27-07-2025

5001CMD303004250002 MD

PHYSICS

1)

If y = 2x3 – 12x2 + 36, then for minimum value of y is :

(1) x=0
(2) x = 4
(3) x =1
(4) None

2) The slope of straight line is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 3

3) Approximate value of tan 4° is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) What is value of expression ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

5) Convert radian into degree :-

(1) 270°
(2) 420°
(3) 540°
(4) 480°

6) If y = ex sin x then calculate

(1) ex(sin x + cos x)

(2) exsin x + cos x
(3) excos x + sin x
(4) sin x + cos x

7) If y = sinx – cos x than find :-

(1) cos x + sin x

(2) –sin x – cos x
(3) cos x – sin x
(4) – cos x + sin x

8) dx -

(1) x6/5 + C

(2)
x6/5 + C

(3)
– x5/6 + C

(4)
x6/5 + C

9) Assertion : Value of sinθ is positive for 0° to 90° and 270° to 360°.

Reason : Sin θ is the ratio of base and perpendicular.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

10) Match the column:

Column I Column II

A. P.

B. Q.

C. cos 405 R.
D. tan 420 S.

(1) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R

(2) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(3) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
(4) A-P, B-S, C-Q, D-R

11) The unit vector along is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) If and are parallel to each other then value of z and y will be :

(1) 10, 5
(2) 5, 10
(3) 5, 5
(4) 10, 10

13) If a unit vector is represented by then the value of q is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) Let

(1) is always greater than

(2) It is possible to have OR
(3) C is always equal to A + B
(4) C is never equal to A + B

15) If the direction of cosines of the vector are :-

(1)
and

(2)
and
(3)
and

(4)
and

16)

Resultant force is :-

(1) 20 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 5 N
(4) None of these

17) Find the angle betwen and :-

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 120°
(4) 90°

18) Find the torque of a force acting at the point

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) If are two vectors then which of the following are correct :-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (a), (b)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

20) Assertion (A) :- If , then and must be coplaner vectors.

Reason (R) :- Resultant of two vectors always lies in the same plane where these two vectors lie.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

21) If area (A), velocity (v) and denisty (ρ) are taken as fundamental units, what is the dimensional
formula for force?

(1) [Av2ρ]
(2) [A2 vρ]
(3) [Avρ2]
(4) [Avρ]

22) Plane angle and solid angle have:

(1) Dimensions but no units.

(2) No units and no dimensions.
(3) Both units and dimensions.
(4) Units but no dimensions.

23) Match the following :

(i) dimensional variable (a) π

(ii) Dimensionless variable (b) Force

(iii) Dimensional constant (c) angle

(iv) Dimensionless constant (d) Gravitational constant

(1) (i) c , (ii) b , (iii) d, (iv) a
(2) (i) b, (ii) c, (iii) d, (iv) a
(3) (i) a, (ii) c, (iii) d, (iv) b
(4) (i) b, (ii) c, (iii) a, (iv) d

24) If x represents distance and t represents time, dimension of are :-

(1) LT–1
(2) L2T–2
(3) L2T–1
(4) LT–2

25) The dimensional formula for momentum will be :-

0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
(2) [M1L3T–2]
(3) [M1L1T–1]
0
(4) [M L1T–2]

26) The equation = At – BV is describing the rate of change of velocity of a body falling from rest
in a resisting medium. The dimensions of A & B are:

(1) LT–3, T
(2) LT–3, T–1
(3) LT, T
(4) LT, T–1

27) The force F is given in terms of time t and displacement x by the equation:
F = a cos αx + b sin βt
where a and b are the amplitudes. The dimensions of β/α are:

0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
0 0
(2) [M L T–1]
0 0
(3) [M L–1T ]
0
(4) [M L1T–1]

28) Which of the following relations can be derived by the method of dimensional analysis :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) L = mvr

29) A Body moves 6 m north. 8 m east and 10m vertically upwards, what is its resultant
displacement from initial position:-

(1)
(2) 10m

(3)
m
(4) 10 × 2m

30) An insect moves on a circular path of radius 7m. The maximum magnitude of displacement of the
insect is :-

(1) 7 m
(2) 14π m
(3) 7π m
(4) 14 m

31) A body is moving along a straight line path with constant velocity. At an instant of time the
distance travelled by it is S and its displacement is D, then

(1) D < S
(2) D ≥ S
(3) D = S
(4) D ≤ S

32) Velocity of a particle changes when :

(1) Direction of velocity changes

(2) Magnitude of velocity changes
(3) Both of above
(4) None of the above

33) A motor cyclist move from A to B in a circular path of radius r. The ratio of the distance and

magnititude of displacement is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Which of the following statements about distance are true ?

(1) It cannot be negative

(2) It can be zero
(3) It can never decrease with time
(4) All of the above

35) A body moves along a curved path of a half circle, the ratio of distance to displacement :–

(1) 11 : 7
(2) 7 : 11
(3) 11 :
(4) 7 :

36)

The displacement of a particle is given by

y = a + bt + ct2 – dt4. The initial velocity and acceleration are respectively

(1) b, – 4d
(2) –b, 2c
(3) b, 2c
(4) 2c, –4d

37) Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given
below:
Assertion: Displacement of a body may be zero when distance travelled by it is not zero.
Reason: The displacement is the longest distance between initial and final position

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false.

38) Velocity v (in cm/sec) of a particle is given in terms of time t (in sec) by the equation :-

v = at +
The dimensions of a, b and c are :

a b c

(A) [L2] [T] [LT2]

(B) [LT2] [LT] [L]

(C) [LT–2] [L] [T]

(D) [L] [LT] [T2]

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

39) Assertion : Dimensional constants are the quantities whose value are constant.
Reason : Dimensional constants are dimensionless.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

40) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II
0 0
(A) (P) [M LT ]

(B) (Q) [M1L2T–2]

0
(C) (R) [M L1T–1]

(D) (S) [M1L1T–2]

x → Position of particle depending on time.

m → mass, V → velocity, a → acceleration
(1) (A) → (R), (B) → (S), (C) → (P), (D) → (Q)
(2) (A) → (R), (B) → (S), (C) → (P), (D) → (R)
(3) (A) → (R), (B) → (P), (C) → (Q), (D) → (S)
(4) (A) → (P), (B) → (R), (C) → (S), (D) → (Q)

41) Assertion (A) : Physical relations involving addition and subtraction cannot be derived by
dimensional analysis.
Reason (R) : Numerical constants cannot be deduced by the method of dimensions.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is not correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

42) If the units of length, velocity and force are halved, then the unit of power will be :-

(1) doubled
(2) halved
(3) one fourth
(4) remain unaffected

43) Given that the displacement of a particle is given by x = A2 sin2 kt Where t denotes the time. The
unit of k is

(1) hertz
(2) metre
(3) radian
(4) second
44) A particle is moving with speed 6 m/s along the direction of , then its velocity is :

(1) units
(2) units
(3) units
(4) units

45) and are always :-

(1) Parallel vectors

(2) Equal vectors
(3) Collinear vectors
(4) Coplanar vectors

CHEMISTRY

1) If the de-Broglie wavelength of the third Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is 8Å, the circumference of
the orbit will be:-

(1) 4Å
(2) 8Å
(3) 24Å
(4) 16Å

2) Which of the following statements concerning the four quantum numbers is false ?

(1) n gives idea of the size of an orbit

(2) ℓ gives the shape of an orbital
(3) m gives the energy of the electron in the orbital
(4) s gives the direction of spin of the electron in an orbital

3)

According to de-Broglie number of waves in 6th Bohr orbit is :-

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) None

4) The velocity of electron in the 2nd orbit of H–atom is v cm/sec. Its velocity in 5th Bohr's orbit would
be :-

(1) 5 × v cm/sec
(2)
cm/sec

(3)
cm/sec
(4) none

5) The wavelength of third line of the Balmer series for H atom is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) In which of the following electron distribution in ground state, only the Hund's rule is violated ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Rutherford's experiment on scattering of alpha particles showed for the first time that atom has :-

(1) Electrons
(2) Protons
(3) Nucleus
(4) Neutrons

8) Maximum number of total nodes is present in :-

(1) 5s
(2) 5p
(3) 5d
(4) All have same number of nodes

9) In which of the following transition will the wavelength be minimum :

(1) n = 6 to n = 4
(2) n = 4 to n = 2
(3) n = 2 to n = 1
(4) n = 3 to n = 1

10) Angular momentum for P–shell electron is :-

(1)

(2) Zero

(3)

(4) None

11) Atom's 6C13 and 8O17 are related to each other as:-

(1) Isotone's
(2) Isoelectronic
(3) Isodiapher's
(4) Isoster's

12) An atom contains 2K , 8L, 8M and 2N electrons. m = 0, s = +1/2 containing number of electrons
will be :

(1) 6
(2) 2
(3) 13
(4) 16

13) Consider the following sets of quantum numbers

n l m s

(a) 3 0 0 +1/2

(b) 2 2 1 +1/2

(c) 4 3 –2 –1/2

(d) 1 0 –1 –1/2

(e) 3 2 3 +1/2

Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible ?

(1) b, d and e
(2) a and c
(3) b, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d

14) If the kinetic energy of particle is doubled. De Broglie wave length becomes :

(1) 2 times
(2) 4 times
(3) times

(4)
times

15) Match column I with column II.

Column I Column II

Visible
(a) Lyman series i.
spectral region

(b) Balmer series ii. n2 = 4, 5….

(c) Paschen series iii. n1 = 5

Ultraviolet
(d) Pfund series iv.
spectral region
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

16) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(P) (A) 3s

(Q) (B) 2s

(R) (C) 2p

(S) (D) 1s

(1) (P) - D, (Q) - B, (R) - C, (S) - A

(2) (P) - A, (Q) - C, (R) - B, (S) - D
(3) (P) - D, (Q) - C, (R) - B, (S) - A
(4) (P) - A, (Q) - B, (R) - C, (S) - D

17) Calculate the mass of a photon with wavelength 3.6 Å.

(1) 6.135 × 10–27 kg

(2) 6.135 × 10–28 kg
(3) 6.135 × 10–33 kg
(4) 6.135 × 10–30 kg

18) Assertion (A) : Energies of the orbitals in hydrogen or hydrogen like species depend only on
quantum number 'n'.
Reason (R) : Energies of the orbitals in multielectron species depend on quantum numbers 'n' and
'ℓ'.

(1) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct; R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct; R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect; R is correct.

19) The graph between |Ψ|2 and r (radial distance) is shown below. This represents :

(1) 1s-orbital
(2) 2p-orbital
(3) 3s-orbital
(4) 2s-orbital

20) and are the examples of

(1) isobars
(2) isotopes
(3) isotones
(4) isoelectronic

21) The potential energy of an electron in the hydrogen atom is –6.8 eV. In which excited state, the
electron is present ?

(1) first
(2) second
(3) third
(4) fourth

22) According to Bohr's atomic theory, which of the following is correct ?

(1)
Potential energy of electron
(2) The product of velocity of electron and principle quantum number (n) ∝ Z2

(3)
Frequency of revolution of electron in an orbit ∝

(4)
Coulombic force of attraction on the electron ∝

23) Assertion : A spectral line will be seen for a 2px – 2py transition.
Reason : Energy is released in the form of wave of light when the electron goes from 2px to
2py orbital.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.

24) The probability of finding an electron residing in a px orbital is zero

(1) in the yz plane

(2) in the xy plane
(3) in the xz plane
(4) in the x-direction

25) Which electron is associated with the least energy:-

(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = +1/2

(2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
(3) n = 4, l = 1, m = +1, s = +1/2
(4) n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2

26) Which of the following metal ions will have maximum number of unpaired electrons :-

(1) Fe2+
(2) Co2+
(3) Ni2+
(4) Mn2+

27) Which one is in the ground state :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28)

If change in energy (ΔE) = 3 × 10–8 J, h = 6.64 × 10–34 J-s and c = 3 × 108 m/s, then wavelength of
the light is:-

(1) 6.36 × 103 Å

(2) 6.36 × 105 Å
(3) 6.34 × 10–8 Å
(4) 6.36 × 1018 Å

29) Which statement is not correct for n = 5, m = 2:-

(1) ℓ = 4
(2) ℓ = 0, 1, 2, 3
(3) ℓ = 3
(4) ℓ = 2, 3, 4

30) The correct relation according to Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is/are :-

Δx . Δp ≥
(1)

ΔE × Δt ≥
(2)

Δx × Δv ≥
(3)

(4) All of the above

31)

An e– has a spin quantum number + & a magnetic quantum number 1. It cannot be present in:-

(1) d-orbital
(2) f-orbital
(3) s-orbital
(4) p-orbital

32) Which electronic transition in a hydrogen atom releases the greatest amount of energy :-

(1) n = 3 → n = 2
(2) n = 5 → n = 3
(3) n = 6 → n = 5
(4) n = 3 → n = 6

33) The time period of revolution in the 3rd orbit of Li2+ ion is x sec. The time period of revolution in
the 2nd orbit of He+ ion, should be :-

(1) x sec

(2)
x sec

(3)
x sec

(4)
x sec

34) Correct order of radius of the 1st orbit H, He+, Li2+, Be3+ is :-

(1) H > He+ > Li2+ > Be3+

(2) Be3+ > Li2+ > He+ > H
(3) He+ > Be+3 > Li2+ > H
(4) He+ > H > Li2+ > Be3+

35) Ratio of frequency of revolution of electron in the second excited state of He+ and second state
of hydrogen is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Which of the following subshell can accommodate as many as 10 electrons ?

(1) 2d
(2) 3d
(3) 3dxy
(4)
37) Smallest wavelength occurs for :-

(1) Lyman series

(2) Balmer series
(3) Paschen series
(4) Brackett series

38) Ratio of wavelength of limiting line of Lyman and Balmer series will be :-

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 9 : 27
(3) 27 : 9
(4) 1 : 4

39) For a moving e– if uncertainity in measurment of position is zero then uncertainity is velocity will
be :-

(1) Zero
(2) ∞

(3)

(4)

40) In Cr atom number of electrons with n = 3 are:-

(1) 13
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 10

41) Assertion :- There are two radial nodes in 3s-orbital.

Reason :- There is no angular node in 3s-orbital.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

42) Assertion :- In H-atom, the energy of 3d-level is smaller than 4s-level.

Reason :- In multi-electron species, an orbital with lower value of (n + ℓ) has energy smaller than
the orbital with larger value of (n + ℓ).

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
43) ASSERTION : Cu2+ is a coloured ion.
REASON : Every ion with unpaired electron is coloured.

(1) If both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) If both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) If A is correct but R is wrong.
(4) If A is wrong but R is correct.

44) If number of electrons present in x+3 is 16, then number of protons in x will be

(1) 16
(2) 13
(3) 18
(4) 19

45) The charge on the atom containing 17 protons, 18 neutrons and 18 electrons is :-

(1) +1
(2) -2
(3) -1
(4) Zero

BIOLOGY

1) Most of the exchange surfaces of multicellular animals are lined with :-

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) White fiber

2)

How many statements are true in the following?

(i) Simple epithelium forms lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes.
(ii) In epithelial tissue, cells are loosely packed with little intercellular matrix.
(iii) Simple epithelium provides protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.

(iv) Gap junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

3) Identify the correct matching pair :

(1) Microvilli – Fallopian tube
(2) Cilia – Intestine
(3) Sterocilia – Gall bladder
(4) Ependymal epithelium – Inner lining of ventricle of brain

4) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of epithelial tissue.
Which one of these is correctly identified in the option given along with it's correct location and
function?

Epithelial
Location Function
Tissue

(1) (D) Compound Skin Protection

Duct of
(2) (A) Cuboidal Secretion
gland

Wall of
(3) (B) Squamous Excretion
blood vessels

(4) (C) Ciliated Trachea Absorption

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5)

Match the following :-

i Squamous epithelium a Surface of skin

ii Cuboidal epithelium b Blood vessel

iii Columnar epithelium c PCT

iv Compound epithelium d Intestine

(1) i(c), ii(b), iii(a), iv(d)
(2) i(b), ii(c), iii(d), iv(a)
(3) i(b), ii(c), iii(a), iv(d)
(4) i(c), ii(b), iii(d), iv(a)

6) Select the correct statements :

(A) Human body is composed of billions of cells
(B) Tissue is group of dissimilar cell origin along with intra cellular substances
(C) All complex animals consist of only four basic type of tissues
(D) Tissues are organised in specific proportion and pattern to form organ

(1) Only C and D

(2) Only B, C and D
(3) Only A, C and D
(4) All

7) In the given diagram of TS of cartilage, identify A and B.

(1) A–Collagen; B–Chondrocyte

(2) A–Osteocyte; B–Collagen
(3) A–Microtubule; B–Osteocyte
(4) A–Chondrocyte; B–Collagen

8) Given below are two statement one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :- If head of cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as one week.
Reason (R) :- The head holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the belly side
of its body.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :-

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explantion of (A)

9) How many of the following contain compound epithelium ?

Dry surface of skin, pharynx, pancreatic duct, moist surface of buccal cavity, inner lining of salivary
gland, PCT of nephron, Duodenum, Trachea, Uterus, Fallopian tube

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9

10) Pseudostratified epithelium is always

(1) Single layered

(2) Double layered
(3) Multilayered
(4) Uncertain

11) Read the following four statements (A–D) :-

(A) Epithelial tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment.
(B) Nervous tissue is ectodermal in origin
(C) Hollow organs are lined by ciliated epithelium
(D) Simple epithelium is composed of a single layer of cells.
How many of the above statements are correct.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

12) The inability to absorb nutrients may be due to damage of which type of epithelium

(1) Stratified squamous

(2) Simple Cubodial
(3) Simple Columnar
(4) Simple Squamous

13) Function of long bones are :-

(1) Support only

(2) Support and erythrocyte synthesis only
(3) Erythrocyte formation only
(4) Support, erythrocyte & leucocyte synthesis

14) Given below is a list of some excretory organs.

Nephrocyte, Nephridia, Nephron, Fat body, Malpighian tubules, Uricose glands in male cockroach,
Uricose glands in female cockroach and kidney
How many of among these are excretory organ in Periplaneta.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

15) How many of the following statements are correct ?

(A) Bones have a pliable and hard ground substance
(B) Osteocytes are present in spaces called lacunae.
(C) Long bones of the legs serve weight bearing functions.

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) A, B and C all

16) Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding connective tissues?
(i) Connective tissues are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals.
(ii) They connect and support other tissues.
(iii) They include such diverse tissues as bone, cartilage, tendons, adipose and loose connective
tissues.
(iv) In all connective tissues except blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin.

(1) (iv) only

(2) None
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) All of the above

17) Match the following columns w.r.t cockroach and choose the correct option

Column-l Column-lI

a Testes i 6th abdominal segment

b Ovary ii 4th- 6th abdominal segments

c Mushroom gland iii 2nd- 6th abdominal segments

d Spermatheca iv 6th- 7th abdominal segments

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)

18) Read the following statements w.r.t. Periplaneta :

(i) The abdomen in both males and females consists of ten segments
(ii) Anal styles are absent in females
(iii) Anal cerci is found only in females
(iv) Fore wings are called tegmina which are transparent and membranous.
(v) Hind wings are used in flight.
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) (i), (ii), (v)

(2) (iii), (iv)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v)
(4) (i), (iii)

19) The excess of nutrients which are not used immediately are converted into __(A)__ and are stored
in ___(B)___ identify A and B.

(1) A – Carbohydrates, B–Areolar tissue

(2) A–Protein, B–Epithelium tissue
(3) A–Fats, B–Adipose tissue
(4) A–Fats, B–Areolar tissue

20) Given below are two statements :

Statement I :- Goblet cells are unicellular glands.
Statement II :- Earwax is the secretion of exocrine gland.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

21) Longitudinal channels of bone called :-

(1) Haversian canal

(2) Volkmann's canals
(3) Narrow cavity
(4) Lacunae

22) Consider the following 4 statements (i) - (iv) and select the correct option stating which ones
are true and which ones are false-
(i) Ligaments are rich in protein elastin
(ii) Tendons are a type of dense regular fibrous tissues
(iii) Oesophagus have keratinized squamous epithelium
(iv) Most abundant protein found in human body is collagen

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk and digestive enzymes are secreted by :-

(1) Exocrine glands

(2) Endocrine glands
(3) Heterocrine glands
(4) Compound glands

24) Which epithelium provides maximum protection against chemical and mechanical stress?
(1) epithelium of air sac
(2) epithelium of proximal convoluted tubule
(3) epithelium of buccal cavity
(4) epithelium of fallopian tube

25)

Which of the following type of epithelial cells forms gland -

(1) Columnar cells

(2) Cuboidal cells
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Squamous cells only

26) Movement of which muscles can alter the pericardial space in cockroach :-

(1) Circular
(2) Longitudinal
(3) Alary
(4) Ciliary

27) The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in the
form of :

(1) Calcium carbonate

(2) Ammonia
(3) Potassium urate
(4) Urea

28) Pseudopenis and titillator are

(1) Part of right phallomere in male cockroach

(2) Part of left phallomere in male cockroach
(3) Part of right gonapophysis in female cockroach
(4) Part of left gonapophysis in female cockroach

29) Which of the following represent brain in cockroach ?

(1) Supra-oesophageal ganglion

(2) Sub-oesophageal ganglion
(3) Circum-oesophageal connective
(4) Prothoracic ganglion

30) Why head of cockroach can move easily in all directions ?

(1) In cockroach head and thorax fuse to form cephalothorax

(2) Due to anatomy of mouth parts
(3) Head is attached with thorax through flexible neck
(4) Thorax of cockroach is made up of three segments.

31) What external changes are visible after completion of moultings in nymphal stage of cockroach ?

(1) Anal cerci develop

(2) Mandibles develop
(3) Both forewing and hind wing develop
(4) Labium develop

32) Supra oesophageal ganglia in cockroach supply nerve to :-

(1) Labrum and labium

(2) Compound eye and Labium
(3) Compound eye and Antennae
(4) Labium and Antennae

33) Mark the false statement regarding the heart of cockroach

(1) Heart is present along the mid-dorsal line of thorax and abdomen
(2) It is 13-chambered
(3) It is neurogenic
(4) It is myogenic

34) Which of the following is the correct statement of the structure labelled 'A' in the diagram ?

(1) A pair of anal styles present in females

(2) A pair of anal cerci, arise from 10th segment present in both the sexes
(3) Phallomere, external genitalia of male cockroach
(4) Ovipositor in female

35) Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta americana

(1) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts

Nervous system located dorsally, consists of segmentally arranged gangila joined by a pair of
(2)
longitudinal connectives
(3) Males bear a pair of short thread like anal styles
(4) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut
36) The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by :

(1) Cartilage
(2) Cementing glue
(3) Muscluar tissue
(4) Arthrodial membrane

37) Assertion : Development in cockroach is Paurometabolous.

Reason : Development in Periplaneta americana is through nymphal stage.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Both assertion and reason are false.
(4) Assertion is true but reason is false.

38) Find out incorrect match :-

(1) Malpighian tubule - 100-150

(2) Spiracles - 10 pairs
(3) Hepatic caecae - 6-8 pair
(4) Antennae - 1 pair

39) Statment A : Mandibles are paired, chitinous mouth parts having grinding and incising regions.
Statement B : The respiratory system of cockroach consists of tracheal system, and exchange of
gases takes place by diffusion.

(1) Both statements A and B are correct.

(2) Only statement A is correct.
(3) Only statement B is correct.
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect.

40) Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. function–

(1) Seminal vesicle - Storage of sperm

(2) Phallic gland - Covering of spermatophore
(3) Collaterial gland - Oothecal covering
(4) Phallomeres - Nourishing sperms

41) Oothecae of cockroach has _____ eggs, which are _____.

(1) 14 to 16, fertilized

(2) 14 to 16, unfertilized
(3) 12 to 14, fertilized
(4) 12 to 14, unfertilized

42) Which type of mouth parts present in cockroach ?

(1) Lapping and chewing type
(2) Siphoning
(3) Piercing and sucking type
(4) Biting and chewing type

43) In cockroach upper lip and lower lip are, respectively :-

(1) Labium, Labrum

(2) Labium, Hypopharynx
(3) Labrum, Labium
(4) Mandible, Clypeus

44) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram :-

A B C D

(1) Labrum Labium Maxilla Mandible

(2) Labrum Labium Mandible Maxillae

(3) Labrum Mandible Labium Maxillae

(4) Labrum Maxillae Labium Mandible

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) The Forewings of Cockroach are also known as :

(1) Elytra
(2) Metathoracic wings
(3) Tegmina
(4) Both (1) and (3)

46) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Growth and locomotion are the defining feature of life.
(b) Cell is the basic unit of life in all living organisms.
(c) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.
(d) In unicellular organisms all functions are performed in a single cell.
Options :

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b) only
(3) Statements (a), (d) only
(4) Statements (a), (c) only

47) In the lipid bilayer of membrane the non polar tail of fatty acid is toward the inner part because
of :-

(1) Protection from aqueous environment

(2) Arrangement of integral protein
(3) Arrangement of extrinsic protein
(4) Movement of protein

48) Enzyme for dark reaction is found in

(1) Stroma of chloroplast

(2) Matrix of mitochnodria
(3) Nucleoplasm
(4) Peri-mitochondrial space

49) Mesosomes are _________ of cell memberane and they are usually in _________ form :-

(1) Evagination, Three

(2) Invagination, Two
(3) Invagination, Three
(4) Evagination, Four

50) According to the size of the organism, which sequence is not correct :

(1) Eukaryotic cell > Prokaryotic cell > PPLO > Virus
(2) Virus < PPLO < Prokaryotic cell < Eukaryotic cell
(3) Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Prokaryotic cell > Virus
(4) PPLO < Prokaryotic cell < Eukaryotic cell < Tissue

51) Mark the incorrect statements related to cell wall:-

(a) Non-living rigid structure
(b) Present in fungi and plants
(c) Provides barriers to undesirable macromolecules
(d) Primary wall is capable of growth
(e) Primary wall gradually diminishes as the cell matures

(1) a, b, d
(2) d only
(3) c, d
(4) All statements are correct

52) Major component of common layer between two plant cells :-

(1) Ca pectate
(2) Mg pectate
(3) Hemicellulose
(4) Pectin

53) Identify the correct matching for functions related to the cell membrane components marked as

A, B & C.

A B C

(1) Cell to cell recognition Membrane fluidity Stability

Maintains membrane stability &

(2) Stability Flip-flop movement
fluidity at different temp.

Maintains membrane stability &

(3) Cell to cell recognition Channel
fluidity at different temp.

(4) Stability Membrane stability Transport

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54) Algal cell wall is made of :-

(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin

(2) Cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals
(3) Hemicellulose and xylan
(4) Cellulose, hemicellulose, protein and pectin

55) Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes elaborated from proteins provided by-

(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Leucoplasts

56) Cytoskeleton is made up of :-

(1) Proteinaceous filaments

(2) Calcium carbonate granules
(3) Callose deposits
(4) Cellulosic microfibrils

57) Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described ?

Ribosomes - those on chloroplasts are larger (80 S) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70
(1)
S)
(2) Lysosomes-optimally active at a pH of about 8.5
(3) Thylakoids-flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts
(4) Centrioles - sites for active RNA synthesis

58) In which of the following parts of mitochondria succinic dehydrogenase enzyme is located.

(1) Perimitochondrial space

(2) Outer membrane
(3) Matrix
(4) Inner membrane

59) Main site for glycosylation is -

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Golgi body
(3) Leucoplast
(4) Cristae

60)

The small disc shaped structure present on surface of centromere through which spindle fibre
attaches is called

(1) Kinetochore
(2) Centrosome
(3) Centriole
(4) Chromatid

61)

Arrangement of microtubules in basal body of flagella is

(1) 9 + 2
(2) 9 + 0
(3) 18 + 0
(4) 27 + 2

62) Hydrolytic enzyme of lysosome activates at which pH?

(1) Acidic
(2) Basic
(3) Neutral
(4) None of above

63) Axoneme of eukaryotic flagella is made up of :-

(1) (9 + 0) arrangement
(2) (9 + 2) arrangement
(3) (0 + 2) arrangement
(4) (1 + 1) arrangement

64) Protoplast is a cell

(1) Without plasma membrane

(2) Without nucleus
(3) Undergoing division
(4) Without cell wall

65) At a number of places the nuclear envelope is interrupted by minute pores which are formed by
.........

(1) The fusion of its two membranes

(2) Penentrating the envelope by protein channels
(3) Placing a proton pump in the envelope
(4) Passing of RNA and proteins through envelope

66) Nuclear pores are the passages through which molecule move between nucleus & cytoplasm :-

(1) RNA in one direction only

(2) Protein in both direction only
(3) RNA & protein in one direction only
(4) RNA & protein in both direction

67) Chromatin contains :-

(1) DNA, Histone, Non-histone protein only

(2) DNA, RNA, Histone protein only
(3) DNA, RNA, Histone, Non-histone protein
(4) DNA, RNA, Non-histone protein only
68) Space between parallel nuclear membranes is called perinuclear space which is :-

(1) 10–50 nm
(2) 0.1 – 0.4 μm
(3) 10 – 50 Å
(4) 1 – 4 nm

69) The accompanying diagram shows a chromosome Which of the

following table refers correctly to the chromosome ?

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

70) Match the following :-

Chromosome Position of centromere
(A) Metacentric (a) At the tip
(B) Acrocentric (b) Slightly away from the middle
(C) Telocentric (c) At the middle
(D) Submetacentric (d) Almost near the tip

(1) A – a, B – b, C – c, D – d
(2) A – b, B – a, C – d, D – c
(3) A – d, B – c, C – b, D – a
(4) A – c, B – d, C – a, D – b

71) Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) Peroxisome = Breakdown of H2O2

(2) Glyoxysome = Synthesis and storage of lipids in all eukaryotic cells
(3) Glyoxysome = Conversion of fat into carbohydrates
(4) Peroxisome = b-oxidation of fatty acids

72) Statement-I : Chloroplast and mitochondrion both have 70s ribosomes.

Statement-II : Chloroplast and mitochondrion are formed by division of pre-existing organelles and
they contain DNA but lack protein synthesising machinery.
(1) Only statement I is correct
(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I & II are correct
(4) Both statement I & II are incorrect

73) Statement A:– The outer nuclear membrane usually remains continuous with the endoplasmic
reticulum.
Statement B:– Nuclear pores are formed by the fusion of two nuclear membranes.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

74) A common characteristic feature of plant sieve tube cells and most of mammalian erythrocytes is

(1) Absence of mitochondria

(2) Presence of cell wall
(3) Presence of haemoglobin
(4) Absence of nucleus

75) Assertion (A): Polysome is a helical or rosette group of ribosoems connected by the same
strand of mRNA.
Reason (R): It is meant for blocking the translation of mRNA.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

76) Surface of Golgi cisternae towards nucleus is ............ face and towards plasma membrane is
............. face.

(1) trans, cis

(2) maturing, forming
(3) maturing, trans
(4) cis, maturing

77)

Mitochondria and Chloroplasts are similar in having–

(a) two membranes (b) Cristae (c) DNA (d) Ribosomes (e) Thylakoids

(1) a, c and d
(2) a, b and d
(3) a and d
(4) a, c, d and e

78) Which of the following plastids store Fat ?

(1) Chromoplast
(2) Elaioplast
(3) Leucoplast
(4) Amyloplast

79) Contractile vacuole :-

(1) is a membrane less structure

(2) is formed by engulfing the food
(3) is important for osmoregulation
(4) is called suicidal bag of cell

80) Membrane bound vesicular structures formed by the process of packaging in the Golgi
apparatus and filled with hydrolytic enzymes, are called :-

(1) Contractile vacuoles

(2) Food vacuoles
(3) Lysosomes
(4) Centrosome

81) Classification of chromosomes is based on -

(1) the size of satellite

(2) Number of telomeres
(3) Position of centromere
(4) Position of secondary constriction

82) Which of the following is not the function of cell wall ? (i) Provides shape to the cell.
(ii) Protects the cell from mechanical damage and infection.
(iii) Helps in cell to cell connection.
(iv) Provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules.
(v) Helps in cell recognition
Options :-

(1) only (iii)

(2) only (iv)
(3) only (ii), (iii) & (v)
(4) only (v)

83) Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle?

(1) ER
(2) Mesosome
(3) Ribosome
(4) Peroxisome

84) Highest arm ratio occur in which chromosome :–

(1) Telocentric
(2) Metacentric
(3) Submetacentric
(4) Acrocentric

85) Which of the following cell organelle store water, sap excretory product and other materials not
useful for the cell ?

(1) Sap vacuole

(2) Lysosome
(3) Centrosome
(4) Micro bodies

86) The ________ confers certain unique phenotypic character of bacteria like resistance to
antibiotics. Fill the blank from given option ?

(1) Mesosome
(2) Genomic DNA
(3) Plasmid DNA
(4) Chromosomal DNA

87) Glycocalyx differ in composition and thickness among different bacteria. It could be loose sheath
called ______ and in others may be thick and tough, called the ______. Choose correct option from
following?

(1) Capsule, Slime layer

(2) Capsule, Glycocalyx
(3) Slime layer, Capsule
(4) slime layer, Glycocalyx

88) Reserve food material in prokaryotic cell are stored in cytoplasm in the form of :

(1) Phosphate granule

(2) Inclusion body
(3) Glycogen granule
(4) All of the above

89) Match the items in column-I with column-II and choose the correct option :
(1) A-V; B-III; C-I; D-IV; E-II
(2) A-V; B-III; C-II; D-IV; E-I
(3) A-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV; E-V
(4) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-V; E-II

90) Assertion (A) : Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is frequently observed in protein secretory cells.
Reason (R) : Lumen of smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the only storage site of secretory proteins.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 3 2 2 1 1 4 4 1 3 2 3 2 1 1 4 1 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 2 4 3 2 4 4 1 4 3 3 3 4 1 3 3 3 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 1 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 2 2 4 1 3 4 3 1 3 1 1 4 3 1 3 2 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 4 1 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 1 3 1 1 2 1 4 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 3 4 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 4 4 1 2 3 1 4 2 1 1 3 4 1 2 2 1 1 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 1 3 3 3 3 2 1 3 3 3 4 2 3 4 1 3 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 4 3 2 4 1 1 1 3 3 4 1 1 2 1 1 3 4 2 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 2 4 1 4 3 1 2 4 2 1 3 4 3 4 1 2 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 3 4 1 3 3 4 1 1
SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

y = 2x3 – 12x2 + 36

For maxima or minima :-

6x2 – 24 x = 0
6x(x – 4) = 0
x = 0 and x = 4

at x = 0 ⇒ = – 24 < 0 → maxima

at x = 4 ⇒ = 24 > 0 → minima

2)

slope = m =

3)

Explain :
Find the approximate value of tan(4°).

Concept :
For small angles (in radians), tan(θ) is approximately equal to θ.

Formula :

Conversion from degrees to radians: radians = degrees ×

Approximation for small angles: tan(θ) ≈ θ (where θ is in radians)

Calculation :

Convert 4° to radians: radians =

Apply the small angle approximation: tan(4°) ≈ tan ≈

Final Answer:
Option (3)

4)

2(sin15° + sin75°)2
2[sin(45° – 30°) + sin(45° + 30°)]2
2[sin45°cos30° – cos45°sin30° + sin45°cos30° + cos45°sin30°]

=3

5) rad = = 420°

6)

7)

8)

9)

sinθ is positive in I & II quadrant i.e. 0° to 90° & 90° to 180°. It is negative in between 270° to
360°

sinθ =

10)

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)
11) 1. Explanation (30 words):
We need to find the unit vector along the direction of .A unit vector has magnitude 1; so
we need to normalize the given vector.
2. Concept (20 words):
To find the unit vector, divide the vector by its magnitude. The unit vector has a magnitude of
1.
3. Formula:
The unit vector in the direction of a vector is given by:

Where is the magnitude of the vector.

4. Calculation (minimum steps):
Given vector , its magnitude is:

The unit vector is

12)
z = 5 y = 10

13)

⇒
⇒ 0.2 + q2 = 1
⇒ q2 = 0.8

14) {as we know}

So, it is possible for to be less then both and in magnitude

15)

16) R = 2A cos

⇒ R = 2 × 20 × = 20 N
17) ∵ = 0 ⇒ Angle is 90°

18)

19) is perpendicular to plane containing

is scalar quantity

20)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking whether three vectors that add up to zero
must lie in the same plane (be coplanar), and whether the reason given about vector addition
explains this assertion correctly.

Underlying Concept: The core concept is vector addition and coplanarity. When two vectors
are added, their resultant vector lies in the plane defined by those two vectors. If a third
vector balances their sum to zero, it must also lie in that plane, making the three vectors
coplanar.

Relevant Formulas: Given: \[ \vec{A} + \vec{B} + \vec{C} = \vec{0} \] Rearranged as: \[

\vec{C} = - (\vec{A} + \vec{B}) \] where: - are vectors - is the zero vector

Tips and Tricks: To check coplanarity when the sum of vectors is zero, express one vector as
the negative sum of the other two. This automatically means all three lie in one plane.

Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to think vectors summing to zero can't be coplanar,
or to assume that three vectors must always be non-coplanar unless specified otherwise.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: If one assumes Reason (R) is incorrect, it neglects the
fundamental property of vector addition. If one assumes (R) does not explain (A), they overlook
that the negative of the sum still lies in the plane, directly supporting the assertion.

21) F = Aαvβργ
[M1L1T-2] = [L2]α[LT–1]β[ML–3]γ
[M1L1T-2] = [MγL2α+β–3γT–β]
This gives: γ = 1, β = 2
and 2α + β – 3γ = 1
or α = 1; F = Av2ρ

22) Plane angle and solid angle are dimensionless but have units.

23)

Refer to the topic Deimension given in your module/ text book/ reference book .

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

(i) Dimensional variable force

It has dimensions [M/L/T2] since it has dimensional formula [MLT–2] and also it is not
constant.
i 6
(ii) Dimensionless variable Angle
Since it does not has any dimensions and also it is not constant.
ii. c
(iii) Dimensional constant Gravitational constant G since it has also dimensions and its
value is also fixed.
iii d
(iv) Dimensions constant : (pie) It has no dimensions and also its value is fixed.
iv a
Conclusion:

correct option is option B

24)

25) Momentum =
= [M] [LT–1]
= [M1L1T–1]

26) [At] = LT–2 B. = LT–2 A = LT–3 B = T–1

27) [αx] = [1], [βt] = [1]

α = [L–1], β = [T–1]

= [LT–1]

28) Addition/substraction or exp/log or trigonometric terms cannot be revealed using

diemensional analysis.

29) Question Explanation: To find the net displacement of body.

Concept: Distance and displacement.

Formula: &
Solution:

Net displacement

or
S=

30)

B. Given Data:

A. Radius of the circular path: 7 meters

C. Concept:

A. Displacement: The shortest distance between the initial and final positions of an object.

B. Circular Motion: In circular motion, the maximum displacement occurs when the insect
moves from one point on the circle to the diametrically opposite point.

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Maximum Displacement:

A. Maximum displacement = Diameter of the circle

B. Maximum displacement = 2 * Radius

C. Maximum displacement = 2 * 7 meters

D. Maximum displacement = 14 meters

E. Final Answer:

The maximum magnitude of displacement of the insect is 14 meters. option 4

31)
Conceptual
D = S for straight line motion

32) Question Explain:

The question asks under which conditions the velocity of a particle changes. Specifically, we
need to determine whether a change in the direction of velocity, the magnitude of velocity, or
both results in a change in the velocity of the particle.
Concept:
Velocity is a vector quantity, which means it has both magnitude (speed) and direction. Any
change in either the magnitude or direction of the velocity results in a change in the velocity.

A. If the direction of velocity changes (even if speed is constant), the velocity changes because
the vector's direction is altered.
B. If the magnitude (speed) of velocity changes (even if direction is constant), the velocity
changes because the speed is different.
C. A change in both magnitude and direction obviously results in a change in velocity.

Formula Used:
Velocity is a vector:
= speed in a given direction
Any change in the vector (magnitude or direction} means a change in velocity.
Answer:
Option 3: Both of the above
The velocity of a particle changes if either its magnitude or direction changes.

33)

Displacement = 2r sinθ/2 = 2r sin30 = r

Distance =

34) 1. Question Explain:

Analyze the statements about the properties of distance and identify which are true based on
its definition in physics, considering the context of motion.
2. Concept Based:
Distance is a scalar quantity representing the total length of the path traveled. It is always
non-negative, can be zero at rest, and only increases or remains constant with time.
3. Formula Used:
Distance d = Total path length covered, independent of direction.
4. Calculation (in brief):

A. Statement 1: True, distance cannot be negative as it represents magnitude.

B. Statement 2: True, distance can be zero if the object does not move.
C. Statement 3: True, distance cannot decrease as it is cumulative.
D. Conclusion: All of the above are true

35)

d = π/R
S = 2R
36) y = a + bt + ct2 – dt4

and
Hence, at t = 0, vinitial = b and ainitial = 2c.

37) Acceleration is change in velocity per unit time. One cannot tell acceleration just by
knowing velocity at a one instant of time only. That is why if velocity of the particle is zero at
some instant then its acceleration can be zero or non-zero at that instant. Statement of reason
is one the example of the asserted statement it is not the correct explanation.

38)

[a] = = LT–2 [C] = [T]

–1
[b] = [V][T] = [LT ,T] = [L]

39) All dimensional constants are not dimension less.

40) ⇒ velocity

= ma ⇒ force

⇒ displacement

⇒ velocity

41) 1. Question Explanation:

We are given two statements:

A. Assertion (A): Physical relations involving addition and subtraction cannot be derived by
dimensional analysis.
B. Reason (R): Numerical constants cannot be deduced by the method of dimensions.

We need to assess the validity of both the assertion and the reason.
2. Concept Based:

A. Dimensional Analysis: This is a method used to check the consistency of physical equations
and derive relationships between physical quantities. It can only provide relationships for
quantities that are multiplicative or involved in ratios (since dimensions are involved in
multiplication and division), not for addition or subtraction.
B. Numerical Constants: Dimensional analysis can determine the functional form of an
equation, but it cannot provide the exact numerical constant that might appear in the equation
(like π or other coefficients).

3. Formula Used:
Dimensional analysis works by comparing the dimensions of different physical quantities and
ensuring the dimensional consistency of equations.

4. Evaluation:

A. Assertion (A) is true because dimensional analysis cannot be applied to equations involving
addition or subtraction directly.
B. Reason (R) is also true because dimensional analysis does not provide numerical constants; it
can only help derive the relationship between quantities in terms of their dimensions.

Answer: 2.
Both Assertion & Reason are true, and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(Dimensional analysis cannot deal with addition or subtraction, and it cannot give numerical
constants, but the reason is not explaining why addition and subtraction are not applicable.)

42) P =

F→ ; v→

Then P →

43) Here, Kt is dimensionless. Hence,[K] = [1/t]

∴ unit of K = sec–1 = hertz.

44)

45) Question explanation: to find out the types of given two vectors.
Concept: Types of vector
Solution: As two vector may lie in a single plane so two vectors are always copanar.

CHEMISTRY

48) EXPLANATION: orbit number is given and according to de-Broglie number of waves is to
be found.
GIVEN DATA: orbit number = 6
CONCEPT: number of waves in an orbit = orbit number.
CALCULATION: number of waves in 6th orbit = 6
FINAL ANSWER : 6
CORRECT OPTION: 2
49)

50)

52)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

53)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

54)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

55)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

56)

Iso diaphers have same number of (n–p)

(n–p) = A–2Z

57) Asking : No of electron

Concept : Quantum number
Solution :
Electron 2K, 8L, 8M, 2N
Total electron = 2 + 8 + 8 + 2 = 20
Element = Ca
Electron configuration of Ca = 1s22s22p63s23p64s2
Total electron having m = 0, s = + ½
⇒1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 6
Final Ans. 6

58)

A: Question Explanation

The question asks us to identify the sets of quantum numbers that are not possible based on
the rules governing their values.

C: Concept
A. Principal Quantum Number (n): n can be any positive integer (1, 2, 3, ...).

B. Azimuthal Quantum Number (ℓ): ℓ can range from 0 to n – 1.

C. Magnetic Quantum Number (m): m can range from –ℓ to +ℓ.

D. Spin Quantum Number (s): s can be +1/2 or –1/2.

Let's analyze each set:

A. (a) n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2

A. n = 3 (valid)

B. ℓ = 0 (valid, 0 ≤ ℓ ≤ 2)

C. m = 0 (valid, -0 ≤ m ≤ 0, so m must be 0)

D. s = +1/2 (valid)

B. (b) n = 2, ℓ = 2, m = 1, s = +1/2

A. n = 2 (valid)

B. ℓ = 2 (invalid, 0 ≤ ℓ ≤ 1)

C. m = 1 (invalid)

D. s = +1/2 (valid)

C. (c) n = 4, ℓ = 3, m = -2, s = -1/2

A. n = 4 (valid)

B. ℓ = 3 (valid, 0 ≤ ℓ ≤ 3)

C. m = -2 (valid, -3 ≤ m ≤ 3)
D. s = -1/2 (valid)

D. (d) n = 1, ℓ = 0, m = -1, s = -1/2

A. n = 1 (valid)

B. ℓ = 0 (valid, 0 ≤ ℓ ≤ 0)

C. m = -1 (invalid, -0 ≤ m ≤ 0, so m must be 0)

D. s = -1/2 (valid)

E. (e) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 3, s = +1/2

A. n = 3 (valid)

B. ℓ = 2 (valid, 0 ≤ ℓ ≤ 2)

C. m = 3 (invalid, -2 ≤ m ≤ 2)

D. s = +1/2 (valid)

E: Final Answer

Sets (b), (d), and (e) are not possible.

Option (1)

59)

Question Explanation :
Find how the de Broglie wavelength changes when the kinetic energy of a particle is doubled.

Concept :
De Broglie wavelength λ is inversely proportional to the square root of kinetic energy K.E. :

Solution :
Initial kinetic energy = K.E.
New kinetic energy = 2K.E.
Since,
New wavelength λ' is

Therefore, the new de Broglie wavelength becomes times the original wavelength.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

60) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-I, Page No. 45

61)

1s → zero node
2s → one node
p → dumbell shape
3s → 2 Nodes

62)

λ = 3.6 Å = 3.6 × 10–10 m

We know that,
h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js
Velocity of photon = Velocity of light

= 6.135 × 10–33 kg

63)

Energies of the orbitals in hydrogen or hydrogen like species depend only on the quantum
number 'n' energies of the orbitals in multielectron atom depend on quantum numbers 'n' and
'ℓ' i.e. more than 1 quantum number.

64) The graphs between |Ψ2| and r are radial density plots having (n – ℓ –1) number of radial
nodes. For 1s, 2s, 3s and 2p-ortitals these are respectively.
Thus, the give graph between |Ψ2| and r represents 2s-orbital.

65) and are the examples of isobars having same mass number but different atomic
numbers.

66)

∵
n = 2 or first excited state

67)

frequency of revolution = ;

Coulombic force of attraction =

68) Both statement and explanation are wrong. 2px and 2py orbitals are degenerate orbitals,
i.e., they are of equal energy and hence no possibility of transition of electron.

69)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks where the probability of finding an electron in a pâ‚“
atomic orbital is zero. In simpler terms, it wants to know on which plane or direction the
electron cannot be found if it is in the pâ‚“ orbital.
Underlying Concept: The problem involves the shape and spatial orientation of atomic
orbitals, specifically the pâ‚“ orbital. The p orbitals have directional dependent wavefunctions,
and the electron probability density depends on the value of the wavefunction. If the
wavefunction is zero at some locations, the probability of finding the electron there is zero.

Relevant Formulas: The wavefunction for a pâ‚“ orbital can be represented as:

where: - is the coordinate along the x-axis, - is the radial distance, - is a constant related
to the atomic orbital size.
Since the probability density is proportional to , if at any point, the probability of
finding the electron there is zero.

Step-by-Step Calculation: The wavefunction for a pâ‚“ orbital involves the factor . On the

yz-plane, . Plugging this into the wavefunction: Thus, the probability

density in the yz-plane, meaning the electron cannot be found there.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that p orbitals have a nodal plane where the probability of
finding an electron is zero. For the pâ‚“ orbital, this nodal plane is the yz-plane.

Common Mistakes: Confusing which plane defines zero probability for p orbitals. For
example, thinking the zero probability is in the xy or xz plane instead of the correct yz plane
for the pâ‚“ orbital.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: • 'In the xy plane' or 'in the xz plane' are incorrect
because on these planes; hence the wavefunction is not zero. • 'In the x-direction' is
incorrect because the probability is zero on an entire plane, not just along a direction.

70)

Question Explanation:
The question asks which electron, defined by its quantum numbers, has the least energy.

Concept:
n + l rule

Explanation:
Let's calculate the (n+l) values for each option:

A. n = 3, l = 2: n + l = 3 + 2 = 5

B. n = 4, l = 0: n + l = 4 + 0 = 4

C. n = 4, l = 1: n + l = 4 + 1 = 5
D. n = 5, l = 0: n + l = 5 + 0 = 5

Comparing the 'n' values:

A. Option 1 has n=3.

B. Option 2 and 3 have n=4.

C. Option 4 has n=5.

The lowest 'n' value is 3. So option 1 has the lowest n.

Comparing (n+l) values:

A. Option 1: 5

B. Option 2: 4

C. Option 3: 5

D. Option 4: 5

The lowest (n+l) is 4. So option 2 has the lowest (n+l).

Since option 2 has the lowest (n+l) value, option 2 has the least energy.

Final Answer

The electron associated with the least energy is the one with n = 4 and l = 0.

Correct Option: (2)

71)

Mn2+ = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5

72)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

74)

If m = 2; = 2, 3, 4;
75)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the given mathematical relations correctly
represent Heisenberg's uncertainty principle. It wants to know if the principle applies to
position and momentum, energy and time, and position and velocity and if all these forms are
valid.

Underlying Concept: Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is a fundamental concept in

quantum mechanics that states it is impossible to simultaneously know certain pairs of
physical properties (like position and momentum or energy and time) of a particle with perfect
accuracy. The more precisely one property is measured, the less precisely the other can be
known. This principle highlights the intrinsic limitations on measurement at the quantum
scale.

Relevant Formulas: 1. 2. 3.
Where: - = uncertainty in position - = uncertainty in momentum - = uncertainty in
energy - = uncertainty in time - = uncertainty in velocity - = mass of the particle - =
Planck's constant

Tips and Tricks: Remember that Heisenberg's uncertainty principle has multiple forms
depending on which pair of variables is being considered. It's helpful to memorize the common
pairs: position-momentum and energy-time and relate velocity through momentum divided by
mass.

Common Mistakes: Confusing classical uncertainties with quantum uncertainties, or

assuming the uncertainty product can be zero. Also, mixing up variables or not recognizing
that all forms given are valid expressions of the principle.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: The options listing only one or two forms are
incomplete because the principle extends to multiple variable pairs. Each of the relations is a
valid expression; thus, 'All of the above' is the correct comprehensive choice.

76)

e– has m = +1, s =

s orbital e–'s cannot have m = +1 value.

77) Energy is released when e– gets de-excited from higher energy level to lower energy level.
Moreover, the energy gap is more for lower 'n' value transitions. (Bohr's correspondence
principle)

78)
CORRECT ANSWER IS

79) Order of radius

H > He+ > Li2+ > Be3+

80)

81)

2d → Not Possible
3d → 10e–

83) Explanation:- for H-spectrum, Name of series are given and Ratio of limiting line is to be
found
↑ Wavelength
Given Data:-
Series = Lyman series and Balmer series
Spectrum line = limiting line
Concept:-

λ = Wavelength , R = Rydberg Constant

z= Atomic Number
n1 = lower energy level, n₂= Higher energy level
Calculation:-
For limiting line ⇒
For lymen series ⇒ n1=1
For Balmer Series ⇒ n1=2

∝ ∝

Final answer:- 1:4

correct option :- 4

84)

Explain Question : what is the uncertainty in velocity for a moving electron, if uncertainty in
the measurement of position is zero.

Concept : Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle: Δx.Δp≥h/4π

Solution : If Δx=0, then Δp→∞ and hence Δv→∞

When position is measured exactly (zero uncertainty), velocity becomes completely uncertain
(infinite uncertainty).

Final Answer : option (2)

85)

Cr = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1

2 + 6 + 5 = 13

86)

Number of angular node = ℓ

Number of radial node = n – ℓ – 1

87)

3d 4s

n 3 4

ℓ 2 0

n+ℓ 5 4

Energy is higher for the subshell having higher value of n + ℓ.

88)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

89) 16 + 3 = 19 Proton

90) +17 – 18 = –1

BIOLOGY

92)

Only (i) statement correct

94)

correct answer is

95)
correct answer is

96) NCERT Pg # 100

97)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

98) NCERT XIth, Pg 114 (E), 114(H)

99)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

100)

correct answer is

101) Correct answer is:

1. Four
Let's analyze each statement carefully:
(A) Epithelial tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the outside
environment.

A. Correct → Epithelial tissue covers body surfaces, lines cavities, and forms glands, with one
free surface exposed to either the external environment or an internal lumen.

(B) Nervous tissue is ectodermal in origin.

A. Correct → Nervous tissue originates from the ectoderm during embryonic development.

(C) Hollow organs are lined by ciliated epithelium.

A. Correct → Ciliated epithelium lines hollow organs such as the respiratory tract, fallopian
tubes, and parts of the digestive system, helping in movement of mucus or other substances.

(D) Simple epithelium is composed of a single layer of cells.

A. Correct → By definition, simple epithelium consists of a single layer of cells that facilitate
absorption, secretion, and filtration.

103)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

105)

CORRECT ANSWER IS
106)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

107) [NCERT Pg. 114]

109) NCERT Pg.# 103

110)

OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

111)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

112)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

113)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

114) Explanation :
The epithelium of the buccal cavity provides maximum protection against chemical and
mechanical stress.

115)

NCERT XI Page # 101

116)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

117)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

118) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 115

119) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114

120) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 112

122) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114

123)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

124)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

126)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

127) OLD NCERT XI Page # 115

128) NCERT Pg. # 113

129)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

130)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

131)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

133)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

134)

NCERT XI Pg. # 112

135)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 112

136) NCERT XI (Eng.) Pg. # 125, Para 1, 2 and 3

138)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 98

139)

NCERT-XI Pg # 128

141)

NCERT - XI Pg # 94

142) Module-1 Pg. # 168

143) NCERT Pg. # 131

144) NCERT XI pg.# 132

145)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

146)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

147)

NCERT Pg # 134 – 136 – 138

148)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

149)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

150)

CORRECT ANSWER IS
151)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

152)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

153)

correct answer is

154)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

155)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

156)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

157)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

158)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

159)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

160)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

161)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

162) NCERT XI Pg # 132

163)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

164) NCERT Page No. 138

165) NCERT Page No. 138

166)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

167)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97

168)

Answer: 2. Elaioplast

Solution: Elaioplasts are specialized plastids that store fats and oils. They are a type of
leucoplast, which are colorless plastids responsible for storing various substances.

169)

Answer:
3. Is important for osmoregulationSolution:

The contractile vacuole is an organelle found in some protists and freshwater organisms. It
plays a key role in osmoregulation, which is the process of maintaining the balance of water
and solutes in the cell. The contractile vacuole collects excess water from the cell and expels it
to prevent the cell from bursting due to the intake of too much water in a hypotonic
environment. It is a membrane-bound structure, not membrane-less, and is not involved in
food engulfing or acting as a suicidal bag (which refers to lysosomes).

170)

Answer:
3. LysosomesSolution:

Lysosomes are membrane-bound vesicular structures that are formed by the Golgi apparatus
and contain hydrolytic enzymes. These enzymes are responsible for breaking down waste
materials and cellular debris. Lysosomes play a key role in the digestion and recycling of
cellular components. Contractile vacuoles are involved in osmoregulation, food vacuoles are
involved in digestion in some organisms, and the centrosome is a structure involved in cell
division.
171)

Answer:
3. Position of centromereSolution:

Chromosomes are classified based on the position of the centromere. The centromere's
position determines the shape of the chromosome and is used to classify chromosomes into
different types, such as: Metacentric, Submetacentric,Acrocentric,Telocentric.

172)

Question Explanation
To identify which of the listed functions is not a function of the cell wall.
Concept
The conncept based on cell wall
Explanation
The cell wall does not directly help in cell recognition, which is typically a function of cell
membranes and surface proteins.
Final Answer: (4)

173)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

174)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

175) NCERT Pg.#134

176) NCERT Pg.#128 (8.4)

177) NCERT Pg.#128 (8.4.1.)

178) NCERT Pg.#129 (8.4.2)

179)

CORRECT ANSWER IS

180)

NCERT Page No. # 133