Teaching Aptitude

Unit Solved Paper-1

Note: This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each
question carries two marks. Attempt all the questions.

1. If a student wants to share his problems with his teacher he visits his
teacher for the same at home. in such a condition the teacher should
(A) Extend reasonable help and boost his moral.
(B) Suggest him to escape from his family
(C) Contact the student's parents and solve his problem
(D) Warm him, never visit his home

2. If a teacher's personality is weak is the possibility that his students

inherit this trait. The reason of this saying is
(A) Student is the miniature model of teacher's behavior
(B) Students imitate his teacher's behavior
(C) Students pass through development stages
(D) Students get encouragement, if they behave as their teacher

3. The teacher is called the leader of the class. The justification of this
nickname is
(A) Because he masters the art of oratory like a political leader
(B) Because he is the autocratic emperor of his class
(C) Because he belongs to recognized teacher's union
(D) Because he is making the future of the country in the class
4. If a poor student is unable to deposit his monthly fees in time, what will
you do in this condition?
(A) Strike off his name and deprive him from classes
(B) You deposit his fees and give him opportunity to joint the classes
(C) Making a mockery of the poor
(D) No sympathy with the student on economic matters

5. If you would be a teacher how would you like a behave with your
students?
(A) Autocratic (B) Democratic
(C) Laissez-faire (D) As the conditions permit

6. When students are deliver attempting to disturb the discipline of the

class by making numerous mischievous like throwing of chalks,
whistling upon you, calling foul and absence word, then what will be
your role in that class?
(A) Be friendly with a few students and with their help crackdown the
goonda elements
(B) Showing them your invisible moral powers as teacher
(C) Expelling few students to give then an indirect threat
(D) Doing favorable efforts to judge himself and improve that mutual
relations.
7. Dynamic approach to teaching means
(A) teaching should be forceful and effective
(B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
(C) The topic of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
(D) The students should be required to learn through activities
8. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he
(A) Has control over students
(B) Commands respect from students
(C) Is more qualified than his colleagues
(D) Is very close to higher authorities
9. A good teacher must be
(A) Resourceful and autocratic
(B) Resourceful and participative
(C) Resourceful an authoritative
(D) Resourceful and dominant
10. Which one of the following is a scaled down teaching situation?
(A) Macro teaching (B) Team teaching
(C) Cooperative teaching (D) Micro teaching

11. CLASS stands for

(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools
(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools
(C) Computer Literacy and Studies in Schools
(D) Centre for Literacy and Studies in Schools

12. What of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?

(A) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management
(B) Setting examples
(C) Willingness to put assumptions to the test
(D) Acknowledging mistakes
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (1), (2) and (4) (B) (2), (3) and (4)
(C) (1), (3) and (4) (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

13. What are required for good teaching?

(1) Diagnosis (2) Remedy
(3) Direction (4) Feedback
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (1), (2) (3) and (4) (B) (1) and (2)
(C) (2), (3) and (4) (D) (3) and (4)

14. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to

effectiveness of teaching:
List of factors:
(1) Teacher's knowledge of the subject.
(2) Teacher's socio-economic background .
(3) Communication skill of the teacher.
(4) Teacher's ability to please the students.
(5) Teacher's personal contact with students.
(6) Teacher's competence in managing and monitoring the classroom
transactions.
Codes:
(A) (2), (3) and (4) (B) (3), (4) and (6)
(C) (2), (4) and (5) (D) (1), (3) and (6)

15. Which one is the highest order of learning?

(A) Chain learning
(B) Problem-solving learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning
(D) Conditioned-reflex learning

16. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?

(A) Students asking questions
(B) Maximum attendance of the students
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D) Students taking notes

17. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques

Delors report to UNESCO was titled:
(A) International Commision on education Report
(B) Millennium Development Report
(C) Learning: The Treasure Within
(D) World Declaration on Education for All

18. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable

propositions in respect of teaching-learning relationships? Choose the
correct code to indicate your answer.
(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place.
(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.
(v) A teacher teaches but learns also.
(vi) real learning implies rote learning.
Codes :
(A) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(C) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) (D) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

19. Assertion (A) : Learning is a life long process.

Reason (R) : Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but ® is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

20. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching?

(A) Teacher's knowledge
(B) Class room activities that encourage learning
(C) Socio-economic background of teachers and students
(D) Learning through experience

21. Which is different way of teaching?

(A) Instructor-centered activity (B) Learner-centered activity
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

22. is a technique frequently used in organization or

institution to build a person's skills, knowledge and attitudes in order to
meet the accepted standards by a specific industry.
(A) Training (B) Coaching
(C) Mentoring (D) None of these
23. Phase of teaching
(A) Pre-Active Phase (Planning stage)
(B) Interactive Phase (Implementation Stage)
(C) Post-Active Phase (Evaluation Stage)
(D) All of these
24. Which is teaching technique especially used in teacher's pre-service
education to train them systematically by allowing them to experiment
main teacher behaviors.
(A) Micro Teaching (B) Macro Teaching
(C) Cooperative Teaching (D) All of the above

25. Blackboard can be included in which group/category of teaching aids.

(A) Audio Aids (B) Visual Aids
(C) Audio Visual Aids (D) None of these

26. Teachers should study educational philosophy because.

(A) They do not know it.
(B) They do not have their own philosophy
(C) Philosophy is the backbone of all discipline
(D) They may improve their work by clarifying their own philosophy

27. Which reason makes a teacher more disliked by the students?

(A) Lack of Knowledge about subject
(B) Discriminatory treatment
(C) Bad Handwriting on board
(D) Late comer to class
28. The students learn best way
(A) Listening (B) Reading
(C) Seeing (D) Doing
29. Arrange the following teaching process in order.
(i) Relating the present knowledge with Previous knowledge
(ii) Reteaching
(iii) Evaluation
(iv)Formulation objective
(v) Presentation of materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii) (D) (iv), (i), (v), (iii), (ii)
30. Too much liberty given to the students creartes .
(A) Ideal atmosphere for teaching
(B) Indiscipline in the classroom
(C) Much noise in the classroom
(D) No problem in the classroom

31. Basic requirement of teaching

(A) The teacher (B) Learner (Students)
(C) Subject (topic) (D) All of the above

32. Dyslexia is
(A) A specific learning disability that affects reading and related language-
based processing skills.
(B) Problems with movement and coordination, language and speech, and
can affect learning.
(C) A specific learning disability that affects a person's ability to
understand numbers and learn math facts.
(D) None of the above

33. CIET stands for

(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation techniques.

34. A good teacher is one who:

(A) gives useful information
(B) explains concepts and principles
(C) gives printed notes to students
(D) inspires students to learn
35. Conception of learning means
(A) One's values, attitude, beliefs and intention towards learning.
(B) Learning is gathering and remembering bits of information in
accumulative manner.
(C) Contents to be learnt are isolated and unrelated items.
(D) All of the above

37. Micro teaching is useful to students of :

(A) Primary classroom only
(B) Junior classroom only
(C) 10+2 classes only
(D) Higher classes and primary classes both

38. In automatic system of the country the teacher position in

(A) Powerful (B) Liberal
(C) Political (D) Pitiable

39. If back bencher are always talking in the classroom a teacher should
(A) Let them do what they are doing
(B) Punish them
(C) Ask them to sit on the front benches
(D) None of these

40. Anagogical Approach is

(A) Adult Learning (B) Adult teaching
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

41. Case study is

(A) used to develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills, as well as
to present students with real-life situations.
(B) a loosely structured form of discussion for generating ideas without
participants embroiled in unproductive analysis.
(C) Written assignments help in organization of knowledge, assimilation
of facts and better preparation of examinations.
(D) None of the above

42. Importance of teaching Aids

(A) Motivate students mental and physically Activity.
(B) Most convenient, easy and natural way of learning.
(C) Help to develop scientific attitude and get training in scientific
method. Provide a congenial in the atmosphere of the class.
(D) All of the above

43. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid?

(A) Overhead projector (B) Blackboard
(C) Epidiascope (D) Slide projector

44. Instructional aids are used by the teacher to

(A) Glorify the class (B) attract the students
(C) Clarify the concepts (D) ensure discipline

45. Classroom communication is normally considered as

(A) Effective (B) Cognitive
(C) Affective (D) Selective

46. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of

(A) Attracting students' attention in the class room.
(B) Minimizing indiscipline problems in the classroom.
(C) Optimizing learning outcomes of students.
(D) Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.

47. The type of communication that teacher has in the classroom, is termed
as
(A) Interpersonal (B) Mass communication
(C) Group communication (D) face-to-face communication
48. Classroom communication must be
(A) Teacher centric (B) Student centric
(C) General centric (D) Textbook centric

49. Which of the following are the basic factors of effective listening?
(A) Opinionating, stare and glare and interruptions
(B) Aggressive questioning, continuous cues and frequent movement
(C) Me-too-ism, glancing sideways, and offering advice
(D) Acknowledgement of thoughts, reflection and asking open-ended
questions
50. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of
evaluation system. Choose the correct code:
Set –I Set-II
(a) Formative evaluation (i) Evaluating cognitive and co
cognitive aspects with regularity
(b) Summative evaluation (ii) Tests and their interpretations
based on a group and certain
yardsticks
(c) Continuous and (iii) Grading the final learning
comprehensive evaluation outcomes
(d) Norm and criterion (iv) Quizzes and discussions
referenced test
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B B B B D D B B D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B A D D A C B A C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A D A B D A D D B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A C D D C D B C A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A D B C B C C B D A
SOLUTIONS
1. (A) Teacher should extend reasonable help and boost student
morale.
2. (B) Students imitate his teacher's behavior.
3. (C) Because he is the autocratic emperor of his class.
4. (B) It is good behavior of teacher. Teacher deposit his fees and give
opportunity to join classes.
5. (B) Teacher should be democratic behavior with students.
6. (D) This time teacher should favorable efforts to judge himself and
improve the mutual relations.
7. (D) The students should be required to learn through activities.
8. (B) Commands respect from students.
9. (B) Resourceful and participative
10. (D) Microteaching can also defined as a teaching technique
especially used un teacher's pre-service education to train them
systematically by allowing them to experiment main teacher
behaviors. By the help of this technique, teacher candidates can
experiment and learn each of the teaching skills by breaking
them into smaller parts and without encountering chaotic
environment of the crowded classes.
11. (C) In collaboration with the Central Government and Government of
Maharashtra, a software and hardware development company
based in Pune called Growell Information India private limited is
providing educational software to rural schools in Maharashtra,
India. Growell's goal is to contribute to implementing information
technology (IT)
12. (B) Setting Example
 Willingness to put assumptions to the test
 Acknowledging mistakes
13. (A) (1) Diagnosis (2) Remedy
(3) Direction (4) Feedback
14. (D) Characteristics of effective teaching to evaluate teacher
candidates. Effective teachers exhibit certain skills and
qualifications. These include verbal ability, coursework in
pedagogy, knowledge of special-needs students, teacher
certification, and content knowledge of the specific subjects to be
taught. Personal traits such as a positive and caring attitude,
fairness and respect for students, enthusiasm, dedication and
reflective teaching contribute to these teacher's effectiveness in
the classroom. Just as important are classroom organization and
classroom management skills. Instructional planning, allocating
time for academics, keeping students engaged, using appropriate
instructional strategies, correctly sequencing instruction,
questioning strategies, monitoring learning and differentiating
learning for individual students are all important characteristics
of an effective teacher.
15. (D) An introduction to Classical and Operant Conditioning in
Psychology. Conditioning in behavioral psychology is a theory
that the reaction ("response") to an object or event ("stimulus") by
a person or animal can be modified by learning' or conditioning.
16. (A) Students asking questions
17. (C) The Delors Report was a report created by the Delors
Commission in 1996. It proposed an integrated vision of
education based on two key concepts 'learning throughout life'
and the four pillars of learning, to know, to do, to live together.
18. (B) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
 Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
 There can be teaching without learning taking place.
 A teacher teaches but learns also
19. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
20. (C) Socio-economic background of teachers and students
21. (C) teaching as an instructor-centered activity in which knowledge
to novice learners: teaching as knowledge transmission.
 Teaching as learner-centered activity in which the instructor
ensures that learning is made possible for novice learners and
supports, guides and encourages them in their active and
independent creation of new knowledge: teaching as assisted
knowledge creation.
22. (A) Training is a technique frequently used in organization or
Institution to build a person's skills, knowledge and attitudes in
order to meet the accepted standards by a specific industry.
23. (D) All of these
24. (A) Microteaching can defined as a teaching technique especially
used in teachers' pre-service education to train them
systematically by allowing them to experiment main teacher
behaviors.
25. (B) Black Board comes under the visual –Aids because through this
a person can read as well as write.
26. (D) Teachers May improve their work by clarifying their own
philosophy and by going through educational philosophy they
will be more able in clarifying the concepts of the students.
27. (A) Lack of knowledge about subject.
28. (D) Practical (doing) is best way of learning.
29. (D) Formulating objective, relating the present knowledge with
previous knowledge, presentation of materials, evaluation and
reteaching is the correct order of teaching process.
30. (B) Indiscipline in the classroom.
31. (D) All of the above.
32. (A) A specific learning disability that affects reading and related
language-based processing skills. Dyslexia is sometimes referred
to as a Language-Based learning Disability.
33. (C) Central Institute of Educational technology (CIET is a
constituent unit of the National Council of Educational research
and Training NCERT, an autonomous organization under the
Ministry of Human resources Development, Government of India.
34. (D) Inspires students to learn.
35. (D) All of the above.
36. (C) "In contrast to behaviorism cognitive psychology is concerned
with the way in which the human mind thinks and learns.
Therefore, Cognitive psychologist are interested in the mental
processes that are involved in learning".
37. (D) Micro teaching is useful to students of higher classroom and
primary classes both because model, chart and diagram used in
micro teaching makes teaching more effective.
38. (B) Liberal
39. (C) If back benchers are always talking in the classroom a teacher
should ask them to sit on the front benches because sitting in
front benches will force the, to concentrate on studies instead of
talking.
40. (A) According to Malcolm Knowles, andragogy is the art science of
adult learning, thus andragogy refers to any form of adult
learning. Anagogical approach-emphasis on what the learner is
doing-how adults learn.
41. (A) This method is basically used to develop critical thinking and
problem-solving skills, as well as to present students with real-
life situations. The students are presented with a record set of
circumstance based on actual event or an imaginary situation.
42. (D) All of the these
43. (B) Blackboard
44. (C) Instructional aids are used by the teacher to clarify the concepts.
45. (B) In classroom communication Cognitive processes include:
attention, memory, organization, problem solving/reasoning and
executive functions.
46. (C) Optimizing learning outcomes of students.
47. (C) Group communication
48. (B) Student centric
49. (D) Acknowledgement of thoughts, reflection and asking open-ended questions.
50. (A) Formative Evaluation: It is evaluation used to monitor student's
learning progress during instruction with the purpose of providing on going
feedback to students and teachers regarding success and failure of
teaching/learning process.
Formative evaluations strengthen or improve the object being evaluated.
Summative Evaluation:
 This type of evaluation is given at the end of the course or unit of instructions
to find out which student, to what extent has mastered the intended learning
outcomes.
 Though the results of summative evaluation are primary used for assigning
the grades or for certifying learners' mastery of instructional objectives, they
can also be used to give feed back on the appropriateness of objectives and
the effectiveness of instruction.
In Terms of Interpretation of Test Result
a. Normative Referenced Test: This type of test helps us to determine how an
individual learner's performance compares to others in his/her group or it
helps to find out the position a student holds or ranks when his/her
achievement is compared to the other group achievements.
b. Criterion –referenced Test: It is designed to fine out whether the student
performance meet the predetermined criteria or not. This type of tests
describe what a learner can do, without reference to the performance of
others.
Research Aptitude
Unit Solved paper-2
Note: This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each
question carries two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions.
1. Researchers are generally treated as 'Identity Symbols' of a nation
because
(A) Researchers reflect the progress of a nation
(B) Researches focus on human development
(C) Researches help in acquiring international prestige
(D) All of the above

2. Research mean
(A) Search of knowledge (B) Distribute of knowledge
(C) Acquired of knowledge (D) None of these

3. Research is based upon

(A) Scientific Method (B) Experiments
(C) Scientists (D) General principles

4. The characteristics of a research is

(A) Based on hypothetical sampling and assumption
(B) Information used to take accurate decision
(C) Develops, concepts, principle and theory
(D) All of the above

5. A research should be
(A) Objective (B) valid
(C) Reliable (D) All of the above

6. Generally the data of the research is

(A) Quantitative only (B) Qualitative only
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the these

7. The theoretical aims of the research is

(A) Explanatory (B) Qualitativeness
(C) Quantitativeness (D) Inferential

8. The basic need of the research is

(A) In preparation of the project (B) In guidance
(C) In economic Planning (D) In sitting in Library

9. Action research is
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problem
(C) A longitudinal Research
(D) All of the above

10. Best has defined hypothesis as

(A) It is a thoughtful statement (B) It is a Forward thinking
(C) It is an expected happing (D) It is a temporary solution

11. The nature of a hypothesis is

(A) Conceptual (B) Declarative
(C) Action-Oriented (D) All of the above

12. The characteristics of survey method is

(A) To solve the problem at local level
(B) To enhance the body of knowledge
(C) To solve the present Problem
(D) Al of the above

13. The survey method is classified on the basis of

(A) The nature of variable
(B) The measurable class or group
(C) The source of data collection
(D) All of the above

14. The process of writing a research paper is-

(A) Scientific (B) Unscientific
(C) Formal (D) None of the above

15. Symposium is
(A)Intellectual (B) Hearty entertainment
(C) T.V. related entrainment (D) research with entrainment

16. The characteristics of symposium is

(A) To develop the comprehensive understanding of about the specific
problems of research.
(B) To impart training for the higher order or the thinking
(C) To give freedom to express their ideas by the speakers as well as
audience.
(D) All of the above

17. Which is the main objective of research?

(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known
facts.

18. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence:

1. Identification of research problem
2. Listing of research objectives
3. Collection data
4. Methodology
5. Data Analysis
6. Results and discussion
(A) 1-2-3-4-5-6 (B) 1-2-4-3-5-6
(C) 2-1-3-4-5-6 (D) 2-1-4-3-5-6
19. The research that aims at immediate application is
(A) Action Research (B) Empirical Research
(C) Conceptual Research (D) Fundamental Research

20. Ex Post Facto research means

(A) The research is carried out after the incident
(B) The research is carried out prior to the incident
(C) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident
(D) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an
incident.

21. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability?

(A) Simple random Sampling (B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling (D) Cluster Sampling

22. Which one of the following is a non-probability sampling?

(A) Simple random (B) Purposive
(C) Systematic (D) Stratified

23. When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentation to an

audience on certain topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is
called
(A) Training Program (B) Seminar
(C) Workshop (D) Symposium

[Link] one of the following belongs to the category of good 'research

ethics?
(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling
the editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the
contribution of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior
work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons
in research paper.
(D) Including a colleagues as an author on a research paper in return
for even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution
to the paper.

25. Which of the following are the basic rules of the APA style of the
referencing format?
(1) Italicize title of shorter work such as journal articles or essay.
(2)Invert Authors' name (last name first)
(3) Italicize title of longer work such as book and journals
(4) Alphabetically index reference list
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2,3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1,2, 3 and 4

26. In priorities of the research synopsis, one can include

(A) Title page, table of content and index
(B) Title page and list of graph only
(C) Title page and supervisor's certificate
(D) None of the above

27. Which of the following in the most important characteristics of

research procedure?
(A) Generalizability (B) Communicability
(C) Reliability (D) Objectivity
28. Process involved in descriptive research?
(A) Investigation and generalizations of the event of the past
(B) Description recording analysis and interpretation of the present
conditions
(C) Deliberate manipulation
(D) None of these

29. How are the theoretical aims of the research?

(A) Inferential (B) Qualitative
(C) Explanatory (D) Quantitative

30. A thesis statement is

(A) An observation (B) A fact
(C) An assertion (D) A discussion

31. Conferences are meant for

(A) Multiple target group (B) Group discussions
(C) An assertion (D) A discussion

32. A workshop is
(A) A conference for discussion on a topic.
(B) A meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) A class at college or a university in which a teacher and the
students discuss a topic.
(D) A brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the
development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
33. Cross-Sectional research are fundamentally related with
(A) Sample (B) Statistics
(C) Tendencies (D) Eugenics
34. The preparation of a synopsis is
(A) An Art (B) A Science
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
35. A good synopsis is Considered as
(A) A half-Way Research (B) A complete Research
(C) A partial Research (D) A beginning of Research

36. The advantage of the sampling is

(A) Time saving (B) Money Saving
(C) Energy Saving (D) All of the above

37. Systematic Sampling is

(A) A comprehensive method of sample selection
(B) A simple method of sample selection
(C) An effective method of generalization of data
(D) All of the above

38. The type of Historical method are

(A) Descriptive and Analytical
(B) Historical-constitutional and Reporting
(C) School survey and social surveys
(D) Survey Examination-Questionnaire Survey

39. The steps of historical research method are

(A) To identify the problem (B) To collect the data
(C) To critics the data (D) All of the above

40. The justifiable Scientific list of all reference is called

(A) Index (B) Bibliography
(C) Reference (D) Contents

41. What is a Research Design?

(A) A way of conducting research that is not ground in theory.
(B) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
(C) The style in which you present your research findings e.g. a graph.
(D) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.
42. Which one of the following is not a non-parametric test?
(A) t-test (B) Sign test
(C) Chi-square test (D) Run test

43. The advantage of research report writing

(A) Global Standardization (B) Global Communication
(C) Global awakening (D) Global Welfare

44. Which of the following steps required to design a questionaries'

(1) Writing primary and secondary aims of study
(2) Review of current literature
(3) Prepare a draft of questionaries'
(4) Revision of Draft
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
45. The population information is called parameter while the
corresponding sample information is known as
(A) Universe (B) Inference
(C) Sampling Design (D) Statistics

46. 'Sampling Cases' means

(A) Sampling using a sampling frame
(B) Identifying people who are suitable for research
(C) Literally the researcher's brief case
(D) Sampling of people, newspapers, television programs etc.

47. Large sample means

(A) N>30 Z test (B) N< 30 T test
(C) N= 30 (F test) (D) None of these
48. Research Ethics Included
(A) Honestly, Integrity and Loyalty
(B) Accountability, Objectively and fairness
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

49. Good 'research ethics' means

(A) Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that
sponsors your research.
(B) Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph.D/research
student only.
(C) Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research
paper that you are reviewing for an academic journal.
(D) Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more
than one journal.

50. It is an index for qualifying producing in science based on publication

records (an author level matrix)
(A) Impact factor (B) h-index
(C) g-index (D) i10-index

ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D A A D D C A A B A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D D D A A D D B A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B B B B A C B C C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D D A C A D D B D B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D A B D D D S C B C
SOLUTIONS

1. (D) Research reflects of progress, focus on human development and

help in acquiring new ideas for international prestige.
2. (A) Research means search of knowledge. It implies search for
something new i.e. new ideas, new conclusions and new theory.
3. (A) Scientific Method
4. (D) All of the above
5. (D) All of the above
6. (C) Quantitative research is based on the quantitative or amount.
This type of research is concerned with phenomenon which can
express in quantity term.
Qualitative research is concerned with qualitative
phenomenon. It is specifically important in the behavioral
science. This research aims to discover the underlying motive of
human behavior through motivation research. And discover of
people feeling and thinking through attitude/opinion research.
7. (A) Explanatory research
8. (A) The basic need of the research is in preparation of the project.
9. (B) Action research is that research which aims to finding solution
or with certain conclusions for an immediate problem facing by
a society or corporate sector.
10. (A) Hypothesis has defined a thoughtful statement which based on
assumption sampling.
11. (D) All of the above
12. (D) Survey method includes survey and fact finding enquiries of
different kinds. The major purpose of Survey method is
description of the state of affairs as it exists at present. The
method characteristics are to solve the problem at local level
enhance the body of knowledge and solve the present problem
by comparative and correlation methods.
13. (D) The survey method is classified on the basis nature of variable
or Data(Dependent or Independent variables),Different groups of
measurable(type of sample) and sources of data collection(primary or
Secondary).
14. (A) process of writing a research paper is Scientific nature which is
presented interpretation, evaluation and argument. it is a
process of communication about research work.
15. (A) The symposium is 'intellectual entertainment' which serves as
an excellent device for informing and audience with arriving
decision, policies, value judgment or understanding. it is like a
small scale conference where number of participant or delegates
is lesser.
16. (D) The characteristics of symposium Develop the comprehensive
specific problems of research, to impart training for the higher
order of the thinking and give freedom to express ideas and
participants and experts of specific field present their opinions
or viewpoint on specific research topic.
17. (D) To formulate a new theory or concept based on the finding of
research.
18. (B) Steps of research in correct sequence
 Identification of research problem
 Decided or listing of research objective
 Decided methodology of research
 Collection of Data by Primary and Secondary
 Data analysis by different test
 Find Result, Interpretation and discussion
19. (A) Applied research refers and an action research. Applied
research is that research which aims to finding solution or with
certain conclusions for an immediate problem facing by a
society or corporate sector.
20. (A) Ex-post research is carried out after incident.
21. (C) Non Probability Sampling:-
 Judgment Sampling
 Convenience Sampling
 Quota Sampling
 Snowball Sampling
 Systematic Sampling
22. (B) In Non Probability Sampling The units are not selected
randomly and independently of each other. Purposive is non-
probability sampling which cannot select randomly.
23. (B) A seminar if form of academic training either at university or
offered by a commercial or professional organization. At
universities or colleges offered by a commercial or professional
organization. At universities or colleges when a small group of
students and teacher discuss a specific topic with invite a
professional expert or visitor.
24. (B) Research ethics comprises the principles and standards that
guide behavior in the conduct of research. it is conducting a
review of the literature that acknowledge the contribution of
other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.
25. (B) APA format (American Psychological Association)
 Author's last name  First initial. (Date)
 Title of Article  Title of Encyclopedia (Volume,
pages):
 City of Publication:  Publishing Company

26. (A) In research Synopsis included title page, table of content and
index because synopsis is short pattern of thesis which show of
research and related chapter and index.
27. (C) Research procedure is based on Specific hypothetical data
which is use systematic scientific method of finding solution to
a problem is research so reliability is the most characteristics of
research procedure.
28. (B) Descriptive research makes proper and logical description of the
subject topic or problem by collecting true, realistic and reliable
information through survey and fact finding enquiries of
different kinds. It is recording analysis and interpretation of the
present condition.
29. (C) Theoretical aims of the research are explanatory which is
develops concepts, principles and theory and provide
information is used to take accurate decisions.
30. (C) Thesis is an assertion (Description) which is systematic, proper,
format, including knowledge, new theory and new idea. Thesis is
also called dissertation.
31. (D) Conference refers to a formal meeting where participants
exchange their views on various topics and provide a platform
for consultation and discussion on a number of topics by the
delegates or research scholars.
32. (D) A workshop includes all the elements of the seminar, but with
the largest portion being emphasized on "hand-on-practice" or
technical work. In workshop practice the actual concept or
technique explain by the lecture and demonstration process.
The term, workshop mostly use in engineering field. It is a brief
intensive course for small group for development of skill for
solving a specific problem.
33. (A) In cross sectional research, researcher record information or
sample about their subjects without manipulating the study
environment. This study compare different population group at
a single point of time.
34. (C) The preparation of synopsis is an art and science. During
preparation of synopsis researcher use or decided a technique
or way and use scientific methodology for better synopsis.
35. (A) A good synopsis is considered as a half way Research because
Synopsis decided research content, topic, research objective and
methodology.
36. (D) All of the above
37. (D) All of the above
Systematic Sampling means Entire population is arranged in a
particular order. It is mixed sampling because partly probability
and partly non probability nature.
38. (B) Historical-Constitutional and Reporting
39. (D) All of the above
The steps of historical research methods are
 To identify the problem
 To collect the data
 To critics the data
40. (B) The Bibliography is a list of the publication used in thesis
report. The Publication used for information about sources but
not quoted in the report may include in the bibliography.
Bibliography may write into two formats. it is also Justifiable
Scientific list of all reference.
41. (D) Research design is a framework for every stage of the collection
and analysis of data.
42. (A) A statically test used in case of non-matric independent
variables is called non parametric test. Such tests do not
depend on any assumptions. there are no completely
information about the population. Such as chai square,
Kolmogorov smirnov, Binomial,Median, mann, whiteny, rank
sum test. T-Test is a Parametric test.
43. (B) Research report is way of global communication which help
solve the problem.
44. (D) Steps of design a questionaries '
 Writing primary and secondary aims of study
 Review of current literature
 Prepare a draft of questioners
 Revision of draft
45. (D) Population information is called parameter while the
corresponding sample information is known as Statistics.
46. (D) The process of selecting a small number of important cases form
newspaper, television programme etc.
47. (A) If total number of poipulation is more than 30 it is large sample.
N>30 (large Sample), Z Test N=Total Number of Population
48. (C) Research Includes
 Honestly  Integrity
 Loyalty  Accountability
 Objective  Fairness
 Respect for other  Law Abiding
 Commitment of Excellence  Benefit for society
49. (B) Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph. D/research
student only.
50. (C) G index is an index for qualifying producing in science based on
publication records (an author level matrix)
Reading Comprehension
Unit Solved Paper-3
Note: This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each
question carries two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow
(Question No. 1 to 9)
We have inherited the tradition of secrecy about the budget from
Britain were also the system has been strongly attacked by eminent
economists and political scientists including Pater jay. Sir Richard Clarke,
who was the originating genius of nearly every important development in the
British budgeting techniques during the last two decades, has spoken out
about the abuse of budget secrecy? The problem of long-term tax policy
should surely be debated openly with the facts on the table. In my opinion,
all governments should have just the same duty to publish their expenditure
policy. Indeed, this obligation to public taxation policy is really essential for
the control of public expenditure in order to get realistic taxation
implications.
Realizing that democracy flourishes best on the principles of open
government, more and more democracies are having an open public debate
on budget proposals before introducing the appropriate Bill in the
legislature. In the United States the budget is conveyed in a message by the
President to the Congress, which comes well in advance of the data when the
Bill is introduced in the congress. In Finland the parliament and the people
are already discussing in June the tentative budget proposals which are to
be introduced in the Finnish parliament in September.
Every budget contains a cartload of figures in black and white-but the
dark figures represent the myriad lights and shades of India's life, the
contrasting tones of poverty and wealth, and of bread so dear flesh and blood
so cheap, the deep tints of adventure and enterprise and man's ageless
struggle for a brighter morning. The union budget should not be an annual
Scourge would work much better when the nonsensical secrecy is replaced
by openness and public consultation, resulting in fair laws and the people's
acceptance of their moral duty to pay.

1. How do the British economists and political scientists react to budget

secrecy? They are
(A) In favor of having a mix of secrecy and openness.
(B) Indifferent to the budgeting techniques and taxation policies.
(C) Very critical about maintenance of budget secrecy.
(D) Advocates of not disclosing in advance the budget contents.

2. The author thinks that openness in budget is essential as it leads to

(A) Prevention of tax implications
(B) Peoples reluctance to accept their moral duties.
(C) Exaggerated revelation of the strengths and weakness of economy
(D) None of these
3. The author seems to be in favor of
(A) Maintaining secrecy of budget
(B) Judicious blend of secrecy and openness
(C) Transparency in budget proposals
(D) Replacement of public constitution by secrecy

4. The secrecy of the budget is maintained by all of the following

countries except
(a) Finland (b) India
(c) United State
(A) Only (a) (B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c) (D) (a) and (c)

5. Which of the following statements is definitely TRUE in the context

of the passage?
(A) The British Government has been religiously maintaining
budget secrecy.
(B) Budget secrecy is likely to lead to corrupt practices.
(C) Consulting unjustifiable taxes with public helps make
them accept those taxes.
(D) None of these

6. Sir Richard Clarke seems to deserve the credit for

(A) Transformation in the British budgetary techniques.
(B) Maintenance of secrecy of the British budget.
(C) Detection of abuse of transparency in budget.
(D) Bringing down the tax load on British people.

7. From the contents of the passage, it can be inferred that the author is
(A) Authoritarian in his approach.
(B) A democratic person.
(C) Unaware of India's recent economic developments.
(D) A conservative person.

8. Which of the following statement(s) is/are definitely False in the

context of the passage?
(a) Transparency helps unscrupulous elements to resort to
corrupt practices.
(b) Open approach of Government is a sign of healthy
democracy.
(c) People's acceptance of their moral duties can best be
achieved through openness and public consultations.
(A) Only (a) (B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c) (D) (a) and (b)
9. For making the budget realistic, the government should
(A) Refrain from making public the proposed provisions
before finalization.
(B) Discuss it secretly within themselves.
(C) Encourage the public to send in their suggestions.
(D) Consult the public to send in their suggestions.

Read the following passage and answer the questions that

follow (Question No. 10 to 18).
Since July 1991, the government of India has effectively put the
liberalization policy into proactive. The drastic steps even include some
administrative reforms for pruning the government agencies. Last year the
Japanese business circles represented by the Ishikawa Mission called
attention of their Indian counterparts to what they considered to be the
major impediments in India. However, thanks to the almost revolutionary
reforms put into effect by the Indian government, those impediments either
have been removed or now are on their way out. This development gives a
new hope for the future of economic co-operation between the two
countries.
The coastal areas of China have intiated a very active campaign to
welcome foreign economic participation. Beyond our bilateral relationship,
India's more active participation in global economy is need. India certainly
deserves a far bigger share of world trade considering its vast resources. It
is strongly hoped that the Indian government's recently initiated effort of
enlarging its export mart would bear fruit. India has steadfastly maintained
its parliamentary democracy since independence.
Considering its size, its population and its internal complexity, the
overall maintenance of national integrity and political stability under
parliamentary democracy is remarkable and admirable indeed. Here lies the
base for the status of India in the world. By effectively implementing its
economic reform with the support of public opinion, this democratic polity
of India has again demonstrated its viability and resilience. At the same
time, it gives hope and inspiration to the whole world which faces the
difficult problem of North-South confrontation.

10. The Ishikawa Mission during its visit to India emphasized on

(A) Future economic co-operation between Japan and India.
(B) Need for removing policy and/or implementation hurdles.
(C) Need for a stiff competition.
(D) Striking down revolutionary reforms.

11. How did the India government react to the hurdles in the way of
bilateral trade between India and Japan?
(A) The government, in principle, agreed for removal of these
hurdles.
(B) Bureaucracy succeeded in maintaining a status quo.
(C) Government thought it was against liberalization policy.
(D) The Japanese delegation could not forcefully argue their
case.
12. What is the result of Japanese investments in ASEAN nations?
(A) It could not gather momentum for want of infrastructure.
(B) The experiment failed because of stiff competition from
other countries.
(C) China and South-East Asian countries objected to Japanese
investments.
(D) The passage does not provide complete information.
13. Which of the following is TRUE about the author's view
regarding India's participation in world trade?
(A) India should actively contribute in a big way as it had
tremendous resources.
(B) India's sharing in global economy has already been very
fast and beyond its recourses.
(C) India should refrain from making efforts in enlarging its
export market.
(D) India needs to first strengthen its democracy.

14. On India's implementing liberalization policy, the author seems to be

(A) Unreasonably critical (B) Sarcastic
(C) Appreciative (D) Unconvinced about its
effectiveness.
15. It can be inferred from the content of the passage that the author is
a/an
(A) Political analyses (B) Japanese bureaucrat
(C) Economist (D) Japanese politician

16. The author seems to appreciate India's national integrity and political
stability particularly in view of which of the following?
(a) The size of the country (b) India's population
(c) its internal complexity
(A) None of the three (B) All the three
(C) (a) an (b) only (D) (b) an (c) only

17. The author feels that India has a better status in the world market
because of its
(A) Success in political stability and national integration in
democratic set-up.
(B) vast population.
(C) Giant size.
(D) Effective bilateral relationship with other countries.

18. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the

passage?
(a) India's successful experiment of economic reform has
become an inspiration to be world.
(b) Size, population and internal complexity of our country
area the barriers in the way of attaining national
integrity and political stability.
(c) A few government agencies were not in favor of
liberalization policy at the beginning.
(A) (a) Only (B) (b) only
(C) (c) only (D) All the three

Read the following passage and answer the questions

that follow (Question No. 19 to 25)
Japanese firms have achieved the highest levels of manufacturing
efficiency in the world automobile industry. Some observes of Japan have
assumed that Japanese firms use the same Manufacturing equipment and
techniques as United States firms but have benefited from the unique
characteristics of Japanese employees and the Japanese culture. However,
if this were true, then one would expect Japanese auto plants in the United
Sates to perform no better than factories run by United States companies.
This is not the case; Japanese-run automobile plants located in the United
States and staffed by local workers have demonstrated higher levels of
productivity when compared with factories owned by United States
companies.
Other observers link high Japanese productivity to higher levels of
capital investment per worker. But a historical perspective leads to a
different conclusion. When thee two top Japanese automobiles makers
matched and then doubled United States productivity levels in the mid-
sixties, capital investment per employee was comparable to that of United
States firms.
Furthermore, by the late seventies, the amount of fixed assets
required to produce one vehicle was roughly equivalent in Japan and in the
United States. Since capital investment was not
higher in Japan, it had to be other factors that led to higher productivity. A
more fruitful explanation may lie with Japanese production techniques.
Japanese automobile producers did not simply implement
conventional processes more effectively: they made critical changers in
United States procedures. for instance, the mass-production philosophy of
United States automakers encouraged the production of huge lots of cars in
order to utilize fully expensive, component-specific equipment and to occupy
fully workers who have been trained to execute several departures from
United States practices, including the use of flexible equipment that could
be altered easily to do several different production tasks and the training
workers in multiple jobs. Automakers could schedule the production of
different components or models on single machines, thereby eliminating the
need to store the buffer stocks of extra components that result when
specialized equipment and workers are kept constantly active.

19. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) Present the major steps of a process
(B) Clarify an ambiguity
(C) Chronicle dispute
(D) Correct misconceptions

20. Which of the following statements concerning the productively levels

of automakers can be inferred from the passage?
(A) Prior to the 1960's, the productivity levels of the top Japanese
automakers were exceeded by those of United States automakers.
(B) The culture of a country has a large effect on the productivity
levels of its automakers.
(C) During the late 1970's and early 1980's, productivity levels were
comparable in Japan and the United States.
(D) The greater the number of cars that produced in a single lot, the
higher a plant's productivity level.

21. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true of

Japanese automobile workers?
(A) Their productivity levels did not equal those of United States
automobile workers until the late seventies.
(B) Their high efficiency level are a direct result of cultural influences.
(C) They operate component-specific machinery.
(D) They are trained to do more than one job.

22. Which of the following best describes the organization of the first
paragraph?

(A) A thesis is presented and supporting examples are provided.

(B) Opposing views are presented, classified and then reconciled.

(C) A fact is stated, and an explanation is advanced and then refuted.

(D) A theory is proposed, considered and then amended.

23. It can be inferred from the passage that one problem associated with
the production of huge lots of cars is which of the following?
(A) The need of manufacture flexible machinery and equipment.

(B) The need to store extra components not required for immediate use

(C) The need for expensive training programs for workers, which
emphasize the development of facility in several production jobs.

(D) The need to alter conventional mass-production processes.

24. Which of the following statements is supported by information stated

in the passage?
(A) Japanese and United States automakers differ in their approach to
production processes.

(B) Japanese automakers have perfected the use of single-function

equipment.

(C) Japanese automakers invest more capital per employee than do

United States automakers.

(D) United States- owned factories abroad have higher production

levels than do Japanese owned plants in the United States.

25. With which of the following predictive statement regarding Japanese

automakers would the author most likely agree?

(A) The efficiency levels of the Japanese automakers will decline if they
become less flexible in their approach to production.

(B) Japanese automakers productivity levels double during the late

1990's.
(C) United States automakers will originate new production processes
before Japanese automakers do.
(D) Japanese automakers will hire fewer workers than will United
States automakers because each worker is required to perform
several jobs.

Read the following passage and answer the questions that

follow (Question No. 26 to 32)
It was once believed that the brain was independent of metabolic
processes occurring elsewhere in the body. In recent studies, however, we
have discovered that the production and released in brain neurons of the
neurotransmitter serotonin (neurotransmitters are compounds that neurons
use to transmit signals to other cells) depend directly on the food that he
body processes.
Our first studies sought to determine whether the increase in
serotonin observed in rats given a large injection of the amino acid
tryptophan might also occur after rats ate meals that change tryptophan
levels in the blood. We found that, immediately after the rats began to eat,
parallel elevations occurred in blood tryptophan, brain tryptophan, and
brain serotonin levels.
These findings suggested that the production and release of serotonin
in brain neurons were normally coupled with blood-tryptophan increases. In
later studies we found that injecting insulin into a rat's bloodstream also
caused parallel elevations in blood and brain tryptophan levels and in
serotonin levels. We then decided to see whether the secretion of the
animal's own insulin similarly affected serotonin production. We gave the
rats a carbohydrate-containing meat that we knew would elicit insulin
secretion. As we had hypothesized, the blood tryptophan level and the
concentrations of tryptophan serotonin in the brain increased after the
meal.
Surprisingly, however, when we added a large amount of protein to
the meal, brain tryptophan and serotonin levels fell. Since protein contains
tryptophan, why should it depress brain tryptophan levels? The answer lies
in the mechanism that provided blood tryptophan to the brain cells. This
same mechanism also provides the brain cells with other amino acids found
in protein, such as tyrosine and Leucine. The consumption of protein
increase blood concentration of the other amino acids much more,
proportionately, than it does that of tryptophan. The more protein in the
meal. The lower is the ratio of the resulting blood-tryptophan concentration
to the concentration of competing amino acids, and the more slowly is
tryptophan provided to the brain. Thus the more protein in a meal, the less
serotonin subsequently produced and released.

26. Which of the following titles best summarizes the contents of the
passage?
(A) Neurotransmitters: Their Crucial Function in Cellular
Communication
(B) Diet and Survival : An Old Relationship Reexamined
(C) The Blood Supply and the Brain : A Reciprocal Dependence
(D) The Effects of Food Intake on the Production and Release of
Serotonin : Some Recent Findings
27. According to the passage, the speed with which tryptophan is
provided to the brain cells of a rat varies with the
(A) Amount of protein present in a meal
(B) Concentration of serotonin in the brain before a meal
(C) Concentration of leucine in the blood rather than on the
concentration of tyrosine in the blood after a meal
(D) Concentration of tryptophan in the brain before a meal

28. According to the passage, when the authors began their first studies,
they were aware that
(A) They would eventually need to design experiments that involved
feeding rats high concentrations of protein
(B) Tryptophan levels in the blood were difficult to monitor with
accuracy
(C) Serotonin levels increased after rats were fed meals rich in
tryptophan
(D) Serotonin levels increased after rats were injected with a large
amount of tryptophan

29. According to the passage, one reason that the authors gave rats
carbohydrates was to
(A) Depress the rats? tryptophan levels
(B) Prevent the rats from contracting diseases
(C) Cause the rats to produce insulin
(D) Demonstrate that insulin is the most important substance
secreted by the body
30. According to the passage, the more protein a rat consumers, the lower
will be the
(A) Ratio of the rat's blood-tryptophan concentration to the amount of
serotonin produced and released in the rat's brain
(B) Ratio of the rat's blood-tryptophan concentration to the
co0ncentration in its blood of the other amino acids contained in
the protein
(C) Ratio of the rat's blood-tyrosine concentration to its blood-leucine
concentration
(D) Number of neurotransmitters of any kind that the rat will produce
and release

31. According to the passage, an injection of insulin was most similar

in its effects on rats to an injection of
(A) Tyrosine (B) leucine
(C) Blood (D) tryptophan

32. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would
be LEAST likely to be a potential sources of aid to patient who was not
adequately producing and releasing serotonin
(A) Meals consisting almost exclusively of protein
(B) Meals consisting almost exclusively of carbohydrates
(C) Meals that would elicit insulin secretion
(D) Meals that has very low concentrations of tyrosine

Read the following passage and answer the questions

that follow (Question No. 33 to 40)
It was once assumed that all living things could be divided into two
fundamental and exhaustive categories. Multicellular plant and animals, as
well as many unicellular organisms, are eukaryotic-their large, complex
cells have a well-formed nucleus and many organelles. On the other hand,
the true bacteria are prokaryotic cell, which are simple and lack a nucleus.
The distinction between eukaryotes and bacteria, initially defined in
terms of subcellular structures visible with a microscope, was ultimate
carried to the molecular level. Here prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have
many features in common. For instance, they translate genetic information
into proteins according to the same type of genetic coding. But even where
the molecular processes are the same, the details in the two forms are
different and characteristics of the respective forms. For example, the amino
acid sequences of various enzymes tend to be typically prokaryotic or
eukaryotic.
The differences between the groups and the similarities within each
group made it seem certain to most biologists that the tree of life had only
two stems. Moreover, arguments pointing out the extent of both structural
and functional differences between eukaryotes and true bacteria convinced
many biologists that the precursors of the eukaryotes must have diverged
from common ancestor before the bacteria arose.
Although much of this picture has been sustained by more recent
research, it seems fundamentally wrong in one respect. Among the bacteria,
there are organisms that are significantly different both from the cells of
eukaryotes and from the true bacteria, and it now appears that there are
three stems in the tree of life. New technique of determining the molecular
sequence of the RNA of organisms have produced evolutionary information
about the degree to which organisms are related, the time since they
diverged from a common ancestor, and the reconstruction of ancestral
versions of genes. These techniques have strongly suggested that although
the true bacteria indeed form a large coherent group, certain other bacteria,
the archaebactria, which are also prokaryotes and which resemble true
bacteria.
Represent a distinct evolutionally branch that far antedates the
common ancestor of all true bacteria.

33. The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) Detailing the evidence that has led most biologists to replace the
trichotomous picture of living organisms with a dichotomous one
(B) Outlining the factors that have contributed to the current
hypothesis concerning the number of basic categories of living
organisms
(C) Evaluating experiments that have resulted in proof that the
prokaryotes are more ancient than had been expected
(D) Summarizing the differences in structure and function found
among true bacteria, archaebactria, and eukaryotes
34. According to the passage, investigations of eukaryotic and
prokaryotic cells at the molecular level supported the conclusion that
(A) Most eukaryotic organisms are unicellular
(B) Complex cells have well-formed nuclei
(C) Prokaryotes and eukaryotes form two fundamental categories
(D) Subcellular structures are visible with a microscope

35. According to the passage, which of the following statements about

the two-category hypothesis is likely to be true?
(A) It is promising because it explains the presence of true bacteria-
like organisms such as organelles in eukaryotic cells.
(B) It is promising because it explains why eukaryotic cells, unlike
prokaryotic cells, tend to form multicellular organisms.
(C) It is flawed because it fails to account for the great variety among
eukaryotic organisms.
(D) It is flawed because it fails to recognize an important distinction
among prokaryotes.

36. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following have
recently been compared in order to clarify the fundamental
classifications of living things?
(A) The genetic coding in true bacteria and that in other prokaryotes.
(B) The organelle structure of archaebacteria, true bacteria, and
eukaryotes.
(C) The cellular structure of multicelluar organisms and unicellular
organisms.
(D) The molecular sequences in eukaryotic RNA, true bacterial RNA,
and archaebacteria RNA.

37. If the "new techniques" mentioned in line 31 were applied in

studies of biological classification other than bacteria, which of the
following is most likely?
(A) Some of those classifications will have to be reevaluted.
(B) Many species of bacteria will be reclassified.
(C) It will be determined that there are four categories of living things
rather than three.
(D) It will be found that true bacteria are much older than eukaryotes.

38. According to the passage, researchers working under the two-

category hypothesis were correct in thinking that
(A) Prokaryotes form a coherent group
(B) The common ancestor of all living things had complex properties
(C) Eukaryotes are fundamentally different from true bacteria
(D) True bacteria are just as complex as eukaryotes
39. All of the following statements are supported by the passage EXCEPT:
(A) True bacteria form a distinct evolutionary group.
(B) Archaebacteria are prokaryotes that resemble true bacteria.
(C) True bacteria and eukaryotes employ similar types of genetic
coding.
(D) Amino acid sequences of enzymes are uniform for eukaryotic and
prokaryotic organisms.

40. The author's attitude toward the view that living things are divided
into three categories is best described as one of
(A) Tentative acceptance (B) Mild skepticism
(C) Limited denial (D) Studious criticism

Read the following passage and answer the questions

that follow (Question No. 41 to 45)
The fundamental principle is that Article 14 forbids class legislation
but permits reasonable classification for the purpose of legislation which
classification must satisfy the twin tests of classification being founded on
an intelligible differentia which distinguishes persons or things that are
grouped together from those that are left out of the group and that
differentia must have a rational nexus to the object sought to be achieved by
the Statute in question. The thrust of Article 14 is that the citizen is entitled
to equality before law and equal protection of laws. In the very nature of
things the society being composed of un equals a welfare Sate will have to
strive by both executive and legislative action to help the less fortunate in
society to ameliorate their condition so that the social and economic
inequality in the society may be bridged. This would necessitate a legislative
application to a group of citizens otherwise unequal and amelioration of
whose lot is the object of state affirmative action. In the absence of the
doctrine of classification such legislation is likely to flounder ion the bed
rock of equality enshrined in Article 14. The court realistically appraising
the social and economic inequality and keeping in view the guidelines on
which the State action must move as constitutionally laid down in Part IV of
the Constitution evolved the doctrine of classification. The doctrine was
evolved to sustain a legislation or State action designed to help weaker
sections of the society or some such segments of the society in need of
succor. Legislative and executive action may accordingly be sustained if it
satisfies the twin tests of reasonable classification and the rational principle
correlated to the object sought to be achieved.
The concept of equality before the law does not involve the idea of
absolute equality among human beings which is a physical impossibility. All
that Article 14 guarantees is a similarity of treatment contra-distinguished
from identical treatment. Equality before law means that among equals the
law should be equal and should be equally administered and the likes
should be treated alike. Equality before the law does not mean that think
which are different shall be as though they are the same. It of course means
denial of any special privilege by reason of birth, creed or like. The
legislation as well as the executive government, while dealing with diverse
problems arising out of an infinite variety of human relations must of
necessity have the power of making special laws, to attain any particular
object and to achieve that object it must have the power of selection or
classification of persons and things upon which such laws are to operate.

41. Right to equality, one of the fundamental rights, is enunciated in the

constitution under part III, Article:
(A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 14 (D) 15
42. The main trust of Right to equality is that it permits:
(A) Class Legislation
(B) Equality before law and equal protection under the law
(C) Absolute equality
(D) Special privilege by reason of birth

43. The social and economic inequality in the society can be bridged by:
(A) Executive and legislative action (B) Universal suffrage
(C) Identical treatment (D) None of these above
44. The doctrine of classification is evolved to:
(A) Help weaker sections of the society
(B) Provide absolute equality
(C) Provide identical treatment
(D) None of the above
45. While dealing with diverse problems arising out of an infinite variety of
human relations, the government
(A) Must have the power of making special laws
(B) Must not have any power to make special laws
(C) Must have power to withdraw equal rights
(D) None of the above
Read the following passage and answer the questions
that follow (Question No. 46 to 50)
Each day at the Shanti Niketan School starts with the Sara Swati
Vandana. When painting competitions are held in the school, images of
Hindu gods and goddesses are most common. Sanskrit is a favorite subject
of many a student. Nothing new about it except that the 1,200- odd
students studying in the Hindu-run school are Muslims.
In 1983 when Ranchodbhai Kiri started Niketan in the all- Muslim
Juhapura area of Ahmedabad in Gujrat, only 20 percent of the students
were Muslims. But when riots involving the Muslims of Juhapura and the
Hindus of nearby Jivraj park- Vejalpur affected the locality, Hindus started
migrating. Today all the students are Muslims and the school is a un
parallel example of harmony. In the 2002, when a section of inflamed
Muslims wanted the school closed, the parents of the students stood like a
wall behind it.
Shanti Niketan's principal says, " We never thought of moving the
school out of the area because of the love and affection of the local Muslim.
Indeed, they value the high standard of education which we have set." Such
is the reputation of the school that some of the local Muslim strongmen
accused of involvement in communal riots are willing to protect the school
during the riots.
The parents of Shanti Niketan's students believe that it's the best
school when it comes to the quality of the teaching. A large number of
students have gone for both graduation and post-graduation studies.
Significantly, the only Muslim teacher in the 40- member teaching staff,
Husena Mansuri, teacher Sanskrit. In fact, she is so happy at the school
that she recently declined the principalship of another Muslim-run school.
Some of the students' entries in a recent school painting competition
mere truly is moving. One drew a picture of Bharat Mata with a mosque and
temple, while another portrayed a boy tying Rakhi to his sister. truly, Shanti
Niketan is a beacon of hope that, despite the provocations from both
communities Hindus and Muslims can live side-by-side with mutual
respect.

46. How the Shanti Niketan school starts the day?

(A) National anthem (B) Prayer
(C) Saraswati Vandana (D) Puja

47. Write the subject which is preferred by most of the students.

(A) Hindi (B) English
(C) Sanskrit (D) Gujarat

48. Who protects the school during the riot times?

(A) Local Muslims (B) Hindus
(C) Politicians (D) Christians

49. Who protects the school during the riot times?

(A) Ranchodbhai Kiri (B) Manisha Vakil
(C) Husena Mansuri (D) Husena Khatoon
50. What is the hope despite the communal riots ?
(A) Hindus and Muslims cannot live side by side
(B) Hindus and Muslims can live side by side
(C) Only Hindus can live
(D) Only Muslims can live

ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D B D D A B A D B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A D A C C B A A D A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D C B A A D A D C B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A B C D D A C D A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C B A A A C C A C B

SOLUTIONS
1. (C) Very critical about maintenance of budget secrecy.
2. (D) None of these
3. (B) Judicious blend of secrecy and openness
4. (D) ● Finland
● United States
5. (D) None of these
6. (A) Transformation in the British budgetary techniques.
7. (B) A democratic person.
8. (A) Transparency helps unscrupulous elements to resort to corrupt
practices.
9. (D) Consult the public to send in their suggestions.
10. (B) Need for removing policy and/or implementation hurdles.
11. (A) The government, in principle, agreed for removal of these
hurdlers.
12. (D) The passage does not provide complete information.
13. (A) India should actively contribute in a big way as it had
tremendous resources.
14. (C) Appreciative
15. (C) Economist
16. (B) ● The size of the country
● India's population
● Its internal complexity
17. (A) Success in political stability and national integration in
democratic set-up.
18. (A) India's successful experiment of economic reform has become
an inspiration to the world.
19. (D) Correct Misconceptions
20. (A) India's successful experiment of economic reform has become
an inspiration to the world.
21. (D) They are trained to do more than one job.
22. (C) A fact is stated, and an explanation is advanced and then
refuted.
23. (B) The need to store extra components not required for immediate
use.
24. (A) Japanese and United States automakers differ in their approach
to production processes.
25. (A) The efficiency levels of the Japanese automakers will decline if
they become less flexible in their approach to production.
26. (D) The Effects of Food Intake on the Production and Release of
Serotonin: Some Recent Findings
27. (A) Amount of protein present in a meal
28. (D) Serotonin levels increased after rats were injected with a large
amount of tryptophan
29. (C) Cause the rats to produce insulin
30. (B) Ratio of the rat's blood-tryptophan concentration to the
concentration in its blood of the other amino acids contained in
the protein.
31. (D) Tryptophan
32. (A) Meals consisting almost exclusively of protein.
33. (B) Outlining the factors that have contributed to the current
hypothesis concerning the number of basic categories of living
organisms.
34. (C) Prokaryotes and eukaryotes form two fundamental categories.
35. (D) It is flawed because it fails to recognize an important distinction
among prokaryotes.
36. (D) The molecular sequences in eukaryotic RNA, true bacterial RNA,
and archaebacterial RNA
37. (A) Some of those classifications will have to be reevaluated.
38. (C) Eukaryotes are fundamentally different from true bacteria
39. (D) Amino acid sequences of enzymes are uniform for eukaryotic
and prokaryotic organisms.
40. (A) Tentative acceptance
41. (C) 14.
42. (B) Equality before law and equal protection under the law
43. (A) Executive and legislative action
44. (A) Help weaker sections of the society
45. (A) Must have the power of making special laws
46. (C) Saraswati Vandana
47. (C) Sanskrit
48. (A) Local Muslim
49. (C) Husena Mansuri
50. (B) Hindus and Muslims can live side by side
Communication
Unit Solved Paper-4

Note: This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each
question carries two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions.

1. Principle of better Communication is :

(A) Clarity of the Message (B) Adequacy of Information
(C) Transmission of Information (D) All of the above

2. Communication Means
(A) Transferring or Conveying thoughts, Views, Emotions or
Information through Specific Signals and Symbols.
(B) Radio, T.V., Cinema etc.
(C) Telephone, Telegram, Fax, Radio
(D) None of the above

3. 'Chronemics' is related to :
(A) Time-Related Communication
(B) Muscular-Related Communication
(C) Signal-Related Communication
(D) Expression-Related Communication

4. In the process of Communication the task perform by the sender is :

(A) Formulating (B) Encoding
(C) Transmitting (D) All of the above

5. Which of the following is said to be a power in terms of

Communication ?
(A) Persuasion (B) Knowledge
(C) Information (D) Instruction

6. The word Communication is derived from

(A) Communis (B) Comunique
(C) Communil (D) Commune

7. The barriers of Communication can be eliminated when it is

(A) Simple and Comprehensible
(B) Associated With feed-back
(C) Following the rules for excellent listening
(D) All of the above

8. Effective communication pre-supposes

(A) Non-alignment (B) Domination
(C) Passivity (D) Understanding

9. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as :

(A) Physical language (B) Personal language
(C) Para language (D) Delivery language

10. The term 'grapevine' is also known as

(A) Downward communication (B) Informal communication
(C) Upward communication (D) Horizontal communication

11. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of

(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment (D) Enlightenment

12. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or
images. The students are really
(A) Encoders (B) Decoders
(C) Agitators (D) Propagators
13. The term 'Yellow Journalism' refers to
(A) Sensational news about terrorism and violence
(B) Sensationalism and exaggeration to attract readers/viewers.
(C) Sensational news about arts and culture
(D) Sensational news prints in yellow paper.

14. The non-verbal communication is possible through

(A) Speech Symbol (B) Eyes
(C) Sense of touch (D) All of the above

15. An effective communication Products in receiver

(A) Happiness (B) Acceptance
(C) Its access to other people (D) Thinking

16. The main element of communication is

(A) The sources and the channel (B) The sources and receiver
(C) The messenger only (D) None of these

17. A teacher should behave with the students

(A) Intellectually (B) Democratically
(C) Autocratically (D) Morally

18. PIN code means

(A) Postal Index Number (B) Postal Identity Number
(C) Posting Index Number (D) None of the these

19. The air mail service started in

(A) 1911 (B) 1952
(C) 1862 (D) 1864
20. Prasar Bharti is a
(A) Television Channel
(B) News Paper
(C) Magzine
(D) Autonomous Broadcasting Corporation
21. The First newspaper in India started in
(A) Delhi (B) Mumbai
(C) Kolkata (D) Madras

22. Communication is a
(A) Two Way Process (B) One way process
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

23. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when

there is
(A) noise (B) audience
(C) criticality (D) feedback

24. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people

are of equal status. Which method of communication is best suited
and normally employed in such a context ?
(A) Horizontal communication (B) Vertical communication
(C) Corporate communication (D) Cross communication
25. Circular, letter and Memo are types of communication
(A) Inter departmental Communication (B) External Communication
(C) Mass Communication (D) None of these
26. 7C's Communication includes
(A) Completeness, Consciousness, Correctness and Courtesy
(B) Consideration, Concreteness and Clarity
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
27. Which of the following are the basic factors of effective listening ?
(A) Opinionating, stare and glare and interruptions
(B) Aggressive questioning, continuous cues and frequent movement
(C) Me-too-ism, glancing sideways, and offering advice
(D) Acknowledgement of thoughts, reflection, and asking open-ended
questions.

28. Classroom communication is normally considered as

(A) effective (B) affective
(C) cognitive (D) non-selective

29. The communicated knowledge in a classroom is considered as

(A) non-pervasive treasure (B) limited judgment
(C) autonomous virtue (D) cultural capital

30. What is important when a teacher communicates with his/her

student.
(A) Sympathy (B) Empathy
(C) Apathy (D) Antipathy

31. Anderson Quoted

(A) Communication – A dynamic Process
(B) Communication – A process of Exchange of Ideas
(C) Communication – A process of Association of Ideas
(D) None of the above

32. The work of the messenger is

(A) To encode message (B) To decline message
(C) To develop message (D) All of the above

33. The term Communis is taken form

(A) Latin language (B) Greek Language
(C) English Language (D) None of the these

34. The mode of communication that involves a single source transmitting

information to a large number of receivers simultaneously, is called
(A) Group Communication (B) Mass Communication
(C) Intrapersonal Communication (D) Interpersonal Communication

35. The pioneer of the silent feature film in India was

(A) K.A. Abbas (B) Satyajit Ray
(C) B.R. Chopra (D) Dada Sahib Phalke

36. MC National University of Journalism and Communication is located

at
(A) Lucknow (B) Bhopal
(C) Chennai (D) Mumbai

37. The way through message passes is called

(A) Channel (B) Transmission medium
(C) Transmission channel (D) Transmission System

38. In a process Communication the final objective of feedback is

(A) To bring desirable change in the process of communication
(B) To understand about the content
(C) To identify the defects of the communicator
(D) To diagnose the limits of the message sender

39. A teacher will be having effective teaching if

(A) Explain adequately the expected content to his student in a class
(B) Repeats the explanations in order to grasp by all the students
(C) Give rich learning experiences to the students
(D) Give right answer to all the queries of the students.

40. Which one of the following is not treated as an obstacle in the way of
effective communication?
(A) A long statement
(B) An inadequate statement
(C) A brief statement
(D) A statement which permits the listener to derive the conclusions.
41. When not understand a foreign language the communication of
message will be carried out through
(A) Speaking Loudly (B) Screaming
(C) Body language (D) Symbolic language

42. Didactic Communication is

(A) Intra-personal (B) Inter-Personal
(C) Organizational (D) Relational

43. The typical feature of an information-rich classroom lecture is in the

nature of being
(A) Sedentary (B) Staggered
(C) Factual (D) Sectorial
44. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as
(A) Passive audience (B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience (D) Negative audience

45. Classroom communication can be described as

(A) Exploration (B) Institutionalization
(C) Undignified narration (D) Discourse
46. Identity the correct sequence of the following
(A) Sources, Channel, Message and Receiver
(B) Sources, Message, Receiver and Channel
(C) Sources, Receiver Channel and Message
(D) Sources, Message Channel and Receiver
47. In a classroom, a communicator's trust level is determined by :
(A) The use of hyperbole (B) the change of the voice level
(C) The use of abstract concept (D) eye contact

48. Which of the following is not the principle of effective communication?

(A) Persuasive and convincing dialogue
(B) Perception of the audience
(C) one-way transfer of information
(D) Strategic use of grapevine

49. A jargon Means

(A) A Specialized Language of a Particular group of people
(B) Techniques of good writing
(C) A special Article Written by an editor
(D) None of the above

50. Which of the following is not matched with the nature of

Communication?
(A) A Directional Process (B) A Feed-Back Process
(C) A dynamic Process (D) A Passive Process
ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D A A D B A D D C B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B B B D B B B A A D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A D D A C D C D B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A D A SB D B A A C C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D B C B D D D C A A

SOLUTIONS
1. (D) Principle of better communication includes clarity of the
message, adequacy of information and transmission of
information.

2. (A) Communication is the process by which information is

exchanged between different people through symbols, signs or
behavior. it is exchange of facts, opinions, ideas or feeling. in
present time message is finally received and understood
completely which the sender wanted to convey.

3. (A) Chronemics is the study of the role of time in communication. It

is one of several subcategories of the study of nonverbal
communication. Other prominent subcategories include haptic
(touch), kinesics (body movement), vocalic (paralanguage), and
proxemics (the use of space).

4. (D) Communication process involves the following phase.

● Sender or Encoder

● Message Formulating

● Transmitting message

● Encode message

● Receive Feedback

5. (B) Knowledge is said to be power in terms of communication.

6. (A) The word communicate comes from the Latin word 'Communis'
or "communicare" which means to impart, to share or to make
common. it is also the sources of English word 'common' which
means that opinion of someone.
7. (D) The barrier of communication can be eliminated when use
Simple and comprehensible language, associated with feedback
form listener and following rules for excellent listening which
help understanding to listener.

8. (D) Understanding is important element of effective communication

without understanding a message communication cannot
completed.

9. (C) Non-verbal communication is used gestures, postures, facial

expression, cues (clues), emotions etc. to convey message. Tone
of voice (paralanguage) refers to different the tone of voice with
something is said. The tone of voice includes the pitch (high or
low pitch), the pace (slow or fast) and the volume (soft or loud).

10. (B) Grapevine communication is a horizontal communication (same

herirycial level) channel which is related to those persons who
are associated with informal communication system thus
informal communication is also known ass grapevine
communication.

11. (B) Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of

edutainment which makes learning easier, helps students,
achieve goals increases opportunities for expanded learning,
strengthens the connection between student and teachers, and
creates an overall positive experience.

12. (B) Students are really Decoders which Decode message those they
receive by teacher.

13. (B) Yellow journalism refers as newspaper owners used comedy,

romance, and exaggeration to sell millions of newspapers. A
style that became known as yellow journalism. It is also called
yellow press. It is sensationalism and exaggeration t attract
reader or viewer. it was content of newspaper and create more
interesting by sensationalized stories and use drawings and
cartoon.

14. (D) Non-verbal communication is used gestures, postures, facial

expression, cues (clues) emotions etc. to convey message.

15. (B) An effective communication acceptance is important element.

Without acceptance communication cannot complete effective
communication.

16. (B) The main element of communication is sources and the receiver
which help effective communication.

17. (B) A teacher should behave democratically with the students and
he communicate information to all students equally.
18. (A) The Postal Index Number (PIN) or PIN Code is a 6 digit code of
Post Office numbering used by India Post. The PIN was
introduced on August 15, 1972.
19. (A) First airborne mail transport had occurred during the
nineteenth century, the first official airmail flown by airplane
took place in India in 1911. The first official U.S. airmail
delivery took place on August 17, 1859.
20. (D) In 1930 Govt. take over and operated them of Indian board
casting service and established sister service of Prasar Bharti
Doordarshan.
21. (C) Hickey's Bengal Gazette was an English newspaper published
from Kolkata (then Calcutta), India. It was the first major
newspaper in India, started in 1780.
22. (A) Communication is a two way process. Sender send Message and
receiver receive message and give acceptance.

23. (D) Feedback is the receiver's response to a message. In circular

communication encoder becomes a decoder when there is give
feedback.
24. (D) When different department in an organization or people at
various level convey the message beyond the boundaries is
treated to be the cross wise and diagonal communication. Such
as production manager convey message to finance manager.
25. (A) Small organization communicates in very simple way but large
organization need an efficient system by which an communicate
and provide information quickly among various departments.
For this purpose organization uses memos, circulars, notice
office order etc.

26. (C) Principle of Effective Communication (7 C's)

 Completeness
 Consciousness
 Correctness
 Courtesy
 Consideration
 Concreteness
 Clarity

27. (D) Element of the effective listening :

 Positive attitude
 Concentration
 Body posture
 Question time
 Discipline

28. (C) Cognitive communication help to acquiring knowledge by new

ideas and experience. It is classroom communication for
acquired knowledge by new idea and experience.
29. (D) In other words Cultural capital defines how people (human)
engage each other (social) and their resources (economic).
Academically, cultural capital is defined as "forms of knowledge,
both tangible and intangible, that have dispositions. Such as
The communicated knowledge in a classroom as a cultural
capital.

30. (B) Empathy is a teaching strategy for understand interests, level of

the students and help to create good relationship with them.
Empathy is foundational for building bridges between students
and teacher for complex emotions, gaining a diverse perspective,
and leveraging relationships for collaboration and progress.

31 (A) Communication – A dynamic Process

32. (D) All of the above

33. (A) The word communication comes from the Latin word
'Communis' or "communicare".

34. (B) Mass communication is exchange information to large segments

of population through electronic media, newspaper, radio etc.
which aim largest audience is attract with single sources and
multiple receiver. It is provide one way communication.

35. (D) The first full-length motion picture in India was produced by
Dadasaheb phalke who brought together elements form
Sanskrit epic to produce his Raja Harish Chandra in 1913 a
silent film in Marathi.

36. (B) Makhan lal Chaturvedi national University of journalism and

Communication (MCNUJC) is public university in Bhopal,
Madhya Pradesh in India was established in 1932. It is India's
first university for Journalism and mass Communication.

37. (A) Channel is medium or way which use passed a message to

receiver. Such as E-mail, Loudspeaker etc.

38. (A) To bring desirable change in the process of communication

according to receiver.

39. (C) Give rich learning experiences to the students with effective
communication.

40. (C) Except a brief statement conclusion, all options are obstacle in
the way of effective communication. A brief statement
conclusion is a way of effective communication.

41. (D) When not understand a foreign language than symbolic

language is very important for communication of message.
42. (B) Didactic communication is inter-personal. It is very important
for classroom communication. it occurring only as a particular
form required in the transmission of some specific learning
content.

43. (C) Factual is a typical feature of information rich classroom

lecture, accurate and correct information give in rich classroom.

44. (B) Users who use media for their own ends are identified as Active
audience.

45. (D) Classroom communication can be described as discourse which

is used non-verbal communication for studies interaction and
conversation between teacher and students.

46. (D) Correct sequence of communication

 Sources
 Message
 Channel
 Receiver
 Feedback

47. (D) Eye contact is best way of communication in classroom. It is

create trust level of communicator's.

48. (C) Communication is two way process. one way transfer of

information cannot effective communication because feedback is
important element of effective communication.

49. (A) Jargon is a type of language that is used in a particular context

and may not be well understood outside that context. Most
jargon is technical terminology, involving terms of art or
industry terms, with particular meaning within a specific
industry. Such as in medical field BP called Blood Pressure.

50. (A) Communication is not directional process because

communication can be transmission without direction. Every
person or natural and artificial things can be communicated.
Information and Communication (ICT)
Unit Solved Paper-8

Note: This paper contains fifty (50) objective type question carriers two
(2) marks. Attempt all the questions.

1. ICT represents
(A) International Communication Technology
(B) intra Common Technology
(C) Intra Connected Terminals
(D) Information and Communication Technology

2. The function of information and communication Technology is

(A) Collection and storage of Information
(B) Processing of Information
(C) Transfer of Information
(D) All of the above

3. The objection of information and communication Technology is

(A) To collection more and more of Information
(B) Use of ICT for quality improvement also figures in Government of
India's flagship program of education
(C) Provide training for Teacher with using ICT's in the classroom to be
supported by well-trained teacher
(D) All of above
4. Charles Babbage is called the father of the
(A) Computer (B) E-Mail
(C)E-Commerce (D) Internet

5. Additional Subtraction operation has been carried out in

(A) CPU (B) ALU
(B) UPS (D) RAM
6. Which of the following is not a language?
(A) COBOL (B) PASCAL
(B) UNIX (D) FORTRAN

7. WWW means
(A) World Wide Web (B) World Wide Work
(C) World Website Work (D) Work World Wide

8. HTML Stands for

(A) Hyper technology memory language
(B) Hyper Text Mark-up language
(C) Hyper Text Mark up locator
(D) None of the these

9. What is the SPAM?

(A) Electronic Junk Mail (B) Mail Service
(B) Internet Connection (D) None of the these

10. MIS stands for

(A) Management information system (B) Memory Information System
(C) Memory Information Structure (D) None of these

11. Computer viruses do not

(A) Infect files on Write-Protected disks
(B) Infect Files
(C) Floppy
(D) None of the these

12. Anti-Virus Software are the Program designed to

(A) Detect a Computer Virus (B) Remove a Computer Virus
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the these
13. Some Popular Anti-Virus software are
(A) MC Affee (B) Smart Dog
(C) Norton Antivirus (D) All of the these

14. TCP/IP is made up of

(A) Internet Protocol (B) Transmission Control Protocol
(C) Internet Processor (D) Both (A) and (B)

15. BASIC, COBOL, PASCAL Language are

(A) Machine Department (B) Machine Independent
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the these

16. In the following the Fastest Computer Constituent is

(A) CPU (B) Magnet Tape
(C) Video Terminal (D) Sensor and Mechanical
Controller

17. C, C++ and JAVA are the

(A) Programming Language (B) Magnetic Tape
(C) Secondary Memory Device (D) Machine Language

18. The Meaning of MODEM is

(A) Modulator- demodulator (B) Essential Equipment for Internet
(C) An Electronic Device (D) None of the these

19. CAI stands for

(A) Computer Assisted Instruction (B)Computer Assistant Instruction
(C) Computer Advice Institution (D)Computer Advised Institution

20. Multimedia is
(A) A Technology (B) A Software
(C) A media (D) A popular Computer Game
21. Aim of the Information
(A) Deliver Lawful recognition for Transaction Though Electronic Data
interchange
(B) Provide Cyber Securities
(C) TO facility Transfer of electronic Filling of Documents
(D) All of the above
22. ALU stands for
(A) America Logic Unit (B) Alternate Local Unit
(C) Alternating Logic Unit (D) Arithmetic Logic Unit

23. NMEICT stands for:

(A) National Mission of Education though ICT
(B) National Mission on E-governance through ICT
(C) National Mission on E-commerce though ICT
(D) National Mission on E-learning through ICT
24. Which is not Part of the Computer Architecture?
(A) Control Unit (B) Memory Unit
(C) Arithmetic unit (D) Work Station

25. EDVAC is Stand for

(A) Electronic Discrete Variable Automatic Computer
(B) Electronic Device Variable Automatic Computer
(C) Electronic Discrete Valuable Automatic Computer
(D) Electronic Discrete Variable Air thematic Computer

26. Operating System is

(a) A collection programmed which control all Hardware and other
resources in Computer system.
(b) Programmed which remove Virus
(c) A control and operate the CPU, memories and input and output
devices
(d) Hardware which help to operate computer
Correct Answer.
(A) (a) and (c) (B) (a) and (b)
(C) (b) and (d) (D) (b) and (c)

27. Type of the operating System

(A) Batch operating system, Time Sharing Operating System and
Distributed Operating System.
(B) Network Operating System and Real Time Operating System
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the these

28. Main Memory is

(A) Random Access Memory (B) Real only Memory
(C) Erasable Programmable Memory (D) None of the above
29. ASCII
(A) It is 7 bit binary code.
(B) Developed by American National Standard Institute (ANSI)
(C) Represent Symbolic, Numeric and Alphanumeric Characters
(D) All of the above

30. The acronym FTP stands for

(A) File Transfer Protocol (B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol (D) File Transfer Procedure

31. The first web browser is

(A) Internet Explorer (B) Netscape
(C) World Wide Web (D) Firefox

32. Symbols A-F are used in which one of the following?

(A) Binary number system (B) Decimal number system
(D) Hexadecimal number system (D) Octal number system

33. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value

which stands for
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change

34. A computer program that translates a program statement by

statement into machine langrage is called a/an
(A) Compiler (B) Simulator
(C) Translator (D) Interpreter

35. A Gigabyte is equal to

(A) 1024 Megabytes (B) 1024 Kilobytes
(C) 1024 Terabytes (D) 1024 Bytes

36. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format?
(A) PNG (B) GIF
(C) BMP (D) GUI

37. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit

called
(A) Microprocessor (B) System Board
(C) Daughter Board (D) Mother Board

38. Plotter is a
(A) Output Device (B) Input Device
(C) Processor (D) None of these

39. In a MS excel spread sheets are

(A) 256 columns and 16,000 rows (B) 256 columns and 12000 rows
(C) 156 columns and 16,000 rows (D) None of these

40. The Program writing in high-level language is known as

(A) Object Program (B) Sources Program
(C) Compile Program (D) High Level Program

41. DVD used for

(A) Playing Movies (B) Playing Games
(C) Playing Photo (D) All of these

42. CD-ROM typically stored

(A) 750 Mb of data (B) 550 Mb of data
(C) 650 Mb of data (D) None of these

43. Modulation and Demodulation are performed by

(A) Modem (B) UPS
(C) Multimedia (D) Satellite
44. Data and information is
(A) Not used interchangeably
(B) Often Used interchangeably
(C) Used by People to make decisions
(D) None of these

45. The main features of MS Word are

(A) Editing (B) For Mating
(C) Creating Tables (D) All of these

46. Joy Stick is a

(A) Input Device (B) Output Service
(C) Programmed (D) None of thes

47. OMR Means

(A) Optical Mark Recognition (B) Optical Maximum Recognition

(C) Operating Mark Recognition (D) None of these
48. Ink Jet Printer is
(A) It prints only one character at a time
(B) It prints characters as combination of dots.
(C) It prints characters by spraying patterns of ink on the paper from
a nozzle or jet.
(D) It utilizes a laser beam to produce an image on a drum

49. Convert (1001) 2 to Decimal

(A) (9) 10
(B) (8) 10

(C) (6) 10
(D) (7) 10

50. Convert (1000101) 2

to Hexadecimal.
(A) (40) 16
(B) (43) 16

(C) (46) 16
(D) (45) 16
ANSWER KEYS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D D D A B C A B A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D B D D B A A SA A C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D D A D A A C A D A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C C B A A D D A D D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D C A B D A A C A D

SOLUTIONS

1. (D) ICT is synonym of information Technology (IT).

2 (D) The function of information and communication technology is
collection and storage information, processing pf information
and transfer of information.
3. (D) All of the above
4. (A) Charles Babbage was considered to be the father of computer
after his invention and concept of the Analytical Engine in 1837.
5. (B) The major operations performed by the ALU are addition,
subtraction, multiplication, division, logic and comparison.
6. (C) Unix is operating system while COBOL, PASCAL and FORTRAN
are high level language.
7. (A) When most people think of the internet, the first thing they
think about is the World Wide Web. Nowadays, the teams
"internet" and World Wide Web" are often used interchangeably-
but they're actually not the same thing.
8. (B) HTML is used to create electronic documents (called pages) that
are displayed on the World Wide Web. Each page contains a
series of connections to other pages called hyperlinks.
9. (A) Junk emails are undesirable and inappropriate emails. Junk
emails are sometimes referred to as spam.
10. (A) MIS (Management information System) is the use of information
technology people and business processes to record, store and
processes to record, store and process data to produce
information that decision makes can use to make day to day
decisions.
11. (D) None of these, Computer virus destroy computer file and data or
floppy.
12. (B) Anti-Virus is Software Programme which Detected and Remove
Virus From Computer System. When Computer System is
booted anti-virus start.
13. (D) Norton-Antivirus, Smart Dog, Mc. Afee are some of the popular
antivirus Software.
14. (D) Linux and other Unix operating systems use the TCP/IP
protocol. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and IP (Internet
Protocol). TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet
Protocol) used in to the world of networking.
15. (B) it is a machine independent language. user to write language
use English word and mathematic Symbol. COBOL was the first
high language developed for business.
16. (A) CPU is a Fastest Computer Consists along with memory.
17. (A) C, C++ and Java and Programming Language, C is a procedural
programming language and does not support classes and
objects, while C++ is a combination of both procedural and
object oriented programming language: therefore C++ can be
called a hybrid language while JAVA is a pure object oriented
programming language.
18. (A) Modem is very Important Part for Internet. The type of internet
access you choose will determine what type of modem you need.
It is Used Modulator (Convert Text to Digital)- Demodulator
(Convert Digital to Text).
19. (A) Computer-assisted Instruction (CAI) is an interactive
instructional technique whereby a computer is used to present
the instructional material and monitor the learning that takes
place. CAI uses a combination of text, graphic, sound and video
in enhancing the learning process.
20. (C) Multimedia is a media which used a combination of different
content forms such as text, audio, images, animations, video
and interactive content.
21. (D) All of the above.
22. (D) An arithmetic-logic unit (ALU) is the part of a computer
processor (CPU) that carries out arithmetic and logic operations
on the operands in the computer instruction words.
23. (A) National Mission on Education through information and
Communication and Technology (NMEICT) is an ambitious
project undertaken by the Minister OF Human resource
Development (MHRD), Government of India with a view to
seamlessly providing quality educational content to all the
eligible and willing learners in India.
24. (D) Work station is a powerful, single-user computer. A workstation
is like a personal computer, but it has a more powerful
microprocessor and a higher-quality monitor. It is part of
computer architecture.
25. (A) The EDVAC (1946-1952):- The Electronic Discrete Variable
Automatic Computer (EDVAC) is a Stored Instruction Computer
which developed by professor J Presper ECKERT.
26. (A) Operating System is a collection programmed which controls all
hardware and other resources in computer system and operates
the CPU, memories ad Input and output Devices.
27. (C)
 Batch Operating System
 Time Sharing Operating System
 Disturbed Operating System
 Network Operating System
 Real- Time Operating System
28. (A) Random Access Memory (RAM) referred to as main memory or
system memory, Random access Memory (RAM) is hardware
device that allows information to be stored and retrieved on a
computer.
29. (D) All of the above
30. (A) File Transport Protocol, or FTP, is an open protocol standard
that is widely used to transport and receive large files.
31. (C) The file web browser was World wide web (WWW) in 1990
developed by Sir Tim Berners-Lee.
32. (C) In hexadecimal after 9 we express code 10(A), 11(B), 12(C),
13(D), 14(E), 15(F).
33. (B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange.
34. (A) A compiler is a translator program which a high level
programming language into machine language program.
35. (A) 1 Bit Binary Digit
8 Bits 1 Byte
1024 Bytes 1 KB (Kilo Byte)
1024 KB 1MB (Mega Byte)
1024 MB 1 GB (Giga Byte)
36. (D) These are graphic file format. GUI is not graphic file format.
 JPEG
 PNG (Portable Network Graphics)
 BMP (Graphic Interchange Format)
 TIFF (Tagged Image File Format)
37. (D) The motherboard serves as a single platform to connect all of
the parts of a computer together. A motherboard connects CPU,
memory, hard drives, optical drives, video card, sound card, and
other ports and expression cards directly or via cables, It can be
considered s the backbone of a computer.
38. (A) Plotter is a output device which produces high diagrams on the
paper and their output quality is good. Engineers, architects
and planners use plotters to generate high quality, high-
precision graphic output of different sizes.
39. (D) None of these
40. (D) The program writing in high – level language is known as High
level Program which use write language and English word and
mathematical symbol.
41. (D) DVD used normally for playing Movies, Playing Photo etc.
42. (C) CD- ROMs Typically store 650 MB (megabytes) of data whereas
a DVD stores between 4.7 GB (gigabytes) and 17 GB (i.e.
between 4,700 and 17,000 MB)
43. (A) Modulation and Demodulation are performed by Modem.
44. (B) Data and information used interchangeably.
45. (D) All of the these
46. (A) Joy Sticks is Input Device
47. (A) Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is the scanning of paper to
detect the presence or absence of a mark in predetermined
position.
48. (C) It prints characters by spraying patterns of paper to detect the
presence or from nozzles having very fine holes, from which ink
is pumped out to create various letters.

49. (A) 1  2 3 + 0  2 2 + 0  21 + 1  2 0

8 + 0 + 0 + 1 = (9) 10

50. (D) (Note that we needed to insert a '0' to the left of 100) the
hexadecimal no. system uses the digits (0 to 9 & A, B, C, D, E,
F)
0100 0100 = (45)
16
4 5
People Development and Environment
Unit Solved Paper-9

Note: This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each
question carriers two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions.

1. Bio Indicators are

(A) Soil Indicators (B) Water Indicators
(C) pH Indicators (D) Stains

2. The relations between crops and environment is known as

(A) Agro ecology (B) Dem ecology
(C) Synecology (D) Autecology

3. Ozone Layer is essentials because it absorbs most of the

(A) Infra-red radiations (B) Heat
(C) Solar Radiations (D) Ultraviolet Radiations

4. Which of the following methods can be adopted of save soil erosion?

(A) Use trace cultivation
(B) Remove of soil
(C) Grow Plants with adventitious root
(D) Use more soil

5. Living organisms are

(A) Biotic Factors in an ecosystem (B)antibiotic factors in an
ecosystem
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

6. Which of the following is not a Himalayan river systems?

(A) Indus System (B) Ravi System
(C) Ganga System (D) Brahmaputra System

7. Which of the following is the largest ecosystem in the world?

(A) River (B) Oceans
(C) Mountains (D) Forests

8. S and P waves are associated with

(A) Floods (B) wind
(c) Earthquakes (D) tidal energy

9. 'Lahar' is a natural disaster involving

(A) Eruption of large amount of material
(B) Strong winds
(C) Strong water waves
(D) Strong winds and water waves
10. Which of the anthropogenic activity accounts for more than 2/3 rd. of
global water consumption?
(A) Agriculture (B) Hydropower generation
(C) Industry (D) Domestic and Municipal usage

11. The National Disaster Management Authority functions and under the
Union Ministry of
(A) Environment (B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs (D) Defense

12. Global Warning during winter becomes more pronounced at the

(A) Equator (B) Topic of cancer
(C) Tropic of Capricorn (D) Poles

13. The IUCN Red list was initiated in

(A) 1954 (B)1964
(C) 1993 (D) 1995
14. Environment Protection act 1986, includes
(A) Biological Surrounding (B) Physical Surrounding
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

15. Environment Element are

(A) Biological Element (B) Physical Element
(C) Cultural Element (D) All of these

16. Hydrosphere Consists

(A) Protective blanket of gases, surrounding the earth
(B) All types of water resources
(C) Minerals occurring in the earth's crusts and the soil
(D) None of these

17. Deforestation is
(A) The loss of trees due to over cutting of forests.
(B) The process of grasslands being converted to desert
(C) A group of primary energy sources created from the incomplete
biological
(D) None of these

18. Resources can be

(A) Natural Resources (B) Artificial Resources
(C) Exhaustible Resources (D) All of these

19. Smog is type of pollution

(A) Water Pollution (B) Air Pollution
(C) Noise Pollution (D) Marine Pollution

20. Aerosols includes

(A) Fluorocarbon (B) Oxyacid nitrate
(C) Carbon Monoxide (D) None of these
21. Hydrocarbons Fuel consists
(A) Automobiles (B) Jet Airways
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

22. Radioactive elements by

(A) Nuclear explosions (B) Burn Plastic
(C) Burn metal (D) None of these

23. Water Pollution are

(A) Point Sources of pollution (B) Non- Point Source Pollution
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

24. In Global warming, Increase in temperature due to

(A) Greenhouse effect (B) Marine pollution
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

25. Which of the following is mostly widely used from of renewable energy
(A) Coal (B) Fossil Fuel
(C) Hydro Power (D) Wood

26. Ferrous group of minerals is a type of

(A) Fertilizer Minerals (B) Non-metallic
(C) Metallic minerals (D) Fertilizer Minerals

27. Coal is
(A) Nonrenewable Resources (B) Renewable Resources
(C) Forest Resources (D) None of these

28. Which method is used to control pollutes of a particular nature

(A) Combustion (B) Absorption
(C) Electrostatic percipators (D) oxidation pond

29. Consider the following Statement

(1) Ozone is found mostly in the Statosphere
(2) Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
(3) Ozone layer has significance for life on the earth.
Code (correct Statement are)
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) None of these

30. Sericulture is an
(A) Art of silk warm breeding (B) Study of solar system
(C) Study of ecosystem (D) Artificial rearing of fish

31. Lead cause

(A) Air Pollution (B) Water Pollution
(C) Radioactive Pollution (D) All of the these
32. Environmental Problems caused by human activity are
(A) Deforestation and Soil Erosion
(B) Thinning of Ozone layer and Global Warming
(D) Salinization
(E) All of these

33. Niche refers to:

(A) Place of Living (B) Type of animal food
(C) Place of living and type of food (D) All of these

34. Noise Pollution occurs if noise exceeds

(A) 80-100 db. (B) 80-90 db.
(C) 120-16 db. (D) 40-70 db.

35. Who among the following is known as the 'Bird Man' of India
(A) Dr. M.S. Randhawa (B) Dr. M.S. Mani
(C) Dr. Salim Ali (D) None of these
36. The Central Government. however, regulated development of minerals
under the Mines and Minerals (Regulation and Development) Act,
1957 and the rules and regulations framed following.
(A) The grant of prospective licenses and mining leases
(B) The conservation and development of minerals
(C) The modification of old leases
37. In Indian Refineries are available till 2017
(A) 24 (B) 23
(C) 25 (D) 20
38. What is form of natural Gases.
(A) Pipe Natural Gas (PNG) (B)Natural Gas for Vehicles (NGV)
(C) Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) (D) All of the above
39. Methane Gas know as
(A) Natural Gas (NGV) (B) Pipe limit Gas (PNG)
(C) Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) (D) None of these
40. Production of Uranium at present is confined to the mines
(A) Jaduguda, Bihar (B) Kishangarah (Rajasthan)
(C) Pitoragarh (Uttra Khand) (D) None of these
41. Example of hazards
(A) geophysical (earthquakes, landslides, tsunamis and volcanic
activity)
(B) Hydrological (avalanches and floods)
(C) Biological (disease epidemics and insect plagues).
(E) All of the above
42. Mitigation means
(A) Reducing risk of loss from the occurrence of any undesirable
event.
(B) Reducing risk of loss from the occurrence of any desirable events.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
43. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List –I List-II
(a) Flood 1. Lack of rainfall of sufficient
duration
(b) Drought [Link] produced by the
passage of vibratory waves
though the rocks of the earth.
(c) Earthquake 3. A vent through which molted
substances come out
(d) Volcano 4. Excess rain and uneven
distribution of water
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2

44. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter

Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be approximately.
(A) ~8 (B) ~16
(C) ~32 (D) ~64
45. NEAA Means
(A) National Environment Appellate Authority
(B) National Economic Authorities
(C) National Environment Apply Authorities
(E) None of these
46. NEAA is replaced by
(A) National Green Tribunal (NGT) (B) National disaster Management
(C) Ganga Clean Authority (D) None of these

47. Kyoto Protocol is related to

(A) Ozone depletion (B) Hazardous waste
(C) Climate change (D) Nuclear energy

48. Nagoya Protocol is related to

(A) Climate Change (B) Ozone Depletion
(C) Hazardous Waste (D) Biodiversity

49. Prototype Carbon Fund (PCF) is related

(A) One industrial country to invest in another industrial country and in return
obtain emissions reductions.
(B) Agreement to protect the atmosphere by limiting the use of ozone depleting
substance
(C) Invest in projects that will produce high quality greenhouse gas emission
reductions.
(E) None of these

50. River Water Deposits

(A) Loamy soil (B) alluvial soil
(C) laterite soil (D) Sandy soil
ANSWER KEYS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A D C A B B C A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B B C D B A D B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A A C A C C A C A A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A D C A C D B D A A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D A A C A A C D C B

SOLUTIONS

1. (A) Soil biological indicators provide insight into the living comment
of the soil. Similar to physical and chemical indicators,
biological indicators have a relationship to soil functions and
can evaluate soil functions to assess soil to assess soil quality.
These indicators are dynamic soil properties that are very
sensitive management, natural disturbances, and chemical
contaminants.
2. (A) Crops and environment relation is known are agro ecology
which related agriculture.
3. (D) Ozone layer is essentials our health and environment because it
absorb ultraviolet radiations which given by sun.
4. (C) In other world, soil erosion is a process by which the soil
particles transfer from place to place due to the effort of external
factors (air or flowing water). Grow plants with adventitious root
used method can absorbed of save soil erosion.
5. (A) Living organism are biotic factors in an ecosystem such as
Plants and animals. Biotic refers life the condition of living
organisms.
6. (B) The Ravi is a trans boundary river northwestern India and
eastern Pakistan.
7. (B) Oceans is the largest ecosystem in the world it is accounts for
the more than 70% of Earth's surface.
8. (C) S and P waves are associated with earthquakes. Earthquakes
generate three types of waves: P (primary) waves, S (secondary)
waves and surface waves, which arrive at seismic recording
station one after another. Both P and S waves penetrate the
interior of the Earth while surface do not. Due to this, P and S
waves are known as "body waves"
9. (A) Lahar is a natural disaster that involves eruption of large
amount of material from volcano. The material flows down from
a volcano, typically along a river valley is known as lahar.
10. (A) Agriculture
11. (C) National Disaster Management (NDMA) is an agency of the
Ministry of Home Affairs whose primary purpose is to coordinate
response to natural or man-made disasters and fro capacity-
building in disaster resiliency and crisis response.
12. (B) Global Warming during Winter becomes more Pronounced at the
Tropic of Cancer at Eight state in India such as (Gujrat,
Rajasthan, Madya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West
Bangal, Tirpura, Mizoram)
13. (B) The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species (also known as the
IUCN Red List or Red Data List), founded in 1964, is the world's
most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status
of biological species.
14. (C) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, environment includes all
the physical and biological surroundings of an organism along
with their interactions.
15. (D) All of these
16. (B) The Hydrosphere Comprises all types of water resources oceans,
seas, lakes, rivers, streams, reservoir, polar icecaps, glaciers
and ground water.
17. (A) The loss of trees due to over cutting of forests. One consequence
of deforestation is soil erosion, which results in the loss of
protective soil cover and the water-holding capacity of the soil.
18. (D) All of these
19. (B) Smog is Air
20. (A) Aerosols are chemicals released in the air in gas form. These
include fluorocarbon (carbon compound having fluorine) present
in emissions from the Jet airplanes.
21. (A) Hydrocarbons Fuel are UN brunt discharges from incomplete
combustion of fuel in automobiles.
22. (C) Radioactive elements are released by nuclear explosions and
explosives. These are extremely harmful for health.
23. (C) Point sources of pollution
When a source of pollution can be readily identified because it
has a definite source and place where it enters the water it is
said to some from a point source. Eg. Municipal and Industrial
Discharge Pipes.
Non-Point Source Pollution.
When a source of pollution cannot be readily identified, such as
agricultural runoff, acid rain, etc. they are said to be non-point
sources of pollution.
24. (A) An increase in earth's temperature due to greenhouse effect
results in warming. It increases the water temperature and
result in death of aquatic animals and marine species which
later result in water pollutions.
25. (C) Hydro Power.
26. (C) Metallic minerals are divided into Two groups
(i) Ferrous group (Includes Iron, Manganese, Nickel)
(ii) Nonferrous group (Cooper, lead, Zinc, Gold)
27. (A) Coal is considered Nonrenewable resources because it cannot be
replenished on a human time frame.
28. (C) An electrostatic precipitator (ESP) or electronic air cleaner is a
particulate collection device that remove particular form (such
as air) using the force of an induced electrostatic charge.
29. (A) Ozone is formed in the earth stratosphere and it is critical to life
on earth. It is absorbs ultraviolet radiation form the sun and its
significance for life on the earth.
30. (A) Sericulture, or silk farming, is the cultivation of silkworms of
produce silk. Although there are several commercial species of
silkworms, Bombay mori is the most widely used and intensively
studied silkworm.
31. (A) Lead is persistent in the environment and can be added to soil
and sediments though deposition from sources of lead air
pollution.
32. (D) All of the above
33. (C) A niche refers to the way in which an organism fits into an
ecological community or ecosystem. Though the process of
natural selection of Place of Loving and type of foods.
34. (A) 80-100 dB
Immediate and irreversible nerve damage can be caused by
sounds at 140 dB or Higher (120 dB in Young children).
However, damage also occurs at lower should levels, and this
harm reduces hearing activity over time.
35. (C) Salim Ali, one of the greatest ornithologists and naturalists of
all time, is also known as the "birdman of India". He was one of
the first scientists to carry out systematic bird surveys in India
and abroad. His research work is considered highly influential
in the development of ornithology.
36. (D) All of these
37. (B) 23 Refineries are available in India till 2017.
38. (D) All of the above.
39. (A) Methane is used as fuel for power generation known as Sales
Gas. if compressed in high-pressure cylinder, the product
derived is called compressed natural gas or as known as natural
gas for vehicles or NGV used as fuel for cars.
40. (A) Production of Uranium at present is confined to the mines at
Jaduguda in Singhbhum district in Bihar.
41. (D) All of the above
42. (A) Mitigation means reducing risk of loss from the occurrence of
any undesirable event. This is an important element for any
insurance business so as to avoid unnecessary losses.
43. (A) 4 1 2 3
44. (C) As measured with a seismometer, an earthquake that registers
5.0 on the Richter scale has shaking amplitude 10 times that of
an earthquake that registered 4.0, and thus corresponds to a
release of energy 31.6 times that released by the lesser
earthquake.
45. (A) The National Environment Appellate Authority (NEAA) is one of
the tribunals (the other being the National Environment
Tribunal) set up though an Act of Parliament to provide reprisal
on matters concerning the environment.
46. (A) NEAA is now repeated in view of the passage of the Green
Tribunal Bill. 2009.
47. (C) The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement liked to the
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
which commits its Parties by setting internationally binding
emission reduction targets.
48. (D) The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the
Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their
Utilization (ABS). This is Agreement on Biological Diversity.
49. (C) Recognizing that global warming will heave the most impact on
its borrowing client countries the World Bank approved the
establishment of the Prototype Carbon Fund (PCF).
50. (B) River water deposit alluvial soil. Alluvial soils are transported by
water.
Higher Education System: Governance, Polity and
Administration
Unit Solved paper-10
Note: This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each
question, each question carries two (2) marks . Attempt all the
questions.

1. The national council for teacher education (NCTE) is

(A) An autonomous Body.
(B) A statutory Body
(C) An Independent body accountable to the center government
(E) None of these

2. Who is the known as the father of educational psychology

(A) Pestology (B) Devy
(C) Herbart (D) Spencer

3. The INSAT stands for

(A) Institute of National Science and Technology
(B) Indian National Society of Applied Technology
(C) Indian National Satellite System
(E) Indian National Society for Arts and Technology

4. ICAR is an autonomous body for

(A) Agricultural Research (B) Nuclear Research
(C) Medical Research (D) Educational Research

5. Universities having central Campus for Imparting education are called

(A) Central Universities (B) Deemed Universities
(C) Residential Universities (D) Opene Universities

6. According to Radhakrishanan Commission the aim of Higher

Education is
(A) To develop young generation who can contribute towards politics,
administration, profession industries and commerce
(B) To create a generation who respects old beliefs and develop
intellectually having new faith
(C) To preserve democratic values and develop peace between
individual and society.
(D) All of these

7. NAAC means
(A) National Assessment and Accreditation Council
(B) National Aeronautics and Airplane Council
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

8. Aligarh Muslim University was founded by

(A) Jinnah (B) Syed Ahmed Khan
(C) Abdul Kalam Azad (D) Bhutto

9. SCOVE Stand for

(A) State Council on Vocational Education
(B) State Committee on Vocational Education
(C) State Committee on Vocational Education
(E)State Council of Virtual Education

10. The agency which have founded SCOVE is

(A) UGC (B) NCERT
(C) ICSSR (D) CSIR

11. The UGC INFORNET network is run and Managed by

(A) ERNET (B) 20 September 1985
(C) INFLIBNET (D) None of These
12. India Gandhi National Open University came into existence
(A) 20 September 1983 (B) 20 September 1985
(C) 20 September 1984 (D) None of these
13. The residential Universities are the Universities having
(A) Central Campus For Imparting Education
(B) Many Campuses For Imparting Education
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
14. Unitary Teaching College is called
(A) Residential University
(B) Affiliating University
(C) Residential Cum Affiliating university
(C) None of these
15. When an University has its separate Campus for teaching Purpose
and there are many autonomous and constituent college affiliated to
it this organization pattern is called
(A) A Federal University (B) A Decentralized university
(C) An Unitary University (D) None of these
16. Complex of College is called
(A) Federal University (B) Unitary University
(B) Central University (D) State University
17. Who was the first chairman of Planning Commission?
(A) Rajiv Gandhi (B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Jewaharlal Nehru (D) None of these

18. NITI Aayog Replaced by

(A) Planning Commission
(B) CAG (Comptroller and Auditor of India)
(C) UPSC (Union Public Service Commission)
(D) None of these
18. NITIA Aayog Replaced by
(A) Planning Commission
(B) CAG (Comptroller and Auditor General of India)
(C) UPSC (Union Public Service Commission)
(E) None of these

19. CAG (Comptroller and Auditor General of India) set up by

(A) The Constitution Law under Article 148
(B) The Constitution Law under Article 143
(C) The Constitution Law under Article 142
(D) The Constitution Law under Article 145

20. UPSC is a
(A) Central recruiting agency of India (B) A universities
(C) An Organization (D) None of these

21. The Council Minister is responsible to the

(A) President (B) Lok Sabha
(C) Vice President (D) Supreme Court

22. In India the executive is responsibility directly to the

(A) Legislature (B) President
(C) Judiciary (D) People

23. The Rajya Sabha is

(A) Dissolved once in two year (B) Dissolved after every four year
(C) Dissolved after every six month (D) Not subject to dissolution

24. The time gap between two sessions of parliament is not more than
(A) 9 month (B) 1 month
(C) 3 month (D) 6 month

25. (A) Who examines the report of the comptroller and Auditor-General of
India after it is laid before parliament?
(A) Lok Sabha Speaker (B) Estimates Committee
(C) Public Accounts Committee (D) None of these

26. Which of the following are Central University?

(1) Pondicherry University (2) Vishwa Bharati
(3) H.N.B. Garhwal University (4) Kurukshetra University
Selected the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
(A) (1), (2) and (3) (B) (1), (3) and (4)
(C) (2), (3) and (4) (D) (1), (2) and (4)

27. Which of the following statement are correct about deemed university?
(1) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed university.
(2) They can design their own syllabus and course work.
(3) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and free.
(4) They can grant degrees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (1), (2) and (3) (B) (2), (3) and (4)
(C) (1), (2) and (4) (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

28. The First open University in the country were established by state
govt.
(A) Gujarat (B) Kerala
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Rajasthan

29. "Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man" was

stated by
(A) M.K. Gandhi (B) R.N. Tagore
(C) Swami Vivekanand (D) Sri Aurobindo

30. The South Asia University is situated in the city of:

(A) Colombo (B) Dhaka
(C) New Delhi (D) Kathmandu

31. AYUSH Ministry has established a TKDL in collaboration with CRIR.

What does TKDL stand for
(A) Traditional Knowledge Digital Library
(B) Tatkal Knowledge Digital Library
(C) Traditional Knowledge Distribution Library
(D) Traditional Knowledge Digital Literacy

32. First state in the country to incorporate skill development

programmed in higher education.
(A) Rajasthan (B) Gujarat
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Assam

33. NTA Stands for

(A) National Testing Agency (B) National Transfer Agency
(C) National Testing Academy (D) None of these

34. National Defense Academy (NDA) is situated at

(A) Khadakwasla (Puna) (B) Dehradun
(C) Mumbai (D) Delhi

35. Bhaba Atomic Research Centre (BARC) is situated at

(A) Hyderabad (B) Bangalore
(C) New Delhi (D) Mumbai
36. The retirement age of the supreme Court Judge
(A) 55 year (B) 65 year
(C) 62 year (D) 60 year
37. The article which consists Freedom of Press is
(A) Article 15 (B) Article 24
(C) Article 20 (C) Article 19

38. A judge of the Supreme Court may resign his office by writing
addressed to
(A) Chief Justice (B) President
(C) The Prime Minister (D) The Law Minister
39. Which of State and Union Exercised the most profound influence in
framing the India Constitution?
(A) Irish Constitution (B) British Constitution
(C) US Constitution (D) The Govt. of India Act. 1935
40. The total Institute of Education Planning and administrative has been
converted in to Deemed Universities and is now called the
(A) NIEPA (B) ERNET
(C) CIEFL (D) INDEST
41. First Engineering College in India
(A) IIT Roorkee
(B) IIT Kharagpur
(C) IIT Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi
(D) IIT Bombay
42. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university
concept?
(A) Assam University (B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University (D) Pondicherry University
43. The national open school (NIOS) works under the age of
(A) National Council of Education research and training (NCERT)
(B) Ministry of human resources development (MHRD)
(C) National Institute of education planning and administration
(NIPEA)
(D) Distance education Council of India (DEC)

44. The National Centre for nuclear Science and Mathematics is looked at
(A) Kalpakkam (Near Chennai) (B) Colaba (Mumbai)
(C) Kota Rajasthan (D) Karwar (Karntaka)

45. A vestibule School was a

(A) Correspondence School (B) Public trade School
(C) School for Apprentices (D) School run by Factory
46. A sports University which is Asia's First of kind Function in
(A) Kochi (B) Pune
(C) Wardha (D) Gandhinagar
47. CARE is an abbreviation for
(A) Care for Adult Recreation and Employment
(B) Committee for American Relief Every where
(C) Compulsory attendance at rural education
(D) Contacts of American Representatives Everywhere
48. CHEER stands for
(A) Children Enrichment Education through radio
(B) Child Health Education Electronic Recording
(C) Children for Engineering and Energy requirement
(D) None of these
49. Which of the following statement are correct about distance education
in India?
(1) It supplements formal education
(2) It reduces the cost of education
(3) It replaces the formal education.
(4) It enhances access of education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (B) (1), (2) and (4)
(C) (1), (2) and (3) (D) (2), (3) and (4)
50. Which of the following are statutory bodies?
(1) Election Commission of India
(2) University Grants Commission (UGC)
(3) All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
(4) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (1), (2) and (3) (B) (2), (3) and (4)
(C) (2) and (3) (C) (2) and (4)

ANSWER KEYS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

B C C A C D A B A A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

A B A A A A C A A A

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B A D D C A B C C C

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A A A A D B D B D A

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

A B B A C B A A A B
SOLUTIONS
1. (B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) is a Indian
government set up Under the National Council for Teacher
Education Act,1993 in 1995 is to formally Oversee Standards,
procedures and processes in the Indian education system.
2. (C) John Herbert (1176-1841) is the father of educational
psychology. He believed that teacher should consider the
students existing mental sets. What they already know, when
presenting new material or information.
3. (C) Indian National Satellite System (INSAT) is a series of
multipurpose Geo-stationary Satellites launched by Indian space
Research Organization (ISRO) for telecommunications,
broadcasting, meteorology, search and rescue operations.
4. (A) The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an
autonomous body responsible for co-ordinating agricultural
education and research in India. It reports to the Department of
Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture.
5. (C) In India Central Universities having central ampus for imparting
Education but in USA some Residential universities having
central campus for imparting education.
6. (D) All of these
7. (A) The National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) is an
organization that assesses and accredits higher education
institution (HELs) in India. It is an autonomous body funded by
University Grants Commission of Government of India
headquartered in Bangalore.
8. (B) The Aligarh Muslim University is a residential academic
institution which was established in 1920. Sir Syed Ahmad
khan, a great reformist of his age, who felt the need of modern
education for Muslim, stared a school swayback in 1875 which
later became a collage under the title of “Mohammedan Anglo
Oriental College” and ultimately became a University.
9. (A) SCVE stands for Sate Council on Vocational Education.
10. (A) SCOVE (standing Committee of Vocational Education)
A bachelor's degree in vocational education is likely to be
introduced in the University grants commission in 2012. The
standing committee (SCOVE) of UGC has formally approved a
proposal to introduce a bachelor's degree in art, science,
commerce or vocational education.
11. (A) The University Grants Commission has launched a mega project
of interlinking Universities and college in the country
electronically with a view to achieving maximum efficiency
through internet enabled teach8ing, learning and governance.
The UGC- info net will be overlaid on DERNET Infrastructure in
a manner so as to provide assured quality of service and
optimum utilization of bandwidth resources. The network will be
run and managed by ERNET India.
12. (B) In 1985, the Union Government made a policy statement for
policy Statement for establishment of a national open university.
On the basis of the committee, the Union Government
introduced a bill in the parliament. In August 1985, both the
Houses of the parliament passed the Bill. Subsequently, the
India Gandhi National Open University. Came into existence on
20 September 1985, named after the late prime minister.
13. (A) In the United State "collage" often refers to a constituent part of
a university or to a degree-awarding tertiary educational
institution. but generally "college" and "university" are used
interchangeable, whereas in the United Kingdom, Oceania,
South Asia and Southern Africa, " college" may refer to a
secondary or high school, a college of further Education
Residential Universities are Universities having central campus
for Imparting Education. Some America universities, such as
Princeton, Rice and Yale have established Residential Colleges
(sometimes, as at Harvard the first to established Residential
Colleges (sometimes, as at Harvard the first to establish such as
system in the 1930s, known as houses) along the lines of Oxford
or Cambridge.
14. (A) The unitary teaching College have a single campus and largely
provision for undergraduate studies and research, though some
my also have provision for undergraduate programmes. It is also
Residential Universities. e.g., Aligarh Muslim University, Banaras
Hindu University, Jawaharlal Nehru University. Some of the
unitary universities have also colleges under then known as
university colleges or constituent colleges.
15. (A) A collegiate university is a university in which functions are
divided between a central administration and a number of
constituent colleges. The two principle forms are residential
college universities, where the central university is responsible
for teaching and colleges my deliver some teaching but are
primarily residential communities, and federal universities where
the central university has a administrative (and sometimes
examining) role and the colleges may be residential but are
primarily teaching institutions. The larger colleges or campuses
of federal universities, such as University College London and
University of California, Berkeley, may be effectively universities
in their own right and often and often have their own Student
unions.
16. (A) The Complex of college is a loosely based organization committed
to free speech, and those interested in continuing adult
education, focusing on social issues and current events. The
name is derived from "a psychiatric term for repressed ideas that
compel expression". The underlying purpose is to solve all the
world's problems.
Federal Universities means which Universities running by federal
govt.
The federal government provides extensive tax supported need
financial aid to private institution tuition such as a USA, Lokoja,
popularly known as Fulokoja, is a federal government University
in Lokoja in North-Central Nigeria.
1. The University and its constituent college are situated in
close proximity of each-other.
2. Each Constituent college is actively engaged in a work of a
University standard.
3. Each Constituent college is prepared to forge some
measure of its autonomy in order to share in the type and
Government of the type and Government of the University
as a whole.
4. The actual teaching as far as possible be provided by the
constituent colleges under the guidance of the university.
Complex of college is called federal Universities where
education based to free speech, and those interested in
continuing adult education, focusing on social issues and
current events.
17. (C) India's Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, was to be the first five-
year plan in 1951 and went on to formulate two successive five-
year plans until 1965 when the –Pakistan war broke out.
18. (A) The Union Government of India announced the formation of NITI
Aayog on 1 January 2015. and the first meeting was held on 8
February 2015. On 29 May 2014, the Independent Evaluation
Office submitted an assessment report to prime Minister
Narendra Modi with the recommendation to replace the planning
commission with a “Control commission”. On 13 August 2014,
the Union Cabinet scrapped the planning commission, to be
replaced with a diluted version of the National Advisory Council
(NAC) of India. On 1 January 2015 a cabinet resolution was
passed to replace the planning commission with the newly
formed NITI Aayog was chaired by Narendra Modi on 8 February
2015.
19. (A) CAG(comptroller and Auditor Genral of India) set up by the
Constitution Law under Article 148 to Control the entire
financial system of the country at two levels- union as well as the
state.
20. (A) UPSC is a Central recruiting agency of India and constitutional
body authorized to conduct examinations for appointment to the
various civil services of the Union.
21. (B) Council of Ministers, as the Head to aid and advice the Governor
in exercise of his functions. It is responsible to the Lok sabah.
22. (A) In India the Executive is responsible directly to the Legislature
before the Lok Sabah and not the Rajya Sabah.
23. (D) The Rajya Sabah is not dissolution, but as nearly as possible, One-
third of its members retire as soon as may be on the expiration of
every second year in accordance with the provision made in that
behalf by parliament by Law.
24. (D) The time Gap between two session of parliament is not more
than 6 Month.
25. (C) Before parliament public Accounts Committee examine the
report of the comptroller and Auditor –General of India. CAG
(Comptroller and Auditor General of India) set up by the
Constitution Law under Article 148 to Control the entire
financial system of the country at two levels-union as well as the
state.
26. (A) Except Kurukshetra University all Universities are Central
Universities.
27. (B) Correct statements about deemed universities
 They can design their own syllabus and course work.
 They can frame their own guideline regarding admission and
fees.
 They can grant degrees.
28. (C) The first state open Universities in the country were established
by state govt. of Andhra Pradeshin 1982.
29. (C) Education is the Manifestation of the perfection already in
Man. This is a famous and most often quoted on education by
Swami Vivekananda. It clearly demonstrates the clarity and
crispness with which swami Vivekananda delivered his
message.
30. (C) The South Asia University is situated in the city of New Delhi
which established by the eight member nations of South
Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC)viz.
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal,
Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
31. (A) AYUSH Ministry has established a TKDL in collaboration with
CSIR> TKDL stands for- Traditional Knowledge Digital Library.
32. (A) Rajasthan become first state in the country to incorporate
skill development programmed in higher education. In this
regard, India Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) in
collaboration with state department of college education
has prepared 16 courses for entrepreneurship and Skill
development for collage in the state.
33. (A) National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous and self-
sustained premier testing organization to conduct entrance
examination for higher education.
34. (A) The National Defense Academy is located south- west Pune city
and North-west of Khadakwasla Lake on 7015 acres of land, Out
of the 8022 acres donated by the Government of the erstwhile
Bombay State.
35. (D) The Bhaba Atomic Research center (BARC) is India's premier
nuclear research facility headquartered in Trombay, Mumbai,
Maharashtra. BARC is a multi- disciplinary research center with
extensive infrastructure for advanced research and development
covering the entire spectrum of nuclear science.
36. (B) A judge of the supreme Court shall hold office until he attains
the age of 65 years. A Judge may resign his office by writing to
the president.
37. (D) Art. 19 guarantees to press or All Citizen the six rights.
(a) Right to freedom of speech and expression.
(b) Right to assemble peacefully and expression.
(c) Right to form associations or Unions.
(d) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
(e) Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of
India.
(f) Right to practice any profession to on the carry on any
occupation, trade, and business.
38. (B) A judge of the supreme Court shall hold office until he attains
the age of 65 years. A judge may resign his office by writing to
the president.
39. (D) Govt. Of India Act, 1935 is regarded as second milestone on the
highway leading to a full responsible govt. it was having 321
sections with 10 schedules. India constitution adopted so many
provision from this act e.g. Distributer of power between center
and state, federal legislature etc.
40. (A) National Institute of Education planning and Administration
was established in the year 1962 as UNESCO Asian center for
Educational Planners, Administrators and supervisors which
later became the Asian Institute of Educational planner and
Administrators in 1973, which was again rechristened as
National Institute of Educational planning and Administration
(NIEPA) in the year 1979. In 2006, NIEPA was given the status
of a Deemed to be University
41. (A) IIT Roorkee is first engineering college in India
42. (B) In India First Meta University Concept Adopt 2012 by Delhi
University is likely to introduce a “meta college” that allows
small batches of student to mix and match course that interest
from options available in DU colleges as a pilot project.
43. (B) NLOS was established in November 989 as an autonomous
organization in pursuance of national policy on education 1986
by the MHRD.
44. (A) Kalpakkam (Near Chennai)
45. (C) A vestibule school in an industrial embellishment where new
employees are given specific training or Apprentices in the job
they are perform.
46. (B) A sports University which is Asia's First of its kind Function in
Pune.
47. (A) Care for Adult Recreation and Employment.
48. (A) Children Enrichment Education through radio
49. (A) All of these
50. (B) Election Commission of India, Universities Grants Commission
(UGC) and National Assessment and Accreditation Council
(NAAC) Except All India Council for technical Education (AICTE),
are Statutory Body
General Paper -1
VOLUME SOLVED PAPER 1

Note this paper contains objective type questions, each

question carries two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions.

1. Discussion method can be sued when:

(A) The topic is very difficult (B) The topic is easy
(C) The topic is difficult (D) All of the above

2. Effective teaching is a function of

(A) Teacher's satisfaction (B) Teacher's honsty and
commitment
(C) Teacher's making students (D) Teacher likes for professional
excellence.
learn and understand

3. The main aim of Teaching is

(A) To develop only Reasoning (B) To devlop only thinking
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) To give information.

4. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been

assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University

5. "Education is the manifestation of perfection alredy in man" was

stated by
(A) M.K. Gandhi (B) R.N. Tagore
(C) Swami Vivekanand (D) Sri Aurobindo

6. Internal and external factors that affect message reception by the

students in the classroom are referred to as
(A) Feedback (B) Fragmentation
(C) Channelization (D) Noise

7. Arrange the following teaching process in order:

(i) Relakte the present knowledge with previsous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Re teaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (B) (ii), (i), iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii) (D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)

8. Techniques used by a teacher to teach, includes:

(A) Lecture (B) Interactive lecture
(C) Group work. (D) Self study

9. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for

writing on the blackboard?
(A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible
(B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.
(C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated
by them.
(D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible.

10. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?

(A) Lecture (B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration (D) Narration

11. In which teaching method learner's participation is made optimal and

proactive?
(A) Discussion method (B) Buzz session method
(C) Brainstorming session method (D) Project method

12. Interaction inside the classroom should generate

(A) Argument (B) Information
(C) Ideas (D) Controversy

13. The black-board can be utilized best by a teacher for

(A) Putting the matter of teaching in black and white
(B) Making the students attentive
(C) Writing the important and notable points
(D) Highlighting the teacher himself

14. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct ?
(a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration.
(b) They help students learn better.
(c) They make teaching learning process interesting.
(d) They enhance rote learning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b) and (d)

15. As a good classroom communicator, you are supposed to know your

(A) Audience (B) silent cues
(C) Artful pauses (D) counter arguments

16. Which one of the following types of evaluation assesses the learning
progress to provide continuous feedback to both teachers and
students during instruction?
(A) Placement evaluation (B) Formative evaluation
(C) Diagnostic evaluation (D) Summative
17. Diagnostic evaluation ascertains
(A) Students performance at the beginning of instructions.
(B) Learning progress and failures during instructions.
(C) Degree of achievement of instructions at the end.
(D) Causes and remedies of persistent learning problems during
instructions.

18. Assertion (A) : Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of

learning.
Reason (R) : As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation
is highly reliable.
Choose the correct answer from the following code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(C) High sound, physical ambience and teacher-learner distance
(D) Facial expression, kinesics and personal space

19. Successful Communication in classroom teaching is

(A) Circular (B) Reciprocal
(C) Directional (D) Influential

20. Figure out the components of non-verbal communication in a

classroom from the following :
(A) Facial expression, cultural space and seating arrangement
(B) Speed of utterance, feel good factor and acoustics
(C) High sound, physical ambience and teacher-learner distance
(D) Facial expression, kinesics and personal space

21. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid ?

(A) Overhead projector (B) Blackboard
(C) Epidiascope (D) Slide projector

22. The audio visual aid works as a :

(A) Catalyst (B) Medium
(C) End (D) None of the these

23. Why syllabus is necessary in school

(A) It helps in the proper functioning of the school
(B) It makes the classroom education under control.
(C) A teacher can rule every work outside the class in a proper
manner
(D) All of the above

24. What is the name of the educational TV channel of the Doordarshan ?

(A) Gurukul (B) Shiksha Smriti
(C) Gyan Bharti (D) Gyan Darshan

25. Which reason makes a teacher more dislike by the student ?

(A) Bad Handwriting on Board (B) Lack of Knowledge
(C) Discriminatory treatment (D) late corner to class

26. You have a mixed class of boys and girls. Which method would you
adopt to improve co-operation between them ?
(A) Asking parents to discuss equality
(B) Making boys and girls share a bench
(C) Setting tasks which have to be done together
(D) Talking about equality in lessons.

27. Why is teacher training necessary?

(A) Increase teaching skills
(B) Understand methods of school organization
(C) Upgrade knowledge of content
(D) All the above

28. What is the use of text book in a class ?

(A) To achieve learning objectives (B) To delimit what is to be taught
(C) To explain ideas and concepts (D) Set new standards

29. Which educational psychologist believed in the fact that 'All children
have the potential to learn' ?
(A) Friedrich Frobel (B) John Dewey
(C) Johann Friedrich Herbart (D) Maria Montessori

30. For a teacher teaching a class with large strength, which of the
technique is best ?
(A) Debate, discussions, practicals (B) Group work with a lecture
(C) Lecture and class notes (D) Self-study and asking
questions

31. Action Research is :

(A) An applied Research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate Problems
(C) A longitudinal Research
(D) All of the above

32. The synopsis of research is called :

(A) Blue Print (B) Mapping of Problem
(C) Base of a Problem (D) All of the above

33. On the basis of the approach the classification of research has taken birth
(emerged from)
(A) Biological Science (B) Pure Science
(C) Psychology (D) None of the above

34. Ethics is related with :

(A) Beliefs of the person (B) Nature of Law
(C) Civic Principle (D) All of the above

35. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in

(A) the appendix (B) a separate chapter
(C) the concluding chapter (D) the text itself

36. Below are given two lists – research methods (List-I) and data collection tools
(List-II). Match the two sets and indicate your answer by selecting the
correct code :
List-I : (Research Methods) List-II : (Data Collection Tools)
a. Experimental method i. Using primary and secondary
sources
b. Ex post-facto method ii. Questionnaire
c. Descriptive survey method iii. Standardized tests
d. Historical method iv. Typical characteristic tests
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii I iii iv
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) ii iii i iv
(D) ii iv iii i

37. The frequency distribution of a research data which is symmetrical in

shape similar to a normal distribution but center peak is much
higher, is
(A) Skewed (B) Mesokurtic
(C) Leptokurtic (D) Platykurti

38. A research paper

(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.
(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research
conducted by others.
(D) can be published in more than one journal.

39. The title page of a research synopsis should be :

(A) Attractive (B) Organized
(C) Aesthetic (D) Logical

40. What is a Research?

(A) Self Contained Process (B) Discovery
(C) Value Oriented Process (D) Passive Process

41. Conference is
(A) Adequate solution of research problem
(B) Wider Manipulation of research Inferences
(C) Provision to discuss on Serious matters
(D) All of the above

42. Symposium is
(A) Intellectual entrainment (B) Hearty entrainment
(C) TV related entrainment (D) Research with entrainment
43. The process of writing research paper is
(A) Scientific (B) Unscientific
(C) Original (D) None of these

44. Generally the format of research resembles with

(A) Along essay (B) A synopsis
(C) A writing techniques (D) A report preparing method
45. Which of the following steps required to design a questionnaires'
(a) Writing primary and secondary aims of study
(b) Review of current literature
(C) Prepare a draft of questionnaires'
(D) Revision of Draft
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(A) a, b and c (B) a, c and d
(C) b, c and d (D) a, b, c and d
46. "The problem for the research related to metaphysics can be
(A) What is meant by existence
(B) What are the qualities of the object
(C) How knowledge of individual of the can be realized
(D) All of the above

47. "Which one of the following take notion is leading the researches
towards the fallacy?
(A) Lack of knowledge about research design
(B) The poor grit over statistical option
(C) The research is merely r
(D) All of the above

48. "What is the set procedures used to explain or predict the values of a
dependent variable based on the value of one or more independent
variables.
(A) Regression analysis (B) Regression coefficient
(C) Regression equation (D) Regression line

49. "Type-1Error of alpha error( )occurs when

(A) When an alternative hypothesis H1 may be accepted and null
hypothesis(H0)is rejected
(B) When null hypothesis(H0)as accepted and alternative hypothesis
(H1)is rejected
(C) When null hypothesis as well as alternative hypothesis are
rejected
(D) None of the above

50. "The research is always

(A) Exploring new knowledge (B) Verifying the old knowledge
(C) Filling the gap between the (D) All of the above
knowledge
51. "Characteristics of sampling is
(A) Economy (B) Reliability
(C) Feasibility (D) All of the above

52. "MLA format(Modern Language Association) is

(A) Authors last name, First name, Book title, Additional information,
City of Publication ,Publishing company and Date
(B) Authors First Name, Last Name, Book title, Additional
information, City of publication, Publishing company and Date
(C) Authors Last Name, First Name Book title, Additional
information, Publishing company, Date and City of Publication
(D) None of these

53. Foot note is

(A) Foot note is bottom of page of book or manuscript that comment
on or cites a reference designated part of text
(B) Foot note is Upper of page of book or manuscript that comment
on or cites a reference designated part of text.
(C) Foot note is Middle of page of book or manuscript that comment
or cites a reference designated part of text.
(D) None of these

54. "Ioc. Cited. Means

(A) in the place cited(repeat title and page no.)
(B) in the same place(repeat same place)
(C) in the work cited(repeat full title of work
(D) None of these

55. "What is P.T.O

(A) Please turn over(change page) (B) Please turn option
(C) Publication Two Option (D) None of these

56. "Type of thesis

(A) Qualitative or creative thesis (B) Quantitative thesis
(C) Both(A)and(B) (D) None of these

57. The format of thesis writing is the same as in

(A) Preparation of research paper / article
(B) writing of seminar presentation
(C) a research dissertation
(D) Presenting a workshop / conference paper

58. Colloquium is :
(A) In academic field a colloquium is a single lecture given by scholar
to guide and some classmates about his research work.
(B) Practicing the actual concept or technique explain by the lecture
and demonstration process.
(C) it is a "intellectual entertainment' which serves as an excellent
device for informing an audience with arriving decision, policies,
value judgment or understanding.
(D) None of these

59. If 5% Confidence level than signification level is

(A) 98% (B) 97%
(C) 95% (D) 93%

60. "In sampling, the lottery method is used for

(A) Interpretation (B) Theorization
(C) Conceptualization (D) Randomization

ANSWER KEYS

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
A C C B C B D C D C
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
D C C B C B D C B A
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
B B D D B C D A A C
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
B D A D D B C C C B
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
D A A B D D D A A D
51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
D A A A A C A A C D
SOLUTIONS

1. (A) The topic is very difficult

2. (C) Teacher's making students learn and understand
3. (C) Both (A) and (B)
4. (B) The Consortium for Educational Communication popularly
known as CEC is one of the Inter University Centers set up by
the University Grants Commission of India. It has been
established with the goal of addressing the needs of Higher
Education through the use of powerful medium of Television
along with the appropriate.
5. (C) Swami Vivekananda
6. (B) Internal and external factors that affect message reception by
the students in the classroom are referred to as Fragmentation.
7. (D)
 Writing the important points as clearly as possible.
 Relate the present knowledge with previous one
 Presentation of Instructional materials.
 Evaluation.
 Re- teaching.
8. (C) Group work.
9. (D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible.
10. (C) Among Methods Demonstration is the best method of teaching.
11. (D) Project Method make optimal and proactive to learner's.
12. (C) Ideas generate when interaction inside the classroom among
teacher and students.
13. (C) Writing the important and notable points during lecturer.
14. (B)
 They help in retaining concepts for longer duration.
 They help students learn better.
 They make teaching learning process interesting.
15. (C) Artful pauses may add suspense or authority to give lecturer
and students take interest in topic. It is define as a good
classroom communicator.
16. (B) Formative evaluation includes any form of classroom interaction
that generates information on student learning, which is then
used by faculty and students to fine – tune their teaching and
learning strategies, respectively, during the teaching-learning
process.
17. (D) Before we begin working with your child, your child's tutor will
conduct a diagnostic evaluation to determine your child's
reading strengths and challenges. Unlike the psychological
evaluation process conducted by schools, our diagnostic
evaluation is very practical in nature.
18. (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
19. (B) Reciprocal Communication : Communication is a two way,
reciprocal process. We communicate with others to make our
needs and desires known, and others communicate back to us
to acknowledge and respond to our needs. It is successful
communication in classroom teaching.
20. (A) Facial expression, cultural space and seating arrangement.
21. (B) Blackboard is not belong to a project aids.
22. (B) The audio Visual aid works as a Medium of learning.
23. (D) All of the above.
24. (D) The human resources development ministry plans to launch an
exclusive channel (on Gyan Darshan) which will beam
programmed on format education and adult literacy. A slew of
departments, including NCERT, IGNOU.
25. (B) Lac of knowledge makes a teacher more dislike by the students.
26. (C) Setting tasks which have to be done together missed genders
pairs help participants develop interpersonal skills, confidence,
communication and assertiveness. It also improves the level of
motivation and improves the quality of learning.
27. (D) Teacher educations refers to the policies and procedures
designed to equip potential teachers with the knowledge,
attitude , behaviors and skills they require to perform their
tasks effectively in the classroom, school and wider community.
28. (A) Use of text book in a class is to achieve learning objectives.
Learning objectives put the focus on the students and learning.
29. (A) Friedrich Withelm August Frobel laid the foundation for modern
education based on the recognition that children have unique
needs and capabilities.
30. (C) Some advantages of lecture include greater teacher control in
the classroom and facilitate large-class communication.
31. (B) Action research is either research initiated to solve an
immediate problem or a reflective process of progressive
problem solving led by individuals working with others in teams
or as a part of "community of practices" to improve the way they
address issues and solve problems.
Action Research
 Focus on immediate problem and its solution.
 Not concerned with building theories or Generalization.
 Aims to improve practices or work conditions.
 Need little efforts, resource and financnes.
 A practical focus
 The educator – researchers own practices.
32. (D) The synopsis of research is called Blue Print of Research,
Mapping of problem, Base of Problem of research.
33. (A) Research is a basis of Biological Science.
34. (D) Research ethics comprises the principles and standards that
guide behavior in the conduct or research. Researcher involves
human and social subjects which raises unique and complex
ethical, legal, social and political issue. Research ethics provide
guidance and code of conduct which follow scholar to create
new idea and knowledge for society and human being.
35. (D) In a thesis, figures and tables are included in the text itself,
which help understanding to thesis line.
36. (B) iii, iv, ii, i.
37. (C) Shape of normal distribution and frequency distribution.

38. (C) Research paper is a content peer – reviewed original research or

evaluation of research by other.
39. (C) Aesthetic
40. (B) Research is a Discovery oriented process which discovers new
things and new idea.
41. (D) Conference refers to a formal meeting where participants
exchange and discuss on serious matter for adequate solution of
research problem and discussion on a number of topics by the
delegates or research scholars.
42. (A) A symposium is a formal gathering in an academic setting
where participants are experts in their fields. These experts
presents or deliver their opinions or view points on a chosen
topic of discussion. It would be correct to label a symposium as
a small scale conference as the number of delegates is smaller.
There are the usual discussions on the chosen topic after the
experts have presented their speeches. The chief characterstic of
a symposium is that it covers a single topic or subject and all
the lectures given by experts are completed in a single day.
43. (A) Research journal paper is presented interpretation, evaluation
and argument. it is a process of communication in scientific way
about research work.
44. (B) Synopsis is a brief technically summary about research . This
includes highlights of facts, analysis and recommendation
which is useful for some reader who may not have time to read
whole theses report.
45. (D)
 Write out the primary and secondary aims of your study.
 Write out concepts / information to be collected that
relates to these aims.
 Review the current literature to identify already validated
questionnaires that measure your specific area of interest.
 Compose a draft of your questionnaire.
 Revise the draft.
 Assemble the final questionnaire.
46. (C) All of the above
47. (D) All of the above
48. (A) Regression analysis is the set procedure used to explain or
predict the value of a dependent variable. It is statistical tool for
the investigation of relationship between variable. The
investigator assembles data on the underlying variables of
interest.
49. (A) When an alternative hypothesis H1 may be accepted and null
hypothesis (H0) is rejected.
50. (D) All of the above
51. (D) All of the above
52. (A) MLA Format (Modern Languages Association)
 Author's last name
 First name.
 Book title
 Additional information.
 City of publication
 Publishing company
 Publication date.
53. (A) Foot note is bottom of page of book or manuscript that comment
on or cities a reference designated part of text. Some special
word used in foot note or ending note.
54. (A) In the place cited (Repeat title and page No.)
55. (A) Please turn over (Change page)
56. (C) Qualification or creative thesis: This type of thesis is
descriptive, exploratory, analytical or creative way. Arts and
humanities graduate students are working this type of thesis.
Quantitative Thesis: P4robably science graduate students are
working this type of thesis, which provide contain data. piece of
information made by scientific devices and recorded numerically
on some type of scale.
57. (A) Research paper and thesis format have same feature. Such as
 Introduction.
 Survey of related literature
 Aims and objective of research
 Hypothesis of the research
 Research Design
 Research method
 Data Analysis
 Conclusion and interpretation
 Reference.
58. (A) In academic field a colloquium is single lecture given by scholar
to guide and some classmates about his research work and
audience as question to evaluate the work presented.
Colloquium provides scholar with an opportunity to face and
respond to criticism in early stage of the development of a new
ideas.
59. (C) Confidence level is the expected percentage of time = 95%
60. (D) Randomization
General Paper-I
Volume Solved Paper-2

Note: This paper contains objective type questions, each question

carries two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions.

Direction (Q. 1 to 5) : Read the following passage and answer the

questions that follow:
After almost three decades of contemplating Swarovski-encrusted navels on
increasing flat abs, the Mumbai film industry is on a discovery of India and
itself. With budgets of over 30 crore each, four soon to be released movies by
premier directors are exploring the idea of who we are and redefining who
the other is. It is a fundamental question which the bling-bling, glam-sham
and disham-disham tends to avoid. It is also a question which binds an
audience when the lights go dim and the projector rolls: as a nation, who are
we ? As a people, where are we going ?
The Germans coined a word for it, zeitgeist, which perhaps Yash Chopra
would not care to pronounce. But at 72, he remains the person who can
best capture it. After being the first to project the diasporic Indian on screen
in Lamhe in 1991, he has returned to his roots in a new movie. Veer Zaara,
set in 1986, where Pakistan, the traditional other, the part that got away, is
the lover and the saviour. In Subhas Ghai's Kisna, set in 1947, the other is
the English woman. She is not a memsahib, but a mehbooba. In Ketan
Mehta's The Rising, the East India Englishman is not the evil oppressor of
countless cardboard characterizations, which span the spectrum from Jewel
in the Crown to Kranti, but an honorable friend.
This is Manoj Kumar's Desh Ki dharti with a difference: there is culture, not
contentious politics; balle, not bombs: no dooriyan (distance), only
nazdeekiyan (closeness).
All four films are heralding a new hero and heroine. The new hero is fallible
and vulnerable, committed to his dharma, but also not afraid of failure –
less of a boy and more of a man. He even has a grown up name: Veer Pratap
Singh in Veer-Zaara and Mohan Bhargav in Swades. The new heroine is not
a babe, but often a babe, dressed in traditional Punjabi clothes, often with
the stereotypical body type as well, as in Bride and Prejudice of Gurinder
Chadha.

1. Which word Yash Chopra would not be able to pronounce ?

(A) Bling + Bling (B) Zeitgeist
(C) Montaz (D) Dooriyan

2. Who made Lamhe in 1991 ?

(A) Subhas Ghai's (B) Kisna
(C) Zaara (D) Desh Ki dharti

3. Which movie is associated with Manoj Kumar ?

(A) Jewel in the Crown (B) Kisna
(C) Zaara (D) Desh Ki dharti
4. Which is the latest film by Yash Chopra ?
(A) Dewar (B) Kabhi Kabhi
(C) Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jayenge (D) Veer Zaara

5. Which is the dress of the heroine in Veer-Zaara ?

(A) Traditional Gujarati Clothes (B) Traditional Bengali Clothes
(C) Traditional Punjabi Clothes (D) Traditional Madras Clothes

Direction (Q. 6 to 9) : Read the following passage and answer the

questions that follow:
Talent is a force not a tool, Talent is neither good nor bad. Being multi-
talented is a very mixed blessing. For some people, it is a curse. Ability or
performance is the result of complex interaction between various parts of
the mind / body system. Some parts of the ability are due to "nurture". The
most important of these environmental factors is knowledge in one form or
another. Nature is the basis of talent.
We all know, understand and operate on more levels than just the
conscious. Talents or Aptitudes are unleaded abilities-gut-level and non-
conscious ways of operating. Some people call them knacks. Aptitudes have
major impact not just on performance, but on our individual and unique
states of being. They are a big part of the reason "One man's meat is another
man's poison". Most people know for more than they realize about knacks
and talents. People usually know if they are mechanical, have a sequence of
direction, pickup language enjoy puzzles or are good with their hands.
Anyone who has managed or trained people has seen the clear impact of
learned abilities. In any area, some folks take to it like ducks to water. Once
trained they stay ahead of the crowd. Others sweat to keep up or fail
miserably.
Strong talents do not equal high performance. Having the right knacks or
talents provides a head start and on-going advantage. They are not useful
without knowledge and motivation. Aptitudes have to be trained in order to
be used well. Peak performance occurs when one has the right combination
of talents, knowledge, motivation, opportunity, courage, luck, tools and X
factors.
6. A child always opening the "crossword puzzles page in a newspaper" is
an analogy for
(A) Some folks take to it like ducks to water
(B) One man's meat is another man's poison
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

7. "One man's meat is another man's poison". In this statement we are

referring to :
(A) The food habits of a person
(B) The likes and dislikes of a person
(C) The relative importance of people's talents
(D) None of the above
8. Aptitudes are :
i. Talents ii. Knacks
iii. Performance iv. Unlearned abilities
(A) i, ii, iv (B) ii, iii, iv
(C) i, ii, iv (D) i, iii, ii

9. Peak performance occurs when one has the right combination of

(i) Talents (ii) Knowledge
(iii) Opportunity (iv) Motivation
Of the above the aspects that are nurtured are
(A) i and ii (B) ii and iii
(C) ii and iv (D) i and iii

Direction (Q. 10 to 15) : Read the following passage and answer the
questions that follow:
A manned expedition to Mars is on the cards. Dr. Ernst Stuhlinger, an
American space-scientist, believes that from every point of view Mars is more
interesting than the moon. A manned Mars-probe might uncover traces of a
civilization there that died when the weak gravity could no longer retain
oxygen. There might well be archaeological remains to prove it.
For Mars is the only planet where some form of advanced life could once
have been sustained. Indeed as early as 1965, the unmanned craft Mariner
4 observed the planet from just over 6,000miles away and made a discovery
that could lend support to theories about life on Mars. Observation revealed
that there were for fewer craters made by meteorites than had been
predicted. Thus most of craters must have been eroded, possibly by wind
and water. Other unmanned crafts have since been sent to Mars. But, in the
long run, only a manned expedition can settle the enigma of whether life
exists outside our own world
A manned trip to Mars has been declared to be the next logical step. It has
been suggested that colonizing the planet is within the realms of possibility.
The first such journey is likely to take place in the late 1980s, 1980 to be
precise, when Mars is closet to Earth at 35 million miles.
To carry out this mission economically, to have the crew back after only
eighteen months, special electric rocket propulsion would have to be used.
This would be the spaceship to reach the relatively fantastic speeds of
between 32,000 and 112,00m/hour. Ambitious though this may sound,
Mars itself would be merely a stepping-stone actual fact.
Flight to the stars is the real and ultimate objective of all manned space
programme. Yet at present the very idea of inter-stellar flight sounds too far-
fetched for space officials to talk about it often.

Answer the following questions, choose the most suitable alternatives.

10. Dr. Stuhlinger believes that.
(A) Traces of civilization must be on cover
(B) Weak gravitation retains oxygen
(C) Martians had a civilization
(D) Martians were interested in archaeology

11. Which is not the objective of manned expedition to Mars ?

(A) To confirm the existence of life on Mars
(B) To find the possibility of human settlement on Mars
(C) To make flight to stars possible.
(D) To study about the craters and meteorites

12. Which is not the use of electric rocket propulsion in the mission to
Mars ?
(A) To save money
(B) To enable the crew to return in comparatively less time
(C) Relatively high speed can be reached
(D) Inter-stellar flights will become frequent
13. Inter-stellar travel is :
(A) Out of the question
(B) Rarely discussed by space-scientists
(C) On everybody's lips
(D) Not yet a respectable subject for scientific discussion
14. The 1965 Mars-Probe indicated that:
(A) Further investigation is pointless
(B) The craters could have been eroded by wind and rain
(C) Mars has few predicated meteorites
(D) The craters were not all made by meteorites

15. Mars itself would ultimately be :

(A) Not worth-while to live
(B) An American colony
(C) An industrial and scientific outpost
(D) A preparatory stage for longer journeys

Direction (Q. 16 to 20) : Read the following passage and answer the
questions that follow:
As matters stand today, many teachers are unable to do the best of which
they are capable. For this there are a number of reasons, some more or less
accidental, others very deep-seated. To begin with the former, most teachers
are overworked and are compelled to prepare their pupils for examinations
rather than to give them a liberalizing mental training. The people who are
not accustomed to teaching-and this includes practically all educational
authorities-have no idea of the expense of spirit that it involves.
Clergymen are not expected to preach sermons for several hours every day,
but the analogous effort is demanded of teachers. The result is that many of
them become harassed and nervous. out of touch with recent work in the
subjects that they teach, and unable to inspire their students with a sense
of the intellectual delights to be obtained from new understanding and new
knowledge. This, however, is by no means the bravest matter. In most
countries certain opinions are recognized as correct, and others as
dangerous.
Teachers whose opinions are not correct are expected to keep silent about
them. If they mention their opinions it is propaganda, while the mentioning
of correct opinions is that the inquiring young too often have to go outside
the classroom to discover what is being taught by the most vigorous minds
of their own time. There is a subject called civics, in which, perhaps more
than in any other, the teaching is expected to be misleading. The young are
taught a sort of copybook account of how public affairs are supposed to be
conducted, and are carefully shielded from all knowledge as to how in fact
they are conducted. When they grow up and discover the truth, the result is
too often a complete cynicism in which all public ideals are lost; whereas if
they had been taught the truth carefully and with proper comment at an
earlier age they might have become men able to combat evils in which, as it
is, they acquiesce with a shrug.

16. The author regrets the fact that:

(A) Clergymen are not expected to preach everyday
(B) Many teachers are not able to realize their full potential
(C) Some teachers are better than the others
(D) Teachers are expected to train students' minds

17. Which of the following statements is true ?

(A) Educational authorities are effective teachers
(B) In all countries certain opinions are recognized as correct
(C) Civics is unnecessarily taught in some contexts
(D) Most teachers are forced to prepare their students for
examinations.

18. Teachers are out of touch with :

(A) The recent developments in their own subjects
(B) the latest encyclopedias
(C) The reality of the world
(D) Propaganda

19. The teaching of Civics is problematic because students realize that:

(A) They cannot combat the evils of society
(B) They cannot formulate correct opinions about society
(C) What they were taught is different from reality
(D) They cannot take delight in new knowledge
20. Choose the most appropriate title for the passage from the following:
(A) Difficulties faced by teachers (B) The teaching of civics
(C) Students' duties (D) Teaching as a noble profession

Direction (Q. 21 to 25) : Read the following passage and answer the
questions that follow:
Nationalism, of course, is a curious phenomenon which at a certain stage in
a country's history gives life, growth and unity by, at the same time, it has a
tendency to limit one, because one thinks of one's country as something
different from the rest of the world. One's perspective changes and one is
continuously thinking of one's own struggles and virtues to the exclusion of
other thoughts. The result is that the same nationalism which is the symbol
of growth for a people becomes a symbol of the cessation of that growth.
Nationalism, when it becomes successful sometimes goes on spreading in an
aggressive way and becomes a danger internationally. Whatever line of
thought you follow, you arrive at the conclusion that some kind of balance
must be found. Otherwise, something that was good can turn into evil.
Culture, which is essentially good becomes not only static but aggressive
and something that breeds conflict and hatred when looked at from a long
point of view. How do you find a balance, I don't know. Apart from the
political and economic problems of the age, perhaps, that is the greatest
problem today because behind it there is tremendous search for something
which it cannot find. We turn to economic theories because they have an
undoubted importance. It is folly to talk of culture or even god, when huma n
beings starve and die. Before one can talk about anything else one must
provide the normal essentials of life of human beings. That is where
economics comes in. Human beings today are not in a mood to tolerate this
suffering, starvation and inequality when they see that the burden is not
equally shared. Others profit while they only bear the burden.
21. The greatest problem in the middle of the passage refers to the
question:
(A) How to mitigate hardship to human being
(B) How to contain the dangers of aggressive nationalism
(C) How to share the economic burden equally
(D) How to curb international harted
22. Negative national feelings can make a nation :
(A) Selfish (B) Self-centered
(C) Indifferent (D) Dangerous

23. Which of the following would be a suitable title for this passage ?
(A) Nationalism breeds unity (B) Nationalism-a road to world unity
(C) Nationalism is not enough (D) Nationalism and national problems

24. Aggressive nationalism

(A) Breeds threat to international relations
(B) Leads to stunted growth
(C) Endangers national unity
(D) Isolates a country

25. Which of the following is nearly the opposite of the meaning of the
word 'cessation' used in the passage?
(A) Block (B) Continuance
(C) Balance (D) Retardation

Direction (Q. 26 to 30) : Read the following passage and answer the
questions that follow:
The Constitution guarantees every citizen the fundamental right to equality.
Yet after 50 years of independence, just one perusal of the female infant
mortality figures, the literacy rates and the employment opportunities for
women is sufficient evidence that discrimination exists. Almost predictably,
this gender, bias is evident in our political system as well, In the 13th Lok
Sabha, there were only 43 women MPs out of total of 543; it is not a
surprising figure, for never has women's representation in Parliament been
more than 10 per cent.
Historically, the manifestos of major political parties have always
encouraged women's participation. It has been merely a charade. So
women's organizations, denied a place on merit, opted for the last resort; a
reservation of seats for women in parliament and State Assemblies. Parties,
which look at everything with a vote bank in mind, seemed to endorse this.
Alas, this too was a mirage. But there is another aspect also. At a time when
caste is the trump card, some politicians want the bill to include further
quotas for women from among minorities and backward castes. There is
more to it. A survey shows that there is a general antipathy towards the bill.
It is actually a classic case of double speak; in public, politicians were
endorsing women's reservation but in the backrooms of parliament, they
were busy sabotaging it. The reasons are clear: Men just don's want to
vacate their seats of power.

26. The problem raised in the passage reflects badly on our :

(A) Political system. (B) Social behavior
(C) Individual behavior (D) Behavior of a group of people.

27. According to the passage, political parties have mostly in mind:

(A) Economic (B) Vote bank.
(C) People' welfare (D) Patriotism.

28. "Trump Card" means:

(A) Trying to move a dead horse
(B) Playing the card cautiously.
(C) Sabotaging all the moves by others.
(D) Making the final jolt for success.

29. The sentence "Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power"
implies :
(A) Lust for power.
(B) Desire to serve the nation.
(C) Conviction in one's own political ablities.
(D) Political corruption.

30. What is the percentage of women in the Lok Sabha :

(A) 10 (B) 7.91
(C) 43 (D) 9.1

31. The term Communis is taken from:

(A) Latin language (B) Greek language
(C) Hebrew language (D) English language
32. Communication Interdisciplinary science includes
(A) Anthropology (study of Body language)
(B) Psychology (study of persuasion, perception and attitude)
(C) Sociology and political science (study of voting behavior)
(D) All of the above

33. Communication issues at the international level are addressed by:

(A) ILO (B) ITU
(C) UNDP (D) UNESCO

34. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
(A) Commercial communication (B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction (D) Political campaigns

35. Communication via New media such as computers, telescoping,

internet and mobile telephony is termed as
(A) Entertainment (B) Interactive communication
(C) Development communication (D) Communitarians

36. A smart classroom is a teaching space which has

(i) Smart portion with a touch panel control system.
(ii) PC/Laptop connection and DVD/VCR player.
(iii) Document camera and specialized software
(iv) Projector and screen
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iv) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
37. Every type of communication is affected by its :
(A) Reception (B) Transmission
(C) Non-regulation (D) Context

38. Which of the following are the characteristic features of the

communication ?
(1) Communication involves exchange of the ideas, facts and opinions.
(2) Communication involves both information and understanding.
(3) Communication is continuous process.
(4) Communication is circular process.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

39. Which of the following is a reaction of the receiver to sender ?

(A) Questionnaire (B) Feed back
(C) Coding (D) Deciphering

40. Another name for Interpersonal Communication is :

(A) Mass Communication (B) Face to Face Public Communication
(C) Dynamic Communication (D) Virtual Communication

41. An example of Physiological Noise is

(A) A Speaker Using Complex Terms
(B) A Humming Air Conditioner Unit
(C) A listener Reviewing Weekend Plans in his or her hand.
(D) A lawn Mower

42. The meaning of Communis is :

(A) Differences (B) Common
(C) Etiquettes (D) Sensation

43. Upward communication takes the form of

(A) Reports (B) Request
(C) Suggestion and grievances (D) All of the above

44. An interview is a type of

(A) Dyadic Communication (B) Multiadic Communication
(C) Mass Communication (D) None of these

45. NWICO is
(A) New world Information and communication order
(B) North west information and communication order
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

46. Communication between people of the same hierarchy level or same

status is called
(A) Upward communication
(B) Diagonal communication
(C) Lateral or horizontal communication
(D) Downward communication

47. Requirement of effective written communication is

(A) Use appropriate words (B) Use inoffensive language
(C) Use lucid Style (D) All of the above

48. Break-down in verbal communication is described as

(A) Short circuit (B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness (D) Entropy

49. Internet with multimedia can be classified as one of the following

types of communication
(A) Visual one way (B) Audio-Visual one way
(C) Audio-Visual two way (D) Visual two way
50. Kinesics is type of communication
(A) Oral Communication (B) Written communication
(C) Non Verbal Communication (D) None of the above

51. CC is Content of E-mail which means

(A) Clear Copy (B) Carbon Copy
(C) Cut Copy (D) None of the above

52. Pretending Listening means

(A) Audience pays full attention to the message.
(B) the message is easily understanding and preserved in written form.
(C) Audience's facial expression and gestures
(D) the selected part of the message

53. Berlo's S-M-C-R Model developed by

(A) David Berlo (B) Martin Berlo
(C) Peter Berlo (D) Roots Berlo

54. Classroom communication which provides information and

entrainment
(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment (D) Enlightenment

55. Positive classroom communication leads to

(A) Coercion (B) Submission
(C) Confrontation (D) Persuasion

56. In classroom communication, Arousal means

(A) Making sure that students know what is required of them
(B) Ensure students that how their achievement will be rewarded.
(C) To ensure that students are motivated and ready to learn.
(D) Ensuring that students are gainfully employed in a variety of
activities.
57. Ask open-ended questions is
(A) Short informal conversations (B) Formal conversation
(C) Written Communication (D) None of these

58. What do communicated words carry in a classroom situation ?

(A) Inspiration, controversy and introspection
(B) Diversion, criticism and irrationality
(C) Insipidity, irrationality, and non-acceptance
(D) Power, structure and tradition

59. Adaptive learning includes

(A) collaborative writing, group projects, joint problem solving, debates
and more.
(B) students the freedom to learn at their own pace and in the way
they are most comfortable with.
(C) have respect for each other, students should follow their value as
they will always receive guidance from them.
(D) None of these

60. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or
images. The students are really
(A) Encoders (B) Decoders
(C) Agitators (D) Propagators

ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B B D D C A C A C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C D B B D B D A C A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B D C A B B B D A B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A D D B B D D D B C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D B D A A C D D C C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B C A A D C A D B B
SOLUTIONS
1. (B) Zeitgeist
2. (B) Yash Chopra
3. (D) Desh Ki dharti
4. (D) Veer Zaara
5. (C) Traditional Punjabi Clothes
6. (A) Some folks take to it like ducks to water
7. (C) The relative importance of people's talents.
8. (A) ● Talents
● Knacks
● Unlearned abilities
9. (C) ● Knowledge
● Motivation
10. (A) Traces of civilization must be on cover
11. (C) To make flight to stars possible
12. (D) Inter-stellar flights will become frequent
13. (B) Rarely discussed by space-scientists
14. (B) The craters could have been eroded by wind and rain
15. (D) A preparatory stage for longer journeys
16. (B) Many teachers are not able to realize their full potential
17. (D) Most teachers are forced to prepare their students for
Examinations
18. (A) The recent developments in their own subjects
19. (C) What they were taught is different from reality
20. (A) Difficulties faced by teachers
21. (B) How to contain the dangers of aggressive nationalism
22. (D) Dangerous
23. (C) Nationalism is not enough
24. (A) Breeds threat to international relations
25. (B) Continuance
26. (B) Social behavior
27. (B) Vote bank.
28. (D) Making the final jolt for success.
29. (A) Lust for power
30. (B) 7.91
31. (A) The word communicate comes from the Latin word 'communis"
or "communicare" which means to impart, to share or to make
common. It is also the sources of English word 'common' which
means that opinion of someone.
32. (D) Communication is an interdisciplinary science. Knowledge
derived from several sciences is used in communication.
Anthropology (study of Body language), Psychology (study of
persuasion, perception and attitude), Sociology and political
science (study of voting behavior).
33. (D) From 1976-1978, the New World Information and
Communication Order was generally called the shorter New
World Information Order or the New International Information
Order. The start of this discussion is the New World Information
and Communication Order (NWICO) as associated with the
United Nations Education, Scientific and Cultural Organization
(UNESCO) starting from the early 1970s.
34. (B) Initial stage Internet based communication was for Military Purposes by
Defense US academy in 1960's.
35. (B) Interactive Communication
36. (D) All of the above
37. (D) Every type of communication is affected of context (Situation).
38. (D) All of the above
39. (B) Feedback is the receiver's response to a message. This kind of
feedback is form of oral or written or Nonverbal.
40. (C) Dynamic Communication
41. (D) Physiological noise refers qualities in us that affect how we
communicate and interpret others. An example of Physiological Noise is a
lawn Mower.
42. (B) The word communicate comes from the Latin word 'communis' or
"communicate" which means to impart, to share or to make common. It is
also the sources of English word 'common' which means that opinion of some
one.
43. (D) All of the above
44. (A) Ideas Between two persons for long duration of time is called
dyadic communication.
45. (A) New world Information and communication order
46. (C) This type of communication flow usually takes place between
people of the same hierarchy level or same status.
47. (D) All of the above
48. (D) Entropy
49. (C) Audio visual communication means present picture or graph with oral
presentation. Audio visual communication helps attention of audience from
the speaker's main message. Internet with multimedia as one of the following
types of communication.
50. (C) Kinesics is refers to body movement of any kind which can express different
movements or emotions.
51. (B) One email sent to many client and it show different client email address and
different client can see who get same message is called carbon copy.
52. (C) Audience's facial expression and gestures reveal whether audience has got
the message or not.
53. (A) Davis Berlo's was defined SMCR model and give opinion that all element
have inter connect in communication process.
54. (A) Infotainment provides information and entertainment. It is also known as
soft news. It is form of cinematic, television, live action, news etc.
55. (D) Positive classroom communication leads to persuasion (encouragement) not
conformation (conflict) submission (offer) and coercion (pressure).
56. (C) Arousal : To ensure that students are motivated and ready to learn.
57. (A) Open-ended questions are vital for inspiring discussion and demonstrating
that there are multiple ways to perceive and answer a question. Teacher
might set a timer for short informal conversations and challenge students to
use open-ended questions.

58. (D) Power, structure and tradition

59. (B) Adaptive Learning: The modern approach of adaptive learning gives
students the freedom to learn at their own pace and in the way they are most
comfortable with.
60. (B) In the class room communication the teacher sends the massage either as
words or Image the students are really Decodes these message or images for understanding.
General Paper-I
Volume Solved Paper-3
Note: this paper contains objective type questions, each
question carries two(2) marks. Attempt all the questions.
1 Which of the following fuels, causes minimum environmental pollution
(A) Coal (B) Diesel
(C) Hydrogen (D) Kerosene

2. Dust burden is usually expressed in

(A) mg/m³ (B) mg/ m²
(C) mg/m. (D) None of these

3 How was the world wildlife fund renamed in 1961?

(A) World Wide Fund for nature (B) world Life Fund
(C) World Life Fund (D) None of these

4 A biotic is a term referring in 1961?

(A) Absence of living organisms (B) Presence of living organisms
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

5 Which of the following areas in India are frequently struck by cyclones?

(A) Godavari Delta (B) Krishna Delta
(C) Kaveri Delta (D) All of these

6 The plants which prepare their own food are called

(A) Heterotrophs (B) Autotrophs
(C) Saprophytes (D) Parasites

7 Which of the following atmospheric layer reflects radio waves that are to transmitted
from the earth again back to the earth?
(A) Stratosphere (B) lonosphere
(C) Mesosphere (D) Troposphere
8 Which of the following is the main culprit in the thinning of the Ozone layer in the earth
stratosphere?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Chlorofluorocarbons
(C) Methane (D) Nitrogen oxide

9 Where was the first biosphere reserve set up?

(A) Nilgiri (B) Karakoram Ranges
(C) Himalayan Range (D) Kanchenjunga

10 Smog is a common pollutant in places having

(A) Low temperature (B) High temperature
(C) excessive CO2 in the air (D) All of these

11 UASB stands for

(A) Up flow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket
(B) Up flow Anti- Sludge Blanket.
(C) Up flow anaerobic sludge Biomass
(D) None of these

12. Laterite soil develops due to

(A) Leaching (B) Deposition of fossils fuel
(C) Deposition of acid (D) None of the these

13 By the year 2022, the Climate Change Action plan of Government of India aims at
installing
(A) 20,000MW of wind power (B) 25,000MW of wind Power
(C) 20,000 Mw of solar power (D) 10,000 Mw of solar power

14 In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A) Menthane (B) Hydrogen
(C) LPG (D) CPG

15 which gas is cause of Acid Rain

(A) Sulphur and nitrogen (B) Nitrogen oxides,
(C) Hydrocarbons (D) None of these

16 Which types of radioactive pollutants?

(A) Alpha particles, Beta Particles (B) Electromagnetic radiations, Neutrons
(C) X- rays, cosmic rays (D) All of the above

17 Montreal Protocol is related to

(A) Ozone depletion (B) Hazardous waste
(C) Climate change (D) Nuclear energy

18 National forest policy Aims to

(A) Preservation of water quality and control of water pollution.
(B) Preservation of air quality and control of air pollution
(C) Stability and maintain of ecological balance
(D) None of these

19 Ozone Layer Depletion Earth's atmosphere is

(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere (D) All of the above

20 Type of categories of Coal

(A) Lignite (B) Bituminous
(C)Anthracite (D) all of these

21 Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant

(A) Sulphur di-oxide (B) Ozone
(C) Goa (D) Chennai

22 National institute of Oceanography is located at

(A) Hilly areas (B) Delhi
(C) North east (D) Malabar area

23 Jhuming occurs in India in

(A) Hilly areas (B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) North east (D) Malabar area

24 Who among the following is known as “Father of ecology in India”?

(A) [Link] (B) S.K. kashyap
(C) B.P. Pal (D) Ramdeo Mishra

25 Benzene is a
(A) Gaseous pollutant (B) Liquid Pollutant
(C) Solid Pollutant (D) All of the above

26 DDT is a
(A) Greenhouse Gas (B) Degradable Pollutant
(C)Non- degradable (D) All of the these

27 Air Pollutants that produce photochemical oxidants, include

(A) CO2, CO and SO2
(B) Nitrous oxide, Nitric Oxide and Nitric acid
(C) Oxygen, Chlorine and Nitric acid
(D) Ozone, Chlorine and sulphur dioxide

28 Consider the components of a goo chain

Producer herbivores Carnivores top carnivores.
Which level contains the most energy?
(A) Herbivores (B) Carnivores
(C) Top Carnivores (D) Producers

29. Which one of the following green-house gases has the shortest residence time in the
atmosphere?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane (D) Nitrous Oxide

30. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:
(1) Unvented gas stoves (2) Wood Stoves
(3) Kerosene heaters
Choose the correct code:
(A) (1) and (2) Only (B) (2) and (3) Only
(C) (2) only (D) (1), (2)and (3)

31 CBSE is under
(A) UGC (B) Union Govt.
(C) State Govt. (D) None of these

32 Center Excellence of Higher Education (CEHE) is a

(A) Nonprofit Organization (B) Profit Organization
(C)Unitary Teaching University (D) None of these
33 When an Universities runs some course central campus and some other course in its
affiliated collages such University is called as:
(A) Residential Affiliated University (B) Affiliated University
(C)Unitary Teaching University (D) None of these

34 Which of the following is not related to Indian Education Commission's (1964-66)

Recommendation?
(A) Universities Autonomy and Income Expenditure
(B) Role and Appointment of vice chancellor
(C) University Legislation
(D) Role of Registrar

35. Who was Chairman of the UGC Committee 1969 appointed for Administrative
Legislation of the Universities?
(A) Dr. Laxman Swami Mudaliar (B) Dr. Sarvapali Radha Krishanan
(C) Dr. P.B. Gajendragadkar (D) Dr. Zakir Husain

36 The total number of center Universities in India, Till 2017

(A) 43 (B) 44
(C)45 (D) 46

37. The total number of Deemed Universities in India, till date are
(A) 125 (B) 123
(C) 45 (D) 125

38 The number of Agricultural Education Institute in India Till date are

(A) 63 (B) 64
(C) 67 (D) 70

39 The number State universities in India is:

(A) 261 (B) 370
(C) 225 (D) 230

40 In India total Number of open Universities is:

(A) 15 (B) 14
(C) 13 (D) 12

41 Functions of BAR Council of India

(A) Lay down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates.
(B) Promote legal education and lay down standards of legal education.
(C) Determine universities whose degree in law shall be a qualification for enrollment
as an advocate.
(D) All of these

42. National Council for Women's Education was established in

(A) 1958 (B) 1976
(C) 1989 (D) 2005
43. Which State is planning to set up India's First textile University?
(A) Rajasthan (B) Gujarat
(C) Maharashtra (D) Madhya Pradesh
44. HRD Ministry has launched which teacher app:
(A) Prashikshak (B) Avishkar
(C) Knowledge (D) Madhya Pradesh

45. Who appoints the ministers of the union cabinet?

(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Chief Minister
(D) President of India on the advice of the prime Minister.

46. The article of the constitution that enables the state to make reasonable provision for the
advancement of socially and educationally backward classes and schedule castes and
schedule tribes is
(A) Article 15 (4) (B) Article 16 (4)
(C) Article 14(4) (D) Article 332

47. Mandal Commission was constitution by the order of the president

(A) R.K. Narayan (B) Giyani jail Singh
(C) Neelam Snajiva Ready (D) None of these

48 The president exercises the judicial power of the union by

(A) Summoning the Lok Sabah
(B) Giving Assent to financial bill
(C) Recommendation the introduction bill
(D) Granting pardon, Remission and Reprieve

49 The Custodian of Fundamental Rights is

(A) prime minister (B) Rajya Sabah
(C) State Assembly (D) Supreme Court

50 A bill Become a Law when

(A) The council of Ministers approve it
(B) The two houses of parliament approve it by majority of votes
(C) The supreme court upholds its constitutional Validity
(D) The president gives his ascent
51 The District Judge are Appointed by the Governor
(A) In Consultation with high courts
(B) Without Consultation with the High courts
(C) In Consultation with the president
(D) Without Consultation With the president

52 The term of Lok Sabha

(A) Can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(B) Can be extended for Two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(C) Can be extended six Month at a time
(D) Without Consultation with the president
53 In Indian Constitution the right to Equality is granted by five year articles. They are
(A) Article 16 to Article 20 (B) Article 13 to Article 174
(C) Article 15 to Article 19 (D) Article 14 to Article 18

54 The Chief Justice of the supreme Court was appointed

(A) President (B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament (D) None of these

55 Who appoint of Chief Election Commissioner

(A) President (B) Prime Minister
(C) Governor (D) None of these

56 Who is called the chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (B) The President
(C)The vice President (D) None of these

57 A judge of the supreme Court can be removed from his position only on the ground of
(A) Proved Misbehavior (B) Incapacity
(C) The vice President (D) None of these

58 The council of Ministers headed by the prime Minister is responsible to

(A) Prime Minister (B) President
(C) Parliament (D) Speaker

59. As per Indian Protocol who, among the following ranks highest in the order of
precedence?
(A) Deputy prime Minister (B) Former President
(C) Governor of State within State (D) speaker of Lok Sabha
60 The planning commission is in India
(A) A Statutory Body
(B) An Advisory body
(C) A constitutional Body
(D) An Independent and Autonomous body

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A A C D B B B A B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A C B A D A C D D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C A D B C B D C D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B A A D C B B C B B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D A B A D A C D D D
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A A D A A C A C C B
SOLUTION
1. (c) Hydrogen
2. (A) Dust burden is weight of dust suspended in a Unit of medium. It is usually
expressed in mg/m³, at normal pressure and temperature.
3. (A) The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) is an international Non-governmental
organization founded in 1961, working in the field of the wilderness preservation,
and the reduction of human impact on the environment.
4. (C) Biotic components are all the living things in an ecosystem. They are the animals,
the plants and the microorganisms. Even harshest corners of our planet have biotic
components. Earth is teaming with biotic beings.
5. (D) All of these
6. (B) An autotrophy is an organism that produces complex organic compounds( such as
carbohydrates, fats, and proteins) from simple substances present in its
surroundings, generally using energy from light (Photosynthesis) or Inorganic
Chemical Reaction (Chemosynthesis)
7. (B) The ionosphere can reflect radio waves directed into the sky back toward the Earth.
Radio waves directed at an angle into the sky can return to Earthy beyond the
horizon,
8. (B) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other halogenated ozone depleting substances
(ODS) are mainly responsible for man-made chemical ozone depletion.
9. (A) Up flow anaerobic sludge blanket (UASB) technology, normally referred to us
UASB reactor, is a from of anaerobic digester that is used for wastewater treatment.
The UASB reactor is a methanogen (methane- producing) digester that evolved
drom the anaerobic clarigester.
10. (B) High temperature
11. (A) up flow anaerobic sludge blanket(UASB) technology, normally referred to as
UASB is a form of anaerobic digester that is used for wastewater treatment. The
UASB reactor is a methanogen (methane- producing) digester that evolved from the
anaerobic clarigester.
12. (A) Leaching is a process by which the nutrients in the soil are washed away by heavy
rains. Laterite soils develop due to leaching.
13. (C) India's National Action plan on climate change(NAPCC) Outlines exiting and future
policies and programs directed at climate change mitigation and adaptation. The
mission recommends implementation in three stages, leading to an installed
capacity of 20,000 MW by the 13th Five-Year Plan in 2022.
14. (B) Fuel cell vehicles use hydrogen gas to power an electric motor. Unlike conventional
vehicles which run on gasoline or diesel, fuel cell cars trucks combine hydrogen and
oxygen to produce electricity, which runs a motor.
15. (A) Residues of all these materials produce gases such as sulphur and nitrogen oxide.
When combined with atmospheric water, these gases form acids and pollute the soil
in the form of acid rain.
16. (D) All of the above
17. (A) In 1987,27 industrialized countries signed this agreement to protect the atmosphere
by limiting the use of ozone depleting substance, finding alternatives and helping
developing countries to be same.
18. (C) National Forest policy, 988: This act have aim to ensure environmental stability and
maintain of ecological balance.
19. (D) All to the above
20. (D) All of above
21. (C) Photochemical smog interact chem9ically to produce powerful oxidants like ozone
(O3) and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN). These secondary pollutants are damaging to
plant life and lead to the formation of photochemical smog. PAN is primarily
responsible for the eye irritation.
22. (C) The National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) with its headquarters at Dona Paula,
Goa, and regional centers at Kochi, Mumbai and Visakhapatnam,
23. (A) Jhuming (Shifting) Cultivation is a primitive is a practice of cultivation in States of
North Eastern Hill Region of India and people involved in such cultivation are
called jhumia. The practice involves clearing vegetative/ forest cover on land/slopes
of hills, drying and burning it before onset of monsoon and cropping on it
thereafter.
24. (D) Ramdeo Misra is revered as the Father of Ecology in India. Ramdeo Misra obtained
PhD. in Ecology (1937) under professor W.H. Peasall, FRS, from Leeds University
in U.K he established teaching and research in ecology at Department of Botany of
the Banaras Hindu University, Varranashi. His research laid the foundations for
understating of tropical communities and their succession, environmental responses
of plant population and productivity and nutrient cycling in tropical forest and
grassland ecosystems.
25. (B) Benzene is a liquid that is colorless and flammable, with a sweet and gasoline-like
odor. It is natural Liquid Pollutant of crude oil and is one of the elementary
petrochemical.
26. (C) Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) is colorless, tasteless and almost odorless
crystalline organ chlorine. It is Non- Degradable which is known for its insecticidal
properties and environments impacts.
27. (B) Nitrous oxide, Nitric Oxide and Nitric acid.
28. (B) Primary producers comprise the bottom trophic level has most of energy.
29. (C) The atmospheric residences time of methane is approximately 8 years.
30. (D) Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be
(1) Unvented gas stoves
(2) Wood stoves
(3) Kerosene heaters
31. (B) The central Board of secondary Education (CBSE) is a Board of Education for
public and private schools, under the Union Government of India. This was formed
in 3 November 1962 Under Ministry of human resources development (MHRD)
and it is headquarter New Delhi.
32. (A) The Center for Excellence in Higher Education (CEHE) is a nonprofit organization
that supports free- market ideas in higher education. It was formation in 2007 with
under the scheme of centers of advanced studies (CAS), Department do special
Assistances (DSA) and Inter universities centers are to provide quality input in
higher education and research area.
33. (A) Residential Affiliated Universities a prominent model for residential colleges is the
colleges of the University of Oxford and University of Cambridge in the
unitedKingdom which are legally intendments of the universities and are both
residential and teaching institutions. Universities run some course central campus
and some other course in its affiliated colleges.
The unitary universities have a single campus and largely concentrate on
postgraduate studies and research, though some may also have provision for
undergraduate programmer. e.g., Aligarh Muslim university ,Banaras Hindu
University, Jawaharlal Nehru University.
34. (D) Role of Registrar
35. (C) Dr. P.B. Gajendragadkar
36. (B) As per UGC's latest publicized list in 2017 there are 44 deemed central Universities
in India offering MBA,B. tech, [Link] and Ph.D. Programs.
37. (B) According to a UGC consolidated list 2017 there are 123 deemed-to-be universities
in the country.
38. (C) This article list agricultural Universities in India by state or territory. The Indian
council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) the main regulator of agricultural
education. There 3 central Universities, 4 Deemed Universities and 60 State
agricultural universities.
39. (B) State Universities including Agricultural Universities having Engineering and
Technology Department. As per UGC lists October 2017 data state universities are
370 state universities.
40. (B) There are at present 14 State Open Universities set up by the respective state grants.
They are a single mode institution, which means they provide education only in the
distance mode. These are according 2017 list.
41. (D) All of these
42. (A) The national Council on Women's Education set up in 1958 under the chairmanship
of Smt. Durgabai Deshmukh recommended certain specific steps to expends and
improve the education of women in the country.
43. (B) Gujarat government is planning to set up India's first textile University at Surat with
investment of INR 800-900 corers.
44. (D) The Union Human resource Development (HRD) Ministry has launched
'Prashikshak‘ –an online teacher education portal for District Institute of Education
and Training (DIETS). The Prashikshak portal was launched by the Union HRD
minister smriti Lrani in New Delhi. It seeks to strengthen DIETs and bring quality
teachers into the school education system.
45. (D) President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
46. (A) Article 15(4)
47. (C) Neelam Sabnjiya Ready
48. (D) Granting pardon, Remission and Reprieve
49. (D) Supreme Court
50. (D) The president gives his ascent
51. (A) In Consultation with high courts
52. (A) Can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
53. (D) Right to Equality: Art.14 to Art. 18
 Article 14: Equality before the law.
 Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste,
sex. Or place of birth.
 Article 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
 Article 17: Abolition of the untouched ability.
 Article 18: Abolition of titles
54. (A) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court was appointed by the consultation of such
of such of judges of the supreme Court and the High Courts as he deemed
necessary for the purpose. But in appointing other judges president would always
consult Chief Justice of India.(Art. 124). Under Art. 124(2) the president, in
appointing other judges of the Supreme Court was bound to consult the Chief
justice of India. But in appointing the Chief justice of India he was not bound to
consult anyone.
55. (A) According to Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, the President appoints the
Chief Election Commissioner and “such other Commissioners” as he may from time
to time fix.
56. (C) The Vice President as the 'ex officio‘Chairman of the Rajya Sabha,' is entitled to the
same salary and allowance which are paid to the speaker of the Lok Sabha.
57. (C) A Judge of the Supreme Court is removable from his office, only on the grounds of
proved misbehavior or incapacity. Parliament is empowered to regulate the
procedure for the investigation and proof of such misbehavior of the House and
address it to the President. The President will then issue orders for removal of the
judge.
58. (C) Principle of collective Responsibility – Article 75(3) provides that the Council of
Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabah.
59. (C) As per India protocol Following Ranks highest in the order of precedence
following.
1. President
2. Vice- President
3. Prime Minister
4. Governors of States within their respective states
5. Former Presidents
6. Deputy Prime Minister
7. Cabinet Ministers of the Union. Chief Ministers of Sates within their respective
States Deputy Chairman, planning commission former Prime Ministers Leaders of
Opposition in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
7A. Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
8. Ambassadors Extraordinary and Plenipotentiary and High Commissioners of
commonwealth countries accredited to India Chief Minister of States Outside
their respective States Governors of State Outside their respective Sates)
9. Judges of Supreme Court
9A. Chairperson, Union public service commission Chief Election Commissioner
Comptroller & Auditor General of India
10. Deputy Chairman, Rajya sabha Deputy Chief Ministers of States Deputy
Speaker, Lok Sabha Members of the planning commission Minister of State of
the Union {and any other Minister in the Ministry in the Defense matters}
60. (B) Planning Commission is an Advisory Body Which Indicate the factors which are
tending to retard economic development, and determine the conditions which, in
view of the current social and political situation, Should be established for the
successful exaction of the of the plan.