Institute of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation

Paper: Integumentary
Total Marks: 40 Time allowed: 40 minutes Name: _______________ Roll No: _____________

1. Preferred practice pattern of Physical Therapy for Deep Burns in Fascia involving Bones or Muscles is

A. 7B-I B. 7C-I C. 7D-I D. 7E-I

2. Isograft is a type of graft involving transfer between…

A. Individuals of same species C. Genetically identical twins

B. Individuals of different species D. None of the above

3. A patient undergoes WOLFE GRAFTING for an injury. What type of scarring will be observed for this patient?

A. Thin C. Thin and hypertrophic

B. Thick D. Thick and hypertrophic

4. A boy of 9 years old is burned 8%. What will be the next step in his management

A. Transfer to Hospital C. Go back home

B. Transfer to Burn Center D. None of the above

5. Early signs for Escaharatomy are

A. Loss of pulse/sensation in the respective limb
B. Pain at rest
C. Pain at rest and with passive movements of distal joints indicating ischemia
D. Pain at rest or on passive motion of distal joints indicating ischemia
6. Liquefactive Necrosis occurs in_________

A. Alkaline burns B. Acidic Burns C. Both D. None

7. Chest PT according to Inhalational Injury Treatment protocol is performed every

A. 1-2 hours for 7 days C. 4-6 hours for 7 days

B. 2-4 hours for 7 days D. None of the above

8. Patient with Leg Graft is kept on Bed rest after operation. He should be ambulated after

A. 3-4 days B. 4-5 days C. 5-6 days D. 6-7 days

9. A patient 65 years old is admitted to the burn unit. He is burnt around his left hand and chest. Physiotherapist is called to
rehabilitate the patient for shoulder functional activities etc. What will be the approach of the Physical Therapist?

A. Conservative B. Aggressive C. Both D. None

10. A patient is seriously burnt around the left arm and shoulder but is modestly burnt all over the body. What will be the
rehabilitation prognosis?

A. Better and easy to rehabilitate C. Both

B. Worse and difficult to rehabilitate D. None

11. Full side lying position is not advised because it

A. Makes the patient off balance C. Increase pressure over the lateral malleolus
B. Increase pressure over the greater trochanter D. None of the above

12. A patient came in with burn injuries to the anterior part of the thigh and groin region. Which of these should be avoided in
rehab of this patient?

A. Reverse Trendelenburg C. Elevation of bed with wooden blocks of 12-16”

B. Soft mattress D. None

13. A patient admitted with shoulder and Axillary burns is undergoing rehab for functional independence. What will be the
initial/Acutely focus of rehab, failure of which will cause fixed deformity?

A. Edema increase C. ROM

B. Edema reduction D. Wait for healing of burnt area

14. Preventive position for HIP in burn patient is.

A. Full Flexion-10degree Rotation-Abduction 20degree
B. Full Extension-10degree Rotation-Adduction 15-20 degree
C. Full Flexion- 0 degree Rotation-Abduction of 10 degrees
D. Full Extension-0 degree Rotation- Abduction 20 degree
15. Pressure Therapy is used for none except

A. Wounds healing within 14-21 days C. Wounds Healing in more than 21 Days
B. Wounds healing within 1-7 days D. Wounds healing in 7-14 days
Institute of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation

Paper: Integumentary
Total Marks: 40 Time allowed: 40 minutes Name: _______________ Roll No: _____________

16. Following are Primary lesions of skin except

A. Bulla B. Papule C. Scar D. Pustule

17. Weight of person is 100kg. What percentage of the total body weight is the skin?

A. 10% B. 12% C. 16% D. 20%

18. Epidermis consists of Blood vessels

True False

19. Stratum Corneum accounts for___ thickness

A. 55% B. 65% C. 75% D. 85%

20. Stratum lucidum is present in epidermis of which part

A. Lips B. Ears C. Dorsal of hand D. None

21. Stratum Granulosum consists of

A. 2-3 layers of flattened cells C. 4-5 layers of flattened cells

B. 3-4 layers of flattened cells D. None

22. Cerumen functions as ______

A. Increase sound transmission C. Lubrication of ear canal

B. Protection of ear drum from bacteria D. Both B and C

23. Method assessing area of skin as 9% or multiples of 9 and which is not recommended to be used for children is called

A. Lund and Browder Chart C. Rule of 8

B. Rule of NINE D. None

24. In the Rule Of Nine Front of body is

A. 9% B. 12% C. 18% D. 27%

25. According to Lund and Browder Method area of head for adult is

A. 10 B. 9 C. 7 D. 6

26. A skin condition called General Dermatitis develops due to the deficiency of which of the following?

a. Zinc b. Niacin c. Riboflavin d. Iron

27. Skin is responsible for the storage of all of the following except:

a. Water c. Fats e. Urea

b. Vitamin D d. Glucose

28. Which of the following statements is true regarding papillary layer of the dermis?
a. Composed of 25 to 30 layers of flattened, scalelike cells
b. Acts as a first barrier against infections
c. Made of areolar loose connective tissue and is highly vascularized
d. Also called clear layer
29. Linea Albicans is a characteristic of which of the following layer of the skin?

a. Stratum Spinosum c. Stratum Granulosum

b. Stratum Reticularosum d. Stratum Lucidum

30. Mr. Ali came to burn trauma centre with complaints of severe pain and blisters and minimal scarring. The skin blanches to
pressure with the involvement of papillary dermis only. What is the type of burn?

a. Superficial partial burn c. Deep burn

b. Deep partial burn d. None of the above

31. Miss Samia came to HMC with chemical burn to the right arm with involvement of all the three layers of the skin and the
sub cutaneous fat. There is severe risk of scar and contracture formation. What is the type of burn?

a. Superficial burn c. Deep Partial burn

b. Deep burn d. Superficial partial burn

32. First degree burns involve which of the following layer of skin?
Institute of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation

Paper: Integumentary
Total Marks: 40 Time allowed: 40 minutes Name: _______________ Roll No: _____________

a. Epidermis c. Papillary layer

b. Reticular layer d. All three layers

33. Which type of burn has the shortest healing time?

a. Superficial burn c. Deep partial burn

b. Superficial partial burn d. Fourth degree burn

34. Blistering, patchy, cheesy white to red, waxy dry appearance with a healing time of more than 3 weeks. All of these are the
characteristics of:

a. Superficial partial thickness burn c. Superficial burn

b. Deep partial thickness burn d. None of the above

35. A quick way to calculate the extent of burn is:

a. Rule of nine c. Palm method

b. Lund & Browder method d. None of the above

36. Dr. Yasir is attending a burn patient presented to the emergency department with burn of the entire right thigh and groin
with the involvement of anterior head and anterior chest. Calculate the extent of TBSA for this patient.

a. 33.5 b. 32.5 c. 42.5 d. 41.5

37. In order to prevent the development of contractures in a burn patient the following position is a position of choice?

a. Neck in extension c. Elbows in flexion

b. MCP in extension d. Ankles in 90 degrees of plantarflexion

38. Sudoriferous glands are responsible for:

a. Skin texture c. Skin’s elasticity

b. Skin color d. Regulation of body temperature

39. Which part of the skin is often referred to as ‘true skin’?

a. Epidermis c. Stratum Germinativum

b. Dermis d. Stratum Spinosum

40. Which of the following is not a component of sweat?

a. water c. potassium chloride

b. sodium chloride d. ammonia