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DECK OPERATIONAL (FEB212015)

COMPETENCE # 1-19
COMPETENCE 1
Question Answer
1. What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian
International date line
called?
2. Great circles appear as straight lines on..... Gnomonic charts.
3. If you have to plan your passage after the vessel is
As the vessel clears the harbour
underway, when is the best time to do it?
4. Which of the following countries does NOT use IALA
The Philippines
Region A buoyage system?
5. Entering a channel to a harbour in the general direction
of buoyage in Region A, which buoys would you see on Green cones
the starboard side?
6. A free gyroscope is said to have "three degres of
Spin axis.
freedom". From those listed, which is NOT one of these?
7. Where on a large scale chart will you find variation
In the main body of the chart
information?
8. Once the pilot has taken over navigation of the ship, you Ensure the helmsman follows the
as Watchkeeping Officer should: pilots orders.
9. What type of cloud will be present in the warm sector? Cumulus
10. What action will you take if in the dangerous semi circle Put wind on starboard bow and
in Northern hemisphere? alter to starboard as wind veers
11. The speed of sound in water is highest in.... Cold, highly saline water
A line joining all points where the
12. What is the definition of a hyperbola? difference in distance from two
places is the same
Depends only on atmospheric
13. The correction for atmospheric refraction as applied to
conditions, and is independent of
the observed altitude of a body...
altitude.
14. The summer solstice in the northern hemisphere is
21st June
approximately on...
15. What charts are used for plotting Great Circle courses? Routing charts
Violet ink has no advantage over
16. Why is violet ink the correct colour to use for chart other colours. The important point is
correcting? to use the same colour ink for
correcting throughout
17. A composite great circle route is not as short a distance
as a great circle route, but it is sometimes used instead. It is the "least time" route.
Why?
A rotatable mask mounted on the
18. The technique of parallel indexing makes use of.... display and marked with parallel
lines
Ensure each waypoint contains
19. When starting to prepare a voyage plan, one of the first
information essential to the
things you should do is:
autopilot
20. The direction towards which a tidal stream runs is called
Drift
......
The buoy is nearly always well
21. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation, which of the
anchored and can be considered to
following should always be considered?
be in its charted position.
22. From the following, what would be the maximum effect
0.3 metres.
of barometric pressure on tidal heights?
23. In deep water, which of the listed tasks have priority over Maintaining the track comes before
the other? collision avoidance
24. You are approaching a fairway and observe a vessel
displaying the signal of a vessel aground - what action Call the other vessel
should you take?
25. What does a buoy flashing a white light in isophase
Emergency wreck mark
indicate?
26. What wind speeds are likely to be expected when a
Over 34 knots
weather forecast predicts an imminent Force 8 gale?
27. Which of these is NOT a meteorological classification of
Equatorial maritime
an air mass?
28. As a cold front passes visibility will . Slowly deteriorate
29. The most appropriate chart for navigating when
A harbour chart.
approaching a harbour is....
30. Where would you find information about a vessel
Admiralty List of Radio Signals.
reporting system for a port which you are about to enter?
31. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
32. What is the position obtained by applying estimated
Estimated position
current and wind to your vessel's course and speed?
33. A barometric pressure reading of 29.92 inches of
1013.25 millibars
mercury is equivalent to __________.
34. Apparent altitude is sextant altitude corrected for inaccuracies in the reading and
__________. reference level
35. Where can the data relating to the direction and velocity
Tidal Current Tables
of rotary tidal currents be found?
36. What is the speed of sound in the water? 1.5 kilometers per second
37. What is the frequency of the low frequency pulse of the
24 kHz
echo sounder?
38. On an echo sounder, which of these is used to draw a
line on the paper to mark a specific time of an Event marker
occurrence?
39. When the water salinity increases, what happens to the
It increases.
speed of sound?
40. What is the nature of the beam transmitted by echo
Directional
sounder?
41. Which of these is an echo sounder transducer type? Magnetostriction
Turbulence from the interaction of
42. Which of these may cause false echoes in an echo
tidal streams with solid particles in
sounder?
suspension
43. What is a phenomenon in which the axis of an object
Torque-induced precession
wobbles when torque is applied?
44. What is an error in a gyrocompass caused by rapid
changes in course, speed and latitude causing deviation Stream error
before the gyro can adjust itself?
It compensates for the error caused
45. Which statement about the Flinders bar on a magnetic
by the vertical component of the
compass is correct?
earth's magnetic field.
46. Your vessel's heading is 330pgc and 345psc with a
2E gyro error. If there is a variation of 10W, what is the 3W
deviation on this heading?
47. Your vessel's heading is 330pgc and 345psc with a
2E gyro error. If there is a variation of 6W, what is the 7W
deviation on this heading?
48. Your vessel's heading is 330pgc and 345psc with a
2E gyro error. If there is a variation of 13W, what is the 0
deviation on this heading?
49. The shortest distance between any two points on earth
Great circle
defines a __________.

1 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

50. What is a chart that covers a large area? Small scale chart

51. Isogonic lines are lines on a chart indicating: Points of equal variation
52. The revision of a chart is printed on what area of the
Lower left center
chart?
53. The visibility of lights indicated in the charts is in nautical
Charted range of the light
miles for:
54. A Mercator Chart is a: Cylindrical projection

55. Which chart symbol indicates that the bottom is coral? Co

56. What publication contains ocean current information for
Sailing Directions
voyage planning from Tokyo to San Francisco?
57. What do you call the altitude after applying the Dip and
Apparent altitude
index error?
58. A phase correction is applied to observations of: Planets
59. When using GPS, you may expect your position to be
accurate 95% of the time within a radius of __________ 100 m
meters.
60. When navigating using DGPS, you may expect your
position to be accurate to within a radius of __________ 10 m
meters.
61. The angle between the grid and magnetic meridians is
Grivation
called grid variations or __________ .
62. The reaction of a gyro compas to an applied force is
Precession
known as:
63. What navigational instrument used to indicate direction
Compass
by measuring course and bearing?
64. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both
Annual rate of variation change
variation and __________ .
65. The standard atmospheric pressure in millimeters of
760
mercury is:
66. Your ship is steaming at night with the gyro-pilot
engaged when you notice that the vessel's course is
Switch to hand steering.
slowly changing to the right. What action should you
take FIRST?
67. How many degrees north or south of the Tropic of
44 06 North
Cancer is the Arctic Circle?
68. Automatic device for steering a vessel by means of
control signals received from a gyro compass is called gyropilot
_____.
69. What is the length of a nautical mile? 6,076 feet
70. The interval between the suns upper limb being in the
Nautical twilight
horizon and its center being 12 below is called:
71. The dividing meridian between zone descriptions +4 and
67 30 W
+5 is _____.
72. Physical checks of gyro, azimuth circle and pelorus align peloruses with fore-and-aft
include the following, EXCEPT: line of the ship
73. The bending of a wave as it passes an obstruction is
diffraction
called _________.
74. While voyage planning and navigating, a mariner must
refer to both texts and tables. Tables includes the Sailing Directions
following EXCEPT:
75. In the IALA Buoyage System, what is the color of an Black band above and below yellow
East Cardinal Mark? band
76. Who is responsible for the voyage plan? The navigation officer
77. When relieving the helm, the new helmsman should Course per magnetic steering
know the __________. compass
2 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
shall keep as near to the outer limit
78. When proceeding along a narrow channel a vessel of the channel or fairway which lies
should...... on her starboard side as is safe and
practicable.
79. Which of the following countries does not use IALA
Australia
Region B buoyage system?
80. The light on which type of buoy flashes with a composite
Safe water
rhythm - two flashes followed by one flash?
81. Which system may be useful for messages, such as
local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship distress alert, for
EGC
which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite
coverage area?

COMPETENCE 2
82. When a vessel is crossing from port to starboard, what
Green
colour sidelight would you see?
83. If a vessel of length 20 metres or more is required by the
rules to carry two or three lights in a vertical line, at what
Not less than 4.5 metres
height above the hull (except where a towing light is
required) must the lowest of these be placed?
84. What is the vertical distance on a given day between the
Height of Tides
water surface at high and low water called?
85. You observe a vessel on a steady bearing at range 3 Sound one short blast and alter
miles. What action should you take? course to starboard.
86. What type of vessel is showing three white light on a
A vessel engaged in towing.
vertical line?
87. If it becomes clear that the vessel required to keep out of
Sound at least five short and rapid
the way is not taking appropriate action what may the
blasts on the whistle
stand-on vessel do?
88. A power driven vessel engaged in towing is displaying
the required lights on her aftermast. How much higher
Not less than 4.5 metres.
must the lowest after masthead light be above the
forward masthead light?
89. Which signal, other than a distress signal, can be used
Searchlight beam
by a vessel to attract attention?
90. Which light(s) is(are) AMONG those shown by a 200- Any available working lights to
meter vessel at anchor? illuminate the decks
91. Which signal is required to be sounded by a power- A signal meaning, "I am altering my
driven vessel when in head-on situation ONLY? course to starboard."
92. When steering by hand, which of the following may be a
functional input to the steering gear as a result of turning Non-follow up
the wheel?
93. What action should the helmsman take when hearing
decrease the rudder angle
the command "ease the rudder"?
94. A vessel is entering port and has a Pilot conning the
vessel. The Master is unsure that the Pilot is taking Recommend an alternative action
sufficient action to prevent a collision. What should the and if not followed relieve the Pilot.
Master do?
95. A power driven vessel when towing and the length of the
tow exceeds 200 meters shall exhibit during daylight
a diamond shape
hours where they can best be seen which of the
following shapes?
96. What whistle signal, if any, would be sounded when two
vessels are meeting, but will pass clear starboard to No signal is required.
starboard?
97. A light signal of three flashes means. "I am operating astern propulsion"
98. Two all-round red lights displayed in a vertical line are
not under command
shown by a vessel.
Three shapes; the highest and
99. During the day, a vessel picking up a submarine cable,
lowest shall be black balls and the
what shape should be displayed?
middle shall be a black diamond

3 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

100. You are approaching a fairway and observe a vessel
displaying the signal of a vessel aground - what action Maintain course and speed
should you take?
101. What chart should be used when navigating in coastal The chart which covers the largest
waters? part of the passage
102. You are steering a course of 160T, you wish to
observe a body for a latitude check. What would the 000deg.T
azimuth have to be?
103. A vessel is following a range to keep herself within a
narrow channel. The chart indicates the range to be
001deg. T
001deg. The vessel is "on range" when she is steering
a course of:
104. When the body is on the rational horizon, what is its
090deg.
zenith distance?
105. The observer is at Equator and the celestial body is at
the First Point of Capricorn, the bearing of the celestial 180 degrees
body during meridian transit is:
106. Polar distance can never be more than: 180deg. from either poles
107. Out of the 57 navigational stars tabulated in the Nautical
19
Almanac, how many are of the first magnitude?
108. Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a 1deg. while the vessel is on a
heel of: compass heading of 000deg.
109. The earth is said to be in "perihelion" on approximately: 1st January
110. What is the average speed of the movement of a
20 to 30 knots
hurricane following the recurvature of its track?
111. High clouds have a mean lower level above: 20,000 ft
112. The position of the earth closest to the sun is otherwise
known as: The precession in declination measured 20.04 seconds per year
perpendicular to the celestial equator is about:
113. What is the circumference of the earth at the equator of
21,639.29 miles
the equatorial radius is taken at 3,444 nautical miles?
114. What is the latitude of a place where the sun is exactly
at the zenith of the observer at Local Apparent Noon 23deg. 27' S
(LAN) of December 22?
115. A vessel may use any sound or light signals to attract the signal cannot be mistaken for a
the attention of another vessel as long as __________. signal authorized by the Rules
116. Which vessel would NOT sound a fog signal of one
A vessel being towed
prolonged and two short blasts?
117. Which signal may be sounded ONLY by vessels in
Four short blasts
restricted visibility?
118. You are underway on the high seas in restricted
visibility. You hear a fog signal of one prolonged and two
being towed
short blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT a
vessel __________.
119. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor. Visibility
one prolonged blast only
is restricted. You should sound __________.
120. You are in sight of a power-driven vessel that sounds
two short blasts of the whistle. This signal means that the vessel is altering course to port
______.
121. The light which may be used with a vessel's whistle
a white light
must be __________.
122. A light used to signal passing intentions must be an
an all-round white light
__________.
123. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of
One short blast on the whistle
another?
124. Which whistle signal may be sounded by one of two
One short blast
vessels in sight of each other?
125. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of
another and NOT in or near an area of restricted One short blast
visibility?

4 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

126. Which signal is required to be sounded by a power- A signal meaning, "I am altering my
driven vessel ONLY? course to starboard."
127. Vessel "X" is overtaking vessel "Y" on open waters and
will pass without changing course. Vessel "X" will not sound any whistle signals
__________.
128. When two vessels are in sight of one another and NOT
in or near an area of restricted visibility, any of the four short whistle blasts
following signals may be given EXCEPT __________.
129. You are in sight of another vessel in a crossing situation,
and the other vessel sounds one short blast. You are
sound no whistle signal
going to hold course and speed. You should
__________.
130. Two power-driven vessels are crossing within one half
mile of each other, with Vessel "P" as the stand-on
vessel, and Vessel "Q" as the give-way vessel. Vessel Five short and rapid blasts
"P" sounds two short blasts on the whistle. What signal
should vessel "Q" sound?
131. Vessel "A", a power driven vessel underway, sights Vessel "A" must keep out of the
vessel "B" which is a vessel underway and fishing. way of vessel "B" because "B" is
Which statement is TRUE? fishing.
132. The prohibition against displaying lights which may be
From sunset to sunrise and during
confused with required navigation lights applies
restricted visibility
__________.
133. When can an officer of the watch deviate from the Rules
To avoid immediate danger.
of Road?
134. Your intention is to overtake a vessel moving in a
parallel course in a narrow channel. As you approach the vessel will drift together
the other vessel's stern _______
135. You are transiting a narrow channel. What can happen The bow will be pushed away from
in this situation? the bank
136. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel. As
the vessels will drift together
you approach the other vessel's stern __________.
Three shapes; the highest and
137. During the day, a vessel picking up a submarine cable,
lowest shall be black balls and the
what shape should be displayed?
middle shall be a black diamond
138. You are steering a course of 160T, you wish to observe
a body for a latitude check. What would the azimuth 000deg.T
have to be?
139. A vessel is following a range to keep herself within a
narrow channel. The chart indicates the range to be
001deg. T
001deg. The vessel is "on range" when she is steering a
course of:
140. A vessel is following a range to keep herself within a
narrow channel. The chart indicates the range to be
243deg. T
243deg. The vessel is "on range" when she is steering a
course of:
141. The moon spins on its axis approximately every: 28 days
142. How many navigational planets are tabulated in the
4
Almanac?
143. The arctic circle is how many degrees north or south of
44deg. 06' North
the tropic of cancer?

COMPETENCE 3
144. All new radar displays must be capable of displaying
1 July 2002.
Automatic Identification System (AIS) targets from:
145. Sea clutter is caused by reflections from .... Areas of precipitation

146. Maximum radar range depends partly on the.... Size of the spot.

147. Attenuation is likely to cause .... Reduced detection ranges.

148. What is a radar based constant up-date of cross track
Parallel Indexing
tendency?
5 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
149. Your radar has a beam width of 2. The radar gyro
bearing of the right tangent of an island is 316. The
316
gyro error is 1E. Which true bearing should be plotted
on the chart?
150. What will cause the ARPA to emit a visual alarm, audible A tracked target entering your
alarm, or both? preset CPA-TCPA limits
The position of the object observed
151. You are plotting a running fix. The LOP to be run
should be advanced to the new
forward is an arc from a radar range, what technique
time and a new arc swung using the
should be used?
radius of the old arc.
152. What will cause the Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) to emit A tracked target entering your
a visual alarm, audible alarm, or both? preset CPA-TCPA limits
Warn of small targets that are
153. Your Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) has two guard zones.
initially detected closer than the
What is the purpose of the inner guard zone?
outer guard zone
Navigate as though the effective
154. When using the Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) in heavy
range of the radar has been
rain, which action should you take?
reduced.
155. Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) has which built in Target CPA and time of CPA
functions? (TCPA)
156. When the gyro-pilot is used for steering, what control is
Rudder control
adjusted to compensate for varying sea conditions?
157. Your ARPA has automatic speed inputs from the log.
Due to currents, the log is indicating a faster speed than The generated CPA will be less
the speed over the ground. What should you expect than the actual CPA.
under these circumstances?
158. You are underway at 5 knots and see on your radar a
contact 10 miles directly astern of you. 12 minutes later,
Dead in the water
the contact is 8 miles directly astern of you. What is the
estimated speed of the contact?
159. Which statement concerning the operation of radar in Radar ranges are less accurate in
fog is TRUE? fog.
The beam of a three masted sailing
160. What would give the best radar echo?
vessel with all sails set.
161. What option does an Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) not
Dual VRMs/EBLs
have?
162. Your Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) has automatic speed
inputs from the log. Due to currents, the log is
The generated CPA will be less
indicating a faster speed than the speed over the
than the actual CPA.
ground. What should you expect under these
circumstances?
163. Which Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) data should you use
Vessel's true vector indicates
in order to determine if a close quarters situation will
vessel will cross your heading
develop with a target vessel?
164. You are approaching a light fitted with a RACON. What a dashed line running from the
light may be identified on the radar? center of the scope to the light
165. The beam width of your radar is 2. The left tangent
bearing of a small island, as observed on the PPI scope,
059
is 056pgc. If the gyro error is 2E, what bearing would
you plot on the chart?
166. A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar can use radar information from one
__________. object to fix the position
167. What is the purpose of the anti-clutter "sea" control on
Reduce the sea echoes
the radar?
168. X-band radar is the name for __________ radar and S-
3 cm - 10 cm
band is the name for __________ radar.
169. What does RADAR stand for? Radio detection and ranging
170. The components that generate the radio-frequency
Magnetron
energy in the form of short powerful pulse is the:
Performance not inferior to the
171. What is the IMO requirement for ARPA detection?
radar display
172. An increase in temperature with an increase in altitude
Super-refraction
would tend to cause:
6 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
173. In a Polar region with very cold wind blowing over
Sub-refraction
warmer sea, you would expect__________ .
174. A large ship close by may cause _________ . Multiple echoes

175. Which of the following radar displays is not stabilized? Ship's head-up, Relative motion
176. Does the COLREGS give any preference to ships
Yes
equipped with ARPA?
177. With regards to ARPA, what does the "lost target"
Target can no longer be plotted
warning tell?
178. It is the term used at the instant an electro-magnetic
Diffraction
wave is passing by an obstruction between two places?
179. What is equivalent to one complete oscillation? Cycle
180. An indirect radar echo is caused by a reflection of the
They always appear on a bearing of
main lobe of the radar beam of the observers vessel.
90 from the true bearing of the
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of indirect
contact.
echoes?
Navigate as though the effective
181. When using the ARPA in heavy rain, which action
range of the radar has been
should you take?
reduced.
182. This is a radar transponder which emits a characteristics
RACON
signal when triggered by ship's radar
The SART's blips on the PPI will
183. How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is
become arcs and eventually
transmitting in the immediate vicinity?
become concentric circles.
Navigational constraints may
184. When using an ARPA, what should you consider in
require a target vessel to change
order to evaluate the information displayed?
course.
185. The radar control that reduces weak echoes out to a sensitivity time control (sea-clutter
limited distance from the ship is the __________._ control)
186. Which ARPA data should you use in order to determine
if a close quarters situation will develop with a target Relative track information
vessel?
187. Your ARPA has automatic speed inputs from the log.
Due to currents, the log is indicating a faster speed than The targets true course vector will
the speed over the grounds. What should you expect be in error.
under these circumstances?
188. Your radar has a beam width of 2. The radar gyro
bearing of the right tangent of an island is 316. The
316
gyro error is 1E. Which true bearing should be plotted
on the chart?
The position of the object observed
189. You are plotting a running fix. The LOP to be run forward
should be advanced to the new
is an arc from a radar range, what technique should be
time and a new arc swung using the
used?
radius of the old arc.
Warn of small targets that are
190. Your Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) has two guard zones.
initially detected closer than the
What is the purpose of the inner guard zone?
outer guard zone
Navigate as though the effective
191. When using the Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) in heavy
range of the radar has been
rain, which action should you take?
reduced.
192. Your ARPA has automatic speed inputs from the log.
Due to currents, the log is indicating a faster speed than The generated CPA will be less
the speed over the ground. What should you expect than the actual CPA.
under these circumstances?
193. You are underway at 5 knots and see on your radar a
contact 10 miles directly astern of you. 12 minutes later,
Dead in the water
the contact is 8 miles directly astern of you. What is the
estimated speed of the contact?
194. Your Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) has automatic speed
inputs from the log. Due to currents, the log is indicating The generated CPA will be less
a faster speed than the speed over the ground. What than the actual CPA.
should you expect under these circumstances?

7 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

195. The beam width of your radar is 2. The left tangent
bearing of a small island, as observed on the PPI scope,
059
is 056pgc. If the gyro error is 2E, what bearing would
you plot on the chart?
196. A radar display which is oriented, so that north is always
stabilized display
at the top of the screen, is called a(n) __________.
197. When using a radar in a unstabilized mode, fixes are
ranges
determined most easily from __________.
198. A marine radar system for surface navigation must be
fitted on all ocean or coastwise vessels of over 1,600 GT
__________.

COMPETENCE 4
199. What does a raster chart look like? A standard paper chart.
An Electronic Navigational Chart
200. What is the difference between an Electronic (ENC) has more navigational
Navigational Chart (ENC) and other electronic charts? features than any other electronic
chart.
201. Which organization has set the specifications for
International Hydrographic
Electronic Chart Display and Information System
Organization (IHO)
(ECDIS)?
When it has been transformed by
202. When does an Electronic Navigation Chart (ENC)
the Electronic Chart Display and
become a System Electronic Navigational Chart
Information System (ECDIS) into a
(SENC)?
database format.
203. If you are using an unofficial electronic chart how would As an Electronic Chart Display and
your system be classified? Information System (ECDIS)
The Electronic Chart Display and
204. How does an Electronic Chart Display and Information
Information System (ECDIS) will not
System (ECDIS) operator ensure the electronic chart in
accept sensor information on a
use is on the same scale as other sensor information
scale different to the electronic
being input?
chart.
A computer, electronic charts,
205. What are the four main components of an Electronic
colour display screen and
Chart Display and Information System (ECDIS)?
operator's controls
206. Which chart display first appears on the Electronic Chart
Display and Information System (ECDIS) screen when it Standard display
is switched on?
207. It describes the minimum Performance Standards for
ECDIS systems, references to both hardware and
IMO Resolution A.817(19)
software, ENC updates, user interface and the
integration of external devices.
208. It describes the ECDIS, operational and performance
International Electrotechnical
requirements, and provide methods for the required
Commission (IEC) standard 61174
results.
209. A navigational information system which, with adequate
back-up arrangements, can be accepted as complying
with the up-to-date chart, required by regulation Electronic Chart Display and
V/19_2.1.4 of the 1974 SOLAS Convention, by Information System (ECDIS)
displaying selected information from a system electronic
navigational chart.
210. System used to include in December 1998 the IMO
Raster Chart Display Systems
adopted amendments to the performance Standards for
(RCDS)
ECDIS.
211. A radar based constant up-date of cross track tendency. Parallel Indexing
212. In the ECDIS, what do you call this opportunity to and by
scrolling through the charts to acquaint the OOW with
Look ahead
potential danger areas, alterations of course, crossing
traffic and so on?
213. The purpose of this course is to enhance safety of
navigation by providing the knowledge and skills IMO Model Course 1.27
necessary to fully utilize the features of ECDIS is called.

8 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

214. Which principles NOT included needed to be applied to The ship must not be put at risk
satellite navigation? through equipment failure
215. If the electronic chart is part of an Ecdis, it must display
the minimum data required by IMO/IHO, to include all of tidal currents
the following EXCEPT___________.
216. The database resulting from (1) the transformation of the
electronic navigational chart (ENC) by ECDIS for
appropriate use, (2) the updates to the ENC by system electronic navigational chart
appropriate means, and (3) the additional data added by
the mariner, is called the __________.
217. Which one of the following data layer categories is not
Ship Hydrodynamic informations
displayed on ECDIS?
218. An ECDIS is required to display which among the
Hydrographic data
following information?
219. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines
3
are required for a two-dimensional fix?
220. The closest point of approach (CPA) of a contact on a after the contact has been marked
relative motion radar may be determined __________. at least twice
Navigate as though the effective
221. When using the ARPA in heavy rain, which action
range of the radar has been
should you take?
reduced.
A radar range compared to the
222. If there is any doubt as to the proper operation of a actual range of a known object can
radar, which statement is TRUE? be used to check the operation of
the radar.
It may be suspended without
223. Which statement concerning GPS is TRUE?
warning.
Physical buoy positions may differ
224. If it is thought or known that floating aids to navigation
from charted locations on ECDIS,
(buoys) have shifted, how should this be interpreted on
as with any type of chart
ECDIS?
information.
225. Which of the following data layer categories is NOT
Ship hydrodynamic information
displayed on ECDIS?
226. What is the best method of confirming the accuracy of Zooming in on the Electronic Chart
information shown on the Electronic Chart Display and Display and Information System
Information System (ECDIS) displays? (ECDIS) display for more detail
227. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
Elecronic chart display and
228. What does "ECDIS" mean?
information system
229. ECDIS is set with performance standard by IMO called: DX 90
230. This is the ship's electronic data base used in the ECDIS
Electronic Nautical Chart
Sytem
231. The Component of the IBS which contains the heart of
Chart data base
the whole sysytem is the:
232. The Component of the IBS that allows a navigator to see
an integrated navigation and tactical display and to avoid RADAR
navigational hazard is:
233. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record
12 hours
of the track for the previous __________.
AIS can be used to make passing
arrangements via ship-to-ship text
messaging but a vessel operator is
234. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding
not relieved from the requirement to
automatic identification systems (AIS) ?
sound whistle signals or make
arrangements via bridge-to-bridge
radiotelephone.
235. An ECDIS is required to display which information? Soundings
AIS provides near real-time
236. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding information regarding another
automatic identification systems (AIS)? vessel's speed over ground and
heading regardless of visibility.
9 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
237. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be
the latest edition of information originated by a International Hydrographic
government-authorized hydrographic office and conform Organization
to the standards of (the) __________.
238. The database information that should be shown when a
standard display information
chart is first displayed on ECDIS is the __________.
239. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute
Course made good history
intervals?
240. Which information must automatic identification systems
(AIS) automatically provide to appropriately equipped Vessel's course
shore stations, vessels and aircraft?
241. While underway, a vessel over 100,000 gross tons wi th
an automatic identification systems (AIS) is expected to
name of vessel
broadcast all of the following information every 1 to 10
seconds EXCEPT __________.
242. While underway, automatic identificat ion systems (AIS)
broadcast all of the following information every 1 to 10 ship's scantlings
seconds EXCEPT the __________.
a digitized "picture" of a chart in one
243. Raster-scan chart data is __________.
format and one layer
244. ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats,
vector and raster
which include __________.
245. What does a raster chart look like? A standard paper chart.
246. A navigational information system which, with adequate
back-up arrangements, can be accepted as complying
Electronic Chart Display and
with the up-to-date chart, required by regulation
Information System (ECDIS)
V/19_2.1.4 of the 1974 SOLAS Convention, by
displaying selected information from a system electroni
Navigate as though the effective
247. When using the ARPA in heavy rain, which action
range of the radar has been
should you take?
reduced.

COMPETENCE 5
248. What should you do when you see a person fall Call for help and keep the victim in
overboard at night? sight
249. Attempts to sever the towing hawser are unsuccessful. Slip the towline and allow it to run
Which action should now be taken? off the drum.
250. After an explosion, when should repair of machinery and After control of fire, flooding and
services be accomplished? structural repairs
Attempt to call the vessel on VHF
251. You are approaching another vessel and see that it has radiotelephone and begin a search
the signal flag "O" hoisted. What is your next action? because the vessel has a man
overboard.
252. While your vessel is docked port side to a wharf, a
sudden gale force wind causes the vessel's stern lines
Shut down any cargo transfer
to part. The stern begins to fall away from the dock, and
that's in progress.
no tugs are immediately available. Which measure(s)
should you take FIRST?
253. You are standing the wheelwatch when you hear the cry,
"Man overboard starboard side". What immediate action give full right rudder
should you take?
A course that will keep a free flow
254. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which
of air, clear of smoke, over the hoist
course should the ship take?
area.
Flags should be flown to provide a
255. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which
visual reference as to the direction
statement is TRUE?
of the apparent wind.
256. A situation has occurred where it becomes necessary for
you to be towed. What action should be taken to prevent Shift weight to the stern
your vessel from yawing?

10 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

257. While your vessel is docked port side to a wharf, a sudden
gale force wind causes the vessel's bow lines to
part. The bow begins to fall away from the dock, and no Let go the starboard anchor.
tugs are immediately available. Which measure(s)
should you take FIRST?
The hoist line should be slack
258. You must evacuate a seaman by helicopter lift. Which
before the basket or stretcher is
statement is TRUE?
hooked on.
259. A purpose-built helicopter landing area located on a ship
including all structure, fire-fighting appliances and other
Helideck
equipment necessary for the safe operation of
helicopters.
Search for missing persons.
260. Your vessel have been in collision and you are not sure
Continue to monitor situation and
if your vessel is sinking or not. How will you handle this
prepare for abandonment in case it
situation?
become necessary
261. You are a vessel involved in a collision. All necessary
Name and Port of registry of your
actions to ensure safety of crew and vessel has been
vessel
taken. What shall you then tell to the other vessel?
a jury rudder may be achieved by
262. In the event of the loss of rudder: providing a drag on each side of the
ship
263. A vessel is steaming near the coast of West Africa
when it was accidentally grounded due to an error stranding
navigation. This is known as:
264. If your ship is in collision and the ships are locked
together, which of the following should NOT ALWAYS Go full astern to release the ships.
be done?
265. If your ship is in collision in the waters of a foreign
Enter a witnessed statement in the
nation, which of the following is NOT a legal
official log book.
responsibility for the Master?
266. You have taken another vessel in tow at sea. You can
tell that the towing speed is too fast when the catenary comes clear of the water
__________.
267. Your vessel is in distress and the order has been given apply as many layers of clothing as
to abandon ship. If you must enter the water which of the possible before donning a survival
following would aid in preventing hypothermia? suit to preserve body heat
268. When a man who has fallen overboard is being picked
just off the bow and the victim to
up by a rescue boat, the boat should normally approach
leeward
with the wind __________.
269. When a man who is conscious has fallen overboard is
just off the bow and the victim to
being picked up by a lifeboat, What the boat should
leeward
approach to the wind?
270. While your vessel is docked port side to a wharf, a
sudden gale force wind causes the vessel's bow lines to
part. The bow begins to fall away from the dock, and no Let go the starboard anchor.
tugs are immediately available. Which measure(s)
should you take FIRST?
271. You have a large, broken-down vessel in tow with a wire
rope and anchor cable towline. Both vessels have made
the towing vessel should slip first
provision for slipping the tow in an emergency; however,
unless there are special circumstances __________.
Flags should be flown to provide a
272. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which
visual reference as to the direction
statement is TRUE?
of the apparent wind.
273. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
274. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should
Survivors in the water
be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.
275. After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea
Stay in the general location
anchor from a liferaft to __________.
Place the SART and EPIRB in the
276. Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel
"ON" position and secure them to
must be abandoned because of a distress situation?
the survival craft.
277. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor
stay in the immediate area
lifeboat you should __________.
11 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
278. You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid
flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates an approximately two-thirds of the way
inverted triangle. The center of pressure of the shores up the bulkhead
on the bulkhead should be located __________.
279. You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel
to windward of the wrecked vessel
on fire. You should approach __________.
280. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward
put the vessel's stern into the wind
part of your vessel. If possible you should __________.
281. A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port Immediately put the rudder over
side. Which action should you take? hardleft.
282. A report of casualty to a vessel must include The name of the owner or agent of
_____________ .? the vessel
Your vessel is at anchor and
283. Which situation requires you to furnish a notice of
grounds at low tide with no
marine casualty to the coast guard?
apparent damage
284. Attempts to sever the towing hawser are unsuccessful. Slip the towline and allow it to run
Which action should now be taken? off the drum.
285. A vessel is steaming near the coast of West Africa when
it was accidentally grounded due to an error navigation. stranding
This is known as:

COMPETENCE 6
286. An airplane should NOT send which signal in reply to a
Opening and closing the throttle
surface craft?
287. By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire
not more than how many months from the date of 42 months
manufacture?
By the On Scene Coordinator
288. How is "radio silence" imposed?
(OSC)
Certain INMARSAT units have a
dedicated key that can be pressed
289. How is a distress message normally initiated through
for immediate action, while other
INMARSAT?
systems provide menu-driven
features.
290. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained by the
licensee when they relate to a distress situation or 3 years
disaster?
291. If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress The transmission will be made with
transmission but does not insert a message, what "default" information provided
happens? automatically.
292. What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio It will initiate the DSC distress alert
Operator fails to insert updated information when and default information will
initiating a DSC distress alert? automatically be transmitted.
Stations not directly involved with
the on-going Distress
293. What is meant by the term "radio silence"? communications may not transmit
on the distress frequency or
channel
The operator should immediately
set continuous watch on the
294. What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should radiotelephone frequency that is
take when a DSC distress alert is received? associated with the frequency band
on which the distress alert was
received.
To ensure that interference on a
295. What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio particular frequency or channel to
silence? communications concerning
emergency traffic is minimized
296. What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio
Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate Transmit Distress call by MF/HF,
help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to VHF or INMARSAT.
be abandoned?

12 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

DSC is to be used for transmitting
297. What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling and receiving distress alerts to and
(DSC)? from other ships or coast radio
stations via radio.
298. What is the smallest area containing all possible
Possibility area
survivors and search object locations?
Routine communications can
resume after the Rescue
Coordination Center transmits a
299. When can routine communications be resumed when
message on the frequency or
radio silence has been imposed?
channel being used for emergency
communications stating that such
traffic has concluded.
Only when there is a chance of their
300. When should you use distress flares and rockets?
being seen by rescue vessels
301. Which action should you take after sending a false Make a voice announcement to
Distress alert on VHF? cancel the alert on Ch-16.
302. Which channel and mode should be used when initiating
Channel 70 DSC
a Distress alert transmission?
303. Which channel has been designated for on-scene
16 and 2174.5
communications in GMDSS
304. Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean
service and could be effectively used to attract the Red flares
attention of aircraft at night?
305. Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received
L-Band EPIRBs
and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?
There are four different message
306. Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE?
reports in the AMVER system.
It is advisable to follow a distress
307. Which statement about transmitting distress messages message on 2182 kHz by two
by radiotelephone is INCORRECT? dashes of 10 to 15 seconds
duration.
Information contained in a distress
alert includes the name and
position of the distressed vessel,
308. Which statement concerning GMDSS distress alerts is
and may include additional
TRUE?
information such as the nature of
the situation and what kind of
assistance that may be required.
309. Which statement concerning locating signals in the Locating signals are transmitted by
GMDSS is FALSE? survival craft VHF transceivers.
Once activated, these EPIRBs
continuously send up a signal for
310. Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE? use in identifying the vessel and for
determining the position of the
beacon
311. Which system may be useful for messages, such as
local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship distress alert, for
EGC
which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite
coverage area?
312. Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight Hand-held orange smoke distress
use only? flare
313. You are proceeding to a distress site where the
survivors are in liferafts. Which action will assist in Making smoke in daylight
making your vessel more visible to the survivors?
314. You see an iceberg that has not been reported. What
Safety message
kind of radio message do you transmit to warn others?
315. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
Only when there is a chance of their
316. When should you use distress flares and rockets?
being seen by rescue vessels
317. An airplane should NOT send which signal in reply to a
Opening and closing the throttle
surface craft?

13 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

Survival craft VHF transceivers that
318. Which equipment is not a source of locating signals?
provide a beacon on 121.5 MHz
The operator should immediately
set continuous watch on the
319. What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should radiotelephone frequency that is
take when a DSC distress alert is received? associated with the frequency band
on which the distress alert was
received.
form a small circular group to create
320. If there are a number of survivors in the water after
a warmer pocket of water in the
abandoning ship, they should __________.
center of the circle
A smoke signal giving off orange
321. Which signal is recognized as a distress signal?
colored smoke
Place the SART and EPIRB in the
322. Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel
"ON" position and secure them to
must be abandoned because of a distress situation?
the survival craft.
323. You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel
to windward of the wrecked vessel
on fire. You should approach __________.
position will automatically be sent if
324. When sending a DSC call, the vessel's __________. the vessel is sending a "Distress
Hot Key" alert
325. What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio It will initiate the DSC distress alert
Operator fails to insert updated information when and default information will
initiating a DSC distress alert? automatically be transmitted.
326. If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress The transmission will be made with
transmission but does not insert a message, what "default" information provided
happens? automatically.
327. Which action should be taken on receipt of a GMDSS
All of the above
Distress alert?
328. Which action should you take after sending a false Make a voice announcement to
Distress alert on VHF? cancel the alert on Ch-16.
To ensure that interference on a
329. What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio particular frequency or channel to
silence? communications concerning
emergency traffic is minimized
Routine communications can
resume after the Rescue
Coordination Center transmits a
330. When can routine communications be resumed when
message on the frequency or
radio silence has been imposed?
channel being used for emergency
communications stating that such
traffic has concluded.
Stations not directly involved with
the on-going Distress
331. What is meant by the term "radio silence"? communications may not transmit
on the distress frequency or
channel
By the On Scene Coordinator
332. How is "radio silence" imposed?
(OSC)
333. What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio
Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate Transmit Distress call by MF/HF,
help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to VHF or INMARSAT.
be abandoned?
334. By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire
not more than how many months from the date of 42 months
manufacture?
Certain INMARSAT units have a
dedicated key that can be pressed
335. How is a distress message normally initiated through
for immediate action, while other
INMARSAT?
systems provide menu-driven
features.
336. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained by the
licensee when they relate to a distress situation or 3 years
disaster?

14 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

DSC is to be used for transmitting
337. What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling and receiving distress alerts to and
(DSC)? from other ships or coast radio
stations via radio.
338. Which channel and mode should be used when initiating
Channel 70 DSC
a Distress alert transmission?
339. Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean
service and could be effectively used to attract the Red flares
attention of aircraft at night?
340. Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received
L-Band EPIRBs
and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?
There are four different message
341. Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE?
reports in the AMVER system.
It is advisable to follow a distress
342. Which statement about transmitting distress messages message on 2182 kHz by two
by radiotelephone is INCORRECT? dashes of 10 to 15 seconds
duration.
Information contained in a distress
alert includes the name and
position of the distressed vessel,
343. Which statement concerning GMDSS distress alerts is
and may include additional
TRUE?
information such as the nature of
the situation and what kind of
assistance that may be required.
344. Which statement concerning locating signals in the Locating signals are transmitted by
GMDSS is FALSE? survival craft VHF transceivers.
Once activated, these EPIRBs
continuously send up a signal for
345. Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE? use in identifying the vessel and for
determining the position of the
beacon
346. Which system may be useful for messages, such as
local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship distress alert, for
EGC
which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite
coverage area?
347. Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight Hand-held orange smoke distress
use only? flare
348. You are proceeding to a distress site where the
survivors are in liferafts. Which action will assist in Making smoke in daylight
making your vessel more visible to the survivors?
349. You see an iceberg that has not been reported. What
Safety message
kind of radio message do you transmit to warn others?

COMPETENCE 7
350. How should the letter "V" be pronounced when spoken
VIK TAH
on the radiotelephone?
351. What is the purpose of VHF Channel 67? International ship to ship
352. When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what
Low power
level of transmitting power should you use?
353. When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain
English, what procedure word indicates the end of my Over
transmission and that a response is necessary?
354. What is the International Code signal for calling an
AA AA
unknown station using flashing light?
355. When more than one vessel is being assisted by an
icebreaker, distances between vessels should be
A flag hoist consisting of the code
constant. Which signal should be given by a vessel
figure "5"
which is ahead of another and whose speed suddenly
begins to drop?
356. What authority The AMVER system for vessels in the
U.S. Coast Guard
Gulf of Mexico is administered?
357. What assistance the AMVER system provides? Position reporting service

15 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

358. You are proceeding to a distress site where the
survivors are in liferafts. Which action will assist in Making smoke in daylight
making your vessel more visible to the survivors?
359. What does "end for end" mean in regard to a towing To swap ends of the hawser to
hawser? minimize wear
360. You are communicating by radiotelephone using the
International Code of Signals. What is the correct "Unaone decimal terrathree"
method of sending the group 1.3?
361. How should the letter "O" be pronounced when spoken
OSS CAH
on the radiotelephone?
362. How should the number "6" be pronounced when
SOK-SEE-SIX
spoken on the radiotelephone?
363. How should the number "3" be pronounced when
TAY-RAH-TREE
spoken on the radiotelephone?
364. How should the number "2" be pronounced when
BEES-SOH-TOO
spoken on the radiotelephone?
365. How should the letter "T" be pronounced when spoken
TANG GO
on the radiotelephone?
366. While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the
Use that frequency only for
message PRU-DONCE over the radiotelephone. Which
restricted working communications.
action should you take?
367. VHF Channel 6 is used exclusively for what kind of Inter-vessel safety and search and
communications? rescue
368. If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the
VHF radio maintains a radio watch on both the working
Working frequency
and the calling frequencies, which frequency should you
call on?
369. What is the average range of vessel-to-vessel VHF-FM
15 to 20 miles
radio communications?
370. What is the expected range of a VHF radio transmission
About 20 miles
from a vessel to a shore station?
371. What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship
1 watt or less
communications on channel 13?
372. You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF
Channel 16 when you receive a call to your rig, TEXAS This is TEXAS STAR, WSR 1234,
STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to reply Channel 10.'
answer this call?
373. You are standing a radio watch aboard the rig. A crew
boat calls you on VHF channel 16. When you reply with
your vessel name and call letters, you should request 10
the crew boat to switch to which of the following
channels?
374. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
375. The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is
U.S. Coast Guard
administered by the __________.
376. AMVER is a system which provides __________. Position reporting service
377. When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what
Low power
level of transmitting power should you use?
378. When sending and receiving messages on the marine
radio, confusion over unusual words can be avoided by Standard phonetic alphabet
using the __________.
379. Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety
SafetyNET
Information?
By the Rescue Coordination Center
(RCC) controlling the distress
380. How is "radio silence" imposed?
communications on that frequency
or channel
381. How does a coast radio station communicating by HF
By its call sign
radio normally identify itself?
382. When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain
English, what procedure word indicates the end of my Over
transmission and that a response is necessary?
16 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
383. If you are transmitting a distress message by
use English language
radiotelephone you should __________.
384. Any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-
speak English
bridge radiotelephone must be able to __________.
385. You are piloting a vessel, which is required to have a
radiotelephone, on the navigable waters of the United All of the above
States. You must __________.
386. You wish to communicate by radiotelephone with a
foreign vessel using the International Code of Signals. "Interco"
This is indicated by the signal __________.
387. What is the International Code signal for calling an
AA AA
unknown station using flashing light?
388. The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned
with safety of a person would be prefixed by the word Pan
__________.
389. The signal "AS" when used in signaling by the
International Code of Signals means Wait
"________________".
390. When using the International Code of Signals to
communicate, the end of a radiotelephone transmission AR
is indicated by the signal __________.
391. If you receive the signal over radiotelephone of "Romeo
Papa Tango" while using the International Code of repeat your last transmission
Signals, you should __________.
392. You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using
the International Code of Signals. He responds with the he cannot accept traffic immediately
words "Alpha Sierra". This indicates that __________.
always indicates a true course
393. When signaling a course using the International Code of
unless indicated otherwise in the
Signals, the signal __________.
message
394. When more than one vessel is being assisted by an
icebreaker, distances between vessels should be
A flag hoist consisting of the code
constant. Which signal should be given by a vessel
figure "5"
which is ahead of another and whose speed suddenly
begins to drop?
395. You are proceeding to a distress site where the
survivors are in liferafts. Which action will assist in Making smoke in daylight
making your vessel more visible to the survivors?
396. How should the number "6" be pronounced when
SOK-SEE-SIX
spoken on the radiotelephone?
397. How should the number "3" be pronounced when
TAY-RAH-TREE
spoken on the radiotelephone?
398. If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the
VHF radio maintains a radio watch on both the working
Working frequency
and the calling frequencies, which frequency should you
call on?
399. What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship
1 watt or less
communications on channel 13?
400. You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF
Channel 16 when you receive a call to your rig, TEXAS This is TEXAS STAR, WSR 1234,
STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to reply Channel 10.'
answer this call?
401. Which wave length applies to a frequency of 2000 kHz? 1500 meters
402. What is the maximum range of a VHF radio-set from
200 Nautical Miles
ship to ship at sea.
403. The legal type VHF-antenna has a length
1 meter
of__________.
404. The typical daylight-frequencies for long distance
8 or 12 MHz-band
transmission are located in the__________
405. The squelch on the control panel of a VHF-sat serves adjust the threshold level for
to__________ admitting signals and refusing noise
406. With the squelch mode on the VHF__________ undesirable noise is suppressed

17 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

because the volume adjustment of
407. Acoustic feedback can arise__________
the speaker is too high
408. Before a mariphone is installed on board, __________ a license must be issued
409. When onboard channel 16 is used for a shore radio-
simplex
connection, you always work__________.
410. Long distance communication in the HF-bands depends
satellites
on__________
411. A polarisation of a radio wave is determined by
position of the aerial
a__________
noise in speech-breaks in an SSB-
412. Squelch mode serves to suppress__________
signal
413. What is meant by frequency? time lapse of vibrations.
reduce distortion of weak incoming
414. Automatic amplifier regulation is used to__________
signals
415. The sound-level of the speaker on a MF/HF
radiotelephony installation is adjusted through AF-Gain
_________.
416. A VHF transmission range is mainly determined
the height of the aerial
by__________
417. What is the recommended connection between antenna
coax cable connection
and VHF?

COMPETENCE 8
418. What signal would a radio station transmit in order to lift
Pro-donce
radio silence?
419. Which of the following messages should be given first
Safety messages
priority?
420. For what purpose are the following frequencies used: Used as alternative distress
2045 kHz, 2048 kHz and 2057 kHz? frequencies if 2182 kHz is busy
421. You want to utilise a VHF transceiver to communicate
between the bridge and the poop deck. What channel Channel 16, 25 Watts
and what power would you use?
422. Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement
RQ
into a question?
423. Signals between an icebreaker and an assisted vessel
radiotelegraph
may NOT be given by __________.
424. You wish to communicate information that the swell in
your area is 8-10 feet in height and from the northeast.
moderate
How would you describe this swell, as defined in the
International Code of Signals?
425. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal
BR
code should you send?
Only when there is a chance of
426. When should you use distress flares and rockets?
their being seen by rescue vessels
427. Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight Hand-held orange smoke distress
use only? flare
428. What is the color of the signal flare sent up by a
submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a green
training exercise?
429. You are on the beach and want to signal to a small boat
in distress that your present location is dangerous and send the code signal S followed by
that they should land to the left. How would you indicate L
this?
430. Which is the lifesaving signal for, "This is the best place
Green star rocket
to land"?
431. Which signal is used by a rescue unit to indicate, "Avast
Firing of a red star signal
hauling"?
432. An aircraft has indicated that he wants you to change
course and follow him. You cannot comply because of Send the Morse signal "N" by
an emergency on board. Which signal should you flashing light
make?
18 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
Approach with caution because the
433. At sea, you are approaching a small vessel and see that
vessel is a fishing vessel and its
it has the signal flag "P" hoisted. What should you do?
nets are fouled on an obstruction.
434. You have sent a visual signal to an aircraft. The aircraft
then flies over your position on a straight course and Repeat your signal.
level altitude. What should you do?
Attempt to call the vessel on VHF
435. You are approaching another vessel and see that it has radiotelephone and begin a search
the signal flag "O" hoisted. What is your next action? because the vessel has a man
overboard.
436. You are signaling by flag hoist using the International
Code of Signals. You wish to send the signals CL and
Hoist CL tackline IW
IW and have them read in that order. What would ensure
this?
437. Several vessels are at an anchorage. You wish to
communicate with the vessel bearing 046T from you
RQ A046
but do not know the vessels call letters. Which flag hoist
should NOT be used to establish communications?
438. While in port, what signal flag would inform the vessel's
crew to report on board because the vessel was about to "P"
proceed to sea?
439. What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on
"H"
board")?
440. What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen -
Orange smoke signal
Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
441. Which is the lifesaving signal for, "This is the best place
Green star rocket
to land"?
442. Which signal is used by a rescue unit to indicate, "Avast
Firing of a red star signal
hauling"?
443. An aircraft has indicated that he wants you to change
course and follow him. You cannot comply because of Send the Morse signal "N" by
an emergency on board. Which signal should you flashing light
make?
444. Which vessel is required to carry an efficient daylight 199 GT towing vessel on an
signaling lamp? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations) international voyage
445. What is the meaning of the flashing light signal "D0910"? Date October 9
446. International voyage, your 18-meter vessel is propelled
Remove the black cone shape from
by sail and power. What action is required when the
forward.
engine is stopped?
447. Which signal would be used by a shore rescue unit to
Horizontal motion with a white flag
indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?
448. When bunkering at anchorage which of the following
A red flag by day ONLY
signals must be displayed?
Attempt to call the vessel on VHF
449. You are approaching another vessel and see that it has radiotelephone and begin a search
the signal flag "O" hoisted. What is your next action? because the vessel has a man
overboard.
450. Several vessels are at an anchorage. You wish to
communicate with the vessel bearing 046T from you
RQ A046
but do not know the vessels call letters. Which flag hoist
should NOT be used to establish communications?
451. You are signaling by flag hoist using the International
Code of Signals. You wish to send the signals CL and
Hoist CL tackline IW
IW and have them read in that order. What would ensure
this?
452. What flag signal would you hoist if you wanted to ask a
AM
nearby vessel if he had a doctor on board?
453. A vessel is flying the signal "BJ-1" from her starboard an aircraft is circling over an
halyard. What does this signal mean? accident
454. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
455. If a receiving station cannot distinguish a signal sent by keep the answering pennant at the
flag hoist it should __________. dip

19 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

456. A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the
spoken words "Mayday, Mayday,
two tone alarm signal followed immediately by the
Mayday"
__________.
457. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge
a summary of all distress calls and
Radiotelephone Act", your radiotelephone log must
messages
contain __________.
It is advisable to follow a distress
458. Which statement about transmitting distress messages message on 2182 kHz by two
by radiotelephone is INCORRECT? dashes of 10 to 15 seconds
duration.
459. A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as
safety message
a(n) __________.
460. A message giving warning of a hurricane should have
Securite Securite Securite
which prefix when sent by radiotelephone?
461. If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning
the safety of navigation, you would preface it by the Securite
word __________.
462. The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress
156.8 MHz (channel 16)
frequency is __________.
463. The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned
with safety of a person would be prefixed by the word Pan pan
__________.
464. How is the International Code Signal of distress
N.C
indicated?
465. A bell or gong, or other device having similar sound
characteristics shall produce a sound pressure level of 110 dB at 1 meter
not less than ________
466. The Rules concerning the display of lights starts and
sunset to sunrise
ends under which of the following?
Vertical motion of a white lantern at
467. Which is NOT a distress signal?
night
Distress alerting to and from
vessels, search and rescue
468. Which communications functions must all vessels be coordination, on-scene
capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by the communications, signals for
International Maritime Organization? locating, Maritime Safety
Information, general and bridge-to-
bridge communications.
469. Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement
RQ
into a question?
470. Which is the lifesaving signal for, "This is the best place
Green star rocket
to land"?
471. Which signal is used by a rescue unit to indicate, "Avast
Firing of a red star signal
hauling"?
472. You have sent a visual signal to an aircraft. The aircraft
then flies over your position on a straight course and Repeat your signal.
level altitude. What should you do?
473. Several vessels are at an anchorage. You wish to
communicate with the vessel bearing 046T from you
RQ A046
but do not know the vessels call letters. Which flag hoist
should NOT be used to establish communications?
474. While in port, what signal flag would inform the vessel's
crew to report on board because the vessel was about to "P"
proceed to sea?
475. What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on
"H"
board")?
476. What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen -
Orange smoke signal
Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
477. Which vessel is required to carry an efficient daylight 199 GT towing vessel on an
signaling lamp? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations) international voyage
478. What is the meaning of the flashing light signal "D0910"? Date October 9

20 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

479. International voyage, your 18-meter vessel is propelled
Remove the black cone shape from
by sail and power. What action is required when the
forward.
engine is stopped?
480. Which signal would be used by a shore rescue unit to
Horizontal motion with a white flag
indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?
481. When bunkering at anchorage which of the following
A red flag by day ONLY
signals must be displayed?
482. A vessel is flying the signal "BJ-1" from her starboard an aircraft is circling over an
halyard. What does this signal mean? accident
483. What would a signal indicating Greenwich mean time
the letter Z
would be preceded with?
484. What is the International Code signal for a decimal point
AAA
between figures using flashing light?

COMPETENCE 9
485. Which type of bottom provides most anchors with the
Sandy mud
best holding ability?
vessel has turned 60 from her
486. In a Williamson turn, the rudder is put over full until the:
original course
487. You are expecting a Williamson turn. Your vessel has
swung about 60 from the original course heading. What shift your rudder to hard port
action should you take?
488. You are on watch and see a man fall overboard. Which
man- overboard turn should NOT be used in this Scharnow
situation?
489. You are on watch at sea on course 90 degrees. A man
falls overboard on your starboard side. You immediately stop the engines until clear of the
execute a Williamson turn. Which step is NOT a part of man
a Williamson Turn?
490. A mooring line that checks forward motion of a vessel at
stern line
a pier is a:
491. A mooring line that prevents a vessel from moving
breast line
sideways away from the dock is a:
transmit the thrust of the propeller
492. A thrust block is designed to:
to the vessel
493. A type of anchor stowed at the stern hawse pipe is
stream anchor
called .
They must take whatever action
494. What must a Master do if they believe putting to sea or
they believe necessary for the
maintaining course and speed in heavy weather is
safety of the vessel, its crew and its
putting their vessel at danger?
cargo
495. Under normal circmstances how is it recommended to It is recommended to drag both
berth with a strong stern wind anchors
496. In docking, when approaching the quay at 1 knot, how
31 meters
many meters is ship's advance in 1 minute
497. Which line would NOT be used in handling a mainsail? Uphaul
498. Every different type of sailing rig can be dangerous in
A gaff rig is dangerous in a calm
certain circumstances. Which situation would most likely
wind and large swell.
be dangerous?
499. Which action will NOT reduce heeling of a vessel when
Changing to larger sails
sailing on a tack?
500. Which towing method maintains the most control over
Breasted tug towing
the tow?
501. Where are the towing bitts best placed for towing Forward of the rudder post and
purposes? close to the tug's center of pivot
502. Where is the best location to install a towing hook? Just aft of amidships
503. What may prevent a tug from tripping or capsizing when
Norman Pins
towing a large vessel?
504. What shape barge offers the least resistance in river
Barges with raked shaped bows
towing?

21 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

505. When towing, what is the main reason for using a chain It gives a spring effect to cushion
bridle on a wire hawser? the shock.
Collision between the tow and the
506. What is the greatest danger of an overriding tow?
stern of the towing vessel
507. A towing vessel becomes tripped while towing on a
hawser astern. What factor is LEAST important when Height of the towline connection
assessing the risk of capsizing?
508. Where should a vessel being towed alongside be Stern of the towed vessel forward of
positioned for increased maneuverability? the stern of the towing vessel
As tension on the hawser
509. Which statement concerning an automatic towing engine
increases, more line is taken in by
is FALSE?
the automatic towing engine.
510. What imminent danger results from tripping? Capsizing your tug
511. As seen from the tow, what should connect the leading
ends of both towing bridle legs to the main towing A fishplate, flounder, or towing plate
hawser?
The strength of each leg should be
512. Which statement is FALSE about using a wire bridle on
at least one-half that of the main
an ocean tow?
towing hawser.
513. What safety precautions must you take when Clear the afterdeck and fantail of
maneuvering on a towing hook? personnel.
514. You are towing a large barge on a hawser. Your main
The tow will overrun tug.
engine suddenly fails. What is the greatest danger?
515. What is the principal danger in attempting to swing a The barge may pass under the
barge on a hawser in order to slow the barge's speed? hawser and capsize the tug.
516. You are attempting to recover a mooring buoy. If you
Bring the wind directly over the bow
approach the object on the port tack, how would you
and allow the sails to luff.
slow the vessel as you draw near?
Sheeting in the sails will allow the
517. Which statement is TRUE concerning a sailing vessel
vessel to sail closer to the wind but
with the sails properly trimmed?
will decrease speed.
518. Which action will NOT reduce heeling of a vessel when
Changing to larger sails
sailing on a tack?
519. A ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing to windward with If you strike the mainsail, the
the wind about 50 on the port bow. All the sails are set center of effort of the whole rig will
and drawing properly. Which statement is TRUE? move down.
A yawl will heave to with her jib
520. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE regarding heaving-to? aback, main sheet eased, and her
mizzen sheeted in.
Put the rudder over to the opposite
521. What does the helm command "shift the rudder" mean? side, the same number of degrees it
is now.
522. When a helmsman receives the command "Right 15
degrees rudder," What should the helmsman's "Right 15 degrees rudder"
immediate reply be ?
523. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
524. You are standing the wheelwatch when you hear the cry,
"Man overboard, starboard side". You should Give full right rudder
instinctively __________.
Rudder is put hard over and the
525. When making a Scharnow turn, the __________. initial turn is maintained until about
240 from the original course
526. It is a particular professional knowledge regarding own
ship various methods available and how to change over
steering and conning
to secondary from primary methods. It is the knowledge
on __________.
527. In principle of shiphandling which factor that a master or
Shallow water factor
a pilot has no direct control of the ship
528. When going astern in a right-handed propeller ship and
Rudder to starboard enough to
need to maintain the ship's heading, the rudder would be
compensate the swing
place at__________.

22 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

529. This type of screw is principally used by fast coastal craft
and some classes of aircraft carriers. The propeller
Triple or multiple screw
revolve in the same direction, so as to facilitate engine
installation. This propeller is __________.
530. it is a propeller which is almost invariably right-handed.
When the ship is driven ahead, the propeller revolves in
a clockwise direction, when viewed from astern. To go Single screw
astern the rotation os the propeller is reversed. It is
__________.
531. this propeller consist of the screws that are out-turning,
are right-handed on the starboard side and left-handed Twin screw
on the port side, this type of propeller is __________.
532. Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will
reduce your drift rate
__________.
533. When steering a tow downstream around the shape of a
sand bar, and staying on the proper side of the buoys, eddies under the bar
an operator should be cautious of __________.
534. A ship is having a slow speed, by using the backing
maneuver, the ship is considered to be dead on the quick water reaches the amidships
water when the
535. A ship is not turning around the center of gravity, but
pivot point
another point. What is the point called?
536. A ship is turning around a point called the "pivot point".
About same position as the center
What is the position of this invisible point when the ship
of gravity.
is "dead" in the water?
537. A single-screw vessel going ahead tends to turn more
sidewise force
rapidly to port because of propeller __________.
Put the sea and wind about two
538. Your vessel is off a lee shore in heavy weather and
points on either bow and reduce
laboring. Which action should you take?
speed.
539. Your vessel is backing on the starboard screw, and
going ahead on the port screw. The bow will swing to starboard
__________.
Somewhere aft of the center of
540. Your ship is going full astern and making sternway.
gravity, but it is impossible to pin-
Where will the "pivot point" be located? No wind, current.
point the exact location
541. Your ship is going full ahead as you start to slow down.
It will move aft as the ship slows
Where is the position of the "pivot point" now? No wind,
down
current.
542. Your ship is drifting in open sea with temporary engine
Use the opportunity to plot direction
malfunction. You are equipped with precise navigation
and rate of drift for later use
equipment. What should you do in this situation?
543. Your ship is dead in the water with the rudder amidships.
As the right-handed screw starts to turn ahead, the bow to port
will tend to go __________.
544. You have made a turning test on full speed in deep
water. You are now going to make a test in shallow No, the turning diameter will be
water. Do you think the turning diameter will be the increased in shallow water.
same?
545. Your ship is equipped with a single, right-handed fixed
She will most likely sheer to
screw. Steaming full ahead you reverse the engine to
starboard and gradually loose
stop the ship. How will the ship react? No wind or
headway
current.
546. Your ship is equipped with a right-handed propeller. As
Put the rudder hard to port to
you go full astern from full ahead, the ship is sheering to
reduce the water flow to the right
starboard. Is there anything you can do to reduce the
side of the propeller
change in heading?
Yes, by putting the rudder hard
547. Your ship has right handed propeller and is on half
starboard. it will shield water flow to
ahead when you put her full astern to stop her. Do you
the starboard. side of the propeller
think the rudder will have any effect while the ship is
and vice versa to port. This will
making headway?
effect turning of the ship.
548. Your engine is going astern and you pick up sternway.
The rudder is midships, and you are operating on a She will most likely change heading
single, right-handed fixed screw. How will your ship to starboard
react?
23 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
Use the rudder hard over both sides
549. You want to stop your ship as quickly as possible
while reducing engine power, so-
without too much change in the heading. What can you
called "high frequency rudder
do to achieve this?
cycling".
550. You have anchored in a mud and clay bottom. The Drop the second anchor, veer to a
anchor appears to be dragging in a storm. What action good scope, then weigh the first
should you take? anchor.
551. You are sailing in shallow water, with 15% Under Keel
Clearance. With full RPM, what will your speed be slower
compared to deep water?
552. You are sailing in shallow water, with 15% Under Keel
Clearance. How will the stopping distance be, compared longer
to deep water?
553. You are on watch and see a man fall overboard. Which
man- overboard turn should NOT be used in this Scharnow
situation?
554. You are on watch at sea on course 90 degrees. A man
falls overboard on your starboard side. You immediately stop the engines until clear of the
execute a Williamson turn. Which step is NOT a part of a man
Williamson Turn?
555. Which towing method maintains the most control over
Breasted tug towing
the tow?
556. When towing, what is the main reason for using a chain It gives a spring effect to cushion
bridle on a wire hawser? the shock.
Collision between the tow and the
557. What is the greatest danger of an overriding tow?
stern of the towing vessel
558. A towing vessel becomes tripped while towing on a
hawser astern. What factor is LEAST important when Height of the towline connection
assessing the risk of capsizing?
559. As seen from the tow, what should connect the leading
ends of both towing bridle legs to the main towing A fishplate, flounder, or towing plate
hawser?
560. A ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing to windward with If you strike the mainsail, the center
the wind about 50 on the port bow. All the sails are set of effort of the whole rig will move
and drawing properly. Which statement is TRUE? down.
A yawl will heave to with her jib
561. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE regarding heaving-to? aback, main sheet eased, and her
mizzen sheeted in.
562. What is a CORRECT reply to a pilot's request, "How's
"Passing 50"
your head"?
563. What does the helm command "meet her" mean? use rudder to check the swing

564. What does the helm command "Left twenty" mean? put the rudder left twenty degrees
565. What does the helm command "Steady as you go"
steer the course you are on now
mean?
566. Which of the following statement is/are not safety Keep the valve cap off when not in
precaution of gas welding in acetylene tank? use
567. Safety is dependent on orderliness and cleanliness that storing all items in their proper
may be kept by __________. place
568. What is the limit that each Administration shall establish
for the purpose of preventing alcohol abuse for masters,
0.05% blood alcohol level (BAC)
officers and other seafarers while performing designated
safety, security and marine environmental duties?
569. How many weeks shall an expection of 70 hours in a
2 weeks
week be granted by the administration?
570. What is the minimum number of hours of rest in a 24
10 hours
hour period?
571. The hours of rest may be divided into no more than two
6 hours
periods, one of which shall be at least how many hours?
572. Cylinder oil is used for _________. 2-stroke engine

24 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

573. All persons who are assigned duty as officer in charge of
a watch or as a rating forming part of a watch and those
whose duties involve designated safety, prevention of 77 hours in a 7 day period
pollution, and security duties shall be provided with a
rest period of not less than ________________.
574. When the engine is running, a leaking air starting valve hot pipe connected to the starting
is indicated by_____. valve
575. While inspecting the steering gear at sea, you should
any leaks in the system
check for __________.
576. The expansion tank for the jacket cooling water which is
maintain constant head in a system
a closed cooling type is used to ___________.
577. A good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by
eliminating potential fuel sources
_________.
578. Which of the conditions listed would cause the stern
A worn or damaged stern tube seal.
tube lube oil header tank level to decrease?
579. As a duty engineer you should know that some
auxiliaries are not designed to handle steam at boiler
pressure. Which of the following devices is usually fitted A steam pressure reducing valve
in the branch line to deliver steam at the correct
pressure?
The condition and state of
580. Which of the following is the most critical information that readiness of portable fire-
the officer in an engineering watch be relayed during extinguishing equipment and fixed
taking over a watch? fire-extinguishing installations and
fire-detection systems
581. When the machinery spaces are in the periodic
in a ship compartment that has an
unmanned condition, the designated duty officer of the
alarm
engineering watch shall be ________________.
582. To ensure that a bearing is receiving the proper oil sight flow glass in the bearing oil
supply, you should check the _______________. supply line
583. All portable electric tools should have a ground
electric shock if the tool is shorted
connection to prevent _________.
584. Under what condition may the master suspend the
schedule of hours of rest and require a seafarer to Emergency Cases
perform any hours of work necessary?
585. Not properly vented main engine jacket cooling water
cause overheating
can __________.
586. When maneuvering, you discover heavy smoke coming
Notify the bridge and ask to shut
from the turbocharger casing. What action should you
the engine down
take first?.
587. As an engineer which action should you normally take Observe general performance of
during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is operating? the boiler
588. If one fuel oil strainer of a duplex unit becomes clogged
change the oil flow over to the clean
while the vessel is steaming at sea, the first action is to
side
__________.
589. Under what condition shall the officer in charge of the
engineering watch shall ensure that permanent air or Restricted visibility
steam pressure is available for sound signals?
590. What is the most important parameter to check right
lube oil pressure
after any diesel engine is started?
591. If two compressors must be operated in parallel in order
oil levels in both compressor
to maintain the box temperatures, a careful watch should
crankcases
be kept on the __________.
592. An auxiliary diesel generator continues to run after you
block the flow of air supply to the
try to shut down. Your next course of action should be to
engine
_________.
593. Dark exhaust gas from the engine is caused by ______. engine overload
594. Below are some of the causes of high exhaust gas
poor quality of fuel oil
temperature except __________.
595. Cracked cylinder liner of a 2-stroke engine is indicated hunting of jacket cooling water
by___________. pressure

25 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

596. The flash point of a residual fuel oil should be used to
determine the highest temperature to which the oil may in a storage tank
be heated __________.
597. An engine fails to start even if all temperatures and
fuel is contaminated with water
pressures are normal because______.
598. The effect of too much heating in the fuel oil of main
stuck plunger and barrel
engine is ___________.
599. Which steam plant watch operating condition will require
Low water level main boiler
priority attention over the other conditions listed?
600. Which of the following is an example of head hazard? I.
Impact from falling, II. Flying Object, III. Hair I, II, and III
entanglement
601. Which condition could cause the feed pump of an
Excessive feed water temperature
auxiliary boiler to lose suction?
602. An engine with high exhaust temperature but low
leaking valve
compression is due to_____________ .
603. An indication of excessive soot accumulation on boiler
high stack temperature
water tubes and economizer surfaces is due to____.
604. Before using the steam soot blowers of boiler at sea,
raise the water level
you should __________.
605. You would not see a flow through the sight glass of the the lube oil service pumps are
lube oil gravity tank overflow line when the __________. secured
606. Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety practice to
secure loose gears
_________.
607. Prior to taking over the engineering watch, which of
following responsibilities shall an officer of an C/E standing orders of the day
engineering watch rely to the incoming watch?
608. Fuel oil enters the main engine cylinder through
fuel oil injector
______________.
609. When securing a fuel oil heater, you should cut out the steam before securing
__________. the oil flow
610. Too high exhaust gas temperature in all cylinders is
stuck-up fuel injection pump
cause by the following except________.
611. The watch engineer finds the refrigeration compressor secure the compressor at once and
has blown the shaft seal. In this situation, he should close the suction and discharge
__________. valves
612. Before using a boiler compressed air soot blower drain the soot blower pneumatic
system, you should __________. operating lines
613. If the fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high
shut off the fuel supply
pressure fuel oil leak, you should first ______.
614. What condition shall the chief engineer officer consult
with the master whether or not to maintain the same Unsheltered anchorage
engineering watch as when under way?
615. If the engineer on watch is doubtful of the accuracy of
blow down the gauge glass
water level in the boiler gauge glass, he should ____.
616. Which of the following conditions should be immediately
Oil in the drain inspection tank.
reported to the engineering officer on watch?
617. In relieving watch, the outgoing duty engineer should check that the reliever is capable to
________________. carry out watch keeping duties
618. When there is sufficient reason that the relieving officer
is not capable of watch keeping duties, the outgoing in
notify the chief engineer officer
charge of the engineering watch should
________________.
619. In testing the boiler water for chloride content will dissolved salts from sea
indicate the amount of ____. contamination
620. Prior to engaging the turning gear, precautions should shut off the starting air supply and
be taken to________________. open the indicator cocks
621. What is the proper way of storing an oxygen and Horizontal with the cylinder caps
acetylene cylinders? screwed on
622. The watch engineer has been unable to transfer the fuel
oil to the settling tank while underway. As the tank level call out other engineers for
is becoming dangerously low, the engineer should now assistance
__________.
26 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
623. When there is a fire in an electric motor, normally the
secure the electrical supply
first step is to ___________.

COMPETENCE 10
624. When 'shall' is used in the International Maritime Solid
Bulk Cargoes (IMSBC) Code (e.g. the temperature shall Mandatory
be taken), it means:
625. What is the assumed shift of a cargo of grain in a full
15 deg
compartment
626. During the loading of a bulk cargo frequent checks must
Use information to complete a draft
be made on the vessels draughts - what do you do with
survey
this information
627. The Code Of Practice For The Safe Loading And
Unloading Of Bulk Carriers (BLU code) requires a
The Chief officer
certificate detailing the moisture content of a cargo -who
provides this information
The ship and terminal must hold a
628. While loading a solid bulk cargo, what should happen if
meeting to discuss how best to
the loading and deballasting no longer synchronise?
proceed.
629. When loading a bulk cargo what is the formulae for the
0.98 LBD
maximum cargo to be loading in a hold
630. Homogeneous loading of solid bulk cargoes is where
Stowed in every other hold.
cargo is:
631. Which of these is NOT a factor when planning to load a
No full load
cargo of Iron ore
632. The angle of repose of a free-flowing bulk cargo in the The angle formed by the cone at
hold is. the top.
The checking of the documentation
633. The first step in the planning for loading a Bulk Cargo is.
provided by the shipper.
634. When carrying a coal cargo , at what level of carbon
monoxide must you inform your owners of a developing 50 ppm
self heating situation
The movement of moisture from
635. What is moisture migration within a cargo to the surface due to
vibration
636. Prior to preparing holds in preparation for loading a bulk
Maximize the GM
cargo it is important to......
The weight is concentrated at the
637. Sagging is when? ends of the ship, bending its
structure.
638. What manual must be provided by the owner of a bulk
A general arrangement / capacity
carrier to help the crew prevent excessive stresses
manual
developing in the vessels structure
639. When after stowing should particularly vulnerable When all containers have been
containers such as tank containers, reefer containers loaded and all lashing and securing
and DG containers be inspected? devices been fitted
640. Stripping tests of cargo tanks and pumping systems are
The Operator
to be conducted to the satisfaction of:
641. Stripping tests of cargo tanks are to be conducted: Before each cargo is loaded

642. What size is a standard 20 ft container 20 x 8'6" x 8'

643. What is the term for the temperature at which burning is
The lower flammable limit
caused by ignition without the addition of external heat?
644. What is the term for the stowage booking information
Individual forecasts
received by a ship operator from container operators?
With even numbers left of the
645. how are rows of containers numbered
centre
646. Generally in which direction are containers usually
Fore and Aft
stowed
The maximum permissible weight of
647. What is the container rating
a container and its contents

27 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

648. Which part of the International Maritime Dangerous
Part 1
Goods (IMDG) Code deals with security provisions?
649. Which of the following is not required in the cargo
Free surface effects of slack tanks
securing manual
The average moisture content of
650. The TML (Transportable Moisture Limit) is:
the cargo.
full inclination on one side to the
651. The period of roll is the time difference between
next full inclination on the same
__________.
side
652. Flammable liquids should have what kind of label? Red
653. According to the Chemical Data Guide, piperylene
insoluble in water
possesses which characteristic?
654. What do you call the placing of lashing across a hook to
Mousing
prevent a fitting from slipping out of the hook?
655. What allows the liquid to flow into the
Gravity
suction side of the centrifugal pump?
656. In the segregation of packages
a minimum horizontal separation
containing incompatible dangerous goods and stowed in
of 12 meters when stowed on
the conventional way, what is meant by "Separated by
deck
complete compartment or hold from"?
657. How to operate centrifugal fire pump at reduced
To throttle the discharge valve
capacity?
658. To maintain the potable water's quality of hygiene, what
Chlorine
type of chemical that can be used routinely?
659. You are planning to use a crude oil washing system.
At least one meter must be
What precaution must be taken with the source tank for
decanted from the source tank
the washing machines?
660. What is the meaning of ERS system on board liquefied
emergency release system
gas carriers?
661. If an electric cargo winch is being used to lift a draft of
An electromagnetic brake will hold
cargo and the engine room loses all power, which will
the load where it is suspended.
occur?
662. A tank which has been sealed for a long period of time steel surfaces consume oxygen by
can be dangerous because: rusting
663. Before using deck machinery powered by hydraulics
Drain water from the pipework.
which of the following would you NOT have to do?
664. What does the term TEU mean Twenty foot equivalent unit
665. If the Chief Officer believes a container stowage plan to Confer directly with the 'central'
be faulty, what should be their first action? planner
666. Which Class of Dangerous Goods covers Marine
9
Pollutants not otherwise classified?
667. who should be informed if a container to be carried is
The Master
being fumigated
668. On dangerous goods packages, the hazard placards
On all four sides.
must be placed.
669. The first priority when preparing a stowage plan is. The safety of the ship.
670. Which of these might a container ship's 'central' planner
The strength of a vessel's hull
take into account when planning a stow?
671. When loading toxic cargo, measurement should always
Restricted
be....
672. What is the rating of a 20ft container 24,000 kgs
673. When is a ship permitted to make and use its own
Only in an emergency
container lashing and securing devices?
674. What should the officer in charge of loading operations The ship's cargo securing manual
check the container stowage plan against? and loading computer
675. Who is responsible for specifying the location of
The Master
dangerous goods containers on board a vessel?

28 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

676. Where can you find the Dangerous Goods List in the
Volume 2
Code?
677. To help establish safe levels of toxicity, which equipment
Explosimeters
is often used?
678. If information concerning a cargo is not available it Loaded till information becomes
should be.... available
679. How does the process of stowage and segregation By contacting the shipper for
begin? information
680. what is the minimum size of a dangerous goods placard 10 cm x 10 cm
681. Open cargo venting should only be used for cargoes that
do not present a hazard when inhaled and have a flash 60C
point of above....
The middle container is designated
682. In a row, how are an odd number of containers
00 with odd numbers to the right
numbered?
and even numbers to the left
683. Before cargo operations begin, the responsible person
on board and the terminal representative will complete Ship/shore operation plan
a....
684. Cargo containers may NOT contain. Dangerous cargo

685. Cargo samples in general are analysed in order to.... Control quality
That the stevedores are fitting the
686. What is most important to monitor while the container correct lashings and securing
ship is loading? devices for specific stowage
arrangements
687. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
688. This is a modern method of welding where there is
actual melting of the materials being joined although the
weld metal is composed largely of added materials fusion weld
having the same characteristics as the metal being
joined.
689. What is the name called to a single fitting installed in a
pipeline that either blanks off the pipe or allows a full Spectacle Flange
flow passage of a liquid through the pipe?
690. What kind of gauging is used in airtight enclosed cargo
Closed gauging
tanks?
691. Which factor is not important when calculating the best
The value of the cargo
use of the cubic capacity of a ships hold?
692. These are devices which secure standing and running
riggings that includes cleats, bitts, chocks, fairleads and deck fittings
pad eye.
693. When heating a metal and cooling it down for desired
annealing
fashion. This is called:
694. You are arriving at Edinburg to load 1,000 cases of
The Scotch is not required to be
Scotch whiskey. The cases are packed with 12 bottles of
shipped under the requirements of
one liter each to a case. The flash point of the Scotch is
the hazardous materials regulations
F. Which of the following is TRUE?
695. In preparation for receiving chilled reefer cargo, the
reefer space has been pre-cooled for over twenty-four
28 F and 40 F
hours. Loading may begin when the space has been
cooled to a temperature between ____________.
696. What is usually NOT required in preparing a hold for Steam clean areas obstructed by
reception of a bulk grain cargo? structural members
697. Under normal weather and sea conditions when
securing a stack of containers with non-locking fittings,
Lashing are always required
lashings are required when the tier exceeds what
height?
698. With the buttress securing system, containers of
on the top tier
different height must be stowed ______.

29 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

Refers to the saturation of dry a
699. When referring to dry bulk cargoes, the term flow state. bulk product with water to the point
where it acts as a liquid
700. When a two-leg sling attached to one hoist line is used
to lift a load, a sling of 40 ft. in length is better than one tension in the sling leg is less
of 30 ft. because the ____________.
701. Your ship has been holed in amidships compartment
and partially flooded. If flooded compartment does not
have free flow with the sea, you should use which of the added weight method
following method to calculate the effect of flooding on
your stability.
702. Which of the following will NOT increase friction of a
liquid flowing in a pipe and cause a loss of suction Slowing the pumping rate
head?
703. When the dew point of the outside air is lower than or
equal to the dew point of the air is cargo hold, you Ventilate the cargo holds
should _________.
704. Which of the following statements is true? I. Dunnages
should be cleaned and dried before being used in frozen
Only I is true
compartments. II. Dunnages should not be pre-cooled
prior loading in refrigerated compartments.
705. Which of the following is one major advantage of the Oil that was previously lost is
load-on-stop system? recovered
706. Which of the following is not a precaution to be taken
Notify the engine room of procedure
when topping off?
707. Which of the following contains all the information
necessary to check that a proposed loading plan grain loading stability booklet and
complies with the stability requirements of the associated plans
regulations at all stages of the voyage.
708. When viewed from above, the best position for the guy
right angle
in relation to the boom is_____.
709. Under IMDG Code, acids are labeled with a _________
white
placard
710. This is a piece of securing dunnage that runs from a
high supporting level down to the cargo to prevent tomming
shifting.
711. Spontaneous heating of coal rapidly accelerates at the
100 degrees F
approximate minimum temperature of:
712. Packages containing dangerous goods shall be provided
with ______, as appropriate, so as to make clear the all the given choices are correct
dangerous properties of the goods contained therein.
713. On a manned ship carrying packaged hazardous cargo,
All of the above
the hazardous materials shall be inspected __________.
714. If reefer spaces are not properly cleaned prior to loading
mold to develop on commodities
cargo, it will most likely cause.
715. Determine whether the following statements are true or
false? I. The separation of odorous and sensitive cargo
into separate airtight compartment would prohibit I and II are true
tainting. II. An odorous cargo may well leave a well
tainted atmosphere behind after d
Lift containers for loading and
716. Container spreader are used to ________.
unloading
717. Argon is classified as a __________. non flammable gas
718. A condition in which the oxygen content throughout the
Inert gas condition
atmosphere of a tank has been reduced to 8%.
719. IMO Grain Regulations assume a pattern of movement
of grain in the void spaces above the grain surfaces rise to adverse heeling moment
which give ________.
720. If you are on duty and observe any situation which
presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer Shut down the transfer operation
operations what action should you take first?
segregation from other cargoes with
721. The IMDG Code ensures safety mainly by stipulating the
which there could be an adverse
packaging required and _____.
action
30 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
discharged liquid left in the cargo
722. The main function of a stripping system is on ________. after the main pumps have
discharged the bulk
723. Ullages are measured from the_________. above deck datum

724. The stowage factor for cargo is based upon _____. one long ton
strengthen the main deck by
725. To shore up the main deck for, the stowage of deck
placing pillars underneath it in the
cargo means to _____.
tween deck
726. Which material should not be used to secure cargo on
Steel chain
deck for a voyage?
727. With a given load on the cargo hook, the thrust on a increases as the angle to the
cargo boom _____. horizontal increases
728. A vessel has an amidships superstructure. Which
On top of the hatch immediately aft
location would be most suitable for on-deck stowage of
of the midships house
automobiles?
729. Your ship has been holed in amidships compartment
and partially flooded. If flooded compartment has free
communication with the sea, you should use which of lost buoyancy method
the following method to calculate the effect of flooding
on your stability.
730. The securing systems for containers were developed to
prevent container movement during which of the Roll
following ship motions?
731. The weight of the container and its contents is supported
Four lower corner casting
on deck by what parts?
732. Under normal weather and sea conditions when
securing a stack of containers with twist locks, lashing Two containers
are required when the tier exceeds what height?
733. What group of refrigerated cargoes requires oxygen and
Living cargoes
gives off carbon dioxide while in storage?
734. When loading containers into the cell guides in the hold No further securing is usually
of a container ship, which statement is true? required
735. Which of the following is not an advantage of filler Overcarriage is reduced or
cargo? eliminated
736. A heated bulkhead has the effect on a hygroscopic raising the vapor pressure of the
commodity of: commodity
737. How should the first layer of the dunnage be laid for
At an angle to the keel with the
loading of bagged cargo in the lower hold of a ship
forward end inboard
equipped with side bilges?
738. Of the general methods of stowing bagged cargo, which
Full bag method
method will allow for maximum ventilation?
739. Which factor is the most important in preventing sweat
Dew point of the cargo hold
damage within a cargo hold?
740. Damage to cargo caused by dust is known as
contamination
__________.
741. The heaviest type pallet is the __________. stevedoring pallet
742. Which of the following is the main purpose of ventilating
To prevent ships sweat
cargo holds?
743. Which data cannot be found on a moisture equilibrium
Wet bulb temperature
chart?
744. What International Code Flag is hoisted to denote
Bravo
loading of flammable liquid is going on?
745. Which term describes a part of a natural fiber line? Strands
746. Which of the following is an example of a fundamental Separate wet and dry cargoes into
objective of cargo stowage? separate hold
747. Where will the Master find the detailed guidance for
proper precaution prior loading a explosive cargoes ? A. Both choices is correct
Carriage of dangerous goods in vessels B. IMDG code

31 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

748. Strips of timber fixed to the frames of a vessel, either in
horizontal or vertical direction, which keep cargo away cargo battens
from the sides of the vessel.
749. Signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm
extended downwards, forefinger pointing down and
lower
moves his hand in small horizontal circles. This is the
signal to;
750. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm
extended with the palm down and holds this position stop
rigidly. This is the signal to _____
751. Precaution/s to be taken to avoid spontaneous heating
Proper ventilations and surveillance
when bulk cargoes are carried in a general cargo
of temperature
vessel?
752. The measurement from the tank top to the beams
beneath the overhead and from sweat batten to sweat Net cubic
batten is called a vessel's _______.
753. The label on a package of an oxidizing hazardous
Yellow
material is___.
754. The REID vapor pressure is used for the classification
flammable liquids
of:
755. If a fruit or other strong smelling cargo has been carried
wash and deodorize it
in the compartment previously, it is necessary to ____.
Report the incident by the fastest
756. In case of loss overboard of packaged of marine
telecommunication channel to
pollutants into the sea what must be done?
nearest coastal state
757. On a reefer vessel, the compartment has been prepared
classification society surveyor to
and cooled to the loading temperature. This makes the
carry out a loading port survey
vessel ready for ______.
Weight of the body supported,
758. What is the proper method of lashing cars? brakes on engine gear, wheels
lashed
759. What is the usual carrying temperature of frozen
-10 or - 15 C
cargoes?
760. When chilled meat is to be carried, the requisite number
of metal bars, hooks and chains will have to be placed in
It should have been sterilized on
the compartment for pre-cooling. What important
shore
concern would you look into regarding the hooks and
chains?
761. When loading Frozen beef it is necessary to put (
75mms x 75 mms) dunnage on decks and inserted To allow proper air circulation
every five or six tiers. What is the purpose?
762. One of the major advantage of the "load-on-top" system the cargo that was previously lost is
is that: recovered
763. A most important consideration in loading cardboard
level
cartons is to keep the tiers ____.
764. A port mark shows; where the cargo is going
765. A reel;I. Should be stowed on its side whenever possible
II. If not possible to stow flat, stow it with its axis running I and II
athwartships
prevents the sling ring from coming
766. Mousing a cargo with marline or small line:
out of the hook
767. Open or partially opened hatches should not be: covered with tarpaulins
brick fashion, with an upper carton
768. Proper stowage for cardboard cartons is __________:
resting on two cartons below it
769. Segregating a cargo of finished lumber is best done by
laying rope yarns athwartship
_______:
770. Shoring under a deck load is usually required when the
350
deck load exceeds how many pounds per square foot?
771. The pre-wash procedure for ships carrying non-
solidifying substances which have a viscosity equal to or
60 C
greater than 25 mPa at 20 C is hot water wash of at
least:

32 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

772. The tendency of flammable liquid to vaporize is indicated
flash point
by its:
773. What percent of cargo in international trade moves by
75% or over
container ship?
774. Which of the following could result in an incorrect Exposure to carbon dioxide for
oxygen concentration reading on the oxygen indicator? more than 10 minutes
775. You are loaded with bundles of steel from Yokohama to
Manila. On passing Northern Luzon, the dew point of the
No sweat will form on the steel
ambient air was observed to be higher than the dew
bundles
point inside the cargo hold, under this condition, should
you ventilate?
when disproportionate amount of
776. Long Hatch is; cargo for one port is stowed under
anyone hatch
may be all or partly discharged at
777. Optional Cargo refers to cargo that;
one or more ports
one cargo prevents unloading
778. Overstowing cargo occurs when; another cargo and must be moved
before unloading can continue
779. What is the weight of the product carried at 15 deg.
Net
Celsius?
inspection of the hold at completion
780. Overcarriage is best prevented by__________.
of discharge
781. A heated bulkhead has the effect on a hygroscopic raising the vapor pressure of the
commodity of_______. commodity
The requirement for through-
782. What is NOT a problem when carrying coal?
ventilation
783. In a general cargo ship, bales of LINEN or FABRIC
should not be stowed together with sacks of TEA tea is a food item
because:
784. Liquids that evaporate readily are known
as___________ liquids. Any petroleum product with a volatile
flash point below 60 C is classed as:
be furnished with a Certificate of
785. You are to load styrene in bulk, which is subject to self-
Inhibition to be maintained on the
polymerization. You must __________.
bridge
786. In grain loading computations at all times during a
voyage, the ship shall have sufficient intact stability to
adverse heeling moment
provide adequate dynamic stability after taking into
account the ________.
thoroughly ventilate, spray with
787. To remove any odor on your cargo holds after
solution of lb. of chloride of lime
discharging refrigerated cargoes, you should .
to 3 gallons of fresh water
788. The first layer of dunnage should be laid down _______,
if you are to load a bagged cargo in lower hold of a ship fore and aft
with drain wells at the after end of the hold.
789. If you are loading fruit in reefer spaces and you notice
Write up exceptions on the cargo
that the fruit is beginning to mold, you should:
790. When carried at a lower temperature than required,
bananas are chilled. At higher temperature, they ripen. 13.3 C
What is the carrying temperature of bananas?
791. To separate different kinds of bulk grain stowed in the
be laid slack between the cargoes
same hold separation cloths should______.
Routine discharge of oil during
792. What is the frequent incidents of tanker pollution?
ballasting
793. When loading a cargo of taconite, proper sequencing of Prevent excessive longitudinal
loading by hatch number is necessary to: stresses
794. Which of the following is the advantage of having a reduction in time of passage tank
(COW) crude oil washing? cleaning
795. You are planning to use crude oil washing system. What
It must be de-bottomed and the
precaution must be taken with the tank as the source for
level lowered by at least 1 meter
the washing machines?
796. What will happen if the flash point of kerosene which is
burn and explode
100 deg F be heated above 110 deg F?
33 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
797. Before a tank is crude oil washed, the oxygen content in
One meter from the deck
the tank must be measured at a position:
798. To remove the effects of free communication flooding, it Completely flood off-center deep
would usually be most advantageous to: tanks
799. Some cargoes are stowed in a secured place. They are
They are of high value and easily
known as special cargoes. What does special
pilferable
cargoes means?
800. For package freight, an average allowance for broken
0.15
stowage is.
801. Good left over at the completion of discharging operation
which is eventually sold by the ship owner to meet oddments
claims for short delivery are called:
802. To facilitate faster discharging operation, each port of
port markings
discharge is allocated a distinctive color mark.
803. Actions to take once cargo has shifted include the de-ballast the area where the cargo
following EXCEPT: has shifted
804. You are on a fully loaded tanker on a even keel. Which
Shifting 300 tons from the afterpeak
of the following actions would create the biggest trim by
tank
the head?
805. When fumigation with sulfur is performed, what will be
the minimum time required allotted for preparing the 12 hours
materials before fumigating?
806. A spreader bar is used in handling cargoes in container
protect the upper part of the load
to ______.
807. How do you arrange a suitable system of ventilation for A. Raise corner hatches and trim
cargoes of copra assuming that the vessel is not fitted all vents which should also be
with a mechanical ventilation system ? covered with mesh
808. Which of the two systems used in cargo handling
considers the prevention of damage to cargo from heat,
II only
fire and water damage? I. Cargo Securing II. Cargo
Stowage
809. You have a quantity of bagged cargo to stow in a block
in #3 UTD. Which stow will provide the maximum block Alternate layer direction
stability:
810. With respect to Cargo Securing, which type of cargo is
subject to the sea motion of roll, pitch and heave? I. I & II
Standardized Cargo II. Non-Standardized Cargo
811. When the dew point of the outside air is lower than or
equal to the dew point of the air in the cargo hold, you ventilate the cargo
should:
812. On the fully containerized ship, approximately one third
accelerations greater than on
or more of the cargo is on deckabove the rolling center.
conventional vessels
Top stowed containers are subject to.
813. A high cube container is designed specifically to
carry low density
_________.
814. Cargo holds is to be washed down after all cargo
residue were put on deck. Likewise, holds floorings and
burlap cloth
bilges should be dried. A cloth is place around the bilges
cover for protection to other cargoes to be loaded.
815. A vessel is proceeding along the English Coast when it
sprang a leak on the hull below the waterline. Efforts to
beaching
patch her proved futile. It was added to ditch her to the
nearest shoal. This is termed as:
816. You are in a containership. Which of the following refrigerated container with a fuel
statements about the stowage of hazardous materials in tank containing a flammable liquid
containers is True? must be stowed on deck
817. Which of the following STATEMENTS regarding
fumigation is NOT TRUE? I. Personnel employed in
opening hatches should wear respirators II. The area Neither I nor II
should be checked for gas concentration with reading
recorded in the log.
818. In stowing carboys of acid which are not completely
Not more than 2 tiers
boxed, what is the maximum tiers permitted?

34 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

819. You are to load a bagged cargo in the lower hold of a
ship equipped with drain walls in the after end of the In the fore and aft pattern
hold. The first layer of dunnage should be laid down;
820. When loading a container vessel, the operation is
basically that of a vertical loading. The important factors
Weight and refrigeration
to be considered when loading containers is port of
discharge:
821. A cargo of refrigerated fruit is packed in crates with A. The cargo block should stowed
transverse members dividing the crate in two equal with air channels built throughout
parts. Which of the following is TRUE? the stowage cargo.
822. Hygroscopic cargoes should be ventilated in cases Going from a warm to a cold
when_________? climate
823. What purpose does a bridge fitting serve when lashing Restrains the container against
containers? horizontal motion
824. On a vessel proceeding from a very cold to a warm There is danger of heavy cargo
climate with a cargo of a non-hygroscopic nature in the sweat if outside air is introduced by
holds, which is TRUE? ventilation
825. The Master should be provided with sufficient
information on any heavy cargo offered for shipment.
exact weight
The information should at least include the following
EXCEPT:
826. The timber deck cargo should be secured throughout
3 meters
independent lashing spaced not more than _____ apart.
827. Some coals may be liable to react with water and
produce acids which may cause corrosion. An odorless
hydrogen
gas much lighter than air and has flammable limit in air
of 4% to 75 % by volume has bcause this reaction.
828. Cargo transport units, including freight containers shall
be loaded, stowed and secured throughout the voyage
administration
in accordance with the cargo securing manual approved
by the ______.
829. After loading or discharging cargoes, ventilation of the
accommodate taint
cargo space may be necessary except:
830. The certificate of loading required by each vessel
National Cargo Bureau
carrying grain in bulk is issued by the ____.
831. The most accurate account of cargo will be found in the
Bill of ladings
_______.
832. On a vessel proceeding from a very cold to a warm There is danger of heavy cargo
climate with a cargo of non-hygroscopic nature in the sweat if outside air is introduced by
holds. Which is True? ventilation
833. A survey of refrigerated cargo, to certify that proper
methods of stowage were utilized, can be conducted by National Cargo Bureau
the ________.
834. Of the general methods of stowing bagged cargo, which
Full-bag method
allows maximum ventilation?
835. Which can be prevented only by segregating two lots of Contamination of a food cargo by
cargo into separate holds? an odorous cargo
836. Rice cargo emits what form of gas? Carbon dioxide
837. The process of removing cargo residues in preparation
Hold cleaning
for the next cargo.
838. Measurement for tonnage and issue of an International
Flag State
tonnage certificate is the responsibility of:
839. When transporting heavy lift cargoes at the time of technique of moving the load
loading, certain conditions must be required except: vertically
840. The principal hazards associated with coal which are of The potential for ship sweat is
importance when shipping the commodity except: extreme
841. When pre-cooling the holds in preparation to receiving slightly below carrying temp. within
refrigerated cargoes, the hold temperature must be: 24 hours
842. Some of the material listed in BC Code also appear in
IMDG Code. The material may at times reduce oxygen
woodchips
content of a cargo space or are prone to self heating and
one of these cargo is:

35 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

843. A. A grain filled cargo compartment has a permeability of
60-65 %
about _________.
844. Where should you pay particular attention to be able to The vertical distribution of the deck
maintain adequate stability in loading deck cargo? cargo
Containers do not overstress the
845. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the carriage
deck or hatches on which they are
of containers on ships not designed to carry containers?
stowed
846. The main advantage of a unitized cargo system such as cost reduction in terms of cargo
pre-sling, palletization, or containerization is: operation
847. What action would you not take in case of a coal gas fire
stay at the direction of the wind
or explosion occurs?
848. Because of the arrangement of the cell guides, the
MOST important factor while loading containers is the List of the vessel
___.
849. How long is the standard container used to measure
6 meters
equivalent units?
850. When commencing cargo operations on a container
ship, one cell at a hatch is generally discharged Initiate loading in conjunction with
completely (to the bottom of the ship) before removing unloading at the hatch.
any containers from the adjoining cells to:
851. The damage caused by insects, mice or rats is: vermin damage

852. How should grain cargoes be ventilated? Through ventilation

853. It is a close container with doors at one end and others
with doors in one end and sides, sometimes ventilated General cargo container
but not insulated.
854. It is the movement of moisture contained in materials by
settling and consolidation of the materials due to moisture migration
vibration and ship's motion.
855. It means a log which is "slab-cut" or ripped lengthwise
so that the resulting thick pieces have two opposing, cant
parallel flat sides.
856. A Heterogeneous cargo refer to: I. A bulk carrier
Both I and II
loaded with steel II. A bulk carrier loaded with heavy ore
857. What is the term used when a cargo of the same density
Homogeneous cargo
throughout?
858. Ship's officers should check every cargo compartment
All void spaces are filled
after it is filled with bulk grain to ensure ______.
859. A high cube container is often used to stow which of the
household appliances
following?
860. A cargo compartment filled with grain has a permeability
60-85%
of about:
861. This type of container is used transporting large,
shapeless, or break bulk cargoes such as large Special container
machinery, pipes, vehicles etc.
862. Materials which at least contain some fine particles and
some moisture, usually water,although they need not be Cargoes which may liquefy
visibly wet in appearance are called:
stowing good inside a freight
863. In containerization, what is meant by "Stuffing"?
container
864. What type of a bulk carrier that has high freeboard and
wood chip carrier
equipped with its own unloading equipments?
865. On the fully containerized ship, approximately one-third
accelerations less than on
or more of the cargo is on deck above the rolling center.
conventional vessels
Top stowed containers are subject to __________.
866. It means a vehicle, container, flat, pallet, portable tank,
Cargo unit
packaged unit, or any other entity:
867. The term use to denote a quality of change in some
cargoes which damages the commodity itself is known A latent defect
as ______.
868. What allows the liquid to flow into the suction side of the
Gravity
centrifugal pump?

36 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

869. In the segregation of packages containing incompatible
dangerous goods and stowed in the conventional way, a minimum horizontal separation of
what is meant by "Separated by complete compartment 12 meters when stowed on deck
or hold from"?
870. To maintain the potable water's quality of hygiene, what
Chlorine
type of chemical that can be used routinely?
871. A tank which has been sealed for a long period of time steel surfaces consume oxygen by
can be dangerous because: rusting
872. are the main additions a 'terminal' planner will make to Allocating containers to either deck
an outline container stowage plan. or hold positions
873. What test can be used as part of a checking procedure
Daylight test
to ensure a container is structurally sound?
It always greater cargo handling
874. what is the major advantage of stack stowage securing
flexibility
First tap your elbow with one hand,
875. How should you signal the crane operator to use the
and then proceed to use regular
whip line?
signals.
Extend arm with the thumb pointing
876. How should you signal the crane operator to raise the up, and flex the fingers in and out
boom and lower the load? for as long as the load movement is
desired.
Use one hand to give any motion
877. How should you signal the crane operator to move signal, and place the other hand
slowly? motionless in front of the hand
giving the motion signal.
Extend arm and point finger in the
878. How should you signal the crane operator to swing?
direction to move the boom.
879. What is the meaning of the term tare weight? Weight of a container

COMPETENCE 11
880. The main purpose of the review after an enclosed space Identify any aspects of the
rescue is to. operation that could be improved.
A hole in the hull at the waterline is
881. Which statement about damage control is TRUE? more dangerous than a hole below
the inner bottom.
882. Which statement about the free surface correction is The correction decreases as the
TRUE? draft increases
It decreases at increased angles
883. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE? of heel due to pocketing when a
tank is 90% full.
884. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the
The width of the tank
free surface correction?
885. What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full Loss of stability from free surface
tank onboard a vessel? effect
886. Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that
Lack of penetration
examines the internal structure of a weld?
887. Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal
Ultrasonic
flaws?
888. Which of the following is not part of the list of Fitting for Vessels & platforms or other man-
Inspection made structures at sea
889. This is a type of survey that includes inspection of items
relating to the particular certificate to ensure they are fit Intermediate Survey
for the service for which the ship is intended.
890. Which type of weld testing can be used to detect the
Radiographic
internal flaws?
891. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to. Length and width of space
892. Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that
Lack of penetration
examines the internal structure of a weld?
893. A reinspection of the vessel shall be made between
which of the following months while the Certificate of 10 - 14 months
Inspection is valid?
37 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
Damage at or just above the
894. Which type of hull damage should be repaired FIRST?
waterline
895. When underway with a tow, you are required to notify
Accidental stranding or grounding
the Coast Guard in which casualty situation?
Part of your deck cargo of five
896. What would NOT require that a detailed report of the
gallon cans of paint is damaged
release of hazardous cargo be made to the Local
and leaking so you jettison them to
Authorities?
eliminate the fire hazard.
897. A vessel has sustained damage in a collision with
another vessel. It is necessary to have a Seaworthy
Classification Society
Certificate before the vessel sails. Who will issue this
certificate?
898. The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must
notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Marine The Master of the vessel
Inspection Office as soon as possible?
Your vessel is at anchor and
899. Which situation requires you to furnish a notice of
grounds at low tide with no
marine casualty to the Coast Guard?
apparent damage.
900. A vessel loads 100 tons of glass jars. The mate on
watch discovers that some of the cartons have been
Unclean Bill of Lading
damaged and has an exception made on the Bill of
Lading. What is this document called?
Containers should be ventilated,
901. Which statement concerning sweat damage in dehumidified, or the contents
containers is TRUE? physically protected against sweat
damage.
The aluminum structure is usually
902. A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an attached to a steel coaming by a
aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE? method that insulates the two
metals.
903. What would have the greatest affect on a vessel's Grounding damage to the bilge
longitudinal strength? strake, just aft of midships
904. Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo
Navigation spaces
tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes?
905. On a vessel of 7000 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft.
long, 30 ft. wide and 4 ft. deep is half filled with fuel oil
(S.G. 0.962) while the vessel is floating in saltwater 2,109
(S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this
tank?
906. What must be accurately determined to assess the
The integrity of the water tight
potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been
boundaries
damaged?
Pocketing occurs at small angles of
907. Which statement about free surface is TRUE?
inclination when a tank is 98% full.
908. What does NOT affect the value of the free surface
Registered tonnage
correction?
909. Your 40-foot auxiliary sailing vessel has just run aground
Strike the sails. Then run a kedge
on a bar. She has a relatively long, deep keel and the
anchor out to one side, hook the
tide is falling. You have checked the bilges for damage
main halyard to it, and heave the
and found none. Which is the most prudent action to
boat down onto one side.
take immediately?
910. Your vessel has been holed in #1 hold and partially
flooded. The hole is plugged against further flooding. In
Added weight method
calculating the effect of the flooding on your transverse
stability, you should use which method?
911. A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a
depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the
The moment of inertia would be 1/4
tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will
its original value.
the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be
affected?
912. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?

38 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

913. Ballasting is performed once cargo on each hold is half-
empty. A usual check on each deep tank cover to
water-ingress
ensure that its all watertight to prevent any flooding is
due to:
914. What is NOT an item requires the vessel to be dry- Verification of loadline
docked? measurement
915. Which type of hull damage should be repaired first? damage at or just above waterline
916. The objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead is to support and hold the area in the
__________. damaged position
917. Control of flooding should be addressed __________. following control of fire
918. You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid
flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates an approximately two-thirds of the way
inverted triangle. The center of pressure of the shores up the bulkhead
on the bulkhead should be located __________.
919. While in drydock, your vessel will be belt-gauged. This drilling a sonic- testing the hull to
process involves: determined the plate thickness
920. This system has been used for many years. The fittings
of these plates in way of bronze propellers and other sacrificial anode system
immersed fittings is a common practice:
921. Extended cyclical variations in tensions will cause an
Fatigue
anchor chain to break due to __________.
922. A reinspection of the vessel shall be made between
which of the following months while the Certificate of 10 - 14 months
Inspection is valid?
approximately 1/2 inch shorter than
923. Your vessel has been damaged and you must shore a
the measured length to allow for
bulkhead. You should cut the shore __________.
wedges
924. Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or
ship's sweat
damage by _______________________ .
925. What is the meaning of the term tare weight? Weight of a container
926. Sweat damage will occur in a cargo hold containing dew point of the hold is higher than
cased machinery when the __________. the temperature of the ship's skin
927. Sweat damage in a hatch full of canned goods in cartons dew point is higher than the
will occur when the __________. temperature of the cargo
928. When underway with a tow, you are required to notify
Accidental stranding or grounding
the Coast Guard in which casualty situation?
Part of your deck cargo of five
929. What would NOT require that a detailed report of the
gallon cans of paint is damaged
release of hazardous cargo be made to the Local
and leaking so you jettison them to
Authorities?
eliminate the fire hazard.
930. Which factor is MOST important in preventing sweat
Dew point of the cargo hold
damage within a cargo hold?
931. Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline
continued progressive flooding
reduces the threat of __________.
932. A report of casualty to a vessel must include the name of the owner or agent of
__________. the vessel
933. A vessel has sustained damage in a collision with
another vessel. It is necessary to have a Seaworthy
Classification Society
Certificate before the vessel sails. Who will issue this
certificate?
934. Which factor(s) might indicate that a towline should be
All of the above
removed from service?
935. The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must
notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Marine The Master of the vessel
Inspection Office as soon as possible?
Your vessel is at anchor and
936. Which situation requires you to furnish a notice of
grounds at low tide with no
marine casualty to the Coast Guard?
apparent damage.

39 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

937. A vessel loads 100 tons of glass jars. The mate on
watch discovers that some of the cartons have been
Unclean Bill of Lading
damaged and has an exception made on the Bill of
Lading. What is this document called?
938. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a
vessel will be liable for damage to a cargo when the unseaworthiness when sailing
damage arises from __________.
939. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a
vessel will be liable for damage to cargo when the lack of ventilation in transit
damage arises from __________.
940. A declaration made by the Master before a U.S. Consul,
giving particulars regarding heavy weather or other
incidents which may have caused damage to the vessel note of protest
or cargo, through no fault of the vessel, her officers, or
crew is a(n) __________.
941. The document that establishes the facts of a casualty
and is the prima facie relief from liability for the damage Master's protest
is the __________.
942. A document used to indicate suspected cargo damage
Master's Note of Protest
caused by rough weather would be the __________.
the vessel encountered heavy
943. A Master should file a marine note of protest if
weather which might have caused
__________.
cargo damage
944. The declaration made by the Master when he anticipates
hull and/or cargo damage due to unusual weather Note of Protest
conditions is a __________.
945. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a
vessel will be liable for damage to cargo when the overloading
damage arises out of __________.
946. While a vessel is at sea, the mate on watch discovers a
fire in one of the hatches. Fire hoses are used to put the
fire out and some of the cargo is damaged by water. In general average
marine insurance terms, this partial loss by water is
called __________.
947. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a
vessel will be liable for damage to a cargo when the improper stowage
damage arises out of __________.
948. A fire has damaged 20 bales of cotton on a freighter
loaded with general cargo. This claim would come under particular average
__________.
949. The two courses of action if the underwater hull is
establish and maintain flooding
severely damaged are to plug the openings or to
boundaries
__________.
950. While underway, part of your cargo is damaged by fire.
In marine insurance terms this partial loss is called particular average
__________.
951. Particular average is __________. loss sustained by only one party
952. A vessel has been damaged by fire. The survey shows
the cost of repairs will exceed the value of the repaired constructive total loss
vessel. This is an example of a(n) __________.
953. A claim for cargo damages may be held against the
ensure the fitness and safety of
shipowner if such damage is the result of failure of the
cargo spaces
ship's officers to __________.
954. When shoring a damaged bulkhead, effort should be
maximum possible area
taken to spread the pressure over the __________.
Containers should be ventilated,
955. Which statement concerning sweat damage in dehumidified, or the contents
containers is TRUE? physically protected against sweat
damage.
The aluminum structure is usually
956. A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an attached to a steel coaming by a
aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE? method that insulates the two
metals.
957. What would have the greatest affect on a vessel's Grounding damage to the bilge
longitudinal strength? strake, just aft of midships
40 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
A hole in the hull at the waterline is
958. Which statement about damage control is TRUE more dangerous than a hole below
the inner bottom.
959. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the
The width of the tank
free surface correction?
A hole in the hull at the waterline is
960. Which statement about damage control is TRUE? more dangerous than a hole below
the inner bottom.
961. A fire has damaged 20 bales of cotton on a freighter
loaded with general cargo. This claim would come particular average
under:
962. What is correct with respect to required watertight
bulkheads on small passenger vessels less than 100 Sluice valves are not permitted.
GT?
963. Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be
safe for hot work
certified or declared as which of the following?

COMPETENCE 12
964. What is the approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution
five years
Emergency Plan?
965. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may Any individual connected with the
be held responsible? vessel involved in the operation
966. If you fail to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, how
5 years
long may be imprisoned for?
967. What can be done to prevent small oil spills on deck
plugging the scuppers
from going overboard?
968. You are operating a non-ocean going vessel, how much
of the accumulated oily waste must you be able to retain 100%
on board?
969. An individual must be which of the following to serve as
the person in charge of oil cargo transfer operations be a certified tankerman (PIC)
onboard a self-propelled tank vessel?
970. The person in charge on the vessel and the person in
charge at the facility must hold a meeting before starting Both persons in charge
the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer?
971. Application for a waiver of any requirements of the
regulations for oil transfer operations must be submitted Captain of the Port
to the __________.
972. While taking on fuel oil from an offshore supply vessel,
the transfer hose leaks, causing a sheen in the water. immediately shut down operations
You should __________.
973. What shall the transfer procedures required to be a line diagram of the vessel transfer
followed on tankships contain? piping
length from the forward bulkhead of
974. What does the term, "cargo tank length", as used in part the forwardmost cargo tanks to the
157 of the Pollution Regulations, mean? after bulkhead of the aftermost
cargo tanks
975. In the event of an oil spill a report must be made to
U.S. Coast Guard
which of the following entities?
976. An IOPP Certificate on an inspected vessel is valid for
5 years
what period of time?
977. After an IOPP Certificate is issued to an inspected
vessel, how many other surveys of the vessel's pollution
Three
prevention equipment are conducted during the period of
validity of the certificate?
978. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term
a mixture with any oil content
"Oily Mixture"?
979. Under OPA 90, a Level A of Oil Spill Removal
the lowest recovery capability
Organization (OSRO) has:
980. A fire has damaged 20 bales of cotton on a freighter
loaded with general cargo. This claim would come particular average
under:

41 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

981. Annex IV of Marpol, deals with sewage. How does it All vessels must have a sewage
affect shipboard operations concerning processing and system which is approved by the
treatment of sewage? Flag Administration.
982. Your vessel is at a dock taking bunkers. If oil begins to Signal the shore control point to
flow out of a tank vent, what should you do FIRST? shut down.
983. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or
pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, what Shut down the transfer operation
action should you take FIRST?
984. How many bolts are required in a temporarily connected
standard ANSI (American National Standards Institute) 4
coupling?
985. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR),
when may a person serve as the person-in-charge of When authorized by the Captain of
both a vessel and a facility during oil transfer the Port.
operations?
986. During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible
to guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are The designated person in charge
being followed?
987. You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to
The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5
another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which
years.
statement is TRUE?
A checklist of the equipment
988. The supplement to the IOPP Certificate contains what
installed for controlling the
type of data?
discharge of oil.
989. In controlling pollution, which action should be taken
after all dirty ballast has been transferred to the slop The slops should be allowed time
tank and prior to discharge through the oily water to settle.
separator?
990. What is the first action you should take to prevent oil
start the cargo pump, then open
from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the
sea suction valves
cargo piping system?
991. When discharging clean ballast prior to entering a
the deballasting must be
loading port, what must you do if it is determined the
terminated automatically
ballast exceeds 15 parts per million of oil?
992. What is the FIRST action to take if you detect oil around
shut down operations
your tank vessel while discharging?
993. A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is
Food waste, not comminuted or
located 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which
ground
type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?
994. How is the Master or operator of a vessel required to
keep the crew informed of the regulations concerning Keep placards prominently posted.
the discharging of garbage overboard?
995. Your oceangoing vessel has medical waste to be
disposed of ashore. How many hours advance notice 24
must you give the port or terminal?
996. Providing you are not sailing in the Red Sea or another
special area as listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL, how
many miles from land must you be to throw garbage 12 nm
including bottles, rags, and glass that has not been
ground up into the sea?
997. If Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies to your vessel,
which of the following cannot be discharged anywhere at plastic
sea?
998. You are at sea and not in a special area as defined in
ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many nautical miles from
3 nm
land must you be to discharge ground garbage that will
pass through a one-inch (25 mm) screen into the sea?
999. While operating your oceangoing vessel you must keep
at the time the garbage was
a record of any discharge or disposal of garbage. When
disposed
should these entries be made?
1000. (2.4.1.5A4-18) Fueling results in the collection of waste
Placing it in proper disposal
oil in drip pans and containers. Which is an approved
facilities
method of disposing of the waste oil?
1001. If you must pump bilges while a vessel is in port, you if discharge is led to a shore tank
should pump only __________. or barge

42 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1002. You may not act as person-in-charge of oil transfer
unless authorized by the Captain of
operations on more than one vessel at a time
the Port
__________.
1003. How long shall the operator of a vessel employed in the
transferring of oil to other vessels keep the Declaration 1 month from date of signature
of Inspection of those transfers?
1004. Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before
The person(s) designated in-charge
loading a tank vessel?
1005. Who must sign the Declaration of Inspection made
person(s) in charge
before oil transfer operations?
1006. Hoses used for cargo transfer operations must be tested
the operator of the vessel or facility
and inspected at specified intervals by __________.
0il and hazardous material transfer
1007. 33 CFR 156 deals with matters concerning __________.
operations
1008. According to the U.S. regulations, what must be agreed
the identity of the product to be
upon by the person-in-charge of transfer operations,
transferred
both ashore and on the vessel?
1009. U.S. regulations require that no person may transfer oil all necessary components of the
to or from a vessel unless which of the following criteria transfer system are lined up before
are met? the transfer begins
1010. According to U.S. regulations, when a tank vessel is
discharging cargo, each sea suction valve connected to
sealed or lashed closed
the vessel's oil transfer, ballast, or cargo tank systems
must be which of the following?
1011. A oil tanker may not discharge an oily mixture into the discharging at an instantaneous
sea from a cargo tank, slop tank, or cargo pump room rate of oil content not exceeding 30
bilge unless which of the following conditions is present? liters per nautical mile
1012. Which type of marine sanitation device (MSD) is used
solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at Type III
ambient air pressure and temperature?
1013. Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the The person in charge must report
navigable waters of the U.S. is TRUE? the spill to the Coast Guard.
1014. Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements
pertaining to the discharge into the marine environment garbage
of __________.
1015. A 30,000 DWT tankship is required to have an IOPP calling at ports in another country
certificate when __________. signatory to MARPOL 73/78
1016. in which case is the IOPP Certificate of an inspected The required oily-water separator
vessel NOT invalidated? malfunctions.
1017. The Oil Record Book for all U.S. ships is the property of
U.S. government
the ________.
1018. Which of the following describes heavy fuel oils when they are less harmful to sea life
they have been spilled? than lighter oils
1019. Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops
in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you replace the hose
resume pumping, you should __________.
1020. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or
pollution hazard during the fuel transfer operations, Shut down the operation.
which action should you take FIRST?
1021. It would be prudent to perform which of the following
plug the scuppers
actions prior to the commencement of bunkering?
1022. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical
final topping off is occurring
time during bunkering is when __________.
1023. Your vessel is taking on cargo oil when a small leak
develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped.
replace the hose
What action should you take before you resume
pumping?
1024. While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near
the barge. Which of the following actions should you Stop loading
carry out FIRST?
1025. You are in the North Sea, which is a special area listed
in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land
Must be retained aboard
must you be to throw broken plywood dunnage over the
side?

43 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1026. Which list is NOT required to be provided as part of the
A list of personnel duty
appendices of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency
assignments.
Plan?
You must keep a record of garbage
1027. Which statement is TRUE? discharged in port to a shore
facility.
1028. According to U.S. regulations, what vessels are required U.S. Vessels 26 feet or more in
to have the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard? length
1029. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
1030. When bunkering is complete, the hoses should be drained, blanked off, and stored
__________. securely
1031. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going
plugging the scuppers
overboard by ______:
1032. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time
an oil spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the spread an absorbent material, such
transfer, the engineroom should first be informed and as sawdust
then __________.
1033. A precaution you should take before bunkering is to
plug the scuppers
__________
1034. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by
human error
__________.
1035. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under
Oil mixed with dredge spoil
the pollution prevention regulations?
Contain the oil and remove as
1036. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what
much of it as possible from the
should you do after reporting the discharge?
water.
1037. On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's
Master and Chief Engineer
quarters are the responsibility of the __________.
1038. Spreading oil on the open sea has the effect of preventing the wave crests from
__________. breaking
1039. The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the
booms
water is(are) __________.
1040. Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans
Placing it in proper disposal
and containers. Which is an approved method of
facilities
disposing of the waste oil?
1041. Plastic material may be discharged overboard from a
None of the above
vessel if it is __________.
The change in its specific volume
1042. Why is it important for fuel oil tank not to be topped off
when heated may cause an
when loading cold oil?
overflow
Shipboard Oil Pollution and
1043. SOPEP means _______.
Emergency Plans
1044. Before a vessel can pump oily water within a Special
it must be more than 12 miles from
Area, it has to comply with the following conditions
the nearest coast
EXCEPT:
1045. Which should be done with the ashes from your vessels
incinerator which has burned packages containing discharge to shore facility only
plastic?
1046. The standard outside diameter pipelines to enable pipes
of reception facilities to be connected with the ships
215 mm
discharge pipelines for residues from machinery bilges
should be_________.
1047. Pipelines should be standard to enable pipes of
reception facilities to be connected with the ships
183 mms.
discharge pipelines for residues from machinery bilges.
Its bolt circle diameter should be _____.
1048. To whom is the first report rendered in the oil pollution
port authorities
contingency plan of the vessel?
1049. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical
final topping off is occurring
time during bunkering is when __________.
It is visible for a shorter time than a
1050. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?
fuel oil spill.

44 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

They may cause serious pollution
1051. Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills? as the effect tends to be
cumulative.
1052. The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution
spilling, leaking, pumping
regulations, means __________.
1053. Pollution regulations require that each scupper in an
mechanical means of closing
enclosed deck area have a __________.
1054. The operator of a vessel subject to the pollution
regulations shall keep a written record available for
All of the above
inspection by the COPT or OCMI containing
__________.
1055. The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution
cargoes carried and dates
regulations is NOT required to keep written records of
delivered, including destinations
__________.
length from the forward bulkhead of
1056. The term, "cargo tank length", as used in part 157 of the the forwardmost cargo tanks to the
Pollution Regulations, means the __________. after bulkhead of the aftermost
cargo tanks
1057. the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must an explanation and purpose of the
include __________. plan
1058. Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal
two years
records must be kept __________.
1059. Which is NOT a mandatory part of the shipboard Oil
Diagrams
Pollution Emergency Plan?
1060. Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil
Reporting requirements
Pollution Emergency Plan?
1061. The regulations that were passed to implement
MARPOL 73/78 concerning oil pollution apply to a U.S. International waters
flag vessel that sails on which waters?
1062. Under the Pollution Regulations, when you dump
keep a record for two years
garbage in to the sea you must __________.
1063. When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil
and cannot be implemented without
Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be
approval
submitted to the Coast Guard __________.
an oil tanker of 150 gross tons and
1064. A shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan is required of
above, or other ship of 400 gross
__________.
tons and above
1065. The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution
five years
Emergency Plan expires after __________.
1066. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or
pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which Shut down the operation.
action should you take FIRST?
1067. What can be done to prevent small oil spills on deck
plugging the scuppers
from going overboard?
1068. You are operating a non-ocean going vessel, how much
of the accumulated oily waste must you be able to retain 1
on board?
1069. Application for a waiver of any requirements of the
regulations for oil transfer operations must be submitted Captain of the Port
to the __________.
1070. While taking on fuel oil from an offshore supply vessel,
the transfer hose leaks, causing a sheen in the water. immediately shut down operations
You should __________.
length from the forward bulkhead of
1071. What does the term, "cargo tank length", as used in part the forwardmost cargo tanks to the
157 of the Pollution Regulations, mean? after bulkhead of the aftermost
cargo tanks
1072. A fire has damaged 20 bales of cotton on a freighter
loaded with general cargo. This claim would come particular average
under:
1073. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR),
when may a person serve as the person-in-charge of When authorized by the Captain of
both a vessel and a facility during oil transfer the Port.
operations?

45 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

A checklist of the equipment
1074. The supplement to the IOPP Certificate contains what
installed for controlling the
type of data?
discharge of oil.
1075. In controlling pollution, which action should be taken
after all dirty ballast has been transferred to the slop The slops should be allowed time to
tank and prior to discharge through the oily water settle.
separator?
1076. A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is
Food waste, not comminuted or
located 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which
ground
type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?
1077. How is the Master or operator of a vessel required to
keep the crew informed of the regulations concerning Keep placards prominently posted.
the discharging of garbage overboard?
1078. Your oceangoing vessel has medical waste to be
disposed of ashore. How many hours advance notice 24
must you give the port or terminal?
1079. Providing you are not sailing in the Red Sea or another
special area as listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL, how
many miles from land must you be to throw garbage 12 nm
including bottles, rags, and glass that has not been
ground up into the sea?
1080. You are at sea and not in a special area as defined in
ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many nautical miles from
3 nm
land must you be to discharge ground garbage that will
pass through a one-inch (25 mm) screen into the sea?
1081. While operating your oceangoing vessel you must keep
at the time the garbage was
a record of any discharge or disposal of garbage. When
disposed
should these entries be made?
1082. It would be prudent to perform which of the following
plug the scuppers
actions prior to the commencement of bunkering?
1083. Your vessel is taking on cargo oil when a small leak
develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped.
replace the hose
What action should you take before you resume
pumping?
You must keep a record of garbage
1084. Which statement is TRUE? discharged in port to a shore
facility.
1085. According to U.S. regulations, what vessels are required U.S. Vessels 26 feet or more in
to have the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard? length
1086. A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is
located in a MARPOL designated special area, 14
Food waste
nautical miles from nearest land. What type of garbage
is permitted to be discharged?
1087. It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill by
chemical agents
using __________.
annually by the owner, with a letter
1088. Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plans must be submitted to the Coast Guard within
reviewed __________. one month of the anniversary date
of the plan approval
1089. Under the Pollution Regulations, which action is required
keep a record for two years
when you dump garbage in to the sea?
1090. Which vessel in ocean service is not subject to Annex V
A Navy Destroyer
of MARPOL 73/78?
1091. You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in
ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must
Must be retained aboard
you be to discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into
the sea?
1092. No person on board any vessel to which Annex V to
in the navigable waters of the
MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage of any
United States
type when __________.
1093. Which area is designated a special area by Annex V to
Red Sea
MARPOL 73/78?

46 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

COMPETENCE 13
1094. When using the term "limber system" one is referring to
drainage system
a __________.
The total area of the vents or the
1095. Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of
overflow shall be at least 125% of
double bottom tanks against excessive pressure?
the area of the fill line.
They may have lightening, limber,
1096. Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE?
or air holes cut into them.
1097. What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double
Suction lines are fitted with a non-
bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due
return valve
to collision?
1098. Why are most break bulk vessels built with the
The deep web frames interfere with
transverse framing system rather than the longitudinal
the stowage of break bulk cargo.
system?
1099. What term indicates the line drawn at the top of the flat
Base line
plate keel?
1100. What term indicates the length measured along the
summer load line from the intersection of that load line
Length between perpendiculars
with the foreside of the stem and the intersection of that
load line with the aft side of the rudder post?
1101. What term indicates a curvature of the decks in a
Sheer
longitudinal direction?
1102. What term indicates the midships portion of a vessel that
Middle body
has a constant cross section?
1103. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-
Initial stability
hulled tanker?
1104. Which technique could be used to give a more Concentrate weights on upper
comfortable roll to a stiff vessel? decks
1105. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel? Its period of roll is long.
It decreases at increased angles of
1106. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE? heel due to pocketing when a tank
is 90% full.
1107. What does NOT affect the value of the free surface
Registered tonnage
correction?
1108. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main
The GM will increase.
deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
1109. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the
The width of the tank
free surface correction?
1110. What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full Loss of stability from free surface
tank onboard a vessel? effect
1111. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel.
Draining fire-fighting water and
Which action is most important concerning the stability
pumping it overboard
of the vessel?
1112. What is NOT a securing system used on a
Stacking system
containership?
Shackles are stronger than hooks
1113. Which statement is TRUE about hooks and shackles?
of the same diameter.
1114. Permanent or Portable ventilation systems may be fitted
The Engine Room
to....
1115. Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy? Freeboard
1116. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates
has poor stability
that the vessel __________.
concentrated high and the double
1117. A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________.
bottoms empty
1118. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward
put the vessel's stern into the wind
part of your vessel. If possible you should __________.
1119. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to determine the lightweight center of
__________. gravity location

47 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1120. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G)
may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive metacenter
stability is called the __________.
should always be immediately
1121. A negative metacentric height __________.
corrected
1122. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS
reduce reserve buoyancy
__________.
1123. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant G is above the center of lateral
ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________. resistance
1124. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the concentrated high and the double
weight of the cargo is __________. bottoms are empty
1125. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when place the heaviest woods in the
carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________. lower holds
1126. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability
for small angles of inclination
__________.
1127. Metacentric height is a measure of __________. initial stability only
1128. During a stability test on a small passenger vessel
the vessel must be moored snugly
__________.
1129. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to
length and width of space
__________.
1130. When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main
center of gravity will move upwards
deck the __________.
1131. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the
decreases
detrimental effect of free surface __________.
1132. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result flowing in and out of a holed wing
of liquids __________. tank
1133. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of
slack
a vessel when it is __________.
be sure to orient the weave of the
1134. When repairing a torn sail at sea, you should patch material, on large patches, in
__________. the same orientation as the sail
cloth being repaired
1135. A stay is __________. standing rigging

1136. Sails may be wing and wing when __________. sailing with the wind aft
1137. The hinge fitting used to attach the boom to the mast is
gooseneck
the __________.
1138. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a
vessel will be liable for damage to cargo when the lack of ventilation in transit
damage arises from __________.
1139. A band or collar on the top end of a boom to which the
topping lift, midships guy, and outboard guys are spider band
secured, is called the __________.
1140. The fitting at the end of a cargo line in a tank that allows
suction to be taken close to the bottom of a tank is a bell-mouth
__________.
1141. The pipe used to connect two separate piping systems
crossover
on a tank vessel is known as a __________.
1142. The owner or Master of a towing vessel that tows astern
an invoice showing the cost of the
must keep records of the towline(s) that include all of the
towline
following information EXCEPT _________.
1143. A vessel that tows astern must have a/an _________. method to easily release the towline
fit any spare wire clips carried on
1144. The size and material used for towline(s) must meet all
board the vessel for repair
of the following requirements, EXCEPT _________.
purposes
1145. Every seaman injured on a fishing vessel must report
no later than 7 days after the injury
the injury to the Master, individual in charge, or other
occurred
agent of the employer __________.
1146. An implied warranty of seaworthiness on the part of the contract of carriage, i.e. Bill of
vessel's owner lies in the __________. Lading
48 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1147. A report of casualty to a vessel must include the name of the owner or agent of
__________. the vessel
1148. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
1149. Freeboard is a measure of: The amount of reserve bouyancy

1150. GM is a measure of: The initial stability of the vessel

1151. When using stabilogauge, unless the density correction
At the geometric centerof the
is applied, the center of gravity of a loadable
compartment
compartment is assumed to be:
1152. The value of KM at any draft may be taken from the: Hydrostatic Table
1153. The volume of all watertight enclosed spaces above
Reserved bouyancy
water line is called:
1154. In regards to the center of bouyancy, which of the It is located in the same position
following statement is correct? regardless of displacement
1155. Which of the following will increase the height of the Discharging weight from lower
center of buoyancy of your vessel? decks
An intact space below the flooded
1156. An intact bouyancy means:
area
1157. Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing
12 deg to port and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It Press up an after, slack, centerline
has a long, slow, sluggish roll. What action will you take double bottom tank
first?
1158. The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a
flooded compartment that can be occupied by water by Permeability
damage is called:
1159. The inward curvature of the ship's side is the: Tumble home
1160. In a longitudinally framed vessel, the longitudinal frames
are held in place in a place and supported by Web frames
athwartship members called:
1161. The elevated perforated bottom of a chain locker which
prevents the chain from touching the bottom of the chain Manger
locker and allows water to flow to the drain is:
1162. The strake next to the keel is: Garboard
1163. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-
Initial stability
hulled tanker?
1164. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates
has poor stability
that the vessel __________.
concentrated high and the double
1165. A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________.
bottoms empty
1166. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to determine the lightweight center of
__________. gravity location
1167. Which technique could be used to give a more Concentrate weights on upper
comfortable roll to a stiff vessel? decks
1168. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G)
may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive metacenter
stability is called the __________.
should always be immediately
1169. A negative metacentric height __________.
corrected
1170. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS
reduce reserve buoyancy
__________.
1171. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant G is above the center of lateral
ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________. resistance
She will have a large metacentric
1172. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?
height.
1173. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the concentrated high and the double
weight of the cargo is __________. bottoms are empty

49 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1174. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when place the heaviest woods in the
carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________. lower holds
1175. Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance
between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and
LBP
the after-most points on a small passenger vessel's
waterline at her deepest operating draft?
1176. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel? Its period of roll is long.
1177. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability
for small angles of inclination
__________.
1178. Metacentric height is a measure of __________. initial stability only
It decreases at increased angles of
1179. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE? heel due to pocketing when a tank
is 90% full.
1180. During a stability test on a small passenger vessel
the vessel must be moored snugly
__________.
1181. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to
length and width of space
__________.
1182. What does NOT affect the value of the free surface
Registered tonnage
correction?
1183. When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main
center of gravity will move upwards
deck the __________.
1184. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main
The GM will increase.
deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
1185. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the
The width of the tank
free surface correction?
1186. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the
decreases
detrimental effect of free surface __________.
1187. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result flowing in and out of a holed wing
of liquids __________. tank
1188. What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full Loss of stability from free surface
tank onboard a vessel? effect
1189. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel.
Draining fire-fighting water and
Which action is most important concerning the stability
pumping it overboard
of the vessel?
1190. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of
slack
a vessel when it is __________.
1191. Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. establish flooding boundaries and
The first step to be taken in attempting to save the prevent further spread of flood
vessel is to __________. water
1192. What must be accurately determined to assess the
The integrity of the water tight
potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been
boundaries
damaged?
1193. Control of flooding should be addressed __________. following control of fire
1194. A stress called compression is being placed on the
sagging
sheer strakes if the vessel is ___________?
1195. Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas.
rigging a sea anchor
You can reduce the danger of capsizing by __________.
1196. This is a modern method of welding where there is
actual melting of the materials being joined although the
weld metal is composed largely of added materials fusion weld
having the same characteristics as the metal being
joined.
1197. This is the underwater narrowing part of a ships hull
Entrance
forward of the middle body section?
1198. What bulkheads subdivide the ship into independent
Transverse watertight
compartments to limit the extent for flooding?
1199. Which of the following component parts of cargo gear is
Flounder Plate
associated with Topping Lifts?

50 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1200. This is the type of hatch cover which consist of single or
multi-paneled covers operated by either a wire rope of Hinged and Folding Hatch covers
the ships gear or by an electro-hydraulic system.
1201. What doors are classified the strongest doors among the
Watertight
doors?
allow water shipped on deck to flow
1202. Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks ______.
off rapidly
1203. A plate used vertically in the bottom of a ship running
floor
athwartship from bilged usually on every frame is the:
1204. Brackets joining the deck beam and the side frames are
beam knees
known as:
1205. A thirty pound plate would be: inch thick
1206. What is the uppermost continuous deck exposed to the
weather and the sea which has permanent means of Freeboard deck
watertight closure?
1207. How long is the loadline mark across the loadline disk? 450 mm
1208. The horizontal line 300mm by 25mm wide which is
deck line
positioned amidship on port and starboard side.
1209. This is a part of a vessel's side projecting upwards along
bulwark
the line of the weather deck or uppermost deck.
1210. When using clamp shell discharging of cargo, what Hatch coaming may suffer minor
damage to ships structure it caused? harmful knocks
1211. The curvature of the deck in the longitudinal direction. sheer
1212. Lightening holes cut out of a solid floor allow for which of
the following? I. Access during construction and Both I and II
maintenance of the double bottom II. A saving weight
1213. The weight of a vessel without a load. It includes hull
and fittings, engines and boilers, shafting and propellers, Light displacement
water in boilers, permanent ballast, etc
1214. Reference to freeboard categories, Type A ships are
liquid cargoes in bulk
those designed specifically for the carriage of ________.
is a safety measure in case one of
1215. A preventer guy________.
the outboard guys part
1216. The enclosed area defined as the intersection of the
surface of the water and the hull of a vessel is the waterplane
_______.
1217. The frame of the vessel that runs parallel to the keel is
Longitudinal frame
called_______.
1218. Which of the following is not exempted when calculating
Passenger cabin
gross tonnage?
1219. When heating a metal and cooling it down for desired
annealing
fashion. This is called:
1220. What do you call the distance from the keel to the upper
Extreme depth
deck?
1221. The vertical plate of ship's girder is called: web
1222. The tube leading from the focsle deck to the chain
Spurling pipe
locker enclosing the anchor chain is called:
1223. What kind of block is used as a cargo block? Gin Block
1224. A metal chimney or passage through which the smoke
smokestack
and gases are led from the uptakes to the open air:
1225. The figure obtained by dividing the total volume of the
ship in cubic feet (after omission of exempted spaces) gross tonnage
by 100 is the ______.
1226. It refers to any break or change in section thickness or
discontinuity
amount of plating materials.
1227. The last link of the anchor chain attached to the pad eye
Bitter end
in the chain locker is called:

51 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1228. What is the purpose of the stripping bar on the anchor Prevent chain from fouling the
windlass? wildcat
1229. It means that a piping on venting system, for example, is
in no way connected to another system and that there
independent
are no provisions available for the potential connection
to other system.
1230. The making of the load lines are painted in __________
white
in a dark ground.
1231. If the winch should fail while you are hauling in the
anchor, what prevents the anchor cable from running Riding Pawl
out?
1232. A vertical side battens is the same __. spar ceiling
upper or weather deck above the
1233. By definitions, a SPAR DECK is the:
main strength deck
1234. In the formula, I = L X B X K, what does B means? Breadth of the waterplane
1235. What type of rudder may loose its effectiveness at
Balance
angles of 10 or more degrees?
1236. Which of the following is a bow shape of a ship
Plumb
constructed where the stern is at right angle to the keel?
1237. Which of the following is the deep fore-and-aft member
Girder
supporting the deck?
1238. The ratio of the transverse area of the midship section to
Midship coefficient
a rectangle having the same breadth and depth:
1239. This is the type of hatch cover which are made of one or
more separate covers each designed to be lifted
Pontoon Hatch Covers
independently to expose the entire hatch opening. They
can be used for weather and tween deck hatchways.
1240. The deck plating nearest to the deck edges are termed: stringer plates
1241. Racking stress caused when ship rolls in a seaway is
top corner
more severe or evident on:
1242. The ___ is an imaginary line, 75 mms below the
bulkhead deck. It is assumed that the ship which is sunk margin line
to this line would still be navigable in fine weather.
1243. Another name for the sheer strake is the _________. Z strake
1244. The safety factors which must be considered both and
Guys tightly rigged and as mean as
when using a pair of derricks rigged to operate in union
possible at 90 to the derrick.
purchase?
1245. What is the distance from the lower edge of the winter
50mms
loadline permitted on ships 100 meters or less in length?
1246. Your vessel has amidship engine room, and the cargo is hogging with tensile stress on the
concentrated in the end holds. The vessel is said to be: main deck
1247. Deep tanks are normally located aboard ship; abaft engine space
1248. This is the ratio of the immersed volume to the area of
Vertical Prismatic coefficient
the load waterplane multiplied by the mean draught:
1249. It is the work of measuring the various dimension and
capacities of the ship in order to get the tonnage for Measurement
official registration.
Frames to which the tank top and
1250. Floors aboard ship are ________. bottom shell are fastened on a
double bottomed ship
1251. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel aft
Run
of the parallel mid-body?
1252. What is called the upper horizontal member of the
Keel rider plate
backbone of the ship?
1253. The rudder with small area forward of the turning axis is
unbalanced rudder
known as the:
1254. Concerning the use of stabilogauge, which of the
Trim
following cannot be found?
52 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1255. When loading different cargo through the same pipeline,
Trim, hog and sag
you should determine which cargo to load first EXCEPT:
1256. How many cubic meters are there in 120 cubic foot? 3.398 cubic meters
1257. What authorities arranged the order of merit of ships
Classification society
built according to the standard of seaworthiness?
1258. Which of the following surveys is an initial other than the
Classification during Construction
classification in survey for the first entry?
1259. The piping that routes an oil cargo from the manifold to
drop line
under deck pipelines is known as a:
1260. On a Tanker vessel, the cargo pump relief valves are
suction side of pump
piped to the:
1261. What is an arthwartship member supporting the deck? Beam
1262. Which part of the hull through which the section shape
Parallel middle body
remains unchanged?
1263. What is the F in ships construction refers? Pillars
from the forward most to the
1264. Length overall (L.O.A) is measured___________?
aftermost part of the vessel
1265. When a metal is tampered, it becomes: less brittle
1266. What is drawn to give the immersed area of transverse
section to any draft and may be used to determine the Bonjean curves
longitudinal distribution of buoyancy?
1267. Which doors usually have lever type, quick acting
Airtight
closures?
1268. Length between perpendiculars is measured; I. Along
the summer loadline II. From the forward stem to the II only
after part of the rudder. III. Vertically
1269. Your vessel midship draft is 30-03 The mean draft is
29-11. You have: I. 5 hog II. Concentration of weights Neither I nor II
fore and aft
1270. What kind of cargo weighing 2,240 lbs. occupies less
deadweight cargo
than 40 [Link]. of space?
length from the collision bulkhead to
1271. The term CARGO TANK LENGTH as used in part 157
the forward bulkhead of the
of the Pollution Regulations, means the:
machinery
1272. This is the tonnage of the space below the tonnage
deck. It is found by dividing the tonnage length into a Underdeck tonnage
specified number of parts.
1273. Mainly used to hold the anchor cable in place while the
Cable stopper
ship is riding at anchor.
1274. These are those portions of the accommodation spaces
which are used for halls, dining rooms, lounges and public spaces
similar permanently enclosed spaces.
Enclosed equipment so constructed
that a steam of water from those
1275. Watertight equipment means: under a head of 35 ft. can be
played on the apparatus for 5
minutes without leakage
1276. ______ may be closed by a vertical screw thread which
is turned by a shaft extending above the bulkhead and vertical sliding door
fitted with a crane handle
1277. Which kind of pipe has the best resistance to internal
cast iron
and external combustion?
1278. A welding process in which the arc is maintained within
a blanket of granulated flux; a consumable filler wire is
stud welding
employed and the arc is maintained between this wire
and parent wire is ______.

53 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1279. In order to determine the heeling moment due to grain
shift, the master must have the position above the
tween deck compartment extend
bulkhead deck and powered by ______. sufficient grain
from deck to deck
loading information. The following information shall
include except:
1280. In passenger ship, watertight doors may be closed by
hydraulic means
remote control from central
1281. There are two classification surveys, one is classification
classification survey under
in survey for the first entry, that is initial survey and the
construction
other is _____.
1282. Which of the following condition will cause a vessels
concentration of weight amidships
bottom to be subjected to tension stresses?
1283. The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the
inside of the side shell, the underside of the deck, and Grain cubic
the tank top is known as ________.
1284. The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the
inside faces of the cargo battens, the lower side of the
Bale cubic
deck beams, and the top of the tank top ceiling is known
as the _______.
To act as a boundary stiffener for
1285. What is the function of a CARLING?
the hatches
1286. What is the TPC of a rectangular shaped vessel 80m x
11.48
14m floating in SW at an even keel draft of 4m?
1287. The instrument always used with the salinity indicator is
Pyrometer
the:
1288. Where will be the center of gravity of a cargo
One-third the height of the
compartment filled with general cargo with heavier items
compartment above its deck
stowed on the bottom?
1289. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward
put the vessel's stern into the wind
part of your vessel. If possible you should __________.
1290. You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing
apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many Three
tugs of the lifeline mean to take up the slack?
1291. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on
1
a cargo vessel of 900 GT?
1292. When using the term "limber system" one is referring to
drainage system
a __________.
The total area of the vents or the
1293. Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of
overflow shall be at least 125% of
double bottom tanks against excessive pressure?
the area of the fill line.
They may have lightening, limber,
1294. Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE?
or air holes cut into them
1295. What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double
Suction lines are fitted with a non-
bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due
return valve
to collision?
1296. What term indicates the line drawn at the top of the flat
Base line
plate keel?
1297. What term indicates the length measured along the
summer load line from the intersection of that load line
Length between perpendiculars
with the foreside of the stem and the intersection of that
load line with the aft side of the rudder post?
1298. What term indicates the midships portion of a vessel that
Middle body
has a constant cross section?
Shackles are stronger than hooks
1299. Which statement is TRUE about hooks and shackles?
of the same diameter.
1300. Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy? Freeboard

1301. A stay is __________. standing rigging

1302. On the cargo manifest, the total weight of an empty
tare weight
cargo box is the __________.
1303. The device that allows a floating MODU to sway without
flex or ball joint
bending the marine riser system is the __________.

54 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1304. Delivery of a vessel to a charterer is called __________. tendering
1305. On the cargo manifest, the total weight of a box
gross weight
containing cargo is the __________.
1306. Uncleared crew curios remaining on board during a
noted in the Traveling Curio
domestic coastwise voyage after returning from foreign
Manifest
should be __________.
1307. The figure obtained by dividing the total volume of the
ship in cubic feet (after omission of exempted spaces) gross tonnage
by 100 is the __________.
1308. The ship's drawings for use when the DEEP DRILLER is
ballast control room
damaged are available in the __________.

COMPETENCE 14
1309. What would be the best fire extinguishing agent in a
Foam
cargo hold with a smouldering fire in a cargo of coal?
1310. Why are carbon monoxide readings taken when carrying
Because it is toxic
a coal cargo
1311. Which fire fighting system is the most efficient and with
least side effects in the event of a fire in the engine The powder extinguishing system.
room?
1312. On cargo vessels, which fire extinguisher is considered
B-III
semi-portable?
1313. According to the Chemical Data Guide, which
extinguishing agent is recommended for use in fighting Dry chemical
an ethylamine fire?
1314. Which of the following would be a good extinguishing
Foam
agent for a grade B product of 1,3-Pentadiene?
1315. What is generally, the first action in extinguishing an
shut off the leak
LFG fire caused by escaping gas?
Shut off the source of the gas
1316. What is the preferable way to extinguish an LNG fire?
feeding the fire.
1317. Which type of fixed fire-extinguishing system is
Carbon dioxide
approved for use on board uninspected vessels?
1318. How many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are
required in the machinery space of an uninspected 2
motor vessel with 1,400 BHP?
1319. The remote control for a fixed fire extinguishing system,
on an uninspected vessel, should be which of the painted red and labeled
following?
1320. How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher? Pull pin, squeeze grip.
By excluding the oxygen from the
1321. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?
fire
Self contained breathing
1322. What equipment is included in the fireman's outfit?
apparatus
1323. A CO2 extinguisher which has lost 10% of its charge
Recharged
must be __________.
1324. In fire-fighting, heat transfer includes convection. heated gases flowing through
Convection spreads a fire by: ventilation systems
1325. The extent and possible source of the fire in a container
The Master
is assessed by.
1326. Which of the components listed does not form part of the
Carbon monoxide
fire triangle?
1327. If fire is found in a container, one of the first control To launch the lifeboats ready for
measures is: abandoning the ship.
1328. Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire
It is always non-toxic.
extinguishing agent?
1329. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self- The same location as the
contained breathing apparatus be carried? equipment it reactivates

55 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

In the event of a malfunction in the
1330. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self- equipment, the valve can be
contained breathing apparatus? operated manually to give the
wearer air.
1331. On cargo vessels, which fire extinguisher is considered
B-III
semi-portable?
1332. Which of the following would be a good extinguishing
Foam
agent for a grade B product of 1,3-Pentadiene?
1333. You are the operator of a 296 GRT uninspected towing
Both an approved B-V semi-
vessel. Its construction was contracted for after August
portable fire-extinguishing system
27, 2003. In addition to the hand portable fire
and a fixed fire-extinguishing
extinguishers, how much other fire extinguishing
system
equipment are you required to have on board?
1334. How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the
machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel 2
propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower?
1335. How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the
machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel 2
propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower?
1336. What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system
The fire hose
on board an offshore rig?
1337. Which of the following would be of immediate concern A storeroom directly above,
after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley? containing combustible fluids
1338. You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing
apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many Three
tugs of the lifeline mean to take up the slack?
1339. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on
1
a cargo vessel of 900 GT?
1340. For the safety of personnel working with fires hoses, fire pressure gage and relief valve on
pumps are fitted with a/an: the discharge side
1341. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and
figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The
2 inches
height of the letters and figures must be at least
__________.
1342. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they not attack the fire from opposite
should __________. sides
1343. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the
engine room. You should secure the power, then use a portable CO2 extinguisher
__________.
1344. On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a
Combustible gas indicator
required part of the fireman's outfit?
1345. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can
lower explosive limit (LEL)
form an explosive mixture is called the __________.
are made of bronze, brass, or soft
1346. Fire hose couplings __________.
alloy metals
1347. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked
an identification number
with __________.
1348. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire
labeled empty and recharged as
extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be
soon as possible
__________.
1349. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash
as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition CO2
temperature?
1350. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there should arrange to have a B-II
are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To extinguisher placed in the lower
comply with regulations, you __________. pumproom
1351. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a
removing the fuel
shipboard fire by __________.
1352. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be
convection
closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.
1353. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air over an electrically heated platinum
sample into the instrument __________. filament
1354. The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained allow the wearer to manually give
breathing apparatus is to __________. himself oxygen
56 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1355. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward
put the vessel's stern into the wind
part of your vessel. If possible you should __________.
1356. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on
2
a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT?
1357. Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to
A non self-propelled vessel in tow
have an EPIRB.
1358. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by the difference in thermal expansion
__________. of two dissimilar metals
1359. A definite advantage of using water as a fire rapid expansion as water absorbs
extinguishing agent is its characteristic of __________. heat and changes to steam
1360. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you attach a low-velocity fog applicator
would __________. with the nozzle shut down
1361. The supply of carbon dioxide used in the fixed
the space requiring the largest
extinguishing system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at
amount
least sufficient for __________.
the master control valve shut and
1362. Valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks shall
valves to individual cargo tanks
be set with __________.
open
1363. In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may
in connection with the fire-detecting
not be used for any other purpose EXCEPT
system
__________.
1364. Uninspected vessels must have one approved ring life
26 feet
buoy on board if the length is over how many feet?
1365. Which type of fixed fire-extinguishing system is
Carbon dioxide
approved for use on board uninspected vessels?
1366. Towing vessel fire protection regulations require that all must have a positive-acting shut-off
fuel tank vent pipes comply with all of the following valve to prevent water from entering
provisions EXCEPT that the vent __________. the tank in heavy weather
1367. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
1368. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and
figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The
2 inches
height of the letters and figures must be at least
__________.
1369. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they not attack the fire from opposite
should __________. sides
1370. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the
engine room. You should secure the power, then use a portable CO2 extinguisher
__________.
1371. On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a
Combustible gas indicator
required part of the fireman's outfit?
1372. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can
lower explosive limit (LEL)
form an explosive mixture is called the __________.
1373. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self- The same location as the
contained breathing apparatus be carried? equipment it reactivates
are made of bronze, brass, or soft
1374. Fire hose couplings __________.
alloy metals
1375. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked
an identification number
with __________.
1376. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire
labeled empty and recharged as
extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be
soon as possible
__________.
1377. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash
as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition CO2
temperature?
1378. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there should arrange to have a B-II
are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To extinguisher placed in the lower
comply with regulations, you __________. pumproom
1379. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a
removing the fuel
shipboard fire by __________.
1380. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be
convection
closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.

57 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1381. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air over an electrically heated platinum
sample into the instrument __________. filament
In the event of a malfunction in the
1382. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self- equipment, the valve can be
contained breathing apparatus? operated manually to give the
wearer air.
1383. The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained allow the wearer to manually give
breathing apparatus is to __________. himself oxygen
1384. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward
put the vessel's stern into the wind
part of your vessel. If possible you should __________.
1385. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by the difference in thermal expansion
__________. of two dissimilar metals
1386. A definite advantage of using water as a fire rapid expansion as water absorbs
extinguishing agent is its characteristic of __________. heat and changes to steam
1387. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you attach a low-velocity fog applicator
would __________. with the nozzle shut down
1388. The supply of carbon dioxide used in the fixed
the space requiring the largest
extinguishing system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at
amount
least sufficient for __________.
the master control valve shut and
1389. Valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks shall
valves to individual cargo tanks
be set with __________.
open
1390. At the required fire drill, all persons must report to their
stations and demonstrate their ability to perform duties In the Muster List (Station Bill)
assigned to them ________.
1391. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills? once every month
1392. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT
electricity
__________.
1393. What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen
Chain reaction
of the fire triangle to have a fire?
1394. Extinguishing oil fire is very effective when: Cutting off oxygen source
difference in thermal expansion of
1395. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by?
two dissimilar metals
1396. Fuel vents are fitted with corrosion resistant screen to
Flames entering the tank vent
prevent:
1397. Foam extinguishes fire by: Smoothering
1398. Which fire extinguishing agent has the greatest capacity
Water
for absorbing heat?
1399. The smoke detector (fire indicator) indicates fire in a Close the ventilation system and
cargo hold loaded by general cargo. What first action other openings to the hold in order
should be taken? to choke the fire
1400. The total available supply of CO2 for use in a fixed
extinguishing system of a cargo vessel shall be at least Space requiring largest amount
sufficient for_________________.
1401. Which fire-fighting equipment is most efficient and with
Central gas extinguishing system
least side effects in case of a large fire in the engine
and/or water fog.
room?
1402. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on
CO2
electrical fires?
1403. How does low expansion foam act as an extinguishing By smothering and also providing
agent when dealing with oil fires? some cooling
1404. One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent
Conducts electricity
is that foam
1405. Which activity will have the greatest fire-fighting effect in Extinguishing attempt is started
case of a fire? immediately
1406. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with Completely closing the
carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________. compartment
1407. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the
Secure the ventilation
FIRST firefighting response should be to __________.

58 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1408. There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the Bow into the wind and decrease
fire, you should put the __________. speed
1409. Control of fire should be addressed __________. Immediately
1410. You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing
apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many Three
tugs of the lifeline mean to take up the slack?
1411. Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire
It is always non-toxic.
extinguishing agent?
1412. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on
2
a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT?
1413. Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to
A non self-propelled vessel in tow
have an EPIRB.
1414. According to the Chemical Data Guide, which
extinguishing agent is recommended for use in fighting Dry chemical
an ethylamine fire?
1415. What equipment is included in the fireman's outfit? Self contained breathing apparatus
1416. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on
1
a cargo vessel of 900 GT?
1417. A fishing vessel that is required to have a fireman's
outfit, must have all of the following in the outfit except a combustible gas indicator
__________.
1418. The record of tests and inspection of fire fighting the name of the person conducting
equipment on board a MODU must include __________. the test
1419. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a in a separate and accessible
MODU must be stowed __________. location
1420. Any firefighting equipment that is carried in addition to
the minimum required number on a MODU must meet the applicable standards
__________.
1421. ([Link]-10) The size of fire hydrant hose connections
2-1/2 inches
must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.

COMPETENCE 15
1422. At what intervals should an Emergency Position-
At intervals not exceeding twelve
Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) be tested, inspected
months
and, if necessary have the source of energy replaced?
1423. What is the most important feature of the Inmarsat It has global coverage and is able
Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB)? to alert instantly when activated
1424. Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away
Sea painter
from a moving ship?
1425. Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered Cold-spark voltage readings test
lifeboat, what need NOT be checked? lamp
1426. You are testing the external inflation bladder on an Take it out of service and repair in
immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which accordance with the manufacturers
action should be taken? instructions.
They provide sufficient flotation to
1427. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their
do away with the necessity of
use?
wearing a life jacket.
1428. You are testing the external flotation bladder of an
Contact the manufacturer for repair
immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which
instructions.
action should be taken?
1429. Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which
They should be replaced.
are severely damaged?
1430. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient
fuel to operate continuously at 5 knots for how many 24
hours?
two times the distance from the
1431. What is the required minimum length of the painter for a
boat deck to the light waterline or
lifeboat in ocean service?
50 feet whichever is greater
1432. On every vessel, where must distress signals be
on or near the navigating bridge
stowed?

59 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1433. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a raft,
use visual distress signals in
you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently
conjunction with the EPIRB
carrying out a search pattern. You should.
1434. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft.
How much water per day should you permit each 1 pint
occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
Securely attached around the
1435. How are lifelines attached to a life float? outside in bights no longer than
three feet
standing on the CO2 bottle, holding
1436. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right
the bottom straps, and throwing
it by
your weight backwards
1437. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered
a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How One
many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
1438. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship
Category 1
carry?
1439. Which personal lifesaving device(s) is(are) approved for
Life preserver
use on an uninspected towboat 150 feet in length?
1440. On uninspected vessels when may SOLAS approved
Under no circumstances
work vests may be substituted life jackets?
1441. Which data is NOT painted on the bow of a lifeboat? Weight of the boat
1442. Lifeboat winches on mobile offshore drilling units are
required to be inspected and an entry made in the Every 3 months
logbook. How often should this entry be made?
1443. Which statement concerning the sources of drinking Fresh water may be obtained from
water is FALSE? fish.
To release raft automatically as the
1444. What is the purpose of the liferaft's hydrostatic release?
ship sinks
1445. Which type of davit is not considered to be a mechanical
Radial
davit?
To allow water in the bilge to get to
1446. What is the purpose of limber holes?
the boat drain
secured at each end of the boat
1447. Where should Lifeboat hatchets be kept?
with a lanyard
1448. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in Hand held flares and orange
a lifeboat? smoke signals are required.
1449. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you
remain in the immediate vicinity
should __________.
standing on the CO2 bottle, holding
1450. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right
the bottom straps, and throwing
it by __________.
your weight backwards
1451. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is drag the raft ashore and lash it
__________. down for a shelter
1452. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, hypothermia caused by cold
the greatest danger is __________. temperature
1453. While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather deflating the floor panels may help
__________. to cool personnel
1454. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you
righting strap
should pull on the __________.
1455. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding
boat the sea anchor
to its sea anchor. You should FIRST __________.
1456. A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with
pendants
__________.
1457. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to accidental unhooking when the falls
prevent __________. become slack
1458. On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat
(without desalting kits) is certified to carry, the boat must 3 liters of water
be supplied with __________.
1459. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable
pull the hook release handle and
above the water, you must pull the safety pin and
use the ratchet bar
__________.
60 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
should be righted by standing on
1460. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding
__________. the righting straps, and leaning
backwards
1461. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has tie the rafts together and try to stay
sunk, you should __________. in a single group
remain together in the area
1462. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while
because rescuers will start
far out at sea, it is important that the crew members
searching at the vessel's last known
should __________.
position
1463. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward
put the vessel's stern into the wind
part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.
1464. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy
seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by rigging a sea anchor
__________.
1465. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has not panic since the safety valves
inflated. You should __________. allow excess pressure to escape
1466. The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be
forwardmost on the port side
__________.
1467. The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found
on the port side
__________.
1468. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________. unbalanced rudders
longer than the others and should
1469. The steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.
be lashed to the stern
1470. The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on a so that it will float free if the vessel
cargo vessel must be stowed __________. sinks
1471. Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after passengers are strapped to their
capsizing IF the __________. seats
1472. The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio
monthly
beacon (EPIRB) must be tested __________.
1473. The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position
tested monthly
Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.
1474. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a slacking the tripping line and towing
heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________. the sea anchor by the holding line
1475. The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the about which the vessel lists and
waterplane __________. trims
1476. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids in and out of a vessel that is holed
flowing __________. in a wing tank
1477. The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to
aid in its recovery
__________.
1478. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
1479. Which of the following is considered primary life-saving
Lifeboat
equipment?
1480. The purpose of storm oil is to: Smooth the sea
1481. An orage colored smoke signal or detonating luminous We see you, we will provide help as
signals fired at interval of one minute means: soon as possible
Must be submerged to a certain
1482. A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft:
depth to release automatically
1483. Which of following items shall be included in an abandon Checking that lifejackets are
ship drill? correctly donned.
1484. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to
Closing of watertight doors, fire
members of the crew. Which of the following duties shall
doors, valves, scuppers, side
be included in the "muster list" according to present
scuttles, skylights.
regulations?
1485. Which one of the given requirements regarding survival Muster and embarkation stations
craft muster and embarkation arrangements shall be readily accessible from
corresponds to the present SOLAS regulations? accommodation and work areas.

61 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

Organize a watch system, post as a
1486. You have abandoned ship in a life raft. Which of the lookout, tie up with other survival
following actions should you take? craft if possible, and stream the sea
anchor
1487. One can check the functioning of the SART activating the SART and checking
by__________ the effect on the radar screen
1488. How often must inspection of proper working of the
EPIRB s and SART s take place on board? Once week
per__________
1489. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a raft,
Use visual distress signals in
you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently
conjunction with the EPIRB
carrying out a search pattern. You should:
1490. After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea
Stay in the general location
anchor from a liferaft to __________.
1491. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you
remain in the immediate vicinity
should __________.
standing on the CO2 bottle, holding
1492. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right
the bottom straps, and throwing
it by __________.
your weight backwards
1493. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft.
How much water per day should you permit each 1 pint
occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
1494. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which
procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period All of the above
in a raft?
1495. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is drag the raft ashore and lash it
__________. down for a shelter
1496. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, hypothermia caused by cold
the greatest danger is __________. temperature
1497. While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather deflating the floor panels may help
__________. to cool personnel
1498. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you
righting strap
should pull on the __________.
1499. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding
boat the sea anchor
to its sea anchor. You should FIRST __________.
1500. A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with
pendants
__________.
Life preservers are designed to turn
1501. Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers
an unconscious person's face clear
(Type I personal flotation devices)?
of the water.
1502. Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy? Freeboard
Securely attached around the
1503. How are lifelines attached to a life float? outside in bights no longer than
three feet
1504. On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat
(without desalting kits) is certified to carry, the boat must 3 liters of water
be supplied with __________.
standing on the CO2 bottle, holding
1505. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right
the bottom straps, and throwing
it by
your weight backwards
1506. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable
pull the hook release handle and
above the water, you must pull the safety pin and
use the ratchet bar
__________.
should be righted by standing on
1507. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding
__________. the righting straps, and leaning
backwards
1508. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has tie the rafts together and try to stay
sunk, you should __________. in a single group
remain together in the area
1509. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while
because rescuers will start
far out at sea, it is important that the crew members
searching at the vessel's last known
should __________.
position

62 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1510. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward
put the vessel's stern into the wind
part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.
1511. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After
not become alarmed unless it
the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise
continues for a long period of time
coming from a safety valve. You should __________.
1512. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy
seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by rigging a sea anchor
__________.
1513. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has not panic since the safety valves
inflated. You should __________. allow excess pressure to escape
1514. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. An air tank will provide about ten
Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in minutes of air for the survivors and
flames? the engine.
1515. The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be
forwardmost on the port side
__________.
1516. The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found
on the port side
__________.
1517. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________. unbalanced rudders
longer than the others and should
1518. The steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.
be lashed to the stern
1519. The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on a so that it will float free if the vessel
cargo vessel must be stowed __________. sinks
1520. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered
a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How One
many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
1521. Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after passengers are strapped to their
capsizing IF the __________. seats
1522. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship
Category 1
carry?
1523. The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio
monthly
beacon (EPIRB) must be tested __________.
1524. The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position
tested monthly
Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.
1525. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a slacking the tripping line and towing
heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________. the sea anchor by the holding line
1526. The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the about which the vessel lists and
waterplane __________. trims
1527. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids in and out of a vessel that is holed
flowing __________. in a wing tank
1528. The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to
aid in its recovery
__________.
1529. Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away
Sea painter
from a moving ship?
1530. Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered Cold-spark voltage readings test
lifeboat, what need NOT be checked? lamp
1531. You are testing the external flotation bladder of an
Contact the manufacturer for repair
immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which
instructions.
action should be taken?
1532. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient
fuel to operate continuously at 5 knots for how many 24
hours?
1533. On uninspected vessels when may SOLAS approved
Under no circumstances
work vests may be substituted life jackets?
1534. Lifeboat winches on mobile offshore drilling units are
required to be inspected and an entry made in the Every 3 months
logbook. How often should this entry be made?
1535. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to accidental unhooking when the falls
prevent __________. become slack
1536. The lifesaving equipment on all vessels shall be
readily accessible
__________.

63 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1537. All vessels not limited to daylight service shall be fitted
with a water light to be attached
with a ring life buoy __________. (small passenger
during nighttime operation
vessel regulations)
1538. Each life float on an inspected vessel shall be fitted and
two paddles, a light, a lifeline, a
equipped with __________. (small passenger vessel
painter and pendants
regulations)
1539. Life floats must be equipped with __________. (small
paddles
passenger vessel regulations)
1540. Required lifesaving equipment on existing vessels may maintained in good and serviceable
be continued in use on the vessel if __________. condition
1541. A vessel operating outside of coastal waters must carry
an automatically activated Emergency Position has berthing and galley facilities
Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) if she __________.

COMPETENCE 16
A wound and the bone is
1542. A complicated fracture is one where there is.
protruding.
1543. An amputated finger is to be preserved in ice. Before Wrap the finger in padding and then
placing it in ice you should. plastic.
1544. You are in charge of a rescue team searching a gas
contaminated space. What would you do FIRST on Check the casualty's pulse
finding an unconscious casualty?
1545. Exposure to cold conditions may cause Hypothermia.
1546. Which of these statements is NOT correct with reference Oil and gasoline on the skin can
to skin care? cause skin cancer
1547. Where should the hands of the first aider be placed
Over the left nipple on the chest.
when doing heart compressions?
In advance - fall ; during the
1548. Which of these is the correct pressure sequence
passage - sudden rise ; in the rear -
associated with a weather " cold front "?
rise continues more slowly.
1549. What is the MOST irritating to the skin? Oleum
1550. Following a serious marine incident, who can administer any individual trained to conduct
use of the device that tests an individuals breath? such tests
1551. As a last resort, what can a tourniquet can be used for? stop uncontrolled bleeding
1552. What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts stop the bleeding, clean, medicate,
and open wounds? and cover the wound
1553. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, push the barb through, cut it off,
what procedure should you use to remove it? then remove the hook
1554. How does bleeding from a vein appear? dark red and has a steady flow
Muscle tenseness in almost the
1555. What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?
entire abdomen
1556. WHat is the most importanat consideration while
prevent patient from hurting himself
providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure?
1557. Why should a person being treated for shock should be
to preserve body heat
wrapped in warm coverings?
1558. When a person is in shock, how will their skin appear? cold and damp
1559. EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a
Head down and feet up
patient in shock should be placed in which position?
complete obstruction of respiratory
1560. What What can be caused by severe airway burns?
passages
1561. What precaution should be taken when treating burns Before washing, the lime should be
caused by contact with dry lime? brushed away gently.
1562. What is the most important concern in treating a person
preventing infection
with extensive burns?
1563. What should you do when treating a person for third- cover the burns with thick, sterile
degree burns? dressings

64 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1564. What would be the result of physical exertion on the part it will increase the rate of heat loss
of a person who has fallen into cold water? from the body
1565. What should you do for a crew member who has
immerse the feet in warm water
suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet?
1566. What is a sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial
blue color and lack of breathing
respiration?
1567. How can you recognize the necessity for administering
blue color and lack of breathing
artificial respiration?
1568. Where can a rescuer most easily check to determine
carotid artery in the neck
whether or not an adult victim has a pulse?
1569. When it is necessary to remove a victim from a life
avoid subjecting the victim to any
threatening situation, what must the person giving first
unnecessary disturbance
aid do?
not be moved but made
1570. How should a person suffering from possible broken
comfortable until medical
bones and internal injuries be treated?
assistance arrives
1571. What should you do if a crew member is unconscious lay the crew member down with the
and the face is flushed? head and shoulders slightly raised
hot and dry skin, high body
1572. What are the symptoms of heat stroke?
temperature
1573. When giving the first aid, you should understand how to
the limit of your capabilities
conduct primary and secondary surveys and know:
legs bent, back straight, using leg
1574. What is the correct lifting technique?
muscles to lift
1575. What can be determined about an injury from examining Whether or not the brain is
the condition of a victim's pupils? functioning properly
1576. In any major injury to a person, the first aid includes the
treatment of traumatic shock
treatment for the injury and what other treatment?
1577. An emergency life-saving procedure that consist of
recognizing and correcting failure of the respiratory or basic life support
cardiovascular systems is called:
1578. All fire-fighting, safety systems and life-saving
operational condition
appliances on board must always be maintained in:
1579. After removing a person suffering electrical shock from
administer artificial respiration to
the electrical source, you discover he has stopped
restore normal breathing
breathing. What should be your next immediate action?
1580. After checked for open airway, given the first two
inflations and checked the pulse to make sure that the
12 - 16 times per minute
heart is beating, what is the rate of inflation given until
natural breathing is restored?
1581. A rapid, emergency evaluation of the patient should be
made immediately at the scene of the injury to determine type and extent of trauma
the:
1582. A trained first-aider must begin heart compression at
once. Unless circulation is restored, the will be without 4-6 minutes
oxygen and the person will die within:
1583. If someone is suffering from hypoglycaemia, then their. Blood sugar is too low.
1584. A casualty has fallen from a height and appears to be
Check their breathing
unconscious. What would you do first?
1585. An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating
with a passenger ship that has a doctor and hospital on
board. You want to rendezvous in a certain position so MAB
the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which
code should your message contain?
1586. You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you
are requesting urgent medical advice. Your message MAA
should contain which code?
1587. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code
MPR
should your message contain?
1588. If an ill crew member is beginning to show signs of
MPF
improvement, what code should your message contain?

65 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1589. A crew member suddenly becomes blind in both eyes.
MNO
Which code should your message contain?
1590. While operating off the coast of Portugal, a seaman is
injured. What indicator should be used in a message XXX RADIOMEDICAL
requesting medical advice from a Portuguese station?
1591. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code
MPR
should your message contain?
1592. An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating
with a passenger ship that has a doctor and hospital on
board. You want to rendezvous in a certain position so MAB
the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which
code should your message contain?
1593. Unconscious casualties who are breathing and whose
The position ensures that an open
hearts are beating should be placed in the Recovery
airway is maintained.
Position. Why is this position so important?
1594. EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a
Head down and feet up
patient in shock should be placed in which position?
1595. What is the most important concern in treating a person
preventing infection
with extensive burns?
1596. What would be the result of physical exertion on the part it will increase the rate of heat loss
of a person who has fallen into cold water? from the body
when the rate of heat loss of the
1597. Which of the following describes the condition of
body exceeds the rate of heat
Hypothermia?
production
1598. What is a sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial
blue color and lack of breathing
respiration?
1599. Where can a rescuer most easily check to determine
carotid artery in the neck
whether or not an adult victim has a pulse?
1600. Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who
Give pain reliever.
has fainted?
1601. When it is necessary to remove a victim from a life
avoid subjecting the victim to any
threatening situation, what must the person giving first
unnecessary disturbance
aid do?
not be moved but made
1602. How should a person suffering from possible broken
comfortable until medical
bones and internal injuries be treated?
assistance arrives
1603. What should you do if a crew member is unconscious lay the crew member down with the
and the face is flushed? head and shoulders slightly raised
1604. What does the treatment(s) of heat exhaustion consist(s) moving to a shaded area and laying
of? down
1605. How should a patient suffering from heat exhaustion be moved to a cool room and told to
treated? lie down
1606. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
1607. On board an accident happened. Urgent radio-medical
Safety
advice is needed. We choose the category__________
1608. While operating off Panama, a seaman is injured. What
indicator should be included in the preamble of a
DH medico
telegram requesting a medical advice from a
Panamanian station?
1609. If one requires medical advice by means of an Inmarsat-
C terminal one should use the following Radiomedical
address__________
1610. There has been an accident on board. Urgent medical
safety signal
advice is needed. The call is preceded by__________
Call a hospital for professional
1611. What is the purpose of a Medico Message? medical assistance by radio when
needed.
1612. One of the sailors needs urgent medical assistance. The
MAYDAY (3x)
VHF-call starts with__________
1613. You receive a medical message that contains the code
Place patient in hot bath
MSJ. This means "_____."

66 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

an injury to a crewmember,
passenger, or other person which
1614. What is considered a Serious Marine Incident?
requires professional medical
treatment beyond first aid
Treat and reassure the casualty
1615. If a person is in a state of shock, what of the following is
and stay with the person at all
the correct thing of you to do?
times.
1616. Appendicitis symptoms include cramps or pain in the
lower right side
abdomen located in the ___________.
1617. When a person is suspected of having appendicitis, the Keeping an ice bag over the
pain should be relieved by: location of the appendix.
1618. Which of the following should NOT be a treatment for a
person who has received a head injury and is groggy or Give a stimulant.
unconscious?
1619. ____ is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person? Ammonia

1620. Narcotics is given to a patient when: In great pain

1621. Universal antidote is used to neutralize a sick person
Poison
with:
1622. Stimulant is given to a peson who is _______ . fainting

1623. Another name for pain reliever is _______ . analgesic

Massage the arms and legs to
1624. What is not a treatment for traumatic shock?
restore circulation.
not be moved but made
1625. A person suffering from possible broken bones and
comfortable until medical
internal injuries should __________.
assistance arrives
Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure
1626. You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of dressing to control bleeding, then
the lower arm. Which action should you take? apply a temporary splint, and obtain
medical advice.
1627. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is
extensive damage to the skin with charring present. How
Third-degree burn
is this injury classified using standard medical
terminology?
hot and dry skin, high body
1628. What are the symptoms of heat stroke?
temperature
1629. After removing a person suffering electrical shock from
administer artificial respiration to
the electrical source, you discover he has stopped
restore normal breathing
breathing. What should be your next immediate action?
1630. A trained first-aider must begin heart compression at
once. Unless circulation is restored, the will be without 4-6 minutes
oxygen and the person will die within:
1631. You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you
are requesting urgent medical advice. Your message MAA
should contain which code?
1632. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code
MPR
should your message contain?
1633. If an ill crew member is beginning to show signs of
MPF
improvement, what code should your message contain?
1634. A crew member suddenly becomes blind in both eyes.
MNO
Which code should your message contain?
1635. While operating off the coast of Portugal, a seaman is
injured. What indicator should be used in a message XXX RADIOMEDICAL
requesting medical advice from a Portuguese station?
1636. When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding? when all other means have failed
1637. In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding applying direct pressure to the
from a wound be controlled? wound
1638. How does blood flowing from a cut artery appear? bright red and in spurts

67 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1639. Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by applying direct pressure to the
what method? wound
1640. What is the preferred method of controlling external
direct pressure on the wound
bleeding?
1641. A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injury.
slurred speech and loss of
What symptoms would indicate the onset of a diabetic
coordination
coma?
1642. How is epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder muscular convulsions with partial or
characterized? complete loss of consciousness
1643. When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, the
suspension of breathing
MOST important symptom to check for is __________.
1644. In any major injury, first aid includes the treatment for
for traumatic shock
the injury and what secondary condition?
1645. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which
Arms above their head
position?
pain at the site of the fracture and
1646. What are the symptoms of a fractured back? possible numbness or paralysis
below the injury

COMPETENCE 17
1647. Where is the maintenance record of cargo securing
With the cargo securing manual
devices kept
1648. Which of the following is not required in the cargo
Free surface effects of slack tanks
securing manual
1649. The ILO/WHO guidelines for conducting pre-sea and
History of the seafarers medical
periodic medical fitness examination for seafarers
past
include the following except:
1650. According to the IMO Code, what are the minimum
number of securing points that should be on each side of
Two
a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between
3.5 tons and 20 tons, when carried on Ro-Ro vessels?
1651. Regulations require that cargo pumprooms handling
grades D and/or E liquid cargo only shall be fitted with at 2
LEAST how many ducts extended to the weather deck?
1652. Which spaces, in regard to fire protection, shall be
separated from the rest of the ship by thermal and Accommodation
structural boundaries? (SOLAS II-2/2.2.2)
1653. What is the chapter of the STCW convention that
II
concerns the master and deck department ?
1654. Training and Assessment are contained in which
Regulation I/6
regulation of the STCW Convention?
1655. What was the first ILO Resolution to Internationally
ILO No. 108
Standardized the Seafarers Identity Document?
1656. What ILO Convention/ Recommendation specified the
manner in which articles of agreement are to be signed Seamen's Articles of Agreement
and terminated, and the particulars to be included in Convention, 1926
these documents?
1657. Which IMO Convention greatly affects the operation of
MARPOL 73/78
ships?
1658. As per the ISM Code, in matters of safety and pollution
prevention, whose commitment, competence, attitudes Individuals at all levels
and motivation determines the end result.
1659. A fire has damaged 20 bales of cotton on a freighter
loaded with general cargo. This claim would come particular average
under:
sufficiently manned with officers
1660. Your vessel is transiting panama canal. Which manning
and crew to permit safe handling of
level is applicable?
the vessel
1661. Who is responsible for the development of the Security
The Company Security Officer
Plan?
1662. Which of the following is a mandatory section of the
Reporting requirements
shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?

68 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1663. When must the Master of a vessel log the position of
load line marks in relation to the surface of the water in Prior to getting underway
the Official Logbook?
1664. How often should emergency steering drills be carried
At least every 3 months
out?
1665. How long must Garbage log records be kept? 1 year
1666. Where would you find the relevant information about
The ships Cargo Securing Manual
cargo stowage and securing for your ship?
1667. An important publication required to be approved by the
The Procedures and Arrangements
Flag State and carried on board every chemical tanker is
Manual
called?....
1668. Which of the Manuals listed is the Flag State required to
The operations manual
approve?
The EMS sections of the
1669. The procedures for dealing with containerized cargoes
International Maritime Dangerous
classified as Dangerous Goods can be found in:
Goods (IMDG) Code supplement.
1670. Which regulation requires that containers be loaded,
stowed and secured throughout a voyage in accordance
SOLAS
with the stowage and Securing arrangements set out in
a vessel's Cargo Securing Manual?
1671. Which Authority issues the ISM 'document of
IMO
compliance'?
Tankers over 150 grt and vessels
1672. Which ships require an International Oil Pollution
over 400 grt on international
Prevention Certificate (IOPPC)?
voyages
Noxious Liquid Substance (NLS)
1673. Which of these certificates is not required by MARPOL?
Certificate
1674. If, following an accident, you need to request medical
help, who, apart from your head office, needs to be The ILO
notified?
1675. The IMO performance standards stipulate that historical
10 equally time-spaced positions
information should be available in the form of symbols
over the past 20 minutes.
that show at least:
1676. Where will you find information on maximum stack
In the vessels P & A Manual
height
1677. The Cargo Securing Manual needs approval by which
Flag State
administration?
1678. Why is documenting a container cargo's correct gross
It could mean that a bigger
weight important regarding the container stack in which
container should have been chosen
it will be placed?
1679. Which number should not be shown on a dangerous
Total weight of consignment
goods shipping document?
1680. Where would you find information on container securing In the vessels cargo securing
devices manual
1681. What is the standard ISO container racking limit 15 tonnes
1682. The hours of work regulations apply to which members
All members of the crew
of the crew?
1683. Part four of the Ballast Water Reporting form is a
The water temperature at the time
detailed history of the ballast water. Which of the items
of the uptake
of information listed would not be required?
1684. You are the Chief Mate of a 30,000-DWT tankship. The The IOPP Certificate for an
vessel is engaged in trade with another country inspected vessel is valid for 5
signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE? years.
1685. An IOPP Certificate on an inspected vessel is valid for
5 years
what period of time?
1686. After an IOPP Certificate is issued to an inspected
vessel, how many other surveys of the vessel's pollution
Three
prevention equipment are conducted during the period of
validity of the certificate?
1687. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term
a mixture with any oil content
"Oily Mixture"?

69 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1688. Under OPA 90, a Level A of Oil Spill Removal
the lowest recovery capability
Organization (OSRO) has:
1689. Annex IV of Marpol, deals with sewage. How does it All vessels must have a sewage
affect shipboard operations concerning processing and system which is approved by the
treatment of sewage? Flag Administration.
1690. You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to
The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5
another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which
years.
statement is TRUE?
A checklist of the equipment
1691. The supplement to the IOPP Certificate contains what
installed for controlling the
type of data?
discharge of oil.
1692. A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is
Food waste, not comminuted or
located 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which
ground
type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?
1693. Compliance with The International grain code is a
requirement of which International Maritime Organisation Safety of life at sea (SOLAS)
(IMO) convention
A 500 GT dry cargo river barge
1694. Which vessel is exempt from the load line and marking
operated continuously between
requirements for vessels operating on the Great Lakes
Calumet Hbr Chicago, IL and Burns
System?
Hbr, IN
1695. By regulation, your cargo vessel must have sufficient facilities for the crew to
__________. wash their clothes
1696. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a
vessel will be liable for damage to a cargo when the unseaworthiness when sailing
damage arises from __________.
1697. Prior to being able to sail, each vessel that carries grain
in bulk must have a certificate of loading issued by the National Cargo Bureau
__________.
1698. Which is NOT required on a tankship carrying hazardous Certificate of Adequacy for the
liquid cargoes in bulk? hazardous cargoes carried
1699. Which statement is TRUE concerning vessels over 1600
They must carry a deep-sea hand
gross tons certificated for service solely on the Great
lead.
Lakes?
1700. On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage,
how many international shore connection flange(s) must 1
be provided?
Class 1.4 explosives may not be
1701. Which statement is NOT true concerning the stowage of
stowed in the same hold with class
class 1 explosives?
6.1 poisons.
1702. Grade E liquids are those having a flash point of
150F and above
__________.
1703. When stowing hazardous materials on deck, lashing of the lashings are secured to deck
such cargo is permitted if __________. pad eyes
1704. You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel.
Master or his authorized
The Dangerous Cargo Manifest must be signed by the
representative
__________.
1705. Your tankship is carrying a cargo of styrene. Which of
P/V valves with galvanized parts
the following is NOT a requirement for carriage of this
must be replaced.
cargo?
1706. Your U.S. tankship is designed to carry anhydrous
Aluminum and copper alloys are
ammonia in bulk. The keel was laid in 1980. Which
prohibited from being in valve parts
statement concerning the carriage of this cargo is
in contact with the cargo.
TRUE?
1707. You are on a tankship designed to carry molten sulfur. Cargo temperature may be taken
Which statement is TRUE? by portable thermometers.
1708. What type of gauging is required for a cargo of formic
Restricted
acid?
1709. Your tank vessel is loading a hazardous cargo. The
allowance for expansion is based on ambient -18C to 46C
temperatures of what maximum range?
1710. No hot work shall be performed on board a vessel with
local U.S. Coast Guard Captain of
hazardous materials as cargo unless the work is
the Port
approved by the __________.

70 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1711. In handling break bulk hazardous materials, it is
metal bale hooks
forbidden to use __________.
1712. What is NOT a requirement for the preparation of used,
The fuel tank must be inerted with
gasoline-propelled cars if they are to be carried as
CO2.
ordinary cargo and not as hazardous cargo?
1713. According to the IMO Code, what are the minimum
number of securing points that should be on each side of
Three
a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between
20 tons and 30 tons, when carried on Ro-Ro vessels?
1714. Which commodity would be regulated by subchapter D,
Asphalt
Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels?
1715. What best describes for how long a gas-free test is
For the instant that it is made
good?
1716. You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of
1% to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions say that no
one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15%
15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable
percentage of vapors for men to enter?
1717. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
1718. According to SOLAS requirement for lifeboat fall, what
action must be taken with the fall at interval of not more Renewed
than 5 years?
1719. Due to the nature of a vessel's construction for a
particular trade, it does not fully comply with the On the Exemption Certificate
provisions of SOLAS. Where will this be indicated?
1720. In accordance with SOLAS convention, how long shall
the auxilliary steering gear be capable of turning 15 not more than 60 seconds
degrees on one side to 15 degrees on the other side?
9/11 bombing of World Trade
1721. ISPS Code was formulated as a result of what incident
Center
1722. Sludge are to be disposed off at sea disposal prohibited

1723. Oily mixtures according to Marpol means: a mixture with any oil content
1724. When oil is discharged overboard, an entry is required in
Oil Record Book
the __________.
1725. When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry
Oil Record Book
must be made in the __________.
1726. The Oil Record Book on a vessel NOT engaged on a
foreign voyage shall be maintained on board for not less 36 months
than __________.
1727. _________ must counter sign any completed pages of
Master
the Oil Record Book.
1728. Oil discharge in large quantities form ______ which will
affect birds at sea and may strand on beaches if these
slicks
do not disperse into the water as water droplets before
reaching shore:
1729. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on
1
a cargo vessel of 900 GT?
1730. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on
2
a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT?
1731. Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to
A non self-propelled vessel in tow
have an EPIRB.
1732. For carbon dioxide fire-fighting systems for machinery
85% of the gas can be discharged
spaces the fixed piping system shall be such that:
into the space within two minutes
(SOLAS II-2/5.2.4)
1733. Lifeboats for ocean-going vessels shall carry in excess
50% of persons on board
of the required regulation by:
Each lifeboat shall be launched with
its assigned crew, and maneuvered
1734. Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon
in the water at least once every
ship drills corresponds to present SOLAS regulation?
three months during an abandon
ship drill.
71 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1735. As per SOLAS Regulation, the minimum Fuel supply for
4 hours
fast Rescue Boat shall last for__.
1736. SOLAS stipulates that if more than 25% of crew have
not participated in abandonship and fire drills in the within 24 hours after ship leaves
previous month, the drills of the crew shall take port
place__________.
1737. As per SOLAS Regulation, the capacity rate of ships
25 cu.m./hour
emergency fire pumps shall be ____.
1738. In case each hydrant is not fitted with hose and nozzles, Complete interchangeability of hose
what is the requirement? (SOLAS II-2/4.6.1) couplings and nozzles
1739. SOLAS stipulates that ships of 500 GRT or more shall
have at least one international shore connection with an 178 mm
outside diameter of____
1740. Under SOLAS passenger ships and ships other than
passenger ships of ______ and upwards constructed on
3,000 GRT
or after 2002 must carry Voyage Data Recorders (VDR)
to assist in accident investigation.
1741. The ISM Code requires ship owners or shipping
Safety Committee
companies to assign a ______ onboard their ship:
Development, implementation and
1742. CSO is responsible for :
maintenance of SSP
1743. The ISPS Code was Adopted by Contracting
Government with Part A & B. The mandatory
Chapter XI-2
requirements & guidance is under the provisions of
_______ of the SOLAS as amended.
1744. The ISPS Code applies to: I. Passenger ships II. Mobile
Both I and II
offshore drilling units (MODU)
1745. One of the many objectives of the ________ is to ensure
the early and efficient collection and exchange of ISPS Code
security-related information.
1746. Who is given the authority to carry out assessment for a
certification as required by Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS as Recognize Security Organization
amended of the ISPS Code?
1747. At what security level is further specific protective
security measures to be maintained for a limited period
of time when a security incident is probable or imminent, Security level 3
although it may not be possible to identify the specific
target?
1748. Under the New Regulations, what does SOLAS Chapter Special measures to enhance
XI-1 deals with? Maritime Safety
1749. A CSO is designated by the__________. Company operating the ship
1750. MEPC as referred to in the MARPOL Convention stands Marine Environment Protection
for: Committee
Regulations for the Control of
1751. ____ is contained in Annex II of MARPOL 73/78? Pollution by Noxious Liquid
Substances
1752. Where in accommodation spaces shall smoke detectors In stairways, corridors and escape
be located? (SOLAS II-2/13.2.2) routes
1753. Annex V of MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements
pertaining to the discharge into the marine environment Garbage
of:
1754. Regulation concerning the stowage, lashing and
securing of timber deck cargoes aboard general cargo Load Lines Regulations
vessels may be found in the:
1755. Part C, Chapter VI of SOLAS deals with: carriage of grain
1756. The ILO/WHO guidelines for conducting pre-sea and
History of the seafarers medical
periodic medical fitness examination for seafarers
past
include the following except:
1757. What is the chapter of the STCW convention that
II
concerns the master and deck department ?
1758. Which IMO Convention greatly affects the operation of
MARPOL 73/78
ships?
72 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1759. A fire has damaged 20 bales of cotton on a freighter
loaded with general cargo. This claim would come particular average
under:
1760. When must the Master of a vessel log the position of
load line marks in relation to the surface of the water in Prior to getting underway
the Official Logbook?
A checklist of the equipment
1761. The supplement to the IOPP Certificate contains what
installed for controlling the
type of data?
discharge of oil.
1762. A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is
Food waste, not comminuted or
located 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which
ground
type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?
1763. You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of
1% to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions say that no
one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 0.15
15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable
percentage of vapors for men to

COMPETENCE 18
1764. You are signing on a crew. You can determine the
minimum number and qualifications of the crew that you Certificate of Inspection
are required to carry by consulting which document?
The total distance from the port of
1765. Which statement, concerning offshore supply vessel
departure to the port of arrival, not
operations, correctly defines the length of a voyage?
including stops at offshore points
1766. With regard to accommodation spaces on board mobile
The date of each inspection of each
offshore drilling units, what must the Master or person in
space
charge log?
1767. After reporting a casualty to a mobile offshore drilling
Record of drafts
unit, which record must be retained on board?
1768. You are using an automatic tension winch by yourself. If
you may be pulled into the winch
you get caught in the turns of the line as they lead into
and injured or killed
the gypsyhead:
1769. When a deck officer of the other vessel involved have
decided which will be the last lines to be let go whilst
By turning up the rope on the bitts
unmooring, these lines should be made fast as follows
on the ship accepting the lines.
1770. In Ship-To-Ship operations, when the deck officer of
other vessels involved have decided which will be the
By turning up the rope on the bitts
last lines to let go whilst unmooring, these lines should
be made fast as follows on the ship accepting the lines.
1771. You should keep clear of. any line under a strain
1772. Which of the following is NOT to be considered as one Having a one sided attitude towards
of the principles in controlling subordinates and spokesmen or representatives of
maintaining good relationships? trade unions.
1773. Is a type of human error when an operator is distracted
or preoccupied with another task and allows a mistake to skills-based
occur.
1774. Is a type of human error when an operator applied an
rule-based
incorrect rule and allows a mistake to occur.
1775. If you are the curriculum developer and director of the
establish behavioral or learning
training program, which of the following general jobs
objective for programs
should comes FIRST?
1776. Human resource management does NOT deal with. production

1777. Efficiency is the ability to. get things done right

1778. Factors that contribute to the occurrence of mistakes
group factor
due to relationships among individuals.
1779. Human characteristics and behaviors are ____________
with the functioning of technology people design, build, intrinsically linked
maintain and operate.
1780. Human performance breakdowns resulting to accident
poor conscious choice or decisions
are more likely a result of:
73 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1781. The crowd manager is most effective if he or she is in a
Location
right ________ to deal with the passengers.
1782. An operator's attention may not stray far from the
problem but problem-solving failures may occur due to knowledge-based
lack of familiarity with the problem.
1783. Career management is ultimately the responsibility of
individual
the.
1784. Chance of something adverse happening to the
environment combination of frequency (or probability) Environmental Risk
and the consequence of hazard occurring.
1785. The criteria involved with the principle of respect for
taking them seriously
persons includes which of the following?
1786. On board training requires different types of
demonstrating competence in the
assessment. Which of the following gives the best form
workplace
of assessment of training?
1787. Successful response by the ship's complement to an
emergency situation is entirely dependent on the level of training
______________ of officers and crew.
1788. Term used to describe accident casualty when cause is
attributed to the behavior of an individual or human factor
organization.
1789. It is a system which involve planning, organizing and
controlling the efforts of a group towards achieving a personnel management
goal.
1790. On board a vessel, he is an officer who give
responsibilities to his followers gradually so that in the
By example
future, they can stand on their own. Which leadership
style is he practicing?
1791. It is a behavior of a leader that deals with long range
conceptual
plan, broad relationship and ideas.
1792. In the Filipino Hierarchy of Need, when a Filipino gives
weight to what other people would say about him or his Social acceptance
behavior, this means.
1793. It is a method whereby managers and employees define
goals for every department, project and person and use management by objective
them to monitor performance.
1794. Human relations is very important in an employer-
managers interacting with
employee relationship. It often deals with consideration
employees
of the.
1795. If a person says that all government employees are
Attitude
corrupt, what is he trying to show?
1796. In order to manage and implement the International
Management System, which of the following is NOT an Dependent
outstanding trait of a senior officer?
1797. For the organization to operate efficiently, responsibility
for specific tasks should be given to the ________ of the
staff
organization having ability and information to carry them
out.
1798. How do we manage risks, currently and predominantly Through the documented Safety
on board ships? Management System
1799. Amount the listed, which is one of the quality Systematic approach to
management principles? management
1800. A role behavior of a leader which refers to a persons
knowledge of proficiency in any type of process of technical skill
technique is called.
1801. Among the following, who shall provide evidence of its
commitment to the development and implementation of Top management
the QMS and continually improving its effectiveness?
1802. The effective management of personnel on board the
Involves team building
ship is called.
1803. On a coastwise tugboat of 199 GT, on a voyage over
600 miles, what percentage of the deck crew (excluding 65%
officers) must hold a document of able seaman?
1804. Who may perform as a lookout? A member of the navigational watch

74 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1805. A seaman may have all or part of his wages deposited
by allotment to a bank or savings institution. Which of The account must be either a
the following is NOT a requirement for this type of checking or savings account.
allotment?
1806. If you are guilty of failure to properly perform your duties
A fine placed against your Merchant
as Master of Uninspected Towing Vessels, which of the
Mariner Credential
following actions may NOT be taken?
1807. Your vessel (185 GT) is on a voyage between New York An Official Logbook must be
and San Francisco. Which statement is TRUE? maintained.
1808. Which action will take place if a crew member is The name of the new man is added
replaced in a U.S. port after foreign articles have been to the articles but not to the
signed, and the ship proceeds foreign? Certified Crew List.
1809. You are signing on a crew. A man presents a Merchant Refuse to sign the man on articles
Mariner's Document that you suspect has been until authorized by the Coast
tampered with. Which action should you take? Guard.
Is an exact copy of shipping
1810. Which statement about the forecastle card is TRUE?
articles.
advises the crew of the conditions
1811. Which statement is true regarding the forecastle card?
of employment
1812. For towing vessels over 100 gross tons that are
permitted to maintain a two-watch system, what 50%
percentage of the deck crew must be able seamen?
1813. Deckhands onboard towing vessels shall be divided into
600 miles
3 watches when on a trip exceeding __________.
1814. With regard to the opening and closing of watertight
integrity appliances not fitted with a remote operating The reason for opening or closing
control or alarm system, what must the Master or person each appliance
in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook?
1815. On offshore drilling units, notification shall be given to
the Coast Guard of a casualty if a person is injured and any amount of time
unable to perform routine duties for __________.
1816. Who is responsible for reporting a casualty to a mobile
The owner
offshore drilling unit?
1817. Who shall insure that all records required by regulations
are retained on board a mobile offshore drilling unit Owner
involved in a casualty?
1818. Under the regulations for mobile offshore drilling units,
Accidental grounding
you must submit a casualty report for which occurrence?
1819. Normally Your vessel is on a voyage of three months
duration. The number of sanitary inspections required is one
__________.
1820. Which category of able seaman is not authorized to be
counted as an able seaman on a seagoing tug of over Special (OSV)
100 gross tons?
1821. To determine the number of able seamen required on an
Certificate of Inspection
inspected vessel, you should check the __________.
1822. Who is responsible for establishing watches aboard a
The Master of the vessel
U.S. vessel?
1823. The Master of any vessel bound on a voyage must apply
the First and Second Officers of the
to a district court when an allegation of unseaworthiness
vessel or a majority of the crew
has been made to the Master by __________.
1824. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
1825. Recruitment, training and development of organization
human resource management
members is ________
factor that cause, channel and
1826. Which of the following would fit MOST on motivation?
sustain people's behavior
1827. This is the most effective management development
Coaching
technique.
1828. The routes, zones or areas of operations of domestic
ship operators are prescribed by which government MARINA
agency?
1829. MARINA was created and geared towards the following To create sub-agencies for the safe
objectives EXCEPT: transport of goods and passengers
75 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1830. Watchkeepers should have a mandatory rest periods of
70 hours
_______ in any one week.
1831. Managerial performance is based upon accomplishment
objectives
of _____________.
1832. In bridge resource management, which of the following
statements are example of "hazardous thoughts" I.) I
can do it II.) It won't happen to me III.) Why takes I, II, III, IV, V
chances IV.) it's not my job V.) Don't tell me what to do
VI.) We're all in the same ship
1833. Welding and burning are among the factors which give
The welder shall have been
the highest risk of fire on board ships. Precaution has to
instructed in the use of the ship's
be taken to avoid this risk. Which of the following safety
welding plant.
rules may be regarded as the most important?
1834. When a deck officer of the other vessel involved have
decided which will be the last lines to be let go whilst
By turning up the rope on the bitts
unmooring, these lines should be made fast as follows
on the ship accepting the lines.
1835. The crowd manager is most effective if he or she is in a
Location
right ________ to deal with the passengers.
1836. If you are guilty of failure to properly perform your duties
A fine placed against your Merchant
as Master of Uninspected Towing Vessels, which of the
Mariner Credential
following actions may NOT be taken?
1837. Normally Your vessel is on a voyage of three months
duration. The number of sanitary inspections required is one
__________.
1838. A vessel is found to be seaworthy after a complaint in
writing to the American Consul by the Chief and Second
Chief and Second Mates
Mates. The cost of the survey is to be paid by the
__________.
1839. Which U.S. Government agency can suspend or revoke
a Merchant Mariner Credential for violating the load line U.S. Coast Guard
act?
Opening a sideport at sea to renew
1840. What is required to be entered into the Official Logbook?
a gasket
1841. Which item must be entered in the official log? Drafts upon leaving port
1842. The master or individual in charge of a vessel prepares
a certificate of discharge for each mariner being
Mariner
discharged from the vessel where the original discharge
goes to the _________.
A man presenting his Chief Mate
1843. You are signing on your crew. Which is NOT
endorsement to sign on as able
authorized?
seaman
1844. Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of
the crew members has been incarcerated for
drunkenness. The Official Logbook shows that the Pay the seaman's fine.
seaman doesn't have funds to cover the costs of the
fine. Which action should the Master take?
1845. When paying off seamen in a foreign port, where a
United States consul is not available, the release must Master of the vessel
be executed by the seamen and the __________.
1846. When may a seaman on a vessel engaged in foreign The seaman may only draw an
trade be paid before earning the wages? advance on earned wages.
The record of entry in the
1847. A seaman you have just discharged has a Continuous continuous discharge book shall
Discharge Book. Which statement is TRUE? agree with the entry made in the
Ship's Articles.
1848. Total responsibility for shipping and discharging the
Master of the vessel
seamen is that of the __________.
1849. On which vessels may credentialed individuals be
required to stand watch under the two-watch system, on Uninspected towing vessels
voyages of more than 600 miles in length?
1850. Which statement concerning a 298 GRT inspected tug Each crew member must be issued
engaged in towing from Seattle, WA, to Alaska is a certificate of discharge at the time
TRUE? of discharge.
76 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
direct performance of deck or
1851. In terms of vessel manning, a watch is the __________. engine operations in a scheduled
and fixed rotation
1852. Considering the manning requirements for U.S. vessels,
your three watch cargo vessel has a deck crew of 20
people, exclusive of the officers. How many of these 13
people do the manning regulations require to be Able
Seamen?
1853. While the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, the out-of-
Confirm operation of out-of-level
level alarm indicates that hull inclination exceeds 0.3.
alarm.
What should you do?

COMPETENCE 18
1854. Which of the following will prevent a flammable
atmosphere from occurring in a cargo tank on a tank inert gas
vessel?
1855. Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system? Low oxygen alarm
1856. You are planning to use the crude oil washing system on The source tank for the tank
your tankship. What is required to prevent electrostatic cleaning machines must have least
buildup in the tanks? one meter decanted from it.
1857. What does the sign used to caution persons
"Warning, No Smoking, No Open
approaching the gangway of a tank barge during cargo
Lights, No Visitors"
transfer read?
1858. Which statement about the use of portable electric lights They must be explosion-proof, self-
in petroleum product tanks is TRUE? contained, battery-fed lamps.
1859. If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set
Replace the batteries.
to zero, what should be done?
1860. Normally Which chemical is used to treat water in order
Chlorine
to ensure its safety for drinking?
1861. Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be
safe for hot work
certified or declared as which of the following?
1862. Which step is NOT generally taken when gas-freeing a
Application of degreasing solvents
tank?
1863. What is NOT a requirement for storage batteries on tank They may be located in cargo
barges? handling rooms
A fitted stainless steel screen of 30
1864. What is acceptable flame screening?
x 30 mesh
close valves by closing them down,
1865. When loading a tanker, you should perform which of the
reopening one or two turns, and re-
following functions to ensure a safe operation?
closing
1866. When is it acceptable to use power-driven or manually-
operated spark producing devices in the pump room, when the compartment itself is gas
where grades A, B, C, and D liquid cargoes are free
involved?
1867. Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what
21%
percent of oxygen?
1868. For safety and better rope control, when fastening
two round turns fast on the leading
synthetic fiber ropes such as polypropylene on bitts, it is
bitt and then figure of eight on bitts
recommended to make:
take a round turn on the bitt closest
1869. The best method to secure a towline to bitts is to.
to the pull and use figure-eights
1870. You are planning to use the crude oil washing system on The source tank for the tank
your tankship. What is required to prevent electrostatic cleaning machines must have least
buildup in the tanks? one meter decanted from it.
1871. Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a An explosion-proof, self-contained,
compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free? battery-fed lamp
Make sure the raked ends of the
1872. Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during
barge are completely dry and
the loading of LFG?
mopped.
1873. According to SOLAS regulations, which of the following
the regulation requires that the
is a requirement of the ventilation system of a pump
ventilation be non-spark producing
room on a tanker?

77 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

dilute tank atmospheres to keep
1874. What is the inert gas system on a tanker used for? gas concentrations below the lower
explosive limit
an electrical circuit in which a spark
1875. Which of the following describes intrinsically safe
is incapable of causing the ignition
equipment?
of a given explosive mixture
by reducing the oxygen
1876. How is an inert gas system designed to reduce the
concentration below levels
possibility of tank explosions?
necessary for combustion
1877. Which of the following actions is not considered to have
discharging a fire hose on deck
the potential for generating static electricity?
1878. The condition of asphyxia arises from which of the
an inadequate supply of oxygen
following?
1879. What are flame screens used for? prevent flames from entering tanks
The equipment shall be secured to
the hose by a quick-disconnect
1880. Which statement about pneumatic chipping tools is
coupling to prevent the tool from
TRUE?
becoming accidentally
disconnected.
1881. Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard It must be located at the bilge and
entitled "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"? ballast pump control station.
1882. If H2S exposure is anticipated, fixed monitoring devices
aboard a MODU should have a low level concentration
10 PPM
alarm to alert personnel. at what consentration level will
the alarm activate?
1883. Which of the following conditions would be the worst for nearly calm, clear nights or early
the dispersion of H2S? morning
1884. What is the effect of high concentrations of H2S gas on
paralyze your breathing system
personnel?
1885. What is the best instrument for establishing a safe A combination combustible gas
working area before welding in a confined space? and oxygen indicator
1886. During transfer operations, a quantity of propylamine add sodium bisulfate on the
spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, contaminated surface and spray it
what is the correct reaction? down with water
1887. What is a major health hazard of the product tert- causes irreversible damage to eye
butylamine? tissue
1888. What is the primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas
flammability
and liquefied natural gas?
Inert gas dilutes the flammable
1889. How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to vapor and air concentrations to
prevent explosions in cargo tanks? keep them below the lower
explosive limit.
1890. You receive a medical message that contains the code
Place patient in hot bath
MSJ. What is the meaning of the message?
1891. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code
MPR
should your message contain?
1892. Uninspected vessels must have one approved ring life
26 feet
buoy on board if the length is over how many feet?
After ventilation and testing, and the
1893. Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank tank is found safe for entry,
that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE? someone should stand by at the
tank entrance while you are inside.
1894. Which of the following describes the requirement for
ventilation spaces of a gas safe space within the cargo they must be positive pressure
area?
1895. You are planning to use a crude oil washing system.
At least one meter must be
What precaution must be taken with the source tank for
decanted from the source tank.
the washing machines?
1896. Most liquified gas cargoes are flammable, and are
burn, if it's within its flammable
carried at or close to their boiling point. What will happen
range and has an ignition source
if they are released into the atmosphere?
1897. What is NOT a responsibility of the tankerman in charge Insuring that a combustible gas
of loading an unmanned tank barge? indicator is aboard
78 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1898. Your tow includes a barge carrying chlorine. Which A cargo information card for
special requirements must be observed? chlorine must be in the pilothouse.
1899. You have water washed your cargo tanks using the fixed
machines. What should you do before using portable Ventilate the tank to eliminate any
machines to clean areas screened from the wash of the electrostatically charged mist.
fixed machine by structural members?
1900. Which topic is NOT required to be discussed at the pre-
Estimated time of finishing cargo
transfer conference?
1901. How should cargo tank hatches be protected when the
With flame screens
ullage opening is open and the tank NOT gas free?
1902. You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just
The Captain of the Port may give
completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must
specific approval to make hot work
complete topside repairs involving hot work before
repairs.
sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A tank that has been used to carry
1903. Which statement about entry into a space that has been hazardous liquids should be tested
sealed for a long time is TRUE? for oxygen content, toxicity, and
explosive gases.
1904. The sign used to caution persons approaching the
"Warning, No Smoking, No Open
gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer should
Lights, No Visitors"
state which of the following?
1905. The flame screens installed on tank vents that may
dissipating the heat of an external
contain combustible gases, are designed to prevent
flame
explosions by which of the following?
1906. What is the primary function of a flame screen on a tank permits the passage of vapor but
vessel? not of flame
1907. Which of the following is the primary function of the flames on deck from entering the
screens that are fitted to the Fuel oil tank vents? tank vent
1908. What is the minimum temperature required to ignite gas
autoignition temperature
or vapor without a spark or flame being present called?
1909. What would likely happen if you were exposed to a
suffocate
100% methane atmosphere for more than 15 minutes?
1910. Which of these approved lifesaving devices must a small
passenger vessel carrying passengers for hire carry for
Life jacket
each person on board? (small passenger vessel
regulations)
1911. Which of the following items should all MODU personnel
boarding and operating procedures
be familiar with?
1912. What is the maximum concentration of H2S to which
workers may be regularly exposed without adverse 20 ppm
effects?
1913. Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for
Pressure-Demand Self-Contained
repair/investigation personnel on a MODU in a hydrogen
Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)
sulfide (H2S) environment?
1914. Accumulations of H2S gas on a MODU can be
dangerous. It is imperative that personnel know that H2S heavier than air
gas possesses which of the listed characteristics?
1915. Your vessel is required to have a slop chest. Which of
the following articles is NOT required by law to be Candy
carried in the slop chest?
1916. The probability of sulfide stress cracking in the presence
of hydrogen sulfide is greatest for which of the following high strength steel
materials?
1917. Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours
smaller than normal concentrations
prior to exposure to H2S can tolerate which of the
of H2S
following?
1918. What is the position obtained by applying only your
Dead-reckoning
vessel's course and speed to a known position?
1919. When should training in personal survival techniques be
Before being employed.
given?
1920. If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, your
Check the bilge drain plug
should first:
1921. Which one of the listed routine test and inspections of general emergency alarm to be
life-saving appliances is not required by the regulations? tested daily

79 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1922. A lifejacket should be provided with__________ . a whistle and a light
1923. Every inflatable life raft , inflatable lifejacket and
every 12 months.
hydrostatic release units shall be serviced__________
1924. While underway, fire break out in the forward part of the
vessel. Whenever practicable, what will be the first thing Put the vessel's stern into the wind
you will do if your are on watch?
1925. In the event of fire in the crew's quarter, one of your first
Close all ventillation to the quarters
act is to:
1926. A drip tray containing oil is on fire. The only fire fighting
The water can be applied in a fine
equipment available is water hose with spray jet/spray
spray starting from the front in a
nozzle. How, if at all, should you attempt to put out this
sweeping motion.
fire using water?
1927. A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting
situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire There is an outlet for the smoke
fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be and heat
used when:
1928. The primary objective of First Aid is: To prevent further injury
1929. In reviving a person who has been overcomed by gas
Giving stimulants
fumes, which of the following would you AVOID doing?
1930. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite /hypothermia
Hand or body heat the affected
may be either superficial or deep, and the affected
parts skin-to-skin (e.g. frozen hand
tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid should
in persons opposite armpit...)
be given a person with frostbite ?
1931. When giving first aid you should avoid Unnecessary haste and
__________________. appearance of uncertainty
1932. The ABC-rules are an important part of the First Aiders
know how. What does the First Aid ABC-rules stands Airway Breathing Circulation
for?
1933. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to stop the bleeding, clean, medicate,
__________. and cover the wound
1934. The MOST important element in administering CPR is: Starting the treatment quickly
1935. A person slowly feel more sleepy and thirsty. The skin
become very dry and there is a sweet taste of the
Insulin
breath. The glucose reaction shows positive. What kind
of medicine will the person need as soon as possible?
1936. A device used to immobilize fractures and help prevent
Splint
bone displacement is:
1937. A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY
when all other means have failed
__________.
1938. First, second, and third degree burns are classified
Layers of skin affected
according to the:
Place the injured part under slowly
running cold water for at least 10
1939. Treatment of burns and scalds depends on the severity
minutes, but preferably until the
of the injury. What is the correct thing to do for minor
pain is gone. If no water is
burns and scalds?
available, use any cold, harmless
liquid.
1940. A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing.
Check his pulse and start CPR
You must:
Sitting on a chair, leaning forward,
1941. Which position is the best to stop bleeding from the
with two fingers pressing the nose
nose?
together.
1942. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that
Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile
is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an
dressing.
alternative to suturing to close the wound?
1943. Before CPR is started, you should ____________. establish an open airway
1944. Fire and abandon ship stations and duties may be found
muster List
on the __________.
1945. What is a contingency plan for ships? Plan for safety preparedness

80 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1946. Which of the following is FALSE why there may not be enclosed as it is, no proper
enough oxygen in an enclosed space or tank? circulation of air
1947. Injuries resulting from slips and falls constitute the
largest percentage of accidents that occur in the catering Keep the floors and decks free from
department. What shall be done to reduce this high fat and grease.
accident rate?
1948. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is Avoiding possible injury to the
__________. spinal cord by incorrect handling
1949. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns
Flood the affected area with water
is to immediately __________.
1950. To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you
Give him sips of cool water
should __________.
1951. When administering first aid you should avoid Unnecessary haste and
__________. appearance of uncertainty
1952. Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST
Breathing and heartbeat
medical response is to check for __________.
1953. Which statement about the use of portable electric lights They must be explosion-proof, self-
in petroleum product tanks is TRUE? contained, battery-fed lamps.
Make sure the raked ends of the
1954. Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during
barge are completely dry and
the loading of LFG?
mopped.
1955. According to SOLAS regulations, which of the following
the regulation requires that the
is a requirement of the ventilation system of a pump
ventilation be non-spark producing
room on a tanker?
dilute tank atmospheres to keep
1956. What is the inert gas system on a tanker used for? gas concentrations below the lower
explosive limit
an electrical circuit in which a spark
1957. Which of the following describes intrinsically safe
is incapable of causing the ignition
equipment?
of a given explosive mixture
by reducing the oxygen
1958. How is an inert gas system designed to reduce the
concentration below levels
possibility of tank explosions?
necessary for combustion
1959. Which of the following actions is not considered to have
discharging a fire hose on deck
the potential for generating static electricity?
1960. What are flame screens used for? prevent flames from entering tanks
The equipment shall be secured to
the hose by a quick-disconnect
1961. Which statement about pneumatic chipping tools is
coupling to prevent the tool from
TRUE?
becoming accidentally
disconnected.
1962. If H2S exposure is anticipated, fixed monitoring devices
aboard a MODU should have a low level concentration
10 PPM
alarm to alert personnel. at what consentration level will
the alarm activate?
1963. Which of the following conditions would be the worst for nearly calm, clear nights or early
the dispersion of H2S? morning
1964. What is the effect of high concentrations of H2S gas on
paralyze your breathing system
personnel?
1965. You receive a medical message that contains the code
Place patient in hot bath
MSJ. What is the meaning of the message?
1966. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code
MPR
should your message contain?
1967. Uninspected vessels must have one approved ring life
26 feet
buoy on board if the length is over how many feet?
1968. What danger is presented if a waterspout passes over a Personnel may be injured by loose
MODU? deck gear blown by the wind.
1969. How must each storage tank for helicopter fuel on a
DANGER - FLAMMABLE LIQUID
MODU be marked?
1970. The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required
to submit a casualty report of an intentional grounding If it creates a hazard to navigation
under what condition?

81 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1971. A pumproom is suspected of accumulating gases after a
ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the
On the deck outside the pumproom
combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing
the pumproom atmosphere for combustible gases?
1972. Which instrument is suitable for determining the
presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in A combustible gas indicator
tanks?
1973. What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration Exposure to carbon dioxide for
reading on the oxygen indicator? more than 10 minutes
1974. What can cause a lack of oxygen in a chain locker? Oxidation
1975. After being rescued from the vessel accident, the people
thank
agreed that they had much to ______.
1976. If you do not wear goggles and helmet, your chances of
hurt
being ______ will be greater
1977. The ship can leave the port ______ the joint
after
inspection
1978. How can the error be corrected when writing in the Cross out the error with a single line
official log book? and rewrite the entry correctly
1979. An accidental grounding is called _______. stranding
1980. When a vessel is entering or leaving a port, record of
bell book
engine speed is kept in the ______.
1981. Has any person ______ on board during the voyage
died
otherwise than as a result of accident
1982. When oil is discharged overboardan entry is required
Oil Record Book
in the ______.
1983. What language shall the issuing country use in medical Official language of the issuing
certificates ? country
1984. Please charge the expenses ______ the ship's
into
account
1985. The Mariner's Handbook ______ general information
affecting navigation and is complementary to the Sailing gives
Directions
1986. The accident ______ caused damage to ship's hull has

1987. The most critical time during bunkering is when ______. final topping off is occurring

1988. Let ______ the real fact of the accident me tell you
1989. Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or
ship's sweat
damage by ______.
1990. Which is not a required entry in the ship's Official
Drydocking of the vessel
Logbook?
1991. The damage to winches is due to ______. rough handling
1992. In case of accident ______ the risk of sinking, all
effective measures shall be taken to steer clear of the involving/impeding
fairway to avoid ______ the traffic
1993. According ______ the report, ship hit the wharf during
to
berthing
1994. Please get everything ready prior ______ shifting to
1995. As soon as the ship is berthedyou should lower the
underneath
gangway and stretch a net ______.
1996. Any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-
speak English
bridge radiotelephone must be able to __________.
1997. He must have had an accidentor he ______ then would have been here
1998. The ______ showed that said ship complied with the
inspection
requirements of the Convention.

82 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL

1999. The patches where rust have been removed should be
applied
wiped clean before paint is ______.
2000. Never make commentestimate or guess in your Offical
the facts
Logbookbut ______ only
2001. A lashing used to secure two barges side by
scissor wire
sidelashed in an "X" fashionis called a ______.
extremely cold air from shore
2002. Steam smoke will occur when ______.
passes over warmer water
2003. An accident came ______ my mind when I saw the
to
broken case

83 DECK OPERATIONAL LEVEL