ADMAS UNIVERSITY DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER

SCIENCE REMEDIAL PROGRAM PHYSICS COURSE

Worksheet II

DATE: 21/06/2017 E.C

I. Chose the right answer
1. What is impulse?
a. Change in velocity
b. Change in momentum
c. Rate of change of velocity
d. Rate of change of momentum
2. In which equation of Newton’s second law is mass assumed to be constant?
a. F=ma b. F=Δp/Δt c. F=ΔpΔt d. F=Δm/Δa
3. What is the SI unit of momentum?
a. N b. kg⋅m c. kg⋅m/s d. kg⋅m/s2
4. What is the equation for linear momentum?
a. p=mv b. p=m/v c. p=mv 2 d. p=1/2mv2
5. What is angular momentum?
a. The sum of moment of inertia and angular velocity
b. The ratio of moment of inertia to angular velocity
c. The product of moment of inertia and angular velocity
d. Half the product of moment of inertia and square of angular velocity
6. What is an isolated system?
a. A system in which the net internal force is zero
b. A system in which the net external force is zero
c. A system in which the net internal force is a nonzero constant
d. A system in which the net external force is a nonzero constant
7. In the equation p1 + p2 = p'1 + p'2 for the collision of two objects, what is the assumption made
regarding the friction acting on the objects?
a. Friction is zero.
b. Friction is nearly zero.
c. Friction acts constantly.
d. Friction before and after the impact remains the same.
8. What is an inelastic collision?
a. when objects stick together after impact, and their internal energy is not conserved
b. when objects stick together after impact, and their internal energy is conserved
c. when objects stick together after impact, and always come to rest instantaneously after
collision
d. when objects stick together after impact, and their internal energy increases
9. Consider two objects of the same mass. If a force of 100N acts on the first for a duration of 1s
and on the other for a duration of 2s, which of the following statements is true?
a. The first object will acquire more momentum.
b. The second object will acquire more momentum.
c. Both objects will acquire the same momentum.
d. Neither object will experience a change in momentum.
10. Cars these days have parts that can crumple or collapse in the event of an accident. How does
this help protect the passengers?
a. It reduces injury to the passengers by increasing the time of impact.
b. It reduces injury to the passengers by decreasing the time of impact.
c. It reduces injury to the passengers by increasing the change in momentum.
d. It reduces injury to the passengers by decreasing the change in momentum.
11. How much force would be needed to cause a 17 kg ⋅ m/s change in the momentum of an object,
if the force acted for 5 seconds?
a. 3.4 N b. 12 N c. 22 N d. 85 N
12. A billiards ball rolling on the table has momentum p1. It hits another stationary ball, which then
starts rolling. Considering friction to be negligible, what will happen to the momentum of the first
ball?
a. It will decrease.
b. It will increase.
c. It will become zero.
d. It will remain the same.
13. A ball rolling on the floor with momentum p1 collides with a stationary ball and sets it in
motion. The momentum of the first ball becomes p'1, and that of the second becomes p'2. The
directions of p1, p'1, and p'2 are all the same. Compare the magnitudes of p1 and p'2.
a. Momenta p1 and p'2 are the same in magnitude.
b. The sum of the magnitudes of p1 and p'2 is zero.
c. The magnitude of p1 is greater than that of p'2.
d. The magnitude of p'2 is greater than that of p1.
14. Two cars are moving in the same direction. One car with momentum p1 collides with another,
which has momentum p2. Their momenta become p'1 and p'2 respectively. Considering frictional
losses, compare (p'1 + p'2) with (p1 + p2).
a. The value of (p'1 + p'2) is zero.
b. The values of (p1 + p2) and (p'1 + p'2) are equal.
c. The value of (p1 + p2) will be greater than (p'1 + p'2).
d. The value of (p'1 + p'2) will be greater than (p1 + p2).
15. Two people, who have the same mass, throw two different objects at the same velocity. If the
first object is heavier than the second, compare the velocities gained by the two people as a result of
recoil.
a. The first person will gain more velocity as a result of recoil.
b. The second person will gain more velocity as a result of recoil.
c. Both people will gain the same velocity as a result of recoil.
d. The velocity of both people will be zero as a result of recoil.
16. A 145-g baseball is incoming at a velocity of 35 m/s. The batter hits the ball as shown in the
image. The outgoing baseball has a velocity of 40 m/s at the angle shown. What is the
magnitude of the x-component of the impulse?
a. 0.26 kg⋅m/s.
b. 4.09 kg⋅m/s.
c. 4.35 kg⋅m/s.
d. 8.44 kg⋅m/s.

17. For how long should a force of 130 N be applied to an object of mass 50 kg to change its speed
from 20 m/s to 60 m/s?
a. 0.031 s b. 0.065 s c. 15.4 s d. 40 s
18. In an elastic collision, an object with momentum 25 kg⋅m/s (moving to the left) collides with
another that has a momentum 35 kg⋅m/s, moving toward it to the right. The first object’s
momentum changes to 15 kg⋅m/s, and it is now moving to the right. What is the magnitude of
the momentum of the second object after the collision?
a. 5 kg⋅m/s b. 10 kg⋅m/s c. 25 kg⋅m/s d. 75 kg⋅m/s
19. Find the recoil velocity of a 65kg ice hockey goalie who catches a 0.15kg hockey puck slapped
at him at a velocity of 50m/s. Assume that the goalie is at rest before catching the puck, and
friction between the ice and the puck-goalie system is negligible.
a. -0.12m/s b. 0m/s c. 0.12m/s d. 7.5m/s
21. What kind of quantity is momentum?
a. Scalar b. Vector
22. When does the net force on an object increase?
a. When Δp decreases b. When Δt increases c. When Δt decreases
23. In the equation Δp = m (vf - vi), which quantity is considered to be constant?
a. Initial velocity b. Final velocity c. Mass d. Momentum
24. For how long should a force of 50N be applied to change the momentum of an object by
12kg⋅m/s?
a. 0.24s b. 4.15s c. 62s d. 600s
25. In the equation L = Iω, what is I?
a. Linear momentum
b. Angular momentum
c. Torque
d. Moment of inertia
26. Give an example of an isolated system.
a. A cyclist moving along a rough road
b. A figure skater gliding in a straight line on an ice rink
c. A baseball player hitting a home run
d. A man drawing water from a well
27. In which type of collision is kinetic energy conserved?
a. Elastic b. Inelastic
28. In physics, what are structure less particles that cannot rotate or spin called?
a. Elastic particles b. Point masses c. Rigid masses
29. Two objects having equal masses and speeds collide with each other and come to rest. What
type of a collision is this and why?
a. Elastic collision, because internal kinetic energy is conserved
b. Inelastic collision, because internal kinetic energy is not conserved
c. Elastic collision, because internal kinetic energy is not conserved
d. Inelastic collision, because internal kinetic energy is conserved
30. Two objects having equal masses and speeds collide with each other and come to a rest. Is
momentum conserved in this case?
a. Yes b. No
31. If an object’s velocity is constant, what is its momentum proportional to?
a. Its shape b. Its mass c. Its length d. Its breadth
32. If both mass and velocity of an object are constant, what can you tell about its impulse?
a. Its impulse would be constant.
b. Its impulse would be zero.
c. Its impulse would be increasing.
d. Its impulse would be decreasing.
33. When the momentum of an object increases with respect to time, what is true of the net force
acting on it?
a. It is zero, because the net force is equal to the rate of change of the momentum.
b. It is zero, because the net force is equal to the product of the momentum and the time
interval.
c. It is nonzero, because the net force is equal to the rate of change of the momentum.
d. It is nonzero, because the net force is equal to the product of the momentum and the time
interval.
34. How can you express impulse in terms of mass and velocity when neither of those are constant?
a. Δp=Δ(mv) b. Δp/Δt=Δ(mv)/Δt c. Δp=Δ(m/v) d. Δp/Δt=1/Δt⋅Δ(mv)
35. How can you express impulse in terms of mass and initial and final velocities?
a. Δp=m(vf−vi) b. Δp/Δt=m(vf−vi)/Δt c. Δp=(vf−vi)/m d. Δp/Δt=1/m(vf−vi)/Δt
36. Why do we use average force while solving momentum problems? How is net force related to
the momentum of the object?
a. Forces are usually constant over a period of time, and net force acting on the object is equal
to the rate of change of the momentum.
b. Forces are usually not constant over a period of time, and net force acting on the object is
equal to the product of the momentum and the time interval.
c. Forces are usually constant over a period of time, and net force acting on the object is equal
to the product of the momentum and the time interval.
d. Forces are usually not constant over a period of time, and net force acting on the object is
equal to the rate of change of the momentum.
37. Under what condition(s) is the angular momentum of a system conserved?
a. When net torque is zero
b. When net torque is not zero
c. When moment of inertia is constant
d. When both moment of inertia and angular momentum are constant
38. If the moment of inertia of an isolated system increases, what happens to its angular velocity?
a. It increases. b. It decreases. c. It stays constant. d. It becomes zero.
39. If both the moment of inertia and the angular velocity of a system increase, what must be true of
the force acting on the system?
a. Force is zero. b. Force is not zero. c. Force is constant. d. Force is decreasing.
40. Two objects collide with each other and come to a rest. How can you use the equation of
conservation of momentum to describe this situation?
a. m1v1 + m2v2 = 0
b. m1v1 − m2v2 = 0
c. m1v1 + m2v2 = m1v1
d. m1v1 + m2v2 = m1v2
41. What is the difference between momentum and impulse?
a. Momentum is the sum of mass and velocity. Impulse is the change in momentum.
b. Momentum is the sum of mass and velocity. Impulse is the rate of change in momentum.
c. Momentum is the product of mass and velocity. Impulse is the change in momentum.
d. Momentum is the product of mass and velocity. Impulse is the rate of change in moment
42. What is the equation for conservation of momentum along the x-axis for 2D collisions in terms
of mass and velocity, where one of the particles is initially at rest?
a. m1v1 = m1v1′cosθ1
b. m1v1 = m1v1′cosθ1 + m2v2′cosθ2
c. m1v1 = m1v1′cosθ1 − m2v2′cosθ2
d. m1v1 = m1v1′sinθ1 + m2v2′sinθ2
43. What is the equation for conservation of momentum along the y-axis for 2D collisions in terms
of mass and velocity, where one of the particles is initially at rest?
a. 0 = m1v1′sinθ1
b. 0 = m1v1′sinθ1 + m2v2′sinθ2
c. 0 = m1v1′sinθ1 − m2v2′sinθ2
d. 0 = m1v1′cosθ1 + m2v2′cosθ2
44. Can a lighter object have more momentum than a heavier one? How?
a. No, because momentum is independent of the velocity of the object.
b. No, because momentum is independent of the mass of the object.
c. Yes, if the lighter object’s velocity is considerably high.
d. Yes, if the lighter object’s velocity is considerably low.
45. Why does it hurt less when you fall on a softer surface?
a. The softer surface increases the duration of the impact, thereby reducing the effect of the
force.
b. The softer surface decreases the duration of the impact, thereby reducing the effect of the
force.
c. The softer surface increases the duration of the impact, thereby increasing the effect of the
force.
d. The softer surface decreases the duration of the impact, thereby increasing the effect of the
force.
46. Can we use the equation Fnet = Δp/Δt when the mass is constant?
a. No, because the given equation is applicable for the variable mass only.
b. No, because the given equation is not applicable for the constant mass.
c. Yes, and the resultant equation is F = mv
d. Yes, and the resultant equation is F = ma
47. Why does a figure skater spin faster if he pulls his arms and legs in?
a. Due to an increase in moment of inertia
b. Due to an increase in angular momentum
c. Due to conservation of linear momentum
d. Due to conservation of angular momentum
48. A driver sees another car approaching him from behind. He fears it is going to collide with his
car. Should he speed up or slowdown in order to reduce damage?
a. He should speed up.
b. He should slow down.
c. He should speed up and then slow down just before the collision.
d. He should slow down and then speed up just before the collision.
49. What approach would you use to solve problems involving 2D collisions?
a. Break the momenta into components and then choose a coordinate system.
b. Choose a coordinate system and then break the momenta into components.
c. Find the total momenta in the x and y directions, and then equate them to solve for the
unknown.
d. Find the sum of the momenta in the x and y directions, and then equate it to zero to solve for
the unknown.
50. A weightlifter lifts a 200 N barbell from the floor to a height of 2 m. How much work is done?
a. 0J
b. 100J
c. 200J
d. 400J

51. Identify which of the following actions generates more power. Carrying a 100N TV to the
second floor in 50s or carrying a 24N watermelon to the second floor in 10s?
a. Carrying a 100N TV generates more power than carrying a 24N watermelon to the same
height because power is defined as work done times the time interval.
b. Carrying a 100N TV generates more power than carrying a 24N watermelon to the same
height because power is defined as the ratio of work done to the time interval.
c. Carrying a 24N watermelon generates more power than carrying a 100N TV to the same
height because power is defined as work done times the time interval.
d. Carrying a 24N watermelon generates more power than carrying a 100N TV to the same
height because power is defined as the ratio of work done and the time interval.
52. Identify two properties that are expressed in units of joules.
a. work and force b. energy and weight c. work and energy d. weight and force
53. When a coconut falls from a tree, work W is done on it as it falls to the beach. This work is
described by the equation
W=F d=1/2mv2 − 1/2mu2
Identify the quantities F, d, m, v1, and v2 in this event.
a. F is the force of gravity, which is equal to the weight of the coconut, d is the distance the nut
falls, m is the mass of the earth, v1 is the initial velocity, and v2 is the velocity with which it
hits the beach.
b. F is the force of gravity, which is equal to the weight of the coconut, d is the distance the nut
falls, m is the mass of the coconut, v1 is the initial velocity, and v2 is the velocity with which
it hits the beach.
c. F is the force of gravity, which is equal to the weight of the coconut, d is the distance the nut
falls, m is the mass of the earth, v1 is the velocity with which it hits the beach, and v2 is the
initial velocity.
d. F is the force of gravity, which is equal to the weight of the coconut, d is the distance the nut
falls, m is the mass of the coconut, v1 is the velocity with which it hits the beach, and v2 is
the initial velocity.
54. A child slides down a playground slide. If the slide is 3 m high and the child weighs 300 N,
how much potential energy does the child have at the top of the slide? (Round g to 10m/s2.)
a. 0 J b. 100 J c. 300 J d. 900 J
55. A 0.2 kg apple on an apple tree has a potential energy of 10 J. It falls to the ground, converting
all of its PE to kinetic energy. What is the velocity of the apple just before it hits the ground?
a. 0 m/s b. 2 m/s c. 10 m/s d. 50 m/s
56. Galileo’s experiments proved that, contrary to popular belief, heavy objects do not fall faster
than light objects. How do the equations you used support this fact?
a. Heavy objects do not fall faster than the light objects because while conserving the
mechanical energy of the system, the mass term gets canceled and the velocity is
independent of the mass. In real life, the variation in the velocity of the different objects is
observed because of the non-zero air resistance.
b. Heavy objects do not fall faster than the light objects because while conserving the
mechanical energy of the system, the mass term does not get canceled and the velocity is
dependent on the mass. In real life, the variation in the velocity of the different objects is
observed because of the non-zero air resistance.
c. Heavy objects do not fall faster than the light objects because while conserving the
mechanical energy the system, the mass term gets canceled and the velocity is independent
of the mass. In real life, the variation in the velocity of the different objects is observed
because of zero air resistance.
d. Heavy objects do not fall faster than the light objects because while conserving the
mechanical energy of the system, the mass term does not get canceled and the velocity is
dependent on the mass. In real life, the variation in the velocity of the different objects is
observed because of zero air resistance.

57. Describe the transformation between forms of mechanical energy that is happening to a falling
skydiver before her parachute opens.
a. Kinetic energy is being transformed into potential energy.
b. Potential energy is being transformed into kinetic energy.
c. Work is being transformed into kinetic energy.
d. Kinetic energy is being transformed into work.
58. True or false—If a rock is thrown into the air, the increase in the height would increase the
rock’s kinetic energy, and then the increase in the velocity as it falls to the ground would
increase its potential energy.
a. True b. False
59. Identify equivalent terms for stored energy and energy of motion.
a. Stored energy is potential energy, and energy of motion is kinetic energy.
b. Energy of motion is potential energy, and stored energy is kinetic energy.
c. Stored energy is the potential as well as the kinetic energy of the system.
d. Energy of motion is the potential as well as the kinetic energy of the system.
60. The work–energy theorem states that the change in the kinetic energy of an object is equal to
what?
a. The work done on the object
b. The force applied to the object
c. The loss of the object’s potential energy
d. The object’s total mechanical energy minus its kinetic energy
61. A runner at the start of a race generates 250 W of power as he accelerates to 5 m/s. If the runner
has a mass of 60 kg, how long did it take him to reach that speed?
a. 0.33 s b. 0.83 s c. 1.2 s d. 3.0 s
62. A car’s engine generates 100,000 W of power as it exerts a force of 10,000 N. How long does it
take the car to travel 100 m?
a. 0.001 s b. 0.01 s c. 10 s d. 1,000 s
63. What is a wave?
a. A wave is a force that propagates from the place where it was created.
b. A wave is a disturbance that propagates from the place where it was created.
c. A wave is matter that provides volume to an object.
d. A wave is matter that provides mass to an object.
64. Do all waves require a medium to travel? Explain.
a. No, electromagnetic waves do not require any medium to propagate.
b. No, mechanical waves do not require any medium to propagate.
c. Yes, both mechanical and electromagnetic waves require a medium to propagate.
d. Yes, all transverse waves require a medium to travel.
65. What is a pulse wave?
a. A pulse wave is a sudden disturbance with only one wave generated.
b. A pulse wave is a sudden disturbance with only one or a few waves generated.
c. A pulse wave is a gradual disturbance with only one or a few waves generated.
d. A pulse wave is a gradual disturbance with only one wave generated.
66. Is the following statement true or false? A pebble dropped in water is an example of a pulse
wave.
a. False b. True c. undetermined
67. What are the categories of mechanical waves based on the type of motion?
a. Both transverse and longitudinal waves
b. Only longitudinal waves
c. Only transverse waves
d. Only surface waves
68. In which direction do the particles of the medium oscillate in a transverse wave?
a. Perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the transverse wave
b. Parallel to the direction of propagation of the transverse wave
Consider the Fig. Below

69. If you are on a boat in the trough of a wave on the ocean, and the wave amplitude is 1m, what
is the wave height from your position?
a. 1m b. 2m c. 4m d. 8m
70. Which of the settings—amplitude, frequency, damping, or tension—changes the amplitude of
the wave as it propagates? What does it do to the amplitude?
a. Frequency; it decreases the amplitude of the wave as it propagates.
b. Frequency; it increases the amplitude of the wave as it propagates.
c. Damping; it decreases the amplitude of the wave as it propagates.
d. Damping; it increases the amplitude of the wave as it propagates.
71. What is the amplitude of a wave?
a. A quarter of the total height of the wave
b. Half of the total height of the wave
c. Two times the total height of the wave
d. Four times the total height of the wave
72. What is meant by the wavelength of a wave?
a. The wavelength is the distance between adjacent identical parts of a wave, parallel to the
direction of propagation.
b. The wavelength is the distance between adjacent identical parts of a wave, perpendicular to
the direction of propagation.
c. The wavelength is the distance between a crest and the adjacent trough of a wave, parallel to
the direction of propagation.
d. The wavelength is the distance between a crest and the adjacent trough of a wave,
perpendicular to the direction of propagation.
73. When is the wavelength directly proportional to the period of a wave?
a. When the velocity of the wave is halved
b. When the velocity of the wave is constant
c. When the velocity of the wave is doubled
d. When the velocity of the wave is tripled
74. Do water waves push water from one place to another? Explain.
a. No, water waves transfer only energy from one place to another.
b. Yes, water waves transfer water from one place to another.
75. With reference to waves, what is a trough?
a. the lowermost position of a wave
b. the uppermost position of a wave
c. the final position of a wave
d. the initial position of the wave
76. Give an example of longitudinal waves.
a. light waves
b. water waves in a lake
c. sound waves in air
d. seismic waves in Earth’s surface
77. What does the speed of a mechanical wave depend on?
a. the properties of the material through which it travels
b. the shape of the material through which it travels
c. the size of the material through which it travels
d. the color of the material through which it travels
78. Which characteristic of a transverse wave is measured along the direction of propagation?
a. The amplitude of a transverse wave is measured along the direction of propagation.
b. The amplitude and the wavelength of a transverse wave are measured along the direction of
propagation.
c. The wavelength of a transverse wave is measured along the direction of propagation.
d. The displacement of the particles of the medium in a transverse wave is measured along the
direction of propagation.
79. What is refraction?
a. Refraction is the phenomenon in which waves change their path of propagation at the
interface of two media with different densities.
b. Refraction is the phenomenon in which waves change their path of propagation at the
interface of two media with the same density.
c. Refraction is the phenomenon in which waves become non-periodic at the boundary of two
media with different densities.
d. Refraction is the phenomenon in which waves become non-periodic at the boundary of two
media with the same density.
80. If the horizontal distance, that is, the distance in the direction of propagation, between a crest
and the adjacent trough of a sine wave is 1 m, what is the wavelength of the wave?
a. 0.5 m b. 1 m c. 2 m d. 4 m
81. Two identical waves superimpose in pure constructive interference. What is the height of the
resultant wave if the amplitude of each of the waves is 1 m?
a. 1 m b. 2 m c. 3 m d. 4 m
82. Which property of a medium cause’s refraction?
a. Conductivity b. Opacity c. Ductility d. Density
83. What is added together when two waves superimpose?
a. Amplitudes b. Wavelengths c. Velocities d. displacement
84. If a seagull sitting in water bobs up and down once every 2 seconds and the distance between
two crests of the water wave is 3 m, what is the velocity of the wave?
a. 1.5 m/s b. 3 m/s c. 6 m/s d. 12 m/s
85. A boat in the trough of a wave takes 3 seconds to reach the highest point of the wave. The
velocity of the wave is 5 m/s. What is its wavelength?
a. 0.83 m b. 15 m c. 30 m d. 180 m
86. What is thermal equilibrium?
a. When two objects in contact with each other are at the same pressure, they are said to be in
thermal equilibrium.
b. When two objects in contact with each other are at different temperatures, they are said to be
in thermal equilibrium.
c. When two objects in contact with each other are at the same temperature, they are said to be
in thermal equilibrium.
d. When two objects not in contact with each other are at the same pressure, they are said to be
in thermal equilibrium.
87. What is the zeroth law of thermodynamics?

a. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.

b. If two systems, A and B, are in thermal equilibrium with each other, and B is in thermal
equilibrium with a third system, C, then A is also in thermal equilibrium with C.
c. Entropy of any isolated system not in thermal equilibrium always increases.
d. Entropy of a system approaches a constant value as temperature approaches absolute zero.
88. If the volume of a system increases while pressure remains constant, is the value of work done
by the system W positive or negative? Will this increase or decrease the internal energy of the
system?
a. Positive; internal energy will decrease
b. Positive; internal energy will increase
c. Negative; internal energy will decrease
d. Negative; internal energy will increase
89. If 5J are taken away by heat from the system, and the system does 5J of work, what is the
change in internal energy of the system?
a. -10J b. 0J c. 10J d. 25J
90. How much work is done by a gas under 20 Pa of pressure increasing in volume by 3.0 m3?
a. -0.15 J b. 6.7 J c. -23 J d. 60 J
91. What is the net heat out of the system when 25J is transferred by heat into the system and 45J
is transferred out of it?
a. -70J b. -20J c. 20J d. 70J
92. What is pressure?
a. Pressure is force divided by length.
b. Pressure is force divided by area.
c. Pressure is force divided by volume.
d. Pressure is force divided by mass.
93. What is the SI unit for pressure?
a. pascal, or N/m3 b. coulomb c. newton d. pascal, or N/m2
94. What is pressure-volume work?
a. It is the work that is done by the compression or expansion of a fluid.
b. It is the work that is done by a force on an object to produce a certain displacement.
c. It is the work that is done by the surface molecules of a fluid.
d. It is the work that is done by the high-energy molecules of a fluid.
95. When is pressure-volume work said to be done ON a system?
a. When there is an increase in both volume and internal pressure.
b. When there is a decrease in both volume and internal pressure.
c. When there is a decrease in volume and an increase in internal pressure.
d. When there is an increase in volume and a decrease in internal pressure.
96. What are the ways to add energy to or remove energy from a system?
a. Transferring energy by heat is the only way to add energy to or remove energy from a
system.
b. Doing compression work is the only way to add energy to or remove energy from a system.
c. Doing expansion work is the only way to add energy to or remove energy from a system.
d. Transferring energy by heat or by doing work are the ways to add energy to or remove
energy from a system.
97. What is internal energy?
a. It is the sum of the kinetic energies of a system’s atoms and molecules.
b. It is the sum of the potential energies of a system’s atoms and molecules.
c. It is the sum of the kinetic and potential energies of a system’s atoms and molecules.
d. It is the difference between the magnitudes of the kinetic and potential energies of a system’s
atoms and molecules.
98. If 30.0J are added by heat to water at 12∘C, what is the change in entropy?
a. 0.105J/K b. 2.5J/K c. 0.45J/K d. 9.50J/K
99. What is the increase in entropy when 3kg of ice at 0∘C melt to form water at 0∘C?
a. 1.84×103J/K b. 3.67×103J/K c. 1.84×108J/K d. 3.67×108J/K
100. What is entropy?
a. Entropy is a measure of the potential energy of a system.
b. Entropy is a measure of the net work done by a system.
c. Entropy is a measure of the disorder of a system.
d. Entropy is a measure of the heat transfer of energy into a system.
101. Which forms of energy can be used to do work?
a. Only work is able to do work.
b. Only heat is able to do work.
c. Only internal energy is able to do work.
d. Heat, work, and internal energy are all able to do work.
102. What is the statement for the second law of thermodynamics?
a. All the spontaneous processes result in decreased total entropy of a system.
b. All the spontaneous processes result in increased total entropy of a system.
c. All the spontaneous processes result in decreased or constant total entropy of a system.
d. All the spontaneous processes result in increased or constant total entropy of a system.

103. For heat transferring energy from a high to a low temperature, what usually happens to the
entropy of the whole system?
a. It decreases.
b. It must remain constant.
c. The entropy of the system cannot be predicted without specific values for the temperatures.
d. It increases.
104. A heat engine is given 120J by heat and releases 20J by heat to the environment. What is the
amount of work done by the system?
a. -100J b. -60J c. 60J d. 100J
105. A heat engine takes in 6.0 kJ from heat and produces waste heat of 4.8 kJ. What is its
efficiency?
a. 25 percent b. 2.50 percent c. 2.00 percent d. 20 percent
106. What is heat engine?
a. A heat engine converts mechanical energy into thermal energy.
b. A heat engine converts thermal energy into mechanical energy.
c. A heat engine converts thermal energy into electrical energy.
d. A heat engine converts electrical energy into thermal energy.
107. Give an example of a heat engine.
a. generator b. battery c. water pumps d. car engine
108. What is thermal efficiency?
a. Thermal efficiency is the ratio of work input to the energy input.
b. Thermal efficiency is the ratio of work output to the energy input.
c. Thermal efficiency is the ratio of work input to the energy output.
d. Thermal efficiency is the ratio of work output to the energy output.
109. What is the mathematical expression for thermal efficiency?
a. Eff = Qh/Qh-Qc b. Eff=Qh/Qc c. Eff=Qc/Qh d. Eff=Qh-Qc/Qh
110. When are two bodies in thermal equilibrium?
a. When they are in thermal contact and are at different pressures
b. When they are not in thermal contact but are at the same pressure
c. When they are not in thermal contact but are at different temperatures
d. When they are in thermal contact and are at the same temperature
111. What is thermal contact?
a. Two objects are said to be in thermal contact when they are in contact with each other in
such a way that the transfer of energy by heat can occur between them.
b. Two objects are said to be in thermal contact when they are in contact with each other in
such a way that the transfer of energy by mass can occur between them.
c. Two objects are said to be in thermal contact when they neither lose nor gain energy by heat.
There is no transfer of energy between them.
d. Two objects are said to be in thermal contact when they only gain energy by heat. There is
transfer of energy between them.
112. To which mathematical property is the zeroth law of thermodynamics similar?
a. Associative property b. Commutative property c. Distributive property d. Transitive
property
113. Why does thermal expansion occur?
a. An increase in temperature causes inter-molecular distances to increase.
b. An increase in temperature causes inter-molecular distances to decrease.
c. An increase in temperature causes an increase in the work done on the system.
d. An increase in temperature causes an increase in the work done by the system.
114. How does pressure-volume work relate to heat and internal energy of a system?
a. The energy added to a system by heat minus the change in the internal energy of that system
is equal to the pressure-volume work done by the system.
b. The sum of the energy released by a system by heat and the change in the internal energy of
that system is equal to the pressure-volume work done by the system.
c. The product of the energy added to a system by heat and the change in the internal energy of
that system is equal to the pressure-volume work done by the system.
d. If the energy added to a system by heat is divided by the change in the internal energy of that
system, the quotient is equal to the pressure-volume work done by the system.
115. On what does internal energy depend?
a. The path of energy changes in the system
b. The state of the system
c. The size of the system
d. The shape of the system
116. The first law of thermodynamics helps us to understand the relationships among which
three quantities?
a. Heat, work, and internal energy
b. Heat, work, and external energy
c. Heat, work, and enthalpy
d. Heat, work, and entropy
117. A positive charge of 12𝜇C is 40 cm from a negative charge of 8𝜇C. What is the attractive
force between the charges? (Use K = 9 x 109 Nm2/C2)
a. 54N b. 5.4N c. 540N d. 640N
118. A positive charge of 15𝜇C exerts a repulsive force of 36 N on a second charge that 30 cm
away. What is the magnitude of the second charge?
a. 80 𝜇C b. 0.85𝜇C c. 0.8𝜇C d. 0.08𝜇C
119. Two identically charged particles separated by a distance of 20 cm repel each other with a
force of 360 N. What is the magnitude of the charges?
a. 0.4nC b. 40 𝜇C c. 4 𝜇C d. 1.6nC
120. A +8 𝜇C charge and a -12𝜇C charge experience an attractive force of 9.6 N. Determine their
separation distance?
a. 0.3m b. 30m c. 35cm d. 30cm
121. A 4 Coulomb charge and 8 Coulomb charges repel each other with 12 N of force. How much
will a 5 Coulomb charge and a 12 Coulomb charge repel each other when placed the same
distance apart?
a. 6.4 N b. 64N c. 22.5N d. 2.25N
122. The electric field 2m from a point charge has a magnitude of 8 x 104 N/C. What is the
strength of the electric field at a distance of 4.0 m?
a. 2.0 x 104 N/C b. 4.0 x 104 N/C c. 1.6 x 10 5 N/C d. 3.2 x 10 5 N/C
123. What is the electric potential at P, halfway between the charges?
a. -4.1 x 10 –2 V b. 6.8 x 10 3 V c. 1.4 x 10 4 V d. 4.1 x 10 4 V
124. An electron is positioned in an electric field. The force on the electron due to the electric field
is equal to the force of gravity on the electron. What is the magnitude of this electric field?
a. 8.93 x 10 -30 N/C b. 5.69 x 10 -12 N/C c. 5.58 x 10 -11 N/C d. 1.44 x 10 -9 N/C
-5
125. A particle with a charge of 2. 4 x 10 C is accelerated from rest through a potential
difference of 6.2 x 10 4 V. If the final speed of this particle is 9.3 x 103 m/s, what is the mass of
the particle?
a. 7.7 x 10-10 kg b. 5.2 x 10-9 kg c. 3.4 x 10-8 kg d. 1.5 x 10-1 kg
126. What is the electric potential energy of an electron located 5. 3 x 10 -11 m from the proton in a
hydrogen atom?
a. -8. 2 x 10 -8 J b. -4.3 x 10 -18 J c. -2.2 x 10 -18 J d. -1.6 x 10 -19 J
-6
127. Two 3. 0 x 10 C point charges are placed 5.0 m apart as shown below. What is the potential
at point P due to the two charges?
a. 0 V b. 5.4 x 103 V c. 7.6 x 103 V d. 1.1 x 104 V
128. An electric field strength created by charge Q is measured to be 40 N/C at a distance of 0.2 m
from the center of the charge. What is the new field strength when the distance from the center
of Q is changed to 0.4 m away with twice the charge of Q?
a. 10 N/C b. 20 N/C c. 40 N/C d. 80 N/C
129. Two parallel plates 6. 0 x 10 m long are separated by 2.5 x10-2 m and have a potential
-2

difference of 850 V. Point P is located midway between the two plates as shown below. What is
the magnitude of the electric field at point P?
a. 1. 4 x 10 4 V/ m b. 1. 7 x 10 4 V/ m c. 3.4 x 10 4 V/ m d. 6.8 x 10 4 V/ m
-6
130. A -2.3 x 10 C charge exerts a repulsive force of magnitude 0.35 N on an unknown charge
0.20 m away. What are the magnitude and polarity of the unknown charge?
a. 6.8 x 10 -7 C Negative
b. 6.8 x 10 -7 C Positive
c. 1.2 x 10 -6 C Negative
d. 1.2 x 10 -6 C Positive
Assignment From Worksheet II
Submit your Assignment up to (Ginbot- 15)
9, 10, 14, 16, 24, 37,38, 39, 40, 43, 44, 47, 48, 50, 51, 54, 55, 60, 61, 62, 67, 69,
71, 73, 75, 76, 77, 81, 83, 85, 89, 90, 91, 95, 97, 99, 103, 104, 110, 111,
114, 115, 116, 118, 120, 124, 125, 126, 128, 129.