10TH STD

SUBJECT- SCIENCE
ENGLISH MEDIUM

PASSING PACKAGE-2024-25
INDEX

Sl CHAPTERS FROM - TO
NO
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
1 ELECTRICITY 1- 12
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC 13- 17
2 CURRENT
3 LIGHT –REFLECTION AND REFRACTION 18 - 33
4 HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD 34 - 45

1 CHEMICAL SCIENCE
2 CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS 46 – 50
3 ACIDS ,BASES AND SALTS 51 – 57
4 METALS AND NON METALS 58 – 68
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNS 69 – 75

BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE
1 LIFE PROCESSES 76 – 95
2 CONTROL AND COORDINATION 96 – 100
3 HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE 101 – 124
4 HEREDITY 125 – 129
5 OUR ENVIRONMENT 130 - 139
CHAPTER- ELECTRICITY
IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER
The lesson on Electricity typically covers the following key concepts:
Electric Charge and Current:
• Electric Charge: Fundamental property of matter carried by particles, such as electrons
and protons.
• Electric Current: Flow of electric charge through a conductor; measured in Amperes (A).
• Potential Difference: Defined as the work done to move a unit charge between two points
in an electric field. Measured in Volts (V).
• Ohm’s Law: Relationship between voltage (V), current (I), and resistance (R): ( V = IR ).
• Resistance and Resistivity:
• Resistance: Opposition to the flow of current; measured in Ohms (Ω).
• Resistivity: Material-specific property affecting resistance; measured in Ohm meter
(Ω·m).
Factors Affecting Resistance:
1. Length of the conductor: Resistance increases with length.
2. Cross-sectional area: Resistance decreases with an increase in area.
3. Material of the conductor: Different materials have different resistivities.
4. Temperature: Resistance generally increases with temperature.
Series and Parallel Circuits:
• Series Circuit: Components connected end-to-end; same current flows through all
components, but voltage divides.
• Parallel Circuit: Components connected across common points; same voltage across all
components, but current divides.
Electric Power and Energy:
• Electric Power (P): Rate at which electrical energy is consumed or produced; ( P = VI );
measured in Watts (W).
• Electrical Energy (E): Total energy consumed; ( E = Pt ); measured in Joules (J) or
kilowatt-hours (kWh).
• Heating Effect of Electric Current: Current passing through a conductor produces heat;
explained by Joule’s Law of Heating: ( H = I2Rt ).
• Practical Applications: Use of fuses, circuit breakers, and safety measures in household
wiring. Understanding of electric power ratings and efficiency of electrical appliances.
• Domestic Electric Circuits: Basic understanding of household wiring systems.
Importance of earthing and proper wiring to prevent electric shocks and accidents.
This lesson provides a foundation for understanding how electricity works, how it is used
in everyday applications, and the principles that govern electric circuits and devices.

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ONE MARK QUESTIONS
1. What is the SI unit of electric charge?
Answer: Coulomb
2. Name the instrument used to measure potential difference.
Answer: Voltmeter
3. What is the SI unit of electric current?
Answer: Ampere
4. State Ohm’s Law.
Answer: V = IR (Voltage = Current x Resistance)
5. What is the reciprocal of resistance?
Answer: Conductance
6. Which particle is responsible for the flow of current in a conductor?
Answer: Electron
7. What is the SI unit of power?
Answer: Watt
8. What is the relation between power, voltage, and current?
Answer: P = VI (Power = Voltage x Current)
9. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?
Answer: Infinite
10. What is the resistance of an ideal ammeter?
Answer: Zero
11. How does the resistance of a conductor change with temperature?
Answer: It increases with an increase in temperature.
12. What is the unit of resistivity?
Answer: Ohm meter
13. Write the formulas of net resistance in series and parallel for R1, R2, R3 and R4
Answer: Series resistance Rs= R1+ R2+ R3 + R4
Parallel resistance Rp = 1 + 1 1 1
R1 R2 + R3 + R4
14. What is the formula to calculate electric energy?
Answer: E = Pt (Energy = Power x Time)
15. What is the SI unit of electric energy?
Answer: Joule
16. Name a material that is a good conductor of electricity.
Answer: Copper
17. What is the power consumed by a device that uses 2A of current at 120V?
Answer: 240W (P = VI)
18. What is the effect of doubling the length of a wire on its resistance?
Answer: Resistance doubles.
19. Name a device that can convert AC to DC.
Answer: Rectifier

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20. In which type of circuit is the total resistance less than the smallest resistor?
Answer: Parallel circuit

2.MARKS QUESTIONS
Q1: Define electric current. What is its SI unit?
A: Electric current is the rate of flow of electric charge. The SI unit of electric current is the
ampere (A).

Q2: What is the formula for calculating electric power? Mention its SI unit.
A: The formula for calculating electric power is ( P = VI ), where ( V ) is voltage and ( I ) is
current. The SI unit of power is the watt (W).

Q3: State Ohm’s law.

A: Ohm’s law states that the current passing through a conductor between two points is directly
proportional to the voltage across the two points, provided the temperature remains constant.
Mathematically, ( V = IR ), where ( V ) is voltage, ( I ) is current, and ( R ) is resistance.
Q4: What is the resistivity of a material? How does it differ from resistance?
A: Resistivity is a property of a material that describes how strongly it resists current flow. It is
denoted by ( ρ, rho ) and its unit is ohm-meter (Ωm). Resistance, on the other hand, depends on
the material’s resistivity, length, and cross-sectional area of the conductor.

Q5: How is the potential difference measured? Mention the device used.
A: Potential difference is measured using a voltmeter, which is connected in parallel across the
two points in the circuit.

Q6: Define electric potential and potential difference.

A: Electric potential at a point is the work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinity
to that point. Potential difference is the work done in moving a unit charge from one point to
another in the electric field.

Q7: What is the unit of electric charge? Name the instrument used to measure electric current.
A: The unit of electric charge is the coulomb (C). Electric current is measured using an ammeter.

Q8: State the relation between the electrical energy consumed and power.
A: Electrical energy consumed , E = P / t , where ( E ) is energy in joules, ( P ) is power in watts,
and ( t ) is time in seconds.

Q9: Explain the heating effect of electric current.

A: When electric current passes through a conductor, it produces heat due to the resistance of the
conductor. The amount of heat produced is given by ( H = I 2Rt ), where ( I ) is current, ( R ) is
resistance, and ( t ) is time.

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Q10: Why are electric appliances with metallic bodies usually earthed?
A: Electric appliances with metallic bodies are earthed to prevent electric shocks. Earthing
provides a low resistance path for the current to flow to the ground in case of a fault.
Q11: What is the role of a fuse in an electric circuit?
A: A fuse is a safety device that protects an electric circuit from excessive current. It contains a
thin wire that melts and breaks the circuit if the current exceeds a safe level.

Q12: How does the resistance of a wire depend on its length and cross-sectional area?
A: The resistance ( R ) of a wire is directly proportional to its length ( L ) and inversely
ρL
proportional to its cross-sectional area ( A ). Mathematically, ( R = ), where ( ρ ) is the
A
resistivity of the material.

Q13: What is meant by the term 'short circuit'?

A: A short circuit occurs when there is a direct connection between the positive and negative
terminals of a power source with very low resistance, causing excessive current flow.

Q14: Differentiate between series and parallel circuits.

A: In a series circuit, components are connected end-to-end, so the same current flows through
all components. In a parallel circuit, components are connected across the same voltage source,
so the voltage is the same across each component.

Q15: What is the significance of the power rating of an electrical appliance?

A: The power rating indicates the amount of energy consumed by the appliance per unit time. It
helps in determining the energy cost and the required capacity of electrical connections.

Q16: Define the term 'electric circuit'.

A: An electric circuit is a closed loop or pathway that allows electric current to flow from a power
source through various electrical components and back to the power source.

Q17: Explain why tungsten is used as a filament in electric bulbs.

A: Tungsten is used as a filament in electric bulbs because it has a high melting point and can
withstand high temperatures without melting. It also has good electrical conductivity.

Q18: What happens to the resistance of a conductor when its temperature is increased?
A: The resistance of a conductor typically increases with an increase in temperature because the
atoms in the conductor vibrate more, causing more collisions with the flowing electrons.
2.MARKS QUESTIONS
Q 1:Explain Ohm’s Law with a diagram.

Solution: Ohm's Law states that the current flowing through a conductor between two points is
directly proportional to the voltage across the two points. It is mathematically represented as:
V = IR
Where:
- V is the voltage (volts)
- I is the current (amperes)
- R is the resistance (ohms)

Q 2: What is the relationship between the power consumed by an electrical device and the
resistance of the device?
Solution: The power consumed by an electrical device is given by the formula:
P = V2 / R Where: - P is the power (watts)
- V is the voltage (volts)
- R is the resistance (ohms)
This shows that power is inversely proportional to the resistance for a constant voltage.

Q 3: State and explain Joule’s Law of heating.

Solution: Joule's Law of Heating states that the heat produced in a resistor is directly
proportional to the square of the current, the resistance, and the time for which the current flows
through the resistor.
It is given by: H = I2 R t Where: - H is the heat produced (joules)
- I is the current (amperes)
- R is the resistance (ohms)
- t is the time (seconds)
This law explains how electrical energy is converted into heat energy.

Q 4: How is a voltmeter connected in a circuit to measure potential difference? Why?

Solution: A voltmeter is connected in parallel with the component across which the potential
difference is to be measured. This is because a voltmeter is designed to have a very high
resistance and connecting it in parallel ensures it does not significantly affect the circuit.

Q 5: What happens to the resistance of a conductor when its length and its area of cross
section
Solution:isThe
doubled?
resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its length. If the length of the
conductor is doubled, the resistance will also double. Mathematically: R ∝ L
If L becomes 2L, then R becomes 2R.

5
The resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to area of cross section of
conductor. If the area of cross section is doubled the resistance becomes half. Mathematically :
R α 1/A
If A becomes 2A , then R becomes R/2.

Q 6: Explain the significance of the series combination of resistors.

Solution: In a series combination of resistors, the resistors are connected end-to-end such that
there is only one path for the current to flow. The total resistance in a series combination is the
sum of the individual resistances:
Rtotal = R1 + R2 + R3 + ...
Series combinations are used where a high resistance is required, and the current through each
resistor is the same.

Q 7: Explain the significance of the parallel combination of resistors.

Solution: In a parallel combination of resistors, the resistors are connected in such a way that 6
there are multiple paths for the current to flow. The total resistance in a parallel combination is
given by:
1 / Rtotal = 1 / R1 + 1 / R2 + 1 / R3 + ...
Parallel combinations are used where a low resistance is required, and the voltage across each
resistor is the same.
Q 8: Explain the function of a fuse in an electric circuit.
Solution: A fuse is a safety device used in electric circuits to protect against excessive current.
It consists of a thin wire made of an alloy of Tin and Lead. It has low melting point that melts
and breaks the circuit when the current exceeds a certain limit, thus preventing damage to the
circuit components and reducing the risk of fire.

Q 9: The resistivity of Manganese wire of length 1metre is 1.84x10-4Ωm at 200C. If the

diameter of the wire is 3 x 10-4m, find the resistance of the wire at this temperature.
Ans: Resistivity =1.84x10-4Ωm,
Length ,l = 1m,
diameter d = 3 x 10-4m
2
Area of cross section A == πd
4
—4 —4

= 22
7
x 3x10 x3x10
4
= 7.07x10 -8 m2
l
Resistance R = ρ x
A

=1.84x10-4x1
=26.02Ω
Q 10.Find the total resistance and the total current in the following circuit. R1= 2Ω, R2=4Ω , R3
=4Ω and V =6V
1
Ans :In a parallel circuit = 1 +1 +1
Rp R1 R2 R3
1 1 1 1
= + +
Rp 2 4 4
1 =1
Rp
Rp = 1Ω
Total current , I =V/RP =6/1 = 6 A

Q 11. It is better to connect the electrical appliances in parallel than in series. Why?
Ans:
❖ Every component in a series circuit must work in order for the circuit to be complete.
❖ In a series circuit, if one bulb goes out, the entire circuit is broken
But when appliances are linked in parallel,
❖ there is no voltage division. The supplied voltage is equal to the potential difference across
each appliance.
❖ -By connecting electrical equipment in parallel, the circuit's total effective resistance can
be decreased.
❖ -Even if one component fails, the others will continue to work because each has its own
circuit.

Q 12.State Joules law of heating. Explain the working of electric filament bulb
Ans: Joule's law of heating states that when current flows through a conductor, the amount of
heat produced H in it is directly proportional to
1. Square of current I2 flowing through the conductor for a given resistance and time.
2. Resistance R of the conductor for a given current and time.
3. Time t for which current is passed through a given conductor.

The expression for the amount of heat produced is given by H=I2Rt.

The working of an electric bulb

• The filament of an electric bulb is made of tungsten which has highest melting point, and
greatest tensile strength out of all the metals.
• Argon and Nitrogen is a commonly used gas used to fill incandescent light bulbs. It
increases bulb life by preventing the tungsten filaments from deteriorating too quickly.
• When an electric current is passed through a bulb, the filament gets heated up due to the
heating effect of current and starts glowing. So, electrical energy is converted to heat and
light ener gy

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Q 13.A bulb having a resistance of 50Ω is connected to a 10V battery in a circuit. Calculate
the current flowing through the electric bulb and power of the bulb.
Ans: R = 50Ω, V = 10 V, I = ? P = ?
Formula V=IR
I = V = 10 = 0.2A
R 50
The current flowing through the bulb is 0.2A
P=VxI
= 10 x 0.2.
= 2W
Power of the bulb = 2W.
Question 14.Observe the electric circuit in the given figure. Calculate the total resistance and
total current flowing in the circuit.
Ans: Here R1= 5Ω, R2= 4Ω, R3 = 12Ω, V = 24V
The total resistance of the circuit = RT = ?
1/ Rp = 1/R2 + 1/R3
= 1/4 + 1/12
= 3+1/12
= 4/12
= 1/3
Rp = 3 Ω
The total resistance of the circuit RT = R1 +Rp
=5Ω+3Ω=8Ω
Total current I = ?
The total current flowing in the circuit , I =V = 24 = 3A
R 8
Question 15.State Ohms law. Why is series combination not used in domestic electric wiring.
On what factor does the resistance of a conductor depends.
Ans: Ohms law : At the constant temperature, the potential difference across the circuit is directly
proportional to the current flowing through it.
Series combination is not used in the domestic wiring because,
❖ The current flowing throughout the circuit is constant and All the electrical appliances do
not work at the same current
❖ If anyone electrical appliance fails to work, the circuit breaks and remaining appliances do
not get current.
The factors that the resistance of a conductor depend are
❖ Length of a conductor
❖ Area of cross section of a conductor
❖ The nature and temperature of a conductor

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SOLVED MATHEMATICAL PROBLEMS ON ELECTRICITY
1. Calculate the current flowing through a circuit if the voltage is 12V and the resistance is
3Ω.

Solution: I = V / R = 12V / 3Ω = 4A

2. A 60W bulb is connected to a 220V supply. Find the current flowing through the bulb.

Solution: I = P / V

= 60W / 220V

≈ 0.27A

3. Two resistors of 4Ω and 6Ω are connected in series. Calculate the total resistance.

Solution: Rtotal = R1 + R2

= 4Ω + 6Ω = 10Ω

4. Two resistors of 4Ω and 6Ω are connected in parallel. Calculate the total resistance.

Solution: 1 / R_total = 1 / R1 + 1 / R2
= 1 / 4Ω + 1 / 6

= 5 / 12Ω

R_total = 12 / 5 = 2.4Ω
5. An electric heater has a resistance of 15Ω and operates on a 220V supply. Calculate the
power consumed by the heater.

Solution: P = V2 / R
= (220V)2 / 15Ω

≈ 3226.67W

6. A current of 5A flows through a resistor of 10Ω. Calculate the power dissipated in the
resistor.
Solution: P = I2 * R
= (5A)2 * 10Ω
= 25 * 10 = 250W

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7. Calculate the energy consumed in 5 hours by a device of 1000W.
Solution: Energy = Power * Time
= 1000W * 5h
= 5000Wh = 5kWh
8. A 10Ω resistor is connected to a 12V battery. Calculate the current flowing through the
resistor.
Solution: I = V / R
= 12V / 10Ω
= 1.2A

9. Three resistors of 2Ω, 3Ω, and 4Ω are connected in series. Calculate the total resistance.

Solution: Rtotal = R1 + R2 + R3

= 2Ω + 3Ω + 4Ω
= 9Ω
10. Three resistors of 2Ω, 3Ω, and 4Ω are connected in parallel. Calculate the total
resistance.
Solution: 1/Rtotal = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3
= 1/2Ω + 1/3Ω + 1/4Ω
= 13 / 12Ω
Rtotal = 12 / 13
≈ 0.92Ω

11. A device uses 1500W of power and operates for 2 hours. Calculate the total energy
consumed in kilowatt-hours (kWh).
Solution: Energy = Power * Time
= 1500W * 2h
= 3000Wh
= 3kWh
12. If a charge of 10C passes through a point in a circuit in 2s, calculate the current.
Solution: I = Q / t
= 10C / 2s
= 5A
13. A wire of resistance 5Ω is connected to a 10V battery. Calculate the current and power
in the wire.
Solution: I=V/R
= 10V / 5Ω
= 2A
Power,P = V * I
= 10V * 2A = 20W

10
14. Calculate the resistance of a lamp that uses 100W power when connected to a 200V
supply.
Solution: R = V2 / P
= (200V)2 / 100W
= 400Ω
15. If 4 resistors of 2Ω each are connected in series, calculate the equivalent resistance.
Solution: Rtotal = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4
= 2Ω + 2Ω + 2Ω + 2Ω
= 8Ω

16. If 4 resistors of 2Ω each are connected in parallel, calculate the equivalent resistance.

Solution: 1/Rtotal = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 + 1/R4

= 1/2Ω + 1/2Ω + 1/2Ω + 1/2Ω

= 4/ 2Ω

Rtotal = 2 / 4 = 0.5Ω

17. A circuit has a current of 3A and a resistance of 5Ω. Calculate the voltage.
Solution: V = I * R
= 3A * 5Ω
= 15V
18. Calculate the cost of operating a 500W heater for 10 hours if the cost of electricity is
₹5 per kWh.
Solution: Energy = Power * Time
= 500W * 10h
= 5000Wh = 5kWh
Cost = Energy * Rate
= 5kWh * ₹5/kWh = ₹25
19. A 240V electric iron has a resistance of 24Ω. Calculate the current and power.
Solution: I = V / R P=V*I
= 240V / 24Ω = 10A = 240V * 10A = 2400W

20. A 12V car battery is connected to two resistors of 4Ω and 8Ω in series. Calculate the
total resistance and the current flowing through the circuit.
Solution: Rtotal = R1 + R2
= 4Ω + 8Ω = 12Ω
I = V / Rtotal
= 12V / 12Ω = 1A

11
CHAPTER-
ELECTRICITY
SUGGESTED UNIT TEST
Duration-45 mins Total Marks: 20
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Section A:
I. Multiple Choice Questions (3 marks)
1. Which of the following is the SI unit of electric current?
a) Coulomb b) Ampere c) Volt d) Ohm
2. The resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to:
a) Length b) Area of cross-section c) Temperature d) Voltage
3. Ohm’s Law is given by which formula?
a) V = IR b) I = VR c) R = VI d) V = I/R

II. Section B: One Mark Questions (3 marks)

4. What is the resistance of a conductor if the current through it is 3 A and the voltage is 12 V?
5. Define 1 kilowatt-hour.
6. What is the main function of a fuse in an electric circuit?

III. Section C: Two Marks Questions (8 marks)

7. State the factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends.
8. Explain why tungsten is used for making filament of electric bulbs.
9. What is the difference between series and parallel circuits?
10. A wire of length 1m and resistance 10 ohms is stretched to double its length. What will be its
new resistance?

IV. Section D: Three Marks Questions (6 marks)

11. Explain the heating effect of electric current and its applications.
12. Two resistors, 5 ohms and 10 ohms, are connected
i) in parallel ii) in series . Find the equivalent resistance in both cases.

12
CHAPTER-
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER

The lesson on Magnetic effect of Electric current typically covers the following key concepts:
• Oersted’s Experiment: Demonstrates that a current-carrying conductor produces a
magnetic field around it.
• Magnetic Field and Field Lines:
• Magnetic field: The region around a magnet where the force can be detected.
• Field lines: Imaginary lines representing the magnetic field; they emerge from the north
pole and enter the south pole.
• Right-Hand Thumb Rule: Describes the direction of the magnetic field around a current-
carrying conductor: if you grip the conductor with the right hand so that the thumb points
in the direction of the current, the curled fingers show the direction of the magnetic field.
• Magnetic Field due to a Current-Carrying Straight Conductor: Circular field lines
centred on the conductor.
• Magnetic Field due to a Current Loop: Concentric circles around the loop with the
strength increasing towards the center.
• Solenoid:
• A coil of wire with many turns.
• Produces a magnetic field similar to a bar magnet.
• Can be used to create electromagnets.
• Electromagnets: Strong magnets created when current flows through a solenoid. Force
on a Current-Carrying Conductor in a Magnetic Field:
• Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule: if the thumb, forefinger, and middle finger are perpendicular
to each other, and the forefinger represents the magnetic field, the middle finger represents
current, then the thumb represents the force.
• Applications: Electric motors and various devices use magnetic effects of electric current.
These concepts form the basis of understanding how electricity can generate magnetism and are
fundamental to many practical applications.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
1. What is magnetic field?
Ans : The space around the magnet where the presence of magnetic force is experienced.
2. What are magnetic lines of force ?
Ans : The imaginary lines joining north pole to the south pole of a magnet are called magnetic
lines of force.
3. What is a solenoid ?
Ans : The solenoid is a long cylindrical coil of wire consisting of a large number of turns
bound together very tightly.
4. Define electro magnet ?

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Ans: An iron piece kept inside a solenoid carrying current shows the properties of a magnet.
This magnet is called electro magnet.
5. What is a Motor ?
Ans: Motor is a device which converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
6. Define Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule.
Ans: Imagine that you are holding a current carrying straight conductor in your right hand
such that the thumb points towards the direction of current, then the fingers wrapped around
the conductor shows the direction of the field lines of the magnetic field.

7. What is the function of ‘fuse’?

Ans: Fuse in the circuit protects electrical appliances from damages caused by over loading.

8. State Fleming’s left hand rule ?

Ans: Stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle finger of left hand such that they are
perpendicular to each other, if the fore finger indicates the direction of magnetic field and
middle finger shows the direction of electric current then the thumb indicates the direction of
motion of conductor.

9. Name an electric device works on the Fleming’s left hand rule.

Ans: Electric Motor.

10. What is electrical short circuit?

Ans: Short circuit is simply a low resistance connection between the two conductors supplying
electric power to any circuit.

11. Name the device which converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
Ans: Electric motor.

12. Name any two methods to increase magnetic field in a solenoid.

Ans : i) By increasing the electric current in the solenoid.
ii) By increasing number of turns of the solenoid.

13. Name any two safety measures used in electric circuits.

Ans: i) Using electric fuse in the circuit
ii) Using Grounding wire in the circuit.

14. Name the metal used to prepare electromagnet.

Ans: Soft Iron.

15. Relating to the magnetic field around the current carrying conductor- identify the
changes when
I) Electric current through the conductor is increased
II) Direction of electric current is reversed

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Ans: I) Magnetic field around the conductor increases
II)Direction of the magnetic field reversed.

2 MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Write the properties of magnetic lines of force.

Ans: I) Magnetic lines of force emerges at north pole and merges at south pole.
II)Density of magnetic lines of force is more at their poles .
III)Magnetic lines of force do not intersect each other.
IV)Magnetic lines of force closed webs.

2. How to draw the magnetic lines of force around a bar magnet using magnetic needle?
Ans: Place the bar magnet in the centre of the paper. Secure the paper so it doesn’t
move. Drawing Lines:
• Place the magnetic needle at one pole of the magnet.
• Mark the direction the needle points to, then move it a short distance along the line and
mark again.
• Continue this process, tracing a path from one pole of the magnet to the other.
• Repeat the process starting from different points on the pole to trace multiple lines.
• Lines will curve from the north pole to the south pole. They will be denser near the
poles, showing stronger magnetic fields.
• Completion: Remove the magnet and observe the lines of force you have drawn.

3. Write the properties of magnetic field produced around a solenoid carrying current.
Ans: * Magnetic field produced around the solenoid is similar to the magnetic field
around the bar magnet
*The magnetic lines of force inside the solenoid are parallel to each other .
* The magnetic field strength inside the solenoid is equal in all the points.

4. What are the reasons for overload in an electric circuit?

Ans: The reasons for overload in the circuit are
• Live wire and neutral wire come in contact with each other (short circuit).
• When more than one device is connected to the same socket .
• When more potential difference is given to the circuit than fixed range.

5. Name any two methods to avoid overload in domestic wiring

Ans: 1) Take care to see that live wire and neutral wire should not come in contact with
each other
2) Use the electrical appliances of standard rating.
3) Do not use many appliances together in the same socket.
6. Explain Faraday’s experiment on electromagnetic induction . What is the result of
this experiment?

15
Ans: Take a coil of insulated wire having large number of turns. Connect the ends of the coil
to the Galvanometer. A bar magnet is moved inside the coil. Galvanometer shows deflection.
When the direction of the magnet is reversed, the Galvanometer shows deflection in the
opposite direction.
Result: The magnetic field related to the coil is changed , the electric current is induced in the
coil.

7. In domestic wiring, the electrical appliances having metal body should be connected
to grounding wire. Why? Explain.
Ans: i)Protection Against Electric Shock: If there's a fault in the appliance, such as a wire
coming loose and touching the metal casing, the metal could become live. A grounding wire
provides a low-resistance path for the electrical current to flow directly to the ground,
preventing the buildup of voltage on the metal body. ii)Preventing Fire Hazards: Grounding
helps prevent overheating and potential fires by allowing excess current to safely dissipate
into the earth.
iii) Circuit Protection: Grounding ensures that circuit breakers or fuses will trip when a fault
occurs, cutting off the electrical supply and protecting the circuit from damage. By providing
a safe path for fault currents, grounding significantly reduces the risk of electric shock and
fire hazards.
8. Name the colours of the insulator coating over the conductor wire. What do they
indicate?
Ans: i) Wire with Red colour insulator – Live wire (Positive)
ii) Wire with Black colour insulator – Neutral wire
iii) Wire with Green colour insulator - Grounding wire

9. Two separate circuits are used in the domestic wiring. Which are they?
Ans: I) 5A current rating circuit : Used for bulbs, fans, television etc.
II) 15A current rating circuit : Used for Geysers, air coolers, Washing machines etc.
10. Give Scientific reason for the following.
1. Fuse is used in Domestic wiring : It is made up of an alloy of tin and lead. It has low
melting point. This ensures that the wire melts quickly when the current exceeds a safe
level. There by prevents damage to appliances and reduces the risk of electrical fire
accidents.
2. Solenoid carrying current is compared to a Bar magnet: Because magnetic lines of
force formed around the solenoid is similar to the magnetic lines of force around the
bar magnet. Either ends of solenoid behaves like North and South poles of bar magnet.

16
CHAPTER -MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
SUGGESTED UNIT TEST
Duration-45 mins. Marks-20
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Section A: Multiple Choice Questions (3 x 1 = 3 Marks)
1. Which of the following devices works on the principle of the magnetic effect of electric
current?
a) Electric generator b) Galvanometer c) Battery d) Electric bulb

2. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying current:

a) Is zero b) Decreases as we move towards its ends
c) Is the same at all points d) Increases as we move towards its ends

3. Which rule is used to determine the direction of force on a current-carrying conductor in a

magnetic field?
a) Right-hand thumb rule b) Fleming’s right-hand rule
c) Fleming’s left-hand rule d) Ampere’s circuital law
Section B: One Mark Questions (3 x 1 = 3 Marks)
4. Define the magnetic field.
5. State the right-hand thumb rule.
6. What happens to the magnetic field strength if the current through a conductor is doubled?
Section C: Two Marks Questions (4 x 2 = 8 Marks)
7. Explain how a current-carrying solenoid behaves like a bar magnet
8. Why do magnetic field lines never intersect?
9. State Fleming’s left-hand rule and its significance.
10. What is the principle of an electric motor?
Section D: Three Marks Questions (2 x 3 = 6 Marks)
11. Explain the construction and working of an electro magnet . How can the strength of an
electromagnet can be increased?
12. How can you determine the direction of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying
conductor?

17
CHAPTER- LIGHT REFLECTION AND REFRACTION

IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER

• Light is a form of energy that enables us to see the world around us. The phenomena of
reflection and refraction of light explain many natural observations and are fundamental
to the understanding of optics.
• Reflection of Light . Reflection is the bouncing back of light rays when they hit a smooth
surface.
The key points include:
▪ Laws of Reflection : The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection .The incident
ray, the reflected ray, and the normal to the surface all lie in the same plane.
▪ Types of Reflection :
o Regular Reflection: Occurs on smooth surfaces, producing clear images .
o Diffuse Reflection: Occurs on rough surfaces, scattering light in different directions.
▪ Mirror Types :
➢ Plane Mirrors: Produce virtual, upright, and same-size images.
➢ Spherical Mirrors: Include concave and convex mirrors .
➢ Mirror Formula : [ 1 = 1 + 1] where ( f ) is the focal length, ( v ) is the image distance,
ƒ v u
and ( u ) is the object distance.
➢ Magnification ( m ) is given by: [ m = - hi = - v} ] where ( hi ) is the image height and
ho u
( ho ) is the object height.
➢ Uses of Mirrors: Plane mirrors are used in periscopes and for personal grooming.
➢ Concave mirrors are used in torches, headlights, and shaving mirrors.
➢ Convex mirrors are used in rearview mirrors.
▪ Refraction of Light :Refraction is the bending of light as it passes from one medium to
another with different densities.
▪ Important points include:
➢ Laws of Refraction: The incident ray, the refracted ray, and the normal to the interface
of two media lie in the same plane .
➢ (Snell's Law):The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of
refraction is a constant (refractive index).
➢ Refractive Index: A measure of how much the speed of light is reduced inside a
medium. It is given by: n= C , where ( n ) is the refractive index, ( c ) is the speed of
V
light in a vacuum, and ( v ) is the speed of light in the medium.
➢ Refraction through a Rectangular Glass Slab: Light enters obliquely, bends at the
surfaces, and exits parallel to the original direction.
▪ Lenses:

18
➢ Convex Lens (Converging Lens): Thicker in the middle, brings parallel rays to a focus.
➢ Concave Lens (Diverging Lens): Thinner in the middle, spreads out parallel rays.
➢ Lens Formula : [ 1 = 1 - 1] where ( f ) is the focal length, ( v ) is the image distance, and
ƒ v u
( u ) is the object distance.
➢ Magnification ( m ) is given by: [ m = hi = v} ] where ( hi ) is the image height and (
ho u
ho ) is the object height.
➢ Power of a lens. The power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length measured in
meters (P = 1/f), measured in dioptres (D), and indicates the strength of the lens in
refracting light.
▪ Dispersion: When white light passes through a prism, it splits into its constituent colours
due to different wavelengths bending by different amounts (dispersion).
▪ Applications of Refraction
o Optical Instruments: Cameras, telescopes, microscopes.
o Corrective Lenses: Used in spectacles to correct vision defects.
o Prisms: Used in dispersing light into its constituent colours.
Conclusion : Understanding reflection and refraction of light helps us in designing various
optical devices and solving practical problems related to light. These principles are crucial in the
fields of physics, engineering, and various technologies.

ONE MARK QUESTIONS

Define the following
a). Pole of the mirror: The Pole of a spherical mirror (convex or concave) is the center of the
reflecting surface of the spherical mirror. It lies on the surface of the spherical mirror. It is denoted
by the alphabet 'P'.

b). Principal focus: The point on the axis of a lens or mirror to which parallel rays of light
converge or from which they appear to diverge after refraction or reflection.
c). Focal length: The distance between the pole of the mirror ( or the optical center of the lens)
and the focal point of a mirror (or lens) is called the focal length.

d). Centre of curvature: It is the centre of the sphere of which the mirror forms the part. It is
represented by C.

e). The radius of curvature: It is the radius of the sphere of which the mirror forms the part. It
is represented by R.

f). Real image: Real images are defined as the images formed due to the convergence of light
rays after being reflected or refracted from a mirror, lens, or object.

19
g). Virtual image: A virtual image is one that cannot be obtained on a screen. When reflected
rays appear to collide, a virtual image is formed. Virtual images are always formed by plane
mirrors, convex mirrors, and concave lenses.

h). Aperture: An aperture of a mirror or lens is a point from which the reflection of light actually
happens.

1. What is light?
Answer: Light is a form of energy which enables us to see objects.
2. Define luminous and non-luminous objects.
Answer: Luminous objects are those that produce their own light (e.g., Sun, light bulb).
Non-luminous objects do not produce their own light but can reflect light (e.g., moon,
table).
3. State the laws of reflection.
Answer: i. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
ii. The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal at the point of incidence all
lie in the same plane.
4. What is meant by the term 'regular reflection'?
Answer: Regular reflection occurs when light rays are reflected parallelly, maintaining
their direction and pattern after reflection, from a smooth surface.

5. Explain the term 'dispersion of light'.

Answer: Dispersion of light is the separation of white light into its component colours
(rainbow colours) when it passes through a prism due to different colours bending by
different amounts.
6. What is refraction of light?
Answer: Refraction of light is the bending of light rays as they pass from one transparent
medium to another, caused by a change in the speed of light.
7. State the laws of refraction.
Answer: I . The incident ray, the refracted ray, and the normal to the interface
of two transparent media at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.
ii. The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is
constant for a given pair of media. This is known as Snell's law.

8. What is meant by the term 'critical angle'?

Answer: Critical angle is the angle of incidence in the denser medium for which the angle
of refraction in the rarer medium is 90 degrees.

20
9. Explain the formation of a rainbow.
Answer: A rainbow is formed when sunlight is refracted, dispersed, and internally reflected
inside water droplets in the atmosphere, resulting in the separation of sunlight into its
component colours.
10. What is meant by the term 'dispersive power of a medium'?
Answer: Dispersive power of a medium refers to its ability to separate white light into its
component colours (dispersion) when light passes through it, such as through a prism.
11. State two uses of concave mirrors.
Answer: i. Concave mirrors are used as shaving mirrors or makeup mirrors due to their
ability to produce magnified and erect images.
ii. They are also used in headlights of vehicles to provide a powerful beam of light.
12. What is a convex lens?
Answer: A convex lens is thicker at the centre than at the edges and converges light rays
to a single point known as the focal point, used in magnifying glasses, cameras, and
microscopes.
13. Define the focal length of a lens.
Answer: The focal length of a lens is the distance between the optical centre of the lens
and its principal focus, where parallel rays of light converge after passing through the lens.
14. State one use of convex lenses.
Answer: Convex lenses are used in spectacles for correcting hyperopia (farsightedness)
and in magnifying glasses to enlarge the size of objects.
15. Explain the term 'power of a lens'.
Answer: The power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length measured in meters (P =
1/f), measured in dioptres (D), and indicates the strength of the lens in refracting light.
16. Differentiate between regular and diffuse reflection.
Answer: Regular reflection occurs when parallel light rays are reflected uniformly and
directionally from a smooth surface. Diffuse reflection occurs when light rays are reflected
in many directions from a rough surface.
17. State the SI unit of power of a lens.
Answer: The SI unit of power of a lens is the dioptre (D).
18. Draw a ray diagram to show reflection of an incident ray parallel to principal
axis by a convex mirror

19. Define principal focus of a concave lens?

21
Ans. A point on the principal axis of a lens, where the rays coming parallel to the principal
axis after refraction, appear to meet is called principal focus of the concave lens.
20. A small object is placed in front of convex lens, when a real, inverted and enlarged
image is formed on the other side of lens. Where is the object placed?
Ans. The object is between F and 2F of the convex lens.
21. A thin spherical lens has radius of curvature 50 cm. What is its focal length?
Ans. Focal length = Radiusoƒcurvature = 50 cm = 25 cm
2 2
22. The power of a lens is +1.5 D. Is the lens convex or concave?
Ans. It is a convex lens.
23. How is refractive index related to velocity of light in a medium and velocity of light
in vacuum?
Velocity oƒ light in vacuum
Ans. Refractive index =Velocity oƒ light in medium
24. If the power of a lens in +5 dioptre, what is its focal length?
Ans. Focal length of lens = 100 cm = 100 cm = 20 cm
power +5
25. Where is the image formed in a convex mirror, when the object is anywhere in front
of it?
Ans. The image is formed between the pole and principal focus, behind the convex mirror.
26. What is meant by centre of curvature of spherical mirror?
Ans: Centre of curvature of a spherical mirror is defined as the centre of the sphere of which
the spherical mirror is a part.
27. Define 1dioptre.
Ans: 1 dioptre of power of a lens is defined as the power of a lens of focal
length 1 m.
28. At what angle a ray of light should strike the surface of glass, so that it does not suffer
any refraction?
Ans. It should strike normally i.e., angle of incidence should be zero.

3 – Mark Questions and Answers

1. State the laws of reflection of light.
A: 1. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
2. The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal to the surface at the point of
incidence all lie in the same plane.
2. What is meant by the refractive index of a medium?
A: The refractive index of a medium is the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed
of light in that medium. It indicates how much the light will bend when entering the medium
from a vacuum.
Sin i Speed oƒ light in medium 1
Refractive index, η21 = =
Sin r Speed oƒ light in medium 2

22
3. Describe the difference between real and virtual images.
A: Real images are formed when light rays actually converge at a point after reflection or
refraction. They can be projected onto a screen. Virtual images are formed when light rays
appear to diverge from a point but do not actually meet. They cannot be projected onto a
screen.

4. Explain why objects under water appear closer than they actually are?
A: Objects under water appear closer than they actually are because light rays bend towards
the normal when they move from water (denser medium) to air (rarer medium), causing the
object to appear at a higher position than its actual location.

5. Define magnification? What is the magnification produced by a plane mirror?

A: Magnification is the ratio of size of image to the size of object.
Magnification, m = image size = hi
object size ho
The magnification produced by a plane mirror is 1. This means the image is the same size
as the object.
6. How is the image formed by a convex mirror different from that formed by a
concave mirror?
A: A convex mirror always forms a virtual, upright(erect), and diminished image regardless
of the position of the object. A concave mirror can form both real and virtual images. The
image can be magnified, diminished, or of the same size and inverted depending on the
position of the object.
7. How does the refractive index of a medium depend on the wavelength of light?
A: The refractive index of a medium decreases with an increase in the wavelength of light.
Therefore, light of shorter wavelength (e.g., blue light) refracts more than light of longer
wavelength (e.g. red light).

23
8. A ray of light passes through a rectangular glass slab. Explain why the emergent
ray is parallel to the incident ray.
A: As a ray of light enters and exits a rectangular glass slab, it undergoes refraction twice,
bending towards the normal upon entering and away from the normal upon exiting. These
opposite effects cancel each other out, causing the emergent ray to be parallel to the incident
ray.

9. Describe the nature and position of the image formed by a concave mirror when
the object is placed at the center of curvature.
A: When an object is placed at the center of curvature of a concave mirror, the image formed
is real, inverted, and of the same size as the object. The image is formed at the center of
curvature.

10. Write any four uses of concave mirror

Ans :
• In shaving mirrors.
• Is used as a head mirror.
• Astronomical telescopes employ concave mirrors.
• Headlights employ concave mirrors.
• Solar furnaces use it.
11. Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation by a convex lens when object
is placed at principal focus F1

24
Ans:

12. Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation by a convex lens when object
is placed Beyond 2F1
Ans:

13. Draw a ray diagram showing the image formation in a convex lens when the object
is placed between F1 and 2F1

Ans:

14. You are required to obtain an inverted image of an object placed in front of a
concave mirror. If the image is larger than the size of object, draw a ray diagram
to show the formation of image.
Ans.

15. You are required to obtain an erect image of an object placed in front of a concave
mirror. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image .

25
Ans:

16. A pencil when dipped in water in a glass tumbler appears to be bent at the interface
of air and water. Will the pencil appear to be bent to the same extent, if instead of water
we use liquids like, kerosene or turpentine. Support your answer with reason.

Ans. No. Bending will be different in different liquids since velocity of light at the
interface separating two media depends on the relative refractive index of the medium

17. What is lateral displacement and on what factors does it depend?

Ans. Lateral Displacement : “The perpendicular distance between incident ray produced and
emergent ray is called Lateral Displacement’.
Factors : (i) Angle of incidence (ii) Thickness of glass slab. (iii) Refractive index of
glass.
16. State difference between a convex and a concave lens in their (a) appearance, and
(b) action on the incident light.

Convex lens Concave Lens

It is thick in the middle and thin as its It is thin in the middle and thick at its
periphery periphery.
It diverges the incident light away
It converges the incident light towards from the principal axis.
the principal axis
17. Write the differences between lens and the mirror

Mirror Lens

This is opaque substance This is a transparent substance

It undergoes reflection It undergoes refraction

The surface can be plane or spherical The surface is always spherical

18. Convex mirrors are used as rear view mirrors why?

26
Ans: Convex mirrors are commonly used as rear-view (wing) mirrors in vehicles because they
give an erect, virtual, full size diminished image of distant objects witha wider field of view.
Thus, convex mirrors enable the driver to view much larger area than would be possible with
a plane mirror

3 MARKS QUESTIONS
1. Write the differences between convex and concave lens.
Concave lens Convex lens
A concave lens is thinner in the middle A convex lens is thicker in the middle
and thicker at the edges. and thinner at the edges.
It is also known as Diverging Lens It is also known as Converging Lens
It is used for the correction of the It is used for the correction of the
problem in short sight problem in long sight.
Negative Focal Length Positive Focal Length
It diverges the incident rays away from It converges the incident rays towards
the principal axis. the principal axis.

2. Write the differences between reflection and refraction

Reflection Refraction
Reflection is the bouncing back of light Refraction is the bending of light rays when
when it strikes a smooth surface it travels from one medium to another.
Generally occurs on shinny surfaces that This occurs in transparent surfaces that
only allow rebounding of light without allow bending of the ray to a different
permitting penetration through it. medium
Occurs in mirrors. Occurs in lenses
In this process, light bounces back and In this process, light changes path i.e travels
returns back in the same direction. from one medium to another.
The speed of light ray does not vary The speed of light varies after refraction
after reflection with the density of medium

3. Write the difference between real image and virtual image

Real image Virtual image

It can be caught on a screen It cannot be caught on a screen.
It is always inverted It is always erect.
It is formed when the rays of light after It is formed when the rays of light after
reflection or refraction actually meet at reflection or refraction appear to meet at
some point a point.
It can be formed on a screen It can be only seen in the mirror.
It is formed by only concave mirror It can be formed by concave, convex and
plane mirror

27
4. State the sign convention of ฀, ฀ ฀฀฀ ฀ for a concave mirror when
I. image is real.
II. Image is virtual
Ans. I. when image is real
(i) The distance of the object from the pole of the mirror (฀) is always negative.
(ii) The distance of the image from the pole of the mirror (฀) is always negative.
(iii) The focal length (฀) is always negative.
II. when Image is virtual
(i) The distance of the object from the pole of the mirror (฀) is always negative.
(ii) The distance of the image from the pole of the mirror (฀) is always positive.
(iii) The focal length (฀)is always negative.
5. You are required to obtain an inverted image of an object placed in front of a concave
mirror. If the image is larger than the size of object, draw a ray diagram to show the
formation of image and state its characteristics.
Ans.

Characteristics of image :

(i) Image is real, (ii) inverted (iii) enlarged and

(iv) formed between C and infinity, in front of the concave mirror

6. Why does a light ray incident on a rectangular glass slab immersed in any medium
emerges parallel to itself? Explain using a diagram.

Ans. We know that any ray of light travelling obliquely in an optically rarer medium, on
passing through optically denser medium, bends towards the normal, drawn at the point of
incidence. We also know that, any ray of light travelling obliquely in an optically denser

28
medium, on passing through optically rarer medium bends away from the normal, drawn
at the point of incidence.
When light ray PQ enters into glass (denser medium) it bends towards normal as
QR. When this ray QR emerges into air (rarer medium), it bends away from normal as RS.
Because ray of light after refraction comes into same medium so, light ray emerges parallel
to itself.

7. (a) Define 1 dioptre of power. Find the focal length of a lens of power – ฀. ฀ D.
(b). Why does a lemon kept in water in a glass tumbler appear to be bigger than its
actual size?
(c) Study the table given below and state the medium in which light ray will travel
fastest. Why?
Medium A B C
Refractive Index 1.33 1.5 2.4
Ans. (a) One dioptre is the1 power
1
of a lens of focal length 1 m.
Focal length, ฀ = = = −0.5 m = −50 cm.
p 2
(b) It is because of refraction from denser medium to rarer medium.
(c) Light ray will travel fastest in medium A due to its lease refractive index.

8. (a) State the laws of refraction.

(b) What is meant by the term absolute refractive index? The speed of light in a
transparent medium is 0.6 times that the speed in vacuum. Find refractive index of
the medium.
(c) How should a ray of light be incident on a rectangular glass slab so that it comes
out from the opposite side of the slab without being displaced? Draw a ray diagram
to illustrate your answer.
Ans. (a) Laws of refraction :
I. The incident ray, refracted ray and normal drawn at the point of incidence all
lie in the same plane.
II. The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a
constant quality called refractive index.
฀฀฀฀
฀=
sin ฀
(b) The refractive index of an objective or medium with respect to free space(vacuum ) is
called absolute refractive index.
speed of light in vacuum
Refractive index, ฀ = speed of light in medium
8
3 × 10 m/s= 1.67
= 0.6 × 3 ×108m/s
(c) It should incident normally to glass slab as shown in a long side.

29
9. Define the term refractive index of a medium. Can it be less than 1?
Ans. Refractive index of a medium : “Is the ratio of velocity of light in vacuum to velocity of
light in that medium.”
vel. oƒ light in vacuum
R.I. of a medium = vel. oƒ light in that medium
The absolute refractive index of a substance cannot be less than one because it would mean
that the speed of light is more in that substance than at free space(vacuum), which is not
possible. The relative refractive index can be less than one if the first medium in denser than
the second medium.

10. A lens forms the image of an object placed at a distance of 45 cm from it on a screen
placed at a distance 90 cm on other side of it.
(a) Name the kind of lens,
(b) find : (i) the focal length of lens, and
(ii) the magnification of image.
Ans. ฀ = −45 ฀฀
฀ = 90 ฀฀
As image formed is on other side of lens.
It is Convex lens.
(฀) 1 = 1 − 1 = 1 − [ 1 ] = 1 + 1
ƒ v u 90 –45 90 45
1
ƒ = 1+2 1
90 = 30
f = 30cm

11. The focal length of the concave lens is 30cm. Where should the object be placed to get
the image 20cm away from the lens and also find the magnification produced by the
lens.
Ans: Focal length, f = -30cm,
Image distance, v = -20cm
Object distance, u = ?

30
12.A convex lens forms an inverted image of size same as that of the object which is
placed at a distance 60 cm in front of the lens.
Find :(a) the position of image, and
(b) the focal length of the lens
Ans. The image formed is of the same size means inverted
(a) The distance of image from lens is same as distance of object from lens.
As u = - 60cm
∴ ฀ = 60 ฀฀
i.e. position of image v = 60 cm
(b) 2f = 60
f = 60 = 30 ฀฀
2
12. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm.
Find the position and the nature of the image.
Ans. Distance of the object from the convex mirror (฀) = −10 cm
Focal length of the convex mirror (฀) = 15
cmDistance of the image from the convex mirror (฀) = ?
1+ 1 =1 1 1 1
Applying, → – =
v u ƒ v 10 15

1 1 1
= + = 2+3 = 5
=
1
v 15 10 30 30 6

฀ = 6 cm

Thus, the image is formed at a distance of 6 cm behind the mirror. The image is virtual,
erect and smaller in size than object.
13. An object of size 7.0 cm is placed 27 cm in front of concave mirror of focal length 18
cm. At what distance from the mirror, should a screen be placed, so that a sharp
focussed image can be obtained? Find the size nature of the image.
Ans. (i) To calculate the position :
Distance of object from the pole, (฀) = − 27 cm [฀ is always
negative]Distance of image from the pole, (฀) = ? [To be calculated]
Focal length of concave mirror, (฀)= - 18 cm [ f for concave mirror is always negative]

31
Applying, ,1= 1+1 → 1 = 1 + 1→ −1 = − 1 + 1 –2+3
ƒ u v –18 –27 v v 27 18= 54
1
→ − = 1 ∴ ฀ = −54฀฀
v 54

Thus, the image is formed at a distance of 54 cm in front of the concave mirror.

(ii) → hi = v hi
= − –54 → ℎ = −2 × 7.0 = −14 cm
– →
– 27 i
ho u + 7.0

Thus, size of image is 14 cm and it is an inverted, magnified and real image.

14. An object 5 cm high is held 25 cm from a converging lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw
a ray diagram and find the position, size and the nature of the image formed.
Ans. Height of object, ℎ o = 5 cm
Distance of the object from converging lens, ฀ = −25
cmFocal length of converging lens, ฀ = 10 cm
Distance of the image from converging lens, ฀= ?
Using lens formula,v1 −u1=ƒ1 →v1 − –25
1 1
= 10

→1= 1
− 1
= 5–2 = 3 ∴฀= 50 =16.67 cm = 16.7 cm.
v 10 25 50 50 3

Also, for a converging lens hi = v → ℎ =v× ℎ = 50 ×5

=
10
ho u i u o 3 ×–25 3

∴ ℎi = − 3.3 cm
Thus, the image is inverted and formed at a distance of 16.7 cm behind the lens and
measures 3.3 cm. The ray diagram is shown below.

32
CHAPTER- LIGHT REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
SUGGESTED UNIT TEST
Duration-45 min Total Marks: 20
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Section A: Multiple Choice Questions (3 marks)

1. What is the speed of light in a vacuum?

a) 3 x 106 m/s b) 3 x 108 m/s c) 3 x 1010 m/s d) 3 x 1012 m/s

2. Which type of mirror is used in car headlights?

a) Plane mirror b) Concave mirror c) Convex mirror d) Cylindrical mirror

3. The refractive index of a medium is the ratio of:

a) Speed of light in air to speed of light in the medium

b) Speed of light in the medium to speed of light in air

c) Wavelength in air to wavelength in the medium

d) Wavelength in the medium to wavelength in air

Section B: One Mark Questions (3 marks)

4. Define the principal focus of a concave mirror.
5. State Snell's Law.
6. What is the magnification produced by a plane mirror?

Section C: Two Marks Questions (8 marks)

7. Write the laws of reflection.
8. Why does a pencil appear bent when partially submerged in water?
9. Differentiate between real and virtual images.
10. Describe the power of a lens and write its SI unit.

Section D: Three Marks Questions (6 marks)

11. Explain the process of refraction through a glass slab with a diagram.
12. An object is placed 15 cm from a concave mirror with a focal length of 10 cm.
Calculate the image position and nature.

33
CHAPTER-
HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1) A person went for a medical check-up and found that the curvature of his eye lens was
increasing. Which defect is he likely to suffer from?
(a) Myopia
(b) Cataract
(c) Presbyopia
(d) Hypermetropia
Answer: (a) Myopia

2) A person gets out in the sunlight from a dark room. How does his pupil regulate and
control the light entering the eye?
(a) The size of the pupil will decrease, and less light will enter the eye
(b) The size of the pupil will decrease, and more light will enter the eye
(c) The size of the pupil will remain the same, but more light will enter the eye
(d) The size of the pupil will remain the same, but less light will enter the eye
Answer: (a) The size of the pupil will decrease, and less light will enter the eye

3) When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the
(a) Crystalline lens
(b) The outer surface of the cornea
(c) Iris
(d) Pupil
Answer: (b) The outer surface of the cornea

4) In which part of the human eye is the image of an object formed?

(a) Iris
(b) Pupil
(c) Retina
(d) Cornea
Answer: (c) Retina

5) The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be
easily seen from a distance because, among all other colours, the red light
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
(d) moves fastest in the air
Answer: Option (b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog

6) Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
(a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
(b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection

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(d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
Correct Answer: Option (b) (b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection

7) A person sees an object closer to his eyes. What changes will take place in his eyes?
(a) the pupil size will expand
(b) the ciliary muscles will contract
(c) the focal length of the eye lens will increase
(d) the light entering the eye will be more
Correct Answer: Option (b) the ciliary muscles will contract

8) The splitting of white light into different colours on passing through a prism is called
(a) reflection
(b) refraction
(c) dispersion
(d) deviation
Correct Answer: Option (c) dispersion

9). Scattering of light can be seen in ————-.

(a) blue colour of sky
(b)reddening of the Sun at sunrise
(c)reddening of the Sun at sunset
(d)All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
10. The change in focal length of the human eye is caused due to ————-.
a. Cornea
b. Iris
c. Ciliary muscles
d. Pupil
Answer: (c) Ciliary muscles

11. The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called ————-.
a. Indexing of eye
b. Accommodation of eye
c. Vision restoration
d. Adaptivity of eye
Answer: (b) Accommodation of eye

12. How does the eye change in order to focus on near or distant objects?
a. The lens moves in or out
b. The pupil gets smaller
c. The retina moves in or out
d. The lens becomes thicker or thinner
Answer: (d) The lens becomes thicker or thinner

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13. The crystalline lens of people at old age becomes milky and cloudy; this condition is
known as ————-.
a. Hypermetropia
b. Myopia
c. Cataract
d. Presbyopia
Answer: (c) Cataract

14. Far-sightedness is also known as ————-.

a. Hypermetropia
b. Myopia
c. Cataract
d. Presbyopia
Answer: (a) Hypermetropia

15. A person having defective cone cells and unable to distinguish different colours is
termed as ————-.
a. Hypermetropia
b. Myopia
c. Colour-blindness
d. Cataract
Answer: (c) Colour-blindness

16. At a particular minimum angle of deviation, the prism is under ————-.

a. Minimum deviation position
b. Maximum deviation position
c. No deviation position
d. None of these option
Answer: (a) Minimum deviation position

17. In the rearview mirror of the vehicle, what will be the magnification?
a. 1
b. greater than 1
c. Lesser than 1
d. No magnification seen
Answer: (c) Lesser than 1

18 In which of the following, does light travel the fastest?

a. Oil
b. Water
c. Air
d. Paper
Answer: (c) Air

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19. The human eye can focus objects at different distances by adjusting the focal length of
the eye lens. This is due to
a. Presbyopia
b. Accommodation
c. Near-sightedness
d. Far-sightedness
Ans: b. Accommodation

20. The human eye forms the image of an object at its

a. Cornea b. Iris c. Pupil d. Retina
Ans: d. Retina

21. The least distance of distinct vision for an eye lens is caused by the action of the
a). 25 m b). 2.5 cm c) 25 cm d) 2.5 m
Ans: c) 25 cm

22.. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the
a). Pupil b) Retina c) Ciliary muscles d) Iris
Ans: c. Ciliary muscles
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
1. Define power of accommodation?
Ans: The power of the eye lens to focus on objects near or far from the retina by adjusting its
focal length is called power of accommodation.
2. Which part of the human eye provides most of the refraction for the light rays entering
the eye?
Ans: Cornea and Aqueous humour provides most of the refraction for the light rays entering
the eye.
3. What happens to the image distance in the eye when we increase the distance of an
object from the eye?
Ans: When the distance of an object from the eye is increased, the image distance remains the
same and image is formed on the retina of the eye.
4. What happens to the pupil of the eye when the light is very bright?
Ans: When the light is very bright, the pupil’s size becomes smaller and limits the extent of
light entering the eye.
5. Which part of the human eye conveys the electrical signals generated by the light
sensitive cells of the retina to the brain?
Ans: Optic nerves convey the electrical signals generated by the light sensitive cells of the
retina to the brain.

37
6. What would have been the colour of the sky if there had not been any atmosphere
around the earth?
Ans: The colour of the sky would be black if there had not been any atmosphere around the
earth.
7. For dispersion of light through a prism which colour has maximum deviation?
Ans: Violet has the maximum deviation for dispersion of light through a prism.
8. What is the least distance of distinct vision of a normal human eye?
Ans: The least distance of distinct vision of a normal human eye is 25 cm.
9. Name the muscle responsible for bringing change in the focal length of the eye lens?
Ans: Ciliary muscles are responsible for bringing change in the focal length of the eye lens.
10. Name one defect of vision which cannot be corrected by any type of spectacle lenses?
Ans: Cataract, clouding of the lens of the eyes is a vision defect that cannot be corrected by any
type of spectacle lenses.
11. State one effect produced by the scattering of light by the atmosphere?
Ans: Tyndall effect is produced by the scattering of light by the atmosphere.
12. What is the nature of image formed on the retina of the eye?
Ans: The image formed on the retina of the eye is real and inverted.
13. What type of lens is used for correcting hypermetropia?
Ans: Convex lens is used to rectify hypermetropia or long-sightedness.
14. Who was the first person to obtain the spectrum of sunlight?
Ans: Sir Isaac Newton was the first person to obtain the spectrum of sunlight.
15. As light rays pass from air into glass prism, are they refracted towards or away from
the normal?
Ans: As light rays pass from air into a glass prism they are refracted towards the normal as
glass is denser than air.
16. Which colour has largest wavelength?
Ans: Red colour of light has the longest wavelength in the visible spectrum of light.
17. Which defect of vision can be rectified using a concave lens?
Ans: Myopia (short-sightedness) can be rectified using a concave lens.
18. What phenomenon causes twinkling of star on a clear night?
Ans: Atmospheric refraction is the phenomenon that causes twinkling of star on a clear night.
19. What is meant by scattering of light?
Ans: Scattering of light is defined as the change in the direction of light on striking an obstacle
such as dust, water vapour, etc

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20. Why convex lens is called as converging lens?
Ans: A convex lens focuses all the parallel light rays at its focus after refraction. Hence, it is
called as a converging lens.
21. What is a spectrum?
Ans: A continuum of colour obtained by dispersion of white light by passing through a prism is
called a spectrum.

2 MARKS QUESTIONS

1. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye. What is the nature and
power of the lens required to correct the problem.
Ans: The far point of a myopic person is given as 80 cm. Since the person is Myopic, the lens
would be concave and the focal length will be negative.
f = -80 cm -0.8 m
We know, power of a lens is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length.
f= 1/p
P= 1/0.8
= -1.25 D
The nature of the lens is concave and its power is 1.25D

2. Name the phenomenon responsible for the observed twinkling of stars. Will this
twinkling be observed by an observer on the moon.
Ans: The phenomenon responsible for the twinkling of stars is atmospheric refraction. Since the
moon has no atmosphere, the observer on the moon will not be able to observe the twinkling of
stars.
3. Name the part of the eye that determines the colour of a person’s eye
Ans: Iris Controls the amount of light entering in to the eye
4. What is the role of the ciliary muscles?
Ans: The main role of the ciliary muscles is to hold the eye lens in its position. The ciliary
muscles contract and relax to focus on near or far away objects by changing the shape of the
eye lens which in turn increases or decreases the focal length of the eye lens.
5. State the role of eye lens in the human eye?
Ans: The eye lens focuses the light rays entering the eye on the retina forming a real and an
inverted image of the object on the retina.
6. A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond 1.2 m distinctly. What should be
the corrective lens used to restore proper vision?
Ans: Since the person is myopic and cannot see objects clearly beyond 1.2 m, he should use a
concave lens having focal length 1.2 m to restore his normal vision.
7. What is the far point and near point of the human eye with normal vision?
Ans: For a human eye with proper vision, the near point is 25 cm from the eye and the far point
is at infinity.

8 A student has difficulty reading the blackboard while sitting in the last row. What could
be the defect the child is suffering from? How can it be corrected?

39
Ans: Since, the student has difficulty reading the blackboard, sitting in the last row, he is
suffering from myopia or short sightedness. A concave lens of suitable power should be used to
correct his vision defect.

9. Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm?
Ans: The normal eye is not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm because at a
distance of 25 cm power of accommodation gets exhausted. Hence, the eye is unable to focus
the light rays on the retina, when the object is placed closer than 25 cm, .

10. Why does the Sun appear reddish early in the morning?
Ans: During sunrise, the sun is at the farthest distance from the earth’s surface. The light rays
travel a large distance in the Earth’s atmosphere before reaching our eyes. While passing
through atmosphere, the light rays with shorter wavelengths get scattered by the Earth’s
atmosphere and the red colour light with the longest wavelength is able to reach our eyes.
Hence, the Sun appears reddish early in the morning.

11. Why do different colours deviate though different angles on passing through a prism?
Ans: Different colours deviate though different angles on passing through a prism because
different colours with different wavelengths travel through glass with different speeds and the
glass has different refractive index for different colours.

12. Name the defect of vision in person

a. Whose near point is more than 25 cm away?
Ans: Hypermetropia
b. Whose far point is less than infinity. Ans: Myopia

13. Why does clear sky look blue?

Ans: As white light passes through the atmosphere, the tiny particles held in the atmosphere
scatter the light of shorter wavelength. Therefore, blue light having the shortest wavelength is
scattered the most and the clear sky appears blue.

14. Can visible light be scattered by atoms/molecules in earth’s atmosphere?

Ans: Yes, visible light be scattered by atoms/molecules in earth’s atmosphere as size of
molecules/atoms is much less than the wavelength of visible light.

15. Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut?
Ans: The outer space do not have atmosphere. As a result, the light does not scatter into its
constituent colours in the outer space and hence the sky appears dark instead of blue to an
astronaut.

16. What is the basic cause of atmospheric refraction?

Ans: Atmospheric refraction is caused by the bending of light when it passes through the layers
of the Earth’s atmosphere with different optical densities.

17. What is range of vision?

40
Ans: Range of vision of a normal human eye is the distance between the near point and far
point of the human eye. Hence, for a normal human eye it ranges from 25 cm to infinity.

18. Explain in brief: a. What is hypermetropia?

Ans: Hypermetropia (long-sightedness) is a vision defect where nearby objects appear blurred
but the distant objects can be seen clearly.
b. What are the two causes of this defect of vision?
Ans: The two possible causes of this defect are: i. Increase is the focal length of the eye lens or
the power of eye lens decreases ii. Size of the eye ball decreases

19. Explain the following: a. What is scattering of light?

Ans: Scattering of light is defined as the change in the direction of light on striking an obstacle
such as dust, water vapour, etc.
b. A person is known to use a lens of power
i) - 5.5 D for his distant vision
ii) +1.5 D for his near vision
Calculate the focal length of the lens used for correcting his
a. Distant vision
Ans: For distant vision, the power of lens is given to be -5.5 D. The focal length is given by,
f= 1/p
f= 1/ -5.5 m
f = -18.2 m
b. Near vision problems.
Ans: For near vision, the power of lens is given to be +1.5 D. The focal length is given by,
f= 1/p
f= 1/ +1.5 m
f = 66.7 m
20. What is presbyopia? State the causes of this defect? How is presbyopia of a person
corrected?
Ans: Presbyopia is a visual impairment mainly due to ageing when a person is unable to see
the near and far off objects clearly. The main causes of presbyopia are as follows: 1) Stiffness
of the eye lens 2) Due to ageing, the power of accommodation of the eye may decrease. 3) The
ciliary muscles become weak. Presbyopia is corrected using a bifocal lens whose upper half has
a concave nature and the lower half a convex nature.

21. The rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower.
a. Is it correct to say that a rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to sun?
Ans: Yes, a rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to sun as a rainbow is just the
sunlight which has been refracted and reflected.
b. Can it be seen on a sunny day?
Ans: Yes, a rainbow can be seen on a sunny day if the Sun’s beam passing through the droplets
of water suspended in the atmosphere, reaches the observer’s eye.
c. Arrange the sequence in correct sequential order Refraction, Internal Reflection,
Refraction & Dispersion.
Ans: The correct sequential order is: Refraction & Dispersion, Internal Reflection, Refraction.

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22. Explain in detail: a. Write two causes of hypermetropia?
Ans: The two causes of hypermetropia are:
i. Increase is the focal length of the eye lens or the power of eye lens decreases
ii. Size of the eye ball decreases
b. Show diagram to show the correctness of hypermetropia?
Ans: Diagram to show correctness of hypermetropia is shown below,

23. A reporter records the following observations of an astronaut from his space ship.
Justify each statement.
a. The length of the day is same as observed on the earth.
Ans: This statement is not true as the length of the day in space can be four minutes shorter than
on Earth.
b. Sky appears black in colour.
Ans: The statement is correct because in space there is no atmosphere. Hence, there is no
scattering of light.
c. The star appears to twinkle while the planets do not do so as they do on the earth.
Ans: The statement is incorrect since we know that the twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric
refraction and the space has no atmosphere. Hence, the stars do not appear to twinkle in space.

24. Why do stars twinkle?

Ans: Twinkling of stars is due to the atmospheric refraction of light. Stars behave as point
sources of light since they are present far away. The path of the light rays from the star
experiences atmospheric refraction and the position of the star appears to change. Also, the
amount of light entering the eye flickers, so sometimes the star appear brighter and at some
other time, fainter. Thus, the stars twinkle.

25. Explain why the planets do not twinkle

.Ans: The planets are much closer to the earth than the stars. A planet can be considered a
collection of a large number of limited light sources. Although light comes from individual
point sources flicker, the total amount of light that enters our eye from all of the individual
point sources will be the same. Thus, the planets appear equally brighter and there are no
planetary blinks.

26. Draw a diagram to show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism.
Ans: Diagram depicting the dispersion of white light by a glass prism is drawn below.

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3 OR 4 MARKS QUESTIONS

1. A 14-year-old student is not able to see clearly the questions written of the blackboard
placed at a distance of 5 m from him.
a. Name the defect of vision he is suffering from?
Ans: The student is suffering from myopia.
b. Draw the diagram to show this defect?
Ans: The diagram showing myopic defect is drawn below.

c. Name the type of lens used to correct this defect?

Ans: A concave lens is used to correct myopia.
d. Name two possible cause of this defect.
Ans: The two possible causes of myopia are:
i. Elongation of the eyeball ii. Decrease in the focal length of the eye lens
e. Draw the diagram to show how this defect can be corrected.
Ans: The diagram showing how myopic defect is corrected is drawn below.

43
2. Make a diagram to show how hypermetropia is corrected. The near point of a
hypermetropic eye is 1 m. What is the power of the lens required to correct this defect?
Assume that near point of the normal eye is 25 cm.
Ans: The diagram showing the correction of hypermetropia is drawn below.

Near point of a hypermetropic eye is 1 m and that of normal eye is 25 cm. Given,
V =-1 m = 100 cm u = -25 cm From the lens formula, we have:
1/f = 1/v - 1/u
1/f = 1/ -100 - 1/ 25
F = 100/3 cm or 1/3 m
The focal length is given by,
f= 1/p
f= 1/ 1/3 D
P= +3.0 D

44
CHAPTER- HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD
SUGGESTED UNIT TEST
Duration- 45 mins. Total marks:20
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I. Multiple choice questions. 1x3=3
1. Far-sightedness is also known as ————-.
A) Hypermetropia B) Myopia C) Cataract D) Presbyopia

2. The least distance of distinct vision for an eye lens is caused by the action of the
A) 25 m B) 2.5 cm C) 25 cm D) 2.5 m

3. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the
A) Pupil B) Retina C) Ciliary muscles D) Iris

II. Answer the following questions. 1x3=3

4. Which defect of vision can be rectified using a concave lens?
5. What is meant by scattering of light?
6. What is the least distance of distinct vision of a normal human eye?

III. Answer the following questions. 2x4=8

7. Draw a diagram to show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism.
8. Why does the Sun appear reddish early in the morning?
9. The far point of a myopic person is 100 cm in front of the eye. What is the nature and power
of the lens required to correct the problem.
10. Why do stars twinkle?

IV. III. Answer the following questions. 3x2=6

11.What is hypermetropia? State the causes of this defect? How is hypermetropia
of a person corrected?
12. A 14-year-old student is not able to see clearly the questions written on
the blackboard placed at a distance of 5 m from him.
a. Name the defect of vision he is suffering from?
b. Name the type of lens used to correct this defect?
c. Name two possible cause of this defect.

45
CHAPTER
CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS

MAIN POINTS TO REMEMBER

1. According to “Law of conservation of mass” mass can neither be created nor destroyed.
Therefore there is a need to balance the chemical equation.
2. A reaction in which two or more reactants combine to form a single product is called
Combination reaction.
3. A reaction in which a single reactant decomposes to form two or more products is called
Decomposition reaction.
4. A reaction in which a highly reactive element displaces a less reactive element from its
compound is called Displacement reaction.
5. A reaction in which exchange of ions takes place between reactants is called Double
displacement reaction.
6. A substance that is insoluble in water is called a precipitate.
7. A reaction in which precipitate is formed is called a Precipitation reaction.
8. When sodium sulphate reacts with barium chloride, a white precipitate called barium
sulphate is formed.
9. An exothermic reaction is a reaction in which heat is liberated.
10. Burning of coal, burning of natural gas, human respiratory reaction and decomposition of
vegetable matter into compost are examples for exothermic reactions.
11. An endothermic reaction is a reaction in which heat is absorbed.
12. Decomposition reactions are examples for endothermic reactions.
13. Decomposition reactions of silver chloride and silver bromide are used in black and
white photography.
14. A reaction in which a substance gains oxygen or loses hydrogen is called an Oxidation
reaction.
15. A reaction in which a substance gains hydrogen or loses oxygen is called Reduction
reaction.
16. A reaction in which reduction and oxidation takes place simultaneously is called Redox
reaction.
17. When few metals react with their surrounding substances like moisture, acids etc. they
get corroded. This process is called Corrosion.
18. Fats and oils get oxidized and change their smell and taste. This process is called
Rancidity.
19. Preserving food items in air tight containers and adding anti-oxidants to food items are
the two measures to prevent rancidity.
20. Chips manufacturers flush chips bags with nitrogen to prevent oxidation of chips.

46
CHAPTER
CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
I. ONE MARK QUESTIONS
1. Name the reactants that are oxidised and reduced in the
reaction.
CuO + H2 Cu + H2O
reactant that is oxidised = H2
reactant that is reduced = CuO

2. Packets of chips are flushed with nitrogen gas. Why ?

To prevent oxidation of chips / To prevent rancidity of chips

3. Name the reactants that are oxidised and reduced in the reaction
Zn + COZnO + C
reactant that is oxidised = Zn
reactant that is reduced = CO

4 Name the product formed when Calcium oxide reacts with water
Calcium hydroxide ( Ca(OH)2 ) ( Slaked lime )

II. TWO MARKS QUESTIONS

1 Name the brown coloured gas liberated when lead nitrate is heated ?
Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
Brown coloured gas = Nitrogen di oxide
2Pb( NO3)2 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2

2. Draw the apparatus used in the electrolysis of water and label the following
parts. 1. Graphite 2. Cathode

3 When calcium carbonate is heated, calcium oxide and carbon dioxide are produced.
Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction. Name the type of reaction.
1. CaCO3 heat CaO + CO2

47
2. Chemical decomposition.

4. Differentiate between exothermic and endothermic reaction

Exothermic reaction Endothermic reaction
A reaction in which heat is A reaction in which heat is
liberated absorbed

5. Differentiate between oxidation and reduction reaction.

Oxidation reaction Reduction reaction

A reaction in which a substance A reaction in which a substance

gains oxygen or loses hydrogen loses oxygen or gains hydrogen

6 Name the two reactions used in black and white photography.

sunlight
1. 2AgCl 2Ag + Cl2
sunlight
2.2AgBr 2Ag + Br2

III. THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

1 The reaction between Aluminium sulphate and barium chloride is an example for
which type of chemical reaction ? Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
1. Double displacement reaction
2. Al2(SO4)3 + 3BaCl2 3BaSO4 + 2AlCl3

2. Write the balanced equations for the below reactions. How to confirm these reactions
by observation.
A) when lead nitrate is heated
B) Reaction between Sodium sulphate and barium chloride
A) 2Pb( NO3)2 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
Brown coloured fumes of nitrogen dioxide can be seen.
B) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 BaSO4 + 2NaCl
Formation of white precipitate ( BaSO4) can be seen.

3. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions.

i) Calcium carbonate Calcium oxide + Carbon dioxide
ii) Hydrogen + Chlorine Hydrogen chloride
iii) Magnesium + Hydrogen chloride Magnesium chloride
i) CaCO3 CaO + CO2
ii) H2 + Cl2 2HCl

48
iii) Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2
4. Iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution. What type of reaction is this ?
Why ?Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reaction.
Displacement reaction. Because more reactive element iron displaces less reactive
element copper from its Compound.
Fe + CuSO4 FeSO4 + Cu

49
CHAPTER
CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
10TH STD UNIT TEST
TIME : 45 MINS MARKS : 20

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER FROM THE FOLLOWING 1 X 4 = 4

1. The metal which displaces copper from copper sulphate solution is
A) Gold B) Silver C) Chlorine D) Mercury
2. The gas collected at cathode during electrolysis of water is
A) Oxygen B) Hydrogen C) Chlorine D) Nitrogen
3. CaCO3 CaO + CO2
The above type of chemical reaction is
A) Combination B) Decomposition
C) Displacement D) Double displacement
4. The brown colored gas liberated when lead nitrate is heated
A) Carbon dioxide B) Nitrogen dioxide C) Oxygen D) Nitrogen
II. Answer the following questions 1X3=3
5. Define chemical combination reaction.
6. What is Rancidity?
7. Name the reactants that are oxidized and reduced in the following reaction.
CuO + H2 Cu + H2O
III. 8. Draw the diagram of the apparatus used in the electrolysis of water and label the parts.
2X3=6
9. Classify the following reactions into exothermic and endothermic reactions.
1) Human respiratory reaction
2) Heating of calcium carbonate
10. What is chemical decomposition reaction? Write a balanced chemical equation
for the following reaction.
Calcium Carbonate decomposes into Calcium Oxide and Carbon dioxide
IV. 11. Name the type of reaction that occurs when iron nail is dipped in copper
sulphate solution. Why ? Write the balanced chemical equation for the following
reaction
Fe + CuSO4  FeSO4 + Cu
3
12. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions and how are
these reactions confirmed by observation?
1) When lead nitrate is heated
2) When barium chloride reacts with sodium sulphate 4
CHAPTER
ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
MAIN POINTS TO REMEMBER
1. Acids are sour to taste and turn blue litmus red.
2. Bases are bitter to taste and turn red litmus blue.
3. Litmus and turmeric are examples for natural indicators.
4. Methyl orange and Phenolphthalein are two examples for artificial indicators.
5. Vanilla and onion extracts are two examples for Olfactory indicators.
6. Acids react with metals to produce salt and hydrogen.
7. Bases also react with metals to produce salt and hydrogen.
8. All metal carbonates and hydrogen carbonates react with acids to produce salt, carbon
dioxide and water.
9. Acids and bases react with each other to form salt and water. This reaction is called
Neutralization reaction.
10. Metallic oxides are basic and nonmetallic oxides are acidic in nature.
11. All acids and bases have hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in common respectively.
12. The process of dissolving acid or a base in water is a highly exothermic reaction,
therefore they must always be added slowly to water with constant stirring.
13. If water is added to concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash
out and cause burns. The glass container may also break due to excessive heat liberated.
14. A pH scale is a scale used to measure hydrogen ion concentration in a solution.
15. A strong acid is an acid which produces more H+ ions in a solution. Eg : HCl
16. A strong base is a base which produces more OH- ions in a solution. Eg : NaOH
17. A weak acid is an acid which produces less H+ ions in a solution. Eg: CH3COOH
18. A weak base is a base which produces less OH- ions in a solution. Eg: NH4OH
19. As pH value decreasesacidity increases, concentration of H+ ions increases basicity
decreases and concentration of OH- ions decreases.
20. As pH value increasesbasicity increases, concentration of OH- ions increases, acidity
decreases and concentration of H+ ions decreases.
21. Human body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8
22. Under certain circumstances stomach produces more acid as a result we experience pain
and irritation. This condition is called Acidity.
23. To prevent acidity bases called antacids are used. The commonly used antacid is
magnesium hydroxide ( Milk of magnesia ) Mg(OH)2
24. pH responsible for acid rain is less than 5.6
25. pH responsible for tooth decay is less than 5.5
26. Methanoic acid is an acid responsible for the pain and irritation caused by stings of bees and ants
27. When electricity is passed through the brine solution, sodium hydroxide, chlorine and
hydrogen are produced. This process is called Chlor – Alkali process.
28. Bleaching powder is produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime( Ca(OH)2 )
29. Plaster of Paris is produced by heating Gypsum at 373K

51
CHAPTER - ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

I. ONE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. An example for natural indicator
Litmus / Turmeric
2. An example for artificial indicator
Methyl orange / Phenolphthalein
3. An example for olfactory indicator
Vanilla / Onion
4. The gas that is liberated when metals react with acids is
Hydrogen
5. .Name the ion responsible for the acidic nature of a substance.
Hydrogen ion / Hydronium ion
6. .Name the ion responsible for the basic nature of a substance.
Hydroxyl ion
7. Antacid generally used during acidity is
Magnesium hydroxide
8. The pH value of acid rain is
Less than 5.6
9. Name the pH range in which human body functions.
7.0 to 7.8
10..The pH value responsible for tooth decay
Less than 5.5
11. Name the acid present in the stinging hair of nettle leaves
Methanoic acid ( Formic acid )
12. Give an example for an amphoteric oxide
Aluminium oxide / Zinc oxide

II. TWO / THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

1 .What are olfactory indicators ? Give examples.
The substances which change their smell in acidic and basic medium.
Eg: onion peel/vanilla

2. What is Neutralisation reaction ? Give one example.

A reaction in which an acid and a base react to produce salt and water.
Example :HCl + NaOHNaCl + H2O
3. .Aluminium Oxide is an example for amphoteric oxide. Justify the statement.
Al2O3 + 6HCl 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
Al2O3 + 2NaOH 2NaAlO2 + H2O

4. .What is the cause for tooth decay? How it can be prevented?

52
When bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by degrading sugar and food
particles remaining in the mouth after eating, the pH of the mouth becomes less
than 5.5. This is the cause for tooth decay.
It can be prevented by cleaning the teeth using toothpaste.
5. What is rock salt? how it is formed? How it is obtained?
The deposits of brown coloured solid salts is called rock salt. Rock salts were
formed when seas of bygone ages dried up. Rock salt is obtained by mining.
6. What is Chlor-Alkali process? Write the balanced chemical equation for
this process.
When electricity is passed through brine solution, it decomposes to form sodium
hydroxide (alkali) and chlorine (chlor) along with hydrogen.
2NaCl + 2H2O 2NaOH + Cl2 + H2
7. Name the products of chlor-alkali process and mention their uses.

Products Uses
NaOH 1) Manufacture of soaps and
detergents
2) Paper making, artificial fibres
Cl2 1) Water treatment and swimming
pools
2) Making of pesticides and
disinfectants
H2 1) Fuel
2) Margarine and ammonia for
fertilizers

8. Write the molecular formulae and chemical name of the following compounds and
mention their uses.
Compound Molecular Chemical name Use
formula
Bleaching CaOCl2 Calcium oxy chloride 1) For bleaching cotton and
powder linen
2) As disinfectant
Baking soda NaHCO3 Sodium hydrogen 1) Making baking powder
carbonate 2) Making of antacids
Washing soda Na2CO3. 10 Sodium carbonate 1) As a cleaning agent for
H2 O domestic purpose
2) For removing permanent
hardness of water
Plaster of CaSO4. ½ Calcium sulphate hemi 1) As a supportive for
paris H2 O hydrate fractured bones
2) Making of toys and
decorative materials.

9 .What is Water of Crystallisation? Name the two salts of water

53
of Crystallisation and write their chemical formulae.
Water of Crystallisation is the fixed number of water molecules present in one
formula unit of a salt.
1) Gypsum ------ CaSO4. 2H2O
2) Washing soda ----- Na2CO3. 10H2O
10. Agricultural experts have suggested to add a definite amount of lime to a land.
Explain the reasons for their suggestion.
1) The soil in the land is acidic
2) A definite pH value of soil is required for the proper growth of plants
3) Lime being basic in nature, when added to soil it will lowers the
acidic nature of the soil.
11. .What is acid rain? Mention its defects.
Rain water with pH value less than 5.6 is called acid rain.
Defects: 1) When acid rain flows into rivers, it lowers the pH value of rivers
thus making the survival of aquatic life difficult.
2) Acid rain diminishes the lustre of world famous historical monuments.

12. Observe the table given below. Which substance has the least and
high concentration of H+ and OH- ions respectively? Why?
Substance pH Value
P 7.4
Q 2.2
R 10
S 1.2

Substance R has the least and high concentration of H+ and OH- ions respectively.
Reason: The pH value of substance R is more.
13. Name the gas liberated when an acid reacts with a metal carbonate. Write the
balanced chemical equation of the reaction when this gas is passed through lime
water. What is the colour of the precipitate formed in this reaction?
1) carbon dioxide
2) Ca (OH)2 + CO2 CaCO3 + H2O
3) White ppt.
14. The pH values of A, B and C are 5, 6 and 7 respectively. Which of these solutions
is more acidic and basic in nature? Why?
 Solution A is more acidic in nature as it has more H+ ions
 Solution C is more basic in nature as it has more OH- ions

15. Differentiate between the following compounds giving one example each.
Acid and Base

54
Acid Base

Sour to taste Bitter to taste

Turns blue litmus red Turns red litmus blue
HCl Mg (OH)2
Strong acid and Weak acid
Strong acid Weak acid
An acid which produces high An acid which produces
concentration of H+ ions in less concentration of H+
water ions in water
HCl CH3COOH

. Strong base and Weak base

Strong base Weak base
A base which produces high A base which produces less
concentration of OH- ions in concentration of OH- ions in
water water
NaOH NH4OH

GIVE REASONS.
16 .While diluting a concentrated acid, always an acid should be added to water.
 The process of dissolving an acid in water is highly exothermic.
 The heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns.
 The glass apparatus may also break due to excessive heat produced.

17. Plaster of Paris must be kept in moisture resistant containers.

To prevent Plaster of Paris from getting hard after reacting with moisture present
in air.

18. Plaster of Paris is used as plaster for supporting fractured bones.

Plaster of Paris reacts with water and becomes hard.

19. Draw the diagram of arrangement of the apparatus to show the reaction of zinc
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning. Label the
following parts.
i) Zinc granules ii) Soap solution

55
20. Draw the diagram of arrangement of apparatus to show that acid solution in
water conducts electricity and label dilute HCl solution.

56
CHAPTER - ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
UNIT TEST
TIME : 45 MINS MARKS : 20

II. Choose the correct answer from the following 1X4=4

1. The gas liberated when sodium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is
A) Carbon dioxide B) Nitrogen dioxide C) Hydrogen D) Chlorine
2. The substance which converts blue litmus red is
A) Quick lime B) Pure water
C) Sodium hydroxide solution D) Gastric juice
3. As pH of a solution increases
A) Basicity decreases and concentration of OH- ions increases
B) Acidity increases and concentration of H+ ions increases
C) Acidity decreases and concentration of H+ ions increases
D) ) Basicity increases and concentration of OH- ions increases
4. Which one of the following types of medicines are used for treating indigestion?
A) Antibiotic B) Analgesic C) Antacid D) Antiseptic
II. Answer the following questions 1X3=3
5. Name the gas liberated when metals react with acids.
6. What is Neutralization reaction?
7. Name the acid present in the stinging hair of nettle leaves
III. 8. What is chlor – alkali process? Write the balanced chemical equation for the
following reaction? 2X3=6
9. What is the cause for tooth decay? How it can be prevented?
10. Draw the diagram of arrangement of apparatus to show that acid solution in water
conducts electricity and label the parts
IV. 11. Draw the apparatus to show the reaction of zinc granules with dilute sulphuric acid
and testing of hydrogen gas by burning. Label the parts. 3
V. 12. Write the molecular formula and chemical name of the compounds given below
and mention two uses each of the following compounds 4
1) Bleaching powder 2) Plaster of paris
CHAPTER - METALS AND NON-METALS
POINTS TO REMEMBER

1. Differences between physical and chemical properties of metals and non-metals

2. Chemical properties of metals - reactions of metals with air,water,acids and other
metal salts
3. The reactivity series
4. Reaction of metal with non-metal – Electron dot structures
5. Properties of Ionic compounds
6. Occurrence of metals – extraction of metals, Enrichment of ores,Reduction method
Calcination, Roasting, Electrolytic reduction
7. Refining of metals
8. Corrosion – examples,methods of prevention
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
 The metal which is a liquid at room temperature – Mercury
 The property of metals to be drawn into thin wires – Ductility
 The property of metals to be beaten into sheets – Malleability
 The property of metals to produce a sound on striking a hard surface- Sonorous
 The homogeneous mixture of a metal and a metal or a metal and a non-metal – Alloy
 An alloy with one of the units in it is Mercury - Amalgam
 The production ofa metal from its oxide using aluminium as reducing agent –Thermite
reaction .
 A method of protecting steel and iron from rusting by coating them with a thin layer of
zinc -. Galvanization
 The metal oxides which react both as acids and bases to produce water and salt –
Amphoteric oxides
 The examples for amphoteric oxides – Aluminium oxide , Zinc oxide
 The metal oxides soluble in water are called - Alkalis
 Producing thick oxide coating of aluminium – Anodization
 The elements or compounds which occur naturally in the earth’s crust –Minerals
 Mineral containing a very high percentage of a particular metal and that metal can be
profitably extracted from it is called – Ore
 The impurities such as soil, sand etc., found along with ore - Gangue
 The insoluble impurities settle at the bottom of the anode – Anode mud
 The non- metal which is a liquid at room temperature – Bromine
 The non-metal which is good conductor of electricity – Graphite
 The non –metal which is lustrous- Iodine
 The hardest natural substance - Diamond
 An ore of mercury – Cinnabar
 The metals which are kept immersed in kerosene – Sodium and Pottasium
 The most malleable metals – Gold and Silver
 The most ductile metal -Gold

58
 The best conductors of heat –Silver and Copper
 The poor conductors of heat – Lead and Mercury
 The production of metal from its ore is called – Extraction of metal
 The list of metals arranged in the order of their decreasing activities --The reactivity
series
 An example for alkali metal – lithium, sodium , potassium
 The process in which the sulphide ores are converted into oxides by heating in the
presence of excess air – Roasting
 The process in which the carbonate ores are converted into oxides by heating in the
presence of limited air – Calcination
 The substances used as reducing agents - Coke and more reactive metals ( Na, Mg )
 Iron when exposed to moist air for long time, it acquires a brown flaky coating called –
Rust ( this process is called rusting of iron )
 The property of few metals where they react with their surrounding substances and get
corroded - Corrosion
Give Scientific reason ;
1. Ionic compounds have high melting point and boiling point.
Because - a considerable amount of energy is required to break the strong
Inter ionic attraction.
2. The Silver articles become black after sometime , when exposed to air.
Because - Silver(Ag) reacts with sulphur in the air to form a coating of
Silver Sulphide (Ag2S).
3. The copper loses its shiny brown surface and gains a green coat .
Because – copper(Cu) reacts with moist carbon dioxide to form a green coat of basic
copper carbonate CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
4. In alloying, nickel and chromium are added to iron .
Because – Iron becomes hard and strong. It protects iron from rusting.
5. The tamarind and lemon juices are used to clean the tarnished copper utensils.
These sour substances are effective in cleaning.
Because – The acids in the tamarind and citrus fruits neutralises and remove the
Copper carbonate coating on the utensils
6. Iron is never used in its pure state .
Because – Pure iron is very soft and stretches easily when it becomes hot.
7. When iron is exposed moist air , it produces brown flakes .
Because – Iron reacts with moist air to form aqueous Iron (II ) oxide ,Fe2 O3.2H2O
8. Ionic compounds do not conducts electricity in the solid state, but conducts
electricity in the molten state.
Because – In solid state,the movement of ions is not possible due to their rigid
structure, But in molten state, since the electrostatic forces of attraction are
overcome due to heat .Thus the ions move easily and conducts electricity.
9. Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid .
Because – Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent. It oxidises hydrogen released to
water and itself gets reduced to any of the nitrogen oxides (N2O, NO, NO2)

59
10. Magnesium and manganese react with dilute nitric acid to evolve hydrogen .
Because – dilute nitric acid is a weak oxidising acid. It cannot oxidise the hydrogen
into water.
11. Metals are good conductors of electricity.
Because – The free electrons in the metals act as charge carriers .
12. The oxides of more reactive metals cannot be reduced by carbon.
Because – More reactive metals have more affinity for oxygen than for carbon.
13. Metals such as potassium and magnesium are kept immersed in kerosene oil.
Because – They so vigorously react with air that they catch fire when kept open .
14. The school bells are made of metal .
Because – Metals are sonorous in nature.
15. We use copper to make hot water tanks but not steel.
Because – the copper does not react with hot water but steel reacts. It is a good
conductor than steel.
16. The citric fruit juices should not be stored in metal container.
Because – The acids present in the citric fruit juices react with metals.It spoils the
food.
17. The Gallium and Caesium will melt if you keep them on your palm.
Because – The Gallium and caesium have very low meilting point than our body
temparature .
18. The metal food containers are coated with tin but not the zinc.
Because –The tin is less reactive than zinc. It doesn’t react with chemicals in the
Food. So that food will not be spoiled.
19. Platinum , gold and silver are used in making ornaments.
Because – Platinum, Gold and silver are more lustrous ,ductile, malleable but the
least reactive metals
20. Prior to reduction ,the metal sulphides and carbonates must be converted into
metal oxides .
Because –It is easy to obtain metals from their oxides as compared to their
sulphides and carbonates.
21. Aluminium is a reactive metal,yet it is used to make utensils for cooking .
Because – Aluminium reacts with the oxygen in air to form a coating of aluminium
oxide. It prevents further corrosion.
22. The graphite is used in making electrodes .
Because – Graphite is cheaper . It does not corrode and dissolve in water . It is a
good conductor of electricity.
23. Calcium and magnesium start floating when react with water.
Because – The bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of the metal .
24. Copper is added to ornamental gold .
Because – Pure gold is so soft that it cannot retain shape. Addition of copper
Makes it hard.

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2 OR 3 MARKS QUESTIONS
Differentiate between;
1. The physical properties of metals and non-metals .

Metals Non-metals
1 Sonorous Non-sonorous
2 Ductile and malleable Non – ductile and non-malleable
3 Solids at room temperature Solids, liquids or gases at room tempeature
4 Good conductors of heat and Poor conductors of heat and electricity
electricity

2. The chemical properties of metals and non-metals

Metals Non-metals
1 Electron donors Electron receipients
2 Displace hydrogen from dilute acids Do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids
3 Form ionic bond Form covalent bond
4 Produce alkaline oxides Produce acidic oxides
3. Roasting and calcination
Roasting Calcination
1 Heating sulphide ore strongly in the Heating strongly the carbonate ore in the
presence of excess air presence of limited air
2 Sulphide ore is converted into their Carbonate ore is converted into their metal
metal oxides oxides
3. 2 HgS (s) + 3 O2Heat 2HgO (s) + 2 SO2 ZnCO3 (s) heat 2 ZnO (s) + CO2 (g)

4. Acidic oxide and alkaline oxide

Acidic oxide alkaline oxide
1 Non-metal oxides Metal oxides
2 Converts blue litmus into red Coverts red litmus into blue
5. Write the properties of ionic compounds.
The ionic compounds –
 Are solid, hard and brittle in nature.
 Have high melting and boiling points
 Soluble in water but not in organic solvents like kerosene.
 Conducts electricity in molten state but not in solid state.
6. Do the following reactions takes place? or not .Justify your answer .
a) Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu

61
b) Fe + ZnSO4 → FeSO4 + Zn
a) This reaction takes place. Because zinc (Zn) more reactive than copper ( Cu ).
b) This reaction does not takes place. Because iron (Fe ) is not more reactive than zinc ( Zn)

7. How are the metals low in the activity series extracted? Explain .
The metals low in the activity series are extracted by the reduction of their
oxides by heating alone .
When cinnabar (ore of mercury ) is heated in air,it converts into mercuric oxide.
Heat
2 HgS (s) + 3O2 → 2 HgO (s) + 2 SO2
This mercuric oxide is then reduced to mercury on further heating .
2 HgO heat 2 Hg + O 2
mercuric oxide mercury
8. How are the metals middle in the activity series extracted ? Explain .
The metals middle in the activity series occur as sulphides and carbonates in
nature .
Sulphide ore is converted into its metal oxide by heating strongly in the presence
of excess air
2 ZnS (s) + 3 O 2 Heat 2 ZnO (s) + 2 SO2
Carbonate ore is converted into their metal oxide by heating strongly in the
Presence of limited air
ZnCO3 (s)heat 2ZnO (s) + CO2 (g)
These metal oxides are then reduced to metals using coke (as reducing agent )
ZnO (s) + C (s) Zn (s) + CO (g)
9. How do we extract the metals towards the top of the reactivity series (more
reactive metals ) ? Explain.
The metals towards the top of the reactivity series (more reactive metals ) are
obtained by electrolytic reduction .
For example ,when molten sodium or magnesium chloride is submitted to electrolysis,
metals (sodium or magnesium) deposit at the cathode and the chlorine liberates at anode. At
cathode : Na+ + e------> Na

62
At anode : 2Cl------- > Cl2 + 2e
10. Explain the electrolytic refining of copper .
 In this method , the impure metal is made as anode and a thin strip of pure
metal is made as the cathode .
 A solution of the metal salt is used as an electrolyte.
 On passing the current through the electrolyte , the pure metal from anode
dissolves into the electrolyte.
 An equivalent amount of pure metal from the electrolyte is deposited on the cathode.
 The soluble impurities go into the solution,whereas the insoluble impurities
settle at the bottom of the anode.
11. How do metals react with air ?
The metals react with air to form metal oxides
2 Cu + O2 ----> 2 CuO
Copper copper (II) oxide
12. How do metals react with water ? Explain with examples
The metals react with water to produce metal oxide and hydrogen gas.The
metal oxides that are soluble in water dissolve to form metal hydroxide.
 Metals like sodium and magnesium react violently with cold water.
2 Na (s) + 2 H2O (l)----> 2 NaOH(aq) + H2 +heat energy
 The reaction of calcium is less violent
Ca(s) + 2 H2O (l) ----> Ca(OH)2 (aq)+ H2 (g)
 Metals like aluminium ,iron and zinc reacts only with steam

2 Al (s) + 3 H2O (g) ----> Al2O3 + 3 H2 (g)

 Metals such as lead, copper, silver and gold do not react with water at all.
13. How do metals react with acids ?
Metals react with acids to produce a salt and hydrogen gas
Mg (g) + 2 HCl (aq) ----> MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)
14. How do metals react with other metal salts ?
The more reactive metal displaces less reactive metal from its metal salt in solution
or molten state.
For example,when iron nail is kept in the copper sulphate solution, iron

63
displaces copper from copper sulphate.
Fe (s) +CuSO4 (aq) ------->FeSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
15. Write the preventive methods of rusting of iron (corrosion ).
* Painting * Oiling * greasing * galvanising
* chrome plating * anodising * alloying
16. What is thermite reaction ?Where is it used ? write the balanced
Chemical equation of the reaction takes place.
The highly exothermic reaction of Iron (III) oxide (Fe2O3) with Aluminium ( Al )
is called thermite reaction .
Use : It is used to join railway tracks or cracked machine parts .
The balanced Chemical equation of the reaction takes place is :
Fe2O3 (s) + 2 Al (s) -------> 2 Fe(l) + Al2 O3 (s) + Heat
17. Explain the electrolytic refining method of copper
• The pure copper is made as cathode and impure copper is made as anode.
• The electrodes are immersed in electrolytic vessel containing copper sulphate
Solution as electrolyte and electricity is passed.
• The copper ions from the anode enter the electrolytic solution, meanwhile the
same amount of copper ions present in the electrolytic solution get deposited
at the cathode.
Reaction at anode : Cu -------> Cu 2+ + 2e
Reaction atcathode : Cu2+ + 2e -------> Cu
18. Name the Components present in the following alloys
Alloy Components
Brass Cu and Zn
Bronze Cu and Sn
Solder Pb and Sn
Steel Fe and C
Stainless steel Fe , C , Ni and Cr
19. What is electro-chemical series ( Reactivity series ) ?
The arrangement of metals in the decreasing order of their reactivity.
K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe >Pb> Cu > Ag > Au

64
20. Write the electron dot structure to show the formation of sodium chloride
molecule.

21. Write the electron dot structure to show the formation of Magnesium chloride
molecule.

65
DIAGRAMS

22. Draw a labelled diagram of the apparatus showing the action of the steam
on metal.

23. Draw the labelled diagram of the apparatus showing the testing the
conductivity of asalt solution.

66
24. Draw the labelled diagram of the apparatus showing the electrolytic refining

of copper.

Electrolyting refining of
copper
67
UNIT TEST - METALS AND NON-METALS Maxmarks ; 20
Duration ; 45min.

I. Choose the correct answer from the options given for each question. 1X 3= 3
1. The property of metals to be drawn into thin wires
a) Ductility b) malleability c) sonorous d) conductivity
2. A method of protecting steel and iron from rusting by coating them with a thin layer
of zinc
a) alloying b) galvanizationc) reduction d) oxidation
3. The Non –metal which is lustrous-
a) carbon b) silicon c) magnesium d)Iodine
II. Answer the following questions 1X2= 2
4. What is amalgam ?
5. Name the metal which is liquid at room temperature .
III. Answer the following questions 2X6= 12
6. Differentiate between the chemical properties of metals and non-metals.
7. Write the properties of ionic compounds.
8. Suggest any 4 methods of preventing the rusitng of iron (corrosion ).
9. Explain the electrolytic refining method of copper
10. Give Scientific reason :
a) The copper loses its shiny brown surface and gains a green coat .
b) Prior to reduction , the metal sulphides and carbonates must be converted into
metal oxides .
11. Draw the neat labelled diagram of the apparatus showing the testing the
conductivity of a salt solution
IV. Answer the following questions 3X3= 3
12. How do metals react with water ? Explain with example

68
CHAPTER - CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS

IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBR

 Carbon is a versatile element that forms the basis for all living organisms and many of
the things we use. This large variety of compounds is formed by carbon because of its
tetravalency and the property of catenation that it exhibits.
 Covalent bonds are formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms so that both
can achieve a completely filled outermost shell.
 Carbon forms covalent bonds with itself and other elements such as hydrogen, oxygen,
sulphur, nitrogen and chlorine.
 Carbon also forms compounds containing double and triple bonds between carbon atoms.
These carbon chains may be in the form of straight chains, branched chains or rings.
 The ability of carbon to form chains gives rise to a homologous series of compounds in
which the same functional group is attached to carbon chains of different lengths.
 The functional groups such as alcohols, aldehydes, ketones and carboxylic acids bestow
characteristic properties to the carbon compounds that contain them

ONE MARK QUESTIONS

1. What is catenation? Give an example.
Carbon has the property of forming bonds with other atoms to form large molecules.
Eg: a. normal chain b. Branched chain c. closed chain
2. What is isomerism? Give an example.
Hydrocarbon compounds having the same molecular formula and different structural
formula are called isomers. This phenomenon is called isomerism.
Differences between alkane, alkene and alkyne.
Alkane Alkene Alkyne
1.Single bond between Double bond between The triple bond between
carbon and carbon carbon and carbon carbon and carbon
2.General Formula: General Formula: CnH2n General Formula: CnH2n-2
CnH2n+2

3. What is hydrogenation?
The reaction of converting unsaturated fat into saturated fat by passing hydrogen gas
in the presence of the catalyst nickel.
4. What is the esterification reaction?
The formation of esters by the reaction between acid and alcohol is called
esterification reaction.
5. What is saponification?
The reaction of esters with sodium hydroxide to form alcohol and sodium salts
of carboxylic acid is called saponification.
6. What is soap? Give an example.
Sodium or potassium salt of long chain carboxylic acid.
Eg: Sodium Stearate, Sodium Oleate, Sodium Palmitate
7. How do micelles form?

69
Ionic end of the soap reacts with water the carbon chain reacts with the oil to form
a structure called micelles.
8. What is detergent? Give an example.
Sodium salt of sulphonic acid or ammonium salt of chloride or bromide ions.
Eg: Sodium T-dodecyl benzene sulphonate.
9. List out the advantages of detergents.
a. It does not produce water insoluble precipitates.
b. It is also effective in hard water.
10. List the disadvantages of detergents.
a. It is non-biodegradable.
b. Causes environmental pollution.

2 OR 3 MARKS QUESTIONS
11. What are oxidation reactions?
The reactions which involve addition of oxygen to the reactant or removal of hydrogen
from the reactant are called oxidation reactions.
Ex : When alcohols are heated in presence of oxidising agents like alkaline potassium
permanganate or acidified potassium dichromate, they are oxidised to carboxylic acids.
12. How will ethanol be oxidised?
Ethanol is oxidised into ethanoic acid by heating with oxidising agents like
alkaline potassium permanganate or acidified potassium dichromate

13. How will you distinguish saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons?

Saturated hydrocarbons do not undergo hydrogenation but unsaturated hydrocarbons
undergo addition reaction when they react with hydrogen, to produce saturated
hydrocarbons.
On complete combustion, saturated hydrocarbons burn with clean blue flame. But during
the complete combustion, unsaturated hydrocarbons burn with yellow flame.
14. Explain the cleansing action of soap.
In water, hydrophobic hydrocarbon end of soap molecules interacts with oily dirt, while
ionic hydrophilic end interacts with water to form micelles. When we wash the clothes
micelles pulls off the dirt and clean the clothes.
15. What are structural isomers? Name the first member of alkanes that shows structural
isomerism.
 Compounds with identical molecular formula but different structures are called
structural isomers
 Butane or C4H10

16.(i) Write the differences between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.

(ii) Write the molecular formula and structural formula of an alkene having five carbon
atoms.

70
(i) Differences between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
Saturated hydrocarbons Unsaturated hydrocarbons
Single bond between carbon atoms Double or triple bond between carbon atoms
Less reactive More reactive
Generally gives clean blue flame Burns with yellow sooty flame

(ii) Molecular formula of an alkene having five carbon atoms= C5H10

17. Carbon atom does not form C 4 − anion and C 4 + cation. Why?
Carbon can gain four electrons. But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six protons
to hold on to ten electrons, that is four extra electrons. It can lose four electrons but it
would require a large amount of energy to remove four electrons leaving behind a
carbon cation with six protons in its nucleus holding on to just two electrons.
18. Define Isomerism. Give example.
Organic compounds with same molecular formula but different structural formula are
called isomers. The phenomenon is called isomerism. Ex:Butane, Isobutane.
19. What is a homologous series?
A series of similarly constituted compounds in which the members present have the
same functional group and similar chemical properties and any two successive members
in a particular series differ by - CH2 unit, is called a homologous series.
Ex: Alkanes, Alkenes
20. Name the first member of alkenes and alkynes.
Ethene and Ethyne
21. Are ethene and butene members of homologous series? What do you think?
They belong to the alkene family as their general molecular formula is C nH2n.
There is a CH2 formula unit difference between next member.
22. Why are carbon compounds are commonly used as fuels?
Carbon compounds yield large amount of heat energy and hence they are used as fuels.
23. What are addition reactions? Give examples.
Unsaturated hydrocarbons add hydrogen in the presence of catalysts such as palladium
or nickel to give saturated hydrocarbons.
24. What is Substitution reaction? Give example.
Saturated hydrocarbons react with chlorine in the presence of sunlight, to replace
the hydrogen atoms one by one. It is called a substitution reaction.
CH4 + Cl2 → CH3Cl + HCl
25. Give scientific reason for the following.
a) Air holes of LPG stoves should be cleaned periodically.
b) Sometime saturated hydrocarbons burn with yellow flame.
a) If air holes are blocked, it means that the air holes are blocked, the flame will burn
without adequate air, giving off a yellow flame. And vessels getting blackened. These leads to
wastage of energy. Hence air holes must be cleaned regularly.
b) Because saturated hydrocarbons usually burn with blue flames, if adequate air
(oxygen) is not available they burn with yellow flame. It causes wastage of energy and air
pollution.

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Carbon Compounds: Molecular formula, Structural formula and Electron Dot Structures
Alkanes (General Molecular Formula = CnH2n+2)

Alkenes (General Molecular Formula = CnH2n)

Alkynes (General Molecular Formula = CnH2n-2)

28 | P a g e
MYSURU RURAL

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Cyclic Alkanes (Closed or Ring chain)

Carboxylic acids:

Aldehyde:

Alcohol:

Ketone:

Haloalkanes:

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Electron Dot Structure:

74
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUND
SUGGESTED UNIT TEST
TIME : 45 MINS MARKS : 20

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER FROM THE FOLLOWING (3 X 1 = 3)

1. Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6 has
(a) 6 covalent bonds. (b) 7 covalent bonds.
(c) 8 covalent bonds. (d) 9 covalent bonds.
2. Butanone is a four-carbon compound with the functional group
(a) Carboxylic acid. (b) Aldehyde. (c) Ketone. (d) Alcohol.
3. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting blackened on the outside, it means that
(a) the food is not cooked completely. (b) the fuel is not burning completely.
(c) the fuel is wet. (d) the fuel is burning completely.

II. Answer the following questions (3 X 1 = 3)

4. What is an homologous series?
5. What is hydrogenation of oils and fats?
6. How many structural isomers can you draw for pentane?

III. Answer the following questions (2X4=8)

7. Write molecular formula and electronic dot structure of cyclopentane.
8. Why is the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid an oxidation reaction?
9. Draw the structures for the following compounds.
(i) Ethanoic acid (ii) Bromopentane
10. What is an Addition Reaction ? Give an example.
11. Carbon atom does not form C 4 − anion and C 4 + cation. why? (3M)
12. What are isomers ? Write isomers of butane (3M)
CHAPTER - LIFE PROCESSES
IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER
• Nutrition: It is the process by which living beings procure food for obtaining energy and
body building materials.
• Autotrophic Nutrition : It is a type of nutrition in which an organism is able to build up
its own organic food from inorganic raw materials with help of energy.
• Photosynthesis: It is the synthesis of organic food from inorganic materials with the
help of light energy inside chlorophyll containing plant cells.
• Heterotrophic Nutrition: It is that mode of nutrition in which the organisms obtain
food from outside sources.
• Respiration : It is an enzyme controlled biochemical process of stepwise oxidative
breakdown of organic compounds releasing energy at various steps.
• Transportation: It is the movement of materials from one part to another , usually from
the region of their availability to the region of their use, storage or elimination.
• Circulatory system: It is a system of organs like blood,blood vessels and heart, that
circulates various materials inside the body.
• Translocation: It is the movement of materials in plants, especially in phloem tissue.
• Transpiration: It is the loss of water in vapour form from the exposed parts of plant,
mainly through stomata present on the leaves
• Excretion: It is the process of throwing out of waste products and other harmful
chemicals from the body.
• Osmoregulation : It is the maintenance of a fixed osmotic concentration of body
fluids by controlling the amount of water and salts. By this process, Ecretory
system controls concentration of salts, sugar and water in our body.

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [1 MARK]

1. What will happen to a plant if its xylem is removed?

Answer. Xylem in plant transports water and dissolved mineral nutrients from the roots to all
parts of the vascular plant. So, if xylem is removed from the plant, the water and mineral supply
to the plant will stop and therefore, the plant will die.
2. Where does digestion of fat take place in our body?
Answer. Digestion of fat takes place in the small intestine of our body.
3. Name one accessory pigment and one essential pigment in photosynthetic plants.
Answer. Accessory pigment – Carotene/Xanthophyll
Essential pigment – Chlorophyll
4. What is the mode of nutrition in human beings?
Answer. Holozoic nutrition.
5. Mention the raw materials required for photosynthesis.

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Answer. The following raw materials are required for photosynthesis:
(i) Carbon Dioxide: Plants get CO2 from atmosphere through stomata.
(ii) Water: Plants absorb water from soil through roots and transport to leaves. (iii) Sunlight:
Sunlight, which is absorbed by the chlorophyll and other green parts of the plant.
6. What would be the consequences of deficiency of haemoglobin in your body?
Answer. The deficiency of haemoglobin in our body is called anaemia. In anaemia, the blood is
unable to carry the sufficient amount of oxygen required by the body. So, respiration would be
less and less energy will be available to the body. The haemoglobin deficient person will feel
weak, pale, lethargic and will be unable to perform heavy physical work.
7. Name the green dot like structures in some cells observed by a student when a leaf peel
was viewed under a microscope. What is this green colour due to?
Answer. The green dot-like structures in some cells observed by a student when a leaf peel is
viewed under a microscope are chloroplasts. The green colour is due to the presence of green
pigment, chlorophyll.
8. State any one difference between autotrophic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition.
Answer. In Autotrophic nutrition, organisms obtain their food from inorganic substances like
minerals, carbon dioxide and water. In Heterotrophic nutrition, organisms directly consume
organic substances.
9. Give one reason why multicellular organisms require special organs for exchange of
gases between their body and their environment. :
Answer. In unicellular organisms the entire body of the organism is in contact with the
environment hence exchange of materials can take place but, in multicellular organisms the
entire body of the organism is not in contact with the environment and hence simple diffusion is
not helpful.
10. Name the process in plants where water is lose as water vapour. :
Answer. Transpiration is the process when plants lose water in the form of vapour.
11. What is ‘Translocation’ in plants?
Answer. Translocation is the movement of soluble materials, products of photosynthesis from
leaves to other tissues throughout the plant.
12. State the basic difference between the process of respiration and photosynthesis.
Answer. Respiration uses O2 and releases CO2 but in photosynthesis, CO2 is used and O2 is
released.
13. Name the intermediate and the end products of glucose breakdown in aerobic
respiration.
Answer.

14. Mention two structural features of small intestine which add to the absorptive
capacity
Answer. Two structural features of small intestine are:
(i) Villi is present to increase the absorptive surface area.
(ii) Lacteals in the villi receive the products of fat digestion.

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15. In the experiment “Light is essential for photosynthesis”, why does the uncovered part
of the leaf turn blue-black after putting iodine solution?
Answer. Starch is produced in the uncovered part of the leaf because it is exposed to sunlight
allowing it to photosynthesize, which turns blue-black in presence of iodine solution.
16. Name the component of blood that helps in the formation of blood clot in the event of a
cut.
Answer. Platelets help in clotting of blood in the event of a cut.
17. Mention how organisms like bread moulds and mushrooms obtain their food.
Answer. Organisms like bread moulds and mushrooms breakdown the food materials outside
the body and then absorb the nutrients of the bread.
18. What advantage over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have with
regard to obtaining oxygen for respiration?
Answer. The amount of oxygen dissolved in water is very low, as compared to amount of
oxygen in air. Thus, terrestrial organism has to make less efforts to obtain oxygen than an
aquatic organism to obtain oxygen for respiration.
19. Name the two ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in various
organisms.
Answer. The two ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in various organisms are
aerobic respiration pathway which uses oxygen to break-down glucose completely into carbon
dioxide and water and some use other pathways that do not involve oxygen which is called
anaerobic respiration pathway.
20. Specify two conditions in which photo-respiration may take place in green plants.
Answer. Two conditions in which photorespiration may take place in green plants are: (i) High
concentration of oxygen and (ii) High temperature

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS[I] [2 MARKS]

21. What are the final products after digestion of carbohydrates and proteins?
Answer. The final product produced after digestion of carbohydrates is glucose and of proteins
is amino acids.
22. What is saliva? State its role in the digestion of food.
Answer. Saliva is a watery fluid secreted by the salivary glands in the mouth. The digestive
functions of saliva include moistening food, and helping to create a food bolus, so it can be
swallowed easily. Saliva contains the enzyme amylase that breaks some starches down into
maltose and dextrin.
23. Explain the process of nutrition in Amoeba.
Answer. The mode of nutrition in Amoeba is holozoic. It feeds on food particle.
The various steps of nutrition are ingestion, digestion, assimilation and egestion. When Amoeba
comes in contact with food particles, it extends pseudopodia, which engulfs the particle by
forming a food cup, which is known as ingestion. When the tips of the encircling pseudopodia
touch each other, the food is encaptured into a bag called food vacuole. The food vacuole
serves as a temporary stomach secreting digestive juice, this step is known as digestion. The
digested food gets absorbed and diffuses into the cytoplasm and then assimilated. Egestion of
undigested food takes place at any point on the surface of the body.
24. State two differences between arteries and veins.

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Answer. Arteries: Arteries carry oxygenated blood, away from the heart except pulmonary
artery. These are thick-walled, highly muscular except arteries of cranium and vertebral
column. Valves are absent. Blood in arteries moves with pressure.
Veins: Veins carry deoxygenated blood, towards the heart except pulmonary veins. These are
thin-walled. Valves are present which ensure unidirectional flow of blood. Blood in veins
moves under very low pressure .
25. How are the alveoli designed to maximise the exchange of gases?
Answer. Alveoli are small pouches or sac- like structure. They are surrounded by blood
capillaries. Thus a large amount of air is brought in contact with the capillaries present in the
lungs. More than millions of alveoli are present in the lungs. The presence of millions of alveoli
in the lungs provides a very large surface area for the exchange of gases. The availability of
large surface area maximises the exchange of gases.
26. Explain the mechanism of gaseous exchange between tissues and blood.
Answer. Exchange of respiratory gases, i.e. oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs between the
blood and tissues.
In tissues, oxygen is used up for their activities and carbon dioxide is released. The blood from
lungs has high concentration of oxygen and low concentration of carbon dioxide. Due to this,
difference in concentration of oxygen and carbon dioxide, the exchange of gases takes place
between tissue and blood.
27. Describe the mechanism of blood clotting.
Answer. Blood Clotting: It is the mechanism that prevents the loss of blood at the site of an
injury or wound by forming a ‘blood clot’. The blood has platelet cells which circulate around
the body and plug these leaks by helping to clot the blood at these points of injury to prevent
excessive bleeding.
28. Why are white blood corpuscles called ‘soldiers’ of the body?
Answer. White blood corpuscles can fight with the disease germs present in the body carried by
blood and help to maintain a healthy body. So, they are called as ‘soldiers’ of the body.
29. Which part of the human heart is considered as pace-maker? Why is it so called?
Answer. Sino-atrial node of the human heart is considered as pacemaker. Sino-atrial node is
also called as pacemaker because it determines the rate of heartbeat by determining the rate of
discharge of cardiac impulse.
30. Which enzyme initiates the digestion of proteins ? Name the other enzyme produced
by the same gland.
Answer. The enzyme pepsin initiates the digestion of proteins. The other enzyme produced by
the stomach is gastric lipase.
31. Name the first digestive organ that is associated with the breakdown of proteins in
humans. What are its three releases?
Answer. The first digestive organ in humans is the stomach. It releases proteolytic enzymes,
HCl and mucus.
32. Name two excretory products other than 02 and CO2 in plants.
Answer. The two excretory products other than 02 and CO2 in plants are resins and gums.
33. Why do the walls of the Trachea not collapse when there is less air in it?
Answer. Rings of cartilages are present in trachea. These rings support the trachea and do not
allow the trachea to collapse when there is less air in it.

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34. What are enzymes? Name any one enzyme of our digestive system and write its
function.
Answer. Enzymes are biological catalysts. Catalysts are proteins that increase the rate of
chemical reactions without being used up. For example: Amylase catalyses the breakdown of
starch into sugars in the mouth and small intestine
35. (i) Write the balanced chemical equation for the process of photosynthesis,
(ii) When do the desert plants take up carbon dioxide and perform Photosynthesis ?
Answer.
(i) Photosynthesis can be represented using a chemical equation. The overall balanced equation
is
6CO2+ 12H2O------SUNLIGHT------------------ C6H12O6+6CO2+12H2O
CHLOROPHYLL

(ii) Desert plants open up their stomata during night and take in CO2. Stomata remains closed
during the day time to prevent the loss of water by Transpiration. They store the CO 2 in their
cells until the sun comes out and they can carry on with photosynthesis during the day time.
36. Why there is no mixing of deoxygenated and oxygenated blood in the human heart
normally?
Answer. There is no mixing of deoxygenated and oxygenated bloods in human heart due to the
presence of inter-ventricular septum. This septa completely divides the ventricle into right and
left to avoid mixing of blood.
37. Why are the walls of ventricles thicker than the auricles ?
Answer. The walls of ventricles are thicker than the auricles because ventricles have to pump
the blood to all the parts of the body during their contraction. To counteract the backward
pressure exerted by the blood, the walls of the ventricles have to be thicker otherwise it may
lead to bursting of heart.
38. Why do herbivores have longer, small intestine than carnivores ?
Answer. Digestion of cellulose takes a longer time. Hence, herbivores eating grass need a
longer small intestine to allow complete digestion of cellulose. Carnivorous animals cannot
digest cellulose due to the absence of enzyme Cellulase. Hence they have a shorter intestine.
39. Write any two functions of large intestine in man.
Answer. Functions of large intestine in man are: (i) It serves to store the unabsorbed food
remnants temporarily. (ii) It concentrates the contents by absorbing water. (iii) The movements
of colon help the faeces through anus.

40. How would digestion of food be affected if the bile duct is completely blocked?
Explain.
Answer. If the bile duct is completely blocked, bile juice will not reach the small intestine and
the digestion of fats will be affected.
41. How would it affect the digestion of proteins and carbohydrates in the duodenum of
man if there is a blockage in the pancreatic duct? Explain.
Answer. If there is a blockage in the pancreatic duct, the pancreatic juice which contains
enzymes for the digestion of carbohydrates and proteins will not reach the small intestine.

42. How is carbon dioxide obtained by (a) aquatic plants and (b) terrestrial plants ?

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Answer. (a) Aquatic plants take up carbon dioxide dissolved in water.
(b) Terrestrial plants use carbon dioxide present in air.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]

43. In single celled organisms diffusion is sufficient to meet all their requirements of food,
exchange of gases or removal of wastes but it is not in case of multicellular organisms.
Explain the reason for this difference.
Answer. Unicellular organisms can absorb sufficient oxygen because of its complete contact
with the atmosphere, but in multicellular organisms the rate of absorption and diffusion
becomes very less because all cells are not in direct contact with the atmosphere. Multicellular
organisms require greater amount of oxygen to sustain life processes which cannot be fulfilled
by the process of diffusion.
44. Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label kidneys, ureters on it.
Answer.

45. Name the acid presents in the following:

(i) Tomato (ii) Vinegar (iii) Tamarind
Answer.
(i) Oxalic acid (ii) Acetic acid (iii) Tartaric acid.
46. State the role of the following in human digestive system :
(i) Digestive enzymes (ii) Hydrochloric acid (iii) Villi
Answer.
(i) Digestive enzymes – Foods need to be broken into their small or simpler molecules so that
they can be absorbed into the bloodstream. However, the physical breakdown of food is not
enough. Enzymes are hence needed for the chemical breakdown of food and speeding up the
digestive process. The products of digestion can hence be small enough to be absorbed.

81
(ii) Hydrochloric acid – Hydro chloric acid helps to kill the germs which might have entered
in to the system through food. It creates acidic medium for the pepsin to act on food to
breakdown proteins.
(iii) Villi – Villi are finger like projections in the small intestine. They help to increase the
surface area for absorption of the digested food. Villi are richly supplied with blood vessels
which help to absorb digested food in to the blood stream
47. In mammals and birds why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and de-oxygenated
blood ?
Answer. Mammals and birds are warm blooded animals. This means they can control their
body temperature and do not have to depend on environment for their body temperature
regulation.
Because of this birds and mammals require optimum oxidization of glucose which would be
possible with good supply of oxygen. So it is required to have separate oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood to supply the required amount of oxygen.

48. Draw a diagram of human respiratory system and label on it :

(i) Diaphragm (ii) Larynx
Answer.

50. List three characteristics of lungs which make it an efficient respiratory surface.
Answer. These features which particularly make our lungs efficient for gas exchange.
1. Thin: the air sac walls are very thin so that gases can quickly diffuse through them. Oxygen
is absorbed in to the blood and carbon dioxide is given out in to the lungs to be exhaled out.
2. Moist: the air sacs are moist with mucus so that gases can dissolve before diffusing.
3. Large surface area: the surface area for gases to diffuse through in human lungs is roughly
the same as a tennis court. The alveoli help to increase the surface area for absorption of
oxygen.
4. Good blood supply: the air sacs or the alveoli have a large capillary network so that large
volumes of gases can be exchanged. More the flow of blood more exchange of gasses.
.
51. (a) What is the role of HCL in our stomach ?
(b) What is emulsification of Fats ?
(c) Which protein digesting enzyme is present in pancreatic juice ?
Answer.
(a) (i) It sterilises food by killing pathogens and other microbes.

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(ii) It has a pH of 2, which is perfect for enzyme such as pepsin to break down
proteins as effectively as possible.
(iii) Helps to emulsify food (digestion of protein and stimulates the pancreas
to produce digestive enzymes and bile and protects against harmful bacteria
(b) Breakdown of large gloubule fats into smaller fats droplets is known
as emulsification.
(c) Trypsin is the enzyme secreted by the pancreas which aids in digestion of proteins.
52. (a) Name the site of exchange of material between the blood and surrounding cells. (b)
Draw a schematic representation of transport and exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
in human body.
Answer.
(a) Capillaries
(b)

53. List in tabular form three differences between arteries and veins.
Answer:

54. In human alimentary canal, name the site of complete digestion of various components
of food. Explain the process of digestion.

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Answer.In small intestine, complete digestion of various components of food take place. The
process of digestion of food in mouth, stomach and small intestine in human body are as
follows:
Mouth: Digestion of food begins in the mouth. Saliva present in mouth contains a digestive
enzyme, called salivary amylase, maltose and dextrose, which breaks down starch into sugar.
Stomach: Stomach stores and mixes the food received from the oesophagus with gastric
juices.The main components of gastric juice are hydrochloric acid, mucus and pepsinogen.
Hydrochloric acid dissolves bits of food and creates an acidic medium. In this medium,
pepsinogen is converted to pepsin which is a protein-digesting enzyme. Mucus protects the
inner lining of the stomach from the action of HCL.
Small Intestine: Small intestine is the site of complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and
fats. Small intestine produces intestinal juice from the glands present in its wall. The intestinal
juice helps in further digestion of food. Small intestine also obtains digestive juices from liver
and pancreas. The liver produces bile juice that causes emulsification of fats and the pancreas
produces pancreatic juice for digesting proteins and emulsified fats. This digested food is
finally absorbed through the intestinal walls.
54. List the three kinds of blood vessels of human circulatory system and write ¦ their
functions in tabular form.
Answer. Three types of blood vessels in human circulatory system are: Arteries, Veins and
Capillaries.Their functions are tabulated below:

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(a) “The breathing cycle is rhythmic whereas exchange of gases is a continuous process”.
Justify this statement.
(b) What happens if conducting tubes of circulatory system develops a leak? State in brief,
how could this be avoided?
(c) How opening and closing of stomata takes place?
Answer. (a) The breathing cycle involves inhalation and exhalation of air due to alternate
expansion and contraction of thoracic cavity. Thus it is a rhythmic process. But exchange of
gases is a continuous process as it takes place between the blood and each and every cell, by
diffusion.
(b) The circulatory system will become inefficient if it develops a leak. This could be avoided
by maintaining a normal blood pressure.
(c) When water flows into the guard cells, the guard cells swell and the stomatal pore opens up.
When water moves out the guard cells shrinks and the stomatal pore closes.
56. Describe in brief the function of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra.
Answer. The Kidneys filter the blood and concentrate the filtrate to make urine. They also help
regulate blood pressure.

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Ureters transport the urine to the urinary bladder.
Urinary bladder is like a holding tank for the urine until it’s ready to be excreted. Urethra is the
tube that connects the urinary bladder to the outside of the body for excretion.
57. Explain the process of breakdown of glucose in a cell (ii) in the absence of oxygen.
Answer. The process of breakdown of glucose in a cell are as follows:

The first step in the breakdown of glucose both in presence of 02 and in absence of O2 is same.
In this step, glucose is broken down into pyruvate. Second step which involves further
breakdown of piruvate into simple compounds can take place in two different ways:
(a) In presence of O2: In the presence of 02, private is converted into C02 and water. Energy
released during aerobic respiration is much greater than that released during an anaerobic
respiration.
(b) In absence of O2: In the absence of 02 in yeast, pyruvate is converted into ethanol and C02
and the process is called fermentation. In absence of 02, in our muscle cells, pyruvate is
converted into lactic acid. The build up of lactic acid in muscle cells causes cramps.
58. Draw a diagram of the front view of human heart and label any six parts including at
least two, that are concerned with arterial blood supply to the heart muscles.
Answer.

85
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [5 MARKS]

59. (a)Explain how does the exchange of gases occur in plants across the surface of stems,
roots and leaves.
(b) How are water and minerals transported in plants ?

Answer.
(a) In plants there are tiny pores called stomata on leaves and lenticels in stem which facilitate
the exchange of gases. Carbon dioxide is taken in and oxygen given out {during
photosynthesis} and vice versa during respiration.
(b) Water and minerals are transported within the plant by the Xylem vessels (mainly in an
upward direction); these are part of the vascular system which also includes Phloem vessels.
Phloem transports the products of photosynthesis within the plant, to all parts like the stem,
roots, fruits etc. in all directions.
60. Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label renal artery and urethra. State
in brief the function of :
1. kidney
2. ureter
3. urinary bladder
4. Urethra
Answer.

Renal artery: The renal artery carries blood to the kidneys from the abdominal aorta. This
blood comes directly from the heart and is sent to the-kidneys to be filtered before it passes
through the rest of the body. Up to one-third of the total cardiac output per heartbeat is sent to
the renal arteries to be filtered by the kidneys. Each kidney has one renal artery that supplies it
with blood. The filtered blood then can exit the renal vein.
Kidney: The kidneys perform the essential function of removing waste products from the blood
and regulating the water fluid levels. The kidneys regulate the body’s fluid volume, mineral
composition and acidity by excreting and reabsorbing water and inorganic electrolytes.
Ureter: The ureter is a tube that carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder.’ There are
two ureters, one attached to each kidney.

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Urinary bladder: The urinary bladder is an expandable muscular sac that stores urine before it
is excreted out of the body through the urethra.
61. (a) Draw a diagram to show open stomatal pore and label on it:
(i) guard cells
(ii) chloroplast
(b) State two functions of stomata.
(c) How do guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomatal pore?
Answer.(a)

(b) Two functions of stomata are:

(i) Exchange of gases between the plant and the atmosphere takes place through stomata.
(ii)Transpiration in plants takes place through stomata.
(c) Opening and Closing of Stomatal Pore: The opening and closing of the pore is a function of
the guard cells. The guard cells swell when water flows into them causing the stomatal pore to
open. Similarly, the pore closes if the guard cells shrink. As large amount of water is lost
through these stomata, the plant closes these pores when it does not require carbon dioxide for
photosynthesis.
62. How is urine produced and eliminated ?
Answer-
(b) Blood from the heart comes into the kidneys afferent and efferent arteriols from the renal
arteries where it enters about 2-3 million nephrons per kidney. Then, it goes through the
glomerulus a tugt or bunch of blood capillaries and get rid of some of the unwanted substances
like urea, uric acid, creatinine in the blood and then continues through the renal tubules. The
loop of Henley, reabsorb certain substances such as water (actually if body is dehydrated, body
will
send anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) to kidneys to prevent extra water from going into urine and
thus saving water for body and get rid of anything else that isn’t wanted, then the urine goes
through ureters to bladder and then to urethra where it is excreted out of body as urine.
63. (a) Draw a diagram of human respiratory system and label the following:
(i) part where air is filtered by fine hair and mucus
(ii) part which terminates in balloon – like structures
(iii) balloon – like structures where exchange of gases takes place. (iv) part which
separates chest cavity from abdominal cavity.

87
(b) Why is the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms much faster than in terrestrial
organisms?

Answer.(a)

(b) Quantity of dissolved

ed oxygen
oxygen isis fairly
fairly low
low in
in water
water as
as compared
compare to the amount of oxygen in
air. Aquatic organisms therefore
therefore have
have toto breathe fasterthan
breath faster thanterrestri
terrestrial organisms to absorb the
required amount of oxygen from the water.
64. What is the advantage of separate channels in mammals and birds for oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood?
Answer. It is necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds
because they need high energy and large amount of oxygen. The separation of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood provides high oxygen supply to the organs.

65. (a) Draw a diagram depicting Human Alimentary Canal and label on it: Gall bladder,
Liver and Pancreas.
(b) State the roles of Liver and Pancreas.
(c) Name the organ which performs the following functions in humans:
(i) Absorption of digested food
(ii) Absorption of water.
Answer.(a)
(b)Liver: It synthesize and stores bile juice secreted by gall bladder which breaks down fatsinto
fat globules. Pancreas: It secretes pancreatic juice which contains protein-digesting and starch digesting
enzymes.
c) (i) Absorption of digested food – Small intestine.
(ii)Absorption of water – Large intestine.

66. (a) Draw a sectional view of the human heart and label on it –
Aorta, Right ventricle and Pulmonary veins.

(b) State the functions of the following components of transport system:

(i) Blood (ii) Lymph
Answer.(a)

(b) The functions of blood and lymph are as follows:

(i) Blood
• Oxygen is transported by the blood to the tissues of the body for the breakdown of
digested food.
• Carbon dioxide is transported to the lungs by the blood plasma.
• The digested and absorbed nutrients are transported by blood to the tissues.
Nitrogenous wastes are transported to the kidneys.
• It regulates the body temperature and maintains the pH of the body tissues.
• It transports various hormones from one region to another and brings about
coordination.
• It maintains water balance to constant level.
• The lymphocytes produce antibodies against the invading antigens and protect from
diseases.
• It helps in rapid healing of wounds by forming a clot at the site of injury.
(ii) Lymph
• It cleans the cellular environment.
• It returns proteins and tissue fluids to the blood (drainage)
• It provides a pathway for the absorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins into the
bloodstream.
• It defends the body against disease.

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67. (a) Draw a labelled diagram of the respiratory system of human beings with
diaphragm at the end of expiration.
(b) List four conditions required for efficient gas exchange in an organism.
Answer.(a)

(b) (i) A large surface area over which exchange can take place.
(ii) A concentration gradient without which nothing will diffuse.
(iii) A thin surface across which gases diffuse.
(iv) Warm conditions.
68. (a) Draw a diagram to show the nutrition in Amoeba and label the parts used for this
purpose. Mention any other purpose served by this part other than nutrition.
(b) Name the glands associated with digestion of starch in human digestive tract and
mention their role.
(c) How is required pH maintained in the stomach and small intestine?
Answer.(a)

Pseudopodia serves the purpose of locomotion apart from nutrition.

(b) The salivary gland is associated with digestion of starch in human digestive tract.It secretes
saliva which contains enzyme salivary amylase. This enzyme converts starch into maltose
(sugar).

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(c) Gastric glands present on the walls of the stomach release HC1. HC1 creates an acidic
medium, which facilitates the action of enzyme pepsin. Bile juice from liver makes the food
alkaline in small intestine for the pancreatic enzymes to act.

69. (a) Leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with vaseline to block the stomata.
Will this plant remain healthy for long? State three reasons for your answer.
(b) State any two differences between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition.
Answer. (a) No, this plant will not remain healthy for long. The plant will begin to die because
(i) Gaseous exchange will not take place.
(ii) No absorption of C02, hence no photosynthesis.
(iii) Transpiration will not occur; hence no transportation of water
Autotrophic nutrition Heterotrophic nutrition
(i) Autotrophic nutrition In this, the organisms make their food from carbon dioxide
and water in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
(i) Heterotrophic nutrition In this, the organisms derive their food or nutrients from
other living organisms.
(ii) Autotrophic nutrition All green plants are autotrophic and use light as a source of
energy for synthesis.
(ii) Heterotrophic nutrition The energy is derived from the intake and digestion of the
organic substances.

70. (a) List the three events that occur during the process of photosynthesis. Explain the
role of stomata in this process.
(b) Describe an experiment to show that “sunlight is essential for photosynthesis.”
Answer.
(a) The three events that occur during the process of photosynthesis are:
(i) Absorption of light energy by the green pigment chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy and the splitting of water molecule into
hydrogen and oxygen.
(iii) Reduction of carbon dioxide into carbohydrate.
Role of Stomata
Stomata are tiny pores present on the surface of leaves. They are also present on the surface of
young stems. Stomata are mainly engaged in the exchange of gases (entry of CO2 and release
of O2 ) associated with photosynthesis. Plant closes the stomata when it does not need CO2 for
photosynthesis.
(b) Sunlight is essential for photosynthesis
Procedure:
(i) Place a healthy green potted plant in a dark room for 1-2 days. This is done to ensure that the
plant consumes all its reserve food and the leaves do not contain any starch.
(ii) Then, cover a portion of a leaf of this plant on both sides with two uniform pieces of black
paper, fixed in position with two paper clips.
(iii) Now, expose this plant to bright light. After a few hours, remove the leaf and decolorize it
with alcohol and test the presence of food (starch) with iodine solution.
Observation: It can be observed that the portion of the leaf covered with black paper does not
synthesise food.
Conclusion: This is because the food prepared by plants through the process of photosynthesis
is stored as starch. Starch reacts with the iodine solution to give blue-black colour. Only those
portions of the leaf that were exposed to sunlight could photosynthesise. Hence, gives blue-
black colour when tested with iodine. The portion of the leaf covered with black paper did not
receive sunlight. Hence, starch was not produced. Thus, it can be concluded that the sunlight is
essential for photosynthesis.
71. (a) What is meant by breathing? What happens to the rate of
breathing during vigorous exercise and why?
(b) Define translocation with respect to transport in plants. Why is
it essential for plants? Where in plants are the following synthesised?
(i) Sugar (iii) Hormone
Answer.(a) The process of taking in of oxygen from air in to the lungs and expulsion of carbon
dioxide out of the lungs is called breathing. The rate of breathing during vigorous exercise
increases by about 20 to 25 times per minute. It is because, during vigorous exercise the
demand for oxygen increases. Breathing occurs involuntarily but its rate is controlled by the
respiratory center of the brain.
(b) Translocation is the transport of food from the leaves to other parts of the plant and occurs
in the part of the vascular tissue known as phloem. It is essential for plants because every part
of the plant needs food for obtaining energy for building its parts and maintaining its life.
(i) Sugar is synthesised in the leaves of the plant.
(ii) Hormones are synthesised at the tips of roots and stems of a plant.
72. (a) Explain how does the exchange of gases occur in plants across the surface of stems,
roots and leaves.
(b) How are water and minerals transported in plants?

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Answer. (a) In plants, there are tiny pores called stomata on leaves and lenticels in stem which
facilitate the exchange of gases. CO2 is taken in and O2 given out (during photosynthesis) and
vice-versa during respiration.
(b) Mechanism of Transport of Water and Minerals in a Plant
• The vessels and tracheids of roots, stems and leaves in xylem tissue are interconnected to
form a continuous system of water-conducting channels reaching all parts of the plant.
• The cells of the roots in contact with the soil actively take up ions which creates a difference
in the ion concentration between the root and the soil.
• Thus, there is steady movement of water into root xylem from the soil, creating a column of
water that is pushed upwards.
• Plant uses another strategy to move water in the xylem upwards to the highest points of the
plant body.
• The water which is lost through the stomata is replaced by water from the xylem vessels in the
leaf.
• Evaporation of water molecules from the cells of a leaf creates a suction which pulls water
from the xylem cells of roots.
• This loss of water is transpiration which helps in the absorption and upward movement of
water and minerals dissolved in it from roots to the leaves.
• Transpiration becomes the major driving force in movement of water in the xylem during the
day when the stomata are open.
• This mechanism is also known as cohesion of water theory or transpiration pull.
73 a) Name the molecule in the cell which stores the energy produced at the end of the
pathway.
(b) Why do we get cramps during vigorous muscular activity?
Answer (a) ATP
(b) Lactic acid accumulation, in the absence of oxygen (anaerobic respiration)cause cramps.

74. (a) Draw the structure of a nephron and label the following on it:
Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, Renal artery, Collecting duct.
(b) What happens to glucose that enters the nephron along with filtrate?
Answer (a)

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(b) During excretion in human beings, glucose which enters the nephron along with filtrate
gets reabsorbed by blood capillaries surrounding the nephron

94
CHAPTER- LIFE PROCESSES
SUGGESTED UNIT TEST

Duration-45 mins Marks : 20

I Choose the correct answer given for following each questions and write correct answer
in your answer sheet. (4 x 1 = 4)
1. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy take place in
A) Cytoplasm b) mitochondria
d) chloroplast d) nucleus
2. The site of complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats is
A) Stomach b)large intestine
c) small intestine d) liver
3. Significant role of stomata in transportation is due to
a) Create upward pressure b) absorb carbon dioxide
c) release oxygen d) perform transpiration continously
4. The blood vessels that carry blood from all parts of the human body to the heart
are
a) Pulmonary arteries b)arteries
c) capillaries d) veins
II. Answer in one or two sentence (3 X 1 = 3)
1. name the intermediate and the end products of glucose breakdown in aerobic
respiration
2. State one difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
3. Name the component of blood that the helps in the formation of blood clot in the
event of a cut.
III. Answer the following questions (3 X 2 = 6)
1. State the two difference between arteries and veins.
2. Why do herbivores have longer, small intestine than carnivores.
3. What are enzymes. Name any one enzyme of our digestive system and write its
function.
IV. Answer in detail (3 X 1 = 3)
1. i) Explain the process of breakdown of glucose in a cell in the presence of oxygen.
ii) Explain the process of breakdown of glucose in a cell in the absence of oxygen.
V. Answer briefly (4 X 1 = 4)
1. Draw a diagram of the human heart and label following parts
a) Aorta b) right ventricle c) pulmonary veins.

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CHAPTER- CONTROL AND COORDINATION
KEY POINTS TO REMEMBER
❖ Control and coordination is brought about in all animals with the help of two main
systems: nervous system and Endocrine system.
❖ All the living orgnisms respond and react to the changes that happen in the environment
around them. Both plants and animals respond to the stimuli but in a different manner.
❖ Plant movemnts-The movements of the individual plant part or organ are due to some
external stimuli like –light, force of gravity,chemical substance,water etc.,
❖ Tropic movement- movement of plant part or organs of the plant in response to an
external stimulus. Growth towards stimulus is positive tropism and growth away from
the stimulus is negative tropism.
❖ Growth dependent movements- photo tropism,Geotropism,Chemo tropism,
Hydrotropism are the some growth dependent movents.
❖ Nervous system in man control by sending and receiving stimulus from its surrounding
environment.Neurons are the structural and functional cells of nervous system.
❖ Central nervous system consists- Brain and Spinal cord
❖ Peripheral nervous system consists- nerves of brain and spinal cord
❖ Spinal cord is the centre for all reflexe actions.
❖ Brain is the main coordinating centre of the body.it has three major parts-Fore brain, mid
brain and Hind brain
❖ Endocrine system performs coordination with nervous system by secreting several
hormones in to blood stream,so that chemical coordination is established along with
nervous control.

ONE MARK QUESTIONS

1. What is a Synapse ?
The space between two neurons filled with chemicals is called Synapse.
2. What is the difference between Reflex Action and Reflex Arc?
Sudden action in response to stimulus that occur in environment is called Reflex Action.
The path where nerve impulse of reflex action pass is called Reflex Arc.
3. Which part of nervous system is the centre of Reflex action ?
Spinal cord is the centre of Reflex Action.
4. What are the functions of Medulla of Hindbrain ?
It controls the involuntary actios like Vomitting, Salivation and Blood pressure.
5. What are the functions of Cerebellum ?
It controls Voluntary actions like Body balance, Maintaining of Posture.
6. How the Touch me not plant leaves folds when it touched ?

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The plants also use electrical- chemical means to convey the information from cell to
cell. Some cells must change their shape in order for the movement to happen.
7. What is the reason for Goitre ? mention major Symptoms of Goitre.
Deficiency of Iodine or Iodised Salt in our diet is major reason for Goitre.
Swollen Neck is major Symptom of this disease.
8. Why some sugar patients suggested to inject insulin injection ?
The lack of secretion Insulin Hormone from pancreatic gland is the reason for some
sugar patients suggested to inject insulin injection.

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS

1) What is the reason for Dwarfism and Gigantism ?
Growth Hormone secreted by pituitary gland which regulates growth and development
of the body. Deficiency of this hormone in childhood leads to the condition of Dwarfism.
Excess secretion og Growth Hormone leads to Gigantism.
2) Name the glands which secretes Testosterone and Oestrogen hormones ?
Mention their functions ?
In males Testosterone hormone is secreted by Testes. Development of
Male sex Organs and development of adult features. In Females Oestrogen hormone
is secreted by Ovaries. Development of Female sex Organs and regulates
menstrual cycle.
3) Define following.
a) Phototropism = Response of plant to the direction of light.
b) Geotropism = Response of roots of plant to the direction of earth gravity.
c) Hydrotropism = Response of roots/shoots of plant to the direction of water.
d) Chemotropism = Response of roots/shoots of plant to the direction of Chemicals.

4) Mention the functions of following plant harmones.

a) Auxin =Helps plant cells grow longer.
b) Gibberellins = Helps in growth of the stem.
c) Cytokinine = Promotes cell division.
d) Abscisic acid = Inhibits the growth of plant ( Wilting of leaves )

5). Write secretary gland and function of the following hormones.

a) Adrenaline = Adrenal gland = Prepare the animal body to face emergency situations.
b) Thyroxin = Thyroid gland = Regulates Metabolic activity.
c) Insulin = Pancreas = Controls the blood sugar level.
d) Growth hormone = Pituitary gland = Regulates growth and Development.

15. Why does mouthwatering, when we see a delicious food ?Name the part of

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brain controled it .
The process of mouth watering due to the presence of delicious food
is known as salivation and it is involuntary. It is controlled by medulla
of our hind brain.
16. An alcoholic person walks unsteadily when drunk . Why ?
Consumption of alcohol affects the Cerebellum region. It is responsible for Voluntary
actions and maintaianance of posture and body balance. So An Alcoholic person walks
unsteadily when drunk.

17. Why do plant roots always grow downwards and shoots grow upwards ?
According to phototrophic movement, shoots respond by bending towards light, while
roots respond by bending away from it.

18. Adrenaline harmone is also called as Emergency hormone why ?

Adrenaline is secreted directly in to the blood and carried to different parts of the body. The
target organ or specific muscles,tissues or organsthat need it. All these responses together
enable the animal body to be ready to deal with the situation.

19. Which of the following figure depicts the tropic movements appropriately and why.

The figure C depicts phenomenon of Geotropism appropriately. Geotropism is the growth

of the parts in response to the force of gravity. The upward growth of plant shoot is an instance
of negative geotropism while the downward growth of roots is positive geotropism

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SOME IMPORTANT LABELLED DIAGRAMS TO BE PRACTISED

VERTICAL SECTION OF BRAIN

REFLEX ARC

STRUCURE OF NEURON

99
CONTROL AND CO ORDINATION
SUGGESTED UNIT TEST
Duration- 45 mins. marks-20
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I. Choose the best answer given for each question and write it along with option in
answer sheet. (4x1=4)
1) Which of the following hormone inhibits the growth in plants
A) Gibberlins B) Auxins C) Cytokinins D) Abscisic Acid
2) Sunflower moves according to sunlight because it is a type of
A) Phototropic movement B) Geotropic movement
C) Chemotropic movement D) Hydrotropic movement
3) Which one of the following hormone is called Emergency hormone
A) Insulin B) Progestirone C) Adrenaline D) Thyroxine
4) Which part of the brain controls blood pressure, mouth watering,and vomitting –
A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) Pons D) Medulla
II. Answer the following questions (3x1=3)
5) define Reflex action?
6) What is a Synapse?
7) mention the function of hormone secreted by the testes.
III. Answer the following qustions (3x2=6)
8) Explain the structure of a Neuron.
9) Mention the functions of the parts of the brain
a) Cerebrum b) Cerebellum
10) Define Reflex arc? Mention the parts involved in reflex arc.
IV. Answer the following question (3x1=3)
11) Explain the hormones and their functions of the following endocrine glands- a) Pituitary
gland b) Ovaries c) Thyroid gland
12) Anwer the following question (4x1=4)
Draw a diagram of vertical section of the human Brain and label all the parts.

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CHAPTER- HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE ?
KNOW THE TERMS
• Organisms reproduce to continue the chain of life, to pass on its genes which are
acquired over millennia.
• Types of Reproduction – asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction.
• Asexual reproduction : It Reproduction involving single individual.
• Binary fission - formation of two daughter cells from the mother cell.
• Multiple fission – formation of many daughter cells from he mother cell.
• Fragmentation – breaks up into smaller pieces upon maturation.
• Regeneration - if the individual is somehow cut or broken into many pieces, many
of these piece grown into separate individuals.
• Vegetative propagation- parts of plant like the root, stem, leaves
Develop into new plants under appropriate conditions.
• Budding – a bud developes into as an outgrowth at one specific site. These buds
develop and became new independent individuals.
• Spore formation- tiny-blob-on-a-stick structures which contain cells, or spores
develop into new individuals.

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [1 MARK]

1) What is Reproduction?
Living organisms produce new individuals of their own kind and
maintain their existence generation after generation this process is known
as reproduction.
2) Why reproduction is essential?
It is essential for i) Continuation of life on Earth ii) Replacement of dead
organisms iii) To maintain the size of the population iv) Transfer of
variation from one generation to another
3) What is the importance of DNA replication / copying in
reproduction process?

101
Correct copying of DNA during the process of replication ensures correct
body design. Any change in it will produce changed DNA i.e, the blue
print, that will change the synthesis of proteins and in turn the body
design i.e, it will cause variation.
4) Why is variation beneficial to the species but not necessary for the
individual ?
฀฀Variation is a change in the body design of an individual.
฀฀Variation allows organisms to exist in diverse habitat or niches. In its
absence, a species may remain restricted to a particular area.

5) Name the chemical substance present in blueprint necessary for

body design of an organism.
Deoxy Ribonucleic Acid (DNA)
6) How DNA is responsible for changing of body structure of an
organism?
฀฀DNA present in the nucleus of an organism contains information for
the synthesis of protein.
฀฀If the information present on DNA is altered the protein synthesized
by the DNA is also altered ultimately it is responsible for change in body
design of an organism.
7) Why DNA copying is an essential part of the process of
reproduction?
฀฀Chromosomes in the nucleus of a cell contain information for the
inheritance of characteristics from parents to next generation in the
formation of DNA, which is the information source of making proteins.
฀฀Therefore, copying of DNA is essential to transfer information form
parents to the offsprings by creating new DNA of the same kind.
8) What is asexual reproduction ? Give example.
Production of offspring‟s by a single parent without the formation and
fusion of gametes is called asexual reproduction.

102
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS[I] [2 MARKS]

1. (i) What is fertilisation? Distinguish between external fertilisation and

internal
fertilisation.
(ii) What is the site of fertilisation in human beings?
Answer.
(i) Fertilisation is defined as the fusion of a male gamete (sperm) with a female
gamete (an ovum
or egg) to form a zygote during sexual reproduction.
External Fertilisation Internal Fertilisation
(i) External fertilisation - The fusion of male gamete (sperm) and
female gamete (ovum) occurs outside the body.
(i) Internal fertilisation - The fusion of gametes occurs inside
the body.
(ii) External fertilisation - Both individuals discharge their gametes
outside the body.
(ii) Internal fertilisation - Only the male discharges sperms into
female genital tract.
(iii) External fertilisation - Development occurs outside the body.
(iii)Internal fertilisation - Development occurs inside the body.
(iv) Example: Frog. (iv) Examples: Human, birds, cattle, etc.
(ii) The site of fertilisation in human beings is in the fallopian tube of female
reproductive system.
2. Define the terms unisexual and bisexual giving one example of each.
Answer. Unisexual is the plant whose flowers contain either stamens or
carpels but not both.
Example: Papaya, Watermelon.
Bisexual is the plant whose flowers contain both stamens and carpels.
Example: Hibiscus,

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Mustard.
3. Differentiate between ‘self-pollination’ and ‘cross-pollination’. Describe
double fertilisation in plants.
Answer.
Self-pollination Cross-pollination
(i) Self-pollination occurs within a flower
or between two flowers of the same plant.
(i) Cross-pollination occurs between two
flowers borne on different plants of the samespecies.
(ii) Flowers do not depend on otheragencies for pollination.
(ii) Agents such as insects, water and wind arerequired for pollination.
(iii) Pollen grains are produced in smallnumbers.
(iii) Pollen grains are produced in large
numbers.

During fertilisation in plants, the following events take place:

(i) One of the male gamete fuses with the female gamete present in the embryo
sac.
(ii) The other male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei in the embryo sac.
The first fusion product gives rise to the zygote while the second one forms the
endosperm.
The process of two fusions occurring in the embryo sac is called double
fertilisation.
4. What is the effect of DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate on the
reproduction
process?
Answer. DNA copying is not perfectly accurate and the resultant errors are a
source of variationsin populations of organisms.
5. What is ‘reproduction’? Mention the importance of DNA copying
inreproduction.
Answer. Reproduction is the process of producing new individuals of the same
species
by existing organisms of a species, i.e. parents. The importance of DNA
copying in reproductionare as follows:

104
(i) DNA copying is called DNA replication. In this process, one copy each of
replicated DNA willbe passed to daughter cells.
(ii) Variations may be introduced during DNA copying. This inbuilt tendency
for variation during
reproduction forms the basis of evolution.
6. Name one sexually transmitted disease
each caused due to bacterial infection and viral infection. How can these
be prevented?
Answer. Sexually transmitted disease caused due to
(i) Bacterial infection is gonorrhoea, and
(ii) Viral infection is AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome). These
diseases can be
prevented by responsible sexual behaviour such as use of condom during
intercourse, etc.
7. (a) In the human body what is the role of
(i) seminal vesicles, and (ii) prostate gland?
(b) List two functions performed by testis in human beings.
Answer. (a) The role of seminal vesicles and the prostate gland are as follows:
(i) Seminal vesicles produce seminal plasma which is in the form of fluid
makes the transport of sperms smooth.
(ii) Prostate gland secretes prostatic fluid that keeps the sperms alive and helps
them to swim vigorously .

(b) Two functions performed by testis

in human beings are as follows:
(i) Formation ofsperms takes place in testis.
(ii) They secrete the hormone testosterone which regulates the formation of
sperms and brings
changes in appearance of boys at the time of puberty.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS[II] [3 MARKS]

8. Illustrate the following with the help of suitable diagrams:

(i) Binary Fission in Amoeba.
(ii) Leaf of Bryophyllum with buds.

105
Answer.

9. Illustrate the following with the help of suitable diagrams:

(i) Spore formation in Rhizopus.
(ii)Multiple fission in Plasmodium.
Answer.

106
(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C, D and E.

(b) Where do the following functions occur?

(i) Production of an egg
(ii) Fertilisation
(iii) Implantation of zygote.
(c) What happens to the lining of uterus:
(i) before release of a fertilised egg?
(ii) if no fertilisation occurs?
Answer. (a)
A – Oviduct or Fallopian tube;
B – Ovary;
C – Uterus;
D – Cervix;
E – Vagina.
(b) (i) Ovaries; (ii) Fallopian tube
(c) (i) Uterus lining thickness and receives blood to nurture an embryo
(ii) The lining of uterus slowly breaks and comes out through the vagina as
blood and mucous, if
no fertilisation occurs.
11. (a) Draw a diagram showing
germination of pollen on stigma of a flower.
(b) Label pollen grain, male germ- cells, pollen tube and female germ-cell
in the above
diagram.
(c) How is zygote formed?
Answer. (a) and (b)

(c) Zygote is formed when male gamete, Le. sperm fuses with female gamete,
i.e. ovum.
12. Mention the mode of reproduction used by(a) Amoeba (b) Planaria.
Answer. Mode of reproduction used by
(a) Amoeba is Binary fission.
(b) Planaria is Regeneration.
13. Name the information source of making proteins in the cell. State two
basic events in
reproduction.
Answer. TheDNA in the cell nucleus is the information source of making
proteins. The two basic events in reproduction are:
a) Creation of a DNA copy,
b) Additional cellular apparatus by the cell involved in the process.
.14. What is regeneration? State a reason why a more complex organism
cannot give rise to new
individuals through this method.
Answer. Regeneration is the ability of a fully differentiated organism to give
rise to new
individual organisms from its body parts. More complex organisms cannot give
rise to new
individuals through regeneration because:
(i) their body is highly complicated.
(ii) there are specific organs to do specific functions.
(iii) there is a labour division in the body of complex organisms.
(iv) regeneration is carried out by specialised cells which are not present in
complex organisms.
15. What is reproduction? What are its two types? Which one of the two
confers new
characteristics on the offsprings and how?
Answer. Reproduction is the process of producing new individuals of the same
species by
existing organisms of a species, i.e. parents. Its two types are: Asexual
reproduction and Sexual
reproduction.
Sexual reproduction confers new characteristics on the offspring due to
variation in DNA
copying.

109
16. (a) Explain the terms: (i) Implantation (ii) Placenta
(b) What is the average duration of human pregnancy?
Answer. (a) (i) Implantation: The embedding of a fertilised mammalian egg
(embryo) into the
inner thick wall of the uterus (womb) where it will continue its development is
called
implantation.
(ii) Placenta: It is a complex double-layered spongy vascular tissue in human
female formed by
the joint activity of maternal and foetal tissues in the wall of uterus that is
meant for attachment,
nourishment and waste disposal for the foetus.
(b) The average duration of human pregnancy is 40 weeks or 280 days.
17. What are sexually transmitted diseases? Name four such diseases.
Which one of them
damages the immune system of human body?
Answer. Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) are the diseases which are
spread by sexual
contact from an infected person to a healthy person. They are caused by
various micro organisms
that live in warm and moist environments of the vagina, urethra, anus and
mouth.
The four sexually transmitted diseases are:
(i) Gonorrhoea
(ii) Syphilis
(iii) Trichomoniasis
(iv) AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome).
AIDS damages the immune system of human body.
18. List any four reasons for vegetative propagation being practised in the
growth of some type
of plants.
Answer.
(i) Vegetative propagation is a cheaper, easier and more rapid method of
propagation in plants
than growing plants from their seeds.

110
(ii) Better quality of plants can be maintained by this method.
(iii) It results in propagation of those plants which do not produce viable seeds
or produce seeds
with prolonged period of dormancy.
(iv) The plants generated from vegetative means are more uniform and
genetically similar to the
parent stock.
19. Write the full form of DNA. Name the part of the cell where it is
located. Explain its role in
the process of reproduction of the cell.
Answer. The full form of DNA is deoxyribonucleic acid. It is the genetic
material found in the
chromosomes, which are present in the nucleus of a cell.
Role of DNA in the process of repro¬duction of the cell:

DNA plays an important role in the reproduction of a cell. The reproducing cell
produces an
identical copy of DNA through some cellular mechanism. Since the newly
formed copy of DNA
lacks an organised cellular structure, the cell gets divided to provide cell cover
to the newly formed DNA. Thus, two daughter cells are formed from the single
cell as a result of the copying
of DNA.
20. List any three differences between pollination and fertilisation.
Answer.
Pollination Fertilisation
(i) Pollination - It is the transfer of
pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a flower.
(i) Fertilisation - It is the fusion of male and female
(ii) Pollination precedes fertilisation. (ii) Fertilisation occurs only after
pollination
when the pollen grain has germinated and sent the male gamete to ovule

(iii) Pollination carries the male gamete producing pollen grains to the female
sex
organ.
(iii) Fertilisation brings about fusion of gametes.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [4 MARKS]

21. Draw a longitudinal section of a flower and label the following parts:
(i) Part that produces pollen grain.
(ii) Part that transfers male gametes to the female gametes.
(iii) Part that is sticky to trap the pollen grain.
(iv) Part that develops into a fruit.

22. Explain vegetative propagation with the help of two examples. List two
advantages of
vegetative propagation.
Answer. In vegetative propagation, new plants are obtained from the parts of
old plants like
stems, roots and leaves, without the help of any reproductive organ.
There are two ways of vegetative propagation:
(a) Natural Vegetative Propagation, and
(b) Artificial Vegetative Propagation.
Natural vegetative propagation by leaves: The fleshy leaves of Bryophyllum
bear adventitious
buds in the notches along the leaf margin.
Grafting: In this method of reproduction, two plants of closely related varieties
are joined together
so that they live as one plant.
฀฀The portion of a plant that is grafted on the other plant is called scion, andthe
plant in which
grafting is performed is called the stock.
฀฀This method is applied to improve variety of fruits like mango, apple, peas,
citrus and guava.
advantages of vegetative propagation are:
(i) Vegetative propagation is a cheaper, easier and more rapid method of
propagation in plants
than growing plants from their seeds.
(ii) Better quality of the plants can be maintained by this method.
23. (a) Explain the role of placenta in the development of human embryo.
(b) Give example of two bacterial and two viral sexually transmitted
diseases. Name the
most effective contraceptive which prevents spread of such diseases.
Answer.
(a) Role of placenta in the development of human embryo: A special tissue
develops between the
uterine wall and the embryo (foetus) called placenta, where exchange of
nutrients, glucose and
oxygen takes place. The developing embryo will also generate waste
substances which can be

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removed by transferring them into the mother’s blood through the placenta.
The development of
the child inside the mother’s blood takes approximately nine months.
(b) Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) transmitted by bacteria are:
(i) Gonorrhoea (ii) Syphilis
STDs transmitted by virus:
(i) AIDS (ii) Genital warts
The most effective contraceptive which prevents the spread of these diseases is
by the use of
mechanical barriers such as physical devices like condoms.
24. Write any two differences between binary fission and multiple fission
in a tabular form as
observed in cells of organisms.
Answer.
Binary fission Multiple fission
Binary fission
(i) It is the division of the parent into two
nearly equal sized daughter individuals
Multiple fission
(i) It is the division of the parent into many
small daughter individuals
Binary fission
(ii) Two daughter individuals are formed
By a simple division or splitting.
(ii) Nucleus of the parent cell divides to
form a number of nuclei.
25. List any four modes of asexual reproduction.
Answer. Four modes of asexual reproduction are—Binary fission in Amoeba,
Fragmentation in
Spirogyra, Regeneration in Planaria and Budding in Hydra.
26. Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction?
Answer.DNA copying is an essential part of the process of reproduction
because:
(i) DNA copying provides cellular apparatus in the daughter cells.

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(ii) DNA in daughter cells will be able to control the functioning of daughter
cells.
(iii) DNA copies will retain the traits.
27. What does HIV stand for? Is AIDS an infectious disease? List any four
modes of spreading
AIDS.
Answer. HIV stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus.
Yes, AIDS is an infectious disease.
Four modes of spreading AIDS are as follows:
(i) By having sexual contact with an infected person.
(ii) By the transfusion of blood from an infected person.
(iii) Through infected needles used for injection.
(iv) Through the placenta from the mother to child during pregnancy.
28. (a) What is fragmentation in organism?
Name a multicell-ular organism which reproduces by this method.
(b) What is regeneration in organism? Describe regeneration in Planaria
with the help of a
suitable diagram.
Answer. (a) Fragmentation: Multicellular organisms with simple body
organisation such as
filamentous algae-Spirogyra breaks up into two or more small pieces or
fragments upon
maturation. These fragments grow into new individuals.
(b) Regeneration: It is the ability of a fully differentiated organism to give rise
to new individual
organisms from its body parts.
฀Small cut or broken parts of the organism body grow or regenerate into
separate individuals.
฀Planaria can be cut into any number of pieces and each piece grows into a
complete
organism.
฀Regeneration is carried out by specialised cells which proliferate and make
large number of
cells thus, undergoing changes to become various cell types and tissues.
฀The changes taking place in an organised sequence is development.

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29. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the various steps of
budding in Hydra.
Answer.
฀฀Hydra reproduces by budding using the regenerative cells.
฀฀A bud develops as an outgrowth in Hydra due to repeated cell division atone
specific site.
฀฀When fully matures, the bud detaches itself from the parent body and
develops into new
separate individuals

30. (a) What is spore formation?

(b) Draw a diagram showing spore formation in Rhizopus.
(c) List two advantages for organisms
to reproduce themselves through spores.
Answer.
(a) When a slice of bread is kept in moist dark place for a few days, spores of
Rhizopus present in
air settle on the bread to form new fungus plants of Rhizopus.
(b) The Rhizopus consists of fine thread-like projections called hyphae. It has a
knob like
structure which is involved in reproduction called sporangia, containing spores,
that develop intonew Rhizopus.

(c) Two advantages for organisms to reproduce themselves through spores are
as follows:
(i) It is a faster mode of reproduc-tion.
(ii) Offsprings produced are identical.
31. State one genetically different feature between sperms and eggs of
humans. What is its
consequence?
Answer. The sex chromosome of human male is XY. A sperm of human male
carries either an
X chromosome or one Y chromosome.
The sex chromosome of human female is XX and hence, the egg always carries
the Xchromosome.
If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilises an egg which carries X
chromosome, then the child
born will be a girl. If a sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilises an egg which
carries X chromosome, then the child born will be a boy.
32. Define the term puberty. List two changes observed in girls at the time
of puberty.
Answer. The period, when the rate of general body growth begins to slow
down and reproductive
tissues begin to mature, is called puberty.
Two changes observed in girls at the time of puberty are:
(i) The breast size begin to increase, (ii) Menstruation starts.
33. What is meant by asexual reproduction? List its any two different
forms.
Answer. Asexual reproduction is the process of producing new organism from
a single parent
without the involvement of sex cells. Fission and fragmentation are two
different forms of asexual
reproduction.
34. Name an organism which reproduces by spore formation. List three
conditions favourable
for spores to germinate and grow.
Answer. Rhizopus reproduces by spore formation. Conditions favourable for
spore formation are:
(i) Cool place, (ii) Moist place and (iii) Dark place.
35. “DNA copies generated during reproduction will be similar but may
not be identical to the
original.” Justify this statement.
Answer. DNA copies generated will be similar, but may not be identical to the
original as some
variations are so drastic that new DNA copy cannot work with the cellular
apparatus it inherits.
Such a newborn cell will simply die. Therefore, there could be many other
variations in the DNA
copies that would not lead to such a drastic outcome. Thus, the surviving cells
are similar but
slightly different from each other. This tendency of variation during
reproduction is the basis for
evolution.
36. List the parts of human male reproductive system which contribute
fluid to the semen. State

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two advantages semen offers to the sperms.
Answer. Prostate glands and seminal vesicles add fluid in the vas deferens.
This makes
transportation of sperms easier and also provides nutrition to the sperms.
37. Name the two types of germ-cells present in human beings. How do
they structurally differ
from each other? Give two differences.
Answer. The two types of germ-cells present in human beings are sperm and
ova. The sperm of
human have either X or Y chromosome. The ova always carry X chromosome.
The sperm is
structurally long with a tail. The ova is round in structure.
38. List and explain in brief three methods of contraception.
Answer. Methods of contraception are:
Use of condom for penis or for vagina as a mechanical barrier for the sperms to
reach the egg.
Use of oral pills which change the hormonal balance so that eggs are not
released.
Surgical method where either the vas deferens of male is blocked or the
fallopian tube of female
is blocked.
39. What is AIDS? Which microbe is responsible for AIDS infection? State
one mode of
transmission of this disease. Explain in brief one measure for the
prevention of AIDS.
Answer. AIDS is the Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome.
It is caused by a virus called Human Immunodeficiency Virus.
AIDS is transmitted by sexual contact with an infected person.
AIDS can be prevented by avoiding sexual contact with infected person or by
using condom
during sex.
40. Describe in brief the role of (i) testis (ii) seminal vesicle, (iii) vas
deferens, (iv) ureter and (v)
prostate gland in human male reproductive system.
Answer.

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Testis: Testes are oval shaped primary reproductive organs in men. The
function of testes is to
produce sperms and male sex hormone testosterone. The scrotum provides
optimal temperature
for the formation of sperms.
Seminal vesicle: Seminal vesicles are a pair of thin walled muscular elongated
sac which secrete
fluid for nourishment of sperms.
vas deferens: The sperms are carried by a long tube called vas deferens to
organs called seminal
vesicles where the sperms get nourishment and stored.
Ureter It is the tube that carries urine from kidney to the urinary bladder. In
humans, there are two ureters, one attached to each kidney.
Prostate glands: Prostate glands produce a fluid which is released in the urethra
along with
secretion of seminal vesicles for nourishment and transportation of sperms.
41. Draw a diagram of a human female reproductive system and label the
part
(i) that produces egg
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm take place
(iii) where zygote is implanted
What happens to human egg when it is not fertilised?
Answer.

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If the egg is not fertilised, the thick and nourishing lining of the uterus breaks
and comes out
through vagina as blood and mucous.
42. State in brief the changes that take place in a fertilised egg (zygote) till
birth of the child in
the human female reproductive system. What happens to the egg when it
is not fertilised?
Answer. The egg gets fertilised in the oviduct. The fertilised egg, the zygote
gets implanted in the
lining of the uterus and starts dividing. The uterus prepares itself every month
to receive and
nurture the growing embryo. The lining thickens and is richly supplied with
blood to nourish the
growing embryo.
The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special
tissue called
placenta. The development of the child inside the mother’s body takes
approximately nine
months. On completion of 9 months, the child is born as a result of rhythmic
contractions of the
muscles in the uterus.
If the egg is not fertilised, the thick and nourishing lining of the uterus breaks
and comes out
through vagina as blood and mucous.

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Unit test ( Mark -20 )
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
4X1=4
1. The anther contains
a) sepals
b) ovules
c) carpel
d) pollen grains
2. AIDS : virus : WARTS : --------------
A) bacteria
b) fungus
c) protozoan
d) virus
3. The type of reproduction found in Spirogyra is
a) budding
b) fragmentation
c) vegetative reproduction
d) spore formation
4. The common passage for both sperms and urine in human male reproductive system is
a) urethra
b) ureter
c) vas deferens
d) urinary bladder
ANSWER IN ONE OR TWO SENTENCES
3X1=3
5. What is asexual reproduction. Give example

123
6. Name the chemical substance present in necessary for body design of an organism.
7. What is the importance of DNA replication in reproduction process.
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING
3X2=6
8. List any three differences between pollination and fertilisation
9. Name one sexually transmitted disease
each caused due to bacterial infection and viral infection. How can these be prevented?
10. List three methods of contraception
ANSWER IN DETAIL
1X3=3
11. What does HIV stand for? Is AIDS an infectious disease? List any four modes of
spread in AIDS.

ANSWER BRIEFLY 1X4=4

12. (a) Draw a diagram showinggermination of pollen on stigma of a flower.

(b) Label pollen grain, male germ- cells, pollen tube and female germ-cell in the
abovediagram.
(c) How is zygote formed?

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CHAPTER -HEREDITY
IMPORTANT KEY POINTS TO REMEMBER
❖ VARIATIONS- The differences among the individuals of a species or in a population.
variations occur during reproduction, helps organisms to develop capacity to adjust in its
surrounding environment. These variations are more in sexual reproduction and a few in
asexual reproduction.
❖ GENETICS-Branch of biology that deals with heredity and variations. Gregor Johan
Mendel is known as the father of modern genetics. He stated experiments of breeding
and hybridization on pea plants.He identified several contrasting characters among pea
plants.
❖ SEX DETEMINATION- It is a phenomenon of decision or determination of sex of an
offspring. Factors affecting sex determination are environmental and genetical.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
1) How variations among species brings about its survival?
Ans: Variations develop capacity to adjust with the nature

2) No two individuals are absolutely alike in population. Why?

Ans: No two individuals are absolutely alike in population because variation arises due to errors
in DNA copying

3) How does comparing the DNA of different species help in evolutionary studies?
Ans: Comparing the DNA of different species gives a direct estimate of how much the DNA
has changed during the formation of these species. Thus, it helps us to great extent in tracing
the evolutionary pathways.

4) In a cross between a tall pea plant (TT) and a short pea plant (tt), what will be the
characteristics shown by the F1 generation?
Ans: All the plants would be tall plants (Tt).

5) Name the various ways in which individuals with particular trait increase in a
population.
Ans. Natural selection, genetic drift (isolation) and natural selection.

6) Why are acquired traits not inherited?

Ans. Since acquired traits cannot change the genes of the gametes, they cannot be passed on to
the next generation.

7) Name the information source for making proteins in a cell.

Ans: Cellular DNA is the information source for making proteins in the cells.

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8) No two individuals are alike in a population? Why.
Ans: No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population because variations arise due to
errors occur during DNA copying.

9) How do genes control traits?

Ans: Genes carry information for producing proteins, which in turn control the various body
characteristics.

10) Do you agree with this statement: “ Only variations that confer an advantage
to an individual organism will survive in a population.”
Ans. No this is not necessarily true, there are numerous variations that have no
function but yet persist . For example, male nipples, free earlobes etc.

2 MARKS QUESTIONS

1) How does the creation of variation in species enhance survival?

Ans. Natural selection selects the individuals with the aptest variations for their survival
in the prevailing environmental conditions. Variant individuals that can adapt to the
prevailing environmental conditions better have greater chances of surviving and
producing offsprings.

2) How was Mendel’s experiment successful in showing that traits could be

dominant or recessive?
Ans. In his experiment, Mendel took tall and short pea plants. On cross-pollination, he
Got all tall plants for the F1 generation. Showing when tall and short alleles combine, the
tall always expresses itself (i.e. tall is dominant). Then he self-pollinated the F1
generation, from which he got tall and short plants in the ratio of 3:1, showing that the
short allele is only expressed when short alleles combine. Thus, he concluded that ‘tall’
traits were dominant while the ‘short’ traits were recessive.

3) How did Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently?
Ans. A dihybrid cross was done by Mendel, from where he observed that when two
pairs of traits were crossed, each trait expressed itself independently of the other. Thus,
allowing Mendel to show that traits were independently inherited.

4) How the sex of a human child determined during fertilization?

Ans. A female carries two X chromosomes and produces gametes (eggs) with the
same type of chromosomes (22+ X). Males have X and Y chromosomes, half of their
sperms carry X chromosomes(22+X) and half of their sperm carry Y chromosomes
(22+Y). Now, if a sperm with Y chromosome fertilizes an egg, the zygote develops into
male(44+XY condition). Or, if a sperm with X chromosome fertilizes an egg, the zygote
develops into a female (44+XX condition).

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5) Why is the dwindling number of tiger population a reason to worry, sheerly from a
genetics perspective?
Ans.(i) Smaller numbers lead to lesser recombination and thus, lesser variation.
They are both very important for better survival chances of a species.
(ii) If a calamity kills off the existing tigers, their genes will be lost forever.

3 OR 4 MARKS QUESTIONS

1) How do Mendel’s experiments show that

(i) traits may be dominant or recessive.
(ii) traits are inherited independently
Ans:
(i) Mendel conducted an experiment on the garden pea plant selecting seven visible
contrasting characters. He selected and crossed a homozygous tall pea plant having the
genotype TT with a homozygous dwarf pea plant having the genotype tt. F1 generation consists
only of tall plants having genotype Tt.
The expressed allele T for tallness is dominant over the unexpressed allele t for dwarfness.
Hence the trait of tallness is dominant while dwarf ness or shortness is the recessive
characteristics. Thus, Mendel's experiment showed that traits may be dominant or recessive.
(ii) Mendel performed an experiment in which he took two different traits like tall and dwarf
plant and round and wrinkled seeds. In F2 (second)generation, some plants were tall with round
seeds and some were dwarf with wrinkled seeds. There would also be dwarf plants having
round seeds. Thus, the tall/short traits and round/wrinkled seed traits are independently
inherited.

2) (i) What is meant by traits of an individual?

(ii) Explain inherited trait and acquired trait.
(iii) Define speciation ? List the factors which could lead to rise of a new species.
Ans: (i) Traits: A characteristic feature is called a trait.
(ii) Inherited Traits are the traits that are transferred from parents to young ones.
Acquired.Traits are the traits that an organism acquires in its lifetime.
(iii) Formation of new species from the existing ones is called speciation. Factors that
could lead to the rise of new species are geographical isolation, genetic drift,
natural selection.
3) Differentiate between Dominant trait and Recessive trait in pea plants
Dominant trait- It is the trait that expresses itself and masks the effect of the recessive trait in a
heterozygous individuals.Dominant traits are represented by capital letters.example: Tallness of
the stem in peas is the dominant character over short stem,and is represented by –TT.
Recessive trait- It is the trait that is expressed only in the homozygous condition and remains
hidden in the presence of a dominant allele.Recessive traits are represented by lowercase letters.
Example; short stem of the pea plant is a recessive character and is represented by –tt.

127
4) Explain the laws of inheritance proposed by Mendel’s monohybrid and dihybrid
crosses .
Law of Dominance-Based on monohybrid cross, Mendel proposed “ When parents with pure
contrasting characters are crossed, then only one character expresses itself in F1
Geneation. This character is a dominant character and the character which cannot
express itself is called recessive character”

128
CHAPTER-HEREDITY
SUGGESTED UNIT TEST
Duration-45 mins Marks-20
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I. Multiple choice questions (4x1=4)
1) which of the following is homozygous Round seeded and yellow flower bearing pea plant.
A) Rr Yy B) rrYy C)RRYY D)rryy
2) Father of Genetics is
A) Gregor Johan Mendel B) Charles Darwin C) Bateson D) None of the above
3) Genotypic ratio of F2 generation for Mono hybrid cross is
A) 9:3:3:1 B) 1:2:1 C) 3:1 D) 1:1:2:1
4) If a sperm containing sex chromosome Y fused to the ovum containing X chromosome, then
the new born individual will be having a set of sex chromosomes is
A) XX B) XY C) YY D) None

II. Answer the following questions (3x1=3)

5)Who is responsible for determination of sex of a new born individual?
6) Define variation.
7) What is Phenotypic ratio for F2 generation in Dihybrid cross?

III. Answer the following questions (3x2=6)

8) How did Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently?
9) Explain briefly with flow chart for Monohybrid cross conducted by Mendel on pea plants.
10) define Law of dominance and Law of segregation with one example for each.

IV. Answer the following question (1x3=3)

11) Explain briefly how the sex of a new born individual is determined in humans.

V. Answer the following question (1x4=4)

12) Explain with flowchart for Dihybrid cross conducted by Mendel on pea plants.

129
Chapter – Our Environment

Know the terms

• Ecosystem: All the interacting organisms in an area together with

the non-living constituents of the environment form an
ecosystem. An ecosystem consists of biotic components
comprising living organisms and abiotic components comprising
physical factors like temperature, rainfall, wind, soil and minerals.
• Types of ecosystem:(i) Natural ecosystem. Ex- forests, pond, and
lakes. (ii) Artificial ecosystem. Ex- gardens and crop-fields,
aquarium.
• Producers : Organisms which can produce food by photosynthesis.
Ex-Plants and some bacteria.
• Consumers : Organisms which consume the food produced, either
directly from producers or indirectly by feeding on other
consumers. Consumers can be classified variously as herbivores,
carnivores, omnivores and parasites.
• Decomposers : The microorganisms, which break-down the dead
remains and waste products of organisms. Ex- bacteria and fungi.
• A series of organisms feeding on one another form a food chain.
• Each organism is eaten by two or more other kinds of organisms.
So instead of a straight line food chain, the relationship can be
shown as a series of branching lines called a food web.
• Biological magnification : Accumulation of harmful chemicals and
toxic substances increasingly in each tropic levels of the food
chain.
• Ozone ( O3 ) is a molecule formed by three atoms of oxygen. The
higher energy UV radiations split apart some molecular oxygen(O2

130
) into free oxygen ( O) atoms. These atoms then combine with the
molecular oxygen to form ozone.
• VERYSHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [1 MARK]

1) What are the components of an ecosystem ?

a) Biotic components : Plants, animals and microorganisms. b)
Abiotic components : water, soil, wind, temperature etc.

2) What are the reasons for the depletion of ozone layer ?

The chemicals like, chlorofluorocarbons (CFC), carbon tetra
Chloride, halogens, methane, aerosols etc., are responsible for ozone
layer depletion.
3) What is food chain ? The unidirectional flow of energy from
one organisms to another in the form of food is called food chain.
Grass  insects  snake  hawk
4) Why green plants are called producers ?
All green plants and blue green algae produce food by the process
of photosynthesis and this is the source of nutrition for rest of
animals present in the ecosystem. Hence plants are called
producers.
5) The flow of energy is unidirectional in an ecosystem. Why?
The flow of energy in the ecosystem is unidirectional because the
energy lost as heat from the living organisms of a food chain
cannot be reused by plants in photosynthesis.
6) Identify biodegradable waste from the following DDT,
agricultural waste, skin, glass.
Agricultural waste, skin.
7) In the food chain including snake, insect, grass and frog
identify the trophic level of frog.
Grass  insect  frog  snake

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Trophic level I II III IV
Frog included under third trophic level.
8) Name any two non-biodegradable waste substances.
A) Plastic material, polythene bags, insecticides like DDT.
9) Which among the following belong to 1st trophic level ?
Grasshopper, rose plant, neem plant, cockroach.
Rose plant, Neem plant.
10) Phytoplanktons zooplanktons  fish  bird. In the
above food chain a) Which organism get more energy. b) In
which organism deposition of insecticide is more
a) Phytoplankton‟s b) birds

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [I] [2 MARKS]

11) What is bio magnification? Give example.

It is a phenomenon of progressive increase in the concentration of
toxic substance at each progressive trophic level. Ex: Pesticides
like DDT sprinkled on plants enters the body of humans through
food chain. Bio magnification of DDT
Water  phytoplanktons fish  birds 0.002ppm 0.05
ppm 2.4 ppm 16 ppm
12) In the food chain includes lion, plants and sheeps.
a) Which transfers more energy ?
b) Which receives less energy ?
a) plants b) lion
13) What is represented by the following diagram.
Phytoplanktons zooplanktons  small fish large fish
500 Kj 50 kJ 5kJ 0.5kJ

132
The above diagram represent :the 10% law of energy flow
proposed by Lindeman.
14) In the following food chain, the availability of energy to
human being is 5 kJ. What is the amount of energy present in
the producers level. Plants  sheep  human beings
500 J
15) What is ozone ? How does it affect any ecosystem ?
 Ozone is a triatomic molecule i.e., made up of three atoms of
oxygen joined together. Its molecular formula is O3.  It can
affect any ecosystem in the following ways i) It forms thin sheet
over Earth’s atmosphere and it protects against ultraviolet rays. ii)
If ozone layer is depleted, UV radiation enters the Earth’s
atmosphere and causes eye irritation, skin cancer in humans
reduce productivity in plants etc.,
16) Give any two ways in which biodegradable substances would
affect the environment.
1. Decomposition of biodegradable substances may release
certain gases in the atmosphere polluting the environment. 2.
They may become the breeding places of flies and other pests,
their causing diseases.
17) What is Grazing food chain ?
The food chain which extends form producers through herbivores
to carnivores is called grazing food chain.
Grass  rabbit  wolf
18) What will happen if we kill all the organisms in or trophic
level ?
If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level, the lower trophic
level will grow more in number and the higher trophic level will

133
not survive because flow of energy from one trophic level to other
will not take place.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS[II] [3 MARKS]

19) List two methods of safe disposal of the non-biodegradable

waste.
i) By underground dumping (landfills)
ii) By recycling
iii) Composting,
iv) Biogas production
v) Incineration – bringing of substance at high temperature to
form ash.
20) What is terrestrial food chain and aquatic food chain Give
example
Terrestrial food chain : The food chain present the land is called
i)terrestrial food chain. Ex : Grass  insects  snake --? hawk
ii) Aquatic food chain : The food chain present in different water
bodies are called aquatic food chai.
Ex. : Phytoplanktons zooplanktons  fish  shark
21) What are the advantages of cloth bags over plastic bags
during shopping?
Advantages of cloth bags over plastic bags during shopping are i)
Cloth bags are biodegradable thus can be easily decomposed by
microorganisms ii) Cloth bags can be used again, can be washed
and do not causeany harm to the environment. iii) Plastic bags are
non-biodegradable and hence can pollute the environment.

22) What is food web ? Give one example.

134
Inter connecting food chains of an ecosystem is called food web. each
organismis generally eaten by two or more other kinds of organisms.

23) What are trophic levels ? Give an example of food chain and
state the trophic levels in it.
Each step of food chain through which food is transferred is called
trophic level. Each food chain contains three to four trophic levels.
Tree  rabbit  snake  hawk
(producers)( Primaryconsumers) (secondary consumers) (tertiary
1st trophic level 2nd trophic 3rd trophic 4th trophic
T1 T2 T3 T4
24) What is biodegradable and non-biodegradable substance?
Give example.
The substances which are easily degraded by the enzymes of
saprophytes and get converted into simpler substances are called
biodegradable substances. Ex : Paper, cloth, agriculture waste
etc., The substances, which are not easily degraded by the
enzymes of saprophytes, are called non – biodegradable
substances. Ex : DDT, plastic etc.,
25) What are the consequences of ozone layer depletion ?
i) UV radiation enters into the atmosphere causes skin cancer,
cataract in humans.
ii) Affect the growth and physiological function of both plants and
animals
iii) Causes variation in the number of phytoplanktons, through
which it affects the ecosystem.
iv) Causes change in the composition of gases in the atmosphere.
26) Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes
be discarded in two separate dustbins?

135
Biodegradable materials are broken down by microorganisms in
nature into simple harmless substances. Non –biodegradable
materials need a different treatment like high temperature for
disposal and hence, both should be discarded into two different
dustbins.
27) We often observe domestic waste decomposing in the
residential colonies causes problems. Suggest ways to make
people that the improper disposal of waste is harmful to the
environment
i) Banners and signboards can be hung in residential colonies in
order to educate people about the ill effects of improper waste
disposal
ii) Street plays can be organized for highlighting this issue.
28) What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem?
 Organisms that feed on dead plants and animals are called
decomposers. Eg : bacteria, fungi etc.
 They breakdown the complex organic compounds present in
the dead remains into simpler substance and obtain nutrition
form them. These substances are released into the soil and the
atmosphere.
29) How can you help in reducing the problem of waste disposal
? Give any tow methods.
i) Minimize the use of disposable items.
ii) Recycle the materials to be used.
iii) Reduce the usage of non-biodegradable substances like plastic
, polythene bags etc.,
iv) Reduce the usage of non-biodegradable pesticides etc.,
30) What is the importance of food chain and food web ?

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i) It helps in the transfer of energy form one trophic level to
another.
ii) Provides information about biotic components of an
ecosystem.
iii) It helps to analyse the interaction between the organisms of
an ecosystem
31) Usually more than four trophic levels aren’t exist in an
ecosystem. Why ?
The number of trophic levels in an ecosystem is restricted up
to 4 – 5 because only 10 percent of the energy is transferred to
each trophic level form the lower trophic level. Energy present in
the last trophic level is not enough forthe existence of next
trophic level.

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UNIT-TEST

Marks : 20 4x1=4

I Choose the correct answer given following in each questions

and write in your answer sheet

1. The materials that change their form and structure in the

environment are

A) plant fibres b)peels of vegetables

c) waste papers d) used tea leaves

2. Which of the following constitute a food chain

a) grass, wheat and mango

b) grass, goat and human

c) goat, cow and elephant

d) grass, fish and goat

3. In the environment materials causing bio- magnification,

a) get recycled quickly

b) decomposes only in soil

c) remain as permanent residue

d) are stored in less amount trophic levels

4. Which of the following groups contain only biodegradable items ?

a) grass, flowers and leather

b) grass, wood and plastic

c) fruit-peels, cake and lime juice

d) cake, wood and grass

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ANSWER IN ONE OR TWO SENTENCE 3X1=3

1. What is food chain?

2. Why green plants are called producers?

3. Name any two non-biodegradable substances

ANSWER THE FOLLWING 3X2=6

1. What is bio-magnification? Give example.

2. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in trophic level?

3. What is food web? Give example.

ANSWER IN DETAIL 1X3=3

1. What are the consequences of ozone layer depletion?

ANSWER BRIEFLY 1X4=4

1. How can you help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? Give
any two methods.

OR

What is ozone? How does it affect any eco system.

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