0% found this document useful (0 votes)

1K views200 pages

2025 Nakuru Joint Mock Exams

Uploaded by

felixmachuka1

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

0% found this document useful (0 votes)

1K views200 pages

2025 Nakuru Joint Mock Exams

Uploaded by

felixmachuka1

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

2025 NAKURU JOINT MOCK EXAMS

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

N/B In Response to the Huge Costs Associated in Coming Up with Such/Similar

Resources Regularly, We inform us All, MARKING SCHEMES ARE NOT FREE OF
CHARGE. However Similar QUESTIONS, Inform of soft Copies, are Absolutely
FREE to Anybody/Everybody. Hence NOT FOR SALE
by Amobi Group of Examiners.
Page 1
Prefer Calling Amobi Group of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
Page 2
Prefer Calling Amobi Group of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
ORDER OF THE 12 SUBJECTS TESTED
(ALPHABETICALLY ARRANGED)
1. AGRICULTURE
2. BIOLOGY
3. BUSINESS STUDIES
4. CHEMISTRY
5. COMPUTER
6. C.R.E
7. ENGLISH
8. GEOGRAPHY
9. HISTORY
10. KISWAHILI
11. MATHS
12. PHYSCIS

Page 3
Prefer Calling Amobi Group of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
NAME _____________________________________________________________________________________

CLASS___ADMNO_ SIGN _DATE______________

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

443/1 AGRICULTURE PAPER 2 FORM FOUR

2025 TIME: 2 HOURS

Instructions

a. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above

b. This paper consists of 3 section A, B and C

c. Answer all questions in section A and B

d. Answer any two questions in section C

e. ALL answers must be written in the spaces provided

f. This paper consists of 14 printed pages

g. Answer all questions in English

h. Check if you have all the questions from number 1 to number 23

For Examiners Use Only

SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE SCORE

A 1-16 30
B 17-20 20
C 20
20
Total score 90

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
SECTION A (30 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.

1. State four entries in a breeding record in pigs production. (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Give three ways of classifying pasture. (1½ mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Name two liming materials used in the farm. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Name four financial books used in farm account. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Name four classes of livestock farming. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. State four measures of National economic development of a country. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Name four fresh market tomato varieties. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. State four disadvantages of chemical weed control. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. State four importance of practicing Agroforestry. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. State three types of production functions in Agriculture. (1½ mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

[Link] four advantages of Landlordism and tenancy land tenure system. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. State four effects of living organism in crop production. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Name four types of Terraces used in soil and water conservation. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. Name two types of pruning in coffee. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. State three functions of Agricultural finance cooperation (AFC). (1½ mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. State three sources of capital for starting Agricultural activity. (1½ mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION B (20 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.
17. The diagrams below are planting materials use in crop propagation,

A B

i) Name the planting materials A and B above

A ……………………………………………………………….. (1mk)
B ……………………………………………………………….. (1mk)

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
ii) Apart from grass, name other crop propagated using material B (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) State any two factors that determine rooting in A. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. Below is practice done during management of agroforestry tree seedling in a nursery, use it
to answer the questions that follows.

i) Identify the practice. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) State three importance of the practice. (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) State one disadvantages of the practice. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
19. Some students carried an experiment in the laboratory, the following procedure was
followed.
i) Put about 50g of a garden soil in 250cm3 measuring cylinder.
ii) Added about four times its volume of water containing sodium carbonate.
iii) Covered the cylinder with the hand and shaked vigorously for about two minutes.
iv) Placed the cylinder on the bench and for one hour to allow for the content to settle as shown
below.

i) State the aim of the experiment. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) What is the role of sodium carbonate in the experiment? (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Explain the observation in the cylinder after the one hour. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) Identify a control experiment for the above set up. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
20. The diagram below represents a weed which is commonly found in the farm.

i) Name the weed above. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Classify the weed based on morphology. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Name two crops commonly associate with the weed. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) Identify the effect of the weed on the above named crops. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION C ( 40 MARKS)
Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces after the last question
21. (i) Describe various ways of classifying pests. (5mks)
(ii) State seven effects of weeds. (7mks)
(iii) Describe four ways by which the government may help farmers to increase maize
production for food security in Kenya. (8mks)

22. (i) Describe factors to consider when sitting a nursery bed. (5mks)
(ii) Describe water treatment process. (10mks)
(iii) State any five principles of cooperative societies. (5mks)

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
23. Describe beans production under the following sub-headings
i) Selection and preparation of planting material. (3mks)
ii) Land preparation. (3mks)
iii) Planting. (3mks)
iv) Post harvest practices. (4mks)
v) State seven effects of pest in crop production. (7mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………...…………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………........................................................................................…………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…...……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………...........................................................................
.............………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
NAME _____________________________________________________________ CLASS_______________
ADMNO_____________________________ SIGN _______________DATE____________________________

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

443/2 AGRICULTURE PAPER 2 FORM FOUR

2025 TIME: 2 HOURS

Instruction to Candidates.

(a) Write your Name and Adm Number in the spaces provided at the top of this paper.

(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.

(c) This paper consists of THREE sections; A ,B and C.

(d) Answer ALL the questions in Section A and B

(e) Answer question TWO questions from Section C.

(f) All answers should be written in the spaces provided on the question paper.

(g) This paper consists of 6 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to
ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

For Examiner’s Use Only

SECTION QUESTION STUDENTS SCORE

A 1-16

B 17-20

C 21

TOTAL 90

AGRICS F4 PP2 2025 Page 1 of 6

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
SECTION A: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. State four physical characteristics of Merino sheep (2mark)

2. State four reasons why doper sheep breeds are good for mutton (2marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
3. Name four causes of livestock diseases marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
4. Identify five control measures of intermediate host of liver flukes (2marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
5. Give four characteristics of succulent roughages (2marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
6. Give two predisposing factors of mastitis diseases in a cow (2marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
7. State four factors that determine the amount of feed an animal should take (2marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
AGRICS F4 PP2 2025 Page 2 of 6
8. Outline four advantages of artificial insemination in cattle management (2marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________

9. State three chemical methods of timber treatment (1 ½ marks)

_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
10. Name four systems of tractor engine (2marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
11. State three types of specialized feeding practices in livestock (1 ½ marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
12. Identify two importance of guard rails in a furrow pen (1mark)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
13. Name two equipment that are used to handle cattle in an agricultural exhibition (1mark)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
14. State three characteristics of clean milk (1 ½ marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________

AGRICS F4 PP2 2025 Page 3 of 6

15. Identify four functions of gear box (2marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
16. State three functions of rumen in ruminant animals (1 ½ marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
17. Give an appropriate term that refers to the following (2marks)
a. Young one of a rabbit __________________________________________________
b. Mature male goat __________________________________________________
c. Mature male pig __________________________________________________
d. Mature female rabbit __________________________________________________

SECTION B: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

18. Below is a farm implement study it and answer the questions that follow
a) Identify the implement (1mark)

Name the parts labeled ABC and D (2marks)

_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
b) Name two adjustments that can be made of the implement to increase the depth of
ploughing (2marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________

AGRICS F4 PP2 2025 Page 4 of 6

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
19. Below is an illustration of the digestive system in livestock

a) State two functions of part labeled G (2marks)

a) Identify the practice illustrated below (1mark)

AGRICS F4 PP2 2025 Page 5 of 6

20. The diagrams below shows farm tools. Study them and answer the questions that follow.

a) Identify tool J and K (2marks)

b) Classify the tools under woodwork tools and equipment (2marks)

SECTION C: Answer question TWO questions

21. Discuss East coast fever disease under the following sub headings
i. Causal organism (1mark)
ii. Name the vector of the diseases (1mark)
iii. Symptoms attack (5marks)
iv. Control measures and treatment (3marks)
[Link] the life cycle of two host ticks (5marks)
c. State any five maintenance practices of a fish pond (5marks)

22. a) Explain any five factors that should be considered when siting an apiary
(10marks)
b) Describe six ideal requirements of an ideal calf pen (6marks)
c) List four causes of stress in poultry (4marks)

23. Discuss the management of a brooder before the arrival of chicks (5marks)
b) Describe Five daily maintenance of a tractor (10marks)
C) State the functions of any five parts of a zero grazing unit (5marks)
AGRICS F4 PP2 2025 Page 6 of 6

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
NAME………………………………………………………………………. ADM………………….

DATE………………………… SIGN…………………….

FORM 4 BIOLOGY
PAPER 1
(THEORY)
2025
TIME: 2 HOURS

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
(a) Write your Name, ADM Number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided

1. State why it is difficult to calculate the respiratory quotient in plants (2mark)

2. Name the class to which termites belong. (1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

3. State the function of a contractile vacuole in amoeba (1 mark)

4. The figure below shows the frontal view of a certain vertebra.

Page 1 of 7
6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
a) Identify the vertebra (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………
b) Give two reasons for your answer in 4(a) above (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………

5. Explain why an adult elephant flaps its ears twice as much as its calves. (3 marks)

6. Explain why a human male continues to have a deep voice even after vasectomy (2 marks)

7. What is the function of the Eustachian tube in the human ear? (2 mark)

8. Briefly explain how colchicine causes polyploidy. (2 marks)

9. State two causes of drug resistance in disease causing micro-organisms. (3 marks)

10. Name the part of the brain responsible for regulating body temperature. (1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

Page 2 of 7
11. Tendrils of passion fruit stems curl around stems of other upright plants.
(a) Which type of response is shown by these tendrils? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) Name a hormone that is involved in the response named above. (1 marks)

12. State the function of mitochondria in a cell (2 mark)

13. State the agent of pollination in a maize plant. (1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

14. Name two components of the xylem tissue. (2marks

15. What is the role of bile salts in digestion? (2 mark)

16. Give two roles of the gynecophoric canal in male Schistosoma. (2 marks)

17. What is the significance of the ligament in the mammalian eye? (2 mark)

18. Give one advantage of placing a cover slip over the specimen. (2 mark)

19. Explain why the trachea has rings of cartilage. (2 mark)

Page 3 of 7
....................................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................

20. State four differences between mitosis and meiosis (4 marks)

....................................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................

21. Give two reasons why blood from a donor is screened before transfusion. (2 marks)

22. State two roles of the ciliated cells in the human respiratory tract. (2 mark)

23. Name the characteristic of living organisms illustrated when sporangium in Rhizopus bursts to release
spores. (1 mark)

....................................................................................................................................................................................

24. Name two structures that facilitate gaseous exchange in plants. (2 marks)

25. Name one hormone in the human body that functions under a positive feedback mechanism.
(1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

26. A girl could clearly read a book placed 10 cm away but could not identify her friend 20 metres away.
(a) What eye defect was she suffering from? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 4 of 7
6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
(b) State two causes of the above defects (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

....................................................................................................................................................................................

27. Name the two end product of anaerobic respiration in animals. (2 mark)

28. Explain why oxygen is important in absorptions of mineral salts from the soil (2 mark)

29. What is the function of a lens in a light microscope? (1 mark)

30. Give a reason why biological knowledge is useful in fostering international cooperation. (2 mark)

31. The apparatus below is used in biological studies

Meat or fruit

a) Identify the apparatus and state its functions (2 marks)

Page 5 of 7
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

32. In a maize the gene for purple colour is dominant to the gene for white colour. A pure breeding maize plant
with purple grains was crossed with heterozygous plant. Using letter G to represent the gene for purple colour
work out the genotypic ratio of the offspring. (4 marks)

33. The diagram below shows three different types of neurons along a reflex.

a) Identify the neuron labeled 1, 2 and 3 (3 marks)

1...............................................................................................................

2..................................................................................................................................
3..................................................................................................................................

Page 6 of 7
b) Using arrow show the direction of impulse transmission on the diagram. (1 mark)

c) Name the part of the spinal cord where the cell bodies of neuron 2 and 3 are located.

c) Name the part labeled P (1 mark)

d) Describe the transmission impulses across the part labeled P. (4 marks)

34. Explain why Palisade cells are cylindrical shaped and arranged with long axis perpendicular to the leaf
surface. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………

35. Explain the effects of dumping untreated sewage into water sources like river. (3 marks)

Page 7 of 7
6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

ADM…………………. DATE………………………… SIGN…………………….

FORM 4 BIOLOGY
PAPER 2
(THEORY)
2025
TIME: 2 HOURS

NAKURU NORTH JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
(a) Write your Name, ADM Number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two Section; A and B.
(d) Answer all the questions in Section A in the spaces provided.
(e) In Section B answer question 6 (Compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the
spaces provided after question 8.

1. Sickle cell anaemia is a hereditary disease due to a substitution of a gene which changes normal
haemoglobin (HbA) to abnormal haemoglobin ( HbS ). The red blood cells of people with sickle cell
anaemia are sickle shaped.
a) What are the genotypes of the offsprings from a man with sickle cell trait (carrier) and a normal
woman. Show your working. (4 marks)

Form 4 Bio Paper 2 Page 1 Of 8

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
b) What is the probability of getting an offspring who is in heterozygous condition? Give your
answer in percentage form. (1mark)

c) The incidence of sickle cell disease coincides with the high incidence of malaria in tropical areas
of the World, particularly among the black African. Sickle cell trait (heterozygous state) provides
resistance to malaria which is a major cause of death in tropical areas. Explain. (2 marks)

d) Why do mature red blood cells do not undergo cell division (1 mark)

2. The figure below represents a serological test done to determine the evolutionary relationships of dog
with wolf, fox and cow.

a) State the evidence of organic evolution illustrated by the test above (1 mark)

Form 4 Bio Paper 2 Page 2 Of 8

b) How do serological tests help infer evolutionary relationship? (3marks)

c) Which animal is phylogenetically closer to the dog? Explain (2 marks)

d) A wolf belongs to genus Canis, while a fox belongs to the genus Vulpes. The two do not have a
successful mating and fertilization, give a reason (2 marks)

3. An animal cell obtained from cheek was placed in a microscope slide, methylene blue was added to stain
the nucleus and cytoplasm.
a) What was the purpose of staining the cell before viewing them under microscope (2 marks)

b) Name the organelles present in animal cell but absent in plant cell (2marks)

c) The cell was viewed under a light microscope using objective lens of X40 and eye piece lens of
X15. Determine the total magnification of the image (2marks)

Form 4 Bio Paper 2 Page 3 Of 8

d) Name the part of a light microscope used to control the amount of light that illuminate the
specimen (1 marks)

e) Name the part of the eye that has the same function as the part mentioned in 3(d) above (1 mark)

4. Study the below diagram of a fruit from a certain plant.

a) Name the type of fruit (1 mark)

b) i) How is the shown fruit dispersed (1 mark)

ii) Describe how the process identified above takes place (2 marks)

c) Name the part labeled T (1 mark)

d) i) State the type of placentation found in above fruit. (1 marks)

Form 4 Bio Paper 2 Page 4 Of 8

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
ii) Explain how the placentation type named above helps in seed development (2 marks)

5. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow

Further excess
X
Excess corrective mechanism A

Negative feedback

Normal Normal

Negative feedback

Deficiency corrective mechanism B

X
Further deficiency.
a) Name the principle labeled X (1mark)

b) If the above diagram represented blood sugar regulation

(i) State the corrective mechanisms carried out at A (2marks)

ii) The condition that may result from the further excess (1mark)

iii) The hormone that would be responsible for correcting the deficiency (1mark)

c) Give the reasons as to why plants have less elaborate excretory systems as compared to
animals (3marks)

Form 4 Bio Paper 2 Page 5 Of 8

SECTION B
ANSWER QUESTION 6 COMPULSORY, AND ANY OTHER.
6. The table below shows the rate of enzyme activity on substrate at different temperature values.
(Temperature in 0c against rate of reaction in milligram per minute)

temp 5 15 25 30 35 40 45 50 60
Mg/min 0.5 1.3 2.4 3.1 3.7 4.1 4.1 2.7 0.0

a) Using a suitable scale, draw a graph of the rate of enzymes reaction against temperature
(6 marks)

Form 4 Bio Paper 2 Page 6 Of 8

b) What is the optimum temperature value for this enzyme? (Show how you
arrived at your answer) (2 marks)

c) Suggest a reason for the results obtained at 600C (2mark)

d) i) If the temperature previously kept at 600C was lowered to 350C.

How would you expect the results to be? (2 marks)

ii). Explain your answer in d (i) above (2 marks)

e) What products are formed by the complete digestion of sucrose? (2 marks)

f) Besides temperature name other four factors that affect the rate of enzyme reactions. (4 marks)

7. a) Describe how locomotion occurs in a finned bony fish like Tilapia (16 marks)
b) How is a guard cell structurally adapted for gaseous exchange? (4 marks)

8. Explain the process of double fertilization in flowering plants (20 marks)

Form 4 Bio Paper 2 Page 7 Of 8

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Form 4 Bio Paper 2 Page 8 Of 8
Name: ____________________________________________________________________________

Adm No: Candidate’s Signature: Date: ___

BIOLOGY
PAPER 3
FORM 4
Time: 1 HOUR 45 MIN

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.

You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of the 1 ¾ hours allowed for this paper reading the whole
paper carefully before commencing your work.

Additional pages must not be inserted.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY.

Question Maximum score Candidates score

1 17

2 09

3 14

Total score 40

This paper consists of 6 printed pages. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as
indicated and no questions are missing

F4 BIO PP3 Page 1 of 6

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
1. You are provided with specimen P and Q. Examine them carefully and answer the questions that
follow.

(a). State three observable differences between P and Q. (3 marks)

Specimen P Specimen Q

(b) Identify the parts of the flower from which specimen P and Q developed. (2 marks)

P --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(c i). Make a longitudinal section of specimen P. Draw a well-labelled diagram of one half with all its

Contents intact. (4 marks)

F4 BIO PP3 Page 2 of 6

(ii). State the functions of any two structures in (c) (i) above. (2 marks)

(d). Using a mortar and pestle crush specimen Q, add 5ml distilled water to make a solution Q and carry
out appropriate tests using the reagents provided. (6 marks)

Test Procedure Observation Conclusion

2. Study the photos below.

F4 BIO PP3 Page 3 of 6

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
a) Name:-

i) The stimulus operating in Plant K1. (1 mark)

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-

ii) The type of response being investigated in Plant K2. (1 mark)

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--

iii) Suggest a control set up for Plant K2 investigation. (1 mark)

b) Describe the role of auxins in the response exhibited by Plant K1. (4 marks)

c) What is the biological value of the tropisms evident in: -

i) Plant K1 (1 mark)

ii) Plant K2 (1 mark)

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

F4 BIO PP3 Page 4 of 6

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

3. Below are photos of of a certain arthropod at different stages of its life cycle.

a) Identify the stage of the life cycle represented by organism S. (1 mark)

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

b i) Name the stage that immediately preceed and succeed organism S in the life cycle. (2 marks)

Preceeding stage

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Succeeding stage.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

ii) What name is given to the complete life cycle of the arthropod? (1 mark)

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
F4 BIO PP3 Page 5 of 6
6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
c) Name the gaseous exchange system of orgaism S. Give a visible featuret that supports your answer.
(2 marks)

d i) What type of food does organisms S feed on? Give a reason to support your answer.
(2 marks)

ii) State the significance of stage U in the life cycle of the beetle. (2 marks)

iii)How is specimen T adapted to locomotion in its habitat ? (2 marks)

e) State the role of the following in the life cycle of the arthropods. (2 marks)

i) Juvinile hormone.

ii) Moulting stimulating hormone.

F4 BIO PP3 Page 6 of 6

NAME: _________________________________________________

ADM NO: CLASS: DATE: _ SIGN: _______________

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

BUSINESS PAPER 1 (565/1)
FORM FOUR
2025
ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS IN THE SPACES PROVIDED TIME: 2 HOURS

1. State four circumstances under which one may decide to start a personal business. (4 marks)

i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….......
ii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
iii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. State four elements in the demographic environment. (4 marks)

3. Highlight four factors to be considered when selecting office equipment. (4 marks)

F4 BST PP1 Page 1 of 6

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
5. Study the diagram below.

Price D1
D0

D1
D0
Quality demanded

State four factors that may lead to the scenario above. (4 marks)

i) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….......
ii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
iii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

6. State four internal sources of public finance. (4 marks)

7. Outline four causes of cost-push inflation. (4 marks)

8. State four reasons why businesses may prefer to use email instead of postal mail. (4 marks)

9. Outline four benefits of trade to the economy of Kenya. (4 marks)

i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….......
F4 BST PP1 Page 2 of 6
ii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
iii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
10. Identify the business units that match the description given in the following table. (4 marks)

Description Business unit

a) In the event of a member’s death business has to
be dissolved.
b) Can only start operating once only it receives a
certificate of incorporation.
c) Managed by a committee of nine members who
are elected in an annual general meeting.
d) Formed by a minimum of seven members with
no maximum membership.

11. Highlight four members that a government may take to reduce the mortality rate in a country. (4 marks)

12. List four types of life assurance policies. (4 marks)

13. Outline four methods used by the government to protect consumers from exploitation. (4 marks)

14. State four reasons why countries may decide to trade with each other. (4 marks)

i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….......
ii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
iii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
F4 BST PP1 Page 3 of 6

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
iv) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
15. The following information was extracted from the books of Gathioro business on 31st March 2018. (4 marks)
Kshs
Stock (01/ 04/ 17) 10,000
Stock (31/ 03/ 18) 9,000
Purchases 14,500
Sales 21,000
Calculate;
i) Margin

ii) Rate of stock turnover. (2 marks)

16. Identify the national income measurement approach under which each of the following items would be
considered. (4 marks)

a) Wages and salaries –

b) Value of intermediate goods –

c) Transfer payments -

e) Expenditure on imports –

17. State four conditions that could be give a firm monopoly power. (4 marks)

F4 BST PP1 Page 4 of 6

18. Outline four advantages of public warehouse. (4 marks)

i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….......
ii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
iii)……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

19. State four essentials of transport. (4 marks)

20. Identify the book of original entry prepared from each of the following source documents. (4 marks)

Source documents Book of original entry

a) Outgoing invoice
b) Received receipt
c) Copy of credit note
d) Original invoice

21. State four circumstances under which a producer of a product may use personal selling method to promote a
product. (4 marks)

22. Classify each of the following as either personal, impersonal or private account and indicate with (√) whether
their balances are debit or credit balances. (4 marks)

Item Type of account DR CR

i) Capital

ii) Debtors

iii) Wages

iv) Cash in hand

F4 BST PP1 Page 5 of 6

23. Outline four ways in which land influences the location of industries. (4 marks)

24. Outline four features that may indicate a country’s state of underdevelopment. (4 marks)

i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….....
ii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
iii) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

25. The following information was obtained from the books of Sindo Limited on 31st December, 2015.
Detailed Kshs
Capital 24,000
Stock 1,500
Debtors 2,000
Machinery 20,000
Cash 4,000
Determine the total liabilities of the business. (4 marks)

F4 BST PP1 Page 6 of 6

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
NAME: ____________________________________________________________________________

ADM NO: CLASS: DATE: _ SIGN: ______

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

565/2
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 2
Time – 2½ hours
Instructions to Candidates

(a) Write your name and index number on the spaces provided.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of FIVE questions.
(d) Answer any five questions.
(e) All questions carry equal marks.
(f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
(g) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Question Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score
1 20
2 20

3 20
4 20
5 20

6 20

Total Score

examination business studies paper two Page 1 of 4

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
1. a) Assuming you were planning to start a business after form four, explain any five factors
you would consider when evaluating a business idea. (10 marks)
b) Explain five ways in which insurance industry contribute to development of a country.
(10 marks)
2. a) Explain five benefits that may be realized by a country as a result of government policy to
relocate industries to rural areas. (10 marks)
b) Outline five ways in which an office manager can ensure that the company’s property is
safeguarded. (10marks)

3. a) There has been a decline in the demand for wooden furniture in Kenya. Explain five
factors that may have cause this trend. (10 marks)

b) Zakayo Traders had the following balances on 1st July 2012.

SHS.
Equipment 5,600
Bank 35,000
Debtors 28,000
Creditors 66,600

During the month the following transactions took place:

July 6TH – Purchased goods worth Sh.9,500 by cheque.

July 7TH – Paid creditors, Sh. 10,600 by cheque.

July 23RD – Received a cheque of Sh.22, 000 for goods sold.

July 28TH – Withdrew Sh. 5,000 from the bank to pay salaries.

Required:

Open the relevant ledger accounts and extract a trial balance as at 30TH July, 2012.
(10 marks)
4. a) Apart from selling shares explain five sources of finance for a public limited company.
(10 marks)
b) Inflation has been on the rise in the Kenyan economy, explain five monetary policies that
can be used by the government to curb inflation (10 marks)
5. a) Explain five reasons for differences in terms of trade between countries (10 marks)

b) The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Daisy Traders as at
31/12/2021.

examination business studies paper two Page 2 of 4

Daisy Traders
Trial Balance
As at 31st December 2021
A/C NAME DR (Shs) CR (Shs)
Purchases & Sales 275,000 390,000
Stock (1/1/2021) 30,000
Debtors 47,000
Commission 36,000
Returns 10,000 6,000
Carriage inwards 16,000
Carriage outwards 8,000
Bad debts 3,000
Wages 20,000
Rates 12,000
Buildings 450,000
Furniture 180,000
Bank overdraft 210,000
Insurance 19,000
Discounts 5,000 7,000
Drawings 25,000
Creditors 52,000
Cash at bank 250,000
Cash in hand
Capital 40,000 689,000

1,390,000 1,390,000

examination business studies paper two Page 3 of 4

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
Additional information:

Stock was valued at Sh.50, 000 as at 31ST/12/2021.

Required:

I. Prepare Daisy Traders, Trading, profit and loss Account for the year ended 31/12/2021.
(7 marks)
II. Balance sheet as at 31/12/2021. (5 marks)

6. a) State and explain five types of direct taxes that the government may use to collect revenue
from individuals and companies. (10 marks)
b) Explain five reasons for which traders observe ethical practices in product promotion
(10 marks)

examination business studies paper two Page 4 of 4

NAME:………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ADM…………CLASS…………..CANDIDATES SIGNATURE…………………..DATE…………………….

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

FORM 4

CHEMISTRY

PAPER 1 (233/1)

TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

 Write your Name, Index Number and School in the spaces provided above.
 Answer all the questions in the spaces provided after each question.
 KNEC Mathematical tables and silent non-programmable electronic calculators may be used.
 ALL working must be clearly shown where necessary.
 Candidate should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed and that no questions
are missing.
 Candidates should answer the questions in English.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTIONS MAX SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1 – 29 80

This paper consists of 13 printed pages. Candidates should check to ascertain that all pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
1. (a) Give the name of the first member of the alkyne homologous series (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………….…………

(b) Describe a chemical test that can be used to distinguish ethanol from ethanoic acid. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Study the diagram below and use it to answer the questions that follow:-

(a) Identify electrodes A and B (2mks)

(b) Name the product formed at the anode (1mk)

(c) Write the electrode half equation of reaction at electrode A (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………..

3. (a) What is meant by lattice energy? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………..

(b)Study the energy level diagram below and answer the question that follows:

NaOH (aq) + H2O (l)

∆H

Na+ (aq) + OH- (aq)

2
What type of reaction is represented by the diagram? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………

4. (a) Sketch a graphical representation of Boyles law on the axes below. (1mk)

(b) A gas occupies 400 cm3 at 25°C and 100,000 Pa. What will be its volume at 27°C and 101325
Pa? (2 marks)

5. (a) What is half- life? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) The half-life of protactinium - 234 is 1.17 minutes. Determine the mass that decays in 5.85
minutes starting with 100 g of the sample. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………
6. State two disadvantages of hard water. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………….………..

3
7. Hydrogen chloride gas can be prepared by reacting sodium chloride with an acid.

(a) Name the acid. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………..

(a) Write an equation for the reaction between sodium chloride and the acid. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) State two uses of hydrogen chloride. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………..

8. When solid B was heated strongly, it gave off water and a solid residue. When water was added to the
solid residue, the original solid B, was formed.

(a) What name is given to the process described? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………….…………….

(b) Give one example of solid A. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………….
9. The set up below can be used to prepare oxygen gas. Study it and answer the questions
that follow.

Sodium peroxide

a) IdentifyX. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
(c) Write the equation for the reaction which occurs in the flask. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) State one use of oxygen other than in welding (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

10. The atomic number of an element, M is 13.

(a) Write the electronic configuration of the ion M3+. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Write the formula of the chloride of M. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Concentrated sodium chloride was electrolysed using graphite electrodes. Name the product formed at
the anode and give a reason for your answer. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………….

12. The curve shown below shows the variation of time against temperature for the reaction between sodium
thiosulphate and hydrochloric acid.

Time(s)

Temperature
(°C)
5
(a) Explain the shape of the curve. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Other than temperature name one factor that affects the rate of reaction. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………….

13. (a) Dry ammonia was passed over heated copper (II) oxide in a combustion tube.

(i) State the observations made in the tube (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Write an equation for the reaction that occurs. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………..………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………

14. The table below shows behaviour of metals P, Q, R and S. Study it and answer the questions that follow:

Metal Appearance on Reaction Reaction with dilute

exposure to air with water sulphuric (VI) acid
P Remains the same Doesn’t Reacts moderately
react
Q Remains the same No reaction Doesn’t react
R Slowly tarnishes Slow Vigorous
S Slowly turns white Vigorous Violent
(a) Arrange the metals in the order of reactivity starting with the most reactive.
(2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….
6
(d) Name a metal which is likely to be R (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………….

15. Given the following substances: sodium carbonate, orange juice and sodium bromide.

(a) Name one commercial indicator that can be used to show whether sodium carbonate, orange juice and sodium
bromide are acidic, basic or neutral. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Classify the substances in 15 (a) above as acids, bases or neutral. (2 marks)

Acid

Base

Neutral

.
16. (a) One of the allotropes of sulphur is monoclinic sulphur, name the other allotrope
(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………..…………………..

(e) Concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid reacts with copper and prapanol. State the
property of the acid shown in each case. (2 marks)

Copper …………..……………………………………………………………….…

Propanol ……………………………………………………………………………

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
17. Study the standard electrode potentials in the table below and answer the questions that follow.

Half -reaction E θ(V)

Ag+(aq) + e Ag(s) + 0.80

Cu2+(aq) + 2e Cu(s) + 0.34

Mg2+(aq) Mg(s) - 2.38

+ 2e
Ca2+(aq) Ca(s) - 2.87
+ 2e
(a) Which of the metals is the strongest oxidising agent? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) What observations will be made if a copper coin was dropped into an aqueous solution of calcium nitrate?
Explain. (2 marks)

18. The diagram below represents an allotrope of carbon.

a) name the allotrope. (1mk)

b)Explain why:- (2mks)

(i) its slipperly

(ii) Conducts an electric current

8
19. (a) A crystal of iodine, heated gently in a test tube gave off a purple vapour.
(i) Write the equation for the formation of purple vapour.
(1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………..

(b) What type of bond is broken when the iodine crystal is heated gently?
(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) State one use of chlorine. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

20. Describe how samples of barium (II) sulphate, ammonium chloride and common salt can be obtained
from a mixture of the three. (3 marks)

21. (a) Give the name of the process which takes places place when maize flour is converted to ethanol
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Write the formula of the compound formed when ethanol reacts with sodium metal. (1 mark)

…………..……………………………………………………………………………..

22. (a) Study the graph below which shows variation of atomic radius with atomic number

Atomic radius Potassium

Sodium
Lithium

Atomic number

9
State and explain the trend shown in the graph above. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) State one use of sodium. (l mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………

23. A farmer intended to plant blueberries in her farm. She first tested the pH of the soil and found it to be
10.0. In order to obtain high yield, what advice would be given to the
farmer if blueberries do well in acidic solution? (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

24. Starting with calcium nitrate solution, describe how a pure dry sample of calcium
carbonate can be prepared in the laboratory. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………
25. A hydrocarbon contains 81.82% of carbon. If the molar mass of the hydrocarbon is 44, determine the
molecular formula of the hydrocarbon. (C = 12.0; H = 1.0) (3 marks)

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
26. (a) Describe how Carbon (II) Oxide can be distinguished from Carbon (IV) Oxide using calcium
hydroxide solution. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………….

(f) What is the role of carbon (IV) oxide in fire extinguishing? (l mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………….

………………………………………………………………………………………..

27. (a) Name one source of alkanes. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………….

(g) Methane gas was reacted with one mole of chlorine gas. State the condition necessary for this reaction.
(1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………

28. (a) What is meant by heating value of a fuel? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

(b) Other than heating value, name one factor to be considered when choosing a fuel. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………..

29. The following diagram shows a paper chromatogram of substances A, B, C, and D which
are coloured

11
(a) Indicate the solvent front on the chromatogram (1mk)

(b) Which substance is pure? (1mk)

…………………………..THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE……………………………...

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
NAME……………………………………………………………...................................................

ADM NO….…………SIGNATURE…………CLASS.................................DATE……………

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

233/2 CHEMISTRY PAPER 2
(THEORY)
JULY 2024
2 HOURS
CHEMISTRY -233/2

(Theory)
(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)
Instructions to candidates
(a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
(c) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be
used.
(d) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
(e) Candidates should answer the questions in English.
(f) This paper consists of 12 printed pages.
(g) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
For Examiner’s Use Only

QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S SCORE

SCORE
1 11
2 13
3 13
4 12
5 11
6 08
7 12
Total score 80

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
1. State two factors that should be considered when choosing fuel for cooking. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) The diagram below represents a set –up that was used to determine the molar heat of
combustion of ethanol

During the experiment, the data given below was recorded

Volume of water 450cm3
Initial temperature of water 250 C
Final temperature of water 46.50 C
Mass of ethanol + Lamp before burning 125.5g
Mass of ethanol + Lamp after burning 124.0g
Calculate the:
[Link] evolved during the experiment (density of water=1g/cm3,Specific heat capacity of water
=4.2Jg-K - (2marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Molar heat of combustion of ethanol (C=12.0, O=16.0, H=1.0) (3 marks)

.........................................................................................................................................................

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

2
(c) Write the thermal chemical equation for the complete combustion of ethanol. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) The value of the molar heat of combustion of ethanol obtained (b) (ii) above is lower than
the theoretical value. State two sources of error in the experiment. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
e) Define the term molar heat of combustion (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. The grid below shows a section of the periodic table. The letters do not represent the actual
symbols of the elements.

K L M N P
Q R S T V
W

a) Name the family to which element P belongs. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Which two elements will form carbonates that do not decompose on heating. (2 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

c) With a reason, identify an element in period three with the largest atomic radius.(2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Write the formula of the compound formed between L and M (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

3
e) State two uses of element R and for each use, state property of element R that makes it

possible for the use

(i) Use ( 1/2mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………

Property (1/2 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) Use (1/2 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
Property (1/2 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………
f) Using dots (.) and cross (x), show bonding in the compound formed between R and
oxygen . (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
g) In terms of structure and bonding, explain why the boiling point of the oxide of L is
higher than that of N. (1 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………....
................................................................................................................................................
h) Calculate the volume of the gas produced when 1.95g of element W reacts with water
(W= 39, Molar gas volume at S.T.P= 24,000cm3) (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
3. Use the information below on standard electrode potentials to answer the questions that follow

Electronic reaction EƟ volts

C2+ (aq) + 2e- → C(s) +0.34

D2+ (aq) + 2e- → D (s) +0.44
E+ (aq) + e- → E (s) -2.92
F (aq) + 2e →
2+ -
F (s) -2.71
G2+(aq) + 2e- → G(s) -0.14
½H2 (g) + e- → H- (aq) +2.87
½K2 (g) + e- → K-(aq) +1.09
L+ (aq) + e- → ½L2 (aq) 0.00

a) i) Identify the strongest reducing agent. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Calculate the e.m.f of the cell obtained by connecting half cells C and D (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Draw a well labeled diagram of a cell formed by connecting half cells C and D.
(3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5
c) he figure below shows the electrolysis of dilute sulphuric (VI) acid

i) On the diagram label the cathode and anode (2 mark)

ii) Name the gases U and V (2 mark)

Gas U
…………………………………………………………………...…………..

Gas V …………………………………………………………………………

iii) Write the equation taking place at the anode (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Define the term electrolysis (1 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e)State two applications of electrolysis (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

6
4. The flow chart below outlines some processes involved in the extraction of copper from
copper pyrites. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Name the following: (3 marks)

(i) Ore P ………………………………………………………………………………...…..

(ii) Gas L………………………………………………………………………………….

(iii) Slag M ……………………………………………………………………………...….

(b) (i) Explain how the ore is concentrated. ( 1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Why is it necessary to grind the ore into powder? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c ) Give the purpose of adding silicon (IV) oxide compound G into the smelting furnace.
(1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7
(d) Pure copper is obtained from impure copper by electrolysis. Name the material used as
anode and cathode. (1 mark)
Anode ……………………………………………………………………………………

Cathode …………………………………………………………………………………….

(e) What effects does this process of copper extraction have to the environment? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(f) State two uses of copper metal. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(g) A current of 100 Amperes was passed for 20 days. What mass of copper in kg was
deposited at the cathode? (Cu = 64, If = 96500 C) (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………

5. The table below shows the solubility of potassium nitrate at different temperatures.

Temperature 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
c
Solubility 80 88 96 104 114 124 136 148 162 180
g/100g of
water

a) Plot a graph of solubilities of potassium nitrate against temperature. (3mk)

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
b) From your graph determine;
i) the solubility of the potassium nitrate at 650c. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) the mass of potassium nitrate that would dissolve in 50g of water at 820c. (2mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

9
c) Determine the molar concentration of potassium nitrate at 370 c. (N=14, O= 16, K= 39.
Assume the density of solution to be 1g/cm3 ) (3mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) 130g of potassium nitrate salt was added to 100g of water and heated to 900c. It was then
cooled to 150 c.
i) At what temperature were the crystals first formed? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Calculate the mass of crystals formed. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. The figure below shows the apparatus used to burn hydrogen in air. Use it to answer the
questions that follow.

i) State the role of substance X (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) Give the name of the substance that could be used as X (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
iii) State the role of the suction pump (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………….

10
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
iv) Name the product Y formed (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………….

v) Give a simple physical test to prove the identity of Y (2 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
vi) State the difference between “dry” and “anhydrous”. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
7 a)Name the following compounds (3 marks)
i) CH3CH2CH2OH

ii). CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH

iii). CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH3

b). Study the scheme below and answer the questions that follow

Gas A
KMnO4 Sodium
Compound C Propan – 1 - 01
+
H Regent D Compound B

Polymer E Propene Bromine F

gas
Step 1
Propane
Cracking

G Methane

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
i. Identify product
A. (1 mark)
F. (1 mark)
ii. Name the compound C (1 mark)

iii. State the conditions for step 1 ( 2 mark)

iv. Name the process leading to formation of compound C (1 mark)

v. Write an equation for the reaction leading to the formation of methane.(1 mark)

vi. Identify reagent D. (1 mark)

vii. Draw the structure of F. (1 mark)

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
NAME: ………………………………………………………………………………………

ADM NO: …………… SCHOOL : ……………………..DATE : ………………………

CANDIDATE’S SIGNATURE…………………………….

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

233/3
CHEMISTRY
PAPER 3

TIME: 2𝟏⁄𝟒HOURS

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
(i) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(ii) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(iii) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
(iv) You are not allowed to start working with apparatus for the first 15 minutes of
2𝟏⁄𝟒Hours allowed for this paper. This time is to enable you read the question and
make sure you have all the chemicals and apparatus required.
(iv) Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
(v) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
(vi) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages
are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

Question Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score
1 20

2 13

3 7

Total Score 40

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
QUESTION 1
(a) You are provided with the following
(i) Sulphuric(VI) acid labeled a solution D
(ii) Solution R prepared by dissolving 40g of NaOH in 400cm3 of distilled water
and made up to 1 litre.
You are required to determine the molarity of Sulphuric (VI) acid.
PROCEDURE
(i) Fill the burette with Sulphuric (VI) acid.
(ii) Using pipette and pipette filter place 25cm3 of solution R into conical flask.
(iii)Add 2-3 drops of phenolphthalein indicator.
(iv) Titrate solution R against solution D.
(v) Repeat the titrations to obtain two concordant titrates
(vi) Record your results in the table below.
I II III
Final burette reading
(cm3)
Initial burette
reading (cm3)
Volume of solution
D used (cm3)

(4mks)
i) Calculate the average volume of acid solution D used . (1mk)

ii) Calculate the number of moles NaOH solution (Solution R) used.

(1mk)

iii) Calculate the number of moles of acid used. (1mk)

iv) Determine the molarity of Sulphuric (vi) acid. (1mk)

2
b) You are provided with the following;
(i) 0.85M HCL labeled solution N.
(ii) Sodium hydroxide labeled solution K.
You are required to determine the molar heat of neutralization of solution N
Procedure
i. Measure 50cm3 of solution N and transfer it into a 250cm plastic beaker
provided.
ii. Record the initial temperature of solution N to the nearest 0.50c.
iii. Rinse the burette thoroughly with distilled water and fill it up to the 0.0cm3
mark with sodium hydroxide solution ( Solution K)
iv. From the burette add 10cm3 of solution K to solution N in the beaker. Stir
gently with the thermometer and record the new temperature in the table
below.
v. Continue adding 10cm3 portions of Solution K recording new temperature
after each addition until 80cm3 of K has been added
Volume of Solution K 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
3
added (cm )
Temperature 0C
(3mks)
a) Plot a graph of temperature (y-axis) against total volume of sodium hydroxide
(Solution K) (x-axis) (3mks)

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
i) From the graph determine the maximum temperature reached. (1mk)

ii) What is the temperature change? (1mk)

b) From the graph determine the volume of sodium hydroxide required for complete
neutralization of hydrochloric acid. (1mk)

c) Write an Ionic equation for the neutralization reaction. (1mk)

d) Calculate the heat evolved when volume of sodium hydroxide in (c) was neutralized.
Density of solution 1g/cm3,C=4.2j/g/k. (1mk)

e) Calculate the molar heat of neutralization. (1mk)

QUESTION 2
You are provided with solid D. Carry out the following tests and record your observation and
inferences in the spaces provided.
a) Describe the appearance of Solid D. (1mk)

4
b) Place about half of solid D in dry test. Heat it strongly and test for any gas produced
using a blue and red litmus paper.
Observation Inferences

1mk 1mk

c) Place the rest of Solid D in boiling tube and add about 10cm3 of distilled water. Shake
well and add about 2cm3 portions for each of the test below.
Observation Inferences

1mk 1mk
i) To one portion, add aqueous NaOH drop wise until in excess
Observation Inferences

1mk 1⁄ mk
2

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
ii) To the second portion, add aqueous ammonia drop wise until in excess
Observation Inferences

1mk 1⁄ mk
2

iii) To a third portion add about 5 drops of sodium chloride solution.

Observation Inferences

1mk 1⁄ mk
2
iv) To a fourth portion, add dilute Barium nitrate solution.
Observation Inferences

1⁄ mk
2
1mk

6
v) To a fifth, add lead (ii) nitrate solution, warm mixture
Observation Inferences

1mk 1mk

QUESTION 3
i) You are provided with solid J. carry out the tests below and record your
observation and inferences to the spaces provided.
Place a half of Solid J in a clean metallic spatula and ignite it on Bunsen burner
flame.
Observation Inferences

1mk 1mk

7
Put the remaining portion of solid J in a boiling tube and add about 8cm3 of
distilled water. Shake to dissolve.
ii) To about 2cm3 of solution J in a test tube add 2 to 3 drops of bromine water.
Observation Inferences

1mk 1mk

iii) To about 2cm3 of solution J in a test tube, add about 1cm3 of acidified potassium
dichromate (vi). Warm gently and allow to stand for a minute.
Observation Inferences

1⁄ mk
2
1mk
iv) To about 2cm3 of solution in a test tube, add a small amount of solid Sodium
hydrogen carbonate.
Observation Inferences

1mk 1⁄ mk
2

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
NAME ……………………………………..…………………………………………… CLASS…………………………………

ADM NO …………….……….……..…..… CANDIDATE’S SIGNATURE …………..…..………..

451/1
COMPUTER STUDIES
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 ½ Hours
END TERM TWO EXAMINATIONS

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

Kenya certificate of Secondary Education
451/1
COMPUTER STUDIES
PAPER 1
(THEORY)
TIME: 2 ½ hours

Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) This Paper consists of two sections A and B.
(c) Answer ALL the questions in section A.
(d) Answer question 16 (compulsory) and any other THREE questions from section B.
(e) All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
(f) This paper consists of 11 printed pages. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are
printed as indicated and no questions are missing

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Questions Candidate’s score
A 1- 15
16
17
18
B
19
20
TOTAL SCORE

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
1.
a. Computers have evolved through a number of generations. List any 4 characteristics of the
first generation of computers. (2 marks)
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
b. Explain the emerging trends in microcomputer technology in relation to size
(1 mark)
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Explain why smoke and Dust particles are harmful to a computer (1 mark)
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Explain three ways that computer technology could make office more efficient (3 marks)
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Differentiate between single- purpose programs and integrated software (2 marks)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. What is a template? ( 1mark)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Name and explain the use of the following buttons found in a spell-check dialog box
(3 marks)
i. Change
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
ii. Ignore Once
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
iii. Ignore all
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Explain the following concepts as used in spreadsheets: (4marks)
i. Automatic recalculation
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
ii. ‘What if’ analysis
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. A formula =B5 + C4 was entered in Cell F5. What will it become when it is copied to Cell H8?
(1 mark)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.
i. List any two methods used to secure data in a database (2 marks)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
ii. State three types of relationships that can be used to link tables in databases.
(3 marks)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. What is layering as used in DTP and why is it important in DTP? (2 marks)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

11.
a. Briefly describe three factors contributing to slower Internet access and growth in Kenya.
(3 marks)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
b. Outline three ways of preventing piracy with regard to data and information.
(3 marks)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12. Convert 7678 to hexadecimal equivalent. (2 marks)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13. State three ways of minimizing threats to data integrity. (3marks)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
14. Give three advantages of a real-time system. (3marks)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
15. What is Telecommuting?
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
Section B.
Answer Question 16(Compulsory) and any other three Questions.
16.
i. Give two advantages of compiling a program rather than interpreting it. (2 marks)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
ii. Give two reasons why it is necessary to have a program design. (2 marks)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
iii. Give one advantage of pseudo codes over flowcharts in designing algorithms (1 mark)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
iv. Michael deposits 1,000 in a bank at an interest rate of 10% per year. At the end of each
year, the interest earned is added to the amount on deposit and this becomes the new
deposit for the next year.
Develop a pseudo code to determine the year in which the amount accumulated first
exceeds 2,000. Also for each year, print the year (starting from 1), the deposit, the Interest
earned, and the total accumulated at the end of the year. (7 marks)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
v. Study the flowchart below and answer the questions that follow:

List all the outputs from the flowchart. (3 marks)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
17. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow:

a. Name the communication media depicted in the above diagram. (1 mark)

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
b. Name the parts labelled A, B, C, and D. (4 marks)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
c. List three advantages of the above communication media. (3marks)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
d. Distinguish between logical and physical network topology. (2marks)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

e. Explain the function of the following network devices: (2 marks)

i. Network interface card (NIC)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------------------
ii. Repeater
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------------------
f. Give three advantages of using fibre optic cables for data transmission. (3 marks)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------------------
18.
a. Outline four devices required in order to conduct a video conference. (4 marks)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
b. Describe how computing has been applied to each of the following areas:
i. Transportation systems. (2 marks)
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------
ii. Reservation systems. (2 marks)
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------
c. Distinguish between “job replacement” and “job displacement” in reference to Computerization
(2 marks)
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------------------
d. Discuss the applications of Artificial Intelligence in Expert Systems. (2 marks)
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------

e. State three reasons why users may resist the introduction of information and communication
Technology (ICT) to their place of work. (3marks)

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
19.
a. Name any threes computing resources that can be distributed. (3 marks)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
b. Define the term data integrity. (2 marks)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
c. State two reasons for using binary in digital technology. (2 marks)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
d. State the importance of hexadecimal notation in a data representation. (2 marks)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
e. Use Two’s compliment to subtract 101 from 1000: (2 marks)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
f. Perform the following conversions:
i. 7.12510 to binary (2 marks)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
g. 7AB16 to decimal (2 marks)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
20. Study the worksheet below and answer the questions that follow:

A B C D E F

2 SKYWAYS AGENCIES

3 PRODUCT REGION 1 REGION 2 REGION 3 REGION 4 TOTAL

Sale
4 Rexona 3400 3,700 4000 4100

5 Lifebuoy 2500 2600 2100 2500

6 Omo 6000 6100 6300 1600

7 Ushindi 1200 1500 1400 6400

8 Carmel 7000 6900 7200 8000

9 Total

10 Maximum

11 Average

a. Write functions that can be entered to get total, maximum, and average of each
region. (3 marks)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
b. Write down the function that returns the number of sales in the four regions whose
value is greater than or equal to 2000. (2 marks)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

c. The function = sum (B4:E4) is entered at F5 and then copied to F8. Write down the
function as it appears in the destination cell.
(2 marks)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

d. Define the term normalization as used in database design. (2 marks)

f. Explain how ‘parents’ and ‘child’ tables are related in relational databases.

(4 marks)

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

451/2 - COMPUTER STUDIES
Paper 2 FORM 4 (PRACTICAL) – 2½hrs

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Type your name and admission number at the top right hand corner of each
printout
2. Sign and write the date of the examination below the name and Admno
number on each printout
3. Write the name and version of the software used for each question
attempted in the answer sheet
4. Passwords should not be used while saving in the compact disks
5. Answer all the questions

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM STUDENT SCORE

SCORE
1
2
TOTAL
SCORE

1|Page COMP PP2 F4 T2 2025

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
1. XYZ is a training college that offers three courses to students. A student sits for three types of
examinations every semester. Each examination is marked out of 100%. The following table
shows sample data collected from the database:
STUDENT STUDENT EXA GENDE COURS DATE COURSE TUITION SEMESTER
ID NAME M R E CODE ENROLLED DESCRIPTION FEE
CODE
ENG-01 MIKE 01 M ENG 01/11/2017 Diploma in Sh. 250,000 2
Engineering
CSC-002 KIOKO 02 F CSC 02/11/2017 Diploma in Computer Sh. 350,000 2
Science
NUR-003 ABIUD 03 M NUR 03/11/2017 Diploma in Nursing Sh. 150,000 2
ENG-004 JANE 02 F ENG 01/11/2017 Diploma in Sh. 250,000 2
Engineering
CSC-002 KIOKO 03 F CSC 02/11/2017 Diploma in Computer Sh. 350,000 2
Science
-003 ABIUD 01 M NUR 03/11/2017 Diploma in Nursing Sh. 150,000 2
a. Using a database management application split the information in the above table into
three tables namely; (15 marks)
i. Student enrolment
ii. Exam performance
iii. Courses offered
b. Create a relationship between the three tables (3 marks)
c. Create appropriate forms to be used for entering the records (6 marks)
d. Create a query to:
i. i. Show all students whose score is greater than 70% save it as HighScore (3 marks)
ii. Show students whose name end with the letter ‘E’ save it as Engineers (3 marks)
iii. Show all students taking Diploma in Computer Science save it as Comps (3 marks)
e. Create a report called Tuition Summary displaying the following details: (7 marks) •
Student ID
➢ • Student Name
➢ • Course Description
➢ • Tuition fees
➢ • Total fees collected
f. Using a report called ANALYSIS, create a column chart showing students Performance in
the exam. (5 marks)
g. Print the tables student enrolment, exam performance, courses offered, the Tuition
summary and Analysis reports. (5 marks)

2|Page COMP PP2 F4 T2 2025

2. The management of a scout movement intends to awards certificates of participation to the
scouts who attended a fire rescue seminar. Assuming that you’ve been tasked to design the
certificate:
a. Open a DTP software and make the following page settings. 5marks
❖ Orientation : Landscape
❖ Units : Centimeters
❖ Paper size :A4
❖ Margins 2cm all round
ii. Create the certificate below and save it as Certificate 43 marks
ii. Print out the certificate 2mrks

3|Page COMP PP2 F4 T2 2025

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
Name: ____________________________________________________________________________________

Adm No: _______Class: _ Candidate’s Signature: Date: ______

CRE paper 313 / 1

FORM FOUR
YEAR 2025
Time: 2 ½ HOURS

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

Instructions to Candidates

Answer any five questions

1 a) List seven minor prophetic books in the bible. (7 marks)

b) State six characteristics of God demonstrated in Genesis 1 and 2. (6marks)

c) Outline ways in which Christians show respect to God in society today. (7marks)

2 a) Identify seven actions that demonstrated faith in Abraham`s life. (7marks)

b) Explain the meaning of the events that took place on the night of Exodus. (8marks)

c) Give five reasons why Christians should trust God in their daily lives. (5marks)

3 a) Explain six ways in which Saul failed as king of Israel. (6marks)

b) Outline the significance of the Temple in Jerusalem to the Israelites. (7marks)

c) Give 7 circumstances that led to the contest at Mount Carmel during the time of Prophet Elijah. (7marks)

4 a) State six titles given to prophets in the Old Testament. (6 marks)

b) Explain the evils committed by four nations that were to be punished by God according to
Prophet Amos. (8marks)

c) Mention six ways in which Christians can avoid God’s punishment today. (6marks)

5 a) Describe how the people of Judah renewed their covenant with God under the leadership of Ezra. (8 marks)

b) Give five reasons why Nehemiah carried out religious reforms in Judah. (5 marks)

c) In what ways do Christians renew their covenant faith with God? (7 marks)

6 a) Identify seven occasions when prayers were conducted in Traditional African societies. (7 marks)

b) Outline seven roles of kinship system in traditional African society. (7 marks)

c) What changes have taken place in property ownership in Traditional African communities? (6 marks)

Adm No: __________Class: _Candidate’s Signature: Date: ___

CRE PAPER (313 / 2)

FORM FOUR
Time: 2 ½ HOURS

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

Instructions to Candidates

Answer any five questions

1a) State six prophecies of Zechariah about his son John in the Benedictus. (6 marks)

b) Explain how John the Baptist played the role of a forerunner for the messiah (7 marks)

c) Identify seven ways in which Christians play the role of John the Baptist today. (7 marks)

2a) Describe the healing of the epileptic boy in Luke 9:37 – 43. (7 marks)

b) Narrate the healing of the woman who touched Jesus cloak. Luke 8: 43 – 48. (6 marks)

c) Identify ways in which the church has continued with the healing ministry of Jesus. (6 marks)

3 a) With reference to Jesus” journey to Jerusalem, state four teachings of Jesus about salvation (Luke 18:15-19:1-27
(8 marks)
b) State six areas of conflict between Jesus and the Jewish religious leaders which eventually led to His death.
(6 marks)
c) State six ways in which parents can resolve misunderstandings with their Children. (6 marks)

4a) Outline seven teachings of St. Paul on unity of believers as demonstrated, in the image of the body of Christ. (1
Corinthians 12:12 - 27, Ephesians 4: 1-12) (7marks)
b) In what ways was unity demonstrated by the Christian in the early church? (6 marks)

c) State seven factors which threatens unity in the church today. (7marks)

5a) Explain the relationship between work and leisure in the Christian view. (8 marks)

b) Explain the Christians teachings on male-female relationships. (7 marks)

c) State the role of professional ethics in a work place. (5marks)

6 a) Outline seven ways in which Science and Technology help to improve human life. (7 marks)

b) How have science and technology helped the spread of the Gospel? (7 marks)

c) In what ways is the church helping to reduce the rate of crime in Kenya? (6 marks)

CRE FORM PAPER 2 Page 1 of 1

Adm No: _________Class: _Candidate’s Signature: _ Date: _

(101/1) ENGLISH PAPER 1

FORM 4
Time:2 HOURS 30 MINUTES

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

Instructions to Candidates
1. Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided.

2. Write all the answers in the spaces provided.

3. Avoid leaving blank spaces.

4. Candidates must answer all the questions in English.

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1 20

2 10

3 30

TOTAL SCORE 60

F4 ENG PP1 Page 1 of 7

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20 marks)

You have come across a job advertisement on Nation Media newspaper by Delotte Company for a position
of an Internal Auditor. The candidate should have a degree in Finance. He/she should be a member of
Certified Public Accountants Guild. The candidate should have 2 years work experience.

Write a curriculum vitae (CV) that you would use to apply for the job
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

F4 ENG PP1 Page 2 of 7

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

F4 ENG PP1 Page 3 of 7

2. CLOZE TEST (10 marks)
Fill in each blank space in the passage below with the most appropriate word.
You can achieve your long-term (1) ___________________ by breaking down and setting daily goals for

yourself. A big dream can seem daunting, especially when you look at your (2) ____________________

situation and realize how far away from it you are now. (3) _________________________, when you break

the goal down into small actionable steps, it becomes a lot easier to achieve. When you set daily goals, you

build momentum, and that inspires you to keep pushing (4) ___________________________ your ultimate

goal because you know you are getting closer to it every day.

(5) _____________________ daily goals isn’t about giving yourself random things to do every day it’s about

achieving your long-term goals. So for example, let’s say you want to lose 60 pounds. You look in the mirror

every day saying that you need to (6) _____________________ weight, but because you know you need to

lose so much, you keep putting it off until tomorrow. (7) _____________________ you know it, you’ve gained

another 10 pounds! The thought of losing 60 pounds in 12 months, which works out to 5 pounds a month and

just over 1 pound a week, now your goal isn’t intimidating.

You can now start working (8) _______________________ toward that goal. It could involve eating a large

portion of vegetables and cutting (9) _________________________ on carbs, doing ten minutes of cardio per

day, and/or drinking more water. Whatever it is, just make sure you are doing it daily

(10) __________________________ consistency is the key to your success.

3. ORAL SKILLS(30 marks)

a) Read the following poem then answer the questions that follow (8 marks)

I want to write a poem, but I don’t know where to start.

Should it be an ode to love come straight from the heart?
Or should it wax lyrical of sky and moon and stars,
Or of planets of our universe Pluto, Jupiter, or Mars?

It could be of the flora or fauna of this, our wonderful land,

F4 ENG PP1 Page 4 of 7
Or of walking barefoot on a lonely beach kicking up the sand.
Of countries and of places where the surrounding seem so strange,
Frozen lands, dense jungles, valleys deep and of vast mountain’s range.

Rivers long, the life blood of lands they pass along their way,
Irrigating crops and refreshing thirsts continually night and day.
Or of the sheer beauty of Mother Nature we can experience all around,
From the gigantic right down to microscopic, many wondrous things abound.

Maybe of the sadness felt when the highest price is paid,

Be it that of unselfish sacrifice of life or whenever it is made.

i) Identify the rhyme scheme of this poem (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Using illustrations show how rhythm has been achieved in the poem (3 marks)

iii) Would you use a rising or falling intonation in reading stanza 2 line 3 in this poem? Give a reason.
(1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv) How would you say the last line of the second last stanza? (2 marks)

a) Identify the odd one out from the list of words according to the pronunciation of the underlined sounds
(2 marks)

i) Respect religion referee - ____________________________________

ii) Keys advise books -___________________________________

F4 ENG PP1 Page 5 of 7

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
b) Identify the silent letter(s) in the following words (3 marks)
i) Disciplinary –
ii) Glisten –
iii) Succumb –

c) Read the short form below and then answer the questions that follow
I bought a boat because it was for sail
i) Classify the artefact above (1 mark)
A pun – __________________________________________________________________
ii) Write the homophones of the following words evident in the artefact above (2 marks)

Boat – ___________________________________________________________________

Sale – ____________________________________________________________________
d) Indicate whether the following items have a falling or rising intonation (4 marks)
i) Get out now!

ii) The stranger was accused of theft.

iii) How did you find the English exam?

iv) Could they have left?

e) Your father who stays in the village wants to visit you in Siaya town. He has never visited you before.
Your house is not far from the state.
i) Mention two ways you would specify to him the distance from the state to your house (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
F4 ENG PP1 Page 6 of 7
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

f) You are the chairperson of a panel that is set to carry out an important interview.
i. Explain briefly what you would do in preparation of this important occasion (2 marks)

ii. What would you consider in selecting the most suitable interviewee? (2 marks)

g) Explain how you would go about the following during an impromptu speech
i. Inviting a guest speaker (2 marks)

ii. Moving message of condolence

F4 ENG PP1 Page 7 of 7

Name: ___________________________________________________________________________

Adm No: ___Class: _Candidate’s Signature: __ Date:

PAPER 101/2
ENGLISH PAPER 2
FORM 4
Time:2 HOURS 30 MINUTES

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

Instructions to Candidates
1. Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided.
2. Write all the answers in the spaces provided.
3. Avoid leaving blank spaces.
4. Candidates must answer all the questions in English.

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1 20

2 25

3 20

4 15

TOTAL SCORE 80

1. COMPREHENSION (20 MARKS)

Read the passage below and then answer the questions that follow.
The world has a weight problem. Within the past decade, obesity rates have shot up by 50
percent, rising from 200 million people in 1995 to 300 million in 2003. Even places more familiar with
famine than fat are starting to worry about their waistlines. Africa now has weight loss clinics. In a
recent survey in India - home to half the world’s undernourished population - 55 percent of women
between 20 and 69 were found to be overweight. Twenty percent of Chinese adults are overweight.
Brazil’s childhood-obesity rate has jumped to 239 percent in a generation - four times the growth rate
for youth in the United States. In March 2003, the International Obesity Task Force revealed that 1.7
billion of the planet’s 6 billion people were overweight or obese. “How did we all get so fat?” The
problem stems from the collision of a number of modern trends; rising affluence and urbanization; the
proliferation of conveniences like cars, computers, fast food and television; and the 21st Century work
culture, with its desk jobs and long hours. In rich countries, the familiar mantra of low-fat diet and
exercise is routinely ignored. In the developing world, where health education is frequently non-
existent, people are particularly vulnerable to the glamour of American burgers and the comfort of the
couch. Rural migrants to cities are suddenly confronted with market-stall snacks and McDonald’s. In
newly industrialized countries packaged foods and fast food chains are promoted as an index of
affluence.

F4 ENGLISH PP2 Page 1 of 8

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
The consumption of foods high in fat, sugar and salt- combined with increasingly sedentary
lifestyles - is worrying health experts. And it is killing us. Diet-linked diseases - chiefly heart disease,
cancer, diabetes and hypertension, now account for more than half of all deaths in Arab countries. In
Barbados, more than 60 percent of hospital and drug-service budgets go toward coping with obesity-
related illnesses. In Chinese hospitals, the number of patients suffering from weight-related diseases
has increased by 30 percent. The problem is so pervasive that the World Health Organization has
declared obesity a global epidemic.
In many places, obesity and related illnesses such as diabetes are growing fastest among
children and teenagers. These may be because those groups are more vulnerable to the excesses of
their new found liberation. Teenagers from rich homes have cars can go to restaurants with their
friends, and consume high-fat fast food. Nutritionists also blame food marketing and the proliferation
of supermarkets for the rise in childhood obesity. Ultimately, diabetes is incurable. Although changes
in diet and lifestyle can help stem the progression of the disease,it never disappears. Most patient are
on insulin a decade after diagnosis. The best long-term hope for reversing the trend is for society to get
its weight problems under control.

QUESTIONS

1. What is achieved by the use of figures in paragraph one? (2 marks)

2. How can the society get the weight problem under control? (3 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________

3. Cite three indicators of the increasing danger of obesity mentioned in the passage. (3 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
4. In what way is modern lifestyle a curse rather than a blessing? (3 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________

F4 ENGLISH PP2 Page 2 of 8

__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
5. In about 50 words summarize what the passage says about obesity in children and teenagers.
(6 marks)
ROUGH COPY
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
FAIR COPY
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
6. The problem is so pervasive that the World Health Organization has declared obesity a global
epidemic. (Rewrite the sentence beginning: So…) (1 mark)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________

7. Provide the meaning of the following words as used in the passage (2 marks)
a. Affluence

_________________________________________________________________________________

b. Sedentary
__________________________________________________________________________________

Q2. EXCERPT (25 MARKS)

Read the excerpt below and then answer the questions that follow
Mossi: (Pacing about on the stage. Turns to face the principal and Nicole) I am afraid we may not
continue with this thing. Oh, I have already forgotten what you are calling it.
Pirro: (Looking rather disappointed) But why, Your Worship? This is a blessing for our country.
Mossi: Don’t you see it? It might turn out to be a platform for misinformation, lies and witchhunt. You
see, last year someone spread a rumour that I had died. He just sent a text message on some social

F4 ENGLISH PP2 Page 3 of 8

media and it spread like a wild bush fire. And do you know I almost actually died? During that time, I
accidentally swallowed a whole toothpick!
Ramdaye: Oh, yes. I see the risk. They might spread another rumour on this platform! And you might
swallow another toothpick! Yes, you will!
Basdeo: (To Mayor) The way I see it, that App will be a people’s platform! And it will have far-
reaching implications whether you launch it or not.
Mossi: (Casting a stern look at Mr Basdeo) I need time to think about it. I will launch it at my own
convenient time. (Turning to Nicole and the principal) There are no two ways for now. Halt any
activities regarding that thing until my office gives further guidance. (Ramdaye nods inn approval.)
Other guests exchange knowing glances in silence.
Narine: Your Worship, the President of the Republic is scheduled to officially launch the App at the
national level early next year when school reopen. We presently have some ongoing activities in
preparation for it. I doubt whether this process can be stopped.
Harvester: (Looking at the Principal and Nicole alternately) Is that so?
Mossi: (Looking at the principal) The President?
Narine: Yes, Sir.
Ramdaye: Why have you kept as in the dark about this?
Narine: The Mayor’s office has been duly informed, Sir.
Mossi: (Lookingg at Narine) Oh yes, I remember! But you never explained what kind of thing it was!
No, you still have to stop it!
Pirro: I think that is beyond their powers, Your Worship.
Mossi: (Looking at Pirro) This thing we are talking about is a school project under their control!
(Turning to face the Principal) It is, therefore, within your powers to find a way around it. (Pauses,
then turns to face Nicole) Think about it. You are at the centre of it! Figure out a way… like writing to
the Ministry of Education indicating that there are some fundamental errors in it that you need to
attend to… get what I mean?
Nicole: I am afraid, Your Worship, the assessment of the innovations was done by senior officers at
the Ministry of Education. Experienced software engineers were also involved. It passed all the tests,
and no errors were found.

QUESTIONS
1. Place this excerpt in its immediate context. (4 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
2. Discuss two themes raised in the excerpt. (4 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________

F4 ENGLISH PP2 Page 4 of 8

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
3. From this excerpt and elsewhere in the play, why does Mayor Mossi refuse to launch the App?
(2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
4. Comment on the character of Mossi in this excerpt. (2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
5. From elsewhere in the play, how does Mossi try to stop the App from operating? (2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
6. Give reasons why the App is error-proof. (2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
7. Identify and illustrate two aspects of style used in the excerpt. (4 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
8. Think about it. (Add a question tag) (1 mark)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
9. Explain the meaning of the following expressions as used in the excerpt. (4 marks)
a. Far-reaching implications –
__________________________________________________________________________________
b. Halt –
__________________________________________________________________________________
c. Kept us in the dark –
__________________________________________________________________________________
d. Figure out a way -
__________________________________________________________________________________

F4 ENGLISH PP2 Page 5 of 8

Q3. ORAL NARRATIVE (20 MARKS)
Read the oral narrative below and then answer the questions that follow
Long, long time ago animals and birds spoke just like men do. When God had to stop them
speaking, he made birds sing, like this chrrip! Chrrip… Lions to roar like this graagh! Graagh! And
hyenas to howl like this huuu! Huuu! And do you blame God? Listen to what naughty hyena who had
gone two days without any meat did. He had been wondering up and down t
he hills when he suddenly stopped, nose in the air, one foot raised. Do I smell,
eh…………smell food? He slowly raised his head to the skies as if to say, “Please God, let me find
some food, even one rotting bone will do.”
Slowly, he followed the smell, sniffing hard, stopping now and again, over grinning wider as
the smell became stronger. “Here at last”, He said as he came in sight of a calf that seemed dead, flies
buzzing over its excrement. “God, no time to waste. Who knows the owner may be around. Oh, no! I
see it is secured to a tree with a “Mukwa” I’ll take my time. Ha, I am tired too, come to think of it. God
gave us pretty strong senses of smell, generous old…… man. Still I do think some people tend to
exaggerate, now who was it saying the other day ‘ati’ God is the giver of everything and that we
should be grateful. O.K. Tell me, did God give this calf? Did you God? I found it myself, smelled my
way there, all the way. Nice calf too, rather thin but it will do. I’ll take the head home and make soup
with herbs. I especially like ‘muthathii’, and I see one over there.
OK. Here we go, where shall I start, this lovely neck? No, I know, I will start with the ‘mukwa’
then I’ll get on to the soft stuff, the tail, the
rump, ‘Mahu’……….” After chewing up half of the ‘mukwa’ the hyena brushed his teeth with the
twig of a ‘muthiga’ a tree of stimulate his appetite. He stepped on the calf’s tail, stuffed it in his mouth
and ‘snap’ it went. The calf which was only very sick and tired shot up and bolted away in the
twinkling of an eye. The hyena rubbed his eyes, ambled after the disappearing calf and soon fell down
in exhaustion. He looked up again to the heaven, tried to speak but no words came. Hyenas have
never been able to speak ever since.
Questions
(a) Categorize this narrative and give your reason. (2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
(b) Identify and explain two features of oral narratives evident in this story. (4 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
(c) Describe two character traits of the hyena as depicted in the narrative. (4 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
d) Identify one economic aspect of the community described in this narrative and give a reason for
your answer. (2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
F4 ENGLISH PP2 Page 6 of 8

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
(d) What moral lesson do we learn from this narrative? (2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
(e) Give a proverb with the same moral lesson as this narrative. (1 mark)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
(g) If you are asked to go and collect this story in the field, state:
(i) Three things you would do before the actual field trip. (3 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
(ii) Two problems you are likely to encounter. (2 mark)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________

Q4. GRAMMAR (15 MARKS)

a) Rewrite the following sentences as instructed. (5 marks)
i) Nyambura never came late to school this term. (Begin: Not …)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
ii) He wore a mask. He was unrecognizable. (combine into a sentence beginning with a present
participle)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
iii) He was absent from work for three days without permission. He wrote a rude letter to the manager.
(Rewrite as one sentence beginning, not only …)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
iv) No one likes to be sick. (Change the infinitive into a gerund)

F4 ENGLISH PP2 Page 7 of 8

__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
v) Only one problem was yet to be solved transport to the stadium. (Punctuate the sentence)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
b.) Use the correct form of the words in brackets to fill in the blank spaces in each of the
sentences below. (2 marks)
[Link] vehicle broke down due to poor ________________________ (maintain).
ii. Many ________________________ made the work difficult to understand. (spell)

c) Replace the highlighted words in each of the sentences with the most suitable phrasal verbs
(2 marks)
i) The looters __________________ stole goods of unknown value during the city riots.
ii.) When he ______________________regained consciousness, he was amazed to realize that he was
in hospital.
d) Fill in the blank spaces with the correct alternative given in the brackets. (2 marks)
1. Neither of the twins _______________ (is, are) rude.
2. The packet of biscuits ________________ (contain, contains) twenty pieces of biscuits.

e) Choose the correct pronoun to fill in the blank space. (2 marks)

1. It is ___________ (he, him) we would like to talk to.
2. Do you think that he is wiser than ____________ (I, me)
f) Give two possible meanings of the following sentence. (2 marks)
Call me John

This is the last printed page.

F4 ENGLISH PP2 Page 8 of 8

Adm No: ________Class: _Candidate’s Signature: _ Date: ______

101/3
FORM FOUR
ENGLISH PAPER 3
(Creative Composition and Essays Based on Set Texts)
Time: 2 Hrs 30 Min

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

Instructions to Candidates

a) All your answers must be written in the foolscaps provided

b) Answer three questions only.

c) Question 1 and 2 are compulsory

d) In question three, choose only one of the optional set text.

e) Your essay must not exceed 450 words

For Examiner's Use Only

Questions Maximum Score Candidate's Score

1. 20

2. 20

3. 20

Total Score

Page 1 of 2
6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
1. Imaginative Composition ( Compulsory )

( a ) Write a composition ending with the following statement.

......................... Since that day, I have always promised myself to remain focused in my studies.

Write a composition explaining what Kenyan youths can do to help fight against alcohol and substance use.

2. The Compulsory Set Text

Fathers of Nations

Power corrupts. Basing Illustrations from Fathers of Nations, write an essay to support the statement

( 20 marks.)

3. The Optional Set Texts

Answer any one of the following three questions.

Either

(a) The Short Story

People living in the street encounter serious problems. Using relevant illustrations from the short story "The
Neighborhood Watch by Rem'y Ngamije, write an essay in support of this statement.

(b) The Play

Adipo Sidang, Parliament of Owls

Selfish leaders make and break laws to favour themselves and oppress the citizens. With reference to Parliament
of Owls by Adipo Sidang, write an essay in support of this statement

(c) The Novel

Kazuo Ishiguro, An Artist of the Floating World

People's irresponsible deeds will cost them later in life . With close reference to Kazuo Ishiguro's Novel, An
Artist of the Floating World, write an essay in support of this statement.

Page 2 of 2
NAME: ……………………………………………………………….……………………………………

CLASS………………ADM:..................DATE…………………..SIGNATURE……………………..

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

312/1 GEOGRAPHY Paper 1

TIME: 2 HOURS 45 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• This paper has two sections: A and B

• Answer ALL the questions in section A.

• In section B, answer questions 6 and any other TWO questions.

• All the answers must be written on the foolscaps provided/attached after page 4.

• Candidates must answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score
A 1-5 25
6 25
B
25
25
Total Score

This paper consists of 4 printed pages. Candidates should check the question
paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no
questions/pages are missing.

SECTION A

312/1 GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 Page 1

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
(Answer all the questions from this section)

1. (a) Differentiate between rotation and revolution of the earth. (2 marks)

(b) State three characteristics of the earth’s inner core. (3 marks)
2. (a) Give three examples of extrusive igneous rocks. (3 marks)
(b) State three reasons why sedimentary rocks are common along the coast of Kenya.
(3 marks)
3. State four causes of vulcanicity. (4 marks)

4. The diagram below shows some features formed due to river rejuvenation.

(a) Identify the features marked A and B. (2 marks)

(b) Give three main types of river drainage systems. (3 marks)

5. (a) What is soil catena? (2 marks)

(b) List three factors that influence the development of soil catena. (3 marks)

SECTION B (Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section)

312/1 GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 Page 2

6. Study the map of Tambach (1:50,000 sheet 90/3) provided and use it to answer the following
questions.

(a) (i) What is the magnetic variation of the area when the map was drawn? (1 mark)

(ii) Identify two types of scale on the map extract. (2 marks)

(b) (ii) What is the six figure grid reference of the cattle dip to the east of Kesup?
(2 marks)

(ii) Give the position of Lake Kamnorok by latitude and longitude. (2 marks)

(ii) Explain two factors that have favoured the establishment of saw mills in the area
covered by the map. (4 marks)

(d) (i) Draw a square 12 cm by 12 cm to represent the region from northing 77 to

northing 80 and west of easting 81. (1 marks)

(ii) On the square, mark and label:

➢ A plantation
➢ Road D 329
➢ A cattle dip
➢ The region representing Uasin Gishu district. (5 marks)

(iii) What is the scale of the sketch that you have drawn? (2 marks)

7. (a) (i) Differentiate between weather and weather forecasting. (2 marks)

(ii) Give three examples of low clouds. (3 marks)

(b) Explain how the following factors affect the temperature of a place:

(i) Cloud cover. (3 marks)

(ii) Aspect. (3 marks)

(d) Suppose you were to carry out a field study at a weather station:

(i) State three objectives that you would set for the study. (3 marks)

(ii) Give three follow up activities for the field study. (3 marks)

8. (a) (i) What is continental drift? (2 marks)

(ii) Name three land masses that split from Gondwaland according to the
continental drift theory. (3 marks)

312/1 GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 Page 3

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
(b) Describe the three types of tectonic plate boundaries. (6 marks)

(c) With the aid of well labelled diagrams, describe how Fold Mountains were formed.
(10 marks)
(d) Explain four negative effects of Fold Mountains to people. (8 marks)

9. (a) (i) Define the term ocean. (2 marks)

(ii) Name three types of islands. (3 marks)

(b) The diagram below shows some features formed due to wave erosion. Name the
features marked U, V, W and X. (4 marks)

(ii) Describe how a beach is formed at the coast. (5 marks)

(d) Explain four economic benefits of coastal features. (8 marks)

10. (a) State five characteristics of karst landscapes. (5 marks)

(ii) Name four karst surface features. (4 marks)

(b) Give four sources of ground water. (4 marks)

(i) Nature of rocks. (2 marks)

(ii) Vegetation cover. (2 marks)
(d) Explain four conditions that favour the location of an artesian well. (8 marks)

312/1 GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 Page 4

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

ADM: ……………… CLASS:………….. CANDIDATE SIGNATURE: …………….. DATE: …………..

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

FORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2 (312/2)

TIME: 2 HOURS 45 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• This paper has two sections: A and B
• Answer all the questions in section A.
• Answer question 6 and other two questions from section B.
• All the answers must be written on the foolscaps provided.
• Candidates must the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

Section Questions Maximum Candidates

score score

A 1-5 25

6 25

25
B
25

Total score 100

This paper consists of 4 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain
that all pages are printed as indicated and that no question /pages are missing.

GEOGRAPHY 312/2 Page 1 of 4

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
SECTION A (Answer all the questions from this question)

1. (a) Give two main indigenous softwood tree species in Kenya. (2 marks)

(b) State three reasons why agroforestry is encouraged in Kenya. (3 marks)

2. (a) List two biological factors that influence agriculture. (2 marks)

(b) State three characteristics of shifting cultivation. (3 marks)

3. (a) Define the term ecotourism. (2 marks)

(b) State three factors that hinder domestic tourism in Kenya. (3 marks)

4. (a) Name two areas in Kenya where lightning strikes are highest. (2 marks)

(b) Give three effects of air pollution. (3 marks)

5. The diagram below shows the functional zones of an urban centre. Use it to

answer question (a).

(a) (i) Identify the zones marked X and Y. (2 marks)

(ii) State three characteristics of Central Business District. (3 marks)

GEOGRAPHY 312/2 Page 2 of 4

SECTION B (ANSWER QUESTION 6 AND ANY TWO QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION)
6. The table below shows the number of tourists who visited Kenya from European
Countries for a period of four years.

No. of tourists 2011 2012 2013 2014

Germany 600 820 700 850

France 430 620 410 730

Italy 330 440 350 600

Spain 180 200 230 420

(a) (i) Using a vertical scale of 1cm to represent 200 tourists, present the above
Data using a compound bar graph. (9 marks)

(ii) State three advantages of using compound bar graph as a method data

Presentation. (3 marks)

(b) Distinguish between management of wildlife and conservation of wildlife. (2 marks)

(c) State four problems associated with wildlife in Kenya. (4 marks)
(d) (i) Name three main tourist resorts in Switzerland. (3 marks)
(ii) Give four reasons why Switzerland receives more tourists than Kenya. (4 marks)

7. (a) (i) Define the term mining. (2 marks)

(ii) List three ways in which minerals occur. (3 marks)

(iii) Name the areas where the following minerals are mined in Kenya;

• Flourspar (1 mark)

• Diatomite (1mark)

• Limestone (1 mark)

(b) Describe how minerals are extracted using vertical shaft method. (6 marks)

GEOGRAPHY 312/2 Page 3 of 4

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
(i) Name the parts marked L, M and N. (3 marks)
(ii) Explain four contribution of petroleum production in Middle East countries.
(8 marks)

8. (a) Define the term land rehabilitation. (2 marks)

(b) Give four methods used in land rehabilitation in Kenya. (4 marks)

Irrigation Scheme. (8 marks)

(iii) State three ways in which salinity of soil was reduced in the polders in
Nether lands. (3 marks)
(iv) Explain four differences between land reclamation in Kenya and

Netherlands. (8 marks)

9. (a) (i) Define the term population. (2 marks)

(ii) Name two primary sources of population data. (2 marks)
(b) Explain four physical factors that influence population distribution in East
Africa. (8 marks)
(c) Explain three negative effects of a high population growth. (6 marks)

(d) (i) Apart from rural-rural migration, give three other forms of internal
Migration. (3 marks)
(ii) State four causes of rural-rural migration in East Africa. (4marks)

10. (a) (i) What is regional trade? (2 marks)

(ii) Give five major imports to Kenya. (5 marks)
(b) (i) Explain four benefits which member states of South African
Development Co-operation derive from the formation of the trading (SADC) bloc.
(8 marks)
(ii) Name two countries in Africa that belong to more than one trading
Bloc. (2 marks)
(c) Explain four problems facing regional trading blocs in Africa. ( 8 marks)

GEOGRAPHY 312/2 Page 4 of 4

NAME……………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………

ADM NO………………CLASS………….CANDIDATES SIGNATURE………………. DATE………………

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT

PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS 30 MINUTES
Instructions to candidates:
a) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.

b) Answer all questions in section A, Three questions from section B and Two questions from section C.

c) Answers to all Questions must be written in the foolscaps provided.

d) Candidates should check the Question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and no

Questions are missing.

e) Answer all questions in English

SECTION A SECTION B SECTION C

1-17

18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL

F4 HIST PP1 ET2 Page 1 of 2

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
SECTION A. (25 Marks) Answer all questions
1. Give the main source of the history of Kenyan communities before colonization. (1 mark)
2. Identify two functions of the Njuri Ncheke among the Ameru in the 19th century. (2 marks)
3. Name the remnant of southern cushites in Kenya. (1 mark)
4. Give two reasons why the Portuguese built Fort Jesus. (2 marks)
5. Identify two main items of trade from the interior coast of Kenya during the long distance trade.
(2 marks)
6. State one development right of the child. (1 mark)
7. Highlight two ways in which the constitution of Kenya promote national unity. (2 marks)
8. State the main duty of the Governor in Kenya during the colonial period. (1 mark)
9. Mention two roles that Jomo Kenyatta played in Kikuyu Central Association. (2 marks)
10. State two reasons why the second Lancaster House conference was convened in 1962. (2 marks)
11. Identify two political assassinations that took place in Kenya between 1963 -1970. (2 marks)
12. Give the main reason for the declaration of state of emergency in Kenya in 1952. (1 mark)
13. Outline one example of special courts in Kenya. (1 mark)
14. Who is the administrative head of national assembly in Kenya? (1 mark)
15. Identify one source of Nyayo philosophy. (1 mark)
16. State two principles of devolved government in Kenya. (2 marks)
17. Give one external source of government revenue in Kenya. (1 mark)
SECTION B (45 MARKS) Answer only three questions
18 (a) Name three communities that belong to coastal Bantus in Kenya. (3 marks)
(b) Explain six results of the migration and settlement of the highland Nilotes in Kenya. (12 marks)
19 (a) Identify five factors that led to the growth of towns along the coast of Kenya before 19th century.
(5 marks)
(b) Discuss five reasons for the Portuguese success within the east African coast. (10 marks)
20 (a) Give three methods used by the colonial government to acquire lands in Kenya. (3 marks)
(b) Explain six ways in which the colonial promoted settler farming in Kenya. (12 marks)
21 (a) State five problem experienced by the British colonial administration in Kenya. (5 marks)
(b) Describe five roles played by political parties in the struggle for independence in Kenya. (10 marks)
SECTION C (30 marks) Answer only two questions
22 (a) Identify five constitutional changes in the executive in the year 2010. (5 marks)
(b) Explain five challenges Kenya encountered in search of a new constitution. (10 marks)
23 (a) Identify three functions of correctional services in Kenya. (3 marks)
(b) Discuss six reforms undertaken to improve the correctional services in Kenya (12 marks)
24 (a) state three components of a national budget. (3 marks)
(b) Explain six ways of managing public finance by county government. (12 marks)

F4 HIST PP1 ET2 Page 2 of 2

NAME: _______________________________________________________________________________

ADM NO: CLASS: DATE: _ SIGN: _________

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

HISTORY & GOVERNMENT
FORM: 4
PAPER 2 (311/2)
TIME: 2 HOURS 30 MIN

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• This paper consists of THREE sections A, B and C
• Answer ALL questions in section A (25 marks)
• Answer any THREE questions in section B (45 marks)
• Answer any TWO questions in section C (30 marks)
• All answers must be written in the foolscaps provided.
SECTION A (25 marks)

1. Give ONE contribution of archaeology to the study of History. (1 mark)

2. Identify TWO activities that influenced early man to set up permanent settlement. (2 marks)

3. Identify ONE area in Africa where agriculture began. (1 mark)

4. State TWO disadvantages of human transport. (2 marks)

5. State TWO uses of bronze in ancient Benin. (2 marks)

6. Give the MAIN reason for the decline of Meroe. (1 mark)

7. State TWO advantages of mobile phone as a means of communication. (2 marks)

8. Give TWO uses of steam power in Europe during the 19th Century. (2 marks)

9. State ONE function of the Lukiiko in the Buganda Kingdom in the 19th Century. (1 mark)

10. Mention TWO methods used by European powers to acquire colonies in Africa. (2 marks)

11. State TWO privileges enjoyed by the assimilated Africans in the four French communes in Senegal.
(2 marks)

12. State TWO causes of the Ndebele war of 1893. (2 marks)

Page 1 of 2 HIST F4 PP2 ET2

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
13. Name the military wing of the African National Congress in South Africa. (1 mark)

14. State ONE objective of the Arusha Declaration in Tanzania. (1 mark)

15. Give the MAIN political challenge that the Democratic Republic of Congo has been facing since
independence. (1 mark)

16. Identify ONE weapon used during the cold war. (1 mark)

17. Name the agency of the United Nations Organization which deals with the problem of refugees. (1 mark)

SECTION B (45 marks) Answer any THREE uestions

18. a) State FIVE factors which led to the development of early agriculture in Mesopotamia. (5 marks)

b) Explain FIVE effects of Agrarian Revolution in Europe. (10 marks)

19. a) Outline FIVE ways of obtaining slaves from the interior of West Africa during the Trans-Atlantic
trade. (5 marks)

b) Explain FIVE factors that contributed to the decline of the Trans-Atlantic trade. (10 marks)

20. a) State FIVE causes of the Maji Maji Rebellion in Tanganyika (1905 - 1907). (5 marks)

b) Explain FIVE effects of the Chimurenga war of 1896 - 1897. (10 marks)

21. a) State THREE roles of Kwame Nkrumah in the struggle for independence in Ghana. (3 marks)

b) Explain SIX challenges faced by FRELIMO in the struggle for independence in Mozambique.
(12 marks)

SECTION C (30 marks)

Answer any TWO questions

22. a) Outline Five factors which contributed to the growth of Buganda Kingdom in the 19th Century. (5
marks)

b) Describe the social organization of the Asante Kingdom. (10 marks)

23. a) State Five terms of the Treaty of Versailles signed in 1919. (5 marks)

b) Explain Five causes of the Second World War (1939 - 1945) (10 marks)

24. a) State Five duties of the Monarchy in Britain. (5 marks)

b) How are the powers of the president of the United States of America checked? (10 marks)

Page 2 of 2 HIST F4 PP2 ET2

Jina ………………………………………………………………………………………………

Nambari ya usajili …………………………..Darasa …………………Tarehe ………………

MTIHANI WA MWIGO WA NAKURU 2025

KISWAHILI KARATASI 1 (102/1)

KIDATO CHA NNE

INSHA

Muda: 1 ¾
Maagizo

(a) Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima.

(b) Kasha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya hizo tatu zilizobakia.
(c) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.
(d) kila insha ina alama 20.
(e) Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.

1. Wewe ni katibu wa kamati ya maslahi ya klabu ya wasanii chipukizi mtaa wa Rehema.

Kumekuwa na visa vya kuzorota kwa usalama. Andika kumbukumbu za mkutano wenu
uliofanyika kujadili suala hili.
2. Fafanua umuhimu wa zoezi la upanzi wa miti nchini.
3. Andika kisa kitakachodhihirisha maana ya methali; Fahali wawili wapiganapo nyasi ndizo
ziumiao.
4. Andika kisa kitakachoanza kwa:
Nilikaa pale kwa mseto wa hisia, nisijue kama nilifurahishwa ama nilihuzunishwa na kisa
hicho………..

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
Jina: _______________________________________________________________________________________

Nambari: __________Darasa: _Sahihi ya Mtahiniwa: _ Tarehe: ___

101/2
KISWAHILI KARATASI YA PILI
KIDATO CHA NNE
MTIHANI WA MWISHO WA MUHULA
MUHULA WA PILI
MUDA: SAA 2 ½

MTIHANI WA MWIGO WA NAKURU 2025

Maagizo kwa Watahiniwa

a) Andika jina lako na nambari ya usajili katika nafasi zilizoachwa hapo juu.
b) Jibu maswali yote
c) Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa Kiswahili
d) Majibu yote yaandikwe ndani ya kijitabu hiki cha maswali.
e) Hakikisha kurasa zote za mtihani zipo.

Swali Upeo Alama

1 15
2 15
3 40
4 10
Jumla 80

KISWA F4 Page 1 of 6

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali yafuatayo.

Kutokana na malalamishi ya mara kwa mara kuhusu uamuzi viwanjani nchini, Mitambo ya teknolojia ya
Kusaidia Uamuzi (VAR) katika ligi zetu, hasa kwenye Ligi kuu ya Kenya (FKF-PL) inahitajika kwa dharura.
Ligi hii inapaswa kuwa miongoni mwa 10 bora Afrika ili kuvutia wachezaji wazri kutoka nje ya bara hili,
lakini uamuzi duni imedidimika, itasaidia kupunguza makosa ambayo yamekuwa yakitokea mara kwa mara.
Tumeshuhudia mabao yakiingia na kuhesabiwa baad aya waamuzi kuamuru yawe mabao. Lakini baada ya
kutazama picha za marudio, baadhi yao yanabatilishwa. Hapa, teknologia itasaidia kupunguza visa hivi ili washindi
wapate haki yao.
Tumeshuhudia waamuzi na wasaidizi wao wakishtuka mpira umeanza haraka na bao kufungwa katika hali
hiyo, lakini picha za marudio zinaonyesha yaliingia kinyume cha kanuni zilizowekwa.
Tutakubaliana kwamba, duniani kuna mabadiliko yametokea katika nyanya mbalimbali na FKF inapaswa
kuelewa kwamba mambo mengi yameanza kuendeshwa kwa usasa ambapo karibu kila kitu kinakumbatia
teknolojia. Teknolojia imegusa karibu kila fani ya maisha ya binadamu na hakuna anayeweza kuhepa. Hali hii
imeshika kiasi katika kila jambo ndiposa FIFA ikaamua kuleta VAR kusaidia katika uamuzi uwanjani, mbona
hatujaanza.
Vifaa vya teknolojia vimesaidia katika mambo katika sekta mbalimbali ikiwemo michezo kwa ajili ya
kupata mafanikio katika sekta hiyo. Sio tu kwa ajili ya kubaini udhaifu wa waamuzi wetu katika soka, bali kuvutia
wawekaji kufanikisha mchezo huu.
Tunahitaji wawekezaji waje wasaidie timu zetu, lakini lazima tuonyeshe timu Fulani haipendelewi kama
ilivyo sasa kwenye ligi zetu. Wawekezaji wanapovutiwa na uendeshaji wa mradi popote pale, mafanikio ya haraka
hupatikana na kubadilisha maisha ya wahusika.

Maswali

1. Mitambo ya teknolojia ya kusaidia uamuzi (VAR) Katika Ligi Kuu ya Kenya inahitajika kwa dharura.
Thibitisha. (ala 2)

2. Kwa nini Ligi Kuu ya Kenya inapaswa kuwa bora miongoni mwa mengine barani Africa.

3. Taja madhara yanayotokana na kutotumia VAR. (ala 4)

4. Kupitia teknologia, kumekuwepo na mbalimbali. Yataje kulingana na kifungu. (ala 3)

5. Kwa mujibu wa kifungu, toa sababu ya FKF kushirikiana na serikali ili kuleta VAR mapema nchini. (ala 3)

KISWA F4 Page 2 of 6
6. Toa maana ya maneno yafuatayo kulingana na kifungu. (ala 2)
i) Mafanikio

ii) Wawekezaji

UFUPISHO (ALAMA 15)

Soma makala yafuatayo kisha ujibu maswali.

Ukitaka kufaulu maishani lazima ujue kuwa una kazi kubwa sana inayokungoja. Baada ya kukabili vilivyo
kazi hiyo kwa kutumia nyanya mbali mbali utayaimarisha maisha yako. Karibu kila mtu aaliyestawi amepitia
katika vikwazo vingi tena vya kutatiza kuliko vikwazo wanavyovipita vijana wa kisasa. Vijana wote wanatakiwa
saa wasugue bongo zao sawasawa watende mambo mengi mazuri kuliko wanayoyaona. Wasitosheke nay ale
yaliyotendwa na wazee wao. Kila kijana iwapo atakuwa na moyo kama huo nchi zote zitaendelea kwa kasi.
Kwa kujisaidia katika kujiendeleza, yafuatayo yanafaa kuzingatiwa vijana wanatakiwa wawe watotowenye
kuelewana na wazazi wao ambao watawaelekeza vyema kitabia na wakiwa ni wazazi waelewe, watawapa watoto
wao maelekezo na radhi ambavyo ni bora kuliko mali. Watoto wenyewe wajue wanataka nini, wawe na malengo
katika maisha yao na wakazanie kupata kile wanachokitaka bila kutaka tama, watie bidii katika kila wanalifanya,
wapande kusoma bila kulazimishwa kwani kusoma kwa kulazimishwa hampi mja amani. Kutaka kushurutishwa ili
asome ni sawa na ng’ombe apelekwaye mtoni kunywa maji naye akifika mtoni akatae kunywa maji. Mtoto
mwenyewe anatakiwa ajitafutie na anue kuwa hasara ni yake asipofanya bidii na ajiamshe kifikira, motto huyu
asiridhishwe na kupokea vitu vidogodogo, kamwer na asiwe mwenye tama wala kumtazama kupewa zawadi kama
peremende na hela kila. Lazima ajue kuwa kupewa au kutopewa ni mamoja. Aelewe hali yao, wazazi wakiwa na
kitu cha kumpa aone kwamba ni sawa! Wakiwa hawana pia aone kuwa ni sawa. Mtoto anatakiwa kuwa muelewe.
Anatakiwa awe na ile fikira ya kujitafutia. Hata kama anatoka katika aila yenye utajiri azoee kutafuta ili
ikiwezekana atajirike hata zaidi. Asitegemee cha ndugu kwani huenda akafa akiwa maskini. Kidogo chako
ulichokitolea jasho ni bora kuliko kikubwa cha mwenzio.
Vijana wanatakiwa kuwa na nidhamu ya kiwango cha juu popote walipo, wawe ni watu wa kijamii wasikate
tama eti kwa ajili masomo ni magumu bali wakazane kutafuta jinsi ya kuyarahisisha ili kuyaelewa, hatimaye,
watayamudu na wafanikiwe maishani. Yafaa vijana waelewe kuwa hakuna kizuri kinachopatikana kwa urahisi,
daima dawamu wakumbushwe umuhimu wa kuwaheshimu watu na wakati. Wasidharau walimu au wenzao,
wasipoteze wakati wao kusengenya, wapuuze wanaowanyanyasa, wasingatie hata neno moja la kuwaudhi
wanaloambiwa na watoto waovu. Vijana wawe tayari kukosolewa na kuomba msamaha wa makosa yao.
Wanapaswa wawe ni watu wanaowaelewa wenzao na kuchukuliana vyema nao, wawadhamini wengine kwa vile
walivyo. Wasidhamaini vitu vya anasa kupita inavyostahili, kama maisha ya starehe au mavazi ya kitajiri. Watoto
wengi wasio na chochote wanaopuuza mambo ya anasa ndio wanaofaulu pakubwa katika maisha. Wenye tamaa
hawafaulu kwani huishia kuwa wezi kwa kuwa na hamu na kujipatia vya mwosho wakajipatia gerezani.

Maswali.

i) Fupisha aya ya kwanza kwa maneno 70. (al 6)

KISWA F4 Page 3 of 6

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
ii) Bila kupoteza ujumbe uliokusudiwa na mwandishi, fupisha aya mbili za mwisho. (maneno 70 – 80) (al 9)

3. Matumizi ya lugha (Alama 40)

a) Andika irabu zenye sifa zifuatazo. (ala 2)
i) Wastani tandazwa

ii) Juu viringwa

b) Bainisha silabi inayotiwa shadda katika maneno yafuatayo. (ala 2)

i) Baragumu

ii)Nge

c) Ainisha mofimu katika maneno yafuatayo. (ala 2)

i) Msamaha

ii) Asomaye

d) Tunga sentensi kudhihirisha matumizi ya alama ya mkato. (ala 2)

e) Ainisha vitenzi katika sentensi ifuatayo. (ala 2)

Mkulima yuko shambani anapalilia mimea.

f) Ainisha virai katika sentensi ifuatayo. (ala 2)

Wale wawili walijenga kando ya mto.

g) Andika sentensi ifuatayo upya kwa kufuata maagizo. (ala 2)

Nchi nyingi za Kiafrika zimekumbwa na mafuriko mwaka huu.
(Anza: Mafuriko ………………..)

h) Andika sentensi ifuatayo upya kwa kufuata maagizo. (ala 2)

Mgeni aliyefika ni Yule aliyealikwa. (Tumia amba… )

i) Bainisha maana mbili zinazojitokeza katika sentensi ifuatayo. (ala 2)

KISWA F4 Page 4 of 6
Katana angalifuata mwelekeo wa mshauri wake angalifaulu.
j) Tumia nomino ya jamii badala ya maneno yaliyopigwa mstari katika sentensi ifuatayo. (ala 2)
Karisa alisimama karibu na taka nyingi alipokuwa akitazama mkusanyiko wa nyota.

k) Geuza maneno yaliyopigwa mstari kuwa vitenzi. (ala 2)

Mkurugenzi aliwapa ushauri wafanyakazi watie bidii kazini.

l) Ainisha yambwa katika sentensi hii. (ala 3)

Yusufu alitumiwa hundi ya karo na shangazi yake kwa posta.

m) Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa njia ya mstari. (ala 4)

Dhahabu ni madini yanayothaminiwa na wengi.

n) Ainisha vishazi katika sentensi ifuatayo. (ala 2)

Kondoo ambao walichinjwa jana walikuwa wagonjwa.

o) Ainisha viambishi katika neno: kitaandikiwa. (ala 4)

i) kimuundo

ii) Kimajukumu

p) Tunga sentensi yenye muundo ufuatao. (ala 2)

KN (N+RH) + KT (T + E)

q) Eleza dhana ya ‘ngeli’ (ala 1)

r) Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika umoja. (ala 2)

Nyua walizojenga hapa zimesaidia kukabiliana na wahalifu hao.

KISWA F4 Page 5 of 6

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
4. Isimu jamii. (Alama 10)
a) Thibitisha kwa hoja tano nadharia kuwa Kiswahili ni lugha ya Kibantu. (ala 5)

b) Umealikwa kama mtoa nasaha katika shule jirani, toa sifa tano za lugha utakayotumia katika hotuba yako.
(ala 5)

KISWA F4 Page 6 of 6
Jina: ________________________________________________________________________________________

Nambari: __________Darasa: _Sahihi ya Mtahiniwa: _ Tarehe: ____

KISWAHILI
KIDATO CHA NNE
KARATASI YA TATU (FASIHI)
MUDA: SAA 2 ½

MTIHANI WA MWIGO WA NAKURU 2025

Maagizo kwa Watahiniwa

a) Jibu maswali manne

b) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
c) Maswali mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki; yaani; Tamthilia,
Hadithi fupi, Fasihi simulizi na ushairi.
d) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja
e) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
f) Majibu yote yaandikwe kwenye karatasi ya majibu.

Swali Upeo Alama

1 20
20
20
20
Jumla 80

KISWA F4 PP3 Page 1 of 5

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
SEHEMU YA A: RIWAYA (NGUU ZA JADI)
1. Swali la lazima
Alishangaa barua hiyo iliingia vipi mle ndani. Kwa nini ………. aweke barua yake ndani ya mkoba
wake bila kuisoma? Au alisahau alipokwenda zake uhamishoni? Na ilitoka wapi hasa? ……… aliamua
kuifungua bahasha, liwe liwalo. Potelea mbali hata kama haikuwa yake ……….. mwenyewe alikuwa kesha
mtema kama masuo. Barua ile ina maana gani kwake sasa hata akiisoma? Alijaribu kuitatanua ili gundi
iachilie ule upeto wa juu wa bahasha lakini wapi. Gundi ilikazana kumsumbua hadi akaamua kuirarua raru
raru bahasha ili mradi aifikie ile barua. Alikuwa mwangalifu asiirarue hata hivyo barua aliyotamani sana
kuisoma. Aliichomoa akaona ilikunjwa peto tatu. Aliikunjua huku mikono ikitetemeka. Vidole vilijaa
jasho kwa shauku ya kutaka kujua yaliyoandikwa. Iliandikwa kwa wino mweusi uliokoza.

a) Tambua muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)

b) Changanua mtindo katika kifungu hiki. (alama 10)

c) Fafanua sifa za wahusika wanaorejelewa. (alama 6)

SEHEMU YA B: TAMTHILIA YA BEMBEA YA MAISHA

Jubu swali la 2 au 3

2. Matatizo anuwai yanakabili jamii ya Bembea ya Maisha. Eleza kwa kutoa mifano mwafaka.
(alama 2)

3. “Tena mtu asiyekujua wala hajapata kukutia jicho! Mpita njia na shughuli zake si ni malaika huyo?
Kana kwamba umalaika una ngazi ……..”
a) Fafanua muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)
b) Eleza ‘umalaika’ wa mrejelewa. (alama 8)
c) Tambua mbinu yoyote ya lugha inayojitokeza katika dondoo hili. (alama 4)
d) Fafanua sifa za msemaji. (alama 4)

KISWA F4 PP3 Page 2 of 5

SEHEMU YA C: HADITHI FUPI:
MAPAMBAZUKO YA MACHWEO NA HADITHI NYINGINE

Jibu swali la 4 au 5.

4. ‘ Pombe ina madhara chungu nzima’ Thibitisha ukweli wa kauli hii ukirejelea hadithi ya kila mchezea
wembe. (alama 20)
5. Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali yafuatayo.
“Akili za masomo huna ………..zinachangamkia barua na mambo ya wanaume tu. Mamako alikuwa
vivyo hivyo na unajua kilichomfika. Kweli mtoto wa nyoka ni nyoka!” Yunuke alimfokea. Alikizima
kibatari kile na giza kuu likaivaa nyumba. Mwezi mmoja baada ya mtihani kukamilika, Ombati alifika
kijijini kwa ajili ya likizo ya mwezi wa Disemba. Alifika nyumbani kufanya maandalizi ya kupeleka
Mike katika shule ya upili kwani alikuwa na imani kuwa angepita mtihani. Ombati alikuwa na jingine.
Sabina aliwasikia binamu zake waliokuwa katika shule ya upili wakizungumza kuhusu mpango wa baba
yao wa kumwoza kwa kijana mmoja mwendesha pikipiki ili apate mahari ambayo dadake Nyaboke
hakumpa.

a) Tambua mbinu zozote za lugha ambazo zinajitokeza katika kifungu hiki. (alama 4)

b) Fafanua maudhui yoyote matano yanayojitokeza katika dondoo hili. (alama 10)

c) Hakika mwishowe machweo yalifika. Huku ukirejelea hadithi ya Mapambazuko ya Machweo, tetea
kauli hii.

KISWA F4 PP3 Page 3 of 5

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
SEHEMU YA D: FASIHI SIMULIZI
Jibu swali la 6 au 7.
6. a) Fafanua maana ya miviga. (alama 2)
b) Eleza sifa saba za miviga. (alama 7)
c) Tambua hawara nne za Miviga. (alama 8)
d) Taja mifano yoyote mitatu ya miviga. (alama 3)

7. Soma kifungu hiki kisha ujibu maswali.

Hadithi ya Jabali inasimuliwa na jamii nyingi. Jabari alizaliwa kashika mkuki mkononi. Mawio ambayo
kilio chake, ambacho kwa kweli kulikuwa mgurumo, kilipasua anga, nyota kubwa ilianguka kutoka
mbinguni. Ulimwengu mzima ulitetemeka na kutwaa giza.
Hata kabla mama mtu hajampa ziwa, Jabali alikuwa amevuvumka na kuwa ghulamu wa miraba mine.
Haikuchukua muda, hata vita kati ya jamii ya Sule na Suna vikaanza; kikosi cha Sule cha wapiganaji mia
moja kikawajia vijana wa Suna kwa sime na nyuta. Jabari aliwakabili kwa konde pekee akakirambisha
dongo kita kizima.

a) Bainisha kipera cha utungo huu. (alama 1)

b) Toa sababu nne kutoka kwa kifungu kuthibitisha jibu lako la (a). (alama 4)
c) Eleza munufaa matano ambayo jamii itapata kutokana na kipera hiki. (alama 5)
c) Eleza changamoto nne ambazo mkusanyaji wa data kuhusu kipera hiki angekumbana nazo. (alama 10)

SEHEMU YA E: USHAIRI
8. Soma shairi kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.

Niokoa muokozi, uniondolee mashaka

Kuyatukua siwezi, mjayo nimedhikika
Nimekitiri simanzi, ni katika kuudhika
Mja wako nasumbuka, nipate niyatakayo

Mja wako nasumbuka, nataka kwao afua

Nirehemu kwa haraka, nami nipate pumua

KISWA F4 PP3 Page 4 of 5

Naomba hisikitika, na mikono hiinua
Mtenda ndiwe moliwa, nipate niyatakayo

Mtenda ndiwe moliwa, we ndiwe Mola wa anga

Mazito kuyaondoa, pamoja kuyatenga
Ukauepusha ukiwa, ya pingu zilonifunga
Nikundulia muwanga, nipate nitakayo

Nikundulia muwanga, nipate toka kizani

Na huzuni n’ondolea, itoke kwangu moyoni
Mambo mema niegheshea, maovu nisitamani
Nitendea wa manani, nipate niyatakayo

Igeuze yangu nia, dhaifu unipe mema

Nili katika dunia, kwa afia na uzima
Moliwa nitimizia, yatimize yawe mema
Nifurahike mtima, nipate niyatakayo

a) Taja aina ya shairi. (alama 2)

b) Fafanua dhamira ya mshairi. (alama 2)
c) Tambua na ueleze bahari zozote tatu za shairi. (alama 3)
d) Eleza muundo wa shairi hili. (alama 4)
e) Msahiri ametumia uhuru wake wa utunzi. Eleza kwa mifano mine. (alama 4)
f) Eleza toni ya shairi. (alama1)
g) Andika ubeti wa pili katika lugha ya nathali. (alama 4)

KISWA F4 PP3 Page 5 of 5

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
NAME: ………………………………………………………………….….............................................
INDEX NO. ………..CANDIDATE’S SIGNATURE: …………............... DATE: ………………..

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

121/1
MATHEMATICS (ALT A)
PAPER 1
2 ½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of Two sections: Section I and Section II
3. Answer ALL questions in Section I and any five questions from Section II
4. Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces below each question.
5. Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
6. Non-Programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical Tables may be used.
7. This paper consists of 16 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all the pages are printed
as indicated and no questions are missing.

For Examiners’ Use Only

SECTION I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

SECTION II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total Grand
Total

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 1 of 15

SECTION I (50 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section
1. Evaluate without using a calculator or mathematical table. (3 marks)
2 5 5
(2 − 1 )÷
7 6 6
2 1 1
3
𝑜𝑓 24− 17

2. A perpendicular line is drawn from a point (4, 6) to the line 5y+4x = 20. Find its equation in the
form of, ay+bx = c where a, b, c are integers. (3 marks)

20−45𝑥 2
3. Simplify completely by factorization (3 marks)
6𝑥 2 −𝑥−2

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 2 of 15

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
4. Solve for x in the equation 8(2𝑥−1) × 32 𝑥 = 16 𝑥+1 (3 marks)

5. A bank in Kenya buys and sells foreign currencies as follows.

Buying (Ksh) Selling (kshs.)
1 Us dollar 85.86 86.06
1 sterling pound 142.41 142.73
A tourist from United States of America converted 43521 US dollars into Kenya shillings.
i) Calculate the amount in Kenya shillings that she received (1 mark)

ii) While in Kenya, the tourist spent sh. 2437821 and converted the balance into sterling
pounds. How much in Sterling pound did the tourist receive? (3 marks)

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 3 of 15

6. Wasike bought 3 bags of DAP fertilizer and 4 bags of CAN fertilizer at sh. 21500. Had he bought 2
bags of DAP and 5 bags of CAN, he would have spent sh. 400 less. Find the cost of one bag of each
type of fertilizer. (3 marks)

7. Use square roots and reciprocals tables to evaluate to 4 significant figures the expression.
1
2
(0.06458)2 + (3 marks)
0.4327

8. Express 128 and 200 as a product of their prime factors in power form hence evaluate
128
√ (3 marks)
200

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 4 of 15

2
9. Given that sin 𝜃 = 3 and 𝜃 is acute angle, find tan(90 − 𝜃). Give the answer to 4 significant figures.
(3 marks)

−5 4 6 1 1
10. Given the column vector 𝑃 = ( ), 𝑞=( ) and r = ( ) , 𝑡 = 2𝑝 − 2 𝑞 + 3 𝑟
3 −8 −9
i) Express t as a column vector (2 marks)

ii) Calculate the magnitude of vector t in (i) above correct to 2 d.p. (1 mark)

11. Four machines give out signals at intervals of 24 seconds, 27 seconds, 30 seconds and 50 seconds.
At 5.00 p.m. all the four machines give out a signal simultaneously. Find the time this will happen
again. (3 marks)

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 5 of 15

12. A wire in form of an arc with radius 12 cm and center angle 1500 is formed into a circle. Find the
radius of the circle. (3 marks)

13. The exterior angle of a regular polygon in equal to one – third of interior angle. Calculate the
number of sides of the polygon and give its name. (3 marks)

14. The area of a parallelogram is 121 cm² and its sides are 11 cm and 16 cm long. Find the sizes of all
the angles of the parallelogram. (3 marks)

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 6 of 15

3 0.006549
15. Use logarithms table to evaluate √81.06𝑡𝑎𝑛430 (4 marks)

16. a) Form the three inequalities that satisfy the given region R. (3 marks)

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 7 of 15

SECTION II (50 MARKS)
Answer any five questions from this section in the spaces provided below in each question.
17. (a) Using a ruler and a pair of compasses only, construct triangle ABC in which BC = 6cm, AB = 8.8
cm and < ABC = 22 ½ 0, (4 marks)

b) Measure AC and <ACB (2 marks)

c) Construct a circle that passes through A, B and C. (3 marks)

d) What is the radius of this circle (1 mark)

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 8 of 15

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
18) Forty students in a form 2 class were weighed and their masses recorded to the nearest kilogram
as shown below.
45 48 56 39 47 36 45
37 46 33 43 51 42 47
47 40 46 41 45 43 46
54 42 51 39 42 45 44

49 50 46
39 42 48
50 38 45
35 52 46
a) Using class intervals of 5kg tabulate this data in a frequency table (4 marks)

b) Find the modal frequency (1 mark)

c) Modify the table and use it to calculate the mean mass of the students (5 marks)

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 9 of 15

19) A bus left town A at 11.45 a.m. and travelled towards town B at an average speed of 80km/h. A
Matatu left town B at 1.15 p.m. and travelled towards town A along the same road at an average speed
of 120km/hr. The distance between the two towns is 840km. Determine;

a) The time of day when the two vehicle met. (4 marks)

b) How far from town A they met? (2 marks)

c) How far outside town B the bus was when the Matatu reached town A. (4 marks)

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 10 of 15

20) The diagram below shows a frustrum which represents a bucket with an open end diameter of 30
cm and a button diameter of 24 cm. The bucket is 30 cm deep as shown and it is used to fill an empty
cylindrical tank of diameter 2.1 m and height 1.6 m.
45 cm

30 cm

36cm

a. Leaving 𝜋 in your answer, calculate

(i) The capacity of the bucket (6 marks)

b) The capacity of the tank (2 marks)

b) Determine the number of buckets that must be drawn in order to fill the tank. (2 marks)

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 11 of 15

21) Four business partners Duncan, Dennis, David and Derrick decided to buy a minibus. They agreed
to pay for the cost of the minibus in the ratio [Link]. Basing their contributions on the marked price
of the minibus, they found that Derrick would pay sh. 360000 more than Duncan. The sales agent
however allowed them a 10% discount on cash payment.
a) Calculate
i) The marked price of the minibus (2 marks)

ii) How much more Duncan and David paid than Derrick. (5 marks)

b) The four partners agreed to share monthly profits from the minibus in the ratio of their
contributions after setting a side 12% of the profit for emergencies. If the minibus realized sh.72, 000
in profits during one month, calculate David’s share of the profits for that month. (3 marks)

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 12 of 15

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
22) a) The points A (2, 6), B (1, 1) C (3, 4) and D (5, 3) are vertices of a quadrilateral ABCD. Plot ABCD
on the grid below to form quadrilateral ABCD. (2 mark)

b) ABCD undergoes a rotation of positive 900, about the origin. on the same grid, draw the image
A’B’C’D’ and state the coordinates of A’B’C’D’. (3 marks)

c) A’B’C’D’ undergoes a reflection in the X – axis to give A’’B’’C’’D’’. On same grid, draw A’’B’’C’’D’’ and
state the coordinates of A’’B’’C’’D’’ (3 marks)

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 13 of 15

d) A’’B’’C’’D’’ is the image of ABCD under a reflection. On the grid, mark the mirror line and state its
equation. (2 marks)

23 . (a) Find the inverse of the matrix (2 marks)

2 5
[ ]
4 3

(b) A transport company has two types of vehicles for hire: Lorries and buses. The vehicles are hired per
day. The cost of hiring two lorries and five buses is Sh. 156,000 and that of hiring 4 lorries and three
buses is Sh. 137,000.
(i) Form two equations to represent the above information. (2 marks)

(ii) Use matrix method to determine the cost of hiring a lorry and that of hiring a bus.
(3 marks)

2𝑥 − 1 1
(c) Find the value of x given that [ 2 ] is a singular matrix
𝑥 1
(3 marks)

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 14 of 15

24) Four points A, B, C, and D are situated on a horizontal plane such that B is 200 m on a bearing of
0650 from A. C is 300m on a bearing of 1200 from B and D is 150m due west of C.

a. Using a suitable scale, draw an accurate scale drawing representing the positions of A, B, C, and D.

(6 marks)

c) By measuring use your scale drawing to find the distance and bearing of:-
i) D from A (2 marks)

ii) B from D (2 marks)

F4 MATHS ET2 Page 15 of 15

NAME……………………………………………..……..ADM NO………..…..CLASS….……….

INDEX NO…………………..CANDIDATES SIGNATURE………………DATE……………….

121/2
MATHEMATICS ALT A
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATE’S:
✓ Write your name, stream and index number in the spaces provided at the top of this page
✓ This paper contains two sections: Section I and Section II
✓ Answer all questions in section I and any five in section II
✓ Show all the steps in your calculations giving your answer at each stage in the spaces provided below
each question.
✓ Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
✓ Non programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical table may be used except
where stated otherwise

For examiner’s use only

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL
Grand
Total

This paper consists of 16 printed pages.

Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all the pages are printed as indicated and no
questions are missing

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 1 of 16

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
SECTION I (50 MARKS).

(Attempt all the questions in this section)

1. Find the selling price of 5 kg of a mixture of maize flour and millet flour if 4 kg of maize flour costing
sh. 75 per kg is mixed with 6 kg of millet flour costing sh. 50 per kg and a profit of 20% is realized.
(3 marks)

2. The radius of a cylinder is given as 3.50 cm while its height is exactly 12 cm. Find the percentage error
22
in the volume of the cylinder, giving your answer to three significant figures. (take π = ) (3 marks)
7

3. Solve the equation log 2 (2𝑥 2 − 8) − log 2 (𝑥 + 2) = 3 (3 marks)

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 2 of 16

4. Solve the equation 2𝑥 2 + 10𝑥 + 12 = 0 by completing the square method. (3 marks)

5. Make b the subject of the formula. (3 marks)

𝑎
𝑥=
√(𝑎−𝑏)(𝑎+𝑏)

5 2
6. Simplify the expression: − (3 marks)
7− 2√3 7+2 √3

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 3 of 16

7. Triangle ABC is such that AB = 10 cm, BC = 12 cm and AC = 20 cm. calculate correct to 2 decimal
places the;
a) Angle ABC (2 marks)

b) A circle passes through the vertices of triangle ABC. Calculate the radius of the circle.(2 marks)

8. Karanu bought a computer whose marked price was 25,000 on hire purchase terms. She paid a deposit
of 25% of the cash price and cleared the balance by paying 12 equal monthly instalments of sh2000
each. Calculate the rate of compound interest charged per month. (3 marks)

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 4 of 16

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
9. Solve the following equation 8 cos 𝑥 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 + 6 for 00 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 3600 (4 marks)

10. Given that A (4, -2, 6) and B (-2, 1, -3) and that a point N divides AB in the ratio -2:5. Find the vector
ON in terms of i j and k. (3 marks)

11. The roof of a ware house is in the shape of a triangular prism as shown below

Calculate the angle between faces RSTU and PQRS (3 marks)

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 5 of 16

12. The equation of a circle is given by 2𝑥 2 + 2𝑦 2 − 12𝑥 + 8𝑦 − 6 = 0. Determine the centre and the
radius of the circle. (3 marks)

𝑥 6
13. Expand (1 − ) in ascending powers of x up to the fourth term. Hence use your expansion to evaluate
2
(0.95)6 to three significant figures. (3 marks)

𝑑𝑦
14. The gradient function of a curve is given as = 3𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 4 . Find the equation of the curve given
𝑑𝑥
that the curve passes through the point (1, 2). (3 marks)

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 6 of 16

15. The first, second and fifth terms of an arithmetic sequence are the first three consecutive terms of a
geometric sequence. Find the common ratio of the geometric sequence. (3 marks)

16. In a transformation, an object with area 12cm2 is mapped onto an image whose area is 24cm2. Given
𝑥 4
that the matrix of transformation is [ ] find the value of 𝑥, hence state two possible
1 (𝑥 − 1)
matrices (3 marks)

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 7 of 16

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
SECTION II (50 marks)

(Answer ONLY FIVE questions in this section in the spaces provided)

17. Three quantities x, y and z are such that x varies directly as the square root of y and inversely as the
square of z.

a) (i). Given that x = 12, and y= 36, and z = 3, find an equation connecting x, y and z (3 marks)

(ii) Find x when y = 121 and z = 5 (1 mark)

b) i) Express y in terms of x and z (2 marks)

ii) If x increases by 21% and z decreases by 10%, find the percentage increase in y (4 marks)

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 8 of 16

18. Complete the table below correct to 2 decimal places. (2 marks)
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
X -180 -150 -120 -90 -60 -30 0 30 60 90 120 1500 1800

Y=2Cos x -1.73 1 2 1 0

Y=Cos (x-60) -0.5 -0.9 0 1 -0.5

(b) On the same axes plot the graphs of y= Cos (x-600) and y = 2 Cos x. (use a scale of 1 unit for 300 on
the x axis and 1 unit for 0.5 units on the y axis) (4 marks)

(d) State the period and amplitude of each of the waves above. (2 marks)

amplitude period
Y = 2Cos x
Y = Cos(x - 60)

(e) Describe the transformation which maps y= Cos(x-600) to y = 2cosx. (1 mark)

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 9 of 16

19. Mrs Mutiso has two cupboards A and B in her kitchen. Cupboard A has 7 white cups and 5 brown cups
while cupboard B has 4 white cups and 6 brown ones. All the cups are identical in size and shape.
a) There was a blackout in the town and Mrs Mutiso had to select two cups, one after the other
without replacing the previous one, from any of the cupboards.
i. Draw a tree diagram for the information. (2 marks)

ii. Calculate the probability that she chooses two cups of the same colour. (3 marks)

iii. Calculate the probability that she chooses two cups of different colours (1 mark)

b) On another day, she selected two cups from cupboard B. After using them she placed them in
cupboard A. Later in the day, she selected one cup from cupboard A. Find the probability that she
chose a white cup. (4 marks)

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 10 of 16

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
20. A contractor intends to transport 800 bags of cement using a lorry and a pick up. The lorry can carry a
maximum of 40 bags while a pick up can carry a maximum of 20 bags. The pickup has to make more
than twice the number of trips the lorry makes. The total number of trips made by the pickup has to be
less than 40 while those made by the lorry have to be at least 5. By letting x and y to be the trips made
by the lorry and pickup respectively:
a) Write down all the inequalities to represent the above situation. (4 marks)

b) Represent the inequalities above on the grid provided. (4 marks)

c) Find the number of trips to be made by the lorry and the pickup respectively in order to minimise
cost if the cost per trip is Ksh 2000 for the lorry and Ksh 1000 for the pickup. (2 marks)

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 11 of 16

21. Below is a sketch of the area bounded by the curve 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 + 3 and the lines x=-2, x=4 and y=0.

a) Use the trapezium rule with six trapezia to estimate the area of the shaded region (4 marks)

b) Find the exact area bounded by the region in (a) above (3 marks)

c) Find the percentage error in the area for the approximation using trapezium rule (3 marks)

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 12 of 16

22. An aero plane left town P (60𝑂 𝑁, 550 𝐸) at 7:00 am local time on Monday and travelled towards
another town Q (600 𝑁, 1250 𝑊) at a speed of 500 knots using the shortest route. (Take π = 22
7
and
radius of the earth R= 6370 km)
a) (i) Calculate the distance travelled in nautical miles. (2 marks)

(ii) Calculate the local time at Q when the plane arrived at Q (3 marks)

b) Another plane left P at 1.30 pm local time and travelled to T (600 𝑁, 900 𝐸) along the parallel of
latitude. Calculate the:
(i) Distance between P and T to the nearest km (2 marks)

(ii) Local time of arrival at town T if the plane flew at the speed of 470 km/h (3 marks)

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 13 of 16

23. The data below shows the heights of students in a class.
Height 130 -139 140 -149 150-159 160-169 170-179 180-189 190-199

Frequency 3 12 32 22 7 3 1

a) Draw a cumulative frequency curve on the grid provided (4 marks)

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 14 of 16

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
b) Use the graph to find:
i) The median height. (2 marks)

ii) The interquartile range (2 marks)

iii) The percentage of students with a height greater than 172cm (2 marks)

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 15 of 16

24. Using a ruler and a pair of compasses only, construct a parallelogram ABCD such that AB=10 cm,
AD=6 cm and angle BAD=60o. (3 marks)

(b) On the same diagram, construct:

(i) The locus of a point P such that P is equidistant from AB and AD; (1 mark)

(ii) The locus of a point Q such that Q is equidistant from A and B; (1 mark)

(iii) The locus of a point T such that ATB = 1200; (3 marks).

(c) Shade the region R bounded by the locus of P, the locus of Q and the locus of T within the
trapezium such that AR ≤ RB, angle BAR ≤ angle DAR and angle ARB ≥ 120. (2 marks)

MATH FORM 4 2025 121/2 PAPER 2 Page 16 of 16

Name..................................................................................................................................

ADM No...............CLASS…........Candidate's Signature.................. Date.....................

232/1
PHYSICS
FORM FOUR
Paper 1 (Theory)
Time: 2 Hours

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
* Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
* Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
* This paper consists of two sections; A and B
* Answer all the questions in section A and B
* All working and answers must be written on the question
paper in the spaces provided below each question.
* Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC
mathematical tables may be used.
For Examiner's Use Only

Section Question Maximum Candidate's

A 1 - 10 25
11 11
12 11
13 13
14 12
15 108
B
Total Score 80

Page 1 of 11

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
Figure 1 below shows the reading of a micrometer screw gauge that has an error of 0.07mm.
1.
Record the actual reading of the measurement. (2 marks)

2. State the effect of addition of impurities on surface tension of liquids. (1 mark)

[Link] 2 below shows two identical springs of spring constant 5N/cm supporting a load
of 50N.

Calculate the effective extension of the two springs. (3 marks)

F4 PHY PP1 Page 2 of 11

4. Most buses have their luggage racks below the passenger seats instead of on the roof.
Explain why. (1 marks)

[Link] height of mercury column in a barometer at a certain place is 76cm. What would be the
height of the column of paraffin in the same place? (Density of paraffin: 0.8 kg/cm³, Density
of mercury: 13.6 g/cm³) (3 marks)

6.A certain machine uses 400N effort to raise a 600N load. If the efficiency of the machine is
80%, calculate its Velocity Ratio (VR). (3 marks)

7. Water flows steadily along a horizontal pipe at a volume rate of 8.0 × 10⁻³ m³/s.
If the cross-sectional area of the pipe is 7.0 cm², determine the velocity of the fluid. (3 marks)

F4 PHY PP1 Page 3 of 11

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
State how the volume of a given mass of water changes when:
a) Water is cooled from 4°C to 0°C (use a sketch graph). (2 marks)

b) Water freezes to ice at 0°C. (1 mark)

8. Figure 3 shows a uniform wooden block of mass 5 kg and length 50 cm lying on a bench.
It hangs over the bench by 10 cm. Use the diagram to answer the questions below:

a) Indicate in the figure the forces acting on the wooden block. (1 mark)

b) Determine the minimum force required for the ruler to topple. (3 marks)

F4 PHY PP1 Page 4 of 11

9. State why gases are easily compressible compared to liquids and solids. (1 mark)

10. Explain why covering oneself with two thin blankets is warmer than using a single thick blanket.
(1 marks)

SECTION B:(55 MARKS)

11. a) i) Explain why a bucket of water can be swung in a vertical circle without the water pouring
out. (1 mark)

ii) A car of mass 800 kg moves on a circular track of radius 20 m. The force of friction
between the tyres and the tarmac is 4800 N. Determine the maximum speed at which the
car can be driven without skidding. (3 marks)

F4 PHY PP1 Page 5 of 11

b) A stone is whirled with uniform speed in a horizontal circle having a radius of 10 m. It takes
the stone 10 seconds to describe an arc of length 8 m. Determine:
i) Angular velocity. (2 marks)

ii) Period. (2 marks)

c)State a reason why an object is accelerating while its velocity remains constant in circular
motion. (1 mark)

d) State two factors that affect critical speed. (2 marks)

12. Figure 4 below shows a set-up that a student used to investigate the pressure law of a gas.

F4 PHY PP1 Page 6 of 11

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
a )i) State measurements that should be taken in the experiment. (2 marks)

ii) Explain how measurements in (i) above may be used to verify the pressure law. (3 marks)

b) Using kinetic theory of gases, explain Boyle's law. (3 marks)

c)Oxygen gas of volume 2500 cm³ at 10°C and pressure of 3 N/cm² is compressed until its
volume is 500 cm³ at pressure of 6 N/cm². Determine the new temperature of the gas in Kelvin.
(3 marks)

13.a)Figure 5 shows a velocity-time graph of two objects A and B drawn on the same axis.

The two objects have equal masses. The same force is applied against each object. State with a
F4 PHY PP1 Page 7 of 11
reason which object stops in a shorter distance. (2 marks)

An object moving at 30 m/s starts to accelerate at 5 m/s², so that its velocity becomes 50
b)
m/s.

i) Determine the distance moved during the accelerating time. (3 marks)

ii) The object is now braked so that it comes to rest in 5 seconds. Determine the braking force if it's
mass was 2700g. (2 marks)

c) Figure below shows the motion of a trolley on a ticker timer whose frequency is 50Hz

Determine the;
i) Initial velocity between A and B. (2 marks)

ii) Final velocity between C and D. (2 marks)

F4 PHY PP1 Page 8 of 11

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
iii) Acceleration of the trolley during the motion. (2 marks)

14. Explain why a drop of methylated spirit on the back of the hand feels colder than a drop of water at
the same temperature. (2 marks)

b) A
block of metal whose is 150g and at a initial temperature of 100°C is dropped into a lagged
calorimeter of heat capacity 40J/k containing 100g of water at 25°C ;the final temperature
of the mixture is 34°C.(Specific of water =4200J/kg/K)Determine;
i) Heat gained by the calorimeter (3 marks)

ii) Heat gained by water (2 marks)

iii) Heat lost by the metal block (2 marks)

F4 PHY PP1 Page 9 of 11
c) Specific Heat capacity of the metal block (2 marks)

d)A student heated some water and noticed that it boiled at 102°[Link] one possible reason for
this observation (1 mark)

15.a)State the Law of Floatation (1 mark)

b) The
figure below shows a uniform rod of height 8cm floating vertically in a beaker containing
two immiscible liquids P and Q. The densities of the liquids are 800kg/m3 and
1200kg/m3 respectively the cross-sectional area of the rod is 2cm2.

Determine;
i) the weight of liquid P displaced by the rod (3 marks)

F4 PHY PP1 Page 10 of 11

ii) the weight of liquid Q displaced by the rod (2 marks)

iii) The mass of the rod (2 marks)

F4 PHY PP1 Page 11 of 11

ADM NO: __CLASS: DATE: _ SIGN: ______

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

PHYSICS PAPER 2
FORM: 4
2 Hrs

Instructions to candidates
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.

(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.

(c) This paper consists of two sections; A and B.

(d) Answer all the questions in sections A and B in spaces provided.

(e) All working must be clearly shown in the spaces provided in this booklet.

(f) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators may be used.

(g) This paper consists of 14 printed pages.

(h) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and

that no questions are missing.

(i) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

SECTION A (25MARKS)
Answer all the questions.
1. A number reaction is represented by the following equation

a 234
92X bY + Alpha particle

Determine values of a and b (2mks)

F4 Physics Paper 2 1

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
2. . Figure 2 shows the displacement -time graph for a certain wave.

Figure 2

Determine:
(i) Amplitude (1 mark)

(ii) Frequency. (2marks)

3. Using domain theory, explain how electric current produces a magnetic effect in an electromagnet. (2mks)

4. A metallic body shaped as shown in the figure below is positively charged and insulated from the ground.
Show the charge distribution (1mark)

F4 Physics Paper 2 2
5. Given a dry cell, a diode and connecting wires, draw a circuit in which the diode is reverse biased (2mks)

6. Optics is a branch of physics. Explain what it deals with. (1mk)

7. A model preparing for beauty contest stands 70 cm away from a concave mirror of focal length 90 cm.
State two characteristics of the image observed. (2mks)

8. (a). State Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction. [1mk]

(b). The diagram below shows a bar magnet being withdrawn from a solenoid.

The centre zero galvanometer is observed to deflect in the direction shown. State the polarity of;
(1 mark)

A …………………………………….

F4 Physics Paper 2 3
9. Figure below shows a single phase demonstration transformer intended to converted 24V, 50Hz as AC
supply to 240V, 50Hz

Primary coil Secondary coil

24 V 240 V
50Hz 50Hz
Soft iron core

(i)What is the purpose of the soft iron core? (1mark)

(ii) If the primary core has 50 turns of coil, how many turns of coils should the secondary have?
(2mks)

10. An electric bulb is rated 75W, 240V. Determine the energy consumed by the bulb in 3 minutes.
(3 marks)

11. The electrical conductivity of a metal conductor decreases with increase in temperature. Explain.
(2 marks)

12. Transistor radios receive radio signals from more stations at night than during the day. Explain
(2 marks)

F4 Physics Paper 2 4

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
SECTION B (55MARKS)

13. (a) Define the term “diffraction” as applied in waves (1 mark)

(b) Figure 13 shows the rays of monochromatic light incident on two adjacent slits S1 and S2

Monochromatic S1
light source y
S0
d

Figure 13

(i) Give the meaning of monochromatic source of light. (1 mark)

(ii) State what is observed on the screen when the (2 mark)

(ii) State what is observed on the screen when the

I. Slit separation, d, is reduced. (1 mark)

II. Distance, x, is increased. (1 mark)

III. White light source is used. (1 mark)

F4 Physics Paper 2 5
14. (a)(i) State what is meant by absolute refractive index of a material. (1mark)

(ii) Figure 15 shows an object, O below the base of a glass block of length, d. An observer above the
glass block sees its image I at a distance of 10 cm from the base.

Figure 15

If the refractive index of the glass is 1.5, determine the length d. (3 marks)

(b) Figure 16 shows a monochromatic ray of light incident at glass-air interface.

F4 Physics Paper 2 6
Determine the value of angle C. (Take the refractive index of glass = 1.5) (2marks)

15. (a) Study the circuit diagram below and answer the questions that follow

Calculate
(ii).total resistance (2marks)

(i). the current flowing through the ammeter. (2marks)

(ii). the current through the 4Ω (2marks)

(b) Figure 12 shows the variation of voltage against current.

F4 Physics Paper 2 7

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
15

2 4 I (Amperes)

(i) .the e.m.f, E of the cell. (1mark)

(ii) .the internal resistance, r, of the cell. (3marks)

(a) (i) Name the device marked D and briefly describe how it works

D= (1 mark)

F4 Physics Paper 2 8
How it works (2marks)

16.(a)Figure 5 shows an X-ray tube.

(i). Name the metal used to shield the tube operators from the radiation.
(1 mark)

(ii). Give a reason for your answer in (I) above. (1 mark)

(iii) State one industrial use of X-rays. (1 mark)

(iv). State one factor that determines the hardness of the X-rays produced in the tube.
(1mark)

F4 Physics Paper 2 9
17. The results obtained for various monochromatic radiations of different colors are shown graphically

in Figure 9.

Figure 9
i) Indicates that there is a frequency below which no electrons are emitted. Explain this

(1 mark)

ii) From the graph determine;

(a) Plank’s constant, h (Take electron charge, e- = 1.6 x 10-19C) (3 marks)

F4 Physics Paper 2 10
(b)The work function of the metal, Wo (1mark)

Lower work function than the metal used (1mark)

18. The figure below shows the trace on the screen of an a.c signal connected to the y-plates of C.R.O with
time base on.

(a) Given that the time control is 5ms/div, and the y-again is at 100V/div, determine:

i) The frequency of the a.c signal. (3mark)

ii) The peak voltage of the input signal

(2marks)

F4 Physics Paper 2 11

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
(b) Figure shows part of a circuit containing three capacitors.

Figure 6

Derive an expression for CT , the effective capacitance between A and B.

(3 marks)

(c). Figure shows a capacitor C being charged.

(i) Explain how the capacitor is charged. (3 marks)

F4 Physics Paper 2 12
(ii) State the purpose of the resistor R. (1 mark)

(d). Figure shows a circuit diagram with three capacitors.

3µF
5µF

2µF

10V

(i) Determine the effective capacitance of the arrangement. (2mark)

(ii) Find the energy stored in the combinations of capacitors (3mark)

(ii) Explain how lighting a match box near the cap of a charged electroscope would cause
the electroscope to discharge (1mark)

F4 Physics Paper 2 13
The diagram in figure 10 shows a simple electric motor in which a coil is put in the magnetic field.

N S

C
X

(i) Name the parts labeled

X ………………………………. (1
mark)

F4 Physics Paper 2 14
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

INDEX NUMBER…………CLASS………CANDIDATES SIGNATURE……………………DATE……….

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

PHYSICS
FORM 4
PAPER 232/3
TIME: 2HOURS 30 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided
• Candidates are advised to record the observations as soon as they are made
• Mathematical tables and non-programmable scientific calculators may be used
•
QUESTION 1

You are provided with the following

✓ An ammeter
✓ A voltmeter
✓ Two cells (size D)
✓ A cell holder
✓ A switch
✓ A wire labelled L mounted on a millimeter scale
✓ A micrometer screw gauge (to be shared)
✓ Six connecting wires at least four with crocodile clips

Proceed as follows
a. (i) Using a micrometer screw gauge, measure and record the diameter d of the wire L
(1/2 mark)
d=………………………………mm
d=………………………………m

FORM FOUR PHY PP3 Page 1 of 6

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
(ii) Determine the area of the wire (1/2 marks)

b. Place the two cells in series in the cell holder and use the voltmeter to measure the total electromotive
force(emf) of the battery (1 mark)
E0=………………………. V
c. Starting with the switch open, connect the circuit as shown in figure 1 below P and Q are points on the
wire L such that PQ=60cm (PQ should remain 60cm throughout the experiment)
N is a point on the wire such that PN is 10cm (0.1m)

d. (i) Close the switch and record the current I (1 mark)

I=…………………………..A
(ii) Measure and record in the table 1 the potential difference across PN
(iii) Measure and record the potential difference across PN for the other values of PN shown in the table
Table 1
Length PN (m) 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6

P. d (v)

Resistance (V/I) Ω

(6 marks)
e. On the grid provided, plot a graph of resistance (y-axis) against length L (5 marks)

FORM FOUR PHY PP3 Page 2 of 6

f. From the graph, determine:

i. The slope S from the graph (3 marks)

ii. Calculate the resistivity р of the wire and give its SI unit given that
(1 mark)

iii. The constant K and its units given that (2 marks)

g. Determine the constant t given that (1 marks)

Where Vn is the p.d at PN=0.6m

QUESTION 2: PART 1
You are provided with the following:
✓ Triangular glass prism labelled X
✓ Six optical pins
✓ A soft board
✓ A plain sheet of paper

Proceed as follows;
a) Fix the sheet of paper on the soft board using two optical pins. Place the triangular prism on the paper
and trace its outline on the sheet of paper with the side labelled X on the sheet. See figure 2

FORM FOUR PHY PP3 Page 3 of 6

Measure the angle A and the length L
A=………………………………. (1 mark)
l=……………………………….. (1 mark)
b) At a point about a third way along one of the sides of the outline from angle A, draw a normal
(2 marks)

c) Draw a line at an angle i= 400 to the normal. Stick two pins P1 and P2 vertically on this line(See figure 3)

Place the prism accurately on the outline just like before. By viewing through the opposite side, stick the
two pins P3 and P4 vertically such that they are in line with the two images of pins P1 and P2
d) Remove the prism and the pins. Draw a line joining the marks made by P3 and P4. Extend the lines P1P2
and P3P4 to meet, draw a normal where P3P4 meet side XZ. Hence measure the angle of deviation D
D=…………………………………… (1 mark)

FORM FOUR PHY PP3 Page 4 of 6

6XKLKX3)GRROTM3'SUHO3-XU[V3UL3+^GSOTKXY3&3狢狩狦狥3狥狥狥3狢狢狢3UX3狢狩狢狨3狪狧狣3狦狥狫3,UX33GXQOTM39INKSKY
e) For the two other values of the angle i shown in the table 2, locate and measure the corresponding angle
of deviation. Complete Table 2
Table 2
i 400 500 600

(2 marks)
f) (i) Determine the average value Dm of D (2 marks)

(ii) Determine the constant K using the equation; (3 marks)

PART 2
You are provided with the following;
✓ Meter rule
✓ Retort stand, clamp and boss
✓ 500ml beaker ¾ full of water
✓ 100g mass
✓ 50g mass
✓ 3 pieces of thread
Proceed as follows
(a) Balance the meter rule horizontally by suspending it from the stand and clamp with one of the
threads. Record the balance point G
G=…………………………………… (1 mark)
(b) (i) Suspend the 100g mass from the center of the rule at a point X such that X=10cm from point G.
With 100g mass completely immersed in water in the beaker, hang the 50g mass from the center of
the meter rule and adjust its position until the system is in equilibrium as shown in the figure below.

Note the point of suspension P of the mass 50g (1 mark)

FORM FOUR PHY PP3 Page 5 of 6

iv. Measure distance Y (1 mark)

v. Using the information above, calculate the upthrust on the 100g mass if the density of water is
100kg/m3 (4 marks)

FORM FOUR PHY PP3 Page 6 of 6

Mokasa I Joint Exams - 2025
No ratings yet
Mokasa I Joint Exams - 2025
263 pages
Kisii School 2024 Mocks
No ratings yet
Kisii School 2024 Mocks
244 pages
Paper 3
No ratings yet
Paper 3
5 pages
Kisii School Mock Exam 2025
No ratings yet
Kisii School Mock Exam 2025
245 pages
Agriculture Form 3 PP1 MS
No ratings yet
Agriculture Form 3 PP1 MS
7 pages
Maranda School Mocks 2025
No ratings yet
Maranda School Mocks 2025
220 pages
Kisii SCH 2025 Mock Exams
No ratings yet
Kisii SCH 2025 Mock Exams
271 pages
Miktep t1,2025 Ppr1
No ratings yet
Miktep t1,2025 Ppr1
6 pages
Kala Agriculture p1 2025
No ratings yet
Kala Agriculture p1 2025
12 pages
Agriculture PP1 2025 Top Rank Kcse Mock
No ratings yet
Agriculture PP1 2025 Top Rank Kcse Mock
82 pages
Form 4 Endterm 2 Set 2 (SM) Exams
No ratings yet
Form 4 Endterm 2 Set 2 (SM) Exams
225 pages
Geography Paper 2 - 2025 Kala Pre Mock Examination-4492
No ratings yet
Geography Paper 2 - 2025 Kala Pre Mock Examination-4492
10 pages
Agriculture Prediction 1 2025
No ratings yet
Agriculture Prediction 1 2025
2 pages
Agriculture Paper 2
No ratings yet
Agriculture Paper 2
8 pages
Cre Form 3 pp1 Ms Mod09042022001
No ratings yet
Cre Form 3 pp1 Ms Mod09042022001
4 pages
Home Science Revision
No ratings yet
Home Science Revision
40 pages
Agriculture Exam Papers July 2023
No ratings yet
Agriculture Exam Papers July 2023
79 pages
KCSE Agriculture Exam Questions 2014
No ratings yet
KCSE Agriculture Exam Questions 2014
27 pages
KCSE Agriculture Paper 1 PREDICTION. DR. Rakdafha
No ratings yet
KCSE Agriculture Paper 1 PREDICTION. DR. Rakdafha
9 pages
Mmalina Eng Pp1 Final Draft
No ratings yet
Mmalina Eng Pp1 Final Draft
10 pages
Biology Pp3
No ratings yet
Biology Pp3
6 pages
Agriculture Paper 1 Mock 2025
No ratings yet
Agriculture Paper 1 Mock 2025
12 pages
Bio PP3
No ratings yet
Bio PP3
4 pages
GEOGRAPHY
100% (1)
GEOGRAPHY
46 pages
Form 4 Agriculture - Paper 1 - Marking Scheme
No ratings yet
Form 4 Agriculture - Paper 1 - Marking Scheme
9 pages
Biology Pp3 Ms
No ratings yet
Biology Pp3 Ms
5 pages
Success Path Mock Bio PP2
No ratings yet
Success Path Mock Bio PP2
12 pages
Agriculture Paper 2 Mock 2025-Maseno
No ratings yet
Agriculture Paper 2 Mock 2025-Maseno
13 pages
Biology Form 2 - Zeraki Achievers 5.0 - Question Paper
No ratings yet
Biology Form 2 - Zeraki Achievers 5.0 - Question Paper
12 pages
Kala Chemistry p3 Pretrial Final Q 2025
No ratings yet
Kala Chemistry p3 Pretrial Final Q 2025
7 pages
2025 Sulimo Post Mock Joint Exams
No ratings yet
2025 Sulimo Post Mock Joint Exams
294 pages
Mmalina Eng Pp1 Mks
No ratings yet
Mmalina Eng Pp1 Mks
9 pages
FORM 2 Term 2 Opener 2017
No ratings yet
FORM 2 Term 2 Opener 2017
7 pages
Form 4 Set 2 April Holiday Assignment
No ratings yet
Form 4 Set 2 April Holiday Assignment
166 pages
F3 Eng PP1 QNS111
100% (1)
F3 Eng PP1 QNS111
8 pages
Agriculture Form 3 Notes (1) - 1-1
No ratings yet
Agriculture Form 3 Notes (1) - 1-1
77 pages
Agriculture Paper 2 Marking Scheme
No ratings yet
Agriculture Paper 2 Marking Scheme
4 pages
Mokasa II 2025 Joint Exams
0% (1)
Mokasa II 2025 Joint Exams
262 pages
Kcse Cekenas 2025 Mocks S2-1-1
100% (1)
Kcse Cekenas 2025 Mocks S2-1-1
235 pages
Kcse Trial 2025 Post Mock Exams
No ratings yet
Kcse Trial 2025 Post Mock Exams
251 pages
Geography Form 4 PP2
100% (1)
Geography Form 4 PP2
3 pages
Agric Pp1 BP 10 QP Kcse Prediction-1
No ratings yet
Agric Pp1 BP 10 QP Kcse Prediction-1
37 pages
Biology Practical Exam 49 Questions
No ratings yet
Biology Practical Exam 49 Questions
8 pages
Kcse Mocks Set 1
No ratings yet
Kcse Mocks Set 1
312 pages
2021 KCSE Agriculture Paper 1 Marking Scheme
No ratings yet
2021 KCSE Agriculture Paper 1 Marking Scheme
10 pages
Kcse 2025 English Final Prediction
No ratings yet
Kcse 2025 English Final Prediction
115 pages
KCSE 2022 Biology Replica Series
No ratings yet
KCSE 2022 Biology Replica Series
141 pages
Success Path 2025 Kcse Prediction
No ratings yet
Success Path 2025 Kcse Prediction
235 pages
The Samaritan Excerpt, Kcse 2025 Prediction (10 Excerpts)
No ratings yet
The Samaritan Excerpt, Kcse 2025 Prediction (10 Excerpts)
41 pages
2025 Maranda Phy Pp2 M.S
No ratings yet
2025 Maranda Phy Pp2 M.S
5 pages
F3 Maseno School End Year Exams
No ratings yet
F3 Maseno School End Year Exams
306 pages
2016 Kcse Biology PP3
No ratings yet
2016 Kcse Biology PP3
6 pages
2025 KKMG Joint Mock Exams
No ratings yet
2025 KKMG Joint Mock Exams
221 pages
Mangu High School Post 2024
No ratings yet
Mangu High School Post 2024
276 pages
KCSE Biology Practical Mock Exams
100% (1)
KCSE Biology Practical Mock Exams
75 pages
Biology Paper 1 - 1733645852
No ratings yet
Biology Paper 1 - 1733645852
12 pages
SET 5-English Paper 1
100% (1)
SET 5-English Paper 1
12 pages
Kala Biology Paper 2 July 2025
No ratings yet
Kala Biology Paper 2 July 2025
12 pages
Cre Top Revision Booklet
No ratings yet
Cre Top Revision Booklet
44 pages
Agr PP1 QNS
No ratings yet
Agr PP1 QNS
11 pages
5.EMPS 411 Topic 5 The General Sytem Theory
No ratings yet
5.EMPS 411 Topic 5 The General Sytem Theory
10 pages
6.EMPS 411 Topic 6 The Structure of Organization 2024
No ratings yet
6.EMPS 411 Topic 6 The Structure of Organization 2024
7 pages
4.EMPS 411 Topic 4 Approaches To Administration and Mangement 2024
No ratings yet
4.EMPS 411 Topic 4 Approaches To Administration and Mangement 2024
4 pages
Casstre Kpsea 2025 Top Prediction Cycles
100% (1)
Casstre Kpsea 2025 Top Prediction Cycles
95 pages
Afde 122 Introduction To Pattern Drafting
No ratings yet
Afde 122 Introduction To Pattern Drafting
15 pages
Bsen 311 Cat
No ratings yet
Bsen 311 Cat
4 pages
Zimbabwe National and Strategic Studies
No ratings yet
Zimbabwe National and Strategic Studies
147 pages
DLL-Agri-Crops Production Lesson 3-Revised
84% (19)
DLL-Agri-Crops Production Lesson 3-Revised
11 pages
The Composting Heap
No ratings yet
The Composting Heap
4 pages
Product Catalogue - Barn Technology For Dairy Farms
No ratings yet
Product Catalogue - Barn Technology For Dairy Farms
140 pages
Peter Aniebo PDF
No ratings yet
Peter Aniebo PDF
5 pages
Makalah Pancasila Sebagai Paradigma Pembangunan Nasional
No ratings yet
Makalah Pancasila Sebagai Paradigma Pembangunan Nasional
9 pages
Training and Development in Dairy Industry
No ratings yet
Training and Development in Dairy Industry
79 pages
Bio Annual Exam 23 24
No ratings yet
Bio Annual Exam 23 24
6 pages
Sikkim Final Report
No ratings yet
Sikkim Final Report
227 pages
Faculty of Plantation and Agrotechnology Universiti Teknologi Mara (Uitm) Melaka Branch Jasin Campus
No ratings yet
Faculty of Plantation and Agrotechnology Universiti Teknologi Mara (Uitm) Melaka Branch Jasin Campus
8 pages
Fruit Tree Pruning Guide
100% (2)
Fruit Tree Pruning Guide
71 pages
Diet Plan
No ratings yet
Diet Plan
7 pages
The One-Straw Revolution PDF
No ratings yet
The One-Straw Revolution PDF
72 pages
Delights SAMPLE Material
50% (2)
Delights SAMPLE Material
27 pages
Key Inventions of the Industrial Revolution
No ratings yet
Key Inventions of the Industrial Revolution
2 pages
Breeding and Reproduction of Water Buffaloes
No ratings yet
Breeding and Reproduction of Water Buffaloes
2 pages
Mycorrhiza: Plant-Fungi Symbiosis
No ratings yet
Mycorrhiza: Plant-Fungi Symbiosis
4 pages
Khalil Alsharjabi Short en CV
No ratings yet
Khalil Alsharjabi Short en CV
13 pages
SR2024-0604-013 - Farm Price Statistics (2023)
No ratings yet
SR2024-0604-013 - Farm Price Statistics (2023)
12 pages
Artificial: Intellige NCE
No ratings yet
Artificial: Intellige NCE
14 pages
Ecocolumn Experiment: Fertilizer's Effect on pH
No ratings yet
Ecocolumn Experiment: Fertilizer's Effect on pH
2 pages
Risk Assessment Oils & Fats PDF
No ratings yet
Risk Assessment Oils & Fats PDF
9 pages
Ministry of MSME, Govt. of India
No ratings yet
Ministry of MSME, Govt. of India
37 pages
Organic Agriculture in The Philippines
No ratings yet
Organic Agriculture in The Philippines
14 pages
SAHMOP - Workplan and Journal Format
No ratings yet
SAHMOP - Workplan and Journal Format
4 pages
High-Capacity Vapes for Retailers
No ratings yet
High-Capacity Vapes for Retailers
2 pages
Indus Valley Civilization Overview
100% (1)
Indus Valley Civilization Overview
57 pages
Tseng, C.K. 2004
No ratings yet
Tseng, C.K. 2004
10 pages
Lesson Note On Agricultural Science JSS 3 Third Term
No ratings yet
Lesson Note On Agricultural Science JSS 3 Third Term
9 pages
Economic Survey 2017-18 Vol - 2
No ratings yet
Economic Survey 2017-18 Vol - 2
196 pages

Uploaded by

Uploaded by

2025 NAKURU JOINT MOCK EXAMS

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

N/B In Response to the Huge Costs Associated in Coming Up with Such/Similar

CLASS_______________ADMNO___________________ SIGN ___________DATE__________________

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

2025 TIME: 2 HOURS

b. This paper consists of 3 section A, B and C

c. Answer all questions in section A and B

d. Answer any two questions in section C

e. ALL answers must be written in the spaces provided

f. This paper consists of 14 printed pages

g. Answer all questions in English

h. Check if you have all the questions from number 1 to number 23

For Examiners Use Only

1. State four entries in a breeding record in pigs production. (2mks)

i) Name the planting materials A and B above

i) Identify the practice. (1mk)

i) State the aim of the experiment. (1mk)

i) Name the weed above. (1mk)

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

2025 TIME: 2 HOURS

(c) This paper consists of THREE sections; A ,B and C.

(d) Answer ALL the questions in Section A and B

(e) Answer question TWO questions from Section C.

For Examiner’s Use Only

SECTION QUESTION STUDENTS SCORE

AGRICS F4 PP2 2025 Page 1 of 6

1. State four physical characteristics of Merino sheep (2mark)

9. State three chemical methods of timber treatment (1 ½ marks)

AGRICS F4 PP2 2025 Page 3 of 6

SECTION B: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

Name the parts labeled ABC and D (2marks)

AGRICS F4 PP2 2025 Page 4 of 6

a) State two functions of part labeled G (2marks)

a) Identify the practice illustrated below (1mark)

AGRICS F4 PP2 2025 Page 5 of 6

a) Identify tool J and K (2marks)

b) Classify the tools under woodwork tools and equipment (2marks)

SECTION C: Answer question TWO questions

NAKURU JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

1. State why it is difficult to calculate the respiratory quotient in plants (2mark)

2. Name the class to which termites belong. (1 mark)

3. State the function of a contractile vacuole in amoeba (1 mark)

4. The figure below shows the frontal view of a certain vertebra.

8. Briefly explain how colchicine causes polyploidy. (2 marks)

9. State two causes of drug resistance in disease causing micro-organisms. (3 marks)

12. State the function of mitochondria in a cell (2 mark)

13. State the agent of pollination in a maize plant. (1 mark)

14. Name two components of the xylem tissue. (2marks

15. What is the role of bile salts in digestion? (2 mark)

19. Explain why the trachea has rings of cartilage. (2 mark)

20. State four differences between mitosis and meiosis (4 marks)

29. What is the function of a lens in a light microscope? (1 mark)

31. The apparatus below is used in biological studies

a) Identify the apparatus and state its functions (2 marks)

a) Identify the neuron labeled 1, 2 and 3 (3 marks)

c) Name the part labeled P (1 mark)

d) Describe the transmission impulses across the part labeled P. (4 marks)

ADM…………………. DATE………………………… SIGN…………………….

NAKURU NORTH JOINT EVALUATION MOCK 2025

Form 4 Bio Paper 2 Page 1 Of 8

Form 4 Bio Paper 2 Page 2 Of 8

c) Which animal is phylogenetically closer to the dog? Explain (2 marks)

Form 4 Bio Paper 2 Page 3 Of 8

4. Study the below diagram of a fruit from a certain plant.

a) Name the type of fruit (1 mark)

b) i) How is the shown fruit dispersed (1 mark)

c) Name the part labeled T (1 mark)

d) i) State the type of placentation found in above fruit. (1 marks)

Form 4 Bio Paper 2 Page 4 Of 8

Deficiency corrective mechanism B

b) If the above diagram represented blood sugar regulation

Form 4 Bio Paper 2 Page 5 Of 8

Form 4 Bio Paper 2 Page 6 Of 8

c) Suggest a reason for the results obtained at 600C (2mark)

d) i) If the temperature previously kept at 600C was lowered to 350C.

ii). Explain your answer in d (i) above (2 marks)

e) What products are formed by the complete digestion of sucrose? (2 marks)

CLASS___ADMNO_ SIGN _DATE______________

Adm No: Candidate’s Signature: Date: ___

ADM NO: CLASS: DATE: _ SIGN: _______________

ADM NO: CLASS: DATE: _ SIGN: ______