosphorus,
Potassium (NPK), and urea, will be sold under the brand name “Bharat”.
AIM: The initiative was taken to standardize fertilizer brands across the country irrespective of the company
manufacturing it.
43. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Global Lighthouse Network is a World Economic Forum initiative in
collaboration with McKinsey & Company.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Global Lighthouse Network is a community of over 100 manufacturers that are
showing leadership in applying Fourth Industrial Revolution technologies such as artificial intelligence, 3D
printing and big data analytics.
44. Answer: D
Explanation:
● It is a world-class telescope located near Nainital.
● The telescope at Manora Peak was established in 1972 when Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational
Sciences (ARIES), was known as the UP-State Observatory (UPSO).
● Statement 1 is correct: Breakthrough science results contributed by this telescope include the discovery of
new rings around Saturn and the rings of Uranus.
● Statement 2 is correct: This telescope also captured photo-electric images of stars. It has been extensively
used for optical observations of comets, occultation by planets and asteroids, star-forming regions and star
clusters, variable stars, transients, active galactic nuclei, etc.
● Statement 3 is correct: At same time,three identical telescopes were installed each at
o Kavalur in Karnataka
o Osmania University Hyderabad
o Nainital (Still Functioning, Oldest Telescope)
45. Answer: D
Explanation:
● It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
● National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) will be the implementing agency.
● Objective: To enable a large number of Indian Youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help
them in securing a better livelihood.
● This is the flagship scheme for skill training of youth PMKVY logo to be implemented by the new Ministry of
Skill Development and Entrepreneurship through the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC).
● The scheme will cover 10 million youth during the period 2016 -2020.
● Under this Scheme, Training and Assessment fees are completely paid by the Government.
● Skill training would be done based on the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF) and industry-led
standards.
46. Answer:
Explanation:
● Statement 3 is correct: One Health is an approach that recognizes that the health of people is closely
connected to the health of animals and our shared environment.
One Health is not new, but it has become more important in recent years. This is because many factors have
changed interactions between people, animals, plants, and our environment.
● Statement 1 is correct: One Health is a collaborative, multisectoral, and transdisciplinary approach working
at the local, regional, national, and global levels—with the goal of achieving optimal health outcomes
recognizing the interconnection between people, animals, plants, and their shared environment.
● Statement 2 is correct: The strategy, which is applicable from 2022 to 2026, aims to lessen the health issues
at the national, regional, and international levels
47. Answer: C
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct : Mangroves are plants that survive high salinity, tidal regimes, strong wind velocity,
high temperature and muddy anaerobic soil- a combination of conditions hostile for other plants.
 Statement 2 is correct : Mangrove vegetation grows so thickly that little else can grow underneath them.
 Statement 3 is correct : Mangrove is used to refer to both to the tree and to the ecosystem .
 Statement 4 is incorrect : Adaptations make it possible for mangroves to live in saline environments. As
facultative halophytes, mangroves do not require saltwater to survive. Most mangroves are capable of growing
in freshwater habitats, although most do not due to competition from other plants.
48. Answer: C
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The World Bank's Poverty and Shared Prosperity series provides the latest estimates
and trends in global poverty and shared prosperity.
 Poverty and Shared Prosperity is a biennial series that explores a central challenge to poverty reduction and
boosting shared prosperity, assessing what works well and what does not in different settings.
 Statement 2 is correct: The 2022 edition provides the first comprehensive look at the landscape of poverty
in the aftermath of an extraordinary series of shocks to the global economy. . By bringing together the latest
evidence, this corporate flagship report provides a foundation for informed advocacy around ending extreme
poverty and improving the lives of the poorest in every country in the world
49. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Minimum Support Prices (MSP) were first announced by the Indian government
in 1966–1967 for wheat. Following the Green Revolution, which may have led to a decline in wheat prices
that reduced farmers' profits, the MSP was later expanded to include many more commodities. Whatever the
market price for the products may be, it is the lowest price the government will pay farmers for their produce.
● Statement 2 is correct: Recent approval of the hike in the Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) for all Kharif
Crops of the 2016–17 Seasons came from the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. In addition, the
government of the nation has announced a bonus on these crops, payable in addition to the approved MSP, to
encourage the growth of pulses and oilseeds.
50. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: To achieve the target of ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’, robust coal evacuation infrastructure
is needed in the country.
● Statement 2 is correct: The domestic coal production capacity is estimated at 1,500 MTPA by 2030, which
may continue up to 2040 or beyond. Creating transport infrastructure and managing logistics to transport
targeted coal produced from point of origin to consumption centers are major challenges for the sustainable
development of coal in the country.
Challenges in coal evacuation are:
 Lack of investments in logistics infrastructure
 Higher coal logistics costs owing to inherent characteristics
 Non-availability of wagons and congestion on the rail network
 Limited coal transportation by alternate transportation models
 Limited logistics planning in multi-modal transportation.
51. Answer:A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: National Culture Fund (NCF), under the Ministry of Culture, aims at inviting the
participation of the Corporate Sector, Non-Government agencies, State Governments, Private/Public Sector
and individuals in the task of promoting, protecting and preserving India’s cultural heritage both tangible and
intangible.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: NCF was established as Trust under Charitable Endowment Act, 1890 as a funding
mechanism distinct from existing sources and patterns of funding for arts and culture in India. It comes under
the Ministry of Culture.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Union Government had granted a one-time corpus fund to NCF, apart from
this, there is no fund allocated to it from the government. It receives contributions and voluntary donations as
endowments from many other sources. Donations and contributions to NCF are eligible for 100% tax
deduction under Income Tax Act, 1961 subject to limits and conditions prescribed.
52. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: TB is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis, belonging to the
Mycobacteriaceae family consisting of about 200 members. Some of Mycobacteria cause diseases like TB and
Leprosy in humans and others infect a wide range of animals.
● Statement 2 is correct: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis is a pathogenic bacterial species and mainly comprises
of four other types of TB-causing bacteria namely:
1) Mycobacterium Bovis
2) Mycobacterium Canetti
3) Mycobacterium Microti
4) Mycobacterium Africanum
● Statement 3 is incorrect: In humans, TB most commonly affects the lungs (pulmonary TB), but it can also
affect other organs (extra-pulmonary TB).
● TB is a very ancient disease and has been documented to have existed in Egypt as early as 3000 BC. TB is a
treatable and curable disease.
● TB is spread from person to person through the air. When people with lung TB cough, sneeze or spit, they
propel the TB germs into the air.
● Common symptoms of active lung TB are cough with sputum and blood at times, chest pains, weakness,
weight loss, fever and night sweats.
● India’s Efforts to control TB are: National Strategic Plan (NSP) for Tuberculosis Elimination (2017-2025),
The Nikshay Ecosystem (National TB information system), Nikshay Poshan Yojana (NPY- financial
support), TB Harega Desh Jeetega Campaign.
53. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: International Driving Permit is an international travel document, regulated by the
United Nations, which allows a person to drive in a foreign country. According to the Convention on
International Road Traffic of 1949 (Geneva Convention) ,a country is required to issue IDP ,for the
acceptance of the same on reciprocal basis with other countries.
● Statement 2 is correct: The validity of this permit is for one year and the applicants are required to get the
licence from the country visiting within one year period.
● Statement 3 is correct: Convention on International Road Traffic of 1949 (Geneva Convention) is an
international treaty promoting the development and safety of international road traffic by establishing certain
uniform rules among the contracting parties. It was prepared and opened for signature by the United Nations
Conference on Road and Motor Transport held at Geneva from 23 August to 19 September 1949. It came into
force on 26 March 1952.
54. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an indicator that measures the changes in the
volume of production of industrial products during a given period. Base Year for IIP is 2011-2012.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: It is compiled and published monthly (not quarterly basis) by the National
Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
● Statement 3 is correct: Numerous government organizations and departments take the help of the Index of
Industrial Production for making various policies. It includes the RBI, the Finance Ministry, and many other
government agencies. The Index of Industrial Production is a significant source for predicting advanced
GDP estimates.
55. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The IIBX was announced in the 2020 Union Budget, It is a platform that not only
enrolls jewelers to trade on the exchange, but has also set up necessary infrastructure to store physical gold
and silver.
● Statement 2 is correct: It is India’s first international bullion exchange. It offers a diversified portfolio of
products and technology services at a cost far more competitive than the Indian exchanges as well as other
global exchanges in Singapore, Dubai, Hongkong, New York and London.
● Statement 3 is correct: International Financial Services Centers Authority (IFSCA) is the regulator of
IIBX.
o The PM laid the foundation stone of the headquarters building of the International Financial Services
Centers Authority (IFSCA) in GIFT City, Gandhinagar.
o The IFSCA works as a unified authority for the development and regulation of financial products,
financial services and financial institutions at the IFSC at GIFT city in Gandhinagar
56. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Gold ETF, which aim to track the domestic physical gold price, are passive
investment instruments that are based on gold prices and invest in gold bullion.
● Statement 2 is correct: Gold ETFs are units representing physical gold which may be in paper or
dematerialised form.
o One gold ETF unit is equal to 1 gram of gold and is backed by physical gold of very high purity.
o They combine the flexibility of stock investment and the simplicity of gold investments.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: No wealth tax, no security transaction tax, no VAT and no sales tax is levied on
ETFs. Gold ETFs are units representing physical gold which may be in paper or dematerialised form.
o One gold ETF unit is equal to 1 gram of gold and is backed by physical gold of very high purity.
o They combine the flexibility of stock investment and the simplicity of gold investments.
57. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The ECA Act 1955 was legislated at a time when the country was facing a scarcity
of foodstuffs due to persistent low levels of foodgrains production. The country was dependent on imports
and assistance (such as wheat import from the US under PL-480) to feed the population. To prevent
hoarding and black marketing of foodstuffs, the Essential Commodities Act was enacted in 1955.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no specific definition of essential commodities in the Essential
Commodities Act, 1955. Section 2(A) of the Act states that an “essential commodity” means a commodity
specified in the Schedule of the Act.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Act gives powers to the central government to add or remove a commodity in
the Schedule. The Centre, if it is satisfied that it is necessary to do so in the public interest, can notify an
item as essential, in consultation with state governments.
58. Answer:A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: CAROTAR, 2020 set guidelines for enforcement of the ‘rules of origin’ for
allowing preferential rate on imports under Free Trade Agreements. They supplement the existing
operational certification procedures prescribed under different trade agreements.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: They were notified in August, 2020 by the Ministry of Finance.
● Statement 3 is correct: An importer is required to do due diligence before importing the goods to ensure
that they meet the prescribed originating criteria. An importer will have to enter certain origin related
information in the Bill of Entry, as available in the Certificate of Origin. Importers will have to ensure that
imported goods meet the prescribed ‘rules of origin’ provisions for availing concessional rate of customs
duty under Free Trade Agreements (FTAs).
59. Answer:A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: When the overall output of goods and services, which is typically measured by
the Gross Domestic Product (GDP), decreases from one quarter to another, the economy is said to be in a
phase of a technical recession. In simpler words, a technical recession is two quarters in a row of economic
contraction.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Only GDP is the criteria to measure technical recession. It lasts for a shorter
period of time.
60. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Off-budget borrowings are loans that are taken not by the Centre directly, but by
another public institution which borrows on the directions of the central government.
o Such borrowings are used to fulfill the government’s expenditure needs.
o But since the liability of the loan is not formally on the Centre, the loan is not included in the national
fiscal deficit.
● Statement 2 is correct: Since the responsibility for repayment lies with states, it adversely impacts their
revenue and fiscal deficit.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: As per norms, state governments are required to take the Centre’s approval for
fresh borrowing over the limit set for a particular financial year. The Centre has fixed the net borrowing
ceiling of states at Rs 8,57,849 crore or 3.5 per cent of GSDP. States are also eligible for additional borrowing
of 0.50 per cent of GSDP linked to reforms in the power sector.
61. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: As per the Mine and Minerals Development Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2015,
in every district affected by mining-related operations, the state government shall, by notification,
establish a trust as a non-profit body to be called the District Mineral Foundation.
● Statement 2 is correct: A District Mineral Foundation (DMF) is responsible for implementing the
Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY) and other schemes in areas where mining is
carried out.
● Statement 3 is correct: The District Collector will be the Managing Trustee.
● DMF will comprise a Board of Trustees with the following members –
● Revenue Divisional Commissioner or Collector who will act as the Chairperson (to be finalised by the State
Government).
● Collector, provided he is not the Chairperson.
● Additional District Magistrate and District Level Officers of the following departments will be ex-officio
members.
1. Steel and Mines
2. Forest and Environment
3. Rural Development
4. Works
5. ST and SC Development
6. Health and Family Welfare Departments, and of such other Departments as the government sees fit to
include.
● Members of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly in whose constituency any major mineral concession
exists are also invited to be ex-officio members.
62. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The right to life (Article 21) has been used in a diversified manner in India. It
includes, inter alia, the right to survive as a species, quality of life, the right to live with dignity and the right
to livelihood. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution states: 'No person shall be deprived of his life or personal
liberty except according to procedures established by law.
● Statement 2 is correct: In resolution it demonstrates that, Every person on the planet has the right to live in a
clean, healthy environment. Climate change and environmental degradation are the most critical threats
awaiting humanity in the future. It demonstrates that the member states can unite in the collective fight against
the triple planetary crisis of climate change, biodiversity loss and pollution.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The declaration adopted by over 160 UN member nations, including India, is
not legally binding. But, it will encourage countries to incorporate the right to a healthy environment in
national constitutions and regional treaties. Russia and Iran abstained from voting.
63. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The bill Empowers the Centre to specify norms and standards of energy
efficiency for appliances, industrial equipment and buildings with a connected load over 100 kiloWatts
(kW) or a contractual demand of more than 120 kilovolt-amperes (kVA).
● Statement 2 is correct: The Government can issue energy savings certificates to those industries which
consume less than their maximum allotted energy. However, this certificate can be sold to customers who
consume higher than their maximum allowed energy threshold – providing for a framework for energy
trading.
● Statement 3 is correct: Consumers who utilise excess energy will be penalized according to their excess
consumption. Any appeals against any such order passed by the Central or state government will be heard
by the appellate tribunal already established under the Electricity Act, 2003.
64. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: AlphaFold is an Artificial Intelligence-based protein structure prediction tool. It is
based on a computer system called Deep Neural Network.
o Neural networks use a large amount of input data and provide the desired output exactly like how a
human brain would.
o The real work is done by the black box between the input and the output layers, called the Hidden
Networks.
● Statement 2 is incorrect:AlphaFold is neither flawless nor the only AI-based protein structure
prediction tool. RoseTTaFold, developed by University of Washington in Seattle, U.S., is another tool.
Although less accurate than AlphaFold, it can predict the structure of protein complexes.
Working Mechanism:
 It uses processes based on “training, learning, retraining and relearning.”
 The first step uses the available structures of 1,70,000 proteins in the Protein Data Bank (PDB) to train the
computer model. Then, it uses the results of that training to learn the structural predictions of proteins not in
the PDB.
 Once that is done, it uses the high-accuracy predictions from the first step to retrain and relearn to gain higher
accuracy of the earlier predictions.
65. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Data Sonification refers to the use of sound values to represent real data. It is the
auditory version of data visualisation. In NASA’s Chandra (sonification) project, for instance, data is
represented using a number of musical notes.
● Statement 2 is correct: Telescopes in space collect digital data, in the form of ones and zeroes (binary),
before converting them into images. The images are visual representations of light and radiation of different
wavelengths in space, that can’t be seen by the human eye.
● Statement 3 is correct: The sonification project was led by the Chandra X-ray Center in collaboration with
NASA’s Universe of Learning Program (UoL), which aims to “incorporate NASA science content into the
learning environment effectively and efficiently for learners of all ages”.
66. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct:The process of connecting radio towers with each other via optical fibre cables is
called fiberisation. A fiber optic cable is a network cable that contains strands of glass fibers inside an
insulated casing. They're designed for long-distance, high-performance data networking, and
telecommunications.
● Statement 2 is incorrect:Government programmes like BharatNet and Smart Cities adds to the demand of
fibre deployment, necessitating a complete tower fiberisation. India laid out the vision in 2020 to connect
every village in the country with optical fiber cable (OFC) in 1,000 days. To achieve that vision, cables must
be laid at a speed of 1,251 km a day, around 3.6 times the current average speed of 350 km a day.
● Statement 3 is incorrect:To transition into 5G, India needs at least 16 times more fibre, according to
estimates by STL, a technology company specialised in optical fibers and cables. India at present connects
only 30% of India’s telecom towers.
o India exported optical fibre worth USD138 million to over 132 countries between April 2020 and
November 2021. 
o Indian optical fibre cable consumption is predicted to increase to 33 million fibre km by 2026 from 17
million fibre km in 2021. 
o A little more than 30% of mobile towers have fibre connectivity; this needs to be scaled up to at least 80%.
67. Answer: C
Explanation:
● An MP or MLA who is not a Minister; whether from the ruling party or not, is a private member.
o A private member resolution can be introduced by any private member and if the resolution passed, it
becomes an expression of the House. (Statement 1 is correct)
o It is different from a private member bill which would become law if approved by the house. (Statement
2 is correct)
● Last year, during farm law agitation, Private member resolutions were passed by the State Assemblies of
Punjab and Kerala, to express their displeasure against the farm laws.
68. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: A pileus cloud is usually formed over a cumulus or cumulonimbus cloud. It is formed
when the base cloud pushes a moist current of air upwards and the water vapor from the current condenses to
somewhat resemble wave-like crests, or umbrellas.
● Statement 3 is correct: In popular western culture, it is called an “accessory cloud” that is “rather like a
cloud haircut”. A pileus cloud is transient in nature and lasts barely for a few minutes, making it difficult, and
at the same time, exciting, to spot.
● Statement 2 is correct: Cloud iridescence or Irisation is an optical phenomenon that mostly occurs in wave-
like clouds, including pileus and Altocumulus lenticularis. Iridescence in clouds means the appearance of
colours on clouds, which can either be in the form of parallel bands like in a rainbow, or mingled in patches.
69. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Union Minority Affairs Minister has inaugurated a national conference of
Central Wakf Council(CWC) in New Delhi (not in lucknow). The minister said here that the Central
Government has set a target to achieve 100% digitisation of Waqf properties across the country in its first 100
days.There are more than 6 lakh registered Waqf properties across the country.
● Statement 2 is incorrect:Central Wakf Council is a statutory body established in 1964 by the
Government of India under Wakf Act,1954. The council advises the government on matters pertaining to
the working of the State Wakf Boards and proper administration of the Wakfs in the country.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Wakf is a permanent dedication of movable or immovable properties for religious,
pious or charitable purposes as recognized by Muslim Law, given by philanthropists.
70. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by
the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members. These privileges are defined in Article
105 of the Indian Constitution. Under these privileges, the members of Parliament are exempted from any
civil liability (but not criminal liability) for any statement made or act done in the course of their duties.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The members enjoy freedom from arrest in any civil case 40 days before and after
the adjournment of the house and also when the house is in session. (It does not include criminal cases)
● Statement 3 is incorrect: If the detention of any members of the parliament is made, the chairman or the
speaker should be informed by the concerned authority, of the reason for the arrest.But a member can be
arrested outside the limits of the house on criminal charges against him under the Preventive Detention act,
the Essential Services Maintenance Act (ESMA), the National Security Act (NSA), or any such act.
71. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bal Aadhaar, a precursor to a standard Aadhaar, is issued in blue colour to
children aged up to five. Upon expiration, a regular Aadhaar is issued. Bal Aadhaar is issued by the Unique
Identification Authority of India (UIDAI). Bal Aadhaar is issued with a remark that this is valid till the child
attains the age of 5 years
● Statement 2 is correct: Bal Aadhaar works as a facilitator in availing several welfare benefits, and also works
as a digital photo identity for children.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Biometrics to establish uniqueness for the Bal Aadhar is not collected unlike in the
case of Aadhaar. A facial image of a child is instead taken for enrolment. Biometric authentication of the
parent/guardian and a proof of relationship document, preferably a birth certificate, are collected at the time of
enrolment.
72. Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct. When a central bank is successful in slowing down the economy without bringing
about a recession, it is called soft landing — that is, no one gets hurt. But when the actions of the central bank
bring about a recession, it is called hard-landing.
Statement 2 is not correct. Inversion of the bond yield curve has become a strong predictor of
Recessions, if such an inversion lasts for several months. Under normal circumstances, any economy would have
an upward sloping yield curve. That is to say, as one lends for a longer duration — or as one buys bonds of longer
tenure — one gets higher yields. Moreover, a longer tenure also implies that there is a greater risk of failure.
Inverted Yield Curve: There are times when this bond yield curve becomes inverted. For instance, bonds with a
tenure of 2 years end up paying out higher yields (returns/ interest rate) than bonds with a 10-year tenure. Such an
inversion of the yield curve essentially suggests that investors expect future growth to be weak.
73. Answer: A
Explanation:
 Statement 1 and 2 are correct. Masala Bonds, like any other off-shore bonds, are debt instruments that help
to raise money in local currency from foreign investors. Both the government and private entities can issue
these bonds. According to RBI, the maturity period is three years for the bonds raised to the rupee equivalent
of 50 million dollars in a financial year and the maturity period is five years for the bonds raised above the
rupee equivalent of 50 million dollars in a financial year.
 Statement 3 is not correct. As the ‘masala bonds’ are rupee-denominated bonds, the foreign exchange
fluctuations would not affect these bonds. Thus, if the rupee rate falls, the investor will bear the loss and not
the borrower.
74. Answer: B
Explanation
 Statement 1 and 3 are not correct. Digital Banks or DBs are full-scale banks to be licensed under the
Banking Regulation Act. Unlike traditional banks, which require brick-and-mortar infrastructure or physical
access points, digital banks simply leverage technology to provide banking services through mobile
applications and internet-based platforms. DBs behave like any other scheduled commercial bank like
accepting deposits, giving loans etc. They will follow all prudential and liquidity norms at par with the
commercial banks.
 Statement 2 is correct. They are example of Neo Banks. A neobank is a kind of digital bank without any
branches. Rather than being physically present at a specific location, neobanking is entirely online. Neobanks
are financial institutions that give customers a cheaper alternative to traditional banks. They leverage
technology and artificial intelligence to offer personalised services to customers while minimising operating
costs. Neobanks entered the financial system with the tag of 'challenger banks' because they challenged the
complex infrastructure and client on boarding process of traditional banks.
75. Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1, 2 and 4 are not correct. For the first time, in the 11th Agricultural Census, the data will be
collected through smart phones and tablets. The first edition of the census was conducted in 1970-71.
The agricultural census is the main source of information on a variety of parameters, such as the number and area
of operational holdings, their size, class-wise distribution, land use, tenancy and cropping pattern, etc. The basic
unit of data collection in Agriculture Census is the operational holding.
Statement 3 is correct. The Agriculture Census is conducted every 5 years by the Department of Agriculture,
Cooperation and Farmers Welfare under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
76. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct. Twin deficit refers to a nation’s current account deficit and a simultaneous fiscal
deficit.
Fiscal Deficit - It is the shortfall in a government's income compared with its spending. Reasons for its Deficit:
Increasingexpenditures (e.g. Fertiliser Subsidy),Reduced revenues due to pandemic,excise duty cuts on diesel and
petrol etc.
Current Account Deficit - One of the two main accounts in theBalance of Payments (BoP), CAD (orSurplus)
records exports and imports in goods and services and transfer payments of a country. Reasons for its Deficit:
Increased energy imports and Global Commodity Prices (e.g. crude oil, edible oils), Higher domestic demand and
Uncompetitive Exports.
Statement 2 is correct.In following way twin deficit can be controlled -

● Rationalising non-capex expenditures
● Fiscal Consolidation through tight monetary policy.
● Import substitution/cuts, especially fossil fuels and nonessential goods.
● Fair valuation of Rupee for competitive exports.
● Ease of Doing Business reforms for continued Capital inflows.
Statement 3 is correct. Fiscal Slippage in simple terms is any deviation in expenditure from the expected. For
example let’s say a trader wishes to buy a certain stock at Rs.10 and 1000 in number. Fiscal deficit can cause
fiscal slippage.
77. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. CAQM is a statutory body formed under the Commission for Air Quality
Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas, Act 2021. It aims to ensure better coordination,
research, identification and resolution of problems surrounding the air quality index and for matters connected
therewith or incidental thereto. Adjoining areas have been defined as areas in the states of Haryana, Punjab,
Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh adjoining the NCR where any source of pollution may cause an adverse impact on
air quality in the NCR.
The commission envisages for consolidated approach towards monitoring, elimination of pollution sources and
enforcement. The commission will have the power to coordinate with relevant state and central governments on
the multi-sector plan including industry, power plants, agriculture, transport, residential and construction.
Statement 2 is incorrect . The Commission is chaired by a Chairperson who should be a person with experience
of not less than 15 years in the field of environmental protection and pollution control or having administrative
experience of not less than 25 years.
78. Answer: B
Explanation:
Only statement 1 is correct and all other statements are not correct. The Ministry of Environment, Forests
and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) has notified amendments to the Environmental Impact Assessment(EIA) Rules,
making several exemptions to gaining environmental clearance. Following are the amendments made -
● Highway projects of strategic and defence importance ➔ The amendment exempt Highway projects of
strategic and defence importance, which are 100 km from the Line of Control, among other locations, from an
environmental clearance before construction.
● The exemption to be accorded to highways of strategic importance does away with the need for green
clearance for the construction of the controversial Char Dham project. The case is presently being heard in
Supreme Court, which has set up a high-powered committee to look into the matter.
● Biomass-Based Thermal Power Plants - Thermal power plants up to 15 MW based on biomass or non-
hazardous municipal solid waste using auxiliary fuel such as coal, lignite or petroleum products up to 15%
have also been exempted — as long as the fuel mix is eco-friendly.
● Fish Handling Ports and Harbour - Fish handling ports and harbours with less pollution potential compared to
others, and caters to small fishermen, are exempted from environmental clearance.
● Toll Plazas - Toll plazas that need more width for installation of toll collection booths to cater to a large
number of vehicles, and expansion activities in existing airports related to terminal building expansion without
an increase in the airport’s existing area, rather than expansion of runways, etc., are two other projects
exempted.
79. Answer: D
Explanation:
\Statement 1 is not correct. There is no F Virus. Usually caused by a group of viruses known as the “hepatotropic” (liver
directed) viruses, including A, B, C, D and E. Other viruses may also cause it, such as the varicella virus that causes
chicken pox. SARS-CoV-2, the virus causing Covid-19 may injure the liver, too. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Other
causes include drugs and alcohol abuse, fat buildup in the liver (fatty liver hepatitis) or an autoimmune process in which a
person’s body makes antibodies that attack the liver (autoimmune hepatitis).
Statement 3 is not correct. Hepatitis A and E are self-limiting diseases (i.e. go away on their own) and require no
specific antiviral medications. For Hepatitis B and C, effective medications are available.
Statement 4 is correct. Hepatitis B is included under India's Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) which
provides free of cost vaccination against eleven (excluding Hepatitis B) vaccine-preventable diseases i.e.
Tuberculosis, Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Pneumonia and Meningitis due to Haemophilus Influenzae
type b (Hib), Measles, Rubella, Japanese Encephalitis (JE) and Rotavirus diarrhoea. Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal
and Thailand became the first four countries in the World Health Organization’s Southeast Asia region to have
successfully controlled Hepatitis B.
80. Answer: C
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. A cloudburst refers to an extreme amount of rain that happens in a short period,
sometimes accompanied by hail and thunder. India Meteorological Department(IMD) defines a Cloudburst as
unexpected precipitation exceeding 100 mm (or 10 cm) per hour over a geographical region of approximately 20
to 30 square km. All instances of cloudbursts involve heavy rain in a short period but all instances of heavy rain in
a short period are not cloudbursts if they do not fit this criterion. The relative humidity and cloud cover are at the
maximum level with low temperature and slow winds because of which a high amount of clouds may get
condensed at a very rapid rate and result in a cloudburst.
81. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct. The Large Hadron Collider is a giant, complex machine built to study particles that
are the smallest known building blocks of all things. It is a 27-km-long track-loop buried 100 meters underground
on the Swiss-French border. It is Built by European Organization for Nuclear Research(CERN) between 1998
and 2008 in collaboration with over 10,000 scientists from hundreds of universities and laboratories. It is the
world’s largest and most powerful particle accelerator.
Statement 2 is correct. When you deal with nuclear physics, we usually come across matter that is made up of
particles such as protons, neutrons, and electrons. These particles are made up of subatomic particles called
Quarks.
Statement 3 is correct : A quark is a type of elementary particle and a fundamental constituent of matter and
when three quarks combine they produce a composite particle known as Hadron.
82. Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct. It is an winter phenomenon and not summers. Azores High is a subtropical high
pressure system that extends over the eastern subtropical North Atlantic and western Europe during winter. It is
associated with anticyclonic winds in the subtropical NorthAtlantic.
Statement 2 is correct. It is formed by dry air aloft descending the subtropics and coincides
with the downward branch of the Hadley Circulation. A Hadley Cells are the low-latitude overturning circulations
that have air rising at the equator and air sinking at roughly 30° latitude. They are responsible for the trade winds
in the Tropics and control low-latitude weather patterns. Hadley cells could extend all the way to the poles.
Statement 3 is correct. Following are the impact of it – An annual drying of 5-10 millimetres per year per decade
has been recorded in the Iberian Peninsula throughout the second half of the 20th century. A further 10-20% drop
in winter precipitation is expected by the end of the 21st century. These projected changes make agriculture of the
Iberian region some of the most vulnerable in Europe.
83. Answer:B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect. A service charge is a tip or a direct transaction between the customer and the
restaurant staff, specifically the wait staff. It is a fee collected to pay for services associated with the purchase
of a primary product or service. It is collected by hospitality sectors and food and beverage industries as a fee
for serving customers.
 Statement 2 is correct. No hotel or restaurant shall force a consumer to pay the service charge and shall
clearly inform the consumer that the service charge is voluntary, optional, and at the consumer’s discretion.
 Statement 3 is incorrect. Service charge shall not be collected from consumers by any other name.
84. Answer: A
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India has approved a government resolution for establishing the
Financial Services Institutions Bureau(FSIB) in place of the Banks Board Bureau(BBB).
 Statement 2 is correct. As a body of eminent professionals and officials to make recommendations for the
appointment of whole-time directors as well as non-executive chairpersons of public sector banks(PSBs) and
state-owned financial institutions
 Statement 3 is not correct. FSIB will do the same job but with a much larger, legally tenable mandate. It will be a
single entity for making recommendations for the appointments of whole-time directors, non-executive chairman in
Public Sector Banks(PSBs), state-run non-life insurance companies and other financial institutions.
85. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct. It allowed Indians to receive up to Rs 10 lakh annually from their relatives abroad
under FCRA. The limit earlier was Rs 1 lakh.
 Statement 2 is incorrect. Organizations receiving foreign funds will not be able to use more than 20% of
such funds for administrative purposes. This limit was 50% before 2020.
 Statement 3 is correct. FCRA has given individuals and organizations or NGOs 45 days to inform the ministry about
bank account(s) that are to be used for the utilization of such funds. This time limit was 30 days earlier.
86. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect. The Act recognizes the Rights of Self-cultivation and habitation which are usually
regarded as Individual rights. It also recognizes community Rights such as Grazing, Fishing and access to
Water bodies in forests, Habitat Rights for PVTGs, community right to intellectual property and traditional
knowledge or recognition of traditional customary rights.
 Statement 2 is correct. It also provides rights to the allocation of forest land for developmental purposes to
fulfill the basic infrastructural needs of the community.
 Statement 3 is correct. The Act further enjoins upon the Gram Sabha and rights holders the responsibility of
conservation and protection of biodiversity, wildlife, forests as well as to stop any destructive practices
affecting these resources or cultural and natural heritage of the tribal.
 The Gram Sabha is also a highly empowered body under the Act, enabling the tribal population to have a
decisive say in the determination of local policies and schemes impacting them.
87. Answer: A
Explanation:
Electromagnetic Waves are the electromagnetic spectrum in which electric and magnetic field vectors change
sinusoidal and are perpendicular to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
Electromagnetic waves are synchronized oscillations of electric and magnetic fields. The waves travel at the speed
of light while in a vacuum, the speed being commonly denoted as c.
A transverse wave is formed when oscillations of the two fields are perpendicular to each other and perpendicular
to the direction of energy and wave propagation, while the material it passes through has a homogeneous
composition.
The position of an electromagnetic wave within the spectrum can be characterized by either its frequency of
movement to and fro or its wavelength.
Electromagnetic waves of different frequencies are called by different names since they have different sources and
effects on matter. In order of increasing frequency and decreasing wavelength, these are radio waves, microwaves,
infrared radiation, visible light, ultraviolet radiation, X-rays, and gamma rays.
88. Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Co-operative Banks are legal entities with proper regulatory and administrative
mechanism, while Co-operative credit societies do not have any well established procedures. They simply
registered under Registrar Genera. Both are registered under either Co-operatives societies act of respective
states or Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002
What are Co-operative banks in India?
● Co-operative Banks are divided into two categories – urban and rural.
● Rural cooperative credit institutions could either be short-term or long-term in nature.
● Short-term cooperative credit institutions are further sub-divided into State Co-operative Banks, District
Central Co-operative Banks, Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.
● The long-term institutions are either State Cooperative Agriculture and Rural Development Banks
(SCARDBs) or Primary Cooperative Agriculture and Rural Development Banks (PCARDBs).
● On the other hand, Urban Co-operative Banks (UBBs) are either scheduled or non-scheduled banks.
Co-operative Banks Regulation and Management
● Cooperative banks are registered under the States Cooperative Societies Act.
● They are registered and regulated by the Registrar of Co-operative Societies of the respective State
governments and by the Central Registrar of Co-operative Societies if these entities function in more than one
State.
● These banks also come under the regulatory ambit of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under two laws,
namely, the Banking Regulation Act 1949 and the Banking Laws (Co-operative Societies) Act, 1955.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Government has brought an ordinance amending the Banking Regulation 1949 Act
allowing Cooperative Credit societies to perform Banking activities .
89. Answer: C
Explanation:
The Central Government and the Board as the case may be, while exercising its powers, discharging its functions,
or undertaking any other activity under this Act, shall be guided by the following objectives, namely: -
(a) Optimizing production, sale, and consumption of Coffee, which may include: -
(i) promoting the export of Coffee;
(ii) promoting the sale and consumption of Coffee, including through e-commerce platforms;
(iii) promoting the quality of Coffee which is grown and consumed in India, and exported from India
with a view to enhancing consumer satisfaction and benefits to the Coffee industry;
(iv) promoting and furthering the interests of growers, curers, exporters, and other stakeholders in the
Coffee industry;
(v) assisting in the transfer of technology relevant to Coffee to growers, curers, and other entities carrying on
business in the Coffee industry;
(vi) promoting the sustainable cultivation of Coffee;
(vii) Increasing production of Coffee by bringing more suitable areas across India (viii)Increasing productivity
of Coffee to ensure remunerative income to growers;
(ix) providing support and encouragement to growers, including transfer of technology;
(x) encouraging fair and remunerative prices for growers;
(xi) safeguarding the interests of Coffee plantation workers; (xii) enhancing the capacity of Coffee
communities;
(xiii) Developing a sustainable Coffee sector in economic, social, and environmental terms; and
(xiv) Increasing awareness among the general public about the Coffee industry in India.
Hence, only option 4 is correct.
90. Answer: D
Explanation:
● According to the CERN release, most exotic hadrons discovered in the past two decades are tetraquarks or
pentaquarks containing a charm quark and a charm antiquark — with the remaining two or three quarks being
an up, down or strange quark or their antiquarks.
● Statement 1 is correct: Quarks are elementary particles that come in six “flavors”: up, down, charm, strange,
top, and bottom.
● Statement 2 is correct: They usually combine together in groups of twos and threes to form hadrons such as
the protons and neutrons that make up atomic nuclei.
● Statement 3 is correct: But they can also combine into four-quark and five-quark particles called tetraquarks
and pentaquarks.
● Open charm means that the particle contains a charm quark without an equivalent antiquark.
91. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement (a) 1 is Incorrect. It is a widespread, long-lived, straight-line wind storm that is associated with a
fast moving group of severe thunderstorms known as a mesoscale convective system
● Statement (b) is Correct. A warm-weather phenomenon, derechos occur mostly in summer, especially
during June, July, and August in the Northern Hemisphere (or March, April, and May in the Southern
Hemisphere), within areas of moderately strong instability and moderately strong vertical wind shear.
● Statement (c) is Incorrect. However, derechos may occur at any time of the year, and can occur as frequently
at night as during the day
● Statement (d) is Incorrect. Some states of USA were hit by a storm system called a derecho.
92. Answer: D
Explanation:
● India imports almost 85% of its petroleum needs, and due to rising oil prices, the country's import bill doubled
to $119 billion in the year that ended in March 2022. Increased import costs also cause inflation, a widening
current account and fiscal deficit, a decline in the value of the rupee against the dollar, and negative sentiment
on the stock market.
● A rise in crude oil prices also has an indirect effect on India because it raises the cost of coal, fertiliser, and
edible oils because these products utilise gas as a feedstock. Eighty percent of the total cost of producing
fertiliser is gas.
● Therefore, if an increase in crude oil prices could result in a significantly increased import burden, it leads to
reduction in demand in the economy which hurts growth. It could also lead to higher fiscal deficit if the
government chooses to bear the burden by way of subsidies.
93. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Vembanad Lake is one of the largest lakes in Kerala and the longest lake in the country. It is the second
largest wetland system in India after the Sunderbans in West Bengal.
● It is also known as Punnamada Lake, Kochi Lake, Vembanad Kayal and Vembanad Kol. The lake has its
source in four rivers, Meenachil, Achankoil, Pampa and Manimala. The lake lays right by the Arabian Sea,
with a narrow reef separating it from the sea.
● Recognition:
o The government of India has recognised the wetland under the National Wetlands Conservation
Programme.
o In 2002, it was included in the list of wetlands of international importance, as defined by the Ramsar
Convention.
● Geographical Features in the Lake –
o The Pathiramanal island or the Midnight sands is a small beautiful island in the Lake.
o The Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary is located on the east coast of the lake.
o In 2019, Willingdon Island, a seaport located in the city of Kochi, was carved out of Vembanad Lake.
o The 1252 m long saltwater barrier, Thanneermukkom, was built to stop saltwater intrusion into Kuttanad.
o The Nehru Trophy Boat Race (Vallam Kali) is a Snake Boat Race hosted in the lake every year in the
month of August.
94. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: In ‘shallow-water mining’, metals such as gold, cobalt and copper are mined from
depths of 200 m below the sea. In ‘deep-sea mining’, valuable minerals are mined from ocean depths greater
than 200 m.
● Statement 2 is correct: Generally, shallow-water mining is considered a relatively low-risk and low-cost
option to satisfy the demand for metals and minerals. A new study by the University of Helsinki points out
shallow-water mining is not a ‘silver bullet’ to resolve growing global need for metals. It has highlighted that
the shallow-water mining also could trigger local extinctions of marine species. This is because extracting
minerals from the shallow-water ocean floor requires dredging large amounts of sediment. Removing this
sediment, which take thousands of years to accumulate, means removing the organisms that call it home.
95. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Precision agriculture (PA) is a farming management concept based on observing, measuring and responding to
inter- and intra-field variability in crops. PA is also sometimes referred to as precision farming, satellite
agriculture, as-needed farming and site-specific crop management (SSCM).
● Precision agriculture uses information technology (IT) to ensure that crops and soil receive exactly what they
need for optimum health and productivity. This also ensures profitability, sustainability and protection of the
environment. It considers aspects such as soil type, terrain, weather, plant growth and yield data when
managing crops.
● Following are the benefits of Precision agriculture:
o Increases agriculture productivity.
o Prevents soil degradation.
o Reduction of chemical application in crop production.
o Efficient use of water resources.
o Dissemination of modern farm practices to improve quality, quantity and reduced cost of production.
o Developing favourable attitudes.
● One of the biggest challenges is data management. The sheer volume of data collected by precision agriculture
sensors can be overwhelming, and it's difficult to make sense of it all.
● Another challenge is integrating all the different data sources. There are a lot of different data sets involved in
precision agriculture, and it's difficult to get them all to work together.
● Finally, precision agriculture requires a significant investment in technology. The equipment and software
required for precision agriculture can be expensive, and it takes time to learn how to use it all effectively.
96. Answer: D
Explanation:
National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013:
● To provide for food and nutritional security in the human life cycle approach, by ensuring access to adequate
quantities of quality food at affordable prices to people to live a life with dignity.
The Act provides coverage for nearly 2/3rd of the country’s total population, based on Census 2011 population
estimates.
The eldest woman of the beneficiary household (18 years or above) is considered ‘Head of Family’ for the
purpose of issuing ration cards. NFSA assigns joint responsibilities to the federal and state governments.
● Statement 1 is Incorrect: The NFSA mandates the centre with the responsibility of allocating and
transporting food grains to designated depots in the states and UTs.
● Statement 2 is Incorrect: The centre must provide central assistance to states/UTs for the distribution of food
grains from authorized FCI godowns to the doorsteps of Fair Price Shops.
● States and union territories are responsible for identifying eligible households, issuing ration cards,
distributing foodgrain entitlements through fair price shops, licensing and monitoring Fair Price Shop (FPS)
dealers, establishing an effective grievance redress mechanism, and strengthening the Targeted Public
Distribution System (TPDS).
● Statement 3 is correct: The National Food Security Act (2013) also includes provisions for Targeted Public
Distribution System reforms, such as cash transfers for food entitlement provisioning.
97. Answer: A
Explanation:
● It all started with the theft of jewelry and other valuable gems from the palace of Prince Faisal bin Fahd, the
eldest son of King Fahd of Saudi Arabia, in 1989.
● Kriangkrai Techamong, a Thai worker employed as a servant at the palace, stole precious gems worth $20
million from Prince Faisal’s home, which also included a rare 50-carat blue diamond, which is still missing.
● The ensuing diplomatic repercussion was thus named after the gem.
● Hence, it is a dispute between the country of Thailand and Saudi Arabia.
● Three decades after diplomatic relations between Thailand and Saudi Arabia broke down over the 'Blue
Diamond Affair', the countries are working to mend ties.
● Saudi Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman met Thailand’s prime minister recently in Bangkok and signed
agreements to expand diplomatic relations between the two countries.
● The relations were restored only earlier this year, three decades after a high-profile jewellery theft, also known
as the Blue Diamond Affair, snapped ties between the two nations.
98. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect:The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has notified the National Bioenergy
Programme in November 2022. MNRE has continued the National Bioenergy Programme for the period from
FY 2021-22 to 2025-26. The Programme has been recommended for implementation in two Phases:
o The Phase-I of the Programme has been approved with a budget outlay of Rs. 858 crores.
The National Bioenergy Programme will comprise the following sub-schemes:
o Waste to Energy Programme
o It is Programme on Energy from Urban, Industrial and Agricultural Wastes /Residues to support the
setting up of large Biogas, BioCNG and Power plants.
o Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) will be the implementing agency for the
program.
o Biomass Programme
o It is a Scheme to Support Manufacturing of Briquettes & Pellets and Promotion of Biomass (non-bagasse)
based cogeneration in Industries to support setting up of pellets and briquettes for use in power generation
and non-bagasse based power generation projects.
o Biogas Programme
o To support setting up of family and medium size Biogas in rural areas.
● Statement 3 is incorrect:Bioenergy is not entirely clean: While biomass is carbon neutral, the use of animal
and human waste escalates the amount of methane gases, which are also damaging to the environment.
Additionally, the pollution created from burning wood and other natural materials can be considered just as
bad as that resulting from burning coal and other types of energy resources.
99. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option D is correct: Countries around the world have varying greenhouse gas emissions policies to help limit
climate change, with some stricter than others. Carbon leakage refers to a situation where a company decides
to move their production from a country with stringent policies, to a country that is more lenient, leading to an
increase in greenhouse gas emissions.
● While some countries and states strive to reduce their contributions to global climate change, there are
legitimate concerns that stricter pollution regulations come at the risk of losing businesses and jobs to
competing nations with more lax policies. And while a country may see a reduction in greenhouse gas
emissions from a company leaving, the move may result in additional global greenhouse gas emissions if the
company moves to a country with more lenient polices and produces more emissions. The additional
emissions resulting from the move is considered carbon leakage.
● Ex: For years carbon emissions in the U.S. and Europe have been dipping, but in developing countries such as
China and India, emissions are rapidly increasing. While the rise in greenhouse gas emissions in developing
countries is largely due to domestic growth, it’s no secret that companies from wealthy countries set up
factories in foreign countries to cut costs and avoid regulations, thus further contributing to global pollution.
100. Answer: D
Explanation:
Denotified Nomadic Tribes (DNTs):
● Statement 1 is Incorrect: DNTs are the tribes which were notified as criminal tribes under the Criminal
Tribes Act, of 1871, by the British colonial government.
● Under this Act, millions of nomadic and semi-nomadic communities were declared criminals and put under
continuous surveillance.
● After decades of facing the horrors of this racial Act, they were denotified by the Government of independent
India on August 31, 1952.
● Statement 2 is Incorrect: While most DNTs are spread across the Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes
(ST) and Other Backward Classes (OBC) categories, some DNTs are not covered in any of the SC, ST or
OBC categories.
● The DNTs are a heterogenous group engaged in various occupations such as transport, key-making, salt
trading, and entertaining — acrobats, dancers, snake charmers, jugglers — and pastoralists.
● Ananthasayanam Ayyangar Committee in 1949 it was based on the report of this committee the Criminal
Tribes Act was repealed.
● Statement 3 is correct: The National Idate Commission was constituted in 2015 under the chairmanship of
Shri Bhiku Ramji Idate. Based on the recommendation of this commission, the Government of India set up the
Development and Welfare Board for DNTs, SNTs &NTs (DWBDNCs) in 2019.
******

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Statement 2 is correct.In following way twin deficit can be controlled -

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