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READING PRACTICE 9
PASSAGE 1 (QUESTION 1-10)
(A) Blood group system was developed by Austrian QUESTION 1: Which of the following is said about the idea that blood types
scientist in 1990, and in 1927 Takeji Furukawa, a professor and personalities are related?
at Tokyo Women's Teacher's School, suggested personality
A. It is used in schools and workplace to categorize (=classify: phân loại)
types and blood groups must be related. He has backed it
people.
with his own observations, and the theory quickly spread in
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Japan and beyond.(1) While it wasn't a big hit in the B. It is more popular in Asian countries than in the West.
Western world, it is taken very seriously in Japan and some
C. Its accuracy has been supported with scientific data.
other Asian countries. In fact, there were cases of
discrimination based on blood group in workplace and D. It was originally developed by a Japanese scientist.
schools. Japanese even have a special term for this type of QUESTION 2: What does the word "it" in paragraph (A) refer to?
discrimination - bura hara, or blood type harassment. Here
is what this theory is saying. A. blood
Blood Type A Personality B. school
These are (3) kind and compassionate individuals who put C. personality
others' interests and needs before their own. While they D. theory
may seem calm on the outside, they often suffer from inner
anxiety. People with blood type A personality are excellent QUESTION 3: What is learnt about blood type A personality?
listeners and make good friends. Although they get along A. They often suppress (kìm nén) their own feelings to get on well with others.
with (hoà hợp với ai đó) others quite well, it is often
achieved at the expense of (gây hại cho, tổn thất cho) their B. They suffer from anxiety as a result of their inability to communicate.
own happiness. To be liked by others they bottle up their
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emotions, which takes its toll on their nervous system. It is C. Trying to communicate with others makes them mentally exhausted.
beneficial for them to take time alone and rest well. The
D. They cannot perform in jobs that require frequent contact with others.
best jobs for this personality type are jobs that don't require
much contact with other people like programmers, QUESTION 4: Which blood type personality is intuitive (thuộc về trực giác)
accountants, or librarians. and self-confident?
Blood Type B Personality A. Type O
(B) Outgoing and friendly, this type is people person. B. Type AB
Unlike type A, type B doesn't do that at the expense of their
C. Type B
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own feelings; it comes to them naturally, without any
effort. Contact with people doesn't wear them off and they D. Type A
will do great as leaders or at any type of job that requires
dealing with people. Type B is highly adjustable; they can
feel people. They are into body language and other QUESTION 5: Which blood type personality does not let emotion affect their
methods of deciphering others. People with blood type B assessment?
personality type (4) rely on their intuition and trust A. Type A
themselves. Talking about discrimination, Korean women
consider men with blood type B personality not suitable for B. Type AB
marriage due to their playful and flirty disposition. C. Type O
Blood Type AB Personality D. Type B
Freedom-loving AB's are strong and rational (=reasonable) QUESTION 6: What is shared between blood type A personality and blood
people. They don't worry about little things and usually can type B personality?
(5) assess their life challenges without emotions getting in
the way. Despite their live for freedom and independent A. They are naturally outgoing.
thinking, they don't have issues when it comes to
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relationships and are quite popular. B. They get on well with people.
Blood Type O Personality C. They prioritize others' needs. (take priority over sth)
This type is described as responsible, practical and rule- D. They can become great leaders.
conscious and organized. They make excellent leaders and
QUESTION 7: What can the word "deciphering" (giải mã) in paragraph (B) be
their determination helps them achieve their goals. While
best replaced by?
they are usually liked by other people, they are somewhat
loners and need a lot of time alone. Typically, type O is A. cracking
physically strong and can find success in sports.
B. feeling
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C. translating
D. discovering
QUESTION 8: Which of the following sections defines an unfamiliar term?
A. Lines 14-15
B. Lines 6-7
C. Lines 19-20
D. Lines 28-29
QUESTION 9: What is NOT true about blood type O personality?
A. They use willpower to achieve what they want.
B. They are down-to-earth (thực tế) and often follow the rules.
C. Their physical strength gives them advantages in sports
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D. Their unpopularity with people makes them lonely.
QUESTION 10: Which of the following can serve best as the title of this
passage?
A. The blood type personality traits
B. What your blood type can tell you
C. The blood type personality myth
D. Applications of blood group system
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PASSAGE 2 (QUESTION 11-20)
The development of jazz can be seen as part of the QUESTION 11: The passage answers which of the following
larger continuum of American popular music, questions?
especially dance music. In the twenties, jazz became
A. What are the differences between jazz and other forms of
the hottest new thing in dance music, (12) much as
music?
ragtime had at the turn of the century, and as would
rhythm and blues in the fifties, rock in the fifties, and B. Why is dancing closely related to popular music in the United
disco in the seventies. States?
But two characteristics distinguish jazz from C. What instruments comprised a typical jazz band of the 1920's?
other dance music. The first is improvisation, the
D. Which early jazz musicians most influenced rhythm and blues
changing of a musical phrase according to the
music?
player's inspiration. Like all artists, jazz musicians
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strive for (cố gắng) an individual style, and the QUESTION 12: Which of the following appeared before jazz as a
improvise or paraphrased is a (13) jazz musician's popular music for dancing?
main opportunity to display his or her individuality.
A. Rock
In early jazz, musicians often improvised melodies
collectively, thus creating a kind of polyphony. There B. Ragtime
was little soloing as such, although some New
C. Disco
Orleans players, particularly cornet player Buddy
Bolden, achieved local fame for their ability to D. Rhythm and blues
improvise a solo. (14,16) Later the idea of the QUESTION 13: According to the passage, jazz musicians are able
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chorus-long or multi-chorus solo took hold. Louis to demonstrate their individual artistry mainly by?
Armstrong's instrumental brilliance, demonstrated
through extended solos, was a major influence in this A. being able to play all types of popular music
development. B. preparing musical arrangements
Even in the early twenties, however, some jazz bands C. reading music with great skill
had featured soloists. Similarly, show orchestras and
carnival bands often included one or two such "get- D. creating musical variations (fluctuation: biến động, thay đổi)
off" musicians. while performing
Unimproved, completely structured jazz does exist, QUESTION 14: Which of title following was the function of "get-
but the ability of the best jazz musicians to create off" musicians?
music of great cohesion and beauty during A. Teach dance routines created for new music
performance has been a hallmark of the music and its
major source of inspiration and change. B. Assist the other band members in packing up after a
performance
The second distinguishing characteristic of jazz is a
rhythmic drive that was initially called "hot" and C. Provide solo performances in a band or orchestra
later "swing'. In playing hot, a musician consciously
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departs from strict meter to create a relaxed sense of D. Lead the band
phrasing that also emphasizes the underlying
QUESTION 15: Which two types of music developed around the
rhythms. ("Rough" tone and use of moderate vibrato
same time?
also contributed to a hot sound). Not all jazz is hot,
however, many early bands played unadorned (tự A. dance/ rhythm & blue
nhiên) published arrangements of popular songs.
B. jazz/ rock
Still, the proclivity to play hot distinguished the jazz
musician from other instrumentalists. C. rock/rhythm & blue
D. jazz/ dance
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musician of
A. soloing jazz
B. "hot" or "swing" jazz
C. chorus - long jazz
D. structured jazz
QUESTION 17: The word "consciously" (có chủ ý ; be conscious
of = be aware of: hiểu biết về gì đó) is closest in meaning to
A. carelessly
B. periodically
C. purposely (on purpose: cố tình >< by accidents: vô tình)
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D. easily
QUESTION 18: The word "unadorned" is closest in meaning to
A. inexpensive
B. lovely
C. disorganized
D. plain
QUESTION 19: Which of the following terms is defined in the
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passage?
A. cornet player
B. multichorus
C. polyphony
D. improvisation
QUESTION 20: The topic of the passage is developed primarily by
means of
A. presenting contrasting points of views
B. dividing the discussion into two major areas
C. describing historical events in sequence (theo trình tự)
D. providing biographies of famous musician
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PASSAGE 3 (QUESTION 21-30)
Bees are an intricate part of the pollination process. QUESTION 21: What is the best title of the passage?
Honey bees account for more than 80 percent of the
A. Will freezing temperatures kill bees?
pollination (22) that most vegetables, fruits and
legumes need, the University of Minnesota B. Are our homes safe from a bee hive?
Extension states on its website. Normally found on
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C. How can bees make honey in freezing temperatures?
spring, summer and fall blossoms, (23) bees use the
nectar and pollen they collect for sustenance (chất D. How can bees make use of freezing temperatures?
bổ) and hive warmth. In fact, freezing temperatures QUESTION 22: How much pollination do honey bees contribute?
kill bees if they don't warm themselves within their
hive. A. About three quarters = ¾ = 75%
(A) Bees are cold-blooded; they rely on outside B. A half = 50%
temperatures to regulate their body heat. As a result, C. Over four fifths = ⅘ = 80%
honeybees typically emerge from their protective
hives during the daytime, commonly between 8 a.m D. About one third = ⅓ = 33%
and 5 p.m. They fly only when the air temperature QUESTION 23: What do bees use the nectar and pollen they have
is above 13 to 16 degrees Celsius. Freezing collected for?
temperatures essentially lock bee muscles in place;
their wings cannot beat correctly for proper and safe A. To restore nutrition and protect their hive
flight. Being in dropping temperatures causes B. To regain nutrition and heat up their hive
exposure and normally death. Freezing
C. To warm themselves and protect their hive
temperatures also affect nectar viscosity. Even if
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bees could fly in cold temperatures, flower nectar D. To defend themselves and heat up their hive
may be too thick for them to collect or the flowers
QUESTION 24: What is "emerge" in paragraph (A) closest in
may be closed in response to the weather.
meaning to?
(B) A typical beehive maintains an interior
A. disappear
temperature of about 33 to 35 degrees Celsius.
(30)When freezing temperatures arrive, bees can B. escape
survive only of they remain inside the hive in a
C. appear
large group, much like penguins huddling together
during winter. Clustering, however, does not D. activate
generate enough heat to combat death from
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freezing. Bees consume the honey reserves within
QUESTION 25: According to the passage, freezing temperatures
affect the following factors EXCEPT
the hive to create more heat. If bees leave the hive
during a cold period, they usually freeze before A. bee blood
returning. B. bee muscles
(C) Bees use freezing temperatures to their C. bee flight
advantage for hive population control. Specific
bees, called drones, are used simply for D. nectar viscosity
reproduction; they allow the queen bee to create QUESTION 26: In paragraph (B), what best paraphrases the
numerous eggs during the warm months. By sentence "Clustering, however, does not generate enough heat to
autumn, (28) the drones are not needed. Worker combat death from freezing"?
bees remove them from the hive. With cold weather
setting in, exposed drones freeze, effectively A. Enough heat can be generated if bees are likely to form bigger
controlling the hive's population. A hive may lose groups in their hive.
up to one-half of its population during winter B. Even grouping, the bees will still die if the temperature is low
months. This constant hive rejuvenation allows the
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queen to produce more worker bees for increased enough.
nectar and pollen collection.
C. Clustering is one way to produce heat against dropping
(D) Your home may have structural cavities that temperatures.
bees find desirable for a hive.(29) If you find a hive
D. There exist other methods to protect bees from death in freezing
hidden in your home's walls, do not attempt to
temperatures.
disturb it. Any vibration or disturbance to the
colony easily agitates the bees, causing possible QUESTION 27: What is the main idea of paragraph (C)?
stings and major injury or death to humans with
A. The queen bees have the responsibility to produce more workers
allergic reactions. Contact a professional bee
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bees.
removal company. It may be possible for the
professionals to use freezing weather as a hive B. Freezing weather can help to limit the number of bees in the
removal strategy. They can open the hive to the hive.
freezing elements. That process avoids the use of C. There are different groups of bees in their hive for different
pesticides and ensures the safety of your home. functions.
D. It is easy for bees to control their hive population in freezing
temperatures.
28: According to the passage, what will be displaced from the hive
in cold weather?
A. The queen
B. Drones
C. Bee eggs
D. Bee workers
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QUESTION 29: The phrase "the colony" in paragraph (D) can refer
to -__-
A. the hive
B. bee removal company
C. the structural cavity
D. the home's wall
QUESTION 30: According to the passage, which of the following
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A. Bees can withstand (chống lại) the freezing weather only by
gathering in the hive.
B. Winter is the perfect time for bees to collect the nectar and
pollen.
C. Bees may die as they carry thick flower nectar in dropping
temperatures.
D. It is noise disturbing the hive on your home's walls.
PASSAGE 4 (QUESTION 31-40)
(31) The continents may have first risen high above QUESTION 31: According to the geoscientists, when were the
the oceans of the world about 3 billion years ago,
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researchers say. That's about a billion years earlier continents assumed to first rise above the oceans?
than geoscientists had suspected for the emergence
A. 1 billion years ago
of a good chunk of the continents. Earth is the only
known planet whose surface is divided into B. 2 billion years ago
continents and oceans. Currently, the continents rise
C. 4 billion years ago
an average of about 2.5 miles (4 kilometers) above
the seafloor. (32) The continents are composed of a D. 3 billion years ago
thick, buoyant crust that's about 21 miles (35 km) QUESTION 32: What is true about the continents?
deep, on average, whereas the comparatively thin,
A. Their crust is five times thicker than the ocean floor crust.
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dense crust of the ocean floor is only an average of
about 4 miles (7 km) thick. Because the continents B. They are made of thick and underlying crust.
are so thick and buoyant, they are less likely to get
dragged downward. That's why so many ancient C. They rise about four miles above the seafloor.
continental rocks have survived in the Earth's crust. D. Their crust is dense and has average thickness.
Still, much about the earliest days of the continents,
and (33) when and how they formed, remains hotly QUESTION 33: What can be claimed about the time continents
contested. "Earth's surface is continually being were formed?
reworked by tectonics and agents of erosion, so A. It is put forward in a contest.
what may have formed long ago may no longer be
B. It is beyond human's knowledge.
present," said geologist Cin-Ty Lee at Rice
University in Houston, who was not involved in the C. It was dated from the earliest days.
current study.
D. It is subjected to argument.
(A) To shed light on the origins of continents,
be subjected to sth: chịu gì đó
isotope geochemist Bruno Dhuime at the University
of Bristol in England and his colleagues analyzed subject to sth: tuỳ vào cái gì đó
more than 13,000 samples of rocks from the
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continental crust. Some of these samples were more QUESTION 34: What does the phrase "To shed light on" in
than 4 billion years old. paragraph (A) mean?
Prior research suggested the first 2 billion years of A. To illustrate
Earth's 4.5-billion-year history were dominated by
B. To clarity
(35) volcanic activity that generated the kind of
crust now seen on the seafloor. Continent like crust, C. To ignite
which is thick and rich in silica, was thought to only
D. To release
have emerged in great volumes in the past 2 billion
years. Determining what the earliest continental QUESTION 35: According to the passage, how was the crust of the
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crust was like and when it formed can be tricky,
because Earth's crust has melted and mixed together
seafloor formed?
A. In volcanic operation
over and over again.
B. In continental mixture
The researchers found that when magma cools and
crystallizes,(36) the remaining molten rock C. In silica formation
becomes enriched in silica and rubidium, but less so D. In volcanic formation
in strontium. The relative amounts of rubidium and
strontium are therefore linked with the amount of QUESTION 36: What happens when magma cools and
silica in rock, and so could be used to extrapolate crystallizes?
when in the modern era thick, silica-rich continental A. The volume of silica in rock extends.
crust emerged.
B. Rubidium volume gradually plunges. (giảm xuống)
(B) The researchers found that modern, silica-rich
continental crust first appeared about 3 billion years C. Strontium's volume boosts.
ago. The thick, buoyant nature of these chunks of D. The molten rock diminishes in silica.
crust would have made them rise high above what
QUESTION 37: What can be inferred from the sentence "The
became the seafloor, Dhuime and his colleagues
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note online June 22 in the journal Nature thick, buoyant nature of these chunks of crust would have made
Geoscience. them rise high above what became the seafloor" in paragraph (B)?
(C) "They are showing when continents actually A. Floating crust supported the continents to rise from the oceans.
emerged from the oceans," said Lee, who wrote an
B. The seafloor is composed of comparatively thin crust.
accompanying news article in Nature Geoscience.
"Continents certainly existed early in Earth's C. The thick and floating crust rose lower than what made the
history, but perhaps many were submerged." seafloor.
It remains uncertain why continental crust made its D. The thick and buoyant chunks of crust are the cause of seafloor
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first appearance about 3 billion years ago. (39) One rising.
possibility is the onset of plate tectonics - when the
QUESTION 38: What is "accompanying" in paragraph (C) closest
plates of rock making up the planet's exterior began
in meaning to?
moving slowly over the Earth's mantly layer.
A. Cooperating
Plate tectonics would have resulted in wet rock
getting shoved down into Earth's interior, B. Following
eventually helping to form silica-rich magmas that C. Concurrent (+with: đồng thời)
make up much of the continental crust.
D. Supplementary
QUESTION 39: What can be concluded from the passage about the
appearance of continental crust about 3 billion years ago?
A. The movement of the rock plates finally made up the minority of
continental crust.
B. The moment plate tectonics began properly marked the
appearance of continental crust.
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C. No theory can be proposed for the reason why continental crust
occurred three billion years ago.
D. That the plate tectonics moved over the Earth's outer layer
probably helps form lots of the continental crust.
QUESTION 40: Which of the following best describes the
organization of this passage?
A. A general statement of an issue followed by detailed possible
explanations
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B. A discussion of different aspects raised from some theories
about the question
C. A general presentation followed by a detailed discussion of both
sides of an issue
D. A list of possible explanations to a question followed by a
detailed discussion
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