Mockboard Criminal Procedure

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Criminal Procedure 1A

1. Sworn written statement charging a person with an offense,

subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer or other
public official charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
A. Information
B. Complaint
C. Affidavit
D. Memorandum
2. Accusation in writing charging a person with an offense,

subscribed by the fiscal and filed with the court.
A. Information
B. Complaint
C. Affidavit
D. Memorandum
3. ____and____ courts gain jurisdiction over the offense upon

the filing of complaint by a complainant or an information by
the prosecuting officer.
A. MTC and CA
B. MTC and SC
C. MTC and SB
D. MTC and RTC
4. Jurisdiction of the court over the offense is determined

A. At the time of the institution of the action
B. At the time of the arrest of the accused
C. At the time of voluntary surrender of the accused
D. At the time of the commission of the offense
5. Which of the following is false.

A. A complaint is a sworn statement
B. Information must be sworn to
C. Information is filed with the court
D. A complaint is subscribed by the offended party, any
peace officer or other officer charged with
the enforcement of the law violated
6. Remedies of offended party when fiscal unreasonably

refuses to file an information or include a person therein
as an accused.
A. In case of grave abuse of discretion, action for mandamus
B. Lodge a new complaint against the off enders
C. Take up matter with the Secretary of Justice
D. All of the above
7. In Municipal Trial Courts and Municipal Circuit Trial Courts

criminal actions are instituted by
A. By filing a complaint with the appropriate officer for the
purpose of conducting requisite preliminary investigation
therein.
B. By filing the complaint ONLY with the office of the fiscal
C. By filing the complaint or information directly with said
courts, or a complaint with the fiscal’s office
D. None of the above
8. Which of the following offenses is subject to summary

procedure.
A. Violation of traffic laws
B. Violation of municipal or city ordinance
C. Violation of rental laws
D. All of the above
9. In criminal cases covered by the rules on summary procedure

shall be deemed commenced only when it is filed in
A. The Prosecutor's office
B. Lupon of the Barangay
C. The Court
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10. The filing of the complaint even with the fiscal’s office
should suspend the running of the Statute of Limitations.
This is
A. True
B. False
C. Partially false
11. Information may be amended as to the name of the

accused, but such amendment cannot be questioned for
the first time on appeal.
A. True
B. Partially true
C. False
D. Partially false
12. Conviction for robbery cannot be sustained if there is a

variance between the allegation and the proof as to the
ownership of the property stolen.
A. True
B. False
C. Partially false
D. Partially true
13. If facts do not completely allege all the elements of the

crime charged, the info may be quashed; however, the
prosecution is allowed to amend the info to include the
necessary facts.
A. True
B. Partially true
C. False
D. Partially false
14. Information need only allege facts, not include all the
evidence which may be used to prove such facts
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Partially false
15. Approximation of time is sufficient; amendment as to time

is only a formal amendment; no need to dismiss case.
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Partially false
16. Qualifying and inherent aggravating circumstances need

to be alleged as they are integral parts of the crime.
If proved, but not alleged, become only generic
aggravating circumstances.
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Partially false
17. Conviction may be had even if it appears that the crime
was committed not at the place alleged, provided that the
place of actual commission was within the court’s
jurisdiction and accused was not surprised by the variance
between the proof and the information.
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Partially false
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18. In which of the following cases may only the offended

spouse may file the complaint.
A. Rape
B. Seduction
C. Adultery and Concubinage
D. Acts of lasciviousness
19. Defined as the joinder of separate and distinct offenses in

one and the same information/complaint
A. Motion to Quash
B. Duplicity of offense
C. Double Jeopardy
20.The civil action involves an issue similar or intimately

related to the issue raised in the criminal action.
A. Duplicity of offense
B. Double Jeopardy
C. Prejudicial question
Criminal Law 1A
1. Basis is the sum of social and economic phenomena which
conditions man to do wrong in spite of or contrary to his
volition. This theory of criminal law is known as
A. Classical Theory
B. Positivist Theory
C. Mixed Theory
2. In the construction of penal laws, it must be ______________

construed in favor of offender.
A. Strictly
B. Liberally
C. Severely
D. Precisely
3. Which of the following is not a limitation on power of

congress to enact penal laws.
A. Ex post facto law
B. Bill of Attainder
C. Law that violates the equal protection clause of the
constitution.
D. None of the Above
4. The Revised Penal Code took effect on

A. March 6, 1929
B. March 6, 1930
C. January 1, 1932
D. February 1, 1934
5. What determines whether a vessel is a Philippine vessel for

purposes of the application of criminal law?
A. Place of Registration
B. Place of Construction
C. Citizenship of the Owner
6. Crimes committed aboard foreign vessel within the territorial

waters of a country are not triable in the courts of such
country. In Criminal law, this principle is known as
A. The Philippine Rule
B. The English Rule
C. The French Rule
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7. Crimes committed aboard a foreign vessel within the

territorial waters of a country are triable in the courts of such
country. In Criminal law, this principle is known as
B. The English Rule
C. The French Rule
8. For Offenses committed aboard foreign vessel committed in

Philippine waters. What principle is applicable to the
Philippines.
B. The English Rule
C. The French Rule
9. Acts and omissions punishable by the RPC is known as

A. Felonies
B. Crimes
C. Misdemeanor
10. Acts and omissions punishable by any law is known as

A. Felonies
B. Crimes
C. Misdemeanor
Criminal Law 1B
1. A Branch of municipal law which defines crimes, treats of
their nature and provides for their punishment.
A. Procedural Law
B. Civil Law
C. Criminal Law
D. Political Law
2. One of the following is not a characteristic of criminal law.

A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive
3. Criminal law is binding on all person who reside or sojourn

in the Philippines. This characteristic of criminal law is known as
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive
4. One of the characteristics of criminal law is generality. Which

of the following is not an exception to the principle of
generality.
A. Treaty Stipulation
B. Laws of Preferential Application
C. Principles of Public International Law
5. One of the following person is not immune from Philippine
criminal law.
A. Sovereigns and other chief of state
B. Ambassador
C. Consuls
D. Charges d' Affaires
6. Penal laws of the Philippines are enforceable only within
its territory. This characteristic of criminal law is known as
A. General
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B. Territorial
C. Prospective
7. One of the following is not an exceptions to the territorial

principle of criminal law.
A. Offenses committed while on Philippine ship or airship
B. Forging or counterfeiting any coin or currency note of
the Philippines or the obligations and securities issued
by the government.
C. Crimes committed against national security and the law of
nations.
D. Crimes committed against public order
8. Criminal law does not have any retroactive effect. This
characteristic of criminal law is known as
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive
9. When the law is favorable to the accused, is an exception

to which characteristic of criminal law.
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive
10. A Theory of criminal law, Basis is man's free will to choose

between good and evil. The purpose of penalty is retribution.
A. Classical Theory
B. Positivist Theory
C. Mixed Theory
D. None of the above.
Criminal Law 1C
1. One of the following is not a crime against the law of nation.
A. Treason
B. Qualified Piracy
C. Flight to Enemy's Country
D. Arbitrary Detention
2. One of the following is not a crime against the Fundamental

Laws of the State.
A. Qualified Piracy
B. Arbitrary Detention
C. Delaying Release
D. Expulsion
3. It is the offense committed by expelling a person from the

Philippines or by compelling a person to change his residence.
A. Light Threats
B. light Coercion
C. Expulsion
D. Grave Threats
4. The term used where the object of the movement is

completely to overthrow and supersede the existing
government.
A. Insurrection
B. Rebellion
C. Sedition
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5. The term refers to a movement which seeks merely to effect

some change of minor importance to prevent the exercise
of governmental authority with respect to particular matters
or subjects.
A. Insurrection
B. Rebellion
C. Sedition
6. R.A. No. 6235 is known as

A. Anti-Hijacking Law
B. Anti-Piracy and Anti-Highway Robbery Law of 1974
C. An Act To Punish Espionage
7. All of the following except one are crimes against public order.
A. Coup D' Etat
B. Sedition
C. Treason
D. Rebellion
8. This felony involves the raising of commotions or disturbances
in the State. Its ultimate object is a violation of the public
peace or at least such a course of measures as evidently
engenders it.
A. Coup D' Etat
B. Rebellion
C. Sedition
D. Treason
9. Committed by a person who being under oath and required to

testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a hearing before a
competent authority, shall deny the truth or say something
contrary to it.
A. Slander
B. Perjury
C. Libel
D. False testimony
10. Lax, Unrestrained, immoral, maintainer of house of
prostitution.
A. Dissolute
B. Prostitutes
C. Ruffians
D. Vagrants
LEA 1
1. A Chinese Philosopher who once said: “If you know your
enemy and know yourself, you need not fear the result
of a hundred battles”.
A. Confucius
B. Chiang Kai Shek
C. Sun Tzu
D. Wong Mhan Fei Hong
2. Maybe defined as the product resulting from the collecting
information concerning an actual and potential situation
and condition relating to foreign activities and to
foreign or enemy held areas.
A. Interrogation
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B. Information

C. Intelligence
D. Investigation
3. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information

concerning organized crime and other major police problems.
A. Military Intelligence
B. Military Information
C. Police Intelligence
D. Police Investigation
4. It is the combination of two or more persons for the
purpose of establishing terror or corruption in the
city/community or section of, either a monopoly, of virtual
monopoly or criminal activity in a field that provides a
continuing financial profit.
A. Organized Crime
B. Criminal Syndicate
C. Criminal World
D. Mafia
5. The social organization of criminals, having its own social

classes from the hobo to the moneyed gangsters or racketeers.
A. Criminal World
B. Mafia
C. Organized Crime
D. Criminal Syndicate
6. It is the stable business with violence applied and directed

at unwelcome competitors.
A. Mafia
B. Criminal World
C. Criminal Syndicate
D. Organized Crime
7. A form of intelligence which concerns with the various types
of confidential information that filter into the possession
of the police, and the techniques employed in developing
these lines of information.
A. Counter Intelligence
B. Departmental Intelligence
C. Undercover Intelligence
D. Strategic Intelligence
8. Which a Police Administrator must rely as one of the most

indispensable tools of management; it is derived from
organized information available in the police records
division which concerned with the nature, size and
distribution of the police problems of crime,
vice and traffic?
A. Strategic Intelligence
B. Counter Intelligence
C. Departmental Intelligence
D. Undercover Intelligence
9. Intelligence which primarily long-range in nature with
little or no immediate practical value.
A. Strategic Intelligence
B. Counter Intelligence
C. Departmental Intelligence
D. Undercover Intelligence
10. The type of intelligence activity that deals with the

defending of the organization against its criminal enemies.
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A. Counter Intelligence

B. Strategic Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. None of these
11. It is the evaluated and interpreted information concerning

an actual or possible enemy or theatre of operations,
including weather and terrain, together with the
conclusions drawn there from.
A. Line Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence
D. Covert Operation
12. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature and
necessary for more effective police planning.
A. Line Intelligence
B. Police Intelligence
D. Overt Operation
13. If the information or documents are procured openly without

regard as to whether the subject of the investigation
becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for which
it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation
B. Evaluation
C. Covert Operation
D. Interpretation
14. It is a critical appraisal of information as a basis

for its subsequent interpretation, which includes
determining the pertinence of information, the
reliability of the source and agency through which
the information was derived and its accuracy.
A. Interpretation
B. Tasks
C. Evaluation
D. Operations
15. Is the proper, economical and most productive use
of personnel, resources and equipment employed
and/or utilized in planning the collection of
information, processing of information and
dissemination of intelligence.
A. Cardinal Principle of Intelligence
B. Assets and Liability Intelligence
C. Economic Intelligence
D. Income and expenditure Intelligence
16. Refer to the uprightness in character, soundness of
moral principles, honesty and freedom from moral
delinquencies.
A. Integrity
B. Loyalty
C. Discretion
D. Moral
17. Principles or standards of conduct of an individual,
his ethical judgment in human relations and his
respect to superiors.
A. Character
B. Reputation
C. Moral
D. Integrity
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18. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____
from the date of issuance.
A. 1 yr
B. 3 yrs
C. 2 yrs
D. 4 yrs
19. Maximum security measures applied to prevent possible
decryption of encrypted data on radio communication.
A. Transmission
B. Cryptographic security
C. Operation security
D. Computer security
20. Final security measures undertaken prior to the entry
into a communication area.
A. control of operations area
B. control of communications area
C. area access control
D. perimeter control
Industrial Security Management 1

1. The Private Security Agency Law is known as
A. R.A. No. 5487
B. R.A. No. 5467
C. R.A. No. 5476
D. R.A. No. 5478
2. Any Person who, for hire or reward or on commission, conducts

or carries on or holds himself or itself out as conducting or
carrying on a detective agency or detective service.
A. Private Security Guard
B. Private Detective
C. Private Security Agency
D. Private Detective Agency
3. Any Person who is not a member of a regular police agency

or the Armed Forces of the Philippines who does detective
work for hire, reward or commission.
A. Private Detective Agency
C. Private Security Guard
D. Private Security Agency
4. Any Person who offers or renders personal service to

watch or secure either residential or business establishment
or both, or any building, compound or area including but not
limited to logging concession, agricultural, mining, or pasture
lands for hire or compensation or as an employee thereof is
known as
A. Security Guard
B. Private Security Agency
C. Private Detective Agency
5. Any Person, Association, Partnership or Corporation who

recruits, trains, muster, furnishes, solicits individuals or
business firms, private or government owned or controlled
corporations to engage his service or those of its watchmen
is known as
A. Private Security Guard
C. Private Detective Agency
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6. Security Agency must be owned and controlled by how many

percentage of Filipino ownership?
A. 100% Filipino
B. 90% Filipino
C. 75% Filipino
D. 60% Filipino
7. How many security agency may a person organize or have an

interest in?
A. Four
B. Three
C. Two
D. One
8. The Operator or Manager of a security agency must be at

least
A. 25 Years of Age
B. 30 Years of Age
C. 35 Years of Age
D. 40 Years of Age
9. The Operator or Manager of a security agency must be at

least a
A. Ph. D. Degree Holder
B. Master's Degree Holder
C. College Graduate
D. High School Graduate
10. An Operator or Manager of a security agency must have no

previous record of any conviction of any crime or offense
involving
A. Crimes Against Person
B. Crimes Against Property
C. Crimes Against Chastity
D. Moral Turpitude
Intelligence and Secret Service 1
1. Knowledge of a possible or actual enemy or area of operations

acquired by the collection,evaluation and interpretation of
military information.
A. Combat intelligence
B. Police Intelligence
D. Counter intelligence

2. Knowledge of the enemy,weather and the terrain that is used
in the planning and conduct of tactical operations.
B. Police intelligence
D. Counter-intelligence

3. Activity pertains to all security control measures designed to
ensure the safeguarding of information against espionage,
personnel against subversion and installations or material
against sabotage.
B. Police intelligence
C. Military intelligence
D. Counter intelligence

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4. Those which seek to conceal information from the enemy.

A. Passive counter intelligence measures
B. Active counter intelligence measures
C. Strategic intelligence
D. Tactical intelligence

5. Those that actively block the enemy's attempt to gain information
of enemy's effort to engage in sabotage or subversion.
A. Passive counter intelligence measures
B. Active counter intelligence measures
C. Strategic intelligence
D. Tactical intelligence

6. When the source of the information comes from a police

intelligence officer of long experience and extensive background,
the evaluation of reliability of information is labeled.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

7. When there is no adequate basis estimating the reliability of an
information,the evaluation of the reliability of the information is
labeled.
A. A
B. F
C. E
D. D

8. The current head of the PNP directorate for intelligence is
A. Catalino Cuy
B. Cipriano Querol Jr.
C. Lina Sarmiento
D. Angelito Pacia

9. Knowledge in raw form is known as
A. Intelligence
B. Information
C. Awareness
D. Cognition

10.The resolving or separating of a thing into its component parts.
A. Analysis
B. Evaluation
C. Collation
D. Collection
Crime Detection
1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible
in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel
of his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision

of the
A.National Bureau of Investigation
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B. Department of the Interior and Local Government

C. Supreme Court
D.Department of Justice
3.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is

most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their
probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation
4.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a

different and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work
5.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions

are taken in not losing the subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
6.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the

subject’s habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated

arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage
8.An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a

building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contraband's
or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure
9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a

different character to the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
C. Direct evidence
D. Real evidence
10.The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence

collected during the investigation and present it to the
prosecutor.
A. case preparation
B. order maintenance
C. crime prevention
D. public service
11.Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation
B. Inducement
C. Buy bust operation
D. Entrapment
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12.A special qualification for an undercover agent.

A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory

13.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the
purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or
activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D. surveillance
14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after

that person has been taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination
15.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at

A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
D. weekdays
16.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or
attempts to be present when they are committed, through the
use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping
or bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures
17.A police activity directed toward the identification and
apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation,
preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their
alleged crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation
18.An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
A. initial investigation
B.custodial investigation
C.secondary investigation
D.follow-up investigation
19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose
of
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D.Interrogation
20.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably

discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been
committed and that the object sought in connection with the
offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D.res ipsa loquitur
Criminalistics Review Questions 1

1. There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most skilful
class of forgery
A. simulated or copied forgery
B. simple forgery
C. traced forgery
D. carbon tracing
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2. Condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is

adequate and proper, should contain a cross section
of the material from known sources.
A. disguised document
B. questioned document
C. standard document
D. requested document
3. Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which is of known
origin.
A. Letters
B. Samples
C. Exemplars
D. Documents
4. A document which is being questioned because of its origin, its

contents or the circumstances or the stories of its production.
A. disputed document
B. standard document
C. requested document
D. questioned document
5. The art of beautiful writing is known as

A. Drafting
B. Calligraphy
C. Art appreciation
D. Gothic
6. Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is

established.
A. Certificate
B. Subpoena
C. Warrant
D. Document

7. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward
flow of the innermost sufficient recurve is towards the
thumb of radius bone of the hand of origin.
A. ulnar loop
B. tented arch
C. accidental whorl
D. radial loop
8. The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches.

A. Ridge
B. Island
C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
9. The point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center of

the divergence of the type lines.
A. Divergence
B. Island
C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
10.The following are considerations used for the identification

of a loop except one:
A. Delta
B. Core
C. a sufficient recurve
D. a ridge count across a looping bridge

11.The process of recording fingerprint through the use of
fingerprint ink.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
12.The fingerprint method of identification.

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A. Pathology

B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
13.Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel, diverge and

surround the pattern area.
A. Ridges
B. Delta
C. Type line
D. Bifurcation
14.A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores, deltas
and ridges.
A. type line
B. bifurcation
C. pattern area
D. furrow
15.Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are

not clearly visible.
A. plane impressions
B. visible fingerprints
C. rolled impressions
D. latent fingerprints
16.The impressions left by the patterns of ridges and depressions on

various surfaces.
A. kiss marks
B. finger rolls
C. thumb marks
D. fingerprints

17.Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint pattern?
A. Arch
B. Accidental
C. Loop
D. Whorl
18.The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity

between two points.
A. Eighteen
B. Fifteen
C. Twelve
D. Nine
19.A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of

spirals around core axes.
A. whorl
B. double loop
C. central pocket loop
D. accidental
20.A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side
of the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side
where the ridge has entered.
A. Loop
B. radial loop
C. ulnar loop
D. tented arch
21.A person allowed who gives his/her opinion or conclusion on a

given scientific evidence is considered
A. interrogator
B. expert witness
C. prosecutor
D. judge

22.The application of scientific knowledge and techniques in the

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detection of crime and apprehension of criminals.

A. Law Enforcement Administration
B. Forensic Administration
C. Criminal Psychology
D. Criminalistics

23.Lens that is characterized by a thicker center and thinner sides.
A. concave lens
B. convex lens
C. negative lens
D. positive lens
24.The normal developing time of a paper or film.

A. 30-60 minutes
B. 20-30 minutes
C. 5-10 minutes
D. 1- 2 minutes
25.This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter the lens for
a predetermined time interval.
A. holder of sensitized material
B. view finder
C. shutter
D. view finder
26.A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative
material.
A. telephoto lens
B. long lens
C. normal lens
D. wide angle lens
27.Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.

A. Potassium Bromide
B. Sodium Carbonate
C. Sodium Sulfite
D. Hydroquinone
28.A part of a camera used in focusing the light from the subject
A. view finder
B. lens
C. shutter
D. light tight box
29.A component of the polygraph instrument which records the

breathing of the subject.
A. Cardiosphygmograph
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
30.A component of the polygraph instrument which records the

blood pressure and the pulse rate of the subject.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph

31.A component of the polygraph instrument which is a motor that
drives or pulls the chart paper under the recording pen
simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12 inches per minute.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
32.The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of
the questions in a polygraph test except one.
A. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the
subject can easily understand.
B. Questions must be answerable by yes or no.
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C. Questions must be as short as possible.

D. Questions must all be in the form of accusations

33. In “ polygraph examination”, the term “ examination” means a
detection of
A. Forgery
B. Emotion
C. the mind
D. deception
34. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which

appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power.
A. Fear
B. Stimuli
C. Response
D. Reaction

35. The primary purpose of pre-test interview.
A. Prepare subject for polygraph test
B. Obtain confession
C. Make the subject calm
D. Explain the polygraph test procedures

36. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant
question.
A. positive response
B. specific response
C. normal response
D. reaction

37. The study of the effect of the impact of a projectile on the
target.
A. Terminal Ballistics
B. Internal Ballistics
C. External Ballistics
D. Forensic Ballistics

38. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet is called
A. Trajectory
B. Yaw
C. Velocity
D. Gyroscopic action

39. The part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws the shell
or cartridge from the chamber.
A. Extractor
B. Ejector
C. Striker
D. Trigger

40. The pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
A. Yaw
B. Range
C. Velocity
D. Trajectory
41. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path
after striking a resistant surface.
A. Misfire
B. Mushroom
C. Ricochet
D. Key hole shot
42. A type of primer with two vents or flash holes.

A. Bordan primer
B. Berdan Primer
C. Baterry Primer
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D. Boxer Primer
43. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of
the bore.
A. swaging
B. ogive
C. rifling
D. breaching
44. It refers to the unstable rotating motion of the bullet.

A. Trajectory
B. Yaw
C. Velocity
D. Gyproscopic action
45. It is the measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.

A. Calibre
B. Mean diameter
C. Gauge
D. Rifling
46. He is known as the Father of Ballistics.
A. Hans Gross
B. Charles Waite
C. Albert Osborne
D. Calvin Goddard
47. A document in which some issues have been raised or is under

scrutiny.
A. Void Document
B. Illegal Document
C. Forged Document
D. Questioned Document
48. The following are characteristics of forgery except one:

A. Presence of Natural Variation
B. Multiple Pen Lifts
C. Show bad quality of ink lines
D. Patchwork Appearance
49. Standards which are prepared upon the request of the

investigator and for the purpose of comparison with the
questioned document.
A. relative standards
B. collected standards
C. extended standards
D. requested standards

50. Any stroke which goes back over another writing stroke.
A. natural variation
B. rhythm
C. retracing
d. shading

51. The name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign
of acknowledgement.
A. Opinion
B. Document
C. Signature
D. Handwriting
52. A kind of document which is executed by a private person
without the intervention of a notary public, or of
competent public official, by which some disposition of
agreement is proved.
A. commercial document
B. official document
C. public document
D. private document
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53. An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a

questioned document, its origin is known and can be proven.
A. simulated document
B. forged document
C. standard document
D. compared document
54. The process of making out what is illegible or what has been
effaced.
A. Comparison
B. Collation
C. Obliteration
D. Decipherment

55. A document which contains some changes either as an
addition or deletion.
A. inserted document
B. altered document
C. disputed document
D. obliterated document
56. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor

blade or picking instrument.
A. mechanical erasure
B. electronic erasure
C. magnetic erasure
D. chemical erasure
57. It is the periodic increase in pressure, characterized by

widening of the ink stroke.
A. Shading
B. pen lift
C. pen emphasis
D. pen pressure
58. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by

private parties but notarized by competent officials.
A. private document
B. commercial document
C. public document
D. official document

59. The detection and identification of poisons.
A. Bacteriology
B. Posology
C. Toxicology
D. Chemistry
60. The specimen that is preferably used in the determination of

abused drugs in the body.
A. blood
B. saliva
C. body fluid
D. urine

Traffic Operation And Accident Investigation
1. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest due to

traffic violation, the following procedures are followed except:
A. bring the suspended person before the court
B. detention of the arrested person may take place
C. arrest can be effected even without a warrant
D. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed
2. A person can escape from the scene of the accident on

one of the following ground:
A. offense committed is serious
B. bringing the person to your custody
C. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge of
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violation
D. if the person is under the imminent danger
3. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the

following evidence will show how the accident happened?
A. hole on the road pavement
B. the driver under the influence of liquor
C. point of impact
D. vehicle has break failure
4. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is

A. selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement
B. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
C. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
D. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive
measure for future violation
5. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to
A. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than
as causes KVB
B. consider violation as primary causes and any other factors
as secondary causes
C. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior to
the accident as a cause
D. look for the "key event" that cause the accident
6. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen
automobile license plates. The best reason for this practice is to
A. permit the promote issuance of new plate
B. prevent cards from being stolen
C. keep record of all outstanding license plate in use
D. detain any person found using or attempting to use any of
these plates.
7. One of the following statements that best indicates the main

purpose of traffic law enforcement is
A. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
B. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
C. control the speed limited in densely populated areas
D. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic
8. The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with

accidents that involves one or both of the elements namely
A. motor vehicles and traffic way
B. motor vehicle and victim
C. victim and traffic way
D. victim and traffic unit
9. With respect to minor traffic violations, the traffic police officers

should be guided foremost by the consideration that
A. some traffic violation are intended
B. the aim is to discourage violations
C. same traffic violations are caused by negligence
D. violations must be punished
10. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces

in contract is known as:
A. coefficient of friction
B. traffic jam
C. attribute
D. contract damage
11. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision
course or otherwise avoid a hazard
A. state of evasive action
B. point of possible perception
C. point of no escape
D. final position
12. Any motor vehicle accident that result in injuries other than fatal
to one or more persons.
A. non-fatal injury accident
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B. fatal accident

C. traffic law enforcer
D. property damage accident
13. Which of the following types of accident is most decreased

by the installation of traffic light?
A. Cross traffic accidents
B. Misunderstanding between motorist and traffic officers
C. Accidents of confusion
D. Accidents of decision of right of way
14. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic
accidents than any other part in the area. The Police unit
assignment to the area should.
A. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for violators.
B. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to
caution motorist
C. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
D. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to
the intersection
15. Every device which is self-propelled and every vehicle which
is propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley
wires, but not operated upon rails.
A. Skating
B. Bicycle
C. Tricycle
D. Motor vehicles
16. The main reason why both traffic officers and signal lights
are used on some intersection is that
A. motorist are discourage from "jumping signals"
B. traffic can be kept moving at a faster rate
C. greater safety to pedestrians and motorist is effected
D. an officer can stop and start as necessity demands
17. All lines, patterns, words, colors or other gadgets EXCEPT

signs set into the surface or applied upon or attached to the
pavement or curbing officially place for the purpose of regulating
traffic is called _____
A. warning signs
B. traffic management
C. traffic engineering
D. pavement marking
18. Prohibitive traffic signs and restrictive traffic signs shall have
A. blue background and white symbols
B. a red background and white symbols and black border
C. white background with black symbols and red border
D. green background with white and black symbols
19. Motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion engine

shall be equipped with a ____ as said motor vehicle passes
through a street of any city, municipality or thickly populated
district or barrio.
A. wiper
B. light
C. muffler
D. windshield
20. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a parade has been
ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross the route.
While the parade is in progress, an ambulance driver on an
emergency run attempts to drive his ambulance across the
route while the parade is passing. Under these circumstances
the traffic police officer should.
A. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contact
his superior and obtains decisions
B. stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to
cross the street
C. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior's order
D. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which
will add at least then minutes to run
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Penal Management

1. The authoritative imposition of something negative or unpleasant
on a person in response to behavior deemed wrong by law.
A. Punishment
B. Banishment
C. Retribution
D. Penalty

2. The branch of criminology concerned with prison management
and prison rehabilitation.
A. Penology
B. Sociology
C. Correction
D. Anthropology

3. Getting back at someone for something they did to hurt you.
A. Punishment
B. Retribution
C. Justification
D. Penalty

4. A punishment for some violation of conduct which involves the
infliction of pain on or harm to the body.
A. Penalty
B. Punishment
C. Banishment
D. Corporal punishment

5. French penal colony from 1852 to 1959 where political prisoners are
exiled.
A. Devil's island
B. Tasmanian island
C. Robben Island
D. Cape of good hope

6. A prison reformer who published an influential book that proposed
prison reform.
A. Elizabeth Fry
B. John Howard
C. John Goodman
D. Victoria Azarenka

7. An English reformer sometimes referred to as the "angel of prisons"
because of her driving force behind new legislation to treat prisoners
humanely.
A. Elizabeth Fry
B. John Howard
C. John Goodman
D. Alex Morgan
8. A prison complex located at the coast of Capetown South Africa
which serve as a refugee camp for people afflicted wit leper before
converted into a prison.
A. Port Arthur
B. Robben island
C. Pennsylvania prison
D. Elmira prison
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9. A penal method of the 19th century in which persons worked during

the day and were kept in solitary confinement at night and silence
enforced at all times.
A. Auburn System
B. U.K system
C. Pennsylvania system
D. Irish system

10. The first reformatory prison.
A. Auburn prison
B. Pennsylvania prison
C. New York correctional facility
D. Elmira correctional facility

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1

1. Sworn written statement charging a person with an offense,

2. Accusation in writing charging a person with an offense,

3. ____and____ courts gain jurisdiction over the offense upon

4. Jurisdiction of the court over the offense is determined

5. Which of the following is false.

6. Remedies of offended party when fiscal unreasonably

7. In Municipal Trial Courts and Municipal Circuit Trial Courts

8. Which of the following offenses is subject to summary

9. In criminal cases covered by the rules on summary procedure

11. Information may be amended as to the name of the

12. Conviction for robbery cannot be sustained if there is a

13. If facts do not completely allege all the elements of the

15. Approximation of time is sufficient; amendment as to time

16. Qualifying and inherent aggravating circumstances need

18. In which of the following cases may only the offended

19. Defined as the joinder of separate and distinct offenses in

20.The civil action involves an issue similar or intimately

2. In the construction of penal laws, it must be ______________

3. Which of the following is not a limitation on power of

4. The Revised Penal Code took effect on

5. What determines whether a vessel is a Philippine vessel for

6. Crimes committed aboard foreign vessel within the territorial

7. Crimes committed aboard a foreign vessel within the

8. For Offenses committed aboard foreign vessel committed in

9. Acts and omissions punishable by the RPC is known as

10. Acts and omissions punishable by any law is known as

2. One of the following is not a characteristic of criminal law.

3. Criminal law is binding on all person who reside or sojourn

4. One of the characteristics of criminal law is generality. Which

7. One of the following is not an exceptions to the territorial

9. When the law is favorable to the accused, is an exception

10. A Theory of criminal law, Basis is man's free will to choose

2. One of the following is not a crime against the Fundamental

3. It is the offense committed by expelling a person from the

4. The term used where the object of the movement is

5. The term refers to a movement which seeks merely to effect

6. R.A. No. 6235 is known as

9. Committed by a person who being under oath and required to

B. Information

3. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information

5. The social organization of criminals, having its own social

6. It is the stable business with violence applied and directed

8. Which a Police Administrator must rely as one of the most

10. The type of intelligence activity that deals with the

A. Counter Intelligence

11. It is the evaluated and interpreted information concerning

13. If the information or documents are procured openly without

14. It is a critical appraisal of information as a basis

Industrial Security Management 1

2. Any Person who, for hire or reward or on commission, conducts

3. Any Person who is not a member of a regular police agency

4. Any Person who offers or renders personal service to

5. Any Person, Association, Partnership or Corporation who

6. Security Agency must be owned and controlled by how many

7. How many security agency may a person organize or have an

8. The Operator or Manager of a security agency must be at

9. The Operator or Manager of a security agency must be at

10. An Operator or Manager of a security agency must have no

3. and courts gain jurisdiction over the offense upon