CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE

EXAMINATION QUESTIONS COMPILATION

WITH RATIONALIZATION
Case Situation: a. Robbery b. Theft
c. Malicious mischief d. snatching
Bong surreptitiously went into the premises of Esco. 12. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main
Not knowing that Esco was inside the house, he burned the door by opening it with the use of an ATM card to open the
house that resulted also to the death of Esco. door lock without breaking it. Upon entry he took the LCD
Television. Manuel is liable of a crime of?
1. Bong is liable of what crime? a. Robbery b. Theft
a. Arson b. Murder c. Malicious mischief d. Robbery with Theft
c. Homicide d. Arson with Murder Case Situation:
2. However if Bong knew that Esco was inside the house and The pig of Mang Rodrigo entered in the farm
his purpose of burning is to kill Esco.What crime of Manuel and destroyed the mongo crop of the latter.
committed by Bong? As a consequence, Mang Rodrigo got furious, thus,
a. Arson b. Murder he hacked the pig with a bolo. The pig dies as a
c. Homicide d. Arson with Murder result.
Case Situation: 13. What crime is committed by Mang Rodrigo?
Marcos and Chiz conspired to kill Llanes. They a. theft
mutually helped one another in abducting Llanes. Before they b. property damaged
shoot Llanes, Marcos intentionally cut off his right ear. c. malicious mischief
d. robbery
3. What crime did Marcos and Chiz commit? 14. Supposing that after killing the pig, Mang Rodrigo makes
a. Homicide b. Murder use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and cooked
c. Homicide with Mutilation some. What crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
d. Murder with serious physical injur a. theft
4. What if Marcos and Chiz did not cut off the right ear, b. property damaged
instead they soak Llanes into a boiling water. What are did c. malicious mischief
they commit? d. robbery
a. Homicide b. Murder 15. Supposed it was a Carabao that destroyed the mongo
c. Homicide with Mutilation crops of Manuel. What crime committed by Manuel?
d. Murder with serious a. theft
5. What if Marcos and Chiz did not conspired to kill Llanes b. malicious mischief
but they just saw the latter while walking and intentionally c. Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law
they shoot which resulted to the death of Llanes. What d. robbery
crime did they commit? 16. Supposed after killing the Carabao Mang Rodrigo makes
a. Homicide b. Murder use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and cooked
c. Frustrated homicide d. Attempted murder some, what crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
a. theft
Case Situation: b. malicious mischief
c.Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law
Grace and Jomar begot a child named Manuel without d. robbery
being married. Grace and Jomar parted their ways. Grace got 17. Validity of Search Warrant
married to Bong, however, they were not ble1ssed to have a a. when the judge sign
child of their own, and thus, they had legally adopted Manuel. b. upon serve
One afternoon, Manuel killed Jomar while the latter was c. from the date indicated therein
sleeping. d. from the date receive by officer
6. What crime committed by Manuel? 18. Quantum of proof required whether to file an information
a. Parricide b. Homicide or complaint in court?
c. Murder d. Infanticide a. probable cause
b. personal knowledge
7. What if Manuel killed Grace? c. substancial
a. Parricide b. Homicide d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. Murder d. Infanticide 19. If the search is illegal the things seized is?
a. competent
Case Situation: b. irrelevant
c. inadmissible
Allan and Grace while walking towards home were d. admissible
approached by Lenie. The latter who is armed with a gun 20. t is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved.
declared hold-up while poking the said gun upon Allan. Lenie It is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of
demanded for their wallet and gave the same to him for fear of action?
their lives. Lenie with intent to gain, employed intimidation in a. Factum probandum
taking the personal property of Allan and Grace. b. Evidence
8. What crime committed by Lenie? c. factum probans
a. Theft b. snatching d. factum prubans
c. Robbery d. Grave Threat Case Situation:
Alden got married to Maine Mendoza. After 4years
Case Situation: from of being husband and wife, they were not blessed with a
Manuel entered the house of Lenie by child. Alden had an illicit relation with Ms. Pastillas. Ang a
breaking the main door. Once inside, Manuel with neighbor), who gave birth to child (C). Maine learned about
intent to gain took the LCD Television. Alden’s relation with Ms. Pastillas. To cover their illicit relation,
9. Manuel is liable of what crime? Alden intentionally killed his illegitimate infant at its 72 hours
a. Robbery b. Theft age.
c. Malicious mischief d. snatchig
10. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main 21. For what crime Alden can be charged?
door without breaking it since it was left unlocked and a. homicide b. parricide
thereafter took the LCD Television of Lenie. Manuel is c. murder d. infanticide
liable of a crime of. 22. What if it is Maine who killed the infant?
a. Robbery b. Theft a. homicide b. parricide
c. Malicious mischief d. snatching c. murder d. infanticide
11. What if Manuel entered the house through the main door 23. What if it is the father of Alden who killed the infant?
without breaking it since it was left opened and thereafter a. homicide b. parricide
took the LCD Television, however, when he is supposed to c. murder d. infanticide
leave, Lenie arrived, thus Manuel was forced to pass at 24. What if the infant is only two (2) days old? What crime is
the back door which was locked by breaking it. Manuel is committed by Alden, Maine or the father of Alden?
liable of what crime? a. homicide b. parricide

1 TACATI REVIEW CENTER

c. murder d. infanticide over their inability to achieve legitimate social and
financial success.
Case Situation: a. strain theory
Lola A, Lola B and Lola C robbed a bank. Lola A and b. psychological theories
B entered the bank and took all the money from the teller while c. differential association theory
Lola C remains outside the bank and served as look-out. d. labeling theory

25. Lola A is liable for a crime as? 36. A and B one neighbors who case to play “tako” ane day, A
a. principal by inducement persuaded B to steal the bike of C.In the study of criminal
b.principal by direct participation law what is the term used for it?
c. principal by indispensable cooperation a. Conspiracy
d.principal b. Proposal
26. Lola B is liable for a crime as? c. Entrapment
a. principal by inducement d. Instigation
b.principal by direct participation
c. principal by indispensable cooperation 37. In tumultuous affray ender Article 251 of the RPC how
d.principal person may are included?
27. Lola C is liable for a crime as? a. 3
a. principal by inducement b. 8
b.principal by direct participation c. 4
c. principal by indispensable cooperation d. 6
d.principal
28. What if Lola C who actually entered the bank and took all 38. What Quantum of Evidence required in criminal case?
the money from the teller? a. Preponderance of evidence
a. principal by inducement b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
b.principal by direct participation c. Probable cause
c. principal by indispensable cooperation d. Substantial Evidence
d.principal 39. In Revise Penal Code, the intentional or malicious
destruction of property by means of fire is called.
29. What if Lola A who was outside the bank and served as a. Arson
look-out?? b. Combustion
a. principal by inducement c. Disposition
b.principal by direct participation d. Murder
c. principal by indispensable cooperation 40. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from among
d.principal citizens of
a. Good repute and probity
Case Situation: b. High educational level
Alden induces Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice to kill c. Good religious background
Aldub who is living on an island far from the town, in d. High social standing
consideration of the amount of 500,000.00. Lola Dora, te 41. Which of the following procedures should be observed in
owner of the only boat in the place agreed to transport Yaya handling drug addicts who are incarcerated?
Dub, Pastillas and Vice and actually transported them in a 1.They should be segrageted especially during the
place in consideration of 10,000.00,Lola Dora agreed despite withdrawal period
knowing the criminal purpose of Yaya Dub,Pastillas and Vice. 2.They should be closely supervised to prevent
Upon reaching the place, Yaya Dub held the hands of Aldub attempts to commit suicide or
while Pastillas stabs Yayadub and as a result, Aldub dies. self-mutilation
Viceremains as look-out. 3.They should not be administered sedatives/
stimulants unless prescribed by a physician
30. Alden is liable for a crime as? 4.They should be transferred to mental institution of
a. principal by inducement proper psychiatric treatment
b.principal by direct participation a. 2, 3 and 4
c. principal by indispensable cooperation b. 3, 4 and 1
d.principal!3 c. 4, 1 and 2
31. Yaya Dub is also liable for a crime as? d. 1, 2 and 3
a. principal by inducement 42. Which of the following is not an element of malicious
b.principal by direct participation mischief?
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
d.principal a. The damage was caused inadvertently
32. Vice Pastillas so liable for a crime as? b. The damage caused does not fall with the
a. principal by inducement provisions of arson
b.principal by direct participation c. The offender has caused damage to the property
c. principal by indispensable cooperation of another
d.principal d. The damage was caused deliberately
33. Lola Dora as the owner of the only boat is liable of a crime 43. In special law, the imposed penalty is two years to seven
as? years. Applying the indeterminate sentence law, how many
a. principal by inducement years?
b.principal by direct participation a. 1
c. principal by indispensable cooperation b. 2
d.principal c. 7
34. What if there are several boats available to transport, Lola d. 8
Dora is liable of a crime as? 44. George, the 20-years old son of a rich politician, was
a. principal arrested at the NAIA arrival lounge and found positive for
b.accessories opium, a dangerous drug. When arrested, 15 grams of
c. accomplice cocaine were found in his bagpack. What offense would
d.principal by indispensable cooperation you charge George under R.A No. 9165 (Comprehensive
Dangerous Drug Act)?
35. What if Pastillas just bury the cadaver of Aldub and he has a. Importation of dangerous drugs.
knowledge about the crime Pastillas is liable of a crime b. Possession of dangerous drugs.
as? c. Use and possession of dangerous drugs
a. principal d. Use of dangerous drugs
b.accessories 45. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in
c. accomplice the appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be
d.principal by indispensable cooperation highly
26. This theory views crime and delinquency as a a. Accepted
result of the frustration and anger people experience b. Determinate
c. Sensitive
d. Unreliable 57. In the study of crime, what is the distinction, if any,
46. In the Criminal Law, the Court personnel next in rank to between a felony and a crime?
the presiding judge in the lower court is the Branch Clerk a. Crime and felony are the same
of Court. In the absence of the judge, the branch clerk of b. Crime covers felonies
court may hear simple case of unjust vexation.
a. Possible c. No distinction whatsoever
b. No d. The source of felony is a RPC
c. It depends 58. Mayor saw A and B boxing each other. He approached the
d. Yes two and identified himself as a mayor and attempted to
47. Who among the following can apply for release under the pacify them whereupon B attacked mayor. C, a bystander
Law on Recognizance? came to aid of the Mayor. Upon seeing C helping the
a. One who is charged with an offense whose mayor, A attacked C. What crime was committed by the
penalty is three (3) years and above one who attacked C?
b. One who is charged with an offense whose a. Direct assault
penalty is Twelve (12) months and above b. Indirect assault
c. One who is charged with an offense whose c. None
penalty is not morethan Six (6) months d. Physical injury
d. One who is charged with an offense whose 59. Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a
penalty is Six (6) months and above thick wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in
48. A hostile witness is one whose testimony is not favorable every corner, a tower post is manned by heavily armed
to the cause of the party who called him as a witness. Can guards:
leading question be asked? a. Maximum security facility
a. It depends b. Medium security facility
b. No c. Super maximum security facility
c. Partially d. Minimum security facility
d. Yes 60. Ramon witnessed the commission of a crime but he
49. What is the function responsibility of prison guards? refuses to testify for fear of his life despite a subpoena
a. Inmates health being served on him. Can the court punish him for
b. Prison security contempt?
c. Prison's Interpersonal relations a. No, since no person can be compelled to be a
d. Prison industry witness against another.
50. A has grudge against B. He went to the house of B and b. No, since Ramon has a valid reason for not
look for the latter. However, B was on vacation in the testifying.
province. In his spite, he destroyed the door of B. Later on, c. Yes , since litigants need help in presenting their
he noticed that the door could be useful. So, he brought it case.
to his house. What crime was committed? d. Yes, since public interest in justice requires his
a. Robbery testimony.
b. Maliscious Mischief 61. What documents are attached to the Release Document
c. Attempted Qualified Trespass to Dwelling of the Parolee?
d. Theft Prison record
51. What do you call the court that co-equal to the Court of Name of the Parolee and Probation Officer
Appeals? Location of the Prison or Confinement
a. Sandiganbayan Order of Court
b. Court of first instance a. 4 and 1
c. Supreme court b. 1 and 2
d. Tanodbayan c. 3 and 4
52. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what d. 2 and 3
portion of the sentence must have been served by a 62. We known that the Lord Jesus Christ, our savior, was
petitioner-prisoner? brutally crucified in the Middle East some 2100 years ago.
a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his According to our criminal/ penal law, What aggravating
indeterminate sentence circumstance will you use to those who consfired in the
b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his killing?
indeterminate sentence a. Abused of Superior Strength
c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his b. Conspiracy
indeterminate sentence c. Intimidation
d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his d. Treachery
indeterminate sentence 63. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides
53. Is there a complex crime when crime is committed to undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer.
conceal another crime? 2 CRIMES However, control over the probationer and probation
a. It depends program is exercised by
b. No
c. Partially a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she
d. Yes resides
54. What is the primary purpose of the pre-sentence b. The Parole and Probation Administrator
investigation? c. The Secretary of Justice
a. To help the judge in selecting the appropriate d. The Court who place him on probation
sentence of the offender 64. According to the control theory, crime and delinquency
b. To exonerate the offender result with an individuals bond to _____________ is weak
c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend and broken.
himself a. Behavior
d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case b. Police
55. The following are rights of a witness under the rules of c. Law
court EXCEPT: d. Society
a. To be examine only as to matters pertinent to the 65. Which of the following offenses may be prosecuted by a
issue persons other than (not) the offended party?
b. Not to give an answer which will tend to subject a. Abduction
him to a penaly of an offense b. Act of lasciviousness
c. To remain silent c. Seduction
d. To be protected from irrelevant questions d. Falsification
56. What is meant by the concept of probation which is from 66. What types of questions are allowed to be asked to a
the latin word "probitio" and had historical roots in the witness who is unwilling to testify?
pratice of judicial repreive? a. Intelligent
a. Live with integrity b. Leading
b. Testing period c. Misleading
c. Walk with faith d. Unresponsive
d. Out of the institution 67. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that
punishment is imposed on the offender to allow society to indispensable for the act to be punishable as a crime?
vent its anger toward and exact vengeance upon the a. External act
criminal? b. Intentional act
a. Retribution c. Internal act
b. Restoration d. Unintentional act
c. Rehabilitation 77. In criminal procedure, who conducts the direct
d. Deterrence examination?
68. The following are the elements of maliscious mischief: a. Opponent
I. The offender deliberately caused damage to b. PAO lawyer
property c. Proponent
II. Such act does not constitute arson or other crimes d. Prosecution
involving destruction 78. The system of key control in a jail includes:
III. Such acts also constitute other crimes involving a. An updated system of monitoring and control of
destruction keys
IV. The act of damaging anothers property was b. A documented inventory of security personnel
committed merely for the sake of damaging it c. A collector of all padlocks and keys
b. I, III, IV d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting them
c. I, II, IV 79. The following are classified as crimes against chastity,
d. I, II, III EXCEPT:
e. II, III, IV a. Simple Seduction
b. Adultery
69. Who among the following may be granted conditional c. White Slave Trade
pardon? d. Sexual Harassment
a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by government 80. The following are considered minor offenses of an inmate,
physician EXCEPT:
b. A prisoner who served as "bastonero" a. Rendering service to fellow inmate
c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above b. Failing to stand at attention and give due respect
when confronted by or reporting to any officer or
d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke member of the custodial force
his probation conditions c. Willful watse of food
70. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted to d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and
court within_________. orderliness in his quarter and/or surroundings
a. 10-day period 81. The following are classified as crimes against honor,
b. 30-day period EXCEPT:
c. 15-day period a. Premature Marriage
d. 60-day period b. libel
71. Within how many days after the expiration of the period to c. Incriminating innocent person
execute the warrant of arrest that the officer to whom it d. Slander
was assigned for the execution shall make a report to the 82. A complaint may be filed by any of the following, EXCEPT:
judge who issued the warrant? a. Offender
a. 10 b. The offender party
b. 15 c. Other public officers
c. 20 d. Any peace officers
d. 30
72. Which of the following is a crime against the Fundamental
Law of the State? 83. Is there an instance where an accesory exempted from
a. Espionage criminal liability/
b. Piracy a. It depends
c. Treason b. No
d. Violation of Domicile; if private person- Qualified c. Sometimes
trespass to dwelling d. Yes
73. The Metropolitan Trial Court convicted Virgilio and Dina of 84. X tried to kill Y by poisoning. One morning, X put sugar on
concubinage. Pending appeal, they applied for bail, the food of Y thinking that it was arsenic. Instead of dying,
claiming they are entitled to it as a matter of right. Is their Y suffered diabetes. In this case, the crime is not
claim correct? committed because the material he mixed on the foods is
a. No, bail is dependent on the risk of flight. a. Impossible
b. No, bail is not a matter of right after conviction. b. Inadequate
c. Yes, bail is a matter of right in all cases not c. Ineffectual
invloving moral turpitude. d. Intentional
d. Yes, bail is a matter of right in the Metropolitan 85. The president grants absolute/conditional pardon based
Trial Court before and after conviction. on the recommendation of:
74. X went to the United States. While he was there, a. Board of Pardon and Parole
encountered Y an American. They eventually got married. b. Bureau of Correction
When X returned to the Philippines, his wife Z filed an c. Parole and Probation Administration
action against him for violating their marriage. What is X d. Office of the Executive Secretary
liable to? 86. What law prohibits the imposition of death penalty in the
a. Adultery philippines?
b. Bigamy a. R.A 7659
c. Concubinage b. R.A 7965
d. Polygamy c. R.A 8177
75. Leave of Court is required to amend a complaint or d. R.A 9346
information before arraignment if the 87. For search to be considered as an incident of the arrest, it
amendment_______________. must be made at the place where the:
a. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a a. Contraband was found
higher to a lower offense or excludes any b. Police station is located
accused c. Arrest was effected
b. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a d. Crime was forced
higher to a lower offense and adds another 88. Bearing in mind the distinction between private and public
accused document, which of the folowing is admissible in evidence
c. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower without further proof of due execution or genuiness?
to a higher offense and excludes any of the a. Baptismal Certificates.
accused b. Documents acknowledged before a Notary Public
d. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower in Hongkong
to a higher offense and adds another accused c. Official record of the Philippines Embassy in
76. In Criminal law and Jurisprudence, there are two acts- Singapore certified by the Vice-consul with official
internal and external act. Which of the two acts is seal
the accused hose discharge is requested.
d. Unblimished receipt dated December 20, 1985 100.Choose the correct circumstance when a woman may be
signed by the promise, showing payment of a held liable for rape:
loan, found among the well-kept file of the a. When she befriends and puts a sleeping pill in
promissor. the victims drink to enable her husband to have
89. A drug user who is placed under probation may be made intercourse with the victim's.
to serve his sentence by the court if he b. When the offender uses an instrument and
a. Becomes unruly and undicipline inserts it in the mouth of the victim's.
b. Commits another offense c. When the rape is committed by two or more
c. He is 21 years old person's.
d. Violates any of the conditions of the probation d. With the use of force or intimidation.
101.Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision
correccional. Will he qualify for probation?
90. Which evidence is presented to vary the terms of a written a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
agreement, there is the application of b. No, his sentence is morethan Six (6) years and
the____________evidence rule. One (1) day
a. Documentary c. Yes, his sentence is less than Six (6) years and
b. Best One (1) day
c. Written d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1)
d. Parol day
91. X, a doctor, put a poison on the food of his wife. When she 102.There are four (4) acknowledged goals of ___________
eat the food, moments later, she suffered excruciating pain as follows: retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, and
in the stomach. Seeing his in agony, X got pity on his wife rehabilitation.
and administered an antidote. Thus, the wife did not die. a. Criminal intent
What crime was committed by X? b. Criminal mind
a. Attempted Parricide c. Criminal sanction
b. Frustrated Parricide d. Criminal action
c. Serious Physical Injuries 103.The city prosecutor charged Ben with serious physical
d. No crime injuries for stabbing terence. He was tried and convicted
92. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of as charged. A few days later, Terence died due to severe
probation in the United States? infection of his stab wounds. Can the prosecution file
a. Sir Walter crofton another information against Ben for homicide?
b. Alexander Maconochie
c. John murry spear a. No, double jeopardy is present since Ben had
d. John Augustus already been convicted of the first offense.
93. A petition for the grant of basolute or conditional pardon b. No, there is double jeopardy since serious
shall be favorably endorsed to the Board by the________ physical injuries is necessarily included in the
if the crime committed by the petitioner is against national charged of homicide.
security. c. Yes, since supervening event altered the kind of
a. Secretary of foreign Affairs crime the accused committed.
b. Secretary of Justice d. Yes, since Terence's death shows irregularity in
c. Secretary of National Defense the filing of the earlier charge against him.
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government 104.Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately
94. All data gathered about the probation applicant shall be released provided he is not a recidivist or he had not been
treated__________. previously convicted 3 or more times of any crime?
a. Comprehensively a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the
b. Appopriately maximum penalty for the offense he may be
c. Confidentially found guilty of is destierro
d. Judiciously b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
95. Studies are conducted to determine the experiences of maximum penalty of the offense he may be found
residents with crimes which are not usually reported to the guilty of is prision correccional
police. What are these studies called? c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
a. Population Surveys maximum penalty of the offense he may be found
b. Police surveys guilty of is reclusion perpetua
c. Victimization surveys d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or
d. Information surveys morethan the possible maximum term of
96. What term denotes a new or fresh trial when an appellate punishment of the offense he maybe found guilty
court sends a case back to lower court for new trial? of.
a. Trial by publicity 105.A science involving technical knowledge about the traces
b. Trial by jury of crime is known as:
c. Trial by default a. Forensic medicine
d. Trial de novo b. Physical science
97. Facts already known or ought to be known by judge by c. Forensic science
reason of their office and of which they may properly take d. Criminalistic Technology
and act without proof re called matters of: 106.To be considered an accessory, the author of the crime
a. Priveleged communication must be guilty of any of the following, EXCEPT:
b. Judicial notice a. Murder
b. Treason
c. Pleadings c. Parricide
d. Judgment d. Infanticide
98. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of 107.The following are crimes against national security and the
prison sentence? law of nations EXCEPT one:
a. Commutation of sentence a. Violation of neutrality
b. Parole b. Rebellion
c. Absolute pardon c. Treason
d. Conditional pardon d. Espionage
99. Which among the following is a requisite before an 108.Which of the following is NOT classified as a crime
accused may be discharged to become a state witness? committed by public officers?
a. Forgery
a. The accused does not appear to be guilty. b. Official breaking seal
b. The accused has not at any time been convicted c. Malversation
of any offense. d. Refusal of assistance
c. The testimony of the accused sought to be
discharged can be substantially 109.Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little
corroborated on all points. more care than the other inmates. Which of the following
d. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of should NOT be done by a jail officer?
a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff a. Where the penalty is six months Imprisonment
regularly b. Violation of traffic laws
b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his c. Violation of rental laws
prescribed diet d. Where the penalty fees not exceed six (6)
c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate months imprisonment
d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient 122.What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central
inmate nervous system and are commonly referred to as
110. The following are aggravating circumstances EXCEPT: “uppers”?
a. Movement of the offender is restricted a. Amphetamines
b. Cruelty b. Naptha
c. Adding ignominy c. Barbiturates
d. Taking advantage of superior strength d. Diazepam
111. When taking up arms against the government was
undertaken by members of the military, what law was 123. The following offense cannot be prosecuted de officio
violated? Republic Act________. without a complaint first filed by the offended party,
a. 9165 EXCEPT:
b. 7610 a. Rape
c. 6506 b. Abduction
d. 6968 c. Seduction
112. The following properties may be taken by the officer d. Adultery and Concubinage
effecting the arrest, EXCEPT those: 124. Complaint or Information shall charge only one offense.
a. That may be used for escaping This is the rule on:
b. Used in the commission of a crime a. Duplicity of offense
c. That are within the immediate vicinity b. Complex crime
d. Which are means of committing violence c. compound crime
113. Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has d. continuing crime
undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the 125.In People v. Pinzon under what Constitutional Mandates
maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is an arresting officer should inform the person to be arrested
charged with? of his rights?
a. Batas Pambansa 95 a. Art. III Sec. 12
b. Batas Pambansa 85 b. b.Miranda Doctrine
c. Batas Pambansa 105 c. R.A. 7438
d. Batas Pambansa 965 d. Rule 115
114. An advantageous result in the integration of correctional 126.It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous
agencies is: Drugs Act of 2002, providing Funds Therefore and for
a. More physical facilities to maintain Other Purposes.
b. More prisoners to supervise a. RA 9165
c. Divided resources such as manpower and b. RA 1956
finances c. RA 9156
d. Better coordination of services and increased d. RA 1965
cost-efficiency 127.What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug
115. It is the system or criminal procedure which is incidents?
characterized by secrecy of investigation and the option of a. Reclusion Perpetua
the defense and prosecution to appeal. b. Life Imprisonment
a. Inquisatorial c. Death
b. mixed d. Fine
c. accusatorial 109. Complaint and information can be amended to ____
d. fixed after plea and during the trial with leave of court and without
causing prejudice to the rights of the accused.
116. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted a. form
either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the b. substance and form
offended party and the right to appeal are limited to the c. substance
defense and the accused presumed innocent. d. none of these
a. inquisitorial 128.A petition for suspension of criminal action upon the
b. mixed pendency of a prejudicial question in a civil action may be
c. accusatorial filed:
d. fixed a. before the prosecution rests
117. That law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC, MTCC, b. before arraignment
MCTC. c. before preliminary investigation
a. R.A. 7691 d. before plea
b. R.A. 8493
c. BP 129 129.Is that which in a case the resolution of which is a logical
d. R.A. 1379 antecedent of the issue involved therein, and the
118. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court, cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.
EXCEPT: a. Prejudicial question
a. Extent of penalty b. inquest proceeding
b. Person accused c. preliminary investigation
c. territory d. custodial investigation
d. subject matter 130.Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is
119. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a
peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of crime has been committed and the respondent is probably
the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.
the prosecutor.
a. Complaint a. preliminary investigation
b. Pleadings b. inquest proceeding
c. Information c. prejudicial question
d. Affidavit d. custodial investigation
120.Prescription of offense commence to run:
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended 131.Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases
party or peace officers or their agent. punishable by:
b. Upon filing of cases in court. a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one
c. Upon escape of the accused. (1) day
d. Upon re-appearance of the accused b. more than four years, two months and one day
c. less than four years, two months and one day
121. The following are cases covered by rules on summary d. six years, one day and above
procedure, EXCEPT:
132.The following persons are authorized to conduct d. conditional pardon
preliminary investigation, EXCEPT:
a. Judges or Metropolitan Trial Court 145.Trial _____ may proceed in case the accused person
b. Provincial and city prosecutors and their failed to appear at the trial without justification and despite
assistants due notice.
c. Judges of the Municipal Trial Court and Municipal a. In absentia
Circuit Trial Courts b. in flagrante de licto
d. National and Regional state prosecutors; c. on the merits
e. a and c d. none of these
133.After the filing of the Complaint or Information in court 146.When Bail is a matter of right?
without a preliminary investigation within how many days a. Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan,
an accused person upon knowing the filing of said Municipal or Municipal Circuit trial court.
complaint may ask for preliminary investigation? b. Upon conviction by the Regional Trial Court
a. 5 days c. before conviction by the Regional Trial Court
b. 15 days d. upon preliminary investigation
c. 10 days 147. Bail is a matter of right under the constitution, EXCEPT:
d. 30 days a. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua to death
134.Is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may b. crime punishable by life imprisonment
be bound to answer for the commission of an offense. c. crimes punishable by death
a. Arrest d. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua or life
b. Warrant imprisonment when evidence of guilt is strong
c. jurisdiction
d. Seizure 148.When bail is a discretionary?
135.Validity of the warrant of arrest? a. Upon conviction by the RTC not punishable by
a. no fixed duration reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment.
b. 30 days b. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years
c. 20 days but not more than 20 years who is a recidivist.
d. 10 days c. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years
136.Lifetime of search warrant? but not more than 20 years when there is undue
a. 10 days risk that he may commit another crime during the
b. 20 days pendency of the appeal.
c. 5 days d. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years
d. No fixed duration but not more than 20 years who has previously
137.Within how many days upon the date of execution of a escaped from legal confinement.
warrant of arrest the person charged with its execution
shall report to the court which issue such warrant when 149.Is an offense which, under the existing law at the time of
arrest was not been made? its commission and at the time of the application for
a. 10 days admission to bail may be punished with death.
b. 30 days a. capital offense
c. 20 days b. less grave
d. 5 days c. heinous crime
138.It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing d. grave felony
the law breakers in the execution of their criminal plan. 150.The following are kinds of bail, EXCEPT:
a. instigation a. Property Bond
b. investigation b. Cash Bond
c. entrapment c. Corporate surety bond
d. Entertainment d. Recognizance
139. In flagrante delicto means _____? e. None of the choices
a. caught in the act 151.When the maximum penalty to which the accused may be
b. instigation sentenced is destierro, he shall be released after ____ of
c. caught after commission preventive imprisonment.
d. entrapment a. 30 days
140.When arrest may be made? b. 20 days
a. At any time of the day and night c. 15 days
b. At day time d. 60 days
c. At night time 152.Bail shall automatically be cancelled upon:
d. from sun dust till dawn a. acquittal of the accused
b. execution of the judgment of conviction
141. When making an arrest the arresting officer ____ the c. dismissal of the case
warrant of arrest in his possession? d. all of the choices
a. Need not have 153.It is the rule which states that if the inculpatory facts and
b. Should always have circumstances are capable of two or more interpretation,
c. may sometime have one which is consistent with the innocence of the accused
d. need to have and the other consistent with his guilt, or they are evenly
142.It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement balanced. The constitutional presumption of innocence
officer after a person has been taken into custody. should tilt the scale in favor of the accused and he must
a. custodial investigation be acquitted.
b. inquest a. Equipoise rule
c. interview b. Presumption of guilt
d. interrogation c. Hornbook doctrine
143. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even d. due process of law
without a warrant? 154.Refers to the counsel provided by the government to
assist destitute litigant?
a. When the crime was committed in the presence a. Counsel de officio
of the arresting officer. b. counsel de parte
b. When the crime was in fact been committed and c. Public Attorney’s Office
there is personal knowledge based on probable d. National Prosecution Office
cause that the person to be arrested has 155.It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend
committed it. and to testify or to bring with him any books or documents
c. When the person to be arrested is an escapees. under his control at the trial of an action.
d. All of the choices a. subpoena
144.It is a security given for the temporary release of a person b. subpoena ducestecum
in custody of the law.
a. Bail c. subpoena ad testificandum
b. parole d. d. warrant of arrest
c. fine
156.Unless shorter period is provided by special law or a. 30 days
Supreme Court Circular, the arraignment shall be held b. 15 days
within ___ days from the date the court acquires c. 20 days
jurisdiction over the person of the accused. d. 60 days
a. 30 days 168.The trial court have how many days from the first day of
b. 10 days trial to terminate the same?
c. 15 days a. 60 days
d. 5 days b. 365 days
157. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ c. 180 days
shall be entered. d. 150 days
a. Not guilty
b. admission by silence 169.The trial of a case can be made in absentia except on the
c. guilty following circumstances:
d. none a. at the arraignment and plea
b. during the trial whenever necessary for
158.When reception of evidence is necessary under the identification purposes
following circumstances: c. at the promulgation of sentence, unless for a light
a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense offense
b. plea of guilty to capital offense d. all of the choices
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense 170.The order of trial is:
d. all of these a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal
b. Prosecution, cross, redirect, re-cross
159.When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re direct
motion alleging among others the defect of the complaint d. Direct, cross, rebuttal, and surrebattal
or information and the details desired in order to enable 171.Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings,
him to properly answer and prepare for trial. This motion is mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative
known as: device to assist him in testimony.
a. motion for bill of particular a. Testimonial aids
b. motion for clarification b. Emotional security items
c. motion to dismiss c. support
d. motion for postponement d. none of these
172.It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages
160.Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be of examination of a child, if the same will further the
suspended on the following grounds: interest of justice.
a. The accused appears to be suffering from a. leading questions
unsound mental condition. b. relevant
b. There exist a prejudicial question. c. misleading
c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the d. Narrative
prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office 173.Which of the following is a ground for discharge of an
of the President . accused to be state witness:
d. All of the choices a. there is absolute necessity for the testimony of
161.A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by the accused.
an accused is: b. said accused does not appear to be the most
a. Motion to quash guilty
b. nolleprosequi c. said accused has not been convicted of a crime
c. Motion to dismiss involving moral turpitude/
d. bill of particulars d. all of the choices
162. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and 174. After the prosecution rest its case, the accused person
punish or the termination of the power to prosecute or may move for the dismissal of the case on:
punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite a. on its own initiative after giving the prosecution
period from the commission of the offense. an opportunity to be heard.
a. Prescription of crime b. Demurrer to evidence
b. acquisitive c. motion for reconsideration
c. prescription of penalty d. motion for new trial
d. extinctive 175. It is the judicial examination and determination of the
163. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the issue in an action or proceeding, civil or criminal.
danger of being prosecuted for the same offense for the a. pre-trial
second time. b. trial
c. plea bargaining
a. double jeopardy d. Judgment
b. double trial 176.Is the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or
c. double trouble not guilty of the offense charged and the imposition of the
d. double counter proper penalty and civil liability.
164.Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by a. judgment
imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of any b. rendition of judgment
amount or both shall become permanent after ____. c. promulgation of judgment
a. one year d. conviction
b. 2 years
c. 5 years 177.It is the degree of proof which does not excluding the
d. d. 4 years possibility of error, produces absolute certain. Moral
165.Within how many days after arraignment and from the certainty only is required.
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the a. acquittal
accused shall order a pre-trial conference? b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
a. 30 days c. clear and convincing
b. 15 days d. preponderance of evidence
c. 20 days 178.It is the finding of not guilty based on merits or that the
d. d. 60 days evidence does not show that his guilt is proof beyond
reasonable doubt.
166.How many days are given to an accused person to a. dismissal
prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? b. conviction
a. 15 days c. acquittal
b. 20 days d. judgment
c. 30 days 179.Judgment becomes final when?
d. 180 days a. the period for perfecting an appeal lapse.
167.The trial of a case shall commence with ___ days from b. when the sentence is partially of totally satisfied
receipt of the pre-trial order? or served.
c. when the accused waived in writing his right to c. Used or intended to be used as the means of
appeal. committing an offense
d. when he appealed for probation d. Firearm
e. all of the choices 193. When search must be made?
a. in the day time
180. Which of the following cannot be filed after judgment of b. only during sunrise
conviction becomes final. c. any time of the day and night
a. Motion for new trial d. in the presence of two witnesses
b. Motion for reconsideration
c. Motion to dismiss 194.In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines is the
d. All of these ____?
181. Who represents the State in an action for appeal? a. Plaintiff
a. prosecutor b. offended party
b. Secretary of DOJ c. defendant
c. appellant d. Respondent
d. Solicitor General 195.A complaint or information have the same legal content,
182.The party appealing the case shall be called? however, they differ as to who subscribe to it, who
a. appellant subscribe an information?
b. accused a. Accused
c. Appellee b. Prosecutor
d. Defendant c. Witness
183.It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit d. victim
where the power of the court is exercised and which is 196. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court,
jurisdictional in criminal case. the following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary
a. Venue investigation except?
b. Jurisprudence a. Provincial and City Prosecutor
c. jurisdiction b. Judge MTC/MCTC
d. court c. Regional State Prosecutor
184. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first d. Public Attorney’s office
instance. e. b and d
a. Original jurisdiction 197.An Special Law which defines certain rights of accused,
b. Exclusive jurisdiction detained or under custodial investigation as well as duties
c. concurrent jurisdiction of the arresting detailing and investigation officer.
d. appellate jurisdiction a. R.A. 7438
185. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of b. R.A. 7348
the others. c. R.A. 7834
a. Original jurisdiction d. d. R.A. 3478
b. Exclusive jurisdiction
c. appellate jurisdiction 198.Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused
d. concurrent jurisdiction cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. This
186.It is the system or criminal procedure which is principle also known as:
characterized by secrecy of investigation and the option of a. rights against illegal arrest
the defense and prosecution to appeal. b. the right to presume innocent
a. Inquisitorial c. rights against self- incrimination
b. mixed d. right to live
c. accusatorial 199.Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following
d. fixed pleading are prohibited except:
187.It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted a. motion to quash
either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the b. bill of particular
offended party and the right to appeal are limited to the c. answer
defense and the accused is innocent. d. demurred to evidence
a. inquisitorial 200.The following cases committed by public official with salary
b. mixed grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive jurisdiction of
c. accusatorial the Sandiganbayan, Except:
d. fixed a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A.
188.In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court, 1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two
EXCEPT: of the RPC
a. Extent of penalty b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in
b. Person accused connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and
c. territory 14-A.
d. subject matter c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to
189.Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any peace their office.
officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of the law d. None of the choices
violated filed either to the court or to the office of the 201.It is the law which classifies rape from crime against
prosecutor. chastity to crimes against person, making crime
a. Complaint prosecutable even without a complaint filed the offender
b. Pleadings Section party?
c. Information a. R.A. 8353
d. Affidavit b. R.A. 9283
c. R.A. 8493
190.Prescription of offense commences to run: d. d. R.A. 7055
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended 202.Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
party or peace officers or their agent. instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as
b. Upon filing of cases in court. provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances
c. Upon escape of the accused. can a civil action for recovery of civil liability can be
d. Upon re-appearance of the accused separated?
a. When the offended party waives the civil action;
191. When an appeal shall be taken? b. When the offended party reserves his right to
a. within 10 days institute the civil action;
b. within 30 days c. When the institution of the civil action is made
c. within 15 days prior to the criminal action.
d. within 5 days d. all of the choices
192.Property subject of search and seizure, EXCEPT? 203.What is the effect of death of the accused in civil actions?
a. Subject of the offense a. It extinguishes the civil liability arising from delict.
b. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits
of the offense
b. Independent civil action instituted may be
continued against the estate or legal 215.The right of the State to initiate criminal actions in behalf of
representative of the accused. incapacitated individual with no known parents,
c. If the accused dies before arraignment, the case grandparents or guardian is known as:
shall be dismissed without prejudice to any civil a. Doctrine of parens patriae
action the offended party may file against the b. Doctrine of non-suability
estate of the deceased. c. police power
d. all of the choices d. habeas corpus
204.Pursuant to Rule 114 of the Rules of Court, a detainee
may be released on bail in the following manner, except: 216.The modes of making an arrest are:
a. property bond a. by an actual restraint of the person to be arrested
b. performance bond b. by the submission to the custody of the person
c. corporate surety making the arrest
d. recognized c. by using unreasonable force
205.Demurer to evidence may be filed by a party to a case d. a and b only
a. after arraignment e. a and c only
b. after the defense has rested its case
c. after trial 217.The following are crimes Against National Security and
d. after the prosecution had rested its case Law of Nations, EXCEPT.
206.The accused may questioned the legality of his arrest ___ a. Treason
otherwise the said accused could no longer questioned b. Piracy and mutiny
the same and that the arrest is presumed by the court as c. Espionage
valid. d. Rebellion
a. before arraignment 218. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a
b. before conviction person who owes allegiance to it.
c. before preliminary investigation a. treason
d. before trial b. espionage
207.The following are the matters to be taken up in pre-trial c. adherence to the enemy
conference except: d. rebellion
a. examination of witnesses 219.The degree of proof required to convict a person accused
b. marking of evidence of treason.
c. plea bargaining a. substantial evidence
d. stipulation & simplification of issues b. proof beyond reasonable doubt
208.The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action c. two witness rule
shall be made: d. preponderance of evidence
a. before arraignment
b. before the pre-trial conference 220.The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT:
c. before the prosecution rest its case a. A vessel is on the high seas or in Philippine
d. before the prosecution presents evidence waters;
209.Amendment without leave of court before the accused b. T h e o ff e n d e r s a r e n o t m e m b e r s o f i t s
pleads is allowed by the Rules of Court under the following complement or passengers of the vessel;
instances EXCEPT: c. That the offender resist to a superior officer;
a. amendment as to substance d. The offenders either attack or seize that vessel or
b. amendment as to form seize the whole or part of the cargo of said
c. amendment that reflect typographical error vessel, its equipment or personal belonging of its
d. amendments to downgrades the nature of the complement or passengers.
crime 221.Which of the following does NOT qualify the crime of
Piracy:
210.One of the requisites in order that one of the accused may a. Whenever the pirates have seized the vessel on
be discharged in order to be state witness is that the high seas or in Philippine waters
a. Said accused does not appear to be the most b. Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by
guilty boarding or firing upon the same.
b. Said accused does not appear to be least guilty c. c.Whenever the pirates have abandoned their
c. Said accused must not appear to be guilty victims without means of saving themselves.
d. Said accused must appear to be innocent as char d. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder,
211. P.D. 1508 is repealed by the Local government Code of homicide, physical injuries, or rape.
1991. Under the said code, the Lupon of each barangay 222.Otherwise known as the “Anti-Piracy and Anti-highway
shall have authority to bring together the parties actually Robbery Law of 1974.
residing in the same city or municipality for amicable a. Comm. Act No. 616
settlement where the offense committed is punishable by b. P.D. 532
imprisonment exceeding one (1) year. This statement is: c. P.D. 533
d. R.A. 6235
a. absolutely true 223. PO1 Matiyaga, without legal grounds arrested and
b. partly true detained Mr. Tamad and deprived said person of his liberty
c. absolutely false is liable for:
d. partly false a. illegal detention
212.In Metropolitan Trial Court, the complaint is filed with the: b. arbitrary detention
a. Office of the President c. unlawful arrest
b. Office of the Clerk of Court d. kidnapping
c. Office of the Prosecutor 224. The following are legal grounds for the detention of any
d. Office of the Ombudsman person, EXCEPT:
a. commission of a crime
213. In general, the formal requisites of a complaint or b. escape from prison / penal institution
information are the following, EXCEPT: c. violent insanity or other ailment requiring the
a. It must be in writing compulsory confinement
b. It must be in the name of the People of the d. a and c only
Philippines. e. a, b and c
c. It must be filed with the Prosecutor’s Office
d. It must be filed in court 225.The following are acts constitute a crime of delaying
214.Z as husband dies before he could institute the criminal release, EXCEPT:
action for adultery against his wife and the paramour. The a. Delays the performance of a judicial or executive
case may: order for the release of a prisoner.
a. No longer be prosecuted b. Delays the service of the notice of such order to
b. Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents said prisoner.
c. Still be prosecuted c. Delays the proceedings upon any petition for the
d. Be prosecuted by the State liberation of such person.
d. Delays the filing of a criminal offense against the b. rebellion
detainee to the proper judicial authority. c. coup d’etat
e. All of these d. sedition
235.It is a felony which in its general sense is raising of
226.Mr. Mabait was arrested for illegal possession of firearms communications or disturbances in the state outside of the
which is considered a low power gun. Considering that the legal method.
crime is punishable by correctional penalty, within how a. treason
many hours should that a case be filed to the proper b. rebellion
judicial authority? c. coup d’etat
a. 12 hours d. sedition
b. 18 hours 236.A police officer, who arrested a member of congress while
c. 24 hours going to attend a senate session for a traffic violation is
d. 36 hours liable for:
227. It is the unauthorized act of public officer who compels a a. crime against popular representation
person to change his resident or otherwise expels him b. acts tending to prevent the meeting of the
from the Philippines. National Assembly
a. violation of domicile c. violation of parliamentary immunity
b. arbitrary detention d. all of the foregoing
c. trespass to dwelling 237.The Kilusan ng mga hindi Ungas at Paranoid (KHUP) was
d. expulsion organized by Mr. Panot allegedly for protecting the poor
laborer, where in fact it was organized to form a group that
228.The following are act constituting Violation of Domicile. would rise against the rich businessmen of their city. For
a. Any public officer or employee who enters any what crime can they be charged?
dwelling against the will of the owner thereof. a. Illegal assembly
b. Any public officer or employee who searches any b. Illegal association
papers or other effects found therein without the c. coup d’etat
previous consent of the owner. d. rebellion
c. Any public officer or employee who refuses to
leave the premises, after having surreptitiously 238.Any association, organization, political party or group of
entered said dwelling and after having been persons organized for the purpose of overthrowing the
required to leave the premises. Government of the Republic of the Philippines or for the
d. Any public officer or employee who searches purpose of removing the allegiance to said government or
domicile without witnesses. its law, the territory of the Phils. or any part thereof, with
e. All of the choices the open or covert assistance or support of a foreign
power by force violence, deceit or other illegal means. Is a
229.SPO1 Masinop having authorized by a search warrant, crime of:
search the house of Mr. Mando N. Ducot. After having a. Rebellion
discovered the item specified in the warrant, SPO1 b. Illegal Association
Masinop took the same and includes the jewelry box filled c. Subversive Association or Organization
with jewelry which is not included in the list of the item to d. Illegal Assembly
be seized. SPO1 Masinop is: 239.Mrs. Grace, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with engineer
a. Liable for the crime of violation of Pandac and Councilor Panot were surveying the land
domicile occupied by informal settlers for government projects and
b. Not liable for the crime of violation of domicile for their relocation. The residents oppose with the plan.
c. May not be liable for violation of Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents, slapped the face of
domicile Mayor Ditas when the latter came near. One of the close
d. Liable for a crime but not on escorts of the Mayor defends her but Mrs. Lourdes also
violation of domicile slapped him and punched as well. For what crime Mrs.
230.The following are crimes against the fundamental law of Lourdes can be charged for in relation to Mayor Grace?
the States. Which one can be committed by private a. Sedition
person? b. Slander by Deeds
a. Arbitrary detention c. Direct Assault
b. Violation of Domicile d. Rebellion
c. Interruption of religious worship 240.The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
d. Offending religious feelings a. The assault is committed with a weapon
e. Prohibition, interruption or dissolution of peaceful b. The offender is a public officer or employee
meetings c. The offender lays hands upon a person in
231.The law which provides Human Security authority
a. R.A. 9208
b. R.A. 9745 d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a
c. R.A. 9372 person in authority
d. R.A. 7438 241.Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an
individual or as a member of some court or government
232.Angelo Vergara not only confessed his membership with corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____?
the Sparrow unit but also his participation and that of his a. Agent of a person in authority
Group in the killing of SPO2 Manalad while the latter was b. Judicial authority
manning the traffic along C. M. Recto Ave. Manila. Under c. person in authority
the facts given, what crime was committed by the former d. Public employee
and that of his Group? 242.It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously
a. murder disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such
b. sedition person, while engaged in the performance of official
c. rebellion functions.
d. homicide a. Direct assault
b. Indirect Assault
233.This crime is committed by raising publicly and taking c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National
arms against government to completely overthrow and Assembly
supersede said existing government. d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in
a. treason authority or the agents of such person
b. rebellion 243.The following are crimes classified as public disorders,
c. coup d’etat EXCEPT.
d. sedition a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order
234.A swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation,
stealth, directed against duly constituted authorities, public b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful
utilities, military camps and installation with or without utterances
civilian support for the purpose of diminishing state power. c. Alarms and scandals
a. treason d. Delivering prisoners form Jails
e. None of the choices 255.It is crime committed by a judge who knowingly issued an
244.Mr. Pasaway while under the influence of liquor fired a gun unjust order which decides some point or matter but which
in the air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating however, is not a final decisions of the matter in issue:
his birthday. Such act constitutes ___? a. Knowingly rendering unjust judgment
a. illegal discharge of firearm b. Judgment rendered through negligence
b. alarm & scandals c. Unjust interlocutory order
c. disturbances d. Malicious delay in the administration of justice
d. outcry e. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor –
245.The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion revelation of secrets
of service of sentence.
a. By means of unlawful entry By breaking doors, 256.This one is committed by public officers or employees
windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors. who, in dereliction of the duties of his office, shall
b. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, maliciously refrain from instituting prosecution for the
violence or intimidation. punishment of violators of law, or shall tolerate the
c. Through connivance with other convicts or commission of offenses.
employees of the penal institution. a. Direct bribery
d. All of the choices b. Indirect bribery
246.Mr. Bandido was convicted for a crime of robbery before c. Qualified bribery
serving his sentence or while serving the same he d. Prevaricacion or negligence or tolerance in
committed a crime of murder. What condition is said to prosecution of offenses
have occurred?
a. recidivism 257.What crime is committed by any public officer or employee
b. reiteration who shall agree to perform an act constituting a crime, in
c. quasi-recidivism connection with the performance of his official duties, in
d. habitual delinquency consideration of any offer, promise, gift or present received
247.It is committed by giving to a treasury or bank note or any by such officer, personally or through the mediation of
instrument payable to bearer or to order the appearance of another.
a true and genuine document. It is likewise committed by a. Direct bribery
falsification through erasing, substituting, counterfeiting, or b. Qualified bribery
altering by any means, the figures, letters, words or signs c. Indirect bribery
contained therein (Art. 169) d. Prevarication or negligence or tolerance in
prosecution
a. Falsification of public document 258.Any public office who is entrusted with law enforcement
b. Forgery who refrain from arresting or prosecuting an offender who
c. Falsification has committed a crime punishable by reclusion perpetua
d. d.Fasification by public officer, employee or and/or death in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or
notary or ecclesiastical minister present.
248.A person who counterfeits or imitate a traffic police sticker a. bribery
and sell the same shall be liable for a crime of: b. direct bribery
a. Estafa through falsification of a public document c. qualified bribery
b. Theft through falsification of a public document d. indirect bribery
c. Falsification of public document 259.It is a crime committed by any appointed public official who
d. Forgeries shall become interested in any transaction within his
249.This crime is committed by any person without any territory, subject to his jurisdiction during his incumbency.
distinction, by falsely representing himself as an officer a. Prohibited transaction
and performing under pretense of official position any act b. Possession of prohibited interest by a public
pertaining to such person. officer
a. usurpation of authority c. Fraud against public treasury
b. estafa d. Prevarication
c. usurpation of official functions 260. This is committed by an accountable public officer who,
d. a & c shall appropriate, or shall misappropriate or shall consent,
250.Any other name a person which publicly applies to himself or through abandonment or negligence shall permit
without authority of the law. another person to take public funds or property.
a. alias a. Direct bribery
b. A.K.A. b. Technical malversation
c. fictitious names c. Malversation of public funds
d. true name d. Embezzelment
251.It is committed by a person, who being under oath are 261. The following are crimes classified under infidelity or
required to testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a public officers:
hearing before a competent authority, shall deny the truth a. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners
or say something contrary to it. b. Infidelity in the custody of documents
a. forgery c. Revelation of secrets
b. perjury d. all of these
c. falsification
d. false testimony 262.This is committed by any public officer or employee who
252.Consist of acts which are offensive to decency and good shall overdo himself in the correction or handling of a
customs, which having been committed publicly, have prisoner or detention prisoner under his charge by the
given rise to public scandal to persons who have witness imposition of punishment not authorize by the regulations
the same. or inflicting punishment in a cruel or humiliating manner.
a. immoral doctrines a. Police brutality
b. obscene publication and exhibition b. Sadism
c. grave scandal c. Maltreament of prisoners
d. libel d. Physical injures
253.Refers to persons having no apparent means of
subsistence but has the physical ability to work and 263.This is committed by any public officer who shall solicit or
neglects to apply himself or herself to lawful calling. make immoral advances to a woman under his custody or
a. bum to other women like the wife, daughter, sister or relative
b. vagrant within the same degree by affinity of any person in the
c. prostitute custody of a warden or officer.
d. destitute
254.It is the improper performance of some acts which should a. Sexual harassment
have been lawfully be done. b. Abuses against chastity
a. malfeasance c. Acts of Lasciviousness
b. misfeasance d. Abuse of authority
c. nonfeasance 264.Takes place whenever a person is killed during a
d. dereliction of duty confusion attendant to quarrel among the several persons
not continuing a group and the perpetrators cannot be a. light threat
ascertained. b. light coercion
a. homicide c. unjust vexation
b. murder d. grave coercion
c. death caused by tumultuous affray 277. It is the taking of personal belonging to another, with
d. riots intent to gain by means of violence against, or
intimidations upon things of any person, or using force
265.Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife causing upon anything.
the death of their unborn child is guilty of: a. robbery
a. parricide b. theft
b. abortion c. brigandage
c. intentional abortion d. estafa
d. unintentional abortion 278.A stole thing from a locker by means of the key of the
266.A formal and regular combat previously concerted owner, what crime was committed?
between two parties in the presence of two or more a. a theft
seconds of lawful age on each side, who make the b. robbery
selection of arms and fix all other conditions. c. possession of pick locks
a. riot d. possession of false key
b. duel
c. tumultuous affray
d. mutilation 279.A crime committed by more than three armed malefactors
267.It is the lopping or clipping off some part of the body, e.g. a who form a band for the purpose of committing robbery in
woman cutting the penis of a male lover to deprive of the the highway or kidnapping persons for the purpose of
latter of its true. extortion or to obtain ransom, or for any other purpose to
a. physical injury be attained by means of force & violence.
b. duel a. Robbery
c. tumultuous affray b. kidnapping
d. mutilation c. brigandage
268.What crime is committed by person who assaulted d. d. theft
another, causing the latter to be absent from work for two 280. Committed by any person who with intent to gain but
weeks? without violence or intimidation of persons nor force upon
a. mutilation things shall take personal property of another without
b. serious physical injury latter’s consent.
c. less serious physical injury a. robbery
d. slight physical injury b. kidnapping
269.Committed by a man having a carnal knowledge with a c. brigandage
child less than 12 years old. d. theft
a. rape 281. A housemaid who was caught in the act of carting away
b. acts of lasciviousness the furniture of her employer would be charged of what
c. seduction crime?
d. abduction a. theft
270.A private individual who detains another for the purpose of b. robbery
depriving the latter of his liberty for more than three days c. qualified theft
is guilty of: d. estafa
a. illegal detention 282.Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the
b. arbitrary detention property would be large when surveyed is a crime of:
c. serious illegal detention a. estafa
d. slight illegal detention b. chattel mortgage
271.A person who got into a dispute with another, assaulted c. usurpation
the latter for the purpose of delivering his victims to the d. altering boundaries or landmarks
jailer is guilty of what crime?
a. illegal detention
b. illegal arrest 283. It is the willful damaging of another’s property for the sake
c. unlawful arrest of causing damage due to hate, revenge or other evil
d. physical injuries motive.
272. Refers to a crime committed by any person who threatens a. swindling
another with the infliction upon the person, honor or b. destruction of property
property of the latter or of his family of any wrong c. malicious mischief
amounting to a crime. d. chattel mortgage
a. grave threat 284. What crime was committed by a married woman having
b. light threat carnal knowledge with a man not her husband?
c. grave coercion a. adultery
d. light coercion b. concubinage
273.When a threat to commit a wrong not consulting a crime is c. acts of lasciviousness
made by another, what crime is committed? d. seduction
a. grave threat 285.A married man who allows his paramour to live in their
conjugal dwelling is liable of what crime?
b. light threat a. adultery
c. graver coercion b. concubinage
d. light coercion c. acts of lasciviousness
274.Any person who by means of violence shall seize anything d. seduction
belonging to his debtor for the purpose of applying the 286. Lewd acts committed upon person of either sex not
same to the payment of a debt, is committing. amounting to rape by using force or intimidation.
a. grave threat b. light threat a. adultery
c. light coercion d. graver coercion b. concubinage
275.It is a felony wherein a person compels another by means c. acts of lasciviousness
of force, violence or intimidation to do something against d. seduction
his will, whether right or wrong. 287.A person who ripped the dress of a woman and placed his
penis over the woman’s genital organ is liable for what
a. grave threat crime?
b. light threat
c. grave coercion a. rape
d. light coercion b. seduction
276.It includes human conduct, which although not productive c. forcible seduction
of some physical or material harm would annoy any d. acts of lasciviousness
innocent person
288.Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his 300. Acts or omissions punishable by law are crimes. What are
girlfriend by promising the latter with marriage, what crime acts committed or omitted in violations of special laws?
was committed? a. felony
a. seduction b. offense
b. acts of lasciviousness c. misdemeanor
c. abduction d. in fractional law
d. none of the foregoing
289. Alfred directed his employee Luz to deliver several pieces 301.Basically, there are three fundamental characteristics of
of jewelries to his Mother whom he had misunderstanding. criminal law. What characteristics of criminal law states
The latter however, pawned the said jewelries and that criminal law is binding on all persons who live or
misappropriated the same. What would be the proper sojourn in the Philippines?
offense committed by Luz? a. Generality
a. swindling b. Territoriality
b. theft c. Prospective
c. robbery d. Retroactive
d. malicious mischief
290. Which of the following crimes does not operates as an 302.The following are the exemption to the rule of Generality,
absolutory cause which could serves as an exemption EXCEPT:
against members of the family from criminal ability in a. Those who are subject of treaty stipulation
crimes against properties. b. Those who are immune under the law of
a. Robbery preferential application
b. theft c. Those who are exempted under Public
c. malicious mischief International law
d. estafa d. President, Prime Minister and Ambassador
291.It is defined as a method fixed for the apprehension and
prosecution of person alleged to have committed a crime. 303. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto
a. Criminal procedure on January 12, 2009. June 12, 2009, a city ordinance was
b. Criminal jurisprudence passed punishing loitering within the vicinity of Isetan
c. rules of court Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of loitering?
d. rules of procedure
292.It refers to the authority or power to hear and decided a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
cases. b. Yes, under the principle of retroactive effect of
a. Jurisdiction criminal law
b. b. Jurisprudence c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity of
c. Venue the law
d. territory d. No, for a did not loiter again
293. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit 304.Under what characteristics of criminal law the above
where the power of the court is exercised and which is circumstance falls?
jurisdictional in criminal case. a. Generality
a. Venue b. Territoriality
b. Jurisprudence c. Prospective
c. jurisdiction d. Retroactive
d. court 305. What legal maxims support the above scenario?
294.It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance.
a. Original jurisdiction a. Pro reo Principle
b. Exclusive jurisdiction b. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege
c. concurrent c. Actus non facitreum, nisi mens sit rea
d. appellate jurisdiction d. Actus me invitusfactus non
295.It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the
others. 306.Which of the following legal maxim means “the act cannot
a. Original jurisdiction be criminal unless the mind is criminal”.
b. Exclusive jurisdiction a. Pro reo
c. appellate jurisdiction b. Nullumcrimennullapoena sine lege
d. concurrent jurisdiction c. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea
d. Actus me invito factus non est meus actus
296. Is that branch of municipal or public law which defines
crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their 307.A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its
punishment? essence being the substitution of a legislative flat for a
a. civil law judicial determination of guilt.
b. procedural law a. Ex post facto law
c. criminal law b. Bill of attainder
d. substantive law c. Retroactive law
297.The following are sources of criminal law, EXCEPT: d. Prospective
a. Act 3815 308.The following persons are exempt from criminal liability
b. City and municipal ordinance under the principle of public international law, EXCEPT:
c. Special penal laws a. Heads of states
d. constitution b. ambassador
298. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of c. ministers of plenipotentiary
criminal laws in the Philippines. It took effect on? d. charges d affaires
a. January 1, 1923 e. None of the choices
b. January 1, 1932 309.Crimes committed within the territorial water of another
c. December 8, 1930 country can either be triable in that country or in the
d. January 1, 1933 country where the vessel is registered. What rule provides
299.The following are characteristics of classical theory of that a crime committed on board vessel shall be NOT
criminal law, EXCEPT: tried in the court of the country having territorial
a. the basis of criminal liability is human free will jurisdiction, unless their commission affects the peace and
and the purpose of the penalty is retribution. security of the territory or the safety of the state is
b. Man is essentially a moral creature with an endangered.
absolutely free will to choose between good and a. French rule
evil, thereby placing more stress upon the effect b. American Rule
or result of the felonious act than the man. c. Spanish Rule
c. there is scant regard to the human element. d. English Rule
d. That man is subdued occasionally by strange and 310.Any bodily movement tending to produce some effect in
morbid phenomenon which constrains him to do the external world.
wrong, in spite of or contrary to his violation. a. act
b. Omission
c. Dolo 321.A with intent to kill, fired a gun towards B, hitting B at his
d. Culpa shoulder. B was able to run away and survived the injury,
311. Felonies are committed either by Dolo or ____. what crime is committed by A?
a. Deceit a. Physical Injury
b. Fault b. Frustrated Homicide
c. Culpa c. Attempted Homicide
d. Intent d. Less serious physical injury

312. Things which are wrongful in their nature. 322. The following are the elements of frustrated felonious,
a. evil EXCEPT:
b. mala in ce a. The offender performs all the acts of execution
c. mala in se b. All the acts performed would produce the felony
d. mala prohibita as a consequence but the felony is not produced.
313. The moving power which impels one to action for a c. By reason of causes independent of the will of
definite result. the perpetrator.
a. intent d. Due to some cause or accident other than his
b. motive own spontaneous desistance.
c. deceit
d. fault 323.Mrs. Lucila with intent to kill puts poison on the coffee of
her husband Mr. William Herschel, when Mr. was at the
314.The following are crime committed by mistakes which stage of convulsion, Mrs. Lucila had a change of heart and
does not operate as an Exemption/justification, EXCEPT: administer an antidote causing Mr. William to survive but
a. Aberratio Ictus left in comatose. What was committed by Mrs. Lucila?
b. Error in Personae a. Frustrated parricide
c. PreaterIntentionem b. b.attempted parricide
d. Mistake in fact c. serious physical injury
315. That cause, which, in the natural and continuous d. less serious physical injury
sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening cause, 324. Is that portion of the acts constituting the crime, starting
produces the injury without which the result would not from the point where the offender begins the commission
have occurred. of the crime to that point where he has still control over his
a. Proximate cause acts including their (acts) natural course.
b. Intervening cause a. Subjective Phase
c. Immediate cause b. Objective Phase
d. Probable cause c. Internal Act
316. Death is presumed to be the natural consequence of d. Act of Execution
physical injuries inflicted in the following; EXCEPT 325. Which of the following is NOT a Factor in determining
a. The victim at the time the physical injuries were stage of execution of felony?
inflicted was in normal heath. a. Nature of the offense
b. The death may be expected from the physical b. Elements constituting the felony;
injuries inflicted. c. Manner of committing the felony
c. Death ensued within a reasonable time. d. Intent in committing the crime
d. The resulting injury is due to the intentional act of 326.A, B and C and five unarmed men conspired to rob the
the victim. Banco de Oro. While having their meeting at their safe-
317.The following are elements of impossible crime, EXCEPT: house, a group of PNP personnel arrested them. What
a. That the act performed would be an offense crime was committed by A,B, and C?
against persons or property. a. Illegal Assembly
b. That the act was done with evil intent b. Conspiracy to commit robbery
c. That its accomplishment is inherently impossible, c. Attempted Robbery
or that the means employed is either inadequate d. No crime
or ineffectual. 327.A,B and C conspired to rob the Philippine National Bank in
d. That the act does not constitute a crime of their secret safe house. While they are planning how to
negligence or imprudence. commit the crime, operatives of the NBI barged in and
arrested the group.
318.X tried to kill Y by putting in his food a substance which he
thought was arsenic (poison) when in fact it was just a a. What crime was committed by A,B and C?
sugar. Y was not killed as a consequence. What X did he b. No crime was committed
commit? c. Under the facts no crime was committed as mere
a. Mistake in the blow conspiracy to commit a crime is not punishable
b. No crime committed d. Attempted robbery
c. preaterintentionem e. Frustrated robbery
d. impossible crime 328.Grave felonies are those to which the law attaches the
capital punishment or penalties which in any of their
319. Whenever a court has knowledge of any act which it may periods are:
deem proper to repress and which is not punishable by a. light
law, it shall: b. correctional
c. afflictive
a. Render the proper decision, and shall report to d. reflective
the Chief Executive, through the Department of 329. In case of crimes which are latter subject of special penal
Justice laws, what rule of interpretation shall be applied?
b. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief
Executive, through the Department of Justice. a. The RPC shall be observed
b. The RPC shall prevails over special laws.
c. Render the proper decision, and shall report to c. The RPC will be supplementary to special law
the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
d. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief d. The Special Law shall be supplementary to the
Justice of the Supreme Court. RPC
320.This takes place when the offender commences that 330. It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed to a
commission of a felony by overt acts, and does not person as its author or owner. It implies that the act
perform all the acts of execution which should produce the committed has been freely and consciously done and may
felony by reason of some cause or accident other than his therefore be put down to the doer as his very own.
own spontaneous desistance. a. Guilt
a. Consummated b. Liability
b. Frustrated c. Responsibility
c. Attempted d. Imputability
d. Impossible crime
331.Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with 341. An aggravating circumstances which generally apply to all
the law, so that such person is deemed not to have crimes such as dwelling, nighttime or recidivism.
transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and a. generic
civil liability. b. specific
a. justifying circumstances c. qualifying
b. mitigating circumstances d. Inherent
c. exempting circumstances 342.C raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing
d. aggravating circumstance her using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is
committed aggravated by what circumstances?
332.The following are the requisites for self-defense, EXCEPT a. ignominy
a. Unlawful aggression. b. passion
b. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to c. cruelty
prevent or repel it. d. Craft
c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the 343.Is an act of sovereign power granting a general pardon for
person defending himself. past offense and is rarely exercised in favor of a single
d. Lack of intent on the part of the person defending individual and is usually granted to certain classes of
himself. persons usually political offenders, who are subject to trial
333.Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for but not yet convicted.
the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the
crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary or a. Pardon
negligent. b. Commutation
a. Justifying c. Parole
b. Mitigating d. Amnesty
c. Exempting 344.The law which prohibits the imposition of the death
d. Aggravating penalty?
334.Charles Darwin, 15 year old child, took the cellphone of a. RA 6981
Ms. IsabelaBernales, Charles is ___. b. P.D. 968
a. Liable for the crime of theft c. R.A. 9346
b. Liable for the crime of robbery d. R.A. 4103
c. Not liable for the crime of theft 345.How do you call an offender who within a period of ten
d. Not liable for the crime of robbery (10) years from the date of his release or last conviction of
335.The following circumstances exempt a person from the crimes of Serious Physical Injuries, robbery (robo),
criminal liability though there is civil liability considering Theft (hurto), Estafa or falsification is found guilty of any of
that there is crime committed, EXCEPT: the said crimes a third time or offener?
a. Minority a. Recidivist
b. Accident b. Quasi recidivist
c. Imbecility/Insanity c. Reiteration
d. Acting under compulsion of an irresistible force d. habitual delinquent
e. Acting under the impulse of an uncontrollable 346.The following circumstances are always mitigated in terms
fear of an equal or greater injury. of alternative circumstances, except:
336.The following are exempted from criminal liability, a. Low degree education
EXCEPT: b. Intoxication wherein the drunk person has not
a. Children 15 years of age below intended it or not a habitual drunkard.
b. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without c. Relationship in crimes against property
discernment d. Relationship in crimes against persons
c. Insane persons or an imbecile persons 347. Refers to persons who take direct part in the execution of
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with a crime.
discernment. a. principals
337.Who among the following incurs full responsibility upon b. accessories
commission of a crime? c. accomplice
a. Those 15 years of age and below d. instigators
b. Those who are 18 years of age and above 348.A person who directly induce others to commit a crime is
c. Those who are over 15 but under 18 years of age regarded as:
d. Those who are 18 years of age a. principal by direct participation
b. principal by indispensable cooperation
338.Are those where the act committed is a crime but for c. principal by induction
reasons of public policy and sentiment, there is no penalty d. instigators
imposed. 349.The desire or wish in common thing
a. Justifying circumstances a. intent
b. Mitigating circumstances b. motive
c. Absolutory cause c. conspire
d. Exempting circumstances d. cooperate
339.X was charged before the court. During the pendency of 350. A person lends Juan the bolo which was used in the
his trial he died. What would be the effect of his death on murder of another person is liable as:
the case involved and on his criminal liability? a. principal
a. The criminal case will be dismissed ad his b. accessory
criminal liability is extinguished. c. accomplice
b. The criminal case will proceed and his criminal d. conspirator
liability is not extinguished. 351.Personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no
c. The criminal case will be archived to wait for his property to meet the fine.
resurrection. a. subsidiary penalty
d. Actually there will be no effect at all because his b. suspension
relatives will be the one to face trial and punished c. penalty
in case of his conviction. d. d.civil interdiction
340.Which of the following operates as an absolutory cause.
352.In cases where in the commission of an offense is
a. Spontaneous desistance necessary in the commission of another it is said the crime
b. Accessories who are exempt from criminal is:
liability by reason of relationship a. formal crime
c. Legal spouse or parent who inflicts slight physical b. informal crime
injuries under exceptional circumstances c. compound crime
d. Person exempt from criminal liability for theft d. complex crime
swindling and malicious mischief by relationship 353. An entire penalty, enumerated in the graduated scale of
to the offended party penalties.
e. All of the choices a. degree
b. period
c. prescription b.Suspects
d. duration c.principal actors
354.A sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period d.accessories
defined by law subject to the termination by the parole 365.The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to
board at any time after service of the sentence. execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain time
a. Suspension fixed by law.
a.prescription of crime
b. indeterminate sentence b.prescription of prosecution
c. prescription c.prescription of judgment
d. period of penalty d.prescription of penalty
355.The crime of libel and other similar offenses shall
prescribe in how many years? 366.A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of
a. 15 years penalty is suspended.
b. 1year a.Pardon
c. 10 years b.commutation
d. 5 years c.amnesty
356. Those crime punishable by death, reclusion perpetua and d.reprieve
reclusion temporal shall prescribe in:
a. 20 years 367.Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to
b. 15 years secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the
c. 10 years society.
d. 5 years a.mala prohibita
357.Those punishable by correctional penalties shall prescribe b.mala in se
in how many years? c.private crimes
a. 20 years d.public crimes
b. 15 years 368.Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have
c. 10 years acted together in the commission of a crime.
d. 5 years a.gang
358.Light offenses prescribe in: b.conspiracy
a. 12 months c.band
b. 6 months d.piracy
c. 4 months 369.The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound
d. 2 months to.
a.Negligence
359.A and B had a quarrel. A boxed B. A told B, “I kill you this b.imprudence
week”. A bought a firearms. On Friday, he waited for B c.omission
and shot him but killed C instead. In so far as B is d.act
concerned, the crime committed by A is: 370.Ways and means are employed for the purpose of
a. Attempted murder trapping and capturing the law breaker in the execution of
b. frustrated murder his criminal plan.
c. illegal discharge of firearm a.Misfeasance
d. all of these b.entrapment
360.In so far as C is concerned the crime committed is: c.inducement
a. frustrated homicide d.instigation
b. murder
c. consummated homicide 371.The following are exempted from criminal liability,
d. none of the above EXCEPT:
361.X (as principal) committed the crime of Homicide a. Children 15 years of age below
(consummated) which is punishable by Reclusion b. Insane persons or Imbecile persons
Perpetua. c. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with
discernment
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without
He pleaded guilty to the charge at the arraignment. discernment
Determine his penalty. 372.Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for
a. Prision mayor (at any period) as minimum to the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the
Reclusion temporal (minimum period) as the crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary or
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty. negligent.
b. Prision mayor (minimum) as minimum to a. Justifying
Reclusion temporal (any period) as the maximum b. Exempting
period of the indeterminate penalty c. Mitigating
c. Reclusion temporal as the minimum period to d. Aggravating
reclusion perpetua as maximum 373.When a public officer convinces a person to commit a
d. Prision mayor felony and would arrest him or her after its commission he
362.X (as principal) committed grave coercion (consummated) is committing.
punishable by prision correctional. There was one a. instigation
aggravating circumstances in the commission of the crime b. entrapment
let us say “with the aid of armed men”. Fix his penalty. c. conspiracy
a. Arresto mayor (any period) as minimum to d. proposal
Prision correctional (maximum period) as 374.It operates to reduce the penalty by one to two DEGREES
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty. depending upon what the law provides and cannot be
b. Arresto mayor (medium period) as minimum to offset by any aggravating circumstances.
Prision correctional (any period) as maximum a. Mitigating Circumstances
period of the indeterminate penalty b. Exempting circumstances
c. Prision correctional medium to Prison mayor as c. Ordinary Mitigating Circumstances
maximum period d. Privilege Mitigating circumstances
d. None of the above 375.Crimes are classified in various categories. What
classifications of crime is when a single act results to or
363.Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a more serious or less serious offenses.
crime. a. Continuing Crime
a.15-18 years old b. Complex crime or delito complejo
b.18-70 years old c. Special complex crime
c.9 years old and below d. Compound crime or delito compuesto
d.between 9 and 15 years old
364.Those who, not being principals cooperate in the
execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts. 376.Mr. J. Dellinger with intent to kill Mr. R. Pitts bought a rifle
a.Accomplices from Mr. C. Goddard. Knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr.
Goddard sold the gun. Since Mr. Pitts is in an Island for penal institution or helps in the escape of such person by
vacation and the only way to reach the island is to ride a means of violence, intimidation, bribery or any other
boat, Mr. Dellinger rented the boat of Mr. F. Galton, the means, the crime committed is:
owner of the only boat that can be rented to reach the a. Evasion of service of sentence
island. Also knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr. F. Galton b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
allowed the boat to be rented for a much higher price. Mr. c. Delivery of prison from jail
Dellinger successfully reached the island and killed Mr. R. d. corruption of public official
Pitts. Before leaving the island Mr. Pitts requested the 388.Light offenses prescribe in:
service of Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds to bury Mr’s a. 12 months
Pitts Body in exchange for thousand of pesos. What was b. 4 months
the crime committed by Mr. Dellinger? c. 6 months
d. 2 months
a. Homicide 389.X raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing
b. Murder her, using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is
c. Parricide committed aggravated by what circumstances?
d. Manslaughter a. ignominy
377.What is the participation of Mr. F. Galton? b. passion
a. Principal by direct participation c. cruelty
b. Principal by induction d. obstruction
c. Principal by indispensable cooperation
d. Accomplice 390.Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing information
378.What about Mr. C. Goddard? relative to national defense with intent to be used to the
a. Principal injury of the Republic of the Philippines.
b. Accomplice a. treason
c. Accessory b. conspiracy to commit treason
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation c. espionage
d. misprision to treason
379.What about Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds? 391.To avoid being charged with delay in the delivery of
a. Principal persons to proper judicial authorities, a person caught in
b. Accomplice the act of committing a felony punishable by penalties
c. Accessory which are correctional in nature must be delivered to said
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation authorities within how many hours?
380.The following are Justifying Circumstances, EXCEPT? a. 12
a. Obedience to a lawful order b. 36
b. Lawful Exercise of Rights or office or c. 18
performance of duty d. 48
c. A person who acts under compulsion of an 392.Amendments with leave of court after the accused pleads
irresistible force are allowed under the following circumstance.
d. Avoidance of greater evil or injury a. Amendments as to substance
381.The following felonies cannot be prosecuted de officio b. Amendments as to form
without a complaint first filed by the offended party, c. Amendments that change the nature of the
EXCEPT: offense
a. Seduction d. None of these
b. Rape 393.The rule is that the civil action for the recovery of civil
c. Abduction liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
d. Acts of Lasciviousness instituted with the criminal action. This rule does not apply
in the following instances, EXCEPT.
a. When the offended party waives the civil action
382.What crime is committed if the unlawful taking of personal b. When the offended party reserves the right to
property belonging to another is committed with grave institute separate civil action
abuse of confidence? c. When the offended party institute the criminal
a. Robbery action
b. Qualified Theft d. When the offended party institute the civil action
c. Theft prior to the criminal action.
d. Burglary 394.The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action
shall be made:
383.What crime is committed if a person commits a crime of a. Before the arraignment
murder with the use of unlicensed firearm? b. During the pre-trial conference
a. Murder c. Before the prosecution rest
b. Illegal Possession of firearm d. Before the prosecution present evidence
c. Qualified Illegal possession of firearm 395.The rule prohibits the filing of the following pleadings in the
d. Murder with illegal possession of f/a. criminal case, EXCEPT:
a. Motion for postponement
384.If physical violence or moral pressure is exerted upon a b. Counter affidavit
person in a manner that is determined and constant until c. Counterclaim
the lawful purpose is realize, the crime committed is: d. Third party complaint
a. Threat 396.The petition for suspension of the criminal action based
b. Grave threat upon the pendency of prejudicial question in a civil action
c. Coercions may be filed with the following, EXCEPT one:
d. Light threat a. The court where the civil action is pending
b. The court where the criminal action is pending
385.When the wrong threatened to be inflicted upon the c. Office of the prosecutor
offended party does not amount to a crime the designation d. None of these
of the offense is called
a. Threats 397.Under the rules, a preliminary investigation is required
b. Grave threats before the filing of a complaint or information where the
c. Light Threats penalty for the offense is:
d. Coercion a. At least 6 years and 1 day
386. A public officer who without legal ground shall prohibit or b. At least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
interrupt the holding of a peaceful meeting or dissolved the c. 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
same is liable for: d. Exceeding 6 years and one day
a. Prohibition of a peaceful meeting 398.The following may be submitted by the respondent in a
b. dissolution of peaceful meeting preliminary investigation, EXEPT:
c. Interruption of peaceful meeting a. Counter-affidavit
d. all of the choices. b. Motion to dismiss
387.If a private person removes a person confined in jail or c. Witness counter affidavit
d. supporting documents escape of Mr. Chan. The guard leaves the door unlocked
399.The following officers are authorized to conduct and tells Mr. Chan to escape at mid-night. What crime was
preliminary investigation on cases falling within their committed by the Warden?
jurisdiction, EXCEPT: a. Evasion of service of sentence
a. Provincial prosecutor b. Direct Bribery
b. City prosecutor c. Delivery of prison from jail
c. Special prosecutor of the Ombudsman d. corruption of public official
d. Judges of Municipal trial court 411. What Crime can be charged against the guard who
connives with the prisoner?
400.An offense which under the law existing at the time of its a. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
commission and of the application for admission to bail b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
may be punish with death is called: c. Delivering prisoner from jail
a. Capital punishment d. A and B
b. Heinous crime
c. Capital Offense 412.A public officer or a warden who solicits or makes immoral
d. Grave offense or indecent advances to a woman who is under his
401.The court may dismiss the case on the ground of custody or wife or daughter of the person under his
insufficiency of evidence: custody shall be liable for:
a. On the motion of the accused filed with prior a. Acts of lasciviousness
leave of court b. Abuses against Chastity
b. By its own initiative after giving the prosecution c. Indirect Bribery
an opportunity to be heard d. infidelity in the custody of prisoners
c. On motion of the accused thru counsel
d. A and B only 413.Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of
402.Manuel notices his cell phone in the possession of Ruben evidence which means that evidence must have such
which was snatched from him three days ago. He relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its
confronted the latter and force to get back said cell phone existence or non-existence. The other requisite is
against his will. For what crime or crimes may Manuel be ____________?
liable for, if he will go to force to get back the same? a. That is should not be excluded for by law.
a. Coercion b. That it is material to the facts in issue
b. Robbery c. That it is credible
c. Threats d. That it is the best evidence
d. Theft 414.Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible
hence, collateral matters are not allowed. Except:
403.The following statement are false, EXCEPT: a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to
a. The accused may enter his plea by counsel establish the probability or improbability of the
b. The accused must personally enter his plea fact in issue.
c. The accused must excused/waived arraignment b. When it is competent
d. The accused may be arraigned in a court other c. When it is credible
than where the case is assigned. d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue
based on other related evidence.
415.Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of
404.Bail is a matter of right even in the case of capital offense a person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored
and the evidence of guilt is strong. on what requisites of admissibility?
a. Absolutely true a. materiality
b. Absolutely false b. competency
c. Partly true c. relevancy
d. Partly false d. credibility
405.Arrest is the actual restrain of a person to be placed under 416.It is that quality of evidence which tends to influence the
the custody of the law. It should be made at: trier of facts because of its logical connection with the
a. Anytime of the day issue. Evidence which has an effective influence or
b. anytime of the day and night bearing to the question?
c. Anytime of the morning a. material
d. d. anytime of the night b. relevant
406.It is a mock serenade of discordant noises made with c. competent
kettles, his horns, etc, designated to deride or annoy: d. credible
a. Charivari 417.The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by
b. Grave scandal imprisonment of more than 6 years shall become
c. Alarm and Scandal permanent ________ after issuance of the order without
d. Harana the case having been revived.
407.The application for search warrant may be filed with the a. One year
following, EXCEPT: b. six months
a. Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction a c. Two years
crime was committed. d. three years
b. Any court within the judicial region where the 418.Within how many days after arraignment and from the
crime was committed date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
c. Any Regional Trial Court in the Philippines accused shall order a pre-trial conference?
d. Any Court Within judicial region where the a. 30 days
warrant shall be enforced b. 20 days
408.An appeal made to the RTC from decisions of the first c. 15 days
level court shall be by: d. 60 days
a. Notice of appeal 419.How many days is given to an accused person to prepare
b. by Petition for review for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
c. Petition for review on certiorari a. 15 days
d. Petition for certiorari b. 30 days
c. 20 days
409.After the prosecution rest its case, the case can be d. 180 days
dismiss due to insufficiency of evidence by: 420.The law expanding the jurisdiction of the Metropolitan Trial
a. The courts own initiative Court is called?
b. By the accused through his counsel by Demurrer a. R.A. 7691
to evidence b. R.A. 3019
c. By the prosecution on its own initiative c. R.A. 8493
d. a and b only d. B.P. 129
410.Mr. Tsu a Chinese Businessman paid the Warden for the 421.Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any
escape of his brother Chan. The Warden ordered his jail peace officer of public officer in charged of enforcement of
guard to leave the door unlocked so as to facilitate the the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of
the prosecutor. no evidence shall be admissible other than the original
a. Complaint documents itself. This refers to the _____.
b. Information a. Best Evidence Rule
c. Pleadings b. Secondary Evidence Rule
d. Affidavit c. Parol Evidence Rule
422.Prescription of offense commence to run: d. Best Evidence
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended
party or peace officers or their agent.
b. Upon filing of cases in court 434.What are secondary evidence?
c. Upon escape of the accused a. Certified true COPY of a
d. Upon re-appearance of the accuse document
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic
423.The following are cases covered by rules on summary document
procedure EXCEPT: c. Testimony of witnesses
a. Where the penalty is six months imprisonment. d. All of the choices
b. Violation of traffic laws 435.When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to
c. Violation of rental laws writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed
d. Where the penalty foes not exceed six (6) upon and there can be, as between the parties and their
months imprisonment successors in interest, no evidence of such terms other
424.Refers to the counsel provided by the government to than the contents of the agreement.
assist destitute litigant?
a. Counsel de officio a. Parol evidence Rule
b. counsel de parte b. b. parol evidence
c. Public Attorney’s Office c. Best Evidence Rule
d. National Prosecution Office d. Secondary Evidence
436. As a rule all persons who can perceived, and perceiving,
425.It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend can make known of their perception to others can be
and to testify or to bring with him any books or documents witness and the following shall not be a ground for
under his control at the trial of an action. disqualification.
a. subpoena a. Religious and political belief
b. subpoena duces tecum b. Interest in the outcome of the case
c. subpoena ad testificandum c. conviction of a crime unless otherwise provided
d. warrant of arrest by law
426.The order of trial is: d. All of the choices
a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal 437. An Act Providing for A Witness Protection, Security and
b. Prosecution. cross, redirect, re cross Benefit program and for other purposes.
c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re-direct a. R.A. 6981
d. Direct, cross, rebuttal and surrebattal. b. R.A. 6646
c. P.D.749
d. R.A. 6770
427.Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, 438. No person may be compelled to testify against his
mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative parents, other direct ascendants, children or other direct
device to assist him in testimony. descendants. This is embodied under what principle?
a. Testimonial aids a. Parental and filial privilege.
b. Emotional security items b. declaration against pedigree
c. support item c. declaration against common reputation
d. none of these d. res inter alois acta rule
428.It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages e.
of examination of a child, if the same will further the 439.An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of
interest of justice. any liability and is not admissible in evidence against the
a. leading questions offeror on the following case, EXCEPT.
b. misleading a. In civil cases
c. relevant b. Those arising from criminal negligence
d. narrative c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical,
429.Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of hospital or other expenses occasioned by an
evidence of the following, EXCEPT: injury.
a. Matters of Public Knowledge d. In criminal cases
b. The measure of time
c. Law of nations
d. Law of nature 440.A plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted offer of a
430.Court may take judicial notice of the following in exercise plea of guilty to a lesser offense is_____?
of its discretion, EXCEPT. a. not admissible in evidence against the accused
a. The geographical divisions who made the plea of offer.
b. Matter which are of public knowledge; b. admissible in evidence against the accused who
c. Matters capable of unquestionable made the plea of offer
demonstration; or c. shall not be considered an plea
d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of d. will be considered a plea of not guilty
their judicial functions. 441.The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act,
431.Matters of judicial notice have three material requisites. declaration, or omission of another, except as provided by
These requisites are: the rules of court.
a. The matter must be one of common and general a. Res inter alios acta rule
knowledge. b. admission by co-partner
b. It must be well and authoritatively settled and not c. admission by co-conspirator
doubtful or uncertain d. admission by silence of a person for not doing or
c. It must be known to be within the limits of the saying anything when an act or declaration is
jurisdiction of the court. said against him in his presence.
d. All of the choices 442.The following are the requirements in determining child’s
432.Self incriminatory statement falling short of an competency as a witness EXCEPT:
acknowledgement of guilt made by a party in the course of a. capacity of Observation
the proceeding in the same case which does not require b. capacity of Recollection
proof. c. capacity of Communication
a. Admission d. capacity to Comprehend
b. self serving statement
c. declaration against interest 443.Where several extrajudicial confessions had been made
d. confession by several person charged with the same offense and
433.When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document without the possibility of collision among them, the fact
that the statements are in all respects identical is b.testimonial evidence
confirmatory of the confessions of the co-defendants and c.material evidence
are admissible against the other persons implicated d.real evidence
therein. 454.When the witness states that he did not see or know the
a. interlocking confessions occurrence of a fact.
b. res inter alios acta rule a.positive evidence
c. admission by privies b.corroborative evidence
d. confession by co-defendant c.secondary evidence
444.An act or declaration made in the presence and within the d.negative evidence
hearing or observation of a party who does or says 455.The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry
nothing when the act or declaration is such as to call for and render judgment after a fair trial.
action or comment if not true, and when proper and a.ex post facto law
possible for him to do so, may be given in evidence b.equal protection of the law
against him. c.rule of law
a. admission by silence d.due process of law
b. confession
c. admission by co-conspirator 456. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that
d. admission by privies which is intended.
445.Which of the following is the Hearsay evidence rule? a. Aberratio ictus
a. That a witness can testify only to those facts b. Error in personae
which he knows of his personal knowledge; that c. Dura Lex Sed lex
ism which are derived from his own perception. d. Praeter Intentionem
b. hearsay evidence is not acceptable as evidence 457.If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___
in court shall be entered.
c. Hearsay evidence is evidence given in the a. Not guilty
authority of another person. b. admission by silence
d. hearsay evidence is evidence with respect to c. guilty
facts of which the witness has no personal d. none
knowledge because it is derived from the 458. When reception of evidence is necessary under the
knowledge or perception of others who are not following circumstances:
called to testify. a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense
b. plea of guilty to capital offense
446.The declaration of a dying person, made under the c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
consciousness of an impending death, may be received in d. all of these
any case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as
evidence of the cause and surrounding circumstances of 459.When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a
such death. motion alleging among others the defect of the complaint
a. Dying declaration or information and the details desired in order to enable
b. res gestae him to properly answer and prepare for trial. This motion is
c. declaration against interest known as:
d. declaration about pedigree a. motion for bill of particular
447.Is the duty of the party to present evidence on the facts in b. motion for clarification
issue necessary to establish his claim or defense by the c. motion to dismiss
amount of evidence required by law. d. motion for postponement
a. burden of evidence 460.Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be
b. burden of proof suspended on the following grounds:
c. proof of evidence a. The accused appears to be suffering from
d. cause of action unsound mental condition.
448.A Foreign vessel registered in the country of Australia b. There exist a prejudicial question.
anchored at Manila Bay wherein an Australian national c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the
was caught in possession of Cocaine. What rule provides prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office
that a crime committed while on board of the vessel. of the President .
a. French rule d. All of the choices
b. American Rule
c. Spanish Rule 461.A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by
d. English Rule an accused is:
449. Shall deprive the offender rights of parental authority or a. Motion to quash
guardianship. b. Nolle pro sequi
a. subsidiary penalty c. Motion to dismiss
b. penalty d. bill of particulars
c. suspension 462. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and
d. civil interdiction punish or the termination of the power to prosecute or
punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite
450.It is a case of concubinage when a woman has a sexual period from the commission of the offense.
relationship to a married man. This statement is? a. Prescription of crime
a. True b. acquisitive
b. false c. prescription of penalty
c. It depends d. extinctive
d. Partly false 463. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the
451.The following are considered afflictive penalties, except: danger of being prosecuted for the same offense for the
a. death by lethal injection second time.
b. reclusion perpetua a. double jeopardy
c. reclusion temporal b. double trial
d. prison mayor c. double trouble
452.It is a case of adultery when a man has a sexual d. double counter
relationship to a married woman. 464.Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by
This statement is? imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of any
a. True amount or both shall become permanent after ____.
b. false a. one year
c. It depends b. 2 years
e. Partly false c. 5 years
d. 4 years
453. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or 465.Within how many days after arraignment and from the
derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
which ideas are represented on material substances. accused shall order a pre-trial conference?
a.documentary evidence a. 30 days
b. 15 days d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a
c. 20 days person in authority
d. 60 days e. It should be noted that the assault should be mad
without public uprising.
466. How many days are given to an accused person to 475.Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an
prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? individual or as a member of some court or government
a. 15 days corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____?
b. 20 days a. Agent of a person in authority
c. 30 days b. Judicial authority
d. 180 days c. person in authority
467. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, d. Public employee
the following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary 476.It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously
investigation except? disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor person, while engaged in the performance of official
b. Judge MTC/MCTC functions.
c. Regional State Prosecutor a. Direct assault
d. Public Attorney’s office b. Indirect Assault
e. b and d
468.A Special Law which defines certain rights of accused,
detained or under custodial investigation as well as duties c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National
of the arresting detailing and investigation officer. Assembly
a. R.A. 7438 d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in
b. R.A. 7348 authority or the agents of such person
c. R.A. 7834 477.The following are crimes classified as public disorders,
d. R.A. 3478 EXCEPT.
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful
utterances
469.Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused c. Alarms and scandals
cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. This d. Delivering prisoners form Jails
principle also known as: e. None of the choices
a. rights against illegal arrest 478.Mr. Lambat while under the influence of liquor fired a gun
b. the right to presume innocent in the air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating
c. rights against self- incrimination his birthday. Such act constitutes ___?
d. right to live a. illegal discharge of firearm
470.Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following b. alarm & scandals
pleading are prohibited except: c. disturbances
a. motion to quash d. outcry
b. bill of particular 479. Mrs. Gloria., a sister of Mr. Sicia D (a sentenced
c. answer prisoner), gave 20K to the Jail Warden to facilitate or allow
d. demurred to evidence the escape of her brother is guilty of what crime?
471.The following cases committed by public official with salary a. Evasion of service of sentence
grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive jurisdiction of b. delivering prisoners from jail
the Sandiganbayan, Except: c. Bribery
a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A. d. Corruption of public official
1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two
of the RPC 480.The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion
b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in of service of sentence.
connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and a. By means of unlawful entry
14-A. b. By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs
c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to or floors.
their office. c. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit,
d. None of the choices violence or intimidation.
472.Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as d. Through connivance with other convicts or
provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances employees of the penal institution.
can a civil action for recovery of civil liability can be e. All of the choices
separated? 481.Within how many days after arraignment and from the
a. When the offended party waives the civil action; date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
b. When the offended party reserves his right to accused shall order a pre-trial conference?
institute the civil action; a. 30 days
c. When the institution of the civil action is made b. 20 days
prior to the criminal action. c. 15 days
d. all of the choices d. 60 days

473.Alden Richard, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with 482.How many days is given to an accused person to prepare
engineer Maine Mendoza and Councilor Sipag were for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
surveying the land occupied by informal settlers for a. 15 days
government projects and for their relocation. The residents b. 30 days
oppose with the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents, c. 20 days
slapped the face of Mayor Alden when the latter came d. 180 days
near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor defends her 483.Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be
but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and punched as well. prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom?
For what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for in relation a.Parents
to Mayor Alden? b.Offended Spouse
a. Sedition c.Guardians
b. Slander by Deeds d.God father
c. Direct Assault 484.Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons
d. Rebellion of public policy and sentiment there is no penalty
imposed.
474. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT: a.impossible crimes
a. The assault is committed with a weapon b.aggravating circumstances
c.absolutory causes
b. The offender is a public officer or employee d.complex crimes
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in
authority
485.An act which would be an offense against persons or
property if it was not for the inherent impossibility of its c. habitual delinquent
accomplishment. d. hardened criminal
a.compound crime 497.It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which
b.impossible crime is intended.
c.complex crime a. Aberratio ictus
d.accidental crime b. Error in personae
486.The law which re-imposed the death penalty. c. Dura Lex Sed lex
a.RA 5425 d. Praeter Intentionem
b.RA 8553
c.RA 7659 498.It means mistake in the blow.
d.RA 9346 a. Aberratio Ictus
487.The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a b. Error in Personae
person as its owner or author c. Dura lex sed lex
a.responsibility d. Praeter Intentionem
b.duty 499.A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for
c.guilt its execution and accomplishment are present.
d.imputability a. Attempted
488.Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and b. Frustrated
although it comes about through some acts of our will, lies c. Consummated
beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable d. Accomplished
consequences. 500. An act or omission which is the result of a
a.fortuitous event misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not
b.fate intentional.
c.accident a. Absolutory Cause
d.destiny b. Mistake of facts
489.Known in other countries as the body of principles, c. Conspiracy
practices, usages and rules of action which are not d. Felony
recognized in our country. 501. It is the means, sanctioned by these rules of ascertaining
a.penal laws in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of
b.special laws fact?
c.common laws a. Evidence
d.statutory laws b. Facts
490.Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent c. Proof
of the crime any of all the conditions that would make an d. Burden of proof
act. Voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal
liability there is civil liability 502.It is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved.
a.Exempting It is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of
b.alternative action?
c.justifying a. Factum probandum
d.aggravating b. Evidence
491.Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in c. factum probans
accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal d. proof
and civil liability. 503. The rules of evidence shall be _____, except as otherwise
a.exempting provided by law or these rules.
b.alternative a. the same in all courts and in all trials and
c.justifying hearings
d.aggravating b. not the same in all courts and in all trials and
492.When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim hearings
suffers slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary c. dependent on the type of case involved
physical pain in the consummation of the criminal act. d. absolutely the same in all courts and in all trials
a.Ignominy and hearings
b.cruelty 504.Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of
c.treachery evidence which means that evidence must have such
d.masochism relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its
493.One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have existence or non-existence. The other requisite is ____?
been previously convicted by final judgment of another a. That it should not be excluded for by law
crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal b. That it is material to the facts in issue
Code. c. That it is credible
a.Recidivism d. That it is the best evidence
b.habitual delinquency 505.Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible
c.reiteracion hence, collateral matters are not allowed. Except:
d.quasi-recidivism a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to
establish the probability or improbability of the
494.Alevosia means fact in issue.
a. Craft b. When it is competent
b. treachery c. When it is credible
c. evident premeditation d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue
d. cruelty based on other related evidence
506.Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of
a person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored
495.The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry on what requisites of admissibility?
and render judgment after a fair trial. a. a. materiality
a. ex post facto law b. relevancy
b. equal protection of the law c. competency
c. rule of law d. credibility
d. due process of law 507.Evidence which the witness states that he did not see or
know of the factual occurrences what kind of evidence?
496.A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his a. negative
release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less b. affirmative
serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or c. positive
falsification, he is found guilty of any of the said crimes a d. Alibi
third time or oftener. 508.An additional evidence of different kind tending to prove
a. Recidivist the same facts in issue. Evidence which are
b. quasi-recidivist supplementary to that already given and tending to
strengthen or confirm it.
a. Corroborative 518.When the original document has been lost or destroyed, or
b. Associative cannot be reproduced in court, the offeror, upon proof of
c. Commulative its execution or existence and the cause of its
d. Credible unavailability without bad faith on his part, may prove its
509.Is the one required to prove a criminal case. It refers to the contents by a copy, or by a recital of its contents in some
logical and inevitable result of the evidence on record, authentic document or by the testimony of witnesses in the
exclusive of any other consideration, of the moral certainty order stated.
of the guilt of the accused or that degree of proof which a. Secondary Evidence Rule
produces conviction in an unprejudiced mind. b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Secondary Evidence
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt d. Parole Evidence Rule
b. Clear and Convincing Evidence 519.When secondary evidence is allowed?
c. Preponderance of evidence a. When the original has been lost, destroyed or
d. Substantial evidence cannot be produced in court, without bad faith on
510. It is that proof which, if unexplained or uncontradicted, is the part of the offeror;
sufficient to sustain the proposition it supports or to b. When the original is under the custody or under
establish the facts or to counterbalance the presumptions the control of the party against whom the
of innocence to warrant a conviction. evidence is offered, and the latter fails to produce
a. Prima-facie evidence it after reasonable notice;
b. Preponderance of evidence c. When the original consist of numerous accounts
c. Rebuttal evidence or other documents which cannot be examined in
d. Sur-rebuttal evidence court without great loss of time and the fact
sought to be established from them is only the
511. Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of general result of the whole; and
evidence of the following, EXCEPT: d. When the original is a public record in the
a. Matters of Public Knowledge custody of a public officer or is recorded in a
b. Law of nation public office
c. The measure of time e. All of the choices
d. Law of nature 520.What are secondary evidence?
512. Court may take judicial notice of the following exercise of a. A Certified True COPY of a document
its discretion, EXCEPT: b. A recital of its contents in some authentic
a. The geographical divisions document
b. Matter which are of public knowledge c. Testimony of witnesses
c. M a t t e r s c a p a b l e o f u n q u e s t i o n a b l e d. All of the choices
demonstration; or
d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of 521.When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to
their judicial functions. writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed
upon and there can be, as between the parties and their
513.When can proper court, on its own initiative or on request successors in interest, no evidence of such terms other
of a party, may take judicial notice of any matter and allow than the contents of the agreement.
the parties to be heard thereon if such matter is decisive of a. Parol Evidence Rule
a material issue in the case? b. Best Evidence Rule
a. after the trial c. Parol Evidence
b. before judgment d. Secondary Evidence
c. on appeal 522.It refers to an evidence of oral or written statement of a
d. all of the choices party presented as evidence to modify, explain or add to
514. Self-incriminatory statement falling short of an the terms of the written agreement.
acknowledgment of guilt made by a party in the course of a. Parol Evidence
the proceeding in the same case which does not require b. Secondary Evidence
proof. c. Best Evidence
a. Admission d. Parole Evidence Rule
b. declaration against interest 523.On which of the following circumstances parol evidence
c. self-serving statement can be accepted?
515.Evidence that is directly addressed to the senses of the a. When there is an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or
court. imperfection in the written agreement;
a. Real or Object b. The fulfillment of the written agreement to
b. Testimonial express the true intent and agreement of the
c. Documentary parties thereto;
d. Direct c. The validity of the written agreement;
516.When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document d. The existence of other terms agreed to by the
no evidence shall be admissible other than the original parties or their successors in interest after the
documents itself. This refers to the ___. execution of the written agreement.
a. Best Evidence Rule 524.The following are qualifications for discharged of a person
b. Secondary Evidence Rule to be state witness.
c. Parole Evidence Rule a. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of
d. Best Evidence the accused whose discharge is requested;
517.What are the exemptions to the best evidence rule: b. There is no other direct evidence available for the
a. When the original has been lost or destroyed proper prosecution for the offense committed
orunder cannot be produced in court, without bad except the testimony of said accused;
faith on the part of the offeror; c. The testimony of said accused can be
substantially corroborated in its material points;
b. When the original is in the custody or under the d. Said accused appear to be the most guilty;
control of the party against whom the evidence is e. Said accused has not at any time been convicted
offered, and the latter fails to produce it after of an offense involving moral turpitude;
reasonable notice; 525.R.A. 1405 is the law which prohibits the disclosure or
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts examination of bank deposits. As a general rule bank
or other documents which cannot be examined in deposits are absolutely confidential in nature and may not
court without great loss of time and the fact examined or inquired or looked into by any person or
sought to be established from them is only the government officials, EXCEPT:
general result of the whole; and a. upon written permission of the depositor
d. When the original is a public record in the b. in cases of impeachment
custody of the public officer or is recorded in a c. upon order of competent court in cases of briber,
public office. dereliction of duty of public officials
e. All of the choices d. in case where the money deposited or invested is
the subject matter of litigation
e. in cases of well explained wealth b. Heads of State
c. Ambassador
526.No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, d. d. Minister de affaires
other direct ascendants, children or other direct 538.Acts or omission punishable by public law commanding or
descendants. This is embodied under what principle? forbidding it:
a. Parental and filial privilege a. Crimes
b. declaration against pedigree b. Felonies
c. declaration against common reputation c. Offense
d. declaration against Parental relationship d. Infractions of law

539.Is the theory in criminal law in which the basis of criminal

527.An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of liability is human free will, the purpose of punishment is
any liability and is not admissible in evidence against the retribution and is generally exemplified in the Revised
offeror on the following case, EXCEPT: Penal Code.
a. In civil cases a. Eclectic
b. Those arising from criminal negligence b. Classical Theory
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical, c. Positivist Theory
hospital or other expenses occasioned by an d. Neo-Classical Theory
injury
d. In criminal cases 540.The Rule applies on registered vessel on foreign territorial
528.It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of jurisdiction which generally follows the Nationality Principle
facts. and not the Domiciliary Principle except when the crime
a. secondary evidence committed on board vessels affects the national security of
b. prima facie evidence the Country where such vessel is located.
c.corroborative evidence a. French Rule
d. Cumulative evidence b. English Rule
c. Spanish Rule
529.It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or d. Greek Rule
uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition 541.A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its
affirmed. essence being the substitution of legislative fiat for a
a.secondary evidence judicial determination of guilt.
b.prima facie evidence a. Ex post facto law
c.corroborative evidence b. Retroactivity
d.best evidence c. Bill of attainder
530.A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or d. Prospective
derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by 542.Which of the following is NOT an element of the Crime of
which ideas are represented on material substances. Dolo or Deceit?
a.documentary evidence a. Intent
b.testimonial evidence b. Freedom
c.material evidence c. Intelligence
d.real evidence d. Negligence
543.These are crimes which are NOT considered bad in itself
531.When the witness states that he did not see or know the but the doer is found to have transgress the law for act
occurrence of a fact. which it prohibits.
a. positive evidence a. Crime
b. corroborative evidence b. Felonies
c. secondary evidence c. Mala in se
d. negative evidence d. Mala Prohibita
544.Is that act performed which would be an offense against
532.The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry persons or property where it not for the inherent or legal
and render judgment after a fair trial. impossibility of its accomplishment.
a.ex post facto law a. Mala in se
b.equal protection of the law b. mala prohibita
c.rule of law c. Impossible crime
d.due process of law d. Formal crimes
533. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of 545.It is the moving power or which impels a person to act and
criminal laws in the Philippines. It approved on? not an essential element of a crime but would tend to
a. January 1, 1923 establish the identity of the perpetrator.
b. January 1, 1932 a. Intent
c. December 8, 1930 b. Motive
d. January 1, 1933 c. Negligence
d. ignorance
534.It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which 546.The following are causes which would produce criminal
is intended. liability though the result be different from what is
a. Aberratio ictus intended, EXCEPT:
b. Error in personae a.Abberatio ictus
c. Dura Lex Sed lex b.Error in Personae
d. Praeter Intentionem c.Preater intentionem
535.Is that branch or division of law which defines crimes, d.Ignorantia Facti
treats of their nature and provides for their punishment?
a. Act 3815 547.The offender performs all the acts of execution that would
b. Criminal Law produce the felony as a consequence but the felony is not
c. Revised Penal Code produced by reason of causes independent of the will of
d. Criminal Procedure the perpetrator.
a. Attempted
536.Criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn b. Consummated
in Philippine territory regardless of sex, race or religious c. Frustrated
affiliation. EXCEPT matters covered by: d. Formal Crimes
a. Treaty Stipulation
b. Public International Law 548.Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a
c. Law of Preferential Application single act.
d. All of the choices a.formal crimes
537.By Principles of Public International law, the following b.formal felonies
enjoin immunity from the application of the Philippine c.informal crimes
Criminal law, EXCEPT: d.material crimes
a. Consul
549.It exists when two or more persons come to an agreement 561.Period of detention undergone by an accused where the
to commit a felony and decide to commit it. crime with which he is charged is non-bailable or, even if
a. Proposal bailable, he is unable to post the requisite bail. (Art. 39)
b. Conspiracy a. Solitary confinement
c. A & B b. Preventive imprisonment
d. Cuadrilla c. Inmate incarceration
550.A deduction of one-fifth of the period of his sentence shall d. Suppressive Detention
be granted to any prisoner who, having evaded the service 562.A penalty that deprive the offender of his (1) rights of
of his sentence during calamity, gives himself up to the parental authority, or guardianship;(2) Marital authority; (3)
authorities within 48 hours following the issuance of a The right to manage his property; and (4) The right to
proclamation announcing the passing away of the dispose of such property by any act or any conveyance
calamity. inter vivos.
a. Good Conduct Time Allowance a. Absolute disqualification
b. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty b. Temporary disqualification
c. Executive Clemency c. Bond to keep the peace
d. Indeterminate Sentence d. Civil interdiction
563.It is a punishment whereby a convict is banished to a
551.The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to certain place and is prohibited from entering or coming
execute the final sentence after the lapse of certain time. near that place designated in the sentence, not less than
a. Prescription of Crime 25 kilometers but not to extend beyond 250 kilometers.
b. Prescription of Penalty a. Transportation
c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime b. Deportation
d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the c. Destierro
commission of crime d. Extradition
552.The forfeiture or loss of the right of the State to prosecute
the offender after the lapse of certain time. 564.Penalties according to their gravity are as follows, except:
a. Prescription of Crime a. Capital
b. Prescription of Penalty b. Afflictive
c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime c. Correctional
d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the d. Slight
commission of crime e. Light
553.It is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction 565.Which of the following is NOT a purpose for the imposition
and sentence, is released subject to conditions imposed of penalty:
by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer. a. Retribution or expiation
a. Parole b. Correction or reformation
b. Pardon c. Social defense
c. Probation d. Public Rataliation
d. Amnesty
554.Known as the “Indeterminate Sentence Law” or the Parole 566.The punishment imposed by lawful authority upon a
Law. person who commits a deliberate or negligent act which is
a. Act No. 4103 as amended against the law.
b. RA No. 4103 as amended a. Penalty
c. RA No. 4225 as amended b. Ordeal
d. PD No. 968 as amended c. Fine
555.What is the penalty of impossible crime? (Art. 59) d. Imprisonment
a. Arresto Menor
b. Arresto Mayor 567.Article 20 provides for the exemption as accessories from
c. Prision Correctional criminal liability, EXCEPT:
d. Prision Mayor a. Natural brother/ sister
556.It provides that the maximum duration of convict’s b. Legitimate brother/ sister
sentence shall not be more than 3 times the length of the c. Adopted brother/ sister
most severe of the penalties imposed upon him but in no d. Brother-in-Law/ Sister-in-Law
case to exceed 40 years. e. Brother in a fraternity
568.One who: (a) concurs with the criminal design of the
a. Three-fold rule principals by direct participation; (b) cooperates in the
b. Three-fold liability rule execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts,
c. Four-fold rule with the intention of supplying material or moral aid in the
d. Four-fold liability rule execution of the crime in an efficacious way.
557.In case the offender cannot pay the fine, he shall serve the a. Principal by indispensable cooperation
same in prison and shall be credited ___ for each day of b. Principal by inducement
subsidiary imprisonment. c. Accomplice
d. Accessory
569.Principal who materially execute the crime. He appears at
a. Php 8.00 the crime scene and performs acts necessary in the
b. Php 12.00 commission of the crime.
c. Php 35. 00 a. Principal by inducement/ induction
d. Highest minimum wage existing in the country b. Principal by indispensable cooperation
558.It is the expenses of litigation allowed by the Rules of c. Principal by direct participation
Court to be assessed against or to be recovered by a d. Principal by conspiracy
party in litigation.
a. Costs 570.Who are criminally liable?
b. Fine a. Principals
c. Damages b. Accomplices
d. Civil liability c. Accessories
559.Who may grant pardon? d. All of the choices
a. The President 571.Those which must be taken into consideration as
b. The private offended party aggravating or mitigating according to the nature and
c. The accused effects of the crime and the other conditions attending its
d. The People of the Philippines commission.
560.If the detention prisoner does not agree to abide by the a. Extenuating
same disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted prisoners, b. Mitigating
the credited preventive imprisonment is c. Alternative
a. Fulltime credit d. Aggravating
b. 4/5 credit 572.It pertains to the moral order, which adds disgrace to the
c. 2/3 credit material injury caused by the crime. It adds insult to injury
d. 1/5 credit
or adds shame to the natural effects of the crime. It shocks a. Arbitrary detention
the moral conscience of man. b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
a. Cruelty proper authorities
b. Ignominy c. Delaying release
c. Outraging d. Illegal Detention
d. Scoffing
573.Husband A treating his wife B and his child as a sex 584.A crime committed by a public officer who unduly delays
object, also forcing to watch obscene indecent shows .Is A the release of a person in his custody in spite of a judicial/
committed crime of Violence Against Women and Their executive order to release him.
Children? a. Arbitrary detention
a. Maybe NO b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
b. Yes proper authorities
c. No c. Delaying release
d. Maybe YES d. Illegal Detention
574.The offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing 585.A public officer who without authority compels a person to
information respecting the national defense with intent, or change his residence is guilty of
there is reason to believe that information is to be used to a. Grave Coercion
the injury of the Republic of the Philippines or to the b. Grave Threat
advantage of any foreign nation. c. Expulsion
a. Treason d. Violation of Domicile
b. Rebellion 586.A public officer who procures a search warrant without just
c. Espionage cause is liable of
d. Mutiny a. Abuse in the service of search warrant
575.Other acts constituting the crime of espionage are b. Warrant maliciously obtained
punishable under c. Searching domicile without witnesses
a. BP No. 616 d. Violation of Domicile
b. PD No. 616 587.An order in writing, issued in the name of the People of the
c. CA No. 616 Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace
d. RA No. 616 officer, commanding him to SEARCH for personal property
described therein and bring it before the court.
576.Committed when two countries are at war of which the a. Warrant of Arrest
Philippines is not involved and the offender violates the b. Search Warrant
regulation issued by the government enforcing neutrality. c. Subpoena
a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal d. Summons
b. Violation of neutrality 588.In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in
c. Correspondence with hostile country the appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be
d. Flight to enemy’s country highly
577.A person who wrote a letter to an official of an enemy a. Accepted
country despite government prohibition is liable of this b. Determinate
crime. c. Sensitive
a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal d. Unreliable
b. Violation of neutrality 589.To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what
c. Correspondence with hostile country portion of the sentence must have been served by a
d. Flight to enemy’s country petitioner-prisoner?
578.Robbery or depredation in the high seas, without lawful a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his
authority and done with animo furandi and in the spirit and indeterminate sentence
intention of universal hostility. b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his
a. Mutiny indeterminate sentence
b. Piracy c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his
c. Sea-jacking indeterminate sentence
d. Hi-jacking d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his
indeterminate sentence
579.The axe gang are raping women in all the places they go 590.What is the oldest written penal law of the Philippines?
from Batanes to Sulu. Their acts sow and created a a. Codigo Penal
widespread and extra-ordinary fear and panic among the b. Code of Kalantiao
populace. They demanded from the government to release c. Code of Hammurabi
all prisoners entire the country for them to stop raping. Are d. Maragtas Code
they liable for terrorism? 591.How penal laws are construed when the law is vague?
a. Yes a. Liberally in favor of the government
b. No b. Liberally in favor of the offended party
c. Doubtful c. Liberally in favor of the accused
d. No answer d. Liberally in favor of the innocent
580.Which of the following is not a form of arbitrary detention? 592.Refers to crimes which are wrongful in their nature thus
a. Detaining a person without legal ground requires the highest condemnation of the society.
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the a. Crimes mala prohibita
proper authorities b. Crimes mala in se
c. Delaying release c. Crimes supersedeas
d. Illegal Detention d. Crimes flagrante delicto
581.A crime committed by a public officer/ employee who 593.This rule recognizes that the host country has jurisdiction
detains a person without legal ground. over crimes committed on board the vessel unless they
a. Arbitrary detention involve the internal management of the vessel.
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
proper authorities a. American Rule
c. Delaying release b. English Rule
d. Illegal Detention c. French Rule
e. No crime d. Filipino Rule
582.A crime committed by a private individual who detains a
person without legal ground. 594.Literally, “friend of the court”. Are experienced and
a. Arbitrary detention impartial attorneys that may be invited by the court to
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the appear as amicus curiae’
proper authorities a. Champertous contract
c. Delaying release b. Amicus curiae
d. Illegal Detention c. Amicus curiea
583.Committed by a public officer who detains a person for d. Champertuos contract
some legal ground but fails to deliver such person to the 595.A contract whereby the lawyer agrees to pay the expenses
proper authority w/n the prescribed time. of litigation in return for the agreement of the client to pay
the lawyer a portion of the thing or property that might be
won or recovered in the trial or litigation. This is unethical 608.There were 750 rape cases in 2010, as against 928 in
for the lawyer and hence illegal. 2011. What was the percent increase?
a. Champertous contract a. +27.3%
b. Amicus curiae b. +23.7%
c. Amicus curiea c. +37.2%
d. Champertuos contract d. +32.7%
596.The practice of filing multiple suits on different courts 609.In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
based on the same cause of action. This is not allowed a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
and is a ground for dismissal of the case filed by the guilty b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
party. c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
a. contempt d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
b. forum shipping 610.The importance of the firm or installation with reference to
c. forum shopping the national economy or security:
d. direct contempt a. Relative security
597.It is a small ceremonial mallet commonly made b. Relative necessity
of hardwood, and a symbol of the authority and right to act c. Relative criticality
officially in the capacity of a chair or presiding officer. d. Relative vulnerability
a. Gavel 611. These are the major courses of action that the
b. Hammer organization plans to take in order to achieve its
c. Wood hammer objectives.

598.The constitution provides for the prescribed dress code of a. Procedures

all judges and it is called as. b. Strategies
a. Black robes c. Plans
b. Black toga d. Objectives
c. Black dress 612. In this form of authority, personnel do not give orders but
d.White robes they offer advice. Frequently this advice is based on the
599.It is the lists of cases that are scheduled to be heard on a high level of expertise, but the advice carries no formal
particular day usually placed or posted outside the requirement of acceptance.
courtroom. a. Democracy
a. Court calendar b. Functional authority
b. Supreme Court calendar c. Line authority
c. School calendar d. Staff authority
d. Schedule calendar 613. The __________ means controlling the direction and flow
600.Contempt committed in the presence of or so near a court of decisions through unity of command from top to bottom
or judge as to obstruct or interrupt proceedings before it. organization.
a. contempt a. Audit
b. direct contempt b. Coordination
c. indirect contempt c. Monitoring
d. disobedience d. Authority
614.PO III Peter Factor is assigned to collect available
601.A-2 in Intelligence report means? information concerning the activities of the Red Scorpion
a. usually reliable source and is confirmed by Group (RSG). He is with what unit of the police?
other sources a. anti – juvenile delinquency
b. completely reliable source and is b. criminal investigation
Probably true c. intelligence operations
c. completely reliable source and is d. patrol activities
Usually reliable 615. Intelligence can and should do nothing more than.
d. completely reliable source and is confirmed by a. promote better police-citizen interaction
other sources b. enhance the probability of accuracy in report
602.Seeing ahead and making sound assumption? writing
a. prioritizing c. improve administration efficiency particularly in
b. foretelling recruitment and selection
c. forecasting a. increase the number of arrests of criminal
d. documenting syndicate members
616.PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report
603.This Police Station activity increases the number of arrest evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean?
of criminal syndicate member? a. information is usually from a reliable source and
a. investigation is possibly true
b. intelligence b. information is usually from a reliable source and
c. crime search is improbable
d. patrol c. information is usually from a reliable source and
604.Which agent who has reached the enemy and able to get is probably true
information and would be managed to get back? d. information is usually from a reliable source and
a. mercenary is doubtfully true
b. none 617.PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report
c. penetration evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean?
d. assassin a. information is usually from a reliable source and
605.Which of the following is the oldest warning device? is possibly true
a. trumpet b. information is usually from a reliable source and
b. siren is improbable
c. horn c. information is usually from a reliable source and
d. radio is probably true
606.The act of expelling squatters by the legal process is d. information is usually from a reliable source and
called? is doubtfully true
a. tear down
b. eviction 618. Who may be automatically granted height waiver, as
c. squadron provided under Section 15 of Republic Act No. 8551?
d. demolition a. Police retirables requesting for extension of
607.H refers to the importance of the establishment with service.
reference to the national economy and security? b. Member of the cultural minorities duly certified
a. risk analysis by the appropriate government agency.
b. relative critically c.Government employees wishing to transfer to
c. risk assessment the PNP
d. relative vulnerability d.Graduates of Criminology
619.Plans which require action or assistance from persons or 631.In the intelligence functions, the black list includes
agencies outside the police organization. ________ forces.
a. management plans a. unwanted
b. operational plans b. friendly
c. tactical plans c .neutral
d. extra-department plan d. unfriendly
620.Protection of classified document concerning their 632.The first step in the planning process is to recognize the
preparation, classification, reproduction, handling, need to plan. Which of the following is NOT a way to
transmission, disposal and destruction. discovering the need to plan?
a. document security a. conduct of research
b. operational security b. conduct of training
c. physical security c. conduct of inspection
d. organizational security d. conduct of management audit
621.What is the system of natural or man-made barriers 633.The special formations used in crowd control include the
placed between the potential intruder and the objects, wedge, diagonal and deployed line. When a crowd is small
persons and matters being protected? enough not to require a squad, then the formation is:

a. document security a. diagonal

b. communications security b. wedge
c. physical security c. deployed line
d. personnel security d. clockwise
622.Intelligence on the enemy and the characteristics of 634.634. Under this principle, the chief executive directly
operation used in the planning and objects, persons and controls two to ten subordinates, who then control two to
matters being protected? ten subordinates each and so on until the bottom of the
a. military intelligence organization is reached.
b. strategic intelligence a. scalar principle
c. combat intelligence b. exception principle
d. counter-intelligence c. unity of command
623.The effectiveness and efficiency of the patrol function can d. span of control
be enhanced if there is detailed and up-to date information 635.What is meant by an evaluation of C-1?
about crime and criminals. This calls for the establishment a. information comes from an unreliable source
of: and is probably true
a. patrol base headquarters b. information comes from a fairly reliable source
b. crime information center and is confirmed by other sources
c. management information center c. information comes from an unreliable source
d. public information office and is improbable
624.Planning cannot be undertaken without referring to d.information comes from an unreliable source
________ on the entire police organization, community, and is doubtfully true
crime, equipment inventories, personal data, etc. 636.Under physical security, what should be placed between
a. costs the prospective intruder and target installation?
b. data a. Hazard
c. plans b. Net
d. statement c. Risk
d. Barrier
637.Mr. Jun de las Alas was born on June 1, 1975. Does he
625.New employees should be briefed on security rules and meet the age requirement for entry to the police service in
regulations of the organization and the importance of June 1999?
observing them. This process is called: a. No, but he can apply for age waiver
a. security information b. Yes, he is only 24 years old and is within the
b. security reminders age requirement
c. security orientation c. Yes, he meets the maximum age requirement
d. security investigation d. No, he has exceeded the maximum age
626.What plans require action or assistance from persons or requirement
agencies outside the police organization? 638.A police officer who manages a police station must use all
a. tactical plan of the following skills, EXCEPT.
b. extra department plan a. conceptual
c. management plan b. technical
d. all of these c. interpersonal
627.This is a patrol program designed to ensure law abiding d. communication
citizens feeling of security but the reaction of fear for the 639.The planning process generally consists of five (5) steps in
would be violators. sequential order. (Which is the first step?)
a. double-officer patrol a. formulation of details of the plan
b. single-officer patrol b. recognition of the need to plan
c. low visibility patrol c. setting up planning objectives
d. high visibility patrol d. gathering and analysis of data
628.The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct 640.In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
contact is called _______? a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
a. oxidation b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
b. convection c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
c. conduction d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
d. radiation
641.These are barbed wires placed above a vertical fence in
629.How is one classified if he steals primarily because of order to increase physical protection of establishment or
irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and little installations.
chance of detection? a. top tower
a. systematic pilferer b. top guard
b. ordinary pilferer c. cellar guard
c. casual pilferer d. tower guard house
d. unusual pilferer 642.What is the next planning step after the need to plan is
630.An appeal filed with the Napolcom Regional Appellate recognized?
Board shall be decided within ______ days from receipt of a. evaluate alternatives
the nation appeal. b. formulate the objective
a. fifty c. execute the plan
b. twenty d. analyze the data
c. thirty
d. sixty
643.This type of patrol performs certain specific, projects ________ thus, an effective crime prevention
predetermined preventive strategies in a regular and strategy.
systematic basis. a. police omnipresence
a. apprehension-oriented patrol b. police effectiveness
b. low visibility patrol c. police discretion
c. split-force patrol d. police authority
d. directed deterrent patrol 654.Which of the following trait or ability is most important for a
644.Among the following applicants for appointment to the police officer?
police service, who may be automatically granted height a. personnel integrity and honesty
waiver? b. physical stamina and bearing
a. government employees wishing to transfer to c. courageous
the PNP d .high intelligence
b. members of cultural minorities duly certified by 655.In 2001, there were 200, 450 crimes reported to the Police
the appropriate government agency Station of Municipality A. If the population of Municipality is
c. police retirables requesting for extension of 5 Million, what is the crime rate?
service
d. graduate of criminology a. 3509
645.The following changes must be made in police operating b. 4010
procedures if the investigative skills of patrol personnel are c. 4250
to be employed to their fullest advantage EXCEPT. d. 4009
a. patrol supervisor should insists that patrol 656.If a complaint or incident is NOT Fully disposed of as a
officers simply make a brief report and return to result of the first investigation, a _________ report should
patrol duties rather than complete their be submitted.
investigations a. investigation report
b. patrol officers should be better trained and b. case disposition report
equipped to conduct routine investigations c. follow-up report
c. patrol officers should be encouraged to devote d. crime report
more time to the investigation of crimes to which 657.The advantages of a strong patrol are more than make up
they respond for slightly inferior performance. More patrolmen are then
d. the patrol supervision should be able to made available for emergency and the more active and
provide the patrol officer with assistance in widespread the patrol, the more apparent is their
determining whether a case has sufficient merit to presence, thus, promoting the impression of -
warrant immediate follow-up investigation by the a. suspensions
patrol officer b. effectiveness
646.The more complex the organization, the more highly c. omnipresence
specialized the division of work, the greater the need for: d. efficiency
a. cleaner delineation of functions 658.What is the importance of a firm or installation in the
b. coordinating authority relation to national security referred to?
c. strictly line discipline a. relative security
d. finer division of supervision b. relative necessity
647.The ________ differs from routine patrol methods in that c. relative criticality
patrol officers perform certain specific, predetermined d. relative vulnerability
preventive strategies on a regular and systematic basis. 659.When heat is transmitted by a circulating medium, the
a. low-visibility patrol method is called ____________.
b. directed deterrent patrol a. radiation
c. split force patrol b. oxidation
d. apprehension-oriented patrol c. convection
648.PO II Carlo Y. Alba and PO I Anglelo S. Suba report only to d. conduction
one (1) supervisor. This is the principle of 660.The __________ includes citizens who are cleared to
_______________. attend meeting in Malacañang.
a. unity of command a. white list
b. delegation of authority b. black list
c. span of control c. target list
d. report to immediate superior d. access list
661.The attestation function over police appointment is vested
649.PO III Serafin B. Alta frequents clubs, places of in the:
amusement and entertainment known to be habitually a. Civil Service Commission
visited by his subject and his subject’s associates. PO III b. National Police Commission
Alta’s undercover assignment is called. c. Professional Regulations Commission
a. multiple assignment d. Department of Interior and Local Government
b. social assignment 662.Selling security within the organization sets and maintains
c. work assignment a climate of _______ to the appreciation of the
d. dwelling assignment department’s objectives.
650.Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. participation
a. classified information must not be discussed by b. clear
one friends and members of the family c. understanding
b. classified information should be known only by d. collaboration
one person 663.Mr. Jaime del S. Rio was born on May 1, 1975, does he
c. cabinets with classified documents must be meet the age requirement for entry to the police service in
secured with padlocks and security measures at June 2002?
all time a. No, he has exceeded the maximum age
d. all classified documents must be safeguarded requirement
651.Assessing organizational strengths and weakness is b. Yes, he is only 27 years old and is within the
usually known as: age requirement
a. force field analysis c. No, but he can apply for age waiver
b. Delphi technique d. Yes, he meets the maximum education
c. simulation model requirement
d. forecasting 664.What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which is
652.These regulations establish the specifications of uniform “the information comes from a completely reliable source
and the manner in which they are to be worn: and is probably true”?
a. personnel transaction regulations a. B-2
b. firearms regulations b. A-2
c. uniform regulations c. A-3
d. equipment regulations d. A 1
653.
653. Police visibility in strategic and crime prone areas
665.In 2001, physical injuries numbered 12,500 out of a total c. Is it the same or consistent with known modus
crime volume of 60,500. What percent of the total crime operandi?
volume is attributed to physical injuries? d. Is the information about the target or area of the
a. 18.7% operation?
b. 20.7% 678.Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes, floods or
c. 25.7% lahar cannot be prevented from occurring. To minimize the
d. 4.8% disastrous effects of these phenomena, the security officer
666.SPO I Edna E. Castro evaluated the information gathered must prepare a:
as “completely reliable, source probably true”. What is the a. guard deployment plan
type of evaluation? b. security education plan
a. A-5 c. civil defense plan
b. A-1 d. disaster or emergency plan
c. A-4 679.It involves segregation of deviants into isolated geographic
d. A-2 areas so that they can easily be controlled.
667.It is ongoing process which ensures that new risks are a. Coercion
recognized and that established deterrents remain b. Quarantine
necessary and cost effective. c. Conversion
a. inspection d. Containment
b. interrogation 680.What management principle provides that only one officer
c. risk analysis be in direct command or supervision of each officer.
d. evaluation a. span control
668.What type of patrol performs certain specific, b. unity of command
predetermined preventive strategies on a regular and c. chain of command
systematic basis? d. line of authority
a. split-force patrol 681.What is referred to as total number of police officers
b. low visibility patrol assigned to patrol duties?
c. apprehension-oriented a. effective strength
d. directed deterrent patrol b. mandatory strength
669.A patrol beat refers to a: c. actual strength
a. Number of crimes to be solved d. authorized strength
b. Number of residents to be protected 682.When police patrols are increased beyond normal levels,
c. Location of police headquarters this is called ________?
d. Geographical area to be patrolled a. reactive patrol
670.It is importance of installation in relation to national b. directed deterrent patrol
security. c. citizen patrol
a. relative criticality d. proactive patrol
b. relative indispensability 683.What is the method of collection of information wherein the
c. relative security investigator tails or shadows the persons or vehicles?
d. relative vulnerability a. Research
671.It is the formal process of choosing the organization b. Surveillance
mission and overall objective both the short and long term c. Casing
as well as the divisional and individual objectives based on d. Photography
the organizational objectives. 684.Before a security expert can recommend what type of
a. planning security will needed by an industrial establishment, there
b. organizing is a need for him to undertake a :
c. directing a. security training
d. managerial decision-making b. security check
672.A _________ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the c. security survey
anticipated arrival of a suspect who is either wanted for d. security education
investigation or who is expected to commit a crime at a 685.When one procures information about subject secretly; he
certain location. is performing _______ collection method.
a. stake out a. routine
b. cops and robbers game b. overt
c. follow up c. active
d. surveillance d. covert
673.How is the crew complement of a Mobile Patrol Division 686.Under this principle, each group reports to an individual
organized into shifts for each duty? who is part of a supervisory group that answers to a higher
a. daily four-shift supervisor and so on until a group of administrators report
b .daily five-shift to the chief executive.
c. one shift-daily a. unity of command
d. daily three-shift b. span of control
674.The formulation of conclusions from the theory developed, c. scalar principle
tested and considered valid as a result of interpretation is d. aggregation
called. 687.Which of the following is NOT patrol pattern?
a. collection a. clockwise
b. integration b. zigzag
c. evaluation c. criss-cross
d. deduction d. stationary
675.In 2001, murder accounted for 10% of all index crimes. If 688.To what unit do policeman in plain clothes belong when
the total index crimes were 25,000, how many were they infiltrate and gather information about criminal
murder incidents? syndicates?
a. 250 a. Budget
b. 2,500 b. Planning
c. 500 c. Intelligence
d. 5,000 d. Patrol
676.The more complex the organization, the more highly 689.Which of the following statement is TRUE?
specialized the division of work, the greater the need for: a. Performance evaluation measures credibility
a. cleaner delineation of functions of the police personnel.
b. coordinating authority b. Performance evaluation is not a basis for
c. strictly line discipline salary increases of promotion.
d. finer division of supervision c. Performance evaluation is done once a year
677.The following questions are tests for accuracy of among police personnel.
information, EXCEPT: d. Performance evaluation is implemented to
a. Does the report agree or disagree with available determine the quality of work performance of
and related intelligence? personnel.
b. Is the reported fact or event known in advance
690.Line units such as the patrol section or investigation c. Routine preventive patrol
section in police stations prepare their work programs in d. Inspection of identified hazards
which areas are called ___. 703.Disaster preparedness and control plans should include
a. Budget _______ so that people who are directly involved know the
b. Management extent of the incident.
c. Operational plans a. evacuation services
d. Tactical plan b. identification services
691.What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to c. counseling services
capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable course of actions d. public information services
of foreign nations? 704.An intelligence report classified as A-2
a. combat intelligence means__________.
b. national intelligence a.the information comes from a completely
c. police intelligence reliable source and is doubtfully true
d. strategic intelligence b.the information comes from a completely
692.How are coded messages converted to intelligible reliable source and is probably true
language? c.the information comes from a usually reliable
a. Encoding source and is and is probably true.
b. Processing d.the information comes from a usually reliable
c. Labeling source and is possibly true
d. Decoding 705.It ensures the question “what is to be accomplish by the
693.The type of undercover operation wherein techniques are plan?”
applied for a longer time and are considered as the most a. objectives
different (difficult) investigate activity, yet the most b. planning assumptions
rewarding. c. problems
a. casing d. planning environment
b. undercover operation 706.The Neighborhood Team Policing exhibit the following
c. penetration organizational features, EXCEPT:
d. surveillance a. Unified delivery of services
694.As Security Director of Company B, you should know how b. Low-level flexibility in decision-making
many beds, are normally available in a multiple injury c. Combined investigation and patrol functions
situation and how many ________ patients can be d. Unity of direction
processed at a single time. 707.Patrol Officers are useful in crime solution if they are
a. Wounded properly trained in criminal investigation. Which of the
b. Emergency following cannot be undertaken by them?
c. Female a. He can locate and question the suspect if he
d. Male apprehends him.
695.A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is b. He can identify available evidences.
determined through a process called _________. c. He can take note of statements of the suspect.
a. security training d. He can issue the treasury checks to fellow
policemen.
b. security education 708.It is a physical security applied to business groups
c. security promotion engaged in industries, like manufacturing, assembling,
d. security investigation research and development, processing, warehousing and
696.696.This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and even agriculture.
lying in wait rather that upon high visibility patrol a. operational security
techniques? b. industrial security
a. decoy patrol c. physical security
b. high visibility patrol d. special types
c. directed patrol 709.It is the broadest branch of security which is concerned
d. low visibility patrol with the physical measures to prevent unauthorized
697.What police plans refer to actions to be taken at a access.
designated location and under specific circumstances? a. operational security
a. management plans b. industrial security
b. tactical plans c. physical security
c. operating plans d. special types
d. procedural plans 710.Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe operation of
698.What type of organization consciously coordinates the the facility caused by human action, accidental or
activities of two or more persons towards a given intentional.
objective? a. security hazards
a. flexible organization b. man-made hazard
b. formal organization c. natural hazard
c. informal organization d. all of the above
d. non-flexible organization 711. Are those caused by natural phenomena which caused
699.Who among the following meets the age qualification for damage, disturbance and problems of the normal
appointment to the police service? functioning of human activities, including security.
a. Rey who is 20 years old a. security hazards
b. Dennis who is 17 years old b. man-made hazard
c. John who is 22 years old c. natural hazard
d. Santi who is 35 years old d. all of the above
700.The covert observation of an area, a building or stationary 712. It is the importance of the firm with reference to the
object in order to gain information is called: national economy and security.
a. undercover works a. relative criticality
b. penetration b. relative vulnerability
c. casing c. all of the above
d. surveillance d. non of the above
701.If a fire in a warehouse is about to involve barrels of 713.One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes away
bleaching powder, the greatest danger would be from: any of all types of items or supplies for economic gain.
a. fast-burning flare-up that could not be a. pilferer
controlled b. casual pilferer
b. an explosion c. systematic pilferer
c. the impossibility of using water on the fire d. intruder
d. a toxic and irritant gas 714.. A medium of structure which defines the physical limits of
702.Which of the following is not included in the patrol an installation to restrict or impede access thereto.
function? a. natural barrier
a. Response to citizen calls b. man-made barrier
b. Investigation of crimes c. perimeter barrier
d. physical security b. duress code
715.. It is a type of perimeter barrier made of chain link with c. peterman
mesh openings not larger that two inches square, and d. fail safe
made or #9 gauge wire or heavier. 729.. A term applied to a device or system that in the event of
a. clear zone failure or a component, the incapacity will be signaled.
b. bodies of water a. doppler effect
c. building wall b. duress code
d. wire fence c. peterman
716.. It surmounted by the barbed wire top guards, and if the d. fail safe
height is less than the prescribed, additional topping is 730.. It is a practical test of a plan or any activity to test its
placed to attain the minimum height requirement. validity, it is also an operational readiness exercise.
a. clear zone a. dry run
b. bodies of water b. run through
c. building wall c. controlling
d. wire fence d. fire drill
717.. An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of the 731.. It is the susceptibility of the plant or establishment to
perimeter barrier. damage, loss or disruption of operation due to various
a. clear zone hazard.
b. bodies of water a. relative criticality
c. building wall b. relative vulnerability
d. wire fence c. all of the above
718.. He may issue or revoke licenses issued to security d. non of the above
guards. 732.. It includes records that are irreplaceable, reproduction of
a. Chief, PNP which does not have the same value as the original
b. Mayor records.
c. Governor a. useful records
d. Secretary, DILG b. vital records
719.. It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on c. important records
vertical perimeter fences facing upward and outward with d. non-essential records
a 45 degree angle with three to four strand of barbed wire. 733.. How is one classified if he steals primarily because of
a. topping irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity?
b. top guard a. casual pilferer
c. all of the above b. ordinary pilferer
d. non of the above c. systematic
720.. Are house like structure above the perimeter barriers, it d. unusual pilferer
give psychological effect to violators. 734.. The extinguishment of fire by using water solution, and
a. guard towers the temperature is lowered below the burning point.
b. tower guards a. smothering
c. guard house b. starving
d. guard post c. cooling
721.. A conference or dialogue between the survey team and d. all of the above
management officials before security survey is conducted. 735.. It is a type of built-in sprinklers which works by the
a. pre- security survey increase of room temperature, and which automatically
b. post- security survey operates the system to put out the fire.
c. entrance conference a. wet pipe system
d. exit conference b. automatic sprinklers
722.. It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s adequacy c. dry pipe system
and deficiency in all aspects of security. d. stand pipe system
a. security inspections 736.. These fire results from the burning of wood, paper,
b. security survey textiles and other carbonaceous materials.
c. special survey a. Class “A” Fires
d. supplemental survey b. Class “B” Fires
723.. It is the exposure and teaching of employees on security c. Class “C” Fires
and its relevance to their work. d. Class “D” Fires
a. security education 737.. Private Security Agencies must be registered at what
b. security indoctrination government agency.
c. security training a. DTI
d. security awareness b. PNP
724.. It is an authenticated list of personnel given to security c. CSC
allowing entry to a compound or installation thereof. d. LGU
a. controlling
b. access list 738. It is the minimum guard requirements for the issuance of
c. exclusion area temporary license.
d. controlled area a.100
725.. Any area, access to which is subject to special restriction b.1,000
control. c.50
a. restricted area d.200
b. exclusion area 739.. The regular security guard license is good for how many
c. controlled area years?
d. coverage factor a. 1 year
726.. A restricted area containing materials or operation of b. 2 years
security interest. c. 6 months
a. restricted area d. 3 years
b. exclusion area 740.. It is the minimum capitalization for PSA.
c. controlled area a. P1,000,000.00
d. coverage factor b. P500,000.00
727.It is the key elements in the security survey system of a c. P100,000.00
plant or installation. d. non of the above
a. security guard 741.. It is the required minimum number of guards to operate
b. human guard company security forces.
c. company guard a. 30
d. agency guard b. 200
728.. It is a term used in England for lock pickers, c. 50
safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted rooms or d.100
areas. 742.. A PSA with 200 to 499 guards shall pay how much
a. doppler effect amount of surety bond to a reputable insurance company.
a. P50,000.00 d. CSF
b. P100,000.00 756.. It is a security force maintained and operated by the
c. P150,000.00 private company/corporation for its own protection and
d. P200,000.00 security requirements
743.. PSAs with 100 guards must initially procure at least how a. PDA
many firearms for use of its security guards. b. PSA
a. 10 c. GSU
b. 20 d. CSF
c. 30 757.. It is a security unit maintained and operated by any
d. 70 government entity other than military or police.
744.. PSAs who have been applying for regular license to a. PDA
operate must have at least ___ pieces of licensed b. PSA
firearms. b. GSU
a. 10 c. CSF
b. 20 d.PAD
c. 30 758.. It is the umbrella organization for PDA and PSA.
d. 70 a. PADPAO, Inc.
745.. The stock of ammunitions of the PSAs shall not exceed a b. SAGSD
basic load of how many rounds per unit of duly licensed c. SEC
firearms. d. PNP
a. 20 759.. It is a government agency involved in the supervision of
b. 12 the internal affairs of the PSAs, PDAs, CSFs and GSUs.
c. 50 a. PADPAO, Inc.
d. 25 b. SAGSD
746.. This is quantity of ammunitions to be issued to individual c. SEC
security guards. d. PNP
a. 20 760.. It is the age requirement for the operator or manager of
b. 12 PSA, PDA, CSF, and GSU.
c. 50 a. 25 years
d. 25 b. 30 years
747.It is the only instances wherein PDAs & PSAs may be c. 35 years
allowed to use high powered firearms; except one. d. 20 years
a. upsurge of lawlessness and criminality 761.. It is the initial number of guard requirements that must be
b. upsurge of bank and armored bank robbery contracted for the 1st year of operation of PSA.
c. transporting big amount of money a. 100
d. providing security to VIPs b. 200
748.. The prescribed high-powered firearms not exceed how c. 1,000
many percent of the total number of guards employed. d. 50
a.5% 762.. What is the minimum number of guard requirements in
b.10% the operation of branch offices of PSA.
c.15% a. 20
d.20% b. 30
749.. These are the qualifications of a licensed watchman or c. 10
security guard, EXCEPT: d. 40
a. high school graduate 763.. __________ are included in the category of in-house
b. physically & mentally fit guards.
c. 18 to 50 years of age a. government guards
d. without pre-licensing training b. private security agency
750.. There are two different ways in which security guards are c. propriety guards
hired or employed, the company guard and the other one d. all of the above
is: 764.. It is charge with the directing the work and observing the
a. government guards behavior performance of the men under his unit.
b. private security agency a. security guard
c .propriety guards b. security supervisor
d. in-house guards c. watchman
751.. This is an Act to Regulate the Organization and c. security officer
Operation of PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs. 765.. The following items must be stipulated in the security
a. PD 603 service contract, EXCEPT:
b. EO 292 a. money consideration
c. RA 5487 b. number of hours of security service
d. PD 968 c. salary of the security guard
752.. They are any person who offers or renders personal d. commission of the operator
service to watch or secure either residential or business 766.. It is administrative sanctions that can be imposed to any
establishment or both. applicant who failed to submit the complete requirements
a. private detective in the renewal of license.
b. security guards a. cancellation
c. propriety guards b. revocation
d. company guards c. nullification
753.. Are any person who is not a member of the AFP or PNP, d. suspension
but involved in detective work. 767.. It shall apply to all PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs throughout
a. private detective the Philippines.
b. security guards a. Private Scty. Law
c. propriety guards b. RA 5487
d. company guards c .IRR of RA 5487
754.. It is any person who for hire or reward or on commission, d.all of the above
conducts or carries on or holds himself out in carrying 768.. It refers to the Summary Power of the Chief, PNP as
detective works. provided by R.A. 5487.
a. PDA a. suspension of license
b. PSA b. cancellation of license
c. GSU c. all of the above
d. CSF d. non of the above
755.. It is any person, association, partnership, firm or private
corporation that employs any watchman or guards.
a. PDA 769.. It is the established rules and regulations in the operation
b. PSA of GSUs, EXCEPT:
c. GSU a. registration at SAGSD
b. registration at CSG 784.. These are authorized to conduct investigation on all
c. both A & B complaints against securities of PSAs or detective of
d. registration at SEC PDAs.
770.. Any member of the GSUs shall be required to secure a a. C, ROPD
__________ to exercise profession at SAGSD. b. Inves. Comm., CSG
a. permit c. all of the above
b. authority d. none of the above
c. registration 785.. It must be avoided by the private security personnel,
d. license either physically or otherwise with the strikers.
771.. How many days prior expiry month of license shall a. direct contact
require PSL holders to undergo NP examinations. b. indirect contact
a. 60 days c. confrontation
b. 30 days d. carrying of firearms
c. 45 days 786.. The City or Municipal Mayors has the power to muster or
d. 15 days _________ the members of the agency in case of
772.. Neuro-Psychiatric Clearance shall be issued by the emergency or in times of disasters or calamity.
accredited testing centers within how many days after the
date of examination. a. organize
a. 60 days b. incorporate
b. 30 days c. utilize
c .45 days d. deputize
d.15 days 787.. The staff directorate in charge of gathering information is-
773.. Moribund but previously licensed security agency, a. Intelligence
means: b. Police Community Relation
a. dying PSA c. Civil Security Group
b. viable PSA d. Investigation and Detective Mngt.
c. new PSA 788.. Who is the Chairman of NAPOLCOM?
d. renewing PSA a. Chief of Staff, AFP
774..It refers to the requirements for application for licenses as b. Secretary of the DILG
security officers, guards, and operators. c. Secretary of National Defense
a. physical & mental examination d. Chief of the PNP
b. medical & dental examination 789.. It is the minimum educational attainment for promotion in
c. physical agility test examination the PNP.
d. drug test examination a. MNSA
775.. Blue Guard Medal Valor is awarded by whom? b. Master’s Degree
a. DILG c. OSEC
b. C, PNP d. BS Degree
c. PD, PPO 790.. Attrition system is a means under Republic Act Nr. 8551
d. RD, PRO 3 to remove from the PNP, police officers who are-
776.. Letter of Commendation to PSGs is awarded by whom? a. inefficient
a. PSAs Operators b. ineffective
b. CSF Managers c. unproductive
c. all of the above d. all of the choices
d. non of the above 791.. The nature of which, the police officer is free from
777.. It shall be submitted immediately after graduation to the specific routine duty is the definition of -
C, PNP. a. “on duty”
a. closing reports b. “special duty”
b. opening reports c. “leave of absence”
c. participants d. “off duty”
d. name of course 792.. An area containing two or more beats, routes or post is
778.. It is required to the License to Operate PSAs/CSFs. called-
a. displayed a. post
b. carried b. unit
c. registered c. sector
d. all of the above d. section
779.. Merger of PSAs/PDAs is commonly known as ______ in 793.. The lowest rate in the Performance Evaluation Rating in
the industrial security management. the PNP is-
a. Kabit System a. Very Satisfactory
b. Illegal Operation b. Fair
c. Merger of Security c. Outstanding
d. Moribund Security d. Poor
780.. It is no anymore required to PSAs/PDAs securing 794.. The Chief PNP had been in the service for 36 years and
temporary license to operate. receive a Base Pay of 25,000 pesos a month. How much
a. pre-inspection will be his Longevity Pay?
b. post-inspection a. 5,000 pesos
c. inspection b. 7,500 pesos
d. continuing inspection c. 10,000 pesos
781.. It shall not be issued unless prior inspection is conducted d. 12,500 pesos
to the applicant agency. 795.. SPO4 Masipag receives a base pay of Php14, 000. He
a. regular license had been in the service for 27 years. How much is his
b. temporary license longevity pay?
c. license to operate a.Php4, 200
d. permit to operate b. Php5, 000
782.. These are the classifications of offenses as prescribed by c. Php6, 500
the IRR of R.A. 5487, EXCEPT: d. Php7, 000
a. serious offense 796.. A primary subdivision of a bureau is called-
b. light offense a. division
c. grave offense b. unit
d. less grave offense c. section
783.. They have the authority to conduct inspection to PSAs/ d. department
PDAs/CSFs/GSUs, EXCEPT: 797.. The mandatory training course for PO1 for them to be
a. C, SAGSD promoted to PO2 or PO3.
b. C, ROPD a. PSJLC
c. PD, PPO b. PSOBC
d. SAGSD Officer c. PSOOC
d. PSBRC
798.. Time-In-Grade needed by a Senior Inspector before he c. temporary
could be promoted to Chief Inspector is- d. probationary
a. 1 year 813..The Police Regional Office covering Metro-Manila is-
b. 3 years
c. 2 years a. Western Police District
d. 5 years b. NCRPO
799.. An area assigned for foot or motorized patrol purposes is c. Southern Police District
called- d. Central Police District
a. beat 814.. The equivalent rank of Major General in the PNP is-
b. sector a. Director General
c. route b. Chief Superintendent
d. post c. Deputy Director General
800.. The system used in PNP promotions is called- d. Director
a. Performance 815.. The number 2 man in the PNP organization in-
b. Seniority a. TCDS
c. Palakasan b. DDG for Administration
d. Merit c. DDG for Operations
801.. The directorate who is in charge of supplies and d. none of them
equipments of PNP is- 816..The national headquarters of the PNP is-
a. logistics a. Camp Dangwa
b. comptrollership b. Camp Crame
c. intelligence c. Camp Aguinaldo
d. plans d. Fort Bonifacio
802.. What is the maximum tenure of a Police Regional 817.. The purpose of promotion in the PNP is-
Director? a. recognition of good work
a. 4 years b. gives officers high morale
b .5 years c. gives higher pay
c. 6 years d. all of the choices
d. 9 years 818.. Waiver system in the PNP will apply if-
803.. The period of time in the present rank in permanent a. recruitment falls on summer
status is called- b. qualified applicant falls below quota
a. Time-In-Grade c. ordered by the President
b. Length of Service d. none of them
c. Seniority in rank 819.. Mental fitness of an applicant in the PNP is verified thru-
d. Plantilla position a. medical examination
804.. The directorate who is the “make-up artist” and b. neuro-psychiatric examination
“deodorant” of the PNP is called- c. physical fitness examination
a. Personnel Records Mgt. d. drug test
820.. Age waiver can be granted if the applicant is-
b. Research Development a. 20 to 36 years old
c. Police Community Relation b. 19 to 36 years old
d. Human Resource & Doctrine Devt. c. 21 to 35 years old
805.. The National Capital Region Police Office is divided into d. 20 to 35 years old
how many districts? 821.. What is the minimum rank for a police officer to be
a. four qualified a the C, PNP?
b. six a. Director
c. five b. Superintendent
d. seven c. Chief Superintendent
806.. A functional group within a section is called- d. Director General
a. division 822.. The law that grants automatic eligibility for those who
b. route passed any licensure examination administered by the
c. unit Professional Regulations Commission is-
d. sector a. Republic Act Nr. 6506
807.. The staff directorate in charge of gathering information is- b. Republic Act Nr. 1080
a. Intelligence c. Republic Act Nr. 6975
b. Police Community Relation d. Republic Act Nr. 8551
c. Comptrollership 823.. The highest award given to a PNP member is-
d.Investigation and Detective Mgt. a. Medalya ng Kadakilaan
808.. Which of the following is not an administrative support b. Medalya ng Kagitingan
unit? c. Medalya ng Sugatang Magiting
a. Special Action Force d. Medalya ng Kabayanihan
b. Civil Security Group 824.. What is the duration of the PNP Field Training Program?
c. Police Security and Protection Office a. 10 months
d. all of the choices b. 18 months
809.. Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP c. 12 months
members who want to be promoted to- d. 24 months
a. SPO4 825.. When is the date of effectively of the PNP Reform and
b. SPO3 Reorganization Act?
c. SP01 a. 1992
d. PO3 b. 1996
810.Under the general qualifications for appointment in the c. 1994
PNP, male applicant must be with a height of at least- d. 1998
a. 1.62 m 826.. What law was amended by RA 8551?
b. 1.64 m a. RA 7659
c. 1.57 m b. RA 6425
d. 1.54 c. RA 6975
811. . The mandatory training course of SPO4 before they can d. RA 9165
be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector is- 827.. Valenzuela City maintains a police force with a total
a. Officers Basic Course manpower of 2000 officers and men. How many PLEB
b. Officers Candidate Course must be established?
c. Officers Advance Course a. two
d. Senior Leadership Course b. four
812.. What is the nature of appointment of PNP personnel c. three
under the waiver program? d. five
a. permanent 828.. What is the lowest administrative penalty?
b. contractual a. Forfeiture of Pay
b. Restricted to Specified limits d. 20 years
c. Witholding of Privilege 843.. A promotion by virtue of exhibited act of courage and
d. Admonition extra-ordinary gallantry beyond the call of duty is called-
829.. It is the period given for a PNP member admitted under a. Regular
the educational attainment waiver to finish his B.S. Degree b. Permanent
according to RA 8551? c. Temporary
a. 4 years d. Meritorious
b. 6 years 844.. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly
c. 5 years authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the
d. 7 years commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other
830.. It is the number of year of non-promotion before a PNP legitimate purposes.
Member can be attrited. a. Clear Zone
a. 5 years b. Public Place
b. 15 years c. Police Checkpoint
c. 10 years d. Pre-Determined Area
d. 20 years 845.. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot or
831.. It also referred to as Monthly Retirement Benefits (MRB). in a vehicle, based on reasonable suspicion/probable
a. lump sum cause, for the purpose of determining the individual’s
b. pension identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning
c. gratuity criminal activity.
d. allowance a. Frisking
b. Search
832.Insubordination is an administrative infraction referred to c. Spot Check
as- d. Pat-down Search
a. citizens complaint 846.. A promotion granted to PNP personnel who dies while in
b. grave misconduct the performance of duty is called-
c. breach of internal discipline a. Regular
d. none of them b. Posthumous
833.PLEB is composed of how many person? c. Temporary
a. 3 d. None of them
b. 5 847.. Under the lateral entry program in the PNP, a
c. 4 criminologist who applied and selected will have the initial
d. 6 rank of -
834.. How many years is maximum tenure in officer of the a. Senior Inspector
Chief, PNP? b. Inspector
a. four years c. SPO4
b. six years d. Chief of Inspector
c. five years 848.. The appointment of Police Inspectors up to Police
d. nine years Superintendent is vested in the-
835.. How long will be the extension of tenure of the Chief, a. Chief, PNP
PNP if extended? b. President
a. not more than 1 year c. Civil Service Commission
b. not less than 2 years d. NAPOLCOM
c. more than 1 year 849.. When can the President extend the tenure of service of
d. none of them the Chief, PNP?
836.. The law that grants eligibility to Criminology Board Exam a. after 4 years
passers is- b. there is no successor
a. Republic Act Nr. 6506 c. during martial law
b. Republic Act Nr. 1080 d. national emergencies
c. Republic Act Nr. 8551 850.. What is the benefit derived by a PNP officer qualified for
d. Republic Act Nr. 6975 early retirement?
837.. The agency that administers all the mandatory training a. two ranks higher
for police officers is b. one rank higher
a. PPSC c. his present rank
b. PNP d. one year gratuity
c. DHRDD 851.. Who shall attest the appointment of PNP officers?
d. NAPOLCOM a. Civil Service Commission
838.. Who can grant waivers for applicants in the PNP? b. Congress
a. President c. Commission of Appointment
b. Chief, PNP d. NAPOLCOM
c. Sec. of DILG 852.. Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP
d. NAPOLCOM members who want to be promoted to-
839.. Which of the following administer the PNP Entrance and a. SPO4
Promotional Exam for policemen as provided for under b. SPO1
Republic Act Nr. 8551? c. SPO3
a. NAPOLCOM d. PO3
b. Civil Service Commission 853.. The 1987 Philippine Constitution provides that the State
c. Congress shall establish and maintain one police for which shall be-
d. PNP a. national in scope
840.. What is the basis for promotion that includes the length b. civilian in scope
of service in the present rank? c. national in character
a. Merit d. military in character
b. Superiority 854.. What is the meaning of PPSC?
c. Time-In-Grade a. Phil. Public Safety Course
d. Age b. Phil. Private Safety College
841.. In availing of early retirement, one must have rendered c. Phil. Public Safety College
continuous service of- d. Phil. Private Safety Course
a. 10 years 855..The mandatory training required for promotion to the rank
c. 15 years of Police Superintendent is called-
b. 20 years a. MNSA
d. 25 years b. OSEC
842.. What is the length of service before a PNP member c. MPSA
would be qualified for optional retirement? d. Master’s Degree
a. 5 years 856.. He is the first Chief of the Philippine Constabulary?
b. 10 years a. Capt. Henry T. Allen
c. 15 years b. Gen. Rafael Crame
c. Col. Lamberto Javalera d. Regional Director of the NCR
d. Capt. Columbus Piatt 872.. The National Appellate Board Office of the NAPOLCOM
857..It is an association or group of individuals with a common is located in what city?
goal. a. Quezon City
a. Police organization b. City Of Manila
b. Law enforcement group c. Mandaluyong City
c. Non-government organization d. Makati City
d. Organization 873.. Police Senior Superintendents are appointed by-
a. Chief, PNP
858.. Who is the Father of Modern Policing System? b. Secretary, DILG
a. Edwin Sutherland c. President of the Phil.
b. Emile Durkhiem d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
c. Sir Robert Peel 874.. The law that merges the police and Philippine
d. Leonard Keeler Constabulary into the PC-INP is-
859..Who is the first Chief of Police of Manila? a. R.A. 7659
a. Capt. George Curry b. R.A. 6975
b. Capt. Henry Allen c. R.A. 8551
c. Capt. Columbus Piatt d. P.D. 765
d. Capt. Howard Taft 875.. How many deputies do the PNP consist?
860.. Rape punished under RPC is crime against _____. a. one
a. chastity b. three
b. passion c. two
c. person d. four
d. mankind 876.. How many police Regional Offices (PRO) are there in the
861.. What is given to a PNP member for every 5 years of PNP Organization?
satisfactory service rendered? a. fourteen
a. promotion b. sixteen
b. longevity pay c. Fifteen
c. additional allowance d. Seventeen
d. retirement benefits 877.. The Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP is done
862.. What is the lowest administrative penalty? how many times per year?
a. reprimand a. once
b. admonition b. thrice
c. restriction c. twice
d. forfeiture of pay d. four
863..Citizen’s complaint may be brought before the Chief of 878.. MNSA or Master’s in National Security Administration is
Police, City or Municipal Mayors and _______. offered and administered by an institution known as-
a. Chief, PNP a. PPSC
b. Provincial Director b. NAPOLCOM
c. Regional Director c. National Defense Office
d. PLEB d. National Defense College
864.. Decision the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where 879.. The mandatory training course needed to be promoted to
the penalty is dismissal, demotion and forced resignation SPO1 and SPO2 is called-
may be appealed before this body. a. Police Basic Course
a. Regional Appellate Board b. Junior Leadership Course
b. Office of the President c. Senior Leadership Course
c. National Appellate Board d. Officers Candidate Course
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM 880.. The administrative support unit in charge of delivering the
865.. Which of the following composed the PNP? necessary supplies and materials to all PNP units in the
a. members of the INP field is called-
b. members of the PC a.Finance Service
c. members of the PNP b.Logistics Support Service
d. all of the choices c.Computer Service
866..What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff? d.Communications & Electronics Svc
a. Deputy Director General 881.. The highest ranking Police Non-Commissioned Officer is-
b. Police Director a. SPO2
c. Police Chief Superintendent b. SPO4
d. Police Senior Superintendent c. SPO3
867.. The kind of promotion granted to a candidate who meets d. Inspector
all the basic qualification for promotion is termed- 882.. How many stars are there in the rank of Police Director?
a. special a. one
b. meritorious b. three
c. regular c. two
d. ordinary d. four
868.. It is the mandatory training course for SPO4 before they 883.. The Republic Act that is also known as the DILG Act of
can be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector. 1990 that established the PNP under the DILG is-
a. Officer’s Basic Course a. Republic Act Nr. 6975
b. Officer’s Advance Course b. Republic Act Nr. 7659
c. Officer’s Candidate Course c. Republic Act 8551
d. Senior Leadership Course d. Presidential Decree 765
869.. How many Staff Directorates are there in the PNP 884.. In the history of our police force, who was the first
National Office (NHQ-PNP)? Director General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
a. eleven a. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
b. ten b. Gen. Raul Imperial
c. nine c. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
d. twelve d. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
870.. Generally, PNP promotions are subject to the 885.. The primary objective of Philippine National Police:
confirmation of the: a. Law Enforcement
a. Civil Service Commission b. Peace and Order
b. NAPOLCOM c. Protect and Serve
c. Commission on Appointment d. Crime Prevention
d. President of the Phil. 886.. The national headquarters of the PNP is located in
871.. The number 4 man in the PNP organization is the - Quezon City. It was named after the 1st Filipino Chief of
a. Dep. Dir. Gen for Opns the Philippine Constabulary.
b. Dep. Dir Gen for Adm a. Rafael Palma
c. The Chief Directorial Staff b. Cesar Nazareno
c. Rafael Crame 898.. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed
d. Emilio Aguinaldo Forces of the Philippines. What is his equivalent rank in
887.. Richard Aldenjoined the PNP in 1996. He was 30 years the PNP?
old then. What year can Alden retire? a. Inspector
a. 2017 b. Chief Inspector
b. 2031 c. Senior Inspector
c. 2032 d. Superintendent
d. 2022 899.. How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in
888.. The Role of the PNP on matters involving the the PNP?
suppression of insurgency and serious treats to national
security? a. 1
a. The AFP operating through the area b. 3
commander is the one primarily responsible c. 2
on matters involving insurgency and other d. 4
serious treats to national security. 900.. The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.
b. The PNP is relieved of the primary role a. Four star general
towards insurgency and other serious treats b. Director
to national security. c. Chief Superintendent
c. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP d. Director General (PNP)
in insurgency-affected areas. 901.. What is the minimum police-to-population ratio?
d. All of the choices a. 1:1000
889.. The procedure which is intended to be used in situations b. 1:1500
of all kinds and outlined as guide and by men in the field c. 1:500
operations relative to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest d. 1:7
and investigation refers to 902.. The fourth man in command of the PNP is the
a. Field Procedure __________.
b. Time Specific plan a. DDG for operation
c. Problem oriented plan b. Chief, Directorial Staff
d. Headquarters procedure c. DDG for administration
890.. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period d. Chief, PNP
______? 903.. Which of the following is NOT included in the powers and
a. Not exceeding four years. function of the PNP?
b. Not exceeding five years. a. enforce all laws and ordinances
c. Not exceeding six years. b. maintain peace and order
d. Not exceeding three years. c. investigate and prevent crimes
891.. The law that empowered the police commission to d. prosecute criminal offenders
conduct entrance and promotional examination for police 904.. The word “police” was derived from the Greek word
members refers to: _______, which means government of the city.
a. RA 6040 a. politia
b. RA 157 b. Polis
c. RA 5487 c. politeia
d. PD 765 d. Policy
892.. The theory of police service which states those police 905.. It is defined as the determination in advance of how the
officers are servants of the people or the community refers objectives of the organization will be attained.
to: a. planning
a. Old b. Advancement
b. Home rule c. police planning
c. Modern d. Development
d. Continental 906.. It is the premier educational institution for the training,
893.. Dr. WWW is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the human resource development and continuing education of
Philippine National Police. What would be his initial rank all personnel of the PNP, BFP, and BJMP.
upon entry? a. PPSC
a. Senior Inspector b. RTS
b. Chief Inspector c. PNPA
c. Inspector d. NPC
d. none of the choices 907.. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint
894.. The following are functions in a police organization, against the police officers.
EXCEPT: a. IAS
a. primary functions b. PNP
b. administrative functions c. PLEB
c. secondary functions d. NAPOLCOM
d. auxiliary functions
895.. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to 908.. The provincial governor shall choose the provincial
disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the director from a list of _____ eligible’s recommended by the
Patrol officer is: PNP regional director:
a. Conduct a complete search. a. six
b. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect. b. Five
c. No further search may be made. c. Three
d. Turnover the suspect to the immediate d. four
supervisor. 909.. The deployment of officers in a given community, area or
896.. He is known as the father of modern policing system? locality to prevent and deter criminal activity and to provide
a. August Vollmer day-to-day services to the community.
b. Robert Peel a. Patrol
c. Oliver Cromwell b. Beat Patrol
d. Cesare Lombroso c. Line Patrol
897.. When responding to call for police assistance due to d. Area Patrol
planted or found explosives, what immediate actions
should the patrol officer will do? 910.. The head of the IAS shall have a designation of
a. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not. ____________?
b.Dispose the item immediately to avoid further a. Director General
injury to happen. b. Solicitor General
c.Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive c. Inspector General
Ordinance Disposal Team. d. IAS General
d.Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper 911. . As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be
procedure to be followed, after investigating the item. how many PLEB for every 500 police personnel?
a. one (1)
b. more than one d. 21 years
c. at least one 923.. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?
d. less than one a. standard operation procedures
912.. If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the b. special operation procedures
immediate things to do when accident occur? c. standard operating procedures
a. Cordon the area d. special operating procedures
b. Go away and call your superior 924.. The following are the characteristics of a good plan,
c. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital except:
d. Chase the criminal and Arrest him a. Flexibility
913.. Detective Beat System is one of the concrete responses b. specific
of the PNP in reinventing the field of investigation. Who is c. Clear
the NCRPO Chief who introduces this DBS? d. expensive
a. Dir. Alma Jose 925.. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is 1200. How many
b. Dir. Romeo Pena of the annual quota is allocated for women?
c. Dir. Sonny Razon a.10%
d. Dir. Rene Sarmiento b.120
914.. All of the following are members of the People’s Law c.100
Enforcement Board, EXCEPT: d.200
a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace 926.. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be waived
and Order Council from among the in the following order:
respected members of the community a. age, height, weight & education
b. Any barangay captain of the city/ b. age, weight, height & education
municipality concerned chosen by the c. height, education, weight & age
association of barangay captains d. in any order
c. Any member of the Sangguniang 927.. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis
Panglunsod provided by law.
d. A bar member chosen by the Integrated a. attrition
Bar of the Philippines b. separation
915.. Two or more persons forming an organization must c. romotion
identify first the reason for establishing such organization. d. Retirement
They must identify the organization’s _________: 928.. The age requirement for new PNP applicants must not be
a. strategy less than twenty-one (21) years of age. The Maximum age
b.mission requirement for PNP applicants using the lateral entry
c.vision program is ____.
d. objective a. 35 years old
916.. To improve delegation, the following must be done, b. 25 years old
EXCEPT: c. 30 years old
a. establish objectives and standards d. 31 years old
b. count the number of supervisors 929.. A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members
c. require completed work is required for permanency of their appointment. Who
d. define authority and responsibility among the following is exempted to undergo the Field
917.. The number of subordinates that can be supervised Training Program and issued a permanent appointment?
directly by one person tends to: a. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed
a. Increase as the physical distance between Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
supervisor and subordinate as well as b. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr.
between individual subordinate increases Inspector via Lateral entry.
b. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge c. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed
and experience of the subordinate Inspector after graduation.
c. Increase as the level of supervision d. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist
progresses for the first line supervisory level and First Place in the Examination.
to the management level 930.. Planning as a management function is to
d. All of the above be done in the various levels of PNP
918.. This means controlling the direction and flow of decisions Organization. Broad policy based from laws
through unity of command from top to bottom of directives, policies and needs in general is the
organization: responsibility of:
a. Audit a. Directorate for Plans
b. Coordination b. President of the Philippines
c. Monitoring c. Chief, PNP
d. Authority d. Dep. Dir. For Administration
919.. Which of the following statements is true: 931.. What is the rank equivalent of PNPDeputy
a.Performance evaluation measures credibility Director General in the Armed Forces of the
of the police Philippines?
b.Performance evaluation is not a basis for a. Lt. General
salary increases or promotion b. Major General
c.Performance evaluation is done once a year c. Brigade General
among police personnel d. General
d.Performance evaluation is implemented to 932.. The Philippine National Police will recruit
determine the quality of work performance of 500 new policemen on April 2013 to fill up its
personnel quota. Who among the following applicants is
920.. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for qualified to apply?
_______: a. Alden who was born on April 24, 1978
a. Administrative control b. Maine who was born on November 22, 1980
b. Operational supervision c. Vice who was born on March 17, 1993
c. Administration and control d. Plastillas who was born on August 10, 1991
d. Policy and program coordination 933.. Police Inspector Katunggali joined the
921.. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same Philippine National Police on October 1,
supervisor. This is the principle of __________: 1988.Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as
a. delegation of authority embalmer, he decided to file an optional retirement so
b. span of control that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP
c. unity of command which he served with extreme commitment and
d. chain of command loyalty. When does Mark Espinosa can retire?
922.. The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the a. October 5, 1998
Director General of the PNP is; b. October 6, 1999
a. 4 years c. September 5, 2010
b. 56 years d. September 5, 2008
c. 5 years 934.. Which of the following administrative
penalties is immediately executory? C.It is the single largest unit in the police department
a. Dismissal that can be eliminated
b. Forfeiture of pay D.It is the nucleus of the police department
c. Suspension E.It is the operational heart of the police department
d. Death penalty 947..The performance evaluation system in the PNP is
conducted:
A.thrice a year
935.. It is the third in command in the Philippine National B. Every 6 months
Police: C.Every 2 years
a. Regional Director D. Quarterly
b. Chief Directorial Staff 948.. A PNP member who acquired permanent physical
c. DeputyChief for Administrationd. disability in the performance of his dutyand unable to
d. Deputy Chief for Operation further perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime
936.. The head of the National Capital Regional pension equivalent to:
Police Office shall assume the position of NCR A50% of his last salary
director with the rank of: B. 70% of his last salary
a. Chief Superintendent C.60% of his last salary
b. Director D. 80% of his last salary
c. Superintendent 949.. How many successive annual ratingperiods before a
d. General police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor
937.. Under the waiver program, who among the following PNP performance?
applicants is the least priority for appointment? A.2
a. maine who just earned 72 units in college b . B.4
Paloma who is under height C.3
c. Jauquinwho is underweight D.1
d. Alden who is overage
938.. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known 950.. How many cumulative annual ratingperiods before a
as____________. police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor
a.Department of Interior and Local Government Act of performance?
1990 A.2
b.Department of the Interior and Local Government B.4
Act of 1990 C.3
c.Department of Interior and the Local Government D.1
Act of 1990 951..In this theory, management assumes employees may be
d.Department of the Interior and the Local ambitious and self-motivated and exercise self-control. It is
Government Act of 1990 believed that employees enjoy their mental and physical
939.. SPO3 Manny Weather receives 27, 690.00 work duties.
base pay since he was promoted. After five years A.Hawthorne Effect
from promotion, what would be his monthly base pay B.Stockholm Syndrome
after adding his longevity pay? C.X theory
a. 32, 690.00 D.Y theory
b. 37, 690.00 952..The theory X and Y is a human motivation created by?
c. 30, 459.00 A.Edward H. Sutherland
d. 31, 549.00 B.C. Edwin Hawthorne
940.. Decisions rendered by the national IAS C.Henry A. Landsberger
shall be appealed to the__________: D.Douglas McGregor
a. Regional Appellate Board 953.In this theory, which has been proven counter-effective in
b. National Appellate Board most modern practice, management assumes employees
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board d . are inherently lazy and will avoid work if they can and that
National Police Commission they inherently dislike work. As a result of this,
941.. It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966. management believes that workers need to be closely
a. R.A. 4864 supervised and comprehensive systems of controls
b. R.A. 8551 developed.
c. Act 175 A.Hawthorne Effect
d. PD 765 B.Stockholm Syndrome
942..__________ is given to any PNP member who has C.X theory
exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his D.Y theory
life above and beyond the call of duty. 954..This kind of organizational structure classifies people
A. Meritorious Promotion B . according to the function they perform in their professional
Special Promotion life or according to the functions performed by them in the
C. Regular Promotion organization.
D. On-the-Spot Promotion A.Functional Structure
943..PNP members under the waiver program but is dismissed B.Line and Staff Structure
for failure to comply with the requirements can re-apply to C.Line Structure
the PNP? D.Divisional Structure
A. Maybe Yes 955..If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding
B.Maybe No 30 days but not less than 16 days, the citizen’s complaint
C..Absolutely Yes against erring PNP member shall be filed at the
D.Absolutely No A.Office of the chief of police
944..The reason why police officer appears in court as a B.PLEB
witness has to be in complete uniform is to show his C.Mayor’s Office
respect to the court and to his: D. any of the choices
A.Position/Rank 956..Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of the
B.Superior base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case of
C.Profession 20 years active service
D.Comrades A.50%
945..Which among the following is NOT subjected to field B.10%
Operational Plans? C.2.5%
A.Patrol D.55%
B.Records
C.Investigation 957..This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as
D. Traffic drug crackdown, crime prevention program, or
946.. Which of the following statement is not true about patrol? neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when the
A.It is the backbone of the police department objective is accomplished or the problem is solved
B.It is the essence of police operation A.Strategic plan
B.Time Specific plan
C.Problem oriented plan C.Records Management
D.time bound operational plan D.chain of custody
958..This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on 970..It is considered to be the heart of any identification
routine and field operations and some special operations system; it provides positive identification of the criminal
A.Strategic plan A.Arrest and booking report
B.Time Specific plan B.Miscellaneous Records
C.Problem oriented plan C.Identification record
D. policy or procedural plan D.Fingerprint Records
959..The head of the NCR shall have the rank of_____? 971..The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s monthly
A.Superintendent B . salary and allowances for the heirs is for a maximum of
Director how many year?
C.Senior Superintendent D. Chief A.1 year B. 2
Superintendent months
960.. The institution of a criminal action or complaint against a C. 4 years
police officer is D.2 years
A.A ground for dismissal 972..In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number of
B.Not qualified for promotion hours of classroom training should be required for newly
C.Automatically dismiss D.Not a promoted supervisory personnel
bar to promotion A.72 hours
961..Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of the B.80 hours
PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties, C.75 hours
enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order, D.85 hours
prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and bringing the 973..It should be proactive, people oriented, based on
offenders to justice individual need, and delivered in such a way as to
A.Deployment motivate the experienced officer Higher dgreee of
B.Reinforcement professionalism/
C.Reintegration Professionalization.
D.Employment A.Recruit Training
962.. What is the first step in making a plan? B.Specialized training
A.Frame of reference C.In Service
B.Analyzing the Facts D.Field Training
C.Collecting all pertinent data 974.. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade possessing
D.Identification of the problems the entire mandatory and other consideration in promotion,
is what kind of promotion?
963..It identify the role of police in the community and future A.Promotion by Virtue of Position B .
condition in state Regular Promotion
A.Visionary Plans C.Meritorious Promotion D .
B.Strategic Plans Promotion
C.Synoptic Planning
D.Incremental Planning 975..It involves assistance and action by non police agencies
964..Is that field of management which involves planning, and such as Local Safety Council for Traffic Division, DSWD
controlling the efforts of a group of individuals toward for Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness
achieving a common goal with maximum dispatch and plans and Civil defense plans
minimum use of administrative resources. A.Management Plans
A.Human Resources B.Procedural plan
B.Personnel Management C.Tactical Plans
C.Human Management D. Extra departmental plan
D.Personnel Administration 976.. Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and
ribbon, which constitute the tangible evidence of an award:
965.. Is the process of developing methods or procedure or an A.Medal
arrangement of parts intended to facilitate the B. Awards
accomplishment of a definite objective. C.Decorations
A.Management D.Ribbons
B.Functioning 977..For every _______ letters of commendation, a medalya
C.Budgeting ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP member:
D.Planning A.Six
966.. Are guidelines for action to be taken under specific B. Four
circumstances and details with the following procedures. C.Five
A.Field Procedures D. Three
B.Procedural plan 978..Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction,
C.Operational Plans domination, or excessive use of authority:
D.Functional plan A.Misconduct
967.. Which of the following is not a function of police B. Dishonesty
personnel unit? C.Incompetency
A.Preparing policy statements and standard D. Oppression
operating Procedures relating to all areas of the 979..The operational support unit of the PNP shall function as
administration of human resources a mobile strike force or reaction unit to augment police
B.Serves as an adviser to the chief and other forces for civil disturbance control, counter-insurgency,
line officials regarding personnel matters hostage taking, rescue operations and other special
C.Conducts exits interviews with resigning operations:
officers to identify, and subsequently correct,
unsatisfactory working conditions A.NARCOM
D. Establish criteria for promotion to the B. SAF
exclusive ranks C.SWAT
D. SOCO
968..It refers to the process of screening out or eliminating 980..The organizational structure of the PNP is __________.
undesirable applicants that do not meet the organization’s A.Line
selection criteria B. functional
C.staff
A. Promotion Recruitment D. line and staff
B.Transfer Selection 981.. As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not
C.Recruitment allowed to possess except when there is an upsurge of
D.Selection lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper
969..It is recognized as the best method of filing authority, but shall not exceed ______ of the total number
A.Pigeon Hole of security guards.
B.retrieval operation
A.50% B. Security Survey
B. 20% C. Security Planning
C.30% D. Security Inspection
D. 10%
982.. The vault door should be made of steel at least 995.. Is a corporate and executive responsibility, involving the
__________ in thickness? knowledge of the objectives of the security and the means
A.7 inches and the method to reach these objective or goal must then
B. 9 inches involve.
C.6 inches A. Security Inspection
D. 20 feet or more B. Security Hazards C .
983.. An act or condition, which results in a situation conducive Security Planning
to a breach of the protection system, or that, could result D. Security Survey
to loss. 996.. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device
A.Hazards designed to prevent entry into a building, room container,
B. Environmental Hazards or hiding place, and to prevent the removal of items
C.Natural Hazards without the consent of the owner
D. Security Hazards A .Padlocks
984..An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, B. Locks C. Code
integrity, morals and loyalty of an individual in order to Operated
determines person suitability for appointment or access to D. Lever Locks
classified matter. 997.. A type of protective alarm system where the central
station located outside the installation. When the alarm is
A.Character Investigation sounded, it will notifies the police and other agency
B.Physical Investigation
C.Background Investigation A. Local Alarm system
D. Personnel Security Investigation B. Auxiliary System
985..The importance of the firm or installation with reference to C. Central Station System
the national economy security D. Proprietary
A.Relative vulnerability
B. Relative program 998.. It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers may
C.Relative criticality activate the alarm by placing the front of their foot to
D. Relative security engage the activation bar
986..Private security agencies have to be registered with the: A. Bill traps
A.SEC B. Foot Rail Activator
B.DTI C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
C.PADPAO D. Foot buttons
D. PNP, SAGSD 999.These are wide beam units, used to extend the
illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the
987..To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow,
what must be constructed. horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical plane
A.Full view fence A. Fresnel Lights
B. Chain link fence B. Street Lights
C. Solid fence C. Floodlights
D. Multiple fences D.Search lights
988.. A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount of 1000.. What is the required capital investment for organization
money or cash outside his area of jurisdiction shall be of private security agency?
issued with a- A. P 500,000
A.Firearms B. B. P 100,000
B. Mission Order C. P 1,000,000
C.Duty Detail Order D. P 50,000
D. None of These 1001.. One who steals with preconceived plans and takes
989..What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course? away any or all types of items or supplies for economic
A. 150 Hours gain?
B. 72 Hours A. Normal Pilferer
C. 48 Hours B. Regular Pilferer
D. 300 Hours C. Casual Pilferer
990..All except one are the line leadership staff: D. Systematic pilferer
A.Detachment Commander
B.Post-in-Charge 1002.. The metallic container used for securing documents or
C.Chief Inspector small items in an office or installation refers to:
D.Security Supervisor 1 A. Safe
B. Vault
991.. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double C. File room
strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an D. None of these
equal part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than 1003..Chain link fences must be constructed in______ material
___ high excluding the top guard. excluding the top guard?
A.8 feet a. Seven feet
B.7 feet b. Six feet
C.9 feet c. Four feet
D. 6 feet d. Five feet
992.. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license
issued to security guards. 1004..The following things are used as barrier, which serves as
A. Any of the choices a deterrent to the possible intruder in an Industrial
B. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM Complex, EXCEPT:
C. Secretary, DILG a. Human
D. C/PNP b. Fences
c. Doors
993..What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows? d. Concertina
A. Photoelectric 1005..Vaults are storage devices which are usually designed to
B. Metallic foil be at least _______fire resistant.
C. Audio detection
D. Microwave Detection a. 3 hours
994..Is the process of conducting physical examination to b. 24hours
determine compliance with establishment security policies c. 6hours
and procedures? d. 12 hours
A. Security Education
1006.. A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit boxes b.Security Education
and is deemed pick proof since it is operated by utilizing c.Security Orientation
combinations by means of a dial. d.Security Survey
a. Lever locks 1018..A type of security which provides sufficient illumination to
b. Combination lock areas during hours of darkness
c. Padlock a. Protective Lighting
d. Code operated locks b. Fresnel Lights
1007.. The maximum number of firearms allowed to possess c. Search Lights
by a PSA should not exceed by___ units. d. Street Lights
a. 30
b. 70 1019.. Type of alarm system which is usually activated by the
c. 500 interruption of the light beam is known as:
d. 1000 a. Metallic foil
1008..What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- b. Electric eye device
green color? c. Audio alarm
a. Sodium vapor lamp d. Microwave alarm
b. Incandescent lamp
c. Mercury vapor lamp 1023.What is the ratio of the security guard to their
d. Quartz lamp licensed firearm is needed after operating for six
1009..What type of security deals with the industrial plants and months.
business enterprises where personnel, processes, a. 1:3
properties and operations are safeguarded? b. 1:5
a. Personnel security c. 1:2
b. industrial security d. 1:1
c. Physical security 1020..What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in areas
d. bank security where insects predominate?
1010..The following are principles of Physical Security, a. Mercury vapor lamp
EXCEPT: b. Quartz lamp
a. There is impenetrable Barrier. c. Sodium vapor Lamp
b.Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry. d. Gaseous Discharge Lamp
c.Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
d.Intelligence requires continuous security measures. 1021.. What is an act governing the organization and
management of private security agency, company guard
1011.. The susceptibility of a plant or establishment to damage, force and government security forces?
loss or disruption of operations due to various hazards. a. RA 8574
a. Relative vulnerability b. RA 5478
b. Relative criticality c. RA 4587
c. Relative susceptibility d. RA 5487
d. Relative security
1022..Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or
1012.. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible concertina. Chain link are for ______.
authority that the person described is cleared to access a. Solid structure
and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim b. Least permanent structure
clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the c. Permanent structure
date of issuance. d. Semi- permanent structure
a. 1 year
b. 4 years 1023.it is more comprehensive investigation than the NAC &
c. 2 years LAC since it includes thorough and complete investigation
d. 5 years of all or some of the circumstances or aspects of a
person’s life is conducted?
1013.. The tenure of a security guard is: a. Personnel Security Investigation
a. Six Months b. Partial Background Investigation
b. Co-terminus with the service contract c. Background Investigation
c. Two years d. Complete Background Investigation
d. Contractual
1024.1024.The unobstructed area maintained on both sides of
1014.. Which among the following is not an advantage of a full- a perimeter barrier on the exterior and interior parallel area
view fence, except: to afford better observation of the installation refers to:
a. Clear zone
a.It allows visual access to the installation which aids b. Complimentary zone
the intruder in planning. c. Open zone
b.It allows the intruder to become familiar with d. Free zone
.the movements of persons in the installation
c.It creates shadows which could prevent 1025.The extension period for a license to operate issued upon
concealment of the intruder. a PSA that lacks the required minimum number of guards
d.None of these is:
a. 1 month
1015..Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety bond b. 6 months
which shall answer for any valid and legal claims against c. 2 years
such agency filed by aggrieved party. How much is the d. 1 year
Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
a. 50, 000 1026..Which of the following types of lock is generally used in
b. 100, 000 car doors?
c. 150, 000 a. Warded lock
d. 200,00 b. Lever lock
c. Disc tumbler lock
1016.. What type of investigation involves all aspect and d. Combination lock
details about the circumstances of a person?
a. partial background investigation 1027.PADPAO stands for:
b. completebackground investigation
c. personnel security investigation a. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective
d. national agency check Agency Operators, Inc.
b. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective
1017.. The exposure and the teaching of employees on Agency Operators, Inc.
security and its relevance to their work is: c. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector
a.Security Inspection Agency Operators, Inc.
d. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective
Associations Operators, Inc. 1040..The following are the purposes of Security Survey,
EXCEPT:
1028.1 It refers to a protection against any type of crime to a. To ascertain the present economic status
safeguard life and assets by various methods and device. b. To determine the protection needed
a. Physical Security c. To make recommendations to improve the overall
b. Perimeter Security security
c. Operational Security d. None of these
d. Security
1041.. License to Operate (LTO) is a License Certificate
1029.. All except are the qualifications of a security officer. document which is issued by ____________ authorizing a
a. Has graduated from a Security Officer person to engage in employing security guard or detective,
b. Training Course. or a juridical person to establish, engage, direct, manage
c. Holder of Masters Degree. or operate a private detective agency.
d. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP. a. Secretary of DILG
e. Physically or mentally fit. b. Security and Exchange Commission

1030..These provides access within the perimeter barrier and c. Chief, PNP
should be locked and guarded. d. President
a. Gates and Doors
b. Side-Walk Elevator 1042.. One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence is that
c. Utilities Opening the distances between strands will not exceed
d. Clear Zones _______and at least one wire will be interlock vertical and
midway between posts.
1031..A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy and a. 3 inches
deficiency in all aspects of security, with the corresponding b. 6 inches
recommendation is: c. 4 inches
a. security inspection d. 7 inches
b. security education
c. security training 1043..Clear Zone of _______ must be established between the
d. security survey perimeter barrier and structure within the protected areas.
a. 20 feet or more
1032.. What unit of PNP handles the processing and issuances b. 40 feet or more
of license for private security personnel? c. 30 feet or more
a. PNP SOSIA d. 50 feet or more
b. PNP FED
c. PADPAO 1044..A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance
d. PNP SAGSD container usually a part of the building structure use to
1033.. What is the most common type of human hazard? keep, and protect cash, documents and valuables
a. Sabotage materials.
b. Pilferage a. Vault
c. Theft b. Safe
d. Subversion c. File Room
d. None of these
1034.. What is the security force maintained and operated by
any private company/ corporation for its own security 1045.. Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour of
requirements? Duty, what shall he do with his Firearm?
a. GSU
b. CSF a. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the
c. PSA company’s Vault.
d. PD b. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
c. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
1035.. What type of controlled area requires highest degree of d. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the
security? guards table.
a. Limited
b. Restricted 1046.. Any physical structure whether natural or man-made
c. Special capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal or
d. Exclusive unauthorized access.
a. Perimeter Fences
1036.. What lock requires manipulation of parts according to a b. Wire Fences
predetermined combination code of numbers? c. Moveable Barrier
a. Card- operated lock d. Barrier
b. Combination lock 1047.. A company owned protective alarm with unit in a
c. Electromagnetic lock nearest police station of fire department.
d. Card Operated a. A. Proprietary Alarm
b. Auxiliary Alarm
c. Central Alarm
1037..What type of lamp emits bright white light? d. Security Alarm
a. Sodium vapor lamp 1048.. It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused light
b. Mercury vapor lamp rather than direction beam. They are widely used in
c. Incandescent lamp parking areas
d. Quartz lamp a. Street Lights
1038.. What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder b. Search Lights
while the guard remains in the comparative darkness? c. Flood Lights
a. Controlled lighting d. Fresnel Lights
b. Fresnel light
c. Emergency lighting
d. Glare- projection 1049.. A portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp
which passes through a staple ring or the like and is then
1039.. What is the system of natural or man- made barriers made fast or secured.
placed between the potential intruder and the object, a. Lock
person and matter being protected? b. Padlock
a. Communication security c. Code Operated
b. Document security d. Card Operated
c. Physical security
d. Barrier
1050.. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in a. a, b, e
temperature will not cause the safe to rupture. If the safe b. c. a, b, d, e
can withstand 2000 c.a, c, d, e
0F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening then it d. d. a, b, c, e
has passed the test. 1061.This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol methods in
a. Fire Endurance Test that patrol methods; patrol officers perform specific
b. Fire and Impact Test predetermined preventive functions on a planned
c. Burning Test systematic basis:
d. Explain Hazard Test a. Target Oriented Patrol
b. High-Visibility Patrol
1051.. The following are phases of Security Education, c. Low-Visibility Patrol
EXCEPT: d. Directed deterrent Patrol
a. Special Interview 1062.Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be best
b. Security Seminar penetrated by the police through.
c. Security Promotion a. Foot patrol
d. Training Conference b. Bicycle patrol
c. Mobile patrol
d. Helicopter patrol
1052.. How is one classified if he steals primarily because of 1063.Integrated patrol system is the total system used to
irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and little accomplish the police visibility program of the PNP. The
chance of detection? Police officers in Police Community Precincts render 24
a. Systematic pilferer hours duty with prescribed divisions of:
b. Ordinary pilferer a. 2 shifts
c. Casual pilferer b. 4 shifts
d. Unusual pilferer c. 3 shifts
d. every other day shift.
1053.Psychology of Omnipresence means______.
a. Low Visibility 1064.The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally prevent
b. High Visibility the desire of human being to commit crime.
c. Reactive a. Preventive
d. Proactive b. Proactive
c. Reactive
1054.Its purpose is to provide the organizational and d. High Visibility
operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms
toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of PNP 1065.Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of
investigational capability. ________________ since they can be operated very
a. Detective Beat Patrol quietly and without attracting attention.
b. Integrated Patrol System a. Mobility and wide area coverage.
c. Community Oriented Policing System b. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
d. Team Policing c. Shorter travel time and faster response.
1055. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching the d. Mobility and stealth
end of the line beat, and before returning to the point of
origin. 1066.What is the most excellent method of Patrol in San
a. Patrol Report Juanico Bridge?
b.Situation Report a. Foot Patrol
c.Investigation Report b. K-9 Patrol
d.Incident Report c. Automobile Patrol
d. Bicycle Patrol
1056.The ideal police response time is:
a. 3 minutes
b. 5 minutes 1067.When was the first automobile patrol initiated in the
c. 7 minutes Philippines and the First Chief of the Mobile patrol bureau
d. 10 minutes of Manila Police Department was Isaias Alma Jose?
a. May 7, 1954
1057. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition possessing b. May 17, 1954
a high potential for criminal attack or for the creation of c. May 14, 1957
problem necessitating a demand for immediate police d. March 10, 1917
service:
a. Hazard 1068.As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious persons,
b. Opportunity places, buildings/ establishments and vehicles especially
c. Perception of Hazard during night-time, be prepared to use your service firearm
d. Police Hazard and Flashlight should be-

1058.The most expensive patrol method and gives the greatest a. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a
opportunity to develop sources of information is: possible target.
a. Foot Patrol b. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a
b. Marine Patrol possible target.
c. Mobile Patrol c. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible
d. Helicopter Patrol adversary.
1059.Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic in patrol a. None of these
which makes the policemen less visible during the night.
The primary purpose is: 1069.What is your priority as a Patrol officer when responding
a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a to Calls for Police Assistance?
crime a. Arrest criminals
b. To have sufficient cover b. Securing the area
c. To attract less attention c. Aiding the injured
d. For safety of the Patrol officer d. Extort Money

1060.The following are included in the cause and effect of 1070.As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired upon, except
team policing. when its occupants pose imminent danger of causing
a. Reduce public fear on crime; death or injury to the police officer or any other person,
b. lessen the crime rate; and that the use of firearm does not create a danger to the
c. Facilitate career development; public and outweighs the likely benefits of its non-use. In
d. Diminish police morale; and firing upon a moving vehicle, the following parameters
e. Improve police community relation. should be considered EXCEPT:
a. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing C. Counter clockwise pattern
suspect/s with the police officer and other persons. D. Crisscross pattern
b. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to
harm in certainty the police officer or o t h e r 1080.The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol.
persons EXCEPT:
c. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm a. It involves larger number of personnel
the police officer or other persons. b. It develops greater contact with the public
d. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing suspect/s c. It insures familiarization of area
to avoid traffic accident. d. It promotes easier detection of crime

1071.When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during 1081.Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as
pat-down search, a more secure search position may be: well as in smelling out drugs and bombs. What do you call
a. Standing position the large dog with drooping ears and sagging jaws and
b. Lying Face down Position keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used for tracking
c. Hands placed against a stationary object, purposes?
and feet spread apart. a. German shepherd
d. All of these b. Bloodhounds
c. Doberman pinscher
1096. The following are types of specialized patrol d. Black Labrador Retrievers
method except:
a. Marine Patrol 1082.The best method of patrol to be done in sector is:
b. Air Patrol a. Foot
c. Canine Patrol b. Automobile
d. Foot Patrol c. Bicycle
1072.A uniformed patrol officers work in generally judged by d. Helicopter
his-
a. Knowledge of all problems in the community 1083.A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in
b. Residents developed good public relations terms of number of:
c. Ability to keep his post free from crimes and minor a. Superiors to whom he reports
offenses b. Superiors from whom he takes orders
d. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his c. Subordinates directly reporting to him
area d. Any of these

1073.Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies? 1084.Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer from
a. True becoming _______ with people, hazards, and facilities on
b. False his beat.
c. Absolutely Yes d . a. Well Acquainted
Absolutely No b. Sluggish
c. Energetic
1074.This patrol tactic is designed to increase the number of d. Unfamiliar
apprehension of law violator to engage in certain types of
crimes: 1085.The patrol pattern to be followed after the clockwise and
a. Preventive Patrol before the counter-clockwise?
b. High-Visibility Patrol a. Straightway
c. Low-Visibility Patrol b. Crisscross
d. Proactive Patrol c. Sector
d. Zigzag
1075.Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol?
a. It is the backbone of the police department 1086.The two-man patrol became_________ due to increase
b. It is the essence of police operation attack of police officer by militant, dangerous section to be
c. It is the nucleus of the police department patrolled and many riots demonstration in the street.
d.It is the single largest unit in the police Department a. Unnecessary
that can be eliminated b. Necessary
c. Voluntary
1076.It is an immediate response to block the escape of d. Redundant
lawless elements from a crime scene, and is also
established when nearby checkpoints are ignored or 1087.A police strategy which aims to directly involve members
during hot pursuit operations. It is set up by police of the community in the maintenance of peace and order
personnel conducting mobile patrol on board a marked by police officers.
police vehicle, or those conducting ISO and foot patrol a. Integrated Police System
operations within the vicinity/periphery of the national or b. Comparative Police System
provincial highways. c. Detective Beat System
a. Dragnet Operation d. Community Oriented Policing System
b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. High-Risk Arrest 1088.Which among the following routine patrol duties, is the
d. High Risk Stop least likely to become completely a function of automobile
patrol is the checking of-
1077.The following are patrol activities, except: a. Security of business establishment.
A. Arrest of alleged criminals b. Street light outrages.
B. Responding to emergency calls c. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
C. Inspection services D.llegalposting of signs and other advertisement.
D. Preparation of investigation reports
1089.It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen in
1078.This type of patrol maintains better personal contact with areas where police hazards are serious is that, it usually-
the members of the community ideal in gaining the trust a. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman.
and confidence of the people to the police: b. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges.
A. Horse Patrol c. Wasteful of manpower.
B. Bicycle Patrol d. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when
C. Automobile Patrol quick mobilization is needed.
D. Foot Patrol 1090.Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in the-
a. Opportunity for graft.
1079.The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last hour b. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the
of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the area of law.
responsibility of the patrol officer is: c. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
A. Clockwise pattern d. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized
B. Zigzag pattern squads.
b. Can operate quietly and without attracting attention.
1091.Team Policing is said to be originated in________: c. It is inexpensive to operate .
a. Aberdeen, Scotland d. It can cover areas that are not accessible by
b. Lyons, France patrol cars.
c. Vienna. Austria
d. London, England 1103.Its purpose is to provide the organizational and
1092.They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms
patrolling: toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of PNP
a. Egyptians investigational capability.
b. English a. Detective Beat Patrol
c. Chinese b. Integrated Patrol System
d. American c. COPS-Community Oriented Policing System
d. Team Policing
1093.The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to in
order to catch criminals is known as: 1104.The members of the Patrol teams shall form and
a. High visibility patrol assemble at the police unit
b. Blending patrol headquarters at least _______ before the start of their
c. Low visibility patrol shift for accounting-
d. Decoy patrol a. 10 minutes
b. hour
1094.A wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 14h floor c. 30 minutes
building. Which of the following should be the first thing to d. 15 minutes
do by the Patrol officer who first arrived at the scene?
a. Urge no to jump 1105.The police must make an effort to ascertain and amaze
b. Call nearest relative upon the law abiding citizens and would be criminals alike
c. Clear the area that the police are always existing to respond to any
d. Report immediately to Station situation at a moment’s notice and he will just around the
corner at all times. This statement refers to:
1095.What is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle a. Police Omnipresence
patrol over the other patrol methods? b. Police Patrol
A. Low cost c. Police Discretion
B.Visibility d. Integrated Patrol
C. Speed 1106.The patrol method characterized by speed and mobility
D. Security and considered as lest expensive as it utilizes lesser
1096.The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively number of men and covers a wider area in a short period
implemented by police activity which- of time, while protection to patrol officers:
a. Foot patrol
a. Provides for many types of specialized b. Motorcycle Patrol
patrol, with less emphasis on routine. c. Automobile Patrol
b.Minimize the prospective lawbreaker d. Helicopter patrol
aspiration to commit crime.
c.Influences favorable individual and group 1107.Team members of the decoy may dress themselves in a
attitudes in routine daily associations with the police. manner designed to help them blend the neighborhood
d. Intensifies the potential offender’s where they are deployed.
expectation of apprehension. a. Absolutely False
1097.What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates b. Absolutely True
the police and community interests into a working c. Absolutely Yes
relationship so as to produce the desired organizational d. Absolutely No
objectives of peacemaking?
1108.“Personality clash is reduced”, it is the advantage of:
a. Preventive patrol a. One Man Patrol Car
b. Directed Patrol b. Two Man Patrol Car
c. Community Relation c. Foot Patrol
d. Team policing d. Canine Patrol
1098.What is the appropriate patrol method that is most ideally
suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue operations? 1109.The least desirable of all police shifts due to lack of
a. Motorcycle activities:
b. Automobile a. Afternoon Shift
c. Helicopter b. Morning Shift
d. Horse c. Night Shift
d. None of these
1099.If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to
disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the 1110.It refers to a patrol strategy directed towards specific
Patrol officer is: persons or places:
a.Conduct a complete search. a. Target Oriented Patrol
b.The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect. b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. No further search may be made. c. Reactive Patrol
d.Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor. d. Directed deterrent Patrol
1111.This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol methods in
1100.During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when that patrol methods; patrol officers perform specific
demonstrators become unruly and aggressive forcing predetermined preventive functions on a planned
troops to fall back to their secondary positions? systematic basis:
a. Tear Gas a. Target Oriented Patrol
b. Water Cannon b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Truncheon c. Low-Visibility Patrol
d. Shield d. Directed deterrent Patrol
1101.Going left while patrolling upon reaching every
intersection until reaching the point of origin is following 1112.Refers to the actual stopping or accosting of armed and
what pattern? dangerous person or persons, aboard a vehicle or on foot,
a. Clockwise including the power to use all necessary and legal means
b. Zigzag to accomplish such end.
c. Counter clockwise a. Dragnet Operation
d. Crisscross b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. High-Risk Arrest
1102.All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol: d. High Risk Stop
a. Can report regularly to the command center.
1113.Which among the following activities during post-patrol or a. August 10, 1917
post-deployment phase is not included? b. August 7, 1901
a. Formation & Accounting c. November 22, 1901
b. Debriefing/Report Submission d. March 17, 1901
c. Inspection & recall of Equipment
d. Briefing 1125.What should be accomplished by Patrol officers during
Post-Deployment Phase?
1114.Police Patrols were restricted only to answering calls of a. Situation Report
service. b. Citation Report
a. Reactive c. Daily Patrol Report
b. High Visibility d. Hourly Patrol Report
c. Proactive
d. Low Visibility 1126.This patrol tactic would result to improvement of police
omnipresence:
1115.The first organized patrol for policing purposes was a. Target Oriented Patrol
formed in London. This patrol pattern is usually done at b. High-Visibility Patrol
the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in c. Low-Visibility Patrol
the area of responsibility of the patrol? d. Directed deterrent Patrol
a. Straight
b. Crisscross 1127.It is the most prevalent and economical method of patrol
c. Clockwise used in patrol force:
d. counter clockwise a. Foot Patrol
b. Air Patrol
1116.Itis a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer garments of an c. Automobile Patrol
individual for weapons only. d. Motorcycle Patrol
a. Frisking 1128.The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times more
b. Search sensitive than human’s sense of smell?
c. Spot Check a. One thousand times
d. Pat-down Search b. One hundred times
c. Ten thousand times
1117.It is one by patrolling the streets within the perimeter of d. Ten million times
the beat not at random but with definite target location
where he knows his presence is necessary. 1129.Transfer of knowledge from one person to another
a. Target Oriented through common medium and channel.
b. Zigzag a. Information
c. Clockwise b. Communication
d. Criss-Cross c. Police Communication
d. Radio
1118.Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the following are
the advantages of Foot patrol, EXCEPT: 1130.Refers to a location where the search, which is duly
authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the
a. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other
taken. legitimate purposes.
b. It enables patrol officers to cover a considerable a. Clear Zone
area b. Public Place
c. Inspire more Public confidence. c. Police Checkpoint
d. The officer can actually get to know the physical d. Pre-Determined Area
layout of his beat better.
1131.It refers to a repeated circuit of in guarding, primarily to
1119.The word Patrol was derived from the French word prevent the commission of crimes and maintain the peace
________which means to go through paddles. and order situation in a particular area:
a. Patroulier a. Police Patrol
b. Patroul b. Preventive Patrol
c. Politeia c. Foot Patrol
d. Politia d. Patrol

1120.The concept of Unity of command is: 1132.It is the primary objective of police patrol operations:
a. No one should have more than one boss. A.Crime Prevention
b. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom. B.Protect and Serve
c. Number of subordinates that a Superior can C.Law enforcement
effectively supervise. D. All of the choices
d.Conferring certain tasks, duties, and responsibilities
to subordinates. 1133.Doubling the level of routine patrol is a a. patrol strategy
called:
1121.Which among the following Patrol Method is appropriate a. Reactive Patrol
when responding to quick emergency call? b. Directed Patrol
a. Motorcycle Patrol c. Preventive Patrol
b. Air Patrol d. Proactive Patrol
c. Automobile Patrol
d. Foot Patrol 1134.If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime incident
faster but undetected, then the best patrol method that he
1122.This patrol strategy is focused more on called for services should employ is:
a. Reactive patrol a. Bicycle patrol
b. Directed deterrent patrol b. Automobile patrol
c. Proactive patrol c. Motorcycle patrol
d. Blending patrol d. Foot patrol

1123.Before policemen become a dispatcher he must 1135.In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a person
be_______. that enables another to victimize him:
a. Voice Radio Operator a. Instrumentality
b. Trained Formally b. Opportunity
c. Licensed Dispatcher c. Motive
d. Coordinator d. Capability
1136.The factors to be considered in determining the number
1124.Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was initiated of patrol officers to be deployed in an area are the
on: following, except:
a. Size of the area a. Partly True
b. Possible problems to be encountered b. Partly False
c. Topography c. Wholly True
d. none of the choices d. Wholly False
1137.The patrol strategy which brings the police and the 1149.If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful
people together in a cooperative manner in order to accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused
prevent crime: acceptance?
a. Integrated Patrol a. Maybe Yes
b. Team policing b. Yes
c. Reactive patrol c. No
d. Proactive patrol d. Maybe No
1150.In selection and recruitment of informers the best factor to
be considered is:
1138.The theory in patrol which states that police officers A.Age
should conduct overt police operations in order to B.Access
discourage people from committing crime refers to: C.Educational Attainment D.Body
a. Theory of police omnipresence built
b. Low police visibility theory 1151.It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wiretapping Act” which
c. Low profile theory prohibits wiretapping in our country.
d. Maximum deterrence theory a. RA 1700
b. RA 4200
1139.The principle of patrol force organization which states that c. RA 7877
patrol officers should be under the command of only one d. RA 7160
man refers to: 1152.Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible
a. Span of control authority that the person described is cleared to access
b. Unity of command and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim
c. Chain of command clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the
d. Command responsibility date of issuance.
a. 1 year
1140.The elimination of the opportunity of people to commit b. 5 years
crime as a result of patrol. c. 2 years
a. Crime prevention d. 4 years
b. Crime intervention
c. Crime suppression 1153.How will you evaluate the intelligence report of Agent
d. Crime deterrence Mariano with an evaluation rating of D2?

1141.The Greek word which means “government of a city” or a. Completely reliable source doubtfully true
“civil organization and the state”, which is claimed as the information
origin of the word police refers to: b. Unreliable source – probably true information
a. Politia c. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information
b. Policia d. Not Usually reliable source – probably true
c. Politeia information
d. Polis
1142.Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary objective 1154.It is a process or method of obtaining information from a
of patrol activity is: captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge information.
a. To prevent commission of crime. a. Interview
b. Integrate the police and the community b. Interrogation
c. Constant and Alert Patrolling. c. Forceful Interrogation
d. Visibility and Omniprescence. d. Tactical Interrogation
1143.What law provides for the creation of the National
Intelligence Coordinating Agency? 1155.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record
a. RA 157 discreetly conversations of other people.
b. B. EO 213 a. Eavesdropping
c. RA 6040 b. Bugging
d. EO 246 c. None of these
1144.A person who breaks intercepted codes. d. Wiretapping
a. Crypto Analyst
b. Cryptographer 1156.The process of extracting information from a person
c. Cryptograph believes to be in possession of vital information without his
d. Code breaker knowledge or suspicion.
a. Elicitation
1145.Agent who is a member of paramilitary group organized b. Surveillance
to harass the enemy in a hot war situation. c. Roping
a. Guerilla d. Undercover Operations
b. Propagandist
c. Provocateur 1157.It is a type of Agent used in collecting information who
d. Strong Arm leaks false information to the enemy.
1146.It is a type of Cover which alters the background that will a. Double Agent
correspond to the operation. b. Expendable Agent
a. Multiple c. Agent of Influence
b. Natural d. Penetration Agent
c. Artificial
d. Unusual 1158.It is one of the Functional Classification of Police
1147.Which of the following statements is TRUE? Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to the
prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and
A.Intelligence Officer can submit his information report prosecution of criminal offenders.
any time since it is to processes. a. Internal Security Intelligence
b. All intelligence information’s are collected by b. Public Safety Intelligence
clandestine method. c. Criminal Intelligence
c. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a d. Preventive Intelligence
medium size police station.
d. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence 1159.Intelligence is the end product resulting from the
information by initiating good public relations. collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and
1148.Wire tapping operations in our country is strictly interpretation of all available information. What is
prohibited but it can be done at the commander’s considered as the core of intelligence operations?
discretion since it tends to collect intelligence information. a.Dissemination
b. Analysis b. Rough Shadowing
c. Mission c. Shadowing
d. Planning d. Surveillance

1160.He is regarded as the "Father of Organized Military 1171.In the Intelligence function, the black list includes
Espionage". ________ forces.
a. Alexander the Great a. Unwanted
b. Frederick the Great b. Friendly
c. Karl Schulmeister c. Neutral
d. Arthur Wellesley d. Unfriendly

1161.There are four categories of classified matters; top secret, 1172.They are responsible for foreign intelligence of United
secret, confidential, and restricted. To distinguish, their Kingdom and it is also referred as Box 850 because of its
folder consists of different colors. What will be the color of old post office box number.
the document which requires the highest degree of a. Security Service
protection? b. Secret Intelligence Service
a. Red c. Government Communication Headquarters
b. Black d. Defense Intelligence Staff
c. Blue 1173.Known as the Prussia's "King of Sleuthhounds" as
d. Green minister of police he studied the use of propaganda and
1162.What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the biblical censorship as well as utilizing statistical intelligence
indication of the beginning of Intelligence? accounting.
a. Number 13:17 a. Herbert Yadley
b. Number 3:17 b. Wilhem Steiber
c. Number 17:13 c. Admiral Yamamoto
d. Number 17:3 d. Joseph Fouche
1163.A certain locality is identified to be a major source of illicit
drugs, to resolve this issue intelligence officer was 1174.If the information or documents are procured openly
deployed to live in the area for a considerable amount of without regard as to whether the subject of the
time to find out the authenticity of such reports. investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or
a. Social assignments purposes for which it is being regarded.
b. Work assignments a. Overt Operation
c. Organizational assignments b. Surveillance
d. Residential assignments c. Covert Operation
d. Analysis
1164.It is a type of intelligence activity which deals with
defending the organization against its criminal enemies?
a. Line Intelligence 1175.Investigation of the records and files of agencies in the
b. Counter-Intelligence area and residence of the individual being investigated.
c. Strategic Intelligence a. CBI
d. Tactical Intelligence b. NAC
c. PBI
1165.What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which is d. LAC
“usually from a reliable source and improbable
information”? 1176.The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature and
a. C-5 necessary for more effective police planning.
b. B-5 a. Line Intelligence
c. B-3 b. Strategic Intelligence
d. C-3 c. Police Intelligence
1166.It is a form of investigation in which the operative d. Departmental Intelligence
assumes a cover in order to obtain information
a. Overt operation 1177.It is considered as the most secured method of
b. Undercover assignment disseminating the information to the user of classified
c. Covert operation matters is by means of:
d. clandestine operation a. Debriefing
b. Conference
1167.It refers to a person who is highly skilled in converting c. Cryptographic method
message from clear to unintelligible forms by use of codes d. Seminar
and cipher.
a. Cryptographer
b. Crypto Analyst 1178.It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to form a
c. Cryptography logical picture or theory.
d. Cryptechnician a. Integration
b. Evaluation
1168.What is evaluation of the intelligence report gathered by c. Deduction
Agent Fukymo Mikuto which is “Fairly Reliable and d. Interpretation
doubtfully true information?
a. D-4 1179.In intelligence functions, a black list means:
b. C-4 a. Neutral
c. C-5 b. Unwanted
d. D-5 c. Friendly
d. Unfriendly
1169.In surveillance, the following are done to alter the
appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT: 1180.It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained from
a.Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle conspicuous sources and 1% of information is obtained
b.Putting on and removing hats, coats and from clandestine sources. Clandestine means.
sunglasses a. Observable
c.Change of seating arrangement within the b. Overt
surveillance vehicle c. Visible
d.Keep the cars behind the subject car. d. Covert

1170.A _______ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the 1181.An E-3 intelligence report means:
anticipated arrival of the suspect who is either wanted for
investigation or who is expected to commit a crime at a a. The information comes from completely reliable
certain location. sources and Improbable true.
a. Stake out
b. The information comes from Unreliable sources a. Subversion
and probably true. b. Sabotage
c. The information comes from Fairly Reliable sources c. Espionage
and doubtfully true. d. None of these
d. The information comes from Unreliable sources
and possibly true. 1194.The combination of the elements isolated analysis with
1182.Refers to the observations of person’s movements is other known information related to the operation.
generally refers to as? a. Recording
a. Plant b. Analysis
b. Stakeout c. Integration
c. None d. Interpretation
d. Tailing or Shadowing
1183.The classification “Top secret”, have the security color 1195.It deals with the demographic and psychological aspects
folderof? of groups of people.
a. Red a. Sociological Intelligence
b. Black b. Economic Intelligence
c. Blue c. Biographical Intelligence
d. Green d. Political Intelligence

1184.The process of assigning higher category of document or 1196.Which among the following principles of intelligence
information according to the degree of security needed. deemed to be the most important?
a. Degrading
b. Classification a.intelligence requires continuous security measures
c. Upgrading b. Intelligence and operation are interdependent
d. Advancement c. Intelligence must be available on time
d. Intelligence must be flexible
1185.It is a process or method of obtaining information from a
captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge information. 1197.It is the careful inspection of a place to determine its
a. Interview suitability for a particular operational purpose.
b. Forceful Interrogation a. Casing
c. Interrogation b. Loose Tail
d. Tactical Interrogation c. Rough Shadowing
d. Stakeout
1186.The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine if
the information is true and- 1198.It refers to the determination of the pertinence of the
a. Reliable information to the operation, reliability of the source of or
b. Accurate agency and the accuracy of the information.
c. Correct a. Evaluation
d. Probably true b. Recording
c. Credibility
1187.This kind of intelligence is long range in nature: d. Appraisal
a. Line Intelligence
b. Operational Intelligence
c. Strategic Intelligence
d. Counter Intelligence 1199.It refers to the most dangerous type of informant.
a. Women
1188.It refers to a place, building or enclosed area where b. Double Crosser
police undercover men meet for debriefing or reporting c. False
purposes. d. Anonymous
a. Safe house
b. Log 1200.It is the transforming of coded message into plain text.
c. Live Drop a. Coding
d. Decoy b. Encrypting
c. Decoding
1189.It is more comprehensive than the NAC or LAC, which d. Reclassify
includes some or all of the circumstances.
a. National Agency Check 1201.After the planning on how intelligence is to be collected,
b. Background Investigation the intelligence officer must have thorough knowledge of
c. Complete Background Investigation the __________.
d. Personnel Security Investigation
a. The strength of the area where the information will
1190.He is regarded as the Greatest Spymaster at all time: be gathered
a. Frederick the Great b. Where they will be collecting the information
b. Alexander the Great c. Available sources of information
c. Arthur Wellesley d. The vulnerabilities of the possessor of intelligence
d. Joseph Hernandez
1202.He often dresses as a beggar & went to the street of
1191.What specialist group of CIA that was established to Rome to gather first hand information, he is considered as
research, create and manage technical collection the greatest military strategist.
discipline and equipment. a. Alexander the Great
b. Hannibal
a.National Clandestine Service c. Frederick the Great
b.Directorate of Support d. Genghis Khan
c. Directorate of Intelligence
d. Directorate of Science and Technology 1203.If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful
accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused
1192.The persons listed in________ are allowed to enter a acceptance?
certain establishment or building. a. Yes
a. Access list b. True
b. Black List c. No
c. Blue Print d. False
d. Silver list
1204.It is one of the Functional Classification of Police
1193.The deliberate destruction, disruption, or damage of Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to the
equipment, a public service, as by enemy agent or prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and
dissatisfied employees. prosecution of criminal offenders.
a. Internal Security Intelligence and the protection of information against espionage,
b. Criminal Intelligence subversion and sabotage.
c. Public Safety Intelligence a. Passive Intelligence
d. Preventive Intelligence b. Counter Intelligence
c. Line Intelligence
1205.If the information or documents are procured openly d. Demographic Intelligence
without regard as to whether the subject of the
investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or 1216.Refers to the knowledge essential to the maintenance of
purposes for which it is being regarded. peace and order.
a. Overt Operation a. CRIMINT
b. Clandestine b. SIGINT
c. Surveillance c. PUSINT
d. Covert Operation d. INSINT

1206.Which of the following is the most common reason why

an informer gives information to the police? 1217.Who directs the organization conducting the clandestine
a. Monetary Reward activity?
Popularity a. Manager
Revenge b. Superior
As a good citizen c. Sponsor
d. Agent
1207.A method of collecting information thru interception of
telephone conversation. 1218.Agents who molds the attitudes, opinions, and actions of
a. Bugging an individual group or nation.
b. Wire Tapping a. Propagandist
c. Code name b. Support Agent
d. NONE c. Principal Agent
d. Action Agent
1208.Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the enemy’s’
area of consideration that render the criminal groups 1219.Refers to a place where agents or informants leave their
susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat by the police messages to the other Agents.
organization. a. Live Drop
a.Conclusion b. Safe House
b.Capabilities c. Decoy
c. Vulnerabilities d. Bait
d.Evaluation
1220.All except one are interrelated to one another.
1209.It is the general statement describing the current police a. Fixed Surveillance
internal defense, internal development, psychological b. Stakeout Surveillance
operation and responsibilities of the organization c. Stationary Surveillance
a. Area of operation d. Active Surveillance
b. Capabilities of organized crime
c. the crime situation 1221.The agent will gain access to the subject by going to the
d. the mission different hang out places of the subject.
a. Social Assignment
1210.It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information b. Residential Assignment
concerning organized crime and other major police c. Work Assignment
problems. d. None of these
A.Military Intelligence
b.Military Information 1222.A person who informs solely for the pecuniary or other
c.Police Intelligence material gain he is to receive.
d.Police Investigation a. Gratitude
b. Repentance
1211.The term appropriate for someone who gives information c. Remuneration
in exchange for a reward is: d. Vanity
a. Informer 1223.National Intelligence Coordinating Agency is led by a-
b. Informant a. Director
c. Special informer b. General
d. Confidential Informant c. President
d. Director-General
1212.The intelligence required by department or agencies of
the government to execute its mission and discharge its 1224.Integrated product of intelligence developed by all
responsibilities. government departments concerning the broad aspect of
a. Counter national policy and national Security.
b. Departmental a National Intelligence
c. Line b.Departmental Intelligence
d. National c. International Intelligence
d. Social Intelligence
1213.Is the reduction of information into writing or some other
form of graphical representation and the arranging of this 1225..The process of categorizing a document or information
information into groups related items. according to the degree of security needed.
a. Recording a. Classification
b. Integration b. Upgrading
c. Analysis c. Reclassification
d. Demonstration d. None of these

1214.What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and Possibly 1226.Final clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from
true? the date of issuance.
a. -2 a. 2 years
b. E-2 b. 5 years
c. E-3 c. 4 years
d. C-3 d. 1 year

1215.Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in 1227.It refers to the person who conducts the surveillance.
destroying the effectiveness of hostile foreign activities a.Surveillant
b Subject
c. Interrogator a. Russia
d. Interviewee b. Germany
c. Israel
1228.The "Great Mogul" and wise master of Hindustan d. Pakistan
employed more than 4,000 agents for the sole purpose of 1240.Law enforcement in China was carried out by _______
bringing him the truth that his throne might rest upon it. which developed in both chu and jin kingdom of the Spring
a. Joseph Petrosino and Autumn period.
b. Edgar Hoover a. Watch man
c. Napoleon Bonaparte b. Prefect
d. Akbar c. Gendemarie
d. Constabulary
1229.The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine if
the information is true and- 1241.She is the first Filipino commissionedofficer in a UN
a Reliable integral mission.
b. Correct a. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
c. Probably true b. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra
d. Accurate c. C SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
1230.It refers to those measures, which seek actively to block d. None of these
the enemies’ effort to gain information or engage in
espionage, subversion, and sabotage. 1242.New York Police Department (NYPD) have limited
a. Counter Intelligence jurisdiction on _______:
b. Passive Counter Intelligence a. USA
c. Active Counter Intelligence b. New York
d. Intelligence c. None of these
d. Los Angeles
1231.Chronological records of activities that took place in the
establishment under surveillance. 1243.The Penal Provisions of the electronic Commerce Act:
a. Memory a. RA 5678
b. records b. RA 9165
c. Log c. RA 1298
d. Report d. RA 8792

1232.It is defined as an art and science of codes and ciphers. 1244.In the etymology of the word police the ancient word
a. Cryptography “Polisoos” referred to a person who_____?
b. Cryptanalysis a. Enforcing Law
c. Decipher b. Civil Policy
d. Coding c. Guarding a City
d. Citizenship
1233.The protection resulting from the application of various
measures which prevent or delay the enemy or 1245.During the middle ages, there were two guard officer of
unauthorized person in gaining information through the kingdom of France with police responsibilities those
communication. are the Marshal of France and ________:
a. Communication Security a. Constable of France
b. Physical Security b. Queens Royal Guard
c. Document Security c. Scotland Yard
d. Internal Security d. Constabulary
1246.Peace officers are treated as state servants and people
1234.Those documents place on a Blue Folder are considered have minimal share in their duties or any direct connection
as: with them. This reflected the:
a. Top Secret a. Continental Theory
b. Secret b. Home rule Theory
c. Restricted c. Old Concept
d. Confidential d. Modern concept
1247.The typical number of Detectives are roughly ________
1235.Documents which are classified as Secret should be of a police service personnel:
placed on- a. 75%
a. Blue Folder b. 5 to 10%
b. Black folder c. 15 to 25%
c. Green Folder d. 7 to 10%
d. Red Folder
1248.In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over federal crimes or
1236.It is a certification by a responsible authority that the those with an interstate components. The statement is:
person described is cleared to access and classify matters a. Correct
at appropriate levels. b. Partially Correct
a. Security Clearance c. False
b. Document Clearance d. partly False
c. Interim Clearance
d. Nome of these 1249.This pertains to all those forms of policing that, in some
sense transgress national borders:
1237.Extreme precautions are taken against losing the subject a. International Policing
is employed where constant surveillance is necessary. b. Global Policing
a. Close tail c. National Policing
b. Loose tail d. Transnational Policing
c. Rough Shadowing
d. Surveillance
1250.In US, he introduced police reforms to include
1238.M evaluates the information as usually reliable and educational requirement for police officer:
probably true. a. James Q. Wilson
a. C-4 b. Sir Henry Peel
b. B-3 c. August Volmer
c. B-2 d. O.W. Wilson
d. C-5
1251.The motto of Hongkong Police force:
a. Law and Order
1239.Mossad is the National Intelligence agency of b. Safer Communities together
_____________. c. Serve and Protect
d. We serve with pride and Care
1264.It is the counterpart of Police Community Precinct in
1252.Where do you can find the so called Police Ombudsman? Japan:
It’s outside review organization for police officer whose are a. Keishi
changed of committing any form of misconduct: b. Koban
a. Northern Ireland c. Omerta
b. England d. Keiban
c. China
d. Japan 1265.In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the highest
position in Japan Police Organization:
1253.Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank structured of
police force is identical up to the rank of? a. Commissioner Secretariat
a. Chief Constable b. Commissioner
b. Chief Inspector c. Chairman
c. Chief Superintendent d. Commissioner General
d. Inspector 1266.The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a
Commissioner General who is appointed by:
1254.In USA, what state are among the first to hire women and a. Japans Emperor
minorities as police officer. b. Prime Minister
a. Massachusetts c. National Public Safety Commission
b. California d. Japan Commission
c. New York
d. Washington 1267.The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force:
a. Junsa
1255.In Taiwan police Agency, what is the comparable rank to b. Constable
inspector or sub-lieutenant? c. Sergeant
a. Police Rank 4 d. Police Officer
b. Police Supervisor Rank 4
c. Police Officer Rank 1 1268.Irish Police are called:
d. Police Supervisor Rank 1 a. Militsiya
b. Constable
1256.In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is the lowest c. Police Force
possible rank of its police personnel? d. Garda Socha
a. Police Rank 1
b. Police Officer Rank 1 1269.In 2006 he was tasked to head the UN integral Mission in
c. Investigator 1 Timor-Leste, he is the first Filipino police commissioner of
d. Constable a United Nation Operation.
a. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
1257.It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau Investigation b. Insp. Aurisa I. Mitra
and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s Finest” police force and c. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
in having, set up the foundation for the social stability of d. None of these
Hong Kong and has won a good reputation as one of the
safety cities in the world. 1270.It States that the yardstick of police proficiency relies on
the absence of crime.
a. Philippine National Polic a. Home rule
b. Hong Kong Police Force b. Continental
c. Japan Police Department c. Old police service
d. National Police Agency d. Modern police service

1258.It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police Force: 1271.The first secretary general of the Interpol.
a. Commissioner General a. Oskar Dressler
b. Director General b. Ronald K. Noble
c. Commissioner c. Johann Schober
d. Director d. Aberdeen Scotland

1259.The code of secrecy of Mafia: 1272.The first president of the Interpol.

a. Omerta a. Oskar Dressler
b. Morse b. Ronald K. Noble
c. Nostra Compra c. Johann Schober
d. Cosa Nostra d. Aberdeen Scotland

1260.The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is the: 1273.Group of highly specialized a armed man who inflicts fear
a. Executive Assembly and uses violence to accomplish
b. Major Assembly their objectives with a usual international scope of
c. National Assembly activity.
d. General Assembly a. Organized Crime
b. Transnational Crime
1261.The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is run by c. Transnational Organized crime
the: d. Terrorist
a. Director General
b. Supervisor 1274.Is the terrorist group which was founded by Osama Bin
c. Inspector General Laden in 1980?
d. Secretary General a. Al Qaeda
b. Jihad
1262.In US, who is responsible in reducing corruption and c. Mafia
introduced professionalism in Winchita, Kansas and d. Nuestra Costra
Chicago Police Department:
a. August Volmer 1275.Is the term which refers to the holy war waged by
b. Margaret Adams members of the Islamic religion against the Jews?
c. William Stewart a. Al Qaeda
d. O.W. Wilson b. Jihad
1263.The police rank in Japan that is called Keishi: c. Mafia
a. Policeman d. Nuestra Costra
b. Chief Superintendent
c. Superintendent 1276.It is the category of terrorist organization which is aimed
d. Senior Superintendent in achieving political autonomy or religious freedom.
a. Revolutionary 1287.In police operational planning the use of the wedge,
b. Separalist squad diagonal or deployed line would be probable used
c. Ethnocentric for:
d. Political a. Arm confrontation
b. Relief Operation
1277.It is the anchor of the investigation of all crimes c. Civil Disturbance
committed via the internet: d. VIP Security
a. Dynamic IP Address
b. Internet Protocol Address 1288.What is the appropriate training course for POIII to
c. Static IP Address SPOI?
d. Email Address a. Officers Senior Executive Course
b. Officer Basic Course
1278.It is the act of illegally accessing the computer system or c. Senior Leadership Course
network of an individual, group or business enterprise d. Junior Leadership Course
without the consent of the party’s system:
a. Computer Fraud 1289.Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of deputation of
b. Hacking local chief executives as representative of the
c. Cracking NAPOLCOM:
d. Theft Repeated unauthorized absences;

1279.It refers to a Code written with the intention of replicating .II. Abuse of authority;
itself. III. Habitual tardiness;
a. Trojan Horse IV. Providing material support to criminals; and
b. Worm V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security.
c. Virus
d. None of these
A. I, II, III, V
1280.It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to B. II, V, IV, I
establish a shared database among concerned agencies C.I, II, IV, III
for information on criminals, D. I, II, III, IV, V
methodologies, arrests and convictions on 1290.Planning for emergencies of a specific nature at known
transnational crime locations.
a. Functional Plan
a. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC) b. Time Specific Plans
b. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH) c. Tactical Plans
c. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO) d. Operational Plans
d. Philippine National Police (PNP) 1291.A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get the lump sum
1281.What is the highest rank of police officer in Japan? of his retirement benefits for the period of the first _____.
a. KEISHI SOKAN a. 10 years
b. KEISHI SO b. 5 years
c. KEISHI KAN c. 6 years
d. KEIBU-HO d. 2 years

1282.The founder of the Texas

TACATI REVIEW CENTER 1292.Specific Qualifications may
Rangers and known to be be waived like Age, Height,
the “Father of Texas”. Weight and Education, only when
a. Stephen Austin the number of qualified applicants falls below the minimum
b. Vernon Knell annual quota. Appointment status under a waiver program
c. Dave Batista is ________.
d. Johann Schober a. Temporary
b. Probationary
1283.An order strengthening the operational, administrative c. Permanent
and information support system of the PCTC. Under this d. Regular
EO, the centre shall
exercise general supervision and control over 1293.__________ is given to any PNP member who has
NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his
a. EO 100 life above and beyond the call of duty.
b. EO 465 a. Meritorious Promotion
c. EO 465 b. Special Promotion
d. EO 789 c. Regular Promotion
d. On-the-Spot Promotion
1284.Richard Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29 years
old then. What year will Amado will retire? 1294.Which among the following has no promotional authority
a. 2016 over the members of the PNP?
b. 2023 a. Deputy Director General
c. 2012 b. Director General
d. 2031 c. President of the Philippines
d. Regional Director
1285.It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP commissioned 1295.Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately from
and non-commissioned officer may retire and be paid the service after due notice and summary hearings if it
separation benefits corresponding to a position two ranks was proven that he went on AWOL for a continuous period
higher than his/her rank: of:
a. Retirement in the next higher grad a. 30 days or more
b. Compulsory retirement b. 15 days or more
c. Early retirement program c. 20 days or more
d. Optional Retirement d. 60 days or more
1296.Refers to the actual restraint of armed persons following
1286.It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an independence a high-risk stop.
from the PNP. It has an investigative and adjudicatory b. Dragnet Operation
power over PNP members.
a. Internal Affairs Service b. Hasty Checkpoint
b. National Police Commission c. High-Risk Arrest
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board d. High Risk Stop
d. National Appellate Board
1297.PO3Maine Mendoza, receives 19, 870.00 base pay since
he was promoted. After five years from promotion, what
would be his monthly base pay after adding his longevity b. 10 days
pay? c. 5 days
a. 21, 857.00 d. 15 days
b. 19, 970.00
c. 24, 870.00 1308.It may be utilized to break up formations or groupings of
d. 31, 549.00 demonstrations who continue to be aggressive and
1298.It refers to those situations or conditions that may induce refused to disperse despite earlier efforts.
incidents for some kind of police action: c. Tear Gas
a. Police Accident d. Water Cannon
b. Police Brutality e. Truncheon
c. Police Hazard f. Shield
d. Police Operation 1309. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot or
in a vehicle, based on reasonable suspicion/probable
1299.The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally means- cause, for the purpose of determining the individual’s
a. The Sword Bearer identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning
b. The Base criminal activity.
c. Islamic Congregation g. Frisking
d. Ayman Al Zawahiri h. Search
i. Spot Check
1300.What kind of force is needed during armed confrontation? j. Pat-down Search
a. Reasonable force 1310. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly
b. Logical Force authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the
c. Rational Force commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other
d. Evenhanded Force legitimate purposes.
1301.The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed in the k. Clear Zone
picket line (or confrontation line) but should be stationed in l. Public Place
such manner that their presence may deter the m. Police Checkpoint
commission of criminal acts or any untoward incident from n. Pre-Determined Area
either side. The members of the peace-keeping detail shall 1311.Electronic blotter is a computerized system, which was
stay outside a _______ radius from the picket line. accepted by the courts, prosecutors’ office and the public
a. 50 feet in general. What police office is using this kind of blotter?
b. 50 meter o. Makati
c. 100 feet p. Cebu
d. 100 meter q. Baguio
r. Davao
1302.In transporting Detention Prisoner, if transported by a 1312. It refers to the venue or place established or designated
patrol jeep, the subject must be- by local government units within their respective
jurisdictions where a public assembly could be held
a. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall without securing any permit for such purpose from the
sit at the rear on the Right side facing the subject local government unit concerned.
b. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort s. Secured Area
shall sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject t. Wide Space
c. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP escort shall u. Freedom Park
sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject v. Clear Zone
d. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort 1313. The police function in which patrol belong is:
shall sit at the rear on the Right side facing the w. Line function
subject x. Administrative function
y. Staff function
1303.Female detainees shall not be transported in handcuffs z. Auxiliary function
but only with necessary restraint and proper escort, 1314. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the earrings of
preferably aided by a police woman. The statement is- Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is standing near
a. Partially True Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is not weaken by existence
b. Wholly True of Insp. Gonzales but the ______ for successful robbery is
c. Partially False prevented.
d. Wholly False aa. Ambition
bb. Intention
1304.During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other public cc. Motive
assemblies, employment of tear gas and water cannons dd. Opportunity
shall be made under the control and supervision of the- 1315. Police personnel whose rank at the time of his retirement
a. Ground Commander is Superintendent shall retire with the rank of __________:
b. Incident Commander ee. Superintendent
c. Immediate Commander d . ff. C/Superintendent
Superior Officer gg. Sr. Superintendent
hh. C/Inspector
1305.What should be the action of patrol officers, when 1316. Refers to the immediate, recent chase or follow-up
responding to Calls for Police Assistance, except? without material interval for the purpose of taking into
a. Stop the car at some distance away from the custody any person wanted by virtue of a warrant, or one
scene. suspected to have committed a recent offense while
b. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals fleeing from one police jurisdictional boundary to another
c. Determine the crime committed. that will normally require prior official inter-unit
d. None of these coordination but which the pursuing unit cannot, at that
moment, comply due to the urgency of the situation.
1306.Where should the patrol officer turnover the information ii. Hot Pursuit
and pieces of evidence gathered at the crime scene? jj. Hasty Checkpoint
a. SOCO team
b. Immediate Supervisor kk. Dragnet Operation
c. Responding unit ll. High Risk Stop
d. Medico Legal Officer 1317. Which among the following terms is not related to each
other?
1307.Request for police assistance in the implementation of mm.Hot Pursuit
final decisions or orders of the court in civil cases and of nn. Fresh Pursuit
administrative bodies on controversies within their oo. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit
jurisdiction shall be acted upon by the appropriate police pp. Bright Pursuit
office. The request is filed at least _____ prior to the actual 1318.Refers to the highest degree of restraint that the police,
implementation. military and other peace keeping authorities shall observe
a. 3 days during a public assembly or in the dispersal of the same.
qq. Reasonable Force 1330.The type of fence that is primarily designed to allow
rr. Greatest Lenience complete visual access between two areas is:
ss. Maximum Tolerance a. Solid fence
tt. Utmost Patience b. Semi-solid fence
1319.Which among the following aspects of a. Security is the c. Full-view fence
weakest of them all? d. Masonry Fence
a. Physical security
b. Personnel security 1331.The minimum age requirement for Security Manager or
c. Document and information security Operator of a security agency is:
d. Personal Security a. 40 yrs. Old
b. 25 yrs. Old
1320.“There is no impenetrable barrier”. The statement is- c. 30 yrs. Old
a. Partially Correct d. 35 yrs. Old
b. Partially Wrong
c. Absolutely Correct 1332.The following are the categories of automatic alarm
d. Absolutely Wrong system, except:
a. Photoelectric
1321.It refers to any structure or physical device capable of b. Electric Eye Device
restriction, deterring or delaying illegal access to an c. Audio detection
installation. d. Bill Traps
a. Hazard 1333.Which of the following is not a false key?
b. Perimeter Barrier a. A picklock or similar tool .
c. Barrier b. A duplicate key of the owner.
d .Energy Barrier c. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
d.Any key other than those intended by the owner.
1322.It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances to 1334.The Normal weight of a safe is at least:
secure areas located out of doors, and manned by guards a. 500 lbs.
on a full time basis. b. 750 lbs.
a. Guard Control Stations c. 1000 lbs.
b. Tower d. 600 lbs.
c. Tower Guard
d. Top Guard 1335.The minimum number of guards required for a company
1323.This lamps have the advantage of providing instant security force is:
illumination when the switch is open and most commonly a. 1000
used protective lighting system. b. 30
a. Incandescent Lamp c. 100
b.Gaseous Discharge Lamp d. 200
c. Mercury Vapor Lamp
d. Quarts Lamp 1336.It refers to a system use in big installation whereby keys
can open a group of locks.
1324.The following are the areas to be lighted: a. Key Control
A.Parking Areas; b. Master Keying
b.Thoroughfare; c. Change Key
c. Pedestrian Gates; d. Great Grand Master Key
d. Vehicular Gates; and
E.Susceptible Areas. 1337.What is called as devices and contrivance installed inside
a. a, c, e and outside a facility to compliment and provide additional
b. a, b, c, d security measures and operates to advertise entry into
c. a, c, d, e sensitive and protected area?
d. a, b, c, d, e a. Protective locks
b. Protective cabinet
1325.It refers to records that are irreplaceable; reproduction of c. Protective barrier
this record does not have the same value as the original. d. Protective Lighting
a. Vital Documents
b. Important Documents 1338.A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for
c. Useful Documents duty:
d. Non- Essential Documents a. Post
b. Beat
1326.It is the importance of firm with reference to the natural c. Area
economy and security. d. Route
a.. Relative Operation
b Relative Security 1339.The thickness of paper is expressed in thousands of inch.
c. Relative Vulnerability A. Measurement
d. Relative Criticality of Operation B. Caliper
C. Buffer
1327.A new Private security agency that has been issued a D. Calibre
temporary license to operate is good for how many years? 1340.Chemical used to whiten paper pulp.
a. One A. Bleach
b. Two B. Alum
c.Three C. Sufite
d.Four D. Pulp
1341.A form of printing to produce a raised impression or
1328.The removal of the security classification from the pattern on the surface of a sheet of paper.
classified matter. A. Lithograph printing
a.Segregation B. Embossing
b. Declassify C. Edge chains
c. Reclassify D. Reprographing
d. Exclusion 1342.The original inventor of Fourdrinier paper machine.
A. Fourdrinier Brothers
1329.The form of security that employs cryptography to protect B. Bryan Donkin
information refers to: C. Nicholas-Louis Robert
A. Document and information security D. Milton Reynolds
b. Operational security 1343.Quality of a paper related to the amount of light that can
c. Communication security be transmitted through its surface.
d. Industrial security A. Thickness
B. Opacity
C. Translucent B. Retracing
D. Texture C. A and B
1344.Fundamentally, the grand mission and objective of D. None
document examiner is to determine and conclude with 1358.Letters that extend a distance vertically above the linear
scientific basis and technique who is the letters.
A. Beneficiaries A. Infra-linear
B. Writer or signatory B. Supra-linear
C. Master mind C. Linear
D. Conspirator D. None
1345.In questioned document, it is where all characteristics are 1359.The only question to tackle in this kind of signature
grouped. forgery is the determination of the probable writer of the
A. Class characteristics forgery.
B. Individual characteristics A. Simple forgery
C. Both A and B B. Simulated forgery
D. Neither C. Traced forgery
1346.Writing was written by one person when there is a D. A and B
sufficient number of identical writing habits and the 1360.A kind of signature forgery where the resemblance of the
absence of divergent characteristics. This is in questioned signature and genuine is apparent.
consonance with; A. Fraudulent
A. Identification B. Simulated
B. Non-identification C. Simple
C. Either D. Traced
D. Niether 1361.To identify whether simple forgery was committed, which
1347.Embellishment is an example of of the following should be retrieved?
A. Individual Characteristics A. Standard signature from the forger
B. Class Characteristics B. Standard of the genuine signature
C. Both C. Standard of the person who made the
D. Neither forgery
1348.Hiatus is a gap between strokes due to D. Identity of the forger
A. Speed in writing 1362.One of the following statements best describe what a
B. Defective writing instrument collected standard is.
C. Unevenness of writing materials A. It has the advantage of easily finding it.
D. All of the choices B. Attempt to disguise is removed.
1349.Among the following, which is not an element of C. The accused is aware that the specimen will
movement? be used against him.
A. Line Quality D. None
B. Rhythm 1363.Authenticity of private documents is not necessary when
C. Speed Freedom A. It is 30 years old
D. emphasis B. More than 30 years old
1350.Writing, done rapidly, will exhibit no pen lift, except those C. Less than 30 years old
at the D. More or less 30 years old
A. Middle of the words/strokes 1364.During paper manufacture, the following are included
B. End of the stroke except
C. Beginning of strokes A. Security fiber
D. B and C B. Watermarks
C. Iridescent band
1351.The orientation of the writing instrument is referred to as D. Serial number
A. Pen position 1365.Which of the following is not a crime called forgery?
B. Pen hold A. Forging the seal of the government
C. Pen emphasis B. Counterfeiting of coins
D. Pen orientation C. Mutilation of coins
1352.The relation between the tall and short letters is referred D. Using forged signature or counterfeit seal or
to as stamp
A. Ratio 1366.The imitation of a legal or genuine coin.
B. Proportion A. Counterfeit
C. Line quality B. Mutilation
D. All C. Utter
1353.In questioned document examination, it is referred to as D. Import
the flourishing succession of motion which are recorded in 1367.When a spurious coin is made, there is
a written record. A. Counterfeiting
A. Line quality B. Uttering
B. Rhythm C. Mutilation
C. Speed in writing D. Importing
D. Movement 1368.Mutilation of coins without the intent to defraud is
1354.Slant is the angle or inclination of the axis of the letters A. Not punishable under the revised penal code
relative to the B. Not punishable by any law
A. Baseline C. Punishable under the revised penal code
B. Slope D. Punishable under Art. 164 of the RPC.
C. Alignment 1369.To make false instrument intended to be passed for the
D. Staff genuine one is a form of
1355.Uncommon and well fixed characteristic that serve as a A. Falsification
fundamental point of identification. B. Forgery
A. Slant C. Tracing
B. Habit D. Fraud
C. Movement 1370.Which of the following method should be used in order
D. All for the naked eye to see a charred document?
1356.Baseline is the ruled or imaginary line upon which the A. X-ray
writing ______ B. Spectrograph
A. Holds C. Ultra violet
B. Rests D. Infra red
C. Stays 1371.Which of the following security features of a paper bill
D. Slants does not react to ultra-violet light?
1357.Among the following, which is a common defect of A. Serial Number
forgery? B. Watermark
C. Fluorescent printing
A. Patching D. Invisible security fibers
1372.Paper is for china while papyrus is for C. Retracing
A. Sumer D. Restroking
B. Turkey 1386.In photography probe, when murder occurred showing
C. Sumeria disarray of cabinets, photography is essential to show
D. Egypt defense of the -
1373.What is gustatory sensation? A. Suspect
A. Smell B. Witness
B. Taste C. Victim
C. Skin D. Kibitzers
D. Hearing 1387.In the story of crime, with the use of firearm, the energy
43. The Bible (Genesis 1:3-5) God created the earth and coming from the muzzle point is called -
there should be light and darkness which is daylight and A. Armor-piercing
night. Among these, what is the basic component of B. Velocity
photography? C. Lead bullet
A. All of these D. Muzzle energy
B. Film 1388.What are the two types of firearms according to the
C. Camera construction of the interior of the barrel?
D. Light A. Short and long barreled firearms
1374.Positive result of photography is called – B. Small arms and artilleries
A. Picture C. Lands and grooves
B. Photograph D. Smoothbore and rifled bore
C. Positive 1389.What is the symbol of tented arch?
D. Negative A. Dash
1375.Other term for lie detector is – B. T
A. GSR C. Te
B. Pneumograph D. A and/or B
C. Cardiograph 1390.It is the centermost part of the fingerprint pattern.
D. Polygraph A. Inner terminus
1376.In key classification, is it placed on the leftmost corner on B. Delta
the numerator? C. Inner shoulder
A. Yes D. Core
B. Maybe 1391.Fingerprint patterns like loop and whorl are found in the -
C. No A. Pattern area
D. Sometimes B. Delta
1377.Flash bulb and electronic flash are two examples of light C. Core
of short duration. Which among of these is popular today? D. Type lines
A. Flash bulb 1392.What is the test in examination of blood if belong to
B. Electronic bulb human or animal?
C. Lamp A. Takayama
D. Flash light B. Benzidine
1378.Can a strong acid destroy the fingerprint permanently? C. Kestle Meyer
A. Yes D. Precipitin
B. No 1393.How many standards in questioned documents is needed
C. Maybe to prove?
D. This time A. 5 standards
1379.In forensic ballistic, the firearm examiner examines the B. 10 signatures
firearm usually involved in a crime or the case_____? C. Sufficient amount
A. In court D. 5 pages
B. In progress 1394.In USA, what year photography was used for court
C. Controversy presentation?
D. Handled A. 1909
1380.In polygraph, it is the process of detecting false B. 1859
statement or signs of - C. 1890
A. Detection D. 1903
B. Deception 1395.What is the official purpose of conducting post mortem
C. Lie examination?
D. Untrue statement A. To determine the duration of death
1381.In typewriting examination which of the following first to B. To determine the manner of death
be conducted? C. To determine the deadly weapon
A. Examination of the questioned specimen D. To determine the cause of death.
B. Collecting of typewriting standards 1396.What part of the polygraph machine is responsible in
C. Locate the type writer used detecting pulse rate and heart beat?
D. Examination of the exemplar A. Kymograph
1382.Aside from fingerprint, what is the other identification in B. Pneumograph
securing NBI clearance? C. Polygraph
A. Thumb mark D. Cardiograph
B. Pending case 1397.In Dactyloscopy, if we say a person with polydactyl, he or
C. Picture she has -
D. Signature A. Extra fingerprint
1383.Which of the following is a must to be considered in a B. Extra hand
sketch? C. Extra finger
A. Compass direction D. Added finger
B. Name of placed 1398.What year did the colored photography was accepted in
C. Time US court?
D. Location A. 1956
1384.In addition to medicine, as prober, how can you preserve B. 1978
perishable evidence like injuries, contusions, hematoma C. 1946
and the like? D. 1960
A. Recording 1399.Blood stays liquid for how many hours?
B. Sketching A. 6-8 hours
C. Photography B. 9-10 hours
D. Note taking C. 8-12 hours
1385.In questioned document examination, it refers to a stroke D. 3-6 hours
which goes back to writing stroke. 1400.The one who creates his own systolic in polygraph
A. Patching examination?
B. Retouching A. James MacKenzie
B. Angelo Mosso 1415.What is the best test in determining the presence of
C. William Marston blood?
D. John Larson A. Benzedine
1401.What is the color of blood in post mortem lividity? B. Marquis
C. Takayama
A. Blue D. Teichman
B. Violet 1416.Is taking a tranquilizer and medicine for colds affects the
C. Pink result of polygraph examination?
D. Bright red A. Yes
1402.In crime laboratory concerning the study of types, model B. No
of firearm and its bullets is done by - C. Depends
A. Ballistician D. Maybe
B. Ballistic engineer 1417.It is where handwriting rest?
C. Forensic engineer A. Feet
D. Firearm prober B. Vase line
1403.What is the type of document which is notarized by a C. Baseline
RTC judge? D. Alignment
A. Public 1418.Medically speaking, it is the sudden stoppage of the heart
B. Official that results to death.
C. Private A. Instantaneous rigor
D. None of these B. Heart attack
1404.Going back to a defective portion of a writing stroke is C. Myocardial infarction
called - D. Death
A. Slicing 1419.In polygraph test, it indicates air in system, and is
B. Embracing measured in millimeter by the -
C. Retouching A. Kymograph
D. Patching B. Sphygmomanometer
1405.What is the part of firearm that extract cartridge from the C. Pneumograph
chamber? D. Galvanograph
A. Breech 1420.In Dactyloscopy, the primary purpose and importance of
B. Firing pin fingerprint is for -
C. Extractor A. Indemnification
D. Ejector B. Comparison
1406.The caliber of the smoothbore firearm is measured by - C. Identification
A. Gauge D. Collection
B. Caliber 1421.Photography at the crime scene taken at the crime scene
C. Caliper which will be used for court presentation is called -
D. Hundredth of an inch A. Crime scene photography
1407.In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he is B. Forensic photography
involved in a crime the examiner should report it to the - C. Crime photography
A. Victim D. Police photography
B. Investigator 1422.The study of projectiles the moment the bullet leaves the
C. Object relative muzzle of the gun is a kind of –
D. Prosecutor A. Interior ballistics
1408.In fingerprint, which of the following is the pattern which B. Terminal ballistics
refers to the rolled fingers onto the rolling impression C. Forensic ballistics
columns? D. Exterior ballistics
A. Rolled impression 1423.A magistrate and law professor in Austria who is known
B. Indexing impression for introducing the word “Criminalistics.”
C. Palm impression A. Hans Gross
D. Little finger impression B. Alphonse Bertillon
1409.A complete rotation of a fired bullet in the rifling of a gun C. Prof. R.A. Riess
is also termed as – D. Edmond Locard
A. Twist of rifling 1424.In dactyloscopy, is plain whorl always with two deltas?
B. Gyroscopic action a. No
C. Rotating motion b. Never
D. Pitch of rifling c. Yes
1410.In photography, it is an exhibit shown in court for scrutiny d. Maybe
by litigants and others. 1425.A light proof box with a means of forming an image, with
A. Police photography a means of holding sensitized material and with a means
B. Photograph of regulating the amount of light that enters the camera at
C. Forensic photography a given time. a. camera
D. Crime scene photography b. light
1411.In what way to determine the date of a paper was made? c. film
A. Wiremark d. lens
B. Trademark 1426.The location of the blood pressure in the chart paper
C. Copyright a. Side
D. Watermark b. Middle
1412.Tripod has how many feet? c. Lower
A. It depends d. Upper
B. Two 1427.What is the most common death caused by asphyxia?
C. Three a. strangulation
D. Four b. drowning
1413.In robbery case involving force upon things, which should c. throttling
be closely photographed? d. Hanging
A. Weapons used 1428.What is being affected in intracranial hemorrhage?
B. Victims wounds a. brain
C. Entrance and exit b. stomach
D. Things stolen c. lung
1414.What is the advantage of other agencies with other 1429.A firearm which has a size of less than 1 inch
agencies when it comes to authenticity? a. small firearm
A. Signature and photograph b. handgun
B. Thumb mark and photograph c. revolver
C. Thumb mark and signature d. shotgun
D. Signature only 1430.What is the measure of the rubber tube in the
pneumograph?
a. 20 inches D. 8 minutes
b. 10 inches 1446.What do you call the outer cover of the bullet?
c. 7 inches A. Jacketed
d. 8 inches B. Metallic
1431.An industrial complex must establish its first line of C. Silver
physical defense. It must have: D. Ogive
a. the building itself 1447.In snake, the two snake venum is neorotoxic and _____.
b. communication barrier A. Hemotoxic
c. perimeter barrier B. Viral
d. window barrier C. Surgical
1432.If the dead person is lying on his back, where will the D. B or C
blood go during livor mortis? 1448.Why is polygraphy in the Philippines not admissible?
A. Back A. Under experimental stage
B. Neck B. Under analysis
C. Head C. Based on opinion
D. Legs D. Unskill
1433.If there are 6 grooves, is it also the same in lands? 1449.Phos means light, graphia means _____.
A. Yes A. Write
B. No B. Study
C. Partly Yes C. Technology
D. Partly No D. Record
1434.What is the other term for dot? 1450.In major classification, the right thumb is the numerator
A. Islet while the left is the denominator?
B. Core A. Yes
C. Delta B. No
D. Bifurcation C. It depends
1435.In writing, what is being used? 1451.If you are a patrol officer, what type of CS will you
A. Finger photograph even though there is no SOCO photographer?
B. Forearm A. Vehicular accident scene
C. Hands B. Infanticide scene
D. All of the choices C. Homicide scene
1436.There are three types of fingerprint pattern; arch, whorl D. Parricide scene
and _____. 1452.What is the most common symptom of coma?
A. Ulnar loop A. Unconsciousness
B. Radial loop B. Blackening of lips
C. Loop C. Dilated eyes
D. Arch D. consciousness
1437.Is your name Eric? What kind of question is this? 1453.The dead person is dehydrated. What is lacking?
A. Irrelevant A. H2O
B. Relevant B. Blood
C. Control C. Air
D. Evidence D. Anesthesia
1438.In polygraph examination, what is being detected? 1454.In police laboratory, the one examined by biologist is not
A. Lying limited to ____.
B. Dying A. Semen
C. Truth B. Blood
D. Response C. Riverstone
1439.In pubic hair, what is the best examination to be D. None of these
conducted in the crime laboratory? 1455.These bullets when fired emit bright red flame from their
A. DNA base, thereby showing the gunner the path as well as the
B. Microscope examination striking point of the bullet.
C. Chemical examination a. Jacketed bullet
D. Serology examination b. Armor-piercing
1440.If you didn’t clean the fingerprint slab, what will be the c. Semi-wed cutter bullet
effect to the fingerprint? d. Tracer bullet
A. Blurred 1456. The caliber of the firearms can be determined by the
B. Sticky bore diameter measured from:
C. Classified a. Land to firearm
D. Clear b. Land to land
1441.What is found on the left white portion of the portrait? c. Land to groves
A. Vignette d. Groves to land
B. Watermark 1457.The breech end of the chamber of the firearm is sealed
C. Security fiber by a solid flat block of metal against which the barrel
D. Fiber comes into position when the weapon is closed for firing,
1442.In Henry System how many clasifications of fingerprints which is termed as:
are there? a. Extractor
A. 2 b. Breechface
B. 3 c. Head space
C. 8 d. Breechblock
D. 7 1458. The firearms that propelled projectiles more than one
1443.Indication of tremor due to old age, illiteracy and sickness inch in diameter is called.
is what kind of signature? a. Machine gun
A. Genuine b. Musket
B. Spurious c. Artillery
C. Forged d. Single-shot firearm
D. Simulated 1459.A Smith & Wesson type of firearm has a class
1444.If in the CS, you found semen and blood, can you characteristics of:
consider it as rape on minor? a. Four lands, four grooves right twist
A. Yes b. Six lands, six grooves left twist
B. No c. Seven lands, seven grooves right twist
C. Partly Yes d. Five lands, five grooves right twist
D. Partly No
1445.In polarization film, how long is the developing?
A. 5 minutes 1460.To impact a motion of rotation to a bullet during its
B. 7 min passage inside the barrel to insure gyroscopic stability in
C. 3 min its flight is called:
a. Range 1473. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of the
b. Gauge exploded shell have been recovered by the investigator of
c. Rifling the crime. In order to identify the shell with the gun that
d. Center-fire fired, the laboratory should be given:
1461.Most commonly these marks are found on bullets fired a. The cap, the weds and the pellets
from a Revolver due to a poor alignment of the cylinder b. The cap and the wads
with the bore: c. The cap and the pellets
a. Shaving marks d. The shot shell only
b. Skid marks 1474. Which of the following, the most accurate statement
c. Pivot marks concerning the identification of an unknown firearm by
d. landmarks means of the ballistics is that:
1461. The inventor of gunpowder is credited to: a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least eight
a. James Forsythe lands
b. Philip O. Gravelle b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be determined
c. Van Amberg by the angle of lead
d. Berthold Scwartz c. Pistols with the same number of land can be
1462. That science dealing with the motion of projectile from differentiated by the direction of the lead
the time the firer squeezes the trigger up to the time it d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from the
reaches the muzzle of the barrel is called: width of the groove
a. Posterior ballistics
b. Interior ballistics 1475.The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different
c. Exterior ballistics from those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most
d. Terminal ballistics useful in directly identifying the:
1463.The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different a. Person who fired the particular gun
from those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most b. Direction form which a shot was fired
useful in directly identifying the: c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
a. Person who fired the particular gun d. Bullet which caused a fatal wound
b. Direction form which a shot was fired 1476.A patrolman should fire his pistol:
c. Gun from which a bullet was fired a. At no time
d.Bullet which caused a fatal wound b. Primarily to stop a quarrel
c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect
1464. A patrolman should fire his pistol: d. Only as a last resort
a. At no time
b. Primarily to stop a quarrel
c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect 1477.Which of the following, the best method to use in firing a
d. Only as a last resort revolver is to keep:
1465.. Which of the following, the best method to use in firing a a. Both eyes closed
revolver is to keep: b. Both eyes open
a. Both eyes closed c. Only the right eye is open
b. Both eyes open d. Only the left eye is open
c. Only the right eye is open 1478..Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on the
d. Only the left eye is open differentiated by the direction of the twist of the rifling
1466..Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on the which may be either be to the left or to the right. Of the
differentiated by the direction of the twist of the rifling following statement the one which can most accurately be
which may be either be to the left or to the right. Of the inferred is that:
following statement the one which can most accurately be a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves
inferred is that: b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and
a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves right
b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and right c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be
c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be either either left or right
left or right d. All of the above
d. All of the above 1479. The secret of good shooting form is:
1467.The secret of good shooting form is: a. Proper sighting of the target
a. Proper sighting of the target b. Firing slowly and carefully
b. Firing slowly and carefully c. A relaxed and natural position
c. A relaxed and natural position d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver 1480. The term muzzle velocity refers most accurately to the:
a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight
1468. The term muzzle velocity refers most accurately to the: b. Average speed of the bullet in flight
a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle
b. Average speed of the bullet in flight d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle 1481. Discharged bullet are initiated at:
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver a. On base or nose
b. Left side
1469. Discharged bullet are initiated at: c. Right side
a. On base or nose d. The end of the bullet
b. Left side
c. Right side 1482. Discharged shell are initiated at:
d. The end of the bullet a. Inside or outside of a case near open end
1470. Discharged shell are initiated at: b. Where firing pin strikes
a. Inside or outside of a case near open end c. On any part of the shell
b. Where firing pin strikes d. None of the above
c. On any part of the shell 1483. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to:
d. None of the above a. Increase the speed of the bullet
1471. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to: b. Decrease the amount of recoil
a. Increase the speed of the bullet c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification
b. Decrease the amount of recoil d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in
c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification the air
d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in the air 1484. The caliber of the gun is:
a. Its barrel length
b. The circumference of its barrel
1472. The caliber of the gun is: c. The size of the ammunition used
a. Its barrel length d. Diameter of the bore
b. The circumference of its barrel 1485. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of the
c. The size of the ammunition used exploded shell have been recovered by the investigator of
d. Diameter of the bore
the crime. In order to identify the shell with the gun that 1496. When a shot is fired from an automatic pistol by a
fired, the laboratory should be given: criminal:
a. The cap, the weds and the pellets a. The empty shell remain within the chamber
b. The cap and the wads b. The empty in most cases will be found at the scene of
c. The cap and the pellets firing
d. The shot shell only c. The shell is rarely found at the crime scene
d. The shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator
1497. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the index
1486. Which of the following, the most accurate statement finger should:
concerning the identification of an unknown firearm by a. Grasp the stock
means of the ballistics is that: b. Be straight along the barrel
a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least c. Touch the outside of the trigger guard
eight lands d. Be inside of the trigger guard
b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be 1498. A member of the police force may properly used his
determined by the angle of lead pistol:
c. Pistols with the same number of land can be a. To disperse a disorder group of people
differentiated by the direction of the lead b. To subdue a maniac
d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from c. To prevent the escape of a pelon
the width of the groove d. To stop a man suspected of having committed a crime
1487.Paraffin test is used to: 1499. A policeman arriving at the scene of a crime found a
a. Detect whether a witness is telling the truth revolver, in reference to this he should be most careful:
b. Discover whether the deceased person was a. To see that it is not loaded
poisoned b. To put on the safety lock
c. Estimate the approximate time of death of the c. Not to handle it unnecessarily
deceased d. To mark it readily on the barrel
d. Determine whether a suspect has fired a gun
recently 1500. The term “MAGNUM” originated in:
a. United States
1488. The term double action with reference to revolver means b. France
most nearly that: c. England
a. The revolver has both safely and automatic firing d. Italy
action 1501. The chemical eating away of the bore of an arm due to
b. Pressure upon the trigger both cocks and released rusting or the action of salts deposited from the cap or
the hammer gunpowder is:
c. The revolver can fire with or without automatic shell a. Pressure
ejection b. Extractor
d. The shell of a fired shot is ejected and fresh cartridge c. Corrosion
is pushed from the magazine at the same time d. Priming Composition
1489. The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a Pistol or Rifle 1502. The mechanical wear and fear of the bore of an arm due
barrels is called: to sliding friction when the bullet passes through is:
a. Land a. Ejector
b. Groove b. Single action
c. Lead c. Erosion
d. One complete revolution inside the bore d. Potassium nitrate
1490. Identifying markings or imprint are not left on a shell by 1503. When the mechanism is so arranged that it will fire
the: continuously while the trigger is depressed is called:
a. Firing a. Double action
b. Ejector b. Caliber
c. Extractor c. Automatic
d. Hammer d. Trigger
1491. It is the part of the mechanism in a firearm that 1504. The distance that the rifling advances to make one
withdrawn the shell or cartridge from the chamber is called complete turn inside the gun barrel is called:
the: a. Gauge
a. Ejector b. Breech End
b. Primer c. Pitch of rifling
c. Striker d. Velocity
d. extractor 1505. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger releases the
hammer that must be manually cocked is called:
1492. A revolver to be tested and used in evidence should a. Automatic
be picked up by: b. Repeating arms
a. Inserting a pencil or ballpen in the barrel c. Single action
b. Placing a piece of wire or string through the trigger d. Ejector
guard 1506. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger both cocks
c. Grasping the handle with the handkerchief and releases the hammer:
d. Grasping the barrel with clean cloth a. Single action
1493. The part of a .45 caliber semi-automatic pistol found at b. Trigger
the scene of the crime is normally not individual marked c. Hammer
for identification in the: d. Double action
a. Trigger 1507. When a barrel of a game guns are almost invariability
b. Ejector bored with a slightly constriction near the muzzle end is
c. Slide known as:
d. barrel a. Shotgun
1494. The type of bore found on sewed-off shotgun is usually b. Choke
a: c. Gauge
a. Rifled bore d. Chamber
b. Choke bore 1508. The only sure method of determining the velocity is by
c. Full choke bore the use of:
d. Smooth bore a. Micrometer
1495. The maximum distance form the muzzle at which a b. Taper Gauge
firearm discharge will usually produce detectable powder c. Caliber
pattern on a target is about: d. Chronograph
a. 6 to 10 inches 1509. One of the most important single case in Firearms
b. 6 to 10 feet Identification History was that involving two men who were
c. 6 to 10 yards supposed to have their employer and his housekeeper in
d. 6 to 10 meters upper New York State:
a. Castelo Case
b. Timbol Case c. Carbine
c. The Stielow Case d. muskets
d. Castaneda case 1522. A type of weapon designed to propel projectile by means
of compressed air is:
1510. During the seven years of radical agitation that followed a. Springfield armory
the arrest of these men , It was apparently forgotten that b. Marlin rifle
they had been seized on specific charge of murdering one c. Carbine
Parameter, a paymaster and his guard Berrdelli. Forensic d. Air rifle
Ballistics sprange into national prominence during this last 1523.The class characteristics of a 9 mm Browning Pistol is:
phrase of: a. 5 lands, 5 grooves, right hand twist
a. Brownell Case b. 4 lands, 4 grooves, right hand twist
b. Sacco-Vanzetti Case c. 6 lands, 6 grooves, right hand twist
c. Mitchell Case d. 7 lands, 7 grooves, right hand twist
d. Weber Case 1524. A caliber 6.35mm is equivalent to:
1511. He is doctor of medicine in Medical corps in the First a. Caliber .32
World War who had transferred to the ordinance corps and b. Caliber .25
considered the Father of modern Ballistics: c. Caliber .45
a. Lieutenant Van Amberg d. Caliber .22
b. Maj. Calvin Goddard 1525. How many lead pellets dies a 12 gauge 00 bunch shot
c. Capt. Edward C. Crossman shotgun cartridges contains:
d. Philip O. Gravelle a. 12 gauge
1512. The most important single process in barrel manufacture b. 24 pellets
from the standpoint of the identification expert is: c. 6 pellets
a. Reaming operation d. 9 pellets
b. Rifling operation 1526. Here is a case, when two specimens are examined
c. Boring operation under the comparison microscopic and was erroneously
d. Grinding or machining drawn a conclusion and actually no identity exist, this
matching is called:
1513. That part of the mechanism in a firearm which causes a. Photomicrograph
empty shells or cartridge cases to be thrown from the gun b. Pseudomatch
is called: c. Microphotograph
a. Extractor d. striagraph
b. Ejector 1527.When the bullet enters the rifled bore from a stationary
c. Hammer position and is forced abruptly into the rifling, its natural
d. trigger tendency is to go straight forward before encountering the
1514. This process of combustion results in the solid powder regular rifling twist is called:
being converted into gases rapidly, and at a high a. Shaving marks
temperature, and it is the expansion of these gases which b. Skidmarks
causes the explosive force which propels the bullet or shot c. Individual characteristics
charge along the barrel. This force is known as: d. Slippage marks
a. Energy 1528. Those characteristics which are determinable only after
b. Pressure the manufacture of the firearm. They are characteristics
c. Velocity whose existence is beyond the control of men and which
d. High Intensity have random distribution. Their existence in a firearm is
1515. A type of firearm having six lands, six grooves with the brought about through the failure of the tool in its normal
right hand twist is: operation through wear and tear, abuse, mutilation,
a. Smith & Wesson corrosion, erosion and other fortuitous causes:
b. Browning type a. Forensic ballistics
c. Colt type b. Class characteristics
d. Webley type c. Riflings
1516. An instrument used for the propulsion of projectile by the d. Individual characteristics
expansive force of gases coming from burning powder a: 1529. The steel block which closes the rear of the bore against
a. Helixometer the force of the charge is:
b. Firearm a. Breechface
c. Stereoscopic b. Breechblock
d. Comparison microscope c. Chamber
1517. A knurled ring or serrated groove around the body of the d. bore
bullet which contains lubricant in order to minimize friction 1530. Firearms which propel projectile of less than one inch in
during the passage of the bullet inside the bore is: diameter are generally classified as:
a. Jacketed bullet a. Artillery
b. Wad cutter bullet b. Small arms
c. Cannelure c. Cannons
d. Plated bullet d. Recoilless rifle
1518. The bouncing off or deflection of a bullet from its original 1531. It is the study of firearms Identification by means of the
trajectory is: ammunition fired through them:
a. Range a. Ballistics
b. Fouling b. Forensic Ballistics
c. Key hole shot c. Terminal ballistics
d. ricochet d. Interior ballistics
1519. Occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or there 1532. The class characteristics of a Smith & Wesson, revolver
is a delayed in explosion due to faulty functioning of the caliber .38 is:
primer or faulty ignition of the propellant is: a. Six lands, six grooves, right hand twist
a. Misfire b. Five lands, five grooves, right hand twist
b. Recoil c. Six lands, six grooves, left hand twist
c. Hang-fire d. Four lands, four grooves, right hand twist
d. velocity 1533. Velocity of the bullet is being measure in:
1520. type of bullet that contains a mixture, such as a. Foot pound
phosphorus or other material, that can set fire upon impact b. Lbs./sq. inch
is called: c. Feet per second
a. Boat tail bullet d. millimeter
b. Tracer bullet 1534. How many types of problem are there in Forensic
c. Incendiary bullet Ballistics?
d. Ball type a. 8
1521. A short barrel rifle, with its barrel not longer than 22”. b. 7
a. Gatling guns
b. Pistolized shotgun
c. 6 1549. The distance from the face of the closed breech of a
d. 5 firearm to the surface in the chamber on which the
1535. What is that part in a cartridge cases where in the flame cartridge seats.
coming from the priming composition passes? a. Keyhole
a. Shell head b. Headspace
b. Vent c. Gas operator
c. Primer pocket d. Silencer
d. anvil 1550. The most important single process in barrel manufacture
1536. What is the most powerful handgun in the world? from the standpoint of the identification expert.
a. Magnum .357 a. Reaming operation
b. Magnum .44 b. Rifling operation
c. Magnum .50 c. Boring operation
d. Magnum .41 d. Grinding operation
1537. What is the equivalent of a caliber .25 in millimeter? 1551. The tumbling of the bullet in flight and hitting the target
a. 7.65mm sideways;
b. 6.35 mm a. Ricochet
c. 9 mm b. Hang-fire
d. 7.63 mm c. Key hole shot
1538.When a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed in d. misfired
explosion; 1552. An obsolete barrel designed in which the major length of
a. Misfired cartridge the barrel in smooth and the few inches are rifled.
b. Hang-fire a. Gas operated
c. Tapered cartridge b. Damascus barrel
d. Rebated cartridge c. Paradox gun
1539. What is the equipment in measuring the velocity of the d. Cape gun
bullet? 1553. A notched wheel on the rear of a revolver cylinder to
a. Omoscope rotate when force is applied by a level called a hand.
b. Helixometer a. Headspace
c. Chronograph b. Ratchet
d. micrometer c. Trigger pull
1540. Riflings located inside the barrel of a gun is a d. Cylinder stop
combination of: 1554. A rigid loop which partially surrounds the trigger to
a. Pitch grifling prevent accident discharge or damage to it.
b. Twist a. Trigger pull
c. Lands & grooves b. Trigger guard
d. cannelures c. Trailing edge
d. Thumb rest
1541. The sound created at the muzzle of the firearm after 1555. Pressure developed after explosion is measured in:
explosion is called: a. feet/second
a. Suppressor b. Lbs./sq. inch
b. Muzzle blast c. Foot pound
c. Compensation d. Millimetre
d. choke
1542.What are muzzle loading firearms? 1556. Used in cases such as for sending signals and enabling
a. Muskets to see enemies in the dark.
b. Shotgun a. Harpoon guns
c. Single sot firearms b. Gas guns
d. Rifled arms c. Flare guns
1543. In a caliber 7.62 mm x 51 cartridge. What do you mean d. Care guns
by 51? 1557. In a caliber .30-30. What do you mean by the second
a. The diameter of the cartridge case 30?
b. The shoulder of the cartridge case a. Refers to the caliber
c. The diameter of the cartridge b. Refers to the weight of gunpowder
d. The length of the cartridge case c. Refers to the weight of the cartridge case
1544. A caliber 7.62 mm x 51 is equivalent d. Refers to the weight of the bullet
a. Caliber .32 1558. In a caliber .250-3000.The 3000 refers to the.
b. Caliber .30 a. Muzzle energy
c. Caliber .308 b. Diameter of the cartridge
d. Caliber 30.06 c. Muzzle velocity of the bullet
1545. How many pellets are there in a 00 buckshot shotgun d. Pressure developed
cartridge 12 gauge? 1559. In a caliber .45 pistol. What is defective when more than
a. 12 pellets one bullets will come out of the barrel in one press of the
b. 9 pellets trigger?
c. 10 pellets a. Slide
d. 16 pellets b. Main spring
1546.. A firearm which features a movable firearm which is c. Disconnector
manually actuated in motion parallel to the barrel by the d. Magazine catch
shooter; 1560. The amount of force which must be applied to the trigger
a. Slide action type of a firearm to cause sear to be released.
b. Lower action type a. Velocity
c. Bolt action type b. Muzzle energy
d. Single shot firearm c. Trigger pull
1547. A device primarily designed for another purposes that d. Shocking power
have a gun mechanism in corporated in them. 1561.Characteristic of photographic paper usually utilized in
a. Gas gun police photography?
b. Liberator a. Single, glossy, white
c. Freakish device b. Single, matte, cream
d. Flare guns c. Double, glossy, white
1548. The numerals, letters and symbols stamped into the d. Double matte, cream
head of the cartridge case to shotshell to identify the 1562.When a photograph was developed, the objects in open
manufacturer, caliber or gauge. space casts a deep and uniform shadow, what was the
a. Headspace lighting condition when the shot was taken?
b. Headstamp a. Bright
c. Proof mark b. Dull
d. ratchet c. Hazy
d. Cloudy
c. 20 to 30 minutes
d. 30 to 60 minutes
1563.Refers to the response of film to different wavelength of 1578.In enlarging a photograph what would be the ideal paper
light source. for printing?
a. Spectral sensitivity a. Chloride paper
b. Color sensitivity b. Bromide paper
c. Light sensitivity c. Contact paper
d. Film sensitivity d. Chloro-bromide paper
1564.A film sensitive to ultra violet rays and blue color only. 1579.This refers to the absence of all colors.
a. Blue sensitive a. White
b. Orthochromatic b. Red
c. Panchromatic c. Blue
d. Infra red d. Black
1565.Lighting condition when objects in open space casts no 1580.A lighting condition wherein subject in open space casts
shadow. a transparent shadow.
a. Bright a. Hazy
b. Dull b. Cloudy Dull
c. Hazy c. Cloudy bright
d. Cloudy d. Bright
1581.To view watermarks in disputed documents, what
1566.Lens corrected for astigmatism. particular method of photography is utilized?
a. Aprochomat lens a. Bounce light
b. Anastigmat lens b. Side light
c. Achromatic lens c. Transmitted light
d. Rapid rectilinear lens d. Reflected light
1567.A camera used for surveillance must have a lens with 1582.Its primary function is to prevent the contamination of two
focal length that is: chemical solution in chemical processing in photography.
a. Wide angle lens a. Development
b. Normal lens b. Stop-bath
c. Telephoto lens c. Fixation
d. Narrow angle lens d. Bleaching
1568.When a material does not allow light to pass its medium it 1583.Which among the following comprises the essential parts
is said to be: of a camera?
a. Transparent a. Body, Lens, Shutter, Holder of sensitized
b. Translucent material, View finder
c. Opaque b. Light tight box, Shutter, holder of sensitized
d. All of the above material, View finder
1569.To separate colors, this homogenous medium absorbs c. Body, Lens, Range finder, holder of sensitized
and transmits light rays passing through it. material, Shutter
a. Filter d. Light tight box, Shutter, range finder, Lens, holder
b. Stop bath of sensitized material
c. Developer 1584.A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its
d. Fixer negative material.
1570.In crime scene photography what is the sufficient lens a. Wide angle lens
type for interior photograph? b. Normal lens
a. Wide angle lens c. Long lens
b. Normal lens d. Telephoto lens
c. Telephoto lens 1585.Mechanism that is used to measure the angle of
d. Narrow angle lens convergence of light coming from a subject as seen from
1571.It is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a two apertures.
predetermined time interval. a. Focusing scale
a. View finder b. Scale bed
b. Shutter c. View finder
c. Light tight box d. Range finder
d. Holder of sensitized material
1572.Its primary use in photography is focus the light to the 1586.It is a magnified picture of a small object produced by
subject. connecting the lens of a camera with the ocular of a
a. Light tight box compound microscope.
b. Shutter a. Microphotograph
c. Lens b. Photomicrograph
d. View finder c. Photomacrograph
1573.It refers to the nearest distance at which a lens is focused d. Macrophotograph
with a given particular diaphragm opening. 1587.Attributed as the person who first discovered first true
a. Depth of field photography.
b. Hyper-focal distance a. William Henry Fox Talbot
c. Focal distance b. Thomas Wedgewood
d. Scale bed c. Louis Jacques Mande Dagurre
1574.It is the distance measured from the nearest to the d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
farthest object. 1588.Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of 100 at bright
a. Depth field sunlight with normal subject.
b. Hyper-focal distance a. 1/30 f-8
c. Scale bed b. 1/125 f-11
d. Focal distance c. 1/60 f-4
1575.Which among the following is not a primary color? d. 1/250 f 2-8
a. Red 1589.In police photography, to obtain a general view of the
b. Blue scene we use a camera at what particular level?
c. Yellow a. Elevated
d. Green b. Eye level
1576.It is a microscopically small photograph. c. Bird’s eye view
a. Microphotograph d. Worm’s eye view
b. Photomicrograph 1590.The wavelength of electromagnetic energy in reference
c. Photomacrograph to visible light is:
d. Macrophotograph a. 001 to 100
1577.The normal developing time of a paper or film. b. 300 to 400
a. 1 to 1 ½ minutes c. 400 to 700
b. 5 to 10 minutes d. 700 to 1000
1591.Photography is defined as drawing with what particular d. All of the choices
element? 1606.The fingerprint classification which is used in the US and
a. Light other English speaking country.
b. Camera a. Henry System
c. Film b. Batley System
d. Developer c. Bertillion System
1592.It refers to a lens that is characterized as by the thicker d. Galton System
center and thinner sides. 1607.Which among the following is considered as a basic type
a. Positive lens of ridge characteristics?
b. Negative lens a. Ridge endings
c. Concave lens b. Bifurcation
d. Convex lens c. Dots
1593.It is the film with the widest range of sensitivity to the d. All of the choices
various energies of the electromagnetic spectrum. 1608.Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of
a. Infra-red papillary ridges as means of identification.
b. X-ray a. Edgeoscopy
c. Orthochromatic b. Poroscopy
d. Panchromatic c. Podoscopy
1594.The first use of photography in police work is in what d. Chiroscopy
particular field? 1609.In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the subject’s
a. Crime prevention hand is:
b. Identification files a. Necessary
c. Surveillance work b. Unnecessary
d. Crime scene investigation c. Optional
1595.The chemical processing step wherein the latent image d. Excessive
recorded on the paper or film becomes visible. 1610.Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is:
a. Fixer a. Temporary
b. Bleacher b. Permanent
c. Stop bath c. Lasting
d. Developer d. Stable
1611.An inking pad which requires no ink or roller.
a. Porelon
1596.Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use of b. Special pad
microscope. c. Inkless pad
a. Microphotography d. None of the foregoing
b. Photomicrography 1612.If the same digits of both hands are missing, the
c. Macrophotography impression are arbitrarily classified as.
d. Photomacrography a. Plain whorl with meeting tracing
1597.The primary controlling factor of the sharpness of image b. Loops with ridge count
refers to: c. Arches
a. Hyper-focal distance d. Dependent on ridge tracings
b. Focal distance 1613.Referred to as outer terminus:
c. Focusing a. Delta
d. Focal length b. Dots
1598.Infrared radiation is also referred to as: c. Bifurcation
a. Laser light d. None of the foregoing
b. Coherent light 1614.Failure to clean the slab after using it produces:
c. Black light a. Impression of false markings
d. Heat rays b. Accentuation of patterns
1599.The emulsion speed rating of films expressed in c. Pattern reversals
logarithmic values refers to: d. Difficulty in photographing
a. ISO rating 1615.In taking fingerprints ______ are rolled away from the
b. ASA rating body of the subject.
c. DIN rating a. All fingers
d. BSI rating b. All fingers except the thumbs
1600.Commonly used hardening agent in an acid fixing c. Both thumbs
solution. d. Both little fingers
a. Hypo or silver halide 1616.Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the
b. Potassium Alum fingerprint card are referred to as:
c. Sodium Sulfate a. Rolled impressions
d. Acetic Acid b. Plain impressions
1601.Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution. c. Fragmentary impressions
a. Hydroquinone d. Visible impressions
b. Sodium sulfite 1617.Known for his rule which states that “No two individuals in
c. Sodium carbonate the world are exactly the same size and that human
d. Potassium bromide skeleton does not change after 20 years.
1602.Refers to the product of illumination and time. a. Darwin
a. Exposure b. Mendel
b. Development c. Galton
c. Sensitized material d. Bertillon
d. Photograph 1618.The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprint, is to
1603.Chemical used in developing to prevent fogging. view the area:
a. Potassium Bromide a. Obliquely
b. Sodium Sulfite b. About half an inch distance
c. Sodium Carbonate c. Directly
d. Boric Acid d. About one inch distance
1604.A homogenous mixture which absorbs and transmits 1619.Fingerprint pattern in which two or different type of
differentially light rays passing through it. pattern are represented:
a. Stop bath a. Accidental Whorl
b. Fixer b. Central pocket loop
c. Filter c. Double loop
d. Dektol d. Whorl
1605.Papillary or friction ridges may be located at: 1620.A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops, with
a. Fingers its respective shoulder and deltas.
b. Palms a. Double loop
c. Soles of the feet b. Accidental loop
c. Central pocket loop d. Whorl
d. Whorl 1635.Basis of fingerprint identification.
1621.A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but it has two a. Pores
deltas. b. Ridges
a. Accidental loop c. Friction ridges
b. Double loop d. Latent print
c. Whorl 1636.Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable method of
d. Central pocket loop identification due to following reason; except:
1622.What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from the a. Fingerprints are not changeable
thumb toward the little finger? b. There are no two identical fingerprints
a. Tented Arch c. Wounded or burned out patterns will re-appear
b. Radial loop d. It is formed in the ninth month of pregnancy
c. Ulnar loop
d. Loop 1637.Period of a person’s life wherein papillary ridges are
1623.A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on formed and developed?
either side of the impression by a recurve, and terminate a. 3rd month of fetus life
on the same side where the ridge has entered. b. 6th month of infancy
a. Tented arch c. At birth
b. Radial loop d. 3 months after birth
c. Ulnar loop 1638.Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a
d. Loop loop, spiral or rod.
1624.It is a triangular shaped and formed by the bifurcation of a. Delta
a ridge at the outer portion of the pattern. b. Core
a. Latent prints c. Ridge
b. Ridge d. Whorl
c. Core 1639.Minimum identical characteristic detail to justify the
d. Delta identity between two points.
a. Nine
1625.The three basic types of ridge characteristics are: b. Twelve
a. Enclosure, long ridges and upthrusts c. Fifteen
b. Criss-crossing ridges, incipient ridges and spurs d. Eighteen
c. Ridge endings, dots and bifurcations 1640.Study which deals of poisons, their origin, physical and
d. Type lines, converging ridges and recurving chemical properties, physiological action, treatment and
ridges method of detection.
1626.A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form a a. Forensic Chemistry
single ridge is called: b. Toxicology
a. Enclosure ridge c. Posology
b. Dot ridges d. Forensic Medicine
c. Short ridges 1641.A substance which when introduced into the body is
d. Resembling a loop absorbed in the blood stream and acting chemically is
capable of producing noxious effect.
a. Drugs
1627.Which part of the human body has no papillary ridges. b. Dangerous drugs
a. Soles of the foot c. Poison
b. Palm d. Antidotes
c. Finger 1642.Refers to poisons which produces inflammation of the
d. Elbow mucus membrane and characterized by vomiting, pain in
1628.Points often missed in rolling impression. the abdomen and purging.
a. Bifurcation a. Corrosives
b. Core b. Irritants
c. Delta c. Narcotics
d. Ridge d. Tetanics
1629.Fingerprints left at the crime scene which may be an 1643.When a substance acts directly upon the spinal cord
impression or imprint. producing immobility or stiffness to the parts to which they
a. Latent print are attached, it is classified as:
b. Pattern a. Corrosives
c. Loop b. Irritants
d. Arch c. Narcotics
1630.Which among the following is not considered as a basic d. Tetanics
fingerprint pattern? 1644.In criminal investigation metallurgy plays an important
a. Loop application in:
b. Arch a. Counterfeit coins
c. Whorl b. Theft and Robbery
d. Accidental c. Bombs and Explosives
1631.A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence d. Restoration of tampered serial numbers
of spirals around core axes. 1645.Agents which depress or retard the physiological action
a. Whorl of an organ.
b. Central pocket loop a. Corrosives
c. Double loop b. Sedatives
d. Accidental c. Tetanics
1632.Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on d. Narcotics
papillary ridges as a means of identification.
a. Poroscopy 1646.According to the methods of isolation, what poison is
b. Edgeoscopy isolated by means of distillation.
c. Podoscopy a. Volatile poisons
d. Dactyloscopy b. Non volatile poisons
1633.A ridge which forks out into two ridges. c. Metallic poisons
a. Delta d. Tetanic poisons
b. Bifurcation 1647.When the effect of a poison is marked by disturbance of
c. Core function or death within a short time, the poisoning is
d. Pores classified as:
1634.Fingerprints pattern in which the downward slant or a. Acute poisoning
ridges from the little finger toward the thumb. b. Sub-acute poisoning
a. Ulnar loop c. Chronic poisoning
b. Radial loop d. Suicidal poisoning
c. Arch
1648.When the action of the poison is marked by disturbance 1662.A test for fiber used in determining whether it is of human
produced in distant part from the site of application, it is or animal origin
classified as: a. Ignition test or burning
a. Local b. Fluorescence analysis
b. Remote c. Chemical analysis
c. Combined d. Microscopic analysis
d. Acute 1663.Kind of ink is wherein the use of chemical bleaches is
ineffective.
1649.Referred to as the circulating tissue of the body. a. Carbon
a. Semen b. Logwood
b. Blood c. Nigrosine
c. Cells d. Gallotanic
d. Muscles 1664.Refers to any agent which neutralizes poison and its
1650.A man of average built would normally have how many effects.
quarts of blood? a. Emetics
a. 6 quarts b. Antidotes
b. 7 quarts c. Alkaloids
c. 8 quarts d. Tetanics
d. 9 quarts 1665.Which among the following exhibits bluish fluorescence
1651.It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and comprises about when exposed to u.v. light?
65% of the blood. a. Blood
a. Platelets b. Semen
b. Fibrin c. Saliva
c. Leucocytes d. Urine
d. Plasma 1666.Oldest known explosive.
1652.It is the oxygen carrier of the blood. a. Black powder
a. Plasma b. Smoke powder
b. Hemoglobin c. Dynalite
c. Erythrocytes d. TNT
d. Fibrin 1667.Deals with the study and identification by means of body
1653.Reliable and easy way to test blood even when it is fluids.
decomposed and stained with contamination. a. Immunology
a. Benzidine test b. Serology
b. Van Deen’s Test c. Posology
c. Phenolphthalein test d. Pharmacology
d. Precipitin test 1668.The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster
1654.Stage of blood examination wherein the actual proof that moulds.
subject is definitely blood. a. Casting
a. Preliminary test b. Cementing
b. Confirmatory test c. Moulage
c. Precipitin test d. Pickling
d. Blood typing and grouping 1669.Major component of a glass.
1655.Test to determine whether blood is of human origin or a. Lime
not. b. Silica
a. Preliminary test c. Soda
b. Confirmatory test d. Lime
c. Precipitin test 1670.Highly irritant poison which causes local destruction of
d. Blood typing and grouping tissues and causes nausea.
a. Corrosives
1656.Positive result in the preliminary examination for semen b. Irritants
in Barberio’s test. c. Tetanics
a. Picric acid d. Asthenics
b. Spermine picrate
c. Napthol diazonium 1671.A super cooled liquid which possess high viscosity and
d. Anthraquinous chloride rigidity.
1657.Animal fiber may be best described by: a. Lime
a. It is composed of protein b. Soda
b. Gives yellow fluorescence under ultra violet light c. Glass
c. It burns fast d. Gel
d. It has acid like odor when burned 1672.An organic bacterial poison.
1658.When gunpowder explodes, this would determine the a. Strychnine
approximate time of firing the gun? b. Ptomaine
a. Soot c. Brucine
b. Nitrates and nitrites d. Chloroform
c. Gases 1673.This test is used to detect the presence of semen
d. Metallic fragments particularly in stained clothing.
1659.In determining whether the hair is of human or animal a. Microscopic test
origin what should the chemist examine under the b. Barberio’s test
microscope? c. Florence test
a. Parts of the shaft d. Ultraviolet test
b. Parts of the tip 1674.The best method in comparative soil analysis.
c. Parts of the hair a. Chemical examination
d. Parts of the root b. Density gradient test
1660.A fiber which burns rapidly and the fumes turns blue c. Ultra-violet light examination
litmus to red, it is: d. Microscopic test
a. Cotton 1675.To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test is
b. Silk utilized?
c. Fiber glass a. Accelerated aging test
d. Steel wool b. Bursting strength test
1661.It is the part of the hair which is referred to as a race c. Opacity examination
determinant? d. Microscopic examination
a. Cortex 1676.A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by decaying
b. Cuticle body.
c. Medulla a. Chloride
d. Shaft b. Ammonia
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Hydrogen sulfide c. Rigor mortis
1677.The application of chemical principles in the examination d. Livor mortis
of evidence. 1691.In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from a
a. Forensics dead body in how many days?
b. Criminalistics a. 7
c. Instrumentation b. 14
d. Forensic Chemistry c. 21
1678.To positively determine the presence of blood in stained d. 28
material, what test is used? 1692.Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm
a. Takayama Test countries within how many days from death?
b. Phenolphtalien test a. 1
c. Baberio’s test b. 2
d. Florence test c. 3
1679.According to the method of isolation, volatile poisons may d. 4
be isolated by means of what process? 1693.Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the bone,
a. Extraction loss of alignment of the affected bones and separation of
b. Dilution fragment bones.
c. Distillation a. Simple fracture
d. Dialysis b. Compound fracture
1680.Which of the following is not an accurate test for the c. Comminuted fracture
presence of alcohol in the human body? d. None of the foregoing
a. Saliva test 1694.Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body.
b. Harger breath test a. Internal hemorrhage
c. Fecal test b. Hematoma
d. Drug test c. Contusion
1681.A disturbance produced by poison on that part with which d. Internal wound
the poison came into contact. 1695.Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object.
a. Acute a. Imprint abrasion
b. Local b. Pressure abrasion
c. Remote c. Friction abrasion
d. Combined d. Graze
1682.A material which is used to which is used to improve the 1696.Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and with
quality of the paper. accompanying movement over the skin.
a. Sizing material a. Pressure abrasion
b. Rosin b. Imprint abrasion
c. Gelatin c. Impact abrasion
d. Starch d. Graze
1683.By adding Millon’s reagent, a pink color would be formed 1697.A nervous disease marked by seizures with convulsion
if it is pesent. and loss of consciousness.
a. Rosin a. Epilepsy
b. Starch b. Apoplexy
c. Casein c. Catalepsy
d. Gelatin d. Uremia
1684.Oldest ink material known to man. 1698.Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily
a. Logwood eliminated in the urine; specifically a toxic condition seen
b. Nigrosine in urinary suppression, marked by nausea, vertigo,
c. Carbon vomiting, coma and convulsion.
d. Gallotanic
1685.Only type of ink wherein age may be determined. a. Epilepsy
a. Logwood b. Apoplexy
b. Nigrosine c. Catalepsy
c. Carbon d. Uremia
d. Gallotanic 1699.Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how
1686.It refers to the obscuring of writing by superimposing ink, many hours when the blood has already clotted or diffused
pencil or other marking material. to different parts of the body wherein the discoloration is
a. Erasure permanent and darker in color?
b. Obliterated writing a. 12 hours
c. Indented writing b. 24 hours
d. Contact writing c. 36 hours
1687.Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with male d. 48 hours
pelvis. 1700.In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination with
a. Greater either group A or B what would be the particular blood
b. Equal group of the sample.
c. Lesser a. Group A
d. Less significant b. Group B
c. Group AB
1688.How many minutes is necessary persistent cessation in d. Group O
respiration, circulation and brain function is sufficient to 1701.Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit
declare a person clinically dead? changes.
a. 10-15 minutes a. 10 years
b. 15-30 minutes b. 20 years
c. 30-45 minutes c. 30 years
d. 45-60 minutes d. 40 years
1702.It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish white
1689.A simple test used to determine cessation of respiration greasy substance in the soft fatty tissue after death.
by placing water or mercury in a container on top of the a. Saponification
chest of a person and no visible movement is noticed. b. Rigor mortis
a. Winslov test c. Mummification
b. Florence test d. Maceration
c. Barberio test 1703.A discoloration of the body after death when the blood
d. Castle Meyer test tends to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent
1690.A muscular change characterized by the softness of the portions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after
muscles and in which it no longer responds to mechanical death and is completed by 12 hours.
or electrical stimulus due to the dissolution of proteins. a. Rigor mortis
a. Stage of primary flaccidity b. Primary flaccidity
b. Stage of secondary flaccidity c. Maceration
d. Livor mortis 1718.Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.
1704.Average time for the stomach to empty its contents after a. Punctured wound
meals. b. Hack wound
a. 2 to 3 hours c. Lacerated wound
b. 3 to 4 hours d. Incised wound
c. 4 to 5 hours 1719.The basic building blocks of DNA are as follows ACGT, A
d. 5 to 6 hours stands for what?
1705.Rate of growth of human hair. a. Adenine
a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm. / day b. Adenide
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm. / day c. Adenum
c. 0.6 to 0.7 mm. / day d. Adenoid
d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm. / day 1720.In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what
1706.A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body sample should be obtained for DNA testing?
temperature is about: a. Fingerprints
a. 10 to 15 deg. F b. Hair
b. 15 to 20 deg. F c. Skeleton
c. 20 to 25 deg. F d. Teeth
d. 25 to 30 deg. F 1721.It is inherited from the mother found in the mitochondria
1707.A break or solution in the continuity of the skin. which is in the cell body
a. Wound a. Nuclear DNA
b. Trauma b. Helix
c. Bruise c. Mitochondrial DNA
d. Scratch d. DNA nucleus
1708.A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious 1722.Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit
that it will endanger one’s life. changes.
a. Non-mortal wound a. 10 years
b. Mortal wound b. 20 years
c. Trauma c. 30 years
d. Coup injury d. 40 years
1709.A collection of blood underneath the skin. 1723.A complete, continuous, persistent cessation of
a. Contusion respiration, circulation and almost all brain function of an
b. Bruise organism.
c. Petechiae a. Somatic death
d. Hematoma b. Cellular death
1710.Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and muscles c. Molecular death
causing skin discoloration and extreme pain. d. Apparent death
a. Sprain 1724.Manner of walking of a person which may be natural
b. Contusion a. Mannerism
c. Fracture b. Tic
d. Dislocation c. Gait
1711.It is fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is d. Body language
evident. 1725.This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 to 30
a. Simple minutes and is characterized by the relaxation of the
b. Compound muscles and loss of their natural tone.
c. Comminuted a. Stage of primary flaccidity
d. Dislocation b. Post mortem rigidity
1712.A displacement of the articular surface of the bone c. Cadaveric spasm
without external wounds. d. Secondary flaccidity
a. Sprain
b. Fracture
c. Hematoma 1726.Approximate time for the completion of one case for DNA
d. Dislocation testing.
1713.In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of a. Minimum of 2 weeks
tissue and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained b. Minimum of 4 weeks
that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of c. Minimum of six weeks
the body to the gun is approximately. d. Minimum of eight weeks
a. 6 inches
b. 12 inches 1727.Period of time wherein there body would be skeletonized,
c. 18 inches under normal conditions in tropical countries.
d. 24 inches a. 1 month
1714.A physical injury which is found at the site and also the b. 3 months
opposite site of the application of force. c. 6 months
a. Extensive injury d. 12 months
b. Coup injury 1728.In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable
c. Contre coup injury muscular change.
d. Coup and contre coup injury a. Cold stiffening
1715.A physical injury found at the site of the application of b. Heat stiffening
force. c. Instantaneous rigor
a. Extensive injury d. Putrefaction
b. Coup injury 1729.Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood
c. Contre coup injury vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body.
d. Coup and contre coup injury a. Diffusion lividity
b. Clotting of the blood
1716.A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log and c. Rigor mortis
stone. d. Hypostatic lividity
a. Punctured wound 1730.Approximate average amount of semen per ejaculation
b. Hack wound under normal conditions.
c. Lacerated wound a. 2 to 2.5 cc
d. Incised wound b. 2.5 to 5 cc
c. 5 to 10 cc
1717.When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what d. 1.5 to 3.5 cc
wound would be exhibited? 1731.DNA is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is
a. Punctured wound regarded as the fingerprint of life. What does it stands for?
b. Hack wound a. Deonatural acid
c. Lacerated wound b. Dynamic natural anti-body
d. Incised wound c. Deoxyribonucleic acid
d. Deoxyribunucliec acid a. Skull
1732.A powerful tool in identification which points to the source b. Pelvis
of biological evidence by matching it with samples from c. Sternum
the victims, suspects and their relatives. d. Tibia
a. DNA profiling 1747.A serious burn involving skin nerves, muscles and bones,
b. Serology considered as the most severe burn causing death due to
c. Instrumentation loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and massive
d. Forensics infection.
1733.Body fluids routinely tested because they are good a. Sunburn
sources of cells. b. 1st degree burn
a. Saliva and tears c. 2nd degree burn
b. Semen and saliva d. 3rd degree burn
c. Urine and semen 1748.A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5
d. Semen and blood minutes would die, the case of death would be?
1734.Human being’s tissue attached to the body which may a. Stupor
undergo DNA testing. b. Stroke
a. Hair c. Asphyxia
b. Bone d. Exhaustion
c. Skin 1749.Most effective method in determining sex of an individual.
d. Fingernails a. Gonodal test
1735.It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive action b. Social test
of its bacteria and enzyme. c. Genital test
a. Primary flaccidity d. Chromosomal test
b. Post mortem rigidity 1750.Its medical-legal importance is to approximate the time of
c. Cadaveric spasm death.
d. Putrefaction a. Cadaveric spasm
1736.Conclusive evidence that subject person is a female. b. Putrefaction
a. Possession of vagina c. Mascular contraction
b. Possession of ovaries d. Rigor mortis
c. Possession of estrogen 1751.Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to:
d. Possession of progesterone a. Masturbation
b. Fingering
1737.A person with big face and prominent cheek bones. c. Sodomy
a. Hippocratic facie d. Sexual intercourse
b. Mongolian facie 1752.In cellular or molecular death, death of individual cell
c. Myxedema facie occurs in:
d. Facies lionine a. 20 to 30 minutes
1738.Conclusive evidence that a person is a male. b. 3 to 6 hours
a. Presence of testis c. 12 to 24 hours
b. Presence of androsterone d. 24 to 36 hours
c. Possession of penis 1753.Most noticeable sign of death.
d. Possession of testosterone a. Cessation of respiration
1739.A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to mucous b. Progressive fall of body temperature
secretion of the respiratory track after death. c. Insensibility of body and loss of power to move
a. “Cutis anserina” d. Cessation of heart action and circulation
b. Washerwoman 1754.Most common and scientific method of detecting
c. “Champignon d’ ocume” deception.
d. Cadaveric spasm a. Polygraphy
1740.It is a death that occurs due to illness of the body. b. Polygraph
a. Natural death c. Truth serum
b. Molecular death d. Interrogation
c. Somatic death 1755.Devised an instrument capable of continuously recording
d. Apparent death pulse rate, respiration and blood pressure.
1741.A type of burn produced as a result of the body coming a. William Marston
into contact with a moving object. b. Angelo Mosso
a. Thermal burn c. John Larson
b. Friction burn d. Sticker
c. Radiation burn 1756.Psychological response to any demand.
d. Electrical burn a. Reaction
1742.A condition of a woman who have had one or more b. Stress
sexual experience but not had conceived a child. c. Pressure
a. Moral virginity d. All of the above
b. Demi-virginity 1757.For male subjects, what is the amount of air pressure is
c. Physical virginity to be utilized in the system of cardio or vent.
d. Virgo intact a. 30 mm
1743.Refers to the action of a bacteria to a dead body. b. 60 mm
a. Flaccidity c. 90 mm
b. Rigidity d. 120 mm
c. Lividity 1758.A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep
d. Putrefaction considered fit for polygraph examination.
1744.A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain a. 5
parts of the body which produces mechanical disruption of b. 6
cell structure characterized by cold stiffening and c. 7
diminished body temperature. d. 8
a. Gangrene
b. Frostbite 1759.Type of question related to the facts of the case and is
c. Trench foot answerable by NO.
d. Immersion foot a. Relevant question
1745.Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the b. Irrelevant question
breakdown of sweating mechanism. c. General question
a. Heat cramp d. Immaterial question
b. Heat exhaustion 1760.Question known to the subject and is answerable by
c. Heat stroke YES.
d. Burning a. Relevant question
1746.In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton, which b. Irrelevant question
part is not used? c. General question
d. Immaterial question a. Relevant questions
1761.An act of discovery, indicative of the fact that something b. Irrelevant questions
is hidden or obscure. c. Supplementary questions
a. Fear d. Control questions
b. Deception 1776.The number of basic tracings in the modern polygraph.
c. Detection a. 3
d. Reaction b. 4
1762.An inhibition of a previous activity of an effector organ or c. 5
organism as a result of stimulation. d. 6
a. Response 1777.Developed the systolic blood pressure method for
b. Deception detecting deception.
c. Detection a. William Marston
d. Reaction b. Harold Burtt
1763.Refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, c. John Larson
which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power. d. Leonarde Keeler
a. Response
b. Reaction 1778.He noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure
c. Stimuli changes were signs of deception.
d. Fear a. William Marston
1764.This component drives the chart paper under the b. Harold Burtt
recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches c. Leonard Keeler
per minute. d. John Larson
a. Cardiosphygmograph 1779.Italian scientist who used hydrosphygmograph procedure
b. Kymograph for accused persons.
c. Galvanograph a. Angelo Mosso
d. Pneumograph b. Veraguth
1765.Part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of c. Lombroso
the subject. d. Vittorio Benussi
a. Finger electrode plate 1780.Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin
b. Diacritic notch reflex.
c. Rubber convoluted tube a. Angelo Mosso
d. Kymograph b. Veraguth
1766.This component record changes of the subject blood c. Lombroso
pressure and pulse rate. d. Vittorio Benussi
a. Cardiosphygmograph 1781.Who first incorporated the galvanograph with
b. Sphygmomanometer measurement, respiration component and blood pressure.
c. Galvanograph a. Harold Burtt
d. Pneumograph b. Hans Gross
1767.It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small amount c. Leonarde Keeler
of electricity. d. John Larson
a. Cardisphygmograph 1782.Refers to any specimen or writing executed normally
b. Sphygmomanometer without any attempt to change or control its identifying
c. Galvanograph habits and its usual quality of execution.
d. Pneumograph a. Natural writing
1768.This component records the changes in the breathing of b. Disguised writing
the subject. c. Cursive writing
a. Cardisphygmograph d. System of writing
b. Sphygmomanometer 1783.Jose Pidal in trying to fake his own signature to hide his
c. Galvanograph identity is using:
d. Pneumograph a. Natural writing
1769.Kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity to b. Disguised writing
deceive others. c. Cursive writing
a. Black lie d. System of writing
b. White lie 1784.Writing in which are for most part joined together.
c. Red lie a. Natural writing
d. Yellow lie b. Disguised writing
1770.Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the c. Cursive writing
relevant question. d. System of writing
a. Reaction 1785.Usual deviations found between repeated specimen of
b. Normal response any individual handwriting or in the product of any
c. Specific response typewriter.
d. Positive response a. Normal variation
1771.Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant questions were b. Natural variation
answered. c. Tremor
a. Reaction d. Wrong hand writing
b. Normal response
c. Specific response 1786.A person executing a signature while his arm is steadied
d. Positive response and assisted produces a:
1772.Normal time interval for pre-test interview. a. Guided signature
a. 20 to 30 minutes b. Normal signature
b. 30 to 60 minutes c. Scribble
c. 60 to 90 minutes d. Handwriting signature
d. 90 to 120 minutes 1787.A preliminary embellished initial common to capital
1773.The primary objective of post test interview. letters.
a. To thank the subject a. Embellishment
b. To obtain confession b. Beard
c. To make the subject calm c. Buckle knot
d. To explain polygraph test procedures d. Diacritic
1788.A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal
1774.The purpose of pretest interview. strokes.
a. To prepare subject for polygraph test a. Hook
b. To obtain confession b. Spur
c. To make the subject calm c. Loop
d. To explain polygraph test procedures d. Staff
1775.Refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s normal 1789.An oblong curve found in small letters f,g,h and l.
pattern of response. a. Hook
b. Spur b. Cursory
c. Loop c. Informal
d. Staff d. Careless scribble
1790.The introductory backward stroke added to the staff of 1804.A process by which a canal like outline is produced on a
many capital letters and which can also be seen fraudulent document underneath the genuine and tracing it
occasionally in introductory strokes of small letters. with the use of pointed instrument.
a. Embellishment a. Carbon process
b. Beard b. Indention process
c. Buckle knot c. Projection process
d. Hitch d. Transmitted light process
1791.A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter. 1805.A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier
a. Embellishment than the rest of its outline.
b. Beard a. Off its feet
c. Buckle knot b. Twisted letter
d. Diacritic c. Clogged type face
1792.Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes. d. Rebound
a. Embellishment
b. Hump
c. Diacritic 1806.It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is almost
d. Knot unconscious expression of fixed muscular habits reacting
1793.Balance quality of movement of the harmonious from fixed mental impressions.
recurrence of stress of impulse. a. Handwriting
a. Line quality b. Writing
b. Rhythm c. Typewriting
c. Baseline d. Writing movement
d. Writing pressure 1807.A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation
1794.Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or and pen-lifts difficult.
intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surface a. Ball point pen
with increase pressure. b. Fountain pen
a. Writing pressure c. Iron nutgall ink
b. Shading d. Markers
c. Pen emphasis 1808.Disconnection between letters or letter combination due
d. Natural variation to lack of movement control.
1795.An imaginary line upon which the writing rests. a. Pen lift
a. Line quality b. Retouching
b. Baseline c. Patching
c. Foot d. Retracing
d. Hitch 1809.A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on the
1796.A signature written by the forger in his own style of paper during manufacture.
handwriting without attempting to copy to form of the a. Water marks
genuine signature. b. Fiber marks
a. Traced forgery c. Paper design
b. Disguised forgery d. Wire marks
c. Simulated forgery 1810.In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph, what
d. Simple forgery particular condition is manifested?
1797.A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skillful a. Grainy image
type of forgery. b. Two image
a. Traced forgery c. Overlapping image
b. Disguised forgery d. Three dimensional image
c. Simulated forgery 1811.An element which is added to complete another letter.
d. Simple forgery a. Spur
b. Slant
1798.Which among the following is an indication of c. Diacritics
genuineness of handwriting? d. Arc
a. Continuity 1812.It is a signature signed at a particular time and place,
b. Smoothness purpose and normal writing conditions.
c. Skillful writing a. Complete signature
d. Tremor b. Standard signature
c. Evidential signature
1799.Document which is completely written and signed by the d. Model signature
testator. 1813.Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening
a. Genuine document of the ink stroke.
b. Disputed document a. Shading
c. Holographic document b. Pen emphasis
d. Authentic document c. Pen lift
1800.A document which contains some changes either as an d. Pen pressure
addition or deletion. 1814.The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity of
a. Altered documents paper money.
b. Disputed document a. Quality of the engraving
c. Obliterated document b. Color of the seal
d. Inserted document c. Wet strength of the paper
1801.It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the d. Watermarks
original undecipherable. 1815.A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but made
a. Decipherment inferior or superior intrinsic value to that of the genuine
b. Restoration coin.
c. Obliteration a. Priceless coin
d. Interlineation b. Mutilated coin
1802.A class of signature for routine document or day to day c. False coin
correspondence. d. All of the choices
a. Formal 1816.It is a deviation showing free connecting and terminal
b. Complete strokes made by the momentum of the hand.
c. Cursory a. Tremor
d. Careless scribble b. Tremors of fraud
1803.Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge important c. Genuine tremor
documents. d. Deterioration
a. Complete 1817.Any arcade formed in the body of the letters.
a. Staff b. Hammer
b. Slant c. Sear
c. Diacritics d. Main spring
d. Humps
1832.Applied to a shotgun which indicates bore diameter is
1818.A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the equal to the diameter of the lead ball whose weight in
horizontal inch. pound equal to reciprocal gauge index.
a. Pica a. Caliber
b. Elite b. Gauge
c. Proportional spacing machine c. Shot
d. Adding machine d. Charge
1819.Developed the system of handwriting classification 1833.An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a
utilized by most police departments. single round lead ball.
a. Lee and Abbey a. Shotgun
b. Rolando Wilson b. Rifle
c. Levine c. Musket
d. Landsteiner d. Pistol
1820.A kind of document executed by a person in authority and 1834.A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number of
by private parties but notarized by competent officials. lead pellets in one charge.
a. Official document a. Shotgun
b. Public document b. Rile
c. Commercial document c. Musket
d. Private document d. Pistol
1821.An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine coin. 1835.Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the bore
a. False coin against the force of the charge.
b. Counterfeit coin a. Breechblock
c. Priceless coin b. Breechface
d. Mutilation of coin c. Ejector
1822.It refers to the printing surface of a type block. d. Extractor
a. Character 1836.Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to be
b. Design withdrawn from the chamber.
c. Pitch a. Breechblock
d. Type face b. Breechface
1823.Refers to a ruled or imaginary line upon which the writing c. Ejector
rests. d. Extractor
a. Base 1837.Channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel.
b. Baseline a. Rifling
c. Foot b. Land
d. Staff c. Groove
1824.It is the process of making out what is illegible or what d. Cannelure
has been effaced. 1838.Rearward movement of a firearm from firing.
a. Decipherment a. Recoil
b. Collation b. Force
c. Obliteration c. Backfire
d. Comparison d. Shot force
1825.An act of setting two or more items to weigh their 1839.Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of the bore due
identifying characteristics. to sliding friction when the bullet passes through it.
a. Comparison a. Erosion
b. Collation b. Rusting
c. Conclusion c. Corrosion
d. Examination d. Decomposition
1840.Distance that the rifling advances to make one compete
turn.
1826.An examination of documents wherein it is viewed with a. Pitch of rifling
the source of illumination behind it and the light passing b. Choke
through the paper. c. Trajectory
a. Transmitted light examination d. Recoil
b. Oblique photography examination 1841.Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a complete
c. Infrared examination unfired unit
d. Ultraviolet examination a. Bullet
1827.The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a b. Primer
person from his handwriting. c. Gunpowder
a. Questioned Document Examination d. All of the choices
b. Polygraphy 1842.Most common individual characteristic that are visible on
c. Graphology the base portion of then fired cartridge.
d. Psychology a. Firing pin impression
1828.Any metallic body referred to as a bullet. b. Ejector marks
a. Projectile c. Extractor marks
b. Ball d. Chamber marks
c. Shell 1843.Failure of cartridge to discharge.
d. Missile a. Misfire
1829.The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles at b. Hang fire
the same time it leaves the muzzle of the firearm to the c. Ricochet
time it hits the target. d. Key hole shot
a. Interior ballistics 1844.Invented the gunpowder.
b. Exterior ballistics a. Chinese
c. Terminal ballistics b. James Forsythe
d. Posterior ballistics c. Van Amberg
1830.The science which deals with the effect of the impact of d. Berthold Schwartz
the projectile on the target. 1845.Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition placed
a. Interior ballistics into gun chamber.
b. Exterior ballistics a. Cartridge
c. Terminal ballistics b. Primer
d. Posterior ballistics c. Bullet
1831.Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin. d. Shell
a. Trigger 1846.The measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.
a. Gauge b. Caliber
b. Mean diameter c. Gauge
c. Caliber d. Rifling
d. Riflings 1862.The unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
1847.This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing the a. Yaw
firing of the cartridge. b. Trajectory
a. Hammer c. Velocity
b. Ejector d. Gyroscopic action
c. Trigger 1863.A lead type bullet is usually fired from what particular
d. Firing pin firearm?
1848.Term used in referring to the tip of a bullet. a. Rifle
a. Breech b. Revolver
b. Ogive c. Pistol
c. Rim d. Sub-machine gun
d. Pitch 1864.It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of
1849.A smooth bore military firearm which has no riflings. the bore.
a. Shotgun a. Rifling
b. Rifle b. Breaching
c. Pistol c. Ogive
d. Revolver d. Swaging
1850.A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy to 1865.A primer with two vents or flash holes.
prevent leading. a. Bordan primer
a. Jacketed bullet b. Berdan primer
b. Metal cased bullet c. Boxer primer
c. Metal point bullet d. Battery primer
d. Plated bullet 1866.Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are usually
1851.The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and hitting the classified as:
target sideways. a. Flare guns
a. Key hole shot b. Zip guns
b. Ricochet c. Matchlock
c. Hang fire d. Freakish device
d. Misfire 1867.The most reliable of all individual characteristics, when
1852.A part of ballistics dealing with firearm identification. fired cartridges are concerned.
a. Interior a. Extractor marks
b. Exterior b. Ejector marks
c. Terminal c. Chamber marks
d. Forensic d. Breech face marks
1853.Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusions in 1868.It literally means delay in discharge or the cartridge’s
forensic ballistics. failure to explode on time.
a. 3 test bullets/shell a. Misfire
b. 4 test bullets b. Hang fire
c. 5 test bullets/shell c. Ricochet
d. 6 test bullets/shell d. Key hole shot
1854.It refers to the placement of the right and left specimen in 1869.A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily
side by side position. barrel or its lands have been worn down would produce
a. Drag marks what kind of markings?
b. Positively matched a. Slippage marks
c. Juxtaposition b. Skid marks
d. Pseudomatch c. Rifling marks
1855.Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight. d. Shearing marks
a. Range 1870.Measuring device used to measure the velocity of
b. Trajectory projectiles.
c. Velocity a. Caliper
d. Yaw b. Chronograph
1856.Bullets containing nitrate compounds which is set on fire c. Test bullet
when it is projected. d. Bullet recovery box
a. Incendiary bullet 1871.Refers to the means of recognizing the characteristics of
b. Ball bullet persons so as to differentiate him from others
c. Tracer bullet a. Dactyloscopy
d. Explosive bullet c. Identification
1857.Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel from what b. Personal
particular part? d. Comparison
a. From land to land 1872.Considered to be first scientific method of Identification in
b. From land to groove person done by measuring various bony structure of the
c. From groove to groove human body.
d. From groove to land a. Portrait-Parle
b. Photography
c. Antropometry
1858.Revolver is distinguished from pistol by: d. Anthropometry
a. Frame 1873.547. The following are principles in personal
b. Barrel Identification, except.
c. Slide assembly a. Law of individuality
d. Rotating cylinder c. Law of multiplicity of evidence
1859.The term double action in a firearm means. b. Law of infallibility
a. Cocks and releases the hammer simultaneously d. Law of constancy
b. Manually cocks the hammer 1874.Which of the following personal Identification is not easy
c. Autoloads before firing to change?
d. Double pressing of trigger a. Hair
1860.Regarded as the father of ballistics, b. Speech
a. Albert Osborne c. Dress
b. Col. Calvin H. Goddard d. personal pharapernalia
c. Hans Gross 1875.Considered to be one of the most infallible means of
d. Charles Waite Identification.
1861.Raised portion between the groove found inside the a. DNA fingerprinting
barrel. b. Dactyloscopy
a. Land c. Fingerprint Identification
d. Photography b. Isabela Bernales
1876.Identification of person can be done either by c. Patricio Agustin
Comparison or by____? d. Marcelo Bonifacio
a. Exclusion 1889. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is there is
b. Examination possibility for two prints to be the same it is
c. Experimentation 1:63,000,000,000.
d. Inclusion a. Francis Bacon
1877. The person credited for the discovery of the two main b. Francis Galton
layers of the friction skin. c. J.C.A. Mayer
a. Alphonse Bertillion d. Herman Welker
b. Marcelo Malpighe 1890.The person who used the system of identification which
c. Herman Welcker was accepted by Spanish countries.
d. J.C.A. Mayer a. Juan Vucetich
1878. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved from b. Henry Faulds
white jade containing the name and the thumb print of the c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
owner. d. William Herschel
a. Tien Chi 1891. Is the law which states that the greater the number of the
b. Tein Chi similarity or differences the more probability for the
c. Tein Shi conclusion to be correct.
d. Tien Shi a. Law of Infallability
1879. He is known to be the father of personal Identification b. Law of Multiplicity of evidence
having devised the first scientific method of personal c. Law of Permenancy
Identification. d. Law of Barcelinity
a. John Dellinger 1892.The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word?
b. Cesare Lombroso a. Greek word
c. John F. W. Herschel b. French word
d. Alphonse Bertillion c. Latin word
1880. He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of d. English word
forty-one years just to prove that prints do not change, 1893.If screw driver is for mechanic. What is used by a
except for some scratches due to old age. photographer?
a. Herman Welcker A. Filter
b. Marcelo Malpighi B. Camera
c. J.C.A. Mayer C. Firearm
d. Johnnes E. Purkenji D. Handcuff
1881. The person who used fingerprints in replacement for 1894.Can exptert in Ballistics testify witout photograph or
signature to avoid impersonation among Indian native. demonstration?.
a. William Herschel a. Yes
b. Dr. Henry Faulds b. Partly Yes
c. Dr. Francis Galton c. No
d. Sir Edward Henry d. Partly No
1882. Is person considered to be the father of modern 1895. Burned document or charred document is best examined
fingerprint. His system of classification was accepted in by.
almost all English speaking country. a. Infrared Photography
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry b. Ultraviolet Photography
b. Juan Vucetich c. Macro Photography
c. Alphonse Bertillion d. Micro Photography
d. Dr. Hans Gross 1896.The average age of menopausal period of women to take
1883.Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges and place.
pores of the hand and feet which was read before the a. 50 yrs old
Royal Society of London. b. 45 yrs old
a. Nehemiah Grew c. 35 yrs old
b. G. Bidloo d. 42 yrs old
c. Hintze 1897.Mustache and beard begin to appear in male at the age
d. Albinus of.
1884. A system of Identification best used in case of burned a. 14-16
body. b. 13-15
a. Fingerprint c. 16 to 18
b. Skeletal Identification d. 12-14
c. Odontology 1898. Menstruation usually commences at the age of?
d. Photography a. 14
b. 13
c. 16
1885. The following are characteristics of man which can easily d. 12
be changed EXCEPT? 1899.In a robbery case, close up photographs must be taken
a. Hair Growth to show:
b. Body Ornamentation a. Entrance
c. Speech b. Entrance and Exit
d. Clothing c. Exit
1886.The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives d. Either a or b
recognition to the science of fingerprint? 1900. The development of breast in female commences at the
a. People vs. Medina age of.
b. US vs. Jennings a. 13 to 14
c. Miranda vs. Arizona b. 12 to 13
d. West Case c. 10-11
1887. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual d. 11 to 12
use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using his own
thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering with the 1901. In photography, when we say tripod, how many stands
pay order he issued. are there?
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier a. 2
b. Gilbert Thompson b. 3.5
c. Capt James Parke c. 4
d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores d. 5
1888.The Filipino who top the first comprehensive examination
in fingerprint which was initiated by New York Police Dept. 1902.The first police surgeon or forensic pathologist who
and FBI. performed the autopsy of Julius Cesar.
a. Generoso Reyes a. Landsteinir
b. Zacchias a. Nehemiah Grew
c. Antistus b. G. Bidloo
d. Hippocrates c. Hintze
1903. Used to see stains on clothes that are invisible to a d. Albinus
normal light. 1916.A system of Identification best used in case of burned
a. Ultra Violet Photography body.
b. Infra red photograhpy a. Fingerprint
c. Macro Photography b. Skeletal Identification
d. Micro photography c. Odontology
1904.It is an adjustable mechanism that regulates the amount d. Photography
of light reaching the film by varying the length of time, and 1917.Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual
it is considered as the door of the camera. use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using his own
a. Shutter thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering with the
b. lens pay order he issued.
c. obscura a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
d. view finder b. Gilbert Thompson
1905. It covers the surface of the dermis with blunt peg-like c. Capt James Parke
formation. d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores
a. dermis 1918.The Filipino who top the first comprehensive examination
b. Dermal papillae in fingerprint which was initiated by New York Police Dept.
c. papillae and FBI.
d. dermal a. Generoso Reyes
1906.The morphological constituents of human hair are cuticle, b. Isabela Bernales
cortex and medulla, is the statement correct? c. Patricio Agustin
a. Partly Yes d. Marcelo Bonifacio
b. Partly No 1919.Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is there is
c. Yes possibility for two prints to be the same it is
d. No 1:63,000,000,000.
1907.It is the sensitized material that has the primary function a. Francis Bacon
of recording the image that is focused upon it by the lens b. Francis Galton
of the camera. c. J.C.A. Mayer
E. Filter d. Herman Welker
F. Film 1920.The person who used the system of identification which
G. Firearm was accepted by Spanish countries.
H. Handcuff a. Juan Vucetich
1908.Considered to be first scientific method of Identification in b. Henry Faulds
person done by measuring various bony structure of the c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
human body. d. William Herschel
a. Portrait-Parle 1921.The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word?
b. Photography a. Greek word
c. Antropometry b. French word
d. Anthropometry c. Latin word
1909.The person credited for the discovery of the two main d. English word
layers of the friction skin. 1922.Is the science of fingerprint study, which deals with the
a. Alphonse Bertillion interpretation of one’s personality?
b. Marcelo Malpighe a. Dactyloscopy
c. Herman Welcker b. Dactylomancy
d. J.C.A. Mayer c. Dactylography
d. Dactylo-analysis
1910.The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved from 1923.Is an impression designed by the ridges on the inside of
white jade containing the name and the thumb print of the the last joint of the fingers and thumb on some smooth
owner. surface with the aid of sweet or ink?
a. Tien Chi a. Dactyloscopy
b. Tein Chi b. Dactyloanalysis
c. Tein Shi c. Latent Print
d. Tien Shi d. Fingerprint
1911.He is known to be the father of personal Identification 1924.Which of the following serves the importance of
having devised the first scientific method of personal Poroscopy?
Identification. a. For determination of whether the prints belong to
a. John Dellinger a young or adult person.
b. Cesare Lombroso b. For Identification of person
c. John F. W. Herschel c. For determination of whether the prints was taken
d. Alphonse Bertillion during the lifetime or after death of a person
1912.He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of d. B and C only
forty-one years just to prove that prints do not change, 1925.Is that parts of the friction skin which if damage will
except for some scratches due to old age. constitute a permanent scar.
a. Herman Welcker a. Epidermis
b. Marcelo Malpighi b. Stratum corneum
c. J.C.A. Mayer c. Dermis
d. Johnnes E. Purkenji d. Stratum mucosum
1913.The person who used fingerprints in replacement for 1926.He is considered as the Father of Poroscopy.
signature to avoid impersonation among Indian native. a. Francis Galton
a. William Herschel b. Marcelo Malpighe
b. Dr. Henry Faulds c. John Herschel
c. Dr. Francis Galton d. Edmond Locard
d. Sir Edward Henry
1914.He is considered to be the father of modern fingerprint. 1927.Is the scientific study of the tiny opening across the
His system of classification was accepted in almost all ridges.
English speaking country. a. Podoscopy
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry b. Poroscopy
b. Juan Vucetich c. Chiroscopy
c. Alphonse Bertillion d. Edgeoscopy
d. Dr. Hans Gross 1928.Up to what deep a cut or injury will constitute a
1915.Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges and permanent scar in a normal friction skin?
pores of the hand and feet which was read before the a. less than 1cm
Royal Society of London. b. less than 1 mm
c. more than 1cm 1942.A type of a pattern consisting of a core, delta, recurving
d. more than 1mm ridge and a ridge count of at least one.
1929.Considered to be one of the most notorious criminal in a. radial loop
U.S who attempt to destroy his friction skin with the use of b. ulnar loop
corrosive acid. c. loop
a. John Derenger d. tented arch
b. John Dillenger 1943.What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more deltas,
c. Robert James Pitts one or more ridge forming a complete circuitry and when
d. Robert Joworski an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to right delta it
1930.Are the strips of skin without coloring pigment and touches or cross the circuiting ridge/s considered as the
without hair found on the palm of the hand and soles of most common type of whorl.
the feet? a. plain whorl
a. Epidermal skin b. central pocket loop whorl
b. Papillary skin c. double loop whorl
c. Friction d. accidental whorl
d. All of the choices 1944.In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is
1931.Is the outer layer of the Epidermis layer which covers the excluded in the combination?
skin? a. ulnar loop
a. Epidermis b. plain whorl
b. Stratum corneum c. tented arch
c. Stratum Sangum d. plain arch
d. Stratum musocum 1945.The core and delta are also termed as _____?
1932.Is the scientific study of the prints of the palm of the a. inner terminus
hands? b. outer terminus
a. Podoscopy c. focal point
b. Chiroscopy d. pattern area
c. Poroscopy 1946.A point on a ridge formation, in front or near the center of
d. Chairoscopy the diverging typelines.
1933.Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots (called a. Core
pores) in an inked finger impression? b. island ridge
a. sweat pores c. delta
b. furrows d. convergence
c. ridges 1947.What is the rule where there are two or more possible
d. sweat duct bifurcation deltas which conform to the definition of delta?
1934.What are the depressed portions or canal structure of the a. the one nearest the core should be chosen
friction skin (found between ridges). b. the one away from the core should be counted
a. Pores c. the one which does not open towards the core is
b. indentions counted
c. furrows d. the one towards the core should be counted
d. duct 1948.What is that spreading of two ridges that previously
1935.What is the tiny openings on the skin from where sweat is running side by side?
excreted? a. Bifurcation
a. duct b. convergence
b. furrows c. divergence
c. pores d. enclosure
d. sweat glands 1949.What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or a
1936.That part of the friction skin between the epidermis and period?
dermis layer which responsible for the ridge formation a. Lake
a. Generating layer b. ending ridge
b. Dermal papillae c. island ridge
c. Sweat glands d. incipient ridge
d. Dermis Papillary 1950.What ridge divides itself into or more branches that
1937.Is the principle in the study of fingerprint which states that meets to form the original figure?
fingerprint is a reliable and positive means of a. bifurcation
Identification? b. island ridge
a. Principle of Individuality c. lake ridge
b. Principle of Infallibility d. convergence
c. Principle of Constancy 1951.What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the
d. Principle of Permanency direction from which it started?
1938.What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one side a. diverging ridge
of the pattern and flow to the other side with a rise or wave b. recurving ridge
in the center? c. converging ridge
a. Loop d. bifurcation
b. tented arch 1952.Is a point along the recurving ridge in which the ridge
c. plain arch curves inward?
d. exceptional arch a. sufficient recurve
1939.In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it should b. appendage
have _______ridge count. c. obstruction ridge
a. 1 d. shoulder of loop
b. 2 1953.Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving ridge
c. at least 1 which has spoiled the inner line of flow from the inner delta
d. 3 to the center of the pattern. This is also found in the
1940.What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust, or second type of central pocket loop.
two of the three basic characteristics of the loop? a. bar
a. Plain arch b. appendage
b. central pocket loop c. uptrust
c. tented arch d. obstruction
d. accidental whorl 1954.Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced the
1941.What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or line flow above the right delta and there are three
slanting ridges flows towards the little finger? intervening ridges.
a. loop a. meeting whorl
b. radial loop b. outer whorl
c. ulnar loop c. inner whorl
d. tented arc d. central pocket loop whorl
1955.A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to other regular
ridge which is not included as a ridge count even if it has 1969.In taking prints of the subject the technician always
been cross by the imaginary line. instruct the subject to:
a. ending ridge a. Stand straight
b. incipient ridge b. Cooperate
c. intervening ridge c. Relax
d. enclosure d. Help the technician rolling
1956.What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and which 1970.One of the cardinal rule in taking of fingerprints of the
resembles a fork structure subject is that fingers must be:
a. divergence a. Healthy
b. convergence b. Dry
c. bifurcation c. Moisten
d. enclosure d. Oily
1957.Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its 1971.In taking prints of the subject what fingers are rolled away
infants stage which usually starts: from the body of the subjects
a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life a. Both thumbs
b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life b. All eight fingers
c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life c. All fingers including thumbs
d. 5th to 6th months before birth d. All fingers except the thumbs
1958.Is the symbol used to represent a plain arch. 1972.An instrument used to hold or secure fingerprint cards in
a. T taking fingerprint of a dead person
b. A a. Card holder
c. P b. Spatula
d. W c. Strip holder
1959.It is the process of counting the ridges which intervene d. Forceps
between the delta and core of a loop? 1973.When taking fingers for the purpose of taking rolled
a. ridge tracing impression the fingers must be inked from______ to base
b. ridge counting of the first joint.
c. ridge tracking a. a. Base
d. ridge summing b. Tip
1960.Is an instrument used for the spreading of the fingerprint c. second joint
ink to the slab? d. third joint
a. Fingerprint brush 1974.Occupational problems such as acid works, plasters,
b. Fingerprint lifting tapes cement mixer usually causes weak friction skin and such
c. Fingerprint roller is known as:
d. fingerprint card a. Permanent Disabilities
1961.The fingerprint card used in recording the subject print b. Temporary Deformities
has a size of: c. Permanent Destructions
a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½” d. Deformities
b. 8” x 8” 1975.Is the term applied to a person whose fingers are more
c. 9” x 9” than the usual number in both hands?
d. 8” x 10” a. Polyfinger
1962.The fingerprint card used in court exhibit the card has a b. Deformities
size of: c. Polydactyl
a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½” d. Bidactyl
b. 8” x 8” 1976.Is the process of placing under each pattern the letter
c. 9” x 9” symbols as a result of the interpretation?
d. 8” x 10” a. Checking
1963.Is a piece of plane glass or metal where the fingerprint b. Identification
ink is distributed for fingerprinting? c. Classification
a. Card Holder d. Blocking
b. Fingerprint roller 1977.Three blocks after finger number 4 is what finger.
c. Fingerprint transfer card a. left thumb
d. ink slab b. index finger
1964.A chemical compound used in conventional developing of c. left index
latent prints being one of the best methods that can be d. left middle
utilized by a fingerprint technician. 1978.It is the division in the fingerprint classification which is
a. Fingerprint powder always represented by a numerical value depending upon
b. Fingerprint Brush a whorl pattern appearing on each finger.
c. Fingerprint Fuming Device a. key division
d. Inkless Inking Device b. major division
1965.Is an instrument used for clipping the fingerprint card to c. primary division
avoid movement of the card during printing? d. final division
a. Card Holder 1979.In getting the Secondary Division of a given fingerprint
b. Forceps from what finger does the Capital letter is derived.
c. Carrying Case a. thumb
d. Fingerprint card clip b. index
1966.Is a card used in recording and preserving developed c. little finger
latent print? d. middle finger
a. Fingerprint lifting tapes 1980.The purpose of adding 1/1 to the sum of the numerator
b. Fingerprint transfer card and the denominator in the primary division is ____.
c. Evidence Identification tags a. so that there will be an equal value
d. Post-mortem fingerprint Equipment b. to complete the primary div.
1967.Is the type of an impression made or printed on the card c. to have a complete 32 numerical value
by individually rolling the ten fingers of the subject. d. for formality
a. Latent Prints 1981.What patterns are included in the small letter
b. Rolled Impression classification under the secondary division.
c. Plain Impression a. Radial loop, plain arch and Tented arch
d. Molded Impression b. Rdial loop, Unar loop and Arch
1968.Is the type of impression taken simultaneously and c. Radial loop, Plain Arch and Ulnar loop
serves as a guide in checking the proper rolling of the d. Radial Loop, Arch, and Tented Arch
finger in the card?
a. Rolled Impression 1982.In ridge counting a loop on the middle finger what is the
b. Plain Impression classification of 14 ridge count.
c. Contaminated with colored substance a. Inner Loop
d. Molded Prints b. Outer Loop
c. Medium a. Ridge count of the first plain whorl
d. Small b. Ridge count of the first whorl
1983.What patterns are almost always represented by a dash c. No key division to derived
in the classification formula except in the secondary d. Just indicate Dash
division. 1997.In the event that same fingers of both hand is missing
a. Ulnar loop and Plain Arch what will be the pattern interpretation of the two missing
b. Whorl and Arch fingers.
c. Plain and Tented Arch a. Plain Whorl
d. Ulnar and Whorl b. Plain Whorl With Meeting Tracing
1984.It is a type of a whorl pattern in which when the tracing c. Dash
ridge flows below the right delta and there are five d. Same as the pattern of the next fingers
intervening ridges.
a. Outer Whorl
b. Meeting Whorl 1998.It is the term applied to cases of missing or cut finger?
c. Inner Whorl a. Mutilated finger
d. Accidental Whorl b. Amputated finger
1985.In the course of tracing a whorl pattern, once the tracing c. Fragmentary finger
splits into two branches the tracing will proceed on the: d. Deformities
a. next ridge counting below the bifurcation ridge 1999.What will be the primary Division if all fingers are
b. upper line of the bifurcation amputated.
c. Lower limb a. 1/1
d. next ridge just below b. 31/31
1986.It refers to the number of ridges that appears between c. 32/32
the tracing ridge and the right delta of a whorl pattern. d. 16/16
a. Ridge Count 2000.What division will be left blank in the classification
b. Intervening Ridge formula if all fingers are missing?
c. Incipient ridge a. Major and Final Division
d. Ridge tracing b. Key and Major Division
1987.A Loop with ridge count of 16 in the right is interpreted as c. Major and sub-secondary
____, if the left thumb has 17 ridge count. d. key and final Division
a. Small 2001.Menstruation usually commences at the age of?
b. Medium a. 14
c. Large b. 13
d. Exceptional c. 16
1988.A ridge count of 17 in the left thumb is interpreted as d. 12
____ when the right thumb reaches 17. 2002.What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust, or
a. Small two of the three basic characteristics of the loop?
b. Large a. Plain arch
c. Medium b. tented arch
d. Exceptional c. central pocket loop
1989.What do you call a loop in the left thumb having a ridge d. accidental whorl
count of 17 or more. 2003.Is the process of counting the ridges which intervene
a. Small between the delta and core of a loop?
b. Medium a. ridge tracing
c. Large b. ridge counting
d. Exceptional c. ridge tracking
1990.What division in the fingerprint classification is derived by d. ridge summing
ridge counting a loop and tracing a whorl on the thumb. 2004.In assigning the numerical value of whorl pattern, what
a. Key Division finger should be given a value of 4 when a whorl pattern
b. Final Division appears therein:
c. Major Division a. left little finger and right thumb
d. Secondary Division b. right thumb and left little finger
1991.What division in the classification is place at extreme c. right little finger and left thumb
right of the fingerprint card represented by a numerical d. left thumb and right
value. 2005.If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and all the
a. key fingers of the left hand are loops, what will be the primary
b. final division?
c. Major a. 25/29
d. Primary c. 24/28
1992.Final Division is derived by getting the ridge count of a b. 29/25
loop or a whorl appearing on the; d. 28/24
a. Little Finger 2006.What would be the secondary division if all the fingers at
b. Thumb Finger right hand are plain arches while all the left hand fingers
c. Index Finger are tented arches?
d. Middle Finger
1993.The key Division is derived by getting the ridge count of a. aA3a/tT3T
the c. A2a/tT2t
a. ulnar Loop b. aT3a/aA3t
b. Radial Loop d. tT3t/aA3a
c. First Loop 2007.What division in the formula classification is left blank if
d. First Radial Loop all fingers are amputated?
1994.What Fingers are not included in looking for a loop in the a. Major and key
key division? b. key and final
a. Both Index c. Key and primary
b. Both little d. final and major
c. Both thumb 2008.The word Photography was coined by _____?
d. Both middle a. John F. W. Herschel
1995.In the case of a missing one digit in the fingerprint card of b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre
a subject, said missing finger will be interpreted as. c. Henry Fox Talbot
a. Amputated finger d. Leonardo Da Venci
b. Same as the corresponding digit of the other 2009.What color will produced if r RED and BLUE colors are
hand combined each other?
c. Meeting whorl a. magenta
d. Outer loop c. yellow
1996.If in case that there were no loop on all fingers, how will b. cyan
the key be obtained. d. Green
a. Diosdado P Macapagal
2010.Which of the following are NOT considered as the b. Emilio Aguinaldo
primary colors, EXCEPT. c. Segio Osmena
a. yellow d. Apolinario Mabini
b. Blue 2024.How many security features are there in the new 500
c. Green peso bill?
d. Red a. 8
2011.The act of attempting to interpret the character or b. 9
personality of an individual from his handwriting. c. 7
a. paleography d. 6
b. collation 2025.How many security features are there in the new 1000
c. graphology peso bill?
d. cacography a. 8
2012.In Q.D it is the term used by some document examiners b. 9
and attorneys to characterize known material. c. 7
a. exemplar d. 6
b. evidence 2026.The equipment is Forensic Ballistics that measures the
c. questioned pitch of rifling is:
d. disputed a. Chronograph
2013.In Q.D it is the term used when a person having the b. Helixometer
ability to write with both left and right. c. Micrometer
a. cacography d. Taper gauge
b. calligraphy 2027.A magnified photograph of a small object produced by
c. calcography connecting a camera with the ocular of a compound
d. ambidextrous microscope is:
2014.Which of the following are NOT considered as the a. Photomacrograph
secondary colors, EXCEPT. b. Microphotograph
a. yellow c. Photomicrograph
b. Blue d. Photography
c. Green 2028. A center-fire cartridge case whose rim diameter is
d. Red smaller than the diameter of the body of the case:
2015.An interruption in a stroke caused by removing the writing a. Rimmed cartridge
instrument from the paper is called.. b. Rebated cartridge
a. pen emphasis c. Tapered cartridge
b. pen pressure d. Rimless cartridge
c. pen jump 2029.. If a bullet is fired through a weapon in which the lands
d. pen lift have been worn down or through a bore is slightly
2016.The term document came from latin word “documentum”, oversize or oily, the marks are called:
which means. a. Skid marks
a. write b. Slippage marks
b. to teach c. Rifling marks
c. lesson d. Shearing marks
d. paper 2030. When two specimens are compared under the
comparison microscope at the same direction, the same
2017.It is the extra deposit of ink in the initial and terminal level, the same magnification and the same image, they
stroke due to the slow withdrawal of the pen from the are called:
paper ( usually applicable to the fountain pen). a. a. Positively match
whirl b. Pseudo match
b. knob c. Juxtaposition
c. sour d. Drag marks
d. loop 2031. In the United States, crimes are committed by juveniles
using home-made weapons generally referred to as:
2018.The portrait printed in the 20 peso-bill is a. Freakish device
a. Manuel Quezon b. Zip guns
b. Emilio Aguinaldo c. Matchlock
c. Segio Osmena d. Flare guns
d. Apolinario Mabini 2032. A copper jacketed fired bullet is usually fired from:
a. Revolver
2019.The only security features that the BSP was portrait in the b. Pistol
new 500 and 1,000 peso bill is. c. Rifle
a. optically variable ink d. Pistol & Revolver
b. optical device 2033.. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of:
c. optical ink a. 730”
d. optically variable device b. 728”
c. 729”
2020.It is Embossed “1000” denominated value at the lower d. 724”
right corner of the face of the note changes color from 2034. A complete unfired unit ammunition is inserted into the
green to blue when viewed at different angles chamber of firearm for firing is referred to as:
a. optically variable ink a. Bullet
b. optical device b. Shell
c. optical ink c. Primer
d. optically variable device d. Cartridge
2021.What changes of color of the parrot in 500 peso bill and 2035. Rifling located inside the barrel of a gun is a combination
the clam in 1000 peso when the note is rotated at 90 of:
degrees? a. Pitch
a. blue to green b. Twist
b. green to blue c. Lands & grooves
c. red to green d. Cannelures
d. green to red 2036. Class characteristics are determinable even:
2022.The new banknote of the BSP is made of what kind of a. During
paper. b. After
a. abaca-cotton c. Before
b. plastic-polymer d. Never the manufactures of the firearm
c. abaca 2037. The caliber is determined with the aid of:
d. cotton a. Combined microscope
2023.The portrait printed in the 200 peso-bill is b. Micrometer
c. Macrometer b. Unknown criminals
d. Manufacturer of the firearm c. Convicted criminals
2038. An investigator who recovered a fired bullet from the d. Unidentified criminals
crime scene will request the ballistician to determine: 2051.Compilation of known criminals available from police files
a. Owner of the firearm and records.
b. Model of the firearm a. Rouge gallery
c. Caliber and types of the firearm b. General photograph
d. Manufacture c. Police blotter
2039.. That science which deals with the motion of the d. Modus operandi files
projectiles at the time it leaves the muzzle of the gun to 2052.Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is
the time it hits the target is known as: necessary.
a. Terminal ballistics a. Loose tail
b. Interior ballistics b. Rough shadowing
c. Exterior ballistics c. Close tail
d. Forensic ballistics d. None of the foregoing
2040. That science dealing with the effect of the impact of the 2053.The best way to label clothing to be used as evidence is:
projectile on target is called: a. Place it in a pill box and label it
a. Exterior ballistics b. Mark it by an inscription in ink at the lining
b. Interior ballistics c. Place it in a plastic bag and label it
c. Anterior ballistics d. Tag it with a label
d. Terminal ballistics 2054.To ensure privacy and avoid distraction an interrogation
room must be:
2041.What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal drugs? a. With no windows or views
a. Lot Lizards b. There should only be one door
b. Hookers c. It must be sound proof
c. Skeezers d. All of the choices
d. Hustler 2055.In this type of interrogation the investigator must have
2042.It is the occasional or selective type of prostitute. She is great knowledge of the case and is preferable when the
usually a newcomer in the business? subject is not the talkative type.
a. Door knocker a. Narrative type
b. Street walker b. Question and answer type
c. Call girl c. Stern type
d. skeezers d. Simple interrogation
2043.are the real professional type of prostitutes. She works in 2056.What should the investigator do to protect while in
regular houses of prostitution or brothels? transport those collected evidence from the crime scene?
a. Door knocker a. Seal it
b. Street walker b. Mark it
c. Call Girl c. Pack it properly
d. Factory Girl d. Label it
2044.These are the part-time prostitutes. They have their own 2057.Shadowing has the following purposes, except:
legitimate work or profession but works as a prostitutes to a. To detect evidences of criminal activities
supplement their income? b. To establish association of a suspect
a. Door knocker c. To locate wanted persons
b. Street walker d. None of the foregoing
c. Call Girl 2058.“A” wanted to kill “B” the former pointed his gun to the
d. Factory Girl latter, as “A” pressed the trigger, the gun jammed and “B”
2045.The following countries which comprises the Golden managed to escape. This is an example of:
Triangle, EXCEPT. a. Attempted felony
a. Vietnam b. Frustrated felony
b. Thailand c. Consummated felony
c. Myanmar d. Consummated felony
d. Laos 2059.Kind of recognition whereby the description and
2046.Is a serial cheater who betrays his spouse or long term characteristics maybe vague that identification is difficult.
partner repeatedly? a. Known fugitives
b. Professional criminals
a. philander c. Ordinary criminals
b. prostitution d. Unknown fugitives
c. philandering
d. prostitute 2060.The methods of determining and finding the best
2047.What do you call a prostitute who offers services to way to remedy the specific cause or causes of the
female customers? complaint or grievance refers to:
a. gigolo a. Cross examination
b. pimps b. Grievance procedures
c. callboy c. Investigative procedure
d. Johns d. Criminal procedures
2048.A vehicle downhill with a slope of 0.15 and a drag factor 2061.A type of informant reveals information usually of no
of 0.70 leaves a skid marks of 20.6 meters, what is the consequence of stuff produced from thin air.
approximate speed of the said vehicle when involved in a. False informant
accident. . b. Double-crosser informant
a. 64 kms./hour c. Mercenary informant
b. 54 kms./hour d. Frightened informant
c. 46 km.s/hour 2062.Clandestine operation in police parlance.
d. 45 kms./hour a. Covert intelligence
2049.This method of identification depends on the ability of b. Secret activity
the witness to describe the person seen committing the c. Over intelligence
crime. d. Surveillance
a. Verbal description 2063.It is an art which deals with the identity and
b. Photographic files location of the offender and provides evidence of
c. Police line up his guilt through criminal proceeding.
d. General photograph a. Information
b. Interrogation
c. Instrumentation
d. Investigation
2050.Criminals whose identity may be established background 2064.Special crime investigation is more concerned on:
identification. a. Physical evidence
a. Known criminals b. Tracing evidence
c. Testimonial evidence d. Finished sketch
d. Associative evidence 2078.Most common reason in discharging informants
2065.Is a person who provides an investigator with a. Burn out
confidential information concerning a past or b. Too expensive to maintain
projected crime and does not wish to be known as c. Lack of loyalty
a source of information. d. Reprehensible behavior
a. Informants 2079.Object usually utilized in marking hard objects.
b. Witness a. Stylus
c. Informers b. Pen
d. Confidential informants c. Ink
2066.Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge d. Chalk
information. 2080.A form of investigation in which an investigator assumes
a. Interview a different and unofficial identity.
b. Interrogation a. Tailing
c. Investigation b. Shadowing
d. All of the foregoing c. Surveillance
2067.A compilation of photographs of known criminals, utilized d. Roping
in investigation for identifying suspects in a crime. 2081.Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing to talk.
a. Photographic file a. Narrative type
b. 201 file b. Interrogation type
c. Rogue gallery c. Question and answer type
d. Cartographic sketch d. Stern type
2068.This is an element of crime commission wherein one is 2082.Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty of a
induced to commit the crime. person taken into custody.
a. Motive a. Protective custody
b. Intent b. Detaining for questioning
c. Opportunity c. Police restraint
d. Deceit d. All of the choices
2069.In a police line-up, in which the purpose is to eliminate 2083.Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime
the power of suggestion as a factor in identification as a scene as well as the objects, what naturally occurred and
procedure how many persons is needed in such a line-up? what were the circumstances of the crime.
a. 3 to 5 a. Crime scene
b. 5 to 7 b. Physical reconstruction
c. 7 to 10 c. Mental reconstruction
d. 10 to 15 d. Reconstruction of the crime
2070.It is the physical possibility that the suspect could have
committed the crime. 2084.Paid informants
a. Motive a. Anonymous informants
b. Intent b. Rival elimination informants
c. Opportunity c. False informants
d. Deceit d. Mercenary informants
2071.Motive in giving information wherein the informant 2085.Most common type of shadowing.
delights in giving information to gain favorable a. One man shadow
attention from the police. b. Two man shadow
a. Competition c. Three man shadow
b. Repentance d. Rough shadow
c. Vanity 2086.Articles and materials which are found in connection with
d. Jealousy the investigation and which aid in establishing the identity
2072.Employed where a general impression of the subject’s of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the
habits and associate are required. crime was committed or which, in general assist in the
a. Surveillance prosecution of the criminal.
b. Loose tail shadowing a. Tracing evidence
c. Rough shadowing b. Corpus delicti
d. Close tail shadowing c. Associative evidence
2073.More advantageous because it permits immediate d. Physical or material evidence
changes of men and less likely to be recognized. 2087.Instrumental detection of deception
a. One man shadow a. Ballistic test
b. Two man shadow b. Fingerprint test
c. Three man shadow c. Questioned document test
d. ABC method d. Polygraph testing
2074.In this method of search, the searchers proceed slowly at 2088.When the subject is in prone position what type of search
the same pace along the path parallel to one side of the should be implemented.
rectangle. At the end of the rectangle, the searcher turns a. Kneeling search
and proceeds back along new lanes but parallel to the first b. Standing search
movement. c. Floor search
a. Zone method d. Wall search
b. Strip method 2089.This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the
c. Spiral method arrest. To discover weapons or evidences and determine
d. Wheel method the identity of the suspects.
2075.In this method, the area to be searched is divided into a. Preliminary search of a person
quadrant and each searcher is assigned in each quadrant. b. Wall search
a. Zone method c. Standing search
b. Strip method d. Floor search
c. Spiral method 2090.Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft in an
d. Wheel method automobile, which has been stolen and abandoned.
2076.The surroundings of the crime scene must be photograph a. Dashboard
to show the relative location and distances. b. Door handles
a. Environmental photograph c. Steering wheel
b. Physical reconstruction d. Rear view mirror
c. Overview 2091.Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to the
d. Over-all photograph law enforcers in order to get more information from them
2077.Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No scale, than he gives.
proportion ignored and everything is approximate. a. Double-crosser informants
a. Sketch b. Mercenary informants
b. Draft c. False informants
c. Rough sketch d. Self-aggrandizing informants
2092.That profession and scientific discipline directed to the 2106.It is the surprise invasion of building or an area.
recognition, identification, individualization and evaluation a. Assault
of physical science by application of natural sciences in b. Attack
matters of law and science. c. Raid
a. Chemist d. Surveillance
b. Scientist 2107.Primary requisite for conducting raids.
c. Criminalistics a. Search warrant
d. Toxicologist b. Raiding team
2093.Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense are c. Firearms
committed in one place. d. Back-up personnel
a. Local crimes 2108.A public officer when not being authorized by
b. Local action judicial order, shall enter a dwelling against the will
c. Transitory crimes of the owner thereof is committing:
d. Transitory action a. Legal entry
2094.The number of persons who handle the pieces of b. Violation of domicile
evidence from the scene of the crime and between the c. Trespassing
times of the commission up to final disposition of cases. d. Illegal entry
2109.A person undergoing custodial investigation enjoy his
a. Time custody constitutional rights namely:
b. Time disposition a. The right to oppose whatever accusation on him.
c. Time disposal b. The right to plea guilty and not guilty
d. Chain of custody c. The right to remain silent, to counsel and the right
to be informed of such rights.
2095.A declaration made under the consciousness of an d. The right to face his accuser in public trial
impending death.
a. Part of res gestate 2110.A type of informant reveals information usually of no
b. Dying Declaration consequences of stuff concocted of thin air.
c. Confession a. False informant
d. admission b. Mercenary informant
2096.Principles of science applied to law enforcement. c. Double crosser informant
a. Instrumentation d. Self-aggrandizing informant
b. Forensic 2111.Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are
c. Legal medicines committed in many places.
d. Criminology a. Local crime
2097.Evidence which offers least resistance to decomposition b. Local action
a. Blood c. Transitory crime
b. Semen d. Transitory action
c. Saliva
d. Hair 2112.The primary job of an investigator is to determine whether
2098.The sketch shows the crime scene with its nearest a crime has been committed, in order to determine such,
physical surroundings. he must have knowledge of the so-called cardinal
a. Finished sketch questions of investigation. How many cardinal questions
b. Sketch of details are there?
c. Sketch of locality a. Three
d. Sketch of grounds b. Four
2099.The explanation of any symbols used to identify objects c. Five
in a sketch. d. Six
a. Compass direction 2113.In bank robberies, this person is in charge of
b. Title transportation by stealing the vehicle and providing plate
c. Legend on it.
d. Scale a. Drivers
2100.Such articles and evidences which assists the b. Ripper
investigator in locating the suspect. c. Wheelman
a. Physical evidence d. Rover
b. Material evidence 2114.Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to
c. Associative evidence facilitate proper sketch orientation.
d. Tracing evidence a. Proper north
2101.Objects or substances which are essential part of the b. True north
body of the crime. c. Legend
a. Corpus delicti d. Compass direction
b. Physical evidences 2115.A search method in which the searchers follow each other
c. Material evidences in the path of the coiled beginning from the outside
d. Associative evidences proceeding toward the center.
2102.The primary consideration in transporting evidences. a. Zone method
a. Markings should be placed b. Wheel method
b. Proper turnover must be observed c. Spiral method
c. Avoid altering contents d. Strip method
d. Proper packing to protect the evidence while in 2116.Taking into custody property described in the search
transit warrant as a result of a search, to be utilized as evidence
2103.General rule in handling pieces of evidence in a case.
a. MAC rule a. Seizure
b. Right of way rule b. Detention
c. Last clear chance rule c. Safekeeping
d. None of the choices d. Confiscation
2104.In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained areas 2117.A method of criminal identification whereby the
are usually encircled. What is the primary objective? perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals are
a. To show points of interest identified by depiction.
b. To have proper marking a. Verbal description
c. To avoid contamination b. General photographs
d. To prevent alterations c. Police line up
2105.If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve the d. Rouge gallery
specimen? 2118.Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants.
a. Formaldehyde a. Sprinkler
b. Saline solution b. Fire pump
c. Alcohol c. Fire hose
d. Distilled water d. Hydrant key
c. Thermal balance
d. Thermal imbalance
2119.Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a 2133.Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke
result of its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid and fire gases within a building or structure under natural
drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings. conditions.
a. Dust a. Free radicals
b. Oxidizing material b. Pyrolysis
c. Pyrolysis c. Thermal balance
d. Cryogenic d. Thermal imbalance
2120.Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at 2134.In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its
which vapors are evolved fast enough to support destructive capabilities is developed.
continuous combustion. a. Initial phase
a. Ignition temperature b. Incipient phase
b. Kindling temperature c. Free burning phase
c. Fire point d. Smoldering phase
d. Flash point 2135.A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.
2121.The temperature at which flammable liquid form a vapor- a. The fire triangle
air mixture that ignites. b. The fingerprint of the fire
a. Ignition temperature c. Flashover
b. Kindling temperature d. Incipient phase of the fire
c. Fire point 2136.An occurrence when the heat has brought the
d. Flash point combustible portion of the ceiling to their ignition
2122.Minimum temperature in which the substance in temperature, it is characterized by a sudden burst or
the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause shooting forth light and flames.
a self-contained combustion without the addition of a. Flashover
heat from outside sources. b. Backdraft
a. Boiling point c. Thermal balance
b. Ignition temperature d. Thermal imbalance
c. Fire point 2137.An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it
d. Flash point is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen.
2123.An exothermic chemical change in which a combustible a. Flashover
material react with an oxidizing agent. b. Backdraft
a. Thermal balance c. Thermal balance
b. Thermal imbalance d. Thermal imbalance
c. Combustion 2138.Which among the following is the primary objective in
d. Oxidation investigating fires?
2124.Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light. a. To determine its cause
a. Pyrolysis b. To prevent recurrence
b. Combustion c. To determine liable persons
c. Detonation d. All of the foregoing
d. All of the foregoing 2139.Reason why fire investigation is unique.
2125.A chemical decomposition of matter through the action of a. It does not conform with regular investigative
heat. procedure
a. Pyrolysis b. Unavailability of witnesses
b. Combustion c. Fire destroys evidence
c. Detonation d. All of the foregoing
d. Oxidation 2140.They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.
2126.Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of a. Providential
the material with unit temperature gradient. b. Accidental
a. Conduction c. Intentional
b. Thermal conductivity d. Incendiarism
c. Radiation 2141.A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat and
d. Fission oxygen.
2127.A means of heat transfer when energy travels through a. Fire
space or materials as waves. b. Origin of fire
a. Conduction c. Fire triangle
b. Convection d. All of the foregoing
c. Radiation 2142.Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns.
d. Fission a. Fuel
2128.It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a b. Heat
motive. c. Oxygen
a. Providential fire d. Gas
b. Accidental fire 2143.A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating
c. Intentional fire medium either gas or a liquid.
d. None of the foregoing a. Conduction
2129.Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in the b. Convection
case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788. c. Radiation
a. Arson d. Fission
b. Providential fire 2144.The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.
c. Accidental fire a. Specific heat
d. None of the foregoing b. Latent heat
2130.First element known to man by experience, a colorless, c. Heat of Combustion
tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and fire. d. Heat of fusion
a. Nitrogen 2145.Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or
b. Hydrogen natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air.
c. Oxygen a. Carbon black
d. Neon b. Lamp black
2131.Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to c. Soot
start a fire. d. Black bone
a. Fuel 2146.Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed
b. Oxygen vapor as a result of combustion.
c. Heat a. Fire
d. None of the choices b. Flame
2132.Refers to gases liberated by heat. c. Heat
a. Free radicals d. Smoke
b. Flash point 2147.Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation.
a. Fire d. Single family dwellings
b. Flame 2162.Enclosed vertical passage that extends from floor to floor,
c. Heat as well as from the base to top of the building.
d. Smoke a. Standpipe system
2148.The threat to arson investigators after fire has been b. Sprinkler system
contained. c. Vertical shaft
a. Backdraft d. Flash point
b. Flashover 2163.Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning resistance rating of not less than four hours with structural
d. Falling debris stability to remain standing even if the adjacent
2149.Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames construction collapses under fire conditions:
indicates the burning of what material? a. Post wall
a. Rubber b. Fire trap
b. Nitrogen products c. Fire wall
c. Asphalt singles d. Firewood
d. Chlorine 2164.A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local
2150.Which among the following is commonly used in fire government for any particular establishment.
resistant materials? a. Fire service
a. Asbestos b. Fire safety inspection
b. Diamond c. Fire drill
c. Asphalt d. Fire protection assembly
d. Cotton 2165.Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to another.
2151.A form of static electricity of great magnitude producing a. Radiation
tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the most common b. Convection
cause of providential fires. c. Conduction
a. Rays of the sun d. Fission
b. Spontaneous heating 2166.The active principle of burning characterized by the heat
c. Arcing and light of combustion.
d. Lighting a. Oxidation
2152.Most common source of accidental fire is related to: b. Flash point
a. Smoking c. Smoldering
b. Arcing d. Fire
c. Sparkling 2167.Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction
d. Overloading takes place.
2153.A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the a. Endothermic reactions
room or throughout the structure. b. Exothermic reactions
a. Accelerant c. Oxidation
b. Plants d. Combustion
c. Trailer 2168.Product of an incomplete combustion.
d. Wick a. Soot
2154.Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a b. Charring
contrivance to hasten the start of fire. c. Ashes
a. Accelerant d. All of foregoing
b. Plants 2169.Color of a luminous flame.
c. Trailer a. Orange-blue
d. Wick b. Blue
2155.Most common reason of arson cases. c. Yellow
a. Revenge d. Red
b. Profit 2170.Refers to the amount of heat released during complete
c. Competition oxidation whereby the organic fuel is converted to water
d. All of the foregoing and carbon dioxide.
2156.Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material. a. Heat of combustion
a. Spontaneous heating b. Calorific value
b. Combustible gases c. Fuel value
c. Combustible dust d. All of the foregoing
d. None of the choices 2171.Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance
2157.Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials to when it changes state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas.
start a fire. a. Calorie
a. Plants b. Latent heat
b. Trailers c. Thermal heat
c. Accelerants d. Specific heat
d. Wick 2172.Refers to gases that remain when the products of
2158.Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard. combustion are cooled to normal temperature.
a. Abatement a. Fire gases
b. Combustion b. Combustion gases
c. Allotment c. Oxidation gases
d. Distillation d. Flame
2159.The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry 2173.Fires caused by human error and negligence.
materials with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly a. Providential fires
known as: b. Intentional fires
a. Black bone c. Accidental fires
b. Used petroleum d. Incendiarism
c. Soot 2174.Primary component of wood
d. Black iron a. Fiber
2160.The use of more electrical devices which draw or b. Cellulose
consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity c. Carbon
of the existing electrical system. d. Pulp
a. Overloading 2175.During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern or
b. Jumper fingerprint of fire is developed.
c. Wire tapping a. Incipient phase
d. Arcing b. Initial phase
2161.One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% of c. Free burning phase
the assessed value of the building: d. Smoldering phase
a. Schools 2176.Phase whereby the fire can no longer support the flame
b. Department stores and carbon monoxide builds up in volume.
c. Hospitals a. Incipient
b. Initial phase 2191.A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of
c. Free burning phase potent Cannabis Sativa.
d. Smoldering phase a. Marijuana
2177.Most effective way of regulating vices. b. Hashish
a. Continued police action by relentless drives in c. Opium
vice control d. Morphine
b. Sincere and honest law enforcement 2192.Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”, meaning
c. Both a and b sleep, what is the other term given to narcotics?
d. None of the choices a. Opium
2178.Refers to persons who after prolonged and excessive b. Opiates
intake of alcoholic beverages develops physical and c. Morphine
psychological changes and dependence to alcohol. d. Heroin
a. Alcoholics 2193.It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana.
b. Liquor addicts a. Tetrahydrocannabinol
c. Drunkard b. Cannabis sativa
d. Chronic alcoholics c. Papaver somniferum
2179.A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants which d. Methamphetamine
contains alcohol. 2194.Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily used
a. Liquor as:
b. Wine a. Pain killer
c. Booze b. Cough reliever
d. Vodka c. Stimulant
2180.Refers to a person who manages or owns houses of ill- d. Depressant
refute whereby the business of prostitution is conducted. 2195.Who among the following acts as the chairman of the
a. Operator DDB?
b. Banker a. Secretary of Justice
c. Mama b. Secretary of National Defense
d. Pimp c. Secretary of Education
2181.Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse d. Secretary of Health
with another for hire. 2196.Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning walking drug,
a. Prostitute it was brought to the Philippines by a Japanese tourist.
b. Whores a. Marijuana
c. Knockers b. Cocaine
d. All of the foregoing c. Shabu
2182.The procurement and transportation of women from far d. Opium
flung places for immoral purposes. 2197.The most potent derivative from opium.
a. White slavery a. Codeine
b. Prostitution b. Cocaine
c. Organized crimes c. Morphine
d. All of the foregoing d. Heroin
2183.This place usually lodges several number of factory girls 2198.Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in
or professional prostitutes under the control of an Bolivia and first used by the Incas of Peru.
organized crime ring. a. Tetrahydrocannabinol
a. Disorderly houses b. Papaver somniferum
b. Furnished room houses c. Amphetamine
c. Call houses d. Erythroxylon coca
d. Massage clinics 2199.The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical
2184.Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the means name is “Methy Dioxy Methamphetamine”.
with which to carry on the gambling game. a. Chomper
a. Maintainer b. Ecstacy
b. Conductor c. Shabu
c. Banker d. Heroin
d. Operator 2200.Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to
2185.Anti gambling law circumvent legal restrictions.
a. PD 1869 a. Designer drugs
b. PD 1612 b. Hallucinogens
c. PD 1602 c. Amphetamines
d. PD 1866 d. Methamphetamines
2186.Social causes of prostitution are the following, except 2201.A law which prohibits government officials to enter and
a. Broken families gamble in Philippine casinos.
b. Poverty a. PD 1602
c. Anonymity of city life b. PD 1869
d. All of the choices c. PD 510
2187.Refers to a person having no apparent means of d. PD 483
subsistence. 2202.Office that controls and regulates gambling.
a. Gambler a. PAGCOR
b. Prostitute b. PCGG
c. Vagrants c. PACC
d. None of the foregoing d. PNP
2188.Penalty provided for by law which punishes white slave 2203.A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance among
trade. persons who have paid or agreed to pay a valuable
a. Prision correctional consideration for the chance to obtain a prize.
b. Prison mayor a. Gambling
c. Reclusion temporal b. Sport
d. Reclusion perpetua c. Lottery
2189.A person who manages or carries a gambling game. d. All of the choices
a. Maintainer 2204.A bet or consideration placed on gambling games.
b. Conductor a. Wage
c. Banker b. Wager
d. Operator c. Prize
2190.Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to maintain d. Banker
the same effect. 2205.Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as much as
a. Tolerance 25% of the substance:
b. Physical dependence a. Hashish
c. Poly drug abuse b. Codeine
d. Drug experimenter c. Morphine
d. Heroin a. Disorderly houses
2206.Amphetamine is a representative of good class of b. Furnished room houses
stimulants known as: c. Call houses
a. Crank d. Massage clinics
b. Pep pills 2220.The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the
c. Knock-out drops world originated is located specifically in:
d. Stick a. Thailand-Burma-China border
2207.Agency which supervises the enforcement of law on b. Laos-Thailand-China border
prohibited and regulated drugs. c. Thailand-Burma-Laos border
a. DDB d. Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border
b. NBI 2221.Grass of marijuana, is a crude drug made from
c. PACC Cannabis Sativa a plant that contains meal altering
d. PNP ingredient. Which among the following is not an
2208.Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy immediate effect of weed?
or dullness of the mind with delusions. a. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate
a. Narcotics b. Impaired reflexes coordination and concentration
b. Stimulants c. Acute panic, anxiety reaction – external fear of
c. Depressants losing control
d. Hallucinogens d. Altered sense of time/disorientation
2209.Chemical substance which effects a person in such a 2222.A drug-obtained from the leaves of coca, a South
way as to bring out physiological, behavioral or emotional American shrub. It is a central nervous system stimulant.
change. a. Marijuana
a. Alcohol b. Shabu
b. Coca leaf c. Cocaine
c. Drug d. Opiates
d. Marijuana 2223.A game or scheme the result of which depends wholly
2210.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying upon chance or hazard.
emotions, thought disruption and ego distortion. a. Gambling
a. Depressants b. Sports
b. Tranquilizers c. Tupada
c. Hallucinogens d. All of the above
d. Stimulants 2224.Study reveal that the reason why “ Marijuana” is difficult
2211.An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which to control is that:
leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind a. The big demand
and body. b. The plant can be easily cultivated
a. Abuse c. Can easily be smuggled from outside the country
b. Vice d. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously
c. Addiction 2225. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is
d. Gambling reluctant to divulge information?
2212.A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock A. interview
owners and other bettors. C. interrogation
a. Promoter B. information
b. “Cristo” D. instrumentation
c. Banker 2226.It is what induces the criminal to act and not to be shown
d. Gambler in order to obtain conviction?
2213.Most common problem encountered by the police in vice A. intent
control measures: B.desire
a. Unwillingness of government officials to work C. motive
against vices D. opportunity
b. Lack of cooperation from the victims of vices 2227.Information gathered upon initiative of the investigator
c. Public apathy from informants, vendors, taxicab driver, GRO, and others.
d. Clandestine nature of the commission of the acts A. Grapevine Sources
2214.The process of undergoing or producing gradual B. Cultivated Sources
chemical change which later becomes sour or alcoholic. C.Regular Sources
a. Distillation D.Cognitive interview
b. Fermentation 2228.What interrogation techniques when the investigator
c. Ionization indicates he does not consider his subject’s indiscretion a
d. Purification grave offense.
2215.A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes A. Sympathetic Appeal
argumentative and over confident. B. Mutt and Jeff
a. Slight inebration C Extenuation
b. Moderate inebration D. Emotional Appeal
c. Drunk 2229.It is a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling
d. Coma short of an acknowledgment of guilt.
2216.This method of therapy of alcoholics is based on
conversion and fellowship. a. Confession
a. Aversion treatment b. Extra-Judicial Confession
b. Psychotherapy method c. Admission
c. Withdrawal method d. Judicial Confession
d. Program of alcoholic anonymous
2217.Oldest profession known to man which involves habitual 2230.It refers to Police files of Photograph of known criminals,
indulgement in sexual intercourse for money or profit. their Modus Operandi, hiding places and names of
a. Gambling associate criminals.
b. Prostitution a. Physical Line-up
c. Addiction b. Physical Show-up
d. All of the foregoing c. Geographic Sketch
2218.Classy type of prostitute who engages in prostitution to d. Rogues Gallery
supplement their income. 2231.It is the general questioning of all persons at the crime
a. Call girls scene/ traffic accident, no need to recite the Miranda
b. Factory girls doctrine
c. Hustler A. Custodial Investigation
d. Door knocker B. Interview
C. Field Inquiry
2219.Usually operated by experienced madam, who rent D. Interrogation
legitimate roomers to maintain an appearance of 2232.It is a distinct pattern of how a crime is committed and is
responsibility. established by a series of crimes under one classification.
A. Modus Operandi 2244.One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical
B. Modes of Operation representation must indicate the ____ direction for proper
C. Methods of Operation orientation of the scene.
D. Pattern of Operation A. North
2233.It refers to a person who gives information relevant to a B. West
criminal case about the activities of the criminals C. East
voluntarily to the investigator and who may even be willing D. South
to be a witness. 2245.The following are the rules to be observed when
A. Informant intervening a witness, EXCEPT:
B. Informer a. allow implied answer
C. Mercenary b. saving faces
D. Women c. one question at a time
2234.Methods of Search whereby the searchers will proceed at d. avoid leading questions
the same place along the path parallel to one side of the 2246.In case there is no other available means of establishing
rectangle. the age of the offender, what should be done if he claims
A. Wheel search method that he is still a minor?
B.Quadrant Search a. Do not listen to his claim because probably he is
C. Spiral search method already of majority age.
D. Strip Search b. Wait for the court to determine the age of the
2235.Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence in offender
court; it should be taken from ____. c. Resolve the issued in favor of the declarant
A. General View d. Ask the social worker to determine the age of the
C. Close-up view offender
B. Mid-range 2247.24. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime incident
D. General to Specific shall have the following duties, EXCEPT:
2236. It is the simplest and most effective way of showing a. Record the date and time the report was made
actual measurements and of identifying significant items of b. Immediately respond to the crime scene
evidence in their location at the scene. c. Made a synopsis of the incident
A. Sketch d. Inform his superior officer or duty officer
B. Rough Sketch regarding the report
C. Final Sketch 2248. What is the area located adjacent to the crime scene
D. Finish Sketch where the briefing is to be conducted and also the place
2237. What kind of Sketch gives picture of the scene of the where the evidence custodian receives the evidence
crime and its environs, including neighboring buildings, collected during crime scene investigation?
roads, etc.? A. crime scene
a. Sketch of Locality C. fixed post
b. Sketch of Environs B. command post
c. Sketch of the Ground D. reception area
d. Sketch in Details 2249. In preliminary survey of the crime scene, the team leader
2238.Elements of the Sketch: performs the following duties, EXCEPT:
a. Measurement and compass direction a. Takes down note to document important factors
b. Essential items and scale of proportion b. Makes a general assessment of the crime scene
c. Legend and title c. Photograph the crime scene before walking
d. All of the choices through the crime scene
2239.During a custodial investigation, Jayson was subjected to d. Defines the extent of search area
physical harm by continuously kicking and punching him in 2250. What is the purpose of conducting final survey of the
the stomach so that the same may confess. crime scene?
A. Coercion a. To determine whether or not the processing has
B. Physical torture been completed.
C. Duress b. To turn over the scene to the Chief of Police.
D. Verbal threats c. To check all evidence gathered from the crime
2240. A person who killed his spouse but was entitled to the scene.
benefits of Article 247 of the Revised Penal Code shall d. To determine whether there is a need to request
suffer the penalty of: for additional personnel
A. Reclusion perpetua 2251. After the conduct of final survey by the team leader to
B. Death whom will the crime scene be turned over?
C. Reclusion temporal A. Chief of Police
D. Destierro B. PCP Commander
2241.The Unit now charged with conducting field operation and C. Investigator-on-case
technical investigation at the crime scene is: D. owner of the place
a. PNP Crime Laboratory 2252.Are all physical evidence found and collected at the crime
b. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group scene to be transported to the Crime Laboratory?
c. Scene of the Crime Operation a. Yes, because they were collected for examination
d. Crime Scene Investigation b. Yes, because the Investigator is not allowed to
take custody of evidence
2242. Police Officer Athan is the first officer to arrive at the c. No, because the SOCO Team has no authority to
scene of a shooting incident. he saw the victim lying on bring the evidence to the Crime Laboratory if the
the pavement sustaining multiple gun shot wounds, but investigator did not request
still moving. What is the proper course of action he should d. No, only those which require further laboratory
take? examination will be transported.
a. Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO team to 2253.Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented
arrive and locations of evidence was noted, the collection
b. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the process begins and will usually start with –
crime scene and assist him with the A. point of exit
situation. B. fragile evidence
C. Call the investigator and inquire C. large objects
about his decision concerning the victim. D. removal of cadaver
D. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the 2254.Who conducts the final survey of the crime scene?
nearest hospital. A. Chief Investigator
2243. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti is ____ B. Team Leader
a. the property taken C. Chief of Police
b. the fact that the crime was committed D. Investigator-on-case
c. anything of value 2255. This is produced by forcible contact on the body by
d. Intent of the suspect sharp edged instrument like bolos, knives, and broken
glasses:
A. Incised wound
B. Punctured wound A. scale and proportion
C. Stab wound B. future use
D. Lacerated wound C. accuracy and clarity
2256.What is the means of identifying physical evidence in D.courtroom presentation
which the investigator inscribe initial date and time 2269. What is the court process requiring a person to bring
directly? documents in his possession to the courts?
A. marking a. summon
B. labeling b. subpoena ducestecum
C. tagging C.subpoena testificandum
D. none of these D. bill of particulars
2257.A knife found at the crime scene to be used as a 2270.What is the best method of collection evidence like
evidence should be marked where ____. footprints and tire prints?
A. At the tip of the blade A. Casting
B. At the frame B. Dental Stone
C. At the base C. Plaster of Paris
D. At the handle D. Photograph
2258.What may be added to blood to preserve for a week? 2271.Investigation has 3 I’s, to be precise these are the
A. Sodium Chloride information, interview/interrogation and instrumentation.
B. Sodium Fluoride Among of them information is deemed to be the most
C. Sodium Dioxide important because
D. NONE a. Information involves the elements of the crime
2259. What is the most important part of the hair? b. Information identifies the perpetrator of the crime
A. Follicle c. Information identifies witnesses that will lead to
B. Medulla the suspect
C. Root d. None of these
D. All of these 2272.Paint recovered from the victim at the scene of a hit-and-
2260.What is the minimum number of hair strands is needed? run may be particularly useful in the investigation process
A. 10 strands because the year and make of the car involved may be
B. 30 to 60 strands determinable. The paint chips evidence collected should
C. 120 strands be ideally placed on?
D. unlimited a. Clear plastic envelope
2261.Mummification is a condition of arrested decomposition b. Clear plastic container
due to the absence of moisture. It is common in hot dry c. Small plastic bag
conditions, usually takes ___ to form. d. Cotton
A. 3 months 2273.Which of the following is the primary source of evidence?
B. 1 month A. victim
C. 6 months B. crime scene
D. 1 year C. suspect
2262. A dead body was found and there is already presence of D. all of these
maggots, it indicates that the dead body was at least ___. 2274.Which among the following is an essential element of
A. 2 days parricide?
B. 5 days a. by means of treachery
C. 3 days b. relationship of the offender with the victim
D. 1 week c. relationship of the offender with the witness
2263.The lifting or removal of a dead body from the grave for d. age of the victim
the conduct of medical examination: 2275.In crime scene investigation, who determines its entry/
A. Inhumation exit?
B. Exhumation A. the prober
C. Autopsy B. SOCO
D. Interment C. COP
2264.The purpose of the autopsy is to determine which of the D. First responded
following 2276. After developing the latent print found at the crime
a. The actual cause of death of the victim scene, it is best to lift it first then take photographs as a
b. The actual killer of the victim back record, is it a correct practice and do you agree with
c. The modus operandi involved the prober?
d. The motive behind killing A. yes
2265.41. The method used to support a likely sequence of B. no
events by the observation and evaluation of physical C. maybe
evidence, as well as statement made by those involved D. It depends
with the incident: 2277.What would be the best camera position in taking
photographs showing a view of what a witness might have
a. Crime Scene Reconstruction seen?
b. Physical reconstruction a. at 6 foot distance from the camera man
c. Mental reconstruction b. parallel to the subject witness
d. Any of the above c. overhead
2266.The purposes of a crime scene search are the following, d. at the eye level
EXCEPT: 2278. Sharp-pointed steel which is used to scratch or engraved
a. To identify the method of operation the initial on a collected hard object is called?
b. To analyze physical evidence A. Collection
c. To reduce the number of suspects C. Scratcher
d. To obtain physical evidence B. Luminous
2267.In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing D. Stylus
took place, police find what to be bloodstains on the front 2279. As regards to the suspect, what will be the purpose of
door, since the unknown perpetrator and the victim who interrogation?
may die were both cut their identities need to be a. To extract illegally the confession of a suspect
established through the bloodstains. How will the police b. To extract the information he possesses
collect the stains? c. To extract a confession of admission
a. moisten a piece a clean cotton with a saline d. All of the above
solution and rub gently. 2280. Before going to court, be sure to review the ___?
b. remove the door and submit it to the crime lab a. Names of the suspect
c. scrap the stain into white paper using a clean b. Names of the witness
razor blade c. Number of the cases
d. blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in d. Facts of the cases
alcohol
2268.The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a
rough sketch is for
2281.In collecting bloodstains at the crime scene, prober must b. Prima facie evidence of theft
keep in mind that before placing the specimen in a paper c. Conclusive Evidence of Theft
packet it must be allowed first to ____? d. Conclusive Evidence of Fencing
A. Refrigerate 2293.The following are the grounds to execute a Lawful
B. Air dried warrantless arrest EXCEPT:
C. Moist A. Seized in “Plain view”
D. Freeze B. Customs search
2282.Why is it important for a perishable material to be C. Search of a moving vehicle
preserved by the way or the methods of preservation? D. None of the choices
a. So that the evidence will not be destroyed 2294.After serving the search warrant, deliver immediately the
b. In order that this evidence will reach the court in things or property seized to the ____ together with an
the same physical condition as when they were inventory duly verified under oath.
collected a. Judge who issued the warrant
c. To avoid the miscarriage of justice by the b. Prosecution Counsel
acquittal of the accused c. Requesting Party
d. All of the above d. Any of these
2283.In police photography, when one say tripod, the stand 2295.The validity period of Search Warrant is ____.
has how many legs or vertical support? A. 10 days
A. two B. No time Limit
B. four C. 15 days
C. one D. NONE
D. three 2296.The taking of a person into custody in the manner
2284.Pointed metal instrument is used to mark bullet and authorized by law for the purpose of presenting that
empty shell for person before the court to answer for the commission of a
A. proper and lasting mark crime.
B. preservation
C. marking it
D. labeling A. Search
2285.Which of the following is not the function of criminal B. Arrest
investigation? C. Initial Contact
a. Identify, locate and arrest the person who D. Warrant of Arrest
commits crime 2297. Who shall issue a Search Warrant?
b. Prosecute and convict the criminal A. Judge
c. Identify, collect and preserve evidence B. Executive Branch
d. Bring the offender to justice C. Investigator on Case
2286.Below are serious crimes which leave physical evidence, D. Prober
EXCEPT: 2298. All but one are the instances you can execute a lawful
a. Homicide warrantless arrest.
b. Carnapping and arson A. Flagrante Delicto
c. Sexual assault and robbery B. Escaped prisoner
d. Libel C. Hot pursuit Principle
2287.There are two robbers who broke into a house and D. None of these
carried away some valuables. After they left such house 2299. Physical evidence is generally given weight the courts
these two robbers decided to cut or divide the loot already because-
so that they can go of them . So while they are a. it speaks for itself
dividing the loot the other robber noticed that the one b. it cannot lie
doing the division is trying to cheat him and so he c. not affected by emotion
immediately boxed him. Now this robber who was boxed d. all of the choices
then pulled out his gun and fired at the other one killing the 2300. Physical or personal appearance is important when
latter. What crime is committed? testifying in court because –
a. Robbery and Murde a. it will determine the quality of your testimony
b. Murder b. it will determine the quantity of your testimony
c. Robbery w/ Homicide c. it will affect the weight given to your testimony by
d. Homicide the court
d. it will reduce the chances of the defense
2301.What does DNA stand for?
2288.If a person had an enemy and killed him and after killing a. Deoxyrebunucleic Acid
him, saw that he had a beautiful ring and took this, the b. Deoxyribunucleic Acid
crime would be? c. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
a. Robbery and Murder d. Deoxyribunucliec Acid
b. Robbery and Theft 2302.It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this was
c. Robbery w/ Homicide pioneered by Allan Pinkerton
d. Murder a. Every contact leaves a Mark
2289.A committed robbery but during the robbery he saw B a b. modus operandi
beautiful woman which he raped it. But B. pardoned A, c. shadowing
and they get married. What crime is committed? d. casing
A. Robbery 2303. The fact that no physical evidence was found at the
B. Robbery w/ Rape scene of the crime will most likely mean that –
C. Robbery and Rape a. the victim cleaned up before the police arrived
D. NONE b. the suspect was professional
2290.On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall. The wall c. the suspect was juvenile
collapsed. There was a small opening there. At night, a d. the police probably did not conduct a complete
man entered through that opening without breaking the search for evidence.
same and gets items there. What crime is committed? 2304.During an interview, planning is important and must
A. Robbery follow the order of time and bring out facts orderly as they
B. Theft happened, this technique is called –
C. Robbery w/ force upon things a. chronological questioning
D. None b. psychological questioning
2291. The Access Devices Regulation Act of 1998: c. physical questioning
A. RA 8484 d. None of these
B. RA 7877 2305. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a “foreign territory”
C. RA 7080 such as the investigator room at the police station
D. RA 8353 because the place –
2292.If stolen goods such as laptops and cell phones are a. Is comfortable to the suspect
found in your house by the police, then it is ____. b. Is familiar to the suspect
a. Prima facie evidence of Fencing c. Provides food and cigarette to the investigator
d. Intimidates the suspect 2316.White-collar crimes are generally very difficult to prevent
2306.When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene, he and when detected or reported, they pose many ____.
should first of all – a. investigative difficulties
a. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking care b. investigative tasks
not to jar c. investigative problems
b. wait until the crime scene has been sketched, d. investigative burden
photographed and measurements taken before 2317.To secure conviction of white-collar criminals, the
he collects the evidence investigator must develop ___, eh must also remember
c. immediately collects it and always sends it to the that the victim may suddenly lose interest in aiding
Crime Laboratory for specific examination prosecution.
d. Compare the following edge of the took with a. every phase of the case
impression to determine if this was the tool used b. contingency of case
in crime c. friendly atmosphere
2307.All of the following are generally accepted rules of d. rapport with victim
behavior that should be followed by police officer first 2318.The following are characteristics of organized crime,
arriving at the crime scene of a murder committed indoors, EXCEPT:
EXCEPT – a. close-knit nature of its membership
a. Try to keep witnesses separated b. t h e i r e l a b o r a t e p l a n n i n g a n d l a c k o f
b. Record the time of discovery of the crime impulsiveness
c. Discus the crime with persons who witness the c. violence and intimidation are common tools
incident d. basically a street gang with criminal skills
d. Notify the superior officer as quickly as possible 2319.The following statements, answers the questions “when”
but do not leave the scene unguarded while and “how” rape can be committed, EXCEPT:
doing so a. sexual assault by inserting penis into another
2308.The primary reason for conducting a search in the crime person’s mouth
scene is to – b. inserting any instrument or object into the genital
a. Obtain obvious physical evidence or anal orifice or another person
b. Ascertain the reasons for the crime c. committed under all the elements enumerated by
c. Undercover hidden evidence Art. 324 of the Revised Penal Code
d. Determine the criminals method of operation d. rape case is a crime against chastity
2309.Marking of evidence, as far as practicable, should be 2320. Rape is committed under any of the following
made on the item itself upon collection, in a place least circumstance, EXCEPT:
likely to affect the appearance of its - a. through the use of force, threat or intimidation
A. Physical Integrity b. when the offended party is deprived of reasons or
B. Evidentiary otherwise unconscious
C. Legal Integrity c. by means of fraudulent machinations or grave
D. Integrity and Identity abuse of authority
2310.In pursuing a criminal and when it appears that the d. it is an exclusive offense committed by man to a
pursuit is not possible, what should you not do? woman
a. Better use your time and efforts to alert another 2321.As provided by the Revised Penal Code, robbery is
unit divided into two different classifications, one is robbery by
b. Forego the pursuit and keep on what you are the use of force upon things, and the other is:
formerly doing a. robbery with violence, or intimidation of person
c. Inform the dispatched of the unit b. taking of personal property belonging to another
d. Use radio for possible active pursuit in c. with intent, to gain and to possess the property
coordination with other police units d. pre-conceived plans and unexpected opportunity
2311.This situation takes place when a police officer induced a
person to commit a crime and arrest him after the 2322.The following are the elements of the crime robbery,
commission of the crime. EXCEPT:
A. Instigation a. personal property belonging to another
B. Search b. the taking must be with intent to gain
C. Recidivism c. there is violence or intimidation of any person
D. Entrapment d. it engender fear and quality of life
2312.The investigator who collects physical evidence should 2323.The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the thief in
take it to the laboratory by himself whenever this is an automobile which has been stolen and abandoned is
possible, otherwise, he should obtain a receipt from each on
person to whom he gives or receives evidence. This A. Door handles
statement is applicable to – C. Steering wheel
a. Chain of custody of evidence B. Rear view mirror
b. Cardinal rules in investigation D. Dashboard
c. Three tools in investigation 2324.If criminal investigation is a process, after identifying then
d. To establish the guilt of the accused collecting information and evidences, the next logical step
2313. It is the duty of the officer who first arrives at the crime to do is
scene. a. presents them in court
a. Locate and apprehend the accused b. preserves their legal integrity
b. Protection of the crime scene c. evaluate their strength in establishing proof
c. Collect evidence d. recognize their importance in the case
d. Present evidence of guilt 2325. During a quarrel on a crowded street of Avenida, one
man, stabs another and flees. PO1 Lim policeman arriving
2314.These are some of the investigative activities in a at the scene a short time later finds the victim
homicide case, EXCEPT: unconscious, calls for an ambulance and orders the crowd
a. record the crime scene through notes, to leave. His action was
photographs, and sketches a. bad; there may have been witnesses to the
b. recognizes, collect, and preserves all physical assault among the crowd
evidences and clue materials b. good; it is proper first aid procedure to give an
c. establish the cause and the manner of death of injured person room and air
the victim c. bad; the assailant is probably among the crowd
d. alleged suspicion as they initially appear to the d. good; a crowd may destroy needed evidence
investigators e. bad; it is poor public relations for the police to
2315.Another set of the investigative activities in a homicide order people about needlessly.
case, are the following, EXCEPT:
a. determine the categories and modes of death 2326.The correct order of a crime scene analysis is:
b. seek additional information by interviewing a. sketch, search, photograph
witness b. search, sketch, photograph
c. ascertaining the motive of the suspect c. photograph, search, sketch
d. questioning the suspect after explaining his rights d. photograph, sketch, search
2327. It is often important to know the time of death. The 2339.115. In an intersection not controlled by lights or peace
reasons offered to this are as follows, EXCEPT: officers, pedestrian have the right of way the moment he
a. to question individual who last talk with the victim starts to cross.
b. to look for flaws on a witness’s account of A. Absolutely true
incident B. Partly true
c. protect the innocent from malicious allegations C. Absolutely false
d. to know what was occur and how did it occur D. Partly false
2328.1st Driver’s License is a matter of right not only a 2340.It refers to a modern urban system of roadway above
privilege, 2nd Driver’s License is issued to a person, who street level for free-flow traffic.
has all the qualification as provided by law, 3rd Driver’s A. Expressway
License is a public document B. Subway
a. The 1st and 2nd statements are incorrect C. Skyway
b. The 1st and 3rd statements are correct D. Tunnel road
c. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct 2341.City roads inter-link between municipalities and within the
d. All statements are correct city with a right of way of 15 meters; what is the minimum
2329.Which of the following is not a function of warning width of sidewalk?
symbol? A. 1.0 to 1.2 meters
a. To call the decrease of speed B. 1.5 to 1.8 meters
b. To seek carefulness on the part of motorist of the C. 1.2 to 1.5 meters
approaching danger D. 2.0 meters
c. To direct motorist along the establish direction 2342. It refers to enforcement actions which consist of taking a
d. To notify traffic units an approaching hazardous person into custody for the purpose of holding or detaining
circumstance either on or adjacent to road him to answer a charge of law violation before a court.
2330.106. These are the functions of guide signs, EXCEPT: A. Arrest
a. To guide motorist along established routes B. Traffic Arrest
b. To inform proper routes C. Traffic Citation
c. To help him along his way to the most simple and D. Traffic Warning
direct method 2343.Holder of student driver’s permit for the period of not less
d. To call the diminution of speed than ___ can apply for non-professional driver’s license
2331.107. A number of traffic regulations revolve around A. 150 Days
questions of right of way, for practically purposes, one of B. 180 Days
the following is the best definition of “Right of Way”. C. 60 Days
a. The personal right to move from one place to D. 30 Days
another 2344.Any motor Vehicle Accident that results in injury other
b. The privilege of immediate use of particular than serious to one or more persons:
section of highway A. Property damage
c. The way or place open to the motorist and B. Less Serious Injury
pedestrian C.Fatal Accident
d. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space which at D. Non-fatal Accident
the time is occupied by another vehicle 2345. When two vehicles approach an intersection at
2332. It is intended to inform road user of special obligation, approximately the same time, which shall give the right of
instruction nor prohibitions which they must comply. way:
A. Traffic Signs a. The vehicle coming from the right
B. Informative Signs b. Vehicle from the center
C. Regulatory Signs c. The vehicle coming from the left
D. Danger/warning signs d. The vehicle that arrives first
2346. Which of the following consideration does not act as a
2333.A kind of road according to political subdivision within deterrent to motorist and pedestrian?
town proper Right of Way not less than 10 meters. A. Fear of fine and punishment
A. National Road B.Loss of driving privileged
B. Municipal Road C.Possibility involve in an accident
C. Barangay Road D.Increase of insurance premium
D. City Road 2347.Human errors as one cause of traffic congestion is best
2334. It refers to a vehicles covered by certificate of public characterized by, EXCEPT:
convenience or special permit issued by LTFRB A.Poor legislation activities
A. Private B.Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
B. For Hire C.Effective and efficient traffic officers
C. Government D.Slow drivers or bad driving habit
D. Diplomatic 2348.The following are NOT functions of Land Transportation
2335.Professional and non-professional driver’s license is valid Office, EXCEPT:
for ___ from the date of issuance and renewable every A.Reparation of vehicles
birth month. B.Registration and licensing
A. 18 Months C.Rental and license
B.36 Months D.Licensing operating
C. 24 Months 2349.One of the following statements that best indicates the
D.12 Months main purpose of traffic law enforcement is:
2336. It is any accident occurring on a public traffic way A.reduce traffic by punishing B.violators of traffic
involving persons using vehicle or transportation, but not rules
involving a motor vehicle in motion: C.keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid
a. Vehicle Traffic Accident bottlenecks
b. Motor Vehicle Non-Traffic Accident control the speed limited in densely
c. Non-Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident populated areas
d. Non-Motor Vehicle Non Traffic Accident D.prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow
2337.Which of the following law created the Metropolitan of traffic
Manila Development Authority (MMDA)? 2350.Most common defect attributed to the human element in
A. RA 8750 cases of traffic vehicular accidents:
B .RA 7924 A. Intellectual
C. RA 8749 B. Perceptual
D. PD 96 C. Decision
2338.The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program is D. Attitudinal
best measured by which of the following: 2351.2568. Statistically it is considered as the most common
a. A cutback of traffic accidents and interruption reason for public utility vehicular accidents.
b. A amplify in traffic enforcement actions A.Not observing the proper distance and
c. A dwindle in the ratio of convictions to following too close
enforcement manner B.Unnecessary
d. None of these C.Recklessness
D.Discussion regarding fare D. Vestigarre
2352.2569. What is the general rule for the movement of 2364.It refers to the code of silence and secrecy code of
vehicular traffic in the Philippines? silence that forbids Mafiosi from betraying their comrades
A. “keep to the left” to the authorities:
B. Safety First A. Capo
C. “keep to the right” B. Omerta
D. “watch out” C. Jihad
2353.2570. What would drivers do when an emergency vehicle D. Ideology
approaches displaying legally authorized red light and 2365.It was an event said to be the origin of conflict in
sounding a siren? Mindanao and for the establishment of Moro National
A.pull aside and stop the car abruptly Liberation Front (MNLF):
B.continue driving slowly without regard of A.Rizal Day Bombing
the emerging B.Ninoy assassination
C.yield at the right of way and wait for the C.Black September
passage of the vehicle D.Jabbidah Massacre
D.disregard the red light and siren 2366.Arch-terrorist who used to be the most wanted terrorist in
2354.As you are driving in a public thoroughfare, you approach the world who issued a “fatwa” that calls all Muslims
an intersection with the traffic light with a “green color” on around the world to slay Americans and their allies.
but a traffic policeman is standing at the center of A. Abu-Abbas
intersection conducting the flow normally. As a driver you B. Ramzi Ahmed Yousef
will ignore the traffic man and follow the automatic traffic C. Ahmed Yassin
light- D. Osama bin-Laden
A. True 2367.This refers to an attribute of organized crime that their
B. False memberships have limitations based on kinship, criminal
C. Sometimes record, or similar considerations:
D. It depends A.No Political Goals
2355.Term used for an operator or a vehicle which strikes B.Hierarchical
another vehicle, object or person and left the scene C.Constitutes a Unique Subculture
without stopping to identify himself or render aid D.Limited or Exclusive Membership
A. hit and run 2368.Organized crime differs from terrorism in terms of their:
B. third party liability A. membership
C. reckless driving B. motivation
D. side sweeper C. leadership
2356.A systematic examination of all the facts relating to D. networking
conditions, actions and physical features associated with 2369.This theory refers to those processes by which the
motor collision or accident – community influences its members towards conformity
A.traffic engineering with established norms and behavior.
B.traffic accident investigation A. differential association
C.reckless driving B. social control
D.hit and run C. anomie
2357.A public officials, law enforcement officers or anybody D. strain
who are not a member of the organization who can helps 2370.It is a form of modern day slavery.
the organization A. Human Trafficking
A. Enforcer B. Prostitution
B. Capo C. Drug Trafficking
C. Corrupter D. Sex tourism
D. Corruptee 2371.The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified when:
2358.What type of OCG which is manned by semi-organized A.the person trafficked is an elderly
individual with the end view of attaining psychological B.the person trafficked is a special child
gratification such as adolescent gangs. C.the person trafficked is a woman
A.In-Group Oriented Organized Crime D.the person trafficked is a child
B.Political Graft
C.Predatory Organized Crime 2372.The convention held at Palermo Italy in 2000 provides
D.Syndicated Organized Crime that an organized criminal group must have a membership
2359.A continuing illegal activity of group of person which is of at least ___:
primarily concerned with the generation of profits, A. 3 or More
irrespective of national boundaries as a result of B. 2 or More
globalization. C. 4 or More
A.Transnational Organized Crime D. 5 or More
B.Transnational Crime 2373.In what terrorist group does Abu Sayyaf is formerly
C.Organized Criminal Group included.
D.NONE A. Al Qaeda
2360.What category of terrorist group which is What category B. MILF
of terrorist group which is dedicated to overthrow an C. MNLF
established order and replacing it with a new political or D. JI
social structure? 2374.In Arabic, Abu Sayaff means:
A. Ethnocentric A.Swords bearer
B. Revolutionary B.Islamic Congregation
C. Separalist C.Father of the Swordsman
D. Political D.The Base
2361.ICT in Electronic Commerce Act of 2000 stands for? 2375.These are the most frequent terrorist acts, accounting for
A.InformationConnection Technology as much as 80% of terrorist-related violence:
B.InformationCommunication A. Bombings
Technology B. Assassinations
C.InternetCommunication C. Kidnapping
Technology D. Prostitution
D.Internet Connection Technology 2376.This is also known as the Human Security Act of 2007:
2362.Economic crime is known as: A. RA 9372
A.Blue Collar Crime B. RA 9160
B.Wildlife Smuggling C. RA 9165
C.White Collar Crime D. RA 8294
D.Wildlife trafficking 2377.This is the country which believed to be the origin of
2363.It is the Latin term meaning to frighten: Mafia and Cosa Nostra:
A. Terrorisme A. United States of America
B.Terrere B. Italy
C. Rapere C. Japan
D. China B.National Commission on Anti Hijacking
2378.An Asian organized crime that represents mystical (NACAH)
symbol in the form of an equilateral triangle representing C.International Criminal Police Organization
the heaven, earth and man: (ICPO)
A. Yakuza D.Philippine National Police (PNP)
B. Triad
C. Tongs
D. Born to Kill of Vietnam 2391.It is known as IP address that changes every time the
2379.Chain of custody should be observed by the investigating internet accesses his ISP:
team of cybercrimes: A. ISP
A.The Statement is wrong B. Dynamic IP address
B.The statement is true C. Static IP Address
C.None of these D. IP Address
D.All of these 2392.It refers to an act sending fraudulent mails or website
2380. Internet pornography is punishable under E-Commerce pop-ups, to get victims to divulge sensitive financial
Act of 2000: information such as credit card numbers or social security
A.The Statement is correct numbers.
B.Statement is wrong A. Phising
C.either of the above B. Hacking
D.neither of the above C. Cracking
2381.Under E-Commerce Act of 2000, internet cafes and cyber D. Identity Theft
cafes, where majority of cybercrimes are perpetuated, are 2393.It refers to a computer program that can copy itself and
legally required to have permanent logs and records of infect a computer without permission or knowledge of the
their clients: user
A.The statement is true A. Virus
B.The statement is false B. Trojan Horse
C.Neither of the above C. Logic Bomb
D.Either of the above D. Worm
2382.T h e E - C o m m e r c e A c t o f 2 0 0 0 p r o v i d e s t h a t 2394.What kind of hacker who breaks into computer systems
telecommunication companies are legally bound to with malicious intent, usually for some criminal purpose.
cooperate with the law enforcement agencies in the A. Black Hat Hackers
course of their investigation: B. Gray Hat Hacker
A.The statement is absolutely correct C. White Hat Hackers
B.The statement is absolutely wrong D. Any color
C.The statement is partially correct 2395.This terrorist organization in the Philippines is known as
D.The statement is partially wrong “Back to Islam”.
A. Abu Sayyaf
2383.It is the maximum imprisonment for violation of E- B. MILF
Commerce Act of 2000. C. Je naah Islamiya
A. 20 years D. Rajah Solaiman Movement
B. 12 years
C. 6 years 2396.It is a term used to describe a massive weapon with the
D. 3 years capacity to indiscriminately kill large numbers of people.
2384.It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful activity are A.Nuclear
transacted or attempted to be transacted, to make them B.Weapon of mass destruction
appear to have originated from legitimate sources: C.Anthrax
A. Estafa D.Chemical weapons
B.Money Laundering 2397.Considered to be the oldest and the biggest criminal
C. Anti-Money Laundering organization in the world.
D. Swindling A. Al Qaeda
2385.This refers to any distinctive mark, characteristic and/or B. Jihad
sound in electronic form, representing the identity of a C. Chinese Mafia
person and attached to or logically associated with the D. Nuestra Costra
electronic data message:
A. electronic key 2398.What is the constant temperature at which the vapor
B. originator pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric
C. electronic signature pressure?
D. electronic date message A. vapor density
2386.Only a computer forensic expert should search for any B. fire point
evidence contained in a computer hardware. B. boiling point
A.The statement is absolutely correct D. vapor pressure
B.The statement is absolutely wrong
C.The statement is partially correct 2399.It is a combustion product and a manifestation of fire
D.The statement is partially wrong when it is in its gas-phased combustion.
2387.It is an act known as the Access Devices Act of 1998: A. Flames
A. RA 8551 B. Exothermic reaction
B. RA 8484 C. Endothermic reaction
C. RA 9160 D. NONE
D. RA 9165 2400.What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot at the
2388.What is the name of the operation launched by US Navy bottom or a vessel being heated due to incomplete
Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden? combustion and has a low temperature.
A.Operation Geronimo A. Luminous
B.Operation Jabbidah B. Non-luminous
C.Operation Neptune Spear C. Laminar
D.Operation Merdeka D. Turbulent
2389.These are Italian Organized Crime, EXCEPT? 2401.The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ____.
A. The Neopolitan Camera A. Infection
B. Sinilian Mafia C. shock
C. Cali Cartel B. burns
D. Sacra Corona Unita D. asphyxiation
2390.It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to 2402.What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state under
establish a shared database among concerned agencies pressure and at normal atmospheric temperature inside its
for information on criminals, methodologies, arrests and container?
conviction on transnational crime. A. cryogenic gas
A.Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes B. liquefied gas
(PCTC) C. compressed gas
D. nuclear gas B. key board
C. fire hose
2403.When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the D. jumper
method is called ____. 2416.What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where
A. radiation rungs are connected horizontally to the beam forming
B. oxidation ascent or descent?
C. convection A. rope
D. conduction B. hydrant
2404.Which of the following does NOT fall under class A fires? C. ladder
A. none of the choices D. nozzle
B. burning nipa hut 2417.What are the cross members between the beam and
C. exploding gas depot used in climbing the ladder called?
D. forest fire A. hangar
2405.Which of the following best illustrate arson? B. beams
A.simultaneous fire C. rungs
B.thick reddish smoke D. braces
C.faulty electric wiring 2418.Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases in
D.unexplained explosion our midst, which of the following facilities should you
2406.Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fires? check?
A.water is not capable of extinguishing the A.Gift-wrapped packages
fire B.Electric switch system
B.there is the danger of electrocution C.Telephones
C.burning metals are too hot D.All of these
D.explosion may occur 2419.The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest
2407.Mechanical device strategically located in an installation point of the roof is referred to as:
or street where fire hose is connected so that water with A. vertical ventilation
pressure will be available to extinguish fire. B. cross ventilation
A. fire hose box C. forced ventilation
B. fire truck D. horizontal ventilation
C. hose reel 2420.If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the
D. fire hydrant most probable extinguishing method is:
2408.In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion reaction is A. smothering
known as ___. B. fuel removal
A. reducing agent C. cooling
B. oxidizing agent D. dilution
C. cooling agent 2421.The most important element of Fire?
D. chemical agent A.Fuel
2409.236. This is the normal/ common behavior of fire in a B.Chemical chain reaction
building: C.Heat
A.It only moves horizontally D.Oxygen
B.It has a circular movement 2422.A complete and detailed checked of the structures and
C.It moves sideways while moving vertically material involved in the fire to make sure that every spark
D.It has a circular movement while moving and ember has been extinguished and to have assurance
horizontally against
2410.A sudden introduction of air into a closed space A. Overhaul
containing an oxygen-starved superheated product of B. Rescue
incomplete combustion or oxygen-deficient free radicals, C. Salvage
may result to an explosion, which is called: D. None
A. Spontaneous ignition 2423.When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they
B. flashover usually lean forward on the hose. What is the most likely
C. Backdraft reason for taking this position?
D. Flash fire A.The stream is projected farther
B.The surrounding air is cool making the
2411.It refers to the increase or rising of amperage while firemen comfortable
electric current is flowing in a transmission line resulting to C.A backward force is developed which must
the damage or destruction of insulating materials, maybe be counter acted
gradual or rapid, internal or external. D.The firemen can see better when the
A. Arcing stream strikes
B. Induced Current 2424.If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime
C. Over Heating that you have to file is:
D. sparkling A. murder with arson
2412.The most common motive for arson is B. arson with murder
A. jealousy C. murder
B. profit D. arson
C. spite 2425.This kind of Fire extinguisher contains chemical powder
D. revenge intended to fight all classes of fires.
2413.Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of A. H20
arson? B. Liquefied
A.inflammable substance found in the C. Dry Chemical
premises D. Soda Acid
B.simultaneous fire in more than one part of 2426.All except one are aggravating circumstances in Arson.
the building A.If committed with intent to gain:
C.building insurance B.If committed with the benefit of another:
D.any of the choices C.If the offender is motivated by spite or
2414.What is the process of raising the temperature to hatred towards the owner or occupant of
separate the on-volatile from the less volatile parts and the property burned:
then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to D.If committed by a syndicate
produce a nearly purified substance? E.None of the Above
A. combustion 2427.What color of smoke is present when the materials
B. evaporation burning are Phosphorus, vegetable or hay?
C. distillation A. Black
D. condensation B. White
C. Yellow
2415.What is the instrument used to open and close a fire D. Blue
hydrant?
A. hydrant key
2428.After the fire fighting operation and fire out has been
declared, what is the first thing that a fire prober must
determine? 2441.Which among the following responsible for producing
A.look for survivors almost 60% of Opium in the world.
B.search for debris A. Golden triangle
C.locate the point of origin B. Golden Crescent
D.established corpus delicti C. Silver Triangle
2429.Any liquid fuel with flash point above 37.80C (1000F) is D. White Christmas
a: 2442. What countries constitute the Golden Crescent?
A. Combustible liquid A.Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India
B. Corrosive liquid B.Peru, Columbia, Bolivia
C. Flammable liquid C.Burma, Laos, Thailand
D. Volatile liquid D.Myanmar, Laos, Thailand
2430.A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; however 2443.It refers to the “the paradise of drug users in Europe”.
examination of lungs and blood showed no abnormal A. Philippines
quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be your B. Mexico
interpretation under such circumstance? C. Spain
A.The person died because of asphyxia D. Lebanon
B.The person died because of the burning 2444.It is a kind of abused drugs that relieve pain and often
C.The person was killed before it was induce sleep.
burned A. Sedatives
D.The person died not of fire but because of B. Stimulants
suffocation C. Hallucinogen
2431.What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting D. Narcotics.
operation involving high-rise building? 2445.It is the most important alkaloids and constitutes about
A. attic 10% of the use raw opium.
B. extension A. Morphine
C. aerial B. Heroin
D. hook C. Codeine
2432.257.What type of ground ladder which contains only one D. Opium
section, it ranges between 12 to 16 feet. 2446.The drug taken from the cola bust plant Ertyroxylon coca.
A. Straight ladder A. Cocaine
B. Attic ladder B. Marijuana
C. Extension ladder C. Papayer Somniferum
D. Wall ladder D. claviceps purpurea
2433.Highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate 2447.Opium subjected to Marquis Test will run into ___ specs.
flame propagation. A. Blue
A. Plant B. Orange
B. Trailer C. Violet
C. Accelerant D. Red
D. Gasoline 2448.PDEA is headed by Director General with the rank of ___
2434.Eyes and Ears of Fire Prober. A. Assistant Secretary
A. Witness B. Secretary
B. Society C. Chairman
C. First responder D. Undersecretary
D. Owner 2449.What is the minimum age required to be able to become
2435.Revised Fire Code of the Philippines. a PDEA agent?
A. RA 9514 A. 16
B. PD 1185 B. 18
C. RA 8294 C. 21
D. RA 8484 D. s25
2436.All BUT one are the basis of criminal liability in Arson. 2450.The Academy shall be headed by a ____, with the rank of
A.Kind and character of the building burned Director. He/She shall be appointed by the ___.
B.Location of the building A. Chairman/President
C.Extent or value of the damage B. Secretary/PDEA DG
D.Whether inhabited or not C. CSUPT/President
E.None of the choices D. SUPT/PDEA DG
2437.The amount of drug that produces untoward effect of 2451.The policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the
symptoms of poisoning. planning and formulation of policies and programs on drug
A. Minimal Dose prevention and control
B. Abusive Dose A. PDES
C. Toxic Dose B. DDB
D. Maximal Dose C. PNP Narcotics
D. NBI Narcotics
2438.A kind of Drug users, whose activities revolve almost 2452.They serve as permanent consultant of the Dangerous
entirely around the drug experience and securing supplies. Drug Board:
A. Situational A.NBI Director and PNP Director General
B. Hard-core B.PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
C. Hippies C.PNP Director and PDEA Director
D. Spree D.Secretary of DILG and Secretary of
2439.Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are quickly Justice
absorbed by the rich capillary system, it is probably the 2453.If the clandestine laboratory is established in the
second most commonly used route of drug administration, following circumstances such will serve as Aggravating
A. Snorting Circumstances:
B. inhalation A.Conducted in the presence or with the help
C. oral ingestion of minor/s
D. Injection B.Established within one hundred (100)
2440.Among the countries involved in the first important drug meters of a residential, business, church
traffic route, which is responsible for preparation for or school premises.
distribution? C.Secured or protected with booby traps
A. Middle East D.Concealed with legitimate business
B. USA operations
C. Turkey E.Employment of a practitioner, chemical
D. Europe engineer, public official or foreigner
F.all of the choices
2454.The Dangerous Drug board shall be composed of how B.A representative from the media.
many Ex-officio Members? C.A representative from the DOJ.
A. 2 D.Any elected public official.
C. 2 E.None of the choices
B. 12 2464.Apprehending team having initial custody and control of
D. 17 dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant
2455.Marijuana plant can easily be identified by: sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment shall
A.Its branches which occur at opposite immediately after seizure, physical inventory and
points on the stalk photograph the same in the presence of the following,
B.Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet EXCEPT.
C.Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets A.To person from whom such items were
whose edges are serrated in shape. confiscated or his representative or counsel
D.Its pungent scent when matured or fully B.A representative from the media
grown. C.A representative from the DOJ
D.Any elected public official
2456.What agency of the government supervises drug E.None of the choices
rehabilitation centers and drug testing networks and
laboratories? 2465.In what quantity of specimen should be taken by forensic
A.Department of Interior and Local examiner of drugs for scientific analysis:
Government A.Not more than five (5) grams per package/
B.Department of Health bag
C.Department of Justice B.Not more than three (3) tablets for
D . D e p a r t m e n t o f S o c i a l We l f a r e a n d capsules or tables
Development C.Not more than fifty (50 ml) for liquid
2457.The term of office of the Chairman of the Dangerous solution
Drug Board: D.Not more than ten (10 grams) for dried
A. 2 years leaves and not more than 2 plants.
B. 6 years E.All of the choices
C. 4 years 2466.The following shall not be subject to Mandatory Drug
D. co-terminus Testing EXCEPT:
2458.The penalty imposed for possession of Dangerous Drug A.Students of Secondary and Tertiary
Paraphernalia shall be: Schools
B.Persons apprehended or arrested for
violation of the Provision of Comprehensive
Dangerous Drug Act.
A.6 years and 1 day to 12 years and a fine of C.Officers and Employee of public and
50 to 200 thousand pesos. private offices
B.6 months and 1 day to 4 years and a fine D.A and C only
of 10 to 50 thousand pesos. 2467.Preliminary Investigation of cases involving dangerous
C.4 months and 1 day and a fine of 10 to 40 drugs shall be terminated within a period of:
thousand pesos. A. 180 days
D.6 months rehabilitation B. 45 days
2459.It is an act of introducing any dangerous drugs into the B. 30 days
body of any person with or without his/her knowledge D. 60 days
either by injection inhalation, ingestion or other means. 2468.An analytical test using some tools or device design to
A. Administer validate or affirm the result of a preliminary or screening
B. Use test.
C. Dispense A. Screening test
D. Deliver B. Confirmatory rest
C. Physical test
2460.Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly D. Chemical Test
that makes it detection quite difficult. Various techniques 2469.The ____ shall designate special courts from among the
were made by its operator in concealing their activities. existing RTC in each judicial region to exclusively try and
A. Hide-out operation hear cases involving violation of RA 9165.
B. Safe house A. DOJ
C. Clandestine Operation B. Supreme Court
D. Drug Syndicate C. DDB
2461.Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act took effect on: D. Sandiganbayan
A. June 7, 2002
B. July 4, 2002 2470.The law that penalized the use and possession or the
C. July 30, 2002 unauthorized sale of Solvent Volatile substances is:
D. June 18, 2003 A. P.D. 1519
2462.The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing B. P.D. 1916
according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT C. P.D. 1619
A.Officers and Employee of public and D. P.D. 580
private offices. 2471.A laboratory examination is only required to apprehend
B.Applicant for firearms license and for offender within 24 hours if the person arrested has:
permit to carry firearms outside residence A.Physical sign of drug abuse
C.Officers and Members of the Military, B.Symptoms of Drug abuse
police and other law enforcement agencies C.Visible manifestation that suspect was
D.All candidates for public office whether under the influence of drugs
appointed or elected both in national or local D.All of the choices
government units. 2472.Within how many minutes after intake of alcoholic
E.All persons charged before the beverage is the absorption is faster?
prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense A. 20 to 30 minutes
having an imposable penalty of not less B. 30 to 60 minutes
than six (6) years and one (1) day. C. 10 to 20 minutes
2463.Apprehending team having initial custody and control of D. 50 to 60 minutes
dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant 2473.It is the percentage of alcohol blood which indicates that
sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment shall the person is under the influence of the liquor
immediately after seizure, physical inventory and (alcohol)?
photograph the same in the presence of the following, A. 0.05
EXCEPT. B. 1.5
A.To person from whom such items were C. 0.15
confiscated or his representative or D. 0.50
counsel.
2474.The person who manages houses of ill-refute where the D. Partially False
business of prostitution is conducted.
A. Pimp
B. prostitute
C. Knocker 2487.A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use as a
D. Maintainer veterinary anesthetic.
2475.The person is argumentative and overconfident. There is A. Ketamine
slight impairment of mental difficulties. B. Codeine
A. Slight inebriation C. Anesthesia
B. Moderate inebriation D. Sleeping pills
C. Drunk 2488.What penalty is provided for a Drug user for its 2nd
D. Very drunk violation.
A.6 Months Rehabilitation
2476.Persons who were found guilty under the Section 70 of B.12 Months Rehabilitation
RA 9165 is ____: C.6 Years and 1 Day to 12 Years
A.Qualified to apply for probation D.12 Years and 1 Day to 20 Years
B.Disqualified to apply for probation 2489.It refers to the willful act of any person of maliciously and
C.Allowed to apply for probation secretly inserting, placing, attaching, or adding directly or
D.Not allowed to apply if the sentence is indirectly, through any overt or cover acts:
more than 6 years and 1 day A. Entrapment
2477.What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”. B. Planting of Evidence
A. Marijuana C. Instigation
B. Ecstacy D. Black mailing
C. Shabu 2490.It is the Agency of the government that will take charge
D. None of these and have custody of all dangerous drugs confiscated:
2478.Opium alkaloid, used for painkiller, but more as a cough A. Maritime Police
reliever? B. Dangerous Drug Board
A. morphine C. PDEA
B. cocaine D. NBI
C. opium E. PNP
D. codeine 2491.“A” was arrested for possessing seven (7) grams of
2479.When drunken person does not know the intoxicating Shabu at 7:00 P.M. October 23, 2012. Up to what time and
strength of the beverage he has taken. date the arresting officers have to subject “A” to a drug test
A. involuntary as required by the law?
B. Intentional A.7:00 P.M., October 25
C. Habitual B.7:00 P.M., October 24
D. Coma C.8:00 A.M., October 26
2480.Immoral conduct or habit, indulgence of which leads to D.8:00 A.M., October 25
depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and 2492.Which among the following data concerning photographs
body. as evidence is LEAST essential?
A. Morality A.date and hour which each photograph was
B. Vices taken
C. Prostitutions B.identification of the police photographer
D. Gambling C.proof of ownership of the camera
2481.After filling of the criminal cases, the court shall conduct D.focal length of the lens
ocular inspection of the confiscated, seized and/or 2493.The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a
surrendered dangerous drugs, and controlled precursors rough sketch is for _____.
within: A.scale and proportion
A. 24 hours B.future use
B. 30 days C.accuracy and clarity
C. 72 hours D.courtroom presentation
D. 48 hours 2494.All except are object evidence that should be taken
2482.That part of the body most affected to by heavy drinking photograph individually, EXCEPT?
are: A. Knife
A.digestive system and nervous system B. Semen
B.brain and veins of the body C. stone
C.the lungs and heart D. Gun
D.None of the above 2495.All are considered as emergency vehicle, EXCEPT?
2483.Can a high school student be compelled to undergo drug A. Police car on call
test? B. Ambulance on call
A. yes C. Fire Truck on call
B. maybe D. Physician’s car
C. upon circumstances 2496.Children who are prohibited to be seated in the front seat
D. No of any running motor vehicle:
2484.SPO4 Mabagal intentionally failed to appear as a A.Seven years old
prosecution witness during trial of the case against the B.six years and old and under
alleged drug dealer caught in buy-bust operation. What C.under six years old
will be his penalty? D.seven years old and under
A.20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment 2497.Marijuana is also known as?
B. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years A. Coke
C. Life imprisonment B. Poppers
D. Death penalty C. Cannabis
D. Morphine
2485.PO3 Ingcad planted 0.5 grams of shabu to their suspect 2498.Who will be punished of life imprisonment in illegal drug
and PO2 Tayson planted 1 gram of shabu. Is their penalty cases?
the same? A. User
A. No B. Pusher
B. False C. Possessor
C. Yes D. Coddler
D. True 2499.Most abuse drugs in the Philippines?
2486.DDB can issue subpoena Testificandum and subpoena A. Marijuana
duces tecum relative to the conduct of investigation B. Shabu
involving the violations of RA 9165. C. Cocaine
A. True D. AMorphine
B. Partially True
C. False 2500.Can marijuana causes aggressive criminal behavior?
A. Yes C. heroin
B. No D. iodine
C. Sometimes
D. It depends 2514.The most important constituent of opium is the drug:
A. cocaine
2501.It is very important to rehabilitate every drug addict to? B. codeine
A. Reintegrate him to society C. heroin
B. Punish him D. morphine
C. Give him a lesson 2515.The number of persons who handle the evidence from
D. Incapacitate him the scene of the crime and between the times of the
commission of the crime up to the final disposition of the
2502.In investigation, “corpus delicti” means body of the crime case.
scene. Legally, it means A. chain of custody
A. proof in the commission of crime B. time of custody
B. body of the victim C. time of disposal
C. wrongful act D. time of disposition
D. none of these 2516.The substance known as the “miracle drug” refers to:
2503.Deals with the study of major crimes based on the A. morphine
application of special investigative technique. B. cocaine
A. background investigation C. heroin
B. criminal investigation D. codeine
C. preliminary investigation 2517.The word hashish is derived from the name of Hasan/
D. special investigation Hashasin, a Muslim leader. Hashish refers to:
2504.What is the other name for marijuana? A. female marijuana plant
A. rope B. male marijuana plant
B. grassland C. marijuana leaves
C. weed D. the marijuana resin
D. leaf 2518.What drug is the hydrochloride of an alkaloid obtainable
2505.Purpose of coordination prior to buy-bust operation by the action of acetic anhydride or morphine in which the
regarding drug operation. alkaloid base may be made by treating morphine with
A. information acetyl chloride, washing the product with a dilute alkaline
B. abuses solution and crystallizing from alcoholic solution?
C. integrity A. cocaine
D. reliability B. codeine
2506.The Miranda Law in the Philippine setting is: C. heroin
A. RA 7438 D. paregoric
B. RA 8353 2519.Methyl Benzoyl Ecgonine is known as
C. RA 9160 A. cocaine
D. RA 9165 B. marijuana
C. opium
2507.What is the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source of D. shabu
a prohibited drug? 2520.Is any agent which neutralizes, opposes or counteracts
A. Marijuana poison or its effect
B. Opium A. alkaloid
C. Coca bush B. antidote
D. Peyote C. emetic
2508.What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self- D. titanic
awareness and emotion?
A. Narcotics 2521.“Shabu” is chemically known as:
B. Stimulants A. methamphetamine
C. Depressants B. methamphetamine HCL
D. Hallucinogens C. methyl amphetamine
2509.What is that state arising from repeated administration of D. methyleneamine
a drug on a periodic or on a continuing basis?
A. Habituation 2522.A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of
B. Drug dependence potent Cannabis Sativa.
C. Drug Addiction A. hashish
D. Physical dependence B. marijuana
2510.What classification would solvents, paints and gasoline C. morphine
which are examples of substances that are sniffed to D. opium
obtain intoxication fall?
A. Depressants 2523.Scientific name for cocaine.
B. energizers A. cannabis sativa
C. inhalants B. erythroxylon coca
D. tranquilizers C. methamphetamine hydrochloride
D. methyl benzoyl ecgonine
2511.What is the act of injecting or that means of introducing
the dangerous drug into the physiological system of the Analgesic or pain-killing substance that depresses vital body
body? functions such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and breathing
A. Consumption rate. The regular administration of narcotics will produce
B. Use physical dependence.
C. Administration A. depressants
D. Abuse B. hallucinogens
C. narcotic
2512.If a person devotes considerable time and effort in D. stimulants
obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing about it and 2524.What is the method of introduction of drugs into the
using it to meet his problems and to escape from reality, deeper layer of the skin by means of special electric
he is – current?
A. Socially dependent on drugs A. Topical method
B. Mentally dependent on drugs B. Injection method
C. Psychologically dependent on drugs C. Iontophoresis
D. Physically dependent on drugs D. Oral method
2513.A derivative of opium 5 times more powerful than
morphine. 2525.What part of the globe is the principal source of all forms
A. amphetamines of cocaine?
B. cocaine A. South East Asia
B. South America A. Narcotics
C. Middle East B. Stimulants
D. South West Asia C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
2526.Shabu originated in China while Cocaine originated in 2538.It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous
A. Columbia Drugs Act of 2002, Providing Funds Therefore and for
B. India Other Purposes.
C. Mexico
D. France A. RA 9165
B. RA 1956
2527.What is the group of drugs that are considered to be C. RA 9156
mind altering and gives the general effect of mood D. RA 1965
distortion?
A. Sedatives 2539.What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug
B. Hallucinogens incidents?
C. Hypnotic A. Reclusion Perpetua
D. Tranquillizers B. Life Imprisonment
C. Death
2528.What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”? D. Fine
A. Heroin
B. Marijuana 2540.Who is the primary author of RA 9165?
C. Cocaine A. Sen. Ramon Revilla
D. Shabu B. Sen. Miriam Defensor Santiago
C. Sen. Joker Arroyo
2529.2747. Which of the following refers to acute cases of D. Sen. Tito Sotto
withdrawal of drugs that causes serious physical illness?
A. Psychological dependence 2541.These are the requirements during the conduct of actual
B. Physical dependence buy-bust operations.
C. Addiction A. poseur buyer
D. Withdrawal syndrome B. marked money
2530.2748. The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from C. all of the choices
injection of hypodermic needles is mostly addicted to D. none of these
A. liquid amphetamine 2542.Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for, or
B. Shabu underwrites any of the illegal activities prescribed by RA
C. Heroin 9165.
D. freebase cocaine A. employee
B. caretaker
2531.Psychologically speaking, in terms of motives and C. financier D.
functions of drug use, the more a drug is used the more it lookout
tends to
A. reduce the need for the drug 2543. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to
B. satisfy more than one motive or need female customers?
C. increase the satisfaction of use a. Johns
D. give sense of well being b. Gigolo
c. Pimps
2532.Which of the following drugs produces the effect of mood d. Rentboys
elevation, heightened alertness, and increase energy? 2544.What is the theory of organized crime wherein the
A. Solvents penalty of crimes must be severe in order to deter the
B. LSD commission of crimes?
C. Shabu a. Anomie
D. Narcotics b. Deterrence theory
c. Rational choice theory
2533.If amphetamines are known as “uppers”, what drugs are d. None of the above
known as “downers”? 2545.What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal drugs?
A. Hallucinogens A. Lot lizards
B. Barbiturates C. Hookers
C. solvents B. Skeezers
D. cocaine D. Punters
2546.Globalization refers to the rapid growth and development
of what culture?
2534.Who has committed an act which is punishable under RA a. Northern
6425, as amended, with a penalty range of reclusion b. Eastern
perpetua to death and a fine of P500,000 to c. Western
P10,000,000.00? d. Southern
A. Pedro who is caught cultivating marijuana
plants in a plantation in the Cordillera. 2547.Crimes consummated by the use of computers and other
B. Julio who was caught for illegal possession highly modern devices.
of opium pipes and other paraphernalia. a. Transnational crimes
C. Dr. Peter Allay who issued an unlawful b. white collar crimes
medical prescription c. modern crimes
D. Pablo who maintains a den for the illegal use d. cyber crimes
of volatile substances. 2548.The following are transnational crimes, except
2535.What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central a. drug trafficking
nervous system and are commonly referred to as b. gun smuggling
“uppers”? c. money laundering
A. Amphetamines d. illegal recruitment
B. Naptha 2549.The following countries comprises the Golden Triangle,
C. Barbiturates except
D. Diazepam a. Thailand
2536.What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers? b. Laos
A. opiates c. Myanmar
B. Track d. Vietnam
C. Shabu 2550.A term used to describe a place where trafficked person
D. coke are brought and forced to become prostitutes.
2537.What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self- a. sweat shops
awareness and emotion? b. hotels
c. brothels 2563.A general principle of traffic accident, investigation is to:
d. motels A.Look for the key event that causes the
2551.Founder of the Abu-Sayyaf Group? accident
a. Khaddafy Janjalani B.Regard any unfavorable factor, existing
b. Hashim Salamay immediately prior to the accident, as a cause
c. Abdurajack Janjalani C.Consider violations as primary causes and
d. Nur Misuari any factors as secondary causes
D.Consider road conditions as limiting
2552.It is correct to say that the world’s first traffic light came conditions rather as causes
into being before the automobile was in use? 2564.One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% of
A. No the assessed value of a building.
B. It depends A. single family dwellings
C. Sometimes B. department store
D. Yes C. hospitals
2553.In planning for a traffic control program, which of the D. schools
following is NOT a factor to consider 2565.This marking on the roadway indicates that the lane is for
A.model of cars and vehicles right turn only:
B.existing road /highway system A.Two headed arrow
C.incidence of traffic accidents B.Arrow pointing to left
D.traffic congestion hazards C.Straight arrow on the pavement
D.The arrow is pointing to the right
2554.In interviewing persons involved in a traffic accident what 2566.In this manner, a traffic enforcer while observing the flow
is the primary consideration to be taken by the police of traffic tries to attract attention of the motorists by
investigator. keeping in full view of traffic:
A.Conduct each interview separately A. Stationary
B.Listen only to witnesses because they are B. Visible
not biased C.Conspicuous
C.Listen to both sides D. Inconspicuous
D.Conduct the interview jointly 2567.Licensed person allowing limited number of passengers,
2555.When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection at freight or cargo in public utility truck or buses
the same time who shall yield the right of way as a general A. Operator
rule B. Driver
A. The driver on the left C.Conductor
B.The faster vehicle D. Pedestrian
C.The driver on the right 2568.It is the separation of a traffic unit in motion from an
D. The slower vehicle object with which it has collided; the force between the
2556. When cruising on a four-lane two-way highway, slow object ceases at this time.
moving vehicles should use the: A. Stopping
A.lanes 2 and 3 B. Disengagement
B.outer lanes C. Maximum Engagement
C.inner lanes D. Initial Contact
D.either the inner or outer lanes 2569.A friction mark on a pavement made by a tire that is
sliding without rotation. Sliding of wheels may be due to
2557.As a general rule, you should overtake on the left side, braking to collision damage, or rarely, to other
except when- circumstances.
A.the oncoming traffic is free from an A. Skid Mark
obstruction B.Scuff Marks
B.the opposite traffic is free from oncoming C.Skip skid
motor vehicles D. Gas Skid
C.traversing on a two-way two-lane highway 2570.The place and time after or beyond which accident
D.cruising along a four-lane two-way traffic cannot be prevented by a particular traffic unit.
way A.point of no escape
2558.The double solid white line: B.point of Possible Perception
A.doesn’t allow lane changing C.Perception Delay
B.allows overtaking D.Any of the above
C.allows lane changing 2571.Main cause of human trafficking.
D.allows parking a. lack of employment opportunities
2559.It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking for b. poverty
defects in the behavior of the motorists, pedestrian, c. corruption in government
vehicles and roadway condition. d. organized crimes
A. Apprehension 2572.Meaning of the phrase Abu Sayyaf
B. Adjudication a. Holder of the sword
C. Defection b. Founder of the sword
D. Prosecution c. Bearer of the sword
2560.Traffic arrest can be made when the following are d. Keeper of the sword
present, EXCEPT: 2573.The other name given to the UN Convention Against
A to avoid continues violation Transnational Crimes
B. offense committed is serious a. Palerna Convention
C. the violator will not attend in court b. Paterno Convention
D. involved in vehicular accident c. Palermo Convention
2561.The following are the good ways of searching the scene d. Paderno Convention
of hit-and-run accident, EXCEPT: 2574.A prostitute who solicits customers in public places is
A.look over the grounds at what seems to be called
the point of collision a. street walker
B.follow the path that the vehicle took in b. Johns.
leaving the scene c. call boy.
C.study the objects the vehicle has struck d. whore.
D.established the identity of the vehicles 2575.Placement is also called as
2562.These are the basic steps in traffic accident-investigation, a. heavy soaping
EXCEPT b. banking
A.goes to scene as quickly as possible c. immersion
B.Gassesses the situation and call for d. spin dry.
assistance 2576. The Yakuza has the ritual of putting tattoos in almost all
C.care to the injured and protect their parts of their bodies. The reason is
property a. their white bodies are very good materials to
2462 make drawings.
b. it one culture of the Japanese to put tattoos on 2589. The founder of the Moro Islamic Liberation Front
their bodies. a. Nur Misuari
c. they delight in showing theother members their b. Khadaffy Janjalani
tattoos. c. Hashim Salamat
d. anybody without tattoos are expelled from the d. Abdurajack Janjalani
group.
2577.The initiation of the Chinese Triad consists of 2590. The founder of the Moro National Liberation Front
a. placing a drop of blood of the recruit on a a. Nur Misuari
photograph of a saint and then let it burn on his b. Khadaffy Janjalani
palm while reciting his oath to the organization. c. Hashim Salamat
b. the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed d. Abdurajack Janjaalani
animal mixed with his blood and pass beneath an 2591. In the strategy of terrorist, what is used for the people,
arch of swords while reciting his oath to the government and the world to know their aims?
organization. a. Television
c. the recruit will put body tattoos and lift three b. Newspaper
fingers while reciting his oath. c. Radio
d. the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed d. All of the choices
animal mixed with his blood and a picture of a 2592.Refers to the terrorist group “Soldiers of God”.
saint will be burned on his palm while reciting his a. Abu Sayaff
oath. b. Hezbollah
2578.What do the Yakuza do with their tattoos? c. Fatah
a. Cover them as they are sacred. d. Hamas
b. They undress to show everybody their tattoos. 2593. The most notorious and sought after terrorist group
c. They undress only inside their house. responsible for the 9/11 bombing in the USA.
d. They only undress during oicho kabu. a. Hezbollah
b. Al Qaeda
2579. What OPLAN was created by the PNP as their campaign c. Fatah
against most wanted persons and other fugitives? d. Hamas
a. Oplan Cleansweep 2594. South America country principal source of cocaine.
b. Oplan Criminal a. Brazil
c. Oplan Pagtugis b. Spain
d. Oplan Batas c. Columbia
2580.31. It is a type of anomie wherein a person who accepts d. Chile
the cultural goals to become rich but failed to accept the 2595.Country which is 2/3 controlled by Hezbollah
institutional means of achieving it. a. Israel
a. Rebellion b. Gaza Strip
b. Retreatism c. Lebanon
c. Conformity d. West bank
d. Innovation 2596.The smallest terrorist group in its hierarchy.
2581.It is a type of anomie wherein an individual does not a. organization
accept the cultural goal but accepted the institutional b. faction
means of achieving it? c. cell
a. Innovation d. station
b. Retreatism 2597. Terrorist group responsible for the bombing of the US
c. Rebellion destroyer USS Cole in Yemen
d. Ritualism a. Hezbollah
2582. It is referred to as oldest and biggest criminal b. Hamas
organization in the world. c. Al Qaeda
a. Mafia d. Fatah
b. Yakuza
c. Chinese Triad
d. Cali Cartel 2598. One of the most important components of terrorist-
2583. The name given to a person afflicted with a mental related investigations is the collection and preservation of
illness wherein he is sexually aroused by young children. what?
a. Pedophile a. physical evidence
b. pervert b. witnesses
c. Maniac c. information
d. Pedophilia d. all of these
2599. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wire Tapping Law.”
2584.The former and original name of the Mafia I. RA 4200
a. Sicilian Clan II. RA 4002
b. Code of Omerta C. RA 2004
c. Mafiosi D. RA 4020
d. La Cosa Nostra 2600. Meaning of the term “Jihad”.
2585. Moslem who participated in the Afghan war are referred a. Holy War
to as b. Holy Mass
a. Jihadis c. Holy Cow
b. Fundamentalists d. Holy Ghost
c. Mujaheddins 2601.Founder of the terrorist group Al Qaeda
d. Holy warriors a. Yasser Arafart
2586. Founder of the New People’s Army of NPA b. Osama Bin Laden
a. Jose Mari Chan c. Abdurajack Janjalani
b. Jose Maria Sison d. Abu Nidal
c. Jose Marie Gonzales 2602. Standard rifle of socialist and communist countries
d. Jose Maria Sioson a. M16
2587.A member of the Bar refers to this profession b. AK47
a. judges c. M14
b. investigators d. Galil
c. lawyers 2603. Terrorist group that operates within a single state or
d. prosecutors country.
2588. The year the UN Convention Against Transnational a. Transnational
Crimes was held. b. national
a. 2000 c. international
b. 2002 d. none of them
c. 2001 2604.The most wanted terrorist in the world.
d. 2003 a. Yasser Arafat
b. Abu Nidal d. strip method
c. Osama Bin Laden 2619.It is the simplest way to locate points on sketch to give
d. Mohammad Alzawari the distances from two mutually perpendicular lines.
2605. It is entitled as, ”An Act to Secure the State and Protect common
the People from Terrorism,” a. surveying methods
a. RA 9372 b. cross projection
b. RA 9732 c. rectangular coordinates
c. RA 9273 d. polar coordinate
d. RA 9237 2620.It is existing between the investigator and the subject,
2606. It can be defined as the use of force of the fear of force and it is usually determines the success of the
to achieve a political end. investigation.
I. terrorism a. rapport
II. violence b. personality
III. felony c. breadth of interest
IV. criminal act d. the approach
2607.Who formally organized the Kuratong Baleleng? 2621.Usually, the conduct of investigation must start with this,
I. Francisco Manuel purposely to develop rapport with the subject, either the
II. Franco Calanog victim or suspect.
III. Fidel Ramos I. opening statement
IV. Fajardo Sebastian II. inquiry of subject
III. narration
IV. sympathetic approach
2608. An organized crime in the Philippines which is made up
of former MNLF and MILF rebels. 2622.It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to increase mental and
I. A.Lexus Group physical function
II. B.Pentagon Group a. stimulants
III. C.Abu Sayyaf b. Depressants
IV. D.Ilonggo KFR Group c. Hallucinogens
2609.The largest and most powerful triad. d. Narcotics/ Opiates
I. A.Su Yee On 2623.A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and medically potent
II. B.14K pain killers/ cough suppressants
III. C.Wo Shing Wo a. stimulants
IV. Sham Shui Po b. Depressants
2610. What numeric code refer to the Dragon head of the c. Hallucinogens
chinese triads? d. Narcotics/ Opiates
I. A.438 2624.It I also called ‘downers’ drugs reducing functional
II. B.49 nervous activity.
III. C.489 a. stimulants
IV. D.426 b. Depressants
2611. What do you call the act of lending money in exchange c. Hallucinogens
of exorbitant interest? d. Narcotics/ Opiates
I. Tax evasion
II. Revolutionary tax
III. Sokaiya
IV. Loansharking 2625.It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs that causes
2612. What kind of vices are Lotto and casino? hallucinations and changes our perception, thought,
a. common emotion and consciousness and physical function
b. prohibited a. stimulants
c. regulated b. Depressants
d. unusual c. Hallucinogens
2613.What is the penalty of a person using a diplomatic d. Narcotics/ Opiates
passport in importing prohibited drugs inside the country? 2626.The following countries which considered as GOLDEN
I. A.8-12 years CRESCENT, and also considered as world’s top supplier
II. B.life imprisonment to death for opium. Which of the choices does not belong.
III. C.40 years to life imprisonment a. Vietnam
IV. all of the above b. Iran
2614.What are the two divisions of Criminalistics? c. Afghanistan
a. Physiacl and metallurgical d. Pakistan
b. Scientific and technological 2627.According to PDEA goal that Philippines’ will be a Drug
c. Biological and physiological Free Country in year___?
d. Biblical and Astrological a. 2035
2615.What is secreted by the endocrine glands which trigger b. 2025
and control many kinds of bodily activities and behavior? c. 2030
a. A.Tears d. 2020
b. B.Hormone 2628.It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit drugs with the
c. C.Blood participation of the community.
d. Sweat a. Oplan lambat sibat
2616.Who among the following has the authority to conduct b. operation private eye
examination of a deceased person? c. operation public eye
a. A.Medico Legal prober d. oplan galugad
b. B.Medical Justice 2629.In the PNP what campaign was created to fight against
c. C.Medico Legal Officer drug trafficking.
d. Medical Scientist a. Oplan lambat sibat
b. operation private eye
c. operation public eye
2617.These are the three fold aims of the criminal investigator, d. oplan cleansweep
EXCEPT:
I. to identify the guilty party 2630.A fire just started only a very small or insignificant portion
II. to provide evidence of his guilt of house was being damaged.
III. to locate the guilty party a. Consummated arson
IV. to file charges at the proper court b. Attempted arson
2618. It is a type of search wherein one searcher is assigned c. Frustrated arson
to each subdivision of a quadrant. Tax evasion d. No crime
a. zone method 2631.When a person sets fire to his own property under what
b. spiral method circumstances which expose to danger of life or property
c. wheel method of another.
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of 2644.What is the penalty when less than 5 grams
property shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated.
b. Arson a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
c. malicious mischief b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
d. no crime c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
2632.Burning of house was due to lightning as a result of his d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to
prayer. 400k
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of 2645.Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to
property facilitate proper sketch orientation.
b. Arson a. Proper north
c. malicious mischief b. True north
d. no crime c. Legend
d. Compass direction
2633.It can effectively assist law enforcement agencies in 2646.A search method in which the searchers follow each
combating organized crime and terrorism. other in the path of the coiled beginning from the outside
a. family proceeding toward the center.
b. school a. Zone method
c. NGO b. Wheel method
d. Community c. Spiral method
2634.A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, China wherein d. Strip method
the pro-democracy protesters was killed 2647.Taking into custody property described in the search
a. Tiananmen square massacre warrant as a result of a search, to be utilized as evidence
b. Beijing square massacre in a case.
c. Tienanmen massacre a. Seizure
d. Tienanmen square massacre b. Detention
2635.A case of reckless imprudence occurred at Pasig City, the c. Safekeeping
offender is a resident from Manila while the victim from d. Confiscation
Quezon City. Where the case should be filed? 2648.A method of criminal identification whereby the
a. Quezon City perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals are
b. Pasig City identified by depiction.
c. Manila a. Verbal description
d. either of the above choices b. General photographs
2636.It is a willfully and maliciously placing any dangerous c. Police line up
drugs to implicate person to drug related crime. d. Rouge gallery
a. Buy bust operation 2649.Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants.
b. Instigation a. Sprinkler
c. entrapment b. Fire pump
d. planting evidence c. Fire hose
2637.September 11, 2001 tragedies is known as d. Hydrant key
Intelligence_______. 2650.Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a
a. Invalidate result of its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid
b. unsolved drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings.
c. success a. Dust
d. failure b. Oxidizing material
2638.In investigation wherein a Death appearing to be suicidal c. Pyrolysis
or accidental it should be treated as? d. Cryogenic
a. Homicide case 2651.Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at
b. Suicide case which vapors are evolved fast enough to support
c. Murder case continuous combustion.
d. Any of the choices a. Ignition temperature
2639.What is the penalty when a person bringing into country b. Kindling temperature
of illegal drugs using diplomatic channel or passport. c. Fire point
a. Life imprisonment d. Flash point
b. Life imprisonment-death 2652.The temperature at which flammable liquid form a vapor-
c. death air mixture that ignites.
d. no penalty because of immunity a. Ignition temperature
b. Kindling temperature
c. Fire point
2640.In E-crimes it is accessing in order to corrupt,alter,steal or d. Flash point
destroy information and communication system 2653.Minimum temperature in which the substance in
a. hacking the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause
b. Trojan a self-contained combustion without the addition of
c. virus heat from outside sources.
d. intellectual property a. Boiling point
b. Ignition temperature
c. Fire point
2641.The vehicles should not parked at these area. d. Flash point
a. Private driveway 2654.An exothermic chemical change in which a combustible
b. intersection material react with an oxidizing agent.
c. pedestrian lane a. Thermal balance
d. fire hydrant b. Thermal imbalance
e. all the choices c. Combustion
d. Oxidation
2642.What is the penalty when a police officer failed to appear 2655.Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.
in court to testify in a drug case without justifiable reason? a. Pyrolysis
a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment b. Combustion
b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment c. Detonation
c. Life imprisonment d. All of the foregoing
d. Death 2656.A chemical decomposition of matter through the action of
2643.Most important equipment in traffic accident heat.
investigation? a. Pyrolysis
a. cellphone b. Combustion
b. camera c. Detonation
c. Manila d. Oxidation
d. All of the choices 2657.Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of
the material with unit temperature gradient.
a. Conduction 2671.They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.
b. Thermal conductivity a. Providential
c. Radiation b. Accidental
d. Fission c. Intentional
2658.A means of heat transfer when energy travels through d. Incendiarism
space or materials as waves. 2672.A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat and
a. Conduction oxygen.
b. Convection a. Fire
c. Radiation b. Origin of fire
d. Fission c. Fire triangle
2659.It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a d. All of the foregoing
motive. 2673.Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns.
a. Providential fire a. Fuel
b. Accidental fire b. Heat
c. Intentional fire c. Oxygen
d. None of the foregoing d. Gas
2660.Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in the 2674.A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating
case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788. medium either gas or a liquid.
a. Arson a. Conduction
b. Providential fire b. Convection
c. Accidental fire c. Radiation
d. None of the foregoing d. Fission
2661.First element known to man by experience, a colorless, 2675.The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.
tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and fire. a. Specific heat
a. Nitrogen b. Latent heat
b. Hydrogen c. Heat of Combustion
c. Oxygen d. Heat of fusion
d. Neon 2676.Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or
2662.Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air.
start a fire. a. Carbon black
a. Fuel b. Lamp black
b. Oxygen c. Soot
c. Heat d. Black bone
d. None of the choices 2677.Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed
2663.Refers to gases liberated by heat. vapor as a result of combustion.
a. Free radicals a. Fire
b. Flash point b. Flame
c. Thermal balance c. Heat
d. Thermal imbalance d. Smoke
2664.Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke 2678.Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation.
and fire gases within a building or structure under natural a. Fire
conditions. b. Flame
a. Free radicals c. Heat
b. Pyrolysis d. Smoke
c. Thermal balance 2679.The threat to arson investigators after fire has been
d. Thermal imbalance contained.
2665.In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its a. Backdraft
destructive capabilities is developed. b. Flashover
a. Initial phase c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
b. Incipient phase d. Falling debris
c. Free burning phase
d. Smoldering phase 2680.Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames
2666.A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates. indicates the burning of what material?
a. The fire triangle a. Rubber
b. The fingerprint of the fire b. Nitrogen products
c. Flashover c. Asphalt singles
d. Incipient phase of the fire d. Chlorine
2681.Which among the following is commonly used in fire
resistant materials?
a. Asbestos
2667.An occurrence when the heat has brought the combus- b. Diamond
tible portion of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is c. Asphalt
characterized by a sudden burst or shooting forth light and d. Cotton
flames. 2682.A form of static electricity of great magnitude producing
a. Flashover tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the most common
b. Backdraft cause of providential fires.
c. Thermal balance a. Rays of the sun
d. Thermal imbalance b. Spontaneous heating
2668.An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it c. Arcing
is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen. d. Lighting
a. Flashover 2683.Most common source of accidental fire is related to:
b. Backdraft a. Smoking
c. Thermal balance b. Arcing
d. Thermal imbalance c. Sparkling
2669.Which among the following is the primary objective in d. Overloading
investigating fires? 2684.A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the
a. To determine its cause room or throughout the structure.
b. To prevent recurrence a. Accelerant
c. To determine liable persons b. Plants
d. All of the foregoing c. Trailer
2670.Reason why fire investigation is unique. d. Wick
a. It does not conform with regular investigative 2685.Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a
procedure contrivance to hasten the start of fire.
b. Unavailability of witnesses a. Accelerant
c. Fire destroys evidence b. Plants
d. All of the foregoing c. Trailer
d. Wick a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of
property
2686.Most common reason of arson cases. b. Arson
a. Revenge c. malicious mischief
b. Profit d. no crime
c. Competition 2700.Burning of house was due to lightning as a result of his
d. All of the foregoing prayer.
2687.Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material. a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of
a. Spontaneous heating property
b. Combustible gases b. Arson
c. Combustible dust c. malicious mischief
d. None of the choices d. no crime
2688.Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials to 2701.It can effectively assist law enforcement agencies in
start a fire. combating organized crime and terrorism.
a. Plants a. family
b. Trailers b. school
c. Accelerants c. NGO
d. Wick d. Community
2689.Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
a. Abatement 2702.A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, China wherein
b. Combustion the pro-democracy protesters was killed
c. Allotment a. Tiananmen square massacre
d. Distillation b. Beijing square massacre
c. Tienanmen massacre
2690.It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to increase mental and d. Tienanmen square massacre
physical function
a. stimulants 2703.A case of reckless imprudence occurred at Pasig City, the
b. Depressants offender is a resident from Manila while the victim from
c. Hallucinogens Quezon City. Where the case should be filed?
d. Narcotics/ Opiates a. Quezon City
2691.A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and medically potent b. Pasig City
pain killers/ cough suppressants c. Manila
a. stimulants d. either of the above choices
b. Depressants 2704.It is a willfully and maliciously placing any dangerous
c. Hallucinogens drugs to implicate person to drug related crime.
d. Narcotics/ Opiates a. Buy bust operation
2692.It I also called ‘downers’ drugs reducing functional b. Instigation
nervous activity. c. entrapment
a. stimulants d. planting evidence
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens 2705.September 11, 2001 tragedies is known as
d. Narcotics/ Opiates Intelligence_______.
a. Invalidate
2693.It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs that causes b. unsolved
hallucinations and changes our perception, thought, c. success
emotion and consciousness and physical function d. failure
a. stimulants 2706.In investigation wherein a Death appearing to be suicidal
b. Depressants or accidental it should be treated as?
c. Hallucinogens a. Homicide case
d. Narcotics/ Opiates b. Suicide case
2694.The following countries which considered as GOLDEN c. Murder case
CRESCENT, and also considered as world’s top supplier d. Any of the choices
for opium. Which of the choices does not belong. 2707.What is the penalty when a person bringing into country
a. Vietnam of illegal drugs using diplomatic channel or passport.
b. Iran a. Life imprisonment
c. Afghanistan b. Life imprisonment-death
d. Pakistan c. death
2695.According to PDEA goal that Philippines’ will be a Drug d. no penalty because of immunity
Free Country in year___? 2708.In E-crimes it is accessing in order to corrupt,alter,steal or
a. 2035 destroy information and communication system
b. 2025 a. hacking
c. 2030 b. Trojan
d. 2020 c. virus
2696.It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit drugs with the d. intellectual property
participation of the community. 2709.The vehicles should not parked at these area.
a. Oplan lambat sibat a. Private driveway
b. operation private eye b. intersection
c. operation public eye c. pedestrian lane
d. oplan galugad d. fire hydrant
2697.In the PNP what campaign was created to fight against e. all the choices
drug trafficking. 2710.What is the penalty when a police officer failed to appear
a. Oplan lambat sibat in court to testify in a drug case without justifiable reason?
b. operation private eye a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment
c. operation public eye b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment
d. oplan cleansweep c. Life imprisonment
d. Death
2698.A fire just started only a very small or insignificant portion 2711.Most important equipment in traffic accident
of house was being damaged. investigation?
a. Consummated arson a. cellphone
b. Attempted arson b. camera
c. Frustrated arson c. Manila
d. No crime d. All of the choices
2712.What is the penalty when less than 5 grams of
2699.When a person sets fire to his own property under what shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated.
circumstances which expose to danger of life or property a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
of another. b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k A.Arrest
d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to B.Initialcontact
400k C.Childcustody
e. D. All of the above
2713.Refers to the terrorist group “Soldiers of God”.
a. Abu Sayaff 2728.It is the study of human society, its origin structure,
b. Hezbollah functions and direction.
c. Fatah a. criminology
d. Hamas b. sociology
2714. The most notorious and sought after terrorist group c. psychology
responsible for the 9/11 bombing in the USA. d. anthropology
a. Hezbollah 2729.The science of classifying the physical characteristics.
b. Al Qaeda a. free will
c. Fatah b. positivism
d. Hamas c. atavism
2715. South America country principal source of cocaine. d. somatology
a. Brazil 2730.The approach that is using the perspective of heredity in
b. Spain explaining the cause of crime.
c. Columbia a. geographical approach
d. Chile b. biological approach
2716.Country which is 2/3 controlled by Hezbollah c. psychiatric application
a. Israel d. psychological application
b. Gaza Strip 2731.The purpose of penalty in the positivism school of
c. Lebanon criminology.
d. West bank a. retribution
2717.The smallest terrorist group in its hierarchy. b. rejection
a. organization c. reformation
b. faction d. restoration
c. cell 2732.It is the study of formation of the skull in relation to the
d. station behavior of the criminal.
2718. Terrorist group responsible for the bombing of the US a. entomology
destroyer USS Cole in Yemen b. penology
a. Hezbollah c. phrenology
b. Hamas d. criminology
c. Al Qaeda 2733.Children shall be given priority during_____ as result of
d. Fatah armed conflict.?
2719. One of the most important components of terrorist- a. war
related investigations is the collection and preservation of b. treatment
what? c. evacuation
a. physical evidence d. education
b. witnesses 2734.Science concerned with improving the quality of offspring.
c. information a. criminology
d. all of these b. eugenics
c. genetics
2720. Meaning of the term “Jihad”. d. heredity
a. Holy War
b. Holy Mass 2735.Commonly known as victimless crime:
c. Holy Cow A.occassional crime
d. Holy Ghost B.political crime
2721.Founder of the terrorist group Al Qaeda C.public order crime
a. Yasser Arafart D. conventional crime
b. Osama Bin Laden 2736.A child whose basic needs have been deliberately
c. Abdurajack Janjalani unattended.
d. Abu Nidal a. abandoned child
2722. Standard rifle of socialist and communist countries b. dependent child
a. M16 c. abusive child
b. AK47 d. neglected child
c. M14 2737.The principle that events including criminal behavior that
d. Galil has sufficient causes..
2723. Terrorist group that operates within a single state or a. atavism
country. b. narassism
a. Transnational c. determinism
b. national d. positivism
c. international 2738.An established and generally accepted moral values refer
d. none of them to.
2724.The most wanted terrorist in the world. a. integrity
a. Yasser Arafat b. morality
b. Abu Nidal c. ethical standard
c. Osama Bin Laden d. authority
d. Mohammad Alzawari 2739.This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality.
2725.It can be defined as the use of force of the fear of force to a. split mind
achieve a political end. b. psychosis
I. terrorism c. neurosis
II. violence d. schizoprenia
III. felony
IV. criminal act 2740.What is a person who kills 3 or more in a separate
2726.The largest and most powerful triad. events?
I. Su Yee On A.mass murder
II. 14K B. serial killer
III. Wo Shing Wo C.homicidal
IV. Sham Shui Po D. spree killer
2741.A bank robber who kills some individual in the bank, flees
2727.The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in with hostages, and kills a number of people while in flight
conflict with the law by law enforcement officers or private diving a chase would be an example of:
citizens is termed as:
A. Serial Murder
B. Spree Murder A. Feminist Theory
C. Mass Murder B. Paternalism
D. Multiple Murder C. Liberation Theory
2742.What is the legal term for nighttime? D. Life Course Theory
A. sanctuary 2756.In the power control theory by Hagan, which father and
B.absurdity mother share similar roles in the workplace and power in
C. ephitomy the family
D. nocturnity A. Feminist theory
2743.These are the rights of an accused that are derived from B. Egalitarian family
special laws enacted by Congress. C. Patriarchal family
A. Constitutional rights D. Matriarchal family
B. Civil rights 2757.These views suggest that males such as judges, police
C.Statutoryrights officers, and prosecutors tend to have traditional views on
D. Natural rights women thus, they are more lenient to them as compared
2744.If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total to their male counterparts.
crime volume of 84, 875, How many crimes were reported A. Paternalism
to the police? B. Chivalry Hypothesis
a. 22, 868 C. Masculinity
b. 22, 068 D. Power Control Theory
c. 20, 250 2758.This new branch in criminology opposes the theoretical
d. 32, 644 perspective and proposes the involvement of all
2745.What is the antonyms of the word arrest? stakeholders in the use of non violent solutions
A. Apprehend A. Peacemaking Criminology
B. Search B. Sociology of Law
C. Set free C. Restorative Justice
D. Renounce D. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis
2746.How many members composed the “Pangkat?” 2759.This crimes are those that the lower class commit against
A. 1 member C. 2 members the upper class of society in a capitalist system
B. 3 members A. Crimes of Passion
D. 4 members B. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance
2747.Murder cases numbered 180 in 2010 and 220 in 2011. C. Crimes of domination and Repression
What was the percent increase? D. Crimes of Lower class group
a. + 22.2% 2760.The ruling class in a capitalist system is the
b. + 20.2% A. Proletariat
c. + 22.0% B. Bourgeois
d. + 20.1% C. Capitalist
2748.If the population in municipality A is 195, 000 and the D. Ruling class
crime volume is 2, 540, what is the crime rate? 2761.Who proposed the theory of capitalism and invoked
a. 1230.6 communism as a remedy?
b. 1465.2 A. George Vold
c. 1302.6 B. Karl Marx
d. 1203.5 C. Emile Durkheim
2749.In 2011 there were 90,345 crimes reported to the police. D. Max Weber
If the 2011 population was 63 million what was the crime 2762.This theory believes that society is divided into two
rate? groups with competing values the upper class and lower
a. 147.5 b. 145.7 class.
c. 143.4 A. Class Theory
d. 154.7 B. Differential Opportunity
2750.In 2000 the police recorded a total of 84,875 crimes C. Conflict Theory
committed. If the population was 62 million what was the D. Consensus Theory
crime rate? 2763.A problem that occurs when offenders who have been
a. 139.6 b. 193.6 released from the system are placed in a program simply
c. 136.9 because the program exist.
d. 163.9 A. Diversion Movement
2751.If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total B. Intervention
crime volume of 84, 875, how many crimes were reported C. Net widening
to the police? D. Primary Deviance
a. 20, 250 2764.The term criminology was originally derived from Italian
b. 32, 644 word:
c. 22, 068 a. crimen
d. 22, 858 b. criminologo
2752.If the 128 murder cases in City B represent 40% of the c. criminologia
total murder cases in the province, what is the total value d. criminologie
for murder cases province wide? 2765.It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the
a. 120 society to prevent and repressed them?
b. 420 a. Crime
c. 430 b. Criminology
d. 340 c. Victimology
2753.This theory views crime and delinquency as a result of d. Criminal justice
the frustration and anger people experience over their 2766.The study of Criminology involves the use of knowledge
inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success. and concept of other sciences and field of study which
a. strain theory makes the study of criminology:
b. psychological theories a. Dynamic
c. differential association theory b. Nationalistic
d. labeling theory c. Social science
d. An applied science
2754.This theory suggest that stability and changes in criminal 2767.Criminal ________ refers to the study of the relationship
and deviant behavior through time and different stages in between criminality and the inhabitants of a certain
life. locality:
A. Self Derogation Theory a.Ecology
B. Anomie Theory b) Demography
C. Life Course Theory c) Epidiomology
D. Routine Activities Theory d) Physical anthropology
2755.This theory suggest that females and males are 2768.It is the study of human society, Its origin, structure,
becoming equal in society in terms of family, politics, and functions and direction.
education
a. Sociology 2781.There are crimes that are committed within a certain
b. Criminology length of time. What crime is committed by a series of acts
c. Psychology in a lengthy space of time?
d. Anthropology a. static crime
2769.It deals primarily with the study of crime causation. b. instant crime
a. Criminology c. situational crime
b. Criminal Etiology d. episoidal crime
c. Victimology 2782.Crimes such as theft, shoplifting, and others which are
d. Criminal Sociology committed to maintain one’s livelihood or as a means for
2770.An act or omission in violation of the public law living are what crimes?
commanding or forbidding it. a. Rational crimes
a. Crime b. Irrational crimes
b. Felony c. Blue-collar crimes
c. Offense d. White collar crimes
d. Infraction of law 2783.It is that element of intentional felony which means that
2771.Crimes are committed either by dolo or deceit or by the person who committed the felony has the capacity to
_____________. distinguish between what is right and wrong and fully
a. Culpa understands the consequences of his actions:
b. intent a. intelligence
c. Fault b. imprudence
d. both a and c c. intent
2772.The following are the elements of Dolo or deceit, d. freedom
EXCEPT: 2784.A psychological disorder in which a child shows
a. Intelligence developmentally inappropriate impulsivity, hyperactivity
c. Freedom and lack of attention.
b. Intent a. psychotism
d. Negligence b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
2773.Perla, a victim of rape, was able to identify her assailant, c. neuroticism
a neighbor, before he dies on her way to the hospital d. KSP disorder
where she was declared dead on arrival, This crime is 2785.The commission of criminal acts using the instruments of
called, modern technology such as computers or the internet.
a. complex crime a. cyber sex
b. simple crime b. cyber crime
c) instant crime c. computer crimes
d) situational crime d. computer hacking
2774.Ms. Malou Wang is a skilled woman in making deception 2786.An act in violation of the criminal law that is designed to
through verbal communication. She had committed estafa bring financial gain to the offender.
to several persons through illegal recruitment. What crime a. organized crime
according to result did she committed? b. economic crime
a. acquisitive crime c. cyber crime
b. extinctive crime d. profit crime
c) instant crime 2787.This term literally means “little war”. Today, the term is
d) situational crime used interchangeably with the term “terrorism”.
2775.It refers to the study of the role of the victim in the a. violence
commission of a crime. b. revolution
a. criminal victim c. guerilla
b. criminal psychiatry d. rebel
c. victimless crime 2788.The killing of a large number of people over time by an
d. victimology offender who seeks to escape detection.
2776.It is the scientific study of human behavior or man’s a. road rage
external manifestation in relation to criminality. b. hate crime
a) Epidiomology c. mass murder
b) Criminal Psychiatry d. serial murder
c) Criminal psychology 2789.Known as the “Mother of Criminals”.
d) Physical anthropology a. Margaret Juke b. Ada
2777.A crime can be classified according to its stages of Kallikak
commission. What crime is committed when the offender c. Ada Juke
merely commences the execution of an offense by overt d. Ada Edwards
act but which nevertheless did not perform all acts of 2790.It refers to an study showing the relationship between the
execution which would produce the felony by reason of physical built of a person to his personality structure and
some cause other than his own spontaneous desistance? the type of offense he is most prone to commit
a. Attempted crime a. physiognomy b )
b. Consummated crime somatotype
c. Frustrated crime c. phrenology
d. Complex crime d) psychology
2778.It is the process by which individual reduce the frequency 2791.It is a proposal of a double male or super male
of their offending behavior as the age increases. syndrome. This theory held that the possession of an extra
a. doing gender Y-chromosome causes males to be violent and
b. aging out aggressive.
c. criminal reduction a. XYY syndrome b XXY
d. active precipitation syndrome
2779.Crimes are classified under the Revised Penal Code c. YYX syndrome d. YXX
according to their gravity. What crime to which the law syndrome
attaches the capital punishment or afflictive penalties. 2792.A phenomenon that refers to the handling down of
a. grave felonies delinquent behaviors as socially learned and transferred
b. less grave felonies from one generation to the next taking place mostly
c. light felonies among disorganized urban areas.
d. complex felonies a. Cultural Transmission b) Social
2780.What crimes according to the time or period of the Phenomenon
commission are those which are committed only when the c. Crime
circumstances or situation is conducive to its commission d) Delinquent behavior
like for instance, committing theft in a crowded place. 2793.In this theory of crime causation, mankind is viewed as
a. seasonal crimes manifestations of basically evil human nature reflecting
b. instant crimes either with the prince of darkness or an expression of
c. situational crimes divine wrath.
d. continuing crimes a. Classical theory
b. positivist theory whether the satisfaction he would gain is greater than the
c. Demonological theory possible negative effect he would have to suffer if the gets
d. neo-classical theory caught doing the crime:
2794.An attempt to determine intelligence and personality on a. Cesare Beccaria
the basis of the size and shape of the skull. b. Cesare Lombroso
a. Physiognomy c. Edwin Sutherland
b. palmistry d. Jeremy Bentham
c. Craniology 2807.Who stated that crime is normal in a society?
d. Somatotype a. Cesare Beccaria
2795.It involves the measurement of facial and other body b. Cesare Lombroso
characteristics as indicative of human personality. c. Emile Durkheim
a. Physiology d. Enrico Ferri
b. somatotype
c. Physiognomy 2808.This theory contested the findings of Beccaria’s Free Will
d. Palmistry Study, stating that its absence among mentally retardate
2796. According to Sheldon, the three “somatotypes” or body persons or those with some psychological imbalances and
built which have relationships to personality characteristics personality disorders or physical disabilities, could likewise
are the following, EXCEPT: lead to violation of laws thereby citing said theory as one
a. Ectomorph of crime causation.
b. extomorph a. Classical Criminology
c. Endomorph b. Positivist Criminology
d. Mesomorph c. Neoclassical Criminology
2797.A type of violent offender who uses violence as a means d. Social Structure Theory
of perpetrating the criminal act: 2809.This refers to the act of killing a large number of people in
a. Culturally violent offender a single violent outburst.
b. pathologically violent offender a. Road rage
c. Criminally violent offender b. serial killing
d. d. situationally violent offender c. Mass murder
2798.One way of classifying criminals is on the basis of d. mass destruction
etiology. What kind of criminal is that whose action arises 2810.A type of sexual deviancy where the person achieves
from the intra-psychic conflict between the social and anti- sexual gratification by cruelty, psychotic desire to often
social components of his personality? torment torture or otherwise abuse his victim.
a. Acute a. Masochism
c. Chronic b. bestiality
b. neurotic c. Sadism
d. normal d. Incest
2799.Criminals can also be classified according to this 2811.A sexual relationship between persons closely related by
behavioral system. What are those criminals who have blood.
high degree of organization that enables them to commit a. Incest
crime without being detected and usually operates in a b. sadism
large scale? c. Masochism
a. ordinary criminals d. rape
b. professional criminals 2812.These are violent acts directed toward a particular person
c. situational criminals or members of group merely because the targets share
d. organized criminals discernible racial, ethnic, religious or gender
2800.A forcible sex in which the offender and the victim are characteristics.
acquainted with each other. a. Violent crimes
a. statutory rape b. hate crimes
b. date rape c. Copy-cat crimes
c. marital rape d. victimless crimes
d. acquaintance rape 2813.A term to denote a premeditated, politically motivated
2801.A c c o r d i n g t o L o m b r o s o , t h e s e a r e p h y s i c a l violence perpetrated against non-combatant targets by
characteristics that distinguish born criminals from the subnational groups or clandestine agents, usually
general population and are throwbacks to animals or intended to influence an audience.
primitive people. a. Rebellion
a. physical deviations b. piracy
b. distinguishable traits c. Terrorism
c. atavistic stigmata d. little war
d. ape-like appearance 2814.It conceded that certain factors such as insanity might
2802.It is the most essential part of the definition of the criminal inhibit the exercise of free will.
law: a. Classical theory
a. elements b. neo-classical
b. penalty c. Sociological
c. degree of evidence d. positivist
d. motive 2815.These are crimes committed by a person of respectability
and high social status in the course of occupation.
2803.The concept that conduct norms are passed down from a. Blue collar crimes
one generation to the next so that they become stable b. crime of the upper world
within the boundaries of a culture. c. White collar crimes
a. heredity d. crime of the underworld
b. inheritance 2816.Public order crime is otherwise known as:
c. cultural transmission a. Violent crimes
d. DNA b. economic crimes
2804.Group of urban sociologists who studies the relationship c. Organized crimes
between environmental conditions and crime. d. victimless crimes
a. classical school 2817.The law that provides Board Examination for
b. chicago school Criminologists in the Philippines.
c. neo-classical school a. R.A. 6975
d. positive school b. R.A. 8551
2805.He is recognized as the first codifier of laws: c. R.A. 6506
a. Drakon d. R.A. 8353
b. the Hittites 2818.Criminals who have a high degree of organization to
c. Solon enable them to commit crimes without being detected.
d. Hammurabi a. Professional criminals
2806.He said that individuals are like human calculators. b. ordinary criminals
Before a person commits a crime, he first analyzes c. Organized criminals
d. expert criminals c. hypoglycemia
d. hypoglycomia
2819.Who among the following are the “Holy Three in 2830.This school on crime causation emphasized economic
Criminology”? determinism and concentrated on the need for the quality
a. Lombroso, Bentham, Beccaria among all citizens. They provided statistical data which
b. Lombroso, Garofalo, Ferri claimed to show that variations in crime rates are
c. Beccaria, Bentham, Ferri associated with variations in economic conditions.
d. Beccaria, Garofalo, Lombroso a. Cartographic School
2820.Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by ____ b. Socialist School
wherein he concluded that the main difference between a c. Psychiatric School
criminal and a non-criminal is that each is responding to d. Chicago School
different sets of conduct norms. 2831.“Manie sans delire” (madness without confusion) This
a) Emile Durkheim was the term used by Philippe Pinel describing the
b) Andre Michael Guerry personality that is characterized by an inability to learn
c) Thorsten Sellin from experience, lack of warmth, and no sense of guilt
d) Abraham Maslow better known as:
a. psychotic personality
2821.This school of thought in criminology states that although b. psychopathic personality
individuals have self-rule, there are other factors that affect c. neurotic behavior
the exercise of their autonomy, which cause them commit d. dementia praecox
crimes:
a) neo-classical
b) utilitarianism 2832.A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his
c) classical ambition and goals in life both as an officer of the law,
d) positivist and as a private citizen, can push him to a life of crime, as
2822.This theory reflects the way people react to a given pointed out in this particular theory.
situation based on the social influences they acquired from
other people that practically determine their behaviors. a. Disorganization Theory
This theory likewise serves as the learning process of b. Culture Conflict Theory
delinquent behaviors and considered as one of the most C.Differential Association Theory
important theory in crime causation. d. Strain Theory
a) Social Disorganization theory
b) Culture Conflict theory 2833.Crimes which occur per 100,000 population per month. It
c) Differential Association Theory is the theoretical basis which determines the peace and
d) Social Reaction Theory order situation.
2823.It is the breakdown of social order as a result of the loss a. index crimes
of order in a society. b. crime rate
a. synomie c. non-index crimes
b) anarchy d. crime statistics
c) anomie 2834.The Idea that low female crime and delinquency rates are
d) chaos a reflection of the leniency which the police treat female
offenders.
a. Doing gender
b. masculinity hypothesis
2824.He introduced the “theory of imitation” which states that c. Chivalry hypothesis
individuals copy behavior patterns of other individuals, and d. pre-menstrual syndrome
that those with weaker personalities tend to get influenced 2835.A stage of development when girls begin to have sexual
easier by those with stronger personalities: feeling for their fathers.
a. Emile Durkheim b ) a. Oedipus complex
Adolphe Quetelet b. doing gender
c) Gabriel Tarde c. Electra complex
d) Enrico Ferri d. chivalry hypothsis
2825.A term that used to describe motorists who assault each 2836.The legal principle by which the decision or holding in an
other. earlier case becomes the standard by which subsequent
a. road rage similar cases are judged. It literally means “to stand by
b. predation decided cases”.
c. hate crime a. jus desert
d. serial murder b. stare decisis
2826.This theory argues that intelligence is largely determined c. story decisis
genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; and, that low d. just stare
intelligence as demonstrated by low IQ is linked to 2837.This is a theory by Robert Merton which assumes that
behavior including criminal behavior: people are law abiding but under great pressure, they will
a. Nature Theory resort to crime.
b) Psychological theory a. strain theory
c) Strain Theory b. social learning
d) Labeling theory c. cultural deviance
d. anomie
2827.The theory which states that attachment, connection and 2838.The first IQ test was developed by a French psychologist
link to society will determine whether a person shall named:
commit a crime or not: a. Rafael Garofalo
a. social control b. Albert Bandura
b) social disorganization c. Walter Reckless
c) social bond d. Alfred Binet
d) social learning 2839.His study focused on the Kallikak family tree and he
2828.The philosophy of justice that asserts that those who concluded that feeblemindedness is inherited and related
violate the rights of others deserve to be punished. The to deviant behavior and poverty. He was the first person to
severity of the punishment should be commensurate with use the term “moron”.
the seriousness of the crime. a. Robert Dugdale
a. restorative justice b. Henry Goddard
b. jus desert c. Eaenest Hooton
c. utilitarianism d. d. Charles Goring
equality of punishment 2840.This theory focuses on the development of high crime
2829.A condition in which the glucose in the blood falls below areas associated with the disintegration of conventional
levels necessary for normal and efficient brain functioning. values caused by rapid industrialization, increased
a. hyperglycemia migration and urbanization.
b. hyperglycomia a. Cultural Deviance Theory
b. Differential Association Theory c. Social Process Theory
c. Social Disorganization Theory d. Social Reaction theory
d. Strain Theory 2852.Cesare Lombroso classified this type of criminal with five
(5) or more atavistic stigmata.
2841.A societal stage marked by normlessness in which a. Born-criminal type
disintegration and chaos have replaced social cohesion. b. insane
a. Social disorganization c. Criminaloid
b. Anomie d. pseudo-criminal
c. Strain 2853.These are crimes which are wrong from their very nature.
d. Synomie Examples of these are murder, robbery, and other
2842.It is otherwise known as the decline in criminal activities violations of the Revised Penal Code.
together with the time. a. Heinous crimes
a. Birth cohort b. mala in se
b. aging out phenomenon c. Serious crimes
c. Criminal aging d. mala prohibita
d. crime rate 2854.These are crimes which are wrong only because there
2843.He invoked that only justified rationale for laws and are laws that prohibit them in order to regulate an orderly
punishment is the principle of the greatest happiness society. Examples of these are the violations of special
shared by the greatest number of people. laws like the violation of “Anti-Smoking Law”.
a. Utilitatrianism a. Mala prohibita
b. Jeremy Bentham b. less grave felonies
c. Felicific Calculus c. Mala in se
d. Cesare Beccaria d. light felonies
2855.The principle of criminal law which is “nullum crimen nulla
2844.The beginning to have sexual feelings for the mother, poena sine lege” means:
which occurs during the third year from birth is known as: a. An act done by me against my will is not
a. Oedipus Complex my act
b. Inferiority Complex b. There is no crime where no law
c. Electra Complex punishing it.
d. Incest c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one.
2845.Serious illegal detention is a crime committed through d. Mistake of fact is an excuse.
series of acts or episodes and in much longer time. This 2856.He was the one who introduced the following definition of
crime is classified as: criminology: “It is the entire body of knowledge regarding
a. Instant crime crime as a social phenomenon. It includes within its scope
b. episoidal crime the process of making laws, of breaking laws and of
c. Situational crime reacting towards the breaking of the laws”:
d. seasonal crime a) Raffaelle Garofalo
2846.The following are the characteristics of the Classical b) Edwin Sutherland
School of Criminology: c) Cesare Beccaria
I. The basis of criminal liability is human free d) Paul Topinard
will and the purpose of penalty is retribution 2857.Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill. It is
II. Man is essentially a moral creature with an focused on an individual's choice as to whether or not he
absolute free will to choose between right will commit a crime and the purpose of Classical Theory in
and wrong. giving punishment is________________.
III. Criminals are distinguishable from non- a) Restoration
criminals because of their physical b) Treatment
deviations. c) Retribution
IV. That every man is therefore responsible for d) Deterrence
his act.

a. I, II, III are correct. 2858.Refers to the circumstances which attendant in the
b. I, III, IV are correct. commission of a crime serve to increase the penalty,
c. II, III, IV are correct. without however exceeding the maximum of the penalty
d. I, II, IV are correct. provided by law for the offense.
2847.It conceded factors such as insanity might inhibit the a. Justifying
exercise of free will. b. Exempting
a. Classical theory c. Mitigating
b. positivist theory d. Aggravating
c. Neo-classical theory 2859.Those wherein the acts of the person are in accordance
d. radical theory with the law, hence he incurs no criminal liability.
2848.His great contributions to criminology were the principle a. Exempting
of utilitarianism and the felicific calculus. b. aggravating
a. Cesare Beccaria c. Justifying
b. Jeremy Bentham d. Mitigating
c. Cesare Lombroso 2860.Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Manila City
d. Emile Durkheim Hall on January 14, 2011. June 14, 2011, a city ordinance
2849.He propounded the theory of evolution that inspired the was passed punishing loitering within the vicinity of Isetan
now known “Father of Modern Criminology” to develop the Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of loitering?
theory of atavism. a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
a. Cesare Lombroso b. Yes under the principle of retroactive
b. Charles Goring effect of criminal law
c. Cesare Beccaria c. No, for the act was done prior to the
d. Charles Darwin effectivity of the law.
2850.According to him, people with criminal behavior, should d. No, for A did not loiter again.
be prohibited from having children. 2861.His theory was that God did not make all the various
a. Robert Dugdale species of animals in two days, as what the bible says but
b. Henry Goddard rather that the species had evolved through a process of
c. Charles Goring adoptive mutation and natural selection which led to his
d. George Wilker conclusion that man was traced to have originated from
2851.It states that individuals are deviant mainly because they the apes.
have been labeled as deviant by social agencies and a. Jeremy Bentham
others. The notion of deviance is not inherent in the act b. Charles Darwin
itself, but rather in the reaction and stigma attached to the c. Prince Charles
actor. d)Charles de Gaulle
a. Containment Theory 2862.Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes of
b. Theory of Imitation crime and true to his dedication to his lifetime works, upon
his death he willed his brain and body to the Institute of c. I, II, III only
Anatomy at the University of Turin in Italy to be further d. all of the above
studied. To this, he was named the “Father of Modern and 2873.Is a self-association of peers, bound together by mental
Empirical Criminology”. interest, who acted in concert in order to achieve a specific
a) Cesare Beccaria purpose which includes the conduct of illegal activities and
b) Edwin Sutherland control over a particular territory, facility or type of
c) Cesare Lombroso enterprises.
d) Jeremy Bentham a. Juvenile gang
2863.Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes of b. Organized criminal
crime and true to his dedication to his lifetime works, upon c. a bond
his death he willed his brain and body to the Institute of d. street corner gang
Anatomy at the University of Turin in Italy to be further
studied. To this, he was named the “Father of Modern and 2874.The court can suspend parental authority if it finds that
Empirical Criminology”. the parent:
a) Cesare Beccaria I. Tr e a t s t h e c h i l d w i t h e x c e s s i v e
b) Edwin Sutherland harshness of cruelty.
c) Cesare Lombroso II. Gives the child corrupting order, counsel
d) Jeremy Bentham or example
2864.Which of the following is NOT included in the III. Compel the child to beg
components of criminal justice system of the United IV. Imposed to child disciplinary actions.
States? a. I and II only
a. Law enforcement c. I and III only
b. Corrections b. I, II, III and IV
c. Prosecution d. I, II and III only
d. Courts 2875.Who among the following is considered as “Child in
2865.The power of the state to give any form of charity of Conflict with the Law”?
public nature. It is the philosophy behind the view that a. Bryan who is 15 years old.
youthful offender/child in conflict with the law is the victim b. Yang who is 10 years old.
of improper care and that the state is duty bound to c. Lover Boy who is 17 years old
provide protection. d. anyone of them
a. positivism 2876.Refers to the totality of the circumstances which are most
b. loco parentis beneficial for the child.
c. patria potestas d . a. child as zone of peace b. nation
parens patriae building
2866.Under the law, they are the one responsible for c. best interest of the child
preventing the child from becoming addicted to d. presumption of minority
intoxicating drinks, narcotic drugs, smoking, gambling or 2877.Is the mass obligation which the parents have in relation
any harmful practices. to the persons and property of their an unemancipated
a. DSWD child.
b. Parents a. Paretal authority
c. state b. Patria Potestas
d. police c. Parens’ Patriae
2867.The civil personality of the child is deemed to have been d. Parental Responsibility
commenced upon: 2878.A person of such age is automatically exempted from
a. birth of the child criminal liability but should be taken to the custody and
b. when the child celebrates his first birthday care of his parents, DSWD representative or any
c. from the time of his conception institution engage in child caring.
d. upon reaching the age of majority a. 15 years and below
2868.Refers to a person appointed by the court to act as the b. under 18 years of age
legal guardian of the child even though the parents of the c. under 15 years of age
child are still alive when the best interest of the said child d. under 21 years of age
so require. 2879.Refers to a child raise to the status of legitimate child by
a. adopter subsequent marriage of his/her parents.
b. loco parentis a. illegitimate
c. guardian ad litem b. legitimated
d. temporary guardian c. legitimate
2869.Under the RA 9344 a child over 15 under 18 is exempt d. adopted
from criminal liability unless: 2880.In case of separation between parents of the child, a
a. he is committed a henious crime child of such age is given by the court the preference to
b. he is the principal accused choose between either parents.
c. he acted without discernment a. under 9 years of age
d. he acted with discernment b. 7 years of age
2870.The Child in Conflict with the law cannot be prosecuted c. 10 years of age
for the commission of the following, EXCEPT: d. 5 years of age
a. mendicancy 2881.Refers to aggregate of persons working in commercial,
b. sniffing of rugby industrial and agricultural establishments or enterprises
c. prostitution whether belonging to the labor or management whose
d. theft primary duty is to care for the welfare of the working
2871.A child left by himself without provisions for his needs/or children.
without proper supervision falls under what special a. civic association of adult
category of a child? b. community
a. abandoned child c. Samahan
b. abused child d. youth association
c. neglected child 2882.Parental authority is deemed terminated upon:
d. dependent child a. death of the parents
2872.In the absence of death of both parents of the child who b. emancipation of the child
shall continue to exercise authority over the child? c. death of the child
I. Surviving grand parents d. All of the choices
II. Elder brother and sister over 21 years of 2883.Which of the following is the best way for the police to
age win youth’s trust and confidence?
III. Surviving parents of child a. be friendly
IV. Actual custodian of the child over 21 b. be firm and show them that you are strong
years of age. c. show to them that your bearing is good
a. I, II and IV only and stand with pride
b. I and II only d. let them know that you are an agent of a
person in authority
2884.A child born inside a marriage where either party is b. open to the public;
suffering from an impediments. c. considered restricted;
a. illegitimate child d. considered privileged and confidential
b. legitimated child 2894.Mona was charged with vandalism on her 18th birthday
c. legitimate child when she painted her neighbor’s walls with greeting to
d. adopted child herself. How will you classify Mona as an offender?
2885.This refers to the apprehension or taking into custody of a. juvenile offender
a child who committed an offense by the law enforcement b. habitual offender
officer: c. adult offender
a. initial contact with the child d. none
b. preliminary investigation 2895.All statements, EXCEPT ONE, are correct:
c. initial investigation a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile
d. inquest proceedings delinquency when parents find it hard to balance their
2886.This common procedure applied when arresting an jobs with their parental responsibilities
offender shall NOT be employed when the person who is b. peer group is a factor to juvenile delinquency
the subject of apprehension is a child. c. parental rejection causes juvenile delinquency
a. informing the suspect is a child d. it is only within the family that a child must
b. stating the reason for the arrest learn his life values
c. employing reasonable force 2896.Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero, roams the street 24
d. use of handcuffs hours a day with no place to go, surviving on foods given
2887.It refers to the totality of the circumstances and by kind-hearted people with no one to supervise him at his
conditions which are most congenial to the survival, young age of six (6). How do you categorize Pedro as a
protection and feelings of security of the child and most child?
encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and a. neglected child b .
emotional development. It also means the least independent child
detrimental available alternative for safeguarding the c. Abandoned child
growth and development of the child. d. dependent child
a. Child at risk 2897.Ms. RCBC, a 25-year old mongoloid, was raped by her
b. Best Interest of the Child addict neighbor, Mr. Go. How do you classify her as a
c. Full development. victim?
d. Child welfare program a. an adult
2888.In case of a child in conflict with the law his age shall be b. an insane
determine in the absence of proof what principle shall be c. a child
observed? d. an adolescent
a. He is presumed to be minor
b. He should prove his age
c. The Birth certificate should be produced 2898.It is the act of buying and selling children:
pending such issuance he should be hold. a. exploitation
d. The testimony of the child should be enough to b. prostitution
prove his age. c. abuse
2889.It is the psychological, emotional and behavioral d. trafficking
reactions and deficits of women victims and their inability 2899.This refers to the maltreatment of children, whether
to respond to repeated physical and psychological habitual or not:
violence? a. exploitation
A. Battered Woman Syndrome b. abuse
B. Battered Wife c. prostitution
C. Abused Woman d. trafficking
D. Rape trauma syndrome 2900.Children are declared as ____________ in situations of
2890.Child in conflict with the law may undergo diversion armed conflict:
program without necessity of court intervention on the a. priorities for evacuation
following: b. exemptions
a. Where the imposable penalty for the crime c. zones of peace
committee is not more than six (6) years d. shields
imprisonment; 2901.This refers to pledging by the debtor of his or her
b. Where the imposable penalty for the crime personal services or those of a person under his or her
committed exceeds six (6) years imprisonment; control as security or payment for a debt, when the length
c. Where the imposable penalty for the crime and nature of services are not clearly defined:
committed exceeds six (6) years but not more a. debt bondage
than 12 years imprisonment; b. involuntary servitude
d. Where the imposable penalty for the crime c. abuse
committed does not exceeds 12 years d. slavery
imprisonment. 2902.A working child below fifteen years old may be allowed to
2891.Once the court, after trial finds that a child in conflict with work for only _______ hours per day:
the law is guilty of the crime charged, the court shall: a. eight
A. Pronounce its judgment; b. four
B. Wait for the application for suspension of c. five
sentence of the child and order his turn over to d. six
DSWD. 2903.Publication of photographs of persons or children in
C. Automatically place the child in conflict various obscene or indecent poses meant to cause sexual
with law under suspension of sentence. excitement to those who will see them is a form of:
D. Determine the civil liability and order the a. adult entertainment
final discharge of the child in conflict with the law. b. illegal publication
c. obscene material
2892.Once the child in conflict with the law reached the age of d. pornography
18 while under suspended sentence the court may: 2904.Employers shall provide an opportunity for education to
A. Order the execution of sentence; all working children up to this level:
B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict with a. elementary
the law; b. college
C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain c.secondary
period or to its maximum age of 21. d. vocational
D. Any of the above choices 2905.In employing children, the employment contract must be
2893.All records and proceedings involving children in conflict signed:
with the law from initial contact until final disposition of the a) by the Department of Labor and
case shall be: Employment
a. placed in the dockets of court forms part b) in the presence of the family’s lawyer
of the public record; c) by the child’s parent or guardian
d) and notarized by a Notary Public utilizing and offering escort and sexual services as
2906.In cases of working children, this has the duty of securing enticement for tourists.
the permit from the Department of Labor and Employment: a. prostitution
a. parents b. exploitation
b. working child c. sex tourism
c. manager d. pornography
d. employer 2918.Refers to an intentional act committed by a person who
2907.This form of violence includes acts causing or likely to knowingly and without lawful justification follows the
cause mental or emotional suffering of the victim such as woman or her child or places the woman or her child
but not limited to intimidation, harassment, stalking and under surveillance directly or indirectly.
repeated verbal abuse: a. stalking
a. battery b. economic abuse
b. psychological c. battery
c. sexual d. sexual violence
d. physical 2919.A working child over fifteen but under eighteen may work
2908.The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified when: but his work hours must not exceed ____ hours:
a) the person trafficked is an elderly a) eight
b) the person trafficked is a woman b) seven
c) the person trafficked is a special child c) ten
d) the person trafficked is a child d) six
2909.This refers to any word or deed which debases, degrades 2920.A working child who is below eighteen but over fifteen
or demeans the intrinsic worth and dignity of the child as years old may be allowed to work between the hours of:
human being. a) six to eight o’clock pm b) seven
a. eglect to eight o’clock p
b. psychological abuse c) six to ten o’clock pm
c. sexual abuse d) seven to ten o’clock pm
d. cruelty 2921.It means failure to provide, for reasons other than
poverty, the basic needs of the child, such as food,
2910.The following person are liable for child prostitution, clothing, medical care, shelter and basic education
EXCEPT: a. sexual abuse
a. those who act as procurer of child b. physical abuse
prostitute c. psychological abuse
b. children recruited as prostitutes d. neglect
c. managers or owners of the establishment 2922.Refers to acts that make or attempt to make a woman
where the prostitution takes place financially dependent.
d. clients of child prostitute a. stalking
2911.This refers to the use, hiring, employment and coercing of b. economic abuse
children as actors or models in printed pornographic c. battery
materials: d. sexual violence
a. indecent shows
b. child prostitution 2923.No child shall be employed as a model in any
c. obscene publication advertisement directly or indirectly promoting the following:
d. child exploitation I. alcoholic beverages and intoxicating drinks
2912.The legislative act that penalizes the acts, means and II. pornographic materials
purposes of human trafficking: III. medicines for use of adults
a. R.A. 9344 IV. cigarettes and any form of gambling
b. R.A. 7610 a. I, II, III are correct
c. R.A. 9208 b. II, III, IV are correct
d. R.A. 8043 c. I, II, IV are correct
d. I, III, IV are correct
2913.1st. The crime of trafficking in person is qualified when the 2924.The law that provides special protection of children
trafficked person is a child. against child abuse, exploitation and discrimination.
2nd. As a general rule, children below 15 a. R.A. 7610
years of age shall not be employed. b. R.A. 9208
c. R.A. 9231
a. Both statements are correct. d. P.D. 603
b. The 1st statement is correct, the 2nd is 2925.The law prohibiting the worst forms of child labor.
incorrect. a. R.A. 9262
c. The 1st statement is incorrect, the 2nd is b. R.A. 7610
correct. c. R.A. 9231
d. Both statements are incorrect. d. R.A. 9344
2914.The “Anti-Violence Against Women and their Children Act 2926.This form of child abuse includes lacerations, fractured
of 2004”: bones, burns, internal injuries and serious bodily harm
a. R.A. 9262 suffered by a child:
b. R.A. 7610 a. psychological
c. R.A. 9208 b. emotional
d. R.A. 9344 c. physical
2915.It refers to an act of inflicting physical harm upon the d. cruelty
woman or her child resulting to the physical and
psychological or emotional distress. 2927.This refers to offenses where there is no private offended
a. stalking party:
b. economic abuse a. Victimology
c. battery b. public order crime
d. sexual violence c. Victimless crime
2916.This includes the employment, use, inducement or d. d. both a and c
coercion of a child to engage in sexual intercourse or
lascivious conduct; the molestation, prostitution and or 2928.This is the Latin term for parental authority:
incest with children. a) loco parentis
a. sexual abuse b) patria potestas
b. physical abuse c) parens patriae
b. psychological abuse d) patria adorada
d. cruelty 2929.Before any petition for adoption may be approved, the
adopter and the adoptee must first undergo a supervised
2917.Refers to a program organized by travel establishments trial custody for a period of:
and individuals which consist of packages or activities, a) at least six months
b) not more than six months
c) at least one year 2943.It is the holding in abeyance of the service of the
d) not less than one year sentence imposed by the court upon a finding of guilt of
2930.This refers to the document issued by the court signifying the child in conflict with the law, whereby the child
the approval of the application for adoption: undergoes rehabilitation within a fixed period under such
a) decree of adoption terms and conditions as may be ordered by the court:
b) petition for adoption a) probation
c) annulment b) suspension of sentence
d) rescission c) parole
2931.This is the legal age in the Philippines: d) pardon
a) twenty-one 2944.It is a disposition under which a defendant, after
b) seventeen conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions
c) eighteen imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation
d) twelve officer:
2932.A child who has been voluntarily or involuntarily a) suspension of sentence
committed to the DSWD or to a duly licensed child b) parole
placement agency and is free from parental authority: c) probation
a) child legally available for adoption d) pardon
b) legally-free child 2945.A child in conflict with the law is exempted from _____:
c) emancipated child a) both criminal and civil liability
d) abandoned child b) neither criminal nor civil liability
2933.This form of violence includes acts causing or likely to c) criminal liability only
cause mental or emotional suffering of the victim such as d) civil liability only
but not limited to intimidation, harassment, stalking and 2946.If the penalty for the crime committed by the CICL is
repeated verbal abuse: imprisonment of more than six years, diversion will be
a) battery within the jurisdiction of the ____________:
b) psychological a) barangay
c) sexual b) DSWD
d) physical c) police
2934.A working child who is below eighteen but over fifteen d) court
years old may be allowed to work between the hours of: 2947.Discernment is the determining factor if the CICL is over
a) six to eight o’clock pm fifteen years old. The decision as to whether the child
b) seven to eight o’clock p acted with or without discernment is made initially by the
c) six to ten o’clock pm _______:
d) seven to ten o’clock pm a) social worker
2935.Emancipation takes place when: c) law enforcer
a) the parents decide to emancipate him or b) CICL
her d) judge
b) the child becomes 18 years old 2948.The duty of determining the age of the child in conflict
c) the child is already married with the law lies with the _______:
d) the child applies for it a) social worker
d) games and gadgets b) law enforcer
2936.The CICL shall be entitled to the automatic suspension of c) CICL
sentence until the maximum age of __: d) judge
a) twenty-three
b) eighteen 2949.The age of full criminal responsibility is:
c) twenty-one a. Less than 18 but more than 70 years old
d) twenty b. More than 18 but less than 70 years old
2937.In case the child has been found guilty by the court, he c. Over 15 but under 18 years old
shall be ordered to be transferred to _______: d. Not less than 18 but not more than 70 years
a) a youth rehabilitation center old
b) a youth detention home 2950.It pertains to the document that must be signed by the
c) a city or municipal jail parents of the child in conflict with the law as part of the
d) an agricultural camp conditions of diversion:
2938.Preliminary investigation shall only be conducted when a) contract of diversion proceedings
the: b) certification of conciliation
a) CICL is over fifteen but under eighteen c) memorandum of agreement
b) CICL is disqualified for diversion d) contract of diversion
c) CICL acted with discernment 2951.A child in conflict with the law who is under fifteen years
d) victim filed the complaint of age shall be turned over to the ________________ by
2939.The law enforcement officer must ensure that all the police for the determination of appropriate program:
statements signed by the child during investigation are a) nearest police station
witnessed and signed by the following: b) family
a) his parents, lawyer and social worker c) local DSWSD
b) his parents or guardian d) court
c) legal counsel
d) social worker 2952.The diversion proceedings must be completed within
2940.The body search of the child in conflict with the law must ____ days:
be done only by a law enforcement officer: a) thirty
a) who has initial contact b) forty-five
b) assigned to the case c) sixty
c) of the opposite sex d) twenty
d) of the same gender 2953.If the court finds that the child in conflict with the law is
2941.The first important thing that a law enforcer must do upon guilty of the crime he is accused of doing, the
initial contact is to ____: ____________ of the sentence shall automatically be
a) know the age of the child suspended:
b) notify the local DSWD a) imposition
c) call the parents b) determination
d) make a report c) execution
d) discharge
2942.It is the best evidence to prove the age of the child in 2954.The ________________ has the right to refuse the
conflict with the law: diversion program designed for the child:
a) testimony of the parents of the child a) offended party
b) testimony of the child b) parents of the child
c) certificate of birth c) victim
d) school records d) social worker
2955.When the court decides to execute the suspended c. displacement
sentence, the child must be transferred to a: d. projection
a) youth rehabilitation center 2968.An uncontrollable, morbid propensity to steal or
b) youth detention home pathological stealing.
c) agricultural farm a. kleptomania
d) prison b. pyromania
2956.It shall be the duty of the ______________________ to c. phobia
make proper recommendation to the court regarding the d. Dipsomania
disposition of the child who is undergoing rehabilitation 2969.This type of conflict occurs when there is an attraction to
while under suspension of sentence: an object or state of affairs at the same time repulsion
a) prosecutor towards something associated with it.
b) social worker a. avoidance-avoidance
c) lawyer c. approach-approach
d) judge c. approach-avoidance
2957.All records pertaining to the case of the child in conflict d. multiple
with the law shall remain _______ and ______: 2970.This is the process of excluding from the consciousness
a) privileged and confidential a thought or feeling that causes pain, shame or guilt.
b) classified and confidential a. identification
c) privileged and restricted b. regression
d) secret and confidential c. repression
d. fixation
2958.The age of full criminal irresponsibility is: 2971.This is an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt deficiencies
a. Over 15 but under 18 years old who acted with or undesirable traits by emphasizing a desirable type of
discernment behavior.
b. 18 to 70 years old a. rationalization
c. 15 years old and below b. sublimation
d. Below 18 even if the act is committed with c. compensation
discernment d. projection
2959.It refers to the sum total of man's reaction to his 2972.Kadyo Tero, a B.S. Criminology student, after tasting an
environment or the way human beings act. unripe mango grimaced. This sensation is said to be:
a. Human Beings a. olfactory
b. Learning b. Auditory
c. Human Behavior c. cutaneous
d. Stimulus d. gustatory
2973.This is a serious mental and emotional disorder that is a
2960.Refers to any behavioral reactions or reflexes exhibited manifestation of withdrawal from reality.
by people because of their inherited capabilities or the a. Neurosis
process of natural selection. b. Depression
a. Inherited Behavior c. Psychosis
b. Inborn Behavior d. Anxiety
c. Learned Behavior 2974.This occurs when goal achievement is blocked.
d. both a and c a. frustration
2961.It is a behavior pattern where an individual return to a b. conflict
state of form adjustment and attempt to experience them c. anxiety
again in memory. d. Depression
a. phobia
b. anger 2975.The aggregate observable responses of an organism to
b. frustration internal and external stimuli.
d. regression a. human behavior
2962.Defense mechanisms are used to shield one’s self from b. behavior
_____. c. personality
a. anger d. attribute
b. fear 2976.The process by which behavior changes as a result of
c. pleasure experience or practice.
d. pain a. actualization
2963.Human behavior is man’s response to the interpretation b. learning
of the ______ from within the person or from his c. thinking
environment. d. feeling
a. stimulus 2977.This type of conflict occurs when there are two desirable
b. action but mutually exclusive goals.
c. perception (respose to sensation) d . a. avoidance-avoidance
inclination b. approach-approach
2964.This personality system controls the gateway to action. c. approach-avoidance
a. alter ego d. multiple
b. Id 2978.This type of conflict when there are two courses of action,
c. ego each of which has both pleasant and unpleasant
d. Superego consequences.
2965.What is the process of interpreting our behavior in ways a. avoidance-avoidance
to make it more acceptable to the self usually with the use b. approach-approach
of good reasons and alibi to substitute for real cause? c. approach-avoidance
a. projection d. multiple
b. sublimation 2979.This is an excessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear of
c. rationalization a perfectly natural situation or object.
d. Compensation a. melancholia
b. phobia
2966.Conflicts and their behavioral outcomes are classified as c. exaltation
follows, EXCEPT: d. Mania
a. avoidance-approach
b. avoidance-avoidance 2980.It is characterized by anxiety, depression and phobia.
c. approach-avoidance a. psychoses
d. approach-approach b. neuroses
2967.Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a nearby tree c. abnormality
manifests what particular defense mechanism? d. Psychopathy
a. repression
b. sublimation 2981.Hydrophobia is fear of ________.
a. Water
b. darkness d. fantasy
c. Snakes 2995.What type of defense mechanism is manifested by Pining
d. deep water Garcia when he joined the fraternity, Alpha Phi Chupapi,
2982.A distortion in reality such as delusion, hallucination and because of low self-esteem?
regression. a. Identification
a. psychosis b. projection
b. neurosis c. Fantasy
c. abnormality d. regression
d. psychopathy 2996.This refers to an action-producing agent:
2983.A transmission of physical characteristics, mental traits, a. Motives
tendency to disease, etc. from parents to offspring. b. Drives
a. heredity c. Stimulus
b. environment d. sensation
c. inheritance 2997.Human actions in relation to events taking place inside
d. Introvert the body such as the brain and the nervous system is
2984.Drug addicts and alcoholics may deny that they have known as:
problems. This is a manifestation of what type of defense a. Neurological
mechanism? b. psychological
a. Fantasy c. Cognitive
b. sublimation d. Humanistic
c. Denial
d. displacement 2998.A child who is always brushing his teeth after eating
2985.Kenneth Totnak, a B.S. Criminology student in the manifests what particular classification of human
evening session, blames his poor performance in the behavior?
preliminary examination to his professor rather than his a. Habitual
lack of preparation. This is an example of what type of b. complex
defense mechanism? c. Instinctive
a. Reaction formation d. symbolic
b. displacement 2999.Displaying the diplomas and graduation awards signify
c. Sublimation one’s academic achievement. This classification of human
d. rationalization behavior is known as:
2986.Ms. Pining Garcia, frustrated on her boyfriend when she a. Habitual
saw the latter kissing another girl, cries. This is an b. complex
example of what defense mechanism? c. Instinctive
a. Regression d. symbolic
b. suppression 3000.Mathematical ability and English communication skills are
c. Repression examples of what type of human behavior?
d. displacement a. Learned
2987.Texting while driving is an example of what classification b. inborn
of human behavior? c. Operant
a. Habitual d. both a and c
b. symbolic 3001.Eating when you are hungry is an example of _______
c. Instinctive behavior.
d. complex a. Habitual
2988.It refers to the person’s knowledge of a given stimulus b. complex
which largely helps to determine the actual behavioral c. Instinctive
response in a given situation. d. Symbolic
a. Perception 3002.It is the ability to withstand frustration without developing
b. awareness inadequate modes of response such as being emotionally
c. Sensation depressed or irritated, becoming neurotic, or becoming
d. Learning aggressive.
a. Frustration Tolerance
2989.A person who is a balanced introvert and extrovert is said b. Frustration Shield
to be: c. Frustration Flexibility
a. Psychotic d. all of the above
b. ambivert 3003.Mr. Six Footer, an aspiring PNP applicant, turned up
c. Neurotic applying into the Armed Forces of the Philippines when he
d. angry bird failed in the initial height and weight measurement stage
2990.He is known as the “Father of Psychoanalysis”. because he was under height. This is an example of:
a. Tom Cruise a. Sublimation
b. Gina Ferrero-Lombroso b. repression
c. Sigmund Freud c. Substitution
d. Cesare Lombroso d. withdrawal
2991.Coping mechanism is the way people react to 3004.Which of the following items does not belong to the
__________. group?
a. Fear a. prostitution
b. anxiety b. assassination
c. Frustration c. sabotage
d. Anger d. bombing
3005.It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack of
2992.It can be seen among people who handle their problems conscience, deficient feeling of affection to others and
in a very objective way. aggression to environment and other people.
a. Coping Mechanism a. schizophrenic personality
b. Direct Approach b. psychopathic personality
c. Detour c. compulsive neurosis
d. Withdrawal d. neurotic personality
2993.The most tolerated way of handling frustration. 3006.Which of the following is not a common tactic in
a. Defense Mechanism terrorism?
b. Direct Approach a. robbery
c. Detour c. bombing
d. Withdrawal b. hijacking
2994.A type of defense mechanism whereby a person d. kidnapping
concentrates in area where he can excel. 3007.This is an abnormal mental condition whereby a person
a. Displacement performs an act while sleeping.
b. compensation a. somnambulism
c. Rationalization b. mesmerism
c. somnolencia 3021.In hostage situation, non-verbal communication which
d. delirium indicates openness and willingness to listen can be shown
3008.Animals are used for the achievement of sexual by:
excitation and gratification. a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
a. voyeurism b. calmly repeating words of comfort and
b. fetishism assurance
c. pedophilia c. by not attempting to trick or lie
d. bestiality d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that
3009.A person suffers from _____ when he developed a you are willing to negotiate
maladaptive behavior in his childhood as a result of an 3022.It is referred to as sexual gratification by watching nude
external influence that later on becomes a part of his woman or man.
lifestyle and which he uses to relate to the world around a. exhibitionism
him. b. voyeurism
a. personality disorder c. transvestitism
b. abnormal behavior d. fetishism
c. personality behavior
d. abnormal personality 3023.It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack of
3010.These are priorities in a hostage taking situation conscience deficient feeling of affection to others and
EXCEPT, aggression.
a. Preservation of life a. schizophrenic personality
b. Arrest of hostage taker b. psychopathic personality
c. recover and protect property c. compulsive neurosis
d. involve the media d. neurotic personality
3011.Containment in a hostage taking situation refers to: 3024.This is a mentally disturbed person who is opposed to the
a. police handling of the situation principles upon which society is based.
b. negotiation a. Anti-social
c. contact b. Psychopath
d. control of area and people b. Schizophrenic
3012.The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking situation is, d. Sociopath
a. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators 3025.A morbid insanity characterized by a deep and morbid
should not command sense of religious feeling.
b. open the communication at once a. mania
c. negotiate b. mania fanatica
d. ask for demands b. delusion
3013.When both hostage and hostage taker develop a mutual d. legal insanity
feeling of sympathy, understanding, and other shared
stand on issues, leading them to become enemies of the 3026.This is impairment in desire for sexual gratification in the
State, this turn referred to as, male or an inability to achieve it.
a. Stockholm Syndrome a. masturbation
b. Confrontation b. prostitution
c. Negotiation c. exhibitionism
d. familiarization d. frigidity
3014.Motivation is classified under 28 needs. The need to 3027.This is any pattern of behavior including a habitual,
assault or injure is: preferred, and compelling need for sexual gratification by
a. need deference any technique, other than willing coitus between man and
b. need aggression woman and involving actions that are directly results in
c. need recognition genital excite.
d. need order a. crime against chastity b. acts
3015.The need to influence or control others is: of lasciviousness
a. need order c. sexual deviation
b. need dominance d. sexual offenses
c. need achievement 3028.The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid
d. need exhibition Schizophrenic hostage taker is:
3016.A person has _____ when he/she has painful memories a. to accept their beliefs as being true
associated with some shocking experience which are b. to try to convince them that their beliefs are
repressed and cannot be recalled. wrong
a. anxiety c. to show them that they are just crazy
b. delusions d. to try to bluff or trick them
c. amnesia 3029.The following are reasons, why common criminals are
d. phobia easy to negotiate, except:
3017.The first step in hostage taking crisis is: a. fears of police assault and punishment
a. crowd control b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
c. negotiation c. they are familiar with police operations and
b. assault tactics
d. traffic control d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
3018.Antonio, a funeral parlor attendant takes place pleasure 3030.In the field of terrorism, the most common tactic used
in imagining having sexual relations with newly dead is_____?
young female bodies who were victims of suicides or A. Kidnapping
vehicular accidents. What sexual deviant act did Antonio C. Bombing
commit? B. Assassination
a. necrophilia D. Extortion
b. rape 3031.A personality disorder characterized by suspiciousness,
c. incest hypersensitivity, envy, excessive self important, and
d. none argumentativeness, plus a tendency to blame others for
3019.The most important person in a hostage situation: one’s own mistakes and failure and to ascribe evil motives
a. negotiator to others.
b. hostage taker A. Paranoid Personality
c. commander B. Dependent Personality
d. hostage C. Schizoid Personality
3020.A group of bank robbers barricaded themselves inside D. Borderline Personality
the bank together with their hostages; their demand is 3032.A personality disorder characterized by an inability to
geared towards: form social relationships and can be classified as “loners”.
a. revenge A. Paranoid Personality
b. economic gain B. Schizoid Personality
c. escape C. Dependent Personality D .
d. vindication Borderline Personality
three options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the hostages and
3033.A personality disorder characterized by instability, commit suicide; (2) lessen demands to a more realistic
reflected in dramatic mood shifts and behavior problems. proportions; and (3) surrender. If they choose martyrdom
Such individuals are frequently described as impulsive and and kill hostages, the useful action is:
unpredictable. a. attack them swiftly with precision
A. Borderline Personality B . b. withhold the media from the terrorist
Compulsive Personality c. give all their demands
C. Passive-aggressive Personality D. Anti- d. let the hostages killed
social Personality 3046.In hostage negotiation, if the hostage taker demands an
airplane/helicopter, what will you do?
3034.When the disorder is characterized by chronic mental a. go to your ground commander
and physical fatigue and by various aches and pains, it is b. give it with consent
considered as: c. talk to him and delay the moment
A. Anxiety Disorder d. assault and kill him immediately
B. Somatoform Disorder
C. Dissociative Disorder 3047.Considered to be the oldest tactic in terrorism:
D. Amnesia a. Prostitution
3035.The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking situation is, b. Bombing
a. commanders should not negotiate, c. Assassination
negotiators should not command d. Kidnapping
b. open the communication at once 3048.These are important in a hostage taking situation,
c. negotiate EXCEPT:
d. ask for demands a. Presence of linguist negotiator
3036.In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense, when b. Considerable screening of all members
trapped expand a great deal of emotional physical and c. Dry run or constant practice
psychic energy, hence: d. Inclusion of the media people in the negotiation
a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for 3049.It is the position from which a unit commander and his
the authorities staff exercise command over the hostage incident.
b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender a. command post
c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them b. outer perimeter
down c. inner perimeter
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender. d. command headquarters
3037.Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage situation. 3050.It is an assault team responsible in carrying out assault
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker operation whenever negotiation fails.
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the a. Negotiation Team
hostages b. Medical Team
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker c. Tactical Team
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker d. Response Team
3051.Pursuant to the PNP Police Operational Procedures
3038. They serve as stimuli-producing action that satisfies a Manual of 2010, this group should immediately be
need: activated in case of hostage situation:
a. interest a. Hostage Negotiation Team
b. perception b. Civil Disturbance Management
c. motives Team
d. drives c. Crisis Management Task Group
3039.It is an effective planning, formulation of an effective plan, d. PNP Command Post
policies, procedures and techniques in dealing with 3052.P/SSupt. Pablo Job is the highest ranking PNP officer
sudden violent act of terrorist. who first arrives in a hostage taking incident. As a rule he
a. Crisis management serves now as a ground commander on the said crisis.
b. stress mgt. Having decided to conduct hostage rescue operations, the
c. hostage negotiation objectives are as follows, except one:
d. political analysis a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed,
3040.Last option in hostage crisis: and set free.
a. crowd control b . b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding
negotiation to the demands of the hostage takers.
c. traffic control d . c. Hostage takers desist from his threats.
assault d. hostage takers come to the fold of the law by
3041.It is any incident in which people are being held by surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
another person or persons against their will, usually by 3053.Which of the following is considered least among
force or coercion, and demands are being made by the terroristic tactic?
perpetrator. a. noise barrage
a. kidnapping b. assassination
b. crisis management c.bombing
c. hostage incident d.kidnapping
d. abduction 3054.In dealing with the hostage taker, the negotiator should
3042.“Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take not:
hostages: a.give his name
a. by reason of mental illness b. give his rank and designation
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and c.give in to all demands
problems d.look friendly or accommodating
c. for personal reason 3055.The highest ranking field commander should not also be
d. because of political and ideological belief the chief negotiator because:
3043.In psychoanalytic theory, the unconscious wish for death
is called; a. hostage takers will be afraid
A. eros b. he is not authorized to grant concessions
B. animus c. of conflict of interest as mediator and
C. thanatos decision maker
D. lupus d. hostage takers will not trust him
3044.In a crisis management, there is no other purpose but 3056.What is known to be the oldest but commonly used
“SALVARI VITAS” , which means: terrorist tactic where target are often police, military
a. the truth will prevail officials or political figures?
b. kill the hostage-taker a.Hijacking
c. to save lives b. Ambush
d. save the host c.Assassination
3045.When a highly trained and motivated group of hostage d. Kidnap for Ransom
takers asked non-negotiable demands, they were left with
3057.The stage of advance planning, organization and 3068.It attributes variations in delinquency to influence social
coordination and control in response to an anticipated structures.
future crisis occurrence is called A. Biogenic approach
a. Proactive Crisis Management B. Sociogenic approach
b. Reactive Crisis Management C. Psychogenic approach
c. Performance Stage D. All of these
d. Reaction Phase 3069.It refers to a person whose behavior results with repeated
conflict with the law.
3058.A comprehensive plan which delineates responsibilities A. Delinquent
and specific action to be taken when a bomb incident or B. Habitual delinquent
bomb threat occurs is called C. Juvenile
a. Floor plan D. Recidivist
b. Bomb threat plan 3070.Failure to provide for the child’s support for this period
c. Drill shall be a presumptive evidence of the intent to abandon.
d. Contingency plan A. 3 Months
B. 5 Months
3059.the crime charged against a child in conflict with the law C. 4 Months
is more than 12 years of imprisonment, which will D. 6 Months
determine whether diversion is necessary? 3071.These are undesirable conditions in the community which
A. The Police are harmful to the youth, EXCEPT.
B. The Prosecutor A. Gambling Houses
C. The Court B. Recreational Facilities
D. The Barangay Chairman C. Vice Dens
3060.From the moment a child is taken into custody, the law D. Attractive Nuisances
enforcement officer shall immediately but not later than 3072.This view asserts that children who started delinquent
hours after apprehension, turnover custody of the child to careers early and committed violent acts throughout their
the Social Welfare and Development Office. adolescence would likely to continue as adults.
A. Nine A. Culture conflict
B. Eight B. Persistence
C. Seven C. Containment theory
D. Six D. Reflective role taking
3073.If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18
3061.An Act Strengthening the Juvenile Justice System in the years of age at the time of the commission of the crime, he
Philippines. is often referred to as?
A. RA 9344 A. Socialized delinquent
B. RA 10630 B. Truant
C. RA 10627 C. Criminal
D. RA 8960 D. Youth offender
3062.It is one of the most important assets of the nation. Thus, 3074.What is an institution that receives and rehabilitates
every effort should be exerted to promote his welfare and youthful offenders or other disturbed children who have
enhance his opportunities for a useful and happy life. behavioral problems for the purpose of determining the
A. Teenager appropriate care for them or recommending their
B. Kid permanent treatment or rehabilitation in other child welfare
C. Child agencies?
D. Youth A. Rehabilitation Center
3063.The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council is under what B. Reintegration Center
agency of the government? C. Reformation Center
A. Department of Justice D. Restoration Center
B. Department of Social Welfare and Development 3075.Which among the following is not part of the rights of a
C. Department of Tourism child in conflict with the law?
D. Department of Interior and Local Government A. The right to be imposed a sentence of capital
3064.It refers to any form of detention or imprisonment, or to punishment or life imprisonment, without the
the placement of a child in conflict with the law in a public possibility of release
or private custodial setting, from which the child in conflict B. The right not to be subjected to torture or other cruel,
with the law is not permitted to leave at will by order of any inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment
judicial or administrative authority. C. The right not to be deprived, unlawfully or arbitrarily,
A. Apprehension of his/her liberty; detention or imprisonment being a
B. Confinement disposition of last resort, and which shall be for the
C. Deprivation of Liberty shortest appropriate period of time
D. Incarceration D. The right to bail and recognizance, in appropriate
cases
3065.It refers to any organization whose members are 21 3076.It refers to inherited propensities which cannot be
years or older which is directly or indirectly involved in considered a criminal one unless there is a probability that
carrying out child welfare activities and programs. a crime will be committed.
A. NGO A. Precipitating factor
B. Youth association B. Environmental factor
C. Youth organization C. Biologic factor
D. Civic organization D. Predisposing factor
3077.A person who learns the facts or circumstances that give
3066.The taking of the statement of the child in conflict with the rise to the belief that a child has suffered abuse may report
law shall be conducted in the presence of the following, the same to what agency?
EXCEPT. A. School
A. Child’s counsel of choice B. Neighborhood Association
B. Local Social Welfare and Development Officer C. Barangay Council
C. Child’s relative D. Church
D. Child’s parents 3078.Who are those with any behavioral disorder, whether
functional or organic, which of such a degree of severity
3067.It shall coordinate with the Local Council for the as to require professional help or hospitalization?
Protection of Children in the formulation and A. Mentally Ill Children
implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion B. Physically Handicapped Children
programs in the If community. C. Emotional Disturbed Children
A. Women and Children Protection Desk D. Retarded at Maturity
B. Local Government Unit 3079.A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts and
C. Sangguniang Kabataan becomes preoccupied with his feelings is a:
D. Local Social Welfare and Development A. Social delinquent
B. Accidental delinquent
C. Asocial delinquent B. Youth Justice System
D. Neurotic delinquent C. Minor Justice System
3080.It exists when the children are maltreated, raped or D. Juvenile Justice System
seduced; when children are exploited, over worried or 3091.A category of delinquency which may be credited to peer
made to beg in the streets or public places, or when pressure or pure curiosity on the part of the young person.
children are in moral danger, or exposed to gambling, A. Social
prostitution, or other vices. B. Accidental
A. Physically Neglected Child C. Neurotic
B. Emotionally Neglected Child D. Asocial
C. Psychologically Neglected Child 3092.Putting a child under duress to consent to engage in an
D. Sexually Neglected Child activity.
3081.The implementation of the comprehensive juvenile A. Coercion
intervention program shall be reviewed and assessed B. Cruelty
annually by Local Government Unit and its result shall be C. Molestation
submitted by the provincial and city governments to the D. Abuse
Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council not later than of what 3093.It is otherwise known as Special Protection of Children
date of every year? Against Child Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act of
A. February 28 1992.
B. April 30 A. RA 6809
C. March 30 B. RA 9344
D. May 30 C. RA 9262
3082.This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with I.Q.s D. RA 7610
from about 75 to about 89. The members of this 3094.It asserts that lower class youths with limited legitimate
classification are only slightly retarded and they can opportunity, join gangs and pursue a criminal career to
usually get by in regular classes if they receive some extra achieve alternate means universal success goals.
help, guidance and consideration. A. Culture conflict
A. Trainable group B. Social development model
B. Custodial group C. Containment theory
C. Educable group D. Differential opportunity
D. Borderline or low normal group 3095.Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”,
3083.It refers to any club, organization or association of which among the following refers to a child who is alleged
individuals below twenty-one years of age which is directly as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an
or indirectly involved in carrying out child or youth welfare offense under Philippine laws?
programs and activities. A. Juvenile Delinquent
A. Samahan B. Child in Conflict with the Law
B. Student organization C. Minor Offender
C. Sanguniang Kabataan D. Youth Criminal
D. Youth association 3096.It is devoted and focused on curbing the problem on
3084.A theory that point criminal behavioral patterns to delinquency through undertaking preventive programs,
childhood socialization and pro or anti social attachments policies and activities.
over the life course. A. Philippine National Police
A. Culture conflict B. Department of National Defense
B. Social development model C. Local Government
C. Differential opportunity D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
D. Containment theory 3097.An Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children Below 15
3085.This group’s I.Q. ranges from about 50 to about 75, and Years of Age in Public and Private Undertakings.
the intellectual development is approximately ½ to ¾ of A. RA 7610
that expected of a normal child of the same chronological B. RA 9262
age. C. RA 7658
A. Trainable group D. RA 9231
B. Borderline or low normal group 3098.A type of gang in which vices, consumption of drugs and
C. Educable group illicit experiences is stressed.
D. Custodial group A. Conflict sub-culture
3086.This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is a result B. Criminal sub-culture
of factors such as personal problems, ignorance and C. Retreatist sub-culture
curiosity. D. All of these
A. Predisposing factor 3099.It refers to one with no proper parental care or
B. Environmental factor guardianship, whose abandonment is for a period of at
C. Biologic factor least six months.
D. Precipitating factor A. Neglected Child
3087.This is where the molding of the character of the child B. Deserted Child
starts and every member of the family should strive to C. Unattended Child
make it a wholesome and a harmonious place. D. Abandoned Child
A. Family 3100.It refers to the programs provided in a community setting
B. Home developed for purposes of intervention and diversion, as
C. Church well as rehabilitation of the child in conflict with the law, for
D. School reintegration into his/her family and/or community.
3088.The youth misdeed may be attributed to their learning A. Community Juvenile Programs
process cultured in on youth gangs, stigmatizing contacts B. Community Rehabilitation Programs
with governmental and social control agencies and other C. Community Outreach Programs
similar variables. D. Community - Based Programs
A. Biogenic approach 3101.Who shall coordinate with the Local Councils for the
B. Socio-genic approach Protection of Children (LCPC) in the formulation and
C. Psychogenic approach implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion
D. None of the above programs in the community?
3089.What program is required for the child in conflict with the A. Sangguniang Kabataan
law to undergo after he/she is found responsible for an B. Kabataan Partylist
offense without resorting to formal court proceedings? C. Commission on Human Right
A. Diversion D. National Youth Commission
B. Community Service 3102.Their degree of success or accomplishment depends
C. Parole upon the quality and type of education they receive as well
D. Probation as on the treatment at home and in the community, their
3090.It is the application of the criminal justice to minors and I.Q range from about 50 to 75.
youthful offender through the cooperation of the criminal A. Educable
justice system. B. Custodial
A. Child Justice System C. Borderline
D. Trainable B. Neurotic
3103.It refers to anti-social act which deviates from normal C. Accidental
pattern of rules and regulations. D. Social
A. Recidivism 3115.It is known as spontaneous remission, it is the manner by
B. Juvenile delinquency which an individual reduce the rate of their aberrant
C. Quasi recidivism behavior as they age.
D. Delinquency A. Aging-out
3104.It refers to persons and individuals who are effective B. Decadence
deterrents to crime and delinquency such as police or C. Desistance
watchful and concerned neighbors. D. Reduction
A. Clever guardians 3116.Who among the following shall primarily ensure that the
B. Proficient guardians status, rights and interests of children are upheld in
C. Capable guardians accordance with the Constitution and international
D. Qualified guardians instruments on human rights?
A. National Youth Commission
B. Kabataan Partylist
C. Commission on Human Rights
3105.It exists when the child is malnourished, ill clad and D. Sangguniang Kabataan
without proper shelter. A child is unattended when left by 3117.Sellin’s study which asserts that it is a condition which
himself without provision for his needs and/or without results from rules and norms of an individual’s sub-cultural
proper supervision. What classification of neglected child affiliation disagreement with the role of demands of
is this? conformist society.
A. Physically Neglected Child A. Differential opportunity
B. Psychologically Neglected Child B. Culture conflict
C. Emotionally Neglected Child C. Containment theory
D. Sexually Neglected Child D. Social development model
3106.It refers to a system dealing with children at risk and 3118.Delinquency is a result of faulty biology or some
children in conflict with the law, which provides child- hereditary defect.
appropriate proceedings, including programs and services A. Psychogenic approach
for prevention, diversion, rehabilitation, re-integration and B. Biologic approach
aftercare to ensure their normal growth and development. C. Sociogenic approach
A. Child Justice and Welfare D. Biogenic approach
B. Youth Justice and Welfare 3119.It is characterized by disrespect or disobedience for
C. Minor Justice and Welfare authority.
D. Juvenile Justice and Welfare A. Emotional Disorder
3107.A phenomenon that occurs when youth who regard B. Vagrancy
themselves as delinquents are giving an inner voice to C. Truancy
their perception or view of how significant others feel D. Anti Social Behavior
about them. 3120.These are crippled, deaf, mute, blind, or otherwise
A. Reflective role taking defective which restricts their means of action on
B. Culture conflict communication with others.
C. Persistence A. Physically Handicapped Children
D. Containment theory B. Mentally Subnormal
3108.A legal act of entrusting a child to the care of the C. Essentially Incurable
Department of Social Welfare and Development or any D. Retarded at Maturity
duly licensed child placement agency or individual. 3121.Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon any
A. Placement knowledge of a child who have been treated or suffered
B. Commitment from abuse.
C. Consignment A. Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery
D. Entrustment of abuse
3109.Failure to provide the basic needs of a child. B. Report the incident to the family
A. Abuse C. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority
B. Cruelty D. File a case in court in behalf of the child
C. Exploitation 3122.Aside from the child, who may file a complaint against
D. Neglect any violation of R.A. 7610?
3110.High moral principles should be instilled in the child by A. Parents or guardians
the following, EXCEPT. B. Ascendants or collateral relatives within the 3rd degree
A. Government of consanguinity
B. School C. Barangay Chairman Officer or DSWD or at least any
C. Home three responsible citizen
D. Church D. All of the choices
3111.A child left by himself without provisions for his needs and 3123.The anti-social behavior of the youth is a direct result of
/ or without proper supervision. internal conflict and pre-occupation with his own emotion
A. Unattended Child and mood.
B. Neglected Child A. Neurotic
C. Dependent Child B. Social
D. Abandoned Child C. Accidental
3112.It refers to an alternative, child-appropriate process of D. Asocial
determining the responsibility and treatment of a child in 3124.Forcing an activity on the child without consent.
conflict with the law on the basis of his/her social, cultural, A. Coercion
economic, psychological or educational background B. Abuse
without resorting to formal court proceedings. C. Cruelty
A. Diversion D. Molestation
B. Friendly Interview 3125.View that youth can move in and out of delinquency and
C. Due Process that their lifestyle can adjust and embrace both deviant
D. Preliminary Investigation and conventional values.
3113.Family home type which provide temporary shelter from A. Swift
10 to 20 days for children under observation by the B. Drift
DSWD. C. Coast
A. Receiving homes D. Waft
B. Maternity homes 3126.A term coined by Wolfgang to denote a delinquent
C. Nursery offender who is arrested more than four times before the
D. Shelter care institution age of majority and stands a good chance of becoming an
3114.His delinquent act has a cold, brutal, vicious quality for adult criminal.
which the youth feels no remorse. A. Acute offender
A. Asocial B. Severe offender
C. Chronic offender B. Early adolescence
D. Desperate offender C. Juvenile
3127.A child who is bound to travel abroad alone may do so D. None of the above
with a permit or clearance issued by: 3139.What refers to anti-social act or behavior which deviates
A. The parents from the normal pattern of rules and regulation, custom
B. The guardians and culture which society does not accept and which
C. Department of Social Welfare and Development therefore, justifies some kind of corrective measures in the
D. Any of the choices public interest and it is being committed by minors?
3128.This refers to children who are unable to cope with their A. Juvenile Delinquency
family life and chooses to leave the family home. This is a B. Minor Delinquency
direct result of feeble-mindedness, disagreeable home C. Child Delinquency
conditions, broken homes and misdirected fancy for D. Youth Delinquency
adventures. 3140.Police officers who have taken into custody a child in
A. Vagrancy conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is
B. Cheating mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the
C. Lying Department of Social Welfare and Development or any
D. Stealing accredited Non-Government Organization immediately but
3129.What is a child caring institution that provides care for six not later than hours after apprehension.
or more children below six years of age twenty-four hours A. 8
a day, except those duly licensed to offer primarily medical B. 24
and educational services? C. 12
A. Nursery D. 36
B. Detention Home 3141.This type of delinquent youth is characterized by
C. Day Care aggressiveness and resentment to the authority of any
D. Maternity person who tries to control his behavior.
3130.It refers to the totality of the circumstances and A. Neurotic
conditions, which are most congenial to the survival, B. Accidental
protection and feelings of security of the child and most C. Asocial
encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and D. Social
emotional development. 3142.If the parents, guardians or nearest relatives of the CICL
A. Anti Youth Exploitation Measure refused to take custody, the child may be release to any of
B. Special Protection of Minor the following, EXCEPT.
C. Restorative Juvenile Justice A. Duly registered nongovernmental or religious
D. Best Interest of the Child organization
3131.A place of residence whose primary function is to give B. A barangay official or a member of the Barangay
shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants. Council for the Protection of Children
A. Maternity home C. A local social welfare and development officer
B. Hospital D. Duly authorized Women and Children Protection Desk
C. Rehabilitation center Officer
D. Foster homes 3143.It accounts for individual offender by reference to learning
3132.This may be demonstrated by any of the following: process, which goes on in youth gangs, stigmatizing
severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal contacts with social control agencies and other variables
behavior. of that time.
A. Psychological injury A. Biogenic
B. Mental injury B. Psychogenic
C. Physical injury C. Phatogenic
D. Emotional injury D. Sociogenic
3133.It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to 3144.It plays an active role in the promotion of child rights, and
address issues that caused the child to commit an offense. delinquency prevention by relaying consistent messages
It may take the form of an individualized treatment through a balanced approach.
program, which may include counseling, skills training, A. The mass media
education, and other activities that will enhance his/her B. The family
psychological, emotional and psychosocial well-being. C. The community
A. Diversion D. The educational system
B. Rehabilitation 3145.What approach towards delinquency views the
C. Probation lawbreaker as a person whose misconduct is the result of
D. Intervention faulty biology?
3134.If children, whether male or female, who for money, profit A. Phatogenic
or any other consideration or due to the coercion or B. Biogenic
influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in C. Psychogenic
sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known as… D. Sociogenic
A. Child Abuse 3146.In determining whether diversion is appropriate and
B. Child Trafficking desirable, the following factors shall be taken into
C. Child Prostitution consideration, EXCEPT.
D. Child Exploitation
3135.It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from occurring A. The safety of the child
A. Control B. The nature and circumstances of the offense charged
B. Recession C. The circumstances of the child
C. Repression D. The best interest of the child
D. Prevention 3147.It refers to offenses, which discriminate only against a
3136.Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, it child, while an adult does not suffer any penalty for
refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as defined committing similar acts. These shall include curfew
in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, including a violations; truancy, parental disobedience and the like.
barangay tanod. A. Delinquency
A. Police Officer B. Exclusive
B. Probation Officer C. Status
C. Law Enforcement Officer D. Grave
D. Public Officer 3148.Children detained pending trial may be released on bail
3137.He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately or as provided for under Sections 34 and 35 of
unattended or inadequately attended. RA 9344.
A. Abandoned Child A. Probation
B. Abused Child B. Recognizance
C. Neglected Child C. Parole
D. Dependent Child D. Bond
3138.This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years old. 3149.Which of the following refers to the maltreatment of a
A. Adolescence minor, whether habitual or not?
A. Caress a. Crime prevention
B. Abuse b. Crime control
C. Discrimination c. Law and order
D. Exploitation d. Due process
3150.He is one who is without a parent or guardian, or whose 3160.According to this criminal justice model, the rights of an
parents, guardian or other custodian for good cause desire individual must be co-equal with the concern for public
to be relieved of his care and custody; and is dependent safety.
upon the public of support. a. Crime prevention
A. Abandoned Child b. crime control
B. Neglected Child c. Law and order
C. Abused Child d. due process
D. Dependent Child 3161.This concerns to the obligations of the community to
3151.It refers to aggregate of persons or those responsible individuals, and requires fair disbursement of common
persons from various sector of the community. advantages and sharing of common burden.
A. Organization a. Prosecution
B. Association b. justice
C. Club c. equality
D. Samahan d. trial
3152.A 24-hour child-caring institution that provide short term 3162.This function of the law enforcement is being done
resident care for youthful offenders. through elimination of factors influencing the occurrence of
A. Bahay Pag-asa crimes, good community relations, educating the citizens
B. Nursery about their role, introduction of delinquency prevention
C. Child caring institution programs, good parenting and others.
D. Foster home a. Maintenance of law and order
b. Reduction of crime c. crime
3153.The parents of guardian of a working child is obligated by prevention
law to set up a trust fund for the child which shall d. crime control
constitute at least percent of the earning of the child. 3163.This principal character of the criminal justice process
A. 20 links all components of the CJS.
B. 40 a. Offender
C. 30 b. Victim
D. 50 c. witness
3154.The chairman of Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council d. Crime
under the law is: 3164.The frontline defender of democracy in the CJS.
A. The undersecretary of the DOJ a. Prosecution
B. The undersecretary of DepEd b. Correction
C. The undersecretary of the DILG c. Police
D. The undersecretary of the DSWD d. Court
3155.It refers to a principle, which requires a process of 3165.He is responsible in evaluating the evidence the police
resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the have gathered and deciding whether it is sufficient to
victim, the offender and the community. It seeks to obtain warrant the filing of charge(s) against the alleged violator.
reparation for the victim; reconciliation of the offender, the a. Investigator
offended and the community; and reassurance to the b. judge
offender that he/she can be reintegrated into society. It c. prosecutor
also enhances public safety by activating the offender, the d. solicitor genera
victim and the community in prevention strategies. 3166.He is an arbiter in court who ensues that the defense and
A. Restorative Justice the prosecution adhere to the legal requirements of
B. Rehabilitative Justice introducing evidences.
C. Reformative Justice a. Clerk of court
D. Reintegrative Justice b. judge
3156.It refers to a 24-hour residential care facility managed by c. sheriff
the Department of Social Welfare and Development d. jury
(DSWD), LGUs, licensed and/or accredited NGOs 3167.The pillar of the CJS which is not under the executive
monitored by the DSWD, which provides care, treatment branch of the government.
and rehabilitation services for children in conflict with the a. law enforcement (Excutive)
law. Rehabilitation services are provided under the b. court
guidance of a trained staff where residents are cared for c. prosecution (Executive)
under a structured therapeutic environment with the end d. correction (judiciary)
view of reintegrating them into their families and 3168.This is a governmental body that is charged with the
communities as socially functioning individuals. Physical responsibility of administering justice.
mobility of residents of said centers may be restricted a. Law enforcement
pending court disposition of the charges against them. b. correction
A. Youth Reformation Center c. Prosecution
B. Youth Reintegration Center d. court
C. Youth Rehabilitation Center 3169.Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as
D. Youth Restoration Center an individual or as a member of some court, Government
3157.The child who is under 18-years of age at the time of the Corporation, board or commission.
commission of the offense is found guilty of the offense a. Agent of person in authority
charged, shall place the child under b. Government employee
. c. Government officer
A. Recognizance d. person in authority
B. Diversion 3170.A pillar of CJS which occupies a unique position in the
C. Bail Philippine Criminal Justice System serving as the lawyer
D. Suspended Sentence of the State or government in criminal cases.
a. law enforcement
3158.Who is the chairman of the Lupon Tagapamayapa in the b. court
Barangay Level where there is a diversion program? c. prosecution
A. Punong Barangay d. correction
B. BCPC Chairman 3171.This document is required by the Prosecutor’s Office
C. LSWDO before it can entertain a complaint on a case covered by
D. PNP member the Barangay Court.
a. Certificate of Non-Settlement
3159. This criminal justice model is based on the idea that the b. Certificate of Non-arbitration
most important function of the CJS is the protection of the c. Certificate to file action
public and the repression of criminal conduct. d. complaint affidavit
3172.It refers to the study of the various agency of our d. MTC
government in charged of processing law violators to 3184.It is otherwise known as the Department of the Interior
ensure the protection of the society and maintenance of and Local Government Act of 1990, enacted on December
peace and order. 13, 1990. Established the PNP, BFP, BJMP and the PPSC.
a. Criminology a. R.A. 6975
b. Criminal Justice b. P.D. 1184
c. Victimlogy c. R.A. 8551
d. Sociology d. R.A. 6040
3173.Refers to the person who is being implicated to the
commission of a crime and subject of an investigation. 3185.Refers to that sector of society composed of NGO’s,
a. Convict cause oriented groups and advocacy groups that promote
b. respondent the welfare of the people against all forms of abuse and
c. Accused exploitation.
d. suspect a. crime control
3174.Is the machinery of the state which enforces the rules of b. political parties
conduct necessary to protect life and property and to c. civil society
maintain peace and order? d. volunteer
a. Criminal Justice System 3186.It is the process of reducing if not eliminate the existence
b. Criminology of a cause from initially occurring, thus, lessen the police
c. Criminal law work as suppressing the spread of criminality.
d. Criminal jurisprudence a. Crime Prevention
3175.It is that degree of proof requires in criminal case which b. Crime control
would convince a reasonable mind based on moral c. Criminal apprehension d. law
certainty but which nevertheless does not preclude the enforcement
possibility of error. 3187.Directly under the supervision of the Department of
a. Preponderance of evidence Justice, its most important function in the Criminal Justice
b. Clear and convincing evidence System is to maintain and recognize the rule of law
c. substantive evidence through the speedy d2elivery of services particularly in the
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt prosecution and investigation of all crimes.
a. National Prosecution Service
3176.A negotiation between the defense counsel and the b. PNP
prosecutor, aimed at reaching an agreement whereby the c. Ombudsman
prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from the judge a d. Solicitor General
lighter sentence in exchange for the defendant’s entering a 3188.What do you call a court covering two (2) or more
guilty plea. municipalities?
a. arraignment a. MTC
b. preliminary investigation b. MeTC
c. pre-trial c. MCTC
d. plea bargaining d. MTC’s
3189.What is that term which refers to the wise use of one’s
3177.The PNP is the law enforcement agency of the country own judgment in a given situation without referring to your
which is under the ________? superior due to the eminence of the situation?
a. DOJ a. Police resourcefulness b. Police
b. DILG discretion
c. NAPOLCOM c. Police integrity d. police
d. DSWD prudence
3178.A person who is under custodial investigation is basically 3190.It refers to the art or science of identifying law violators,
protected by a number of rights mandated under the locating and tracing them in order to affect their arrest and
constitution and this was even expounded in the legislative gather evidence to prove their guilt in court.
act known as _______? a. Crime prevention
a. Miranda Doctrine b. criminal investigation
b. R.A. 7438 c. Crime control
c. Bill of Rights d. Intelligence work
d. R.A. 6975 3191.An attached agency of the Office of the President tasked
3179.A body officially assembled under authority of law in to implement and undertake drug law enforcement.
which judicial power is vested or the administration of a. Narcotics Command
justice is delegated. b. AID-SOTF
a. court c. PDEA
b. corrections d. NBI
c. prosecution 3192.Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any
d. law enforcement peace officer of public officer in charged of enforcement of
3180.A body of civil authority tasked to maintain peace and the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of
order, enforce the law, protect life, liberty and property and the prosecutor.
ensure public safety. a. Complaint
a. police b. Information
b. prosecution c. Pleadings
c. court d. Affidavit
d. corrections
3181.System of taking care of the custody, rehabilitation and 3193.Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is
treatment of persons convicted of committing crime. sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a
a. police crime has been committed and the respondent is probably
b. prosecution guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.
c. court a. preliminary investigation
d. corrections b. Prejudicial question
3182.The “Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”. c. inquest proceeding
a. R.A. 8294 d. custodial investigation
b. R.A. 7080
c. R.A. 1379 3194.Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases
d. R.A. 3019 punishable by:
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1)
day.
3183.Exclusive original jurisdiction over all offenses punishable b. more than four years, two months and one day
with imprisonment not exceeding six years. c. less than four years, two months and one day
a. Supreme Court d. six years, one day and above
c. RTC
b. Court of Appeals
3195.It is the actual restraint of a person into custody of the a. more than 10 but less than 20
law in order for him to answer for the commission of an b. not less than 10 but not more than 20
offense. c. more than 10
a. Arrest d. less than 10
b. investigation 3208.When arrest may be made?
c. invitation a. At any time of the day and night
d. seizure b. At day time
3196.It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing c. At night time
the law breakers in the execution of their criminal plan. d. from sun dust till dawn
a. Instigation 3209.Under what circumstances arrest can be made even
b. Entrapment without a warrant?
c. Investigation a. All of the choices
d. Raid b. When the crime was committed in the presence of
3197.A pillar of our CJS which is not under or interdependent the arresting officer.
from any branch of government. c. When the crime was in fact been committed and
a. prosecution there is personal knowledge based on probable cause
b. correction that the person to be arrest has committed it.
c. court d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee
d. community 3210.It is a process directed to a person requiring him to
3198.During trial of a criminal case, it is the prosecutor who attend and to testify or to bring with him any books or
directs the prosecution of the offense and he/she did it on documents under his control at the trial of an action.
the behalf of the state. Once a case is elevated to the a. subpoena
higher court such as Court of Appeals, who represents the b. subpoena ad testificandum
State in the prosecution of the offense? c. subpoena duces tecum
a. Chief State Prosecutor d. warrant of arrest
b. Solicitor General
c. National or provincial prosecutor 3211.The “anti-Plunder Act”.
d. Judge a. R.A. 7080
3199.It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement c. R.A. 3019
officer after a person has been taken into custody. b. R.A. 1379
a. custodial investigation d. R.A. 6713
b. interview 3212.This attached agency of the DOJ is tasked to provide free
c. inquest legal assistance to poor members of society:
d. interrogation a. National Bureau of Investigation
3200.In cases committed by Public officer with salary grade 27 b. National Prosecution Service
and above in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 or Art. 210 to c. Board of Pardons and Parole
212 of the Revised Penal Code a complaint should first be d. Public Attorney’s Office
filed to the office of _______ for the conduct of the 3213.This is the power to apply the law to contests or disputes
required preliminary investigation. concerning legally recognized rights or duties between the
a. Ombudsman state and private persons, or between individual litigants in
b. Solicitor General cases properly brought before the judicial tribunal.
c. Judge of MTC a. Judicial Power
d. the President b. Judicial Review
3201.In flagrante delicto means ______? c. Court
a. caught in the act d. Court of Justice
b. caught after commission 3214.This is the process or method whereby accusations are
c. instigation brought before the court of justice to determine the
d. entrapment innocence or guilt of the accused.
3202.Courts in the Philippines are cloth with the power or try a. Prosecutor
cases submitted to for adjudication. What term is use in b. Prosecution
referring to the authority or power to hear and decided c. Trial
cases. d. Preliminary Investigation
a. Jurisdiction 3215.The settlement of a dispute by a person/s chosen to hear
b. Venue both sides and to come to a decision.
c. Jurisprudence a. Mediation
d. Territory b. Settlement
3203.It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for the first c. Arbitration
time to the exclusion of other courts. d. Agreement
a. original jurisdiction 3216.One who prosecutes another for a crime in the name of
b. exclusive jurisdiction the government?
c. appellate jurisdiction a. Public Prosecutor
d. concurrent jurisdiction b. Private Prosecutor
3204.It is the formal reading of the charges against a person c. Prosecution
accused of a crime and latter asking him whether he d. Ombudsman
pleads guilty or not to the crime charged. 3217.It refers to the “court of last resort”.
a. arraignment a. RTC
b. preliminary investigation b. Sandiganbayan
c. plea c. Supreme Court
d. promulgation of judgment d. MTC
3205.It is a body of men created to settle disputes within 3218.This court was created under RA 1125, as amended,
Barangay level. which has exclusive appellate jurisdiction to review on
a. barangay tanod appeal decisions of the Commissioner of the Internal
b. pangkat tagapagkasundo Revenue involving internal revenue taxes and decisions of
c. barangay council the Commissioner of Customs involving customs duties.
d. lupon tagapamayapa a. Court of Justice
3206.It is the most common way by which the police discovers b. Court of Appeals
or it informed that a crime has been committed: c. Sandiganbayan
a. When the witness voluntarily reports the d. Court of Tax Appeals
crime.
b. When the police discovers the crime
c. When the victim reports the crime
d. When the suspect surrenders
3207.The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be composed of the
Brgy. Chairman as Chairman of the Lupon and the Brgy.
Secretary as the Secretary of the Lupon and other
members who shall be:
3219.This court has jurisdiction over crimes committed by high- 3230.It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the
ranking public officials (with salary grade of 27 above), transgression of the law.
which can only be committed because of their position. a. penalty
a. Court of Justice b. self-defense
b. Court of Appeals c. exemplarity
c. Sandiganbayan d. punishment
d. Court of Tax Appeals
3220.It a writ order of the court bearing its seal and the 3231.City and Municipal is the division of our correctional
signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities institution which primarily in charge of those detention
to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence. prisoner, awaiting for final judgment of their trial and
a. Commitment Order serving short sentences and under the Bureau of Jail
b. Mittimus Management and Penology. While it is true that even the
c. warrant of arrest Provincials Jails like the City and Municipal Jails are under
d. habeas corpus the DILG, it is subject to the control and supervision of the
__________?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology b .
3221.Is that branch of the criminal justice system charged with Department of Justice
the custody, supervision and rehabilitation of a convicted c. Bureau of Correction
offender. d. Provincial government
a. Penology 3232.This is the process wherein the inmate, after serving his
b. Probation sentence, is released to be able to mingle with the
c. Correction community.
d. Criminology a. Reintegration
3222.Executive clemencies are acts of grace exercise by the b. reincarnation
president. Which of the following is not one of them? c. Realization
a. Pardon d. Rehabilitation
b. Amnesty 3233.It refers to the examination of an individual’s person,
c. Commutation of Sentence house, papers or effects, or other buildings and premises
d. Parole to discover contraband or some evidence of guilt to be
3223.Prison is a place for confinement of convicted prisoners. used in the prosecution of a criminal action:
What classification of prisoners is sentenced to serve a a. Search
prison term of one day to three (3) years or whose fine is b. seizure
less than 6,000 but more than 200 or both? c. Raid
a. National prisoner d. entrapment
b. City prisoner
c. provincial prisoner 3234.This court was established by virtue of PD1083,
d. municipal prisoner otherwise known as “Code of Muslim Personal Laws of the
Philippines”.
3224.Prisons are institution for confinement of convicted a. Court of Tax Appeals
offenders sentenced to more than three (3) years of b. Shari’a Court
imprisonment. It is derived from the Greco-Roman word c. Sandiganbayan
_____? d. Family Court
a. Presinto 3235.Refers to any person below 18 years of age or those over
b. Precindio but unable to fully take care of themselves from neglect,
c. presidio abuse, cruelty, exploitation or discrimination due to some
d. precinto physical defect or mental disability or condition.
3225.There are how many members the composed the Lupon? a. child
a. 3 members b. wards
b. 5 to 10 members c. physically disabled
c. 10 to 20 members d. youth
d. 5 members 3236.Act or omission which may not be punishable if
3226.It is granted to convicted offenders who have served a committed by an adult, but becomes unlawful when they
portion of their service granted by the Board of Pardons are committed by a child or a person of tender year or one
and Parole. who is in need of supervision or assistance.
a. Pardon a. crime
b. Probation b. status offense
c. Amnesty c. delinquency
d. Parole d. felonies
3227.It is a security facility, usually operated by the police 3237.It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the
stations, for the temporary detention of persons held for society to prevent and repressed them?
investigation or awaiting preliminary investigation before a. Penology
the prosecutor. b. Victimology
a. Lock-up jail c. Criminology
b. Ordinary jail d. Sociology of law
c. workhouses
d. prison 3238.In hostage situation, non-verbal communication which
3228.It is a form of motivation granted by the Director of indicates openness and willingness to listen can be shown
Prisons whereby a number of days are deducted from the by:
length of years that a prisoner have been sentenced to a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
serve for his good conduct. b. calmly repeating words of comfort and
a. Commutation of sentence assurance
b. Parole c. by not attempting to trick or lie
c. GCTA d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you are
d. reprieve willing to negotiate
3229.Correctional institutions in the country is divided into 3239.These are priorities in a hostage taking situation
National and Local institution. What Department of the EXCEPT,
Executive Branch is the one in charge of the National a. Preservation of life
Penitentiary? b. Arrest of hostage taker
a. Bureau of Jail Management and c. recover and protect property
Penology d. involve the media
b. Department of Justice 3240.A hostage taker is characteristically all of these, EXCEPT
c.Department of Interior and Local a. mental derange
Government b. suffers severe depression and mental aberration
d. Bureau of Correction c. sociopath personality
d. mental balance
3241.These are not negotiable in a hostage taking situation: 3252.Last option in hostage crisis:
a. guns and ammunition a. crowd control
b. drinks b. negotiation
c. foods c. traffic control
d. all of the choices d. assault

3242.One of the following is not a terrorist tactics: 3253.It is any incident in which people are being held by
a. bombing another person or persons against their will, usually by
b. assassination force or coercion, and demands are being made by the
c. hostage-taking perpetrator.
d. media exposure a. kidnapping
3243.In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense when b. crisis management
trapped expand a great deal of emotional physical and c. hostage incident
psychic energy, hence: d. abduction
a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for
the authorities 3254.The following are the priorities in hostage taking situation,
b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender except:
c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them a. preservation of life
down b. arrest of the hostage-taker
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender c. inclusion of the media
3244.When a highly trained and motivated group of hostage d. successfully negotiate
takers asked non-negotiable demands , they were left with 3255.“Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take
three options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the hostages and hostages:
commit suicide; (2) lessen demands to a more realistic a. by reason of mental illness
proportions; and (3) surrender. If they choose martyrdom b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair
and kill hostages, the useful action is: and problems
a. attack them swiftly with precision c. for personal reason
b. withhold the media from the terrorist d. because of political and ideological belief
c. give all their demands 3256.This is an assault team responsible in carrying out
d. let the hostages killed assault operation whenever negotiation fails.
3245.The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid a. medical team
Schizophrenic hostage taker is: b. tactical team
a. to accept their beliefs as being true c. negotiation team
b. to try to commence them that their beliefs are d. snipers
wrong 3257.This asserts that strong self-image protects the youth
c. to show them that they are just crazy from the influence and pressure of criminogenic pulls in
d. to try to bluff or trick them his environment.
3246.The following are reasons, why common criminals are A. Rational theory
easy to negotiate, except: B. Conflict theory
a. fears of police assault and punishment C. Label theory
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers D. Containment theory
c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics 3258.The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender conflict with the law by law enforcement officers or private
citizens is termed as:
3247.Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage situation.
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker A.Arrest
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the B.Initialcontact
hostages C.Childcustody
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker D. All of the above
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker 3259.It is the study of human society, its origin structure,
functions and direction.
3248.P/SSupt. is the highest ranking PNP officer who first a. criminology
arrives in a hostage taking incident. As a rule he serves b. sociology
now as a ground commander on the said crisis. Having c. psychology
decided to conduct hostage rescue operations, the d. anthropology
objectives are as follows, except one: 3260.The science of classifying the physical characteristics.
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed a. free will
and set free. b. positivism
b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to c. atavism
the demands of the hostage takers. d. somatology
c. Hostage takers desist from his threats. 3261.The approach that is using the perspective of heredity in
d. Hostage takers come to the fold of the law by explaining the cause of crime.
surrendering or be incapable of causing harm a. geographical approach
3249.In a hostage negotiation and crisis management practice, b. biological approach
it is a “cardinal rule”: c. psychiatric application
a. To bear weapon when talking to the hostage-taker d. psychological application
face to face 3262.The purpose of penalty in the positivism school of
b. Seek better alternative than a negotiated criminology.
agreement a. retribution
c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker b. rejection
d. Never say “NO” to the demands of the hostage c. reformation
taker d. restoration
3250.In a crisis management, there is no other purpose but 3263.It is the study of formation of the skull in relation to the
“SALVARI VITAS”, which means: behavior of the criminal.
a. the truth will prevail a. entomology
b. kill the hostage-taker b. penology
c. to save lives c. phrenology
d. save the hostages d. criminology
3264.Children shall be given priority during_____ as result of
3251.Considered as a “Mortal Sin” in a hostage negotiation. armed conflict.?
a. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker a. war
b. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the b. treatment
hostages c. evacuation
c. Deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker d. education
d. Saying “NO” to the demands of the hostage-taker 3265.Science concerned with improving the quality of offspring.
a. criminology
b. eugenics 3279.Refers to the counsel provided by the government to
c. genetics assist destitute litigant?
d. heredity a. Counsel de officio
3266.Commonly known as victimless crime: b. counsel de parte
A.occassional crime c. Public Attorney’s Office
B.political crime d. volunteer counsel
C.public order crime 3280.He represent the government’s position in a criminal case
D. conventional crime during court proceedings from the time of the suspect’s
arrest until the adjudication of his case.
3267.A child whose basic needs have been deliberately a. Counsel de officio
unattended. b. counsel de parte
a. abandoned child c. Public Attorney’s Office
b. dependent child d. prosecutor
c. abusive child 3281.What is the highest rank in the national prosecution
d. neglected child service SERVICE?
3268.The principle that events including criminal behavior that a. Prosecutor V
has sufficient causes.. b. Prosecutor IV
a. atavism c. Prosecutor VI
b. narassism d. Chief Prosecutor
c. determinism
d. positivism 3282.The Office of the ____________represents the
3269.An established and generally accepted moral values refer Government of the Philippines, its agencies and
to. instrumentalities and its officials and agents in any
a. integrity litigation, proceeding, investigation or matter requiring the
b. morality services of lawyers
c. ethical standard a. Solicitor General
d. authority b. Public Attorney’s Office
3270.This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality. c. Counsel de officio
a. split mind b. counsel de parte
b. psychosis 3283.An office which Investigate and prosecute on its own or
c. neurosis on complaint by any person, any act or omission of any
d. schizoprenia public officer or employee, office or agency, when such
act or omission appears to be illegal, unjust, improper or
3271.What is a person who kills 3 or more in a separate inefficient
events?
a. Solicitor General Office
A.mass murder b. Public Attorney’s Office
B. serial killer c. Ombudsman
C.homicidal b. Sandiganbayan
D. spree killer 3284.An office which shall independently discharge its
3272.A bank robber who kills some individual in the bank, flees mandate to render, free of charge, legal representation,
with hostages, and kills a number of people while in flight assistance, and counselling to indigent persons in
diving a chase would be an example of: criminal, civil, labor, administrative and other quasi-judicial
cases
A. Serial Murder a. Solicitor General Office
B. Spree Murder b. Public Attorney’s Office
C. Mass Murder c. Ombudsman
D. Multiple Murder b. Sandiganbayan
3273.What is the legal term for nighttime? 3285.Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is
A. sanctuary sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a
B.absurdity crime has been committed and the respondent is probably
C. ephitomy guilty thereof and should be held for trial
D. nocturnity a. custodial investigation
3274.These are the rights of an accused that are derived from b. inquest proceeding
special laws enacted by Congress. c. preliminary investigation
A. Constitutional rights b. arraignment
B. Civil rights 3286.Is an inquiry made by the duty prosecutor to determine
C.Statutoryrights the legality of the arrest made especially those arrests
D. Natural rights made without a warrant
3275.If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total a. custodial investigation
crime volume of 84, 875, How many crimes were reported b. inquest proceeding
to the police? c. preliminary investigation
a. 22, 868 b. arraignment
b. 22, 068 3287.It is the power to apply the laws to contests or disputes
c. 20, 250 concerning legally recognized rights or duties of and
d. 32, 644 between the state and the private persons or between
3276.What is the antonyms of the word arrest? individual litigants in cases properly brought before the
A. Apprehend judicial tribunals.
B. Search
C. Set free a. court power
D. Renounce b. legal power
3277.How many members composed the “Pangkat?” c. judicial power
A. 1 member b. right power
C. 2 members 3288.It has original exclusive jurisdiction over public officers
B. 3 members accused of committing crimes in relation to their official
D. 5 members functions and whose salary grade is 27 and above.
3278.He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods in
the study of society, which to him passes through stages a. Solicitor General Office
divided on the basis of how people try to understand it, b. Public Attorney’s Office
leading them to adopt a rational scientific understanding of c. Ombudsman
the world. Comte called this the positive stage and those b. Sandiganbayan
who followed his writings were called,
a. August Comte 3289.It is said that the home is the cradle of human personality,
b. Positivists for it where the child develops his fundamental attitudes
c. Positivism and habits that last throughout his life
d. Sociologists a. school
b. community 3302.A problem that occurs when offenders who have been
c. barangay released from the system are placed in a program simply
b. family because the program exist.
3290.It is a body of men created to settle disputes within a. Diversion Movement
Barangay level. b. Intervention
a. barangay tanod c. Net widening
b. barangay council d. Primary Deviance
c. pangkat tagpagkasundo 3303.It conceded factors such as insanity might inhibit the
b. lupon tagapamayapa exercise of free will.
a. Classical theory
3291.It refers the process whereby disputants are persuaded b. positivist theory
by the Punong Barangay or Pangkat to amicably settle c. Neo-classical theory
their disputes d. radical theory
a. agreement
b. conciliation 3304.His great contributions to criminology were the principle
c. conference of utilitarianism and the felicific calculus.
b. mediation a. Cesare Beccaria
3292.This theory views crime and delinquency as a result of b. Jeremy Bentham
the frustration and anger people experience over their c. Cesare Lombroso
inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success. d. Emile Durkheim
a. strain theory 3305.He propounded the theory of evolution that inspired the
b. psychological theories now known “Father of Modern Criminology” to develop the
c. differential association theory theory of atavism.
d. labeling theory a. Cesare Lombroso
b. Charles Goring
3293.This theory suggest that stability and changes in criminal c. Cesare Beccaria
and deviant behavior through time and different stages in d. Charles Darwin
life. 3306.According to him, people with criminal behavior, should
a. Self Derogation Theory be prohibited from having children.
b. Anomie Theory a. Robert Dugdale
c. Life Course Theory b. Henry Goddard
d. Routine Activities Theory c. Charles Goring
d. George Wilker
3294.This theory suggest that females and males are
becoming equal in society in terms of family, politics, and 3307.It states that individuals are deviant mainly because they
education have been labeled as deviant by social agencies and
A.Feminist Theory others. The notion of deviance is not inherent in the act
B. Paternalism itself, but rather in the reaction and stigma attached to the
C.Liberation Theory actor.
D. Life Course Theory a. Containment Theory
3295.In the power control theory by Hagan, which father and b. Theory of Imitation
mother share similar roles in the workplace and power in c. Social Process Theory
the family d. Social Reaction theory
a. Feminist theory 3308.Cesare Lombroso classified this type of criminal with five
b. Egalitarian family (5) or more atavistic stigmata.
c. Patriarchal family a. Born-criminal type
d. Matriarchal family b. insane
3296.These views suggest that males such as judges, police c. Criminaloid
officers, and prosecutors tend to have traditional views on d. pseudo-criminal
women thus, they are more lenient to them as compared 3309.These are crimes which are wrong from their very nature.
to their male counterparts. Examples of these are murder, robbery, and other
a. Paternalism violations of the Revised Penal Code.
b. Chivalry Hypothesis a. Heinous crimes
c. Masculinity b. mala in se
d. Power Control Theory c. Serious crimes
3297.This new branch in criminology opposes the theoretical d. mala prohibita
perspective and proposes the involvement of all 3310.These are crimes which are wrong only because there
stakeholders in the use of non violent solutions are laws that prohibit them in order to regulate an orderly
a. Peacemaking Criminology society. Examples of these are the violations of special
b. Sociology of Law laws like the violation of “Anti-Smoking Law”.
c. Restorative Justice a. Mala prohibita
d. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis b. less grave felonies
3298.This crimes are those that the lower class commit against c. Mala in se
the upper class of society in a capitalist system d. light felonies
a. Crimes of Passion 3311.The principle of criminal law which is “nullum crimen nulla
b. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance poena sine lege” means:
c. Crimes of domination and. Repression a. An act done by me against my will is not my act
d. Crimes of Lower class group b. There is no crime where no law punishing it.
3299.The ruling class in a capitalist system is the c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one.
a. Proletariat d. Mistake of fact is an excuse.
b. Bourgeois 3312.He was the one who introduced the following definition of
c. Capitalist criminology: “It is the entire body of knowledge regarding
d. Ruling class crime as a social phenomenon. It includes within its scope
3300.Who proposed the theory of capitalism and invoked the process of making laws, of breaking laws and of
communism as a remedy? reacting towards the breaking of the laws”:
a. George Vold a) Raffaelle Garofalo
b. Karl Marx b) Edwin Sutherland
c. Emile Durkheim c) Cesare Beccaria
d. Max Weber d) Paul Topinard
3301.This theory believes that society is divided into two 3313.Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill. It is
groups with competing values the upper class and lower focused on an individual's choice as to whether or not he
class. will commit a crime and the purpose of Classical Theory in
a. Class Theory giving punishment is________________.
b. Differential Opportunity a) Restoration
c. Conflict Theory b) Treatment
d. Consensus Theory c) Retribution
d) Deterrence Department of Social Welfare and Development or any
accredited Non-Government Organization immediately but
3314.Refers to the circumstances which attendant in the not later than hours after apprehension.
commission of a crime serve to increase the penalty, a. 8
without however exceeding the maximum of the penalty b. 24
provided by law for the offense. c. 12
a. Justifying d. 36
b. Exempting 3326.This concerns to the obligations of the community to
c. Mitigating individuals, and requires fair disbursement of common
d. Aggravating advantages and sharing of common burden.
3315.Those wherein the acts of the person are in accordance a. Prosecution
with the law, hence he incurs no criminal liability. b. justice
a. Exempting c. equality
b. aggravating d. trial
c. Justifying 3327.A probationer is allowed to do the following except?
d. Mitigating a. Stay away from bad associates
b. Work regularly to support his family
3316.A place of residence whose primary function is to give c. Make periodic office report
shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants. d. Go and play in a gambling den
a. Maternity home 3328.Which of the following are the major goals of correction?
b. Hospital a. Punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment
c. Rehabilitation center b. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation,
d. Foster homes rehabilitation
3317.This may be demonstrated by any of the following: c. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal d. Deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment
behavior. 3329.A judicial action for legal disposition that allows the
a. Psychological injury offender to remain in the community subject to conditions
b. Mental injury imposed by the court?
c. Physical injury a. Reprieve
d. Emotional injury b. Probation
3318.It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to c. Commutation
address issues that caused the child to commit an offense. d. Parole
It may take the form of an individualized treatment 3330.Which of the following is an open correctional institution
program, which may include counseling, skills training, known to be the best and prison without walls?
education, and other activities that will enhance his/her a. Davao penal farm
psychological, emotional and psychosocial well-being. b. Sablayan penal colony
a. Diversion c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
b. Rehabilitation d. Iwahig penal colony
c. Probation 3331.Which is called the finest penal farm in the world?
d. Intervention a. Davao penal farm
3319.If children, whether male or female, who for money, profit b. Sablayan penal colony
or any other consideration or due to the coercion or c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in d. Iwahig penal colony
sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known as… 3332.. Under the UN Standard Minimum Rules for treatment of
a. Child Abuse Prisoners, which of the following are the two basic
b. Child Trafficking principles under rules of general application to prisoners?
c. Child Prostitution 1. There shall be no discrimination on grounds of
d. Child Exploitation race, color, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion,
national or social origin, birth or other status
2. It is necessary to respect the religious belief and
3320.It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from occurring moral rule of the group to which the prisoner belong
a. Control 3. The treatment of prisoner should emphasize not
b. Recession their exclusion from the community, but their continuing part in
c. Repression it
d. Prevention 4. Unconvict prisoners are presumed to be innocent
3321.Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, it and shall be treated as such.
refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as defined a. 2 and 3
in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, including a b. 4 and 1
barangay tanod. c. 1 and 2
a. Police Officer d. 3 and 4
b. Probation Officer 3333.What does classical theory provides?
c. Law Enforcement Officer a. Criminal behavior is inherited and therefore could
d. Public Officer be controlled by regulating the reproduction of
3322.He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately families
unattended or inadequately attended. b. Criminal behavior is learned in interaction with
a. Abandoned Child other persons in the process of communication
b. Abused Child c. Crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and
c. Neglected Child penalty disorders
d. Dependent Child d. The basis for criminal liability is human free will and
3323.This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years old. the purpose of penalty is retribution
a. Adolescence 3334.The theory in criminal causation focuses on the criminal
b. Early adolescence disorders, chromosomes irregularity, and abnormal brain
c. Juvenile activity?
d. None of the above a. Biological
3324.What refers to anti-social act or behavior which deviates b. Psychological
from the normal pattern of rules and regulation, custom c. Sociological
and culture which society does not accept and which d. Geological
therefore, justifies some kind of corrective measures in the 3335.Where Rene Boy shall be confined if his sentence is 6
public interest and it is being committed by minors? months or less?
a. Juvenile Delinquency a. National prison
b. Minor Delinquency b. Municipal jail
c. Child Delinquency c. City jail
d. Youth Delinquency d. Provincial jail
3325.Police officers who have taken into custody a child in 3336.Crimes with no private offended party?
conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is a. Complex crime
mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the b. Status offense
c. Simple crime d. Teodolo Natividad
d. Victimless crime 3350.When does probation started?
3337.A married prisoner is visited by his wife and they were a. 1938
granted the time for their marital sexual obligation. What b. 1841
do you call this affair? c. 1896
a. Sexual relation d. 1932
b. Conjugal partnership 3351.It is regarded as the most important program that aids in
c. Conjugal privilege the rehabilitation or prisoners
d. Conjugal visit a. Recreational program
3338.What institution conducts the training program for b. Religious program
uniformed personnel of the BJMP? c. Educational program
a. Fire Training Center d. Employment of prisoners
b. Philippine National Jail Academy 3352.Person who are deemed instrumental on the reformation
c. PNP Training Center of prisoners due to their daily contact with inmates?
d. Jail Management Training Institute a. Chaplain
3339.Robin Padilla was convicted and ready to serve his b. Warden
sentence inside the prison. Why was he photographed at c. Psychologist
the Reception and Diagnostic Center? d. Prison guards
a. He is a actor and photogenic 3353.Person who are deemed instrumental on the reformation
b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph of prisoners due to their daily contact with inmates?
c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor a. Chaplain
d. Photographing the inmate is part of the b. Warden
reception procedure c. Psychologist
3340.A penalty having its minimum and maximum duration is d. Prison guards
referred to as 3354.It is given to prisoners who have returned to their places
a. Determinate sentence of confinement within 48 hours after a calamity.
b. Capital punishment a. Good conduct time allowance
c. Corporal punishment b. Special time allowance
d. Indeterminate sentence c. Visitation privileges
3341.Which of the following executive clemency needs the d. Good treatment allowance
concurrence of the congress? 3355.Juan Manalo was convicted by final judgment to serve
a. Pardon the term of imprisonment for 20 years. While serving his
b. Amnesty sixth year of imprisonment, an earthquake rocked the
c. Probation prison and several inmates escaped. Roberto returned the
d. Parole following day, how many years would be deducted from
3342.It is an executive clemency whereby the convicted his sentence?
person should serve part of his sentence? a. 4 years
a. Pardon b. 8 years
b. Parole c. 9 years
c. Probation d. 11 years
d. Amnesty 3356.A person convicted to serve 6 years imprisonment would
3343.What should the court do where the accused violated the be classified as what kind of prisoner?
terms and conditions of his probation? a. Municipal prisoner
a. Court releases the probationer to the community b. Insular prisoner
b. Revoked and let the probationer served his c. Provincial prisoner
sentence d. Detention prisoner
c. Court order the probationer to apply for parole 3357.It is one of the forerunners of modern correctional system
d. Court should allow the probationer to continue his wherein they confine the prisoners in single cell at night
probation but allow them to work during the day.
3344. Which of the following is a minor offense in jail? a. Auburn system
a. Rendering personal services to fellow inmate b. Pennsylvania system
b. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place c. Elmira reformatory
c. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places in d. None of the above
the jail where it is off- limits to inmates 3358.It is an institution intended to detain or house political
d. Making untruthful statements or lies in official offenders.
communication, transaction or investigation a. Iwahig Penal farm
3345.Failure to assist in putting out fires inside the jail is a type b. Davao Penal Farm
of offense? c. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm
a. Grave offense d. Sablayan Prison Farm
b. Less grave offense 3359.This forerunner whereby he introduced the theory of
c. Not so grave offense atavism?
d. Minor offense a. Lombroso
b. Becarria
3346.How many hours should the jail disciplinary board hear c. Ferri
and decide the case brought before it? d. Garofalo
a. 24 hours 3360.It is the temporary suspension in the execution of
b. 12 hours sentence?
c. 48 hours a. Pardon
d. 72 hours b. Appeal
3347.Minimum number of time in counting the inmates on daily c. Commutation
basis? d. Reprieve
a. Three times 3361.It is the deduction of the term of imprisonment due to the
b. Two times convict’s good behavior while serving his sentence?
c. Four times a. Special time allowance
d. Five times b. Parole
3348.What is the duration should the probation officer submit c. Good conduct time allowance
his post sentence investigation to the court? d. Probation
a. 60 days 3362.A writ ordering the confinement of a person in penal
b. 30 days institution.
c. within 60 days a. Detention order
d. 15 days b. Commitment order
3349.A shoemaker and became the father of probation in the c. Warrant of arrest
U.S d. None of the above
a. Mathew Davenport Hill 3363.Who grants probation?
b. Edward Savage a. Probation officer
c. John Augustus b. Solicitor general
c. Court a. Reception diagnostic center
d. All of the above b. Medical center
3364.Where the application for probation should be filed? c. Quarantine unit
a. Board of Pardons and Parole d. None of the above
b. Office of the Solicitor General 3378.A writ issued by the court to a correctional facility
c. Trial court indicating the basis of confinement of a prisoner
d. Appellate court a. Mittimus
3365.The court shall resolve the application for probation for _. b. Detention order
a. Not later than 60 days c. Warrant of arrest
b. Within 10 days d. Writ of Hebeas Corpus
c. Within 5 days 3379.A code which provides “an eye for an eye, a tooth for a
d. Within 15 days tooth.”
3366.Pending the submission of the investigation report, the a. Code of Babylon
defendant may be allowed on temporary liberty through_. b. Code of Kalantiaw
a. Release on recognizance c. Hammurabi code
b. Bail d. Bible
c. Manifestation 3380.A French word meaning “word of honor”
d. Cash bond a. Pardon
3367.Probation shall be denied if the court finds that_. b. Probation
a. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the c. Parole
offense committed. d. Amnesty
b. The offender is in need of correctional treatment 3381.Refers to those who are confined in correctional facilities
c. There is undue risk that during the period of awaiting verdict in their cases
probation the offender will commit another crime a. Prisoner
d. All of the choices b. Detainees
3368.The probationer and his probation program shall be c. Probationer
under the control and supervision of ___? d. Offender
a. Probation officer 3382.It is said to be the alternative for jail confinement in
b. Board of pardons and parole modern penology.
c. Court a. Amnesty
d. All of the above b. Parole
3369.Is the denial of probation appealable? c. Probation
a. It depends on the violation d. Pardon
b. Yes 3383.He advocated the Irish system which is considered by
c. No many as one of the most famous contributor to the
d. Partially No reformatory movement.
3370.Who shall have the control over the probationer once the a. Z.R. Brockway
latter is permitted to reside under the jurisdiction of b. Alexander Macanochie
another court? c. Ceasar Lombroso
a. Regional Director d. Walter Crofton
b. Executive judge of the municipal court 3384.He is the father of probation in the Philippines
c. Executive Judge of the first instance a. Ferdinand Marcos
d. Appellate court b. Manuel Roxas
3371.Pedro Juana was sentenced to serve an imprisonment of c. Teodulo Natividad
six months, how many years would be the duration of his d. Ramon Bagatsing Sr.
probation? 3385.A Boston shoemaker who advocated in behalf of
a. One year alcoholic and youthful offenders and known as the father
b. Two years of probation.
c. Shall not exceed two years a. Mathew Davenport Hill
d. Shall not be more than six years b. Edward Savage
3372.In the hearing for the violation committed by the c. John Augustus
probationer, the latter shall have the right to be informed of d. Alexander Rice
the violation charged and to adduce evidence in his favor. 3386.He is the first appointed probation officer in the world.
This right is in pursuant to his right to ___? a. Hans Gross
a. Equal protection b. Edward Savage
b. Presumption of innocence c. John Augustus
c. Miranda rights d. Benjamin Franklin
d. Due process of law 3387.This case paved the way for the abolition of the first
3373.What is the effect of the termination of probation? probation law?
a. Erase criminal records a. People v. De Vera, 376 O.G. 164
b. Operate to restore civil rights lost or suspended as b. People v. Vera, 376 O.G. 164
a result of conviction c. Vera v. People, 376 O.G. 164
c. Both A and B d. People v. De Vera, 376 O,G. 164
d. None of the above 3388.It serves as the basis in granting probation to qualified
3374.Probation aids shall have the term in office for ___? applicants.
a. 3 years a. Post Investigation Report
b. 1 year b. Pre Sentence Investigation report
c. 2 years c. Admission report
d. 4 years d. Post Sentence Investigation
3375.Ideal number of days for proper classification of newly 3389.After receiving the PSIR, within how many days must a
convicted offenders at the RDC? judge decide whether to grant or deny the application for
a. 45 days probation.
b. 30 days a. 5 days
c. 60 days b. 15 days
d. 15 days c. 30 days
3376.An inherent responsibility of a warden in seeing to it that d. 60 days
he continually motivates his staff and personnel to perform 3390.Under the Indeterminate Sentence Law, who acts as the
at their best. chairman of the Board of Pardons and Parole?
a. Decision making a. PNP Chief
b. Control of prison operation and activities b. DILG Secretary
c. Personnel program c. DOJ Secretary
d. Executive leadership d. Chief Executive
3377.Place wherein a newly convicted prisoner is housed for at 3391.Operation conducted by the BJMP where a prisoner
least a minimum period of 5 days to ten days for the maybe checked at anytime.
conduct of medical examination, vaccination, x-rays to a. Search and seizure
prevent physical contamination b. Confiscation
c. Inspection c. Atonement
d. Operation greyhound d. Retribution
3392.These are long, narrow, single decked ships propelled by 3406.The penalty of banishing a person from the place where
sails, usually rowed by criminals. he committed a crime refers to what contemporary forms
a. Hulks of punishment
b. Ships of criminals a. Atonement
c. Galleys b. Destierro
d. none of the above c. Exile
3393.What is the standard ratio in escorting a non- bailable d. Incapacitation
inmate? 3407.The early Roman place of confinement which was built
a. One is to one security officer under the main sewer of Rome in 64 BC refers to
b. One is to three security officers a. Town Gates
c. One is to two plus one security officers b. Wulnut Street Jail
d. One is to one plus one security officer c. Bridewell Workhouse
3394.Offenders who are committed to the jail or prison in order d. Mamertime Prison
to serve their sentence after final conviction of a 3408.What was the most popular workhouse in London which
competent court is known as was built for the employment of English prisoners?
a. Detention prisoner a. Borstal prison
b. Sentenced prisoner b. Panoptican prison
c. Provincial prisoner c. Elmira reformatory
d. National prisoner d. None of the choices
3395.Penology came from the latin word “poena” which means 3409.Which branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily
a. Conviction menu, prepares and cooks food and serve to inmates?
b. Pain and suffering a. General Service Branch
c. Punishment b. Mess Service Branch
d. Deterrence c. Budget and Finance Brach
3396.It is the suffering inflicted by the state against an d. Property and Supply Branch
offending member of the society for the transgression of 3410.The unit where the prisoner is given thorough physical
the law examination including blood test, x-rays, vaccinations and
a. Penalty immunity for the purpose of insuring that the prisoner is
b. Punishment not suffering from contagious disease?
c. Suffering a. Rehabilitation Unit
d. Any of the above b. Quarantine Cell
3397.When different crimes should be punished with different c. Medical and Health Center
penalties, punishment should therefore be d. RDC
a. Correctional 3411.Who provides the security system of sound custody,
b. Legal security and control of inamtes and their movements and
c. Productive of suffering also responsible to enforce jail or prison discipline
d. Commensurate with the offense a. Administrative Group
3398.An institution for the imprisonment of persons convicted b. Security Group
of major offenses refers to c. Rehabilitation Group
a. Jail d. Medical Group
b. Prison
c. Penitentiary
d. All of the above 3412.What law was passed during the Aquino administration
3399.Imprisonment for a term of 6 years 1 day to 12 years that renamed the Bureau of Prisons to Bureau of
a. Prision correccional Corrections?
b. Reclusion temporal a. E.O. 292
c. Arresto mayor b. E.O. 229
d. Prision mayor c. A.O 262
3400.A criminal can seek refuge in a church in order to avoid d. E.O. 292
punishment in a period of ninety days. This refers to 3413.Who appoints the Director of Prisons who shall be the
a. Refuge Head of the Bureau?
b. Securing sanctuary a. Chief BJMP
c. Hidden church b. Sec. of DILG
d. Claiming penitentiary c. Chief Executive
3401.This were the former warships used to house prisoners in d. Sec. of DOJ
the 18th century and 19th century as means of relieving 3414.What agency has supervision and control over all the
congestion of prisones refers to national prisons or penitentiaries?
a. Galleys a. Bureau of Prisons
b. Hulks b. Bureau of Correction
c. Gaols c. Bureau of Jail
d. Warships d. None of the above
3402.In the ancient times, who were commonly subjected to 3415.Which of the following statements is not true?
harsh punishments? a. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are under the
a. Middle class jurisdiction of the DOJ
b. Black people b. Provincial Jails are managed and controlled by the
c. Slaves provincial government
d. Any of the above. c. The jail bureau controls the administration and
3403.Offenders who were convicted should be kept away from supervision of all jails nationwide
the society for its protection. This is frequently called as d. The BJMP is under the DILG
a. Incapacitation 3416.Who appoints jail Sr. Superintend?
b. Deterrence a. Chief Executive
c. Penalization b. DILG Sec
d. Rehabilitation c. Chief BJMP
3404.What code specified punishment according to the social d. Chief of BUCOR
class of the offenders? 3417.Who appoints the Chief Inspector as warden?
a. Greek Code of Draco a. DILG sec
b. Justinian Code b. Chief Executive
c. Burgundian Code c. Chief BJMP
d. Akadian Code d. Chief of BuCor
3405.The establishment of the usefulness and responsibility of 3418.Early forms of Prison Discipline by means of uttering
the offender as a productive individual is a punishment insulting words or languages on the part of prison staff to
justified by the prisoners to degrade or break the confidence of
a. Expiation prisoners.
b. Rehabilitation A. Degradation
B. Corporal Punishment B. San Ramon Prison
C. Monotony C. Sablayan Prison
D. Mass Movement D. New Bilibid Prison
3419. The public will be protected if the offender has being 3432.When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before
held in conditions where he cannot harm others especially admission it meant
the public. Punishment is effected by placing offenders A. Process of Identification, Record, Fingerprint and
in prison so that society will be ensured from further Photograph
criminal depredations of criminals. B. Examination for Contraband
A. Deterrence C. His Commitment Paper are Delivered to Record
B. Incapacitation & Protection Clerk
C. Retribution D. All of These
D. Atonement 3433.____ is the Chairman of the Classification Board in
3420.He is the first leader to prescribe imprisonment as BJMP.
correctional treatment for major offenders also responsible A. Assistant Warden
for the abolition of death penalty and torture as a form of B. Medical Officer
punishment. C. Chief, Security Officer
A. John Howard D. Jail Chaplain
B.Charles Montesquieu 3434.A general agreed principle that women prisoners should
C. William Penn be placed in a special building on the same site with the
D. Jeremy Bentham men prison.
3421.Director of the Prisons of Valencia, Spain who divided A. Diversification by Sex
prisoners into companies and appointed prisoners as petty B. Segregation
officer in charge. C. Diversification by Age
A. Domets of France D. Diversification by Degree of Custody
C. Manuel Montesimos 3435.What satellite of NBP does RDC is situated?
B. Zebulon Brockway A. Camp Bukang Liwayway
D. Evelyn Ruggles Brise B. Camp Sampaguita
3422.What governing law of Aklan and Panay based on the C. Main building
beliefs, customs and practices, it is also reflects the level D. Chapel
of uprightness and morality of the people? 3436.What is the prescribed color of uniform for Minimum
A. Commonwealth Act No. 3203 Security Prisoners?
B. Law of the Talion A. Blue
C. Kalantiaw Code B. Brown
D. Penitentiary Act of 1779 C. Tangerine
3423.It refers to prison which is used to confine slaves where D.Gray
they were attached to workbenches and forced to do hard 3437.It is located in Sto. Tomas, Davao Del Norte, General
labor in the period of their imprisonment. Paulino Santos led the first contingent which opened the
A. Underground Cistern colony.
B. Ergastalum A. Davao Penal Colony
C. Sing-Sing Prison B. Tagum
D. Alcatraz Prison C. Panabo
3424.It is known as the “Age of Reason of Age of Enlightment” D. Kapalong
A. 1870 – 1880 E. Tanglaw
B. 18th century 3438.Gov. White E. Dwigth made the suggestion of the
C. 19th century construction of this penal institution and it was established
D. 21st century on 1904 through the orders of Gov. Forbes. It is
3425.It refers to a Prison System whereby prisoners are considered a one of the most open penal institutions in the
confined in their own cells during the night and congregate world.
work in shops during the day also known as “Congregate A. Iwahig
System”. B. Tagumpay
A. Auburn Prison System C. Sta. Lucia
B. Custody Oriented Prison D. Inagawan
C. Pennsylvania Prison System 3439.The following are the sub colonies of Sablayan Prison
D. Treatment Oriented Prison and Penal Farm.
3426.The first juvenile reformatory which was opened in I. Central III. Pusog
January 1825 and located in New York City. II. Pasugui IV. Yapang
A. Borstal Institution V. Panabo VI. Kapalong
B. Elmira Reformatory VII. Sta. Lucia VIII. Inagawan
C. New York House of Refuge IX. Montible X. Central
D. Panoptican Prison A. I, II, III, IV
3427.One of the juridical conditions of Penalty, The B. V and VI
consequence must be in accordance with the law it is a C. VII, VIII, IX & X
result of a judgment rendered by a court of justice. D. Either of these
A. Equal 3440.Convicts committed to BUCOR are brought to RDC for a
B. Legal total period of ____ for classification and determination of
C. Commensurate w/ the offense appropriate program.
D. Personal A. 60 days
3428.X was sentenced to serve with a penalty of Reclusion B. 55 days
Temporal who has the jurisdiction to detain him? C. 5 days
A. BuCor D. NONE
C. BJMP
B. PNP 3441.One of the components of RDC which is responsible in
D. AFP the examination of the prisoner’s mental and emotional
3429.Baby Ama was sentenced to serve Prison Correctional. make-up.
What is the duration of his penalty? A. Medical Center
A. 12 Y&1D to 20 Y B. Sociologist
C. 6Y&1D to 12 Y C. Psychologist
B. 6M1D to 6 Y D.Psychiatrist
D. 1M&1D – 6 M 3442.The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology was
3430.It is then known as Carcel y Presidio. created thru ____ as one of the Tri Bureau under the
A. Old Bilibid Prison Department of Interior and Local Government .
B. Manila City Jail A. Section 13, RA 6975 NAPOLCOM
C. NBP B. Section 53, RA 6975
D. May Halique Estate C. Section 23 of RA 6975
3431.Formerly known as the Luhit Penal Settlement. D. Section 60 of RA 6975
A. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
3443.X was sentenced to serve with a penalty of Reclusion 3456.The _____ may grant GCTA to an inmate for good
Temporal who has the jurisdiction to detain him? behavior with no record of disciplinary infraction or
A. BuCor violation of prison rules and regulation.
C. BJMP A. Director of BJMP
B. PNP B. Warden
D. AFP C. President
3444.All except one is included in the command group of D. Director of Corrections
BJMP 3457.Inmates earnings that may be used to buy his needs.
A. Chief of Staff A. ½ of his earnings
B. Deputy C/BJMP B. ¼ if his earnings
C. Chief of BJMP C. ¾ of his earnings
D. Chief of Directorial staff D. Discretion of Warden
3445.One of the Administrative groups in BJMP responsible for
preparation of the daily menu, prepare and cook the food 3458.GCTA is a kind of ___ that can only be denied if the
and serve it to inmates. prisoner breaks the rules and only after due process is
A. Mess Service Branch observed.
B. General Service Branch (maintenance) A. right
C. Budget and Finance Branch (financial) B. Privileges
D. Property and Supply Branch (logistics) C. Discretion
3446.When the offender is in transit, the ratio of __ for every D. liberty
offender shall be observed. 3459.A colonist when classified by the director of the Bureau of
A. 1:1+1 Corrections who is punished with reclusion perpetua will
B. 1:2 have benefit from an automatic reduction from maximum
C. 1:7 term of forty years to ___.
D. 1:500 A. 20 Years
3447.When the offender is in transit, in case of ___ that B. 25 Years
demands extra precaution additional guards shall be C. 30 Years
employed D. 35 Years
A. High Profile offender 3460.Duration of viewing of privilege of a deceased relative is
B. Female Offender limited to ___ hours.
C. High-risk offender A. 3
D. Either of these B. 9
3448.If the inmate agrees to abide by the same disciplinary C. 6
rules imposed upon convicted prisoners, he shall be asked D. 12
to, manifest his ___ in writing. 3461.Who among the following inmates may not be allowed to
A. Certification see the remains of a dead immediate family member?
C. Agreement A. Minimum Security
B. Manifestation B.Maximum Security
D. Affidavit C. Medium Security
3449.John was sentenced to serve Arresto Mayor, what D. None of these
classification of sentenced prisoner is John classified? 3462.Telephone calls are permitted for inmates for a period not
A. Municipal Prisoner exceeding 5 minutes every ___ days.
C. City Prisoner A. 30
B. Provincial Prisoner B. 90
D. Insular Prisoner C. 60
3450.Ser Chief is a newly arrived inmate committed for the first D. 120
time. He classified as a ____ among the classification of 3463.If escorting an inmate a guard shall keep distance of not
inmates according to privileges. less than ____ paces from his charge.
A. 1st class inmate A. 10
B. 3rd class inmate B. 30
C. 2nd class inmate C. 15
D. Colonist D. 45
3451.What classification of Prisoners according to Degree of 3464.In mess hall and dining area for purposes of precaution,
Security if the prisoner cannot be trusted in open the prescribe utensil for inmates shall be made of:
conditions and pose lesser danger than maximum-security A. Wood
prisoners in case they escape. B. Paper
A. Minimum Security Prisoners C. Plastic
B. Medium Security Prisoners D. Carton
C. Maximum Security Prisoners 3465.It is a continuing state of good order.
D. Any of the Above A. Discipline
3452.What is the lowest authorized disciplinary punishment B. Communication
imposable to inmates? C. Morale
A. Close Confinement D. Loyalty
B. Extra-Fatigue Duty 3466.Unload as method in searching the prisoner for
C. Reprimand possession of contraband’s inside the prison cell and
D. Temporary cancellation of recreational privileges compound.
3453.Close confinement in a cell in BJMP shall be between A. Frisking
___ in any calendar month provided that this punishment B. Shakedown
shall be imposed only in the case of an incorrigible C. Operation Greyhound
prisoner when other disciplinary measured had been D. Body Frisking
proven ineffective. 3467.It is considered as the highest income earner among the
A. 30-60 days Philippine Correctional Institution.
C. 1-7 Days A. Iwahig Penal Colony
B. 1 day B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
D. NONE C. Davao Penal Colony
3454.All except one are instruments of restraints. D. Sablayan Prison and Farm
A. Handcuffs 3468.The most common problem for national penitentiaries.
B. Whipping Rod A. Excessive number of inmates
C. Leg iron B. Lack of funds
D. Strait Jackets C. Sex problems
3455.Inmates ____ may be excused from mandatory prison D. Discipline
labor. 3469.Which of these authorizes the release of a detainee who
A. 60 years old has undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the
B. 56 years old maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is
C. 50 years old charged with?
D. 21 years old A. B.P 85
B. RA 4200 3481.In case of mass jailbreak, all member of the custodial
C. B.P. 22 force shall be immediately issued firearms and assigned to
D. PD 968 critical posts to:
3470.The act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another to A. plug off the escape routes
change his religious beliefs sect or the like to another B. protect the other inmates
while under confinement is referred to as C. to shoot the escape
A. Proselytizing D. give warning shots
B. Initiation 3482.When a jailbreak, escape or riot in progress or has just
C. Fraternization been perpetrated in the jail, the officer at the control
D. Inducement centers shall immediately:
3471.Who composed of guards trained on proper handling and A. sound the alarm
use of firearms who shall be ready to fire when the lives of B. notify the nearest police precinct
the guards are in danger on orders of the Officer in C. locked prisoners in their respective cells
Command. D. call the warden or the director
A. 1st group Anti-Riot 3483.The following are the duties of the custodial force in
B. 4th Group Anti-Riot prison, except:
C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot A. Censor offender’s inmate
D. 2nd Group Anti-Riot B. Escort inmates
C. Inspect security devices
3472.Within the radius by road from the confinement facility D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
and the actual stay of the inmates to view the remains. 3484.It served as the cornerstone or rehabilitation
A. 20 kilometer A. Religion
B. 40 Kilometer B. Education
C. 30 Kilometer C. Discipline
D. 50 Kilometer D. Recreational
3473.Under RA 9344, what happens to the sentence of a Child 3485.Maiming; Physical Torture; Electrocution; ____
in Conflict with the law after conviction of a trial Court? A. Social degradation
A. His sentence serve B. Exile
B. His sentence is suspended C. Physical torture
C. His sentence is suspended and is sent back to his D. Death Penalty
family 3486.It refers to those items, though authorized, is already in
D. His sentence is NOT suspended excessive quantities to become a fire hazard, a threat to
3474.One-fifth of the sentence for Loyalty equivalent shall be security or has become causative in making the place
deducted from the inmates sentence if, after the inmate unsanitary.
abandoned prison due to disorder arising A. Contraband
A. STA B. Paraphernalia
B. GCTA C. Prohibited items
C. Commutation D.Nuisance Contraband
D.Visitation Privilege 3487.It refers to the entrusting for confinement of an inmate to
3475.It is a kind of court to settle tribunal and even individuals a jail by competent court or authority for investigation, trial
people conflicts: and/or service of sentence
A. Bodong A. Commitment
C. Capic B. Safekeeping
B. Korte Supremo C. Entrustment
D. Hito D. Imprisonment
3476.The following are the aims of diversification in prison or 3488.This was the right in ecclesiastical court during the
jail, except: middle ages particularly in England.
A. more effective execution of treatment programs A. Inquisition
B. to prevent physical contamination of one group or B. Incapacitation
another C. Benefit of Clergy
C. to prevent unnecessary custodial risk D. Retribution
D. none of the above 3489.The inmates may request a review of the findings of the
3477.It provides some opportunities for inmates of a normal Disciplinary Board and the propriety and the penalty to the
sex life. ____.
A. Maternal Visit A. Chairman of Disciplinary Board
B. Sodomy B. BJMP
C. Masturbation C. Central office/BJMP
D. Conjugal Visit D. Warden
3478.An offender who surrenders from escaping because of 3490.If the inmate fails to claim his letter within ____ after it
calamity immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement of has been posted, the mail should be delivered to him.
the passing away of calamity shall be granted A. 48 hours
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence B. 24 hours
B. 1/2 reduction of sentence C. 30 days
C. 1/3 reduction of sentence D. 60 days
D. 4/5 reduction of sentence 3491.All letters passed by censors should bear the censor’s
stamp at the ____ of each page and on the envelope. The
3479.Which of these is known as the Release on letter should be placed back in the same envelope and
Recognizance Law providers for the release of offender resealed.
charged with an offense whose penalty is not more than A. Back
six (6) months and /or a fine of P2,000.00 or both, to the B. Conspicuous Area
custody of a responsible person in the community, instead C. Side
of a bail bond- D. Top
A. RA 6036 3492.In case if jailbreaks, who will immediately sound the
B. PD 603 alarm?
C. Act 2489 A. Desk Officer
D. RA 9262 B. Armorer
3480.If the Warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents and C. Control Center
purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the next in D. Officer-in-Charge
command or the ___ officer present shall assume the 3493.It is designed to improve their communication and
command. computation skills, such as the ability to read and write in
A. Veteran order to enhance their individual educational level.
B. most senior A. Skills Training
C. assistant B. Adult Education
D. custodian C. Secondary Education
D. Non-Formal Education for Adults
3494.Detention Prisoners are allowed to smoke cigars and A. 55 days
cigarettes, except in prohibited cases. The statement is – B. 5 days
A. Partially true C. 60 days
B. Partially false D. 15 days
C. Absolute False 3508.In the 13th century, a criminal could avoid punishment by
D. Absolutely True claiming refugee in a church for a period of ___ at the end
3495.All persons in custody shall before final conviction, be of which time he has compelled to leave the realm by a
entitled to bail as a matter of ____ road or path assigned to him.
A. Right
B. preference A. 30 days
C. Privilege B. 50 days
D. Discretion C. 40 days
3496.The visiting room officer shall be responsible for D. 60 days
compiling the regular visiting list for each inmate. 3509.In Operation Greyhound, all orders concerning troop
A. Special Visitor movements will emanate from him.
B. Strange Visitor A. Assistant team leader
C. Regular Visitor B. Team Leader
D. Unusual visitor C. Ground Commander
3497.____responsible for handling the keys in Women’s D. Security Teams
quarter and the keys shall be available all the time. 3510.Who among the following shall be responsible in the
A. Key Matron custody of all the properties seized from the detainee prior
B. .Resident Matron to his detention?
C. Matron A. Custodial Officer
D. Any of these B. Chief of Detention Center
3498.Ms. Malou Wang has duration of penalty of 6 years and C. Evidence Custodian Officer
one day to 12 years. What correctional facility he should D. Court
be incarcerated? 3511.Female detainees shall not be transported in handcuffs
A. Bureau of Correction but only with necessary restraint and proper escort
B. Prision Correctional preferably aided by a police woman. The statement is
C. Prision Mayor A. Yes
D. BJMP B. Wholly True
3499.Mr. Abdul Salsalani was convicted of the crime murder. C. Partially False
After 12 days from the promulgation of the sentence he D. Wholly False
escaped from his place of confinement. Abdul Salsalani is: 3512.Ms. Malou Wang, a prisoner, learns that she is already
A. liable of evasion of service of sentence overstaying in jail because her jail guard, Benny B.
B. not liable for evasion of service of sentence Rotcha, who happens to be a law student advised her that
C. considered as an escaped prisoner there is no more legal ground for his continued
D. Either of C imprisonment, and Benny told her that she can go. Ms.
3500.It should be executed by the interviewer, which will Malou Wang got out of jail and went home. Was there any
exempt prison authorities from any liability arising from crime committed?
death or injury sustained while in prison: A. Evasion of Service
A. Waiver of Liability B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
B. Waiver of Responsibility C. Evasion through Negligence
C. Waiver of Acceptance D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
D. Waiver of Agreement 3513.As far as Benny B. Rotcha, the jail guard who allowed
3501.Before the actual date of interview the media shall file Ms. Malou Wang to go, is concerned, the crime committed
request within ____ is:
A. 1 day A. Evasion of Service
B. 3 days B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
C. 2 days C. Evasion through Negligence
D. 8 days D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
3502.Who should make an immediate preparation for the 3514.This refers to the one-in-charge of a Prison.
issuance of the necessary anti-riot equipment and A. Director
firearms? C. Warden
A. the Warden B. Superintendent
C. Director for operation D. Wardress
B. Director 3515.What correctional institution houses accused persons
D. Desk Officer awaiting investigation?
3503.The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief with a rank of A. BUCOR
Director, and assisted by Deputy Chief with the rank of B. Jail
Senior Superintendent. This sentence is C. Penitentiary
A. partially true D. Prison
C. true 3516.Who supervised and control the Provincial Jail.
B. partially false A. DILG
D. false B. Governor
3504.The U.N. Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment of C. DOJ
offenders prescribes that penal facilities should not exceed D. LGU
_____ inmates.
A. 1000 3517.It is one of the earliest devices for softening brutal
B. 1500 severity of punishment through a compromise with the
C. 1200 church.
D. 2000 A. Benefit of Clergy
3505.Who among the following inmates may not be allowed to B. None
see the remains of a dead immediate family members? C. Rehabilitation
A. Minimum security D. Retribution
B. Maximum security 3518.Richard Alden was convicted to serve a penalty of 6
C. Medium security years imprisonment for usurpation of a person in authority
D. None of these due to his frequent introduction of himself as NBI agent,
3506.Minimum number of times in counting the inmates on a what would be his classification under PD 29?
daily basis. A. Detention prisoner
A. Two B. Municipal prisoner
B. Four C.Provincial prisoner
C. Three D. Insular prisoner
D. Five 3519.Theory which states that criminal behavior is learned in
3507.Ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the interaction with other persons in the process of
quarantine unit at the Reception and Diagnostic Center . communication.
A. Differential Association Theory 3533.Close confinement in Prison shall not exceed –
B. Social Disorganization Theory A. 45 days
C. Classical Theory B. 30 to 60 days
D. Strain Theory C. 7 days
3520.Having a pornographic materials inside jail is a? D. 15 days
A. Minor offense 3534.Abdul Jackonini was sentenced to imprisonment on
B. Moral Turpitude March 21, 2013. On March 25, 2013 the judge who
C. Grave Offense promulgated the decision died. What is the effect of the
D. Less grave offense judge’s death to the service of Abdul’s sentence?
3521.A chemical that is injected to a Death Convict that puts A. His sentence will not be binding anymore
him into deep sleep in lethal injection. B. He will have to serve his sentence
A. Potassium Chloride (stops heart beat) C. His sentence will be suspended
B. Hydrogen Peroxide (Paralyzes the muscles) C . D. His sentence will be reduced
Sodium Thiopenthotal
D. Sodium chloride (salt)
3522.If a regular convicted prisoner has 3 shifting guards, X
which is a Death Convict should have___. 3535.It is the national record of a prisoner at New Bilibid
A. 2 Shifting Guards Prison.
B. 3 Shifting Guards A. Mittimus
C. 4 Shifting Guards B. Carpeta
D. 5. Shifting Guards C. Commitment Order
3523.How do inmates know that they have letters? D. Prison Record
A. A list of mails for inmates is posted 3536.How many days before election does inmate are
B. A jail guard delivers the letter personally prohibited from going out?
C. An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the A. 30 days
addressee B. 90 Days
D. Inmate with letters are called to the Jail Warden’ Office C. 60 Days
3524.What is referred to as “hustling” inside the prison? D. 120 Days
A. Reporting illegal activities 3537.Maya is in prison for the past 48 months and has never
B. Doing prison assignment been involved in any trouble, no matter how minor. If you
C. Using prohibited drugs were the prison director, how many days for each month
D. Selling illegal commodities would you approve as Maya’s good conduct time
3525.____ program employs prisoner in various product or allowance?
good-producing tasks. A. 5 days
A. Agricultural B. 8 days
B. Industrial C. 10 days
C. Operational D. 12 days
D. Administrative 3538.A powerful earthquake destroyed a prison where W,X,Y &
3526.The 2nd group shall not use riot control gases, except on Z are inmates. All, except Z, escaped. W surrendered after
orders of the – 24 hours, X b. surrendered after 24 hours, X surrendered
after 2 days and Y surrendered after 3 days. Who among
A. Desk Officer them are not entitled to Special Time Allowance for Loyalty
B. Armorer under Art. 98.
C. Control Center A. X
D. Officer-in-Charge C. W
3527.Detention Prisoners are NOT allowed to have a Conjugal B. Y
Visit. The statement is – D. Z
A. True 3539.Which of the following organizations donated the Half-
B. Maybe True way House inside the compound of the Bureau of
C. Maybe False Corrections?
D. False A. Office of the President
3528.If Jail Officer I Masunurin was appointed in 2013 at a B. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office
monthly salary of 19,000, how much is longevity pay in C. United Nations Security Council
2018? D. Asia Crime Foundation
A. 9000 pesos
B. 1900 pesos 3540.Mail letters of a Death Convict should be documented
C. 9500 pesos within ____ before the execution.
D. NONE A. 24 hours
3529.An inmate shall be transferred to a separation center for B. 72 hours
adjustment process from life in prison to life is free C. 48 hours
community within – D. NONE
A. 60 days prior to release 3541.Involves the formulation of a tentative treatment program
B. 30 days prior to release best suited to the needs of the individual prisoner, based
C. 90 days before release on the findings.
D. 15 days prior to release A. treatment planning
3530.How many days are given to the disciplinary board of C. reclassification
BJMP to resolve issue? B. Execution of treatment Plan
A. 5 working days D. Diagnosis
B. 2 days 3542.An authorization that permits inmate to leave place of
C. 30 working days confinement for emergency reasons.
D. 24 hours A. Furlough
3531.How long does an inmate mother who gave birth inside B. Prisonization
the jail is allowed to be with his child? C. Diversification
A. 6 months D. Counseling
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 7 years 3543.A warden who limits his role to consider policy matters
3532.A colonist when classified by the director of the Bureau of and major problems, his responsibility is centered on:
Corrections who is punished with reclusion perpetua will A. Decision Making
have benefit from an automatic reduction from a maximum B. Personnel Program
term of forty years to ____. C. Public Relations
A. 20 years D. Executive Leadership
B. 25 years 3544.For minimum security institution, the purpose of fencing
C. 30 years the surrounding is:
D. 35 years A. To keep away the civilian population from entering the
institution.
B. It is designed to prevent escapes. D. George Void
C. It is designed for agricultural purposes 3557.Prison work assignments are usually given to prisoners.
D. It is designed to facilitate open view of the A. After recreational activities
surrounding. B. At early morning hours
3545.It is the primary objective of custodial and security C. Before sleeping hours
division? D. During middle hours of the day
A. To prevent riots 3558.Forced is used only by correctional to,
B. To implement discipline A. Exact respect
C. To prevent escapes B. Enforce discipline
D. To help in the reformation of prisoners C. Show physical strength and power
3546.230. When the death penalty was still enforced by means D. Perform assignments
of lethal injection, four guards keep a death watch, the 3559.One of the effects of social stigma maintained by an
convict is confined in an individual cell ___ hours prior to unforgiving society against criminals is ____.
the scheduled time of execution which is usually 3:00 in A. Worked out good relationship with the community
the afternoon. B. Respond to a rehabilitation program
A. 6 C. Difficulties in securing employment
B. 24 D. Fostered friendship with co-prisoner
C. 12 3560.With respect to the UN Standard Minimum Rules for the
D. 36 Treatment of Prisoners, which of the following should
3547.What is the population of a type A Jail? NOT be done to the prisoners?
A. More than 100 A. Untried prisoners shall be kept separate from
B. 20 or less convicted prisoners.
C. 21 to 99 B. Young offenders shall be kept separated from adult
D. 101 to 150 prisoners.
3548. This theory assumes that people are law abiding but C. Women prisoners shall be segregated and kept away
under great pressure they will resort to crime and that from male prisoners.
disparity between goals and means provides that D. Female prisoner shall be allowed to have her children
pressure. stay with her.
A. Differential Association Theory 3561.Which of the following unusual offender should be under
B. Psychoanalytic Theory the close supervision of the jail physician?
D. Strain Theory 1. Mentally-ill 3. Infirm or sick
3549.This is also known as “Youth Camps” and is being 2. Sex deviates 4. Escape-prone prisoners
maintained by Bucor where youth offenders may serve A. 1 and 2
their sentence in lieu of confinement in a prison. B. 3 and 4
A. AFP Stockade C. 1 and 3
B. Agricultural and Forestry Camps D. 2 and 3
C. Social Camps 3562.Under RA 9263, who is 2nd in command in BJMP?
D. A or C A. Deputy for Administration
3550. It was established in 1910 under the American Regime. B. Chief, Directorial Staff (4th in command)
A. Philippine Prison System C. Deputy for Operation (3rd in command)
B. Provincial Jail System D. Any of these
C. Probation 3563.All original appointments of officers in the jail bureau shall
D. Parole commence with the rank of ___
3551.The following are the requisite of a valid Commitment A. JO1
Order EXCEPT: B. Jail Inspector
A. Signature of the Judge C. JO11
B. Seal of the Court D. Jail Senior Inspector
C. Valid Identification of Prisoner 3564.What is the minimum tank required to be appointed as
D. Signature of the Clerk Chief Bureau of Jail Management and Penology?
3552.A prisoner having the natural inclination or tendency to A. Superintendent
evade custody against the will of the custodian or from the B. C/Superintendent
place where he is held in lawful custody or confinement. C. Senior Superintendent
A. Escape Prone Prisoner D. Director
B. Mental Deranged Prisoner 3565.It is a means correcting an offender by placing him to an
C. Sex Deviate Prisoner institution where he can be treated well until he becomes
D. Alien Prisoner fully recovered and accepted by the community.
3553.Where a person commits FELONY before beginning to A. Institutional Corrections
serve or while serving his sentence on a previous B. Non Institutional Correction
conviction C. BJMP
A. Quasi-recidivism D. Parole
B. Reiteration 3566.This is the basic needs of a convicted person under
C. Habitual Delinquency custody.
D. Recidivism a. Shelter b. Food e. cigarettes
b. gadgets d. Slippers f. Drinks
3554.If a prisoner who is serving sentence is found in A. a,b,c,d
possession of dangerous drugs can be considered a B. a,c,d,e
quasi-recidivist? C. c,d,e,f
A. Yes, because he committed another crime while D. a,b,d,f
serving his sentence 3567.It is a conditional release after the prisoner’s conviction
B. Yes, because it can be the start of illicit activities in is final and executory and has already served the
prison minimum period of the sentence imposed to him.
C. No. because what he violated is not a Felony A. Parole
D. A and B B. Word of Hohor
B. Parole d’ Honeur
3555.What is the legal process that results in the removal of D.Probare
conviction from the official records? 3568.He is the Governor/Superintendent in Norfolk Island, a
A. Mitigation penal colony in the East of Australia and initiated the
B. Expungement famous “Mark System”.
C. Exoneration A. Alexander Macanochie
D. Restriction B. Edward Savage
3556.Who advocated the principle that the basis of all social C. Walter Crofton
actions must be the utilitarian conception of the greatest D. Edward Savage
happiness for the greatest number? 3569.Ex-officio Chairperson of board of Pardons and Parole.
A. John Howard A. Administrator
B. Jeremy Bentham B. Sec. of DOJ
C. Cesare Becaria C. Sociologist
D. Clergyman A. Regional Director
3570.It is known as the Indeterminate Sentence Law that B. Probation & Parole Officer
creates the board of Indeterminate Sentence which took C. BOARD
effect on December 5, 1933. D. Administration
A. EO 83 S. 1937 3583.A parolee may work or travel abroad if he has NO
B. EO 94 pending criminal case in any court. Application for travel
C. Act 4103 and work abroad shall be approved by the Administration
D. EO 292 and confirmed by the ____.
3571.All except one are the requisites to be eligible for review A. Regional Director
of a Parole cases. C. BOARD
A. Final conviction B. Probation and Parole Officer
B. maximum period of sentence exceeds one yr D. Administration
C. served the minimum period of said sentence 3584.Parole is not claimed as a right but the Board of Parole
D. None of the above grants it as a privilege to a qualified prisoner. This is
3572.All except one are objectives of the Parole System. statement is:
A. It standardize the penalty A. Partially true
B. Prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of C. True
liberty B. Partially false
C. Uplift and redeem valuable Human, material and D. False
economic usefulness 3585.The following are disqualifications for Parole to be
D. Individualize the administration of criminal law, without granted.
prejudice to the basic needs of maintaining and a. who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence;
protecting social order b. those who have pending criminal case;
3573.Director of Prisons has the responsibility to forward the c. habitual delinquencies;
document to the board, ____ before the expiration of d. suffering from any mental disorder; and
prisoner’s minimum sentence. e. conviction is on appeal
A. 15 days A. a,b,c, and e
B. 45 days B. a,b,c, and d
C. 30 days C. b,c,d, and e
D. 60 days D. a,b,c,d, and e
3574.The board shall assess and determine whether the 3586.It is exercise exclusively within the sound discretion of
petitioner is qualified for Parole, the decision or action the President for the objective of preventing miscarriage
must be suspended by ____ of the members of the board. of Justice or correcting manifests injustice.
A. 4 votes A. Parole
B. Majority B. Pardon
C. 5 members of the Board C. Executive
D. at least four (4) votes D. Reprieve
3575.If petition for Parole was granted, BOARD will issue a 3587.Who has the authority to assist the Chief Executive in his
____ or specifically known as discharge on parole. exercise of the power to grant executive clemency?
A. Release Document A. DOJ
B. Final Release & Discharge B. BOARD
C. Discharge on Parole C. Administration
D. Summary Report D. Administrator
3576.One of the mandatory conditions attached to the parolee 3588.Kind of Executive Clemency which exempts an individual
is to report at least once a month for those residing within certain limits or conditions from the punishment that
outside Metro Manila/to report at least twice a month for the law inflicts for the offense he has committed resulting
those who are residing in Metro Manila. from the partial extinction of his criminal liability.
A. True A. Absolute Pardon
B. Partially True B. Reprieve
C. False C. Commutation of Sentence
D. Partially False D. Conditional Pardon
3577.The Probation and Parole Officer submits ___ if parolee 3589.Pardon by the President shall be extended ____.
commits any violation of the terms and conditions stated in A. Before Prosecution of Criminal Action
the release document. B. After Conviction of Final Judgment
A. Violation Report C. After Filling of Complaint/Information
B. Progress Report D. Upon the discretion of the President
C. Infraction Report 3590.A pardon violator upon conviction will be liable for
D. Summary Report imprisonment of “prision correctional”.
3578.Upon receipt of the Report the BOARD may issue an A. Article 95 of RPC
____ against the parolee. B. Article 59 of RPC
A. Warrant of Arrest C. Article 159 of RPC
B. Search Warrant D. A and C
C. Order of Arrest 3591.On Executive Clemency petition filed by prisoner should
D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment (OAR) be addressed to ____.
3579.What is the effect of the recommitment of a Parolee? A. Board
A. Serve the remaining portion of his sentence B. Administrator
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence C. Chairman of BPP
C. Minimum sentence impose D. President
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in 3592.Who shall endorse to the Board the petition for absolute
full or conditional pardon if the crime committed is against the
3580.As a general rule, a Parolee may not transfer residence national security?
stated in the release document except if the petition for A. DFA Secretary
transfer of residence is approved by ____. B. COMELEC
A. Regional Director C. DOJ Secretary
B. Probation & Parole Officer D. DND Secretary
C. BOARD 3593.Any wilful or malicious concealing material information
D. Administration made by the client either or after the grant of Conditional
3581.A Chief Probation and Parole Officer may authorize Pardon or Parole is a ground for the BOARD to –
outside travel his area of jurisdiction for a period of NOT A. Extend the period of Supervision
more than ___. B. Modify the conditions appeared on released document
A. 30 days C. Cancel the Parole or recommend the revoke of
B. 15 days Conditional Pardon
C. 20 days D. Suspend the exercise of said privileges until good
D. 10 days behavior has shown by the client
3582.If a travel of a Parolee is more than 30 days shall be
approved by the ____.
3594. All except one are the instances wherein supervision of 3607.Juan dela Cruz was sentenced to serve a penalty of
parole and conditional pardon case deemed to archive/ Prision Correctional. Is he qualified to apply for probation?
close. A. Yes
A. Order o Arrest and recommitment issued by the Board B. True
against the client C. No
B. Certificate of transfer of resident D. False
C. Upon receipt of certificate of final release and 3608.Violations of the following Special Laws shall disqualify
discharge of the client an offender to avail of the benefits of PD 968.
D. Certified True Copy of the death certificate of the A. Omnibus Election Code
deceased client B. Robbery
3595.The power of the Chief Executive to grant pardon is C. Wage Rationalization Act
limited to the following, EXCEPT: D. Videogram Law
A. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the 3609.As a general rule Violation of Comprehensive Dangerous
violation of any election law may be granted without Drug Act of 2002 is disqualify to apply for Probation,
favourable recommendation of the Commission of EXCEPT:
Elections A. Section 12
C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction B. Section 14
D. Pardon is administered by the Court C. Section 13
3596.Pardon can be extended to any of the cases, EXCEPT: D. Section 17
A. Carnapping E. Section 70
B. Impeachment 3610.This decree mandated the disqualification of the
B. Estafa petitioner’s application for probation if an appeal is
D. Parricide perfected.
3597.Father of Philippine Probation. A. PD 1357
A. John Augustus B. BP 76
B. Edward Savage C. PD 968
C. Matthew Davenport Hill D.PD 1257
D. Teodulo Natividad 3611.He is a convicted defendant whose application for
3598.First juvenile court established in 1899 probation has been given due course by the court but fails
A. Chicago to report to the probation officer or cannot be located
B. Massachusetts within a reasonable period of time.
C. England A. Absconding Petitioner
D. Philippines B. Absconding Probationer
3599.Federal Probation act signed by President Calvin C. Disobedient Petitioner
Coolidge became a Law on _____. D. Uncooperative Petitioner
A. April 26, 1878 3612.Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified
B. 1899 petitioners, when does it become a matter of right?
C. 1887 A. After the submission of the PSIR
D. March 4, 1925 B. When the convict files a petition for probation
3600.Probation in Philippines was first introduced by virtue of C. When the appeal was undertaken
___ also known as Philippine Probation Act of 1935 D. When his probation is approved
A. HB 393 3613.When shall probation order take effect?
B. PD 968 A. Three days after issuance
C. Act 4221 B. Three days prior to issuance
D. RA 4221 C. Upon its issuance
3601.Celebrated case which paved the way for declaring D. Upon reporting to the probation officer
unconstitutional of the first probation law of November 16, 3614.Which of the following cases is disqualified to apply for
1937 probation?
A. People vs. Vera A. Infanticide
B. People vs. De Vera C. Simple Theft
C. People vs. De Vega B. Malicious Mischief
D. People vs. Vega D.Unjust Vexation
3602.How long is the period of probation of a defendant 3615.Who appoints Probation Administrator, Regional
sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than one Probation Officers and Assistant Probation Officers?
(1) year? A. DILG Secretary
A. Not to exceed 6 years B. President
B. Not to exceed 8 years C. DOJ Secretary
C. Not to exceed 10 years D. Administrator
D. Not to exceed 2 years 3616.How many days are given to the court to act on
3603.The power of the Chief Executive to grant pardon is application for probation?
limited to the following, EXCEPT: A. 15 days
A. Pardon is administered by the court B. 60 days
B. Pardon cannot be extended o cases of impeachment. C. 10 days
C. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the D. 5 days
violation of any election law may granted without 3617.Probationer and his Probation Officer will prepare a
favourable recommendation of the Commission of _____.
Elections. A. Associate Plan
D. Pardon is exercised only after conviction B. Supervision & Treatment Plan
3604.What court will you apply for Probation? C. Treatment Program
A. Regional Trial Court for 6 years and above D. Orientation Plan
B. MTC or MCTC for 6 years and below 3618.One of the mandatory conditions to a probationer is to
C. Same court, where you had been convicted present himself to the probation officer designated to
D. Any of these undertake his supervision within ___ from receipt of said
3605.Waiting for the decision of the court on the application for order.
probation, the offender applying for probation – A. 24 hours
A. Must stay in prison as a detainee B. 72 hours
B. Maybe set free without bail C. 48 hours
C. Maybe released on bail or recognizance D. 150 hours
D. all of these 3619. When shall probation order take effect?
3606.When will the court deny application for probation of a A. Three days after issuance
petitioner? B. Upon its issuance
A. Petitioner is a foreigner C. Three Days Prior to Issuance
B. Petitioner is a drug dependent D. Upon Reporting to the Probation Officer
C. Petitioner violates the condition 3620.Modifications of conditions for probation is allowed ___.
D. Petitioner can be treated well in an institution A. 15 days after granting it
B. At any time during supervision D. Correction
C. Upon the application of the community 3634.It refers to a long, low narrow, single decked ships
D. Any of these propelled by sails, usually rowed by criminals. A. type of
ship used for transportation of criminals in the 16th century.
A. Gaols
B. Galleys
C. Hulks
D. D. Mamertine Prison
3621.If the Probationer did not comply with the conditions, if
the reasons for non-compliance is not meritorious the 3635.Represented the earliest codification of Roman Law
court will issue a ____. incorporated into the Justinian Code. It is also collection
A. termination order of legal principles engraved on metal tablets and set up
B. Warrant of Arrest on .
C. OAR A.Twelve Tablets
D. Revocation Order B.Burgundian Code
3622.What is the effect of the recommitment of a Probationer? C.Hammurabic Code
A. Serve the remaining portion of the his sentence D.Greek code of Draco
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum
sentence 3636. The most popular workhouse in London which was built
C. Minimum sentence impose for the employment and housing of English prisoners.
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full A. Bridewell
3623.Under rules and methods employed by probation, what is B. Hospicio de San Michelle
the maximum number of minor violations that would result C. Saint Bridget” Well
in the revocation of the probation order? D. Walnut Street Jail
A. 5 Violations
B. 3 Violations 3637.Who appoints Probation Administrator, Regional
C. 4 Violations Probation Officers and Assistant Probation Officers?
D. 2 Violations A. DILG Secretary
3624.Maximum number of probationers under supervision of a C. President
probation aide B. DOJ Secretary
A. 3 D. Administrator
B. 7
C. 5
D. 9
3625.Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified
petitioners, when does it become a matter of right? 3638.It is the branch of criminology which deals with the
A. After submission of the PSIR management and administration of inmates:
B. When the convict files a petition for probation a. Criminal justice
C. When the appeal was undertaken b. Penology
D. When the probation is approved c. Victimology
3626.Who is the ultimate beneficiary of Probation Law? d. d. Jail Management
A. Criminal
B. Society 3639.Any article, thing, or item prohibited by law/ or forbidden
C. Family by jail rules is called:
D. Governor a. Instrument of restraint
3627.It refers to those that handle the investigation of b. contraband
petitioners for probation, and the supervision of c. Handcuff
probationers, parolees and conditional pardonees. d. leg iron
A. Parole and Probation Administration 3640.It shall exercise supervision and control over all district,
B. Board of Pardons and Parole city and municipal jails to ensure “a secured, clean and
C. Secretary of Justice sanitary and adequately equipped jail for the custody and
D. Department of Justice safekeeping of city, municipal prisoners, any fugitive from
3628.Post Sentence Investigation report must be submitted by justice or persons detained awaiting for investigation or trial
the probation officer to the court within and/or transfer to the National Penitentiary:
A. 20 days a. Bureau of Corrections
B. 60 days b. Dep’t of
C. 30 days Social Welfare and Development
D. 90 days b. Jail Bureau
3629.Those that have been once on probation under the c. Department of Justice
Probation Law: 3641.Head count of inmates shall be conducted _ times a day
A. are qualified to apply for probation or as often as necessary to ensure that all inmates are duly
B. are disqualified to apply for probation accounted for:
C. may be granted for another probation a. Two
D. should be confined in prison b. Four
3630.Maximum term of office for those appointed as members c. Three
of the Board of Pardon and Parole. d. d. Five
A. 3 years 3642.The head of prison may establish _______ whenever the
B. 5 years frequency of requests for interviews reach a volume that
C. 4 years warrants limitations:
D. 6 years a. Media group
3631.When will you close a probation case? b. news team
A. When the probationer absconds the place c.Press pool
B. When he incurred violations d. public affairs
C. When there is recommendation for revocation 3643.An infant born while the mother is serving sentence in
D. When the termination order is approved CIW may be allowed to stay with the mother for a period not
3632.Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from among exceeding:
the citizen’s of ____ a. 1 month
A. Good religious background b. 1 year
B. High Educational Level c. 6 months
C. Good Repute and Probity d. 6 years
D. High Social Standing 3644.BUCOR has two (2) Assistant Directors, one for
3633.It refers to the manner or practice of managing or Administration and Rehabilitation and one for:
controlling places of confinement as in jails or prisons. a. Health and Care services
A. Penology b. Prisons and Security
B. Penal Management c. Correction and Rehabilitation d. Custody and Security
C. Correctional Administration
d. Communication
3645.A representative of the news media may file a written
request with the head of prison for a personal interview of an
inmate that he/she shall file a written request at least:
a. One day
b. two days 3658.Defined by the BJMP refers to a person who is accused
c. Three days before a court or competent authority and is temporarily
d. four days confined in jail while undergoing or awaiting investigation,
3646.This is the process wherein prison officials try to convert trial or final judgment.
inmates and be affiliated into their religion: a. Prisoner
a. Conversions b. Bail
b. agitation c. Detainee
c. Proselytizing d. Arrest
d. Captivation 3659.Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be
3647. Prisoner who violated prison rules may be punished by a prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom?
confinement in a disciplinary cell from _ to _ months a. Parents
depending upon the gravity of the offense committed: b. Offended Spouse
a. One to two c. Guardians
b. one to three d. Godfather
c. One to four 3660.He is considered as the American Pioneer of Probation
d. one to five a. Matthew Davenport Hill
3648. During the 11th and successive years of following years b. John Augustus
of prisoners imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a c. Father Cook
deduction of __ days for each month of good behaviour: d. d. Edward Savage
a. Five 3661. Which of the following is an executive clemency that
b. eight requires the concurrence of congress?
c. Ten a. probation
d. fifteen b. Amnesty
3649. During the following years until the 10th year, inclusive, of c. pardon
inmate’s imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction of: d. Parole
a. Five 3662.Post sentence investigation report must be submitted by
b. eight the probation officer to the court within
c. Ten a. 20 days
d. fifteen c. 60 days
3650. During the first two years of inmates imprisonment, he b. 30 days
shall be allowed a deduction of: d. none of the above
a. Five days 3663. Parole is a matter of ___.
b. ten days a. privilege
c. Seven days b. right
d. twelve days c. grace
3651. GCTA means: d. requirement
a. Good conduct turning allowance 3664. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.
b. . good conduct time allowance a. punishment
c. Good conduct training allotment b. treatment
d. d. none of the foregoing c. enjoyment
d. incarceration
3652.It is a form of bails that the court may release a person in 3665.PPA is headed by:
custody of a responsible person. a. Director
a. Property bond b. Administrator
b. Recognizance c. Secretary
c. Corporate surety d. Superior
d. Cash deposit 3666. Is a pecuniary punishment imposed by the law tribunal
3653.Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the upon a person convicted of crime or misdemeanor.
Philippines Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the: a. Remission
a. Department of Justice b. Forfeiture
b. Chief Executive c. Fine
c. Judiciary d. All of the above
d. Legislative 3667. Who may grant GCTA to an inmate who displays good
338. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to behavior and no record of violation of prisons rules and
suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence regulations
and extinguish criminal liability. a. President
a. Parole b. Director of Prisons
c. Pardon c. Warden
b. Executive clemency d. None of the above
d. none of the above 3668. A person who is placed under probation.
3654. The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the: a. Petitioner
a. DILG c. BUCor b. Probationer
b. PNP c. Probationee
d. DOJ d. None of the above
3655.It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier
sentence to a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter 3669. It refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability of
term. the individual to whom it is granted without any condition.
a. Amnesty a. Special pardon
c. Reprieve b. Absolute pardon
b. Commutation c. Conditional pardon
d. none of the foregoing d. General pardon
3656.The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear 3670.Which is not a form of bail?
of punishment. a. Cash deposit
a. Retribution b. Corporate surety
b. Punishment c. Recognizance
c. Deterrence d. Title bond
d. Rehabilitation 3671. An offender who surrenders from escaping because of
3657.The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called calamity immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement of
a. Reprieve the passing away of calamity shall be granted
c. Amnesty a. 1/5 reduction of sentence
b. Pardon b. 1/2 reduction of sentence
c. 2/5 reduction of sentence 3685. It refers to commission of another crime during service of
d. 2/6 reduction of sentence sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense.
3672.He is considered as the father of probation in the a. Recidivism
Philippines. b. Delinquency
a. Ferdinand Marcos c. Quasi-recidivism
b. Teodulo Natividad d. City prisoner
c. Fidel Ramos 3686.It refers to leniency or mercy.
d. Antonio Torres a. Power
3673. The following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT b. Clemency
a. Commutation c. Grace
b. Reform model d. Damages
c. Amnesty 3687.A kind of pardon which applies to all persons falling on a
d. Pardon certain category.
3674.An agency under the Department of Justice that is a. Special pardon
charged with custody and rehabilitation of national offenders, b. Absolute pardon
that is, those sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of c. Conditional pardon
more than three (3) years d. General pardon
a. BJMP 3688. During the 3rd to 5th year inclusive of imprisonment of an
b. Bureau of Corrections inmate, He shall allow a deduction of how many days for
c. Provincial Government each month for displaying good behavior?
d. Parole and Probation Administration a. 10 days
3675. Pardon may be granted upon the recommendation of b. 15 days
what government agency c. 8 days
a. Parole and Probation Administration d. 5 days
b. Board of Pardons and Parole 3689. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the
c. Probation and Parole Administration state which exempts an individual from the punishment
d. Board of Parole and Pardons which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended
3676. It is known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006. by the President thru the recommendation of the Board of
a. R.A. 7610 Parole and Pardon is called:
b. P.D. 603 a. Amnesty
c. R.A. 9262 b. Parole
d. R.A. 9344 c. Probation
3677. The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the: d. Pardon
a. Director 3690.It refers to reduction or mitigation of the penalty.
b. Secretary of the dnd a. Reprieve
c. Chief of executive b. Amnesty
d. Prison inspector c. Probation
3678. A term means a friend of a court d. Commutation
a. Amicos curae 3691.Refers to the conditional release of an offender from a
b. Amigos curae correctional institution after he has served the minimum of
c. Amicus curiae his prison sentences.
d. None of the above a. Parole
3679. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or b. Pardon
she may not commit another crime in the future. c. Probation
a. Retribution d. None of the above
b. Deterrence 3692. The who investigates for the court a referral for
c. Incapacitation probation or supervises a probationer or both
d. Rehabilitation a. police officer
b. probationer officer
3680.He is considered as the father of Probation in England. c. intelligence officer
a. Matthew Davenport Hill d. law enforcer
b. Father Cook
c. John Augustus 3693. When does probation revocable before the final
d. Edward Savage discharge of the probationer by the court for the violation of
3681. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which any of the conditions of probation.
provides a less costly alternative to imprisonment of a. any time during probation
offenders who are likely to respond to individualized b. 1st 3 months of the probationer
community based treatment programs. c. after 1 year under probation
a. BJMP d. none of the above
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. Provincial Government 3694. It is a report given to a parolee when he or she has been
d. Parole and Probation Administration subsequently convicted of another crime;
3682. Is a pardon which is conceded to a single individual for a. progress report
an ordinary crime. b. violation report
a. General pardon c. infraction report
b. Absolute pardon d. arrest report
c. Conditional pardon
d. Special pardon 3695.The following are disqualifications for parole EXCEPT
3683. Refers to incurring of a liability to pay a definite sum of one:
money as the consequence of violating the provisions of a. those who escape from confinement or evaded sentence
some statute or refusal to comply with some requirement of b. those convicted of offense punished by death penalty,
law. reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment
a. Remission c. those who are habitual delinquents
b. Forfeiture d. none of the above
c. Fine
d. All of the above 3696.During the 11th and successive years of imprisonment of
3684.The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is an inmate, he shall allowed a deduction of how many days
limited to the following, except: for each month for displaying good behavior?
a. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of a. 10 days
impeachment. b. 15 days
b. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the c. 8 days
violation of any election law may be granted without d. 5 days
favorable recommendation of the Commission of Elections.
c. Pardon is exercised only after conviction 3697.It refers to the withdrawal or withholding of punishment
d. Pardon is administered by the court for a time after conviction and sentence.
a. Reprieve
b. Amnesty c. Pardon
c. Probation d. Executive clemency
d. Commutation 3710.This school argues that since children and lunatic cannot
calculate pleasure and pain they should not be prepared
3698.Refers to the head of Bureau of Correction. as criminals and as such that they should not be punished:
a. Administrator a. Classical school
b. Warden b. Neo classical school
c. Director c. Positivist school
d. Commander d. Hedonism
3711.This approached of penology assessed at the time of
3699.Among the following, which has the authority to grant French Revolution:
parole? a. Classical school
a. President b. Neo classical school
b. Board of Pardons and Parole c. Positivist school
c. Director of Prison d. Hedonism
d. Court 3712.According to this theory “a criminal is like a sick man who
needs not to be punished but treated in a hospital so that
3700.The Bureau of Corrections is under the: his illness which has something to do with the commission
a. Department of Social Welfare and Development of crime may be cured”:
b. Department of Justice a. Corrections
c. Department of the Interior and Local Government b. Penology
d. Department of Health c. Classical
d. Positivist
3701.It is the redress that the state takes against an offending 3713.This school views as crime as social phenomenon:
member of society that usually involves pain and suffering: a. Classical school
a. incarceration b. Neo classical school
b. floggings c. Positivist school
c. ordeal d. Sociology
d. punishment 3714.It is the study and practice of a systematic management
in jails or prisons and other institutions concerned with the
3702.This code introduced the concept of restitution. But custody, treatment and rehabilitation of criminal offenders:
punishments were meted according to the social class of a. Penology
the offender: b. Corrections
a. Justinian code c. Correctional administration
b. The Greeks d. Penal management
c. Burgundian code 3715.a Latin word which means pain or suffering:
d. Code of Hammurabi a. Penology
b. Poena
3703.According to this ancient law that was practice in the c. Peona
areas of Babylon, The killer is answerable not to the family d. All of the abovementioned
but to the king: 3716.It is the field of criminal justice administration which
a. Code of Hammurabi utilizes the body of knowledge and practices of the
b. Roman twelve tables government and the society in handling individuals who
c. Pharaoh’s law have been convicted of an offense:
d. Burgundian code a. Penology
3704.This Roman Catholic tribunal was responsible for the b. Corrections
detection and punishment of unbelievers and heresy: c. Criminal justice
a. Inquisition d. All of the above
b. Lateran council 3717.The principle of tit for tat appears throughout this code:
c. Ecclesiastical court a. Code of drakon
d. Tortio millenio adviniente b. Code of Hammurabi
3705.borne out of the need to maintain the health of prisoners c. Justinian code
so that their profitability can be maximized not out of d. Burgundian code
humanitarian reasons as the government and the 3718.existed 350 years before Hammurabi or 2100 years
merchants want to make it appear: before Christ was born, the king ruled the City of Ur in
a. UN convention for profitability of prisoners ancient Sumeria:
b. US convention for rehabilitation of prisoners a. king Ur Nammu
c. UN convention for treatment of prisoners b. king Herodes
d. US convention for treatment of prisoners c. Emperor Justin
3706.In an attempt to further limit the blood feuds, the feudal d. None of the above
lords instituted official methods by which God could 3719.Death Penalty awaits slaves who commit murder,
indicate who was innocent and who was guilty. One such assaults on noble or middle class women, sexual relations
method was called: with noble or middle class women and giving aid or
a. Trial by fighting comfort to escape offender:
b. Trial by ordeal a. Burgundian code
c. Trial by combat b. Drakonian code
d. Dei indicum c. Law of Talion
3707.Exist as the more common forms of punishment. this was d. The Greeks
tied to the crime committed: 3720.This people love to philosophize that their brand of justice
a. Banishment was not vengeful and retributive. They maintain that justice
b. Death should reform the offender but must also serve as
c. Torture deterrence to others from committing offense:
d. Mutilation a. The Romans
3708.Isolating the offender for the purpose of protecting the b. The Greeks
public and at the same time rehabilitating them by c. The Jews
requiring the latter to undergo institutional treatment d. The Americans
program: 3721.Today, the stand of the Church has become a complete
a. Solitary confinement reversal of the past. it was the late Pro-Life Pope John
b. Punishment Paul II who reversed this so called:
c. Floggings a. Eclessiastical court
d. Imprisonment b. Inquisition
3709.It is conditional release after the prisoner has served part c. Ordeal
of his sentenced on prison for the purpose of gradually re- d. Culture of death
introducing them to free life: 3722.punishment inflicted by Greek Justice which is also
a. Probation practice of the Israelites in Jesus time:
b. Parole a. stoning to death
b. breaking on a wheel 3735.The following institutions are controlled and supervised
c. burning alive by our government EXCEPT:
d. trial by ordeal a. New Bilibid Prisons
3723.the offended party is fastened by metal bands to a board b. Manila City Jail
made of wood and then had their bones systematically c. Iwahig Penal Colony
broken: d. Elmira Reformatory
a. stoning to death 3736.The confinement of an inmate may be transferred to an
b. breaking on a wheel AFP stockade provided the inmate is certified as minimum
c. burning alive security risk and is __ years of old who can no longer
d. trial by ordeal perform manual work:
3724.like breaking on a wheel, burning alive was once a. More than 60
practiced by Romans. The Roman Catholic Church has b. more than 50
also been known to resort to this form of punishment c. More than 70
during the time of inquisition for non believers, witches and d. more than 80
heretics: 3737.As a general rule, viewing the remains of the deceased
a. stoning to death relative of an inmate may be enjoyed only if the deceased
b. breaking on a wheel relative is in a place within a radius of ___ kilometres by road
c. burning alive from prison:
d. trial by ordeal a. 10
3725.The systematic transfer of offenders to colonized land b. 30
started to intensify in 17th Century. c. 20
a. Absolutely true d. d. 40
b. Probably true 3738.An inmate over _ years of age may be excused from
c. Absolutely false mandatory labor:
d. Probably false a. 50
b. 60
3726.Is the procedure by which prisoner are selected for c. 55
release on the basis of individual response and progress d. 65
within the correctional institution and a service by which 3739. The color of maximum security risk prisoner’s uniform:
they are provided with necessary control of guidance as a. Tangerine
they served the remainder of their sentence with in the b. Blue
free community: c. Brown
a. Probation d. Yellow
b. Parole 3740. The color of medium security risk prisoner’s uniform:
c. Imprisonment a. Tangerine
d. Reprieve b. Blue
3727.The indeterminate sentence law was approved on: c. Brown
a. December 5, 1933 d. Yellow
b. December 25, 1933 3741.The color of minimum security risk prisoner’s uniform:
c. December 5, 1955 a. Tangerine
d. December 25, 1955 b. Blue
3728.The following are conditions of probation: EXCEPT: c. Brown
a. Granted by the court d. Yellow
b. He was once on Probation
c. Must not have committed any crime against national 3742.The act of getting out unlawfully from confinement or
security custody by an inmate:
d. Penalty should not exceed six years imprisonment a. Detention
3729.The following are the unanticipated consequence of b. emancipation
punishment; EXCEPT: c. Release of prisoner
a. It develops a caution in the parts of criminal committing d. escape
crime during night time 3743. The following are considered instruments of restraint;
b. Generally stops constructive effort (lack of respect to the EXCEPT:
law) a. Leg irons
c. Punishment elevates the criminal b. whipping rod
d. Develops public attitude of idolizing criminals c. Straight jacket
3730.It assumes that every individual has free will and knows d. handcuffs
the penal laws: 3744.Type A jail has a population of ___ offenders:
a. Classical school a. 100 or more
b. Neo classical b. 21- 99
c. Positivist c. 150 or more
3731.This school focuses on crimes and on the corresponding d. 20 or less
punishment attached to it: 3745.Type B jail has a population of ___ offenders:
a. Classical school a. 21 – 99
b. Neo classical b. 120
c. Positivist c. 20 or less
3732.This school maintains that criminals must be rehabilitated d. 150
to institutions provided by the government and should not 3746.Type C jail has a population of ___ offenders:
be punished contrary to other schools ideology: a. 21 – 99
a. Classical school b. 120
b. Neo classical c. 20 or less
c. Positivist d. 150
3733.BJMP stands for: 3747.This correctional facility introduced individuals housing in
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology cellblocks, with congregate work in shops during the day:
b. The government a. Elmira reformatory
c. The jail bureau b. Borstal institution
d. None of the abovementioned c. Auburn prison system
3734.STATEMENT 1: Provincial Prisons/Jails are administered d. Pennsylvania prison system
and controlled by the Provincial Government (Governor). 3748.His progressive move was noted when the convicts after
STATEMENT 2: The Bureau of Corrections is under the good behavior were given marks and after accumulating
supervision of the Department of the Interior and Local the required number, a ticket to leave was issued to
Government. deserving convicts:
a. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false a. Sir Walter Crofton
b. Statement 1 is false, statement 1 is true b. Alexander Macanochie
c. Both statement is true c. Zebulon Brockway
d. Both statement is false d. Manuel Montesinos
3749.opened in 1876, was the first penal institution to remodel b. Immediate supervisors
its philosophy away from punitive and retributive practices c. House fathers
and veered towards reformation and treatment educational d. Big brothers
and vocational are imparted to the prisoner as a way to 3762. Under the Irish system, a prison who wanted to lessen
treat his lack of life skills to survive according to the rules their period of imprisonment should be confined in a
of the outside society: singular cell (Solitary confinement) for a period of ___
a. Elmira reformatory months with a reduce diet:
b. Sing-sing prisons a. 6 months
c. Alcatraz b. 7 months
d. Walnut street jail c. 8 months
3750.This is considered as the “institution of silent system” due d. 9 months
to the imposition of strict code of silence: 3763.This system created by Sir Walter Crofton is an
a. Auburn equivalent to a modern day parole:
b. Pennsylvania a. Progressive stage system
c. Walnut street b. Spanish system
d. Irish prisons c. Criminal justice system
3751.He established an agricultural colony for male youth: d. None of the foregoing
a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise 3764. It features consisted solitary confinement of prisoners in
b. Sir Walter Crofton their own cell day and night:
c. Manuel Montesinos a. Auburn system
d. Domer of france b. Pennsylvania system
3752.assigned as superintendent of the English Penal Colony c. St Michael System
located at Norfolk Island in Australia: d. Irish system
a. Alexander Macanochie 3765. He was a penologist and is sometimes regarded as the
b. Domer of France father of prison reform in the United States of America:
c. 8Sir Walter Crofton a. Alexander Maconochie
d. Zebulon Brockway b. Zebulon Reed Brockway
3753.He introduced the progressive stage system. It was also c. Sir Walter Crofton
referred to as the Irish System: d. Domer of France
a. Evelyn Ruggles Brise 3766. It is considered the best reform institution for young
b. Manuel Montesinos offenders:
c. Sir Walter Crofton a. Borstal Institution
d. Alexander Macanochie b. St. Michael Institution
3754.He was the superintendent of the Elmira Reformatory in c. Auburn System
New York. He introduced a system of grades for prisoners: d. Pennsylvania
a. Zebulon Brockway 3767.This is the discipline being implemented in Louisiana
b. Alexander Macanochie state penitentiary. Under this discipline, every inmate is
c. Manuel Montesinos responsible for the actuations of all the others:
d. Domer of France a. Rough Rider Industries
3755.The progressive development of the prison system came b. I am my Brother’s keeper
to the middle of the __ century: c. Conditional setting
a. 18th d. collective responsibility
b. 19th
c. 20th 3768.Sweden, a convict may undergo probation with
d. 21st community service and render service to the community
3756. This law brought about extensive reforms in the prison for ___ to ____ hours depending on the seriousness of the
and authorized o penitentiary house with 16 cells to be crime committed:
built in the yard of the jail to carry out solitary confinement a. 50 – 250
with labor for ``hardened atrocious offenders’’: b. 40- 280
a. ACT of 1890 c. 40 – 240
b. ACT of 1790 d. 50 – 260
c. ACT of 1690 3403. what type of questions are allowed to be asked
d. ACT of 1590 to a witness who is unwilling to testify?
A. Intelligent
B. Misleading
C. Unresponsive
D. Leading
3769.Which theory of criminal punishment holds that
3757. The new prison had the traditional lay out of large rooms punishment is imposed on the offender to allow society to
for the inmates: vent its anger toward and exact vengeance upon the
a. Auburn Prison criminal?
b. Pennsylvania A. Retribution
c. Walnut Street B. Restoration
d. Irish Prisons C. The Executive
3758. On the year ___, the Elmira Reformatory is founded: D. The Quasi-Judiciary
a. 1875 3770.The post-sentence investigation report is submitted to
b. 1876 court within___________?
c. 1877 A. 10-days period
d. 1888 B. 30-days period
3759. He was the Director of Prison in Valencia, Spain which C. 15-days period
organized prisoners into companies and appointed petty D. 60-days period
officer in charge: 3771.To what agency is an alien parolee turned over for
a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise disposition,documentation and appropriate order?
b. Manuel Montesinos A. Bureau of Corrections
c. Alexander Maconochie B. Bureau of Immigration and
d. Sir Walter Crofton Deportation
3760. This state prison contained cells in the pits similar to the C. Board of Pardons and Parole
underground cistern of long ago rome: D. National Bureau of Investigation
a. St Michael System 3772.A complaint may be filed by any of the following,
b. Sing-Sing prisons EXCEPT:
c. Maine State prisons A. The offended party
d. Wal nut street B. other public officers
3761. An agricultural colony for male juveniles was established C. any peace officer
by Domer of France. The boys were confined in cottages D. Offender
with an appointed ___ to supervise them: 3773.The President grants absolute/conditional pardon based
a. Penal guards on the recommendation of
A. Bureau of Corrections b. 1 and 2
B. Office of the Executive Secretary c. 3 and 4
C. Board of Pardon and Parole d. 2 and 3
D. Parole and Probation Administration 3785.An advantageous result in the integration of correctional
agencies is:
3774.A penalty having its minimum and maximum duration is a. More physical facilities to maintain
referred to as b. More prisoners to supervise
a. Determinate sentence c. Divided resources such as manpower and
b. Capital punishment finances
c. Corporal punishment d. Better coordination of services and
d. Indeterminate sentence increased cost-efficiency
3775.Which of the following executive clemency needs the
concurrence of the congress?
a.Pardon
a. Amnesty 3786.A petition for the grant of absolute or conditional pardon
b. Probation shall be favorably endorsed to the Board by the _______ if
c. Parole the crime committed by the petitioner is against national
3776.It is an executive clemency whereby the convicted security.
person should serve part of his sentence? a. Secretary of Foreign Affairs
a.Pardon b. Secretary of Justice
b.Parole c. Secretary of National Defense
c.Probation d. Secretary of the Interior and Local
d.Amnesty Government
3777.How many days before election does inmate are 3787.Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately
prohibited from going out? released provided he is not a recidivist or he had not been
A. 30 days previously convicted 3 or more times of any crime?
B. 90 Days a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the
C. 60 Days maximum penalty for the offense he may be
D. 120 Days found guilty of is destierro
3778.Maya is in prison for the past 48 months and has never b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
been involved in any trouble, no matter how minor. If you maximum penalty of the offense he may be
were the prison director, how many days for each month found guilty of is prision correccional
would you approve as Maya’s good conduct time c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
allowance? maximum penalty of the offense he may be
A. 5 days found guilty of is reclusion perpetua
B. 8 days d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or
C. 10 days more than the possible maximum term of
D. 12 days punishment of the offense he may be found
3779.The post-sentence investigation report is submitted to guilty of
court within___________? 3788.Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision
A. 10-days period correccional. Will he qualify for probation?
B. 30-days period a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1)
C. 15-days period day
D. 60-days period b. No, his sentence is more than six (6) years
3780.Ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the and one (1) day
quarantine unit at the Reception and Diagnostic Center . c. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years
A. 55 days and one (1) day
B. 5 days d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one
C. 60 days (1) day
D. 15 days 3789.There are four (4) acknowledged goals of
_____________ as follows: retribution, deterrence,
incapacitation and rehabilitation.
3781.In the 13th century, a criminal could avoid punishment by a. Criminal intent
claiming refugee in a church for a period of ___ at the end b. Criminal mind
of which time he has compelled to leave the realm by a c. Criminal sanction
road or path assigned to him. d. Criminal action
3790.The system of key control in a jail includes:
A. 30 days a. An updated system of monitoring and control
B. 50 days of keys
C. 40 days b. A documented inventory of security
D. 60 days personnel
3782.Who among the following may be granted conditional c. A collection of all padlocks and keys
pardon? d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting
a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by them
government physician 3791.To what agency is an alien parolee turned over for
b. A prisoner who served as “bastonero” disposition, documentation and appropriate order?
c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above a. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation
d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he b. Bureau of Corrections
broke his probation conditions c. Board of Pardons and Parole
3783.The following are considered minor offenses of an d. National Bureau of Investigation
inmate, EXCEPT:
a. Rendering service to fellow inmate 3792.The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted to
b. Failing to stand at attention and give due court within _____________.
respect when confronted by or reporting to a. 10-day period
any officer or member of the custodial force b. 30-day period
c. Willful waste of food c. 15-day period
d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and d. 60-day period
orderliness in his quarter and/or
surroundings 3793.The President grants absolute/conditional pardon based
3784.What documents are attached to the Release Document on the recommendation of:
of the parolee? a. Board of Pardon and Parole
1. Prison record b. Bureau of Corrections
2. Name of the Parole and Probation Officer c. Parole and Probation Administration
3. Location of the Prison or Confinement d. Office of the Executive Secretary
4. Order of Court 3794.Which of the following are classified as detainees?
a. 4 and 1
1. Accused person who is confined in jail while vent its anger toward and exact vengeance upon the
undergoing investigation criminal?
2. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting a. Retribution
of undergoing trial b. Restoration
3. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting c. Rehabilitation
final judgment d. Deterrence
4. Accused person who is confined in jail and already 3805.What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of a
convicted to serve a prison term prison sentence?
a. 3, 4 and 1 a. Commutation of sentence
b. 2, 3 and 4 b. Parole
c. 4, 1 and 2 c. Absolute pardon
d. 1, 2 and 3 d. Conditional pardon
3806.There are various types of prison programs. For what
3795.Why is probation service analogous to parole service? purpose is a rehabilitative program?
a. Both have similar investigation and a. It secures prisoners from escape or violence
supervision functions. b. It employs prisoners in various products or
b. Both services are performed by the good-producing tasks
prosecutors. c. It attempts to improve a prisoner’s job skills
c. Both services are performed by alcoholics. or educational achievement
d. Both services are under the courts. d. It assigns prisoners to daily routine work like
laundry and janitorial
3796.The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides 3807.There are two (2) inmates arguing over loss of some
undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer. items in their cell. You are the guard on duty. What will you
However, control over the probationer and probation do?
program is exercised by: a. Invite both of them to the office and
a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/ investigate the matter
she resides b. Poke your gun at both of them to stop the
b. The Parole and Probation Administrator heated discussion
c. The Secretary of Justice c. Confine the culprit in a segregated room
d. The Court who placed him on probation d. Look for witnesses to testify who is the
culprit
3797.Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has
undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the
maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is 3808.Pedro Ayog is a probationer who is ordered by the Court
charged with? to pay certain amounts to the victim as part of his civil
a. Batas Pambansa 95 liability. To whom shall he pay the amount for remittance of
b. Batas Pambansa 85 the victim?
c. Batas Pambansa 105 a. Municipal treasurer
d. Batas Pambansa 965 b. Cashier of the trial court
3798.What is the primary purpose of the presentence c. Clerk of Court of the Trial Court
investigation? d. Cashier of the Probation Office
a. To help the judge in selecting the appropriate
sentence of the offender
b. To exonerate the offender
c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend 3809.The ______________ model of correctional institution
himself focuses in security, discipline and order:
d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case a. Rehabilitative
b. Reintegration
3799.According to the control theory, crime and delinquency c. Medical
result when an individual’s bond to ________________ is d. Custodial
weak and broken. 3810.Studies are conducted to determine the experiences of
a. Behavior residents with crimes which are not usually reported to the
b. Police police. What are these studies called?
c. Law a. Population surveys
d. Society b. Police surveys
c. Victimization surveys
3800.A drug user who is placed under probation may be made d. Information surveys
to serve his sentence by the court if he 3811.Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a
a. Becomes unruly and undisciplined little more care than other inmates. Which of the following
b. Commits another offense should NOT be done by a jail officer?
c. He is 21 years old a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff
d. Violates any of the conditions of his regularly
probation b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his
3801.JOI Jean Sibuto confiscated white crystalline substance prescribed diet
rolled in a transparent sachet and she suspected it to be c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate
“shabu”. What should he do first? d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient
a. Record the incident in the logbook inmate
b. Bring the substance to NBI
c. Properly identify the substance 3812.What is the classification of the prisoner’s offense of
d. Properly preserve the evidence possession of lewd or pornographic literature and/or
3802.All data gathered about the probation applicant shall be photographs?
treated _________________. a. Minor offense
a. Comprehensively b. Less grave offense
b. Appropriately c. Victimless offense
c. Confidentially d. Grave offense
d. Judiciously 3813.Juveniles are not capable of committing deviant acts, and
what are considered deviant acts are deviant only by
3803.Is the court order revoking the grant of probation mainstream standards, not by the offender’s standards.
appealable? This assumption is advanced by the ________________
a. Definitely yes, it is appealable theory.
b. Definitely no, it is not appealable a. Social
c. It depends on the outcome of the b. Juvenile
investigation c. Cultural deviance
d. It depends on the violations committed d. Choice
3804.Which theory of criminal punishment holds that
punishment is imposed on the offender to allow society to
3814.If people fear being apprehended and punished, they will 3825.Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a
not risk breaking the law. This view is being held by the thick wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in
__________ theory. every corner, a tower post is manned by heavily armed
a. Displacement guards:
b. General deterrence a. Maximum security facility
c. Discouragement b. Medium security facility
d. Incapacitation c. Super maximum security facility
3815.One of the following is NOT a gauge in determining the d. Minimum security facility
age of the child and that is: 3826.Which of the following procedures should be observed in
a. Baptismal certificate handling drug addicts who are incarcerated?
b. Birth certificate 1. They should be segregated especially during the
c. Looks withdrawal period
d. Warts 2. They should be closely supervised to prevent
3816.What do you call the monitoring and support of juveniles attempts to commit suicide or self-mutilation
who have been released from custody or supervision by 3. They should not be administered sedatives/stimulants
the juvenile court. unless prescribed by a physician
a. After care 4. They should be transferred to mental institution of
b. Welfare proper psychiatric treatment
c. Duty a. 2, 3 and 4
d. Concern b. 3, 4 and 1
c. 4, 1 and 2
3817.The scientific approach to the study of criminal behavior d. 1, 2 and 3
is ____________________.
a. Research 3827.A prisoner who is aggressive, violent, quarrelsome and
b. Survey does not cooperate with other inmates is referred to as
c. Criminology a. Squealer
d. Study b. Sucker
3818.To be eligible for the grant of conditional pardon, what c. Hustler
portion of the sentence must have been served by a d. Tough
petitioner-prisoner? 3828.When does an applicant who was granted probation
a. At least one half of the minimum of his report to the assigned Probation Officer for Interview?
indeterminate sentence a. Within thirty-six (36) hours from receipt of
b. At least one half of the maximum of his probation order
indeterminate sentence b. Within fifteen (15) days from receipt of
c. At least one fourth of the maximum of his probation order
indeterminate sentence c. Within seventy-two (72) hours from his
d. At least one third of the minimum of his receipt of the probation order
indeterminate sentence d. Within twenty-four (24) hours from receipt of
3819.Who among the following can apply for release under the probation order
Law on Release on Recognizance? 3829.What agency issues the Certificate of Final Release and
a. One who is charged with an offense whose Discharge of a Parolee?
penalty is three (3) years and above a. Bureau of Corrections
b. One who is charged with an offense whose b. Board of Pardons and Parole
penalty is twelve (12) months and above c. Parole and Probation Administration
c. One who is charged with an offense whose d. Department of Justice
penalty is not more than six (6) months 3830.Pedro was arrested by the police for theft in the amount
d. One who is charged with an offense whose of P5,000.00. He was brought to the police station and an
penalty is six (6) months and above administrative record of the arrest was prepared. He was
3820.Which of the following is NOT an objective in the conduct fingerprinted, interrogated and placed in a line-up for
of interview of probation applicant? identification by witnesses. What process did he undergo?
a. To diagnose the applicant’s problems a. Preliminary hearing
b. To determine how the person shall respond b. Booking
to supervision c. Trial
c. To gather information about the person d. Indictment
d. To determine his paying capacity

3821.Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of 3831.The “Discharge on Parole” issued by the Board to the
probation in the United States? parolee, and also issued by the President of the
a. Sir Walter Crofton Philippines to a pardonee upon the Board’s
b. Alexander Maconochie recommendation.
c. John Murray Spear a. Release document
d. John Augustus b. Release folders
3822.What is meant by the concept of probation which is from c. Release signatures
the Latin word “probatio” and had historical roots in the d. Release notes
practice of judicial reprieve?
a. Live with integrity 3832.What is called the body of unwritten guidelines which
b. Testing period expresses the values, attitudes and types of behavior that
c. Walk with faith older inmates demand of younger ones?
d. Out of the institution a. Code of jail conduct
3823.Sociologists look at corrections as: b. Rehabilitation guidelines
a. The intervention which documents the c. Code of silence
attitudinal response of offenders and staff to d. Inmate social code
processes of punishment 3833.Which of the following guidelines shall be followed when
b. The medium through which prisoners the parolee commits an infraction of the terms and
change their behavior and attitudes conditions appearing in his Release Documents?
c. The consolidation of interactions between 1. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and
correctional officers and the prisoners submits an Infraction Report to the Board of Pardon
d. A total institution in which the basic and Parole
physiological needs of prisoners were to be 2. Upon receipt of Infraction Report, the Board orders
met away from the outside world the arrest of the parolee
3. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board
3824.What is the function responsibility of prison guards? finds that the continuation of his parole is
a. Inmates’ health incompatible with public welfare
b. Prison security 4. The parolee is made to pay fine for his infraction
c. Prisoner’s interpersonal relations a. 2, 3 and 4
d. Prison industry b. 4, 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3 3844.Which agency exercises supervision over parolees?
d. 3, 4 and 1 a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole
3834.You are a jail personnel assigned to censor inmates’ b. Probation and Parole Administration
mails. In one mail, you found unusual names and c. Bureau of Corrections
sentences. What shall you do? d. Department of Justice
a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden 3845.The judge approves or denies the grant of probation
b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and based on the report of the
give it to the inmate a. Social worker
c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the b. Probation officer
contents to determine the real meaning of c. Prosecutor
the names and sentences d. Police office
d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the
addressee 3846.What law grants probation to first time offenders who are
3835.The classical theory of criminology provides that the sent to prison terms of not more than six (6) years?
basis for criminal liability is ______________________ a. Presidential Decree No. 448
a. Individual’s thinking b. Presidential Decree No. 968
b. Individual’s mental state c. Presidential Decree No. 603
c. Human free will d. Presidential Decree No. 1184
d. Human facilities 3847.An offender can apply for Release on Recognizance is
3836.He said the “crime must be considered an injury to he is convicted with an offense whose penalty is:
society, and the only rational measure of crime is the a. Three (3) years and above
extent of injury.” b. Not more than six (6) months
a. Jeremy Bentham c. Twelve (12) months and above
b. Cesare Beccaria d. Six (6) months and above
c. James Wilson 3848.Which of the following is the prison administrator’s tool
d. John Howard for controlling and stabilizing prison operation?
3837.What is the effect of the grant of probation? a. Leadership
a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house b. Supervision
b. The execution of sentence is suspended c. Activity
c. The probationer is sent to prison d. Recreation
d. The prison term is doubled 3849.Mario is soon to be released from camp Bukang
Liwayway. He is sent to a pre-release facility called
3838.To what programs shall prisoners be assigned so that _______________ for counseling and therapy.
they can engage in producing goods? a. Recreation Center
a. Industrial b. Congregate Group
b. Operational c. Half-way House
c. Agricultural d. Diagnostic Center
d. Administrative 3850.What is referred to as the concept of the “greatest
3839.In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial happiness of the greater number” espoused by Jeremy
force shall proceed to their assigned critical posts armed Bentham?
with their issued firearms to: a. Utilitarianism
a. Shoot at the escapees b. Rehabilitation
b. Protect the other inmates c. Reformation
c. Plug off the escape routes d. Conformance
d. Give warning shots 3851.Juanito was convicted and sentenced for the crime of
3840.When shall the prison record and carpeta of a petitioner serious physical injuries to a prison term of prision
for executive clemency be forwarded to the Board of correccional. Based on his penalty, is he qualified for
Pardon and Parole (BPP)? probation?
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1
BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP day
for prison record and carpeta b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1
b. At least one (1) month before the expiration day
of the minimum of the prisoner’s c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12
indeterminate sentence years
c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
BUCOR Director of the BPP request for 3852.The approval of the application of probation is done by
prison record and carpeta the Judge thru the issuance of
d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the a. Probation Citation Ticket
BUCOR Director of the request made by the b. Probation Order
BPP for the prison record and carpeta c. Probation Certificate
d. Probation Clearance
3841.Which of the following contributes to prison violence?
a. Prison industry 3853.According to this theory, social actions are repeated (or
b. Inhuman prison conditions, including not repeated) as a consequence of their association in the
overcrowding and threats of homosexual actors mind with punishing or rewarding experiences.
rapes a. Containment
c. Conjugal visits b. Differential Association
d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out and c. Operant Conditioning
work d. Differential Identification
3842.Which of the following factors makes it difficult for a 3854.This theory assumes that people are law-abiding but
released prisoner to lead a straight life? under great pressure they will resort to crime. . .
a. Scientific advances have made modern a. Strain theory
living more pleasant b. Differential association theory
b. Police conduct close supervision on released c. Social learning theory
prisoners d. Psychoanalytic theory
c. Lasting reformation must come from within 3855.What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of a
and cannot be imposed prison sentence?
d. Many of his contacts and friends are a. Parole
underworld characters b. Commutation of sentence
3843.Under the plan for riots and violent disturbances, what c. Absolute pardon
shall be done at the sound of the first pre-arranged alarm? d. Conditional pardon
a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters 3856.It is a report on the background of the convict, prepared
b. Saturate the area with riot gas for the judge to decide on the approval or denial of
c. All inmates must be locked up inside their application of probation.
respective cell a. Probation Report
d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report faculties, and graduate to a free existence in community
d. Pre-Trial Report living all at the same time is referred to as
3857.By what term is selling of illegal commodities inside _______________
prison or jail known? a. Livelihood program
a. Gleaning b. Guidance counseling
b. Hustling c. Education program
c. Benting d. Religious program
d. Vending 3869.What rehabilitation program that provides a presocial
environment within the prison to help the inmates develop
3858.There are various types of prison programs. What type of noncriminal ways to coping outside?
program that secures prisoner from escape or violence? a. Psychotherapy
a. Maintenance b. Behavior therapy
b. Rehabilitative c. Occupational therapy
c. Industrial d. Milieu therapy
d. Security 3870.Prisoners should not be given corporal punishment nor
3859.The National Record of the prisoner at the New Bilibid confined in dark cells or sweat boxes as these are:
Prison is called a. Somewhat prohibited
a. Carpeta b. Relatively prohibited
b. Released Document c. Absolutely prohibited
c. Commitment Order d. Fairly prohibited
d. Mittimus 3871.Which does not form part of the basic principles for riot
3860.The founder of the Classical School of Criminological control?
Theory. a. Preparation of a specific plan of action
a. John Howard b. Dissemination of plan to everyone
b. Jeremy Bentham c. Rapid execution of plan
c. Cesare Lombroso d. Firmness in executing the plan
d. Cesare Beccaria 3872.Prison time is considered a dead time when minutes
3861.If probation is granted by a court judge, who grants seem to crawl and the soul grows bitter. Which of the
pardon? following mitigate the oppressiveness of time?
a. Secretary of Justice a. Administrative program
b. President of the Philippines b. Security programs
c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court c. Rehabilitation programs
d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole d. Custodial program
3873.A Prisoner who is sentenced to a prison term of three (3)
3862.What guarantees the appearance in court of a defendant years and one (1) day to death, is known as:
granted release on recognizance? a. Provincial Prisoner
a. His/her promise to live a new life b. Insular Prisoner
b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison c. City Prisoner
c. His/her ties with family, friends, employment, d. Municipal Prisoner
etc.
d. His/her capacity to raise bail 3874.How is an offender released from prison or jail?
1. After service of sentence
3863.Prisoners are awarded ________ off from their minimum 2. Issuance of order of the court
or maximum term for maintaining good behavior or 3. Grant of parole
participating in various types of vocational, educational 4. Grant of pardon
and treatment programs. 5. Grant of amnesty
a. Good time 6. Any lawful order of competent authority
b. Credits a. 1,3,4,5 and 6
c. Days off b. 1,2,3,4 and 5
d. Vacation c. All of those listed above
3864.Which of the following requirements shall qualify a d. 2,3,4,5, and 6
prisoner for parole? 3875.The institution during the Golden Age of Penology in
1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an indeterminate 1870 to 1880 that used parole extensively.
sentence a. Irish Prison System
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a b. Elmira Reformatory
final judgment of conviction c. Federal Bureau of Prisons
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less d. Irish Parole Organization
the good conduct time allowance earned 3876.Strip search should be conducted:
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence a. In the presence of other inmates so that there are
a. 4, 1 and 2 witnesses
b. 2, 3 and 4 b. At the warden’s office
c. 3, 4 and 1 c. At the admission office in the presence of other jail
d. 1, 2 and 3 personnel
3865.When an accused is released from imprisonment on his d. Private room where it will be out of the view of the
or her promise to return to court as required, or upon the others to avoid further embarrassment
undertaking of a suitable person that he will guarantee the 3877.Idea of probation first existed early in the 19th century in
accused’ appearance in court, there is what is called: a. Japan
a. Promise b. U.S.A.
b. Acknowledgment c. England
c. Surety d. Ireland
d. Recognizance
3866.According to the routine activities theory, the volume and
distribution of predatory crimes are affected by the 3878.You are a jail personnel assigned to censor inmates’
following, EXCEPT: mails. In one mail, you found unusual names and
a. Presence of motivated offenders sentences. What shall you do?
b. Absence of capable guardians a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden
c. Availability of suitable targets b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and
d. Absence of motivated offenders give it to the inmate
3867.A group that has a short history, limited size, and little c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the
define territory is a type of gang known as: contents to determine the real meaning of
a. Status the names and sentences
b. Sporadic d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the
c. Criminal addressee
d. Collective 3879.The classical theory of criminology provides that the
3868.The correctional program which enables an individual to basis for criminal liability is ______________________
enhance his employability, develop his intellectual a. Individual’s thinking
b. Individual’s mental state d. Presidential Decree No. 1184
c. Human free will 3891.An offender can apply for Release on Recognizance is
d. Human facilities he is convicted with an offense whose penalty is:
3880.He said the “crime must be considered an injury to a. Three (3) years and above
society, and the only rational measure of crime is the b. Not more than six (6) months
extent of injury.” c. Twelve (12) months and above
a. Jeremy Bentham d. Six (6) months and above
b. Cesare Beccaria 3892.Which of the following is the prison administrator’s tool
c. James Wilson for controlling and stabilizing prison operation?
d. John Howard a. Leadership
3881.What is the effect of the grant of probation? b. Supervision
a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house c. Activity
b. The execution of sentence is suspended d. Recreation
c. The probationer is sent to prison 3893.Mario is soon to be released from camp Bukang
d. The prison term is doubled Liwayway. He is sent to a pre-release facility called
3882.To what programs shall prisoners be assigned so that _______________ for counseling and therapy.
they can engage in producing goods? a. Recreation Center
a. Industrial b. Congregate Group
b. Operational c. Half-way House
c. Agricultural d. Diagnostic Center
d. Administrative 3894.What is referred to as the concept of the “greatest
3883.In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial happiness of the greater number” espoused by Jeremy
force shall proceed to their assigned critical posts armed Bentham?
with their issued firearms to: a. Utilitarianism
a. Shoot at the escapees b. Rehabilitation
b. Protect the other inmates c. Reformation
c. Plug off the escape routes d. Conformance
d. Give warning shots 3895.Juanito was convicted and sentenced for the crime of
3884.When shall the prison record and carpeta of a petitioner serious physical injuries to a prison term of prision
for executive clemency be forwarded to the Board of correccional. Based on his penalty, is he qualified for
Pardon and Parole (BPP)? probation?
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1
BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP day
for prison record and carpeta b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1
b. At least one (1) month before the expiration day
of the minimum of the prisoner’s c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12
indeterminate sentence years
c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
BUCOR Director of the BPP request for 3896.The approval of the application of probation is done by
prison record and carpeta the Judge thru the issuance of
d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the a. Probation Citation Ticket
BUCOR Director of the request made by the b. Probation Order
BPP for the prison record and carpeta c. Probation Certificate
d. Probation Clearance
3885.Which of the following contributes to prison violence?
a. Prison industry 3897.According to this theory, social actions are repeated (or
b. Inhuman prison conditions, including not repeated) as a consequence of their association in the
overcrowding and threats of homosexual actors mind with punishing or rewarding experiences.
rapes a. Containment
c. Conjugal visits b. Differential Association
d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out and c. Operant Conditioning
work d. Differential Identification
3886.Which of the following factors makes it difficult for a 3898.This theory assumes that people are law-abiding but
released prisoner to lead a straight life? under great pressure they will resort to crime. . .
a. Scientific advances have made modern a. Strain theory
living more pleasant b. Differential association theory
b. Police conduct close supervision on released c. Social learning theory
prisoners d. Psychoanalytic theory
c. Lasting reformation must come from within 3899.What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of a
and cannot be imposed prison sentence?
d. Many of his contacts and friends are a. Parole
underworld characters b. Commutation of sentence
3887.Under the plan for riots and violent disturbances, what c. Absolute pardon
shall be done at the sound of the first pre-arranged alarm? d. Conditional pardon
a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters 3900.It is a report on the background of the convict, prepared
b. Saturate the area with riot gas for the judge to decide on the approval or denial of
c. All inmates must be locked up inside their application of probation.
respective cell a. Probation Report
d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
3888.Which agency exercises supervision over parolees? c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole d. Pre-Trial Report
b. Probation and Parole Administration 3901.By what term is selling of illegal commodities inside
c. Bureau of Corrections prison or jail known?
d. Department of Justice a. Gleaning
3889.The judge approves or denies the grant of probation b. Hustling
based on the report of the c. Benting
a. Social worker d. Vending
b. Probation officer
c. Prosecutor 3902.There are various types of prison programs. What type of
d. Police office program that secures prisoner from escape or violence?
a. Maintenance
3890.What law grants probation to first time offenders who are b. Rehabilitative
sent to prison terms of not more than six (6) years? c. Industrial
a. Presidential Decree No. 448 d. Security
b. Presidential Decree No. 968 3903.The National Record of the prisoner at the New Bilibid
c. Presidential Decree No. 603 Prison is called
a. Carpeta 3913.What rehabilitation program that provides a presocial
b. Released Document environment within the prison to help the inmates develop
c. Commitment Order noncriminal ways to coping outside?
d. Mittimus a. Psychotherapy
3904.The founder of the Classical School of Criminological b. Behavior therapy
Theory. c. Occupational therapy
a. John Howard d. Milieu therapy
b. Jeremy Bentham 3914.Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following
c. Cesare Lombroso instances:
d. Cesare Beccaria a. Rape
b. Murder
3905.If probation is granted by a court judge, who grants c. Impeachment
pardon? d. Brigandage
a. Secretary of Justice 3915.It was held as the 1st probation officer employed by the
b. President of the Philippines government:
c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court a. John Augustus
d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole b. Teodolo C Natividad
c. Edward N Savage
d. Mattew Davenport
3906.What guarantees the appearance in court of a defendant
granted release on recognizance? 3916.Which of the following is a prerogative of the chief
a. His/her promise to live a new life executive with concurrence of congress:
b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison a. probation
c. His/her ties with family, friends, employment, b. amnesty
etc. c. pardon
d. His/her capacity to raise bail d. parole
3917.What crimes apparently have no complaining victims
3907.Prisoners are awarded ________ off from their minimum such as gambling, prostitution and drunkenness?
or maximum term for maintaining good behavior or a. Compound crime
participating in various types of vocational, educational b. Complex crime
and treatment programs. c. Blue collar crime
a. Good time d. Victimless crime
b. Credits 3918.An open institution usually a penal form or camp.
c. Days off a. Maximum security institution
d. Vacation b. Minimum security institution
3908.Which of the following requirements shall qualify a c. Medium security institution
prisoner for parole? d. None of these
1. Confinement in jail or 3919.They assist probation and parole office in the supervision
prison to serve an of the probationers.
indeterminate sentence a. Volunteer workers
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to b. Volunteer probation officers
a final judgment of conviction c. Volunteer community workers
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence d. Volunteer probation aides
less the good conduct time allowance earned
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence 3920.It ensures a more careful selection of the institution in
a. 4, 1 and 2 which the prisoner is to be confined.
b. 2, 3 and 4 a. Quarantine unit
c. 3, 4 and 1 b. Courts
d. 1, 2 and 3 c. RDC
3909.When an accused is released from imprisonment on his d. Correction
or her promise to return to court as required, or upon the 3921.The continuing relationship between probation officer and
undertaking of a suitable person that he will guarantee the probationer is known as?
accused’ appearance in court, there is what is called: a. Pre-Sentence Investigation
a. Promise b. None of these
b. Acknowledgment c. supervision
c. Surety d. affiliation guidance
d. Recognizance 3922.The ideal ratio or escort is____ prison guard for
3910.According to the routine activities theory, the volume and every____number of inmates.
distribution of predatory crimes are affected by the a. 1:2
following, EXCEPT: b. 1:4
a. Presence of motivated offenders c. 1:12
b. Absence of capable guardians d. 1:7
c. Availability of suitable targets
d. Absence of motivated offenders 3923.He was the first Superintendent of Elmira sentence
reformatory.
3911.A group that has a short history, limited size, and little a. John Augustus
define territory is a type of gang known as: b. John Howard
a. Status c. Zebulon Brockway
b. Sporadic d. Teodulo Natividad
c. Criminal
d. Collective 3924.Reducing the degree of Death penalty inflected upon the
3912.The correctional program which enables an individual to council.
enhance his employability, develop his intellectual a. amnesty
faculties, and graduate to a free existence in community b. commutation
living all at the same time is referred to as c. pardon
_______________ d. commutation of sentence
a. Livelihood program
b. Guidance counseling
c. Education program
d. Religious program

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