READING SKILLS – Part 2

Edited by master Hien Thao

CONTENT

Theme 1. Environment and Nature (Môi trường và thế giới tự nhiên) ............................. 2

Theme 2. Education (Giáo dục) ........................................................................................... 10

Theme 3. Science and Technology (Khoa học và Công nghệ) .......................................... 18

Theme 4. Sport (Thể thao) ................................................................................................ 24

Theme 5. Jobs and Employment (Công việc và tuyển dụng)............................................ 29

Theme 6. Health and Lifestyles (Sức khỏe và lối sống) ..................................................... 35

Theme 7. Cultural Diversity (Đa dạng văn hóa) ................................................................ 42

Theme 8. Family and friends (Gia đình và bạn bè) ........................................................... 49

Theme 9. Entertainment and Media (Giải trí và truyền thông) ....................................... 57

Theme 11. Social Issues (Các vấn đề xã hội) ...................................................................... 71

Theme 12. Other topics (Tổng hợp bài đọc hay từ các chủ đề khác) ............................... 76

Hanoi, November 2022

Page 1
Theme 1. Environment and Nature (Môi trường và thế giới tự nhiên)

PASSAGE 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions

Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects - an estimated 90 percent of the world's species
have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining patterns
of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public.
Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such
as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the
striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned
that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the British
islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical
and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical
zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant
groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather
man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon
basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly "personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates, In
other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the
documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made.
Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness
of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they
are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and
incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.
Question 1. The word "consequence" in line 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. result B. explanation C. analysis D. requirement

Question 2. The word "striking" in line 7 is closest in meaning to .

A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful

Question 3. Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues
because they .
A. are simple in structure B. are viewed positively by people
C. have been given scientific names D. are found mainly in temperate climates
Question 4. The word “exceed” in line 10 is closest in meaning to .
A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to

Question 5. Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?

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A. European butterfly habitats
B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups

Question 6. All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity
EXCEPT .
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones
B. patterns of distribution of species in each region
C. migration among temperate and tropical zones
D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants

Question 7. Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Their physical characteristics B. Their adaptation to different habitats
C. Their names D. Their variety
Question 8. The author mentions tropical Asia in lines 16 - 17 as an example of a location where .
A. butterfly behavior varies with climate
B. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
C. butterflies are affected by human populations
D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species

Question 9. The word "generated" in line 24 is closest in meaning to .

A. requested B. caused C. assisted D. estimated

PASSAGE 5
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
In the twentieth century, people demand on unlimited energy to power their everyday lives. A wide range of
energy-run devices and modern conveniences are taken for granted, and although it may seem that we will
never be in danger of living without those conveniences, the fact is that many supplies of energy are
dwindling rapidly. Scientists are constantly searching for new sources of power to keep modern society
running. Whether future populations will continue to enjoy the benefits of abundant energy will depend on
the success of this research.
Coal, oil, and natural gas supply modern civilization with most of its power. However, not only are supplies
of these fuels limited, but they are a major source of pollution. If the energy demands of the future are to be
met without seriously harming the environment, existing alternative energy sources must be improved or
further explored and developed. These include nuclear, water, solar, wind, and geothermal power, as well as
energy from new, nonpolluting types of fuels. Each of these alternatives, however, has advantages and
disadvantages.
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Nuclear power plants efficiently produce large amounts of electricity without polluting the atmosphere;
however, they are costly to build and maintain, and they pose the daunting problem of what to do with
nuclear wastes. Hydroelectric power is inexpensive and environmentally safe, but impractical for
communities located far from moving water. Harnessing energy from tides and waves has similar
drawbacks. Solar power holds great promise for the future but methods of collecting and concentrating
sunlight are as yet inefficient, as are methods of harnessing wind power.
Every source of energy has its disadvantages. One way to minimize them is to use less energy. Conservation
efforts coupled with renewable energy resources, such as a combination of solar, water, wind, and
geothermal energy and alternative fuels, such as alcohol and hydrogen, will ensure supplies of clean,
affordable energy for humanity’s future.
Question 1. The passage mainly discusses .
A. the current situation of energy demands
B. the way to use less energy
C. the difficulties in finding new sources of energy
D. the advantages and disadvantages of some sources of energy
Question 2. The word “dwindling” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to “ .”
A. rocketing B. declining C. doubling D. distributing
Question 3. According to the passage, which of the following is the limitation of natural gas?
A. It is difficult to be collected
B. It is expensive
C. It is polluted
D. It is inaccessible for people who live far away the cities

Question 4. What does the word “its” in paragraph 2 refer to?

A. modern civilization B. oil C. natural gas D. coal
Question 5. The word “drawbacks” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to “ .”
A. objections B. methods C. disabilities D. problems
Question 6. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Just like coal, nuclear energy is a pollutant to the air.
B. It is hard for people away from the water to use hydroelectric power
C. Scientists are on their way to look for alternative sources of energy.
D. Wind power and solar power have the same problem.

Question 7. What can be inferred from the passage?

A. Scientists will not resume their search for new types of energy until they have found a perfect one.
B. Using hydroelectric energy can be harmful to our atmosphere.
C. It is impossible for some groups of people to enjoy water energy.

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D. The only way to decrease the disadvantages of sources of energy is to use them less.

Question 8. What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to?

A. nuclear power plants
B. amounts of electricity
C. advantages and disadvantages
D. nuclear wastes

Question 9. What can be inferred about wind power?

A. Combining it and solar energy can ensure humanity’s future energy demands.
B. People living away from rivers and oceans cannot benefit it.
C. It is promising but very expensive.
D. An effective way to harness wind power has not been figured out.

Question 10. The author of this passage is trying to .

A. support scientists in their search for new sources of energy
B. present some new sources of energy
C. explain the benefits and shortcomings of some kinds of energy
D. calculate the energy demands of the future

PASSAGE 6
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.

Algae is a primitive form of life, a single-celled or simple multiple-celled organism that is able to conduct
the process of photosynthesis. It is generally found in water but can also be found elsewhere, growing on
such surfaces as rocks or trees. The various types of algae are classified according to pigment.
Blue-green algae, or Cyanophyta, can grow at very high temperatures and under high-intensity light. This is
a microscopic type of algae, and some species consist of only one cell. Blue-green algae is the oldest form
of life with photosynthetic capabilities, and fossilized remains of this type of algae more than
3.4 billion years old have been found in parts of Africa.
Green algae, or Chlorophyta, is generally found in fresh water. It reproduces on the surfaces of enclosed
bodies of water such as ponds or lakes and has the appearance of a fuzzy green coating on the water. In large
quantities, this type of algae may reproduce enough to give a green color to an entire lake.
Brown algae, or Phaeophyta, grows in shallow, temperate water. This type of algae is the largest in size and
is most recognizable as a type of seaweed; kelp is a type of brown algae that has grown to lengths of up to
200 feet. Its long stalks can be enmeshed on the ocean floor, or it can float freely on the ocean’s surface.
Red algae, or Rhodophyta, is a small, delicate organism found in the deep waters of the subtropics, where it
often grows with coral. This type of algae has an essential role in the formation of coral reefs: it secretes
lime from the seawater to foster the formation of limestone deposits.
(Source: TOEFL Reading)
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Question 1. What is the author’s main purpose?

A. To show what color algae is

B. To differentiate the various classifications of algae
C. To describe where algae is found
D. To clarify the appearance of different types of algae

Question 2. Which of the following is NOT true about algae?

A. All types have only one cell. B. It can be found out of water.
C. It can use photosynthesis. D. It is not a relatively new form of life.
Question 3. The word “pigment” in the passage means .

A. size B. composition C. shape D. color

Question 4. The word “microscopic” in the passage is closest in meaning to .

A. visual B. mechanical C. tiny D. bacterial

Question 5. Algae remnants found in Africa are .

A. still flourishing B. extremely old C. photogenic D. red in color

Question 6. Green algae is generally found .

A. on the ocean floor B. in fresh water

C. throughout ponds and lakes D. surrounding enclosed bodies of water
Question 7. According to the passage, red algae is .

A. sturdy B. fragile C. huge D. found in shallow water

Question 8. This passage would most probably be assigned reading in a course on .

A. chemistry B. botany C. physics D. zoology

PASSAGE 7
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
Each advance in microscopic technique has provided scientists with new perspectives on the function of
living organisms and the nature of matter itself. The invention of the visible-light microscope late in the
sixteenth century introduced a previously unknown realm of single-celled plants and animals. In the
twentieth century, electron microscopes have provided direct views of viruses and minuscule surface
structures. Now another type of microscope, one that utilize x-rays rather than light or electrons, offers a
different way of examining tiny details, it should extend human perception still farther into the natural worlD.
The dream of building an x-ray microscope dates to 1895, its development, however, was virtually halted in
the 1940's because the development of the electron microscope was progressing rapidly. During the 1940's
electron microscopes routinely achieved resolution better than that possible with a visible-light microscope,
while the performance of x-ray microscopes resisted improvement. In recent years, however, interest in x-
ray microscopes has revived, largely because of advances such as the development of new sources of x-ray

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illumination. As a result, the brightness available today is millions of times that of x-ray tubes, which, for
most of the century, were the only available sources of soft x-rays.
The new x-ray microscopes considerably improve on the resolution provided by optical microscopes. They
can also be used to map the distribution of certain chemical elements. Some can form pictures in extremely
short time, others hold the promise of special capabilities such as three dimensional imaging. Unlike
conventional electron microscopy, x-ray microscopy enables specimens to be kept in air and in water, which
means that biological samples can be studied under conditions similar to their natural state. The illumination
used, so-called soft x-rays in the wavelength range of twenty to forty angstroms (an angstrom is one ten-
billionth of a meter), is also sufficiently penetrating to image intact biological cells in many cases. Because
of the wavelength of the x-rays used, soft x-ray microscopes will never match the highest resolution possible
with electron microscopes. Rather, their special properties will make possible investigations that will
complement those performed with light- and electron-based instruments.
Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The detail seen through a microscope B. Sources of illumination for microscopes
C. A new kind of microscope D. Outdated microscopic technique
Question 2. According to the passage, the invention of the visible-light microscope allowed scientists to
.
A. see viruses directly
B. develop the electron microscope later on
C. understand more about the distribution of the chemical elements
D. discover single celled plants and animals they had never seen before.

Question 3. The word "minuscule" in the passage is closest in meaning to .

A. circular B. dangerous C. complex D. tiny
Question 4. Why does the author mention the visible light microscope in the first paragraph?
A. To begin a discussion of sixteenth century discoveries.
B. To put the x-ray microscope in historical perspective
C. To show how limited its uses are
D. To explain how it functioned

Question 5. Why did it take so long to develop the x-ray microscope?

A. Funds for research were insufficient.
B. The source of illumination was not bright enough until recently.
C. Materials used to manufacture x-ray tubes were difficult to obtain.
D. X-ray microscopes were too complicated to operate.

Question 6. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about x-ray microscopes in the
future?
A. They will probably replace electron microscopes altogether.

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B. They will eventually be much cheaper to produce than they are now.
C. They will provide information not available from other kinds of microscopes.
D. They will eventually change the illumination range that they now use.

Question 7. The word "those" in the passage refers to .

A. properties B. investigations C. microscopes D. x-rays

PASSSGE 8
Read the following passage on transport, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8.
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from the
Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general public as
tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic
sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano for
example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a
series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the
open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they
hit the shallow waters near the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas of
the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that
causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit
Japan often come with little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the
Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis
have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their
imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami,
when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese
coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the
other side of the world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves
more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled
around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
Question 1. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses .
A. tides B. underwater earthquakes
C. storm surges D. tidal waves
Question 2. According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves except that .
A. they are the same as tsunamis
B. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
C. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
D. this terminology is not used by the scientific community

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Question 3. The word “displaced” in line 6 is closet in meaning to .
A. located B. moved C. filtered D. not pleased
Question 4. It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis .
A. are often identified by ships on the ocean
B. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
C. causes serve damage in the middle if the ocean
D. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters

Question 5. In line 9, water that is “shallow” is NOT .

A. coastal B. tidal C. clear D. deep
Question 6. A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more
likely to .
A. arrive without warning B. originate in Alaska
C. be less of a problem D. come from greater distances
Question 7. The possessive “their” in line 15 refers to .
A. these tsunamis B. thousands of miles
C. the inhabitants of Hawaii D. the Hawaii Islands
Question 8. The passage suggests that the tsunamis resulting from the Krakatoa volcano .
A. resulted in little damage
B. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
C. actually traveled around the world
D. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands

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Theme 2. Education (Giáo dục)
PASSAGE 4
ACADEMICS AREN’T THE PROBLEM
Studies about how students use their time might shed light on whether they face increased academic and
financial pressures compared with earlier eras.
Based on data about how students are spending time, academic or financial pressures don’t seem to be greater
now than a generation ago. The data show that full-time students in all types of colleges study much less
now than they did a generation ago - a full 10 hours a week less. Students are also receiving significantly
higher grades. So it appears that academic pressures are, in fact, considerably lower than they used to be.
The time-use data don’t suggest that students feel greater financial pressures, either. When the time savings
and lower opportunity costs are factored in, college appears less expensive for most students than it was in
the 1960s. And though there are now full-time students working to pay while in college, they study less even
when paid work choices are held constantly.
In other words, full-time students do not appear to be studying less in order to work more. They appear to
be studying less and spending the extra time on leisure activities or fun. It seems hard to imagine that students
feeling increased financial pressures would respond by taking more leisure.
Based on how students are spending their time then, it doesn’t look as though academic or financial pressures
are greater now than a generation ago. The time-use data don’t speak directly to social pressures, and it may
well be that these have become more intense lately.
In one recent set of data, students reported spending more than 23 hours per week either socializing with
friends or playing on the computer for fun. Social activities, in person or on computer, would seem to have
become the major focus of campus life. It is hard to tell what kinds of pressures would be associated with
this change.
Question 1. The study’s conclusion that students’ workload now is not greater than before is based on
.
A. what students achieve with greater load B. how students spend their time
C. how students work through college D. what college demands from students
Question 2. Research studies have shown that pressures put on students nowadays are .
A. not greater than the past B. getting ever greater
C. much greater than the past D. more diversified
Question 3. Students get higher grades as .
A. students study much harder B. academic workload appears more attractive
C. academic workload appears less demanding D. college’s facilities are much better
Question 4. According to the author, the fact that students have more time for leisure is a proof that .
A. financial pressure on students is not a problem B. academic work disinterests them
C. they are active with extra-curricular activities D. they cannot find extra jobs
Question 5. All factors considered, college now seems .
A. more costly B. ever more expensive
C. much more expensive D. less expensive

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10
Question 6. According to the author, the fact that more full-time students are working for pay .
A. does not change students’ campus life B. indicates that students are academically pressured
C. is not an indication of pressures D. shows that students are financially pressured
Question 7. Students nowadays seem to be studying less and .
A. spending more time on leisure B. spending more time doing odd jobs
C. giving more time to sports D. taking more extracurricular activities
Question 8. The word “focus” in the last paragraph can be replaced with .
A. central activity B. primary theme C. headline D. biggest importance
Question 9. The author finds it hard to point out .
A. how students’ campus life becomes subject to academic pressure
B. what is associated with the change in students’ campus life
C. the cause to students’ financial pressure
D. how the background of students’ campus life is built

Question 10. The word “Academics” in the title mostly means

A. students’ workload in college B. college students and tutors
C. professors and research students D. graduate students’ workload
PASSAGE 5
In early civilization, citizens were educated informally, usually within the family unit. Education meant
simply learning to live. As civilization became more complex, however, education became more formal,
structured, and comprehensive. Initial efforts of the ancient Chinese and Greek societies concentrated solely
on the education of males. The post-Babylonian Jews and Plato were exceptions to this pattern. Plato was
apparently the first significant advocate of the equality of the sexes. Women, in his ideal state, would have
the same rights and duties and the same educational opportunities as men. This aspect of Platonic philosophy,
however, had little or no effect on education for many centuries, and the concept of a liberal education for
men only, which had been espoused by Aristotle, prevailed.
In ancient Rome, the availability of an education was gradually extended to women, but they were taught
separately from men. The early Christians and medieval Europeans continued this trend, and single-sex
schools for the privileged through classes prevailed through the Reformation period. Gradually, however,
education for women, in a separate but equal basis to that provided for men, was becoming a clear
responsibility of society. Martin Luther appealed for civil support of schools for all children. All the Council
of Trent in the 16th century, the Roman Catholic Church encouraged the establishment of free primary
schools for children of all classes. The concept of universal primary education, regardless of sex, had been
born, but it was still in the realm of the single-sex school.
In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, co-education became a more widely applied principle of educational
philosophy. In Britain, Germany, and the Soviet Union the education of boys and girls in the same classes
became an accepted practice. Since World War II, Japan and the Scandinavian countries have also adopted
relatively universal co-educational systems. The greatest negative reaction to co- education has been felt in
the teaching systems of the Latin countries, where the sexes have usually been separated at both primary and
secondary levels, according to local conditions.

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A number of studies have indicated that girls seem to perform better overall and in science in particular. In
single-sex classes, during the adolescent years, pressure to conform to stereotypical female gender roles may
disadvantage girls in traditionally male subjects, making them reluctant to volunteer for experimental work
while taking part in lessons. In Britain, academic league tables point to high standards achieved in girls’
schools. Some educationalists, therefore, suggest segregation of the sexes as a good thing, particularly in
certain areas, and a number of schools are experimenting with the idea.
Question 1. Ancient education generally focused its efforts on .
A. young people only B. on male learners C. both sexes D. female learners
Question 2. Education in early times was mostly aimed at .
A. teaching skills B. learning new lifestyles C. learning to live D. imparting survival
skills
Question 3. The first to support the equality of the sexes was
A. the Chinese B. the Jews C. Plato D. the Greek
Question 4. The word “informally” in this context mostly refers to an education occurring .
A. in a department B. in classrooms C. ability D. outside the school
Question 5. When education first reached women, they were .
A. separated from men B. locked up in a place with men
C. deprived of opportunities D. isolated from a normal life
Question 6. When the concept of universal primary education was introduced, education .
A. was intended for all the sexes B. was intended to leave out female learners
C. was given free to all D. focused on imparting skills
Question 7. Co-education was negatively responded to in .
A. conservative countries B. Japan
C. South American countries D. the Scandinavian countries

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PASSAGE 6
LEVELS OF VOCABULARY
Most languages have several levels of vocabulary that may be used by the same speakers. In English, at least
three have been identified and described.
Standard usage includes those words and expressions understood, used, and accepted by a majority of the
speakers of a language in any situation regardless of the level of formality. As such, these words and
expressions are well defined and listed in standard dictionaries. Colloquialisms, on the other hand, are
familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in informal
speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal situations. Almost all idiomatic expressions
are colloquial language. Slang, refers to words and expressions understood by a large number of speakers
but not accepted as appropriate formal usage by the majority. Colloquial expressions and even slang may
be found in standard dictionaries but will be so identified. Both colloquial usage and slang are more common
in speech than writing.
Colloquial speech often passes into standard speech. Some slang also passes into standard speech, but other
slang expressions enjoy momentary popularity followed by obscurity. In some cases, the majority never
accepts certain slang phrases but nevertheless retains them in their collective memories. Every generation
seems to require its own set of words to describe familiar objects and events.
It has been pointed out by a number of linguists that three cultural conditions are necessary for the creation
of a large body of slang expressions. First, the introduction and acceptance of new objects and situations in
the society; second, a diverse population with a large number of subgroups; third, association among the
subgroups and the majority population.
Finally, it is worth noting that the terms “standard”, “colloquial”, and “slang” exist only as abstract labels
for scholars who study language. Only a tiny number of the speakers of any language will be aware that they
are using colloquial or slang expressions. Most speakers of English will, during appropriate situations, select
and use three types of expressions.
Question 1. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. Standard speech B. Idiomatic phrases
C. Different types of vocabulary D. Dictionary usage.
Question 2. How is slang defined by the author?
A. Words and phrases accepted by the majority of formal usage.
B. Words or phrases understood by the majority but not found in standard dictionaries.
C. Words or phrases that are understood by a restricted group of speakers.
D. Words or phrases understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as formal usage.

Question 3. The word “appropriate” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .

A. old B. large C. correct D. important
Question 4. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. words B. slang phrases C. memories D. the majority
Question 5. What does the author mean by the statement in paragraph 2: “Colloquialisms, on the other hand,
are familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in informal
speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal situations.”?
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A. Familiar words and phrases are found in both speech and writing in formal settings.
B. Familiar situations that are experienced by most people are called colloquialisms.
C. Informal language contains colloquialisms, which are not found in more formal language.

D. Most of the speakers of a language can used both formal and informal speech in their appropriate
situations.

Question 6. Which of the following is true of standard usage?

A. It can be used in formal and informal settings. B. It is limited to written language.
C. It is only understood by the upper classes. D. It is constantly changing.
Question 7. The author mentions all of the following as requirements for slang expressions to be created
EXCEPT .
A. new situations B. a new generation
C. interaction among diverse groups D. a number of linguists

PASSAGE 7
Although most universities in the United States are on a semester system, which offers classes in the fall and
spring, some schools observe a quarter system comprised of fall, winter, spring, and summer quarters. The
academic year, September to June, is divided into three quarters of eleven weeks each beginning in
September, January, and March: the summer quarter, June to August, is composed of shorter sessions of vary
length.
There are several advantages and disadvantages to the quarter system. On the plus side, students who wish
to complete their degrees in less than the customary four years may take advantage of the opportunity to
study year round by enrolling in all four quarters. In addition, although most students begin their programs
in the fall quarter, they may enter at the beginning of any other quarters. Finally, since the physical facilities
are kept in operation year round, the resources are used effectively to serve the greatest number of students.
But there are several disadvantages as well. Many faculties complain that eleven- week term is simply not
enough for them to cover the material required by most college courses. Students also find it difficult to
complete the assignments in such a short period of time.
In order to combine the advantages of the quarter system with those of the semester system some colleges
and universities have instituted a three-term trimester system. In fourteen weeks, faculty and students have
more time to cover material and finish course requirements, but the additional term provides options for
admission during the year and accelerates the degree programs for those students who wish to graduate early.
Question 1. Where would this passage most probably be found?
A. In a college catalog for a university in the United States
B. In a general guide to colleges and universities in the United States
C. In an American newspaper
D. In a dictionary published in the United States
Question 2. When may students begin studying in a school that uses a quarter system?
A. September B. Summer semester only

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C. at the beginning of any quarter D. at the beginning of the academic year
Question 3. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
A. Universities in the United States B. The academic year
C. The Quarter System D. The Semester System
Question 4. The word “customary” could best be replaced by
A. Agreeable B. lengthy C. traditional D. limited
Question 5. The word “instituted” is closest meaning to .
A. Recommended B. established C. considered D. attempted
Question 6. A semester system .
A. has two major sessions a year
B. is not very popular in the United States
C. gives students the opportunity to study year round
D. has eleven-week sessions
Question 7. Which of the following characteristics does NOT apply to trimester system?
A. They allow student to graduate early.
B. They provide more options for admission.
C. They are long enough to cover the course material
D. They last eleven weeks.

Passage 8
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8.
Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the ability to do
outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it is simply something a
person is born with. Others, however, argue that the potential for great achievement can be developed. The
truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will increase a child’s
ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right upbringing and opportunities.
As one psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.”
Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins that were
separated shortly after birth and brought up by different parents. They found that achievement was based on
intelligence, and later influenced by the child’s environment. One case involving very intelligent twins was
quoted. One of the twins received a normal upbringing, and performed well. The other twin, however, was
brought up by extremely supportive parents and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities.
That twin, though starting out with the same degree of intelligence as the other, performed even better. This
case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the environment, the more
a child’s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link between intelligence and the
socioeconomic level of a child’s family. In other words, it does not matter how poor or how rich a family is,
as this does not affect intelligence.
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Gifted people cannot be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them. One professor of
music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier than ordinary performers,
often because their parents had recognized their ability. These musicians then needed at least ten years’ hard
work and training in order to reach the level they were capable of attaining. People who want to have very
gifted children are given the following advice:
- Marry an intelligent person.
- Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.
- Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.

- Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instruments is essential for a child who
wants to become an outstanding musician.

Question 1. The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires .

A. an expensive education B. good musical instruments
C. parental support and encouragement D. wealthy and loving parents
Question 2. The word “others” used in the first paragraph refers to .
A. other people B. other scientists C. other children D. other geniuses
Question 3. When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins, they found that .
A. ability depends mainly on intelligence and achievement
B. intelligence and development are irrelevant to ability
C. ability depends both on intelligence and on environment
D. different twins generally have different levels of ability

Question 4. Scientists chose twins for their study because .

A. each twin has the same environment as his/her twin
B. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing
C. they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities
D. they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence

Question 5. How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?
A. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured.
B. They practice playing their instruments for many years.
C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas.
D. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic.

Question 6. The remark: “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.” in the passage means
that in order to become a genius .
A. you need to have good health and good nourishment
B. you need intelligence and you need to develop it

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C. you should try to move quickly and efficiently
D. you must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard

Question 7. The word “favorable” in the passage mostly means .

A. “good for someone and making him/her likely to be successful”
B. "helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to other people”
C. “of high quality or an acceptable standard”
D. “under the control or in the power of somebody else”

Question 8. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT .

A. a child’s intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parents
B. to become successful, a child needs both native intelligence and development
C. studying different twins is a useful scientific procedure
D. educational development depends completely on economic well-being

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Theme 3. Science and Technology (Khoa học và Công nghệ)
PASSAGE 4
Stellar Astronomy
Stellar Astronomy Many parameters are used to describe a star. One of them is its temperature, which can
be determined by simple observation; the color of a star and its temperature are related. Once the color of a
star is identified, its temperature can be calculated through the use of scientific principles such as Wien’s
Law.
There are different types of stars in the universe. For our purposes, we can classify them into two categories:
variable and binary. Variable stars are those which show some degree of variability in their luminosity and
magnitude. Luminosity refers to the amount of energy radiated by a star, while magnitude refers to its
brightness.
At time the degree of variability may be high, requiring a telescope with an equally high light-gathering
power. This can be achieved by using a lens of large diameter, such as that of a reflecting telescope. Binary
stars are those found in pairs that revolve around a common center.
The closest star to the sun, Proxima Centauri, is a binary star. To observe a binary star, the resolving power
of a telescope – its ability to distinguish between two close objects having a small angular separation – must
be very high. Stellar astronomy is possible for a everyone, well beyond mere looking at the sky with the
naked eye in order to identify constellations. With two basic of telescopes and rudimentary knowledge,
much exploration can be achieved.
Question 1. What is the topic of the passage?
A. Types of stars and how to observe them.
B. The differences between binary and variable stars
C. Types of telescopes
D. The color and temperature of stars
Question 2. The temperature of a star can be determined by its
A. Size B. Color C. Movement D. Luminosity
Question 3. Which of the following is true of variable stars?
A. They vary in brightness
B. They rotate around each other.
C. They vary in color.
D. The size of the telescope must vary in order to observe them.

Question 4. Why does the author write that “stellar astronomy is possible for everyone”?
A. To emphasize that it is easy to become an astronomer
B. To encourage people to try observing stars
C. To show that most people know a lot about stars
D. To explain why astronomy is popular

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Question 5. Why does a telescope need to have a high-gathering ability?
A. To view stars which do not give off very much light
B. To view stars with a high variability
C. To support a lens of large diameter
D. All of the above

Question 6. The word “parameters” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. Measurements B. Laws C. Categories D. Numbers
Question 7. The word “ rudimentary” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. Advanced B. Formal C. Basic D. Important
Question 8. The word “radiated” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. Received B. Sent out C. Burnt D. Controlled
PASSAGE 5
PLANET EARTH
The planet Earth is 4,600 million years old. It is difficult for us to think about such an enormous length of
time because it has little meaning for us. We can, however, simplify the idea to make it more understandable.
We can compare a Planet Earth to a person of forty-six years of age.
Nothing is known about the first seven years of this person’s life. Very little information exists about the
middle period either. It was only at the age of forty-two that Earth began to flower.
Dinosaurs and great reptiles did not appear until one year ago, when the planet was forty-five. Mammals
only arrived eight months ago. In the middle of last week, man-like apes became ape-like man and began to
communicate with each other. Last weekend, the Ice Age covered the Earth.
Modern man has only been around for four hours. During the last hour man discovered agriculture. The
Industrial Revolution and the rise of large cities began just sixty seconds ago.
During that short time, modern man has made a rubbish tip of the Earth. In one minute, he has increased his
numbers to terrible proportions, and has caused the death of hundreds of species of animals. He has robbed
and destroyed the planet in his search of fuels. Now he stands, like a violent, spoilt child, delighted at the
speed of his rise to power, on the edge of the final mass destruction and of killing all the life which exists in
the solar system.
Question 1. The passage tells us that
A. a great deal is known about how the Earth was created.
B. life on Earth began relatively recently.
C. more is known about the first part of the Earth’s life than the middle part.
D. Scientists are well-informed about the middle part of the Earth’s life.

Question 2. We are informed by the author that

A. the dinosaurs appeared during the middle period.
B. mammals and great reptiles both appeared at the same time.
C. there were more than forty-five kind of great reptiles.
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D. ape-like men appeared before the last Ice Age.

Question 3. The author is mainly interested in

A. the time when the man first evolved from apes.
B. what has happened since the Industrial Revolution.
C. the effects of farming.
D. the period before the last Ice Age.

Question 4. It would appear that the main danger ahead is that

A. man will destroy everything on Earth. B. man will use up all the fuels.
C. there will be a population explosion. D. more species of animals may die out.
Question 5. he author’s general view of man seems to be that
A. he has no right to be so destructive. B. he has been the most successful animal.
C. he will be able to control the environment. D. he has learnt a lot from past mistakes

PASSAGE 6
As computers have become powerful tools for the rapid and economic production of pictures, computer
graphics has emerged as one of the most rapidly growing fields in computer science. It is used routinely in
such diverse areas as business, industry, art, government, education, research, training, and medicine.
One of the initial uses of computer graphics, and ultimately its greatest use, has been as an aid to design,
generally referred to as computer-aided design (CAD). One of its greatest advantages is that designers can
see how an object will look after construction and make changes freely and much more quickly than with
hand drafting. For three-dimensional rendering of machine parts, engineers now rely heavily on CAD.
Automobile, spacecraft, aerospace, and ship designers use CAD techniques to design vehicles and test their
performance. Building designs are also created with computer graphics systems. Architects can design a
building layout, create a three-dimensional model, and even go for a simulated "walk" through the rooms or
around the outside of the building.
Business graphics is another rapidly growing area of computer graphics, where it is used to create graphs,
charts, and cost models to summarize financial, statistical, mathematical, scientific, and economic data. As
an educational aid, computer graphics can be used to create weather maps and cartographic materials.
Computer art also has creative and commercial art applications, where it is used in advertising, publishing,
and film productions, particularly for computer animation, which is achieved by a sequential process.
Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Routine uses of computers B. Computer graphics applications
C. The rapidly growing field of computer science D. Computers as the, architects of the future
Question 2. The word "it" in line 3 refers to
A. computer graphics B. computer science C. fields D. computers
Question 3. According to the passage, architects use CAD to
A. inspect buildings B. create graphs
C. make cartographic materials D. create three-dimensional models
Question 4. According to the passage, engineers use CAD for
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A. a simulated "walk" through model rooms B. rendering machine parts
C. making cost models D. advertising
Question 5. The word "applications" in the passage means
A. jobs B. uses C. creativity D. layers
Question 6. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a use of computer graphics in business?
A. Char B. Cost models C. Graphs D. Hiring

PASSAGE 7
As computers have become powerful tools for the rapid and economic production of pictures, computer
graphics has emerged as one of the most rapidly growing fields in computer science. It is used routinely in
such diverse areas as business, industry, art, government, education, research, training, and medicine.
One of the initial uses of computer graphics, and ultimately its greatest use, has been as an aid to design,
generally referred to as computer-aided design (CAD). One of its greatest advantages is that designers can
see how an object will look after construction and make changes freely and much more quickly than with
hand drafting. For three-dimensional rendering of machine parts, engineers now rely heavily on CAD.
Automobile, spacecraft, aerospace, and ship designers use CAD techniques to design vehicles and test their
performance. Building designs are also created with computer graphics systems. Architects can design a
building layout, create a three-dimensional model, and even go for a simulated "walk" through the rooms or
around the outside of the building.
Business graphics is another rapidly growing area of computer graphics, where it is used to create graphs,
charts, and cost models to summarize financial, statistical, mathematical, scientific, and economic data. As
an educational aid, computer graphics can be used to create weather maps and cartographic materials.
Computer art also has creative and commercial art applications, where it is used in advertising, publishing,
and film productions, particularly for computer animation, which is achieved by a sequential process.
Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Routine uses of computers B. Computer graphics applications
C. The rapidly growing field of computer science D. Computers as the, architects of the future
Question 2. The word "it" in line 3 refers to
A. computer graphics B. computer science C. fields D. computers
Question 3. According to the passage, architects use CAD to
A. inspect buildings B. create graphs
C. make cartographic materials D. create three-dimensional models
Question 4. According to the passage, engineers use CAD for
A. a simulated "walk" through model rooms B. rendering machine parts
C. making cost models D. advertising
Question 5. The word "applications" in the passage means
A. jobs B. uses C. creativity D. layers
Question 6. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a use of computer graphics in business?
A. Char B. Cost models C. Graphs D. Hiring
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PASSAGE 8
The advent of the Internet may be one of the most important technological developments in recent years.
Never before have so many people had access to so many different sources of information. For all of the
Internet’s advantages, however, people are currently becoming aware of some of its drawbacks and are
looking for creative solutions. Among the current problems, which include a general lack of reliability and
numerous security concerns, the most crucial is speed.
First of all, the Internet has grown very quickly. In 1990, only a few academics had ever heard of the Internet.
In 1996, over 50 million people used it. Every year, the number of people with access to the Internet doubles.
The rapid growth has been a problem. The computer systems which run the Internet have not been able to
keep up with the demand. Also, sometimes, a request for information must pass through many routing
computers before the information can be obtained. A request for information made in Paris might have to
go through computers in New York, Los Angeles and Tokyo in order to obtain the required information.
Consequently, the service is often slow and unpredictable. Service also tends to be worse when the Internet
is busiest - during the business day of the Western Hemisphere - which is also when companies need its
service the most.
Some people are trying to harness the power of networked computers in such a way as to avoid this problem.
In 1995, a group of American universities banded together to form what has come to be known as Internet
II. Internet II is a smaller, more specialized system intended for academic use. Since it is more specialized,
fewer users are allowed access. Consequently, the time required to receive information has decreased.
Businesses are beginning to explore a possible analogue to the Internet II. Many businesses are creating
their own “Intranets”. These are systems that can only be used by the members of the same company. In
theory, fewer users should translate into a faster system. Intranets are very useful for large national and
international companies whose branches need to share information. Another benefit of an Intranet is an
increased amount of security. Since only company employees have access to the information on the Intranet,
their information is protected from competitors. While there is little doubt that the Internet will eventually
be a fast and reliable service, industry and the academic community have taken their own steps toward
making more practical global networks.
Question 1. According to the passage, which of the following is not true of the Internet ?
A. It tends to be unreliable. B. It has created a sense of financial security.
C. It is too expensive to access. D. It has become increasingly less popular.
Question 2. According to the passage, which of the following statements was true in 1990?
A. The Internet was a secure means to gain information.
B. The Internet experienced enormous growth rates.
C. Internet data proved to be impractical.
D. Few people were using the Internet.

Question 3. According to the author, what is one reason why the Internet is sometimes slow?
A. Phone lines are often too busy with phone calls and fax transmissions to handle Internet traffic.
B. Most people do not have computers that are fast enough to take advantage of the Internet.
C. Often a request must travel through many computers before it reaches its final destination.
D. Scientists take up too much time on the Internet , thus slowing it down for everyone else.
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Question 4. The word “ obtained” in line 10 is closest in meaning to .
A. understood B. acquired C. purchased D. distributed
Question 5. The word “ harness” in line 15 is closest in meaning to .
A. utilize B. disguise C. steal D. block
Question 6. According to the passage, what benefits does Internet II have over the Internet I?
A. There is no governmental intervention regulating Internet II.
B. Small businesses pay higher premiums to access to the Internet.
C. Internet II contains more information than the Internet.
D. Internet II has fewer users and therefore is faster to access.

Question 7. The word “ analogue” in line 20 most nearly means .

A. similarity B. alternative C. use D. solution
Question 8. The word “their” in line 25 refers to .
A. competitors B. company employees C. Intranets D. companies
Question 9. With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?
A. Fewer academic communities need to create their own Internet systems.
B. Companies who develop their own Intranets are limiting their information data base.
C. The technology used by Internet creators is too complex for computer owners to understand.
D. An Internet system with fewer users would be quicker.

Question 10. All of the following are advantages of business “ Intranets” mentioned in the passage
EXCEPT
A. they provide a higher level of security.
B. they share information with other company branches.
C. they are cheaper than other alternatives.
D. they move data faster.

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Theme 4. Sport (Thể thao)
PASSAGE 4
Synchronized swimming is a hybrid of swimming, gymnastics, and dance, consisting of swimmers (either
individuals, duets, trios, teams or combos) performing a synchronized routine of elaborate and dramatic
moves in the water, accompanied by music.
Synchronized swimming demands proficient water skills, and requires strength, endurance, flexibility, grace,
artistry and precise timing, not to mention exceptional breath control while upside down underwater.
Developed in the early 1900 s in Canada, it is a sport performed almost exclusively by women, although
there is some participation by men. In its early form it was some-times known as 'water ballet".
It is a Summer Olympic Games sport. First demonstrated in 1952, it has been an official event since 1984.
Olympic and World Championship competition is not currently open to men; but other international and
national competitions allow male competitors: Both USA Synchro and Synchro Canada allow men to
compete with women.
Competitors show off their strength, flexibility, and aerobic endurance required to perform difficult routines.
Swimmers perform two routines for the judges, one technical and one free.
Synchronized Swimming is governed internationally by FINA (Federation Internationale de Natation
Amateur).
Question 1. Synchronized Swimming
A. is performed to music B. is performed under water
C. synchronizes with elaborate movements D. is performed in groups
Question 2. Which of the following is not required in Synchronized Swimming?
A. breath control B. water skills C. attractive movement D. aerial acrobatics
Question 3. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Synchronized Swimming is mostly performed by women.
B. Synchronized Swimming was added to the Olympic program in 1984.
C. Men have no right to compete in Synchronized Swimming.
D. In the USA, the competition is open to both men and women.

Question 4. In the Synchronized Swimming competition, competitors

A. show off their technique and their freedom
B. are required to do a fixed routine
C. have to give two sets of performance
D. have a choice between technic& routine and free routine
Question 5. It can be concluded from the passage that
A. Synchronized Swimming is a popular water sport
B. Synchronized Swimming is a hazardous sport
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C. Synchronized Swimming is a team sport
D. Synchronized Swimming is a summer sport

PASSAGE 5
Most of us are interested in one kind of sport or another, even if we don’t go in for it actively. Lots of people
take up a particular sport at an early age, for example tennis, skiing, or ice-skating. If they get up to a suitably
high standard, they may go in for local competitions or even championships. But special training is hard
work and most young people don’t keep it up. Many of them opt out when they come up against tough
competition.
To become a professional in any sport, you have to go through with a strict training schedule. And it’s not
easy! It means doing without some of life’s little pleasures, too. For example, to build up your physical
strength you may have to stick to a special diet and give up some of your favorite foods. Smoking and alcohol
are out, and to keep fit you have to work out regularly every day.
Sometimes it all pays off, but the road to success is long and there are no guarantees. No wonder that
countless young talents decide to settle for a regular job instead, and, as far as professional sport is concerned,
for looking on as spectators.
Question 1. The term of “go in for” in the passage means
A. give up B. participate in C. begin D. like
Question 2. According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE about special training?
A. It is not easy work. B. It hardly works.
C. Most young people try to work out regularly. D. Most young people strictly follows a special diet
Question 3. The word “opt out” in the passage means
A. struggle B. fight C. give up D. change
Question 4. To become professional in any sports, your strict training schedule would probably involve

A. enjoying all life’s pleasures B. eating all kinds of foods

C. sticking to a special diet D. smoking and drinking alcohol
Question 5. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?
A. Few people take up a particular sport at an early age.
B. The road to success in sports is long but there are guarantees.
C. All of the people who play some sports can go in for local competitions or even championships.
D. There are many young talents who decide to settle for a regular job.

PASSAGE 6
The Asian Games owes its origins to small Asian multi-sport competitions. The Far Eastern Championship
Games were created to show unity and cooperation among three nations: Japan, the Philippines and China.
The first games were held in Manila, the Philippines in 1931. Other Asian nations participated after it was
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organized.
After World War II, a number of Asian countries became independent. Many of the new independent Asian
countries wanted to use a new type of competition where Asian dominance should not be shown by violence
and should be strengthened by mutual understanding. In August 1948, during the 14th Olympic Games in
London, Indian representative Guru Dutt Sondhi proposed to sports leaders of the Asian teams the idea of
having discussions about holding the Asian Games. They agreed to form the Asian Athletic Federation. A
preparatory committee was set up to draft the charter for the Asian amateur athletic federation. In February,
1949, the Asian athletic federation was formed and used the name Asian Games Federation. It was decided
to hold the first Asian Games in 1951 in New Delhi the capital of India. They added that the Asian Games
would be regularly held once every four years.
Question 1. The text is about .
A. the origin of the Asian Games
B. the Far Eastern Championship Games
C. the Games in Manila
D. the relationship of Japan, the Philippines, and China
Question 2. The Far Eastern Championship Games
A. were held in Manila after World War II B. were held in Japan
C. were attended by all countries in Asia D. had the participation of only three nations
Question 3. The 14th Olympic Games took place .
A. In 1913 B. in August 1948 C. Before the World War II D. in February 1949
Question 4. The Asian Games .
A. were first held in China
B. were first held in Indian
C. were suggested establishing by a Londoner.
D. were held in same year of the 14th Olympic Games
Question 5. The Asian Games were first held in .
A. 1931 B. 1941 C. 1948 D. 1951
PASSAGE 7
Footracing is a popular activity in the United States. It is seen not only as a competitive sport but also as a
way to exercise, to enjoy the camaraderie of like-minded people, and to donate money to a good cause.
Though serious runners may spend months training to compete, other runners and walkers might not train at
all.
Those not competing to win might run in an effort to beat their own time or simply to enjoy the fun an
exercise. People of all ages, from those of less than one year (who may be pushed in strollers) to those in
their eighties, enter into this sport. The races are held on city streets, on college campuses, through parks,
and in suburban areas, and they are commonly 5 to 10 kilometers in length.
The largest footrace in the world is the 12 kilometer Bay to Breakers race that is held in San Francisco every
spring. This race begins on the east side of the city near San Francisco Bay and ends on the west side at the
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Pacific Ocean. There may be 80,000 or more people running in this race through the streets and hills of San
Francisco. In the front are the serious runners who compete to win and who might finish in a little as 34
minutes. Behind them are the thousands who take several hours to finish. In the back of the race are those
who dress in costumes and come just for fun. One year there was a group of men who dresses like Elvis
Presley, and another group consisted of the firefighters who were tired together in a long line and who were
carrying a fire hose. There was even a bridal party, in which the bride was dressed in a long white gown and
the groom wore a tuxedo. The bride and groom threw flowers to bystanders, and they were actually married
at some point along the route.
Question 1. The main purpose of this passage is to
A. encourage people to exercise B. describe a popular activity
C. make fun of runners in costume D. give reasons for the popularity of footraces
Question 2. The word "camaraderie" as used in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by which of the
following?
A. games B. companionship C. jokes D. views
Question 3. The phrase "to a good cause" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by which of the
following?
A. for an award B. to reward the winner
C. for a good purpose D. to protect a wise investment
Question 4. The word “those” in the second paragraph refers to which of the following?
A. racers B. sports organizers C. babies D. elderly people
Question 5. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage?
A. Some runners looked like Elvis Presley.
B. Some runners were ready to put out a fire.
C. Some runners were participating in a wedding.
D. Some runners are serious about winning.

Question 6. Which of the following is NOT implied by the author?

A. Footraces appeal to a variety of people.
B. Walkers can compete for prizes
C. Entering is a good way to give support to an organization.
D. Running is a good way to strengthen the heart.

Question 7. The word "costumes" as used in the third paragraph most likely refers to
A. cloaks B. uniforms C. outfits D. suits
Question 8. The word “bystanders” as used in the third paragraph refers to which of the following?
A. walkers B. participants C. spectators D. judges

PASSAGE 8
If you enjoy water sports, Hawaii is the place for you. You can go swimming all year round in the warm
water. You can go sport fishing from the shore or from a boat. If you like boats, you can go sailing, canoeing,
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or windsurfing. Or, you can also try some other water sports that are especially popular in Hawaii: surfing,
snorkeling and scuba diving. Surfing is a sport which started in Hawaii many years ago. The Hawaiians
called it “he’e nalu”, which means “to slide on a wave”. If you want to try surfing, you need, first of all, to
be a good swimmer. You also have to have an excellent sense of balance. You must swim out from the beach
with your surfboard under your arm. When you get to where the waves begin to break, you wait for a calm
moment. Then you try to stand up on the board. The wave will begin to rise under you. You must try to steer
the board with your feet so you stay on top of the wave. The important thing is to keep your balance and not
fall down. If you can manage this, you will have an exciting ride all the way in to the shore. Scuba diving
and snorkeling are two ways to get a close look at the beauty lying below the surface of the ocean. The waters
off the Hawaiian Islands are clean, clear and warm. They contain hundreds of kinds of colorful fish. The
undersea world is made even more colorful by the coral reefs of red, gold, white and light purple. Among
these reefs there may be larger fish or sea turtles. Scuba diving allows you to see the most interesting
undersea sights. “Scuba” means “Self-contained Underwater Breathing Apparatus”, that is, equipment for
breathing and swimming around far under water. In Hawaii, you can take special courses to learn how to
scuba dive. After the courses, you can get a certificate that will allow you to dive alone. Since it can be
dangerous, proper instruction and great care are always necessary when you are scuba diving. If you are
adventurous, you might try snorkeling instead of scuba diving. Less equipment is needed, just a face mask,
a breathing tube (snorkel) and flippers for your feet. It only takes a few minutes to learn how to snorkel.
Although you cannot dive deep into the water, you can swim with your face below the surface. Breathing
through the tube, you float on the surface, and keep yourself moving with your flippers. Even from the
surface like this, there will be plenty of color and beauty to see.
Question 1. The passage is about .
A. surfing B. tourist activities in Hawaii
C. water sports around the world D. water sports in Hawaii
Question 2. You can infer from the passage that .
A. swimming in Hawaii can be dangerous
B. you need to take a course for all water sports
C. water sports are all expensive
D. everyone can find a way to enjoy sports in the water

Question 3. You can go deep under water when you are .

A. surfing B. snorkelling C. scuba diving D. swimming
Question 4. If you want to try surfing, you .
A. need to be a good swimmer B. should go to Australia
C. need to wait for a windy day D. should not go out into deep water.
Question 5. The water around the Hawaiian Islands is .
A. full of dangerous fish B. often quite cold
C. usually very dark D. full of colorful things to see
Question 6. The word “this” in the second paragraph refers to .
A. an exciting ride B. standing on the board

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C. staying on top of the wave D. keeping balanced and not falling down
Question 7. According to the passage, scuba diving .
A. is an ancient Hawaiian water sport B. requires special equipment and training
C. requires good balance D. is the only way to see the fish underwater
Question 8. The word “proper” in paragraph 4 refers to .
A. appropriate B. short and clear C. informative D. enthusiastic

Theme 5. Jobs and Employment (Công việc và tuyển dụng)

PASSAGE 4
INTERNET JOBS
Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to work online. Of course, there
are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new media has
opened up a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of technical expertise.
Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of webmaster. However, it is hard
to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and responsibilities depend on what
tasks a particular organization needs a webmaster to perform.
To specify the job description of a webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software that the
website the webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and software require different
skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally (at the firm
itself) or externally (renting shared space on the company servers). Finally, the responsibilities of a
webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or whether the firm will provide
people to help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can create an accurate webmaster job
description.
Webmaster is one type of Internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the latest computer applications.
However, there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high demand. Content
jobs require excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as a “new media”.
The term “new media” is difficult to define because it encompasses a constantly growing set of new
technologies and skills. Specifically, it includes websites, email, Internet technology, CD-ROM, DVD,
streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer
illustration, video games, virtually reality, and computer artistry.
Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job professions. With many
companies having to downsize in tough economic items, the outsourcing and contracting of freelance
workers online has become common business practice. The Internet provides an infinite pool of buyers from
around the world with whom freelancers are able to work on projects with companies outside their own
country of residence.
How much can a person make in these kinds of career? As with many questions related to today’s evolving
technology, there is no simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay people with technical
Internet skills salaries well above $70,000 a year. Generally, webmasters start at about $30,000 per year, but
salaries can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have been known to make between $40,000 and
$70,000 per year.
Question 1. The word “identify” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. name B. estimate C. discount D. encounter
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Question 2. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. companies B. new job opportunities C. hardware and software D. webmasters
Question 3. According to the passage, which of the following is true of webmasters?
A. They never work independently.
B. They require a minimal level of expertise.
C. The duties they perform depend on the organization they work for.
D. They do not support software products.

Question 4. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT .
A. There are online job available for workers with minimal computer skills.
B. Webmasters must have knowledge of the latest computer applications.
C. Online workers cannot free themselves from the office.
D. “New media” is not easy to define.
Question 5. Which of the following is not mentioned as part of “new media”?
A. websites B. Internet technology C. writing skills D. video games
Question 6. It can be inferred from the passage that .
A. online workers can work full-time online
B. only skilled workers make good money
C. it is easy to become a webmaster
D. workers with limited computer skills cannot work online

Question 7. What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To inform people about the tasks and role of a webmaster.
B. To inform people about the computer industry.
C. To inform people about employment related to the Internet.
D. To explain why webmasters make a lot of money.
Question 8. Which of the following is true of the job of freelance writers?
A. They may work with others at the company. B. They require in-depth knowledge of applications.
C. They manage hardware and software. D. It is considered a “content” job.

PASSAGE 5
Attention All Employees!
The executives at Juniper Insurance have decided to purchase mobile phones for all employees. They are
hoping that the new phones will improve communication between members of different departments. The
company will be purchasing forty-seven TM-I6I cell phones from Globalphone Inc. at the end of July. You
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will receive your new phone during the first week of August. Each employee will be given 200 minutes free
each month. If you use more than your monthly limit, you will be charged an additional $25 each month.
We understand that this is a new policy that may potentially be problematic, so we welcome any comments
or suggestions you may have. To monitor the new phone system’s effectiveness, we will be asking employees
to fill out a survey.
The date for this survey has not been chosen yet. However, it will most likely take place during the third
week of August. Also, employees with other suggestions about how to help employees communicate better
should fill out an Employee Comments Form, which can be obtained from Betty Gill in the Human Resources
Department.
Question 1. What does the company plan to do in July?
A. Implement an overtime policy B. Hire more office workers
C. Change insurance companies D. Buy phones for better communication
Question 2. How will the company evaluate the effectiveness of the strategy?
A. By conducting a poll B. By interviewing employees
C. By calling the customers D. By testing the product.
Question 3. Why would someone contact Betty Gill?
A. To get her e-mail address B. To transfer to Human Resources
C. To obtain the proper form D. To write a memo.
PASSAGE 6
A pilot cannot fly by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in dense fog, a pilot
must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not very good at determining speeds
of approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are moving. The basic principle of
radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls
helps a person determine the size of the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of
sound waves. Radio waves travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set
sends out a short burst of radio waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off
objects. By determining the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can
determine the distance between the radar set and other objects. The word “radar”, in fact, gets its name from
the term “radio detection and ranging”. “Ranging” is the term for detection of the distance between an object
and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar is essential for air traffic control,
tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and storms.
Question 1. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The nature of radar. B. History of radar. C. Alternatives to radar. D. Types of ranging.
Question 2. According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects?
A. Shape. B. Size. C. Speed. D. Weight.
Question 3. The word “exemplified” in the passage can be replaced by .
A. “specified” B. “resembled” C. “illustrated” D. “justified”
Question 4. The word “shouts” in the passage most closely means .
A. “exclaims” B. “yells” C. “shoots” D. “whispers”
Question 5. Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage?
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A. argumentative B. explanatory C. humorous D. imaginative
Question 6. According to the passage, the distance between a radar set and an object can be determined by
.
A. the time it takes for a burst of radio waves to produce echoes when the waves bounce off the object
B. the term “ranging” used for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set
C. the time it takes for the radio waves to produce echoes and bounce off the object
D. the time it takes for the echoes produced by the radio waves to return to the radar set

Question 7. Which type of waves does radar use?

A. tidal B. sound C. heat D. radio
Question 8. The word “tracking” in the passage most closely means .
A. sending B. searching for C. ranging D. repairing
Question 9. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. A history of flying. B. Other uses of radar.
C. The technology used by pilots. D. Uses of some technology.
Question 10. What might be inferred about radar?
A. It takes the place of a radio.
B. It has improved navigational safety.
C. It was developed from a study of sound waves.
D. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane

PASSAGE 7
When you first apply for the job, you might not succeed in getting it. It’s always a good idea to ask them to
explain to you what prevented you from beating the other candidates. Don’t complain about the situation,
but ask them to advise you on what you can do better next time. Perhaps the interviewers disproved of or
disagreed with something you said. Perhaps they just glance at your application and saw something that
made it easy to choose between you and another candidate. Don’t regard it as a failure, but recognize it as a
chance to learn more. As long as you don’t worry too much about it and continue to believe in yourself,
you’ll eventually find the chance you’ve been waiting for. Then your family and friends will be congratulate
you on your success !
Question 1. What is the best title for the text ?
A. Fail a job interview B. Advice for a job interview
C. Failure of an interview D. The cause of failing a job interview
Question 2. What could you do if you didn’t succeed in getting a job ?
A. Find another job B. Quit it
C. Ask the interviewers for explanation D. Forget everything
Question 3. It’s a good way to ask the interviewers .
A. To pay you money B. helping
C. To supply you a job D. to advise you for the next time
Question 4. You don’t need to worry too much .
A. Because you’re intelligent
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B. Because you have friends
C. Because there’re many chances waiting for you
D. because you have a family
PASSAGE 8
Becoming a teacher demands not only knowledge in an academic field but also a personal commitment to
lifelong learning, and enthusiasm for sharing knowledge with other people. To become one of those noble
educators in the USA, one has to satisfy several basic requirements.
First and foremost, it is a prerequisite to have bachelor's degree in education. In the event that a candidate
already has a bachelor's degree in another field, a teacher preparation program is needed. But that is not all.
Almost every school in the USA understands that real classroom teaching experience is a vital part of a
teacher's training. Before taking over a class, a person typically needs to complete a training program,
including working as a supervised student teacher.
People who want to become university teachers need master's degrees. Getting a master's degree is a
necessity, but if it is gained too early, there may be concerns that the candidate lacks the real-world
experience to go with it. In fact, very few schools want to hire novices with little or no classroom experience
and even if they are accepted, they are usually ill-paid. One wise solution to the issue is for future post
graduates to start working as teachers before going on to gain their master's degree.
Besides knowledge and experience, certain personal qualities are also required. A teacher should be positive,
prepared, focused, and most importantly, patient. Being a teacher involves being aware of the fact that
learning sometimes be hard work, even for the most motivated students. Also, teaching can at times be tiring
and frustrating, so teaching candidates have to practice being patient with themselves. In short, as in other
careers, teaching requires a combination of qualifications, experience, and personal qualities. Teaching
candidates meeting mandatory requirements are always in demand in the USA.
Question 1. The text is mainly about .
A. the importance of teachers.
B. the advantages and disadvantages of being a teacher in the USA.
C. the difference of teaching career.
D. the basic requirements of being a teacher in the USA.

Question 2. According to the text, future post graduates should start working as teachers
A. after gaining their master's degree.
B. before studying for their master's degree.
C. during the time they are studying for their master's degree.
D. before studying for their bachelor's degree.

Question 3. The word “vital” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .

A. very useless B. very easy C. very important D. very interesting
Question 4. According to the text, teaching requires a combination of many things EXCEPT .
A. qualifications B. personal qualities C. experience D. appearance
Question 5. According to the text, the most important quality of a teacher is .

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A. being patient B. being to work hard C. being prepared D. being a role model
Question 6. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. postgraduates B. novices C. schools D. teachers
Question 7. According to the text, all of the following sentences are true EXCEPT .
A. Those who want to become university teachers need master's degrees.
B. A teachers needs to be aware of the fact that learning can sometimes be hard work.
C. A great number of schools in the USA want to hire novices with little or no classroom experience.

D. In the USA, before one takes over a class, a training program is typically necessary to be
completed.

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12
Theme 6. Health and Lifestyles (Sức khỏe và lối sống)
PASSAGE 4
America’s foods began to affect the rest of the world. American emphasis on convenient and rapid
consumption is best represented in fast foods such as hamburgers, French fries, and soft drinks. By the 1960s
and 1970s fast foods became one of America’s strongest exports as franchises for Mc Donalds and Burger
King spread through Europe and other parts of the world, including Russia and China. Traditional meals
cooked at home and consumed at a leisurely pace _ gave way to quick lunches and dinners eaten on the run
as other countries imitated American cultural patterns.
By the late 20th century Americans had become more conscious of their diets, eating more poultry, fish and
vegetables, and fewer eggs and less beef. Cooks began to rediscover many world cuisines in forms closer to
their original. In California, chefs combined fresh fruits and vegetables available with ingredients and spices
borrowed from immigrant kitchens to create an innovative cooking style that was lighter than traditional
French, but more interesting and varied than typical American cuisine. Along with the states wines,
California cuisine took its place among the acknowledged forms of fine dining. 56. Fast foods such as
hamburgers, French fries, and soft drinks ………
Question 1. Fast foods such as hamburgers, French fries, and soft drinks
A. are traditional meals of the US people.
B. are popular because of their nutritious values.
C. became more popular than meals cooked at home in China.
D. became popular with other European and Asian countries.

Question 2. Which of the following is similar in meaning to the word cuisine?

A. cooking B. style of cooking C. cookery D. cook
Question 3. What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Americas cuisine used to have an influence on many countries.
B. Fast foods became one of Americas strongest exports.
C. Mc Donalds and Burger King are American food suppliers successful in Europe.
D. Traditional meals cooked at home and consumed at a leisurely pace are not common in the US.

Question 4. Which of the following statements is true?

A. By the late 20th century, fast foods had lost their popularity in the USA
B. Americans used to eat more poultry, fish, and fresh fruits and vegetables than they do now.
C. Cooking styles of other countries began to affect Americas by the late 20th century.
D. Fewer eggs and less beef in American diet made them fitter.
Question 5. An innovative style of cooking was created in California
A. to attract more immigrants to the state.

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B. and made the states wines well-known.
C. by borrowing recipes from immigrant kitchens.
D. by combining the local specialities with immigrants spices

PASSAGE 5
A WALK IN THE MIDDLE SUN
(When the heat is on, walkers need to be on their guard)

Hot weather makes your heart pump harder, and you are not very fit, you start to understand why the majority
of mountain rescue statistics are made up from summer walkers suffering heart attacks. Heat exhaustion is
quite easy to get when you are making a great physical effort. It happens where your body can’t produce
enough sweat to keep you cool. The answer is to keep up your water intake. It’s good idea to drink a pint of
water for every 10 degrees Fahrenheit every hour. So, if the temperature is in the 70s, and you are doing a
five hour walk, you will need a minimum of around one and a half pints of water. It is vital that you don’t
wait until you develop a raging thirst before you stop for a drink-keep taking regular swigs from your water
bottle.
Many walkers flavor their eater with fruit juice, which makes it a lot more palatable. You could even use
one of the isotonic drink made for athletes, which replace the body’s salts lost through swearing. Powders
such as Dioralyte, which you may have in the house as a treatment for diarrhea, will do the job just as well,
as its main aim is also effective rehydration.
Given that evaporation is your body’s cooling mechanism, you can help things along with an external
application of water. Soaking your hat with water id a great way to cool the head, though if the sun id beating
down, it will probably dry of almost immediately. Better still then if you can plunge into a river or the sea
fully-clothed. And if that’s not possible, then at least take off your boots and socks and paddle in a cool
stream.
Walking in the heat increases the rate at which you feet swell, which can lead to them feeling tight in your
boots. Cool water from a stream reduce any swelling and helps general foot comfort. At the same time, you
can check out your feet for signs of blister. Extra sweating makes the skin softer and increases the chance of
blisters forming, in the same way as when water leaks into your boots and gets to your feet.
As for what clothing you wear, this should be lightweight and reasonably loose-fitting. Tight clothing will
feel uncomfortable and may even lead to the formation of irritating rash known as “prickly heat” on your
skin. The answer, if this does develop, is to try and stay cool as much as possible. Do this by either keeping
in the shade, or washing the affected area with cold water, but with soap. But prevention is by far the best
approach, so keep your clothing light.
It’s understandable to want to remover any extraneous clothing when it’s extremely hot, but it doesn’t really
make much sense to take off T-shirts. The sun’s rays can be quite strong, and shoulders are always very
sensitive to sunburn. This is the worst place to be red and sore when you are wearing a heavy rucksack on
your back. Wearing shorts can also create problems for walkers, as the backs of the legs can catch the sun
very easily.
In fact, those days when an apparently harmless breeze is blowing can be the most deceptive. It might not
felt so hot, so you probably wont’ notice the damage being done so soon. As on every other day then, a good
strong sun cream should therefore be applied to any skin which is exposed. Make the most of the summer,
but treat the sun with the respect it deservers.

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Question 1. The writer says that hot weather
A. is the main cause of heart attacks.
B. Requires walkers to have frequent drinks.
C. Is the worst type of weather for mountain walking.
D. Ensures that mountain walkers stay fit.

Question 2. What does the writer say about ‘Dioralyte’?

A. It helps to reduce sweating. B. It prevents the loss of body salts.
C. It prevents you getting diarrhea. D. It works in the same way as an isotonic drink.
Question 3. “It” in line 23 refers to
A. the sun B. your hat C. the head D. water
Question 4. According to the text, when might your feet suffer?
A. when they cool down B. if you are wearing tightly-fitting boots
C. when they are wet. D. If you have to walk through water.
Question 5. According to the writer, it is better to wear loose-fitting clothing because
A. it keeps you cool.
B. it is very light.
C. It is less likely to create problems for your skin.
D. It lasts longer than tight-fitting clothing.

Question 6. What does the writer mean by “extraneous” clothing?

A. clothing which is no longer needed to keep you warm
B. clothing which most people would consider unusual in hot weather
C. clothing which is too tight
D. clothing which is too heavy to wear

Question 7. According to the writer, when are walkers particularly at risk from the effects of the heat

A. when they are unaware of the heat B. if their sun cream is not strong enough
C. when there is a strong wind D. if they have suffered an injury
Question 8. Who has the text been written for?
A. people who go walking in the mountains B. walkers who are unfit
C. people who go walking in hot weather D. people who only go walking in summer
PASSAGE 6
Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over
conventionally grown and marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods- a
term whose meaning varies greatly- frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious
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than others.
The growing interest of consumers in the safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet is
a welcome development. However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping claims that the
foods supply is unsafe or inadequate in the meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not
supported by scientific evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it
difficult for the general public to separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting
entirely of organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits to health have
become widely publicized and formed the basic for folklore.
Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for “no-aging” diets, new vitamins, and other wonder foods.
There are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized
eggs are nutritionally superior to unfertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains, and
the like. One thing that most organically grown foods products seem to have in common is that they cost
more than conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are misled if they believe foods. So
there is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food
supply and buy expensive organic foods instead.
Question 1. The “welcome development” mentioned in paragraph 2 is an increase in
A. interest in food safety and nutrition among North Americans.
B. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet.
C. the amount of healthy foods grown in North America.
D. the number of consumers in North America.

Question 2. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term “organic
foods”?
A. It is accepted by most nutritionists. B. It has been used only in recent years.
C. It has no fixed meaning D. It is seldom used by consumers.
Question 3. The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy
organic foods instead of conventionally grown foods because .
A. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown foods.
B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods.
C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods.
D. too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops.

Question 4. According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than
conventionally grown foods are often .
A. careless B. mistaken C. thrifty D. wealthy
Question 5. What is the author’s attitude towards the claims made by advocates of health foods?
A. Very enthusiastic B. Skeptical C. Neutral D. Somewhat favorable
PASSAGE 7
Many folk cures which have been around for centuries may be more therapeutic than previously suspected.
A case in point is that of penicillin. Alexander Fleming did not just randomly choose cheese molds to study
when he discovered this very important bacteria-killing substance. Moldy cheese was frequently given to
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patients as a remedy for illness at one time Fleming just isolated what it was about the cheese which cured
the patients. In parts of South America, a powder obtained from grinding sugar cane is used for healing
infections in wounds and ulcers. This usage may date back to pre-Colombian times. Experiments carried out
on several hundred patients indicate that ordinary sugar in high concentrations is lethal to bacteria. Its suction
effect eliminates dead cells and it generates a glasslike layer which protects the wound and ensures healing.
Another example of folk medicine which scientists are investigating is that of Arab fishermen who rub their
wounds with a venomous catfish to quicken healing. This catfish excretes a gellike slime which scientist
found to contain antibiotics coagulant that helps close injured blood vessels, anti-inflammatory agents, and
a chemical that directs production of a glue-like material that aids healing. It is hoped that by documenting
these folk remedies and experimenting to see if results are indeed beneficial, an analysis made, and synthetic
substances be developed for human consumption.
Question 1. This passage is mainly about .
A. isolating antibiotics in cheese, sugar, and slime
B. antibiotics in the field of medicine
C. using folk medicines in place of modern medicines
D. the validity of folk remedies and their use for advances in modem medicine

Question 2. The word "therapeutic" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .

A. medicinal B. traditional C. psychological D. physiological
Question 3. It can be inferred from the Message that Alexander Fleming .
A. suspected medicinal properties of mold B. discovered moldy cheese
C. enjoyed eating cheese D. isolated infectious patients
Question 4. The word "eliminates" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. kills off B. disposes of C. excretes D. cleanses
Question 5. To the passage, .
A. bacteria feed on sugar B. sugar kills unhealthy cells
C. lass is formed from sugar D. sugar promotes healing
Question 6. The gellike substance which promotes healing comes from .
A. Arab fishermen B. catfish bodies C. catfish venom D. coagulants
Question 7. Which one of the following is NOT an important quality of the catfish slime?
A. It prohibits inflammation B. It stops bleeding
C. It produces mold D. It fights bacteria
Question 8. The word "consumption" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. utilisation B. destruction C. experimentation D. manipulation
Question 9. In what way are cheese molds, sugar, and catfish slime similar?
A. They eliminate dead cells B. They heal wounds
C. They fight bacteria D. They cause blood clots
Question 10. According to the passage, why is it important to study folk medicine?
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A. To perpetuate superstitions B. To advance modern medical

PASSAGE 8
In a study of aspirin's effect on blood clotting in which abstinence from chocolate was required, a large
proportion of participants broke the rules.
Their "offence" led to what is believed to be the first biochemical evidence that a few squares of chocolate
a day can almost halve the risk of heart attack death by decreasing the tendency of tiny particles (or platelets)
to clot in narrow blood vessels.
"What these chocolate offenders taught us is that the chemical in cocoa beans has a biochemical effect
similar to aspirin in reducing platelet clumping, which can be fatal if a clot forms and blocks a blood vessel,
causing a heart attack," said Diane Becker from Johns Hopkins University in Maryland, USA, who led the
study.
Becker cautions that this discovery should not become an excuse to indulge in large amounts of chocolate
frequently, since chocolate also contains high amounts of sugar, butter and cream. However just a few
squares of dark chocolate the purest form may be just what the doctor ordered.
For almost 20 years researchers have known that chemicals, called flavonoids, most common in dark
chocolate, help blood flow and lower blood pressure.
This new finding, presented at the American Heart Association's annual scientific sessions in Chicago this
week, identifies the effect of everyday doses of chocolate found in regular foods such as hot chocolate or
chocolate bars. This differs from previous studies which have examined the effects of eating unrealistic doses
of flavonoids, equivalent to several pounds of chocolate a day.
"Eating a little bit of chocolate or having a drink of hot cocoa as part of a regular diet is probably good for
personal health, so long as people don't eat too much of it, and too much of the kind with lots of butter and
sugar," said Becker.
In the study, 139 chocolate offenders were disqualified from a larger experiment which aimed to examine
the effects of aspirin on blood clotting. Before the study began, all participants were instructed to follow a
strict exercise and diet regimen and to refrain from smoking or using foods and drinks known to affect blood-
clotting activity, like caffeinated drinks, wine, grapefruit juice and, of course, chocolate. Platelet samples
from both groups (offenders and non-offenders) were run through a mechanical blood vessel system designed
to time how long it takes for platelets to clump together. Chocolate lovers' samples were found to clot more
slowly, on average taking 130 seconds to block the system. Platelets from those who stayed away from
chocolate clotted faster, taking an average of 123 seconds.
Question 1. According to the findings, what helps lower blood pressure?
A. The chemical reaction in dark chocolate.
B. The tiny particles in white chocolate.
C. The most common chemicals in dark chocolate.
D. The most important ingredient in chocolate.

Question 2. The word "abstinence" can be interpreted as .

A. not eating chocolate B. eating some chocolate
C. not smoking D. doing exercise
Question 3. The word "offenders" in paragraph 3 refers to the .

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A. people who produce chocolate B. trouble makers
C. people who violate laws D. people who ate chocolate
Question 4. The word "indulge" in this case is closest in meaning to
A. give up oneself totally B. abandon oneself
C. get heavily involved in D. become much interested in
Question 5. What has been found about the relation between aspirin and the chemical in cocoa beans?
A. Similarity B. Irrelevance C. Interdependence D. Difference
Question 6. The kind of chocolate that can help the heart is identified as chocolate.
A. dark B. mixed C. hot D. white
Question 7. How does chocolate help the heart and the vascular system?
A. It helps the heart pumps better. B. It prevents harmful bacteria.
C. It widens the blood vessels. D. It helps blood flow more easily.
Question 8. Too much of chocolate is not very good for health.
A. made with artificial sugar B. with a lot of butter and sugar
C. with lots of sugar and cocoa D. containing a lot of milk
Question 9. An experiment has found out that the forming of blood clots is in chocolate lovers.
A. faster B. slower C. moderate D. stopped
Question 10. 1The article has probably taken from .
A. a book of instructions B. a science journal
C. a doctor's prescription D. ads of medicine

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Theme 7. Cultural Diversity (Đa dạng văn hóa)
PASSAGE 4
Christmas and Boxing Day Arrangements
As Christmas and Boxing Day fall on a Thursday and Friday this year, all periodical payments falling on
those two days will be paid early on Wednesday. Staff will be processing authorizations and transferring
funds until midnight (Australian Western Standard Time) on the 21th of December. Regular banking services
will resume on the following Monday, the 29th of December. There will be no change in the operations of
our Automatic Teller Machines or Electronic Funds Transfers. Our financial advisory services centers will,
however, be closed on Christmas and Boxing Day. Internet transactions may be scheduled but will not be
processed until Monday, the 29th of December. Phone banking services will not be available on the 25th,
26th, 27th, or 28th. We apologize for any inconvenience.
We wish all of our customers a very happy and safe Christmas!
Question 1. Who is the intended audience of this notice?
A. Bank employees B. Customers C. Drivers D. Security guards
Question 2. What is the purpose of the notice?
A. To announce the holiday schedule B. To notify customers of a holiday sale
C. To apologize for a mistake D. To advertise a new type of service
Question 3. Which of the following services can be performed on the 25th?
A. Paying utility bills at the teller's window B. Receiving financial advice from the institution
C. Transferring money by telephone D. Taking money out of a cash dispenser
Question 4. What will happen to regular payments that fall on the 26th this year?
A. The payments will have to be mailed out. B. They won't be taken care of until the 29th.
C. The transactions will occur on that day. D. They will go out a few days early.
PASSAGE 5
In ancient Greece athletic festivals were very important and had strong religious associations. The Olympic
athletic festival, held every four years in honour of Zeus, eventually lost its local character, became first a
national event, and then, after the rules against foreign competitors had been abolished, international. No
one knows exactly how far back the Olympic Games go, but some official records date from 776 B.C. The
Games took place in August on the plain by Mount Olympus. Many thousands of spectators gathered from
all parts of Greece, but no married woman was admitted even as a spectator. Slaves, women and dishonoured
people were not allowed to compete. Records show that the evening of the third day was devoted to
sacrificial offerings to the heroes of the day, and the fourth day, that of the full moon, was set aside as a holy
day. On the sixth and last day all the victors were crowned with holy garlands of wild olive from a sacred
wood. So great was the honour that the winner of the foot race gave his name to the year of his victory. How
their results compared with modern standards, we unfortunately had no means of telling. After an
uninterrupted history of almost 1,200 years, the Games were abolished in A. D. 394 because of their pagan
origin. It was a great many years before there was another such international athletic gathering. The Greek
institution was brought back into existence in 1896 and the first small meeting took place in Athens. After
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the 1908 London Olympics, success was re-established and nations sent their best representatives.
Today, the Games are held in different countries in turn. The Olympics start with the arrival in the stadium
of a torch, lighted on Mount Olympus by the sun’s rays. It is carried by a succession of runners to the
stadium. The torch symbolizes the continuation of the ancient Greek athletic ideals, and it burns throughout
the Games until the closing ceremony.
Question 1. The first Olympic Games took place
A. in the 17th century A.D B. certainly before 700 B.C
C. over three thousand years D. a thousand years ago
Question 2. At the ancient Olympic Games, any competitor had to be
A. Greek B. male
C. unmarried D. neither a slave not a foreign
Question 3. The word “that” in line 5 (2nd paragraph) refers to
A. the third day B. the fourth day C. the evening D. a holy day
Question 4. During the Games, on the evening before the moon was full,
A. sheep and cattle were sacrificed to Zeus
B. all the victors were crowned with garlands
C. olive branches were gathered from a sacred wood
D. the heroes were honoured with sacrificed offerings

Question 5. Modern athlete’s results cannot be compared with those of the ancient runners because

A. details such as times were not recorded in the past

B. the Greeks had no means of telling the time
C. modem athletes are much better
D. official records were lost soon after the Games were abolished

Question 6. The word “pagan” (3rd paragraph) is closest in meaning to

A. Greek B. Olympic C. religious D. sporty
Question 7. The continuity of the Olympic Games
A. was broken in the year A.D 1200 B. was broken in 1896
C. was interrupted for over 1,500 years D. was interrupted for almost 1,200 years
Question 8. The phrase “in turn” in line 1 (the last paragraph) can best be replaced by
A. in a sequence B. by chance C. in order D. in time
Question 9. The word “succession” in line 3 (the last paragraph) is closest in meaning to

A. procession B. a number C. process D. marching

Question 10. The modern Olympics compared with the ancient ones are

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A. inspired by the same ideals B. more restricted in the variety of events
C. different in every respect D. too much concerned with international rivalry
PASSAGE 6
Giving a dinner party is a wonderful way of entertain people. You can also make new friends and give
others the chance to get to know each other better.
It needs planning, though. First, make a guest list, with different kinds of people and a mixture of women
and men. Don’t invite couples because they aren’t so much fun.
When you know who can come, find out what they like to eat and drink. Note down any who are
vegetarians, or who can’t eat or drink certain things for religious seasons.
Then plan their menu. Include a first course, a choice of main courses and a dessert, plus lots of people’s
favorite drinks.
The next thing to do is the shopping. Make sure buy more than enough of everything, and that someone can
help you carry it!
On the day, start cooking early. Give people appetizers like Greek mezze or Spanish tapas, so they don’t
get hungry if they have to wait. Serve the delicious meal, sit down with your guests and have a good time
– you’ve earned it!

Question 1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the purpose of giving a dinner party?
A. to get people to know more about their host and hostess.
B. to help people to know each other better.
C. to make new friends.
D. to entertain people.

Question 2. When giving a dinner party, you should NOT invite .

A. those who are vegetarians B. husbands and wives
C. both women and men D. those who can’t eat or drink certain things.
Question 3. According to the passage, starters should be served .
A. because the guests may be hungry while having to wait
B. because the guests like eating them
C. because the guests want to have a good time together
D. because the guests want to eat them while having to wait

Question 4. What should you do while the guests are having their evening meal?
A. Sit down with the guests to show your politeness.
B. Stand beside the guests without doing anything.
C. Sit down with the guests and have a good time.
D. Only serve the guests with the food

PASSAGE 7

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10
THANKSGIVING
Thanksgiving is celebrated in the US on the fourth Thursday in November. For many Americans it is the
most important holiday apart from Christmas. Schools, offices and most businesses close for Thanksgiving,
and many people make the whole weekend a vacation.
Thanksgiving is associated with the time when Europeans first came to North America. In 1620 the ship the
Mayflowers arrived, bringing about 150 people who today are usually called Pilgrims. They arrived at the
beginning of a very hard winter and could not find enough to eat, so many of them died. But in the following
summer Native Americans showed them what foods were safe to eat, so that they could save food for the
next winter. They held a big celebration to thank God and the Native Americans for the fact that they had
survived.
Today people celebrate Thanksgiving to remember these early days. The most important part of the
celebration is a traditional dinner with foods that come from North America. The meal includes turkey, sweet
potatoes (also called yams) and cranberries, which are made into a kind of sauce or jelly. The turkey is filled
with stuffing or dressing, and many families have their own special recipe. Dessert is pumpkin made into a
pie.
On Thanksgiving there are special television programs and sports events. In New York there is the Macy's
Thanksgiving Day Parade, when a long line of people wearing fancy costumes march through the streets
with large balloons in the shape of imaginary characters. Thanksgiving is considered the beginning of the
Christmas period, and the next day many people go out to shop for Christmas presents.
Question 1. In the Unites States, Thanksgiving is .
A. apart from Christmas B. a religious celebration held by Christians only
C. more important than Christmas D. on the fourth Thursday in November
Question 2. According to the passage Pilgrims are .
A. people who left their home and went to live in North America in the early 17th century
B. people who travelled to America by ships
C. trips that religious people make to a holy place
D. native Americans who live in North America
Question 3. All of the following statements are mentioned EXCEPT .
A. People usually have traditional dinners on Thanksgiving
B. People celebrate Thanksgiving to thank God
C. There are lots of entertainments on Thanksgiving
D. People go to churches for religious services on Thanksgiving

Question 4. On Thanksgiving .
A. people join in the Macy's Thanksgiving Day Parade
B. turkey, yams and pumpkin pies are served
C. people go out to shop for Christmas presents
D. people wear colored carnival masks matching through the streets

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11
Question 5. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Christmas comes less than a month after Thanksgiving.

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12
B. Thanksgiving originally celebrated by the first Europeans in North America to thank God for their
survival.
C. The Macy's Thanksgiving Day Parade are colorful and exciting.
D. In the US, Thanksgiving is not a national holiday; it's a religious holiday.

PASSAGE 8
Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than speech.
A little thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing secondary to language. Human
beings have been writing (as far as we can tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but they
have been talking for much longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings.
When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly. Even today
there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before we learn
to write; any human child who is not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to talk: a normal
human being cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to learn to write.
In the past many intelligent and useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and even today many
who speak languages with writing systems never learn to read or write, while some who learn the rudiments
of those skills do so only imperfectly.
To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter. One advantage writing
has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that any civilization must have.
Thus, if speaking makes us human, writing makes us civilized.
Question 1. We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because .
A. writing is secondary to language
B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years
C. it has become very important in our culture
D. people have been writing since there have been human beings

Question 2. The author of the passage argues that .

A. speech is more basic to language than writing
B. writing has become too important in today’s society
C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write
D. all languages should have a written form

Question 3. According to the passage, writing .

A. is represented perfectly by speech B. represents speech, but not perfectly
C. developed from imperfect speech D. is imperfect, but less so than speech
Question 4. Normal human beings .
A. learn to talk after learning to write B. learn to write before learning to talk
C. learn to write and to talk at the same time D. learn to talk before learning to write
Question 5. Learning to write is .

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A. easy B. too difficult C. not easy D. very easy
Question 6. In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of
.
A. people who learn the rudiments of speech B. severely handicapped children
C. intelligent people who couldn’t write D. people who speak many languages
Question 7. In the author’s judgment, .
A. writing has more advantages than speech
B. writing is more real than speech
C. speech conveys ideas less accurately than writing does
D. speech is essential but writing has important benefits

Question 8. The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means .
A. “rudiments” B. “skill” C. “domination” D. “benefit”

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Theme 8. Family and friends (Gia đình và bạn bè)
.
PASSAGE 4
Increasing numbers of parents in the U.S. are choosing to teach their children at home. In fact, the
U.S. Department of Education has estimated that in 1999, about 850,000 children were being homeschooled.
Some educational experts say that the real number is double this estimate, and the ranks of homeschooled
children seem to be growing at the average rate of about eleven percent every year.

At one time, there was a theory accounting for homeschooling: it was traditionally used for students who
could not attend school because of behavioral or learning difficulties. Today, however, more parents are
taking on the responsibility of educating their own children at home due to their dissatisfaction with the
educational system. Many parents are unhappy about class size, as well as problems inside the classroom.
Teacher shortages and lack of funding mean that, in many schools, one teacher is responsible for thirty or
forty students. The children are, therefore, deprived of the attention they need. Escalating classroom violence
has also motivated some parents to remove their children from school.
Although there have been a lot of arguments for and against it, homeschooling in the U.S. has become a
multi-million dollar industry, and it is growing bigger and bigger. There are now plenty of websites, support
groups, and conventions that help parents protect their rights and enable them to learn more about educating
their children. Though once it was the only choice for troubled children, homeschooling today is an accepted
alternative to an educational system that many believe is failing.
Question 1. The past participle “homeschooled” in the first paragraph is best equivalent to “ at
home”.
A. taught B. self-figured C. untaught D. self-studied
Question 2. This estimated number was presented by .
A. a governmental office B. school teachers
C. the parents D. homeschooled children
Question 3. According to some experts, the exact number of homeschooled children in the US in the last
year of the 20th century must be .
A. 1,600,000 B. 850,000 C. 1,900,000 D. 1,700,000
Question 4. Parents can teach children at home with the support of .
A. The internet, conventions along with support groups
B. support groups, teachers and websites
C. documents, websites and support groups
D. books, support groups and the Internet
Question 5. More parents teach their children because they completely the current educational
system.
A. please with B. object to C. appeal to D. approve of
Question 6. The word “arguments” at the beginning of the third paragraph can be best replaced by “
”.
A. rows B. quarrels C. points D. discussions
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Question 7. The attitude of the author towards homeschooling can be best described as .
A. arguable B. favorable C. remarkable D. unfavorable
Question 8. The number of parents who want to teach their own children in the U.S. is .
A. remaining unchanged B. remaining the same
C. going up D. going down
Question 9. Many parents stop their children from going to school because it is now too for them.
A. explosive B. expensive C. dangerous D. humorous
Question 10. Which is the best tittle for the passage:
A. Which is the best tittle for the passage:
B. The Trend of homeschooling in the USA.
C. Homeschooling- one of the ways of education in theUSA.
D. Education system in the USA.

PASSAGE 5
Let children learn to judge their own work. A child learning to talk does not learn by being corrected all the
time: if corrected too much, he will stop talking. He notices a thousand times a day the difference between
the language he uses and the language those around him use. Bit by bit, he makes the necessary changes to
make his language like other people’s. In the same way, children learn all the other things they learn to do
without being taught – to talk, run, climb, whistle, ride a bicycle – compare their own performances with
those of more skilled people, and slowly make the needed changes. But in school we never give a child a
chance to find out his mistakes for himself, let alone correct them. We do it all for him. We act as if we
thought that he would never notice a mistake unless it was pointed out to him, or correct it unless he was
made to. Soon he becomes dependent on the teacher. Let him do it himself. Let him work out, with the help
of other children if he wants it, what this word says, what the answer is to that problem, whether this is a
good way of saying or doing this or not.
If it is a matter of right answers, as it may be in mathematics or science, give him the answer book. Let him
correct his own papers. Why should we teachers waste time on such routine work? Our job should be to help
the child when he tells us that he can’t find the way to get the right answer. Let’s end all this nonsense of
grades, exam, marks. Let us throw them all out, and let the children learn what all educated persons must
someday learn, how to measure their own understanding, how to know what they know or do not know.
Let them get on with this job in the way that seems most sensible to them, with our help as school teachers
if they ask for it. The idea that there is a body of knowledge to be learnt at school and used for the rest of
one’s life is nonsense in a world as complicated and rapidly changing as ours. Anxious parents and teachers
say, “But suppose they fail to learn something essential, something they will need to get on in the world?”
Don’t worry! If it is essential, they will go out into the world and learn it.
Question 1. What does the author think is the best way for children to learn things?
A. by copying what other people do
B. by making mistakes and having them corrected
C. by listening to explanations from skilled people
D. by asking a great many questions
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Question 2. What does the author think teachers do which they should not do?
A. They give children correct answers
B. They point out children’s mistakes to them
C. They allow children to mark their own work
D. They encourage children to copy from one another

Question 3. The passage suggests that learning to speak and learning to ride a bicycle are
A. not really important skills B. basically different from learning adult skills
C. more important than other skills D. basically the same as learning other skills
Question 4. Exams, grades and marks should be abolished because children’s progress should only be
estimated by
A. educated persons B. the children themselves
C. teachers D. parents
Question 5. Which of the following may serve as the best title of this passage?
A. Let Us Teachers Stop Working. B. Let Children Alone.
C. Let Children Correct Their Exercises. D. Let Children Learn by Themselves

PASSAGE 6
Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the ability to do
outstandingly well. Others, however, argue that the potential for great achievement can be developed. The
truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will increase a child’s
ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right upbringing and opportunities.
As one psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.” Scientists have
recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins that were separated
shortly after birth and brought up by different parents. They found that achievement was based on
intelligence, and later influenced by the child’s environment. Once case involving very intelligent twins was
quoted. One of the twins received a normal upbringing, performed well. The other twin, however, was
brought up by extremely supportive parents and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities.
That twin, though starting out with the same degree of intelligences as the other, performed even better. This
case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the environment, the more
a child’s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link between intelligence and the
socioeconomic level of a child’s family. In other words, it does not matter how poor or how rich a family is,
as this does not affect intelligence. Gifted people cannot be created by supportive parents, but they can be
developed by them. One professor of music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years
earlier than ordinary performers, often because their parents had recognized their ability. These musicians
then needed at least ten years’ hard work and training in order to reach the level they were capable of
attaining. People who want to have very gifted children are given the following advice:
• Marry an intelligent person
• Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.
• Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard

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• Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical, instruments is essential for child who
wants to become an outstanding musician.
Question 1. The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires
A. an expensive education B. good musical instruments
C. parental support and encouragement D. wealthy and loving parents
Question 2. The word "Others" used in the first paragraph refers to .
A. other people B. other scientists C. other children D. other geniuses
Question 3. When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins, they found that .
A. ability depends mainly on intelligence and achievement
B. intelligence and development are irrelevant to ability
C. ability depends both on intelligence and on environment
D. different twins generally have different levels of ability
Question 4. Scientists chose twins for their study because .
A. each twin has the same environment as his/her twin
B. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing
C. they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities
D. they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence

Question 5. How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?
A. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured.
B. They practice playing their instruments for many years.
C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas.
D. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic.

Question 6. The writer advises that gifted children should be allowed to follow .
A. only their interests in musical instruments B. their parents' interests
C. their own interests D. only their interests in computer games
Question 7. When encouraging their gifted children, parents should avoid ……………….. .
A. pushing their children too hard B. letting them play their own way
C. permitting them to follow their own interests D. starting their education at an early age
Question 8. The remark: "To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel." in the passage
means that in order to become a genius .
A. you need to have good health and good nourishment
B. you need intelligence and you need to develop it
C. you should try to move quickly and efficiently

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D. you must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard

Question 9. The word "favorable" in the passage mostly means .

A. "good for someone and making him/ her likely to be successful"
B. "helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to other people"
C. "of high quality or an acceptable standard"
D. "under the control or in the power of somebody else"

Question 10. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT .

A. a child’s intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parents
B. to become successful, a child needs both native intelligence and development
C. studying different twins is a useful scientific procedure
D. educational development depends completely on economic well-being

PASSAGE 7
NO PLACE LIKE HOME
All over the country young people are entering a world of homelessness and poverty, according to a recent
report by the housing group, Shelter. Nearly 150,000 young people aged between sixteen and twenty-five
will become homeless this year, says Shelter. Some of the young homeless may sleep out in the open in such
places as 'cardboard city' in London, where people of all ages sleep in the open air in their only homes -
cardboard boxes. Others may find accommodation in shelters run by voluntary organizations or get a place
in a hostel, which gives them board for up to ten weeks.
But who are these people? Those seeking a roof over their heads are mostly not runaways but 'throwaways'
- people who have been thrown out of their homes or forced to leave because of parental divorce, an
unsympathetic step-parent or one of many other reasons.
Take the case of one sixteen-year-old schoolgirl we shall call Alice. She did not come from a poor home and
had just passed her exams with good results. The Shelter team met her in an overnight hostel where she was
sitting down doing her Physics homework. It turned out that her parents had thrown her out of her home for
no other reason that she wanted to do Science Advanced Level exams - which her parents refused her
permission to do, saying that sciences were unladylike!
Shelter says that the Government's laws do nothing to help these youngsters. Rising rents, a shortage of
cheap housing and a cut in benefits for young people under the age of twenty-five are causing a national
problem, according to Shelter. The recent changes in the benefit laws mean that someone aged between
sixteen and twenty-five gets less than older people and they can only claim state help if they prove that they
left home for a good reason.
Shelter believes that because of the severe cuts in benefits to young people, more and more are being forced
to sleep on the streets. Shelter also points out that if you are homeless, you can't get a job because employers
will not take on someone without a permanent address; and if you can't get a job, you are homeless because
you don't have any money to pay for accommodation. It's an impossible situation.
Question 1. According to a recent report by Shelter, it appears that
A. nearly 150,000 young people are living out in the open.

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B. young homeless people live in places like 'cardboard city'.
C. more and more young people all over the world are finding themselves homeless.
D. hostels are too full to offer accommodation to homeless young people.

Question 2. Most young people find themselves without a roof over their heads because
A. they have run away from home.
B. they do not want to live with a divorced parent.
C. circumstances make it impossible for them to live at home.
D. they have thrown away any chance of living at home by behaving badly.

Question 3. Why was Alice turned out of her home?

A. She didn't want to study for her Advanced Level exams.
B. She had not obtained high marks in her exams.
C. She refused to do her homework in the evenings.
D. Her parents didn't agree with what she wanted to do.

Question 4. According to the text, what are benefits?

A. gifts of food and clothing B. laws about distributing money
C. subsidies for those in need D. extra wages for part-time workers
Question 5. The changes in the system of benefits mean that
A. young people cannot claim money unless they are under sixteen or over twenty-five.
B. anyone under twenty-five and not living at home will receive help with food and accommodation.
C. young people do not receive as much money as those over twenty-five.
D. The under twenty-fives can claim money only if they have left home.

Question 6. According to Shelter, once young people have been forced onto the streets,
A. they will find it difficult to find work. B. their benefits will be severely cut.
C. they will never go back home again. D. they will encourage their friends to do the same.
Question 7. The article has been written to
A. help Shelter solve the problems of the homeless.
B. increase awareness of the problems facing young people.
C. warn young people not to be too eager to leave home.
D. persuade the government to take action to help the young.

PASSAGE 8
I was brought up in a very ordinary but very happy home with one elder sister, my mother and my father.
The great love of my life since I was a small girl was writing, which only family thought was surprising
because they didn't consider themselves educated people. I wasn't surprised though because my parents were
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great readers which is my idea of being educated. Anyway, I trained to be a nurse but whenever I had free
time I wrote: poems, short stories, I even once wrote a novel called 'The Pleasure Principle' but I didn't feel
comfortable writing longer pieces and I soon went back to my poetry.
Then the strangest thing happened. I had my twenty-first birthday just a few days before and I was feeling
very much that I wanted to change things in my life. I'd been nursing a very old woman for several months
in a private ward, she told me that although she had-lots of relatives, no one came to visit her. Anyway, when
she died she left me an enormous sum of money, nearly three-quarters of a million pounds! Of course when
the lawyer rang me up and told me I just laughed and thought that my friends were playing a joke on me. So
I put down the phone and went in to tell my mother the joke.
But it wasn't a joke! All of a sudden, I was a very rich woman. Well, the first thing was that I was determined
that I wouldn't waste the money. Of course I wanted to do something for my family, but all my dad said was
'We're not leaving this house after all the work I've put into the garden!' My mother agreed so all I did was
give them something towards a new car and a new greenhouse. My sister was working abroad at this time
and when I wrote to tell her the news and offer her some money she said it was my money and that she knew
I would use it sensibly. None of this really came as a surprise because they've always had a sensible attitude
towards money.
But this left me a fortune on my hands to spend! It soon became obvious to me that much as I loved nursing,
I loved writing more and that's how I got started. I went to America and did a degree in creative writing. I
had a wonderful time and learned a great deal, not from the lecturers necessarily but mainly from other
hopeful writers on the course. All this was a decade ago and I've now had several volumes of poetry
published. I now want to do something to help other young poets so I'm thinking of setting up a small
publishing company which I'll call Grace Park Books after the wonderful old lady who helped me fulfill my
life's ambition!
Question 1. The author thought that her parents
A. were educated people. B. were uneducated people.
C. were great poets. D. were surprised that she way an educated person.
Question 2. According to the passage, the author
A. really enjoyed writing novels. B. didn't enjoy writing poetry very much.
C. earned a lot of money from her writing. D. worked as a nurse.
Question 3. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT
A. The author inherited a fortune from one of her patients.
B. The author's friends joked with her about the money.
C. The author gave her family some of the money.
D. The author was not surprised at her family's reaction to the money.

Question 4. The word sensibly in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

A. wisely B. wastefully C. sparingly D. immediately
Question 5. It can be inferred from the passage that ............
A. the author gave up her job as a nurse because she had got a great fortune.
B. the author owns a successful publishing company.

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C. the author achieved her life's ambition thanks to the old woman's help.
D. the author has become a famous poet.

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Theme 9. Entertainment and Media (Giải trí và truyền thông)
PASSAGE 4
Up to about 1915, movies were short and programmes were made up to several works. Then D. W. Griffith
and others began making longer films which provided the same powerful emotional appeal as did melodrama
and presented spectacles far beyond what the theatre could offer Consequently, after World War I increasing
numbers of spectators deserted the theatre for the movies.
This trend was accelerated in the late 1920’s as a result of two new elements. In 1927 sound was added to
the previously silent film, and thus one of the theatre’s principal claims to superiority vanished. In 1929 a
serious economic depression began. Since audiences could go to the movies for a fraction of what it cost to
see a play, theatre-going became a luxury which few could afford, especially as the depression deepened.
By the end of World War II, the American theatre had been reduced to about thirty theatres in New York
City and a small number of touring companies originating there.
Question 1. One thing that movies could do better than the theatre was .
A. provide longer programmes B. provide emotional appeal
C. provide more melodrama D. provide greater spectacles
Question 2. Up to the 1920's one objection to films was that .
A. they were too short B. they were silent
C. they were too expensive D. they did not tell a complete story
Question 3. One thing that made people choose the movies over the theatre was .
A. World War I B. the fact that films were less expensive
C. the fact that films were silent D. the fact that films were shorter
Question 4. By the end of World War II .
A. theatre had become entertainment for the mass
B. theatre - going was no longer considered a luxury
C. professional theatrical performances were confined mainly to New York City
D. there were no theatrical performances outside of New York City

Question 5. When the author of this paragraph says “this trend was accelerated in the late 1920”s”, he means
that
A. many more people went to the theatre than the movies
B. the shift away from the movies to the theatre was slowed down
C. the popularity of the theatre was gradually increasing
D. the shift away from the theatre to the movies was speeded up

PASSAGE 5
The penny press, which emerged in the United Sates during the 1830’s, was a powerful agent of mass
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11
communication. These newspapers were little dailies, generally four pages in length, written for the mass
taste. They differed from the staid, formal presentation of the conservative press, with its emphasis on
political and literary topics. The new papers were brief and cheap, emphasizing sensational reports of police
courts and juicy scandals as well as human interest stories. Twentieth – century journalism was already
foreshadowed in the penny press of the 1830’s.
The New York Sun, founded in 1833, was the first successful penny paper, and it was followed two years
later by the New York Herald, published by James Gordon Bennett. Not long after, Horace Greeley issued
the New York Tribune, which was destined to become the most influential paper in America. Greeley gave
space to the issues that deeply touched the American people before the Civil War – abolitionism, temperance,
free homesteads, Utopian cooperative settlements, and the problems of labor. The weekly edition of the
Tribune, with 100,000 subscribers, had a remarkable influence in rural areas, especially in Western
communities.
Americans were reputed to be the most avid readers of periodicals in the world. An English observer
enviously calculated that, in 1829, the number of newspapers circulated in Great Britain was enough to reach
only one out of every thirty – six inhabitants weekly; Pennsylvania in that same year had a newspaper
circulation which reaches one out of every four inhabitants weekly. Statistics seemed to justify the common
belief that Americans were devoted to periodicals. Newspapers in the United States increased from 1,200 in
1833 to 3000 by the early 1860’s, on the eve of the Civil War. This far exceeded the number and circulation
of newspapers in England and France.
Question 1. What is the author’s main point in the first paragraph?
A. The penny press became an important way of disseminating information in the first half of the
nineteenth century
B. The penny press was modeled on earlier papers
C. The press in the nineteenth century reached only a small proportion of the population
D. The penny press focused mainly on analysis of politics

Question 2. What does the author mean by the statement in the first paragraph that twentieth- century
journalism was foreshadowed by the penny press?
A. The penny press darkened the reputation of news writing
B. Modern news coverage is similar to that done by the penny press
C. Twentieth – century journalism is more important than nineteenth- century journalism
D. Penny – press news reporting was more accurate than that in twentieth – century newspapers

Question 3. Which of the following would LEAST likely be in a penny-press paper?

A. A report of theft of union funds by company officials
B. An article about a little girl returning a large amount of money she found in the street
C. A story about land being given away in the West
D. A scholarly analysis of an economic issue of national important
Question 4. Who was Horace Greeley (paragraph 2)?
A. The founder of the penny – press paper that did the most to influence the thinking of the public
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B. The publisher of the first penny-press paper to make a profit
C. The most successful writer for the penny press
D. The man who took over James Gordon Benette’s penny – press paper and made it successful

Question 5. The word “remarkable” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. discussable B. remote C. significant D. uneven
Question 6. The word “avid” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. intelligent B. critical C. thrifty D. eager
Question 7. The figures concerning newspaper circulation in Pennsylvania in 1829 are relevant because
they
A. explain why so many different periodicals were published
B. support the belief that Americans were enthusiastic readers of periodicals
C. prove that weekly periodicals were more successful than daily papers
D. Show the difference between reading habits before and after the Civil War

Question 8. The word “justify” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. prove B. generate C. calculate D. modify
Question 9. The third paragraph is developed primarily by means of
A. descriptions B. analysis of a process
C. contrasts D. ordering events in time sequence
Question 10. IT can be inferred that penny-press newspapers were all of the following
EXCEPT
A. inexpensiveB. profitable C. informal D. thorough

PASSAGE 6
THE BEATLES
In the 1960s, the Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world. Since then, there
have been a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is perhaps difficult now to imagine
how sensational The Beatles were at that time. They were four boys from the north of England and none of
them had any training in music. They started by performing and recording songs by black Americans and
they had some success with these songs. Then they started writing their own songs and that was when they
became really popular. The Beatles changed pop music. They were the first pop group to achieve great
success from songs they had written themselves. After that it became common for groups and singers to
write their own songs. The Beatles did not have a long career. Their first hit record was in 1963 and they
split up in 1970. They stopped doing live performances in 1966 because it had become too dangerous for
them - their fans were so excited that they surrounded them and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs!
However, today some of their songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout
the world many people can sing part of a Beatles song if you ask them.
Question 1. The passage is mainly about
A. How the Beatles became more successful than other groups
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B. Why the Beatles split up after 7 years
C. The Beatles’ fame and success
D. Many people’s ability to sing a Beatles song

Question 2. The four boys of the Beatles

A. Came from the same family B. Were at the same age
C. Came from a town in the north of England D. Received good training in music
Question 3. The word “sensational” is closest in meaning to
A. Notorious B. Bad C. Shocking D. Popular
Question 4. The first songs of the Beatles were
A. Written by themselves B. Broadcast on the radio
C. Paid a lot of money D. Written by black American
Question 5. What is not true about the Beatles?
A. The members had no training in music
B. They had a long stable career
C. They became famous when they wrote their own songs
D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans

Question 6. The Beatles stopped their live performances because

A. they had earned enough money B. they did not want to work with each other
C. they spent more time writing their own songs D. they were afraid of being hurt by fans.
Question 7. The year 1970 was the time when
A. they split up B. they changed pop music
C. they started their career D. they stopped doing live performance
Question 8. What the fans of the Beatles often did was
A. sing together with them B. take their clothes as souvenirs
C. ask them to write more songs D. ask them why they should separate
Question 9. Some songs of the Beatles now
A. are still famous as they used to be B. became too old to sing
C. are sung by crazy fans D. are the most famous
Question 10. The tone of the passage is that of
A. admiration B. criticism C. neutral D. sarcasm
PASSAGE 7
A. Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of
communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every known
culture. The basic function of a signal to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts
attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential
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for communication is very great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in
and of themselves. A stop sign or a barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently.. Symbols are
more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate of relationship with the
receiver's cultural perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theatre provides performers with an
auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also communicate certain cultural
messages.
B. Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major
disadvantage. They usually do not allow ideas to be be shared without the sender being directly adjacent,
up the, receiver. An a result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended
periods are based upon speech. Radio, television, and the telephone, are only a few.

Question 1. What does the author say about speech?

A. That is the only true form of communication
B. That is the most advanced form of communication.
C. That is necessary for communication to occur.
D. That is dependent upon the advances made by inventors

Question 2. According to the passage, what is a signal?

A. The most difficult form of communication.
B. A form of communication which may be used across long distances.
C. A form of communication that interrupts the environments.
D. The form of communication most related to cultural perceptions.

Question 3. Applauding was cited as an example of

A. a symbol B. a sign C. a signal D. a gesture
Question 4. Why were the telephone, radio, and TV invented?
A. Because people were unable to understand signs, symbols, and signals.
B. Because people wanted new forms of entertainment.
C. Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.
D. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances.

Question 5. It may be concluded from this passage that

A. symbols are very easy to define and interpret
B. only some cultures have signals, signs, and symbols
C. signals, signs, symbols and gestures are forms of communication
D. waving and handshaking are not related to culture

PASSAGE 8
REALITY TELEVISION

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Reality television is a genre of television programming which, it is claimed presents unscripted dramatic or
humorous situations, documents actual events, and features ordinary people rather than professional actors.
It could be described as a form of artificial or "heightened" documentary. Although the genre has existed in
some form or another since the early years of television, the current explosion of popularity dates from
around 2000.
Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows which
resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modern
example is Gaki no tsukai), to surveillance- or voyeurism focused productions such as Big Brother.
Critics say that the term "reality television" is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently
portray a modified and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic locations or abnormal
situations, sometimes coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers. and with events on screen
manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques.
Part of reality television's appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations. For
example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously, travelling
on extraordinary dates to scenic locales.Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into
national celebrities outwardly in talent and performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently
Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of celebrity.
Some commentators have said that the name "reality television" is an inaccurate description for several styles
of program included in the genre. In competition-based programs such as Big Brother and Survivor, and
other special-living-environment shows like The Real World, the producers design the format of the show
and control the day-to-day activities and the environment, creating a completely fabricated world in which
the competition plays out. Producers specifically select the participants, and use carefully designed scenarios,
challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviours and conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of
Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids the word “reality" to describe
his shows; he has said, "It tells good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is unscripted drama."
Question 1. In the first line, the writer says ‘it is claimed’ because .
A. they agree with the statement
B. everyone agrees with the statement
C. no one agrees with the statement
D. they want to distance themselves from the statement

Question 2. Reality television has .

A. always been this popular B. been popular since well before 2000
C. only been popular since 2000 D. been popular since approximately 2000
Question 3. Japan .
A. is the only place to produce demeaning TV shows
B. has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere
C. produced Big Brother

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D. invented surveillance focused productions

Question 4. People have criticised reality television because .

A. it is demeaning B. it uses exotic locations C. the name is inaccurate D. it shows reality
Question 5. Reality TV appeals to some because .
A. it shows eligible males dating women
B. it uses exotic locations
C. it shows average people in exceptional circumstances
D. it can turn ordinary people into celebrities
Question 6. Pop Idol .
A. turns all its participants into celebrities
B. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother
C. is less likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother
D. is a dating show

Question 7. The term ‘reality television’ is inaccurate .

A. for both talent- performance and special living environment programs
B. just for Big Brother and Survivor
C. for talent and performance programs
D. for special-living-environment programs
Question 8. Producers choose the participants .
A. on the ground of talent B. only for special-living-envoronment shows
C. to create conflicts D. to make a fabricated world
Question 9. Mart Burnett .
A. was a participant on Survivor
B. is a critic of reality TV
C. thinks the term ‘reality television’ is inaccurate
D. writes the script for Survivor

Question 10. Shows like Survivor .

A. are definitely reality TV B. are scripted
C. have good narratives D. are theatre

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Theme 10. People’s background and history (Lý lịch con người và
lịch sử)
PASSAGE 4
Madonna
Ever since she burst on to the pop scene in the early eighties, Madonna has remained one of the most well-
known celebrities in the world. She has shown herself to be a talented singer, dancer, songwriter and actress.
To have achieved this she undoubtedly has a strong belief in herself and her abilities.
It is possible she gained her strong personality through her tough childhood experiences. She went to a strict
Catholic school, was one of many children, and her family was split up after her mother died from cancer.
Eventually, in search of fame, she left college and went to New York with only her suitcase and a few dollars.
Hugely successful, often through controversy, Madonna has always known what the public and media want.
She has gone from shocking clothes and pop songs to setting trends and family life. She caused disagreement
by playing feminist roles in firms and featuring in pop videos with images of Jesus Christ.
Throughout all her years and different styles and phases, she has always been able to give the general the
public entertainment. Madonna has become one of the biggest stars on the planet, and has sold over 100
million recorders worldwide, making her one of the highest-earning entertainers of her generation.
Even now as she approaches fifty and is a mother, Madonna is likely to contribute to us entertain for many
more years, but what nobody can be sure of this exactly what she will do next.
Question 1. what is the writer’s main purpose in writing this text?
A. To discuss Madonna’s acting career, and encourage other pop stars to go into acting
B. To show how well Madonna achieved success throughout the years
C. To remind people that money is not everything , and it comes and goes
D. To claim that fashion is always change, and no one can stay famous forever

Question 2. As a child, Madonna was probably

A. Happiest during her school days B. Lonely and without anyone to talk to
C. Unhappy in New York D. Made stronger due to different events
Question 3. What is true according to the text?
A. Madonna has always been careful not to offend the public
B. Madonna apologized to the Church after causing offence with a pop video
C. Madonna often upset people but achieved a great deal
D. Madonna disliked the controversy in her career

Question 4. What does the writer say about Madonna’s success?

A. She is one of richest performers of her time
B. She has earned more money than many international businesses
C. Her success is mainly due to the American market
D. Her consistent style has followed her to earn so much money
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Question 5. How would the writer probably describe Madonna’ future?
A. “After so much success, acting will become more important than singing”
B. “Family life will be the main factor in Madonna’s everyday life, no more wild days!”
C. “She’ll keep on pleasing the public in a predictable way”

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D. “Madonna is sure to keep us guessing on her future plan”

PASSAGE 5
Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work so hard for the
important reforms in education that he accomplished. While he was still a boy, his father and older brother
died, and he became responsible for supporting his family. Like most of the children in his town, he attended
school only two or three months a year. Later, with the help of several teachers, he was able to study law and
became a member of the Massachusetts bar, but he never forgot those early struggles.
While serving in Massachusetts legislature, he signed a historic education bill that set up a state board of
education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and political career to become the first
secretary of the board. There he exercised an enormous influence during the critical period of reconstruction
that brought into existence the American graded elementary school as substitute for the older distinct school
system. Under his leadership, the curriculum was restructured, the school year was increased to a minimum
of six months, and mandatory schooling was extended to age sixteen. Other important reforms included the
establishment of state normal schools for teacher training, institutes for in- service teacher education, and
lyceums for adult education. He was also instrument in improving salaries for teachers and creating school
libraries.
Mann’s ideas about school reform were developed and distributed in twelve annual reports to the state of
Massachusetts that he wrote during his tenure as secretary of education. Considered quite radical at the time,
the Massachusetts reforms later served as a model for the nation. Mann was recognized as the father of public
education.
Question 1. Which of the following titles would best express the main topic of the passage ?
A. The Father of American Public Education
B. Philosophy of Education
C. The Massachusetts State Board of Education.
D. Politics of Educational Institutions

Question 2. Which of the following describes Horace Mann’s early life ?

A. He attended school six months a year. B. He had to study alone, without help.
C. He supported his family after his father died. D. He was an only child.
Question 3. The word “struggles” in line 5 could best be replaced by
A. valuable experiences B. happy situations
C. influential people D. difficult times
Question 4. The word “regret” in line 7 could best be replaced by
A. consideration B. feeling sorry C. limitation D. acceptance
Question 5. What did Horace Mann advocate ?
A. The state board school system. B. The district school system.
C. The substitute school system. D. The graded school system.
Question 6. The word “mandatory” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
A. required B. equal C. excellent D. basic
Question 7. How were Mann’s educational reforms distributed ?
4
A. In twelve annual reports to the state of Massachusetts.
B. In reports that he wrote for national distribution.
C. In speeches that he made throughout the country.
D. In books that could be found in school libraries.

Question 8. The reforms that Horace Mann achieved were

A. not radical for the time. B. used only by the state of Massachusetts
C. adopted by the nation as a model. D. enforced by the Massachusetts bar.
Question 9. Among Mann’s school reforms, which of the following is NOT mentioned ?
A. Restructuring curriculum B. Schools for teacher training
C. Lyceums for adult education D. Creating museums
Question 10. Which of the following statements best represents Mann’s philosophy ?
A. Think in new way B. Help others C. Study very hard D. Work hard
PASSAGE 6
Michael Jackson wears two hats. One hat is the smart businessman: he makes a lot of money from things
like Pepsi advertisements (fifteen million dollars in his new contract), he bought the Beatles' old songs, and
he controls the media carefully. The other hat is a very strange and shy child, who loves animals and Walt
Disney cartoons, and who is a genius at making music. Michael Jackson made Thriller five years ago. It is
still the biggest selling album in history. It created several hit singles, won eight Grammies, and sold thirty
eight and a half million copies worldwide. Now he has a new album, Bad, and Michael will have a difficult
time making the new album as successful as the old. If Bad sells only ten million copies, it will be more than
almost any other record, but it may still not be a success for Michael. In October Michael began his first solo
tour in Tokyo. This year and next, Michael will see a little of the world when he performs before millions of
fans. But after the tour ends, he will never tour again." This will be Michael's last tour, his only solo tour
ever," says manager Frank Dileo. Michael will go back to recording studios and movie sets to continue his
work in private.
Question 1. Why is the success of Thriller a problem for Michael Jackson?
A. because he has so many fans.
B. because he can't earn much money from it.
C. because he can't make a better one.
D. because it will be difficult for him to make a better one

Question 2. Where will Michael make albums in the future?

A. outside B. in studios C. in theatres D. in Tokyo
Question 3. Why Michael will never do another solo?
A. because he's tired
B. because he didn't earn much money from the first one.
C. because he has made too many solo tours
D. because he will have to go on his work in private.
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Question 4. " Michael Jackson wears two hats" means .
A. he has two hats at home. B. he wears two hats when he performs.
C. He does two kinds of work at the same time. D. he earns a lot of money from advertisements.
Question 5. Which of the following sentences is the most important idea of the text?
A. Michael Jackson is not an easy person to understand.
B. Michael Jackson is a better businessman than a musician.
C. Michael Jackson likes to wear hats.
D. Michael Jackson likes to travel a lot.

PASSAGE 7
Vincent Van Gogh was born in Groot Zundert, in The Netherlands on March 30th 1853, to parents Theodorus
Van Gogh, a preacher, and Ana Cornelia Carbentus. In 1869 at the age of 16, Van Gogh began a career, not
as a painter, but as an art dealer with the firm Goupil & Cie. He spent 7 years at Goupil & Cie where daily
contacts with works of art kindled his appreciation of paintings and drawings. Gradually Vincent lost interest
in his work and decided to try his hand teaching at a Catholic School for boys. His growing interest religion
and his desire to help the poor eventually drove him to become a clergyman. In 1878, he became a lay
preacher in one of the most impoverished regions in Western Europe: the coal- mining district of the
Borinage in Belgium. Vincent sympathized with the poverty-stricken miners and gave away most of his food
and clothing to ease their burdened lives. His extreme commitment to the miners drew disfavor from the
church, which dismissed him of his post. Vincent, however, decided to remain with the miners and began to
paint them and their families, chronicling their harsh conditions.
Soon after, thanks to his brother’s financial help, Vincent decided to go to Brussels in 1880 to begin studies
in art. During the next 10 years, Vincent painted around 872 painting. In 1882, Vincent began living with
Clasina Maria Hoornik, also known as Sien, and her children, in The Hague. Their volatile personalities and
the strain of living in complete poverty created stormy relationship. Vincent was devoted to Sien and her
children, but art always came first. As his drawing and painting skills advanced, his relationship with Sien
deteriorated and they parted ways in September 1883
In 1886,Vincent moved in with his brother-Theo in Paris where he met Paul Gauguin and various other
artists, who had a tremendous impact on his ongoing evolution as an artist. Never truly happy in large cities,
Vincent decided to move to Aries Province in the south of France, where he rented a studio and invited Paul
Gauguin to live with him. In December 1888, Vincent experienced a psychotic episode in which he cut off
a piece of his left ear. After his episode, he was in and out of asylums for the next year. It was thought that
Van Gogh was actually epileptic and that is why people thought he had fits of insanity throughout his life.
He painted one of his best-known painting, Starry Night, during one of his stays in the asylum. In mid-1890,
Vincent left the asylum and spent the last few months of his life in Auvers, France. On July 27th 1890,
Vincent Van Gogh shot himself in the chest. Two days later he died with his younger brother-Theo by his
side. He left behind a wonderful array of paintings that make him one of the most influential painters of our
time.
Question 1. The word "chronicling" in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to " ".
A. recording B. classifying C. suffering D. colouring
Question 2. Van Gogh decided to become a clergyman due to .
A. his love of art B. his teachings at the Catholic School for boys
6
C. the Goupil & Cie art dealer firm D. his developing enthusiasm in Christianity
Question 3. Vincent's extreme commitment to the miners resulted in .
A. his painting the miners and their families B. his sympathizing with the miners
C. the church discharging him of his duty D. the church giving food and clothing to the miners
Question 4. The word "deteriorated" in paragraph 2 is closest meaning to " ".
A. detested B. became worse and worse
C. developed D. turned down
Question 5. Vincent and Clasina's relationship was stormy because of .
A. his devotion to art B. the stress of living in poor conditions
C. her children D. their tame personalities
Question 6. Vincent first went into an asylum because .
A. he painted Starry Night B. he was epileptic
C. he cut off part of his ear D. he was insane throughout his life
Question 7. Vincent went to Aries because .
A. he disliked big cities B. he wanted to live in Gauguin's house in Aries
C. he wanted to live in a bigger city D. he did not get along with his brother, Theo
Question 8. Vincent moved to Paris .
A. in order to evolve as an artist B. to live with his brother
C. to meet other artists D. to live with Paul Gauguin
Question 9. Van Gogh was believed to be .
A. insane B. a loner C. epileptic D. an inadequate painter
Question 10. The word "episode" in paragraph 3 refers to " ".
A. important event in his life B. unbelievable fact
C. unfortunate time D. one of several parts of a story on television
PASSAGE 8
Adolf Hitler
Adolf Hitler, Chancellor of Germany and leader of the Nazi Party, has been known as a racist. He believed
that large groups of people are different from each other and he felt that races have certain characteristics
determined by genetics. This was one of his core political ideas and it increased his hatred toward other
races.
Adolf Hitler was born in April, 1889 in a small Austrian town near the German border. The outbreak of the
First World War provided him with an opportunity to serve in the German army and he became German. In
the years after World War I, Germany was very unstable. Hitler entered politics and gave many passionate
speeches that blamed Germany's problems on Jewish people. They became the main target of his hate.
In 1933, Hitler gained power of the German government. Once in power he started racist policies against
Jewish people. His policies soon turned into genocide during his time. He killed 11 million people and 6
million of them were Jewish. He was seldom satisfied with ruling only Germany. He invaded Czechoslovakia
in 1938. Shortly after that, he invaded Poland.

7
Following this, most of the developed countries in the world joined together to oppose him. This was how
World War II began. During World War II, Hitler took over most of Europe before the Allies finally defeated
him.
Question 1. It is stated in paragraph 1, Adolf Hitler believed that
A. it is good to compete in races. B. everyone has one's own specialty.
C. people should join large groups. D. races are different from each other.
Question 2. It is NOT mentioned in par. 2 that Hitler
A. was born in Austria B. blamed Germans in his political spháteeches
C. became German after serving in the army D. entered politics and accused Jews
Question 3. According to par. 3, all of the following are true EXCEPT that Hitler
A. committed mass murder B. controlled many European countries
C. caused WW II D. beat Allied countries that were against him
Question 4. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. There were changes and problems in Germany after WW I.
B. As a leader of Germany, Hitler attacked many countries in the world.
C. Jewish people allied with other countries in the world and defeated Hitler.
D. Hitler believed races had nothing to do with their genes.

Question 5. What is the main idea of paragraph 3?

A. Hitler - who has been known as a racist
B. Hitler after gaining power of the German government
C. Hitler's youth
D. Hitler's place of birth

8
Theme 11. Social Issues (Các vấn đề xã hội)
PASSAGE 4
STRESS
Stress is with us all the time. It comes from mental or emotional activity as well as physical activity. It is
unique and personal to each of us. So personal, in fact, that what may be relaxing to one person may be
stressful to another. For example, if you are a busy executive who likes to keep occupied all of the time,
“taking it easy” at the beach on a beautiful day may feel extremely frustrating, nonproductive, and
upsetting. You may be emotionally distressed from “doing nothing”. Too much emotional stress can cause
physical illnesses such as high blood pressure, ulcers, or even heart disease. Physical stress from work or
exercise is not likely to cause such ailments. The truth is that physical exercise can help you to relax and
to better handle your mental or emotional stress.
Question 1. Which of the following people would find “taking it easy” stressful?
A. Construction worker B. Business executive
C. Farm worker D. Truck driver
Question 2. In the eight sentence, “aliments” most nearly means .
A. traits B. episodes C. characteristics D. illness
Question 3. This articles, published by the Department of Health and Human Services, probably came
from the .
Federal Bureau of Investigation
Alcohol, Drug Abuse, and Mental Health Administration
Education Administration
Communicative Diseases Administration
Question 4. A source of stress NOT specifically mentioned in this passage is .
A. educational activity B. physical activity C. mental activity D. emotional activity
Question 5. Physical problems caused by emotional stress can appear as all of the following EXCEPT:
A. ulcers B. pregnancy C. heart disease D. high blood pressure
PASSAGE 5
The population of the world has increased more in modern times than in all other ages of history combined
World population totalled about 500 million in 1650. It doubled in the period from 1650 - 1850. Today the
population is more than five billion. Estimates based on research by the United Nations indicate that it will
more than double in the twenty - five years between 1915 and the year 2000, reaching seven billion by the
turn of the century No one knows the limits of population that the earth can support. Thomas Malthus, an
English economist, developed a theory that became widely accepted in the nineteenth century. He
suggested that because world population tended to increase more rapidly than the food supply, a continual
strain was exerted upon available resources. Malthus cited wars, famines, epidemics, and other disasters as
the usual limitations of population growth. With recent advances in science and technology, including
improved agricultural methods and great strides in medicine, some of the limiting factors in population
growth have been lessened, with obvious results, international organizations have put forward several
recommendations to alleviate the problem of overpopulation, including an increase in food production,
general economic development in target areas, and a decrease in birth rates. Most experts agree that it will

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be necessary to combine all three recommendations in an effort to effect a lasting solution.
Question 1. The title below that best expresses the ideas in this passage is .
A. Thomas Mathus's Theory
B. The United Nations' Estimate
C. Limiting Factors in Population Growth
D. A Brief History of Population and Overpopulation
Question 2. World population doubled in the years between
A. 500 - 1650 B. 1650 - 1850 C. 1650 - today D. 1850 – 2000
Question 3. According to this passage, by the year 2000 the earth's population should exceed the present
figure by how much?
A. 500 million B. Five billion C. Two billion D. Seven billion
Question 4. According to this passage, why has overpopulation been caused?
A. Improved technology B. Disasters
C. Scarcity D. Precaution
Question 5. What do most experts recommend in order to solve problems of overpopulation?
A. Famine and epidemic
B. Medical advanced and improved agricultural methods
C. Economic development and a decline in the birth rate
D. Conservation of available resources
PASSAGE 6
May 19
Customer Services Office WorldTravel Limited 25 Cramden Road London To Whom It May Concern:
I spent most of the last two days calling your customer service lines in an effort to resolve this situation
(see my customer reference number, A802234-202), but I have gotten nowhere.
So, I’m writing in the hopes that this letter will get into the hands of a more effective person. I’m really
hoping you can help me.
On Monday, May 16th, I was in the airport checking my baggage for a flight to Amsterdam, and the young
man who was helping me - James Strathcona was his name - tore the handle off my suitcase when he was
lifting it onto the conveyor belt. I have since inquired as to how much it would cost to fix and was told it
would be at least US$45.00.1 have enclosed a photocopy of the quote from the repairman.
On principle, I really feel these repairs ought to be paid by WorldTravel, as the damage was done while
one of your people was handling my luggage. However, I am being given the run-around by your customer
service staff whenever I call. One young man Was even so bold as to suggest that the suitcase was
probably worn out and ready to break anyway. I assure you that this is not true: I only recently bought the
set, and the only reason it was broken was that it was handled with excessive force.
In all other dealings I’ve had with your company, I have had very positive experiences and I have no wish
to fly with another airline.
I look forward to hearing from you soon, and I very much appreciate your help. Yours faithfully,

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Edith Smallwood
Question 1. 178. What is the purpose of the letter?
A. To report a lost suitcase B. To claim repair expenses
C. To complain about a flight D. To request a copy of a quote
Question 2. 179. What was the Customer Serviceepartment’s response to Ms. Smallwood’s claim?
A. They will reimburse her for the repairs. B. They think she probably broke the handle herself.
C. They said they are not responsible D. They said Mr. Strathcona should pay the cost.
Question 3. 180.Why did Ms. Smallwood go to see a repairman?
A. To buy a suitcase B. To ask for a refund
C. To find out about repair costs D. To pay an outstanding bill
PASSAGE 7
Unmarried Women Becoming Homeowners
An increasing number of single women are buying their own homes, according to industry experts. By
contrast, the figures for unmarried men buying houses or apartments show no increase. What is behind this
trend? I put the question to analysts at the Real Estate Institute, who came up with the following
observations:
Women no longer seek marriage and a homemaking role as their first priority, but want a stable job or
career instead, and this puts them in a position where they can own a home independently.
Single men are no longer pressured to "settle down," which traditionally means getting a stable job with a
career path and then getting married and buying a house. They tend, therefore, to be less likely to have
stable jobs • Women are increasingly better qualified and in many areas have surpassed men. This enables
them to obtain better and more highly paid jobs.
Women seem to be more capable of seeking good advice and completing the formalities of obtaining a
mortgage.
Experts at the institute expect the trend to continue, as home ownership provides financial and emotional
security for women who are not yet ready to seek a "partner for life."
Question 1. 156 .What is the main purpose of the article?
A. To provide information about the steps required in owning a home
B. To inform the public about the types of mortgages available today
C. To report the opinions of the experts in the real estate market
D. To encourage people to work harder to achieve their career goals
Question 2. 157 .Which of the following is NOT a trend mentioned by the analysts?
A. Women are placing less importance on their traditional roles as homemakers.
B. Men are giving in to the pressure and settling down early.
C. Women are taking over positions that were normally held by men.
D. Men are less likely to chase after sound investment advice.
Question 3. 158 .What do the experts at the institute predict?
A. Men are beginning to show an interest in the real estate market.
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B. Men will reclaim the positions they lost to women.
C. Women will continue to invest in homes.
D. Women will resort to marriage for emotional security.
PASSAGE 8
Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local governments.
Arriving immigrants depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to help them start a new life.
In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, several European nations instituted public-welfare programs. But
such a movement was slow to take hold in the United States because the rapid pace of industrialization and
the ready availability of farmland seemed to confirm the belief that anyone who was willing to work could
find a joB.
Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures, but one of the
programs Social Security - has become an American institution. Paid for by deductions from the paychecks
of working people, Social Security ensures that retired persons receive a modest monthly income and also
provides unemployment insurance, disability insurance, and other assistance to those who need it. Social
Security payments to retired persons can start at age 62, but many wait until age 65, when the payments are
slightly higher. Recently, there has been concern that the Social Security fund may not have enough
money to fulfill its obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly Americans is expected to
increase dramatically. Policy makers have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated deficit, but a
long-term solution is still being debated.
In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance programs. These
include Medicaid and Medicare; food stamps, certificates that people can use to purchase food; and public
housing which is built at federal expense and made available to persons on low incomes.
Needy Americans can also turn to sources other than the government for help. A broad spectrum of private
charities and voluntary organizations is available. Volunteerism is on the rise in the United States,
especially among retired persons. It is estimated that almost 50 percent of Americans over age 18 do
volunteer work, and nearly 75 percent of U.S. households contribute money to charity.
Question 1. New immigrants to the U.S. could seek help from .
A. the people who came earlier B. the US government agencies
C. only charity organizations D. volunteer organizations
Question 2. It took welfare programs a long time to gain a foothold in the U.S. due to the fast growth of
.
A. industrialization B. modernization C. urbanization D. Population
Question 3. The word “instituted” in the first paragraph mostly means .
A. “executed” B. “studied” C. “introduced” D. “enforced”
Question 4. The Social Security program has become possible thanks to .
A. deductions from wages B. people’s willingness to work
C. donations from companies D. enforcement laws
Question 5. Most of the public assistance programs after the severe economic crisis.
A. were introduced into institutions B. did not become institutionalized
C. functioned fruitfully in institutions D. did not work in institutions

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Question 6. That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that .
A. elderly people ask for more money B. the program discourages working people
C. the number of elderly people is growing D. younger people do not want to work.
Question 7. Persons on low incomes can access public housing through .
A. low rents B. state spending C. donations D. federal expenditure
Question 8. Americans on low incomes can seek help from .
A. federal government B. government agencies
C. state governments D. non-government agencies
Question 9. Public assistance has become more and more popular due to the .
A. young people’s voluntarism only B. volunteer organizations
C. people’s growing commitment to charityD. innovations in the tax system
Question 10. The passage mainly discusses .
A. public assistance in America B. immigration into America
C. funding agencies in America D. ways of fund-raising in America

13
Theme 12. Other topics (Tổng hợp bài đọc hay từ các chủ đề khác)
PASSAGE 4
In the American colonies there was little money. England did not supply the colonies with coins and
did not allow the colonies to make their own coins, except for the Massachusetts Bay Colony, which
received permission for a short period in 1652 to make several kinds of silver coins. England wanted to
keep money out of America as a means of controlling trade: America was forced to trade only with England
if it did not have the money to buy products from other countries. The result during this pre- revolutionary
period was that the colonists used various goods in place of money: beaver pelts, Indian wampum, and
tobacco leaves were all commonly used substitutes for money. The colonists also made use of any foreign
coins they could obtain. Dutch, Spanish, French, and English coins were all in use in the American colonies.
During the Revolutionary War, funds were needed to finance the world, so each of the individual states
and the Continental Congress issued paper money. So much of this paper money was printed that by the
end of the war, almost no one would accept it. As a result, trade in goods and the use of foreign coins still
flourished during this period.
By the time the Revolutionary War had been won by the American colonists, the monetary system was
in a state of total disarray. To remedy this situation, the new Constitution of the United States, approved in
1789, allowed Congress to issue money. The individual states could no longer have their own money
supply. A few years later, the Coinage Act of 1792 made the dollar the official currency of the United States
and put the country on a bimetallic standard. In this bimetallic system, both gold and silver were legal
money, and the rate of exchange of silver to gold was fixed by the government at sixteen to one.
Question 1. The passage mainly discusses
A. the effect of the Revolution on American money.
B. American money from past to present.
C. the American monetary system of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries.
D. the English monetary policies in colonial America.
Question 2. The passage indicates that during the colonial period, money was
A. used extensively for trade. B. scarce.
C. supplied by England. D. coined by colonists.
Question 3. The Massachusetts Bay Colony was allowed to make coins
A. for a short time during one year.
B. throughout the seventeenth century.
C. continuously from the inception of the colonies.
D. from 1652 until the Revolutionary War.
Question 4. The expression “a means of” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by .
A. a result of B. a method of C. a punishment for D. an example of
Question 5. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a substitute for money during
the colonial period?
A. Wampum B. Cotton C. Beaver furs D. Tobacco
Question 6. The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following

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A. The Continental Congress B. Trade in goods
C. The War D. Paper money

15
Question 7. It is implied in the passage that at the end of the Revolutionary War, a paper dollar was
worth
A. exactly one dollar B. just over one dollar C. just under one dollar D. almost nothing
Question 8. The word “remedy” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. resolve B. medicate C. renew D. understand
Question 9. How was the monetary system arranged in the Constitution?
A. The US officially went on a bimetallic monetary system.
B. The dollar was made official currency of the US.
C. Only the US Congress could issue money.
D. Various state governments, including Massachusetts, could issue money.
Question 10. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the bimetallic
monetary system?
A. Either gold or silver could be used as official money.
B. It was established in 1792.
C. Gold could be exchanged for silver at the rate of sixteen to one.
D. The monetary system was based on two matters.

PASSAGE 5
For many years, scientists have speculated that the cataclysmic impact of an asteroid with the earth was
responsible for the demise of the dinosaurs approximately 65 million years ago. Previous discoveries and
results have hinted that an asteroid two kilometers in diameter struck the Yucatan peninsula in Eastern
Mexico. This impact, stronger than one thousand nuclear explosions, is speculated to have cast a cloud of
dust and debris into the atmosphere, covering the entire surface of the earth and blocking out the sun and
consequently lowering the surface temperature of the earth. With such a radical change in the earth’s
environment, scientists believe that over 99% of all animal and plant species were eradicated. Only after
millions of years did plants and animals even begin to recover and develop into forms that were better
adapted to survive changes in their environment. But, the reign of the dinosaurs had ended and the age of
mammals had begun.
The crucial link that has held this theory together has been the element iridium. Iridium is not commonly
found on either the surface of the earth or inside the crust. It is more commonly found in asteroids or
meteorites throughout the solar system. Scientists have hypothesized that after the asteroid impacted the
earth, an even layer of iridium sediment settled over the globe and eventually became part of its surface.
The theory, of course, has depended on the discovery of such an existing layer of iridium.
Unfortunately, scientists have never been able to offer absolute proof that this asteroid impact ever
occurred. Recently, however, a discovery may go a long way toward validating these scientists’ theories.
In 1996, a team of marine biologists excavated samples of rock from the Atlantic Ocean just off the cost
of Bermuda. Found thousands of meters below the sea, these samples contain iridium similar to those
found in the Yucatan peninsula thousands of kilometers away. At first, scientists were skeptical whether
the samples were from the same time period. But since carbon dating placed them to 65 million years ago,
their doubts were quickly alleviated. Since then many of the other theories for the demise of the dinosaur
have been finally laid to rest.

16
Question 1. According to the passage, approximately how large was the asteroid that scientists believe
struck the Earth?
A. 2 kilometers in diameter B. 65 kilometers in diameter
C. 1000 kilometers in diameter D. 99 kilometers in diameter
Question 2. The word “hinted” is closest in meaning to
A. disproved B. flirted C. denied D. implied
Question 3. The word “cast” is closest in meaning to .
A. shone B. climbed C. dispersed D. excused
Question 4. What can be inferred from the passage about asteroid impact mentioned in lines 6 – 8?
A. New plants and animals evolved with the changed environment.
B. The gravitational force from the earth’s core is altered.
C. A planetary defense system formed.
D. The climate remained fairly constant.
Question 5. The word “reign” is closest in meaning to .
A. understanding B. dominance C. denial D. extremity
Question 6. The word “It” in line 10 refers to .
A. crust B. asteroid C. earth D. iridium
Question 7. What does fourth paragraph of the passage mainly discuss?
A. The major processes that have created the Earth’s crust.
B. The composition of the ocean floor in the Atlantic Ocean.
C. Recent discoveries that may confirm the asteroid impact hypothesis.
D. The discovery of ancient fossils located far beneath the ocean floor.
Question 8. According to the passage, the iridium found beneath the ocean floor near Bermuda

A. can be refined into fossil fuels.

B. is similar to the iridium found on the Yucatan peninsula.
C. originated from dinosaur remains.
D. was chemically manufactured by miners
Question 9. The paragraph following the passage probably discusses
A. the relationship between volcanic activity and dinosaur extinction.
B. why dinosaurs lived where they did.
C. recent computer imagery of dinosaur movement.
D. the possibility of a future asteroid impact.
Question 10. This passage mainly discusses a theory about .
A. which type of dinosaur roamed freely
B. archeological evidence from Mexico and the Atlantic Ocean

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C. why the dinosaurs turned into birds and reptiles
D. the extinction of the dinosaurs
PASSAGE 6
A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, which provides information
concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys are the Gallup poll and
the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during campaigns presidential knows, these polls have
become an important part of political life in the United States.
North Americans are familiar with the many “person on the street” interviews on local television news
shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate indication of
public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a certain location. Thus,
such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-class shoppers, or factory workers, depending
on which area the news people select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are
willing to appear on the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A
survey must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the
population.
In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of questions. An
effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand it. It must also be
specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even questions that are less
structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of information desired. Surveys can be
indispensable sources of information, but only if the sampling is done properly and the questions are worded
accurately.
There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these forms of survey
research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate because people find it more
difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw away a written questionnaire. In
addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and probe for a subject’s underlying feelings and
reasons. However, questionnaires have the advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.
Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The principles of conducting surveys B. The importance of polls in American political life
C. The history of surveys in North America D. D Problems associated with interpreting surveys
Question 2. The word "they" in line 7 refers to .
A. interviews B. news shows C. North Americans D. opinions
Question 3. According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person-on-the-street interviews is that they
A. reflect political opinions B. are used only on television
C. are not carefully worded D. are not based on a representative sampling
Question 4. The word "precise" in line 10 is closest in meaning to .
A. rational B. accurate C. required D. planned
Question 5. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey?
A. An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings
B. Carefully worded questions
C. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results
D. A high number of respondents
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Question 6. The word "exercise" in line 12 is closest in meaning to .
A. consider B. design C. utilize D. defend

19
Question 7. The word "elicit" in line 15 is closest in meaning to .
A. rule out B. bring out C. predict D. compose
Question 8. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become frustrated with
questionnaires is that .
A. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions
B. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires
C. questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute
D. questionnaires are often difficult to read
Question 9. According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is that live
interviews .
A. minimize the influence of the researcher B. are easier to interpret
C. can produce more information D. cost less
Question 10. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. Representative sampling B. Response rate
C. Public opinion D. Survey

PASSAGE 7
It happens to us all, however hard we may try to delay the process. We grow old. Cosmetic surgery may remove
the wrinkles, skins which has sagged may be tightened by means of a facelift, and hairdressers may dye grey hair
a more youthful colour, but we cannot remain young forever.
Advances in medicine have made it possible for more people to stay alive longer. However, what is important is
the quality of life and people age differently. Some people remain quite well and able to look after themselves
when they get old, but others of the same age are not so lucky. They have to go into sheltered housing or even into
a nursing home in order to receive adequate care.
The worst aspect of ageing is that often the mind becomes less alert. As people grow older, they often experience
loss of short-term memory, although they may well be able to recall quite easily events that happened long ago.
By no means all elderly people are in this category. Many senior citizens are in possession of all their faculties and
see retirement as a time of freedom. Not only that, if they have a generous retirement pension, they are likely to
be quite well off, with money to spend on holidays and other luxuries. Because of this, both businesses and
government have a new respect for what is known as grey power.
By no means, however, does everyone treat OAPs with respect. There are some cultures which are noted for the
great respect with which they treat their old people, but many people regard the old as having a very low status in
society and treat them accordingly. People in these latter cultures are often guilty of ageism. Someone should
remind them that they, too, will be old one day.
Question 1. People try to look younger than their age by
A. dressing smartly. B. mixing with young people.
C. getting a facelift. D. working hard.
Question 2. The word "sagged" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. got loose. B. died. C. removed. D. whitened.
Question 3. Elderly people who cannot look after themselves go to
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A. nursing homes. B. hospitals C. community centres. D. homes of relatives.
Question 4. What is the reason that businesses respect the elderly?
A. The elderly are wise. B. The elderly have knowledge.
C. The elderly are mentally alert. D. The elderly have spending power.
Question 5. The writer said that people treat the elderly according to
A. their moods. B. cultural attitudes.
C. their amount of education D. their amount of time.
PASSAGE 8
Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the solid portions of the planet,
the second most prominent features are flat plains, elevated plateaus, and large mountain ranges. In geography, the
term “continent” refers to the surface of continuous landmasses that together comprise about 29.2% of the planet’s
surface. On the other hand, another definition is prevalent in the general use of the term that deals with extensive
mainlands, such as Europe or Asia, that actually represent one very large landmass. Although all continents are
bounded by water bodies or high mountain ranges, isolated mainlands, such as Greenland and India-Pakistan areas
are called subcontinents. In some circles, the distinction between continents and large islands lies almost
exclusively in the size of particular landmass.
The analysis of compression and tension in the earth’s crust has determined that continental structures are
composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal of disagreement among geologists surrounds
the issue of exactly how many layers underlie each landmass because of their distinctive mineral and chemical
composition. It is also quite possible that the ocean floor rests on the top of unknown continents that have not yet
been explored. The continental crust is believed to have been formed by means of a chemical reaction when lighter
materials separated from heavier ones, thus settling at various levels within the crust. Assisted by the measurements
of the specifics within crust formations by means of monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate that a
chemical split occurred to form the atmosphere, sea water, and the crust before it solidified many centuries ago.
Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of components that include
shields, mountain belts, intracratonic basins, margins, volcanic plateaus, and blockvaulted belts. The basic
differences among continents lie in the proportion and the composition of these features relative to the continent
size. Climatic zones have a crucial effect on the weathering and formation of the surface features, soil erosion, soil
deposition, land formation, vegetation, and human activities.
Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary organization of layers.
They are typically produced during substantial crustal movements, which generate faulting and mountain building.
When continental margins collide, the rise of a marginal edge leads to the formation of large mountain ranges, as
explained by the plate tectonic theory. This process also accounts for the occurrence of mountain belts in ocean
basins and produces evidence for the ongoing continental plate evolution.
Question 1. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Continental drift and division B. Various definitions of the term “continent”
C. Continental structure and crust D. Scientific analyses of continental crusts
Question 2. According to the passage, how do scientists define continents?
A. As masses of land without divisions B. As extensive bodies of land
C. As the largest identifiable features D. As surgical compositions and ranges
Question 3. The word “bounded” is closest in meaning to .
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A. covered B. convened C. delimited D. dominated
Question 4. The author of the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on the fact that .
A. each continent has several planes and shelves
B. continents have various underlying layers of crust
C. continents undergo compression and experience tension
D. continents have different chemical makeup
Question 5. The word “specifics” is closest in meaning to .
A. specialties B. speculations C. exact details D. precise movements
Question 6. The word “it” refers to .
A. a chemical split B. sea water C. the atmosphere D. the crust
Question 7. The author of the passage implies that .
A. it is not known exactly how the continental crust was formed
B. geologists have neglected the exploration of the ocean floor
C. scientists have concentrated on monitoring earthquakes
D. the earth’s atmosphere split into water and solids
Question 8. According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents?
A. The proportional size of continents to one another
B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size
C. The distinctive features of their elements
D. Climatic zones and their effect on the surface features
Question 9. The phrase “This process” refers to ..
A. continental collision B. mountain ranges
C. the rise of margins D. plate tectonic theory
Question 10. The author of the passage implies that .
A. the process of mountain formation has not been accounted for
B. mountain ranges on the ocean floor lead to surface mountain building
C. faulting and continental margins are parts of plate edges
D. the process of continent formation has not been completed

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