Disha 10000 Objective MCQs General Studies

CONTENTS

Section A : HISTORY A-1–A-94

1. Indus Valley Civilization 1-5

2. Vedic Period and Religious Movements 6-15
3. Maurya Period and Post-Maurya Period 16-23
4. Gupta Period and Post Gupta Period 24-35
5. Ancient History (Miscellaneous) 36-41
6. Delhi Sultanate 42-53
7. Mughal Period 54-62
8. Initial Modern History 63-73
9. Indian Freedom Struggle - I (1857-1917) 74-85
10. Indian Freedom Struggle - II (1917-1947) 86-94
Section B : GEOGRAPHY B-1–B-82
1. Astronomy 1-11
2. Physical Geography 12-35
3. Economic Geography 36-47
4. World Geography 48-61
5. Geography of India 62-82
Section C : INDIAN POLITY & GOVERNANCE C-1–C-92
1. Indian Constitution 1-33

2. Political System 34-63
3. Local Government and Public Policy 64-78
4. Judiciary 79-92
Section D : ECONOMICS D-1–D-76
1. Indian Economy 1-16

2. Planning and Economic Development 17-32
3. Agriculture in Indian Economy 33-48
4. Industry 49-60
5. World Economy 61-76
Section E : GENERAL SCIENCE E-1–E-108
1. Physics 1-16
2. Chemistry 17-34
3. Biology 35-73
4. Environment and Ecology 74-93
5. Science and Technology 94-108
Section F : GENERAL AWARENESS F-1–F-56
1. Art and Culture 1-10

2. National and International Awards 11-22
3. Books and Authors 23-31
4. Sports and Games 32-40
5. Miscellaneous 41-56
Section G : CURRENT AFFAIRS G-1–G-94
1. National 1-27
2. International 28-41
3. Economical 42-59
4. Awards and Honours 60-67
5. Sports and Games 68-73
6. Science and Technology 74-87
7. Miscellaneous 88-94
Section A : history
1
Indus Valley
Civilization
1. Which of the following Harappan city sites had 4. The largest number of settlements are in
bipartite division-high citadel and lower town? Ghaggar-Haka village.
(i) Harappa Which of the above statements are correct?
(ii) Mohenjodaro (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(iii) Kalibangan (c) all of these (d) none of these
(iv) Surkotada 4. Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer from the codes given 1. The Harappan economy was based on
below: agriculture.
Codes: 2. In Indus Valley Civilization, an elaborate
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (ii) drainage systems are found.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 3. In Indus Valley Civilization, sugarcane was
2. Consider the following statements and select the unknown.
correct answer from the codes given below: 4. In Kotdiji, pre-Harappan settlement has not
Assertion (A): The worship of Mother Goddess been found.
as a feature of Harappan religion Which of the above statements is/are correct?
was prevalent in all the main
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Harappan cities.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Reason (R): The female terracotta ¿gurines
5. Which of the following Harappan sites are located
have been discovered in large
in Haryana?
numbers from Harappa and
1. Banavali 2. Kalibangan
Mohenjodaro.
Codes: 3. Rakhigarhi 4. Ropar
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Indicate your answer from the codes below:
explanation of A. Codes:
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
correct explanation of A. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
(c) A is true, but R is false 6. Which of the following statements about
(d) A is false, but R is true Harappan civilization is true?
3. Consider the following statements and mark the 1. Harappan culture was famous for its
option which is correct: distinguished system of town planning.
1. The ¿rst man-made port was found in 2. The most important public place for
Harappa. Mohenjodaro seems to be great bath.
2. The main crops of Indus Valley Civilization 3. Granary was the largest building of
were wheat and barley. Mohenjodaro.
3. The largest Harappan settlement in India is 4. The use of baked bricks in Harappan cities is
Rakhigarhi in Haryana. remarkable.
A-2 || Indus Valley Civilization
Select the correct answer from the codes given Select the correct answer from the codes given
below: below:
Codes: Codes:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) all of these (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
. Which of the following animals as ¿gures 11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
surround the male deity in the Indus Valley answer from the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
Civilization?
A. Harappa 1. Workmen’s quarters
1. Elephant 2. Tiger
B. Lothal 2. Dockyard
3. Rhinoceros 4. Buffalo C. Kalibangan 3. Dancing girl
5. Deer D. Mohenjodaro 4. Furrowed land
Select the correct answer from the codes given Codes:
below: A B C D
Codes: (a) 1 2 3 4
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 5 (c) 3 4 1 2
8. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (d) 1 2 4 3
answer from the codes given below the lists: 12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
List-I List-II answer from the codes given below the lists:
A. Cemetries H and R 37 1. Daimabad List-I List-II
B. Dockyard 2. Mohenjodaro (Harappan settlement) (River)
C. Pashupati Mahadev 3. Harappa A. Lothal 1. Indus
B. Kalibangan 2. Sutlej
Seal
C. Ropar 3. Ravi
D. Copper chariot 4. Lothal
D. Harappa 4. Ghaggar
Codes: E. Mohenjodaro 5. Bhogavo
A B C D Codes :
(a) 3 4 2 1 A B C D E
(b) 4 3 2 1 (a) 5 4 2 3 1
(c) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 5 1 4 3
(d) 1 3 2 4 (c) 4 5 2 3 1
9. Which of the following Harappan sites are located (d) 5 4 3 2 1
in the Kutch region? 13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
1. Desalpur 2. Dholavira answer from the codes given below the lists:
3. Lothal 4. Rojdi List-I List-II
Select the correct answer from the codes given A. Harappa 1. Daya Ram Sahni
below: B. Mohenjodaro 2. Rakhaldas Banerji
Codes: C. Lothal 3. Amalanand Ghosh
D. Kalibangan 4. S.R. Rao
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
Codes:
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A B C D
10. The tank of Great Bath complex at Mohenjodaro (a) 1 2 3 4
had stairs on (b) 2 1 4 3
1. Northern side 2. Southern side (c) 1 2 4 3
3. Eastern side 4. Western side (d) 4 2 1 3
History|| A-3
14. Which of the following pairs is correctly (a) All (b) 1, 2 and 3
matched? (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
List-I List-II 19. Horse remains are found it :
A. Manda 1. Jammu and Kashmir (a) Surkotada (b) Kalibangan
B. Sutkangendor 2. Baluchistan (c) Dholavira (d) Manda
C. Daimabad 3. Maharastra Choose the correct answer from the following :
D. Alamgirpur 4. Uttar Pradesh (a) I, II and III (b) II, IV and I
Choose the correct answer from the codes given (c) I, III and IV (d) I and III
below: 20. Some of the following is/are correct regarding
Codes: Harappan civilization.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 1. Three principal varieties of wheat occur
(c) all of these (d) none of these 2. Three varieties of barley were cultivated
15. Pair the Harappan settlements with the banks of 3. Lentils were cultivated
rivers on which they were located: 4. Among oil seeds, mustard, linseed and
A. Lothal I. Indus sesamum have been found
B. Kalibangan II. Sutlej Which are those ?
C. Ropar III. Ravi (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
D. Harappa IV. Ghaggar (c) Only 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
E. Mohenjodaro V. Bhogao 21. Math list ‘A’ consisting of Harappan sites with
A B C D E list ‘B’ consisting of Industries related to list ‘A’
(a) V IV II III I sites.
(b) II V I IV III A B
(c) IV V II III I 1. Nageshwar (a) Shell-working
(d) V IV III II I 2. Kuntasi (b) Bead-making
16. Some of the following place (s) has/have revealed 3. Harappa (c) Copper-working
archaeological evidence regarding pit-dwellings: 4. Rahman Dheri (d) Terracotta cakes
1. Dholavira 2. Burzahom 5. Balakot (e) Shell-bangles
3. Gufkral 4. Shortugai 6. Chanhudaro
Which are those sites ? Choose the correct answer :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e, 6-a
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e, 6-b
17. Evidence of some of the animals are extremely (c) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c, 5-b, 6-e
rare in Harappan context: (d) 1-d, 2-b, 3-e, 4-b, 5-c, 6-a
1. Buffalo 2. Camel 22. List A consists of some Harappan sites and list
3. Horse 4. Pig B consists of the measurements of the scales
Choose the right combination : found at places mentioned in list A. Match them
(a) All (b) 1, 2 and 3 correctly.
(c) Only 3 (d) Only 2 A B
18. Evidence of trephination as a remedy for certain 1. Harappa (a) 25.56 mm
diseases comes from some of the following 2. Mohenjodaro (b) 93.4 mm
1. Lothal 2. Harappa 3. Lothal (c) 6.7056 mm
3. Burzahom 4. Kalibangan Choose the correct answer :
Choose the right answer from the following (a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c (b) 1-a, 2-c, 3-a
combinations (c) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a (d) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
A-4 || Indus Valley Civilization
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 4 (b) 7. (b) 10. (c) 13. (c) 16. (b) 19. (a) 22. (c)
2. (c) 5. (c) 8. (a) 11. (d) 14. (c) 17. (b) 20. (a)
3. (b) 6. (d) 9. (a) 12. (a) 15. (a) 18. (c) 21. (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) Mohenjodaro, Harappa and Kalibangan show Sugarcane was not cultivated. Horse and iron
an identical town lay-out plan of the metropolis – were not used.
the citadel and the lower city. At Kalibangan, the 5. (c) Haryana was the outermost location of the
citadel shows a bipartite plan with no less than six ancient Indus Valley Civilization with centres such
mud-brick platforms. as Banawali and Rakhigarhi. The most extensive
2. (c) The statement regarding the worship of Mother centre, Rakhigarhi, is now a village in Hisar district.
Goddess is true but about the female terracotta
The site is dated to be over 5,000 years old. Evidence
¿gurines is false. The Harappan people produced
a large number of terracotta ¿gurines which were of paved roads, drainage system, large rainwater
handmade. The ¿gurines include humans, animals, collection, storage system, terracotta brick, statue
birds, monkeys, dogs, sheep and cattle. Figurines of production, and skilled metal working (in both
both humped and humpless bulls have been found. bronze and precious metals) has been uncovered.
3. (b) The statements 2 and 3 are correct. The 6. (d) All the statements are true. The people of
Harappans cultivated wheat and barley, peas and the Indus Valley Civilization had achieved some
dates and also sesame and mustard which were used spectacular standards when it came to town
for oil. However, the people cultivated rice as early planning. Each city was carefully planned and at
as 1,800 BC in Lothal. The Harappans were the the peak of the civilization housed almost 40,000
earliest people to grow cotton. Rakhigarhi, estimated people. Great Bath is also the most important public
to be the largest Harappan civilization site located place in Mohenjodaro and the Granary was the
in Hisar district of Haryana. This early Harappan
largest building. The use of baked bricks was also
settlement, considered bigger than Mohenjodaro,
was listed among the 10 most endangered heritage found in building houses.
sites in Asia. 7. (b) The Pashupati is the only possibly male deity
4. (b) The Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) was a of Indus Valley Civilization, as depicted on various
Bronze Age civilization (3300–1300 BCE; mature seals. This deity is surrounded by 4 wild animals and
period 2600–1900 BCE) extending from what today is this gives an indication that it is Pashupatinath or a
northeast Afghanistan to Pakistan and northwest India. prototype of Lord Shiva. The deity is surrounded
It Àourished in the basins of the Indus river, one of the by 4 animals viz. an elephant, a tiger, a buffalo
major rivers of Asia, and the Ghaggar-Hakra river. and a rhinoceros. Apart from this, there are 2 deers
At its peak, the Indus Civilization may have beneath the seat of the deity. The headdress of the
had a population of over ¿ve million. Inhabitants deity has two horns. It wears as number of bangles
of the ancient Indus river valley developed new and has a pectoral round the neck, and an inscription
techniques in handicraft (carnelian products, seal
of seven letters appears at the top.
carving) and metallurgy (copper, bronze, lead,
and tin). The Indus cities are noted for their urban 8. (a) The correct matching pairs are—cemeteries
planning, baked brick houses, elaborate drainage H and R37 with Harappa, Dockyard and Lothal,
systems, water supply systems, and clusters of large Pashupati Mahadev Seal and Mohenjodaro, Daimabad
non-residential buildings. with copper chariot.
History|| A-5
9. (a) Desalpur (Gunthli) is a site belonging to Indus 11. (d) The correct matching pairs are—Harappa
Valley Civilization located at Nakhtrana Taluka, and workmen’s quarters, Lothal and Dockyard,
Kutch district, Gujarat, India. This site is of modest Kalibangan and furrowed land and Mohenjodaro
dimensions, (130 m (427 ft) by 100 m (328 ft)) and dancing girl.
situated on the northern banks of once depredatory 12. (a) The correct matching pairs are – Lothal and
(erosive) stream, Bamu-Chela, an afÀuent of the Bhogavo, Kalibangan and Ghaggar, Ropar and
Dhrud river. Sutlej, Harappa and Ravi, Mohenjodaro and Indus.
Dholavira is an archaeological site in Bhachau 13. (c) The correct matching pairs are – Harappa and
Taluka of Kutch district, in the state of Gujarat in Daya Ram Sahni, Mohenjodaro and Rakhaldas
western India, which has taken its name from a Banerji, Lothal and S. R. Rao, Kalibangan and
modern village 1 km (0.62 mi) south of it. It is one of Amalanand Ghosh.
the ¿ve largest Harappan sites and most prominent 14. (c) All the matches are correct which are paired
archaeological sites in India belonging to the Indus — Manda and Jammu and Kashmir, Sutkangedor
Valley Civilization. and Baluchistan, Daimabad and Maharashtra,
10. (c) The Great Bath is one of the best-known Alamgirpur and Uttar Pradesh.
structures among the ruins of the ancient Indus 15. (a) Lothal Excavated by R. Rao in 1953 Location:
Valley Civilization at Mohenjodaro in Sindh, Gujrat on Bhogva river near Gulf of Combay.
Pakistan. Archaeological evidence indicates that the Kalibanga’s Location : Rajasthan on the bank of
Great Bath was built in the 3rd Millennium BCE, Ghaggar. Kalibanga means black bangles. Harappa
just sometime after raising of the ‘citadel’ mound on Location : Montgomery District of Punjab (Pakistan
which it is located. The Great Bath of Mohenjodaro ) on the bank of Ravi. Mohanjodero excavated by
is called the “earliest public water tank of the R.D. Banerjee in 1922 Location : Larkana Dist.
ancient world”. The Great Bath measures 11.88 of Sind (Pakistan) on the bank of Indus.Ropar –
metres × 7.01 metres, and has a maximum depth Located at southern bank of the Sutlej, Punjab.
of 2.43 metres. Two wide staircases, one from the 17. (b) Domesticated animals included dogs and cats,
north and one from the south, served as the entry to humped and shorthorn cattle, domestic fowl, and
the structure. A one metre wide and 40 centimetres possibly pigs, camels, and buffalo. The elephant
mound is present at end of these stairs. probably was also domesticated, and its ivory tusks
were freely used.
2 Vedic Period/Post Vedic Period
and Religious Movements
Indicate your answer from the codes given below:
Vedic Period
Codes:
1. Match the rivers of List-I with their vedic names (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
given in List-II and select the correct answer (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
from the codes given below: 4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
List-I List-II
answer from the codes given below:
A. Sutlej 1. Vipasha
List-I List-II
B. Beas 2. Sutudari
(Samhita) (Upanisad)
C. Ravi 3. Asikini
D. Chenab 4. Parushni A. Rigveda 1. Chhandogya
Codes: B. Yajurveda 2. Mundaka
A B C D C. Samaveda 3. Katha
(a) 2 1 4 3 D. Atharvaveda 4. Kaushitaki
(b) 4 3 2 1 Codes:
(c) 1 4 3 2 A B C D
(d) 1 2 3 4 (a) 2 1 4 3
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (b) 4 3 1 2
answer from the codes given below: (c) 1 2 3 4
List-I List-II (d) 3 4 2 1
A. Rigveda 1. Gopatha Brahman 5. Consider the following statements and select the
B. Yajurveda 2. Satapatha Brahman
correct answer from the codes given below:
C. Samaveda 3. Aitareya Brahman
Assertion (A): Vedas are known as Shruti.
D. Atharvaveda 4. Tandya Brahman
Reason (R): Vedas have been passed on from
Codes:
one generation to another through
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 verbal transmission.
(b) 3 2 4 1 Codes:
(c) 4 3 1 2 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(d) 1 3 2 4 explanation of A
3. Which of the following animals have been (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
mentioned in the Rigveda? correct explanation of A
1. Cow 2. Horse (c) A is true, but R is false
3. Goat 4. Buffalo (d) A is false, but R is true
History|| A-7
6. Arrange these divine powers of Rigvedic period 10. Match List-I with List-II and choose correct
in the order of their importance answer from the codes given below the lists:
1. Varuna 2. Agni List-I List-II
3. Indra 4. Soma (Rigvedic name) (Modern name)
A. Gomati 1. Gomal
Select the correct sequence from the codes given
B. Kurmu 2. Kurram
below: C. Suvaster 3. Swati
Codes: D. Drishadvati 4. Ghaggar
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3, 2 and 4 Codes:
(c) 3, 2, 1 and 4 (d) 3, 1, 2 and 4 A B C D
7. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct (a) 2 4 3 1
answer from the codes given below the lists: (b) 1 2 3 4
List-I List-II (c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
A. Rigveda 1. Dhanurveda
11. Consider the following statements:
B. Yajurveda 2. Gandharveda 1. Indra was the most prominent God in the
C. Samaveda 3. Shilpveda Rigvedic period.
D. Atharvaveda 4. Ayurveda 2. Vishwamitra had composed Gaytri Mantra.
Codes: Which of the statements given above is/are
A B C D correct?
(a) 4 1 2 3 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
12. The standard unit of value, used as medium of
(c) 1 4 3 2 exchange during the Vedic period, was :
(d) 2 3 4 1 (a) Cow
8. Consider the following statements and mark the (b) Necklet of gold (niska)
option which is correct? (c) Both (a) and (b)
1. The Upveda of Rigveda is Ayurveda (d) Pana
2. Satpatha Brahman related to Yajurveda is 13. During the Rigvedic period the purpose of
lengthiest of all the Brahmans worshipping the gods was to :
(a) Secure spiritual upliftment
3. Samaveda contains hymns sung by particular
(b) Gain material well-being
type of priests known as Udgatori. (c) Both (a) and (b)
4. The Upveda of Samveda in Adhwaryu. (d) Attain salvation
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 14. The Rigvedic concept of Rita denotes the :
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Cosmic order or law prevailing in nature
(c) All of these (d) None of these (b) Ethical and moral order
9. Regarding women in the Vedic period, which of (c) Both (a) and (b)
the following are correct? (d) Amalgamation of ‘All gods’ into ‘one’
15. Match the following Vedic gods with actual status
1. They were allowed to study
or functions and choose the correct answer from
2. They held good positions the codes given below :
3. They did not practice Purdah system (a) Pushan I. God of heaven and
4. They attended Sabha and Samiti father of Surya
Which of the given above statements are correct? (b) Savitri II. Mother of Surya
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) Aditi III. God of light
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (d) Dyaus IV. God of marriages
A-8 || Vedic Period/Post Vedic Period and Religious Movements
Codes : Pitaka and ethics
A B C D B. Sutta Pitaka 2. Rules of monk order
(a) IV III II I C. Vinaya Pitaka 3. Members of great
(b) IV II III I community
(c) II III IV I D. Mahasanghika 4. Matters of
(d) I II III IV psychology and
16. Which of the following Vedic sages are said to metaphysics
have been dasiputras ? Choose the correct answer Codes:
from the codes given below ? A B C D
(1) Kavasa Ailusa
(a) 2 4 1 3
(2) Dirghatamas
(b) 3 1 4 2
(3) Visvamitra
(c) 2 1 4 3
(4) Bhrigu
(d) 4 1 2 3
Codes :
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 4
Religious Movements
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17-19) : Consider the following 21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
statements and select the correct answer from the codes answer from the codes:
given below : List-I List-II
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct A. Birth 1. Stupa
explanation of A B. First Sermon 2. Lotus and bull
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the C. Nirvana 3. Dharmachakra
correct explanation of A D. Parinirvana 4. Bodhi tree
(c) A is true but R is false Codes:
(d) A is false but R is true A B C D
17. A – The Rigvedic king did not maintain an (a) 1 2 3 4
administrative machinery. (b) 2 3 4 1
R – The Rigvedic economy could not support a (c) 4 1 2 3
large administrative machinery. (d) 1 2 4 3
18. A – In the later-Vedic age the kingship became 22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
hereditary. answer from the codes given below:
R – A formula from the Satapatha Brahmana is List-I List-II
used to secure kingship for ten generations.
A. Ajit Kesh Kamblin 1. Fatalism
19. A – The later-Vedic people gradually left their
B. Sanjay Vethalipulta 2. Atomist
pastoralist and semi-nomadic subsistence
C. Pakudh Kachayan 3. Materialism
strategies.
D. Puran Kashyap 4. Materialism-
R – The importance of agriculture as a means
of livelihood grew rapidly during the later- Synicism
Vedic phase. Codes:
20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct A B C D
answer from the codes given below: (a) 3 4 1 2
List-I List-II (b) 1 2 3 4
A. Abhidhamma 1. Matters of doctrine (c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
History|| A-9
23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Codes:
answer by from the codes given below the lists: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
List-I List-II explanation of A.
(Tirthankara) (Birth place) (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
A. Rishabhanatha 1. Kashi correct explanation of A.
B. Sambhavanatha 2. Kausambi (c) A is true, but R is false
C. Padmanabha 3. Saravasti (d) A is false, but R is true
D. Parashvanath 4. Ayodhya 27. Consider the following statements and select the
Codes: correct answer from the codes given below:
A B C D Assertion (A): Hiuen Tsang spent about two
(a) 1 2 3 4 years in Kashmir in the pursuit of
(b) 2 3 4 1 Buddhist texts.
(c) 3 4 1 2 Reason (R): Kashmir was a renowned centre
(d) 4 3 2 1 of Buddhist learning at that time.
24. Arrange in a chronological sequence the Codes:
following Varsavasas of Gautam Buddha during
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
the ¿rst decade of his enlightenment?
explanation of A.
1. Kausambi 2. Rajagriha
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
3. Risipattana 4. Vaisali
correct explanation of A.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
(c) A is true, but R is false
below:
(d) A is false, but R is true
Codes:
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1 28. Consider the following statements:
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1 Assertion (A): Gautam Buddha spent the
25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct maximum number of rainy
answer by from the codes given below: seasons of Saravasti
List-I List-II Reason (R): Prasenjit, the ruler of Kosala and
(Jain Tirthankara) (Birth place) Gautam Buddha were of the same
A. Ajitnath 1. Kashi age.
B. Vimalnath 2. Hastinapur Codes:
C. Shantinath 3. Kampilya (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
D. Parshavanath 4. Ayodhya explanation of A.
Codes: (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
A B C D correct explanation of A.
(a) 1 2 3 4 (c) A is true, but R is false
(b) 2 3 4 1 (d) A is false, but R is true
(c) 3 4 1 2 29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(d) 4 3 2 1 answer from the codes given below the lists:
26. Consider the following statements and select the List-I List-II
correct answer from the codes given below: (Jain Tirthankars) (Cognizance)
Assertion (A): Life scenes of Gautam Buddha A. Santi Natha 1. Antelope
are represented in the Sanchi art. B. Malli Natha 2. Lion
Reason (R): Sanchi was intimately connected C. Parswa Natha 3. Serpent
with the life of Gautam Buddha. D. Mahavira 4. Water jar
Codes: 32. Match list ‘A’ with list ‘B’ and choose the correct
A B C D answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 2 4 3 List ‘A’ List ‘B’
(b) 4 1 3 2 A. Shiksha 1. Ritual
(c) 2 3 1 4 B. Kalpa 2. Grammar
(d) 1 4 3 2 C. Vyakarana 3. Pronunciation
30. Who among the following teachers were visited D. Nirukta 4. Metre
by Siddhartha Gautama in the quest of knowledge E. Chhanda 5. Astronomy
before his enlightment? F. Jyotisha 6. Etymology
1. Alara Kalama 2. Udraka Ramaputra Codes:
3. Makkhali Gosala 4. Nigantha Nataputta A B C D E F
Indicate your answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 2 3 5 5 4
Codes: (b) 3 1 2 6 4 5
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 4 and 2 (c) 5 6 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 (d) 6 5 4 3 2 1
31. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the 33. Match list ‘A’ with list ‘B’ and choose the correct
correct answer from the codes given below the answer from the codes given below :
list: List ‘A’ List ‘B’
List-A List-B A. Nyaya 1. Jaimini
1. Brahmavarta A. The land between B. Vaisheshika 2. Badarayana
Saraswati and C. Sankhya 3. Gautam
Drishadvat including D. Yoga 4. Kanada
Kurukshetra and the E. Purva Mimamsa 5. Kapila
area occupied by F. Uttara Mimamsa 6. Patanjali
Matsyas, Panchalas Codes:
A B C D E F
and Saursenas.
(a) 5 6 4 1 2 3
2. Brahmarshidesha B. The land between
(b) 4 3 2 1 5 6
the divine rivers
(c) 3 4 5 6 1 2
Saraswati and
(d) 1 2 3 4 5 6
Drishadvati
34. Match list ‘A’ with list ‘B’ and choose the correct
3. Madhyadesh C. Region between the
answer from the codes given below :
ocean on east and
List ‘A’ List ‘B’
the ocean in the west
A. Vitasta 1. Ravi
and the Mountains.
B. Asikni 2. Chenab
4. Aryavarta D. The region between
C. Parusni 3. Jhelam
the Himalayas and
D. Satadru 4. Beas
the Vidya Hills.
E. Vipasa 5. Sutlej
Codes:
Codes:
1 2 3 4 A B C D E
(a) A B C D (a) 3 2 1 5 4
(b) B C D A (b) 1 3 4 5 2
(c) B A D C (c) 5 4 2 3 1
(d) C D B A (d) 3 2 5 1 4
History|| A-11
35. Match list ‘A’ with list ‘B’ and choose the correct Codes:
answer from the codes given below : 1 2 3 4
List ‘A’ List ‘B’ (a) B C D A
(A) Langala 1. Does not appear in (b) A B C D
the Rigveda (c) B A D C
(B) Phala 2. Leather strap of the (d) D A B C
plough 37. Match list ‘A’ with list ‘B’ and choose the correct
(C) Sita 3. Ploughshare answer from the codes given below :
(D) Hala 4. Furrows List ‘A’ List ‘B’
(E) Varatra 5. Plough (A) Hotri 1. Atharvaveda
Codes: (B) Udgatri 2. Rigveda
1 2 3 4 5 (C) Adhvaryu 3. Samaveda
(a) D E B C A (D) Brahmana 4. Yajurveda
(b) A B C D E Codes:
(c) B C D E A A B C D
(d) D E C B A (a) 1 3 4 2
36. Match list ‘A’ with list ‘B’ and choose the correct (b) 2 3 1 4
answer from the codes given below : (c) 1 2 4 3
List ‘A’ List ‘B’ (d) 2 3 4 1
(A) Satapatha 1. Atharvaveda
Brahmana
(B) Gopatha 2. Samaveda
Brahmana
(C) Jaiminiya 3. Krisna Yajurveda
Brahmana
(D) Taittiriya 4. Shukla Yajurveda
Brahmana
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 6. (c) 11. (c) 16. (c) 21. (b) 26. (c) 31. (c) 36. (a)
2. (b) 7. (a) 12. (c) 17. (a) 22. (a) 27. (a) 32. (b) 37. (d)
3. (d) 8. (b) 13. (c) 18. (a) 23. (d) 28. (b) 33. (c)
4. (b) 9. (d) 14. (c) 19. (a) 24. (d) 29. (d) 34. (a)
5. (a) 10. (b) 15. (a) 20. (d) 25. (d) 30. (d) 35. (a)
Hints & Solutions

gods. His other names are: Car-warrior (Rathestha);
Vedic Period A winner (Jitendra) and Soma Drinker (Somapa).
3. (d) The fauna of the Rigveda is yet more obviously Agni: Agni is the god of ¿re and acceptor of
Indian including peacocks (Mayur), swans (Hamsa), sacri¿ces. He was considered to be an intermediary
water buffalos (Mahish), gaura (another type of buffalo between gods and men. 200 hymns have been
or the Indian bison), camels (Ushtra) and elephants devoted to only Agni in Rigveda while Agni is
(Hasti) — all of which are common to the region. mentioned in 218 hymns.
Horse and cow were the two most important animals Varuna: Varuna is the god of the sky, of water and
during this period. of the celestial ocean, as well as a god of law called
4. (b) Some of the important Upanishads are: Rita, and of the Patal Loka (Under world). He is
Aitareya, Kausitaki (belong to Rigveda); one of the most prominent Devas in the Rigveda,
Chhandogya, Kena (belong to the Samaveda); and lord of the heavens and the earth. 46 hymns are
Katha, Svetasvatara, Brihadaranyaka, Isa (belong dedicated to Varuna in Rigveda.
to the Yajurveda); Mundaka, Prasna and Mandukya Soma: Soma was prepared by extracting juice from
(belong to the Atharvaveda).The correct matching the stalks of a certain plant, and the Soma god was
pairs are – Rigveda and Kaushitaki, Yajurveda and god of the plants. 123 hymns are dedicated to Soma
Katha, Samaveda and Chhandogya, Atharvaveda and most of them are from Soma Mandala.
and Mundaka. Visvedevas: They are various Vedic gods taken
5. (a) The Vedas are said to have been passed on together as a whole headed by Indra. 70 hymns
from one generation to the next through verbal are dedicated to Visvedevas in Rigveda.
transmission and are, therefore, also known as Yama: Yama is considered to have been the ¿rst
Shruti (to hear) or revelation. mortal who died and espied the way to the celestial
Shruti is "that which has been heard" abodes, and in virtue of precedence, he became the
and is canonical, consisting of revelation and ruler of the departed. He is the guardian of the world
unquestionable truth, and is considered eternal. of dead. His twin sister is Yami and both Yama and
Shruti describes the sacred texts comprising the
Yami are children of Surya.
central canon of Hinduism viz. Vedas, Brahmans,
Surya: Surya is the Sun god and 8 hymns are
Aranyakas, and Upanishads.
dedicated to Surya in Rig-Veda.
6. (c) The correct sequence of divine powers of
Other Rigvedic gods:
Rigveda is Indra, Agni, Varuna and Soma.
Savitri: The Gayatri Mantra is dedicated to Savitri.
Indra: Indra was the most important divinity and
was lord of war. 250 hymns have been devoted to Pusan: The guardian of the Jungle Paths and Roads.
only Indra in Rigveda, which is highest for any of the Vishnu: A comparatively minor god in Rigveda.
History|| A-13
Vayu: Wind god on a Vedic Sanskrit verse from a hymn of the Rigveda,
Dyaus: Father of heaven attributed to the Rishi (sage) Vishvamitra.
Aditi: Goddess of eternity 12. (c) The Vedic period shows that the vedic people
Maruts: Storm spirits used cows as a medium of exchange. Niska and
Gandhrava: Divine musicians hiranyapinda, perhaps, were two types I of metallic
Ashvins: Divine doctors medium of exchange prevalent in Vedic India.
Rbhus: Three semi-divine deities of Rigveda. Rigvedic niskas and hiranyapindas, in this period,
7. (a) The Upavedas (the auxiliary vedas) were stood as a link between the money and currency
stages of the development of the economy.
traditionally associated with vedas:
14. (c) The concept of Rita was perhaps the noblest
1. Ayurveda (medicine): Rigveda
Àight of the rigvedic thoughts. The world takes
2. Gandharveda (music): Samaveda
its regular course, day follows night, and season
3. Dhanurveda (archery): Yajurveda succeeds season because of Rita. Man must live
4. Shilpveda (craft): Atharvaveda according to Rita Varuna was considered to be the
8. (b) The statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Upveda guardian or upholder of Rita. The rigvedic concept
of Rigveda is Ayurveda. Satpatha Brahman related of Rita denotes the cosmic order or law prevailing in
to Yajurveda is the lengthiest of all the Brahmans. nature.
Samaveda contains hymns sung by Udgatori. 16. (c) These are the vedic names of rivers.
9. (d) The Rigvedic society was a free society. The 20. (d) The Abhidhamma Pitaka is the last of the three
Aryans evidently preferred male child to female Pitakas constituting the Pali Canon, the scriptures
child. However, females were as free as their male
of Theravada Buddhism. Abhidhamma has been
counterparts. Education was equally open for boys and
variously described as philosophy, psychology,
girls. Girls studied the Veda and ¿ne arts. Women never
observed Purdha in the Vedic period. They enjoyed metaphysics, etc.
freedom in selecting their mates. But divorce was Sutta Pitaka matches with matters of doctrine and
not permissible to them. In the family, they enjoyed ethics.
complete freedom and were treated as Ardhanginis. The Vinaya Pitaka is a Buddhist scripture, one of the
10. (b) The correct pairs of Rigvedic names and three parts that make up the Tripitaka. Its primary
modern names are: subject matter is the monastic rules for monks and
Rig-Vedic Name Modern Name nuns.
Mahasanghika matches with members of great
Sindhu Indus
community.
Vitase Jhelum
Askini Chenab Religious Movements
Purushni Ravi
21. (b) Symbol of 5 great events of Buddha’s life
Vipas Beas
Sutudari Satluj Event Symbol
Gumal Gomati Buddha’s birth Lotus &
bull
Krumu Kurram
The great departure Horse
Drishdvati Ghagghar
(Mahabhinishkramana)
Suvastu Swat
Enlightment (Nirvana) Bodhi tree
11. (c) Indra was the most powerful and popular god. He
First sermon Wheel
lived in heaven. He was the god of thunder, lightning. (Dhammachakraparivartan)
Many hymns of the Rigveda are offered in his name.
Death (Parinirvana) Stupa
The Gayatri Mantra is a highly revered Mantra, based
22. (a) Early Buddhist texts speak of six foremost the period between the third century BC and
opponents of Lord Buddha who were: the twelfth century AD. The site of Sanchi was
1. Ajit Kesh Kamblin—Believed in Materialsm discovered in the year 1818 by General Taylor
2. Maskari Gosal—Founder of Ajivaka sect and an archaeological museum was established in
3. Puran Kasyap—Atomist 1919 by Sir John Marshall. However, Sanchi was
4. Pakudh Katyayam—Believed in Fatalism not directly connected with events in the life of the
5. Sanjay Vethaliputta—Believed in materialism Buddha, Sanchi became a pilgrimage site when
synicism Ashoka Maurya erected a stupa and column there.
6. Niggantha Nathputta—He was Bhagvan 27. (a) Hiuen Tsang arrived in Kashmir taking the
Mahavir route from Tibet and Ladakh. He had a signi¿cant
23. (d) List of 24 Tirthankars and their birth places inÀuence in spreading Buddhism in Kashmir.
When he had ¿rst arrived in Kashmir, Buddhism
Name Birth place was a widespread religion. He later proceeded to
1. Rishabha (Adinath) Ayodhya Harsha's empire to learn more about Buddhism.
He spent about two years in Kashmir in the pursuit
2. Ajitnath Ayodhya of Buddhist texts. He studied under a renowned
3. Sambhavanath Sravasti Kashmiri teacher.
4. Abhinandannath Ayodhya 28. (b) It is believed that Buddha spent 25 rainy
seasons in Sravasti of which 19 he spent in the Jetavana
5. Sumatinath Ayodhya
Monastery and six in the Pubbarama monastery. It is
6. Padmabrabha Kausambhi also the place where he gave the maximum number of
7. Suparshvanath Kasi (Banaras) discourses and instructions. Prasenjit, the Kosala king,
was the contemporary of Gautama Buddha.
8. Chandraprabha Chandrapuri
30. (d) Gautama studied under various teachers and
9. Pushpadanta Kakandi followed their practices until he mastered them
(Suvidhinatha) all. His ¿rst teacher was Alara Kalama who taught
10. Shiatnath Bhadrikapuri a form of meditation leading to an exalted form of
11. Shreyansanath Simhapuri absorption called "the state of no-thingness", a state
without moral or cognitive dimension. Gautama saw
12. Vasupujya Champapuri this was not going to solve suffering, and continued
13. Vimalnath Kampilya his search.
14. Anantnath Ayodhya The next teacher was Udraka Ramaputra who
taught him meditative absorption leading to "the
15. Dharmanath Ratnapuri state of neither perception nor non-perception".
16. Shantinath Hastinapura Again, Gautama realised this was not the state he
17. Kunthunath Hastinapura was looking for. (Both Alara and Udraka are by
some scholars considered to be Jain followers.)
18. Aranath Hastinapura
32. (b) Vedang are the auxiliary to the four Vedas
19. Malinath Mithilapuri essential for the correct interpretation of the Vedas.
20. Munisuvrata Kusagranagara (Rajgrih) Mundaka Upanisad mentions that there are six
21. Naminatha Mithilapuri (Mathura) Vedanga which are as follows:
1. Siksha is related to sound, letters,
22. Neminatha Sauripura (Dwarka) pronunciation, the method of teaching and
23. Parsvanatha Kasi (Banaras) learning of these basic elements.
24. Mahavira Kundapura 2. Kalpa: Vedic system involves Karmakaanda
(Vardhamana) (system of prescribed acts and rituals).
3. Vyaakaran / Grammar:- Vyakarana is
26. (c) Sanchi is famous for outstanding specimen considered to be a principal part of the six
of Buddhist art and architecture, belonging to Vedaangas.
History|| A-15
4. Nirukta :- Nirukta is a kind of commentary is about the Brahmaa (Iswhar) and attainment of
on Nighantu, which is a collection of dif¿cult Brahmaa / Moksha (Salvation).
words of the Veda. 36. (a) In ancient times there where many Brahmanas,
5. The composition of the Vedas indicates but currently only six are to be found:-
consummate development of the knowledge of 1. Aitareya Brahman Granth based on Rig Veda
the poetic meter, chhandas. authored by Rishi Aitareya Mahidaas.
6. The sixth Vedaanga relates to Jyotisa - 2. Shankhyayan Brahman Granth based on Rig
astronomy and astrology. Jyotisa is considered Veda
to be the science of light, and it is looked upon 3. Kaushtiki Brahman based on Rig Veda
as the eyes among the Vedaangas. 4. Shatapath Brahman Granth based on Yajurveda
33. (c) Nyaaya Shashtra: The author of this Darshan 5. Maha-Tandya Brahman Granth based on Sam
is Rishi Gautama ji. The subject of this darshan Veda
is to attain Moksha (Salvation) by getting the 6. Gopath Brahman Granth based on Atharva
philosophical knowledge. Veda
Vaisheshika Shashtra:- The author of this Darshan is 37. (d) Vedic (Shrauta) yajnas are typically
Rishi Kanaad ji. He has described the true form of performed by four Vedic priests, the hota, the
the Dharma. adhvaryu, the udgata and the brahman. The Hotar,
Sankhya Shashtra:- The author of this Darshan is (priest), recites invocations and litanies drawn
Rishi Kapil ji and its subject is about the Prakriti from the Rigveda. The adhvaryu is the priest's
and its products and Purusha. assistant and is in charge of the physical details of
Yoga Shashtra:- The author of this Darshan is the ritual like measuring the ground, building the
Maharishi Patanjali ji and it deals with the Saadhana, altar etc. mentioned in the Yajurveda. The udgatar
Dhyan, Samaadhi etc. is the chanter of hymns set to melodies (sƗman)
Purva Mimaansa / Mimaansa Shashtra:- The author drawn from the Samaveda. The brahman is the
of this Darshan is Rishi Jaimini ji. The science of superintendent of the entire performance, and is
morals is discussed in detail. The concept of this
responsible for correcting mistakes by means of
darshan is Dharma.
supplementary verses invoking the visvedevas
Uttar Mimaansa / Vedaant Shashtra:- The author
(pantheon of celestials or devas).
of this Darshan is Rishi Vyaasa ji and the subject
3 Maurya Period and
Post-Maurya Period
Codes:
Maurya Period A B C D
1. The title ‘Devanampriya’ was used by (a) 1 4 2 3
1. Ashoka 2. Dasharatha (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
3. Samprati 4. Brihadratha
(d) 4 3 1 2
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
4. Which of the following Mauryan pillars were
below: surmounted by lion capital?
Codes: 1. Koluha pillar
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 2. Lauriya Nandangarh pillar
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. Sanchi pillar
2. Given below are the two statements one labelled as 4. Sarnatha pillar
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given
Assertion (A): The decline of Maurya Empire below :
began after the time of Ashoka. Codes:
Reason (R): Ashoka followed the policy of (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
Dhamma Vijaya and disbanded (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
his army. 5. Match the following :
A. Devaputra 1. A land measurement unit
Which one of the following is true
B. Gaulmika 2. An administrative unit
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
C. Kulyavapa 3. A royal title
explanation of A D. Ahara 4. An of¿cer
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the Select the correct answer from the codes given
correct explanation of A below:
(c) A is true, but R is false Codes:
(d) A is false, but R is true A B C D
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (a) 4 2 3 1
answer from the codes given below : (b) 3 4 1 2
(Ashoka’s (Countries where (d) 1 3 2 4
contemporary they ruled) 6. From which of the following source/sources
rulers) it is learnt that Ashoka fought a ¿erce battle in
A. Antiyoka 1. Cyrena Kalinga?
1. Separate Kalinga Rock Edict of Ashoka
B. Autkina 2. Egypt
2. Rock Edict XIII of Ashoka
C. Maka 3. Macedoniya
3. Dipavamsa
D. Turmaya 4. Syria 4. Divyavadana
History|| A-17
Select the correct answer from the codes given 10. Consider the following statements regarding
below : description of Megasthenese.
Codes: 1. Megasthenese describes the seven castes in
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only India
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Megasthenese describes salavary system is
7. Who among the following kings paid enough not found in India
attention towards water resource management in 3. There is no femine in India
4. Writing skill was not developed in India.
the Saurashtra region?
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Chandragupta Maurya
2. Ashoka (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Rudradaman 11. Match the following :
4. Skandagupta List-I List-II
Indicate the correct answer from the codes given A. Amatyas 1. Concerned with economic
below: function and some
Codes: military duties
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 B. Tirthas 2. Highest category of
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 of¿cial and were eighteen
8. Match the following : in numbers
A. Uttarapatha 1. Suvarnagiri C. Adhyakshya 3. Functioned in
B. Dakshinapatha 2. Takshashila administration and
C. Prashi 3. Tosali judicial capacity
D. Mahamattas 4. The Arthasastra uses this
D. Kalinga 4. Patliputra
term in the sense of a
minister
below :
Codes:
Codes: A B C D
A B C D (a) 2 3 4 1
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 2 4 1
(b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 1 2 12. Match the ¿ve major Mauryan provinces with
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct their capitals:
answer from the codes given below: A. Uttarapatha I. Ujjain
List-I List-II (Northern Province)
A. Chandragupta 1. Amitrochates B. Avantiratha II. Suvarnagiri
Maurya (Western Province)
B. Bindusar 2. Sandrocotts C. Dakshinapatha III. Tosali
(Southern Province)
C. Ashok 3. Devanampriya
D. Prachya IV. Pataliputra
D. Dasharatha 4. Buddha shakya
(Eastern Province)
Codes: E. Central Province V. Taxila
A B C D A B C D E
(a) 1 2 3 4 (a) V I II III IV
(b) 2 1 4 3 (b) I II I III V
(c) 3 4 2 1 (c) II III I IV V
(d) 3 4 1 2 (d) III II I IV V
A-18 || Maurya Period and Post-Maurya Period
16. Consider the following statements and select the
Post-Maurya Period
correct answer from the codes given below :
13. Given below are two statements and select the Assertion (A): The Indo-Greek rulers were
correct answer from the codes given below– coming under the inÀuence of
Assertion (A): The society during Satavahana Indian Culture.
period was divided into four Reason (R): Some coins of Agathocles bear
castes on the basis of profession. the ¿gures of Vasudeva and
Reason (R): They wanted a progressive Balarama.
society free from many narrow
Codes:
attitudes.
(a) Both A and R are true, R is the correct
In the context of above two statements, which
one of the following is correct? explanation of A
(a) Both A and R are true, R is the correct (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
explanation of A correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct (c) A is true, but R is false
explanation of A (d) A is false, but R is true
(c) A is true, but R is false 17. Consider the following statements and select the
(d) A is false, but R is true correct answer from the codes given below :
14. Consider the following statements and select the Assertion (A): Bacchanalian scenes are also
correct answer from the codes given below : found in Mathura art.
Assertion (A): Like Buddha Jain Tirthankar is Reason (R): The Mathura artists were aware
depicted on some Kushan coins.
of the Gandhara art tradition.
Reason (R): Mathura was a great centre of
Codes:
jainism during the Kushan period
Codes: (a) Both A and R are true, R is the correct
(a) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct correct explanation of A
explanation of A (c) A is true, but R is false
(c) A is true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true
(d) A is false, but R is true 18. Consider the following statements and select the
15. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
correct answer from the codes given below : Assertion (A): Gautimputra Satakarni was
Assertion (A): Yajna satakarni introduced the opposed to the system of four
motif of ship on his coins.
Varanas.
Reason (R): Satavahan Kingdom had brisk
Reason (R): Gautmiputra Satakarni provided
maritime trade with distant
countries. patronage to buddhist monks.
Codes: Codes:
(a) Both A and R are correct, R is the correct (a) Both A and R are true, R is the correct
explanation of A explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false (c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true (d) A is false, but R is true
History|| A-19
19. Who among the following performed Asvamedha Select the correct answer from the codes given
sacri¿ce? below:
1. Pushyamitra sunga 2. Samudragupta Codes:
3. Pravarsena I 4. Pulakesin I A B C D
Select the correct answer from the codes given (a) 1 3 4 2
below: (b) 2 3 4 1
Codes: (c) 4 3 2 1
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (d) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 23. Arrange the following dynasties in chronological
20. Consider the following statements and select the order of their arrival in Post-Maurya period.
correct answer from the codes given below : 1. Shakas 2. Indo-Greeks
Assertion (A): Arikmedu was a centre of Indo- 3. Parthions 4. Kushans
Roman Trade Choose the correct answer from the codes given
Reason (R): Roman coins in good numbers below:
have been found in Arikamedu Codes:
excavation. (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
Codes: (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 2 3 1 4
explanation of A
Assertion (A): Gandhara school of art is also
known as the Indo-Greek school.
correct explanation of A
Reason (R): Gandhara school was highly
(c) A is true, but R is false
inÀuenced by the Greece-Roman
(d) A is false, but R is true
tradition.
21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Codes:
List-I List-II explanation of A
A. Indo-Greek 1. Rudradaman (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
B. Shaka 2. Minandar correct explanation of A
C. Parthiyau 3. Vim Kad¿ses (c) A is true, but R is false
D. Kushan 4. Gondofarnis (d) A is false, but R is true
Codes: 25. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the
A B C D correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 3 4 1 2 List ‘A’ List ‘B’
(b) 4 3 2 1 1. Satavahana A. Maues
(c) 2 1 4 3 2. Shunga B. Pushyamitra
(d) 1 2 3 4 3. Saka C. Simuka
22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 4. Tocharian D. Kujula Kadphises
answer from the codes given below the lists : Codes:
List-I List-II 1 2 3 4
A. Shunga 1. Prawarsen-I (a) B A D C
B. Kanva 2. Kharvela (b) A B C D
C. Chedi 3. Vasudeva (c) C B A D
D. Vakataka 4. Bhagbhadra (d) B C D A
26. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the 29. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the
correct answer from the codes given below : correct answer from the codes given below :
List ‘A’ List ‘B’ List ‘A’ List ‘B’
1. The Kushanas A. The restorer of 1. Ramacharita A. Asvaghosa
varnasrama-dharma 2. Katha-Tarangini B. Bhasa
2. The Satavahanas B. First inscription in 3. Sariputraprakarana C. Palita
chaste Sanskrit 4. Urubhangam D. Abhinanda
3. The Sakas C. Visit of St. Thomas Codes:
(western) 1 2 3 4
4. Parthians D. Largest number of (a) A B C D
copper coins (b) B C D A
Codes: (c) D C A B
1 2 3 4 (d) D C B A
(a) A B C D 30. List ‘A’ consists of the varna categories and the
(b) D A B C List ‘B’ consists of the material for sacri¿cial
(c) D A C B thread to be used by them. Match them and choose
(d) A B D C the correct answer from the codes given below :
27. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the
1. Brahmana A. Flax
2. Kshatriya B. Cotton
1. Devabhuti A. The last Kanva king
3. Vaisya C. Not entitled to
2. Susharman B. The last Kushana
4. Sudra D. Wool
king
3. Vasudeva I C. The last Shunga Codes:
king 1 2 3 4
4. Pulumavi II D. The last Satavahana (a) B A D C
king (b) A B C D
Codes: (c) B C D A
1 2 3 4 (d) D B A C
(a) A B C D 31. Which of the following dynasties arose after the
(b) C A B D decline of the Satavahana empire ?
(c) B C D A 1. The Abhiras 2. The Ikshvakus
(d) C B A D 3. The Chutus 4. The Pallavas
28. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and list ‘C’ and Choose the correct answer from the codes given
choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
below : (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
List ‘A’ List ‘B’ List ‘C’ (c) 2 and 4 (d) only 2
1. Brihatkatha A. Hala E. Ardha-Magadhi 32. Given below are two statements and select the
2. Gathasaptasati B. Asvaghosa F. Paisachi correct answer from the codes given below–
3. Paumchariya C. Gunadhya G. Prakrit Assertion (A) : The traders usually moved in
4. Probodhachan- D. Vimalasuri H. Sanskrit caravans.
dodaya Reason (R) : Dangers and uncertainties
Codes: involved in long distance travel
1 2 3 4 compelled them to go together.
(a) C, F A, E D, H B, G (a) If both A and R are correct, R being the correct
(b) C, E B, F A, H D, G explanation of A.
(c) C, F A, G D, E B, H (b) If both A and R are correct but R is not the correct
(d) D, H C, F B, E A, G explanation of A.
(c) If A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) If A is wrong but R is correct.
History|| A-21
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 6. (b) 11. (a) 16. (c) 21. (c) 26. (b) 31. (b)
2. (c) 7. (d) 12. (a) 17. (d) 22. (d) 27. (b) 32. (a)
3. (d) 8. (b) 13. (c) 18. (d) 23. (d) 28. (c)
4. (a) 9. (b) 14. (d) 19. (d) 24. (b) 29. (c)
5. (d) 10. (d) 15. (a) 20. (a) 25. (c) 30. (a)
Hints & Solutions

In his thirteenth inscription Ashoka mentions
Maurya Period ¿ve Greek contemporary kings-Antiyoka (Syria
1. (b) Ashoka has called himself ‘Devanampiya’ and 261-246 B. C.) Turamaya (Egypt, upto 247 B.C.),
‘Priyadarshi’ on his inscriptions. ‘Devanampiya’ Kairina Kamar (300-250 B.C.) Alika Sundara
means the beloved of the Gods and ‘Piyadasi means (Apiran, 272-258 B.C.), Autkina (Macedonia
one whose appearance brings joy. These names are 278—339 B.C.). Historians ¿nd that all these rulers
appropriate to Ashoka’s nature. were thus before 258 B. C. The ruler of Apiran
The title of Devanampiya and religious adherence died in 258 B. C. but it ¿nds mention in Ashoka’s
of the Mauryan ruler to Buddhism was continued by inscription.
Dasaratha. Dasaratha (252–224 BC) was Mauryan 4. (a) The pillars of Ashoka are a series of
Emperor from 232 to 224 BC. He was a grandson columns dispersed throughout the northern Indian
of Ashoka and had succeeded his father as the subcontinent, erected or at least inscribed with edicts
imperial ruler of India. Dasaratha is known to have by the Mauryan king Ashoka during his reign in the
dedicated three caves in the Nagarjuni Hills to the 3rd century BC. The pillars, listed with crowning
Ajivikas. Three inscriptions at the cave refer to him
animal sculptures and the edicts inscribed, are as
as ‘Devanampiya Dasaratha’ and state that the caves
follows:
were dedicated by him shortly after his accession.
Sarnath, near Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, four
2. (c) The decline of Maurya empire began after
lions, Pillar Inscription, Schism Edict
the death of Ashoka. He died in 232 BC and his
successors were not competent enough to control Sanchi, near Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, four
such a vast empire, which resulted in the gradual lions, Schism Edict
decline of the state. Seven kings followed Ashoka in KolhuaVaishali, Bihar, single lion, with no
succession in a period of 50 years. The empire was inscription
divided into an eastern and western part. Brihadratha Lauriya-Nandangarth, Champaran, Bihar,
Maurya was the last ruler of the Mauryan dynasty. single lion, Pillar Edicts I, II, III, IV, V, VI
Ashoka was appalled at the grievous results of 6. (b) Asoka's response to the Kalinga War is
warfare and initiated a policy of dhamma vijaya recorded in the Edicts of Asoka. The Rock Edict
(victory through dhamma). It has been suggested XIII and Minor Rock Edict I state that the Kalinga
that Ashoka’s paci¿sm has been exaggerated as War prompted Ashoka to take Buddhist religion and
there is no indication that he disbanded the army. to adopt the path of `Dhamma Vijaya` (win through
3. (d) The correct match list is : religion) and `Ahimsa`(non-violence). After
Rulers Country conquring Kalinga, Ashoka stopped the expansion
Antiyoka Syria of his empire and concentrated on spreading
Antikini Macedonia the Buddhist religion. Ashoka reigned for more
Maka Cyrena than forty years more and brought prosperity and
Turmaya Egypt harmony to his sovereignty.
8. (b) The Mauryan empire was divided into provinces The whole society was divided into four main
and the provinces divided into districts. Provinces classes, as for example maharathis, mahabhojas and
during the Mauryan age with their capital were: mahasenapatis belonged to the ¿rst class and that
Uttarapatha-Taxila; Dakshinapatha-Suvarnagiri; was the highest class in the society. The Samantas
Prachya-Pataliputra; Kalinga-Tosali; Avantiratha- also belonged to this class. Mahabhojas belonged
Ujjain. Ashoka appointed a representative in each to north konkar whereas maharastis belonged to the
province. The representatives were chosen for the western ghats.
their ability and not on the basis of birth or high The second class comprised of the of¿cials as well as
connections. They enjoyed considerable freedom in non of¿cials. Amathas, mahamatias and chandrikas
the administration of their provinces. were the of¿cials which formed this class.
9. (b) In foreign Greek and Latin accounts, Among the non-of¿cials were the naigama or
Chandragupta is known as Sandrocottus and merchant, the sarthvaha or the head of a carvan of
Androcottus. He became well known in the traders and the stresthin i.e. head of trade guide,
Hellenistic world for conquering Alexander the lekhaka or scribe, vaidya or physician, halakiya or
Great's easternmost satrapies, and for defeating the cultivator, suvarnkara or goldsmith and gandhika or
most powerful of Alexander's successors, Seleucus druggist etc. formed the third class.
I Nicator, in battle.
Lastly the fourth class was comprised of the
Bindusara Maurya (c. 320 BC – 272 BC) was
vardnika or carpenter, malakara or the gardener,
emperor of the Maurya Empire from 298 BC –
lohavanija or blacksmith and dasaka or ¿sherman.
272 BC. During his reign, the empire expanded
19. (d) Pusyamitra Sunga is said to have performed
southwards.The Greeks called him Amitrochates
the Ashvamedha rite after he toppled Mauryan rule
or Allitrochades – the Greek transliteration for the
in 185 BC. A historically documented performance of
Sanskrit word 'Amitraghata' (Slayer of enemies).
the Ashvamedha is during the reign of Samudragupta
In the third century B.C., King Ashoka of the
I (died 380), the father of Chandragupta II. Special
Maurya dynasty supported and protected Buddhism
coins were minted to commemorate the Ashvamedha
and erected stupas and stone pillars at sites associated
and the king took on the title of Maharajadhiraja after
with Shakyamuni Buddha.
successful completion of the sacri¿ce.
Dasaratha is known to have dedicated three caves in
the Nagarjuni Hills to the Ajivikas. Three inscriptions Vakataka Dynasty 3rd (Century -5th Century AD)
at the cave refer to him as ‘Devanampiya Dasaratha’ was founded by Vindhyashakti. Pravarasena I was the
11. (a) Amatyas, the highest category of of¿cials and real founder of Vakataka empire. He performed four
were eighteen in numbers. Tirthas, functioned in Asvamedha Yajnas.
administration and judicial capacity. Adhyakshya, Pulakesin I was a monarch from the Chalukya
the Arthasastra uses this term in the sense of dynasty in the western Deccan region.
a minister. Mahamattas, were concerned with Pulakesin performed sacri¿ces like Asvamedha,
economic function and some military duties. Hiranyagarbha, Agnistoma, Vajapeya, Bahusuvarna
12. (a) The uttarapath was the major trans-regional and Paundarika. These details are provided by his
trade route of northern India. It stretched from the Badami Cliff inscription dated Saka 565 (543 CE).
north west acroos the Indo–Gangetic plains up to 23. (d) The correct chronological order is :Indo-
the port of Tamrlipti on the bay of Bangal. Greeks, Parthions, Sakas, Kushan
24. (b) Gandhara school of art is also known as
Post-Maurya Period the Indo-Greek school because it was highly
influenced by the Greece-Roman tradition.
13. (c) The society during the Satavahana period 27. (b) The Kanva dynasty replaced the Sunga
retained much of its earlier Àexibility. Divided into dynasty, and ruled in the eastern part of India from
four main classes the social condition during the 71 BC to 26 BC. The last ruler of the Sunga dynasty
Satavahanas was then rather contemporary. Devbhuti was overthrown by Vasudeva of the Kanva
History|| A-23
dynasty in 73 BC. Susharman, the son of Narayana 28. (c) Brihatkatha is a mammoth work composed
inherited the throne after his father. Susharman ruled by Gunadhya. Gunadhya is told to record them
for 10 years and later the Andhras overthrew him in Paisachi dialect which is the language of the
from power. The Andhras had captured Magadha in goblins. The GƗhƗ SattasaƯ is a collection of poems
the tenth year of Susharman's reign. Susharman was in Maharashtri Prakrit. The poems mostly have love
the ¿nal ruler of the Kanva kinship. Vasudeva I was as a theme. The collection is attributed to the king
the last of the "Great Kushans." Named inscriptions HƗla, and it is the collection of about forty poems.
dating from year 64 to 98 of Kanishka’s era suggest The Ram epic Pauma-chariya by Vimala Suri may
his reign extended from at least 191 to 225 AD. He be called a Shvetambara work. This was composed
was the last great Kushan emperor. 530 years after Mahavira's death, that is, in or about
AD 4.
4 Gupta Period and
Post-Gupta Period
3. Which of the following is correctly matched?

Gupta Period Kings Queens
1. Consider the following statements and select the 1. Chandragupta-I Kumaradevi
2. Samudragupta Dattadevi
correct answer from the codes given below: 3. Chandragupta-II Dhruvadevi
Assertion (A): The Chinese traveller Fa-hien 4. Kumargupta-I Kuberanaga
visited India in the reign of Select the correct answer from the codes given
Chandragupta-II. below:
Reason (R): Fa-hien describes Chandragupta Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
as ruling over his empire from his (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
capital Patliputra. 4. Who among the following are known for their
Codes: criticism of custom of Sati?
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct 1. Kalidasa 2. Bana
3. Medhatithi 4. Madhava
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the below:
correct explanation of A Codes:
(c) A is true, but R is false (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) A is false, but R is true (c) 3 and 4 (d) None of these
5. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below the lists:
answer from the codes given below: List-I List-II
List-I List-II A. Time taken by the 1. Aryabhatta
(Author) (Work) Earth to orbit the sun
A. Sudraka 1. Mrichhakatika B. Calculation of the 2. Bhaskaracharya
value of S (pi)
B. Visakhadatta 2. Mudrarakshasa
C. Invention of the digit 3. Budhayana
C. Kalidasa 3. Vikramovasiya Zero
D. Bhavabhuti 4. Uttara Ramacharita D. The game of snakes 4. Gyanadev
Codes: & ladders
A B C D Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 3 1 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 1 (c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 1 4 2 (d) 1 4 2 3
History|| A-25
6. Arrange the following astronomers in their 11. Kumargupta-I assumed which of the following
correct chronological order: titles?
1. Aryabhatta 2. Brahmagupta 1. Mahendraditya
3. Lagadh 4. Varahamihira 2. Mahendrasinha
Choose your answer from the codes given below: 3. Asvamedha Mahindra
Codes:
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
correct?
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 4 3 2 1
7. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. Chandragupta I was the ¿rst ruler of the (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Gupta dynasty. 12. Arrange the following Gupta emperors in the
2. Srigupta was the founder of Gupta dynasty. chronological order
3. Chandragupta I was the ¿rst ruler of the 1. Samudragupta 2. Chandragupta-I
Gupta dynasty who assume the title of 3. Skandagupta 4. Chandragupta-II
‘Maharajadhiraja’? Select the correct answer from the code given
4. Bayana Hoard the biggest hoard of Gupta below:
gold coins. Codes:
Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
8. Which of the following are true about 13. List ‘A’ consists of the dynasties and List ‘B’
Samudragupta? consists of their capital cities. Match the lists and
1. He is also known as ‘Kaviraja’ choose the correct answer from the codes given
2. He is known as “Lichchhavi Dauhitra’ below :
3. He built most extensive empire after Asoka. List ‘A’ List ‘B’
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are A. The Maghas 1. Chanaka
correct? B. The Vakatakas 2. Manapura
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only C. The Rashtrakutas 3. Kaushambi
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 D. Dakshina Kosal 4. Pushkari
9. Which of the following is correctly matched? E. The Nalas 5. Shripura
1. Kshetra : Cultivated land
Codes:
2. Khila : Waste land
3. Aprahta : Forest land A B C D E
4. Vasti : Pasture land (a) 3 1 5 2 4
Select the correct answer from the codes given (b) 1 2 3 4 5
below: (c) 3 1 2 5 4
Codes: (d) 1 2 5 4 3
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 14. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 correct answer from the codes given below :
10. Kalidasa’s works include List ‘A’ List ‘B’
1. Abhigyan Sakuntalam A. Mahendra- 1. Destroyer of the city
2. Meghadootam varman I of Ranarasika
3. Malavikagnimitra
B. Parameshvara- 2. Avanisimha (lion of
4. Ritusamhara
5. Kumarsambhavam varman I the earth)
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are C. Simhavishnu 3. Construction of
correct? Kailashnatha temple
(a) 1, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 3 D. Narasimha- 4. Beginning of rock-
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 4 and 5 varman II cut temples
A-26 || Gupta Period and Post-Gupta Period
Codes: C. Uparika 3. The chief cadre
A B C D for recruiting high
(a) 4 1 2 3 functionaries
(b) 1 2 3 4 D. Akshapatal- 4. Scribe
(c) 2 3 4 1 adhikrita
(d) 4 2 1 3 E. Divira 5. Accountant
F. Audrangika 6. The of¿cial who
collected the royal
A. Vatapikonda 1. Parameshvara- share in kind
varman I Codes:
B. Ugradanda 2. Nandivarman III A B C D E F
C. Avanivarnam 3. Aparajita (a) 5 4 3 2 6 1
D. Rajamartanda 4. Narasimha- (b) 3 1 5 4 6 2
varman I (c) 3 1 2 5 4 6
Codes: (d) 2 1 5 4 6 3
A B C D 18. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the
(a) 1 2 3 4 correct answer from the codes given below :
(b) 4 3 2 1 List ‘A’ List ‘B’
(c) 4 1 2 3 A. Janapadas 1. Panchamandali
(d) 3 4 2 1 B. Rural areas 2. Parishads
C. Towns 3. Ashtakuladhi-
karana
A. Trishasti- 1. Buddha-datta D. Districts 4. Purapala
Lakshanamaha- Codes:
purana A B C D
B. Gajashastra 2. Mahendravarman I (a) 1 3 2 4
C. Vinayavini- 3. Shripurusha (b) 2 1 3 4
chchaya (c) 2 1 4 3
D. Mattavilasa- 4. Chamundaraya (d) 4 1 3 2
prahasana 19. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the
Codes: correct answer from the codes given below :
A B C D List ‘A’ List ‘B’
(a) 1 2 4 3 A. Chauroddharanika 1. Guild of artisans
(b) 4 3 1 2
B. Dandapasika 2. Magistrate in towns
(c) 4 1 3 2
C. Vinayasthitisthapaka 3. Watchman
(d) 1 3 4 2
D. Kulika 4. Police
correct answer from the codes given below : Codes:
List ‘A’ List ‘B’ A B C D
A. Kumaramatya 1. Minister of peace (a) 4 2 1 3
and war (b) 2 3 4 1
B. Sandhivigrahika 2. The provincial (c) 3 2 1 4
governor (d) 3 4 2 1
History|| A-27
20. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the 23. Arrange the following in their chronological order:
correct answer from the codes given below : 1. Banja of Gujar – Pratihara dynasty
List ‘A’ List ‘B’ 2. Hindushahi of Punjab and Kabul
A. Janakiharana 1. Pravarasena 3. Rashtrakutas of deccan
Vakataka 4. Chalukya dynasty of Kalyani
B. Kiratarjuniya 2. Kumaradasa
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 1 2 3
C. Ravanavadha 3. Bharavi
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 3 1 2 4
D. Setubandha 4. Magha
E. Shisupalavadha 5. Bhatti 24. Which among the following sources describe
Codes: Harsha’s war with Pulakesin II.
A B C D E 1. Harshacharita of Banabhatta
(a) 1 3 2 4 5 2. Banskheda inscription of Harsha
(b) 4 3 1 2 5 3. Aihole inscription of Pulakesin II
(c) 2 3 5 1 4 4. Travels of Yuan Chwang
(d) 2 5 3 4 1 Select the correct answer from the codes given
21. Match the following commercial bodies with below:
their actual meanings : Codes:
A. Nigama and Sreni 1. Modern Chamber of (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Commerce
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
B. Sarthavaha 2. Bankers
C. Sresthi-Kulika- 3. Guilds 25. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct
Nigama answer by from the codes given below:
D. Sresthis 4. Guilds of Caravan List-I List-II
traders (Dynasty) (Capital)
Codes: 1. Chalukya of Gujarat 1. Tripuri
A B C D 2. Kalachuris of Chedi 2. Anhilvad
(a) III IV I II 3. Parmaras of Malva 3. Ajmer
(b) II I III IV 4. Chahmans of 4. Dhara
(c) III IV II I Sakambhari
(d) IV III I II Codes:
A B C D
Post-Gupta Period (a) 1 3 2 4
22. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct (b) 2 1 4 3
answer by from the codes given below the lists: (c) 2 3 4 1
A. Fa-hien 1. Indian had no sense of 26. Which of the following pair(s) are/is correctly
history matched?
B. Alberuni 2. There was no provision 1. Charasada — Pushkalavati
of death sentence
2. Sirkap — Takshila
C. Heiun Tsang 3. Indian yield more than
3. Nagarjunakonda — Vijaypuri
fairness required
Codes: 4. Ter — Tamralipti
A B C Choose the correct answer from the codes given
(a) 2 1 3 below:
(b) 1 2 3 Codes:
(c) 3 2 1 (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 3 2 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
27. Which of the following pairs is/are correct Codes:
matched? (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
1. Madanvarma — Chandella explanation of A
2. Sindhuraja — Chahmana (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
3. Vakpati — Parmara correct explanation of A
4. Chandradeva — Gahadavala (c) A is true, but R is false
Choose the correct answer from the codes given (d) A is false, but R is true
below: 31. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Codes: answer from the codes given below the lists:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 List-I List-II
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (Authors) (Historical Kavyas)
28. Which of the following ports were situated on the A. Hemachandra 1. Dvyasraya Kavya
east coast of South India? B. Jayanka 2. Navasahshank
1. Kaveripattanam 2. Korkai Charita
3. Musiri 4. Tondi C. Padmagupta 3. Prithviraja Vijaya
Select the correct answer from the codes given D. Sandhyakar Nandi 4. Rama Charita
below: Codes:
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 2 1 3
Assertion (A): King Dhanga after living for more
than hundred years drowned
himself in the conÀuence of
List-I List-II
Ganga and Yamuna.
(Dynasty) (State)
Reason (R): Suicide at Prayaga had religious
sanction and was considered A. Kadamba 1. Odisha
meritorious. B. Kharvela 2. Karnataka
Codes: C. Chalukya 3. Bengal
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct D. Pala 4. Gujarat
explanation of A Codes:
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the A B C D
correct explanation of A (a) 1 2 4 3
(c) A is true, but R is false (b) 1 2 3 4
(d) A is false, but R is true (c) 2 1 3 4
30. Consider the following statements and select the (d) 2 1 4 3
correct answer from the codes given below: 33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Assertion (A): The Chola king Kulottunga answer from the codes given below the lists:
exempted from taxes the List-I List-II
village granted to Sailendra A. Kachhavaha 1. Rana Kumbha
Chudamanivihara. B. Rastrakuta 2. Bhioa
Reason (R): Kulottunga claims to have C. Parmar 3. Man Singh
destroyed Kadarma. D. Sisodia 4. Krishna-I
History|| A-29
Codes: 1. Rajaraja Chola I
A B C D 2. Aditya Chola
(a) 1 2 3 4 3. Rajendra Chola
(b) 2 1 3 4 4. Parantaka Chola I
(c) 3 4 1 2 Codes:
(d) 4 3 1 2 (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 4, 1, 3
34. Arrange the following into sequential order and (c) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2
select the correct answer using the codes given
below.
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 6. (c) 11. (d) 16. (b) 21. (a) 26. (b) 31. (a)
2. (a) 7. (c) 12. (b) 17. (c) 22. (a) 27. (b) 32. (d)
3. (c) 8. (c) 13. (c) 18. (c) 23. (d) 28. (d) 33. (d)
4. (b) 9. (b) 14. (a) 19. (d) 24. (c) 29. (a) 34. (b)
5. (c) 10. (c) 15. (c) 20. (c) 25. (b) 30. (b)
Hints & Solutions

chief minister of the last Nanda king”), a historical
Gupta Period play in Sanskrit by Visakhadatta (4th century CE)
1. (c) The Chinese traveller Fa-hein visited India in narrates the ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya
the reign of Chandragupta-II. The Chinese Buddhist to power in Northern India with the aid of Chanakya,
pilgrim Fa-hein, who spent six years (405–411) his Guru and chief minister. Vikramovasiya (Urvasi
in India during Chandra-gupta II’s reign, spoke Won Through Valor) is based on the old legend of
highly of the system of government, the means the love of the mortal Pururavaas for the heavenly
damsel Urvasi. Uttara Ramacharita (The story of
for dispensing charity and medicine (the emperor
Rama's later life), depicts Rama's coronation, the
maintained free rest houses and hospitals), and the
abandonment of Sita, and their reunion.
goodwill of the people. But he never visited the
3. (c) The correctly matched pairs are:
emperor or his court. Chandra-gupta II was a devout
Chandragupta-I Kumaradevi
Hindu, but he also tolerated the Buddhist and Jain
Samudragupta Dattadevi
religions. The court of Chandragupta was made
Chandragupta-II Dhruvadevi
even more illustrious by the fact that it was graced In a breakthrough deal, Chandragupta was
by the Navaratna (nine jewels), a group of nine who married to Kumaradevi, a Lichchhavi princess
excelled in the literary arts. Amongst these men was the main power in Magadha. With a dowry of the
the immortal Kalidasa whose works dwarfed the kingdom of Magadha (capital Pataliputra) and an
works of many other literary geniuses, not only in alliance with the Lichchhavis. Samudragupta's
his own age but in the ages to come. Kalidasa was chief queen was named Dattadevi; and he seems to
particularly known for his ¿ne exploitation of the have had a number of sons by her and others; for
shringara (romantic) element in his verse. we are told that he specially chose one of them, the
2. (a) The correct match list of author and their later Chandragupta II, to succeed him. This seems
works is: to indicate that this prince was not the eldest son.
Author Work Unfortunately, we have no details. Dhruvadevi was
Sudraka Mrichhakatikam a queen of the Gupta dynasty. She reigned as the
Visakhadatta Mudrarakshasa wife of Chandragupta II (380–415 AD) and mother
Kalidasa Vikramovasiya of Kumaragupta (415–455 AD). Previously she had
Bhavabhuti Uttara Ramacharita been married to Chandragupta’s brother Ramagupta.
Sudraka’s Michhakatikam (The Little Clay She was a great patron of poets and gave shelter to
Cart) is unquestionably a master piece in the realm many scholars in the Gupta court. Famed for her
of ancient Sanskrit drama. If we expect literature beauty and intellect, she was ¿rst married to the weak
of the time to faithfully represent the age, then The and cowardly son of Samudragupta, Ramagupta.
Little Clay Cart has achieved this criterion more than Sometime later the mighty Shaka demanded of
any other plays of ancient Sanskrit tradition. The the Guptas that they hand over Dhruvadevi as a
Mudrarakshasa (“Signet Ring of the Rakshasa, the condition for peace.
History|| A-31
4. (b) Bana and Medhatithi are known for their for execution of the Vedic sacri¿cial. "Dzhetisha-
criticism of custom of Sati. In Bana's famous novel Vedanga" preserved in the revised and corrected,
Kadambari (Kadambari. is the name of the heroine), which used Rigvediyya-Brahmins Aryabhata the
the hero explains to a young widow, ready to ascend Elder to distinguish him from a 10th-century Indian
the funeral pyre, that Sati is absolutely useless mathematician of the same name, he Àourished in
and without logic: "It is a mistake of stupendous Kusumapura—near Patalipurta (Patna), then the
magnitude Dharma Shastras which criticize Sati, capital of the Gupta dynasty. Varahamihira, also
e.g. Medhatithi (10th C.): Sati is "non-scriptural" called Varahamira or simply Varaha, was one of the
Sati is not supported by any authoritative law-book. most celebrated scientists in South Asian history,
Other critics of sati belong to the twelfth century having made substantial contributions to virtually all
(170 – 171). The Hindus from Banabhatta a 7th C branches of the arts and sciences. Brahmagupta was
poet to the Shaivatantrika. Medhatithi emphatically the foremost Indian mathematician of his time. He
opposes it. The Shruti literature while it alludes to made advances in astronomy and most importantly
the custom of Sati in the Vedic verses, such as the in number systems including algorithms for square
Rigveda, the references are not unequivocal. roots and the solution of quadratic equations.
7. (c) Srigupta was the founder of Gupta dynasty.
5. (c) The correct match list is:
The Poona copper inscription of Prabhavati
Aryabhatta — Invention of the digit zero.
Gupta describes that Srigupta as the Adhiraja of
Bhaskaracharya — Time taken by the earth to orbit
Gupta dynasty. Portion of northern or central
the sum.
Bengal might have been the home of Guptas then.
Budhayana — Calculation of the value of S (Pi)
Chandragupta-I was the ¿rst ruler of the Gupta
Gyandeva — The game of snakes and ladders
dynasty who assume the title of Maharajadhiraj.
Zero was invented in India by Indian mathematicians
The title Maharajadhiraja itself explains that
dating as early as 5th century. They widely used it
Chandragupta-I was a powerful Gupta king, the
in calculations, astronomy and astrology. Zero was conquests might have been the strong reasons for the
spread by Arabians to the Europe and thereon it was title. It is certain now that Chandragupta was raised
spread all over. The famous Hindu mathematician, by his Lichchhavi connection from the rank of local
Bhaskaracharya, in his treatise Surya Siddhanta, chief to a dignity that justi¿ed him to assume the
calculated the time taken for the earth to orbit the title Maharajadhiraja. Chandragupta-I was the ¿rst
sun to nine decimal places (365.258756484 days). ruler of the Gupta dynasty who assume the title of
Bhaskaracharya rightly calculated the time taken Maharajadhiraja.
by the earth to orbit the sun hundreds of years 8. (c) Samudragupta is also known as ‘Kaviraja-
before the astronomer Smart. His calculations Lichchhavi Dauhitra’. 'Samudragupta was man of
was – Time taken by earth to orbit the sun (5th many sided genius, who put to shame the preceptor
century): 365.258756484 days. The value of PI was of the Lord Gods and Tumburu and Narada and
¿rst calculated by Budhayana, and he explained others by his sharp and polished intellect and Chorla-
the concept of what is known as the Pythagorean skill and musical accomplishment. The Allahabad
Theorem. The game of snakes and ladders is most inscription, composed by the court poet Harisena
popular in almost all houses and across all countries in praise of Samundragupta's spectacular victories,
of the world. The credit for the game should go lists the names of kings and countries defeated by
to the 13th century Marathi saint poet composer the Gupta ruler. During Samudragupta's reign, the
Gyanadev, Jnanadeva , also known as Jnanashwar. Gupta empire became one of the largest in the East.
When the saint invented the game it was called Its Àuence spread and close ties were established
Mokshapat. with many other stages. This assessment made by
6. (c) The correct chronological order is: the court poet of old has considerable inÀuence
Lagadh, Aryabhatta, Varahamihira, Brahamgupta on many modern scholars who tend to idealise
The author of the treatise "Dzhetisha-Vedanga" Samudragupta and described him as did Vincent A.
("Jyotisavedanga"), written between 450 and 350 Smith as (as the Indian Nepoleon) an outstanding
BC. This work is a guide to determine the time individual possessed of remarkable qualities.
9. (b) The correct matched pairs are: Chandragupta was married to Kumaradevi, a
Kshetra — Cultivated land Lichchhavi—the main power in Magadha. With
Khila — Waste land a dowry of the kingdom of Magadha (capital
Aprahata— Forest land Pataliputra) and an alliance with the Lichchhavis,
These are the types of land available in the country Chandragupta set about expanding his power,
at that time. Despite these, there is one more class conquering much of Magadha, Prayaga and Saketa.
called Charagah land, which is used as a Pasteur Samduragupta was not only a warrior but also a great
land. patron of art and literature. The important scholars
10. (c) Kalidasa’s work included: Abhigyan-Shakun- present in his court were Harishena, Vasubandhu
talam, Meghadootam, Malavikagnimitra, Ritusamhara and Asanga. Chandragupta II, the Sun of Power
and Kumarsambhavam. Kalidasa wrote seven (Vikramaditya), ruled until 413. He married his
works. 'Kumarasambhava' and 'Raghuvamsha' daughter Prabhavatigupta to Rudrasena II, the
are his two epic poems. 'Malavikagnimitra', Vakataka king of Deccan, and gained a valuable
'Vikramorvashiya' and 'Abhigyan Shakuntala' are ally. Skandagupta is generally considered the last of
his celebrated plays. A 'Yaksha', who is forced to be the great rulers. He defeated the Pushyamitra threat,
separated from his mistress for a year, sends her a but then was faced with invading Hephthalites or
message. The lady is residing at Alakanagari. 'Go "White Huns", known in India as Indo-Hephthalites
and tell her that I told so', instructs the Yaksha to the or Hunas, from the northwest. He repulsed a Huna
cloud who becomes his messenger. 'Ritusamhara' is attack C. 455. But the expense of the wars drained
a somewhat small-scale poetical creation depicting the empire's resources and contributed to its decline.
the six seasons. However, it is equally appealing. The Skandagupta died in 467 and was succeeded by his
poet here sees beauty in everything. Each different son Narasimhagupta Baladitya.
facet of nature he sees in each of the seasons fascinates 17. (c) The Kumaramatyas were the high of¿cers and
him; it is a romantic sight. the personal staff of the emperor and were appointed
11. (d) Kumargupta-I assumed the title of Mahendra- by the king in the home provinces and possibly paid
ditya, Mahendrasinha and Asvamedha-Mahendra. in cash. Recruitment was not con¿ned to the upper
Kumaragupta I (Mahendraditya) was a ruler of varnas only and several of¿ces came to be combined
the Gupta empire in 415 – 455 CE. Like his father in the hands of the same person, and posts became
and predecessor Chandragupta, Kumaragupta was hereditary.
an able ruler. He retained, intact, the vast empire, A high ranking of¿cial, heard for the ¿rst time in the
which extended from Bengal to Kathiawar and Gupta records was the Sandhivigrahika (the foreign
from the Himalaya to the Narmada. He ruled minister).
ef¿ciently for nearly forty years. However, the last The provinces or divisions called bhuktis were
days of his reign were not good. The Gupta empire governed by Uparikas directly appointed by
was threatened by the rebellion of Pushyamitras the kings. The province was often divided into
of central India and invasion of the White Huns. districts known as Vishayas which were ruled
However, Kumaragupta was successful in defeating by Kumaramatyas, Ayuktas or Vishayapatis. His
both threats and performed Ashvamedha (horse appointment was made by the provincial governors.
sacri¿ce) to celebrate his victory. He issued new
Land revenue was the main source of the state’s
coins with images of Lord Kartikeya.
income besides the ¿nes. In Samudragupta’s
12. (b) The correct chronological order is:
time we hear of an of¿cer Gopasramin working
Chandragupta-I, Samudragupta, Chandragupta-II,
as Akshapataladhikrita whose duty was to enter
Skandagupta
numerous matters in the accounts registers, recover
Ghatotkacha (C. 280–319) CE, had a son royal dues, to check embezzlement and recover
named Chandragupta. In a breakthrough deal, ¿nes.
History|| A-33
He says that Harsha to whom "hosts of feudatories"
Post-Gupta Period offered their homage "through Pulakesin II had his
22. (a) Fa-hien – there was no provision of death joy (Harsha) melted away by fear, with his rows of
sentence. lordly elephants fallen in battle."This inscription
Alberuni — Indian had no sense of history. also indicates that the battle was fought somewhere
Heiun-Tsang — Indian yield more than fairness between the Vindhya and the Rewa (Narmada).
required. Yuan Chang, Yuan Chwang, and Yuen Chwang
Both Fa-hien and Hiuen Tsang had seen several are another names of Huentsangwas a Chinese
stone structures built by Ashoka in Pataliputra. Buddhist monk, scholar, traveller, and translator
These structures were intact when Fa-hien stayed who described the interaction between China and
in the city for three years to learn Sanskrit during India in the early Tang dynasty. Born in what is
399 and 415 AD. Aleruni (973 – 1048 and Firdausi), now Henan province in 602, from boyhood he took
"commissioned" by Mahmud of Ghazni to produce to reading religious books, including the Chinese
his monumental commentary on Indian philosophy classics and the writings of ancient sages.
and culture Kitab ¿ tahqiq ma li'l-hind. "In his search 25. (b) The correct match list is:
for pure knowledge, he is undoubtedly one of the Dynasty Capital
greatest minds in Islamic history." RomilaThapar Chalukya of Gujarat Anhilvad
calls him "perhaps the ¿nest intellect of central Asia Kalachuris of Chedi Tripuri
... His observations on Indian conditions, systems of Parmaras of Malwa Dhara
knowledge, social norms, religion ... are probably Chahmans of Sakambhari Ajmer
the most incisive made by any visitor to India." The Chalukya dynasty was an Indian royal dynasty
23. (d) The correct chronological order is: that ruled large parts of southern and central India
Rashtrakutas of deccan, Banja of Gujar—Pratihara between the 6th and the 12th centuries. During this
dynasty, Hindushahi of Punjab and Kabul, Chalukya period, they ruled as three related yet individual
dynasty of Kalyani. dynasties. The Kalachuris, also known as the
Rashtrakuta dynasty, Hindu dynasty that ruled the Haihayas, were an ancient people known from the
Deccan and neighbouring areas of India from about Epics and Puranas from 249 or 250 AD. Several
755 to 975 CE. Gurjara—Pratihara dynasty, either branches of the Kalachuris were settled in different
of two dynasties of medieval Hindu India. The line parts of northern India. In the later half of sixth
of Harichandra ruled in Mandor, Marwar (Jodhpur, century AD, they ruled over a powerful kingdom
Rajasthan), during the 6th to 9th centuries CE, comprising Gujarat, northern Maharashtra, and
generally with feudatory status. The line of Nagabhata later then some parts of Malwa. The Paramara.
ruled ¿rst at Ujjain and later at Kannauj during the Their ancient capital was Chandrawati, situated 4
8th to 11th centuries. The Chalukya dynasty was miles away from Abu station. This Vansha evolves
a powerful Indian royal dynasty that ruled large out from the Agni Kunda of Yagya on the Abu
parts of southern and central India between the 6th mountain."ParajanMarithiParmar" means "Vansha
and the 12th century CE. During this period, they which defeats the enemy" hence it is called Parmar.
ruled as three related, but individual dynasties. The In 973—1192, Chahmans of Sakambhari (Ajmer –
earliest dynasty, known as the "BadamiChalukyas", Rajasthan)
ruled from their capital Vatapi (modern Badami) 26. (b) The correctly matched pairs are:
from the middle of the 6th century. Pulakesin II Charasadda — Pushkalavati
(609 – 642) CE. After the death of Pulakesin II, the Sirkap — Takshila
eastern Chalukyas became an independent kingdom Nagarjunakonda — Vijaypuri
in the eastern Deccan. Pushkalavati (modern-day Charasadda) is an
24. (c) The authentic sources are Aihole inscription of ancient site situated in Peshawar valley in the
Pulakesin II and Travels of Yuan Chwang.Ravikirti, Khyber Pakhtunkhwa province (formerly NWFP)
the poet, was the panegyric writer of the Aihole of Pakistan. It is located on the banks of Swat river,
inscription of 634 AD. near its junction with Kabul river. Sirkap is the name
of an archaeological site on the bank opposite to the of Kaveripattanam was built by soldiers captured by
city of Takshila, Punjab, Pakistan.The city of Sirkap the great Chola king Karikalan in a raid on Ceylon.
was built by the Greco-Bactrian king Demetrius after During the ¿rst three centuries of the Christian era,
he invaded India around 180 BCE. A city Àourished Kaveripattanam was a prosperous city inhabited by
around 1,800 years ago at Nagarjunakonda, the Hill rich merchants, traders, craftsmen and sailors.
of Nagarjuna. A great religious and educational 29. (a) King Dhanga after living for more than
centre of Brahmanism and Buddhism, one of the hundred years drowned himself in the conÀuence of
names it had then was Vijayapuri, after kingVijaya Ganga and Yamuna. The Candellas, whose kingdom
Satakarni of the Satavahana dynasty. Thereafter a comprised mainly Bundelkhand, were feudatories
capital of the Ikshvaku dynasty (225 – 325 CE), of the Pratiharas. Among the important rulers
it fell into terminal decline after the demise of the was Dhanga (reigned c. 950–1008), who issued a
last Ikshvaku king. A teacher, S Venkataramayya, large number of inscriptions and was generous in
discovered the ruins of the ancient city in 1926. donations to Jain and Hindu temples. The most
27. (b) The correctly matched pairs are: beautiful town was Khajuraho (Kharjurvahaka). It
Madanverma — Chandella was a well-planned and develop town of Chandelas,
Vakpati — Parmara where they decorated most beautiful monuments.
Chandradeva — Gahadavala Still there are many ponds and tanks with temples.
Ascending the throne in about 1130 AD, The most develop fort was Kalinjar and Ajaygarh,
Madanvarman discarded the passive policy of peace those are still decorated with many tanks and ponds,
and fought battles to revive the lost reputation of the and many temple ruins are there.
Chandelas. He was a strong ruler of central Indian 30. (b) The Chola king Kulotunga exempted
territory which included the four strongholds of the from taxes the village granted to Shailendra
Chandelas, viz. Kalinjar, Mahoba, Ajaigarh and Chudamanvihara.The strain in the Chola-Sri Vijaya
Khajuraho. The temples building activity was once relationship caused Rajendra Chola-1 to send a big
again seen in Khajuraho. The Dulhadeo Temple was naval expedition with a large Àeet of ships to south-
constructed during his reign, which ended around east Asia in the year AD 1023. In the year AD 1006,
1163 AD. Yashovarman II succeeded Madanvarman a village called Aanaimangalam closer to this site
but had a very brief reign of two years. Vakpatis was surveyed and donated to upkeep this Vihare
Bruder and Nachfolger Sindhuraja Navasahasanka. from its revenues which were exempted from
The dynastic power became gradually consolidated taxes. In the following years, in AD 1008 Rajaraja
in the period of the ¿rst three rulers: Yashovigraha, Chola con¿rmed on copper plates the earlier grants
Mahichandra, and Chandradeva (c. 1089–1103). By made by him to the "ChulamanipanmaVihare"
the period of Chandradeva, the Gahadavalas had at Nagapattinam and exempted same from taxes.
taken control of Varanasi, Ayodhya, Kannauj, and Kadarm is a village in Talang Rural District,
Indrasthaniyaka (modern Delhi) and had expanded Talang District, Qasr-e Qand County, Sistan and
throughout... Baluchestan province, Iran. At the 2006 census, its
28. (d) Kaveripattanam and Mushiri ports were population was 110, in 21 families.
situated on the east coast of south India. 31. (a) The correct matchlist of authors and Kavyas is:
Kaveripattanam, the chief port of the ancient Authors Kavyas
Chola kingdom, was situated at the mouth of Hemachandra Duyasraya Kavya
Kaveri river. It is today identi¿ed with Puhar, a Jayanka Prithviraja Vijaya
town in the Nagapatainam district of Tamil Nadu. Padmagupta Navasahshank
Kaveripattanam is also known as Kaveripattanam, Charita
and Kaveripattanam.Once the capital of the early Sandhyakara Nandi Ramacharita
Chola rulers, Kaveripattanam has been described Samrat Hemachandra Vikramaditya (also known as
in various Sangam works and also in Ptolemy’s HemuVikramaditya, Raja Vikrama-ditya or simply
Geography and the Periplus of the Erythrean Sea. Hemu) (1501 – 5 November 1556) was a Hindu
According to a Sinhalese source, spacious harbour emperor of north India during the sixteenth century
History|| A-35
AD. The Prithviraj Vijay is a contemporary account of southern and central India between the 6th and
of the 12th century Kingdom of Ajmer ruled by the 12th century CE. Pala dynasty, ruling dynasty
the Chauhan clan. In 1192, outlying portions of in Bihar and Bengal, India, from the 8th to the 12th
the kingdom fell to invading Turks, and the capital centuries. Its founder, Gopala, was a local chieftain
Ajmer later in 1195, but other parts under the who rose to power in the mid-8th century during a
Chauhan Rajaputras continued to resist the invaders period of anarchy.
for more than a century. The text helps to dispel 33. (d) Kachhavaha Krishna-I
many myths from that period, that have developed Rastrakuta Man Singh
in later writings, for example the establishment Parmar Rana Kumbha
of a Su¿ shrine in Ajmer. He was the grandson of Sisodia Bhoja
Pinaka Nandi and the son of Prajapati Nandi, the Sawai Man Singh II of Jaipur on an inspection tour
Sandhi-Vigrahika (minister of peace and war) of the in the Middle East in World War II. The Kachwaha
Pala emperor Ramapala. He wrote the epic poem are a Suryavanshi Rajput clan who ruled a number
Ramacharitam. of kingdoms and princely states in India, such as
32. (d) The correct match list of dynasty and states is: Dhundhar, Alwar, and Maihar, while the largest
Dynasty State and oldest state was Amber, now part of Jaipur.
Kadamba Karnataka The Rashtrakuta dynasty was a prominent ancient
Kharvela Odisha power Àourished in India between the sixth and
Chalukya Gujarat the tenth century AD. During this timeframe, the
Pala Bengal Rashtrakuta empire was spread across a large part of
The Kadamba dynasty (345 – 525 CE) was a the Indian subcontinent. The Parmar dynasty was an
primeval majestic dynasty of Karnataka that ruled early medieval Indian royal house that ruled over the
from Vaijayanti or Banavasi in present day Uttara Malwa region in central India. The most signi¿cant
Kannada district. The decline of the Satavahana ruler was Bhoja I. The Sisodias are Suryavanshi
power in the Deccan was followed by the rule of Rajputs claiming descent from Lord Rama through his
many lesser dynasties like the Chutus, the Abhiras son Lava. They were known as the Ranas of Mewar,
and the Ikshvakus. During the third century AD which was a princely state under the British Raj. The
the Karnataka area, however, emerged out of earliest history of the clan claims that they moved
this political confusion in the following century. from Lahore to Shiv Desh or Chitor in 134 AD. They
Kharavela (193 BCE – after 170 BCE) was the third established themselves as rulers of Mewar in 734 AD,
and greatest emperor of the Mahameghavahana ruling from the fortress of Chittorgarh. They trace their
dynasty of Kalinga (present-day Odisha). The descent from BappaRawal (ruled 1734–1753), eighth
main source of information about Kharavela is ruler of the Guhilot dynasty.
his famous seventeen line rock-cut Hathigumpha 34. (b) Chola kingdom rose in 9th century. It was
inscription in a cave in the Udayagiri hills near Vijayalaya who established it. Other rulers were
Bhubaneswar, Odisha. The Chalukya dynasty was a Aditya-I, Parantaka Chola-I, Rajaraja Chola-I and
powerful Indian royal dynasty that ruled large parts Rajendra Chola.
5 Ancient History
(Miscellaneous)
1. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct 4. Arrange the following Magadha dynasties in the
answer from the codes given below: chronological order:
List-I List-II 1. Nandas 2. Sungas
(Mahajanpada) (Capital) 3. Mauryas 4. Haryanks
A. Matsya 1. Potana Codes:
B. Asmaka 2. Virat (a) 2, 1, 4, 3 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4
C. Anga 3. Champa (c) 1, 3, 4, 2 (d) 4, 1, 3, 2
D. Chedi 4. Shuktimati 5. Consider the following statements:
Codes: 1. Bimbisara had founded Pataliputra
2. Vajji was the ancient name of the north Bihar.
A B C D
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 2 3 4
correct?
(b) 2 1 3 4
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 4 3 2 1 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 3 4 2 1 6. Consider the following statements:
2. Arrange the following Mahajanpadas moving 1. The list of sixteen Mahajanapadas is
from west to east in the correct order: available in Anguttara Nikaya.
1. Avanti 2. Magadha 2. Asmaka Mahajanpada was situated on the
3. Matsya 4. Kosala bank of Godawari.
Codes: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 1 4 3 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 7. Consider the following statements:
answer from the codes given below: 1. Mahapadmananda was the founder of Nanda
List-I List-II dynasty.
(King) (Kingdom) 2. Dhanananda was the contemporary of
A. Pradyota 1. Magadha Alexander the great.
B. Udayana 2. Vatsa Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
C. Prasenjit 3. Avanti (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
D. Ajatshatru 4. Kosala
Codes:
A B C D
List-I List-II
(a) 2 3 1 4 A. Tirukkural 1. Ilangoadigal
(b) 3 2 4 1 B. Shilpadikaram 2. Sattanar
(c) 4 1 3 2 C. Manimakhlai 3. Tolkappiyar
(d) 1 4 2 3 D. Tolkappiyam 4. Tiruvalluvar
History|| A-37
Codes: 13. What made the gana-samgha area a mlecchadesh
A B C D in brahmanical eyes in the post-Vedic period ?
(a) 4 1 2 3 Choose the correct answer from the codes given
(b) 1 4 3 2 below :
(c) 4 1 3 2 (a) Absence of ranking based on varna
(b) Rejection of Vedic rituals
(d) 1 4 2 3
(c) killing of cows
9. Consider the following statements (d) Speaking alien languages
1. The Gandhar art of the Peshawar Valley Codes :
is known for some of the ¿nest sculptures (1) 1 and 2 (2) only 2
made in dark grey schist. (3) 1 and 4 (4) only 3
2. The Kushans were the ¿rst Indian Kings to 14. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the
have portraits of themselves made in their correct answer from the codes given below :
shrines. List ‘A’ List ‘B’
(a) Only 1 is correct 1. Papanika A. The retailer
(b) Only 2 is correct 2. Kraya-vikrayika B. The garland maker
3. Vanija C. The shopkeeper
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
4. Malakara D. The pedlar
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Codes:
10. What is the correct chronological order of the 1 2 3 4
following Greco-Roman authors? (a) A B C D
1. Ktesias 2. Pliny (b) C D B A
3. Strabo 4. Ptolemy (c) A B D C
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) C A D B
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1 15. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the
11. Which of the following statements is/are not correct answer from the codes given below :
correct about Bhakti tradition in South India? List ‘A’ List ‘B’
1. Earliest Bhakti movements in India were led 1. Dasa-karmakara A. Wage-earner
2. Bhataka B. The slaves
by Alvar and Nayanar saints.
3. Ahataka C. Free labour
2. Nalayira Divyaprabandham, frequently 4. Bhritaka D. Those who were
described as Tamil Veda is an anthology of attached to the masters
compositions by the Alvars. Codes:
3. Karaikkal Ammaiyar, women Alvar saints, 1 2 3 4
supported patriarchal norms. (a) A B D C
Select the correct answer using the codes given (b) B A C D
below. (c) B A D C
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (d) A B C D
(c) 3 only (d) 2 only 16. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the
12. Which of the following names are related to the
place now known as Rajgir? Choose the correct 1. divasabhayaga A. Earth-digger
answer from the codes given below : 2. Jattabhayaga B. On contract to
(1) Kushagrapura (2) Kushinagara complete a work in
(3) Girivrajapura (4) Naimisharanya an agreed time
Codes : 3. Uchchattabhayaga C. Engaged for the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) only 3 duration of journey
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 4. Kabbalabhayaga D. daily-wagers
A-38 || Ancient History (Miscellaneous)
Codes: DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-22) : Rread the following
1 2 3 4 instructions carefully:
(a) D C B A Mark (a) if only ‘Assertion’ is correct.
(b) A B C D
Mark (b) if only ‘Reason’ is correct.
(c) D B C A
(d) A C B D Mark (c) if both ‘Assertion’ and ‘Reason’ are correct
17. Match list ‘A’ with list ‘B’ and choose the correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
answer from the codes given below : Mark (d) if both ‘Assertion’ and ‘Reason’ are
List ‘A’ List ‘B’ correct but ‘Reason’ is not the correct explanation of
1. Hiranyabha A. Shravasti ‘Assertion’.
2. Mahakosala B. Kapilavastu 20. Assertion A : The term gahapati was not
3. Prasenjita C. Saketa generally applied to the members
4. Shuddhodana D. Ayodhya
of the kshatriya clans or king’s
Codes:
1 2 3 4 servants.
(a) A B C D Reason R : The kshatriya clans of the
(b) D C A B ganarajyas held the land in
(c) D C B A common and there was no private
(d) C D B A ownership.
18. Match list ‘A’ with list ‘B’ and choose the correct 21. Assertion A : The early guilds were transformed
answer from the codes given below : into jatis.
Reason R : The guilds of artisans resided
1. Anga A. Shuktimati
2. Koshala B. Shravasti in a particular section of a
3. Vajji C. Champa town developing a close-knit
4. Chedi D. Vaishali relationship.
Codes: 22. Assertion A : The idea of territory was
1 2 3 4 strengthened during the post-
(a) C B D A Vedic period.
(b) C A B D Reason R : People now owed allegiance to
(c) C A D B the janapada rather that to the
(d) A D B C
tribe they belonged.
19. The list ‘A’ consists of the names of the four
queens of Bimbisara and the list B, names of 23. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the
their original kingdom. Match them and choose correct answer form the following
the correct answer from the codes given below : List ‘A’ List ‘B’
List ‘A’ List ‘B’ 1. Vatsa A. Shuktimati
1. Kosaladevi A. Madra 2. Chedi B. Kushinagara
2. Chellana B. Videha 3. Malla C. Indraprastha
3. Vasahi C. Lichchavi 4. Kuru D. Kaushambi
4. Khema D. Koshala
Codes:
Codes:
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
(a) A B C D (a) D A B C
(b) D A B C (b) A B C D
(c) D C B A (c) D A C B
(d) D C A B (d) B C D A
History|| A-39
24. Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the ‘B’ consists of their functions. Match them and
correct answer from the codes given below : choose the correct answer from the codes given
List ‘A’ List ‘B’ below:
1. Panchala A. Mathura List ‘A’ List ‘B’
2. Matsya B. Ahichchhatra 1. Asana-prajnapaka A. Referendum
3. Shurasena C. Viratanagara 2. Shalaka-gahapaka B. Whip
4. Assaka D. Potali 3. Ganapuraka C. Seat-betokener
Codes: 4. Ubhahika D. Ballot-collector
1 2 3 4 Codes:
(a) A B C D 1 2 3 4
(b) B A D C (a) C D A B
(c) B C A D (b) A B D C
(d) A C B D (c) C D B A
25. List ‘A’ consists of the technical expressions (d) A B C D
used in the ganarajya type of state and the List
A-40 || Ancient History (Miscellaneous)
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 5. (b) 9. (c) 13. (a) 17. (c) 21. (c) 25. (c)
2. (b) 6. (c) 10. (b) 14. (d) 18. (a) 22. (d)
3. (c) 7. (b) 11. (c) 15. (c) 19. (c) 23. (a)
4. (d) 8. (a) 12. (c) 16. (a) 20. (c) 24. (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Correctly matched pairs are: 3. (c) Correctly matched pairs are:
Matsya — Virat Pradyot — Avanti
Asmaka — Potana Udayana — Vatsa
Anga — Champa Prasenjit — Kosala
Chedi — Suktimati Ajatshatru — Magadha
The main Matsyas under Virata had its capital 5 Pradyot kings ruled for 138 years. Pradyotas
named Viratanagari which is now known as Bairat ruled from Avanti. Their kingdom covered central
in Jaipur district of Rajasthan. Upaplavya was and western India. It was prosperous due to the
another famous city in this kingdom. Asmaka was a
trade with Mesopotamia. Their main sea port was
kingdom among the 16 Mahajanapadas mentioned
Bharoch (Gujarat). 22 Magadha kings ruled for
in the Buddhist texts. All other kingdoms were in
1000 years. Bimbisara was the most remarkable
the north, from Vanga to Gandhara. Some believes
that Asmaka was a colony of the Kambojas, and its king of this dynasty. He extended the boundaries
earlier name was Aswaka. It is believed that there of the Magadha kingdom up to Nepal. He built the
were many Anga kings who ruled different parts of city of Rajgriha (Rajgir in Bihar). Gautam Buddha
Anga kingdom, contemporary to Karna. Champapuri and Mahavir Jain, preached their teachings during
was the capital of Anga ruled by Karna. Magadha his time. His son Ajatshatru conquored Kosal by
(south-west Bihar) king Jarasandha gifted another defeating Prasenajit. (Prasenajit was a decendant
city called Malinipuri, to the Anga king Karna. of Rama. He ruled over Kosal from Shravasti.)
The city called Suktimati is mentioned as the capital Ajatshatru founded the city of Pataliputra
of Chedi. Prominent Chedis during Kurukshetra War (Patna). Udayana also known as Udayanacarya
included Damaghosha, Shishupala, Dhrishtaketu, etc. (Udyanacharya, or "Master Udayana) lived in the
2. (b) Mahajanapadas west to east are Avanti, Matsya, 10th century, in Kariyan village in Mithila, near
Kosala and Magadha. There were many states of the present day Darbhanga, Bihar state, India.
Aryans in North India, around the 6th century BC. 4. (d) In chronological order, Magadha dynasties are
These states were called the 'Mahajanapadas'. There Haryanks, Nandas, Mauryas and Sungas. Haryanka
were sixteen of such Mahajanapadas: Kasi, Kosala, dynasty founded the Magadha empire in 600 BC,
Anga, Magadha, Vajji, Malla, Chedi, Vatsa, Kuru,
whose capital was Rajagriha, later Pataliputra, near
Panchala, Machcha, Surasena, Assaka, Avanti,
the present day Patna. This dynasty lasted until 424
Gandhara and Kamboja.Literally Mahajanapadas
BC, when it was overthrown by the Shishunaga
means 'Great Kingdoms'. Before 'Budhism' rose in
the country, these Àourished in the north western dynasty. The Nanda dynasty was established by
parts of India. Aryans were seen migrating to the an illegitimate son of the king Mahanandin of the
country. As per the Vedic texts, these Aryan tribes previous Shishunaga dynasty. Mahapadma Nanda
were known as the Janas. Later these Vedic Janas died at the age of 88, ruling the bulk of this 100-
merged with Janapadas.Many of these became big year dynasty. Chandragupta Maurya founded the
political bodies. In the Budhist traditions, these Maurya dynasty after overthrowing the reigning
kingdoms came to be known as 'Mahajanapadas'. Nanda king Dhanananda to establish the Maurya
History|| A-41
empire. During this time, most of the subcontinent son of the king Mahanandin of the previous
was united under a single government for the ¿rst Shishunaga dynasty. Mahapadma Nanda died at the
time.The Sunga dynasty was established in 185 BC, age of 88, ruling the bulk of this 100-year dynasty.
about ¿fty years after Ashoka's death, when the king The Nandas were followed by the Maurya dynasty.
Brihadratha, the last of the Mauryan rulers. Dhanananda was the contemporary of Alexander the
5. (b) Pataliputra was founded by Udayin while great. The army of emperor Dhanananda consisted
Rajgriha was founded by Bimbisara. Vajji was the of large number of cavalry, infantry, chariots and
ancient name of north Bihar. The territory of the Vajji elephants. When Alexander the Great invaded India,
Mahajanapada was located on the north of the Ganges the ruler of Magadha empire was Dhana-nanda.
river and extended up to the Terai region of Nepal. On Alexander and his army heard the glory of the army
the west, the Gandak river was probably the boundary of Nanda empire. The Macedonian army was so
between it and the Malla Mahajanapada and possibly frightened that they refused to move ahead to face
also separated it with the Kosala Mahajanapada. On the huge army of Magadha empire.
the east, its territory was probably extended up to 8. (a) Correctly matched pairs are:
the forests along the banks of the rivers, Koshi and Tirukkural — Tiruvalluvar
Mahananda. The capital of this Mahajanapada was Shilpadikaram — Ilangoadigal
Vaishali. Other important towns and villages were Manimekhalai — Shitalai Sattanar
Kundapura or Kundagrama (a suburb of Vaishali), Tolkappiyam — Tolkappiyar
Bhoganagara and Hatthigama.Vajji Sangha (Vajji The Tirukkural is one of the most important
confederation), which consisted of several janapadas, works in the Tamil language. This is reÀected
gramas (villages), gosthas (groups). in some of the other names by which the text is
6. (c) The list of sixteen Mahajanapadas is available known: Tamil Marai (Tamil Vedas); Poyyamozhi
in Anguttara Nikaya. Asmaka Mahajanapada (words that never fail); and Deiva nool (divine
was situated on the bank of river Godavari.The text). Silappatikaram has many references to
Anguttara Nikaya, the fourth division of the Sutta historical events and personalities, although it has
Pitaka, consists of several thousand suttas arranged not been accepted as a reliable source of history
in eleven books (nipatas) according to numerical by many historians because of the inclusion of
content.An excellent modern print translation of many exaggerated events and achievements to the
the complete Anguttara Nikaya is Bhikkhu Bodhi's ancient Tamil kings.Manimekhalai is a Tamil epic,
The Numerical Discourses of the Buddha: A New the sequel to the Shilapaddikaram, which has been
Translation of the Anguttara Nikaya. Some believes dated by various scholars between the second and
that Asmaka was a colony of the Kambojas, and its sixth centuries CE. The Shilapaddikaram, a verse
earlier name was Aswaka. The epic Mahabharata epic, narrates the story of Kovalan and Kannaki, a
mentions that the king of the name Asmaka was the married couple. Tolkappiyam, deals with orthography,
adopted son of Saudasa Alias Kalmashapada a king of phonology, morphology, semantics, prosody and the
Kosala and an Ikshwaku ruler. Asmaka Sumantu was a subject matter of literature.
sage among the sages who assembled in Kurukshetra, 12. (c) Girivrajapura and Kushagrapura are related to
during the last days of Kuru hero Bhishma. the place now known as Rajgir.
7. (b) Mahanandin was the founder of Nand dynasty. 23. (a) These are the dynasties and their capitals.
The Nanda dynasty was established by an illegitimate 24. (c) These are the dynasties and their capitals.
6 Delhi Sultanate
1. Which of the Sultans measured the land for ¿xing 4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
land revenue? answer from codes given below:
1. Alauddin Khilji List-I List-II
2. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq A. Amir Khusro 1. Futuh-us-Salatin
3. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq B. Ziauddin Barani 2. Rehla
4. Sikandar Lodi C. Ibnabatuta 3. Ashika
Select the correct answer from using the codes D. Isami 4. Tarikh-i-Firozshahi
given below: Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
2. Consider the following statements- (c) 3 4 1 2
Assertion (A): Alauddin Khilji built the Sirifort. (d) 4 3 1 2
Reason (R): He wished to safeguard Delhi 5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
from Mangol invasions. answer from the codes given below:
Select the correct answer from the codes given List-I List-II
below: A. Diwani-Mushtakhraj 1. Jalaluddin
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Khilji
explanation of A. B. Diwan-i-Amirkohi 2. Firozshah
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Tughlaq
explanation of A. C. Diwan-i-Khairat 3. Muhammad
(c) A is true but R is false. Tughlaq
(d) A is false but R is true. D. Diwan-i-Wakuf 4. Alauddin Khilji
answer by from codes given below: A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
List-I List-II
(b) 3 4 2 1
A. Alberuni 1. Tabquat-i-Nasiri
(c) 1 2 3 4
B. Hasan Nizami 2. Taj-ul-Masir
(d) 2 1 4 3
C. Minhaj-us-Siraj 3. Tarikh-i-Hind 6. Which one of the following was not a reason for
D. Amir Khusro 4. Tughlaq Nama Balban abandoning the policy of conquest and
Codes: adopting the policy of consolidation?
A B C D (a) Threat of external invasion.
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) Internal revolts
(b) 2 3 1 4 (c) Indian kings willing to throw off the Turkish
(c) 3 1 4 2 rule.
(d) 4 2 3 1 (d) His weak nature
History|| A-43
7. Which of the following is correct? Select the correct answer from the codes given
(a) The ministers during the Sultanate period below:
were appointed and dismissed by the (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Khalifa. explanation of A.
(b) The ministers during the Sultanate period (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
were appointed and dismissed by the Ulema. correct explanation of A.
(c) The ministers during the Sultanate period (c) A is true, but R is false.
were appointed and dismissed by the Qazi. (d) A is false, but R is true.
(d) The ministers during the Sultanate period 11. Consider the following statements:
were appointed and dismissed by the Sultan. 1. Alauddin Khilji styled himself as the second
8. Consider the following statements: Alexander. (Sikandar-i-sani)
Assertion (A): Bahlol’s theory was “ kingship is 2. Jalauddin Khilji was the ¿rst ruler of Delhi
kingship”. Sultanate to put forward the view that
Reason (R): Bahlol respected Afghan tribal kingship should be based on the willing
sentiments. support of the government.
3. Iltutmish was the ¿rst sultan, who requested
and obtained letters of investiture from the
below:
calipha.
4. The token currency tanka introduced by
explanation of A.
Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq was made of
bronze.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) A is true, but R is false. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(d) A is false, but R is true. (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 12. Consider the following:
answer from the codes given below: 1. Tughlaqabad Fort 2. Lodhi Garden
List-I List-II 3. Qutub Minar 4. Fatehpur Sikri
A. Alberuni 1. Tarikh-i-Fakhruddi The correct chronological order in which they
B. Ainul Mulk 2. Khazan-ul-Futuh were built is
Multani (a) 3, 1, 4, 2 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4
C. Amir Khusro 3. Insha-i-Mahru (c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2
D. Fakhre Mudabbir 4. Tarikh-i-Hind 13. Consider the following statements about
Codes: Iltutmish.
A B C D 1. He was the ¿rst sovereign real ruler of the
(a) 1 2 3 4 Sultanate of Delhi.
(b) 4 3 2 1 2. He was the ¿rst Sultan of Delhi to issue
(c) 1 3 2 4 regular currency and declare Delhi as the
(d) 2 1 4 3 capital of his empire.
10. Consider the following statements: 3. He created the Turkish nobility called the
Assertion (A): Balban inscribed coins in the Turkan-i-chalisa.
memory of the deceased Khalifa. Which of the statements given above is/are
Reason (R): The destruction of the Baghdad correct?
Khilafat was the heaviest blow (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
on the muslim power. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
A-44 || Delhi Sultanate
14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) A is true, but R is false.
answer from the codes given below: (d) A is false, but R is true.
List-I List-II 17. Arrange the following programmes of
A. Muftis 1. Intelligence of Mohammad Bin Tughlaq in their chronological
Agents order.
B. Barid 2. Exponder of Law 1. Transfer of capital
C. Kotwal 3. Minister of Incharge 2. Increase of Taxation in Doab
of Army 3. Promulagation of Token Currency
D. Arz-i-mamalik 4. Head of City 4. Khurasan Expedition
Administration Select the correct answer from the codes given
Codes: below:
A B C D Codes:
(a) 2 4 1 2 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 2, 3, 1, and 4 (d) 3, 2, 1, and 4
(c) 2 1 4 3 18. Consider the following statements about the
(d) 4 3 2 1 Qutub Minar:
15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 1. Its radius decreases after each storey.
answer from the codes given below the list: 2. It is a ¿ve storeyed structure.
List-I List-II 3. It was completed by Iltutmish.
A. Qazi-ul-Quzat 1. Revenue and 4. It has characteristics of both Hindu and
Finance Islamic architecture.
B. Muhatsib 2. Army Organization Which of the above statements about Qutub
C. Diwan-i-kul 3. Custodian of Public Minar are correct?
Morals (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
D. Mir Bakshi 4. Administration of (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Justice 19. Consider the following statements:
Codes: 1. The ministers during the Sultanate period
A B C D were appointed and dismissed by the Sultan.
(a) 1 2 3 4 2. Khajain-ul-Futuh dealt with the military
(b) 3 4 2 1 expeditions of Alauddin Khilji.
(c) 4 3 1 2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) 2 1 4 3 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
16. Consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Assertion (A): Alauddin Khilji conquered the 20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
southern states, but did not annex answer from the codes given below:
them. List-I List-II
Reason (R): He wanted to expand his empire A. Alauddin Khilji 1. Agra
but not add to his responsi- B. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq 2. Siri Fort
bilities. C. Feroz Shah Tughlaq 3. Tughlaqabad
Select the correct answer from the codes given D. Sikander Lodi 4. Hissar
below: Codes:
Codes: A B C D
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) 1 2 3 4
explanation of A. (b) 2 1 3 4
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the (c) 2 3 4 1
correct explanation of A. (d) 2 4 3 1
History|| A-45
List-I List-II
Miscellaneous Sultanate Period 6X¿2UGHU 6X¿6DLQWV
A. Qadiriya order 1. Khwaja Nizamuddin
B. Firdausiya order 2. Shaikh Shahabuddin
answer from the codes given below: C. Chishtiya order 3. Shaikh Sharfuddin
List-I List-II Manairi
A. Baba Farid 1. Qadiriya order D. Suharawardia 4. Shaikh Abdul Qadir
B. Shaikh 2. Chishtiya order order Gilani
Hamiduddin Codes:
Nagauri A B C D
C. Miyan Mir 3. Suhrawardiya order (a) 2 4 3 1
D. Shah Waliullah 4. Naqshbandiya order (b) 3 2 4 1
Codes: (c) 1 3 2 4
A B C D (d) 4 3 1 2
(a) 1 2 3 4 25. Select the correct chronological order of following
(b) 2 3 1 4 reformers of the medieval Bhakti movements by
(c) 3 4 2 1 using code given below:
(d) 4 1 2 3 1. Namadeva 2. Vallabhacharya
22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 3. Ramananda 4. Kabir
answer from the codes given below: Codes:
List-I List-II (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
A. Adil Shahi 1. Ahmednagar (c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
B. Nizam Shahi 2. Bijapur 26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
C. Immad Shahi 3. Golkonda answer from codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
D. Qutub Shahi 4. Berar
(Traveller) (Country)
Codes:
A. Barbosa 1. Persian
A B C D
B. Nicolo Conti 2. Italian
(a) 4 1 2 3
C. Abdur Razzaq 3. Russian
(b) 1 4 3 2
D. Nikitin 4. Portuguese
(c) 3 2 4 1 Codes:
(d) 2 1 4 3 A B C D
23. Which two of the following foreign travellers (a) 2 1 3 4
came during the reign of Krishna Deva Raya and (b) 4 3 2 1
were portugueses? (c) 4 2 1 3
1. Nicolo Conti 2. Abdur Razzaq (d) 3 4 1 2
3. Domingo Paes 4. Fernao Nuniz 27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Find the correct answer from the codes given answer from the codes given below:
below: List-I List-II
Codes: (Bhakti Saint) (Profession)
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 A. Namdev 1. Barber
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 B. Kabir 2. Weaver
24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct C. Ravidas 3. Tailor
answer from the codes given below: D. Sena 4. Cobbler
Codes: 32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
A B C D answer from the codes given below:
(a) 2 3 1 4 List-I List-II
(b) 3 2 1 4 (Traveller) (Ruler)
(c) 2 3 4 1 A. Abdur Razzak 1. Achyutadeva Raya
(d) 3 2 4 1 B. Duarte Barbosa 2. Devaraya I
C. Nicolo Conti 3. Devaraya II
28. Arrange the following rulers of Kashmir in a
D. Nuniz 4. Krishnadeva Raya
chronological order: Codes:
1. Avantivarman 2. Didda A B C D
3. Harsha 4. Jayasingh (a) 4 3 2 1
Select the correct chronological order from the (b) 3 4 2 1
codes given below: (c) 3 4 1 2
Codes: (d) 2 1 4 3
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1 33. Which crops were not cultivated in India during
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3 the Sultanate period?
29. What is the correct chronological sequence of the 1. Potato 2. Barley
following saints? 3. Sesame 4. Maize
Select your answer using the codes given below:
1. Ramanuja 2. Shankaracharya
Codes:
3. Shankaradeva 4. Dadu
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 2
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 (c) 1, 4 (d) 3, 4
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4 34. Consider the following statements:
30. Consider the following statements: 1. Guru Nanak was interested in all the major
1. Krishnadeva Raya was known as Andhra forms of contemporary religious beliefs and
Bhoja. practices whether ‘Hindu’ or ‘Muslim’.
2. He authored Amuktamalyada book on polity 2. Guru Nanak was soft on the Jain monks.
in Telugu and also a Sanskrit drama called 3. He considered ritual reading of scriptures as
Jambavati Kalyanam. waste of time.
3. His court was adorned by eight celebrated 4. During the last ¿fteen years of his life Guru
poets called ‘Ashtadiggajas’. Nanak settled at Kiratpur.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
',5(&7,216 (Qs. 35-41) : Read the following
31. Consider the following statements about
statements carefully and answer the questions
Vijaynagar empire. accordingly.
1. The city of Vijaynagar was located on the
(a) Both A and R are true and R correctly explains A.
bank of river Tungabhadra.
2. The Raichur Doab, the permanent bone (b) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
of contention between the kingdoms of
(d) A is false but R is true.
Vijaynagar and Bahmani was the region
35. Assertion (A) : The Turks brought the
between the rivers Krishna and Tungabhadra. technique of constructing the
Which of the statements given above is/are true arch on a massive scale.
correct? Reason (R) : The Turks introduced into India
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only the technique of preparing
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 lime-mortar.
History|| A-47
36. Assertion (A) : Muhammad bin Tughlaq 40. Assertion (A) : Promotion of agriculture was
wanted to punish the peasants. the greatest achievement of
Reason (R) : Muhammad bin Tughlaq raised Firoz Shah Tughlaq’s reign.
the tax in the Doab region. Reason (R) : Iqtas were assigned on
37. Assertion (A) : Firoz Tughlaq prohibited hereditary basis to the military
Muslim women from and civil of¿cers during Firoz
Shah’s reign.
worshipping at the graves of
41. Assertion (A) : Amir Khusrau for the ¿rst time
the saints.
mentions jauhar in his work.
Reason (R) : Firoz Tughlaq persecuted a Reason (R) : Rani Padmini of Chittor
number of Muslim sects which committed jauhar to save
were considered heretical by herself from disgrace.
the theologians. 42. Match the following :
38. Assertion (A): Sikander Lodi reimposed the (A) Balban (1) reimposed jaziya
Jeziah on the Hindus. (B) Allauddin Khalji (2) Sondhar loans
Reason (R) : Sikander Lodi was an orthodox (C) Muhammad bin (3) sizda and paibos
and a bigoted king. Tughlaq
39. Assertion (A): Muhammad bin Tughlaq (D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (4) sarai-i-adl
changed the capital from Delhi Codes:
(a) A B C D
to Devagiri.
3 2 4 1
Reason (R) : Muhammad Tughlaq needed
(b) A B C D
a place from where he could 2 4 3 1
control the Southern provinces (c) A B C D
better and which was more 3 4 2 1
centrally located than Delhi. (d) A B C D
2 3 4 1
$16:(5.(<
1. (c) 6. (d) 11. (d) 16. (d) 21. (b) 26. (c) 31. (c) 36. (d) 41. (c)
2. (a) 7. (d) 12. (b) 17. (c) 22. (d) 27. (d) 32. (b) 37. (b) 42. (c)
3. (a) 8. (a) 13. (d) 18. (d) 23. (d) 28. (a) 33. (c) 38. (a)
4. (b) 9. (b) 14. (c) 19. (a) 24. (d) 29. (d) 34. (b) 39 (a)
5. (a) 10. (b) 15. (c) 20. (c) 25. (c) 30. (d) 35. (a) 40. (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) The sultans who measured the land for ¿xing 3. (a) Alberuni wrote the Tarikh-i-Hind. Hasan
land revenue were Alauddin Khalji, Ghiyasuddin Nizami wrote the Taj-ul-Masir. Minhaj-us-Siraj had
Tughlaq and Muhammad bin Tughlaq. There were written the Tabquat-i-Nasiri. Amir Khusro wrote
four categories of land. The ¿rst was the iqta. the Tughlaq Nama. One such scholar was Alberuni
For the purpose of administration and revenue (973-1048; another was Firdausi), "commissioned"
collection, the state was parceled out into tracts by Mahmud of Ghazni to produce his monumental
called iqtas under iqtadars on muqtis. Three types commentary on Indian philosophy and culture Kitab
of land revenues were levied from the farmers. ¿ tahqiq ma li'l-hind. Khwaja Hasan Nizami (1879-
Kharaj-e-Jiziya, Charai and Ghari. He got the whole 1955), a learned Su¿ and a proli¿c writer, Nizami
land measured and then ¿xed the share of the state hailed from a family of hereditary custodians of the
on the basis of a pattern called Vishva. According shine of the renowned and widely-venerated Chishti
to Barni, Charai was levied from cows and other mystic, Khwaja Nizamuddin Auliya in Delhi.
milchy animals. Farishta states that a pair of oxen, "Tabaqat-i-Nasiri" of Minhaj Uddin us Siraj is of
a pair of buffaloes, two cows and ten goats were immense importance to know about the history of
free from the tax-net. In addition, Ghari was a less this region. A Su¿ mystic and a spiritual disciple of
important tax which was levied from time to time on Nizamuddin Auliya of Delhi, Amir Khusro was not
some special occasions. only a notable poet but also a proli¿c and seminal
2. (a) Alauddin Khalji built the Siri Fort, because he musician. He wrote poetry primarily in Persian, but
wished to safeguard Delhi from Mangol invasions. also in Hindavi.
Siri was built by Sultan Alauddin Khilji (ruled 4. (b) Amir Khusro had composed the Ashika
1296-1316 AD), one of the most eminent rulers of Ziauddin Baruani composed the Tarikh-i-Firoz-
the Khilji Dynasty. Alauddin was a militaristic ruler, shahi. Ibnbatuta composed the Rehla. Islami
never the one to shy away from wars and almost composed the Futuh-us-salatin. Amir Khusro also
always victorious in the battle¿eld. He subjugated compiled the Khazainul Futuh, devoted to the
most of India and brought parts of Bengal, Deccan achievements of Alauddin Khalji. Khusro also
and Odisha under the control of Delhi Sultanate. composed ¿ve historical masnavis (poems) in each
Besides being a competent general, Alauddin was of which historical events are described. Ibn Battuta
also a con¿dent man whose ambitions knew no was born into a family of Islamic legal scholars in
bounds – early in his life he wanted to start a religion Tangier, Morocco, on February 25, 1304, during
in his own name and spread it by the strength of the reign of the Marinid dynasty. Sultan Firoz Shah
his sword, infused with his numerous victories Tughluq was the Sultan of Delhi from 1351 to 1388.
he disregarded Allah and he proclaimed that his At his succession after the death of Muhammad
authority to rule superseded the priest’s sermons Tughlaq, he faced many rebellions, including
and the religious command. Bengal, Gujarat and Warangal.
History|| A-49
5. (a) Diwan-i-Mushtakhraj was established by kingship strongly reÀected the tribal set-up of
Alauddin Khilji. Diwan-i-Amirkohi was established the frontier people. For instance, the army of the
by Muhaammad Tughlaq. Diwan-i-Khairat was sultanate changed from a king’s army to a sort of
established by Jalaluddin Khilji. State and the locally recruited tribal units. It was not centrally
peasants can be traced to the era of Turko-Afghan recruited, maintained or even administered, and
rule in India, around 1300 AD when Diwani-i-Amir hence lacked uniformity. The privilege of using
Kohi (Department of Agriculture during the reign elephants, which was earlier reserved for sultans
of Sultan Muhammad Bin Tughlug) and Diwan-i- came to be commonly practised by nobles, who
Mushtakhraj (i.e. Department of Land Revenues) kept and fought on elephants. It was also during
established during the rule of Ala-ud-din Khilji this period that the hub of power began to gradually
were. The Khilji ruler divided the property rights drift towards Agra; from where it was found that
tenure into three classes. The ruler also collected regions of both Doab and Marwar could be better
Khiraj or land tax from the Hindu chiefs. The state administered.
demanded 50 of the gross produce of lands (as the 9. (b) Tarikh-i-Hind was written by Alberuni Insha-
rate of revenue) and maintained price control on all i-Mahru was written by Ainul Mulk Multani.
kinds of agricultural produce. Khazinat-ul-Futuh was written by Amir Khusrav.
6. (d) His weak nature was not a reason for Balban
Tarikh-i-Fakhurddin Mubarakshahi was written by
abandoning the policy of conquest and adopting
Fakhre Mudabbir. Al-Biruni wrote an encyclopedic
the policy of consolidation. Ghiasuddin Balban
work on India called “Tarikh Al-Hind” (History of
is the greatest Sultan of the Slave dynasty and an
India) in which he explored nearly every aspect of
extremely shrewd military chief. He belonged to
Indian life, including religion, history, geography,
the Ilbari tribe of a well-to-do Turk family. But
geology, science, and mathematics. Amir Khusro
unfortunately he was captured by the Mongols and
wrote a short auto-biographical Masnavi called
sold to Khwajah Jamal-ud-din Basri in Baghdad and
later brought to Delhi by Iltutmish, who purchased "Shah Name mun" of Alauddin’s life. Khusro in
him as a slave. Balban, well aware of Bengal affairs his book "Khazinat-ul-Futuh" (the treasures of
and the activities of its governors, was determined victory) recorded Alauddin’s construction works,
to curb their power and keep them under control. wars, peace and security, administrative services.
With his end in view, the sultan appointed his Ibn Battuta writes that Sultan Qutbuddin Mubarak
trusted and tried slave Tughral as a deputy of Amin Shah Khilji (1316-1320) used to encourage Hindus
Khan, governor of Bengal. to accept Islam by presenting a convert with a robe
7. (d) The ministers during the sultanate period of honour and a gold ornament.
were appointed and dismissed by the Sultan. 10. (b) Both the given statements are true but R is
There was no council of ministers. The Sultans not the correct explanation of A. Since Sultan
often appointed and dismissed the ministers at his Nasiruddin did not have male heir, after his death,
own sweet will. The Sultan had a large number of Balban declared himself the Sultan of Delhi. Balban
non-of¿cial advisers. This circle of advisors was ascended the throne in 1266 at the age of sixty
known as Majlis–i–Khalwat. They consisted of with the title of Sultan Ghyasuddin Balban.The
the Sultan’s personal friends, trusted of¿cials and nefarious idea behind this strategy was to destroy
ulemas. Though the Sultan was not bound to accept all the legitimate and legal claimants or successors
their advices yet often they exerted great inÀuence to this of¿ce of Khalifa from the blood of the Holy
on him.Very often, only one man was appointed to Prophet. But this was not to be, as the blood-heritage
carry on the works of both the departments of the of the Holy Prophet did survive even after this, by
religious endowment and charity and the department the grace of God. Many Muslim saints were born of
of justice. this sacred heritage to carry on the torch of Islam in
8. (a) Bahlol’s theory was “ Kingship is Kingship” the world and Hazrat Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti of
because Behlol respected Afghan tribal sentiments. Ajmer was one of them to play such a glorious role
The Lodis were Afghans and the character of their in preaching Islam.
11. (d) All the given statements regarding the sultan of incharge of Army. The barid-i-mumalik was the
of Delhi are correct. Alauddin Khilji was the sultan head of the central of¿ce, and his agents sent in
of Delhi He ruled for about twenty years from reports from all over the country. This system was of
1296 to 1316. Jalaluddin Firoz Khilji (died 20 July great importance in controlling local governments.
1296) was the ¿rst sultan of the Khilji dynasty, Kotwals often controlled the fort of a major town or
who reigned from 1290 to 1296. Born and raised an area of smaller towns on behalf of another ruler.
in Afghanistan, Jalaluddin went to build his capital It was similar in function to a British India Zaildar.
at Kilughari, a few miles from the city of Delhi, During his time the army was directly recruited by
and completed the un¿nished palace and gardens the army minister (ariz— mamalik). It was paid in
of Sultan Qaiqabad.Iltutmish belonged to the slave cash form the royal treasury.
dynasty and succeeded to the throne after Qutub-ud- 15. (c) Khan Bahadur Salamatullah Khan was
din-Aibak. He was one of the leading rulers of the preceded by his father Maulvi Qazi Sana’atullah,
Delhi Sultanate and played a key role in extending who was the son of Qazi Amanatullah. The latter’s
the empire to a large part of the country. Muhammad father was Qazi-ul-Quzat (Chief Justice) Baqaullah
bin Tughluq was the Turkic Sultan of Delhi from Khan (late 18th century AD). A mutasib was a
1325 to 1351. supervisor of bazaars and trade in the medieval
12. (b) The correct chronological order is Qutub Islamic countries. His duty was to ensure that
Minar, Tughlaqabad Fort, Lodhi Garden, Fatehpur public business was conducted in accordance with
Sikri. Qutub Minar in red and buff standstone is the the law of sharia.The Mutasib also inspected public
highest tower in India. It has a diameter of 14.32 m eating houses. He could order pots and pans to be
at the base and about 2.75 m on the top with a height re-tinned or replaced; all vessels and their contents
of 72.5 m. Qutbu'd-Din Aibak laid the foundation of had to be kept covered against Àies and insects. The
Minar in AD 1199. Tughlaqabad Fort is a ruined fort Mir Bakshi was in charge of intelligence gathering,
in Delhi, stretching across 6.5 km, built by Ghiyas- and also made recommendations to the emperor for
ud-din Tughlaq, the founder of Tughlaq dynasty, of military appointments and promotions.
the Delhi Sultanate in 1321. Lodhi Garden was set 16. (d) Alauddin Khilji conquered the Southern
up in between the 15th and 16th centuries by the States, but didn’t collaborate them, because he
Sayyid and Lodhi rulers. The city was founded in wanted to expand his empire but not add to his
1569 by the Mughal Emperor Akbar, and served responsibilities of them. He was a strategist and
as the capital of the Mughal Empire from 1571 to military commander who commanded forces across
1585. the Indian subcontinent. Sultan Ala-ud-din Khilji is
13. (d) Iltutmish was the ¿rst sovereign real ruler of also noted in history for being one of the few rulers
the sultanate of Delhi. He issued regular currency in the world to have repeatedly defended his empire
and declared Delhi the capital of his empire. against Mongol invasions. He defeated large Mongol
He created the Turkan-i-chalisa. He created the armies and then launched punitive expeditions against
Turkan-i-chalisa. Iltutmish, also called Shams al- them in Central Asia, around modern-day Afghanistan
Din Iltutmish, died April 29, 1236. Iltutmish was It was only after a ¿erce battle Malik Kafur was able
sold into slavery but married the daughter of his to occupy the Warangal fort and he was able to force
master, Qutab al-Din Aibak, whom he succeeded in the ruler of Warangal to sue for peace, to surrender all
1211. He was a Turk, who belonged to the Ilbari their treasures, and to promise an annual tribute.
tribe. Iltutmish’s eldest son died before he died, 17. (c) The correct chronological order of mohammad
and his other sons were incompetent. He gave Bin Tughlaq’s programme is; increase of taxation
an excellent education to his daughter Raziyya in Doab, promulagation of token currency, transfer
(Raziyyat al-Din) and desired that she should of capital, Khurasan expedition. During his reign,
succeed him. Tughluq imposed heavy tax in the land between the
14. (c) Muftis were exponder of law. Barid were Ganga and the Yamuna rivers. Muhammad took
Agents of intelligence. Kotwal were the head of city a very modern step in introducing bronze coins
administration. Arz-i-mamalik were the minister as the token currency. Nevertheless, the absence
History|| A-51
of a central mint created a huge problem as the
Government was not able to prevent forgery of coins. Miscellaneous Sultanate Period
He transferred his capital in 1327 to Deogir (now
21. (b) Baba Farid founded chishtiya order. Shaikh
Daulatabad). The Sultan had a vision of universal Hamiduddin Nagauri founded Suhrawardiya order.
conquest. He decided to conquest Khurasan and Miyan Mir founded Qadiriya order. Shah Waliullah
Iraq and mobilized a huge army for the purpose. But founded Naqsh bandiya order. Baba Farid (1173–
his expedition proved a failure. 1266) was a Punjabi poet and saint of the Chishti
18. (d) Regarding the Qutub Minar its radius decreases order of Su¿sm. He is among the ¿rst known
after each storey it’s a ¿ve storeyed structure. It Punjabi poets. He is also one of the ¿fteen Sikh
has a diameter of 14.32 m at the base and about Bhagats within Sikhism and his selected works
2.75 m on the top with a height of 72.5 m. It consists are included in the Guru Granth Sahib. Mian Mir,
of a rectangular courtyard enclosed by cloisters, was a famous Su¿ saint who resided in Lahore,
erected with the carved columns and architectural speci¿cally in the town of Dharampura (in present-
members of 27 Hindu and Jaina temples which day Pakistan). He was a direct descendant of Caliph
were demolished by Qutubd-Din Aibak as recorded Umar ibn al-Khattab. He belonged to the Qadiri
in his inscription on the main eastern entrance. order of Su¿sm. Abu'l-Fazl, Abu'l Fadl and Abu'l-
Qutab-ud-din Aibak, the ¿rst Muslim ruler of Delhi, Fadl 'Allami (January 14, 1551 – August 12, 1602)
commenced the construction of the Qutub Minar in was the vizier of the great Mughal emperor Akbar,
1200 AD, but could only ¿nish the basement. His and author of the Akbarnama, the of¿cial history of
successor, Iltutmush, added three more storeys, and Akbar's reign in three volumes.
in 1368, Firoz Shah Tughlak constructed the ¿fth 22. (d) Adil Shahi belongs to Bijapur. Nizamshahi
and the last storey. belongs to Ahmednagar. Immad shahi belongs to
19. (a) All important of¿cers of the state were Berar region. Qutub Shahi belongs to Golkunda.
appointed by him in the name of the Sultan. He The Adil Shahi or Adilshahi, was a Shia Muslim
used to hear complaints against all of¿cials of the dynasty that ruled the Sultanate of Bijapur in the
administration. During the illness or absence of the Western area of the Deccan region of Southern India
Sultan or when he was a minor, the Wazir acted for from 1490 to 1686. Bijapur had been a province of
the king.Khusro in his book "Khazinatul-Futuh" the Bahmani Sultanate (1347–1518). The territory
(the treasures of victory) recorded Alauddin’s of the sultanate of Ahmednagar was located in
construction works, wars, peace and security, the northwestern Deccan, between the sultanates
administrative services. Further in another poetical of Gujarat and Bijapur. Initially his capital was in
work Masnavi "Matta-ul-Anwaar" (Fountain of Junnar. The Qutub Shahi rulers were great builders,
light) consisted of 3310 verses (completed in 15 which included the Char Minar, as well as patrons
days) had the theme of "Love of God". The second of learning. Quli Qutb Mulk's court became a haven
masnavi, "Shireen" consisted of 4000 verses. The for Persian culture and literature.
third Masnavi "Laila Majnu" story of Laila and 23. (d) Domingo paes and Numiz were portuguese
Majnu and their romance. travellers came during the reign of Krishna
20. (c) Alauddin Khilji built the Siri Fort. Deva Raya. Domingos Paes (16th century) was a
Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq established Tughlaqa-bad. Portuguese traveller who visited the Vijayanagara
Feroz Shah Tughlaq established Hiaar. Sikander Empire around the year 1520. His account of
Lodi established the Agra city. Siri Fort, in the city Hampi, the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire is
of New Delhi, was built during the rule of Ala-ud- of the most detailed of all historic narrations on
Din Khalji of the Delhi Sultanate to defend the city this ancient city. He visited the city during the rule
from the onslaught of the Mongols. Tughlaqabad of King Krishna Deva Raya. Fernao Nuniz, was a
Fort is a ruined fort in Delhi, stretching across 6.5 Portuguese traveller, chronicler and horse trader
km, built by Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq, the founder who spent three years in Vijayanagara, capital of
of Tughlaq dynasty, of the Delhi Sultanate of India the Vijayanagara Empire in the time period 1535-
in 1321, as he established the ¿fth historic city of 1537 CE. His writings have brought to light many
Delhi, which was later abandoned in 1327. interesting details about Vijayanagara at that time.
24. (d) Shaikh Abdul Qadir Jilani belongs to Qadiriya 27. (d) Namdev was a tailor. Kabir was a weaver.
order. Shaikh Sharfuddin Manairi belongs to Ravidas was a cobbler. Sena was a barber. Namdev
Firdausiya order. Khwaja Nizamuddin belongs to of Maharashtra was a saint of medieval India.
Chishtiya order. Shaikh Shahbuddin belongs to He was not a servant of Lord Krishna, but His
Suharawardia order. Su¿ turuq orders may trace companion. Namdev was an Amsa (part) of Lord
many of their original precepts from the Islamic Krishna. Kabir (also Kabira) was a mystic poet and
Prophet Muhammad through his cousin and son- saint, whose writings have greatly inÀuenced the
in-law Ali ibn Abi Talib, with the notable exception Bhakti movement. The name Kabir comes from
of the Naqshbandi who trace their origins through Arabic al-Kabir which means 'The Great' – the
the ¿rst Caliph, Abu Bakr. Prominent orders include 37th name of God in Islam. Guru Ravidass Ji (also
Ba 'Alawiyya, Chishti, Rifa'i, Khalwati, Mevlevi, Raidas, Rohidas and Ruhidas in eastern India) was
Naqshbandi, Nimatullahi, Oveyssi, Qadiria a North Indian Guru mystic of the bhakti movement
Boutshishia, Qadiriyyah, Qalandariyya, Sarwari who was active in the 15th century CE.
Qadiri, Shadhiliyya and Suhrawardiyya. 28. (a) The correct chronological order of the
25. (c) The correct chronological order of the reformers rulers of Kashmir is;Avantivarman, Didda,
of the medieval Bhakti movements are: Ramananda, Harsha, Jayasinghe.Utpala dynasty founded by
Avantivarman followed the Kakrotas. His successor
Kabir, Namdeva, Vallabhacharya. Bhakti movement
Shankaravarman (885–902 CE) led a successful
in Medieval India is responsible for the many rites
military campaign against Gurjaras in Punjab.
and rituals associated with the worship of God by
Political instability in 10th century made the royal
Hindus, Muslims and Sikhs of Indian subcontinent.
body guards (Tantrins) very powerful in Kashmir.
For example, Kirtan at a Hindu Temple, Qawalli at
Under the Tantrins, civil administration collapsed
a Dargah (by Muslims), and singing of Gurbani at a
and chaos reigned in Kashmir till they were defeated
Gurdwara are all derived from the Bhakti movement
by Chakravarman. Queen Didda, who descended
of medieval India (800-1700). "The word bhakti from the Hindu Shahis of Kabul on her mother's
is derived from Bhakta meaning to serve, honour, side, took over as the ruler in second half of the
revere, love and adore. Bhakti movement in twelfth 10th century. After her death in 1003 CE, the throne
and thirteenth Century included the saints such as passed to Lohara dynasty.
Bhagat Namdev, and Saint Kabir das who insisted 29. (d) The correct chronological sequence of the
on the devotional singing of praises of lord through saints are: Sankarachayra, Ramanuja, Shankaradeva,
their own compositions. Dadu. The earliest exponent of the Bhakti
26. (c) Duarte Barbosa (C. 1480, Lisbon, Portugal – 1 movement was Ramanuja who was appointed the
May 1521, Philippines) was a Portuguese writer and successor of his teacher Yamunamuni. He travelled
Portuguese India of¿cer between 1500 and 1516– all over India and ultimately settled down at
1517, with the post of scrivener in Cannanore factory Srirangam.Namadeva, who Àourished in the ¿rst
and sometimes interpreter of the local language part of the fourteenth century, was a tailor who had
(malayalam). Niccolz de' Conti (1395–1469) was a taken to banditry before he became a saint. Other
Venetian merchant and explorer, born in Chioggia, Nirguna saints were Dadu Dayal, who founded the
who travelled to India and Southeast Asia, and Brahma Sampradaya or Parabrahma Sampradaya,
possibly to Southern China, during the early 15th Malukdasa a follower of Kabir, Sundardasa and
century. Kamal-ud-Din Abdur-Razzaq ibn Ishaq Dharanidasa.
Samarqandi, (1413–1482), was a Uzbek chronicler 30. (d) Krishnadeva Raya was also known as Andhra
and Islamic scholar. He was the ambassador of Shah Bhoja. He authored a book named Amuktamalyada
Rukh, the Timurid dynasty ruler of Persia to Calicut, and Jambavati Kalyanam. The group of poets named
India, from January 1442 to January 1445. Afanasy ‘Ashtadiggajas’ in his court. Krishna Deva Raya
Nikitin (died 1472) was a Russian merchant and one was an emperor of the Vijayanagara Empire who
of the ¿rst Europeans to travel to and document his reigned from 1509–1529 CE. He is the third ruler of
visit to India. the Tuluva Dynasty. Presiding over the empire at its
History|| A-53
zenith, he is regarded as an icon by many Indians. the Doab between the Ganges and Jamuna. He not
Krishna Deva Raya earned the titles Kannada Rajya only increased the rate of taxation but also revived
Rama Ramana (lit, "Lord of the Kannada empire"), and created some additional Abwabs or cessess.
Andhra Bhoja and Mooru Rayara Ganda ( "King of Although the share of the state remained half as in
three Kings").The emperor obliged and composed the time of Alauddin, it was ¿xed arbitrarily and not
Amuktamalyada which is one of the most famous on the basis of actual produce.
poetic works in the entire Telugu literature. 39. (a) It appears that the Sultan wanted to make Deogir
31. (c) The Vijaynagar city was located on the second capital so that he might be able to control
bank of river Tungabhadra. The ‘Raichur Doab’ south India better. Deogir was named Daulatabad.
region situated between the rivers of Krishna and However, after a couple of years, Muhammad
Tungabhadra.The Ancient City of Vijayanagar Tughlaq decided to abandon Daulatabad largely
was the urban core of the imperial city and the because he soon found that just as he could not
surrounding principalities of the capital of the control south India from Delhi, he could not control
Vijayanagar empire during the 14th century to 16th North from Daulatabad.
century CE. Notes by foreign travellers such as 40. (b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq was the ¿rst Sultan to impose
Abdur Razzak, the Persian who visited Vijayanagara irrigation tax. But at the same time he dug irrigation
in 1440, mention six forti¿cations before the gates canals and wells. The longest canal was about 200
to the royal palace. The large area between the ¿rst kilometres from Sutlej to Hansi. Another canal was
and third forti¿cations contained agricultural ¿elds, between Yamuna and Hissar. There were about
gardens and residences. 1200 fruit gardens in and around Delhi yielding
32. (b) Abdur Razzak came during the reign of more revenue. The tenor of his policy was very
Devaraya II. Nuniz came during the period of different from that of Muhammad- bin Tughluq. He
Achyutadeva Raya. Abdur Razzaq who was an made the iqtas hereditary. The land assigned to an
ambassador at the court of Deva Raya II says:" This of¿cial could be taken back along with his of¿cial
prince has in his dominions three hundred ports, position prior to Firuz Shah Tughlaq but now they
each of which is equal to Calicut and his territories functioned like hereditary holders.
compromise a space of three months journey. 41. (c) Khusro was born in 1253 A.D. in Patiyala,
All travellers agree that the country was thickly India. His paternal ancestors belonged to the
populated with numerous towns and villages. Abdur nomadic tribe of Hazaras from Transoxiana, who
Razzaq also says:" The country is for the most part crossed the river Indus and migrated to India in
the thirteenth century. Khusro's father served
well cultivated and very fertile. The troops were in
the Sultan of Delhi, Shamsuddin Il-tutmish, in a
number to eleven lakhs." Abdur Razzaq considered
high position, and Amir Khusro was educated in
Vijayanagar to be one of the most splendid cities
theology, Persian and the Quran. From his mother
anywhere in the world which he had seen.
who was of Hindustani origin and from his maternal
36. (d) Ibn Batutah says that Muhamrnad-bin-
grandfather he acquired both, an intimacy with
Tughlaq was disgusted with the population of Delhi
the local languages as well as a rooting in the
and thus wanted to punish them. But most of the
immediate cultural ambience. When his father died,
historians do not agree with Ibn Batutah.The Sultan
Khusro was only eight, he came under the care of
also made an ill-advised ¿nancial experiment in
his maternal grandfather.
7 Mughal Period
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) It put the Mughal transport system on a
answer from the codes given below the lists. sound footing.
List-I List-II (d) The Mansabdars were hereditary of¿cers.
A. Gulbadan 1. Tarikh-i- 4. Consider these two statements:
Begum Mubarakshahi Assertion (A): Akbar constructed the Buland
B. Ishwar Das Nagar 2. Tarikh-i-Shershahi Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri.
C. Yahiya bin Ahmad 3. HumayunNama Reason (R): Akbar desired to commemorate
D. Abbas Khan 4. Futuhat-i-Alamgiri his victory.
Sarwani In the context of these two statements which one
Codes: of the following is correct?
A B C D (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) 1 2 3 4 explanation of A.
(b) 4 3 2 1 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(c) 3 1 4 2 explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) 3 4 1 2
(d) A is false, but R is true.
5. Which of the following was/were written in the
Assertion (A): The Mughal rulers did not accept
time of Akbar?
the overlordship of the Calipha.
1. Humayun Namah
Reason (R): The Calipha was a captive of the
2. Tarikh-i-Shershahi
Egyptian rulers.
3. Akbar-Namah
Select the correct answer from the codes given 4. Muntakhab-ut-Tawarikh
below: Select the correct answer from the codes given
Codes: below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Codes:
explanation of A. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
explanation of A. 6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(c) A is true, but R is false. answer from the codes given below the lists:
(d) A is false, but R is true. List-I List-II
3. Which one of the following is not true about the (Monuments) (Builders)
Mughal Mansabdari System? A. Buland Darwaja, 1. Alauddin Khilji
(a) There were thirty-three (33) divisions of Fatehpur Sikri
mansabdars. B. Alai Darwaja, Delhi 2. Akbar
(b) They (mansabdars) could be assigned C. Moti Masjid, Delhi 3. Shahjahan
‘Mashrut’ or conditional rank. D. Moti Masjid, Agra 4. Aurangazeb
History|| A-55
Codes: 11. Consider the following statements about the
A B C D Mughal Mansabdari System:
(a) 1 2 3 4 1. There were three categories of Mansabdars.
(b) 2 1 4 3 2. They could be given Mashrut or conditional
(c) 1 2 4 3 ranks.
(d) 4 1 3 2 3. The sawar rank could not exceed the zat
7. Arrange the following events of Akbar’s reign in ranks.
the Chronological order: 4. All military and civil of¿cers were granted
1. Uzbeq Rebellion mansabs or ranks.
2. Introduction of Dagh System Which of the above statements are correct?
3. Conquest of Kashmir (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer from the codes given (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Codes: answer from the codes given below:
(c) 3, 2 and 1 (d) 2, 3 and 1
A. February 1658 1. Battle of Dharmat
8. Which were the two distinctive features of the
B. April 1658 2. Battle of Samugarh
architecture of Shahjahan’s reign?
C. June 1658 3. Battle of
1. Use of Marble 2. Cusped arches
3. Simplicity 4. Use of beams Bahadurgarh
Select the correct answer from the codes given D. April 1659 4. Battle of Deorai
below: Codes:
Codes: A B C D
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (a) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 (b) 3 1 2 4
9. Which of the following Mughal emperors (c) 2 1 4 3
dismissed the chief ‘Sadra’ of the empire? (d) 1 3 4 2
1. Akbar 2. Jahangir 13. Consider the following statements regarding duty
3. Shahjahan 4. Aurangzeb of the Muhatsibs.
Select the correct answer from the codes given 1. Check gambling dens and prostitution.
below: 2. Check and interfere in the private life of the
Codes: citizens.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 3. Check weights and measures.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 4. See that intoxicants were not consumed in
10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct public places.
answer from the codes given below: Which of the above statements regarding the duty
List-I List-II of Muhatsibs are correct?
A. Babar 1. Tujuk-i-Jahangiri (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
B. Gulbadan Begum 2. Akbar Nama (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. Abul Fazal 3. Humayun Nama 14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
D. Jahangir 4. Tuzuk-i-Babari answer from the codes given below the lists:
Codes: List-I List-II
A B C D A. Babar 1. Jami Masjid (Sambhal)
(a) 1 2 3 4
B. Humayun 2. Din Panah
(b) 2 1 3 4
C. Akbar 3. Jahangiri Mahal
(c) 4 3 2 1
D. Jahangir 4. Akbar’s Mausoleum
(d) 3 4 1 2
A-56 || Mughal Period
Codes: Select the correct answer using the codes given
A B C D below:
(a) 1 2 3 4 Codes:
(b) 2 1 3 4 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 2 4 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
(d) 1 3 4 2
19. Arrange the following battles of the Mughal
15. Consider the following statements about the
period in chronological order
Ibadat Khana.
1. The Ibadat Khana was established in 1575 1. Battle of Ghagara 2. Battle of Kanauj
AD. 3. Battle of Chausa 4. Battle of Khanwa
2. The religious debates of Ibadat Khana did Select the answer from the codes given below:
play role in the development of religious Codes:
views of Akbar. (a) 4, 3, 1, 2 (b) 4, 1, 2, 3
3. The Ibadat Khana was opened for all (c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1
religious leaders in the later period. 20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 List-I List-II
16. Consider the following statements: (Mughal Ruler) (Place of Tomb)
Assertion (A): Aurangzeb banned music at the A. Babar 1. Lahore
Mughal Court. B. Humayun 2. Sikandara
Reason (R): He had no time for amusement. C. Akbar 3. Kabul
Select the correct answer from the codes given D. Jahangir 4. Delhi
below: Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct A B C D
explanation of A.
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(c) A is true, but R is false. (c) 4 3 2 1
(d) A is false, but R is true. (d) 3 4 2 1
17. Consider the following statements about the 21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Treaty of Chittor answer from the codes given below:
1. Mewar, including Chittor were restored to List-I List-II
the Rana. A. Iqta 1. Maratha
2. Rana had to be personally present at the
B. Jagir 2. Delhi Sultans
Mughal Court.
3. Rana could not repair or re-fortify chittor. C. Amaram 3. Mughals
Which of the above statements is/are correct? D. Mokasa 4. Vijaynagar
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only Codes:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 A B C D
18. Who among the following were Jahangiri (a) 3 2 1 4
painters? (b) 2 3 1 4
1. Abdus Samad 2. Abul Hasan
(c) 2 3 4 1
3. Aqa Riza 4. Mir Sayyad Ali
(d) 3 2 4 1
History|| A-57
22. Arrange the following in chronological order 26. Consider the following statements about Shivaji.
and the ¿nd correct answer from the codes given 1. He was simple and religious in his personal
below: life.
1. Ahilya Bai 2. Durgawati 2. He did not force any Muslim to embrace
3. Padmini 4. Tara Bai Hinduism
Select the correct answer from the codes given 3. He organised Marathas against Mughal
below: empire.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 2, 4, 1
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4
23. Arrange the following Sikh Gurus in chronological (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
order. 27. Consider the following statements about the
1. Guru Ram Das 2. Guru Arjun Dev Treaty of Purandhar.
3. Guru Hargobind 4. Guru Teg Bahadur 1. Shivaji had to surrender 23 out of 35 forts to
Select the correct answer from the codes given the Mughals.
below: 2. Shivaji agreed to send his son shambhaji in
Codes: service of the Mughal Emperor.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 3. Shambhaji was granted a mansab of 5000.
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1 4. Shivaji assisted the mughal commanders
24. Consider the following statements: during the Bijapur expeditions.
1. In Shivaji’s domain Chauth was mainly a
military contribution.
2. Shivaji demanded Sardeshmukhi on the basis (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
of his claim as the hereditary Sardeshmukh (c) 1 and 4` (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
of Maharashtra. 28. Consider the following statements:
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. Balaji Baji Rao was popularly known as
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Nana Saheb.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Nana Pharanabis was called Chanakya of
25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Maratha.
answer from the codes given below: 3. Ramdas was the guru of Shivaji.
List-I List-II Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(Year) (Events) (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
A. 1627 AD. 1. Shivaji crowned himself
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
at Raigarh and assumed
29. Match the names of the books with that of the
tittle of Maharaja
Chhatrapati. authors, and choose your answer using the code
B. 1659 AD. 2. Escape of Shivaji from Agra. given below-
C. 1666 AD. 3. Birth of Shivaji List-I List-II
D. 1674 AD. 4. Afzal Khan was killed (Books) (Authors)
by Shivaji A. Alamgir namah 1. Muitamad Khan
Codes: B. Tabaqat-i Akbari 2. Munshi Mohd.Kazim
A B C D C. Chahar Chaman 3. Chandra Bhan
(a) 2 3 4 1 Brahman
(b) 3 4 2 1 D. Iqbal namah-i 4. Nizamuddin
(c) 3 2 1 4 Jahangiri Ahmad
(d) 1 3 4 2
Codes: 4. Shah Jahan exempted the theologians from
A B C D offering Sijda.
(a) 1 3 4 2 Which of the above statements are not correct?
(b) 3 2 1 4 Codes:
(c) 4 1 2 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) 2 4 3 1 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
30. Match List - I with List-II and select the correct 32. Consider the following statements:
answer using the codes given below. 1. Shivaji could check the Deccan power from
List-I List-II intruding into his Swaraj territory.
6X¿7HUPLQRORJ\ 0HDQLQJ 2. He could plunder Surat in 1664.
A. Futuh 1. Su¿ musical 3. He could withstand the attacks of Shaista
gathering Khan and Mirza Raja Jai Singh.
B. Sama 2. Conversations 4. Bijapur and Golkunda were annexed by
of Su¿ saints the Mughals to undermine the position of
C. Barkat 3. Unasked for Shivaji.
charity Which of the given statements are not correct?
D. Malfuz 4. Spiritual grace Select the correct answer from the codes given
acquired by a below?
Su¿ Codes:
Codes: (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
A B C D (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
(a) 1 3 2 4 33. The Mansabdari system of the Mughals was
(b) 3 1 4 2 a complex system. Its ef¿cient functioning
(c) 3 2 1 4 depended upon:
(d) 4 3 2 1 1. The practice of offering the title of
31. Consider the following statements ‘Mansabdar’ to military personnel only.
1. Shah Jahan discontinued Jharokha darshan 2. Proper functioning of the dagh (branding)
and Tula Dana. system.
2. Shah Jahan refused to grant land to Shanti 3. Proper functioning of the Jagirdari system.
Das, the leading Jain Jeweller and banker of Select the correct answer from the codes given
Ahmedabad to build a resting place for Jain below:
saints. Codes:
3. Shah Jahan banned mixed marriages between (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Hindus and Muslims in Kashmir. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
History|| A-59
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 6. (b) 11. (d) 16. (c) 21. (c) 26. (d) 31. (a)
2. (b) 7. (a) 12. (b) 17. (c) 22. (b) 27. (d) 32. (d)
3. (d) 8. (a) 13. (c) 18. (b) 23. (a) 28. (d) 33. (d)
4. (a) 9. (d) 14. (a) 19. (c) 24. (c) 29. (d)
5. (d) 10. (c) 15. (d) 20. (d) 25. (b) 30. (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Gulbadan Begum composed the Humayun Empire. The mansabdars governed the empire
Nama. Ishwar Das Nagar composed Futuhat-i- and commanded their armies in the emperor's
Alamgiri. Tahiya bin Ahmad composed Tarikh- name. Though they were usually aristocrats, they
i-Mubarakshahi. Abbas Khan sarwani composed did not form a feudal aristocracy, for neither the
Tarikh-i-Shershahi Gulbadan Begum was daughter of¿ces nor the estates that supported them were
of Mughal Emperor Babur, she is the author of hereditary. There were 33 categories of mansabdars.
Humayun Nama, the account of the life of her half- The term is derived from Mansab, meaning 'rank'.
brother, Humayun. Ishwar Das Nagar composed Hence, Mansabdar literally means rank-holder. The
Futuhat-i-Alamgiri which is history of Aurangzeb’s Mansabdars were differentiated by the Zat and the
reign. Sawar Rank. The Zat referred to rank maintained by
2. (b) The Mughal rulers did not accept the the mansabdar and the Sawar referred to the number
overlordship of the Calipha. In 1580, a rebellion of horseman maintained by the mansabdar.
broke out in the eastern part of Akbar's empire, 4. (a) Akbar constructed the Buland Darwaza at
and a number of fatwas, declaring Akbar to be a Fatehpur Sikri, because he desired to commemorate
heretic, were issued by Qazis. Akbar suppressed his victory over Gujarat. A Persian inscription on
the rebellion and handed out severe punishments eastern archway of the Buland Darwaza records
to the Qazis. In order to further strengthen his Akbar's conquest over Uttar Pradesh and the victory
position Akbar issued a mahzar or declaration in Gujarat in 1601.The Buland Darwaza is made
that was signed by all major ulemas in 1579. The of red and buff sandstone, decorated by white and
mahzar asserted that Akbar was the Khalifa of the black marble and towers above the courtyard of the
age, the rank of the Khalifa was higher than that mosque. The total height of the Structure is about
of a Mujtahid, in case of a difference of opinion 54 metres from the ground level. It is a 15-storey
among the Mujtahids, Akbar could select any one high gateway that guards the southern entrance of
opinion and could also issue decrees which did the city of Fatehpur Sikri.
not go against the masses. It is believed that the 5. (d) Humayun Nama, Tarikh-i-Shershahi, Akbar
Mahzar helped in stabilizing the religious situation Nama and Muntakhab-ul-Tawarikh were written
in the empire. It made Akbar very powerful due to in the time of Akbar. Akbar was a great patron
the complete supremacy accorded to the Khalifa by of literature. Humayum Nama was written by
Islam, and also helped him eliminate the religious Gulbadan Begam,Tarikh-i-Shershahi was written
and political inÀuence of the Ottoman Calipha over byTahiya-bin-Ahmad Sirhindi, Akbar-Namah was
his subjects. written by Abul Fazl, and Muntakhab-ul-Tawarikh
3. (d) In the Mughal Mansabdari system, the was written by Mullah Abdul Qadir Bada'uni.
Mansabdars were hereditary of¿cers.Mansabdari 6. (b) Akbar built the Buland Darwaza and Fatehpur
system was the generic term for the military-type Sikri. Alauddin Khilji built the Alai Darwaja of
grading of all imperial of¿cials of the Mughal Delhi. Aurangazeb built the moti masjid of Delhi.
Shahjahan built the moti masjid of Agra.
7. (a) The correct chronological order of the events of emperor. No portion of a mansabdar's property was
Akbar’s reign were; Uzbek Rebellion, introduction hereditary. Senior mansabdars were awarded a jagir
of Dagh System and Conquest of Kashmir. Uzbek rather than a salary.
chiefs broke out in rebellion in 1564, Akbar 12. (b) Battle of Bahadurgarh occured in Feb. 1658.
decisively defeated and routed them in Malwa and Battle of Dharmat happened in April, 1658. Battle of
then Bihar. He pardoned the rebellious leaders, Samugarh happened in June 1658. Battle of Deorai
hoping to conciliate them. But they rebelled again, happened in April, 1659.
so Akbar had to quell their uprising a second time. 13. (c) Regarding the duty of Muhatsibs, they
Ali Shah surrendered immediately to the Mughals, checked gambling dens and prostitution. They
but another of his son, Yaqub, crowned himself as checked weights and measures. They also saw that
king, and led a stubborn resistance to Mughal armies. intoxicants were not consumed in public places.
Finally, in June, 1589, Akbar himself travelled from The Muhatsibs appointed by Aurangzeb failed to
Lahore to Srinagar to receive the surrender of Yaqub improve the lives of the people.
and his rebel forces. 14. (a) Babar — Jami Majid (Sambhal)
8. (a) The two distinctive features of the architecture Humayun — Din Panah
of Shahjahan’s reign were use of Marble and Cusped Akbar — Jhangiri Mahal
arches. Shahjahan left behind a grand legacy of Jahangir — Akbar’s Mausoleum
structures constructed during his reign. He was 15. (d) All the given statements are correct about the
one of the greatest patrons of Islamic architecture. Ibadat Khana. In 1575, Akbar built the Ibadat Khana
Among his constructions are the Taj Mahal, Red ("House of Worship") at Fatehpur Sikri, to which he
Fort, large sections of Agra Fort, the Jama Masjid, the invited theologians, mystics and selected courtiers
Wazir Khan Mosque, the Moti Masjid, the Shalimar renowned for their intellectual achievements and
Gardens, sections of the Lahore Fort, the Jahangir discussed matters of spirituality with them. These
mausoleum— his father's tomb. Use of the double discussions, initially restricted to Muslims but
dome, Cusped Arches, and park-like surroundings later he opened the Ibadat Khana to people of all
were all favourite devices of Shahjahan period religions as well as atheists, resulting in the scope
architect. Symmetry and balance between the parts of the discussions broadening and extending even
of a building were always stressed, as was delicate into areas such as the validity of the Quran and the
ornamental detail. White marble was a favoured nature of God. His interaction with various religious
building material. theologians had convinced him that despite their
9. (d) Akbar and Aurangzeb were the Mughal differences, all religions had several good practices,
emperors who dismissed the chiefs ‘Sardars’ of the which he sought to combine into a new religious
empire. movement known as Din-i-Ilahi.
10. (c) Turuk-i-Babri was composed by Babar. 16. (c) Aurangzeb banned music at the Mughal Court.
Humayun Nama was composed by Gulbadan Aurangzeb was titled as Alamgir (Conquerer of
Begum. Akbarnama was composed by Abul Fazal the Universe). He was also known as Zinda Pir
while Tujuk-i-Jahangiri was composed by Jahangir. (the living saint). As emperor, Aurangzeb enforced
11. (d) All the given statements are correct about morals and banned the consumption, usage and
the Mughal Mansabdari system. Akbar introduced practices of alcoholism, gambling, castration,
Mansabdari system which was common to both servitude, eunuchs, music, nautch and narcotics in
the military and the civil department. Mansabdar the Mughal Empire.
was referred to as the of¿cial, rank, or the dignity. 17. (c) Regarding the treaty of Chittor Mewar
The Mansabdars were differentiated by the Zat including Chittor was restored to the Rana. The
and the Sawar Rank. There was three categories treaty between Amar Singh and Mughal King
of mansabdar according to the number of Zats an Jahangir had some obligations that fort of Chittor
sawars. Mansabdars were also categorized according would not be repaired and Mewar would have to
to their rank into Amir, Amiral Kabir and Amir-al keep a contingent of 1000 horse in the Mughal
Umara. Appointment, promotion, suspension or service. Besides Amar Singh would not have to be
dismissal of mansabdars rested entirely with the present at any of the Mughal Darbars.
History|| A-61
18. (b) Abul Hasan and Aqa Riza were the Jahangiri parents, Hari Das and Anup Devi of Lahore. Known
painters. Jehangir encouraged artists to paint as Jetha meaning the ¿rst born, he was a handsome
portraits and court scenes. His most talented portrait young man. Guru Arjan was the youngest son of
painters were Abul Hasan and Bishan Das. Bahadur Guru Ram Das and Mata Bhani. He was born at
Shah I (1707-1712 AD.) also tried to restore the Goindwal on April 15, 1563. In 1579 Guru Arjan
court patronize of paintings. was eventually married to Ganga Devi, daughter
19. (c) The correct chronological order of the Battles of Krishan Chand in 1579. Guru Har Gobind ji
are: Battle of Khanwa (17 March 1527), Battle of (5 July 1595-19 March 1644) was the sixth of the
Ghagra (6 may, 1529), Battle of Chausa (1539), Ten Gurus of Sikhism. He became Guru on 11 June
Battle of Kanauj (1540). 1606 following in the footsteps of his father Guru
20. (d) Babar’s tomb is in Kabul. Humayun’s tomb Arjan Dev ji. Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji (April 18,
placed in Delhi. Akbar’s tomb placed in Sikandara. 1621 - November 24, 1675) was the ninth of the
Jahangir’s tomb placed in Lahore. Ten Gurus of Sikhism, becoming Guru on Saturday,
21. (c) Iqta was introduced by Delhi Sultans while 16 April 1664 following in the footsteps of his
Jagir was introduced by Mughals. Amaram was grand-nephew, Guru Har Krishan.
introduced by Vijaynagar empire. Mokasa was 24. (c) In Shivaji’s domain chauth was mainly a military
introduced by Maratha. ‘Iqta’ is an Arabic word, contribution. Shivaji demanded Sardeshmukhi on the
which became a tool of administration in Islamicate basis of his claim as the hereditary sardeshmukh of
tradtions. The land pieces assigned to military chiefs Maharashtra. Shivaji ¿rst demanded chauth in 1665
were called as Amaram during Vijayanagar empire. and the Deccan sultanates of Bijapur and Golconda
Two-thirds of the collections however remained began to pay him a combined sum of 800,000 after
with the Maratha sardars who collected the taxes he was made a raja by Aurangzeb in 1668. In 1719,
and they used it for maintaining their troops for the the Mughal emperor granted Shahu the chauth and
chhatrapati. This part of the levy was called mokasa. sardeshmukhi rights over the six Deccan provinces
The chauth along with sardeshmukhi levies ensured in exchange for his maintaining a contingent of
a steady and large stream of income for the Marathas 15,000 troops for the emperor. The revenues from
and helped them expand their armies beyond the chauth were in turn divided into four parts that went
swarajya territories of Shivaji. to various functionaries of the Maratha empire.
22. (b) The correct chronological order is; padmini, 25. (b) Birth of Shivaji (1627 AD.), Afzal Khan was
Durgawati, Tara Bai, Ahilya Bai. Rani Padmini killed by Shivaji (1659 AD.), Escape of Shivaji
(Padmavati) (died 1303 CE), the wife of King Rawal from Agra (1666 AD.), Shivaji crowned himself at
Ratan Singh and the daughter of the contemporary Raigarh and assumed tittle of Maharaja Chhatrapati
Sinhala king was the queen of Chittor. She features (1674 AD.). Shivaji's life and achievements were
in Padmavat, an epic poem written by Malik such as to thoroughly justify Carlyle's "Great Man
Muhammad Jayasi in 1540 CE. Rani Durgavati Theory". Before Shivaji, the scene in Maharashtra
maravi (October 5, 1524 – June 24, 1564) was born was of sadness, helplessness, suffering and
in the family of famous Rajput Chandel Emperor humiliation at the hands of the Muslim powers.
Keerat Rai. She is acclaimed for her role in keeping This is best described in the words of Sabhasad, a
alive the resistance against Mughal occupation of contemporary observer and the author of Sabhasad
Maratha territories after the death of her husband in Bhakhara .
1700. Maharani Ahilya Bai Holkar (31 May 1725 26. (d) Shivaji was simple and religious in his personal
– 13 August 1795), was the Holkar Queen of the life. He did not force any Muslim to embrance
Maratha ruled Malwa kingdom, India. Rajmata Hinduism. He organised Marathas against Mughal
Ahilyabai was born in the village of Chondi in empire. Shivaji Bhonsle, venerated in Maharashtra
Jamkhed, Ahmednagar, Maharashtra. as the father of “the Maratha nation”, was born in
23. (a) The correct chronological order of the Sikh 1627 into a family of Maratha bureaucrats. His
Gurus is; Guru Ram Das, Guru Arjun Dev, Guru father, Shahji, was the jagirdar of the Sultan of
Hargobind, Guru Teg Bahadur. Guru Ram Das was Ahmadnagar in Pune, but he shifted his allegiance
born on September 24, 1534 to simple god-fearing to the Sultan of Bijapur; Shivaji’s mother, Jija
Bai, was devoted to her son, particularly after her Nanasaheb Peshwa (8 December 1720 – 23 June
husband took a second wife. 1761), also known as Balaji Baji Rao, was the son of
27. (d) Regarding the treaty of Purandhar Shivaji Bajirao from his marriage with Kashibai and one of
had to surrender 23 out of 35 forts to the Mughals. the Peshwa of the Maratha Empire. Nana Phadnavis
He agreed to send his son Shambhaji in service of (February 12, 1742 – March 13, 1800), born Balaji
the Mughal. Shambhaji granted a mansab of 5000. Janardan Bhanu, was an inÀuential minister and
Shivaji also assisted the mughal commanders statesman of the Maratha Empire during the Peshwa
during the Bijapur expeditions. On 11th June 1665, administration in Pune. Samarth Swami Ramdas
Mirza Raja Jai Singh received Shivaji at the foot of was a religious guru of Shivaji.
the Purandar fort, then being besieged by him, the 31. (a) During the beginning of his rule, Shahjahan
fall was imminent. Shivaji now agreed to conclude used to favour Islam, but as the time rolled by he
the famous treaty of Purandar (12-13 June 1665). became tolerant to other religions, and he kept
He had to give up his forts at Purandar, Rudramal, continue the ‘Jharokha Darshan’ ‘Tuladaan’ and
Kondhana, Khandagla, Lohagad, Isagad, Tung, Tilak on the forehead of the Hindu Kings. He
Tikona, Rohida, Nardurga, Mahuli, Bhandardurga, donated lands to Shanti Das, a jeweller and banker,
Palaskhol, Rupgad, Bakhtgad, Morabkhan, Manikgad, to construct inns for Jain saints. He also had
Saroopgad, Sakargad, Marakgad, Ankola, Songad, Hindu poets like Pt. Jagannath, Kavindracharya,
and Maangad. Chintamani, and Sunder Das.
28. (d) Balaji Baji Rao was popularly known as Nana 32. (d) Shivaji executed Treaty of Purandhar with Jai
Saheb. Nana pharanabis was called the chankya Singh in 1665 and in 1680 Shivaji expired. Mughals
of Maratha. Ramdas was the guru of Shivaji. won Bijapur in 1686 and Golkunda in 1687.
8 Initial Modern
History
1. Arrange in the correct chronological order the Which of the statements given above is/are
revolt against the British and ¿nd the correct correct?
answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
A. Sanyasi revolt 1. 1855 – 56 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
B. Kol revolt 2. 1760 4. Match the following treaties with the years of
C. Santhal revolt 3. 1921 their conclusion:
A. Treaty of Srirangapatnam 1. 1792
D. Mopala revolt 4. 1831 – 32
B. Treaty of Sangoli 2. 1806
Codes: C. Treaty of Mangalore 3. 1816
A B C D D. Treaty of Rajghat 4. 1784
(a) 2 4 1 3 Find the correct answer from codes given below:
(b) 1 2 3 4 Codes:
(c) 2 1 3 4 A B C D
(d) 3 1 4 2 (a) 3 2 1 4
2. Match the following and choose the correct (b) 2 3 1 4
answer from the codes given below: (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 3 4 2
A. Raja Rammohan 1. Tatva Bodhini
Roy Sabha
B. Devendranath 2. Atmiya Sabha List-I List-II
Tagore A. Lord Bentinck 1. The Partition of
C. Vivekanand 3. Ram Krishna Bengal
Mission B. Lord Dalhousie 2. Local Self-
D. Atmaram 4. Prarthana Samaj Government
Pandurang C. Lord Rippon 3. Abolition of Sati
Codes: Pratha
A B C D D. Lord Curzon 4. Doctrine of Lapse
Codes:
(a) 2 1 3 4
A B C D
(b) 1 2 4 3
(a) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 2 4 1 (c) 2 1 3 4
3. Consider the following statements: (d) 4 3 1 2
1. Robert Clive was the ¿rst Governor General 6. Consider the following statements:
of Bengal. 1. Warren Hastings was the ¿rst Governor
2. William Bentinck was the ¿rst Governor General of India.
General of India. 2. Lord Canning was the ¿rst Viceroy of India.
A-64 || Initial Modern History
Which of the statements given above is/are C. Land alloted to 3. Mahalwari
correct? each peasant
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only with the right to
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 sublet, mortgage,
7. Consider the following landmarks in Indian gift or sell
education: D. Revenue settlements 4. Zamindari System
1. Hindu College, Calcutta made at village
2. University of Calcutta level
3. Adam’s Report Codes:
4. Wood’s Despatch A B C D
The correct chronological order of these land- (a) 1 3 2 4
marks is (b) 1 4 2 3
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 3, 1, 4, 2 (c) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1 (d) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 2 1 3 4
8. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 11. With reference to the entry of European powers
into India, which one of the following statements
is not correct?
List-I List-II
(a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499.
A. 1775 1. First Anglo-Burmese war (b) The English opened their ¿rst factory in
B. 1780 2. First Anglo-Afghan war south India at Masulipatam.
C. 1824 3. First Anglo-Maratha war (c) In eastern India, the English company
D. 1838 4. Second Anglo-Mysore war opened its ¿rst factory in Odisha in 1633.
Codes: (d) Under the leadership of Dupleix, the French
A B C D occupied Madras in 1746.
(a) 4 3 2 1 12. The aim of education as stated by the wood’s
(b) 4 3 1 2 dispatch of 1854 was
(c) 3 4 1 2 (a) The creation of employment opportunities
(d) 3 4 2 1 for native Indians.
9. Give the correct chronological sequence of the (b) The spread of Western Culture in India.
following events by using the codes given below: (c) The promotion of literacy among the people
1. Wood’s Education Despatch using English medium of language.
(d) The introduction of scienti¿c research
2. Macaulay’s Minute on Education
and rationalism in the traditional Indian
3. The Sargent Education Report
education.
4. Hunter Education Commission 13. Which one of the following statements is not
Codes: correct?
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 (a) Ali Mardan Khan introduced the system of
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2 revenue farming in Bengal.
10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (b) Maharaja Ranjit Singh set up modern
answer from the codes given below the lists: foundries to manufacture Cannons at
List-I List-II Lahore.
A. Land alloted 1. Jagirdari System (c) Sawai Jai Singh of Amber had Euclid’s
to big feudal ‘Elements of Geometry’ translated into
landlords Sanskrit.
B. Land alloted 2. Ryotwari System (d) Sultan Tipu of Mysore gave money for the
to revenue farmers construction of the idol of Goddess Sharda
or rent collectors in the Shringeri temple.
History|| A-65
14. Consider the following princely states of the 18. Consider the following statements:
British rule in India: 1. Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar founded the
1. Jhansi 2. Sambhalpur Bethune school at Calcutta with the main
3. Satara 4. Nagpur aim of encouraging education for women.
The correct chronological order in which they 2. Bankimchandra Chattopadhyay was the ¿rst
were annexed by the British is graduate of the Calcutta University.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 3. Raja Rammohan Roy’s campaign against
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4 Sati led to the enactment of a law to ban Sati.
15. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Warren Hastings was the ¿rst Governor correct?
General who established a regular police
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
force in India on the British pattern.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. A Supreme Court was established at Calcutta
by the Regulating Act, 1773. 19. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
3. The Indian Penal Code came into effect in answer from the codes given below:
the year 1860. List-I List-II
Which of the statements given above are (Treaty) (Period)
correct? A. Treaty of Surat 1. 1779
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 B. Treaty of Bargaon 2. 1775
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 C. Treaty of Salbai 3. 1782
16. Which one of the following provisions was not D. Treaty of Purander 4. 1776
made in the Charter Act of 1833? Codes:
(a) The trading activities of the East India A B C D
Company were to be abolished. (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) The designation of the supreme authority (b) 2 1 3 4
was to be changed as the Governor General (c) 2 1 4 3
of India in Council. (d) 4 3 2 1
(c) All law making powers to be conferred on 20. With reference to Ryotwari settlement, consider
Governor General in a Council. the following statements:
(d) An Indian was to be appointed as a law 1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to
member in Governor General’s Council. the Government.
17. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct 2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
answer from the codes given below: 3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before
List-I List-II being taxed.
(Wars) (Period) Which of the statements given above is/are
A. Second Anglo-Sikh war 1. 1814-16 correct?
B. Second Anglo-Maratha war 2. 1890-92 (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
C. Third Anglo-Mysore war 3. 1803-05 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
D. Anglo-Nepal war 4. 1848-49 21. Which of the following statements is/are correct
Codes: regarding to Brahma Samaj?
A B C D 1. It opposed idoltary.
(a) 1 2 3 4 2. It denied the need for a priestly class for
(b) 2 1 4 3 interpreting the religious texts.
(c) 4 3 2 1 3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are
(d) 3 4 1 2 infalliable.
Select the correct answer from the codes given (c) 2 1 3 4
below: (d) 4 3 1 2
Codes: 25. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only matched?
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Father of Civil Service – Lord Cornwallis
22. In British India, the Home Charge was an 2. Father of Police Service – Lord Clive
important part of Drain of wealth. Which of the 3. Father of Judicial Service – Warren Hastings
following funds constituted home charges? Select the correct answer from the codes given
1. Funds used to support the India of¿ce in below:
London. Codes:
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
British personnel engaged in India. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by 26. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
the British. answer from the codes given below:
Select the correct answer from the codes given List-I List-II
below: A. Vernacular Press Act 1. Lord Welleseley
Codes: B. Widow Remarriage 2. Lord Dulhauji
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only Act
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 C. Public Work 3. Lord Litton
23. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct Department
answer from the codes given below: D. Fort William College 4. Lord Canning
List-I List-II Codes:
(Battle) (Period) A B C D
A. Battle of Plassey 1. Jan. 22, 1760 (a) 3 4 1 2
B. Battle of Ambur 2. Oct. 22, 1764 (b) 3 4 2 1
C. Battle of Buxar 3. 1749 (c) 1 2 4 3
D. Battle of Wandiwash 4. Jun. 23, 1757 (d) 2 1 3 4
Codes: 27. Which one of the following statements is not a
A B C D
feature of the Permanent Land Settlement?
(a) 1 2 3 4
(a) It was implemented in Bengal, Bihar and
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 1 3 4 Odisha.
(d) 4 3 2 1 (b) There were three parties in it, viz. the
24. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct Government, Zamindar and the Ryots.
answer from the codes given below: (c) Land revenue was permanently ¿xed by it.
List-I List-II (d) The total amount of the land revenue to be
(States) (Founder) collected was rupees four crores.
A. Maratha 1. Shivaji 28. Which one of the following statements is not
B. Hayderabad 2. Chinkilich Khan correct about the fourth Anglo-Mysore war?
C. Bengal 3. Sayadat Khan (a) Tipu Sultan was killed in the battle ¿eld.
D. Awadh 4. Murshid Kuli Khan (b) A subsidiary alliance was concluded with
Codes: the former Raja of Mysore.
A B C D (c) Rule of Tipu’s successors ended.
(a) 1 2 3 4 (d) Mysore was completely amalgamated in the
(b) 1 2 4 3 British empire.
History|| A-67
29. At the beginning of British rule in India, forti¿ed 33. Arrange the following in the chronological order
factory meant to protect of their rule:
(a) The trading place where of¿cers of the 1. Balaji Vishwanath 2. Balaji Bajirao
company worked. 3. Bajirao I 4. Madhavrao
(b) The centre of manufacturing of goods. Select the correct chronological order using the
(c) The godown where goods were stored for codes given below:
shipment to Europe. Codes:
(d) None of these (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4
30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) 1, 4, 2, 3 (d) 1, 2, 4, 3
answer from the codes given below the lists: 34. Where did Maharaja Jai Singh built observatories?
List-I List-II 1. Delhi 2. Jaipur
A. Mahalwari Settlement 1. Jonathan Duncan 3. Ujjain 4. Varanasi
B. Permanent Settlement 2. Thomas Munro Select the correct answer from the codes given
of Bengal below:
C. Ryotwari Settlement 3. Cornwallis Codes:
D. Permanent Settlement 4. Halt Mackenzie (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
of Banaras (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A B C D answer from the code given below the lists:
(b) 2 4 1 3 A. Barrakpur Mutiny 1. 1806
(c) 3 1 4 2 B. Berhampur Revolt 2. 1824
(d) 4 3 2 1 C. Santhal Revolt 3. 1855
31. Find the correct chronological order of the D. Vellore Mutiny 4. 1857
following events from the codes given below: Codes:
1. Abolition of dual government in Bengal A B C D
2. Treaty of Allahabad (a) 2 4 3 1
3. Battle of Plassey (b) 2 1 4 3
4. Battle of Wandiwash (c) 3 4 2 1
Codes: (d) 1 2 3 4
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1 36. Consider the following statements in regard to
(c) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 4, 1, 3, 2 the modern education in India:
32. Consider the following statements and select the 1. The Christian missionaries played a
correct answer from the codes given below: signi¿cant role in the spread of modern
Assertion (A): The European traders introduced education.
the Hundi system in India. 2. The Christian missionaries supported the
Reason (R): The Hundis were prevalent in religious education.
Mughal India. Which of the statements given above is/are
Codes: correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
explanation of A. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 37. Consider the following statements regarding the
explanation of A. Mahalwari System of land revenue:
(c) A is true, but R is false. 1. It was introduced in the Ganga valley, the
(d) A is false, but R is true. north west provinces, parts of central India
and the Punjab.
2. The revenue settlement under this system Which of the statements given above is/are
was done with landlords or heads of families incorrect?
who collectively claimed to be landlords of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
the village or the estate. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
3. Under this system, the land revenue was 41. Consider the following statements:
determined on permanent basis. 1. Cornwallis established a regular police
force in India to maintain law and order and
Which of the statements given above are
Zamindars were relieved from their police
correct? work.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. Indians were excluded from all the superior
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 posts in the police department during 19th
38. Consider the following statements: century under the British rule.
1. Indian social reformers during 19th century 3. In the beginning, the British police model
prepared primer books of Indian languages. was followed to organize Indian police.
2. Modern and reformist ideas were spread Which of the following statements is/are
among the mass of people in India, primarily
correct?
through English literature.
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
correct? (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 42. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Subsidiary Alliances introduced in India by Lord
39. Consider the following statements in regard to Wellesley.
the event during the rule of Lord Cornwallis as 1. Wellesley followed the policy of the
the Governor General: annexation of the territories of previously
1. He brought in the separation of revenue
subordinated rulers.
administration and civil jurisdiction through
the Cornwallis code. 2. The protected states under the Alliance could
2. He introduced the civil services in India. not employ any European in their service
3. Subsidiary alliance system was started under without the approval of the British.
his rule. 3. The British promised not to interfere in the
Which of the statements given above are internal affairs of the protected states and
correct? they often kept it.
4. Though the armies of the protected states
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
40. Consider the following statements regarding the were remained but they were to be used by
administrative policies of East India Company in the British.
India during 1757 to 1857: Which of the statements given above are
1. The administrative policies remained same correct?
without any major change during this (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
period. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. The main emphasis of the administration
43. Which of the following statements regarding
was placed on the maintenance of law and
order. Permanent Settlement is/are correct?
3. In 1772, the Company ended the dual 1. The Permanent Settlement was introduced
government in Bengal and undertook the in parts of the Madras and Bombay
administration directly. presidencies.
History|| A-69
2. The Permanent Settlement created a new 2. They possessed Mumbai in the beginning
class of landlords with hereditary rights on 3. They had trading settlements at Cochin, Diu
land. and Daman
3. The landlords created by the Permanent 4. The Mughals denied them any trading
Settlement could never be removed under concessions
any circumstance. Select the correct answer using her codes given
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
below: Codes:
Codes: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 48. Given below are two statements, one labelled as
44. Which one among the following was not true Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
about the Kerala king Martanda Verma? Assertion (A): With the acquisition of Diwani
(a) He ruled over Travancore of Bengal the company directly
(b) He subdued the feudatories organised the ‘drain of wealth.
Reason (R): The company began to send to
(c) He gave heavy bribes to the European
England the revenue of Bengal
of¿cers to maintain peace
through what were called
(d) He organized a strong modern army ‘Investment’.
45. Consider the following statements: In the context of the above two statements, which
1. The East India Company for the ¿rst time one of the following is correct?
through the Charter Act of 1813, adopted Codes:
a provision to spend one lakh rupees per (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
annum for the spread of education in India. correct explanation of (A).
2. The Wood's Dispatch of 1854 recommended (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
the establishment of one university each in correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Calcutta, Bombay and Madras on the model
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
of the London University.
Directions (Qs. 49-53) : Consider the following
Which one of the statements given above is/are statements and answer the question that follow :-
correct ? (a) Both A and B are true and R is the correct
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only explanation.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Both A and B are true but R is NOT the correct
46. Which one of the following pairs is correctly explanation of A.
matched ? (c) A is true but R is false.
(a) Lord Cornwallis : Subsidiary Alliance (d) A is false but R is true.
(b) Lord Dalhousie : Permanent Settlement 49. Assertion (A): The revolt of 1857 was
of Bengal reÀective of the general
(c) Lord Lytton : Doctrine of Lapse dissatisfaction of the people of
the affected states with various
(d) Lord Curzon : Partition of Bengal
policies of the British.
47. Which among the following statements are
Reason (R): Talukdars were thus the main
correct with regard to the Portuguese in India? instigators of the revolt.
1. They had the monopoly over the Eastern
trade in the 16th century .
50. Assertion (A): The Kuki revolted against 53. Assertion (A): The Doctrine of Lapse
the recruitment of the coolie was introduced under Lord
labour. Dalhousie.
Reason (R): Recruitment of coolie labour Reason (R): Many native states lost their
further depressed the already suzerainty under Doctrine of
labour shortaged Kuki Lapse and the deposed leaders
community. led the rebels in their region
51. According to the recent researches the Revolt of 54. Arrange the following events in the descending
1857 was caused : order on the basis of the Code given below :
Assertion (A): by greased cartridges. (i) Dar Commission
Reason (R): The main causes were related (ii) J.V.P. Committee
with military, especially the (iii) Creation of Andhra Pradesh
cancellation of the bhatta. (iv) Appointment of the States Reorganisation
52. Assertion (A): The Revolt of 1857 failed Commission
because it did not have the (v) Spliting up of the bi-lingual state of Bombay
support at the all-India level. into Gujarat and Maharashtra.
Reason (R): Large sections of British Indian Codes:
territories lent support to the (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
British. (b) (ii) (iii) (v) (i) (iv)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
(d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (v)
History|| A-71
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 9. (a) 17. (c) 25. (c) 33. (b) 41. (a) 49. (c)
2. (a) 10 (b) 18. (c) 26. (b) 34. (d) 42. (a) 50. (a)
3. (b) 11. (a) 19. (b) 27. (d) 35. (a) 43. (b) 51. (d)
4. (d) 12. (c) 20. (d) 28. (d) 36. (a) 44. (c) 52. (a)
5. (a) 13. (a) 21. (c) 29. (a) 37. (a) 45. (c) 53. (b)
6. (c) 14. (d) 22. (d) 30. (d) 38. (a) 46. (d) 54. (a)
7. (a) 15. (b) 23. (d) 31. (c) 39. (a) 47. (a)
8. (c) 16. (d) 24. (b) 32. (d) 40. (a) 48. (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Sanyasi revolt begins in 1760. Kol revolt 8. (c) First Anglo-Burmese war was fought in 1824.
begins in 1831-32. Santhal revolt begins in 1855- First Anglo-Afghan war was fought in 1838–42.
56 in Bihar. The Mopala revolt uprises in 1921 in First Anglo-Maratha war was fought in 1775–82.
Kerala. Second Anglo-Mysore war was fought in 1780–84.
2. (a) Raja Rammohan Roy founded the Atmiya 9. (a) Macaulay’s minute on education in 1835.
Sabha. Devendranath Tagore founded the Tatva Charles Wood’s despatch in 1854. Hunter
Bodhini Sabha. Vivekanand founded the Ram Commission on India Education in 1882. Sargent’s
Krishna Mission. Atmaram Pandurang founded the plan on Education in 1944.
Prarthana Samaj. 10. (b) The system in which Land alloted to a big
3. (b) Warren Hastings was the ¿rst Governor- landlords was called Jagirdari system. The system
General of Bengal as per the Regulating Act of in which land alloted to revenue farmers of rent
1773. collectors was Zamindari system. The land alloted
4. (d) Treaty of Srirangapatnam held in 1792. Treaty to each peasant with the right to sublet, mortgage
of Sangoli held in 1816. Treaty of Mangalore held transfer was called Ryotwari system. The settlement
in 1784. Treaty of Rajghat held in 1806. made at village level was called Mahalwari system.
5. (a) Abolition of Sati Pratha took place during 11. (a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1510, except
the period of Lord Bentinck in 1928. Doctrine of this statement, all the statements are correct.
Lapse regulated by Lord Dalhousie. Local Self- 12. (c) Wood’s dispatch of 1854 states that the aim of
Government took place during the period of Lord education was the promotion of literacy among the
Rippon. The partition of Bengal announced in 1905 people using English as medium of language.
in the period of Lord Curzon. 13. (a) Murshid Quli Khan introduced the system of
6. (c) Warren Hastings was the ¿rst Governor revenue farming in Bengal.
General of India. Lord Canning was the ¿rst Viceroy 14. (d) These states were annexed by Dalhousie in the
of India. sequence of:
7. (a) Hindu College, Calcutta was established in Satara – 1848, Sambhalpur – 1849,
1817, three Adam’s reports on education in Bengal Jhansi – 1853, Nagpur – 1854
and Bihar in 1835, 1836 and in 1838. Wood’s 15. (b) Cornwallis was the ¿rst Governor General who
dispatch by Charles wood in 1854, Calcutta established a regular force on the British pattern in
university was established in 1857. India.
16. (d) A law member was to be appointed but not 27. (d) The total amount of the land revenue to be
an Indian. First law member appointed under this collected was rupees four crores is not a feature of
Charter Act, 1833 was Lord Macaulay. the permanent land settlement.
17. (c) Second Anglo-Sikh war (1848 – 49) 28. (d) During the fourth Anglo-Mysore war, Mysore
Second Anglo-Maratha war (1803 – 05) was not completely amalgamated in the British
Third Anglo-Mysore war – (1890 – 92) empire.
Anglo-Nepal war – (1814 – 16) 29. (a) At the beginning of British rule in India,
18. (c) John Eliot Bethune was the founding father of forti¿ed factory meant to protect the trading place
Bethune College. Bankimchandra Chattopadhyay where of¿cers of the company worked.
was one of the ¿rst graduate of Calcutta University. 30. (d) Mahalwari settlement belongs to Halt
Raja Rammohan Roy’s campaign against Sati led to Mackenzie, permanent settlement of Bengal belongs
the enactment of a law to ban Sati (1829). to Cornwallis, Ryotwari settlement belongs to
19. (b) Treaty of Surat took place in 1775. Treaty of Thomas Munro, permanent settlement of Banaras
Bargaon took place in 1779. Treaty of Salbai held in belongs to Jonathan Duncan.
1782. Treaty of Purander took place in 1776. 31. (c) The Battle of Plassey occurred in 1757. The
20. (d) Under the Ryotwari system, every registered Battle of Wandiwash occurred in 1760. The treaty
holder of land was recognised as its proprietor and of Allahabad held in 1765. Abolition of dual
paid direct to government. The registered agreement Government in Bengal took place in 1772.
called pattas were given to the Ryots to recognise 32. (d) The Hundis were prevalent in Mughal India.
their ownership rights. So only R is the correct statement.
21. (c) The religion of Brahmo Samaj at the 33. (b) Balaji Vishwanath (1713–20), Bajirao I –
beginning was known to be Vedantism. The purpose (1720–40), Balaji Bajirao (1740–61), Madhavrao
of Brahmo Samaj was to purify Hinduism and to – (1761–72).
preach Monotheism. The Brahmo Samaj also tried 34. (d) Maharaja Jai Singh built observatories at ¿ve
to incorporate the best aspects of modern western places; Delhi, Mathura, Jaipur, Ujjain and Varanasi.
thought. Jai Singh was a great astrologer.
22. (d) During the period of Colonial rule in India, the 35. (a) The Barrackpur Mutiny uprised in 1824.
drain of wealth took place through various forms, Behrampur Revolt took place in 1857. The Santhal
main among them were; Home charges, civil and Revolt uprised in 1855. The Vellore Mutiny ¿red on
military charges and interest on foreign capital 1806.
investments. 36. (a) The Christian Missionaries supported for the
23. (d) The Battle of Plassey held on 23rd June, 1757. secular westernized education in India.
The Battle of Ambur held on 1749. The Battle 37. (a) Under the Mahalwari system, the land revenue
of Buxar held on 22nd Oct. 1764. The Battle of was periodically revised.
38. (a) Modern and reformist ideas spread among the
Wandiwash held on 22nd Jan, 1760.
mass of people, in India, primarily through Indian
24. (b) The founder of Maratha states was Shivaji. The
languages.
founder of Hyderabad states was Chinkilich Khan.
39. (a) Subsidiary Alliance system was introduced by
The founder of Bengal states was Murshid Kuli
Lord Wellesley. He introduced the civil services in
Khan. The founder of Awadh states was Sayadat
India.
Khan.
40. (a) The administrative policies of the East India
25. (c) Lord Cornwallis was the father of civil
Company, in India, during 1757 to 1857, underwent
service. Warren Hastings was the father of Judicial
frequent changes according to the British needs.
Services.
41. (a) Cornwallis, who established Indian Police
26. (b) Vernacular Press Act associated with Lord
followed and modernised old Indian system of
Litton. Widow Remarriage Act associated with Lord
‘thanas’ because there was not developed yet police
Canning. Public work department associated with
system in Britain and in this matter India became
Lord Dalhouise. Fort William College associated
ahead of it.
with Lord Welleseley.
History|| A-73
42. (a) The British promised not to interfere in the forced to work as coolies and hence agriculture was
internal affairs of the protected states under the neglected.
Subsidiary Alliance but they seldom keep it. The 52. (a) The revolt did not spread to all parts of the
Alliance also led to the disbandment of the armies country. Nor was it supported by all groups and
of the protected states. sections of the Indian society. South and West India
43. (b) Permanent settlement was introduced in India remained largely outside the fold of the revolt.
in 1793, by the Governor General of Bengal Lord Many Indian rulers refused to help the rebels and
Cornwallis. It was introduced in Bihar, Bengal and some were openly hostile to the rebels and helped
Odisha. Basically settlement was the agreement the British in suppressing the revolt. The middle and
between the East India Company and the Bengali upper classes and the modern educated Indians also
landlords to ¿x revenues from land. The settlement did not support the revolt.
was for 5 years. 53. (b) The Doctrine of Lapse was an annexation
44. (c) Martanda Verma was the founder of the Indian policy purportedly devised by Lord Dalhousie.
Hindu feudal kingdom of Travancore. He ruled from According to Hindu law, an individual or a ruler
1729 till his death 1758. He is usually, credited as without natural heirs could adopt a person who
the founder of "Kingdom of Travancore". He fought would then have all the personal and political rights
numerous battles against European Dutch, though
of a son. Dalhousie asserted the paramount power’s
East India Company had helped in the battles.
right of approving such adoptions and of acting at
48. (a) With the acquisition of Diwani of Bengal the
discretion in their absence in the case of dependent
company directly organised the ‘drain of wealth’ as
states. Annexation in the absence of a natural or
labelled by Dadabhai Naoroji.
adopted heir was enforced in the cases of Satara
50. (a) In the 18th century the kukis had moved to (1848), Jaitpur and Sambalpur (1849), Baghat
Manipur. The British policy of employing coolie (1850), Chota Udaipur (1852), Jhansi (1853), and
labour during the First World War adversely
Nagpur (1854).
affected their agriculture as most of them were
9 Indian Freedom Struggle-I
(1857–1917)
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below the lists: answer from the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II List-I List-II
A. Lala Hardayal 1. Ghadar (Reform movements) (Founders)
B. Surendranath 2. Bengali A. Ahmedia Movement 1. Wali Ullah
Banerjee B. Devband Movement 2. Shibli Nomani
C. Bipinchandra Pal 3. Vande Mataram C. Nadvat-al-Ulema 3. Muhammad
D. Shyamji Krishna 4. Indian sociologist Movement Qasim
Verma Nanotvi
Codes: D. Ahle-Hadith Movement 4. Mirza Gulam
A B C D Ahamed
(a) 1 2 3 4 Codes:
(b) 3 2 1 4 A B C D
(c) 1 3 4 2 (a) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 2 3 1
2. Which of the following is not correctly (c) 1 2 3 4
matched? (d) 3 4 2 1
(a) The Congress session of 1887 — Madras 5. Arrange the following events of the Indian
(b) The Congress session of 1888 — Allahabad Revolution of 1857 in their correct chronological
(c) The Congress session of 1890 — Calcutta order by the help of the codes given below:
(d) The Congress session of 1892 — Bombay 1. Incident of Mangal Pandey at Barrackpur.
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 2. Incident of Soldiers at Merrut
answer from the codes given below the lists: 3. Uprising at Jhansi
List-I List-II 4. Uprising at Kanpur
A. Arya Samaj 1. Bombay Codes:
B. Arya Mahila Samaj 2. Pune (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
C. Mohammadan Literary 3. Calcutta (c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 4, 2, 1, 3
Society 6. Consider the formation of the following
D. Veda Samaj 4. Madras associations before the establishment of the
Codes: Indian National Congress:
A B C D 1. The Indian Association
(a) 1 2 3 4 2. Madras Native Association
(b) 3 4 1 2 3. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
(c) 2 1 4 3 4. Indian League
(d) 1 3 2 4
History|| A-75
Find the correct chronological order of the (c) By supporting the Khilafat Movement.
formation of the Associations by the codes given (d) All the above
below: 10. Which one of the following policies was adopted
Codes: by the British towards native states after the
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 revolt of 1857?
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4 (a) To annex Indian states into the British
7. Consider the following statements and select the empire.
correct answer from the codes given below: (b) To give greater power to Indian states.
Assertion (A): The revolt of 1857 was suppressed (c) To allow Indian states to establish relations
by the British. with foreign power.
Reason (R): Except for people like the Rani of (d) To maintain status quo of Indian states.
Jhansi and Tatya Tope, few feudal 11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
lords participated in the revolt. answer by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct A. Laxmi Bai 1. Deported to Rangoon
explanation of A. B. Tatya Tope 2. Fled to Nepal
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct C. Nana Saheb 3. Captured and executed
explanation of A. D. Bahadur Shah 4. Killed in battle
(c) A is true, but R is false. Codes:
(d) A is false, but R is true. A B C D
8. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct (a) 4 3 2 1
answer from the codes given below the lists: (b) 2 4 3 1
(Persons) (Movements) (d) 4 2 3 1
A. Baba Ram Singh 1. Satya Mahima 12. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
Dharma matched?
B. Mirza Gulam 2. Rahnumai (a) Jhansi : Laxmi Bai
Ahamed Mazdyasan Sabha (b) Gwalior : Tatya Tope
C. Mukund Das 3. Namdhari (c) Kanpur : Nana Saheb
Movement (d) Allahabad : Kunwar Singh
D. Naoroji Fardonji 4. Ahmadia Movement 13. Which of the following pairs are correctly
Codes: matched?
A B C D 1. Brahma Samaj : Swami Brahmanand
(a) 3 4 1 2 2. Dev Samaj : Pandit Shiv Narayan
(b) 4 3 1 2 Agnihotri
(c) 4 3 2 1 3. Arya Samaj : Swami Dayanand
(d) 3 4 2 1 Saraswati
9. Balgangadhar Tilak worked to inspire the national 4. Ram Krishna : Swami Ram Krishna
spirit in people Mission Paramhansa
(a) By publishing atrocities made by British Codes:
government against Indian in his paper (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
‘Kesari’. (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
(b) By organising festivals in honour of Lord 14. Two statements are given below, one labelled as
Ganesh and by reviving the cult of Shivaji. Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):
A-76 || Indian Freedom Struggle-I (1857–1917)
Assertion (A): Dadabhai Naoroji founded East 17. Match the names of authors with their books and
India Association in London. choose the correct answer from the codes given
Reason (R): He wanted to inÀuence the British below:
Public Opinion. List-I List-II
In the context of the above two statements, which (Author) (Book)
one of the following is correct? A. S.N. Banerjee 1. A Nation in
Codes: Making
B. Dadabhai Naoroji 2. Gita Rahasya
C. Balgangadhar Tilak 3. Poverty and
explanation of A.
Un-British
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Rule in India
explanation of A. D. Bankimchandra 4. Anandmath
(d) R is true, but A is false. A B C D
15. Match the following and choose the correct (a) 1 2 3 4
answer from the codes given below: (b) 1 3 2 4
A. Raja Rammohan 1. Tatva Bodhini (d) 1 2 4 3
Roy Sabha 18. Match the peasants revolts of the 19th century
B. Devendranath 2. Atmiya Sabha with their respective area.
List-I List-II
Tagore
A. Kuki revolt 1. Punjab
C. Vivekanand 3. Ram Krishna B. Kuka revolt 2. Bengal
Mission C. Pabna Peasant revolt 3. Bihar
D. Atmaram Pandurang 4. Prarthana Samaj D. Birsa Munda revolt 4. Tripura
Codes: Choose your answer with the help of given codes:
A B C D Codes:
(a) 2 1 3 4 A B C D
(b) 1 2 4 3 (a) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 2 1 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 3 2 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
16. Match the following leaders and their places of 19. Arrange the following in the chronological order:
the ¿rst war of Independence and choose the 1. Surat split
correct answer from the codes given below: 2. Partition of Bengal
List-I List-II 3. Foundation of Muslim League
(Leaders) (Places) (a) 2, 3, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3
A. Begum Hazarat Mahal 1. Lucknow (c) 3, 2, 1 (d) 2, 1, 3
B. Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah 2. Faizabad 20. Match the following organisations with their
C. Begum Zinat Mahal 3. Delhi founding members.
List I List II
D. Kunwar Singh 4. Arrah
(Organisation) (Founder)
Codes: A. Indian National Union 1. Anand Mohan
A B C D Bose
(a) 1 2 3 4 B. British India Association 2. Dadabhai
(b) 2 3 1 4 Naoroji
(c) 3 2 4 1 C. East India Association 3. A.O. Hume
(d) 3 2 1 4 D. Indian Society 4. Devendranath
Tagore
History|| A-77
Codes: 24. Consider the following events in the history of
A B C D British India.
(a) 3 2 4 1 1. Santhal Rebellion
(b) 1 2 3 4 2. Indigo Revolt
(c) 3 4 2 1 3. Sanyasi Rebellion
(d) 4 3 2 1 4. Munda Rebellion
21. With reference to the Colonial rule in India, Which one of the following is correct chronological
consider the following events. sequence of the above events starting with the
1. Morley-Minto Reforms Act earliest?
2. Transfer of the capital from Calcutta to (a) 3, 2, 1, 4 (b) 1, 4, 2, 3
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3
Delhi
25. Consider the following statement in regards to
3. First world war
the session of Congress during freedom struggle
4. Lucknow pact of India:
The correct chronological order of these events 1. Both the wings of Congress got reunited for
is the ¿rst time after the split of 1907.
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 2. Muslim League and Congress came up
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 1, 2, 4, 3 with common political demands before the
22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct British Indian government.
answer using the codes given below the lists: The events given above took place in which
List-I List-II session of Congress?
(Author) (Works) (a) 1911 (b) 1912
A. Bankimchandra 1. Shatranj Ke Khilari (c) 1916 (d) 1920
B. Dinabandhu Mitra 2. Devi Chaudharani 26. Consider the following statements in regards to
C. Premchand 3. Nil Darpan ‘Swadeshi Movement’:
Codes: 1. The movement had its genesis in the anti-
A B C partition movement against the British
(a) 2 1 3 decision to partition of Bengal.
(b) 3 1 2 2. The movement did not witness any
(c) 2 3 1 participation from women and rural
(d) 3 2 1 population in the politics.
23. Consider the following statements and select the 3. The movement was con¿ned to the region
correct answer from the codes given below: of Bengal only and failed to outreach other
Assertion (A): First war of independence broke regions of the country.
out in India in 1857, soon after the departure of Which of the statements given above is/are
Lord Dalhousie from India. correct?
Reason (R): Lord Dalhousie’s annextionist (a) 1 only (b) 3 only
policy had caused great discontent. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Codes: 27. Consider the following statements in regards to
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct the revolt of 1857 in India.
explanation of A. 1. It spread to all the major revolt centres of
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct north India.
explanation of A. 2. In the beginning, the British by the rebels.
(c) A is true, but R is false. 3. South India participated in the revolt on a
(d) A is false, but R is true. large scale.
Which of the following statements given above 2. The extremist national leaders failed to give
are correct? a positive lead to the people.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 3. The revolutionists succeeded to develop a
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 well-planned system to struggle against the
28. Consider the following statements in regard to British rule.
the Ghadar Movement: Select the correct answer from the codes given
1. Only Hindu and Sikh communities partici- below:
pated in the movement. Codes:
2. The ideology and the publications of the (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
movement were strongly secular in tone. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the following statements is/are 32. Consider the following statements in regard to
correct? the Home Rule Movement in India:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. The movement was launched by the Indian
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 National Congress.
29. Which of the following were intentions of British 2. The moderate nationalists joined the
Indian rule behind the partition of Bengal? movement on a large scale.
1. To create a majority of Bengal against non- 3. Though the movement got much more
Bengalis in the parent Bengal. success in 1917, however, it dissolved in
2. To keep Bengali, Oriya and Hindi speaking 1918.
people together in the parent Bengal. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. To create a majority of Muslims in the East correct?
Bengal. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer from the codes given (c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
below: 33. Consider the following statements regarding
Codes: moderate leaders of the Indian National
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Movement:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. They lacked faith in the common people.
30. Consider the following statements in regard to 2. They did not organize any all India
the revolt of 1857 in India: campaign.
1. Almost half the Indian soldiers did not 3. The British rules always respected them.
participate in the revolt. 4. After ¿rst decade of 20th century, their own
2. The British recovered Agra ¿rst. failures made their politics obsolete.
3. Indian merchants supported the revolt. Which of the statements given above are correct?
4. The Indian intelligentsia prayed for the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
success of the British. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above are 34. Consider the following statements:
1. Babu Veer Kunwar Singh of Jagdishpur
correct?
participated in the revolt of 1857 after Delhi
was captured by the British.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
2. Begum Hazrat Mahal, who provided great
31. Which of the following reasons for the emergence strategic leadership to the rebels during the
of revolutionary terrorism in India, after the split revolt of 1857, Àed to Nepal after the revolts
in the Indian National Congress in 1907? failure.
1. The British Indian government took an Which of the statements given above is/are
arrogant and repressive step against the correct?
national movements. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
History|| A-79
35. Consider the following statements: Codes:
1. The term election was mentioned in the Act A B C D
of 1892. (a) 1 2 3 4
2. Elections to councils in India started from (b) 2 1 3 4
the Act of 1892. (c) 2 1 4 3
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 1 2 4 3
correct? 39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only answer from the codes given below the lists:
(c) Both l and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 List-I List-II
36. Match List I with List II and select the correct (Session of Congress) (President)
answer from the codes given below the lists: A. First session 1. George Yule
List-I List-II B. Second session 2. Badruddin Taiyabjee
A. James Outrum 1. Delhi C. Third session 3. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. John Nicholson 2. Lucknow D. Fourth session 4. W.C. Banerji
Codes:
C. Collin Campbell 3. Jhansi
A B C D
D. Heurose 4. Kanpur
(a) 1 2 3 4
Codes:
(b) 2 1 3 4
A B C D (c) 4 3 2 1
(a) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 1 4 3 40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(c) 2 1 3 4 answer from the codes given below the lists:
(d) 1 2 4 3 List-I List-II
37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (Congress session) (Place)
answer from the codes given below the lists: A. First session 1. Madras
List-I List-II B. Second session 2. Allahabad
A. Theosophical Society 1. Blavatski C. Third session 3. Bombay
B. Satya Shodhak Samaj 2. Jyoti Rao Phule D. Fourth session 4. Calcutta
C. Sewa Samiti 3. Hridaynath Codes:
Kunjnu A B C D
D. Sharda Sadan 4. Rama Bai (a) 1 2 3 4
Codes: (b) 2 1 3 4
A B C D (c) 4 3 2 1
(a) 1 2 4 3 (d) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 2 3 4 41. Consider the following statements:
(c) 2 1 3 4 1. The Indian National Congress was founded
(d) 2 1 4 3 during the viceroyalty of Lord Dufferin.
38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 2. The ¿rst President of Indian National
answer using the codes given below the lists: Congress was A.O. Hume.
List-I List-II 3. The ¿rst session of Indian National Congress
(Association) (Founder) was held in Bombay.
A. Indian Association 1. Dadabhai Naoroji 4. In the ¿rst session of Indian National Congress,
B. East India 2. Surendranath some government of¿cials were also present.
Association Banerjee Which of the statements given above are correct?
C. Poona Sarvajanik 3. A.O. Hume (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Sabha (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. Indian National 4. M.G. Ranade
Congress
42. Give below are two statements, one labelled as Codes:
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
Assertion (A): The basic weakness of the early (c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1
natinalist movement lay in its narrow social base. 46. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct
Reason (R): It fought for the narrow interests of answer from the codes given below the lists:
the social groups which joined it. List-I List-II
In the context of the above two statements, which (Place of 1857 revolt) (Leader of revolt)
of the following is correct?
A. Lucknow 1. Maulavi
Ahmadullah
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct B. Kanpur 2. Kunwar Singh
explanation of A. C. Bihar 3. Nana Sahib
(c) A is true, but R is false. D. Rohilkhand 4. Beghum Hazrat
(d) R is true, but A is false. Mahal
43. Consider the following statements about Madam Codes:
Bhikaji Cama A B C D
1. Madam Cama unfurled the National Flag (a) 2 3 4 1
at the international socialist conference in (b) 4 1 2 3
Peris in the year 1907. (c) 2 1 4 3
2. Madam Cama served as private secretary to (d) 4 3 2 1
Dadabhai Naoroji. 47. With reference to the Indian freedom struggle,
3. Madam Cama was born in Parsi family.
which one of the following is the correct
correct? chronological order of the given events?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) Partition of Bengal—Lucknow Pact—Surat
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 split of Congress
44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (b) Partition of Bengal—Surat split of Congress
answer using the codes given below the lists: —Lucknow Pact
List-I List-II (c) Surat split of Congress—Partition of
(Person) (Journal) Bengal—Lucknow Pact
A. Shyamji Krishna 1. Bande Mataram (d) Surat split of Congress—Lucknow Pact—
Verma Partition of Bengal
B. Madam Bhikaji 2. Indian Sociologist 48. Consider the following statement and identify
Cama with the help of the codes given below. The
C. Annie Basant 3. The Talwar
Viceroy who made the statement and when:
D. Aurobindo Ghosh 4. Commonweal
Codes: In my belief, Congress is tottering to its fall and
A B C D one of my great ambitions while in India is to
(a) 2 3 4 1 assist it to a peaceful demise.
(b) 3 2 1 4 Codes:
(c) 2 3 1 4 (a) Lord Curzon, in a letter to the Secretary of
(d) 3 2 4 1 States in 1900
45. Arrange the following events in correct (b) Lord Curzon, while announcing the partition
chronological order and answer the questions on of Bengal
the basis of the codes given below: (c) Lord Dufferin, during the farewell speech at
1. Ilbert Bill Controversy Calcutta
2. The First Delhi Darbar (d) Lord Minto, while addressing the Muslim
3. The Queen’s Proclamation delegation which met him at Shimla in
4. First Factory Act 1906
History|| A-81
49. Which among the following statements with Codes:
regard to Raja Rammohan Roy are correct? A B C D
1. He started the Atmiya Sabha (a) 1 2 3 4
2. He wrote the Gift of Monotheist (b) 4 1 2 3
3. He published the Precepts of Jesus (c) 2 3 1 4
4. He founded the Brahmo Sabha (d) 3 4 2 1
Select the correct answer from the codes given 51. The Act Prohibiting Child Marriages was passed
below: in 1891 due to the efforts of
Codes: (a) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar and Jyotiba Phule
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) Mahadev Govind Ranade and Jyotiba Phule
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Keshab Chandra Sen and Behramji Malabari
50. Match the list of the Editors with that of the (d) Keshab Chandra Sen and Mahadev Govind
Papers / Magazines, they were editing. Ranade
List-I List-II
(Editors) (Papers/Magazines)
A. S. A. Dange 1. Navayug
B. Muzaffar Ahmad 2. Inqilab
C. Ghulam Hussain 3. Labour Kissan
Gazette
D. M. Singarvelu 4. The Socialist
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 9. (d) 17. (b) 25. (c) 33. (c) 41. (c) 49. (d)
2. (d) 10. (d) 18. (d) 26. (a) 34. (c) 42. (c) 50. (b)
3. (a) 11. (a) 19. (a) 27. (a) 35. (b) 43. (b) 51. (a)
4. (d) 12. (d) 20. (c) 28. (b) 36. (b) 44. (a)
5. (a) 13. (b) 21. (b) 29. (b) 37. (b) 45. (d)
6. (a) 14. (a) 22. (c) 30. (d) 38. (c) 46. (d)
7. (b) 15. (a) 23. (a) 31. (b) 39. (c) 47. (b)
8. (a) 16. (a) 24. (a) 32. (d) 40. (d) 48. (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Lala Hardyal related to gadhar movement. Native Association which was established by
Surendranath Banerjee belongs to Bengali. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty in 1849. Poona
Bipinchandra Pal related to Vande Matram. S.K. Sarvajanik Sabha was founded by MG Ranade
Verma associated to Indian sociologist. in 1870 to represent the aspirations of the people
2. (d) The Congress session of 1892 was not held to government. It published a quarterly journal
in Bombay. Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee or to put forth the problems of people before the
Umesh Chandra Banerjee was the president of government. Sisir Kumar Ghosh along with
the Indian National Congress again in the 1892 agroup of progressive leaders founded the India
session in Allahabad where he denounced the League in 1875. The league aspired to represent
position that India had to prove her worthiness not only the middle classes but the masses as well
for political freedom. and to stimulate a sense of nationalism among
3. (a) Arya Samaj is related to Bombay. Arya the people. Indian National Association was the
Mahila Samaj belongs to Pune. Moham-madan ¿rst declared Nationalist Organization founded
Literary society related to Calcutta and Ved in British India by Surendranath Banerjee and
Samaj belongs to Madras. Anand Mohan Bose in 1876. It was originally
4. (d) The founder of Ahmedia Movement was established as Bharat Sabha and held its ¿rst
Mirza Gulam Ahamed. Devband Movement annual conference in Calcutta. It merged in INC
founded by Md. Qasim Nanotvi. Nadvat-al- in 1885.
Ulema Movement founded by Shibli Nomani 7. (b) Both the given statements are true, but (R) is
and Ahle-Hadith Movement founded by Mirza not the correct explanation of (A).
Gulam Ahamed. 8. (a) Baba Ram Singh related to Namdhari
5. (a) Incident of Mangal Pandey at Barrackpur Movement. Mirza Gulam Ahamed related to
(29 March 1857). Incident of soldiers of Meertu Ahmedia Movement. Mukund Das associated
(10 May 1857). Uprising at Jhansi (June 1857). to Satya Mahima Dharma. Naoroji Fardonji
Uprising at Kanpur (5th June 1857). related to Rahnumai Mazdyasan Sabha.
6. (a) The ¿rst organization in the Madras Presidency 9. (d) Balgangadhar Tilak worked to inspire the
to vent for the rights of Indians was the Madras national spirit in people by publishing atrocities
History|| A-83
and by organising festivals. He used religious 17. (b) S.N. Banerjee authored the book ‘A
orthodoxy as a method of mass contact through Nation in Making’. D.B. Naoroji authored the
his alignment against reformers on the Age of book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’.
Consent Bill in 1891 followed by the organization Bal Gangadhar Tilak authored the book ‘Gita
of the Ganapati festival from 1894 and the Rahasya’. Bankimchandra had written the book
development of a patriotic-cum-historical cult ‘Anand Math’.
as a central symbol of nationalism, through the 18. (d) Kuki Revolt rises in Tripura in 1826–44.
Shivaji festivals from 1896 onwards. Kuka revolt uprises in 1840–72 in Punjab. Pabna
10. (d) The policies that were adopted by the British
peasant revolt took place in Bengal in 1873–76.
towards native states after the revolt of 1857 were
Brisa Munda revolt 1895–1901 rises in Bihar.
to maintain status quo of Indian states.
19. (a) Partition of Bengal announced in 1905.
11. (a) Laxmi Bai was killed in the battle. Tatya
Tope was captured and executed. Nana Saheb Foundation of Muslim League took place in
Àed to Nepal. Bahadur Shah was deported to 1906. The Surat split came into effect in 1907.
Rangoon. 20. (c) The Founder of Indian National Union is
12. (d) Kunwar Singh guided the revolt of 1857 A.O. Hume. British India Association founded
from Buxar of Bihar. Kunwar Singh led the by Debendranath Tagore. East India Association
rebellion in Bihar. He assumed command of the founded by Dadabhai Naoroji. Indian Society
soldiers who had revolted at Danapur on 5 July founded by Anand Mohan Bose.
1857. Five days later he occupied Arrah, the 21. (b) Morley-Minto Reforms Act (1909). Transfer
district headquarters. Major Vincent Eyre relieved of the capital from Calcutta to Delhi (1911). First
the town on 3 August, defeated Kunwar Singh's World War (1914). Lucknow pact held in 1916.
force and destroyed Jagdishpur. Kunwar Singh
22. (c) ‘Devi Chaudhurani’ was written by Bankim-
left his ancestral village and reached Lucknow in
chandra Chatterjee. ‘Nil Darpan’ was authored
December 1857.
13. (b) Dev Samaj was founded by Pandit Shiv by Dinabandhu Mitra. ‘Shatranj Ke Khiladi’ was
Narayan Agnihotri at Lahore in 1887. It was written by Premchand.
atheistic in belief and served the people by 23. (a) Both the given statements are true and R is
establishing schools and colleges. Swami the correct explanation of A.
Dayanand Saraswati was the founder of the 24. (a) Sanyasi Rebellion of Bengal begins in
Hindu reform organisation Arya Samaj, which he 1763–1800. Indigo Revolt of Bengal begins in
established on April 7th 1875 in Bombay, India. 1859–60. Santhal Rebellion of Bihar occured in
14. (a) Both the given statements are true and R is 1855–56. Munda Rebellion of Bihar begins in
the correct explanation of A. 1895-1901.
15. (a) Raja Rammohan Roy related to Atmiya 25. (c) In the session of Congress in 1916 of
Sabha. D.N. Tagore belongs to Tatva Bodhini
Lucknow, both the wings of congress got
Sabha. Vivekanand related to Ram Krishna
reunited by the effort of Tilak. Muslim League
Mission. Atmaram Pandurang associated to
and Congress came up with common political
Prarthana Samaj.
16. (a) Begum Hazrat Mahal led from Lucknow. demands by the efforts of Annie Besant.
Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah led from Faizabad. 26. (a) Swadeshi Movement had its genesis in
Begum Zinat Mahal led from Delhi and Kunwar the anti-partition movement against the British
Singh led from Arrah. decision to partition of Bengal.
27. (a) The revolt of 1857 spread to all the major 36. (b) James Outrum resisted the revolt in
revolt centres of north India. In the beginning, Lucknow. John Nicholson resisted in Delhi.
the British rule was invariably toppled at all the Collin Campbell resisted in Jhansi and Heurose
centres by the rebels. resisted the revolt in Kanpur.
28. (b) The ideology and the publications of the 37. (b) Theosophical society was founded by
Ghadar movement were strongly secular in tone. Blavatsky. The Theosophical Society was
The Ghadar Party was an organization founded of¿cially formed in New York City, United States,
by Punjabi Indians, in the United States and in November 1875 by Helena Blavatsky, Henry
Canada with the aim to liberate India from British Steel Olcott, William Quan Judge and others.
rule. Key members included Lala Hardayal, Satya Shodhak Samaj was founded by Jyotirao
Sohan Singh Bhakna, Kartar Singh Sarabha, and Phule. Jotirao formed 'Satya Shodhak Samaj'
Rashbehari Bose. (Society of Seekers of Truth) with himself as its
29. (b) The intention of British Indian rule behind ¿rst president and treasurer. The main objectives
the partition of Bengal was to keep Bengali, Oriya of the organisation were to liberate the Shudras
and Hindi speaking people together in the parent to prevent their 'exploitation' by the upper caste
Bengal and to create a majority of Muslims in the like Brahmans. Seva Samiti was founded by
East Bengal. Pandit Hridayanath Kunzru. Sharda Sadan was
30. (d) Almost half the Indian soldiers did not
founded by Ramabai. Ramabai started Sharda
participate in the revolt of 1857. The Indian
Sadan, which also provided housing, education,
intelligentsia prayed for the success of the British.
vocational training and medical services for
31. (b) After the split in the Indian National
many needy groups including widows, orphans
Congress in 1907, the British Indian government
and the blind.
took an arrogant and repressive step against
38. (c) “Indian Association” was founded by S.N.
the national movement. The extremist national
Banerjee. “East India Association” was founded
leaders failed to give a positive lead to the people.
by Dadabhai Naoroji. “Poona Sarvajanik Sabha”
32. (d) The moderate nationalists joined the Home
was founded by M.G. Ranade. “Indian National
Rule movement on a large scale. It got much
more success in 1917, however, it dissolved in Congress” was founded by A.O. Hume.
1918. 39. (c) The president of ¿rst session of Congress
33. (c) Moderate leaders of the Indian National was W.C. Banerjee in 1885. The second session
Movement lacked faith in the common people. was presided over by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1886.
They did not organize any all India Campaign. The third session of Congress was presided over
34. (c) Kunwar Singh of Jagdishpur participated in by Badruddin Taiyabjee in 1887. The fourth
the revolt of 1857 after Delhi was captured by session of congress was presided over by George
the British. Begum Hazrat Mahal, who provided Yule in 1888.
great strategic leadership to the revolt, Àed to 40. (d) First session of Congress was held in
Nepal after the revolt’s failure. Bombay in 1885. Second session of Congress
35. (b) Elections to councils in India started from was held in Calcutta in 1886. Third session of
the Act of 1892. Indian Councils Act 1892 was the Congress was held in Madras in 1887. The Fourth
beginning of the parliamentary System in India. session was held in Allahabad in 1888.
Before this act was passed, the Indian National 41. (c) The Indian National Congress was founded
Congress had adopted some resolutions in its during the viceroyalty of Lord Dufferin. The ¿rst
sessions in 1885 and 1889 and put its demand. session of Indian National Congress was held in
History|| A-85
Bombay. In the ¿rst session of Indian National Ilbert Bill had unleashed a vitriolic controversy
Congress, some government of¿cials were also in 1884.
present. 47. (b) The correct chronological order of the given
42. (c) The basic weakness of the early nationalist events is as follows:
movement lay in its narrow social base. Partition of Bengal (1905); Surat split (1907)
43. (b) Madam Cama served as private secretary to and Lucknow Pact (1916).
Dadabhai Naoroji. Madam Cama was born in a 48. (a) Lord Curzon was the Viceroy of India in
Parsi family. 1898. He was mainly famous for the partition of
44. (a) Shyamji Krishna Verma was associated to Bengal. He was very much keen to suppress the
the Journal ‘Indian Sociologist’. Madam Bhikaji Indian national movement.
Cama was related to the ‘Talwar Journal’. Annie 49. (d) Raja Rammohan Ray born in Brahmin
Besant published the journal ‘Commonweal’. family in Bengal on 22nd of May 1772 and died
Aurobindo Ghosh associated with ‘Vande 27 September 1833. He advocated the study
Matram’. of English, Science, Western Medicine and
45. (d) The Queen’s proclamation announced in Technology. He was given the title ‘Raja’ by the
1858. The ¿rst Delhi Durbar was organised Mughal emperor.
in 1877. First Factory Act passed in 1881. The 51. (a) Ishwarchand Vidyasagar & Jyotiba Phule.
10 Indian Freedom Struggle-II
(1917–1947)
1. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct Codes:
answer from the codes given below: A B C D
List-I List-II (a) 2 1 3 4
A. Champaran Mein 1. D.P. Mishra (b) 1 2 3 4
Mahatma Gandhi (c) 2 3 4 1
B. The Springing Tiger 2. Rajendra Prasad (d) 4 3 2 1
C. Living an Era 3. Hugh Toye 4. Give the correct sequence of the following events
D. India from Curzon to 4. Durga Das by using the codes given below:
to Nehru and After 1. Hunter Report
Codes: 2. Home Rule Movement
A B C D 3. Jallianwalla Bagh Masscare
(a) 2 3 1 4 4. Rowlatt Act
(b) 3 2 4 1 Codes:
(c) 4 3 2 1 (a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(d) 2 3 4 1 (c) 2, 1, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
2. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct 5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below: answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
List-I List-II
A. Motilal Nehru 1. Independent
A. Rajendra Lahiri 1. Gonda Jail
B. Madan Mohan Malviya 2. Abhyuday
B. Sukhdeo 2. Lahore Jail
C. Annie Besant 3. Al-Hilal
C. Roshan Singh 3. Gorakhpur Jail
D. Abdul Kalam Azad 4. New India
D. Ram Prasad Bismil 4. Allahabad Jail Codes:
Codes: A B C D
A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3
(b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
6. Read the following events connected with
3. Match the following individuals with places and Indian freedom struggle and ¿nd the correct
choose the correct answer from the codes given chronological order of the events from the codes
below: given below:
A. Baba Ram Chandra 1. Bihar 1. Muslim Deliverance Day
B. Swami Sahayanand 2. Awadh 2. Direct Action Day
C. Vallabhbai Patel 3. Gujarat 3. Resignation of Congress Ministries
D. N.C. Ranga 4. Andra Pradesh 4. Individual Satyagraha
History|| A-87
Codes: B. V.D. Savarkar 2. Communist Party of
(a) 3, 1, 4, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 India
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 1, 3, 2, 4 C. Ramaswamy 3. Hindu Mahasabha
7. Which one of the following statements is not Naiekar
correct about Shyamji Krishna Verma? D. B.T. Ranadive 4. Justice Party
(a) He was a native of Kathiawar. Codes:
(b) He started a monthly journal ‘Indian A B C D
Sociologist’. (a) 2 1 3 4
(c) He established a hostel for Indian students in (b) 3 2 1 4
London which was called ‘India House’. (c) 1 3 4 2
(d) He was the editor of Journal ‘Ghadar’. (d) 2 4 3 1
8. Who addressed whom as the spiritual father of 12. Consider the following events related to
Indian Nationalism? India’s freedom struggle and ¿nd their correct
(a) Lala Hardayal – Tilak chronological order from the codes given below
(b) Subhashchandra – Swami the events:
Bose Vivekanand 1. Bomb-hurling at the Central Legislative
(c) Bipinchandra Pal – Swami Assembly Hall in Delhi.
Dayanand 2. Martyrdom of Jatin Das.
Sarswati 3. Martyrdom of Bhagat Singh.
(d) Balgangadhar Tilak – Madan Mohan 4. Karachi session of the Indian National
Malviya Congress.
9. Which one of the following statements about Codes:
Subhaschandra Bose is not correct? (a) 1,2, 3, and 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, and 1
(a) He appeared in the I.C.S. examination in (c) 3, 4, 1 and 2 (d) 2, 1, 3, and 4
1920 and stood 4th in order of Merit. 13. Which one of the following statements is not
(b) He was president of Indian National correct about the book Indian struggle written by
Congress in the year of 1938 and 1939. Subhash Chandra Bose?
(c) He had spent his incarcerated life in (a) It covers the period of India’s Struggle for
Mandalay Jail. freedom between 1920 and 1942.
(d) He took part in the Quit India Movement. (b) It comprises the Haripura (1938) and Tripura
10. Arrange the following in a chronological order of (1939) sessions.
their establishment: (c) It has a chapter ‘The Gandhi-Irwin Pact and
1. Ghadar Party after.
2. Communist Party of India (d) It depicts the comprehensive history of the
3. Congress Socialist Party Peasant Movement in India.
4. Hindustan Socialist Republican Association 14. Arrange the following events in chronological
Codes: order and choose the correct answer using the
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 codes given below:
(c) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2 A. Amritsar Incident
11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct B. Chauri Chaura Incident
answer from the codes given below the lists: C. Champaran Movement
List-I List-II D. Moplah Revolt
A. V.S. Srinivas 1. Indian National Codes:
Shastri Liberation (a) A, B, C, D (b) B, A, C, D
Federation (c) C, A, D, B (d) C, A, B, D
A-88 || Indian Freedom Struggle-II (1917–1947)
15. Consider the following statements and select the Codes:
correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
Assertion (A): The Quit India Movement (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
marked the culmination of Indian 19. Arrange the following in the chronological order
National Movement. and the select the correct answer from the codes
Reason (R): After the Quit India Movement, given below:
it was a matter of time to ¿nd a 1. The August offer
suitable mechanism for transfer 2. The Cabinet Mission Plan
of power. 3. The Cripps Mission Plan
Codes: 4. The Wavell Plan
explanation of A. (a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (c) 1, 3, 4, 2 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
explanation of A.
16. Which of the following newspapers advocated Assertion (A): The Congress boycotted the
revolutionary terrorism during the period of Simon Commission.
Indian freedom struggle? Reason (R): The Simon Commission did not
1. Sandhya have a single Indian member.
2. Yugantar Codes:
3. Kaal (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Choose the correct answer from the codes given explanation of A.
below: (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
Codes: explanation of A.
(a) 1, 2 (b) 1, 3 (c) A is true, but R is false.
(c) 2, 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) A is false, but R is true.
17. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct 21. Put the following events in chronological order
answer from the codes given below the lists: and choose your answer with the help of given
List-I List-II codes:
A. Abul Kalam Azad 1. Bombay Chronicle A. Formation of an interim government.
B. Feroz Shah Mehta 2. Al-Hilal B. The arrival of the Cabinet Mission.
C. Annie Besant 3. Young India
C. Muslim League Launches Direct Action.
D. Mahatma Gandhi 4. New India
D. Jinnah’s Wrecking of the Shimla
Codes:
Conference.
A B C D
Codes:
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 2 3 4 (a) B, D, C, A (b) D, B, C, A
(c) 2 1 3 4 (c) A, B, D, C (d) D, B, A, C
(d) 3 2 1 4 22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
18. Who of the following had started the Khilafat answer by using the codes given below the lists:
Movement? Choose the answer from the codes List-I List-II
given below: (Act) (Largely based on)
1. Shaukat Ali 2. Mohammad Ali A. Indian Council 1. Mountbatten Plan
3. Shariatullah 4. Abul Kalam Azad Act 1909
History|| A-89
B. Government of 2. Simon Commission 25. Which of the following movements drew women
India Act 1919 Report and joint select out from the seclusion of home?
committee 1. Swadeshi Movement
recommendation 2. Home Rule Movement
C. Government of 3. Montague- 3. Non-Cooperation Movement
India Act Chelmsford 4. Civil Disobedience Movement
1935 Reforms Select the correct answer from the codes given
D. Independence 4. Morley-Minto below:
Act 1947 Reform (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
Codes: (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A B C D 26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) 1 2 3 4 answer from the codes given below the lists:
(b) 4 3 2 1 List-I List-II
(c) 3 4 1 2 (Congress presidents) (Venues of session)
(d) 4 1 2 3 A. Dr. M. A. Ansari 1. Haripura
23. Given below are four events connected with B. Purushottam 2. Kanpur
India’s struggle for independence. Select their Das Tandon
correct chronological order by using the codes C. Sarojini Naidu 3. Madras
given below the events: D. Subhashchandra 4. Nasik
1. Second Round Table Conference. Bose
2. Karachi session of India National Congress. Codes:
3. Execution of Bhagat Singh. A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
4. Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
(b) 2 3 1 4
Codes:
(c) 3 4 2 1
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4 (d) 2, 4, 3, 1 27. Which of the following were the two Newspapers
24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct published by Annie Besant?
answer by from the codes given below the lists: 1. Commonweal 2. New India
List-I List-II 3. New Hindu 4. The Aryans
(Event) (Year) Codes:
A. Non-Cooperation 1. 1942 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Movement (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
B. Civil Disobedience 2. 1937 28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Movement answer using the codes given below the lists:
C. Formation of 3. 1930 List-I List-II
Congress Ministries A. Lady Catherine 1. Freedom at
D. Quit India Movement 4. 1920 Mayo Midnight
Codes: B. Larry Collins and 2. Mother India
A B C D Dominique Lapierre
(a) 1 2 3 4 C. Ram Manohar 3. Discovery of
(b) 4 3 2 1 Lohia India
(c) 2 1 4 3 D. Jawaharlal Nehru 4. Guilty Men of
(d) 3 4 1 2 India’s Partition
Codes: 32. Consider the following statements:
A B C D 1. In the First Round Table conference,
(a) 2 1 4 3 Dr. Ambedkar demanded separate electorates
(b) 1 2 3 4 for the depressed classes.
(c) 1 2 4 3 2. In the Poona Act, special provisions for
(d) 4 3 2 1 representation of the depressed people in the
local bodies and civil services were made.
3. The Indian National Congress did not take
correct answer from the codes given below: part in the Third Round Table Conference.
Assertion (A): The Khilafat Movement did bring Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the Urban Muslims into the fold (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
of the National Movement. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Reason (R): There was a predominant element 33. Consider the following statements and select the
of anti-imperialism in both the correct answer from the codes given below:
National and Khilafat Movements. Assertion (A): The Congress rejected the Cripps'
Codes: proposals.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Reason (R): The Cripps Mission consisted
explanation of A. solely of Whites.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct Codes:
explanation of A. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) A is true, but R is false. explanation of A.
(d) A is false, but R is true. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct
explanation of A.
correct answer from the codes given below: (d) A is false, but R is true.
Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgow described the 34. Consider the following statements:
August Movement of 1942 as Indian nationalists were bitterly disappointed at
the most serious rebellion since the closing stages of the First World War due to
Sepoy Muting. the reason that
Reason (R): There was massive upsurge of the 1. Only few Indian princess participated in the
peasantry in certain areas. Imperial Conference and Peace Conference.
Codes: 2. The closing of the World War brought to
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct India not peace but the sword.
explanation of A. 3. Gandhi was prevented by the government
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is the not correct from proceeding to Delhi in 1919.
explanation of A. 4. The Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919.
(c) A is true, but R is false. Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
31. Consider the following statements: 35. Consider the following statements and select the
The government of India Act 1935 provided for correct answer from the codes given below:
1. The provincial autonomy. Assertion (A): According to the Wavell Plan,
2. The establishment of Federal Court. the number of Hindu and Muslim
3. All India Federation at the centre. members in the Executive Council
Which of the statements given above are were to be equal.
correct? Reason (R): Wavell thought that this
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 arrangement would have avoided
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 the partition of India.
History|| A-91
Codes: 39. Consider the following statements regarding the
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is revolt of the Royal Indian Navy in 1946:
the correct explanation of A. 1. The revolt was launched to protest against
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is racial discrimination and unpalatable food.
not the correct explanation of A. 2. Lord Wavell the concurrent viceroy of India
(c) A is true, but R is false. condemned the response of the Indian Army
(d) A is false, but R is true. towards the revolt.
36. Consider the following statements in regards to Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the Gandhi-Irwin Pact: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. According to the Pact, British Government (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
accepted to release all the political 40. Consider the following statements and select the
prisoners. correct answer from the codes given below:
2. Irwin agreed on giving the right to peaceful Assertion (A): The Congress Ministries in all the
and non-aggressive picketing of liquor and provinces resigned in the year 1939.
foreign cloth shops. Reason (R): The Congress did not accept the
3. British government allowed making of decision of the viceroy to declare
salt for personal consumption in coastal
war against Germany in the context
regions.
of the Second World War.
Codes:
correct?
(a) A and R are individually true and R is the
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) A and R are individually true, but R is not
37. Consider the following statements in regards to
the correct explanation of A.
Swaraj Party:
1. Swaraj Party was formed out of Congress to (c) A is true, but R is false.
function as an independent political party. (d) A is false, but R is true.
2. The Swarajist believed in participation of 41. Consider the following statements in regard to
the council elections. the parallel government emerged during the Quit
3. Swarajist got the majority in November India Movement.
1923 election due to which they were able to 1. The ¿rst such government emerged in
out vote the government in central assembly Satara.
repeatedly. 2. The government which emerged in Tamluk
Which of the statements given above is/are was known as ‘Jatiya Sarkar’.
correct? 3. The longest lasting and effective parallel
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only government was in Satara.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above are correct?
38. Consider the following statements in regard to (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
the Indian Council Act, 1919: (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It introduced bicameral legislature. 42. Consider the following statements regarding
2. It separated provincial budgets from the Non-Cooperation Movement:
central budget. 1. The Indian National Congress unanimously
3. It introduced the separate representation of accepted the proposal of non-cooperation.
chambers of commerce, universities and 2. Before launch of the movement, Gandhiji
Zamindars. gave a notice to the viceroy about the
Which of the statements given above are correct? movement.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 3. Lokmanya Tilak passed on the day the
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 movement was launched.
Which of the statements given above are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Codes:
43. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact 1931, placed the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Indian National Congress on an equal footing 45. There are two statements one labelled as the
with the British Indian Government. Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
2. The participation of Muslims in the Civil Assertion (A): The British sovereignty continued
Disobedience Movement was less than that to exist in free India.
of the Non-Cooperation Movement. Reason (R): The British sovereign appointed
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the last Governor General of free
India.
Examine these two statements carefully and select
44. Which of the following statements in regard to
the answers by using the codes given below:
the 3rd June Plan are correct?
1. The successor governments would be given Codes:
dominion status. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
2. There was a provision for the Boundary explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct
Commission to determine boundaries of the
explanation of A.
successor states as India and Pakistan.
3. It was mandatory for India and Pakistan to
remain within the British Commonwealth.
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 8. (b) 15. (a) 22. (b) 29. (a) 36. (b) 43. (c)
2. (b) 9. (d) 16. (d) 23. (b) 30. (a) 37. (b) 44. (a)
3. (a) 10 (a) 17. (a) 24. (b) 31. (d) 38. (a) 45. (d)
4. (a) 11. (c) 18. (a) 25. (d) 32. (c) 39. (a)
5. (b) 12. (c) 19. (c) 26. (c) 33. (b) 40. (a)
6. (a) 13. (d) 20. (a) 27. (a) 34. (c) 41. (b)
7. (c) 14. (c) 21. (b) 28. (a) 35. (c) 42. (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) “Champaran mein Mahatama Gandhi” is in Allahabad jail and Ram Prasad Bismil was hanged
associated with Rajendra Prasad. “The springing in Gorakhpur Jail. Rajendra Lahiri, Roshan Singh and
Tiger” is associated with Hugh Toye. “Living an Era” Ram Prasad Bismil were all associated with Kakori
is associated with D.P. Mishra and “India, from Curzon to Kand.
Nehru and after” is associated with Durga Das. 3. (a) Baba Ram Chandra was associated with Awadh,
2. (b) Rajendra Lahiri was hanged in Gonda Jail, Swami Sahajanand was associated with Bihar, Sardar
Sukhdeo (associated with Rajguru and Bhagat Singh) Vallabh Bhai Patel was associated with Gujarat and
was hanged in Lahore Jail, Roshan Singh was hanged N.C. Ranga was associated with Andhra Pradesh.
History|| A-93
4. (a) Hunter Committee was appointed in October 1, 15. (a) Both the given statements are true and R is the
1919 for Jalianwala Bagh massacre and gave its report correct explanation of A.
in March 1920. Home Rule Movement was started in 16. (d) The newspapers Sandhya, Yugantar and Kaal
Poona on 23rd April 1916 by Bal Gangadhar Tilak. advocated revolutionary terrorism during the period of
Jalianwala Bagh Massacre happened on 13 April 1919 Indian freedom struggle.
and Rowlatt Act was passed in March 1919. It was 17. (a) Abul Kalam Azad – Al-Hilal
anarchical and revolutionary crimes Act. Feroz Shah Mehta – Bombay Chronicle
5. (b) Motilal Nehru was associated with “Independent Annie Besant – New India
Journal”, Madan Mohan Malviya was associated with Mahatma Gandhi – Young India
“Abhyuday”, Annie Besant was associated with “New 18. (a) Shaukat Ali and Mohammad Ali had started the
India” and Abul Kalam Azad was associated with “Al- Khilafat movement in 1919.
Hilal”. 19. (c) The correct chronological order is:
6. (a) The correct chronological order of the events is: The August Offer – 1940
Resignation of 29 Oct 1939 The Cripps Mission Plan – 1942
Congress Ministries The Wavell Plan – 1945
Muslim Deliverance Day 22 Dec 1939 The Cabinet Mission Plan – 1946
Individual Satyagraha 17 Oct 1940 20. (a) The both given statements are true and R is the
Direct Action Day 16 Aug 1946 correct explanation of A.
8. (b) Subhashchandra Bose addressed Swami Vivekanand 21. (b) The correct chronological order of the events is:
as the Spiritual father of Indian Nationalism. Formation of an interim government – 1937.
9. (d) Subhashchandra Bose had not participated Jinnah’s wrecking of the Shimala Conference –
in the Quit India Movement. He appeared in I.C.S. 1945.
examination in 1920 and stood 4th in order of Merit. He The arrival of the Cabinet Mission – 24 March, 1946.
was president of Indian National Congress in 1938 and Muslim League launches Direct Action – 16 Aug.
1939. 1946.
10. (a) The correct chronological order of the establishment 22. (b) (Acts) (Based on)
of revolutionary institution is: Indian Council – Morley-Minto Plan
Ghadar Party 1913 Act 1909
Communist Party of India 1925 Government of – Montague-Chelmsford
Hindustan Socialist Republican India Act 1919 Reforms
Association 1928
Government of – Simon Commission
Congress Socialist Party 1934
India Act 1935 Report
11. (c) (Person) (Organisation)
Independence – Mount Batten Plan
V.S. Srinivas Shastri Indian National
Liberation Federation Act, 1947
V.D. Savarkar Hindu Mahasabha 23. (b) Gandhi-Irwin Pact held on 5th March, 1931.
Ramaswam Naiekar Justice Party Execution of Bhagat Singh on 23 March, 1931 in
B.T. Ranadine Communist Party of Lahore Jail. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress
India held in March 1931.
12. (c) The correct chronological order of the events The second Round table conference held on Sept.
related to India’s freedom struggle is: 1931.
Bomb–hurling at the Central legislative Assembly Hall 24. (b) Non-Cooperation Movement started in 1920.
in Delhi (8 Apr. 1929)
Civil Disobedience Movement started in 1930. The
Martyrdom of Jatin Das (13 Sep. 1929)
formation of Congress ministries took place in 1937.
Martyrdom of Bhagat Singh (23 March, 1931)
Karachi Session of Indian National Congress (March, The Quit India Movement began in 1942.
1931) 25. (d) Swadeshi Movement began in1905. Home rule
13. (d) The book ‘Indian Struggle’ was written movement started in 1916. Non-cooperation movement
by Subhashchandra Bose. It does not depict the started in 1920. The civil Disobedience movement
comprehensive history of the peasant movement in started in 1930.
India. 26. (c) Dr. M.A. Ansari became the President in Madras
14. (c) The correct chronological orders of the events is: session. Purushottam Das Tandon became the President
Champaran Movement 1917
Amritsar Incident 1919 in Nasik session. Sarojini Naidu became the President
Moplah Revolt 1921 in Kanpur session. Subhash Chandra Bose became the
Chauri Chaura Incident 1922 President in Haripura session.
27. (a) The two newspapers published by Annie Besant 37. (b) Both the Swarajists and the No-Changers were
were New India and Commonweal. engaged in a ¿erce political struggle, but both were
28. (a) ‘Mother India’ was written by Lady Catherine determined to avoid the disastrous experience of the
Mayo. Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre wrote 1907 split at Surat. On the advice of Gandhi, the two
the book ‘Freedom at midnight’. Ram Manohar Lohia groups decided to remain in the Congress but to work
has written the book ‘Guilty men of India’s partition’. in their separate ways. There was no basic difference
J.L. Nehru wrote the book ‘Discovery of India’. between the two. Swarajist members were elected to
29. (a) Both the given statements are true and R is the the councils.
correct explanation of A. 38. (a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct in accordance
30. (a) The involvement of the peasants in Quit India with the Indian Council Act, 1919.The separate
movement made the struggle more ¿erce. This forced representation of Chambers of Commerce, universities
Linlithgow to describe the Quit India movement and Zamindars was introduced by the Indian Council
launched on 8th August 1942 as the most serious Act, 1909.
rebellion since Sepoy Mutiny. 39. (a) Lord Wavell, the concurrent viceroy of India,
31. (d) The Government of India Act 1935 provided for gave a clean chit to the Indian Army for its role during
the provincial autonomy, the establishment of federal the revolt of RIN as it, on a whole, had been most
court and all India Federation at the centre. commendably steady.
32. (c) In the ¿rst Round table conference Dr. Ambedkar 40. (a) In 1939 Indian nationalists were angry that
demanded separate electorates for the depressed British Governor-General of India, Lord Linlithgow,
classes. The Indian National Congress did not take part had without consultation with them brought India into
in the third Round Table conference. the war. So the congress ministries in all the provinces
33. (b) The congress rejected the Cripps proposal resigned in the year 1939 and did not accept the
because it proposed dominion status for India after decision of the viceroy to declare war against Germany.
the end of the world war-II and congress demanded 41. (b) Although at the national level the ability to
complete independence. The Cripps Mission consisted galvanize rebellion was limited, the movement is
of all whites. notable for regional success especially at Satara in
34. (c) Statement 2 and 4 are correct, i.e. the closing of the Maharashtra, Talcher in Odisha, and Midnapore. In
World brought to India not peace but the sword and the Tamluk and Contai subdivisions of Midnapore, the
Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919. local populaces were successful in establishing parallel
35. (c) In October 1943 the British Government decided governments, which continued to function, until
to replace Lord Linlithgow with Lord Wavell as the Gandhi personally requested the leaders to disband in
Viceroy of India. Right after assuming charge as 1944.
Viceroy, Wavell’s most important task was to present 42. (b) The Indian National Congress unanimously
a formula for the solution of the Indian problem which accepted the proposal of non-cooperation. Before
was acceptable for both the Congress and the Muslim launch of the movement, Gandhiji gave a notice to the
League. viceroy about the movement.
36. (b) The Gandhi–Irwin Pact was a political agreement 43. (c) The Gandhi-Irwin Pact 1931, placed the Indian
signed by Mahatma Gandhi and the then Viceroy of National Congress on an equal footing with the British
India, Lord Irwin on 5 March 1931 before the second Indian Government. The participation of Muslims in
Round Table Conference in London. The British the Civil Disobedience Movement was less than that
Government agreed to of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
1. Withdraw all ordinances and end prosecutions 44. (a) Regarding the 3rd June plan. The successor
2. Release all political prisoners, except those guilty governments would be given dominion status. There
of violence was a provision for the Boundary Commission to
3. Permit peaceful picketing of liquor and foreign determine boundaries of the successor states as India
cloth shops and Pakistan.
4. Restore con¿scated properties of the satyagrahis 45. (d) On 15th August 1947, when India got the freedom,
5. Permit free collection or manufacture of salt by it became sovereign country. So, British Sovereignty
persons near the sea-coast ceased to exist after that date. But on the request of
6. Lift the ban over the congress. India, British Sovereign appointed the last Governor
General of Free India Lord Mountbatten.
Section B : Geography
1 Astronomy
1. Consider the following statements regarding Codes:

asteroids: A B C D
1. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes (a) 2 3 5 1
orbiting the Sun. (b) 3 5 1 2
2. Most of the asteroids are small but some (c) 4 1 2 3
have diameter as large as 1000 km. (d) 4 3 2 1
3. The orbit of asteroids lies between orbits of 4. Diamond Ring is a phenomenon observed
Jupiter and Saturn. (a) at the start of a total solar eclipse.
Which of the statements given above are (b) at the end of a total solar eclipse.
correct? (c) only along the peripheral regions of the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only totality trail.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) only in the central regions of the totality trail.
2. Which one of the following statements is correct 5. The tail of a comet is directed away from the sun
with reference to our solar system?
because
(a) The earth is the densest of all the planets in
(a) the comet rotates around the sun, the lighter
our solar system.
mass of the comet is pushed away due to the
(b) The predominant element in the composition
centrifugal force alone.
of Earth is silicon.
(c) The Sun contains 75 percent of the mass of (b) the comet rotates, the lighter mass of the
the solar system. comet is attracted by some star situated in
(d) The diameter of the sun is 190 times that of the direction of its tail.
the Earth. (c) The radiation emitted by the sun exerts a
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct radial pressure on the comet throwing its tail
answer using the codes given below the list: away from the Sun.
List-I List-II (d) The tail of the comet always exists in the
(Special characteristic) (Name of Planet) same orientation.
A. Smallest planet of 6. Consider the following two statements, one labeled
the solar system 1. Mercury as the Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
B. Largest planet of Examine these two statements carefully and select
the solar system 2. Venus the correct answer using the codes given below:
C. Planet second from Assertion (A): The same face of the Moon is
the Sun in the 3. Jupiter always presented to the Earth.
Solar system Reason (R): The Moon rotates about its own
D. Planet nearest to axis in days which is about the
the Sun 4. Pluto same time that it takes to orbit
5. Saturn the earth.
B-2 || Astronomy
Codes: Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
(d) A is false, but R is true. 10. The twinkling of a star is due to
7. Consider the following two statements. One (a) the variation in the intensity of light emitted
labeled as the Assertion (A) and other as Reason by it with time.
(R). Examine these two statements carefully and (b) the variation in the composition of the star
select the correct answer by using the codes given with time.
below. (c) the transit of other celestial objects across
Assertion (A): Existence of human life on Venus the line of sight.
(d) the atmospheric refraction of starlight.
is highly improbable.
11. Which of the following phenomenon is/are the
Reason (R): Venus has extremely high effect of the rotation of the Earth?
level of carbon dioxide in its 1. Apparent movement of the Sun, the Moon
atmosphere. and the Stars.
Codes: 2. Flatness of the poles and bulge at the
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct equator.
explanation of A. 3. Occurrence of sunrise, noon and sunset.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 4. Magnetic ¿eld of the Earth.
explanation of A. Select the correct answer by using the codes
given below:
(d) A is false, but R is true. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
8. The term syzygy is referred to when 12. What is meant by the eclipse of Moon?
(a) The Earth is at perihelion and the Moon at (a) It occurs when the Earth comes between
perigee. the Sun and the Moon and the centers of all
(b) The Earth is at aphelion and the Moon at three are on the same straight line.
apogee. (b) It is path along which the moon revolves.
(c) The Moon and the Sun are at right angles (c) For any place, it is the average angle made
with reference to the Earth. by a line drawn from the moon to place and
horizontal at midnight.
(d) The Moon, Sun and Earth lie along a straight
(d) When the Moon comes between the Sun and
line. the Earth, it causes the shadows of the Moon
9. Consider the following two statements, one to fall on Earth.
labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other as 13. Consider the following statements:
Reason (R). Examine these two statements 1. The albedo of an object determines its visual
carefully and select the correct answer by using brightness when viewed with reÀected
the codes given below: light.
Assertion (A): To orbit around Sun, the planet 2. The albedo of Mercury is much greater than
the albedo of the Earth.
Mars takes lesser time than time
taken by the Earth. correct?
Reason (R): The diameter of the planet Mars (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
is less than that of the Earth. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Geography || B-3
14. We always see the same face of the Moon 19. Consider the following two statements, one
because labelled as the Assertion (A) and other as Reason
(a) it rotates at the same speed as the Earth
(R). Examine these two statements carefully and
around the Sun.
(b) it takes equal time for revolution around the select the correct answer by using the code given
Earth and rotation on its own axis. below:
(c) it revolves on its axis in a direction opposite Assertion (A): Comets revolve round the sun
to that of the Earth. only in long elliptical orbit.
(d) it is smaller than the Earth.
15. The inexhaustible source of energy of the stars is Reason (R): A comet develops a tail when it
due to gets close to the sun.
(a) decay of radioactive elements. Codes:
(b) conversion of Hydrogen to Helium. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) conversion of Helium to Hydrogen.
explanation of A.
(d) excess of oxygen that helps burning and
release of energy. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
16. Consider the following statements explanation of A.
1. The Earth receives the Sun’s energy at the (c) A is true, but R is false.
infrared end of the spectrum. (d) A is false, but R is true.
2. The Earth re-radiates the Sun’s heat as
ultraviolet energy. 20. The eclipse of Sun occurs
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are (a) when the Moon comes between the Sun and
correct? the Earth.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) when the Earth comes between the Sun and
17. Consider the following statements regarding Moon.
asteroids and comets? (c) when the Sun comes between the Earth and
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while Moon.
comets are formed of frozen gases held (d) None of these
together by rocky and metallic material.
21. During the Venus transit, the planet appeared as
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the
orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are a tiny black circle moving on the Sun. The black
found mostly between Venus and Mercury. colour on the Sun is because the planet :
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, (a) Obstructed all light from the Sun.
while asteroids do not.
(b) Is black in colour.
correct? (c) Was invisible due to bright rays from the
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only Sun.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Behaved as a black hole during its transit.
18. The Blue Moon phenomenon occurs
(a) when two full moons occur in the same
month. 1. The Earth is nearest to the Sun on about
(b) when two full moons appear in the same January 3.
month thrice in a calendar year. 2. Earth is farthest from the Sun on about July 4.
(c) when four full moons appear in two Which of the above statements is/are correct?
consecutive months of the same calendar
year. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) None of the above (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
B-4 || Astronomy
23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 2. The Earth looks blue when seen from the
answer using the codes given below the lists space due to the presence of large amount of
List-I List-II water, hence it is called ‘Blue Planet’.
(Planets) (Satellites) Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Mars 1. Tethys (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
B. Jupiter 2. Deimos (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
C. Saturn 3. Europa 27. Consider the following two statements, one
D. Uranus 4. Titania labelled as the Assertion (A) and other as Reason
Codes: (R). Examine these two statements carefully and
A B C D select the correct answer by using the codes given
(a) 1 2 3 4 below:
(b) 2 3 1 4 Assertion (A): Venus is the brightest object in
(c) 3 2 1 4 the sky after the Sun.
(d) 4 3 2 1 Reason (R): Venus is the second planet from
24. Consider the following statements: the Sun in our solar system.
1. The nearest large galaxy of Milky Way is the Codes:
Andromeda galaxy. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
2. The Sun’s nearest known star is a red dwarf explanation of A.
star called Proxima Centauri, at a distance of (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
4.3 light years away. explanation of A.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (c) A is true, but R is false.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) A is false, but R is true.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 28. Consider the following statements:
25. Consider the following two statements, one 1. Our solar system is located in the orion arm
labelled as the Assertion (A) and other as Reason of the Milky way galaxy, about two-third of
(R). Examine these two statements carefully and the way out from the centre.
select the correct answer by using the codes given 2. The solar system formed from an interstellar
below: cloud of dust and gas or nebulla about 4.6
Assertion (A): The planet Neptune appears blue billion years ago.
in colour. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Reason (R): The presence of Methane gas in (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the atmosphere of Neptune is (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
responsible for its colour. 29. Consider the following statements:
Codes: 1. When the Sun, the Earth and the Moon are
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct aligned in a straight line, the position is
explanation of A. referred to as SYZYGY.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 2. When the Sun and Moon are in straight line,
explanation of A. it results in spring tide.
(c) A is true, but R is false. 3. When the Sun and Moon are in right angle,
(d) A is false, but R is true. it results in Neap tide.
1. Since Venus is seen in the East in morning correct?
and in the West in evening. It is called (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
‘Morning star’ as well as ‘Evening star’. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Geography || B-5
30. Consider the following two statements, one Codes:
labelled as the Assertion (A) and other as Reason A B C D
(R). Examine these two statements carefully and (a) 1 2 3 4
select the correct answer by using the codes given (b) 2 1 3 4
below: (c) 4 3 1 2
Assertion (A): The tidal effect of Moon on the (d) 3 4 2 1
surface of Earth is less than that 33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
of Sun. answer from the codes given below the list:
Reason (R): Moon’s gravitational pull at List-I List-II
Earth’s surface is less compared A. Planet 1. Moon
to Sun’s gravitational pull. B. Satellite 2. Uranus
Codes: C. Comet 3. Mariner
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct D. Arti¿cial satellite 4. Halley
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct A B C D
explanation of A. (a) 2 1 4 3
(c) A is true, but R is false. (b) 1 2 3 4
(d) A is false, but R is true. (c) 4 3 1 2
31. There are two statements, one labelled as the (d) 2 1 3 4
Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). Examine 34. Consider the following statements:
these two statements carefully and select the 1. Only two planets Venus and Uranus revolve
correct answer by using the codes given below: around the Sun from east to west i.e.,
Assertion (A): According to Nova hypothesis, clockwise.
Solar planets were formed 2. While other planets revolve around the Sun
because of explosion of Super from west to east i.e., anti-clockwise.
Nova. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Reason (R): A star becomes Super Nova in (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
that stage when it has lack of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
hydrogen element. 35. Consider the following statements:
Codes: 1. The Sun is the heart spot of the Solar system
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct which is the source of energy of all organism
explanation of A. of the earth.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 2. The innermost layer of the Sun is called
explanation of A. Corona.
(c) A is true, but R is false. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(d) A is false, but R is true. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
answer using the codes given below the lists: 36. Scientists have determined the temperature
List-I List-II near the Earth’s centre 1,000°C hotter than was
(Planets) (Satellites) reported in an experiment run 20 years ago at
A. Earth 1. Tritan (a) 6,000° Celsius
B. Jupiter 2. Titan (b) 5,000° Celsius
C. Saturn 3. Ganymede (c) 4,000° Celsius
D. Neptune 4. Moon (d) None of these
B-6 || Astronomy
37. Match the following B. Largest planet of (ii) Venus
List-I List-II the solar system
(Features) (Dates) C. Planet second from the (iii) Jupiter
A. Vernal equinox 1. December 22 Sun in the solar system
B. Summer solstice 2. September 23 D. Planet nearest to the Sun (iv) Pluto
C. Winter solstice 3. March 20 (v) Saturn
D. Autumnal equinox 4. June 22 (a) A-(ii); B-(iii); C-(v); D-(i)
Codes: (b) A-(iii); B-(v); C-(i); D-(ii)
A B C D (c) A-(iv); B-(i); C-(ii); D-(iii)
(a) 3 4 1 2 (d) A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(i)
(b) 3 1 2 4 41. Which of the following statements in regard to
(c) 3 1 4 2 the galaxy is correct?
(d) 2 4 1 3 (a) Numerous tiny bodies that move around the
38. Match the following sun are called galaxies
List-I List-II (b) Galaxy is found between the orbits of Mars
(Longitudes) (Dates) and Jupiter
A. Prime Meridian 1. 180º longitude (c) A galaxy is a huge system of billions of stars
B. Tropic of Cancer 2. 23½º N latitude and clouds of dust and gases
C. International Date Line 3. 0º longitude (d) A galaxy does not have a sun
D. Arctic Circle 4. 23½º S latitude 42. Match the planets with their properties and
E. Tropic of Capricorn 5. 66½º N latitude accordingly select the correct alternative:
Codes: Planet Property
A B C D E (A) Saturn (i) Longest year
(a) 2 4 5 1 3 (B) Neptune (ii) 71% water
(b) 3 2 1 5 4 (C) Earth (iii) Longest day
(D) Venus (iv) Having most moons
(c) 3 1 4 5 2
(a) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D - iii
(d) 3 4 5 2 1
(b) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D - i
39. Match column I with column II and select the
(c) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D - iii
correct answer using the code given below the
(d) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D - i
columns:
43. Global Positioning System (GPS) is associated
(A) Earth (i) Dwarf planet
with
(B) Pluto (ii) Star
1. determining latitude and longitude
(C) Moon (iii) Blue planet
2. constellation of satellites
(D) Sun (iv) Satellite
3. US system of GPS and Russian system of
(1) A-(iii), B-(i) C-(iv), D-(ii)
GLONASS
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
4. navigation
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) Select the correct answer using the codes given
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv) below
40. Match column I with column II and select the (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
correct answer using the code given below the (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
columns: 44. The Earth is an oblate spheroid and not a perfect
Column I Column II sphere. This is because
(Special characteristic) (Name of planet) 1. The Earth has a rotational motion and the
A. Smallest planet (i) Mercury rotational speed increases as one goes from
of the solar system the poles towards the equator.
Geography || B-7
2. The equator experiences greater gravitational (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
pull from the sun. (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
3. The intensity of sunlight received at the 47. Which one of the following statements is/ are
equator is greater than that at the poles. correct with regard to Milky Way?
Select the correct answer using the codes given 1. It is a spiral galaxy.
below 2. The solar system resides in one of its spiral
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 arms.
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these Select the correct answer using the code given
45. Consider the following statements below:
1. The Earth does not move along its orbit at a (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
constant rate. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Earth moves fastest at perihelion and 48. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
slowest at aphelion. 1. Lunar eclipse takes place when the Earth
The above statements are true of which one of the comes directly between the Sun and the Moon
following laws? 2. Solar eclipse happens when the Moon comes
(a) Kepler’s second law directly between the Sun and the Earth
(b) Newton’s second law of motion 3. Lunar eclipse takes place when the Sun comes
(c) Ohm’s law directly between the Earth and the Moon
(d) Newton’s law of gravitation 4. Solar eclipse happens when the Earth comes
46. Which of the following factors inÀuence ocean directly between the Sun and the Moon
currents? Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Rotation of the Earth below:
2. Air pressure and wind Code:
3. Ocean water density (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
4. Revolution of the Earth (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
B-8 || Astronomy
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 7. (a) 13. (a) 19. (b) 25. (a) 31. (b) 37. (a) 43. (d)
2. (b) 8. (d) 14. (b) 20. (a) 26. (c) 32. (c) 38. (b) 44. (a)
3. (d) 9. (d) 15. (b) 21. (d) 27. (a) 33. (a) 39. (a) 45. (a)
4. (c) 10. (d) 16. (d) 22. (c) 28. (c) 34. (c) 40. (d) 46. (b)
5. (a) 11. (d) 17. (c) 23. (b) 29. (d) 35. (a) 41. (c) 47. (c)
6. (c) 12. (d) 18. (a) 24. (c) 30. (a) 36. (a) 42. (a) 48. (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes a great pace that sublimation occurs. The sublimation
orbiting the Sun. Most of the asteroids are small of the ice that carries away dirt and rock causes the
but some have diameter as large as 1000 km. There appearance of a large white ¿reball with a long tail.
are millions of asteroids, many thought to be the The layer that envelopes the comet is called the coma.
shattered remnants of planetesimals, bodies within A tail of dust particles, hydrogen, or ions extends
the young Sun’s solar nebula that never grew large more than a million miles away from the comet.
enough to become planets. The large majority of 6. (c) The same side of the Moon always faces the
known asteroids orbit in the asteroid belt between Earth because the Moon spins once on its axis in
the orbits of Mars and Jupiter, or are co-orbital with exactly the same amount of time that the Moon
Jupiter. Asteroids vary greatly in size, from almost revolves around the Earth, or once every 29 days.
1,000 km for the largest down to rocks just tens of The Moon and Earth have been tidally locked in this
metres across. con¿guration for millions of years.
2. (b) The Earth is the densest of all the planets 7. (a) Existence of human life on Venus is highly
in our solar system. The density of the Earth is improbable because Venus has extremely high level
5.513 g/cm3. This is an average of all of the material of carbon dioxide in its atmosphere.
on the planet. 8. (d) The term SYZYGY is referred to when the
3. (d) Smallest planet of the solar system is Pluto while moon, sun and earth lie along a straight line. As seen
the largest is Jupiter. Planet second from the Sun in from the Earth, a solar eclipse is a type of eclipse
the solar system is Venus; planet nearest to the Sun that occurs when the Moon passes between the Sun
is Mercury. and Earth, and the Moon fully or partially blocks
4. (c) Diamond Ring is a phenomenon observed only (“occults”) the Sun. This can happen only at new
along the peripheral regions of the totality trail. When moon, when the Sun and the Moon are in conjunction
the shrinking visible part of the photosphere becomes as seen from Earth in an alignment referred to as
very small, Baily’s beads will occur. These are caused SYZYGY. In a total eclipse, the disk of the Sun is
by the sunlight still being able to reach Earth through fully obscured by the Moon. In partial and annular
lunar valleys. Totality then begins with the diamond eclipses only part of the Sun is obscured.
ring effect, the last bright Àash of sunlight. 9. (d) The diameter of the planet Mars is less than
5. (a) Because of the comet rotation around the sun, that of the Earth. Mars has approximately half the
the lighter mass of the comet is pushed away due to diameter of Earth. It is less dense than Earth, having
the centrifugal force alone. When a comet comes about 15% of Earth’s volume and 11% of the mass.
close enough to the sun, the ice begins to melt at such Its diameter is 6,779 kms.
Geography || B-9
10. (d) The twinkling of a star is due to the atmospheric an extra full moon that appears in a subdivision of a
refraction of starlight. The scientific name for year, either the third of four full moons in a season
the twinkling of stars is stellar scintillation (or or, recently, a second full moon in a month of the
astronomical scintillation). Stars twinkle when we see common calendar. The phrase has nothing to do with
them from the Earth’s surface because we are viewing the actual color of the moon, although a literal “blue
them through thick layers of turbulent (moving) air moon” (the moon appearing with a tinge of blue) may
in the Earth’s atmosphere. occur in certain atmospheric conditions; e.g., when
11. (d) All the given phenomena are the effect of the there are volcanic eruptions or when exceptionally
rotation of the earth. The Earth rotates from the west large ¿res leave particles in the atmosphere.
towards the east. As viewed from the North Star or 19. (b) Comets revolve round the sun only in long
polestar Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise. elliptical orbit. A comet develops a tail when it gets
12. (d) Eclipse of moon occurs when the moon comes close to the sun.
between the sun and the earth and it causes the 20. (a) The eclipse of sun occurs when the moon comes
shadow of the moon to fall on earth. A lunar eclipse between the sun and the earth.
occurs when the Moon passes directly behind the 21. (d) The black color on the sun is because the planet
Earth into its umbra (shadow). This can occur only behaved as a black hole during its transit. A transit
when the Sun, Earth, and Moon are aligned (in of Venus across the Sun takes place when the planet
“SYZYGY”) exactly, or very closely so, with the Venus passes directly between the Sun and Earth (or
Earth in the middle. Hence, a lunar eclipse can only
another planet), becoming visible against (and hence
occur the night of a full moon.
obscuring a small portion of) the solar disk. During
13. (a) The albedo of an object determines its visual a transit, Venus can be seen from Earth as a small
brightness when viewed with reÀected light. Albedo black disk moving across the face of the Sun. The
is the fraction of solar energy (shortwave radiation) duration of such transits is usually measured in hours
reÀected from the Earth back into space. It is a (the transit of 2012 lasted 6 hours and 40 minutes).
measure of the reÀectivity of the earth’s surface.
22. (c) The earth is nearest to the sun on about January
14. (b) We always see the same face of moon because
3rd. Earth is farthest from the sun on about 4th July.
it takes equal time for revolution around the earth
23. (b) Deimos is the satellite of Mars. Europa is the
and rotation on its own axis.
satellite of Jupiter. Tethys is the satellite of Saturn.
15. (b) The inexhaustible source of energy of the
Titan is the satellite of Uranus.
stars is due to conversion of Hydrogen to Helium.
In the interior of a star, the particles move rapidly 24. (c) The nearest large galaxy of Milky Way is the
in every direction because of the high temperatures Andromeda galaxy. The Andromeda Galaxy is a
present. Every so often a proton moves close enough spiral galaxy approximately 2.5 million light years
to a nucleus to be captured, and a nuclear reaction from Earth in the Andromeda constellation. Also
takes place. Only protons of extremely high energy known as Messier 31, M31, or NGC 224, the sun’s
(many times the average energy in a star such as the nearest known star is a red dwarf star called proxima
Sun) are capable of producing nuclear events of this centauri. Proxima Centauri is a red dwarf about 4.24
kind. A minimum temperature required for fusion is light years from the Sun, inside the G-cloud, in the
roughly 10 million K. Since the energies of protons constellation of Centaurus.
are proportional to temperature, the rate of energy 25. (a) The planet Neptune appears blue in colour.
production rises steeply as temperature increases. The presence of methane gas in the atmosphere of
17. (c) Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while Neptune is responsible for its colour. Neptune is the
comets are formed of frozen gases held together eighth and farthest planet from the Sun in the Solar
by rocky and metallic material. Comets show a System. It is the fourth largest planet by diameter
perceptible growing tail, while asteroids do not. and the third largest by mass. Among the gaseous
18. (a) The Blue Moon phenomenon occurs, when two planets in the solar system, Neptune is the most dense.
full moons occur in the same month. A blue moon is Neptune is 17 times the mass of Earth.
B-10 || Astronomy
26. (c) The earth looks blue when seen from the space investigate Mars, Venus and Mercury from 1962
due to the presence of large amount of water. to 1973. The program included a number of ¿rsts,
27. (a) Venus is the brightest object in the sky after the including the ¿rst planetary Àyby, the ¿rst pictures
sun. Venus is the second planet from the sun in our from another planet, the ¿rst planetary orbiter, and
solar system. the ¿rst gravity assist maneuver.
28. (c) Our solar system is located in the orion arm of 34. (c) Only two planets Venus and Uranus revolve
the milky way galaxy, about two-third of the way out around the sun from east to west while other planets
from the centre. The sun is about 26,000 light-years revolve around the sun from west to east.
from the center of the Milky Way Galaxy, which is 35. (a) The sun is the heart spot of the solar system
about 80,000 to 120,000 light-years across (and less which is the source of energy of all organism of
than 7,000 light-years thick). We are located on one of the earth. The Sun produces energy by the nuclear
its spiral arms, out towards the edge. It takes the sun fusion of hydrogen into helium in its core. It means
(and our solar system) roughly 200-250 million years that, since there is a huge amount of hydrogen in the
to orbit once around the Milky Way. In this orbit, we core, these atoms stick together and fuse into a helium
(and the rest of the Solar System) are traveling at a atom. This energy is then radiated out from the core
velocity of about 155 miles/sec (250 km/sec). and moves across the solar system.
31. (b) According to Nova hypothesis, Solar planets 36. (a) These measurements con¿rm geophysical
were formed because of explosion of Super Nova. A models that say that the temperature difference
star becomes Super Nova in that stage when it has between the solid core and the mantle above must
lack of hydrogen elements. A supernova happens be at least 1,500° C to explain why the earth has
where there is a change in the core, or center, of a a magnetic ¿eld. The research team, which was
star. A change can occur in two different ways, with led by Agnes Dewaele from the CEA, a French
both resulting in a supernova. technological research organisation, used X-rays
The ¿rst type of supernova happens in binary from the European Synchrotron Radiation Facility
star systems. Binary stars are two stars that orbit (ESRF) in Grenoble, France, as a key investigating
the same point. One of the stars, a carbon-oxygen tool.
white dwarf, steals matter from its companion star. 37. (a) As Earth revolves around the Sun, there are two
Eventually, the white dwarf accumulates too much moments each year when the Sun is exactly above
matter. Having too much matter causes the star to the equator. These moments — called equinoxes
explode, resulting in a supernova. — occur around March 20 or 21 and September 22
or 23. Equinox literally means “equal night,” since
The second type of supernova occurs at the
the length of day and night is nearly equal in all
end of a single star’s lifetime. As the star runs out
parts of the world during the equinoxes. When the
of nuclear fuel, some of its mass flows into its
Northern Hemisphere starts to tilt toward the sun in
core. Eventually, the core is so heavy that it cannot
spring, the Southern Hemisphere starts to tilt away
withstand its own gravitational force. The core
from the sun, signaling the start of fall. Thus, in the
collapses, which results in the giant explosion of a
Southern Hemisphere, the March equinox is called
supernova. The sun is a single star, but it does not
the autumnal equinox, and the September equinox is
have enough mass to become a supernova.
called the vernal equinox.
32. (c) Moon is the satellite of Earth. Ganymede is the The summer solstice occurs when the tilt of
satellite of Jupiter. Tritan is the satellite of Saturn. a planet’s semi-axis, in either the northern or the
Titan is the satellite of Neptune. southern hemisphere, is most inclined toward the
33. (a) Uranus is a planet. Moon is a satellite. Halley star (sun) that it orbits. Earth’s maximum axial tilt
is a comet. Mariner is a artificial satellite. The toward the sun is 23° 26’. This happens twice each
Mariner program was a program conducted by the year, at which times the sun reaches its highest
American space agency NASA in conjunction with position in the sky as seen from the north or the
Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) that launched a south pole.
series of robotic interplanetary probes designed to The summer solstice occurs during a
Geography || B-11
hemisphere’s summer. This is the northern solstice C. The planet second from the sun in the
in the northern hemisphere and thesouthern solstice solar system is – Venus
in the southern hemisphere. Depending on the shift D. Planet nearest to the sun – Mercury
of the calendar, the summer solstice occurs some 41. (c) A galaxy is a huge system of billions of stars
time between June 20 and June 22 in the northern and clouds of dust and gases.
hemisphere[2][3] and between December 20 and 43. (d) The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a
December 23 each year in the southern hemisphere. space-based satellite navigation systems that
Winter solstice is an astronomical phenomenon provides and time information in all weather,
which marks the shortest day and the longest night anywhere in the Earth.
of the year. Winter solstice occurs for the Northern GPS Country
Hemisphere in December and for the Southern 1. GPS USA
Hemisphere in June. The point at which the Sun’s 2. GLONASS Russia
path crosses the celestial equator moving from 3. Galileo Europe
north to south is called the autumnal equinox. the 4. Compass China
equinox in autumn, on about 22 September in the 5. Gagan India
northern hemisphere and 20 March in the southern 44. (a) The shape of the Earth is very close to that of
hemisphere. an oblate spheroid, a sphere Àattered along the axis
38. (b) A prime meridian is a meridian (a line of from pole to pole such that there is bulge around
longitude) in a geographical coordinate system equator. This bulge results from the rotation of the
at which longitude is de¿ned to be 0°. A prime Earth and causes the diameter at the equator to be 43
meridian and its opposite in a 360°-system, the km large than the pole to pole diameter.
180th meridian (at 180° longitude), form a great 45. (a) Kapler’s law give a description of the motion
circle. This great circle divides the sphere, e.g., the of planets around the Sun. Kepler’s are laws
Earth, into two hemispheres. are
The Tropic of Cancer, also referred to as the 1. The orbit of every planet is an ellipse with the
Northern Tropic, is the most northerly circle of Sun at one of two faces.
latitude on the Earth at which the Sun may appear
2. A line joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out
directly overhead at its culmination.
equal areas during intervals of time.
The International Date Line (IDL) is an
46. (b) A ocean current is a continuous, directed
imaginary line of longitude on the Earth’s surface
movement of ocean water generated by the forces
located at about 180 degrees east (or west) of the
acting upon this mean Àow, such as breaking
Greenwich Meridian.
waves, wind, coriolis effect, cabbeling, temperature
ArcticCircle is an imaginary circle round the
and salinity differences and tides caused by the
earth, parallel to the equator, at latitude66° 32ƍ N;
gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun.
it marks the northernmost point at which the sun
appearsabove the level of the horizon on the winter 47. (c) The Milky Way glaxy is the home of our solar
solstice. system. It is very dif¿cult to study this glaxy because
ROPIC OF CAPRICORN is the parallel of the solar system is located within it. It seems to be a
latitude that is approximately 231»2 degrees south spiral glaxy.
of the equator and that is the southernmost latitude 48. (a) Lunar eclipse takes place when the Earth comes
reached by the overhead sun directly between the Sun and the Moon. Solar eclipse
40. (d) A. The smallest planet of the solar system is happens when the Moon comes directly between the
– Pluto Sun and the Earth. Lunar eclipse takes place when the
B. The largest planet of the solar system is – Sun comes directly between the Earth and the Moon.
Jupiter
2 Physical Geography

correct answer from the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Assertion (A): The polar front theory states that explanation of A.
masses of relatively, warm and (b) Both and R ar true, but R is not the correct
cold air are brought into contact. explanation of A.
Reason (R): These masses are known after (c) A is true, but R is false.
their source regions. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Codes: 5. Which of the following concepts form basis for
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct the Plate Tectonic Theory? Use the codes given
explanation of A. below to select the correct answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the 1. Continental drift 2. Isostasy
3. Palaeomagnetism 4. Pole wandering
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) R is true, but A is false. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
2. Which one of the following is called marine 6. Which one of the following statements is not true
snowfall? about subsidence theory of Coral reefs?
(a) Fall of snowÀakes on sea surface. (a) The theory has been postulated by Charles
(b) Fall of hail on sea surface. Darwin.
(c) Continuous fall of snow pillets on ocean (b) According to the theory coral polyps grow
Àoors. both in shallow and deep oceanic waters.
(d) Continuous fall of tiny marine sediments on (c) Fringing reef, barrier reef and atolls
ocean Àoors. are successive stages of coral reef
3. Which one of the following is correctly development.
matched? (d) Reef building starts from submarine plate
(a) Rossby waves — Jet stream form.
(b) El Nino — Strong monsoon 7. Consider the following statements and select the
(c) Index cycle — Walker circulation correct answer from the codes given below:
(d) Hadley cell — Mid-latitude cell Assertion (A): Aridity is the distinctive
4. Consider the following statements and select the characteristic of the deserts.
correct answer from the codes given below: Reason (R): They receive low rainfall and
Assertion (A): There has been equatorial have high evaporation.
counter current in every ocean Codes:
of the world. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
Reason (R): Equatorial counter currents are
formed by the piling of water
explanation of A.
in eastern part of the ocean by (c) A is true, but R is false.
equatorial currents. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Geography || B-13
8. Which one of the following statements is true Codes:
about tropopause? (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) It is about 5 km thick layer. explanation of A.
(b) Its average height is about 10 km over the (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
equator. explanation of A.
(c) There is no seasonal variation in its height. (c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) The temperature at its top is lowest over the (d) A is false, but R is true.
equator and relatively higher over the poles. 12. Consider the following statements and select the
9. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): New folded mountains are also
called Tertiary Mountains.
Assertion (A): Equatorial counter current is not
Reason (R): They are mainly formed along
found in the Indian ocean during
the constructive plate margins.
summer season.
Codes:
Reason (R): During summer season south- (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
west monsoon current is dominant explanation of A.
in northern Indian Ocean. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (c) A is true, but R is false.
explanation of A. (d) A is false, but R is true.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 13. The horizontal distribution of temperature of
explanation of A. ocean water is largely affected by
(c) A is true, but R is false. 1. Depth of water in the ocean
(d) A is false, but R is true. 2. Ocean current
10. Read the following statements and select the 3. Prevailing winds
correct answer from the codes given below: 4. Latitudes
1. Corals are mainly found in the tropical Which of the following is correct?
oceans. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
2. Corals need clean sediment free water. (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Corals are mainly found in deeper parts of 14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
the ocean. answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
4. Rain water promotes the growth of corals.
(Original) (Metamorphic)
Codes:
A. Basalt 1. Slate
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
B. Coal 2. Schist
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
C. Limestone 3. Marble
11. Consider the following statements and select the D. Shale 4. Diamond
correct answer from the code given below: Codes:
Assertion (A): The circum-paci¿c belt is the most A B C D
vulnerable zone of Tsunamis. (a) 1 2 3 4
Reason (R): It is tectonically most active (b) 2 4 3 1
area and generates world’s (c) 4 3 2 1
major earthquakes. (d) 3 4 2 1
B-14 || Physical Geography
correct answer using the codes given below: A B C D
Assertion (A): The length of the day at the (a) 2 4 1 3
equator is always 12 hours. (b) 2 1 4 3
Reason (R): The angle of incidence of the (c) 1 2 3 4
Sun’s rays at the equator is (d) 4 3 2 1
constant. 19. Select the correct chronological order of the
Codes: following organic cycles from the codes given
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct below:
explanation of A. 1. Alpine 2. Torridonian
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 3. Caledonian 4. Hercynian
(c) A is true, but R is false. (a) 2, 4, 1,3 (b) 2, 3, 4,1
(d) A is false, but R is true. (c) 1, 3, 4, 2 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
16. Consider the following statements 20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
1. Igneous rocks are rich in natural gas. answer from the codes given below:
2. Igneous rocks are rich in metallic minerals. List-I List-II
3. Igneous rocks are not fossiferous. (Concept) (Propounder)
4. Igneous rocks consist of silicate minerals. A. Peneplain 1. Powel
Which of the statements given above are B. Base level 2. Wegener
correct? C. Continental drift 3. Hary Hess
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 D. Plate tectonics 4. Davis
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Codes:
17. Match the following two lists and choose the A B C D
correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 4 2 3
(Oceans) (Ridges) (c) 4 1 2 3
A. Atlantic Ocean 1. Cocos ridge (d) 4 2 1 3
B. Paci¿c Ocean 2. Lomonosov ridge 21. Which one of the following is the correct sequence
C. Indian Ocean 3. Dolphin ridge and of the terrigenous deposits from the coast to the
challenge ridge deeper part of the sea? Use the codes given below
D. Arctic Ocean 4. East Indian ridge to select the correct answer:
Codes: 1. Clay 2. Mud
A B C D 3. Sand 4. Silt
(a) 2 4 1 3 Codes:
(b) 3 1 4 2 (a) 4, 2, 1, 3 (b) 3, 2, 4, 1
(c) 1 2 3 4 (c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 4 3 2 1 22. Select the correct chronological order of the
18. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct following geological periods, from the codes
answer from the codes given below: given below:
List-I List-II 1. Oligocene 2. Eocene
(Processes) (Land forms) 3. Pliocene 4. Miocene
A. Permafrost 1. Flood plain Codes:
B. Diastrophism 2. Pingo (a) 3, 2, 1, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
C. Running water 3. Stack (c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
D. Sea waves 4. Horst
Geography || B-15
23. Consider the following statements: (c) There is sudden increase in the velocity of P
1. The axis of the Earth’s magnetic ¿eld is waves along the mantle core boundary.
1b (d) The inner core of the earth is in molten
inclined at 23 and half to the geographic
2 state.
axis of the Earth. Codes:
2. The Earth’s magnetic pole in the Northern (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
hemisphere is located on a peninsula in (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
northern Canada. 28. Which one of the following characteristics of
3. Earth’s magnetic equator passes through the earth is not explained by the tetrahedral
Thumba in South India. hypothesis?
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are (a) Drifting of the continents.
correct? (b) Location of chain of Fold Mountains around
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
the Paci¿c Ocean.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
24. Which one of the following is the correct sequence (c) Antipodal arrangement of the continents and
of the descending order of the latitudinal zones oceans.
of ocean salinity? Use the codes given below to (d) Triangular shape of the continents and the
select the correct answer: oceans.
1. 10°N — 15°N 29. Which of the following is the correct order of
2. 15°N — 40°N current of the South Atlantic Ocean from Equator
3. 40°N — 50°N and back?
4. 50°N — 70°N 1. Benguela
Codes: 2. Brazil
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 3. South Atlantic Drift
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 1, 4, 3, 2 4. South Equatorial
25. The correct chronological order of the following
Codes:
geological epochs is
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4
(a) Pleistocene, Pliocene, Holocene, Miocene.
(b) Miocene, Pliocene, Pleistocene, Holocene. (c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1
(c) Holocene, Miocene, Pleistocene, Pliocene. 30. Which one of the following is not a correct
(d) Pliocene, Pleistocene, Holocene, Miocene. statement about Coriolis force?
26. The formation of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge is a (a) It affects wind direction.
typical example of the process of (b) It is an effect of the rotational movement of
1. Convergence 2. Divergence the earth.
3. Shear 4. Sea Àoor spreading (c) It becomes minimum at the poles and
Select the correct answer from the following maximum at the equator.
codes: (d) The magnitude of Coriolis Effect is
Codes: determined by the wind speed, mass of the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 moving body and sine of latitude.
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
27. Study the following statements about the interior
correct answer from codes given below:
of the earth and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A): Tropical areas get more
(a) The average density of the outer crust is insolation than the temperate
2.8. area.
(b) The crust is separated from the mantle by Reason (R): Tropical areas have larger length
the Gutenberg discontinuity. of day than the temperate areas.
Codes: 35. In an Anticyclone
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) Barometric pressure is high towards centre
explanation of A. of the system.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (b) Winds blow in clockwise direction in
explanation of A. southern hemisphere.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (c) Weather remains moist and sky is cloudy.
(d) A is false, but R is true. (d) Situation of calm prevails and weather
32. Consider the following statements regarding the changes rapidly.
Tidal hypothesis: 36. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
1. It is a monistic hypothesis. answer with the help of the codes:
2. It was propounded by the British scientist List-I List-II
James Jeans. (Land forms) (Agents of formation)
3. It holds ¿lament responsible for the origin of A. Faults 1. Glacial activity
the solar system. B. Flood plains 2. Fluvial effects
Which of the statements given above are C. Coral reefs 3. Organic activity
correct? D. Moraines 4. Earth movement
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Codes:
33. With reference to Kober’s Theory of Geosyncline, (a) 1 3 2 4
consider the following: (b) 4 2 3 1
Term Meaning (c) 3 1 4 2
1. Orogen : Geosyncline (d) 2 3 1 4
2. Kratogen : Foreland 37. Study the following statements and select the
3. Randketten : Marginal ranges correct answer from the codes given below:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly 1. The average density of rocks in the lower
matched? crust of the earth is 3.
2. There is a gradual decrease in the velocity of
the seismic waves through the lower crust.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The mantle-core boundary is marked by
Moho-discontinuity.
correct answer using the codes given below:
4. The outer core of the earth is in molten
Assertion (A): Basalt is a dark coloured and ¿ne
form.
grained igneous rock formed by
Codes:
magma.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
Reason (R): Magma inside of the earth are
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
cooled very slowly because of
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
higher temperature prevailing
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
there. 38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct List-I List-II
explanation of A (Era) (Epoch)
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct A. Palaeozoic 1. Jurassic
explanation of A. B. Mesozoic 2. Archean
(c) A is true, but R is false. C. Pre Cambrian 3. Oligocene
(d) A is false, but R is true. D. Cainozoic 4. Silurian
Geography || B-17
Codes: 41. The correct sequence of different layers of the
A B C D atmosphere from the surface of the Earth upwards
(a) 1 4 2 3 is
(b) 4 1 2 3 (a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere,
(c) 1 4 3 2 Mesosphere.
(d) 4 1 3 2 (b) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere,
39. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct Mesosphere.
(c) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere,
Ionosphere.
List-I List-II
(d) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere,
A. Agulhas current 1. North Atlantic Ionosphere.
B. Kuroshio current 2. South Atlantic 42. Consider the following statements:
C. Florida current 3. Indian Ocean 1. Either of the two belts over the oceans at
D. Falkland current 4. North Paci¿c about 30° to 35° N and S latitudes is known
Codes: as Horse Latitude.
A B C D 2. Horse latitude are low pressure belts.
(a) 4 3 2 1 Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 3 4 1 2 correct?
(c) 1 2 3 4 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) 2 1 4 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Consider the following statements and select 43. Consider the following factors
1. Rotation of the Earth
the correct answer with the help of codes given
2. Air Pressure and Wind
below:
3. Density of Ocean Water
Assertion (A): In southern hemisphere westerlies 4. Revolution of the Earth
are called roaring forties between Which of the above factors inÀuence the ocean
the latitudes of 40°– 50°S, currents?
furious ¿fties at 50°S latitude and (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 4 only
shrieking sixties at 60°S latitude. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Reason (R): The westerlies become more 44. Normally, the temperature decreases with the
vigorous in the southern increase in height from the Earth’s surface
hemisphere because of lack of because
land and dominance of oceans. 1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards only
Their velocity increases and from the Earth’s surface.
they become stormy. They are 2. There is more moisture in the upper
atmosphere.
also associated with boisterous
3. The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere.
gales.
Codes: below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
explanation of A. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 45. Consider the following atmospheric conditions
explanation of A. with reference to Tropical cyclones.
(c) A is true, but R is false. 1. High relative humidity.
(d) A is false, but R is true. 2. Warm oceanic temperature.
3. Region lying between the tropics of cancer 49. Consider the following statements and select
and Capricorn. the correct answer with the help of codes given
Which of the above motivate the development of below:
cyclone? Assertion (A): The work of wind as an agent of
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only gradation is not as widespread as that of water.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Reason (R): It is effective only in the desert
46. Which of the following elements exhibit the regions of the world where rainfall is scanty and
following properties? soil particles are loose.
1. It is the third most abundant element in the (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
earth crust. correct explanation of (A).
2. It exists in a stable combination with other (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
materials mainly silicates and oxides. correct explanation of (A).
3. It has high strength-to-weight ratio. (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(a) Magnesium (b) Iron (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Aluminium (d) Calcium 50. Consider the following statements and select
47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct the correct answer with the help of codes given
answer using the codes given below: below:
List-I List-II Assertion (A): Hurricane cannot develop in the
(Soils) (Climatic region) vicinity of equator.
A. Podzol 1. Temperate Reason (R): Coriolis force is maximum over the
steppe cool equator.
B. Chernozem 2. Cool temperate (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
C. Spodsols 3. Hot and humid correct explanation of A.
D. Laterite 4. Humid cool (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
temperate correct explanation of A.
Codes: (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
A B C D (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(a) 2 1 4 3 51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(b) 3 4 2 1 answer from the codes given below
(c) 2 3 4 1 List-I List-II
(d) 4 1 3 2 A. Sublimation 1. The energy
absorbed is used to
48. Examine the following statements and select the
give the motion
correct answer using the codes given below:
needed the escape
1. The atmospheric air is never completely
the surface.
dry.
B. Freezing 2. Energy is released.
2. Water vapour can occupy as much as 4 per
C. Evaporation 3. Releases 80 cal/gm
cent of the atmospheric volume.
D. Condensation 4. Absorb 680 cal/gm
3. Water vapour in the atmosphere is always
to change the state.
invisible. Codes:
Codes: A B C D
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 1 and 3 are correct (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (d) 3 2 4 1
Geography || B-19
52. Match the following: 2. structure 4. permeability
List-I List-II (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(Mountain Types) (Mountains) (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
A. Block Mountain 1. Appalachian 57. A study of the nature of the old sedimentary rocks
B. Old fold mountain 2. Rocky gives an indication about the
C. Young fold mountain 3. Black Forest 1. age of the earth
D. Volcanic mountain 4. Socottish 2. past environmental conditions
Highlands 3. old civilizations
E. Relict mountain 5. Vesuvious 4. direction of plate movements
Codes: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
A B C D E (c) 1 and 2 (d) Only 2
(a) 1 3 2 5 4 58. Match the following:
(b) 3 1 4 2 5 List I List II
(c) 3 1 2 5 4 A. Temperature falls 1. Ionosphere
(d) 4 1 2 3 5 with height
B. ReÀects radio 2. Stratosphere
53. What is not true of igneous rocks?
waves back to
1. they are crystalline
earth
2. they have a layered structure
C. Contains most of 3. Tropopause
3. they contain metals the ozone
4. they contain fossils D. Fall in temperature 4. Troposphere
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 stops
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 Codes:
54. What is true of sedimentary rocks? A B C D
1. they are layered. (a) 4 2 1 3
2. they contain fossils. (b) 3 2 4 1
3. they are transported rocks. (c) 4 1 2 3
4. many of these are formed in water bodies. (d) 4 3 1 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 59. Match the following
(c) 1 and 4 (d) all the above List I List II
55. Match the following (Winds) (Plane of occurence)
List-I List-II A. Santa Ana 1. Argentina
A. Plucking 1. Wind B. Chinook 2. Alps
C. Foehn 3. Rockies
B. DeÀation 2. Stream
D. Zonda 4. California
C. Abrasion 3. Glacier A B C D
D. Attrition 4. Mutual friction of rock (a) 4 3 2 1
fragments (b) 2 1 4 3
Codes: (c) 4 2 3 1
A B C D (d) 3 4 2 1
(a) 3 2 1 4 60. Match the following
(b) 3 1 2 4 List I List II
(c) 1 3 4 2 A. Isobars 1. Temperature
(d) 3 4 1 2 B. Isohyets 2. Pressure
56. The factor that determines the water holding C. Isotherms 3. Rainfall
capacity of rock debris is its D. Isohel 4. Snowfall
1. porosity 3. texture 5. Sunshine
A B C D (b) 3 1 4 2
(a) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 3 1 5 (d) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 3 5 1 66. Match the following
(d) 2 1 3 5 List I List II
61. Which of the following are wrongly matched? (Wind types) (Regions where they
1. Typhoons China Sea occur)
2. Cyclones West Indies A. Brick ¿elders 1. N. California
3. Hurricanes Indian Ocean B. Sirocco 2. Australia
4. Tornadoes Australia C. Bergs 3. Mediterranean
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 D. Northers 4. Africa
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 Codes:
62. The chief characteristics of shifting cultivation A B C D
are (a) 2 3 1 4
1. High dependence on manual labour (b) 2 3 4 1
2. Low level of technology (c) 3 1 2 4
3. Utilization of poor soils through fallowing (d) 2 1 3 4
4. Use of chemical fertilizers 67. What is true about Nile?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 1. Forms the largest delta of the world
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The longest river of the world
63. Double cropping is a common practice in areas 3. Provides fertile soils and water for irrigation
having in a desert region
1. a lot of rainfall. 4. The most voluminous river
2. good irrigation facilities. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
3. a long growing period. (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
4. alluvial soils. 68. Match the following
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (Peaks) (Range)
64. What are the conditions favourable for tea A. Gurushikhar 1. Annamalai
cultivation? B. Dodabeta 2. Aravalli
1. Warm temperature C. Annaimudi 3. Nilgiri
2. High rainfall D. Dhupgarh 4. Satpura
3. High altitude Codes:
4. Sloping land A B C D
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (a) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All the four (b) 2 3 1 4
65. Match the following (c) 2 4 3 1
Ore Metal 69. What is the chief cause of low yields of crops in
A. Limonite 1. Copper India?
B. Pyrite 2. Uranium 1. Small size of holdings
C. Bauxite 3. Iron 2. Traditional methods of farming
D. Monazite 4. Aluminium 3. Mass illiteracy among farmers
Codes: 4. Low level of farm mechanization
A B C D (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) 1 3 2 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Geography || B-21
70. Match the following (a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
List-I List-II (b) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
A. SAIL 1. Chemicals (c) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
B. BALCO 2. Iron and Steel (d) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
C. BPCL 3. Electronics 74. Match list I with list II and select the correct
D. BEL 4. Aluminium answer using the codes given below the list.
Codes: List I List II
A B C D (A) 0° latitude (i) Standard meridian of India
(a) 2 4 1 3 1
(b) 2 1 4 3 (B) 88 qE (ii) Arctic Circle
2
(c) 4 2 1 3
1
(d) 2 1 3 4 (C) 23 qS (iii) Equator
71. Match the following 2
List-I List-II 1
(D) 66 q N (iv) Tropic of Capricorn
(Tribes) (Area of occurence) 2
A. Adivasis 1. Kerala Codes :
B. Moplahs 2. Nilgiri Hills (a) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (ii)
C. Todas 3. Manipur (b) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (i)
D. Angamis 4. Madhya Pradesh (c) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv)
Codes: (d) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iv)
A B C D 75. Consider the following statements about our
(a) 4 2 1 3 country India:
(b) 4 1 2 3 I. India has an area of about 3.28 million sq.
(c) 4 1 3 2 km.
(d) 4 3 2 1 II. India is located in the south-eastern
72. Which factors inÀuence the density distribution hemisphere.
of population in India most profoundly?
III. The latitudinal extent of India is 8°4’N and
1. Amount of rainfall
37° 6’N latitudes.
2. Fertility of soils
IV. The longitudinal extent of India is 68°7’E
3. Distribution of minerals
and 97° 25’ E longitudes.
4. Cultural factors
Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(a) Only I is correct
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
(b) I, II and III are correct
(c) Only III and IV are correct
(d) I, III and IV are correct
columns:
76. Which the following is/are the characteristic(s) of
Column I Column II
Tropical Deciduous Forests?
1
(A) Tropic of cancer (i) 23 q N (i) Trees shed their leaves in the dry season to
2 conserve water
1 (ii) The hardwood trees found in these forests
(B) Tropic of Capricorn (ii) 23 qS
2 are sal, teak and shisham
1 (iii) Tigers, lions, elephants and monkeys are
(C) Arctic circle (iii) 66 q N
2 common animals
1 (a) only (i) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(D) Antarctic circle (iv) 66 qS (c) only (iii) (d) All of them
2
77. Match column I with column II and select the Column I Column II
correct answer using the code given below the Types of Forest Important Trees
columns: (A) Tropical Rain (i) Pine, Deodar and
Column I Column II Forest Spruce
A. Argentina (i) Down (B) Tropical (ii) Bamboo,
B. Australia (ii) Pampas Deciduous Cinchona and
C. North America (iii) Veld Forest
D. South Africa (iv) Prairie Mahogany
(a) A(ii), B(i),C(iv),D(iii) (C) Mountain Forest (iii) Kikar, Babul, Date
(b) A(iii), B(i),C(iii),D(iv) and Palm
(c) A(i), B(ii),C(iii),D(iv) (D) Thorn Forest (iv) Neem, Teak,
(d) A(iv), B(i),C(ii),D(iii) Shisham and Sal
(a) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D - (i)
(b) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D - (iv)
(c) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D - (iii)
columns:
(d) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D - (iv)
Column A Column B
81. Match the animal with its habitat and accordingly
A. Oasis (i) Glacier select the correct alternative:
B. Oil (ii) Depressions with water Column I Column II
C. Gangri (iii) Sahara Animal Habitat
D. Bedouins (iv) Libya (A) Elephant (i) Coniferous Forest or
(a) A-(i); B-(ii); C-(iii); D-(iv) Taiga
(b) A-(iii); B-(ii); C-(i); D-(iv) (B) Silver Fox (ii) Mediterranean
(c) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(ii); D-(i) (C) Wild buffalo or (iii) Tropical Deciduous
(d) A-(ii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(iii) Bison Forest
79. Match column I with column II and select the (D) Horse (iv) Temperate
correct answer using the code given below the Grasslands
columns: (a) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D - (i)
Column I Column II (b) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (iv), D - (i)
(Types of Forests) (Areas Associated) (c) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D - (iii)
A. Tropical (i) Sunderbans (d) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D - (ii)
rainforests 82. Match the deserts with their locations and select
B. Monsoon forests (ii) Andaman and the correct alternative:
Nicobar islands Column I Column II
C. Thorny bushes (iii) Uttar Pradesh and Desert Location
Bihar (A) Gobi (i) Chile
D. Tidal forests (iv) Rajasthan and (B) Kalahari (ii) Sudan and Egypt
(C ) Atacama (iii) China and
Gujarat
Mongolia
Codes:
(D) Nubian (iv) Namibia and
(a) A - (ii); B - (iii); D - (iv); D - (i)
Botswana
(b) A - (i); B - (ii); C - (iii); D - (iv)
(a) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D - (ii)
(c) A - (ii); B - (iv); C - (iii); D - (i) (b) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D - (ii)
(d) A - (iv); B - (iii); C - (ii); D - (i) (c) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D - (iii)
80. Match the two columns and select the correct (d) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D - (i)
alternative
Geography || B-23
83. Temperate Grasslands in different regions of the Column I Column II
world are known by different names. Match the (A) Sial (i) Remains of the dead
name with the region and accordingly select the plants and animals
correct alternative: trapped in rocks
Column I Column II (B) Sima (ii) Layer lies between
Name Region crust and core
(A) Veldt (i) North America (C) Nife (iii) Uppermost layer of the
(B) Downs (ii) Central Asia earth.
(C) Steppes (iii) Australia (D) Fossils (iv) Innermost layer of the
(D) Prairies (iv) South Africa earth.
(a) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D - i Codes :
(b) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D - i (a) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i
(c) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D - iii (b) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv
(c) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
(d) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D - ii
(d) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – iii
84. Which of the following pairs are correctly
matched?
(I) Ranches – Large cattle farms
columns:
(II) Bison – American buffalo
Column I Column II
(III) Alfa– Alfa – Medicines
(A) Basalt (i) Intrusive igneous
(IV) Combine – A machine that can sow,
rock
plough and work as
(B) Granite (ii) Metamorphic rock
thresher all by itself.
(C) Sandstone (iii) Extrusive igneous
(a) I and II only (b) I, II and IV only
rock
(c) I and IV only (d) All the above
(D) Marble (iv) Sedimentary rock
85. Consider the following pairs
Codes :
I. Savannah – East Africa
(a) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii
II. Prairies – North America
(b) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
III. Veld – Europe
(c) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
IV. Down – Australia
(d) A – i, B – iii, C – iv, D – ii
Which of the above pairs are correct?
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and IV
(c) I and II (d) III and IV
columns:
86. Choose the correct statement(s)?
Column I Column II
(1) The movement of interior plates of earth
(Water falls) (Countries)
causes change in surface of earth.
(A) Angel falls (i) Africa
(2) Sea waves comes under exogenic force.
(B) Niagara falls (ii) India
(3) Sudden movement of interior of earth causes
(C) Victoria falls (iii) South America
earthquakes.
(D) Jog falls (iv) North America
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 Codes:
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All are true (a) (A) – i, (B) – iv, (C) – i, (D) – ii
87. Match column I with column II and select the (b) (A) – ii, (B) – iii, (C) – iv, (D) – i
correct answer using the code given below the (c) (A) – i, (B) – ii, (C) – iii, (D) – iv
columns: (d) (A) – iii, (B) – ii, (C) – i, (D) – iv
90. Match column I with column II and select the 94. Match the River Valley Projects with the states
correct answer using the code given below the bene¿ted by them and accordingly select the
columns: correct alternative:
Column I Column II Types of Industries Examples
(Land forms) (Exogenic forces) (A) Damodar Valley (i) Gujarat and
(A) Flood plain (i) Sea waves Rajasthan
(B) Sea cliff (ii) Glaciers (B) Chambal (ii) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Moraines (iii) Wind and Rajasthan
(D) Sand dunes (iv) River (C) Sardar Sarovar (iii) Andhra Pradesh and
(a) (A) – iv, (B) – iii, (C) – ii, (D) – i
Karnataka
(b) (A) – iii, (B) – ii, (C) – i, (D) – iv
(D) Tungabhadra (iv) Bengal, Bihar and
(c) (A) – iv, (B) – i, (C) – ii, (D) – iii
(d) (A) – iii, (B) – iv, (C) – i, (D) – ii Jharkhand
91. Consider the following statements regarding the (a) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
climate of Sahara desert? (b) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
I. The climate of the Sahara desert is scorching (c) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii
hot and dry. (d) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
II. The sky is cloudless and clear. 95. Match the two columns and select the correct
III. It receives plenty of rainfall. alternative
IV. The nights may be freezing cold with Mineral Information related
temperatures nearing zero degrees. to that mineral
Of the above statements, which are correct. (A) Bauxite (i) Non-Metallic
(a) I only (b) I, III and IV mineral
(c) I, II and III (d) All of above (B) Haematite (ii) Aluminium
92. Consider the following statements? (C) Mica (iii) Found in Malaysia
I. The oasis in the Sahara and the Nile Valley (D) Tin (iv) Best quality Iron
in Egypt supports settled population. Ore
II. Trucks are replacing camels in the salt trade. (a) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
III. The discovery of oil in Algeria, Libya and (b) A - ii, B - iii, C- i, D - iv
Egypt is constantly transforming the Sahara
(c) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii
desert.
(d) A - i, B- ii, C - iii, D - iv
Of these statements:
(a) I and II are correct 96. Match the Crops with the Soil required by them
(b) I, II and III are correct and accordingly select the correct alternative:
(c) Only III is correct Crop Soil Required
(d) II and III are correct (A) Tea (i) Alluvial soil with
93. Match column I with column II and select the clayey sub-soil
correct answer using the code given below the (B) Millets (ii) Well drained loamy
columns: soil
Column A Column B (C) Rice (iii) Less fertile and
A. Coal (i) Southern California sandy Soil
B. Petroleum (ii) Norway (D) Coffee (iv) Hill slopes with
C. Water Energy (iii) Russia alluvial soil
D. Wind Energy (iv) Persian Gulf (a) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(a) A(iii), B(i), C(ii), D(iv) (b) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
(b) A(iii), B(iv), C(ii), D(i) (c) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii
(c) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv) (d) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
(d) A(i), B(ii), C(iv), D(iii)
Geography || B-25
97. Match list I with list II and select the correct 1. The point of origin of Earthquake is called
answer using the codes given below the lists: epicenter.
List I List II 2. The lines joining the places which were
(Minerals) (Distribution) affected Earthquake at the same point of
(A) Iron-ore (i) South Africa time are called homoseismal lines.
(B) Manganese (ii) France Select the correct answer using the codes given
(C) Limestone (iii) North Sweden below
(D) Platinum (iv) Georgia (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Codes: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i 102. What would be the inÀuence on the weather
(b) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv conditions when in mid-winter a feeble high
(c) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i pressure develops over the North-Western part of
(d) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - i India?
98. Which of the following pairs is not correct? 1. High and dry winds would blow outward
I. Kalpakkam – Tamil Nadu from this high pressure area.
II. Tarapur – Uttar Pradesh 2. The Northern plain would become cold.
III. Rana Pratap Sagar– Rajasthan 3. Scorching winds (locally called loo) would
IV. Kaiga – Karnataka blow during the day time.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 4. There would be torrential rains brought by
below: thunderstorms.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) I and IV (d) Only IV below
99. Match list I with list II and select the correct (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
answer using the codes given below the lists: (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
List I List II 103. Which of the following gases in the atmosphere
(water bodies) (Distribution of water in %) is/are responsible for acid rains ?
(A) Oceans (i) 0.0001 1. Oxides of sulphur
(B) Ice caps (ii) 0.0019 2. Oxides of nitrogen
(C) Atmosphere (iii) 97.3 3. Oxides of carbon
(D) Rivers (iv) 2.0 Select the correct answer using the codes given
Codes: below
(a) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(b) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv) (c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) A - (iii), B -(i), C - (ii), D - (iv) 104. Which among the following phenomenas can
(d) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i) occur when very warm and humid air is rising
100. Which of the following is/are West Àowing over a mass of a very cold air?
river(s) of India? 1. Calm weather
1. Mahanadi 2. Krishna 2. Snowfall
3. Narmada 4. Kavery 3. Storms and cyclonic storms
Select the correct answer using the codes given 4. Intense rain and hail
below Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 below
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
101. Which of the following statements relating to (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Earthquakes is/are correct?
105. Consider the following statements (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
1. Ozone is mostly found in the stratosphere (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
2. Ozone layer lies 25 to 30 km above the 109. Consider the following statements
surface of the Earth 1. National parks are a special category of
3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the protected areas of land and sea coasts where
Sun. people are an integral part of the system.
4. Ozone layer has no signi¿cance for life on 2. Sanctuaries are concerned with conservation
the Earth of particular species.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Biosphere reserves are connected with the
correct? habitat of a particular wild animal.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 Which of the statement given above is/are
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 correct?
106. Which of the following statement regarding (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
ozone layer within the atmosphere is/are correct? (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
1. It absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation 110. Consider the following statements :
found in the Sun’s rays. 1. Half the water vapour in the air in atmosphere
2. ChloroÀuorocarbons are serious threat to the lies below an altitude of 1000 m.
ozone layer. 2. The amount of precipitable water in the
Select the correct answer using the codes given atmosphere increases from the equator to the
below poles.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
107. Which of the following statements regarding red
111. Consider the following statements :
soils of India is/are correct?
1. Coal is a sedimentary rock.
1. The colour of the soil is red due to ferric 2. Basalt is an igneous rock.
oxide content. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Red soils are rich in lime, humous and (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
potash. 112. Which of the following statements characterize
3. They are porous and have friable structure. the anticyclones?
Select the correct answer using the codes given 1. Anticyclones are low pressure systems.
below 2. They are characterized by divergent wind
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 circulation.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. They are indicative of dry weather
108. Which of the following best explain why the conditions.
lower course of a river is sometimes chocked
Select the correct answer using the code given
with sediments?
below?
1. The valley of a river is widest in its lower
course.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
2. The velocity of a river in its lower course is
low. 113. Consider the following statements related to
3. The delta sometimes develops in a river’s strati¿cation of atmospheric layers
lower course. 1. All storms and cloudiness are restricted to
4. Much of the river water is drawn for stratosphere.
irrigation in the lower course. 2. Cirrus clouds are formed on the top layers of
Select the correct answer using the codes given troposphere.
below 3. Stratosphere is also an ‘isoclinal layer’.
Geography || B-27
Which of the statements given above are correct? radiations from the Earth’s surface exceeds
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 the energy received from the Sun at 4:00 p.m.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Energy received by the Earth from solar
114. Which among the following statements radiations continues to exceed the energy lost
characterized EI Nino? by outgoing long-wave radiations from the
I. It occurs at irregular intervals Earth’s surface up to 4:00 p.m.
II. It carriers warmer water Select the correct answer using the code given
III. It carries less saline water below :
IV. Its atmospheric equivalent is southern Code :
oscillation. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct, answer using the code given (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
below 118. Arrange the following tropical forest groups in the
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only correct order of sequence based on area covered in
(c) III and IV only (d) I, II, III and IV
India beginning from the largest covered area:
115. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Moist deciduous 2. Dry deciduous
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
I. It enjoys equatorial climate 3. Wet evergreen 4. Semi-evergreen
II. This is the only place in India where a volcano Select the correct answer using the code given
is located below :
III. This is the only place in India where coral Code :
bed is found (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 3-4-2-1
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1-3-2-4 (d) 4-3-2-1
correct? 119. Which of the following statements is/are true ?
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II only 1. The angle of the axis in relation to the plane
(c) II and III only (d) I only in which the earth revolves around the sun is
116. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer not constant.
using the code given below the lists : 2. The amount of energy given off by the
List I List II sun changes with the transparency of the
(Agents of erosion) (Topographical feature) atmosphere. Select the correct answer using
(A) Running water 1. Cirque the code given below.
(B) Glacier 2. Barchan (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(C) Wind 3. Rift Valley
(D) Underground 4. Doline
120. Which of the following statements relating to
Water 5. Gorge
tsunami is/are correct?
Codes : As the tsunamis leave the deep water of the open
(a) A-5; B-1; C-2; D-4 sea and travel towards shallow water
(b) A-5; B-2; C-1; D-3 1. the speed considerably
(c) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-5 2. they attain enormous height is reduced
(d) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2 3. they appear as a gentle rise and fall of the sea
117. The Earth’s surface receives maximum energy Select the correct answer using the code given
at 12 noon but the maximum temperature never below.
occurs at 12 noon. State which of the following (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
reasons are correct. (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Transformation of solar energy into heat 121. Consider the following statements :
requires some time. 1. In the coastal regions, the land breeze blows
2. The loss of energy through long-wave over to the sea during night.
2. In the coastal regions, during night, the air 124. Assertion (A) : Granite has larger crystals than
over the sea is warmer than the air over land. basalt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Reason (R) : Basalt has larger content of metallic
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 minerals.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 125. Assertion (A) : Most of the weather changes are
122. Which of the following statements is/are con¿ned to troposphere.
correct? Reason (R) : Most of the atmospheric mass is
1. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone is a low contained in this layer.
pressure belt which forms an important zone 126. Assertion (A): Trees in Mediterranean region
have thick bark.
of contact over Northern India and Pakistan.
Reason (R) : It is an adaptation to long summer
2. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone invites drought.
inÀow of winds from different directions. 127. Assertion (A) : Within the equatorial regions
Select the correct answer using the code given the highlands have experienced the maximum
below : economic development.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Reason (R) : These have been the areas settle by
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Europeans.
123. Match list I with list II and select the correct 128. Assertion (A) : USA grows sugarcane in the Gulf
answer using the codes given below the lists: coast region.
List I List II Reason (R) : The climate of this region is warm
(A) Mahogany (i) Tropical Deciduous and moist.
forests 129. Assertion (A) : Yak is an important animal of
(B) Shisham (ii) Mediterranean Tibetan Highlands.
vegetation Reason (R) : This is a small animal requiring less
(C) Eucalyptus (iii) Tropical Evergreen grazing.
forests 130. Assertion (A) : China is a leading producer of
(D) Citrus fruits (iv) Temperate Evergree Rice but does not export rice.
forests Reason (R) : Chinese rice is of inferior quality
Codes: and there is no demand for it in the international
(a) A-(iii), B- (i), C- (iv), D- (ii) market.
(b) A - (i), B - (ii), C- (iii), D- (iv) 131. Assertion(A) : Mercator’s projection has been
(c) A- (ii), B- (iii), C- (iv), D- (i) used for making navigational charts.
(d) A- (iii), B- (iv), C- (ii), D- (i) Reason (R) : Loxodromes are shown as straight
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 124-131): Consider the following lines on this.
statements and select the correct answer with the help
of codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R Explains A
(b) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Geography || B-29
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 15. (a) 29. (c) 43. (c) 57. (d) 71. (b) 85. (b) 99. (a) 113. (d) 127. (a)
2. (d) 16. (a) 30. (c) 44. (c) 58. (c) 72. (c) 86. (d) 100. (c) 114. (d) 128. (a)
3. (a) 17. (b) 31. (c) 45. (d) 59. (a) 73. (a) 87. (a) 101. (b) 115. (c) 129. (c)
4. (c) 18. (a) 32. (c) 46. (c) 60. (b) 74. (a) 88. (b) 102. (a) 116. (a) 130. (c)
5. (c) 19. (b) 33. (d) 47. (a) 61. (c) 75. (d) 89. (a) 103. (a) 117. (c) 131. (a)
6. (b) 20. (c) 34. (a) 48. (a) 62. (d) 76. (d) 90. (c) 104. (d) 118. (a)
7. (a) 21. (d) 35. (a) 49. (a) 63. (c) 77. (a) 91. (c) 105. (b) 119. (a)
8. (d) 22. (d) 36. (b) 50. (c) 64. (c) 78. (d) 92. (b) 106. (c) 120. (b)
9. (a) 23. (c) 37. (d) 51. (c) 65. (b) 79. (a) 93. (b) 107. (b) 121. (c)
10. (a) 24. (b) 38. (b) 52. (c) 66. (b) 80. (c) 94. (d) 108. (c) 122. (b)
11. (a) 25. (b) 39. (b) 53. (d) 67. (c) 81. (b) 95. (c) 109. (b) 123. (a)
12. (c) 26. (c) 40. (a) 54. (d) 68. (b) 82. (c) 96. (a) 110. (d) 124. (b)
13. (c) 27. (c) 41. (c) 55. (b) 69. (b) 83. (a) 97. (a) 111. (c) 125. (b)
14. (b) 28. (a) 42. (a) 56. (b) 70. (a) 84. (b) 98. (b) 112. (a) 126. (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) The polar front theory states that masses of streams on Earth are westerly winds (Àowing west
relatively warm and cold air are brought into contact. to east).
These masses are known after their source regions. In 4. (c) There has been equatorial counter current in
meteorology, the polar front is the boundary between every ocean of the world. The Equatorial Counter
the polar cell and the Ferrel cell in each hemisphere. Current is an eastward moving, wind-driven Àowing
At this boundary a sharp gradient in temperature 10-15m deep current found in the Atlantic, Indian,
occurs between these two air masses, each at very and Paci¿c Oceans. This current Àows west-to-east
different temperatures. at about 3-10°N in the Atlantic and Paci¿c basins,
2. (d) Continuous fall of tiny marine sediments on between the North Equatorial Current (NEC) and
ocean Àoors is called marine snowfall. In the deep the South Equatorial Current (SEC).
ocean, marine snow is a continuous shower of mostly 5. (c) The concepts of continental drift and pole-
organic detritus falling from the upper layers of the wandering form the basis for the plate Tectonic
water column. It is a signi¿cant means of exporting theory. Plate tectonics is the theory that the outer
energy from the light-rich photic zone to the aphotic rigid layer of the earth (the lithosphere) is divided
zone below. into a couple of dozen “plates” that move around
3. (a) Jet stream is Rossby waves. Jet streams are fast across the earth’s surface relative to each other, like
Àowing, narrow air currents found in the atmospheres slabs of ice on a lake. A plate may be an ocean basin
of some planets, including Earth. The main jet alone, or a continent alone, or a combination of ocean
streams are located near the tropopause, the transition basin+continent (common).
between the troposphere (where temperature 6. (b) The coral polyps grow both in shallow and
decreases with altitude) and the stratosphere (where deep oceanic waters is not true. A coral polyp is an
temperature increases with altitude). The major jet invertebrate meaning an animal with no backbone,
examples of this are anemones and jelly¿sh. It is small pockets. As they cool slowly underground, the
also the single living unit of a coral and the creature magma becomes igneous rocks.
responsible for our coral reefs. 17. (b) Dolphin and challenger ridge are located in
7. (a) Aridity is the distinctive characteristics of the Atlantic ocean. The Dolphin ridge is in the North
deserts. They receive low rainfall and have high Atlantic Ocean and the Challenger ridge is in the
evaporation. South Atlantic Ocean. Cocos ridge is located in
8. (d) The temperature at its top is lowest over the Paci¿c Ocean. To the east of longitude 150° W,
equator and relatively higher over the poles. the relief of the ocean Àoor is considerably less
9. (a) Equatorial counter current is not found in the pronounced than it is to the west. In the eastern
Indian Ocean during summer season because during Pacific the Cocos Ridge extends southwestward
summer season south-west monsoon current is from the Central American isthmus to the Galapagos
dominant in northern Indian ocean. Islands. East Indian ridge is located in Indian Ocean.
10. (a) Corals are mainly found in the tropical oceans. The Southeast Indian Ridge (SEIR) is a divergent
Corals need clean sediment free water. A coral polyp tectonic plate boundary located along the seaÀoor
has a sack like body and an opening encircled by of the southern Indian Ocean. It separates the Indo-
stinging tentacles called cnidae. The coral polyp Australian Plate to the north from the Antarctic Plate
uses calcium carbonate from seawater to build itself to the south. Lomonosov ridge is located in Arctic
a hard skeleton and it is this limestone skeleton that ocean. The Lomonosov Ridge is a 1,800 km long
protects the soft coral polyp. ridge, which divides the Arctic Ocean into two major
11. (a) The circum-paci¿c belt is the most vulnerable basins: the Eurasia Basin and the Amerasia Basin.
zone of Tsunamis. It is tectonically most active area 18. (a) Permafrost forms Pingo lands. A “pingo” is a
and generates world’s major earthquakes. Ring of mound or hill, consisting of an outer layer of soil
Fire, also called Circum-Paci¿c Belt or Paci¿c Ring covering a core of solid ice. It’s sort of like a big Earth
of Fire, long horseshoe-shaped seismically active pimple on the Arctic landscape. Diastrophism forms
belt of earthquake epicentres, volcanoes, and tectonic Horst land which is the raised fault block bounded
plate boundaries that fringes the Paci¿c basin. by normal faults or graben. A horst is formed from
12. (c) New folded mountains are also called tertiary extension of the Earth’s crust. The raised block is a
mountains. During the Tertiary, the last phase of portion of the crust that generally remains stationary
the breakup of Pangea was accompanied by several or is uplifted while the land has dropped on either
continental collisions, multiple small terranes and side. Running water forms Àood plain type of land.
A Àoodplain or Àood plain is an area of land adjacent
continents collided, resulting in several mountain
to a stream or river that stretches from the banks of
chains that we know today, such as the Pyrenees,
its channel to the base of the enclosing valley walls
Alps, and Zagros Mountains.
and experiences Àooding during periods of high
13. (c) The horizontal distribution of temperature of discharge.
ocean water is largely affected by ocean current, 19. (b) The correct order of the orogenic cycles are:
prevailing winds and latitudes. Torridonian — Caledonian — Heranian — Alpine.
14. (b) Schist is a metamorph of Basalt. Diamond is 20. (c) The concept of peneplain is propounded by
a meta-morph of coal. Marble is a metamorph of Davis. A peneplain is a low-relief plain representing
limestone. State is a metamorph of shale. the ¿nal stage of Àuvial erosion during times of
15. (a) The length of the day at the equator is always extended tectonic stability. The concepts of base
12 hours. The angle of incidence of the sun’s rays at level and widespread erosion of great mountain
the equator is constant. ranges to low elevation and relief are the cornerstones
16. (a) Igneous rocks are rich in natural gas. They are of Powell’s work. The continental drift concept
rich in metallic minerals. They are not fossiferous. propounded by in Wegener 1912. He proposed that
Igneous rocks are called ¿re rocks and are formed the continents we know today were once all attached
either underground or above ground. Underground, in a single landmass he called Pangaea. They were
they are formed when the melted rock, called surrounded by one global ocean, but then broke apart
magma, deep within the earth becomes trapped in and somehow “drifted” to their separate places on the
Geography || B-31
globe. The concept of plate tectonics propounded by 33. (d) Orogen means geosyncline, Kratogen means
Hary Hess. Hess described how hot magma would foreland, Randkettan means marginal ranges.
rise from under the crust at the Great Global Rift. Leopold Kober (21 September 1883 – 6. September
When the magma cooled, it would expand and push 1970) was an inÀuential Austrian geologist
the tectonic plates apart. responsible for a number of now largely discredited
21. (d) The correct sequence of terrigenous deposits theories of orogeny and for coining the term kraton
are: sand, silt, clay and mud. to describe stable continental platforms. Kober,
22. (d) The correct order of the geological periods are: developing geosyncline theory, posited that stable
pliocene, miocene, oligocene, ecocene. blocks known as forelands move toward each other,
23. (c) The Earth’s magnetic pole in the northern forcing the sediments of the intervening geosynclinal
hemisphere is located on a peninsula in northern region to move over the forelands, forming marginal
Canada. Earth’s magnetic equator passes through mountain ranges known as Randketten, while
Thumba in South India. leaving an intervening median mass known as the
Zwischengebirge.
24. (b) (15°N – 40° N > 10° N – 15° N > 40° N – 50°
34. (a) Both the given statements are correct and R is
N > 50° N – 70° N)
the true explanation of A.
25. (b) The correct order of the geological epochs is: 35. (a) In an anticyclone barometric pressure is high
(miocene, pliocene, pleistocene, pliocene). towards centre of the system. An anti-cyclone -- also
26. (c) The formation of mid-Atlantic ridge is a typical known as a high pressure area -- is a large atmospheric
example of the process of Divergence and sea Àoor circulation system with the wind Àowing clockwise
spreading. around it in the Northern Hemisphere, and counter-
27. (c) The average density of the outer crust is 2.8. clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
There is sudden increase in the velocity of P waves 36. (b) Earth movements create faults. Fluvial effects
along the mantle core boundary. create Àood plains. Organic activity creates coral
28. (a) Drifting of the continents is not explained reefs. Earth movements create moraines.
by the tetrahedral hypothesis. The Tetrahedral
37. (d) The average density of rocks in the lower crust
hypothesis is an obsolete scienti¿c theory
attempting to explain the arrangement of the Earth’s of the earth is 3. The outer core of the earth is in
continents and oceans by referring to the geometry molten form.
of a tetrahedron. 38. (b) Palaeozoic Silurian
29. (c) The correct order is: (South Equatorial — Mesozoic Jurassic
Brazil — South Atlantic drift — Benguela) Pre cambrian Archean
30. (c) It becomes minimum at the poles and Cainozoic Oligocene
maximum at the equator. 39. (b) Agulhas current Indian ocean
31. (c) Tropical areas get more insolation than Kuroshio current North Paci¿c
the temperature area. The intensity of albedo Florida current North Atlantic
temperature effects depend on the amount of albedo
Falkland current South Atlantic
and the level of local insolation; high albedo areas
in the arctic and antarctic regions are cold due to 40. (a) Both the given statements are correct and R is
low insolation, where areas such as the Sahara the correct explanation of A.
Desert, which also have a relatively high albedo, 41. (c) (Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Iono-
will be hotter due to high insolation. Tropical and sphere)
sub-tropical rain forest areas have low albedo, 42. (a) Either of the two belts over the oceans of
and are much hotter than their temperate forest about 30° to 35° N and S latitudes is known as
counterparts, which have lower insolation. Horse Latitude. This region, under a ridge of high
32. (c) It was propounded by the British Scientist pressure called the subtropical high, is an area which
James Jeans. It holds ¿lament responsible for the receives little precipitation and has variable winds
origin of the solar system. The tidal or near-collision
mixed with calm. The horse latitudes are associated
hypothesis was put forward by James Jeans in 1917,
in which the planets were considered to have been with the subtropical anticyclone and the large-scale
formed due to the approach of some other star to the descent of air from high-altitude currents moving
Sun. toward the poles.
43. (c) Rotation of the earth, air pressure and wind, 59. (a) The Santa Ana winds are strong, very dry
density of ocean water are the factors which offshore winds that impact Southern California and
inÀuence the ocean currents. northern Baja California from late fall through early
44. (c) The atmosphere can be heated upwards only winter.
from the earth’s surface. The air is less dense in the Along the eastern slopes of the Rockies, the
upper atmosphere. Chinook wind provides a welcome respite from the
45. (d) The atmospheric conditions should be high in long winter chill
relative humidity, warm oceanic temperature and A warm dry wind coming off the lee slopes of a
region lying between the Tropics of Cancer and mountain range, especially off the northern slopes
Capricorn. A tropical cyclone is a rapidly-rotating of the Alps.
storm system characterized by a low-pressure Zonda wind (in Spanish, viento zonda) is a regional
center, strong winds, and a spiral arrangement of term for the foehn wind that often occurs on the
thunderstorms that produce heavy rain. Tropical eastern slope of the Andes, in Argentina. The Zonda
is a dry wind (often carrying dust) which comes
cyclones typically form over large bodies of
from the polar maritime air, warmed by descent
relatively warm water. They derive their energy
from the crest, which is approximately 6,000 m
from the evaporation of water from the ocean
(20,000 ft) above sea level. It may exceed a velocity
surface, which ultimately recondenses into clouds
of 40 km/h (25 mph)
and rain when moist air rises and cools to saturation. 60. (b) Isobar is a line drawn on a weather map or
46. (c) Aluminium is the third most abundant element chart that connectspoints at which the barometric
in the earth crust after oxygen and silicon. pressure is the same.
53. (d) Igneous rock is formed through the cooling Isotherms are lines connecting areas of the same
and solidi¿cation of magma or lava. Igneous rock temperature, Isohyet is a line drawn on a map
may form with or without crystallization, either connecting points having equal rainfall at acertain
below the surface as intrusive (plutonic) rocks or on time or for a stated period.
the surface as extrusive (volcanic) rocks. Isohel is a line on a weather map connecting points
Rock that has formed through the deposition that receive equal amountsof sunshine.
and solidi¿cation of sediment, especially sediment 61. (c) Cyclone is a large-scale, atmospheric
transported by water (rivers, lakes, and oceans), ice wind-and-pressure system characterized bylow
(glaciers), and wind. Sedimentary rocks are often pressure at its center and by circular wind motion,
deposited in layers, and frequently contain fossils. counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere,
Note: Limestone and shale are common clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
sedimentary rocks. Tornado is a localized, violently destructive
58. (c) Stratosphere is an atmospheric layer lying windstorm occurring over land,especially in the
between the troposphere and themesosphere, in Middle West, and characterized by a long, funnel-
which temperature generally increases with height. shaped cloud extending toward the ground and
Troposphere is the lowest atmospheric layer, about made visible by condensation and debris.
18 kilometres (11 miles) thick atthe equator to about 62. (d) Shifting cultivation is a land-use system, esp in
6 km (4 miles) at the Poles, in which airtemperature tropical Africa, in which a tract of land is cultivated
decreases normally with height at about 6.5°C per until its fertility diminishes, when it is abandoned
km. until this is restored naturally.It is often used by
Tropopause is the boundary, or transitional layer, tropical-forest root-crop farmers in various parts of
between the troposphere and the stratosphere. the world and by dry-rice cultivators of the forested
Ionosphere is a region of the earth’s atmosphere, hill country of Southeast Asia. Areas of the forest
extending from about 60kilometres to 1000 km are burned and cleared for planting; the ash provides
above the earth’s surface, in which there is ahigh some fertilization, and the plot is relatively free of
concentration of free electrons formed as a result weeds. After several years of cultivation, fertility
of ionizingradiation entering the atmosphere from declines and weeds increase. Traditionally, the area
space. was left fallow and reverted to a secondary forest
Geography || B-33
of bush. Cultivation would then shift to a new plot; Sea. It is around 160 kilometres (100 miles)
after about a decade the old site could be reused. in length and spreads out over 240 kilometres
63. (c) Double cropping is to raise two consecutive (149 miles) of coastline. It is rich in agriculture
crops on the same land within a singlegrowing and has been farmed for thousands of years.
season. An example of double cropping might be Around 40 million people (half of Egypt’s
to harvest a wheat crop by early summer and then population) live in the Nile Delta region.
plant corn or soybeans on that acreage for harvest In 1787, the famous Rosetta stone was found
in the fall. This practice is only possible in regions in the Nile Delta in the city of Rosetta. This
with long growing seasons. Ancient Egyptian artifact played a key
64. (c) Tea grows only in a warm environment. For role in modern understanding of Egyptian
this reason this plant is mainly found in regions hieroglyphics.
between 16 degrees south latitude and 20 degrees The Aswan High Dam was built in 1970
north latitude. India is the largest producer and to help regulate Àooding of the Nile River.
exporter of tea in the world. The ideal climatic Before the Aswan Dam was built, years that
conditions for the production and growing of tea are featured high levels of water could wipe out
as follows: crops while years of low level water could
Temperature: 21°C to 29°C is ideal for the produce famines and drought. The dam helps
production of tea. High temperature is required control these water levels.
in summer. The lowest temperature for the 69. (b) The low productivity in India is a result of the
growth of tea is 16°C. following factors:
Rainfall: 150-250 cm of rainfall is required for The average size of land holdings is very
tea cultivation. small (less than 2 hectares) and is subject to
Soil: Tea shrubs require fertile mountain soil fragmentation due to land ceiling acts, and in
mixed with lime and iron. The soil should be some cases, family disputes
rich in humus. Adoption of modern agricultural practices and
Land: Tea cultivation needs well drained land. use of technology is inadequate
Stagnation of water is not good for tea plants. India has inadequate infrastructure and
Heavy rainfall but no stagnancy of water, such
services.
mountain slopes are good for tea cultivation.
lliteracy, general socio-economic backwardness,
67. (c)
slow progress in implementing land reforms
The length of the Nile River is approximately
6650 kilometres (4132 miles). It is believed to and inadequate or inef¿cient ¿nance and
be the longest river in the world. marketing services.
Located in Africa, the Nile River lies in the nconsistent government policy.
following countries: Kenya, Eritrea, Congo, Irrigation facilities are inadequate,
Burundi, Uganda, Tanzania, Rwanda, Egypt, 72. (c) In an agricultural country, the fertility of soil
Sudan and Ethiopia. and rainfall are the most important determinants of
The Nile River has huge signi¿cance in regards density of population. In case of industrial country
to Ancient Egypt. Most of Ancient Egypt’s the density of population may be inÀuenced by such
historical sites are located along the banks of factors as the availability of minerals, industrial
the Nile River including cities such as Luxor development and levels of urbanization etc.
and Cairo. 75. (d) India lies in the Northern hemisphere.
In 2004, the White Nile Expedition became the 84. (b) Alfa-Alfa is a grass, not medicine
¿rst to navigate the entire length of the Nile 85. (b) Veld tropical grasslands are found in south
River. The expedition began in Uganda and Africa.
¿nished in Rosetta, taking four months and 91. (c) The Sahara desert has scanty rainfall.
two weeks to complete. 93. (b) Russia has about 1/3rd of coal reserves and
The Nile Delta in Northern Egypt is where 2/3rd of the world’s reserves of petroleum. Water
the Nile River drains in to the Mediterranean
energy has been harnessed by Norway. Wind energy of water vapour lies below an altitude of 5 kilometer.
has been utilized in Southern California. Amount of precipitable water in atmosphere increases
98. (b) Tarapur power plant is located in Maharashtra, from the poles to the equator.
whereas Narora in Uttar Pradesh. 111. (c) Sedimentary rocks are formed from sediments
100. (c) Mahanadi, Krishna and Kavery are East that have been pressed together. Sediments may come
Àowing rivers. While Narmada, Tapi, Luni and from plant or animal remains, from minerals that were
Payaswani are West Àowing rivers.
once dissolved in water, or form large rocks that have
101. (b) The point of origin of an Earthquake is called
been broken up into smaller pieces by water, wind or
focus or hypocenter. Epicenter is the point at ground
level directly above the hypocenter. ice.
The line on Earth’s surface connecting points Igneous rocks are rocks formed from molten rock
which are affected by Earthquake at same time are material as it cools and hardens.
called homoseismal lines. 112. (a) Areas that have higher air pressure than the
103. (a) Acid rain is caused by emissions of sulphur surrounding area are called anticyclones.
dioxide and nitrogen oxide, which react with the 113. (d) All the given statements are correct.
water molecules in the atmosphere to produce acids. 114. (d) El Nino, an unusual warning of surface ocean
104. (d) Calm weather and intense rain and hail waters in the eastern tropical Paci¿c is the part of
phenomena can occur when very warm and humid southern oscillation. Scientists do not know exactly
air is rising over a mass of a very cold air. how El Nino forms. It is said that El Nino may
105. (b) The ozone layer is a layer in Earth’s atmosphere have contributed to the 1993 Mississipi and 1995
which contains relatively high concentration of California Àoods. The average period length of EL
ozone. This layer absorbs 97.99% of the sun’s
Nino is 5 years.
high frequency ultraviolet light, which potentially
115. (c) Barren Island (Andaman sea) is the only active
damages the life forms on Earth. It is mainly
volcano Island in even south Asia. It is the part of
located the lower portion of stratosphere from
Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar
approximately 20 to 30 km above Earth.
106. (c) The ozone layer contains 97–99% of the Sun’s Islands.
high frequency ultraviolet light, which is potentially 116. (a) Agents of erosion Topographical
damaging to the life on Earth. ChloroÀuorocarbons, features
along with nitric oxide, nitrous oxide, hydroxyl, Running water - Gorge
chlorine, bomotenorocarbon etc. are serious treat to Glacier - Cirque
the ozone layer. Wind - Barchan
107. (b) The presence of good concentration of Underground water - Delive
iron (ferric) oxide is responsible for giving this 117. (c) Transformation of solar energy into heat requires
soil its redish colour. These soils are found in some time, energy received by the earth from solar
Chhotanagpur Plateau, Telangana, Nilgiris, Tamil radiations continues to exceed the energy lost by
Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and periophering
outgoing long-wave radiations from the earth’s
area of Deccan Plateau. Red soils have traces of
surface from 4.00p.m.
time and humous but they can’t be rich of the same.
108. (c) The river is chocked because the valley of a 118. (a) The main areas of tropical forest are found
river is widest in its lower course and the velocity of in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands; the Western
a river in its lower course is low. Ghats, which fringe the Arabian Sea coastline of
109. (b) National parks are large areas of public land peninsular India; and the greater Assam region in the
set aside for native plants, animals and places north-east. Small remnants of rain forest are found
where they live. Sanctuaries are concerned with in Orissa state. Semi-evergreen rain forest is more
conservation of particular species. extensive than the evergreen formation partly because
110. (d) Half the water vapour in the air in atmosphere evergreen forests tend to degrade to semi-evergreen
lies below an altitude of 2 kilometer and 90 per cent with human interference. There are substantial
Geography || B-35
differences in both the Àora and fauna between the and the basaltic lava having a higher content of
three major rain forest regions. metallic minerals solidi¿es rapidly once it reaches
119. (a) For the poles latitude = 90° and for equator the surface.
latitude = 0°. Latitude at a point on the surface of the 125. (b) There is no relationship between the mass of
earth is de¿ned as the angle, which the line joining the atmosphere accounted for by the troposphere
that point to the centre of earth makes with equatorial and the weather changes here. Most of the weather
plane. changes are associated with the presence of moisture
120. (b) Tsunami waves do not resemble normal sea in the troposphere. Also most of the inÀuence of the
waves, because their wavelength is far longer. Rather solar energy entering the earth’s atmosphere is felt
than appearing as a breaking wave, a tsunami may in this layer itself.
instead initially resemble a rapidly rising tide, and for 126. (a) Long roots, thick bark and small sized thick
this reason they are often referred to as tidal waves. leaves are some of the adaptations among the plants
Tsunamis generally consist of a series of waves with to withstand a long dry season. Thick bark and
periods ranging from minutes to hours, arriving in a small sized leaves reduce the rate of transpiration.
so-called “wave train”.[4] Wave heights of tens of Long roots enable the plants to obtain moisture
metres can be generated by large events. Although from greater depth. The Mediterranean regions do
the impact of tsunamis is limited to coastal areas, not receive rainfall during the summer as the pole-
their destructive power can be enormous and they ward shift of the pressure belts during the respective
can affect entire ocean basins. summer, brings these regions under the inÀuence of
121. (c) Land heats and cools more rapidly than the the trade winds which blow from east to west thus
sea. During the day the land gets heated and the air causing no rainfall in these western margins of the
over the land being hotter and lighter than that over continents. During winter when the pressure and
the sea, a low pressure area is created over the land. wind belts shift towards the equator, these regions
The hot air rises and cool air from the see ruches in come under the inÀuence of the westerlies which
blowing from oceans to land, cause rainfall along
towards the land, which is referred as sea breeze.At
these western margins.
night the land rapidly loses its heat faster than the sea. 127. (a) For the purpose of settlement in the tropical
The air over the sea is therefore warmer and lighter regions, the Europeans always selected the highlands
than over the land and a breeze blows but from the as these areas offered comparatively cooler and less
land towards the sea. humid climatic conditions. In the tropical lowlands
122. (b) The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), the hot and humid climate was a deterring factor to
known by sailors as the doldrums, is the area the European settlements.
128. (a) The warm Gulf Stream keeps the temperatures
encircling the earth near the equator where the
higher than the normal temperature of the latitude.
northeast and southeast trade winds come together. 129. (c) Yak is a rather large bodies animal. It is reared in
The ITCZ appears as a band of clouds, usually the cold regions as it can withstand cold climate.
thunderstorms that circle the globe near the equator. 130. (c) China does not export rice as the country has a
In the Northern Hemisphere, the trade winds move in large population and consequently a large domestic
a south-western direction from the northeast, while in consumption of rice. There is no relation between
the Southern Hemisphere, they move north-westward the quality of rice produced in China and the country
from the southeast. not being an exporter of rice.
124. (b) The crystal size in the igneous rocks is more a 131. (a) Mercator’s projection is used for political
function of the quickness of the process of cooling maps due to its property of orthomorphism and not
rather than of the mineral content. The mineral due to the fact that it shows loxodromes as straight
content determines the melting point of the rocks lines.
3 Economic Geography

correct answer from the codes given below: A B C D
Assertion (A): The W.T.O. aims to promote (a) 2 1 4 3
free trade. (b) 2 3 4 1
Reason (R): It does not manage the global (c) 1 3 2 1
economy impartially. (d) 4 2 3 1
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct answer from the codes given below:
explanation of A. List-I List-II
0LQHUDO $UHD RI SURGXFWLRQ
A. Coal 1. Highveld
explanation of A.
B. Gold 2. Karaganda Basin
C. Iron ore 3. Krivoi Rog
D. Petroleum 4. San Joaquin valley
2. The main features of the commercial dairy
Codes:
farming are A B C D
1. It is capital intensive. (a) 2 3 1 4
2. It is labour intensive. (b) 2 1 3 4
3. It is highly productive. (c) 4 1 2 3
4. It is highly commercial. (d) 1 2 3 4
Select the correct answer from the codes given 5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
below: answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only 0LQHUDO 2FFXUUHQFH
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 A. Coal 1. Bisbee
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct B. Copper ore 2. Baku
answer from the codes given below: C. Iron ore 3. Mesabi
List-I List-II D. Petroleum 4. Westphalia
2LO UH¿QHULHV &RXQWU\ Codes:
A. Abadan 1. Saudi Arabia A B C D
B. Haifa 2. Iran (a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 1 3 2
C. Kirkuk 3. Israel
(c) 3 1 2 4
D. Ras Tanavra 4. Iraq
(d) 1 4 3 2
Geography || B-37
6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 9. Consider the following statements and select the
answer by using the codes given below: correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II Assertion (A): Commercial ¿shing industry has
&RXQWU\ &RDO¿HOGV developed in temperate zones.
A. China 1. Pennsylvania Reason (R): These temperate areas have wide
B. Germany 2. Saar extension of continental shelf
C. Ukraine 3. Shensi areas and favourable climate.
D. U.S.A. 4. Donetz Basin Codes:
Codes: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
A B C D explanation of A.
(a) 4 2 1 3
explanation of A.
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
answer from the codes given below: List-I List-II
List-I List-II A. Tin 1. Mexico
0LQHUDO /HDGLQJSURGXFHU B. Silver 2. Zambia
A. Tin 1. Zambia C. Mica 3. Malaysia
B. Thorium 2. India D. Copper 4. India
C. Uranium 3. Malaysia Codes:
D. Copper 4. Canada A B C D
Codes: (a) 4 2 1 3
A B C D (b) 1 3 2 4
(a) 3 4 2 1 (c) 3 1 4 2
(b) 1 2 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 4 1 11. Which of the following are not the examples of
(d) 4 3 2 1 shifting cultivation?
8. Consider the following statements and select the Select the correct answer from the codes given
correct answer from the codes given below: below:
1. Ladang 2. Hacienda
Assertion (A): New economic geography deals
3. Fazenda 4. Pondu
with the spatial economy of 21st
Codes:
century.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Reason (R): It attempts to meet the new (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
economic challenges. 12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct List-I List-II
explanation of A. &URSV 0DLQSURGXFLQJDUHD
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct A. Coconut 1. Kenya
explanation of A. B. Banana 2. Papua New Guinea
(c) A is true, but R is false. C. Groundnut 3. Ecuador
(d) A is false, but R is true. D. Tea 4. Senegal
B-38 || Economic Geography
Codes: (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
A B C D explanation of A.
(a) 2 3 4 1 (c) A is true, but R is false.
(b) 1 4 3 2 (d) A is false, but R is true.
(d) 4 1 2 3 answer from the codes given below:
13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct List-I List-II
answer from the codes given below: ,QGXVWULDOUHJLRQ &RXQWU\
List-I List-II A. Kinki 1. France
&RXQWU\ 2LO¿HOG B. Lorraine 2. U.S.A.
A. Iran 1. Bargan C. Midlands 3. Japan
B. Iraq 2. Damam D. New England 4. U.K.
C. Kuwait 3. Kirkuk Codes:
D. Saudi Arabia 4. Masjid Sulaiman A B C D
Codes: (a) 3 2 1 4
A B C D (b) 3 1 4 2
(a) 4 3 2 1 (c) 1 2 4 3
(b) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 17. Consider the following statements and select the
(d) 4 3 1 2 correct answer from the codes given below:
14. Consider the following statements and select the Assertion (A): Brazil is a leading producer of
correct answer from the codes given below: ethanol.
Assertion (A): The growth rate of population Reason (R): It is the largest producer of
in developing countries is sugarcane in the world.
higher than that of developed Codes:
countries. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Reason (R): Low level of economic explanation of A.
development leads to high total (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
fertility rate. explanation of A.
Codes: (c) A is true, but R is false.
(a) Both A and R are ture and R is the correct (d) A is false, but R is true.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct answer from the codes given below:
(c) A is true, but R is false. ,QGXVWU\ &HQWUH
(d) A is false, but R is true. A. Iron and steel 1. Turin
15. Consider the following statements and select the B. Ship building 2. Taipei
correct answer from the codes given below: C. Electronics 3. Montreal
Assertion (A): The south east Asian countries D. Automobile 4. Pittsburgh
export timber on a large scale. Codes:
Reason (R): These countries have large A B C D
ports. (a) 1 2 3 4
Codes: (b) 4 3 2 1
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (c) 3 4 1 2
explanation of A. (d) 2 4 1 3
Geography || B-39
19. Consider the following statements and select the 22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
correct answer from the codes given below: answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): There are disparities in regional List-I List-II
development on a global scale A. Saar Industrial Region 1. China
and within each country too. B. New England 2. Germany
Reason (R): Such disparities are mainly due Industrial Region
to the lack of adequate skilled C. South Transvaal 3. U.S.A.
labour. Industrial Region
Codes: D. Canton Industrial 4. South Africa
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Region
answer from the codes given below: 23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
List-I List-II answer from the codes given below:
,URQDQGVWHHOFHQWUH &RXQWU\ List-I List-II
A. Cleveland 1. Canada (Mineral) (Mine)
B. Essen 2. Russia A. Diamond 1. Butte
C. Hamilton 3. U.S.A. B. Coal 2. Kimberley
D. Tula 4. Germany C. Cobalt 3. Katanga
Codes: D. Silver 4. Saar
A B C D Codes:
(a) 1 4 2 3 A B C D
(b) 3 4 1 2 (a) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 1 2 3 (b) 2 4 3 1
(d) 4 3 1 2 (c) 3 4 1 2
answer from the codes given below the lists: 24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
List-I List-II answer from the codes given below:
&LW\ ,PSRUWDQWLQGXVWU\ List-I List-II
A. Shanghai 1. Ship building A. Detroit 1. Cutlery
B. Chicago 2. Iron and steel B. Pittsburgh 2. Ship building
C. She¿eld 3. Cotton textile C. Plymouth 3. Iron and steel
D. Yokohama 4. Engineering D. Shef¿eld 4. Automobile
Codes: Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 2 4 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
&URSV /DUJHVWSURGXFHU (b) 2 3 4 1
A. Wheat 1. Brazil (c) 3 4 2 1
B. Cotton 2. China (d) 1 3 2 4
C. Sugarcane 3. U.S.A. 29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
D. Tea 4. India answer from the codes given below:
A B C D A. Iron and steel 1. Atlanta
(a) 1 2 3 4 B. Ship building 2. Bradford
(b) 2 3 1 4 C. Automobile 3. Cleveland
(c) 2 4 3 1 D. Woollen textile 4. Yakohama
(d) 4 1 2 3 Codes:
26. Which of the following are fund resources? A B C D
1. Coal 2. Copper (a) 3 4 1 2
3. Petroleum 4. Forest (b) 1 2 4 3
Select the correct answer from the codes given (c) 2 4 1 3
below: (d) 3 2 1 4
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 answer from the codes given below:
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 List-I List-II
27. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct A. Hydropower 1. France
answer from the codes given below; B. Coal 2. Congo Democratic
List-I List-II Republic
A. Shifting cultivation 1. Mongolia C. Petroleum 3. Poland
B. Nomadic herding 2. Australia D. Nuclear power 4. Iraq
C. Livestock ranching 3. Tundra Region Codes:
D. Fishing and hunting 4. Amazon Basin A B C D
Codes: (a) 2 3 4 1
A B C D (b) 3 4 1 2
(a) 1 3 2 4 (c) 1 3 2 4
(b) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 1 3 2 answer from the codes given below:
answer from the codes given below: ,QGXVWULDOUHJLRQ 1DPHRIFRXQWU\
List-I List-II A. Ruhr 1. U.S.A.
A. Largest producer of 1. U.S.A. B. New England 2. Brazil
wheat in the world C. Kinki 3. Germany
B. Largest producer of 2. China D. Belo Horizontal 4. Japan
milk in the world Codes:
C. Largest producer of 3. India A B C D
sugarcane in the (a) 3 1 4 2
world (b) 2 3 1 4
D. Largest producer of 4. Brazil (c) 4 2 3 1
maize in the world (d) 1 4 2 3
Geography || B-41
answer using the codes given below the lists: A B C D
&RDO¿HOG &RXQWU\ (b) 3 1 2 4
A. Donetz 1. Germany (c) 1 3 2 4
B. Kuznatsk 2. U.K. (d) 1 3 4 2
C. Lancashire 3. Russia 36. Which of the following is accredited with the
D. Saar 4. Ukrain Geographical Indication (GI) mark?
1. Handwoven Pashmina shawls of Kashmir.
Codes:
2. Bhagalpur Silk, Bihar.
A B C D
3. Madurai Idly, Tamil Nadu.
(a) 1 2 3 4 4. Darjeeling Tea, West Bengal.
(b) 4 3 2 1 Select the answer from the codes given below:
(c) 3 4 1 2 (a) 1, 2, and 3
(d) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2, 3, and 4
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) 1, 3, and 4
answer by using the codes given below the lists: (d) All of the above
List-I List-II 37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
0LQHUDOV ,PSRUWDQWFHQWUHV answer using the codes given below.
A. Copper 1. Butte List-I List-II
B. Diamond 2. Katanga (Iron ore areas) (States)
C. Gold 3. Kimberley A. Dhalli Rajhara 1. Odisha
D. Silver 4. Witwatersrand B. Kudremukh 2. Jharkhand
Codes: C. Badam Pahar 3. Karnataka
A B C D D. Noamundi 4. Chhattisgarh
Codes:
(a) 2 4 3 1
A B C D
(b) 2 3 4 1
(a) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 3 2 4 (b) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 1 4 2 (c) 4 3 1 2
34. Arrange the following countries in the descending (d) 1 4 2 3
order of their wheat production and select the 38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
correct answer from the codes given below: answer using the codes given below.
1. China 2. India List-I List-II
3. Russia 4. U.S.A. ,QGXVWULDO 3ODFHRI
Codes: SURGXFWLRQ SURGXFWLRQ
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, (b) 1, 2, 4, 3 A. Brassware 1. Kanchipuram
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3 B. Silk Sarees 2. Lucknow
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct C. Chikkan 3. Moradabad
answer using the codes given below the lists: Embroidery
List-I List-II D. Sports Goods 4. Jalandhar
0LQHUDOV 0DMRUSURGXFHU Codes:
A. Mineral oil 1. Zambia A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
B. Copper 2. Guyana
(b) 3 2 1 4
C. Manganese 3. Venezuela
(c) 4 2 1 3
D. Bauxite 4. Gabon
(d) 4 1 2 3
39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 42. Match column I with column II and select the
answer from the codes given below: correct answer using the code given below the
List-I List-II columns:
6HFWRUV (FRQRPLF &ROXPQ, &ROXPQ,,
DFWLYLWLHV (A) Sericulture (i) Breeding of ¿sh
A. Primary sector 1. Business (B) Pisciculture (ii) Commercial rearing
organisation of silk worms
B. Secondary sector 2. Cultivation (C) Viticulture (iii) Growing vegetables,
C. Tertiary sector 3. Handloom textiles Àowers and fruits
D. Quarternary 4. Transport services (D) Horticulture (iv) Cultivation of
Codes: grapes
A B C D Codes:
(a) 1 2 3 4 (a) (A) – (ii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (iii)
(b) 2 3 4 1 (b) (A) – (i), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv)
(c) 2 3 1 4 (c) (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i)
(d) 4 3 2 1 (d) (A) – (iii), (B) – (ii), (C) – (i), (D) – (iv)
40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 43. Match column I with column II and select the
answer from the codes given below: correct answer using the code given below the
List-I List-II columns:
,QGXVWULDO ([SODQDWLRQV &ROXPQ, &ROXPQ,,
DFWLYLWLHV (Names of shifting) (Areas Associated)
A. Processing 1. Inputs are processed Cultivation)
activities goods (A) Ladang (i) Mexico
B. Fabricating 2. Major inputs (B) Milpa (ii) North-East India
activities are raw material (C) Roca (iii) Malaysia
C. Integrative 3. Involve neither (D) Jhumming (iv) Brazil
activities inputs nor outputs Codes:
D. Administrative 4. Inputs are processed (a) (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i)
activities goods undergoing little (b) (A) – (iii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (ii)
change (c) (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (i)
Codes: (d) (A) – (i), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv)
A B C D 44. In which countries is the shipbuilding industry
(a) 1 2 3 4 concentrated?
(b) 2 1 4 3 1. Japan 2. Hong Kong
(c) 1 4 3 2 3. Russia 4. South Korea
(d) 3 2 4 1 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
41. Match column I with column II and select the (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
correct answer using the code given below the 45. Consider the following statements:
columns: Industry refers to an economic activity that is
&ROXPQ, &ROXPQ,, concerned with the
A. Rice (i) 30-40ºC I. Production of goods
B. Tea (ii) 15-25ºC II. Extraction of minerals
C. Cotton (iii) 20ºC III. Provision of services
D. Coffee (iv) 25ºC Of these statements
(a) A (i), B (ii), C (iii), D (iv) (a) II and III are correct
(b) A (iii), B (iv), C (i), D (ii) (b) I and II are correct
(c) A (ii), B (i), C (iv), D (iii) (c) I, II and III are correct
(d) A (i), B (iii), C (iv), D (ii) (d) Only I is correct
Geography || B-43
46. Consider the following statements: Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
The factors affecting the location of industries are correct?
the availability of : (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(i) raw material (ii) labour (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(iii) transport (iv) market 52. Which of the following are responsible for the
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct decrease of per capita holding of cultivated land
(b) (iii) and (i) are correct in India ?
(c) only (iv) is correct 1. Low per capita income.
(d) All the above are correct 2. Rapid rate of increase of population
47. Which of following methods is/are suitable for 3. Practice of dividing land equally among the
soil conservation in hilly region? heirs.
1. Terracing and contour bunding
4. Use of traditional techniques of ploughing.
2. Shifting cultivation
3. Contour ploughing
below :
below : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these 53. Consider the following statements about black
48. Which one of the following is the example of soil of India
subsistence farming? 1. Black soil becomes sticky when it is wet.
(a) Shifting cultivation 2. Black soil contains adequate nitrogen as
(b) Commercial farming well as phosphorus required for the growth
(c) Extensive and intensive farming of plants
(d) Organic farming Which of the statements given above is/are
49. Arrange the locations of four oil re¿neries of correct?
India from west to East. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Koyali, Kochi, Panipat, Mathura (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Kochi, Koyali, Panipat, Mathura 54. Consider the following statements with regard to
(c) Koyali, Panipat, Kochi, Mathura the mining industry of India
(d) Koyali, Panipat, Mathura, Kochi 1. The spatial distribution of minerals is
50. Tank irrigation is practised mainly in Peninsular uneven.
India because 2. The mining industry since colonial days has
1. undulating relief and hard rocks make it been export-oriented.
dif¿cult to dig canals and wells Which of the statements given above is/are
2. rives are rainfed
correct?
3. of compact nature of population and
agricultural ¿eld
55. Which of the following is/are the chief
below :
characteristics of commercial grain farming of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
the middle latitude grasslands?
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
1. The size of farms are generally large.
51. Consider the following statements
2. Cultivation is highly mechanized.
1. Rural forestry aims to raise the trees on
3. It is a type of extensive farming.
community land and on privately owned
land. Select the correct answer using the code given
2. Farm forestry encourages individual farmers below:
to plant trees on their own farmland to meet (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
the domestic need of the family. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
$16:(5.(<
1. (b) 8. (a) 15. (c) 22. (a) 29. (a) 36. (d) 43. (b) 50. (a)
2. (d) 9. (a) 16. (b) 23. (b) 30. (a) 37. (c) 44. (d) 51. (c)
3. (b) 10. (c) 17. (a) 24. (a) 31. (a) 38. (a) 45. (c) 52. (b)
4. (b) 11. (c) 18. (b) 25. (b) 32. (b) 39. (b) 46. (d) 53. (a)
5. (b) 12. (a) 19. (c) 26. (b) 33. (b) 40. (b) 47. (a) 54. (c)
6. (b) 13. (d) 20. (b) 27. (b) 34. (b) 41. (b) 48. (a) 55. (c)
7. (c) 14. (a) 21. (d) 28. (b) 35. (a) 42. (a) 49. (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) The WTO established in 1995. It aims to situated in Dnipropetrovsk Oblast, to the southwest
promote free trade, but it does not manage the of the Oblast’s administrative centre. San Joaquin
global economy impartially. The organization valley is known for petroleum exploration. The San
deals with regulation of trade between participating Joaquin Valley is the area of the central valley of
countries; it provides a framework for negotiating the U.S. state of California that lies south of the
and formalizing trade agreements, and a dispute Sacramento – San Joaquin river delta in Stockton.
resolution process aimed at enforcing participant’s 5. (b) Coal mining occurs in Westphalia. It is a
adherence to WTO agreements, which are signed by region in Germany. Copper ore occurs in Bisbee.
representatives of member governments and rati¿ed Bisbee is a city in Cochise County, Arizona, United
by their parliaments. States, 82 miles southeast of Tucson. Iron ore
2. (d) The main features of the commercial dairy occurs in Mesabi.The Mesabi Iron Range is a vast
farming are capital intensive, labour intensive,
deposit of iron ore and the largest of four major iron
highly productive and highly commercial.
ranges in the region collectively known as the Iron
3. (b) The oil re¿neries of Iran are located in Abadan.
Abadan is a city in and the capital of Abadan County, Range of Minnesota. Discovered in 1866, it is the
Khuzestan province, Iran. It lies on Abadan Island, chief deposit of iron ore in the United States. Baku
53 kilometres from the Persian Gulf, near the Iraq- is famous for petroleum exploration. Baku is the
Iran border. The oil re¿nery of Israel is located in capital and largest city of Azerbaijan, as well as the
Haifa. Haifa is the largest city in northern Israel, largest city on the Caspian Sea and of the Caucasus
and the third-largest city in the country, with a region.
population of over 291,000. The oil re¿nery of Iraq 6. (b) Shensi is the coal ¿eld of China. It is a province
is located in Kirkuk. Kirkuk is a city in Iraq and the of the People’s Republic of China, of¿cially part
capital of Kirkuk Governorate. It is located in the of the northwest China region. Saar is known as
Iraqi governorate of Kirkuk, 236 kilometres north the coal mining in Germany. The Saarland is one
of the capital, Baghdad. The oil re¿nery of Saudi of Germany’s sixteen federal states. Its capital is
Arabia is located in Ras Tanura. Ras Tanura is a city at Saarbrcken. Donetz Basin is the coal ¿eld of
in the eastern province of Saudi Arabia located on a
Ukraine. It comprises the Donbas Foldbelt, which
peninsula extending into the Persian Gulf.
4. (b) Karaganda Basin is known for coal production. is the uplifted and compressionally deformed
Karagandy, more commonly known by its Russian part of the Pripyat–Dniepr–Donets (PDD) Basin.
name Karaganda, is the capital of Karagandy Pennsylvania is known for coal mining in U.S.A.
province in Kazakhstan. Highveld is known for gold Pennsylvania, of¿cially the Commonwealth of
production. The Highveld is the portion of the South Pennsylvania, is a U.S. state that is located in the
African inland plateau. Krivoi Rog is known for iron northeastern and mid-Atlantic regions of the United
ore production. It is a city in central Ukraine. It is States, and the Great Lakes region.
Geography || B-45
7. (c) Malaysia is the leading producer of tin. India England is a region in the northeastern corner of the
is the leading producer of thorium. Canada is the United States consisting of the six states of Maine,
leading producer of uranium. Zambia is the leading Massachusetts, New Hampshire, Vermont, Rhode
producer of copper. Island, and Connecticut.
8. (a) New Economic Geography deals with the 17. (a) Brazil is the leading producer of ethanol
spatial economy of 21st century because it attempts because it is the largest producer of sugarcane in the
to meet the new economic challenges. world. Sugarcane ethanol is an alcohol-based fuel
9. (a) Commercial ¿shing industry has developed in produced by the fermentation of sugarcane juice
temperature zones because these temperate areas and molasses. Because it is a clean, affordable and
have wide extension of continental shelf areas and low-carbon biofuel, sugarcane ethanol has emerged
favourable climate. as a leading renewable fuel for the transportation
10. (c) Malaysia is known for tin production. Mexico sector. Brazil is the world’s largest sugarcane
is known for silver production. India is known ethanol producer and a pioneer in using ethanol as a
for mica production. Zambia is known for copper motor fuel. In 2012/13, Brazilian ethanol production
production. reached 23.2 billion litres (6.1 billion gallons).
11. (c) Hacienda and Pondu are not the examples of 18. (b) Turin is the centre of automobile industry.Turin
shifting cultivation. Shifting cultivation is known is a city and an important business and cultural centre
as ladang cultivation in south east Asia. Fazendas in northern Italy, capital of the Piedmont region.
(meaning “farms”) were plantations found Pittsburgh is the centre of iron and steel industry.
throughout Brazil; during the colonial period (16th - Pittsburgh is the seat of Allegheny County and with
18th centuries), they were concentrated primarily in a population of 306,211 is the second-largest city
the northeastern region, where sugar was produced. in the U.S. state of Pennsylvania. Montreal is the
12. (a) The main producing country of coconut is centre of ship-building. Montreal is a city in the
Papua New Guinea. The main producing country of Canadian province of Quebec. It is the largest city
banana is Ecuador. The main producing country of in the province. Taipai is the centre of electronics.
groundnut is Senegal. The main producing country Taipei, of¿cially known as Taipei City, is the capital
of tea is Kenya. of Taiwan. Situated at the northern tip of Taiwan,
13. (d) Masjid-e-Suleiman is the oil ¿eld of Iran. Taipei is located on the Tamsui river.
Kirkuk is the oil ¿eld of Iraq. Bargan is the oil ¿eld 19. (c) Disparities in regional development on a global
of Kuwait. Deman is the oil ¿eld of Saudi Arabia. scale are not mainly due to the lack of adequate
14. (a) The growth rate of population in developing skilled labour.
countries is higher than that of developed countries 20. (b) Regarding to the Iron and steel centre,
because law level of economic development leads Cleveland is located in U.S.A. Essen is located in
to high total fertility rate. Germany. Hamilton is located in Canada. Tula is
15. (c) The south east Asia countries export timber located in Russia.
on a large scale but these countries have no large 21. (d) Cotton textile industry belongs to Shanghai.
ports. Iron and steel industry belongs to Chicago.
16. (b) Kinki is the industrial region of Japan. Engineering industry belongs to She¿eld. Ship
The Kansai region or the Kinki region lies in the building industry belongs to Tokohama.
southern-central region of Japan’s main island 22. (a) Saar industrial region is located in Germany.
Honshu. Lorraine is the industrial region of France. New England industrial region is located in U.S.A.
Lorraine is one of the 27 regions of France. The South Transval industrial region is located in
administrative region has two cities of equal South Africa. Canton industrial region is located in
importance: Metz, the regional prefecture and China.
Nancy. Midlands is the industrial region of U.K. 23. (b) Diamond extracts from the Kimberley mines.
The Midlands is an area comprising central England The ¿rst diamond found in South Africa, was
that broadly corresponds to the early medieval discovered less than 30 miles away and within a few
Kingdom of Mercia. It borders southern England, years, the mining town of Kimberley. Coal founded
northern England, East Anglia and Wales. New in Saar region. In the past, a coal mining was an
England is the industrial region of U.S.A. New important branch of industry. Cobalt founded in
Katanga region. Katanga is one of the provinces of Automobile industry belongs to Atlanta. Woollen
the Democratic Republic of the Congo. The eastern textile industry belongs to Bradford.
part of the province is a rich mining region, which 30. (a) Hydropower associated with Congo Democratic
supplies cobalt, copper, tin, radium, uranium, and
Republic. The Democratic Republic of the Congo
diamonds. The region’s capital, Lubumbashi, is the
second largest city in the Congo. Silver founded in has reserves of petroleum, natural gas, coal, and a
Butte. Butte is a census-designated place (CDP) potential hydroelectric power generating capacity
in Matanuska-Susitna Borough, Alaska, United of around 100,000 MW. The Inga Dam, alone
States. on the Congo River, has the potential capacity to
24. (a) Cutlery industry located in Plymouth. Ship generate 40,000 to 45,000 MW of electric power,
building industry located in She¿eld. Iron and steel suf¿cient to supply the electricity needs of the
industry located in Pittsburgh. Automobile industry whole southern Africa region. Coal associated with
located in Detroit. Poland. Today Poland’s coal industry is among
25. (b) China is the largest producer of wheat. Roughly the most competitive in Europe, providing jobs to
two-thirds of the total wheat production came from over 100,000 people in the country. Poland is now
the north China plain and nearly another third from the 9th largest hard coal producer in the world
the central provinces. Winter wheat accounts for and the largest coal producer in the EU. It is also
about 94% of China’s total wheat output. U.S.A. the 8th largest coking coal exporter in the world.
is the largest producer of cotton. In its January Petroleum associated with Iraq. In 2006, Iraq’s oil
report, USDA estimated a ‘13-14 US crop of 13.19 production averaged 2.0 million barrels per day
million bales. Upland production was estimated at (320×103 m3/d), down from around 2.6 Mbbl/d
12.55 million bales and extra-long staple production (410×103 m3/d) of production prior to the coalition
at 636,000 bales. Brazil is the largest producer of invasion in 2003. Iraq’s reserve to production ratio
sugarcane. Brazil’s sugarcane industry association is 158 years. Nuclear power associated with France.
UNICA estimates Brazil’s sugar cane production in France derives over 75% of its electricity from
2012/13 at 531.4 million ton which is 8% up from nuclear energy. This is due to a long-standing policy
the 493.2 million ton produced in 2011/12. India based on energy security.
is the largest producer of tea. Tea Board of India 31. (a) Ruhr industrial region belongs to Germany.
shows that during January to August, tea production New England industrial region belongs to U.S.A.
has risen by 6.2% to 705 million kg in 2013. Kinki industrial region belongs to Japan. Belo
26. (b) Coal and petroleum are the fund resource Horizonte industrial region belongs to Brazil.
minerals. Because they are of the highest value in 32. (b) Donetz coal ¿eld belongs to Ukrain. Kuznatsk
the foreign world market due to demand and also for coal ¿eld belongs to Russia. Lancashire coal ¿eld
scarcity. belongs to U.K. Saar coal ¿eld belongs to Germany.
27. (b) Shifting cultivation practices in Amazon Basin. 33. (b) Copper mineral located in Katanga. Diamond
Nomadic herding practices in Mangolia. Live stock mineral located in Kimberley. Gold mineral located
ranching belongs to Australia. Fishing and hunting in Wit watersrand. The Witwatersrand Gold Rush
belongs to Tundra region. was a gold rush in 1886 that led to the establishment
28. (b) Largest producer of wheat in the world is of Johannesburg, South Africa. It was part of the
China. Largest producer of milk in the world is Mineral Revolution. Silver located in Butte.
India. Largest producer of sugarcane in the world 34. (b) The countries in the descending order of their
is Brazil. Largest producer of maize in the world is wheat production are; China, India, U.S.A. and
U.S.A. Russia.
29. (a) Iron and steel industry belongs to Cleveland. 35. (a) Venezuela is the major producer of mineral
Ship building industry belongs to Yakohama. oil.With 77,800,000,000 barrels (1.237×1010 m3)
Geography || B-47
of proven oil reserves in 2004 Venezuela has the farming in which the farmers clear a patch of forest
largest proven oil reserves in South America and land by feeling and burning of trees and then crops
the sixth largest in the world. Zambia is the major are grown.
producer of Copper. Zambia’s copper output is 49. (b) Kochi is the Western most while Mathura is
expected to hit 1.5 million tonnes by 2017 as foreign Eastern most. Also among these Panipat is most
companies pour $3 billion into sector. Gabon is North while Koyali is most South.
the major producer of Manganese. The high-grade 50. (a) The tank irrigation is practised mainly in the
manganese deposits at Moanda, near Franceville, peninsular India due to the following reasons
are among the world’s richest. Reserves were 1. The undulating relief and hard rocks makes it
estimated at 250 million tons with a metal content of dif¿cult to dig canals and wells.
48–52%. Guyana is the major producer of Bauxite. 2. There is little percolation of rain water due to
Linden is the second largest town in Guyana after hard rock structure and ground water is not
Georgetown. It is primarily a bauxite mining town, available in large quantity.
containing many mines 60–90 metres deep. 3. Most of the rivers of this region are seasonal
36. (d) Geographical Indications of Goods are de¿ned and dry up in summer season. Therefore, they
as that aspect of industrial property which refer to the cannot supply water to canals throughout the
geographical indication referring to a country or to a year.
place situated therein as being the country or place 4. The scattered nature of population and
of origin of that product. Typically, such a name agricultural ¿elds also favours tank irrigation.
conveys an assurance of quality and distinctiveness 51. (c) Rural forestry (also known as community
which is essentially attributable to the fact of its forestry) aims to raise the trees on community land
origin in that de¿ned geographical locality, region and on privately owned land as in farm forestry.
or country. Under Articles 1 (2) and 10 of the Paris Farm forestry encouraged individual farmers
Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, to plant trees on their own farmland to meet the
geographical indications are covered as an element domestic needs of the family.
of IPRs. They are also covered under Articles 22 All these schemes are taken up under the social
to 24 of the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual forestry programme.
Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement, which was 52. (b) The factors responsible for the decrease of per
part of the Agreements concluding the Uruguay capita holding of cultivated land in India are
Round of GATT negotiations. India, as a member of 1. Rapid rate of increase of population.
the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the 2. Practice of dividing land equally among the
Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration heirs.
& Protection) Act, 1999 has come into force with 53. (a) Black soils retain moisture, so they becomes
effect from 15th September 2003. sticky and getting wet. They contain iron, lime,
45. (c) Industry refers to an economic activity that is magnesium, alumina and potosh but lack phoshorous
concerned with the production of goods, extraction and nitrogen.
of minerals or the provision of services. 54. (c) Mining is removal of valuable raw material
47. (a) Level terrace or contour bunding involves from the Earth, this terms includes removal of soil.
construction of bind passing through the points India adds very little value to the minerals, it exports
having same elevation ploughing and/or planting most of the mined minerals.
across a slope following its elevation contour lines. Indian Mining Industry has been a major mineral
48. (a) Subsistance farming is self-suf¿ciency producer in Asia and globally as well.
farming in which the farmers grow enough food to 55. (c) Middle latitude grassland farming have very
feed themselves and families. It is mostly practised large farms, are mechanised and fall in the category of
in developing countries. extensive cultivation. Grassland are found all across
Shifting cultivation is a type/example of subsistence the globe.
4 World Geography

answer from the codes given below: (a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
List-I List-II (c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 4, 2, 1, 3
A. Detroit 1. Cutlery 5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
B. Pittsburgh 2. Ship building answer from the code given below:
C. Plymouth 3. Iron and steel List-I List-II
D. Shef¿eld 4. Automobile (Country) (Capital)
Codes: A. Brunei 1. Bander Seri Begawan
A B C D B. Indonesia 2. Phnom Penh
(a) 4 3 1 2 C. Laos 3. Vientiane
(b) 2 3 1 4 D. Combodia 4. Jakarta
(c) 3 1 4 2 Codes:
(d) 4 3 2 1 A B C D
2. Consider the following statements and select the (a) 1 4 3 2
correct answer from the codes given below: (b) 2 4 1 3
Assertion (A): China is the most populous (c) 4 1 3 2
country of the world. (d) 3 1 4 2
Reason (R): Its density of population is much 6. The correct sequence of languages in descending
lower than that of India. order in terms of their number of speakers in the
Codes: world is
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) Spanish, English, Chinese, Hindi
explanation of A. (b) English, Chinese, Hindi, Spanish
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (c) Hindi, Chinese, Spanish, English
explanation of A (d) Chinese, English, Hindi, Spanish
(c) A is true, but R is false. 7. Which of the following pairs are correctly
matched?
3. Which one of the following is correctly
(River) (Countries)
matched?
1. Niger — Guinea
(a) Gulf of Carpentaria — Italy
2. Orange — S. Africa
(b) Gulf of Sidra — Libya
3. Karai — Egypt
(c) Gulf of Po hai — Thailand
4. Nile — Mali
(d) Gulf of Tonking — Malaysia
4. Arrange the following countries of South Asia in
below:
descending order of their population density and
Codes:
use the codes to select the correct answer:
1. India 2. Bangladesh (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
3. Pakistan 4. Srilanka (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Geography || B-49
8. Consider the following statements and select the 12. Which one of the followiing pairs correctly
correct answer from the codes given below: matched?
Assertion (A): Japan is known for its ¿sheries (a) Black forest — Germany
in the world. (b) Pennines — France
Reason (R): The continental shelf is wide all (c) Sierra Nevada — Canada
around Japan. (d) Vorges — Haly
Select the correct answer from the codes given 13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
below: answer from the codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct A. Cape Horn 1. India
explanation of A. B. Cape Comorin 2. Australia
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct C. Cape of Good Hope 3. Argentina
explanation of A. D. Cape Yark 4. South Africa
(d) A is false, but R is true. A B C D
9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly (a) 1 3 4 2
matched? (b) 3 1 2 4
(a) Davis strait — Baf¿n Sea and Atlantic (c) 1 2 4 3
Ocean (d) 3 1 4 2
(b) Dover strait — Arctic Sea and N. Atlantic 14. Which one of the following is not correctly
Ocean matched?
(c) Palk strait — Mannar Gulf and Bay of (a) Blizzard — Canada
Bengal (b) Brick¿elder — France
(d) Sunda strait — Java Sea and Indian Ocean (c) Harmattan — Niger
10. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct (d) Pampers — Argentina
answer from the codes given below: 15. Consider the following statements:
1. A desert is a barren area of land where little
List-I List-II
precipitation occurs.
(Type of winds) (Region)
2. The Sahara desert is the largest singles
A. Blizzard 1. Pairie Plains
stretch desert.
B. Chinook 2. Siberian Plains 3. The next biggest desert is the Great
C. Bora 3. Greenland Australian desert.
D. Khamsin 4. Egypt Which of the statement(s) given is/are correct?
Codes: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
A B C D (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 3 1 4 2 16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(b) 1 2 3 4 answer using the code given below:
(d) 4 3 1 2 (Current) (Feature)
11. Arrange the following continents in the ascending A. Kuroshio current 1. Warm current in
order of their areal size and select the correct Atlantic Ocean
answer from the codes given below: B. Peru 2. Cold current in the
1. Antarctica 2. Australia current Atlantic Ocean
3. Europe 4. South America C. Labrador 3. Warm current in the
Codes: current Paci¿c Ocean
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 4, 1, 3 D. Florida current 4. Cold current in
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2 the Paci¿c Ocean
B-50 || World Geography
Codes: Codes:
A B C D (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(b) 3 2 4 1 (c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(d) 1 2 4 3
17. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct 21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below: answer using the codes given below:
(Tribe) (Region) (Continent) (Desert)
A. Semang 1. Congo Basin A. Asia 1. Atacama
B. Kirghiz 2. Malaysia B. Africa 2. Great Sandy Desert
C. Bushman 3. Central Asia C. Australia 3. Kalahari
D. Pygmies 4. Kalahari desert D. South America 4. Gobi
Codes:
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1 A B C D
(b) 1 3 2 4 (a) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 3 4 1 (c) 1 4 3 2
18. Japan is one of the leading industrial countries in (d) 1 2 3 4
the world because it has: 22. Which of the following are temperate grasslands?
1. developed hydel power Select the correct answer from the codes given
2. large deposits of metallic mineral below:
3. high technological capability
1. Campos
4. insular location
Of these statements: 2. Llanoes
(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct 3. Downs
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct 4. Pampas
(c) 1 and 3 are correct Codes:
(d) 2 and 4 are correct (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
19. The correct decreasing order of the population of (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
the various continents is 23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) Asia, Europe, America, Africa, Australia. answer from the codes given below:
(b) Asia, America, Europe, Africa, Australia.
List-I List-II
(c) Asia, Eruope, Africa, America, Australia.
(d) Asia, America, Africa, Europe, Australia. A. Tin 1. Mexico
20. Examine the following statements and select the B. Silver 2. Zambia
correct answer using the codes given below: C. Mica 3. Malaysia
1. The greater part of Russia is having cold D. Copper 4. India
climate. Codes:
2. Development of Russia is largely concentrated A B C D
west of Ural mountains. (a) 4 2 1 3
3. Siberia is an important agricultural region of (b) 1 3 2 4
Russia.
(c) 3 1 4 1
4. In Russia, Ural mountains separate the two
extensive plains. (d) 4 3 2 2
Geography || B-51
24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 28. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below: answer from the codes given below:
(Crops) (Main producing area) (Country) (River)
A. Coconut 1. Kenya A. Brazil 1. Orinoco
B. Banana 2. Papua New Guinea B. Argentina 2. Maranon
C. Groundnut 3. Ecuador C. Peru 3. Araguaia
D. Tea 4. Senegal D. Venezuela 4. Colorado
Codes: Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 4 3 2 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 2 1 4 (c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 4 2 1
25. Arrange the following islands of Japan in 29. Consider the following statements and select the
ascending order of their areal size and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
correct answer from the codes: Assertion (A): Japan has developed hydro-
1. Hokkaido electric power on a large-scale.
2. Honshu Reason (R): Japan lacks adequate coal and
3. Shikoku oil deposits.
4. Kyushu Codes:
Codes:
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
explanation of A.
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
explanation of A.
answer from the codes:
List-I List-II
(City) (River)
30. Which of the following pairs of straights and the
A. St. Paul-Minneapolis 1. Danube
countries they separate is wrongly matched?
B. Khartoum 2. Mekong
(a) Gibraltar strait — Spain and Morocoo
C. Budapest 3. Mississippi
(b) Bering strait — Sumatra and Malaysia
D. Phnom Penh 4. Nile
(c) Magellan strait — Chile and Tiera del
Codes:
fuego
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (d) Bass strait — Australia and Tasmania
(b) 2 4 3 1 31. Consider the following areas:
(c) 4 2 3 1 1. Central Africa
(d) 3 4 1 2 2. Borneo and Papua New Guinea
27. Which one of the following is not correctly 3. Amazon Basin
matched? In which of the above areas is the primitive
(a) Duluth — Lake Superior agriculture, such as shifting cultivation or bush-
(b) Detroit — Lake Huron fallow type of cultivation, found?
(c) Chicago — Lake Michigan (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(d) Ottawa — Lake Ontario (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
32. Currently half of the world’s population lives 37. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
in just six countries. Identify them from the matched?
following. Tribes — Countries
(a) India, China, Pakistan, Brazil, Bangladesh, (a) Berber — Morocco
Indonesia. (b) Inuits — Canada
(b) India, China, Brazil, Pakistan, Bhutan, (c) Semangs — Indonesia
United State. (d) Veddas — Sri Lanka
(c) China, India, United State, Indonesia, Brazil, 38. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct
Pakistan. answer from the codes:
(d) China, India, Bangladesh, United State, List-I List-II
Pakistan, Brazil. (Minerals) (Important centres)
33. The expression ‘South Asia’ usually includes: A. Copper 1. Butte
(a) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, B. Diamond 2. Katanga
Pakistan and Sri Lanka C. Gold 3. Kimberley
(b) Nepal, Bhutan, India, Afghanistan, China D. Silver 4. Witwatersrand
and Pakistan Codes:
(c) Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, Maldives, A B C D
Nepal and Pakistan (a) 2 4 3 1
(d) Sri Lanka, Afghanistan, Bhutan, India, (b) 2 3 4 1
China, Nepal and Bangladesh (c) 1 3 2 4
34. Consider the following countries: (d) 3 1 4 2
1. Australia 39. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
2. Namibia matched?
3. Brazil Countries — Capital
4. Chile (a) Hungary — Budapest
Through which of the above does the tropic of (b) Zaire — Kinshasa
Capricorn pass? (c) Kenya — Nairobi
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) New Zealand — Christ Church
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 40. Consider the following statements and select the
35. Which of the following is not correctly correct answer from the codes given below:
matched? Assertion (A): The production of rubber is
(a) Indonesia — Jakarta decreasing in the Amazon.
(b) Maldives — Male Reason (R): Equatorial climate is favourable
(c) North Korea — Seoul for rubber plantation.
(d) Zimbabwe — Harare Codes:
36. Which of the following countries are landlocked (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
countries? explanation of A.
1. Afghanistan (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct
2. Hungary explanation of A.
3. Malaysia (c) A is true, but R is false.
4. Switzerland (d) A is false, but R is true.
Select the correct answer from the codes given 41. Consider the following pairs:
below: 1. St. Petersburg — Gulf of Finland
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 2. Stockholm — Baltic Sea
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 3. Washington D.C. — Colorado
Geography || B-53
Which of the pairs above is/are correctly Codes:
matched? A B C D
(a) 1 only (a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 and 3 (c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
42. Which one of the following ‘City River’ pairs is 46. Which one of the following matches in case of
not correctly matched? shifting cultivation is not correct?
(a) Berlin — Rhine (a) Ladang – Indonesia
(b) London — Thames (b) Ray – Vietnam
(c) Milpa – Mexico
(c) New York — Hudson
(d) Tamrai – Brazil
(d) Vienna — Danube
47. Which of the following is/are the stage(s) of
demographic transition ?
answer from the codes given below.
1. High death rate and birthrate, low growth
List-I List-II
rate.
(Mountains peak) (Country)
2. Rapid decline in death rate, continued low
A. Mt. Everest 1. India birthrate, very low growth rate.
B. K2 2. Nepal 3. Rapid decline in birthrate, continued decline
C. Mt. McKinley 3. North America in death rate
(USA) 4. Low death rate and birthrate, low growth
D. Mt. Aconcagua 4. South America rate.
A B C D below
(a) 2 1 3 4 (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 48. Match the following
(d) 3 4 1 2 List-I List-II
44. Which one of the following is not correctly (Local wind) (Area of Prevalence)
matched? A. Chinook 1. North African desert
Islands Ocean B. Foehn 2. Rocky mountain slopes
(a) Greenlands — Arctic Ocean of the USA
(b) Madagaskar — Indian Ocean C. Sirocco 3. Northern slopes of Alps
(c) Tasmaniya — S. Paci¿c Ocean D. Mistral 4. Sourthern slopes of Alps
(d) Ba¿n — North Paci¿c Ocean Codes :
answer from the codes given below: (a) 2 3 1 4
(Countries new (Countries old (c) 4 1 3 2
name) name) (d) 4 3 1 2
A. Thailand 1. Nippon 49. Match the following
B. Ghana 2. Gold Coast List-I List-II
C. Zambia 3. Siam (Natural Vegetation of (Annual Rainfall
D. Japan 4. Northern Rhodesia India) Received)
A. Tropical evergreen 1. 100-200 cm
forests
B. Tropical deciduous 2. Above 200 cm 2. It joins the Mediterranean Sea with the Gulf
forests of Suez
C. Tropical dry forests 3. Less than 50 cm 3. It is not a sea level canal.
D. Arid forests 4. Above 300 cm Which of the statement given above is/are
5. 50-100 cm correct?
Codes : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
A B C D (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
(a) 1 2 5 3 55. Match List-I (Volcano) with List-II (Country) and
select the correct answer using the code given
(b) 4 3 1 5
below the Lists:
(c) 2 1 5 3 List-I (Volcano) List-II (Country)
(d) 2 1 3 4 A. Semeru 1. Indonesia
50. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly B. Cotopaxi 2. Equador
matched? C. Etna 3. Italy
(a) Kuroshio : Warm ocean current D. Kilimanjaro 4. Kenya
(b) Labrador : Warm ocean current 5. India
(c) Benguela : Cold ocean current Codes :
(d) Oyashio : Cold ocean current A B C D A B C D
51. Which one among the following is the idealised (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 5 2
global pattern of surface wind from the Equator (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 3 2 5 4
to Pole ? 56. Consider the following statements in respect of
(a) Doldrum-Westerlies-Trade Wind-Easterlies temperate cyclones:
1. They rise in the belt of trade winds.
(b) Easterlies-Westerlies-Trade Wind-Easterlies
2. They move from west to east.
(c) Doldrum-Trade wind-Westerlies-Easterlies Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) Westerlies-Trade Wind-Doldrum-Easterlies (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
52. Consider the following statements (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. A hurricane acquires its spin from the 57. Consider the following statements :
coriolis effect. 1. The Labrador current is a cold current in the
2. The diameter of the hurricane decreases as it North Atlantic Ocean.
moves away form low latitudes. 2. The Falkland current is a warm current that
3. The diameter of a hurricane is never below Àows along the Chile coast of South Paci¿c
150 km. Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 1. All cyclones develop an eye at the centre.
53. Which of the following seas are enclosed? 2. The temperature inside the eye is nearly 10°C
1. Andaman Sea 2. Arab Sea lesser than that of the surroundings.
3. Sea of Azov 4. Bering Sea Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
below (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 59. Consider the following statements:
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 1. The approach of a cyclone is characterised
54. Consider the following statements by a rise in baromenic reading.
1. Suez Canal is an important link between 2. In the cyclones of the nonthern hemisphere,
developed countries and developing the winds circulate in anticlockwise direction.
countries.
Geography || B-55
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 64. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. In a cyclone, the area of low pressure is at
(c) Both1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the centre surrounded by the areas of high
pressure
1. International Date Line lies on the Greenwich
Meridian. 2. In a cyclone, the areas of low pressure
2. The date of Alaska is ahead of the date of surround the area of high pressure
Siberia. 3. In an anti-cyclone, the area of high pressure
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? is surrounded by the areas of low pressure
4. In an anti-cyclone, the area of low pressure
61. Consider the following statements: is surrounded by the areas of high pressure
1. In tropical grassland regions, rainfall mainly Select the correct answer using the code given
occurs in the short summer season with a long below:
dry season. Code:
2. In Mediterranean region, the winter rainfall (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1and 3
is caused by the passage of cyclones in the (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
westerly wind belt which lies over this area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 65. Which among the following statements about the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only North Atlantic Drift is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 I. It keeps the west coast of Northern Europe
62. Match List I with List II and select the correct ice free
answer using the codes given below the lists: II. It is responsible for the warm air mass which
List I List II interacts with the cold air mass from the Polar
(Volcano) (Country) region and causes rainfall in Western Europe
A. Mount Etna 1. India III. It meets the Labrador current near Vancouver
B. Kilinanajaro 2. USA Island and causes dense fog
C. Katmai 3. Tanzania Select the correct answer using the code given
D. Barren Island 4. Italy below
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II only
Codes:
A B C D (c) II only (d) I and III only
(a) 1 3 2 4 66. Match List I with List II and select the correct
(b) 4 2 3 1 answer using the code given below the lists:
(c) 1 2 3 4 List I List II
(d) 4 3 2 1
(Desert) (Country)
1. International Date Line is drawn zigzag to A. Kalahari 1. Angola
avoid landmass. B. Namib 2. Sudan
2. International Date Line is 180° W as well as C. Nubian 3. Botswana
180° E of Greenwich. D. Atacama 4. Chile
3. A ship sailing westward from Greenwich when Code:
crossing International Date Line would put back
(a) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3
the date by a day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only (d) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4
67. Match List I with List II and select the correct 2. They are almost absent in the South Atlantic
answer using the code given below the lists: Ocean.
List I List II 3. They do not develop close to the equator.
(Current) (Feature) Select the correct answer using the code given
A. Kuroshio current 1. Warm current in below.
Atlantic Ocean (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
B. Peru 2. Cold current in the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
current Atlantic Ocean 69. Consider the following statements regarding El
C. Labrador 3. Warm current in the Nino effect on Indian Monsoon :
current Paci¿c Ocean 1. The surface temperature goes up in the
D. Florida current 4. Cold current in Southern Paci¿c Ocean and there is de¿cient
the Paci¿c Ocean rainfall in India.
Code: 2. The Walker Circulation shifts eastward from
(a) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1 its normal position and reduces monsoon
(b) A-3; B-2 C-4; D-1 rainfall in India.
(c) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3 Which of the statements given above is are correct?
(d) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3
hurricanes is/are correct?
1. They develop over the ocean between 8° – 15°
N.
Geography || B-57
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 10. (c) 19. (c) 28. (d) 37. (c) 46. (d) 55. (a) 64. (b)
2. (b) 11. (c) 20. (c) 29. (a) 38. (b) 47. (d) 56. (b) 65. (b)
3. (b) 12. (a) 21. (b) 30. (b) 39. (d) 48. (a) 57. (a) 66. (d)
4. (d) 13. (d) 22. (c) 31. (d) 40. (b) 49. (c) 58. (a) 67. (a)
5. (a) 14. (b) 23. (c) 32. (c) 41. (b) 50. (b) 59. (c) 68. (a)
6. (d) 15. (d) 24. (a) 33. (a) 42. (a) 51. (c) 60. (d) 69. (c)
7. (a) 16. (a) 25. (d) 34. (d) 43. (a) 52. (d) 61. (c)
8. (c) 17. (d) 26. (d) 35. (c) 44. (d) 53. (c) 62. (d)
9. (b) 18. (c) 27. (b) 36. (d) 45. (a) 54. (b) 63. (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Detroit – Automobile is 2,117,700 km2 in area. Its source is in the Guinea
Pittsburgh – Iron and steel Highlands in southeastern Guinea. The Orange river,
Plymouth – Ship building Gariep river, Groote river or Senqu river is the longest
Shef¿eld – Cutlery river in South Africa. It rises in the Drakensberg
All these industrial cities are located in different mountains in Lesotho, Àowing westwards through
provinces of the United States of America. South Africa to the Atlantic Ocean.
2. (b) The population density (people per sq. km) in 8. (c) The continental shelf is narrow all around
China was last reported at 143.43 in 2010, according Japan. Around the Japanese Islands, the continental
to a World Bank report published in 2012. shelf is 20 to 30 km wide, narrower than its world
As per the provisional population totals of Census average, with shelf-slope breaks of the average depth
2011, the population density of India has gone up to of 140 metres. Narrow shelves are located offshore
382 persons per square kilometre. the western coast of the Oshima Peninsula, around
3. (b) Gulf of Carpentaria – Australia Toyama Bay, and offshore from the Boso Peninsula to
Gulf of Sidra – Libya the Kii Peninsula. The selves in Toyama Bay, Sagami
Gulf of Po hai – China Bay, and Suruga Bay are extremely narrow, less than
Gulf of Tonking – Vietnam 1 km in width in closed-off sections of the bays.
All these are names of gulfs associated with the Continental shelf slopes are not Àat from shorelines
following countries. through outer edges, but terrace-like topography
5. (a) Brunei – Bander seri begawan (submarine terraces) and submarine valleys are
Indonesia – Jakarta found. Submarine valleys are often ¿lled up with
Laos – Vientiane sediments derived from land.
Combodia – Phnom Penh 9. (b) Dover strait – English Channel and North Sea.
All these are names of south-Asian countries with The Strait of Dover or Dover Strait is the strait at
the names of their capitals. the narrowest part of the English Channel, marking
7. (a) The Niger river is the principal river of western the boundary between the Channel and North Sea,
Africa, extending about 4,180 km. Its drainage basin separating Great Britain from continental Europe.
10. (c) Blizzard – Siberian Plains. A blizzard is a severe surface. Both hot and cold deserts play a part in
snowstorm caused by strong sustained winds of at moderating the Earth’s temperature. Across the
least 56 km/h (35 mph) and lasting for a prolonged world, around 20% of desert is sand, varying from
period of time – typically three hours or more. only 2% in North America to 30% in Australia and
Chinook – Prairie Plains. Chinook winds blows in the over 45% in central Asia and Africa.
interior west of North America, where the Canadian 16. (a) A. Kuroshio current- warm Paci¿c current
Prairies and Great Plains meet various mountain B. Peru current - cold current in Pacific
ranges, although the original usage is in reference to ocean
wet, warm coastal winds in the Paci¿c Northwest of C. Labrador current - cold current in Atlantic
the United States of America. ocean
D. Florida current - Warm current in
Bora – Green land. Cold and usually dry katabatic
Atlantic ocean
winds, like the Bora, result from the downslope
17. (d) Semang – Malaysia
gravity flow of cold, dense air. Katabatic flows
Kirghiz – Central Asia
slumping down from uplands or mountains may be
Bushman – Kalahari desert
funneled and strengthened by the landscape and are
Pygmies – Congo Basin
then known as mountain gap wind.
All these names are of the tribal communities
Khamsin – Egypt. Khamsin can be triggered by
belonging to the countries respectively.
depressions that move eastwards along the southern
21. (b) Asia – Gobi
parts of the Mediterranean or along the North African
Africa – Kalahari
coast from February to June. In Egypt, Khamsin
Australia – Great Sandy Desert
usually arrives in April but occasionally occurs
South America – Atacama
between March to May, carrying great quantities of
All these are names of deserts located in the
sand and dust from the deserts, with a speed up to
continents respectively.
140 kilometres per hour, and a rise of temperatures
22. (c) Downs – grassy plains called downs are
as much as 20°C in two hours.
located in New Zealand’s South Island and southeast
11. (c) 2, 3, 1, 4 – Australia – Europe – Antarctica –
Australia.
South America.
Pampas – South America’s largest grassland, called
12. (a) Black forest – Germany. The Black Forest is
pampas, which means plain, covers most east-central
a wooded mountain range in Baden-Württemberg,
areas of Argentina.
southwestern Germany. It is bordered by the Rhine
23. (c) Tin – Malaysia
valley to the west and south. The highest peak is the
Silver – Mexico
Feldberg with an elevation of 1,493 metres.
Mica – India
13. (d) Cape Horn – Argentina
Copper – Zambia
Cape Comorin – India
All these are names of minerals found in the given
Cape of Good Hope – South Africa
countries respectively.
Cape Yark – Australia
24. (a) Coconut – Papua New Guinea
14. (b) Brick¿elder – Australia. The Brick¿elder is a
Banana – Ecuador
hot and dry wind in the desert of southern Australia
Groundnut – Senegal
that occurs in the summer season. It blows in the
Tea – Kenya
coastal regions of the south from the outback, where
All these are names of commercial crops found in
the sandy wastes, bare of vegetation in summer, are
the countries respectively.
intensely heated by the sun.
25. (d) Shikoku – Kyushu – Hokkaido – Honshu
15. (d) A desert is a barren area of land where little
Honshu – Honshu has a total area of 88,017 square
precipitation occurs and consequently living
miles (227,962 sq km) and it is the world’s seventh
conditions are hostile for plant and animal life.
largest island.
Deserts take up about-one third of the Earth’s land
Geography || B-59
Hokkaido – Hokkaido is the second largest island mainstem source of the Amazon river, arising about
of Japan with a total area of 32,221 square miles 160 km to the northeast of Lima, Peru, and Àowing
(83,453 sq km). through a deeply eroded Andean valley.
Kyushu – It has a total area of 13,761 square miles Venezuela – Orinoco. The Orinoco is one of the
(35,640 sq km). longest rivers in South America at 2,140 km. Its
Shikoku – Shikoku is the smallest of Japan’s main drainage basin, sometimes called the Orinoquia,
islands with a total area of 7,260 square miles covers 880,000 square kilometres, with 76.3% of it
(18,800 sq km). in Venezuela and the remainder in Colombia.
26. (d) St. Paul-Minneapolis – Mississippi. The 29. (a) Hydroelectricity is Japan’s main renewable
Mississippi river is the chief river of the largest
energy source, with an installed capacity of about 27
drainage system in North America. Flowing entirely
GW and a production of 69.2 TWh of electricity in
in the United States (though its drainage basin
2009, making Japan one of the biggest hydroelectricity
reaches into Canada), it rises in northern Minnesota
producers in the world.
and meanders slowly southwards for 2,320 miles
30. (b) Bering strait divides Alaska and Russia.
(3,730 km) to the Mississippi river delta at the Gulf
of Mexico. 32. (c) China – India – United State – Indonesia – Brazil
Khartoum – Nile. The Nile is a major north-Àowing – Pakistan
river in northeastern Africa, generally regarded as the 33. (a) South Asia or southern Asia is the southern
longest river in the world. It is 6,853 km long. region of the Asian continent, which comprises the
Budapest – Danube. The Danube is a river in central sub-Himalayan countries and for some authorities,
Europe, the European Union’s longest and the also includes the adjoining countries to the west
continent’s second longest. and the east. South Asia includes 10 countries and
Phnom Penh – Mekong. The Mekong is a trans- 2 territories:
boundary river in south east Asia. It is the world’s Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Iran,
12th longest river and the 7th longest in Asia. Its Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri
estimated length is 4,350 km, and it drains an area Lanka.
of 795,000 km2, discharging 457 km3 of water Two territories: British Indian Ocean Territory and
annually. Tibet (China).
27. (b) Detroit is situated lake Erie. Detroit is the 35. (c) North Korea – Pyong-Yong (It is the capital of
most populous city in the U.S. state of Michigan, North Korea.)
and is the seat of Wayne County, the most populous
37. (c) Semang – Malaysia
county in the state and the largest city on the United
38. (b) A. Copper – Katanga
States – Canada border.
B. Diamond – Kimberley
28. (d) Brazil – Araguaia. The Araguaia river is one of
C. Gold – Witwatersrand
the major rivers of Brazil, and the principal tributary
D. Silver – Butte
of the Tocantins, though it is almost equal in volume
40. (b) Cultivation of rubber in Brazil, its native
at its conÀuence with the Tocantins. It has a total
habitat, was severely hindered by blight in the early
length of approximately 2,627 km.
20th century. At present, most of the world’s natural
Argentina – Colorado. The Colorado river is the
rubber is produced by rubber trees descended from
principal river of the southwestern United States and
rubber seedlings transplanted from South America to
northwest Mexico. The 1,450-mile river drains an
south and south east Asia. The most severe disease is
expansive, arid watershed that encompasses parts of
South American Leaf Blight (SALB). This disease is
seven U.S. and two Mexican states.
endemic throughout the rubber growing areas in the
Peru – Maranon. The Marañón river is the principal or
Americas. It also poses a major global threat. The
fungus can be controlled by a number of fungicides. 51. (c) From the Equator to Pole the idealised global
Some species are not susceptible to the disease, and pattern of surface wind is
some strains of susceptible species are resistant. Doldrum > Trade wind > Westerlies > Easterlies
Crown budding or grafting of resistant plants onto 52. (d) A hurricane is a tropical cyclone, occurring in
productive trees can be used to control spread. the North Atlantic ocean or the North-East Paci¿c
43. (a) Mt. Everest – Nepal ocean, East of International Date Line.
K2 – India 53. (c) Arab sea is a sea that lay between Kazakhstan
Mt. McKinley – USA in North and Uzbekistan in South. The sea of Azov
Mt. Aconcagua – South America is a sea on the South of Eastern Europe.
All these are the names of highest mountain peaks
54. (b) The suez canal joins the mediterrahean sea
located in the countries respectively.
with the Red sea, it is an arti¿cial sea level waterway
44. (d) Baf¿n – North Atlantic Ocean. Baf¿n Island,
in Egypt also known as ‘The highway to India’. It
in the Canadian territory of Nunavut, is the largest
was opened in 1869.
island in Canada and the ¿fth largest island in the
55. (a) A. Semeru Volcano is situated in Indonesia.
world. Its area is 507,451 km2 and its population is
B. Cotopaxi Volcano is situated in Equador.
about 11,000.
45. (a) 1. Thailand – Siam C. Etma Voplcano is situated in Italy.
2. Ghana – Gold Coast D. Kilomanjaro Vaolcano is situated in Kenya.
3. Zambia – Northern Rhodesia 56. (b) Temperatre cyclone rises in middle latitude
4. Japan – Nippon. between 35° and 65° latitudes. This region is the belt
47. (d) Demographic transition refers to the transition of western winds.
from high death rate and high birth rate to low death 57. (a) The Falkand current is a cold current. It Àows
and birth rates, as a country develops from a pre- along the Argentina’s coast in South Atlantic Ocean.
industrial to industrialised economic system. 58. (a) At the centre of a cyclone is an area of calm
48. (a) Local Wind Area of Prevalence called the eye. The eye is usually about 40 km in
1. Chinook Rocky mountain slopes diameter.
of the USA Air in the centre of a cyclone is less dense than air
2. Foehn Northern slopes of Alps around it because the temperature inside the eye is
3. Sirocco North African desert greater than that of the surroundings.
4. Mistral Sourthern slops of Alps 59. (c) Cyclone is a mass of air whose isobars form an
49. (c) oval or circular shape, with low pressure at the centre.
List-I List-II
The air converge at the centre and rises to disposed
(Natural Vegetation of (Annual Rainfall
off. In a dipression, the winds rotate anticlockwise
India) Received)
A. Tropical evergreen 1. Above 200 cm in northern hemisphere. While in the southern
forests hemisphere, the circular movement of winds is in
B. Tropical deciduous 2. 100-200 cm clockwise direction.
forests 60. (d) Meridian is 0° longitude and international date
C. Tropical dry forests 3. 50-100 cm line is 180° longitude. A person travelling wastwards
D. Arid forests 4. Less than 50 cm
of the Prime Meridian up to 180° W will put his watch
50. (b) The labrador current is a cold current in the back by 12 hours and the other person eastwards upto
North Atlantic ocean which Àows form the Arctic 180° will have to put his watch 12 hours forward.
ocean South along with the coast of labrador and
Alaska is in west and Siberia is in East. So, the date
passes around New Foundland continuing South
of Siberia is head of the date of Alaska.
along the East coast of Nova Satia.
Geography || B-61
61. (c) Tropical grassland located mainly in the 67. (a) a. Kuroshio current - warm Paci¿c current
continental areas of tropical latitudes where rains fall b. Peru current - cold current in
during the summer season which lasts for about ¿ve Paci¿c ocean
months. In Mediterranean region, the winter rainfall c. Labrador current - cold current in
Atlantic ocean
due to middle latitude fronts and cyclones.
d. Florida current - Warm current in
62. (d) Mount Etna (Italy), Kilimanjaro (Tanzania),
Atlantic ocean
Katmai (USA) and Barren Island (India-Andaman 68. (a) Hurricanes develop over the oceans between
& Nicobar island) 8°-15° N. The term “tropical” refers to the
63. (c) International date line lies between 180°W and geographical origin of these systems, which usually
180ºE of Greenwitch. It is drawn zigzag to avoid form over the tropical oceans. The term “cyclone”
landmass. There is a difference in 1 day if a ship sails refers to their cyclonic nature, with wind blowing
westward from Greenwitch by crossing the date line. counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and
64. (b) In a cyclone, the area of low pressure is at the clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. The opposite
centre surrounded by the areas of high pressure. In an direction of circulation is due to the Coriolis force.
Depending on its location and strength, a tropical
anti-cyclone, the area of high pressure is surrounded
cyclone is referred to by names such as hurricane,
by the areas of high pressure.
typhoon, tropical storm, cyclonic storm, tropical
65. (b) The North Atlantic current or Drift or sea depression and simply cyclone.
movement is a powerful warm ocean current that 69. (c) El Nino is a shift in ocean temperatures and
continues the gulf stream northeast, which stretches atmospheric conditions in the tropical Paci¿c that
from Florida to northwestern Europe. It moderates
disrupts weather around the world. It is a poorly
the chilled climate of western Europe.
understood recurrent climatic phenomenon that
66. (d) A. Kalahari – Botswana
primarily affects the Paci¿c coast of South America,
B. Namib – Angola
but has dramatic impacts on weather patterns all
C. Nubian – Sudan
D. Atacama – Chile. over the world. In the Indian Ocean, it affects the
movement of the monsoon winds.
5 Geography of India
1. Which of the following statements are correct? 5. Which one of the following is the correct
1. Assam shares a border with Bangladesh and descending order of the three most populous
Bhutan. states of India (2011)?
2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan (a) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar
(b) Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal
and Nepal.
(c) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal
3. Meghalaya shares a border with Bangladesh (d) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar
and Myanmar. 6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 answer from the codes given below:
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 List-I List-II
2. The Himalayan range is very rich in species (Tribe) (State)
diversity. Which one among the following is most A. Lepcha 1. Madhya Pradesh
appropriate reason for this phenomenon? B. Malpaharia 2. Rajasthan
C. Gond 3. Sikkim
(a) It has high rainfall that supports luxuriant
D. Bhill 4. Jharkhand
vegetative growth Codes :
(b) It is a conÀuence of different bio-geographical A B C D
zones. (a) 3 4 1 2
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been (b) 3 4 2 1
introduced in this region. (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) It has less human interference. (d) 1 4 3 2
3. Which one of the following is correctly matched? 7. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) Bauxite – Rajasthan (a) The Tungabhadra Project serves the states of
Kerla and Tamil Nadu.
(b) Copper – Madhya Pradesh
(b) The Kundoh Project lies in Karnataka.
(c) Iron ore – Uttar Pradesh (c) The Salal Project serves the states of
(d) Mica – Jharkhand Himachal Pradesh.
4. Which of the following factors are responsible (d) The Sharavathy Project is located at the Jog
for the rapid growth of sugar production in south falls.
India as compared to north India? 8. Consider the following statements and select the
1. Higher per acre ¿eld of sugarcane correct answer by using the codes given below:
2. Higher sucrose content of sugarcane Assertion (A): There has been some decline
3. Lower labour cost in the growth rate of India’s
4. Longer crushing period population in recent years.
Reason (R): According to 2011 census,
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
about 3/4 of Indian’s population
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
is literate.
Geography || B-63
Codes: 13. Which one of following statements is not
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct correct?
explanation of A. (a) Konyak language is the language of
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Nagaland.
explanation of A. (b) The largest river island is the world is in
(c) A is true, but R is false. Assam.
(d) A is false, but R is true. (c) Arunachal Pradesh has the least density of
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct population in India.
answer from the codes given below: (d) The biggest desert of the world is in India.
(Atomic power plant) (State) answer from the codes given below:
A. Kalpakkam 1. Gujarat List-I List-II
B. Kakrapar 2. Karnataka (Biosphere reserve) (State)
A. Agasthyamalai 1. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Kaiga 3. Rajasthan
B. Dibru-Saikhowa 2. Meghalaya
D. Rawatbhata 4. Tamil Nadu
C. Dihong Dibang 3. Kerala
Codes:
D. Nokrek 4. Assam
A B C D
Codes:
(a) 3 1 4 2 A B C D
(b) 4 1 2 3 (a) 1 3 4 2
(c) 1 2 4 3 (b) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 3 2 1 (c) 3 1 2 4
10. Which of the following pairs is not correctly (d) 3 4 1 2
matched? 15. Consider the following statements and select the
(Soil) (State) correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) Alluvial — Uttar Pradesh Assertion (A): In South India, semi arid steppe
(b) Regur — Maharashtra climate is found in parts of
(c) Laterite — Punjab Karnataka plateau.
(d) Red and yellow — Chhattisgarh Reason (R): It lies in rain shadow area of
11. Golden Quadrilateral Project is Sahyadris.
(a) Conversion of meter gauge into broad gauge. Codes:
(b) Construction of four lane highways joining (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
four metropolises of India. explanation of A.
(c) Joining of four important rivers of north (b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the
India and south India. correct explanation of A.
(d) Joining of four important cities of India with (c) A is true, but R is false.
air transport. (d) A is false, but R is true.
12. Which one of the following statements is not 16. Which of the following are not the examples of
correct about laterite soils in India? shifting cultivation?
(a) These soils were ¿rst studied by Buchanan. Select the correct answer from the codes given
(b) These are the typical soils of the tropical below:
areas with reasonal rainfall. 1. Ladang 2. Jhum
(c) These soils are poor in iron but rich in 3. Pondu 4. Fazenda
nitrogen. Codes:
(d) These are well developed on the summits of (a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
the Sahyadris and Eastern Ghats. (c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 2 and 4
B-64 || Geography of India
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Reason (R): Cheap tribal labour is available
answer using the codes given below: in abundance in Assam
(Tributary) (Rivers) (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
A. Chambal 1. Narmada explanation of A.
B. Sone 2. Yamuna (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
C. Manas 3. Brahmaputra explanation of A.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct (c) A is true, but R is false.
matched? (d) A is false, but R is true.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 22. Arrange the following states of India in ascending
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only order of their areal size and select the correct
18. Consider the following areas of forests: answer from the codes given below:
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands forests. 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Madhya Pradesh
2. Ilambur tract of Kerala. 3. Maharashtra 4. Uttar Pradesh
3. Low outorop of Garo and Khasi hills. Codes:
4. Mikir hills upto 1000 metres. (a) 4, 1, 3, 2 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
Which of the above areas have tropical wet (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4
evergreen forests? 23. Consider the following statements about south-
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 west monsoon.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. It occurs from June to September
19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly 2. Its direction is north-east to south-west.
matched? 3. It gives maximum rainfall as compared to
National Park — State other monsoon.
(a) Kanha National Park — Madhya 4. It has no branch.
Pradesh Of these statement(s) is/are correct?
(b) Sultanpur National park — Haryana (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Ranthambore National park — Gujarat (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
(d) Bandipur National Park — Karnataka 24. Interior of the Deccan plateau receives an annual
20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct rainfall of less than 60 cm, mainly because
answer from the codes given below: (a) It is a rain shadow zone/region.
List-I List-II (b) It is located parallel to wind direction.
(Hill resorts) (State) (c) It is away from the coast.
A. Dalhousie 1. Jammu and Kashmir (d) Rain-bearing clouds are absent.
B. Darjeeling 2. Himachal Pradesh 25. Match the following two lists and select the codes
C. Mussoorie 3. West Bengal given below:
D. Pahalgam 4. Uttarakhand List-I List-II
Codes: A. Coal 1. Bhandera
A B C D B. Gold 2. Karanpura
(a) 2 4 3 1 C. Mica 3. Hutti
(b) 1 3 2 4 D. Manganese 4. Nellore
(c) 2 3 4 1 Codes:
(d) 3 1 4 2 A B C D
correct answer by using the codes given below: (b) 2 3 4 1
Assertion (A): Assam is the largest producer of (c) 3 4 2 1
tea in India. (d) 2 1 4 3
Geography || B-65
26. Consider the following statements: 31. Arrange the following languages in decreasing
1. As per census 2011, the population growth order of their speakers in India.
rate of Nagaland during 2001–2011 was the (a) Hindi, Bengali, Telugu, Marathi, Tamil, Urdu.
lowest among the states of India. (b) Urdu, Tamil, Marathi, Telugu, Bengali,
2. As per census 2011, the population growth Hindi.
rate of Dadra and Nagar Haveli was the (c) Hindi, Marathi, Bengali, Urdu, Telugu,
highest among the states of India/Union Tamil.
territory. (d) Hindi, Tamil Telugu, Marathi, Bengali, Urdu.
Which of the statements given above is/are 32. Which one of the following statements is not
correct? correct regarding tank irrigation in peninsular
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only India?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Percolation of rainwater is less due to hard
27. Arrange the following states in the descending rock.
order of literacy as per census report of 2011 and (b) Most of the rivers are seasonal and dry up in
select the correct answer from the codes given at summer reason.
the end. (c) Underground water level is higher
1. Kerala 2. Manipur (d) Rainwater can be easily stored by
3. Tamil Nadu 4. Himachal Pradesh constructing tanks.
Codes: 33. Examine the following statements and select the
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2 correct answer using the codes given below:
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 1. Rihand Dam is on a tributary of the Son river.
28. A state in India has the following characteristics: 2. Hirakund Dam is on the Mahanadi river.
1. It northern part is arid and semiarid. 3. Tungabhadra Project is a joint venture of the
2. Its central part produces cotton. Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka states.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant 4. Kosi is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
over food crops. Codes:
Which one of the following states has all of the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
above characteristics?
(b) 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
29. As per geological periods the correct sequence of
order of the following is
correct answer by using the codes given below:
1. Aravalli 2. Himalayas
Assertion (A): India enjoys tropical monsoon
3. Deccan plateau 4. Eastern Ghat
climate.
Codes:
Reason (R): India is located within the
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3 tropics.
30. Which of the following reasons is responsible for Select the correct answer from the following
the protests against the Tehri Dam Project? codes:
(a) The vulnerability of the dam region to Codes:
earthquakes. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(b) The environmental distance caused by the explanation of A.
project. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(c) The problem of displacement of the local explanation of A.
people. (c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) All of the above (d) A is false, but R is true.
35. Arrange the following mountain ranges from 39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
north to south order and select the correct answer answer using the codes given below:
from the codes: List-I List-II
1. Dholadhar A. Vikram Sarabhai 1. Bangalore
2. Ladakh Space Centre
3. Pirpanjal B. SHAR Centre 2. Thumba
4. Zaskar C. Space Application 3. Sri Harikota
Codes: Centre
(a) 2, 4, 1, 3 (b) 4, 2, 1, 3 D. ISRO Satellite 4. Ahmedabad
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1 Centre
A. Valley town 1. Mussoorie (b) 2 3 4 1
B. ConÀuence town 2. Rishikesh (c) 2 3 1 4
C. Gate town 3. Tehri (d) 3 2 4 1
D. Ridge town 4. Dehradun 40. Consider the following statements:
Codes: 1. In India, natural rubber is produced in
A B C D southern India only.
(a) 1 3 2 4 2. Among the coffee growing states of India,
(b) 2 3 4 1 the lowest average yield per hectare of
(c) 4 3 2 1 plucked coffee is in Kerala.
(d) 2 4 3 1 Which of the statements given above is/are
37. Consider the following speci¿c stages of correct?
demographic transition associated with economic (a) 1 only
development: (b) 2 only
1. Low birth rate with low death rate. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. High birth rate with high death rate. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. High birth rate with low death rate. 41. Among the following states, which one has
Select the correct order of the above stages using the most suitable climatic conditions for the
the codes given below: cultivation of a large variety of orchids with
Codes: minimum cost of production and can develop an
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3 export oriented industry in this ¿eld?
(c) 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1 (a) Goa
38. Which one of the following years is known as (b) U.P.
the ‘Year of the Great Divide’ with regard to (c) M.P
population, after which there has been a continuous (d) Arunachal Pradesh
and rapid growth in India’s population? 42. Which of the following shows the correct
(a) 1911 geographical spread of the plateaus?
(b) 1921 1. Chota Nagpur Plateau – much of Jharkhand,
(c) 1941 West Bengal and adjacent parts of Orissa,
(d) 1951 Bihar and Chhattisgarh.
Geography || B-67
2. Deccan Plateau – Vindhyas to the north and 4. To provide insights into the mass extinction,
Àanked by the Eastern and Western Ghats. thermal structure and state of stress in the
3. Malwa Plateau – Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh lithosphere and geothermal potential of the
and Gujarat. West Coast Belt as well as the geothermal
4. Malwa Plateau – Rajasthan, Maharashtra record of climate change in the region.
and Gujarat. Select the answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above
43. Which of the following shows the correct match 46. Which of the following National Park’s
of India’s natural resource with their world-wide uniqueness lies in its man-made lakes and ancient
production rank? reservoirs, which have merged into the natural
(a) Rank 1 - barites and chromites; Rank 2 - iron system as vital sources of water? It also has a
ore; Rank 3 - mica blocks and mica splitting; large populaton of panthers, the second largest
predators of the forest.
Rank 4 - coal; Rank 5 - bauxite and crude steel
(a) Ranthambore National Park
(b) Rank 1 - bauxite and crude steel; Rank 2 - mica
(b) Bandavgarh National Park
blocks and mica splitting; Rank 3 - coal; Rank (c) Bharatpur National Park
4 - barites and chromites; Rank 5 - iron ore (d) Kanha National Park
(c) Rank 1 - coal; Rank 2 - mica blocks and mica 47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
splitting; Rank 3 - iron ore; Rank 4 - bauxite and answer using the codes given below.
crude steel; Rank 5 - barites and chromites List-I List-II
(d) Rank 1 - mica blocks and mica splitting; Rank (Lakes) (States)
2 - barites and chromites; Rank 3 - coal; Rank A. Loktak 1. Maharashtra
4 - iron ore; Rank 5 - bauxite and crude steel B. Pulicut 2. Jammu-Kashmir
44. Which of the following statements about alluvial C. Lonar 3. Tamil Nadu
soils of India are correct? D. Wular 4. Manipur
Codes:
1. These are mostly clay soils and form deep
A B C D
cracks during dry season.
(a) 4 3 1 2
2. Usually they are very productive soils. (b) 3 2 4 1
3. These soils occur at high elevations as well (c) 2 3 1 4
as at low elevations. (d) 1 4 3 2
4. Many of these soils are de¿cient in nitrogen, 48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
humus and phosphorus. answer using the codes given below the Lists:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 List-I List-II
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (Tribes) (States)
45. Which of the following are aims of scienti¿c deep A. Oraon 1. Kerala
drilling project in the Koyna intra-plate seismic B. Khond 2. Gujarat
zone? C. Chenchu 3. Jharkhand
D. Todai 4. Odisha
1. To provide an opportunity to understand
Codes:
the mechanism of reservoir-triggered
A B C D
earthquakes. (a) 3 4 1 2
2. To develop measures to prevent earthquake (b) 4 3 2 1
in a stable continental region. (c) 3 2 4 1
3. To give insights into Deccan volcanism. (d) 2 1 3 4
49. Consider the following statements and choose the 53. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
correct codes given below: answer using the codes given below:
1. Jhum cultivation is adopted in North-Eastern List-I List-II
State of India. A. Gulf Stream 1. Paci¿c Ocean
2. Jhum cultivation is a process of afforestation. B. West Wind Drift 2. A slow eastward
(a) 1 only movement of water
(b) 2 only over the zone of
(c) Both 1 and 2 westerly wind
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 C. Peru Current 3. Indian Ocean
50. Which one among the following is the correct D. West Australian 4. Warm current
sequence of the rivers from north to south? Current
(a) Damodar-Brahmani-Mahanadi-Tungabhadra Codes:
(b) Damodar-Mahanadi-Brahmani- Tungabhadra A B C D
(c) Brahmani-Tungabhadra-Damodar- Mahanadi
(a) 4 2 1 3
(d) Damodar-Brahmani-Tungabhadra- Mahanadi
(b) 1 3 4 2
51. Consider the following sanctuaries of India:
(c) 4 3 1 2
1. Periyar
(d) 1 2 4 3
2. Dachigam
3. Sariska
4. Kanha
Which one among the following is the correct List-I List-II
sequence of locations of the above sanctuaries (Times of climate) (Region)
from south to north? A. Aw 1. Rain shadow
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2 zone of
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2 Karnataka
52. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct B. Amw 2. Thar Desert
answer using the codes given below. C. BShw 3. W. Bengal and
List-I List-II Bihar
(Hydroelectric (Location in map) D. BWhw 4. Malabar Coast
power station) Codes:
A B C D
A. Nagarjuna Sagar
(a) 3 4 1 2
B. Mettur 4 (b) 3 1 4 2
2
3 (c) 2 1 4 3
C. Hirakud (d) 2 4 1 3
D. Sileru
1
A B C D (Rivers) (Their Tributaries)
(a) 3 4 1 2 A. Krishna 1. Chambal
(b) 3 1 4 2
B. Brahamaputra 2. Indravati
(c) 2 1 4 3
C. Godavari 3. Tista
(d) 2 4 1 3
D. Yamuna 4. Bhima
Geography || B-69
Codes: 59. Consider the following sanctuaries of India
A B C D 1. Periyar 2. Dachigam
(a) 4 3 2 1 2. Sariska 4. Kanha
(b) 3 4 2 1 Which one among the following is the correct
(c) 4 3 1 2 sequence of location of the above sanctuaries
(d) 1 4 3 2 from South to North?
56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2
60. Which of the following statements about Nathu
List-I List-II
La Pass are correct ?
(Soils) (State)
1. It links Sikkim with Tibet
A. Alluvial 1. Rajasthan 2. It was the main artery of the ancient Silk
B. Black soil (Regur) 2. Uttar Pradesh Route
C. Desert 3. Maharashtra 3. It was reopened in the year 2006
D. Red 4. Meghalaya Select the correct answer using the codes given
Codes: below
A B C D (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(a) 1 2 3 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
(b) 2 3 4 1 61. Match the following
(d) 4 2 3 1 (Dam) (River)
57. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct A. Ukai dam 1. Beas
answer from the codes given below: B. Bhakra dam 2. Krishan
List-I List-II C. Nagarjuna Sagar dam 3. Sutlej
(Pass) (State) D. Pandoh dam 4. Tapi (Tapi)
A. Shipki La 1. Arunachal Pradesh Codes :
B. Niti pass 2. Himachal Pradesh A B C D
C. Nathula 3. Uttarakhand (a) 1 3 2 4
D. Bomdi La 4. Sikkim (b) 1 2 3 4
Codes: (c) 4 3 2 1
A B C D (d) 4 2 3 1
(a) 2 3 4 1 62. Arrange the following tributaries of river
(b) 2 3 1 4 Brahmaputra from West to East.
(c) 4 2 1 3 1. Lohit 2. Dibang
(d) 4 2 3 1 3. Subansiri 4. Tista
58. Which of the following are UNESCO recognised Select the correct answer using the codes given
world heritage sites ? below
1. Caves of Ajanta (a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
2. Temple and Caves at Ellora (c) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 2, 4, 3, 1
3. Mandapas of Mahabalipuram 63. Match the following
4. Caves of Kanheri List-I List-II
Select the correct answer using the codes given (River) (Tributary)
below A. Ganga 1. Chambal and Ken
B. Indus 2. Wainganga and Indravati
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
C. Yamuna 3. Chenab and Sutlej
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 D. Godavari 4. Gomti and Kosi
Codes : 3. Sugarcane in Malaysia
A B C D 4. Coffee in Brazil
(a) 4 1 3 2 (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
(c) 2 1 3 4 68. Which one of the following is the correct
(d) 2 3 1 4 sequence of the given tiger reserves of India from
64. Match the following North to South?
List-I List-II (a) Dudwa-Kanha-Indravti-Bandipur
(Tribal Group) (State where (b) Kanha-Bandipu-Dudwa-Indravati
Prodominantly Located) (c) Idravati-Kanha-Dudwa-Bandipur
A. Reang 1. Arunachal Pradesh (d) Dudwa-Kanha-Bandipur-Indravati
B. Dimasa 2. Nagaland 69. Which of the following statements with regard
C. Konyak 3. Tripura to the expansion of the desert in Rajasthan is/are
D. Mishmi 4. Asom correct?
Codes : 1. The predominant wind direction in
A B C D Rajasthan in North-East to South-West, so
(a) 1 2 4 3 the tendency for deserti¿cation has been
(b) 1 4 2 3 more in that direction.
(c) 3 2 4 1 2. The Thar desert is dominantly a monsoon
(d) 3 4 2 1 driven sand desert where wind erosion is a
65. Arrange the following oil re¿neries of India from major problem during the summer months.
West to East While the Aravalli range is a major barrier
1. Koyali 2. Bongaigaon in the spread of the desert, rampant mining
3. Mathura 4. Haldia creating cuts in the range is leading to the
Select the correct answer using the codes given spread of the desert.
below Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4, 2 below
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 2, 4, 3, 1 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
66. Match the following (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
List-I List-II 70. Consider the following places of Kashmir region
(Biosphere Reserve) (Places) 1. Sri Nagar 2. Gilgit
A. Manas 1. Meghalaya 3. Kargil 4. Banihal
B. Pachmarhi 2. Asom Arrange the above place from North to South
C. Nokrek 3. Madhya Pradesh using the code given below
D. Achanakmar 4. Chhattisgarh (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
Amarkantak (c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4
Codes : 71. Which of the following statements with regard to
A B C D rainfall in India is/are correct?
(a) 4 3 1 2 1. Most of the rainfall in India is due to the
(b) 4 1 3 2 South-West monsoon.
(c) 2 1 3 4 2. In South India, rainfall decreases away from
(d) 2 3 1 4 the Eastern Ghats.
67. Which among the following monoculture crops Select the correct answer using the codes given
provide(s) immediate cash to the farmers? below
1. Tea in Asom (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
2. Rubber in Africa (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Geography || B-71
72. Consider the following statements Codes :
1. Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest A B C D
national park of India. (a) 4 1 3 2
2. It was one of the nine tiger reserves created (b) 2 3 1 4
at the launch of the Project Tiger in 1973. (c) 4 3 1 2
3. Initially it was named as ‘Hailey National (d) 2 1 3 4
Park’. 77. Match the following
Which of the statement given above are correct? List-I List-II
(a) 1 and 2 (b) All of these (River) (Tributary)
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 A. Brahamaputra 1. Musi
73. Consider the following statements B. Krishna 2. Tawa
1. In the month of July, the Inter Tropical C. Narmada 3. Bhavani
Convergence Zone is located in the Indo D. Kaveri 4. Dikhow
Gangetic plain. Codes :
2. Northen Inter Tropical Convergence Zone is A B C D
the zone of clouds and heavy rainfall. (a) 4 2 1 3
Which of the statement given above is/are (b) 4 1 2 3
correct? (c) 3 2 1 4
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) 3 1 2 4
(c) Both 2 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 78. What is the correct order to occurrence of the
74. Which of the following factors is/are responsible following places as one moves from East to
for high concentration of jute mills in the Hugli West?
basin? (1) Murshidabad (2) Gorakhpur
1. Nearness to coal ¿elds. (3) Bhopal (4) Bhavnagar
2. Convenient dry climate for spinning and Select the correct answer using the codes given
weaving. below
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 1, 3, 4, 2
below (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 79. Consider the following statements
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 The South-West monsoon originates in India due
75. Consider the following regions of India to
1. Western Ghats 1. low pressure in the Punjab plain.
2. Aravalli Hills 2. high pressure in areas South of India
3. Eastern Himalayas 3. equatorial low being ¿lled up by descending
Which of the above is/are biodiversity hot spot/hot air current.
spots? 4. the Himalayas.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
76. Match the following (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
List-I List-II 80. Consider the following statements
(Pass) (State) 1. The Golden Quadrilateral connects the four
A. Zoji La Pass 1. Sikkim major cities of Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru
B. Bara Lacha Pass 2. Uttarakhand and Kolkata.
C. Jelep La Pass 3. Himachal Pradesh 2. The North-South corridor will pass through
D. Niti Pass 4. Jammu and Kashmir Hyderabad.
Which of the statements given above is/are 84. Match List-I (Town) with List-Il (River) and select
correct? the correct answer using the codes given below the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Lists:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 List-I (Town) List-II (River)
81. Consider the following statements A. Nanded 1. Godavari
1. Dakshin Gangotri is India’s second scienti¿c B. Nellore 2. Tungbhadra
manned station in Antarctica after Maitri. C. Hospet 3. Musi
2. The National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean D. Hyderabad 4. Penneru
Research is situated at Goa. Codes :
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 1 2 4 3
correct?
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1
answer using the codes given below :
82. Match List-I (Atomic Power Plant) with List-I
List-I List-II
(State) and select the correct answer using the (Product) (Major Producer)
codes given below the Lists: A. Tea 1. Andhra Pradesh
List-I List-II B. Jute 2. Kerala
(Atomic Power Plant) (State) C. Rubber 3. Orissa
A. Kalpakkam 1. Karnataka D. Tobacco 4. Tamil Nadu
B. Narora 2. MadhyaPradesh Codes :
C. Rawatbhata 3. Maharashtra A B C D A B C D
D. Tarapur 4. Rajasthan (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 1 2 3
5. Tamil Nadu (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
6. Uttar Pradesh 86. Match List I with List II and select the correct
Codes : answer using the code given below the Lists :
A B C D A B C D List-l List-II
(a) 1 6 4 2 (b) 1 4 6 2 (Mineral) (Mine)
(c) 5 6 4 3 (d) 5 4 6 3 A. Bauxite 1. Balaghat
83. Match List-I (Town) with List-II (Factory/Plant) B. Copper 2. Korba
and select the correct answer using the codes given C. Iron ore 3. Singareni
below the Lists: D. Coal 4. Keonjhar
List-I List-II Codes :
(Town) (Factory/Plant) A B C D A B C D
A. Namrup 1. Aluminium Plant (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2
B. Vishakhapatnam 2. Steel Plant (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
C. Perambur 3. Fertilizer Plant 87. Match List I with List II and select the correct
D. Renukoot 4. Integral Coach answer using the code given below the Lists :
Factory List-I List-II
(Industry) (Industrial Centre)
Codes :
A. Aluminium 1 Coimbatore
A B C D A B C D
B. Heavy Electricals 2. Renukoot
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 3
C. Petrochemicals 3. Vadodara
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 D. Cotton Textiles 4. Jagdishpur
Geography || B-73
Codes : Codes :
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2 (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 2 3 4 1 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 1 4
88. Match List I with List II and select the correct 92. Which of the following has/have been declared as
answer using the code given below the Lists: national waterways in India ?
List-I List-II I. The Allahabad-Haldia stretch of river Ganga
(National Highway No.) (Cities connected) II. The Sadiya-Dhubri stretch of river
A. NH 5 1. Bhopal-Jaipur Brahmaputra
B. NH 7 2. Bhubaneswar- III. The Cherla-Rajamundry stretch of river
Chennai Godavari
C. NH 9 3. Nagpur-Varanasi Select the correct answer using the code given
D. NH 12 4. Pune-Hyderabad below
Codes :
(a) I and II oniy (b) II and III only
A B C D A B C D
(c) I only (d) I, II and III
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 1 2 3 93. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
89. Consider the following statements : I. Mumbai receives more rainfall than Pune
1. Alamatti dam is on the Cauvery river. because it is located at the windward side of
2. Mettur dam in on the Krishna river. Western Ghats
3. Gandhi Sagar Reservoir is on the Chambal II. Vidarbha region experiences semi-arid
river. climate as it is located in a rain shadow region
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? III. In India monsoon reaches Kashmir valley at
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only the last
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
90. Consider the following statements : below :
1. Kandla port is situated at the head of Gulf of (a) I, II and III (b) I and II only
khambhat.
(c) II and III only (d) I only
2. Paradeep Port is situated in the Mahanadi
Delta. 94. Which of the following statements regarding
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? south-west monsoon in India is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only I. Monsoon reaches the Malabar coast ¿rst
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 II. Rajasthan does not get rainfall from south
91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct west monsoon
answer using the code given below the Lists : III. South-west monsoon retreats when the
List-I List-II permanent wind belts start shifting to the
(Type of vegetation) (State) south
A. Mangrove 1 Madhya Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code given
B. Scrub 2 Karnataka below :
C. Teak 3 Rajasthan (a) I, II and III (b) I and II only
D. Coniferous 4 Arunachal Pradesh (c) III only (d) I and III only
95. Consider the following statements (a) 1-3-4-2 (b) 3-1-4-2
I. In India, the largest concentration of roads is (c) 3-1-2-4 (d) 1-3-2-4
found in the northern plains 99. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
II. The ratio of surfaced road to the total road answer using the code given below the Lists :
length is lower in the northern plains. List-I List-II
(Mountain pass) (State)
A. Zoji La 1. Himachal Pradesh
(a) I only (b) II only
B. Lipulekh 2. Sikkim
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
C. Shipki La 3. Uttarakhand
96. Match List I with List II and select the correct D. Nathu La 4. Jammu and Kashmir
answer using the code given below the lists: Codes :
List I List II A B C D A B C D
(Mineral) (State) (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
A. Bauxite 1. Andhra Pradesh (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 1 2
B. Mica 2. Orissa 100. Match List I with List II and select the correct
C. Copper 3. Madhya Pradesh answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I List II
D. Zinc 4. Rajasthan
(Himalayan Peak) (State)
Codes :
A B C D A B C D A. K2 1. Uttarakhand
(a) 4 1 3 3 (b) 2 1 3 4 B. Nanda Devi 2. Jammu & Kashmir
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 1 4 C. Tara Pahar 3. Sikkim
97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct D. Kanchenjunga 4. Himachal Pradesh
answer using the code given below the Lists : Codes :
List-I List-II A B C D A B C D
(Port) (Special feature) (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
A. Kandla 1. Deepest landlocked (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
protected port 101. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
B. Kochi 2. Located at mouth 1. The local time of Itanagar (Arunachal
of lagoon Pradesh) is about two hours ahead than
C. Vishakhapatnam 3. Tidal port Dwarka (Gujarat).
D. Kolkata 4. Inland riverine port 2. The local time at Chennai (Tamil Nadu) and
Codes : Lucknow (Uttar Pradesh) is almost same.
A B C D A B C D 3. The local time of Mumbai (Maharashtra)
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 is one hour ahead than Kolkata (West
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 2 1 3
Bengal).
98. Consider the following coal mines of India :
Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Bokaro 2. Adilabad
below :
3. Raniganj 4. Bishrampur
Select the correct sequence of the above from east (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
to west. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Geography || B-75
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 12. (c) 23. (b) 34. (c) 45. (c) 56. (c) 67. (c) 78. (c) 89. (d) 100. (b)
2. (b) 13. (d) 24. (a) 35. (c) 46. (a) 57. (a) 68. (a) 79. (a) 90. (b) 101. (a)
3. (d) 14. (d) 25. (d) 36. (c) 47. (a) 58. (b) 69. (c) 80. (b) 91. (c)
4. (d) 15. (a) 26. (c) 37. (c) 48. (a) 59. (c) 70. (c) 81. (b) 92. (a)
5. (a) 16. (c) 27. (a) 38. (b) 49. (a) 60. (a) 71. (a) 82. (c) 93. (a)
6. (b) 17. (d) 28. (b) 39. (b) 50. (a) 61. (c) 72. (b) 83. (c) 94. (a)
7. (d) 18. (c) 29. (c) 40. (a) 51. (c) 62. (b) 73. (a) 84. (a) 95. (c)
8. (a) 19. (c) 30. (d) 41. (d) 52. (c) 63. (b) 74. (b) 85. (d) 96. (b)
9. (b) 20. (c) 31. (a) 42. (b) 53. (a) 64. (b) 75. (b) 86. (b) 97. (b)
10. (c) 21. (a) 32. (c) 43. (d) 54. (a) 65. (b) 76. (c) 87. (a) 98. (b)
11. (b) 22. (a) 33. (d) 44. (b) 55. (a) 66. (d) 77. (b) 88. (c) 99. (d)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Meghalaya shares border only with Bangladesh. 7. (d) The Sharavathi Project is located at the Jog
2. (b) It is a conÀuence of different biographical falls. The Sharavathi Hydro Electric Project is today
the backbone of Karnataka’s power generating
zones.
arsenal. The Sharavathi Generating Station with its
3. (d) Mica–Jharkhand. Jharkhand is large producer
10 units has an installed capacity of 1035 MW and
of mica. Jharkhand has richest mica belt and the Linganamakki Dam Powerhouse with 2 units has
accounts for 60% of India’s production in terms an installed capacity of 55 MW. To further tap the
of value. Here, mica is found in a belt extending potential of the Sharavathi river, KPCL has installed
for about 150 km in length and 32 km in width at the Gerusoppa Dam Project, four generating units
from Gaya district of Bihar to Hazaribagh and of 60 MW each, totalling to 240 MW.
Kodarma districts of Jharkhand. Kodarma is a well- 8. (a) Because India’s 73% population is literate so
known place for mica production in Jharkhand we can say the growth of Indian population has been
which produces more than 50% of the total mica decline in recent years.
production in India. 9. (b) Kalpakkam–Tamil Nadu. Madras Atomic
5. (a) Reference-Census 2011 Power Station is located at Kalpakkam. It has
U.P., Maharashtra, Bihar a comprehensive nuclear power production,
fuel reprocessing, and waste treatment facility
6. (b) Lepcha – Sikkim
that includes plutonium fuel fabrication for fast
Malpaharia – Jharkhand breeder reactors (FBRs). It is also India’s ¿rst fully
Gond – Rajasthan indigenously constructed nuclear power station. It
Bhill – Madhya Pradesh has two units of 220 MW capacity each.
Kakrapar – Gujarat. The Kakrapar Atomic Power Dihang-Dibang – Arunachal Pradesh. Dihang-
Station is a nuclear power station in India, which Dibang or Dehang-Debang is a biosphere reserve
lies in the proximity of the city of Surat in the state constituted under the Man & Biosphere Programme.
of Gujarat. It consists of two 220 MW pressurized It is in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh.
water reactors with heavy water as moderator. Nokrek – Meghalaya. Nokrek National Park, or
Kaiga – Karnataka. Kaiga generating station is a Nokrek Biosphere Reserve, is a national park
nuclear power generating station situated at Kaiga, located approximately 2 km from Tura Peak in West
near the river Kali, in Uttar Kannada district of Garo Hills district of Meghalaya, India. UNESCO
Karnataka, India. The plant has been in operation added this national park to its list of Biosphere
since March 2000 and is operated by the Nuclear Reserves in May 2009.
Power Corporation of India. It has four units. On 27 15. (a) Hint: Due to rain shadow area of Sahyadri,
November 2010, the Kaiga Atomic Power Station the regions between Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
unit 4 of 220 MW capacity became operational have become semi-arid.
Rawatbhata – Rajasthan. The Rajasthan Atomic 16. (c) Ladang, Jhum and Pondu are the examples
Power Station in India is located about 65 of shifting cultivation. Shifting cultivation is an
kilometres from Kota by way of the Chambal river, agricultural system in which a person uses a piece
approximately 3 kilometres above the dam that holds of land, only to abandon or alter the initial use a
the Rana Pratap Sagar lake. short time later.
10. (c) Hint: Laterite soils prevalent and easy to found This system often involves clearing of a piece of
in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, etc. in India. land followed by several years of wood harvesting
11. (b) Construction of four lane highways joining or farming until the soil loses fertility.
four metropolises of India. The overall length of the Once the land becomes inadequate for crop
quadrilateral is 5,846 km consisting of four / six lane production, it is left to be reclaimed by natural
express highways. The project was estimated to cost vegetation, or sometimes converted to a different
INR 600 bn ($13.2bn) but was completed at about long-term cyclical farming practice.
half of the estimated costs, at INR 308.58 bn. The This system of agriculture is often practised at the
whole length of the quadrilateral was operational by level of an individual or family, but sometimes may
January 2012. involve an entire village.
12. (c) These soils are poor in iron and rich in nitrogen. 17. (d) Manas is a tributary of Brahmaputra and
Hint: Literite soils are rich in iron and poor in Chambal and Son are tributary of Yamuna and
nitrogen. Ganga respectively.
13. (d) The biggest desert of world is in India. 19. (c) Ranthambore National Park is in Rajasthan.
Hint: Biggest desert of the world is in Africa. Ranthambore was established as the Sawai
14. (d) Agasthyamalai – Kerala. The Agasthyamalai Madhopur Game Sanctuary in 1955 by the
hills also called the Ashambu hills, lie at the extreme Government of India and was declared one of
southern end of the Western Ghat mountain range the Project Tiger reserves in 1973. Ranthambore
along the western side of South India. There are at became a national park in 1980. In 1984, the
least 26 peaks over 1,600 metres among these hills. adjacent forests were declared the Sawai Man Singh
Dibru-saikhowa – Assam. Dibru-Saikhowa National Sanctuary and Keladevi Sanctuary.Ranthambore
Park is a national wildlife park in Tinsukia, Assam, Wildlife Sanctuary is known for its tigers and is
India. Dibru-Saikhowa national park is located one of the best places in India to see these majestic
at about 12 km north of Tinsukia town of Assam predators in the jungle. Tigers can be easily spotted
covering an area of 350 km2. even during the daytime.
Geography || B-77
20. (c) Dalhousie – Himachal Pradesh 35. (c) North to South – Ladakh – Zaskar – Pirpanjal
Darjeeling – West Bengal – Dholadhar
Mussoorie – Uttarakhand 36. (c) Valley town – Dehradun. Dehradun, a capital
Pahalgam – Jammu and Kashmir city of Uttarakhand situated in the northern part
All these are the names of famous hill stations of India. Dehradun is called a beautiful town
located in these states respectively. that is located in the Doon Valley surrounded by
21. (a) Assam tea is a black tea named after the region the Shivalik hills, a mountain range of the outer
of its production, Assam, in India. Assam tea is Himalayas. The Doon city is world famous for its
manufactured speci¿cally from the plant Camellia natural scenic beauty, which includes some visually
sinensis var. assamica (Masters). attractive landscapes and enjoyable climate.
22. (a) Arranged their real size in ascending order – ConÀuence town – Tehri. Tehri is a beautiful
U.P. – Andhra Pradesh – Maharashtra – Madhya town in the state of Uttarakhand. It is also known
Pradesh. as the municipal board of Tehri Garhwal District
23. (b) South west monsoon occurs from June to in Uttarakhand. It is one of the largest districts in
September and gives maximum rainfall as compared Uttarakhand. It is considered as one of the holiest
to other monsoon. Its direction is south-west.
places of the state as it has numerous temples and is
24. (a) It is a rain shadow zone. A rain shadow is an located at the conÀuence of the holy rivers, Ganga
area of dry land on the leeward side of a mountain.
and Yamuna.
25. (d) Coal – Karanpura.
Gate town – Rishikesh. Rishikesh is called the main
Gold – Bhander.
gate to heaven as the most holy Char Dham Yatra
Mica – Nellore as speci¿ed in Hindu mythology begins from here.
Manganese – Hutti The buses and taxies are available at Rishikesh
All these are names of mines of different minerals in for this Yatra of Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri,
different places in India. and Yamunotri. Rishikesh is a small town, having
26. (c) Reference-Census 2011. Final data. population of around 80,000 people. It is located
27. (a) Descending order of literacy census report of very close to Haridwar at a distance of around 15
2011 – Kerala – Himachal Pradesh – Tamil Nadu – miles.
Manipur.
Ridge town – Mussoorie. Located on a 15 km
28. (b) Gujarat. The total geographical area of Gujarat
long horseshoe ridge with the grand Himalayas as
is 19,602,400 hectares, of which crops take up
a backdrop, the colonial hill resort of Mussoorie
10,630,700 hectares. The three main sources of
spreads across at a height of 2,005.5 m above sea
growth in Gujarat’s agriculture are from cotton
production, the rapid growth of high-value foods level. From this vantage point, Mussoorie offers
such as livestock, fruits and vegetables, and from superb scenic view of peaks of the Himalayas in
wheat production, which saw an annual average western Garhwal.
growth rate of 28% between 2000 and 2008. 38. (b) ‘1921’ is the year of great divide. The year
29. (c) Aravalli – Eastern Ghat – Deccan plateau – 1921 is taken as the demographic divide for the
Himalaya. reason that before this year, the population was not
31. (a) Hindi–Bengali–Telugu–Marathi–Tamil–Urdu. stable, sometimes it increased and at other times
32. (c) Underground water level is less in peninsular it decreased. The growth rate of population was
region of India and high in north region of India. generally low before 1921. But after this year, there
34. (c) India is located in the middle of tropic of has been considerable and continuous increase in
cancer. the population.
39. (b) Vikram Sarabhai space centre – Thumba Black soils are mostly clay soils and form deep
SHAR – Sri Harikota cracks during dry season. An accumulation of lime
is generally noticed of varying depths. They are
Space application centre – Ahmedabad
popularly known as “Black cotton soils” because of
ISRO Satellite Centre – Bangalore
their dark brown colour and suitability for growing
All these are names of space centers in different cotton. These are also known as Indian regurs.
places of India, respectively. These soils are de¿cient in nitrogen, phosphoric
40. (a) During 2012-13, India produced 912,200 tons acid and organic matter but rich in calcium, potash
of rubber registering 0.9% rise over the previous and magnesium
¿nancial year. 45. (c) The objective of the project is to undertake the
investigations of 6-8 kilometers in a deep borehole
41. (d) Arunachal Pradesh. Arunachal is endowed
in the Koyna-Warna region of Maharashtra. For past
with rich variety of orchids found in almost all
¿ve decade, the earthquakes have been occurring
parts of the state. Number of them are ornamentals in the restricted area of 20×30 square kilometer,
with exquisite beauty. The Orchid Society of India which includes the earthquake of magnitude of 6.3
(established in 1984) decided to open regional in December 1967. Koyna–Warna area is the best
chapters to spread the message of conservation site in the world, which acts as a natural laboratory
and promotion of orchids throughout the country. to study reservoir-triggered earthquakes. A research
The chapter for Arunachal, Assam and Tripura was laboratory will be set up at Karad as a part of the
entrusted to Dr. S. N. Hegde, Orchidologist. project, which will serve as the operational center
42. (b) The correct geographical spread of the plateaus for carrying out the research activities related to
seismic, deep drilling, borehole investigations, core
is as follows:
analysis and research in associated ¿elds.
1. Chota Nagpur Plateau - Jharkhand and adjacent
46. (a) The Ranthambore National Park, set against
parts of Odisha, Bihar and Chhattisgarh.
the backdrop of the historic 1000-year-old
2. Deccan Plateau - Vindhyas to the north and
Ranthambore Fort, lies in the area where the ancient
Àanked by the Eastern and Western Ghats. ranges of the Vindhyas’ Àat-topped hills merge
3. Malwa Plateau - Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh with the sharp ridges of the Aravalis. Ranthambore
and Gujarat. also has a large populaton of panthers, the second
43. (d) India is the world’s biggest producer of mica largest predators of the forest. Marsh Crocodiles
blocks and mica splittings. India ranks second abound in the lakes and Gharial can be spotted close
amongst the world’s largest producers of barites and by in the Chambal River, which also harbors the
chromites. India is the third-largest coal producer in Gangetic Dolphin. An open jeep safari also affords a
the world and ranks fourth in the production of iron glimpse of the spectacular ruins of mosques, tombs,
ore. It is the ¿fth-largest producer of bauxite and watchtowers and palaces scattered within the park.
crude steel. 50. (a) Damodar (West Bengal, Bihar), Brahamani
44. (b) Alluvial soils occur along rivers and represent (Jharkhand), Mahanadi (Odisha), Tungabhadra
the soil materials that have been deposited by the (Andhra Pradesh) and Karnataka.
rivers during Àood. Usually they are very productive 51. (c) Periyar (Kerala), Kanha (M.P.), Sariska
soils but many are de¿cient in nitrogen, humus and (Rajasthan), Dachigam (J.K.) is the correct sequence
phosphorus. from south to north.
Geography || B-79
59. (c) Periyar National Park ĺ Kerala 68. (a)
Kanha National Park ĺ Madhya A. Dudwa National Park – Uttar Pradesh
Pradesh B. Kanha National Park – Madhya Pradesh
Sariska National Park ĺ Rajasthan C. Indravati National Park – Chhattisgarh
Dachigam National Park ĺ Jammu and D. Bandipur National Park – Karnatka
Kashmir 69. (c) The Thar desert (Rajasthan) is a large, arid
region in the North-western part of the Indian
60. (a) Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas.
subcontinent and forms a natural boundary running
It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s
along the border between India and Pakistan.
Tibet Autonomous Region. Sealed by India after
70. (c) From North to South of Kashmir region.
1962 Snio - Indian war, Nathu La was re-opened
1. Gilgit 2. Kargil
in 2006, following numerous bilateral trade
3. Sri Nagar 4. Banihal
agreements. 71. (a) In South India, rainfall decreases from the
62. (b) The tributaries of river Brahmaputra from Western Ghats towards the East.
West to East is Tista, Subansiri, lohit and Dibang. 72. (b) Jim Corbett Park was established in 1936 as
63. (b) River Tributary Hailey National Park. It was rewared in 1956 as Jim
A. Ganga Gomti and Kosi Corbett National Park after the name of hunter and
B. Indus Chenab and Sutlej conservationist of Jim Corbett. He played major role
C. Yamuna Chabai and Ken in the establishment of this park. It is oldest national
D. Godavari Wainganga and Indravati park of the country. The national park was the ¿rst
64. (b) Tribal Group State to come under Project Tiger initiative, which was
A. Reang Tripura launched in 1973, initially 9 tiger reserves were
B. Dimasa Asom created.
C. Konyak Nagaland 73. (a) The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ),
D. Mishmi Arunachal Pradesh also known as the doldrum, by the sailors, is the
65. (b) A. Koyali – (near Yadodra, Gujarat) area encircling the Earth near the equator where
B. Bongaigaon – (Assam) winds originating in the Northern and Southern
C. Mathura – (Uttar Pradesh) Hemisphere come together.
D. Haldia – (Kolkata, West Bengal) 74. (b) India is the largest producer of jute goods in the
66. (d) A. Manas – Asom world. The jute industry is second most important
B. Pachmarhi – Madhya Pradesh industry in India. India produces 35% of all jute in
C. Nokrek – Meghalaya the world. Hugli basin is located in Western, due
D. Achanakumar – Chhattisgarh to its dry climate, if is convenient for spinning and
Amarkantak weaving.
67. (c) In terms of agriculture, cash crops are those 75. (b) India was spot of the world’s vast biodiverse
crops which are grown for cash in tropical and region. It hosts three biodiversity regions-the
sub-tropical areas Jute, coffee, cocoa, sugarcane, Western Ghats. Eastern Himalyas and the hilly
bananas, oranges and cotton are common cash ranges that straddles the India-Myanmar border.
crops. Aravalli Hills have no biodiversity hot spot.
76. (c) C. Rawatbhata Atomic Power Plant is situated
List-I List-II in Rajasthan.
(Pass) (State)
D. Tarapur Atomic Power Plant is situated in
A. Zoji La Pass 1. Sikkim
B. Bara Lacha Pass 2. Uttarakhand Maharashtra.
C. Jelep La Pass 3. Himachal Pradesh 83. (c) A. Namrup has a Fertilizer plant.
D. Niti Pass 4. Jammu and Kashmir B. Vishakhapatnam has a steel plant.
77. (b)
List-I List-II C. Perambur has a integral Coach factory.
(River) (Tributary) D. Renukoot has an Aluminium plant.
A. Brahamaputra 1. Musi 84. (a) A. Nanded town is situated on the banks of
B. Krishna 2. Tawa
river Godavari.
C. Narmada 3. Bhavani
D. Kaveri 4. Dikhow B. Nellore town is situated on the banks of
river Penneru.
78. (c) The correct sequence from East to West is
C. Hosper town is situated on the banks of
1. Murshidabad (Paschim Banga)
river Tungbhadra.
2. Gorakhpu (Uttar Pradesh)
D. Hyderabad town is situated on the banks of
3. Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
river Munsi. Hyderabad is a unique Islamic
4. Bhavnagar (Gujarat)
sculptor city.
79. (a) The South-West monsoon is generally expected
to being around the start of June and fade down by 85. (d) Chief Producer States
the end of September. India receives majority of Tea — Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu
rainfall from this South-West monsoon. Jute — West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Orissa
80. (b) The Golden Quadrilateral is a highway Rubber — Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka
network connecting India’s four largest metropolis–
Tobacco — Andhra Praesh, Gujarat,
Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata. The project
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu
is initiated by former Prime Minister Atal Bihari
Bajpayee. The GQ project is managed by the 86. (b) Bauxite : Palamu (Jharkhand) Kaira (Gujarat),
National Highways Authority of India (NHA). Kanti, Jabalpur (M.P.) salem (Tamilnadu),
The north-south-east-west corridor is the Kolhapur (Maharashtra)
lartest ongoing highway project in India. Copper : Singhbum, Hazaribagh (Jharkhand),
81. (b) National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Khetri Alwer, Bhilwara, Jhunhunu, Sirohi
Research (NCAOR) is an Indian research and (Rajasthan)
development institution situated at Vasco, Goa, it Coal : Raniganj (West Bengal) Thariya, Bokaro,
was established in 25th May, 1998. Giridiih (Jharkhand), Desgarh, Talcher (Orissa)
Dakshin Gangotri is the ¿rst research station in Singreni (A.P.)
Antartica. Maitri is India’s second research station,
Iron Ore : Sanai, Mayurbhanj, Keonjhar
built in 1989.
(Orissa), Singhbhum, Hazaribagh, Palamau
82. (c) A. Kalpakkam Atomic Power Plant is situated (Jharkhand).
in Tamil Nadu.
87. (a) Aluminium : Alwaye (Kerala), Asansol (West
B. Narora Atomic Power Plant is situated in Bengal), Renukoot (U.P.), Belur (Karnataka),
Uttar Pradesh. Hiradud (Orissa).
Geography || B-81
Petrochemical : Indian Re¿neries Ltd (Barauni)
Bihar Noohamati (Assam), Koyali oil Re¿nery,
Koyali (Gujrat), Chochin oil Re¿nery Kochi
(Kerala).
Cotton Textiles : Ahmedabad (Gujrat)
Bangalore, Mumbai, Kolkata, Coimbtore
(Tamilnadu), Kanpur (UP), Ludhiana and
Amritsar (Punjab), Indore (MP).
Heavy Electricals : Bharat Heavy Electricals
Ltd Ranipur Hardwar (Uttrakhand)
Heavy Electricals India Ltd (Bhopal)
88. (c) N H No. Cities connected
NH 1 Delhi and Amritsar
NH 2 Delhi and Kolkata
NH 3 Agra and Mumbai
NH 4 Thane and Chennai 91. (c) Mangrove, Scrub, teak and coniferous are the
NH 5 Behragoda and Chennai various types of vegetations found in Karnataka,

Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh
NH 6 Dhulia and Kolkata
respectively.
NH 7 Varanasi and Kanyakumari 92. (a) India has 6 national water ways–
NH 8 Delhi and Mumbai First one is Allahabad to Haldia in the river Ganga
(1620 km). Second is Sadiya to Dhubri in the river
NH 9 Pune and Vijaywada
Brahamputra (891 km). Third is Kollam to Kottapuram
NH 10 Delhi and Fazilka
in the river west coast and canal (205 km). Fourth is
89. (d) Gandhi Sagar Reservoir on Chambal river, Kakinada to Puducherry in the river Godavari (1095
jointly executed by Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. km). Fifth is Talcher to Dhamra in the river Brahmani
90. (b) Kandla Port is not situated at the head of Gulf (623 km) and sixth one is Lakhipur to Bhanga in the
of Khambat. It is clear from the following map. river Barak (121km).

93. (a) Pune is on the leeward side of the western 97. (b) Kandla-tidal port, Kochi-located at mouth
ghats, it means that it lies on a rain shadow area. of lagoon, Vishakhapatnam-deepest land-locked
But Mumbai lies on the windward side and receives protected port, Kolkata-inland riverine port.
heavy rainfall. 98. (b) Ranigang-Bokaro-Bishrampur-Adilabad.
94. (a) Monsoon may be considered as large scale sea 99. (d) Zoji La-Jammu-Kashmir, Lipulekh-Uttaranchal,
breejes, because of seasonal heating. The south west
Shipki La-Himachal Pradesh, Nathu La-Sikkim.
monsoon brings rain towards the end of summer. It
100. (b) K2-Jammu and Kashmir, Nanda Devi-
arrives in two branches - The way of Bengal branch
Uttarakhand, Tara Pahar-Himachal Pradesh,
and the Arabian sea branch. Kanchenjunga-Sikkim.
95. (c) The Northern Plains of India are expanded 1
101. (a) Indian Standard Time is based on 82 °E
mainly in the state of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, 2
UP and Eastern Bihar. Here the total road length is longitude which passes through Allahabad. Since the
more than total surface roads. east-west extent of India is vast so a time difference
96. (b) Bauxite - Orissa of two hours of found in the local time. Local time
Mica - Andhra Pradesh of Lucknow and Chennai are almost same because
Copper - Madhya Pradesh they lie along the same longitude.
Zinc - Rajasthan
Section c : iNDIAN pOLITY & gOVERNANCE
1
Indian
Constitution
1. Which of the following statements regarding the 4. Who among the following are mentioned in the
directive Principles of State Policy, mentioned in constitution of India, as the part of the Electoral
the constitution of India? College to elect the members of the Legislative
1. They require legislation for their implemen- Council of a State?
tation. 1. Members of local bodies in the state
2. Their exclusive aim is to establish political 2. Members of chambers of commerce in the
democracy in the country. state.
3. Apart from the part IV, there are other 3. Graduates of three years and residing within
directives also mentioned in other parts of the state
the constitution. 4. All the teachers of three years in the state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given Select the correct answer using the codes given
below: below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Before entering upon his of¿ce the President of 5. Consider the following bodies of India.
India has to make and subscribe to an oath or 1. The National Commission for scheduled
af¿rmation. In this oath or af¿rmation he swears: castes
1. To faithfully execute the of¿ce 2. The National Commission for women
2. To preserve, protect and defend the 3. The National Commission for Backward
constitution and the law classes
3. To devote himself to the service and well- 4. The National Human Rights Commission
being of the people of India. Which of the bodies given above is/are established
Which one of the contents of the oath or by the constitution of India?
af¿rmation given above is correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 6. Which of the following statements regarding
3. Consider the following of¿cials of India; the Preamble of the Constitution of India is/are
1. The State election commissioner correct ?
2. Chairman of the State Public Service 1. The Preamble is an integral part of the
Commission Constitution.
3. A judge of the High Court 2. The words 'secular' and 'socialist' have been
4. The Advocate General of the State. a part of the Preamble since its inception.
Which of the of¿cials given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
appointed by the governor of the concerned state? below :
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
C-2 || Indian Constitution
7. Consider the following statements in regard to the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
fundamental duties mentioned in the constitution (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
of India. 11. The forms of oaths or af¿rmations for which of
1. Some of them, such as cherishing noble the following of¿cials are mentioned in the third
ideals of freedom struggle, are moral schedule of the Indian constitution?
percepts and other, such as to respect the 1. The Comptroller and Auditor General
constitution, are civic duties. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner
2. They are con¿ned to citizens only and none 3. The Chief Justice of a High Court
of them extend to foreigners. 4. The Attorney General
3. There is not legal sanction against their Select the correct answer using the codes given
violation below:
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 only 12. Consider the following statements in regard to the
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 fundamental right for the protection of a person
8. The President of India has no power to in respect to conviction for offences, guaranteed
1. Proclaim a ¿nancial emergency in the state in the Indian constitution
2. Proclaim the future of the constitutional 1. The government can’t enact any criminal or
machinery in the state. civil law with the retrospective effect
Which of the statement(s) given above regarding 2. A person, accused of any offence can’t be
the special constitutional status of Jammu and compelled to be a witness against himself
Kashmir is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
9. The constitution of India authorizes the parliament (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
to determine the quali¿cations of members of the 13. The 42nd amendment added four new directive
Finance Commission of India and the manner principles of state policy in the Indian
in which they should be selected. In this regard Constitution.
consider the following statements : Which of the following is not among them?
1. The commission consists of ¿ve members (a) To secure opportunities for healthy
including its chairperson. development of children.
2. Its chairperson necessarily should be an (b) To provide free legal aid to the poor.
economist. (c) To ensure the right, for men and women
3. Its members are appointed from different equality, to have an adequate means of
¿elds such as ¿nance and accounts, livelihood.
administration, judicial etc. (d) To protect and improve the environment and
Which of the statements given above are correct? to safeguard forest and wild life.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 14. Any amendment in the constitution of India, in
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 regard to which of the following subjects, needs
10. Preamble of the Indian constitution promises only simple majority of the parliament?
fraternity among all the Indian citizens to ensure 1. Directive principles of state policy.
1. Progress of the Nation 2. Election of the president and its manner
2. Unity of the Nation. 3. Quorum in the parliament
3. Integrity of the Nation 4. Creation of the Legislative Council in a
Select the correct answer using the code given State
below:
Indian Polity & Governance || C-3
Select the correct answer using the codes given 1. Pension payable to judges of High courts.
below: 2. Debt charges for which the Govt. of India is
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only liable.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only 3. Salary allowances and pension payable to
15. Consider the following statements in regard to Comptroller and Auditor General of India
the preamble of the constitution of India; Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. It provides equality of opportunity to its all (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
citizens. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It provides liberty of faith to its all citizens. 19. As per Constitution (74th amendment) act, the
3. It is given by the citizen of India to state legislature has been conferred power to
themselves. empower municipalities with which of the given
Which of the statements given above are correct? responsibilities:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 1. The preparation of plans for economic
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 development and social justice.
16. Which of the following statements in regard to the 2. Conduct elections of Municipalities.
fundamental rights, mentioned in the constitution 3. Management of law and order.
of India are correct? 4. Levy, collection and appropriation of taxes,
1. They are the part of the basic structure of the duties, tolls etc.
constitution.
2. They are permanent in nature and can’t be
below:
abolished.
(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. They can be suspended partially or
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 3
completely.
20. What is the correct chronological order in which
the following provisions were incorporated into
below:
the constitution of India?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Provision relating to free legal aid.
17. Consider the following statements : 2. Twelfth Schedule
When a president is to be impeached for violation 3. Article 51A(K)
of the constitution, no change can be preferred by 4. Provision for reservation in promotion
either House of Parliament unless Select the correct answer using the codes given
1. A resolution containing proposal is moved below:
after seven days notice in writing signed by (a) 1-2-4-3 (b) 4-3-2-1
not less than one fourth of total number of (c) 2-3-1-4 (d) 3-4-2-1
members of that house. 21. Which of the following rights come under Article
2. The resolution is passed by the majority of 21 of the constitution of India?
not less than 2/3 rd of the total membership 1. Right to appropriate life insurance policy
of that house. 2. Right to good health
Which of the statement given above is/are 3. Right of women to be treated with decency
correct? and dignity.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 4. Right to go abroad.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Right to work.
18. Consider the following statements : Codes:
The expenditure charged on the consolidated (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
fund of India comprises of: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
22. Which of the following fundamental rights given 1. No Governor can be removed from his of¿ce
under part-III of the Constitution of India are not till the completion of this term
self executory and available not only against the 2. No Governor can continue in of¿ce beyond
state but also against Private Individuals? a period of ¿ve years.
1. Equality in access of public places (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Prohibition of untouchability (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Prohibition of Acceptance of Foreign title 27. Prohibition of discrimination on groups of
4. Prohibition of Employment of children in religion etc (Article 15 of the constitution of
Hazardous Employment India) is a fundamental Right classi¿able under:
Codes: (a) The right to freedom of religion
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (b) The right against exploitation
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) The cultural and educational rights.
23. Which of the following constitution Amendments (d) The right of equality.
are connected with reservation in promotions? 28. Assertions (A): The word minority is not de¿ned
1. Constitution (77th Amendment) act, 1995 in the constitution of India.
2. Constitution (85th Amendment) act, 2001 Reason (R): The Minorities commission is not a
3. Constitution (117th Amendment) act, 2012 constitutional body.
4. Constitution (118th Amendment) act, 2012 Which of the following is correct?
Which of the options given above is/are the (a) Both A and R true and R is the correct
correct code? explanation of A.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 explanation of A
24. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional (c) A is true but R is false.
and extra-legal device(s) for securing co- (d) A is false but R is true.
operation and coordination between the states in 29. Which of the following are/is stated in the
India? constitution of India?
1. The National Development Council 1. The President shall not be a member of
2. The Governor’s Conference either House of Parliament.
3. Zonal councils 2. The Parliament shall consist of the President
4. The Inter-state council and two Houses.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only Choose the correct answer from the codes give
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only below:
25. Which of the following are matters on which a (a) 1 only (b) Both 1and 2
constitutional amendment is possible only with (c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the rati¿cation of the legislature of not less than 30. A British citizen staying in India can’t claim right
one half of the states? to:
1. Election of the president (a) Freedom of trade and profession
2. Representation of the states in parliament (b) Equality before the law
3. Any of the lists in the 7th schedule (c) Protection of life and personal liberty
4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State. (d) Freedom of religion
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only 31. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only any part of India for implementing international
26. Article 156 of the constitution of India provides treaties?
that a Governor shall hold of¿ce for a term of ¿ve (a) With the consent of all the states
years from the date on which he enters upon his (b) With the consent of majority of states
of¿ce. Which of the following can be deduced (c) With the consent of state concerned
from this? (d) Without the consent of any state.
32. Consider the following functionaries 38. Which one of the following authorities
1. Cabinet Secretary recommends the principles governing the grants-
2. Chief Election Commissioner in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the
3. Union Cabinet Minister consolidated fund of India?
4. Chief Justice of India (a) Finance Commission
Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence (b) Inter-State-Council
is (c) Union Ministry of Finance
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2 (d) Public Accounts Committee
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 39. The ninth schedule to the Indian constitution was
33. The primary function of the Finance Commission added by?
in India is to (a) First amendment
(a) Distribute revenue between the centre and (b) Eighth amendment
the state. (c) Ninth amendment
(b) Advise the president on ¿nancial matters (d) Forty second amendment
(c) Advise the president on ¿nancial matters. 40. Consider the following statements: In India,
(d) Allocate funds to various ministries of the stamp duties on ¿nancial transaction are;
Union and state Governments. 1. Levied and collected by the State
34. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, Government
which one of the following schedules of the 2. Appropriated by the Union Government
constitution must be amended? Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) First (b) Second (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Third (d) Fifth (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
35. Which of the following statements correctly 41. Which of the following constitutional
describes the fourth schedule of the constitution amendments are related to raising the number
of India? of members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the
(a) It lists the distribution of powers between states?
the Union and the States. (a) 6th and 22nd (b) 13th and 38th
(b) It contains the language listed in the th
(c) 7 and 31 st (d) 11th and 42nd
constitution.
42. With reference to the constitution of India, which
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the
one of the following pairs is not matched?
administration of tribal areas.
(a) Forests : Concurrent List
(d) It allocates seats in the council of states.
(b) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent list
36. The purpose of the inclusion of directive
(c) Post of¿ce saving : Union List
principles of state policy in the Indian constitution
Bank
is to establish?
(d) Public Health : State list
(a) Political Democracy
(b) Social Democracy
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to property
(c) Canadian Democracy
2. Right to property is a legal right but not a
(d) Social and Economic Democracy
fundamental right.
37. Which one of the following rights was described
3. Article 300A was inserted in the constitution
by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ‘the heart and soul of
of India by the congress government at the
the constitution?’ centre by the 44th constitutional amendment.
(a) Right to freedom of religion Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Right to property correct?
(c) Right to equality (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Right to constitutional remedies (c) 3 only (d) 1 only
44. Which one among the following commissions 48. Which of the following list 1 with list II and
was set up in pursuance of a de¿nite provision select the correct answer using the codes given
under an Article of the constitution of India? below the list:
(a) University Grants Commission List I List II
(Article of the (Content)
(b) National Human Rights Commission
Constitution)
(c) Election Commission A. Article 54 1. Election of the
(d) Central Vigilance Commission president of India
45. Under which one of the following constitution B. Article 75 2. Appointment of the
amendment act, four languages were added to P.M. and council of
the languages under the eighth schedule of the ministers
constitution of India thereby, raising their number C. Article 155 3. Appointment of the
governor of state
to 22?
D. Article 164 4. Appointment of the
(a) 90th Amendment Act C.M. and council of
(b) 91st Amendment Act Ministers of a state
(c) 92nd Amendment Act 5. Composition of
(d) 93rd Amendment Act Legislative
46. Which of the following is/are included in the Assemblies
Directive Principle of state policy? Codes:
A B C D
1. Prohibition of traf¿c in human beings and
(a) 1 2 3 4
forced labours. (b) 1 2 4 5
2. Prohibition of consumption except for (c) 2 1 3 5
medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks (d) 2 1 4 3
and of other drugs which are injurious to 49. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise
health. control over the administration?
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) Through Parliamentary Committee
(b) Through Consultative Committee of various
below:
ministers
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) By making the administration send periodic
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 reports
47. Consider the following statements : (d) By compelling the executives to issue writs
The constitution of India provides that 50. In the Indian constitution, the right to equality is
1. The legislative Assembly of each state granted by following Articles. They are:
shall consist of not more than 450 members (a) Article 16 to Article 20
(b) Article 15 to Article 19
chosen by direct election from territorial
(c) Article 14 to Article 18
constitution in the state. (d) Article 13 to Article 17
2. A person shall not be quali¿ed to be chosen 51. Which of the following are the correct matching
to ¿ll a seat in the legislative Assembly of a of the countries and the borrowed features of the
state if he/she is less than 25 years of age. Indian constitution from them?
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. UK - Bicameral Parliament
correct? 2. USSR - Independence of Judiciary and
judicial review
3. Australia - Five year Plan
4. US - Language of the preamble
5. Japan - Law on which the Supreme Court 3. The Bill provides for a broad based Judicial
function Appointment Commission, for making
6. Ireland - Method of election of President recommendations for selection of judges
(a) 1, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. The Bill proposes to insert a new Article
(c) 1, 5 and 6 (d) 2, 3, 5 and 6 124A, and amend Article 124(2) (a).
52. Which of the following words were added to the Select the answer from the code given below-
Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
1976? (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
1. SOCIALIST 2. REPUBLIC 55. The Constitution (117th Amendment) Bill,2012
3. SECULAR 4. FRATERNITY provides for –
5. UNITY & INTEGRITY 1. Reservation in promotion for Scheduled
(a) 1, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
(c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 4 and 5 2. Reservation in promotion for OBCs.
53. Given below are 4 schedules with their Select the answer from the code given below-
amendment mode and what they contain. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
No. Schedule Added by Particulars
56. Which of the following statements are correct
1. Ninth Ist amendment Contains acts & orders
in 1951 related to land tenure,
with regard to the Parliament (Prevention of
land tax, railways, Disquali¿cation) Amendment Act 2013?
industries 1. It makes the Chairperson of the National
2. Tenth 52nd Contains provisions Commission for the Scheduled Castes and
amendment in of disquali¿cation of the Chairperson of the National Commission
1984 grounds of defection for the Scheduled Tribes out of the purview
3. Eleventh 73rd Contains provisions of of the of¿ce of pro¿t.
amendment in Municipal Corporation 2. The Act retrospectively came into effect
1990 from February 19, 2004.
4. Twelfth 74th Contains provisions of 3. It amended the Parliament (Prevention of
amendment in Panchayati Raj. Disquali¿cation) Act ,1959.
1992
4. The Act enlists the of¿cials who are out of
Which of the following are correct about the the purview of the of¿ce of pro¿t.
4 schedules? Select the answer from the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
54. Which of the above statements are correct 57. The Constitution Scheduled Tribes Order Second
regarding the Constitution (One Hundred and Amendment Bill 2012 provides for –
Twentieth Amendment) Bill, 2013 introduced in 1. Marati community to be included in the list
the Rajya Sabha on August 24, 2013? of Scheduled Tribe in Kerala
1. The Bill seeks to enable equal participation 2. Abujh Maria and Hill Korwa communities
of Judiciary and Executive, make the to be included in the list of Scheduled Tribe
appointment process more accountable and in Chhattisgarh
ensure greater transparency and objectivity Select the answer from the code given below-
in the appointments to the higher judiciary. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. The Bill seeks to a review constitutional (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
provisions providing for the appointment 58. Consider the following statements regarding
and transfer of Judges, and relevant Supreme Article 356 of the Constitution.
Court decisions on the matter, 1. Failure of Constitutional Machinery in States
is an objective reality.
2. Proclamation under this article can be 62. The preamble to the Indian Constitution serves the
reviewed by Supreme Court. following purpose.
3. Alongwith this Proclamation, State Legislative 1. The Preamble indicates the source from which
Assembly can be dissolved. the Constitution desires its power.
4. This Proclamation has to be approved by each 2. It also states the objects which the Constitution
House of Parliament within two months.
seeks to establish and promote.
correct? The correct answer is
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
59. Consider the following statements regarding (c) Both 1 and 2
Constitutional Amendments. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. In Article 368, two methods of Constitutional 63. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Amendment are mentioned. answer using the codes given below:
2. Constitutional Amendment Bill can be
List-I (Acts) List-II (Provisions)
initiated only in Lok Sabha.
3. In case of any dispute between two Houses A. The Government 1. Transfer of power from
of Parliament on Constitutional Amendment of India Act, the East India Company
Bill, Joint sitting of both houses can be 1935 to the British crown
summoned. B. The Indian 2. Envisaged Dominion
4. The President cannot veto a Constitutional Councils status to India
Amendment Bill. Act, 1909
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are C. The Government 3. Introduction of
correct? of India provincial autonomy
Act, 1919
D. The Government 4. Introduction of Dyarchy
60. Among the following ideals and philosophy,
identify those enshrined in the Preamble to the of India in provinces
Constitution of India: Act, 1858
1. Sovereign democratic republic 5. Introduction of separate
2. Socialism and secularism electorate for Muslims
3. Capitalism and free trade Codes:
Select the correct answer using the codes given A B C D
below: (a) 1 4 2 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 5 4 1
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 5 4 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 and 3 only 64. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
61. Draft of Indian Constitution was prepared by– answer using the codes given below:
(a) Sir B. N. Rao, “Advisor to the Constituent List-I (Acts) List-II (Provisions)
Assembly A. Government of 1. All-India Federation
(b) Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer Chairman India Act, 1858 of Provinces and
Constitution Draft Committee Princely States
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Union Law Minister B. Indian Councils 2. Appointment of
Act, 1861 Secretary of State
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru, Prime Minister
for India
C. Indian Councils 3. Beginning of Codes:

Act, 1909 representation and A B C D
legislative devolution (a) 2 3 4 1
D. Government of 4. Dyarchy in Provinces (b) 1 4 3 2
India Act, 1919 (c) 2 4 3 1
5. Morley-Minto Reforms (d) 1 3 4 2
A B C D 1. Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha was elected as
(a) 1 2 3 4 the Provisional President of the Constituent
(b) 2 3 5 4 Assembly.
(c) 3 4 5 1 2. H.C. Mukherjee was elected as the
(d) 2 3 4 1
Vice-President of the Constituent Assembly.
65. Consider the following statements regarding the
composition of the Constituent Assembly:
1. The representatives were to be elected from
68. Which of the following statements about the
the four constituents – Hindu, Muslim, Sikh
Constitution of India is/are correct?
and Christian.
2. The chairman of the Union Constitution 1. Popular sovereignty and adult franchise are
Committee was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. the basic features of the Constitution.
3. The total strength of the Constituent 2. The Constitution, in so far as the division of
Assembly was 389. powers between the Centre and the States is
4. The Drafting Committee under the concerned, is rigid.
chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar 3. The Constitution recognises the interdependence
consisted of eight members. of civil and economic rights.
Which of these is/are correct? 4. The Constitution mentions direct control by
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 the people such as referendum, initiative and
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only recall.
66. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Select the correct answer from the codes given
answer using the codes given below: below:
List-I List-II (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(Constituent Assembly (Chairman) (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Committee) 69. Consider the following statements related to
A. Steering 1. Sardar Vallabhbai Patel secularism in India:
Committee 1. It entails strict separation of religion from
B. Fundamental 2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad politics.
Rights 2. It bans parties with religious af¿liations
Sub-Committee from contesting elections.
C. Union 3. J.B. Kripalani
3. It grants religious liberty to all communities.
Constitution
4. It accepts community personal laws.
Committee
D. Provincial 4. Jawaharlal Nehru
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
Constitution
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Committee
70. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Codes :
answer using the codes given below: A B C D
(Subject) (Part of the (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
Constitution of India)
(d) 2 1 4 3
A. Finance, Property, 1. Part V
73. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
Contracts and Suits matched?
B. The Union Judiciary 2. Part XII (a) Languages : Eighth Schedule
C. The Executive of 3. Part XI (b) The forms of oaths or : Second Schedule
States af¿rmations
D. Relations between 4. Part VI (c) Allocation of seats in : Fourth Schedule
the Union and the the Council of States
States (d) Provisions as to : Tenth Schedule
disquali¿cation on
Codes :
the ground of defection
A B C D 74. Consider the following statements with reference
(a) 4 3 2 1 to Secularism in India.
(b) 2 1 4 3 1. Secularism means that the State has no
(c) 4 1 2 3 recognised religion of state.
(d) 2 3 4 1 2. Secularism means that the State treats all the
71. Consider the following statements: religions equally.
The Indian Constitution is: 3. Secularism means that the State regulates
1. an unwritten constitution. the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements are correct?
2. a written constitution.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
3. largely based on the Government of India (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Act, 1935. 75. Consider the following statements:
4. a gift of British Parliament. The salient features of the Indian Constitution
Of these statements: provide for:
(a) 2 and 4 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct 1. Single citizenship for the whole of India.
(c) 1 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct 2. Strictly federal form of government.
72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 3. Unique blend of rigidity and Àexibility.
answer using the codes given below: Of the above statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
List-I List-II
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(Provisions in the (Source) (c) 2 and 3 are correct
Constitution of India) (d) 1 and 3 are correct
A. Emergency Provisions 1. Ireland 76. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
B. Fundamental Rights 2. The United answer using the codes given below:
Kingdom List-I List-II
C. Parliamentary System 3. The United (Schedule of the (Content)
States of Constitution of India)
America A. Ninth Schedule 1. Provisions
regarding
D. Directive Principles 4. Germany
Panchayati Raj
of State Policy
Institutions
B. Tenth Schedule 2. Provisions hereditary

regarding land monarch
reforms B. Secular 2. State does not
legislations recognise any
C. Eleventh Schedule 3. Provisions religion as a
regarding state religion
administration C. Democratic 3. Government
of tribal areas gets its authority
D. Sixth Schedule 4. Provisions from the will of
regarding the the people
distribution of D. Sovereign 4. State is free to
powers between conduct its own
the Centre and internal and
States external affairs.
4. Provisions Codes :
regarding the A B C D
disquali¿cation (a) 1 2 3 4
on ground of (b) 1 3 2 4
defection (c) 2 3 1 4
Codes : (d) 3 2 1 4
A B C D 79. The States of the Indian Union can be reorganised
(a) 3 1 4 2 or their boundaries altered by:
(b) 2 5 1 3 (a) The Union Parliament by a simple majority
(c) 3 5 1 2 in the ordinary process of legislation.
(d) 2 1 4 3 (b) Two-thirds majority of both the Houses of
77. The following are enshrined in the Preamble to Parliament.
the Constitution of India: (c) Two-thirds majority of both the Houses of
1. Equality of status and opportunity. Parliament and the consent of the legislature
2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith of the concerned States.
and worship. (d) An executive order of the Union Government
3. Justice – social, economic and political. with the consent of the concerned State
4. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the Governments.
individual. 80. Consider the following statements with reference
5. Unity and integrity of the Nation. to the linguistic reorganisation of states in
Which one of the following is the correct ordr in independent India:
which they appear in the Preamble? 1. The separate state of Andhra for the Telugu
(a) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 people came into existence in 1953.
(c) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 (d) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 2. Jawaharlal Nehru was particularly in favour
78. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct of the movement for linguistic reorganisation
answer using the codes given below: of states that came in the wake of the success
List-I List-II of the Andhra movement.
(Terms Mentioned) (Implications) Which one of the statements given above is/are
in Preamble) correct?
A. Republic 1. Head of the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
State is not a (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
answer using the codes given below: 1. The writ of mandamus is available not only
List-I List-II against judicial authorities but also against
(State) (Full Statehoold administrative authorities.
Granted In) 2. The writ of prohibition is issued only against
A. Goa 1. 1966 judicial or quasi-judicial authorities.
B. Haryana 2. 1972 Which of the statements given above is/are
C. Meghalaya 3. 1976 correct ?
D. Sikkim 4. 1987 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
1. A Constitutional amendment inserting a
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 2 1 4 regulation in the Ninth Schedule can be
(d) 4 1 2 3 challenged on the ground of violation of
82. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the basic structure of the Constitution.
following ways can a person become a citizen of 2. Any legislation enacted by Parliament cannot
India? be successfully challenged for affecting the
1. By birth 2. By descent basic structure of the Constiution.
3. By registration 4. By nationalisation Which of the statements given above is/are
5. By incorporation correct?
of territory (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Select the correct answer using the codes given (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1 and 2 answer using the codes given below:
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5 List-I List-II
83. In which of the following years, the Citizenship (Writs) (Ground)
Act, 1955 has been amended?
A. Habeas Corpus 1. Non-performance
1. 1986 2. 1992
of public duties
3. 2003 3. 2005
B. Mandamus 2. Unlawful
detention
below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 C. Quo-Warranto 3. Correctional
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 directions to
84. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, by subordinate courts
which of the following ways can a person lose D. Certiorari 4. Unlawful
citizenship of India? occupation of
1. By Renunciation public of¿ce
2. By Termination Codes :
3. By Deprivation A B C D
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) 3 4 1 2
below: (b) 2 1 4 3
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 1 4 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 (d) 2 4 1 3
88. Which of the following statements are true Reason (R): The Constitution has vested the
with regard to the Fundamental Rights of the legislative power with regard
minorities in educational matters? to preventive detention in the
1. The minority has only the right to administer Parliament only and the State
the educational institutions. Legislatures have no authority in
2. The minority has the right to establish and this regard.
administer educational institutions. Codes:
3. The right is absolute and not subject to any (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
restriction. the correct explanation of A
4. Reasonable restrictions may be imposed (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
to promote ef¿ciency and prevent not the correct explanation of A
maladministration. (c) A is true but R is false
Select the correct answer using the codes given (d) A is false but R is true
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 answer using the codes given below:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 List-I List-II
89. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (Cases) (Related to)
answer using the codes given below: A. Indra Sawhney Case 1. Power of
List-I List-II Parliament to
amend Part III
(Provisions) (Contained In)
of the
A. Liberty of thought 1. Right to freedom
Constitution
and expression
upheld
B. Freedom of speech 2. Cultural and B. Minerva Mills Case 2. Procedure
and expression educational Established by
rights Law
C. Making special 3. Preamble C. Gopalan Case 3. Reservation for
provision for women Backward
and children Classes
D. Protection of interest 4. Protection of D. Shankari Prasad Case 4. Revival of
of minorities life and liberty Judicial Review
5. Right to equality Codes :
Codes : A B C D
A B C D (a) 3 1 2 4
(a) 3 1 5 2 (b) 2 4 3 1
(b) 2 5 4 1 (c) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 5 4 2 (d) 2 1 3 4
(d) 2 4 5 1 92. Which of the following are mentioned under
90. Consider the following statements and select the separate Articles in Part III of the Consitution of
correct answer from the codes given below : India pertaining to Fundamental Rights?
1. Abolition of untouchability
Assertion (A): Preventive Detention is included
2. Abolition of titles
in the chapter on Fundamental
3. Freedom as to payment of taxes for
Rights in the Constitution of
promotion of any particular religion
India. 4. Protection of interests of minorities
Select the correct answer by using the codes the Constituent Assembly,
given below: Dr. Ambedkar described the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 article as the very soul of the
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Constitution.
93. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Reason (R): Article 32 provides effective
answer using the codes given below: remedies against violation of
List-I List-II fundamental rights.
(Writ) (Purpose) Codes:
A. Writ of mandamus 1. Prohibition of (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
an action the correct explanation of A
B. Writ of injunction 2. Direction to the (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
of¿cial for the
not the correct explanation of A
performance of
a duty
C. Writ of certiorari 3. Trial of the right
to a title or
elective of¿ce correct answer from the codes given below :
D. Writ of quo-warranto 4. Transferring Assertion (A): Education is the fundamental
of a case from right of every child between the
lower court to a age of 6 and 14 years.
court of higher Reason (R): The 84th Constitutional
jurisdiction Amendment Act provided for
Codes : right to education.
A B C D Codes:
(a) 2 1 4 3 (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
(b) 1 2 3 4 the correct explanation of A
(c) 3 4 2 1 (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
(d) 4 3 1 2 not the correct explanation of A
94. The Supreme Court has increased the ambit of (c) A is true but R is false
the Right to Life (Article 21) to include which of (d) A is false but R is true
the following? 97. For which of the following can special provisions
1. Right to life includes the Right to live with be made under Article 15 of the Constitution of
dignity India?
2. Right to life includes the Right to livelihood 1. Women and children
3. Right to life includes the Right to receive 2. Scheduled Tribes
minimum wages 3. Economically backward classes
4. Right to life includes the Right to guaranteed 4. Socially backward classes
employment for 100 days in a year Select the correct answer using the codes given
below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(a) Only 4 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 98. Consider the following statements:
95. Consider the following statements and select the 1. Quo-warranto is a very powerful instrument
correct answer from the codes given below : for safeguarding against the usurpation of
Assertion (A): Speaking on Article 32 in public of¿ces.
2. A High Court can issue a mandamus to Reason (R): The Fundamental Rights in Part
compel a court or judicial tribunal to III of the Constitution have been
exercise its jurisdiction when it has refused superseded by the Directive
to exercise it. Principles.
Which of the statement given above is/are Codes:
correct? (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 the correct explanation of A
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
99. Which of the following statements about a
uniform civil code is/are correct?
1. It is binding on the State that a uniform civil
code must be made applicable to all.
2. The provision regarding a uniform civil code 103. Though the Directive Principles of State Policy
is contained in Part III of the Constitution. contained in the Constitution are not enforceable
Select the correct answer using the codes given by any court, yet they are:
below: (a) Fundamental in the governance of the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 country
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Binding on the State
100. Directive Principles of State Policy direct the (c) Enforceable at the instance of the President
State for which of the following? of India
1. To secure a social order of the promotion of (d) Superior to Fundamental Rights
welfare of the people 104. Which of the following are included in the
2. To separate judiciary from executive Directive Principles of State Policy in the
3. To improve public health Constitution of India?
Select the correct answer using the codes given 1. Uniform civil code for the citizens
below: 2. Separation of judiciary from executive
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
3. Protection of monuments of national
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, and 3
importance
Directive Principles of State Policy are:
1. Directives in the nature of ideals of the state below:
2. Directives inÀuencing and shaping the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
policy of State (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Non-justiciable rights of the citizens 105. Which one of the following is not a Direct
Which of these statements is/are correct? Principle of State Policy?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (a) The State shall endeavour to secure for the
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 citizens a uniform civil code.
102. Consider the following statements and select the (b) The State shall promote with special care
correct answer from the codes given below : the educational and economic interest of the
Assertion (A): The Directive Principles of weaker sections.
State Policy contained in the (c) The State shall endeavour to promote adult
Constitution of India are relevant education to eliminate illiteracy.
in determining the limits of (d) The State shall endeavour to protect every
reasonable restrictions laid down monument, place or object of artistic or
in Article 19 dealing with the
historic interest.
fundamenal right to Freedom.
106. Which of the following statements is / are correct? 3. To protect the sovereignty, unity and
1. 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of integrity of India
India gave primacy to Directive Principles 4. To preserve the rich heritage of the country’s
over Fundamental Rights. composite culture
2. Minerva Mills case ruled that there has to be 5. To help the poor and weaker sections of the
a balance between Part III and Part IV of the society
Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given
3. National Commission for Review of below:
the Working of the Constitution has (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
recommended that Directive Principles be (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 4 and 5
mad e justiceable. 110. Which of the following statements regarding
Select the correct answer using the codes given the Fundamental Duties contained in the Indian
below: Constitution are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 1. Fundamental duties can be enforced through
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only writ jurisdiction.
107. Which of the following is/are among Directive 2. Fundamental duties have formed a part of
Principles of State Policy? the Indian Constitution since its adoption.
1. The State shall strive to promote science and 3. Fundamental duties became a part of
technology for development. the Constitution in accordance with the
2. The State shall endeavour to secure for recommendations of the Swaran Singh
citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout Committee.
India. 4. Fundamental duties are applicable only to
3. The State shall try to develop population citizens of India.
policy and family planning programmes. Select the correct answer using the codes given
4. The State shall take steps to promote below:
tourism. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
Select the correct answer using the codes given (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
below: 111. Which of the following duties have been
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 prescribed by the Indian Constitution as
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Fundamental Duties?
108. Consider the following statements: 1. To defend the country
Directive principles of State Policy are : 2. To pay income tax
1. Not amendable 3. To preserve the rich heritage of our
2. Not enforceable by any court composite culture
3. Fundamental in the governance of the 4. To safeguard public property
country Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
109. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties
112. Which of the following are included in the list of
of an Indian citizen according to Article 51-A of
fundamental duties in the Constitution?
the Constitution?
1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its
1. To believe in socialism, secularism and
ideas and institutions
democracy
2. To safeguard public property and to abjure
2. To abide by the Constitution and respect the
violence
National Flag and the National Anthem
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity 116. Which of the following are considered as parts of
and integrity of India the basic structure of the Indian Constitution ?
4. To uphold and protect secularism 1. Republication and democratic form of
Select the correct answer using the codes given Government
below: 2. Secular character of the Constitution
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 3. Division between Fundamental Rights and
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Directive Principles of State Policy
113. Consider the following statements: 4. Federal character of the Constitution
The fundamental duties provided in the Select the correct answer using the codes given
constitution are: below :
1. To protect the sovereignty, unity and (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
integrity of India
117. Which of the following are matters on which the
2. To safeguard private property
Parliament has the power to modify provisions of
3. To protect and improve the natural
the Constitution by a simple majority ?
environment including forests, lakes, rivers
1. Alternation of names, boundaries and areas
and wild life of these statements: of States.
Of these statements: 2. Appointment of additional judges
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct 3. Abolition of the second chamber of a State
(b) 1 and 2 are correct Legislature
(c) 2 and 3 are correct 4. Administration of Scheduled Areas
(d) 1 and 3 are correct Select the correct answer using the codes given
114. Consider the following statements: below :
Fundamental duties: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
1. Have always been a part of the Constitution (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
of India 118. Consider the following statements and select the
2. Have been added through an amendment correct answer from the codes given below :
3. Are mandatory on all citizens of India Assertion (A): By amendment, Parliament can-
Which of these statements is/are correct? not destroy the basic features of
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 1 the Constitution.
(c) Only 2 (d) 2 and 3 Reason (R) : The power to amend does not
115. Consider the following statements : include the power to abrogate the
1. An amendment of the Constitution of India Constitution.
can be initiated by the introduction of a Bill Codes:
only in the Lok Sabha. (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
2. The Bill for amendment of the Constitution the correct explanation of A.
of India has to be passed in each House by (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
a majority of the total membership of that not the correct explanation of A.
House and by a majority of not less than
(d) A is false but R is true.
two-thirds of the members of that House
119. Consider the following statements related to
Present and voting.
Article 368 of the Constitution:
Which of the statements given above is / are
1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be
correct? passed at a joint session of Parliament in
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 case of deadlock between the two Houses.
2. It is obligatory for the President of India 123. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
to give his assent to a Constitutional answer by using the codes given below:
Amendment Bill passed under Article 368. List-I List-II
3. To amend 7th Schedule of the Constitution, (Union Territories) (Judiciary)
rati¿cation of more than half of the State A. Andaman and 1. Under Bombay High
legislature is essential. Nicobar Islands Court
4. A proposal to amend the Constitution can B. Dadra and Nagar 2. Under Madras High
only be introduced in the House of the Haveli Court
People. C. Lakshadweep 3. Under Punjab High
Which of these are correct ? Court
D. Puducherry 4. Under Calcutta High
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Curt
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Under Kerala High
Court
1. An administrator of a union territory is an Codes :
agent of the President of India and not head A B C D
of state like a Governor. (a) 2 1 5 4
2. The Parliament can make laws on any (b) 4 1 5 2
subject of the three lists (including the state (c) 4 3 2 1
list) for the Union territories. (d) 2 5 4 3
Which of the statements given above is / are 124. Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India makes
correct ? special administrative provisions in regard to the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 tribal areas in :
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
121. Which of the following is correct regarding the (b) Meghalaya, Assamf, Nagaland and Manipur
union territories ? (c) Tripura, Manipur, Mizoram and Meghalaya
1. Articles 239 to 241 contain provisions (d) Arunanchal Pradesh, Nagaland, Assam and
regarding the union territories. Tripura
2. Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the 125. On which of the following matters, does the
union territories. Finance Commission make recommendations to
3. Part VII of the Constitution deal with the the President of India ?
union territories. 1. The distribution between Union and States
4. Articles 238 to 242 contain provisions of net proceeds of taxes and allocation
regarding the union territories. between the States of their respective share,
Select the correct answer from the codes given of such proceeds.
below : 2. The principles which should govern the
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
122. Which of the following Constitutional Select the correct answer using the codes given
Amendment Acts provides a special status to the below :
Union Territory of Delhi and redesignated it the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
National Capital Territory of Delhi ? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 59th Amendment Act 126. Consider the following statements with regard to
(b) 62nd Amendment Act the Finance Commission:
(c) 67th Amendment Act 1. The recommendations of the Finance
(d) 69th Amendment Act Commission cover a period of ¿ve years.
2. The Report of the Finance Commission is 130. Consider the following statements :
submitted to the Prime Minister. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
Which of the statements given above is / are has to:
correct ? 1. Audit government expenditure
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 2. Make ¿nancial policy
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Sanction grants to various departments
127. Consider the following statements : 4. See that public expenditure are in conformity
1. The National Commission for Scheduled with the government rules
Tribes was constituted under the Constitution Of these statements :
(Eighty-ninth Amendment) Act. (a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
2. The ¿rst National Commission for (b) 1 and 3 are correct
Scheduled Tribes was constituted in 2006. (c) 2 and 3 are correct
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 1 and 4 are correct
correct ? 131. Who among the following can only be removed
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 from the of¿ce in like manner and on the like
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court?
128. Consider the following statements : 1. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
1. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of 2. Chief Election Commissioner
India has no control over the issue of money 3. Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
from the Consolidated Fund of India. 4. Attorney General for India
2. The term of the of¿ce of the Comptroller Select the correct answer using the codes given
and Auditor General of India has been ¿xed below :
by an Act enacted by Parliament. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
correct ?
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
132. The provision of the Act relating to the duties of
129. Which of the following statements regarding the
the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India are
Comptroller and Auditor General of India is / are
to audit and report on all the expenditure form
true ?
which of the following ?
The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor
1. Consolidated Fund of India
General of India:
2. Consolidated Fund of each State
1. Can be considered by the joint session of
3. Contingency Fund of India
both Houses of Parliament
4. Public Account of India
2. Includes examination of income and
expenditure of all public sector undertaking
3. Is placed before the Lok Sabha with the below :
comments of the Estimates Committee (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
4. Constitutes the basis for scrutiny by (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
the Public Accounts Committee of the 133. Who is the ¿rst Law Of¿cer of the Government
Parliament of India?
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) Chief Justice of India
below : (b) Union Law Minister
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Attorney General of India
(c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 4 (d) Law Secretary
134. Who among the following holds his of¿ce at the 139. Consider the following statements :
pleasure of the President? 1. There was a special provision for the Anglo-
(a) Chairman of the Union Public Service Indian community in certain services.
Commission 2. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(b) Attorney General of India (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was passed in
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha 1955.
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India 3. The Untouchability (Offences) Act, was
135. Who among the following can attend the meetings renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights
of both Houses of Parliament while being not a Act.
member of either of the Houses? Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Solicitor-General of India (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(b) Vice-President of India (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
(c) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India 140. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(d) Attorney General of India answer by using the codes given below:
136. Consider the following statements: List-I List-II
1. The Central Information Commission can (Provisions) (Articles)
order inquiry into any matter if there are A. Prohibition of discrimination 1. Article 22
reasonable grounds. on grounds of religion, race,
2. The Central Information Commission caste, sex, place of birth
has the power to secure compliance of its B. Prohibition of employment of 2. Article 15
decisions from the public authority. children in factories
Which of the statements given above is / are C. Protection against arrest and 3. Article 24
correct ? detention in certain cases
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 D. Abolition of untouchability 4. Article 17
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Codes :
137. Consider the following statements : A B C D
1. The Central Information Commission is a (a) 1 4 2 3
high-powered independent body. (b) 2 3 1 4
2. The Central Information Commission is a (c) 2 4 1 3
constitutional body. (d) 1 3 2 4
Which of the statements given above is / are
correct ?
answer by using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Article) (Matter Dealt With)
138. Consider the following statements : A. Article 39-A 1. Living wage for workers
1. The State Information Commission
B. Article 43 2. Uniform civil code
entertains complaints and appeals pertaining
to of¿ces, ¿nancial institutions and public C. Article 44 3. Separation of judiciary
sector undertakings under the concerned D. Article 50 4. Free Legal aid
state government. Codes :
2. The State Information Commission is a A B C D
high-powered independent body. (a) 1 4 2 3
Which of the statements given above is / are (b) 4 1 3 2
correct ? (c) 4 1 2 3
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) 1 4 3 2
answer by using the codes given below: answer using the codes given below:
(Article) (Subject) (Constitutional (Major Subject)
A. Article 50 1. Impeachment of the President Amendment Act)
A. 19th Amendment 1. Reservation of seats for
B. Article 143 2. Separation between judiciary SC/ST in Lok Sabha and
and executive Legislative Assemblies
C. Article 51 3. Functions of Public Service in the States
Commissions B. 25th Amendment 2. Duties of the Election
D. Article 320 4. Advisory Jurisdiction of the Commission
Supreme Court C. 31st Amendment 3. Compensation in the
Codes : acquisition of property
A B C D D. 45th Amendment 4. Increase in the elected
(a) 2 4 1 3 seats in Lok Sabha
(b) 3 1 4 2 Codes :
(c) 2 1 4 3 A B C D
(d) 3 4 1 2 (a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
(Matter) (Article) answer using the codes given below:
A. Right to Equality 1. Article 14
List-I List-II
B. Right to Freedom 2. Article 25 (Amendment) (Nature of Amendment)
C. Right to Freedom of 3. Article 32 A. 42nd 1. Disquali¿cation for defection
Religion Amendment
D. Right to Constitutional 4. Article 19 Act, 1976
Remedies B. 52nd 2. It amended Schedule VIII
5. Article 13 Amendment to the Constitution and
Codes : Act, 1985 added Sindhi as recognised
A B C D language.
C. 62nd 3. This Amendment inserted
(a) 1 3 2 4
Amendment three new words ‘Socialist’,
(b) 2 4 5 3
Act, 1989 ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’ in
(c) 1 4 2 3
the Preamble.
(d) 2 3 5 4 D. 21st 4. T h i s A m e n d m e n t h a s
144. Which of the following are the matters covered Amendment extended the reservation of
under List-I of Seventh Schedule of the Act, 1966 seats for SCs and STs in the
Constitution of India ? House of the People and State
1. Foreign loans 2. Atomic energy Legislative Assemblies.
3. Insurance 4. Public health Codes :
Select the correct answer using the codes given A B C D
below : (a) 3 1 2 4
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4
147. Which of the following pairs are correctly 2. Shall cease to operate at the expiration of
matched? two months, unless before the expiration
1. 24th : Asserted the right of the of that period it has been approved by the
Amendment Parliament to amend any part resolution of both Houses of Parliament
of the Constitution including Which of the statements given above is/are
Part III. correct?
2. 39th : Election of President, Vice- (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Amendment President, Prime Minister and (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Speaker is beyond the purview 150. Consider the following statement :
of the Judiciary. 1. Part III of the Constitution of India dealing
3. 42nd : Political defections made with Fundamental Rights is not applicable
Amendment illegal and reservations for to the state of Jammu & Kashmir
SC/ST extended for another 2. Part IV of the Constitution of India dealing
10 years. with Directive Principles is applicable to
4. 70th : Granting of statehood to the the state of Jammu & Kashmir with some
Amendment Union Territory of Delhi. exceptions and conditions
Select the correct answer using the codes given Which of the statements given above is/are
below : correct ?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
148. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 151. The power of the President of India to declare
answer using the codes given below: that Article 370 (under which the state of J & K
List-I List-II enjoys a special status) shall cease to be operative,
(Constitutional (Effects) is subject to :
Amendment) 1. Public noti¿cation
A. 37th 1. Tripura in the Sixth Schedule 2. Recommendation of Parliament
Amendment 3. Advice of the Union Council of Ministers
B. 49th 2. Legislature to a UT 4. Recommendation of Constituent Assembly
Amendment of J & K
C. 58th 3. Publication of the Constitution Of these statements :
Amendment in Hindi (a) 1 and 3 are correct
D. 77th 4. National Capital status to (b) 1 and 2 are correct
Amendment Delhi (c) 2 and 4 are correct
5. Reservation in promotions to (d) 1 and 4 are correct
SCs and STs 152. The Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir came into
Codes : force on :
A B C D (a) January 26, 1950 (b) January 26, 1952
(a) 2 1 3 5 (c) January 26, 1955 (d) January 26, 1957
(b) 3 4 2 1 153. Consider the following statement :
(c) 2 4 3 1 1. On the expiry of the term of ¿ve years
by the President of India, the outgoing
(d) 3 1 2 5
President must continue to hold of¿ce until
his successor enters upon his of¿ce.
When the ¿nancial emergency has been declared
2. The Electoral College for the President’s
by the President under the Article 360, then its
election consists of the elected members
proclamation :
of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and
1. May be revoked or varied by a subsequent
Puducherry also.
proclamation
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. The Union Council of Ministers can function
correct ? for sometime even after death or resignation
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 of the Prime minister.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. In the absence of the Prime Minister, only the
154. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Home Minister can preside over emergency
answer using the codes given below: meetings of the Union Council of Ministers.
List-I List-II Which of the statements given above is/are
(Power of President) (Relevant correct ?
Provision) (a) Only 1 (b) 3 and 4
A. Power to grant pardon 1. Article 76 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. Executive power of the 2. Article 75 157. Consider the following statements and select the
Union correct answer from the codes given below :
C. Power to appoint Prime 3. Article 53 Assertion (A): According to the Constitution of
Minister India, the same person cannot
D. Appointment of Attorney- 4. Article 72 function as the Governor of two
General or more States at the same time.
Codes : Reason (R) : Article 153 of the Constitution
A B C D states that there shall be a
(a) 4 2 3 1 Governor for each State.
(b) 4 3 2 1 Codes :
(c) 1 2 3 4 (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
(d) 1 3 2 4 the correct explanation of A
155. Which of the following are not mentioned in the (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
Constitution of India ? not the correct explanation of A
1. Council of Ministers (c) A is true but R is false
2. Collective Responsibility (d) A is false but R is true
3. Resignation of Ministers 158. Consider the following statements :
4. Of¿ce of the Deputy Prime Minister 1. The Eleventh Schedule was inserted in the
Select the correct answer from the codes given Constitution of India by the Constitution
below: (Seventy Third Amendment) Act, 1992.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 2. The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 of India corresponds to Article 243-W of the
156. Consider the following statement : Constitution of India.
1. The President cannot function without the Which of the statements given above is / are
Union Council of Ministers. correct ?
2. The Solicitor-General is the highest legal (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
authority of the Union Government. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 17. (b) 33. (c) 49. (a) 65. (c) 81. (d) 97. (a) 113. (d) 129. (c) 145. (b)
2. (d) 18. (d) 34. (a) 50. (c) 66. (a) 82. (c) 98. (c) 114. (c) 130. (d) 146. (c)
3. (a) 19. (c) 35. (d) 51. (c) 67. (c) 83. (c) 99. (a) 115. (b) 131. (c) 147. (b)
4. (b) 20. (a) 36. (d) 52. (a) 68. (d) 84. (c) 100. (d) 116. (d) 132. (a) 148. (a)
5. (a) 21. (c) 37. (d) 53. (d) 69. (c) 85. (c) 101. (d) 117. (c) 133. (c) 149. (c)
6. (a) 22. (d) 38. (a) 54. (d) 70. (b) 86. (a) 102. (c) 118. (a) 134. (b) 150. (d)
7. (d) 23. (c) 39. (a) 55. (a) 71. (b) 87. (b) 103. (a) 119 (c) 135. (d) 151. (d)
8. (a) 24. (a) 40. (d) 56. (a) 72. (c) 88. (b) 104. (a) 120. (c) 136. (c) 152. (d)
9. (c) 25. (a) 41. (c) 57. (c) 73. (b) 89. (a) 105. (c) 121. (b) 137. (a) 153. (c)
10 (b) 26. (d) 42. (b) 58. (d) 74. (b) 90. (c) 106. (a) 122. (d) 138. (c) 154. (b)
11. (d) 27. (d) 43. (a) 59. (b) 75. (d) 91. (c) 107. (c) 123. (b) 139. (d) 155. (c)
12. (b) 28. (b) 44. (c) 60. (a) 76. (b) 92. (d) 108. (c) 124. (a) 140. (b) 156. (a)
13. (c) 29. (b) 45. (c) 61. (a) 77. (b) 93. (a) 109. (b) 125. (c) 141. (c) 157. (d)
14. (c) 30. (a) 46. (b) 62. (c) 78. (a) 94. (b) 110. (d) 126. (a) 142. (a) 158. (a)
15. (d) 31. (d) 47. (b) 63. (b) 79. (a) 95. (a) 111. (d) 127. (a) 143. (c)
16. (c) 32. (c) 48. (a) 64. (b) 80. (a) 96. (c) 112. (d) 128. (c) 144. (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) The main objective of the directive principles 3. (a) The state election commission, chairman of
of state policy, mentioned in the constitution of India, the state PSC, and the advocate General of the state
is to establish social and economic democracy in the are appointed by the governor. A judge of the High
country though they also address political issues. Court is appointed by the President.
They act as a check on the government, theorized 4. (b) Of the total number of members of the
as a yardstick in the hands of the people to measure Legislative council consists of—Member of local
the performance of the government and vote it out of bodies in the state, Graduates of three years and
power if it does not ful¿ll the promises made during the residing within the state.
elections. The Directive Principles are non-justi¿able 5. (a) The National commission for scheduled castes
rights of the people. is established by the Article 388 of the constitution
2. (d) The President of India in his oath or af¿rmation of India whereas rest are established by acts of the
swears to faithfully execute the of¿ce, to preserve parliament. National Commission for Scheduled
and protect constitution law and to devote himself Castes is an Indian constitutional body established
to the service of the people of India. The President with a view to provide safeguards against the
is required to make and subscribe in the presence exploitation of Scheduled Castes and to promote
of the Chief Justice of India (or in his absence, the and protect their social, educational, economic and
senior most Judge of the Supreme Court), an oath cultural interests, special provisions were made in
or af¿rmation that he/she shall protect, preserve and the Constitution.
defend the Constitution.
6. (a) The preamble to the Constitution of India is a legislature makes a law depriving a person of his
brief introductory statement that sets out the guiding property, there would be no obligation on the part
purpose and principles of the document. of the State to pay anything as compensation. The
7. (d) The Fundamental Duties of citizens were aggrieved person shall have no right to move the
added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment court under Article 32.
in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran 17. (b) The charge of violation of constitution by the
Singh Committee that was constituted by the president of India for his impeachment can’t be
government earlier that year. All the statements preferred by a House unless a resolution containing
given in the question about the fundamental duties, proposal to prefer such charge is moved after at least
mentioned in the constitution of India, are correct. fourteen days notice in writing signed by not less
8. (a) The president of India can proclaim the failure than one fourth of the total number of the members
of the constitutional machinery in Jammu and of that house.
Kashmir but the Proclamation should be grounded 18. (d) The expenditure charged on the consolidated
under the provision of the state constitution and not fund of India comprises of pension payable to
Indian constitution. judges of High courts, debt charges for which
9. (c) The chairperson of the ¿nance commission of the Govt. of India is liable and salary allowances
India should be a person having experience in public and pension payable to Comptroller and Auditor
affairs but there is no such compulsion that he should General of India.
be an economist. 19. (c) As per constitution (74th amendment) act, the
10. (b) The ‘Progress of the nation’ is not mentioned state legislature has not been conferred power to
in the preamble of the Indian constitution. empower municipalities with the responsibility of
11. (d) The forms of oaths or af¿rmations, in the third management of law and order.
schedule of the Indian constitution, are mentioned 20. (a) Provisions relating to free legal aid was
for the given of¿cials. Third Schedule (Articles incorporated into constitution of India by constitution
75(4), 99, 124(6), 148(2), 164(3), 188 and 219). (42nd amendment) Act 1992, provisions for the
12. (b) According to the Article 20 of the Indian reservation in promotion by 77th Amendment Act
constitution, though the Govt. can’t enact any 1995 and Article 51A(K) by 86th Amendment Act
criminal law with the retrospective effect but it 2002
doesn’t prohibit the Govt. to impose any civil or tax 21. (c) Right to appropriate life insurance policy, good
law with the similar effect. health, and women to be treated with decency and
13. (c) The directive principles of ‘To ensure the right dignity come under Article 21 of the constitution of
to have an adequate means of livelihood for men India.
and women equally’ was mentioned in the original 22. (d) Fundamental rights in Part III which are
text of the constitution available not only against the state but also against
14. (c) The amendment in the Directive Principle private individuals are mentioned in Art. 15(2),
of state policy needs for a special majority of the
Art.17, Art.18(3)(4) Art. 23 and Art. 24 of the Indian
Parliament where the amendment in the election
constitution.
of the president and its manner needs for a special
23. (c) Constitution (118th Amendment) Bill, 2012
majority of the parliament.
resolves to make special provisions for Hyderabad
15. (d) According to the preamble of the constitution
-Karnataka region. The provisions of Article
for India it is given by the people of India to
themselves but the rights to justice, liberty and 371(J) of the constitution, aimed at bringing
equality are provided to its citizens. about all-round development in six districts of the
16. (c) The fundamental rights mentioned in the Hyderabad-Karnataka region — Gulbarga, Yadgir,
constitution of India are not permanent in nature Bellary, Bidar, Raichur and Koppal, will come into
and they can be abolished by the parliament as the effect straightway with governor H.R. Bhardwaj
Right to property was abolished. The Forty-Fourth approving relevant noti¿cation, ensuring reservation
Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property in employment and education.
from the list of fundamental rights. A new provision, The Governor has approved four important noti¿-
Article 300-A, was added to the constitution which cations as provided for under the 118th amendment
provided that "no person shall be deprived of his — Article 371 (J) — to the constitution and, among
property save by authority of law". Thus if a other things, this will enable the formation of the
Hyderabad-Karnataka Region Development Board of area requires the amendment of ¿rst schedule
Order 2013. Henceforth, the Governor would play a of the constitution. First Schedule (Articles 1 and
signi¿cant role in the development of the region. 4) lists the states and territories of India, lists any
24. (a) National development council, governor’s changes to their borders and the laws used to make
conference and zonal councils are extra that change.
constitutional bodies. The inter-state council is a 35. (d) The fourth schedule of the constitution is
constitutional body. about allocation of seats in the council of states.
25. (a) Election of the President representation of the Fourth Schedule (Articles 4(1) and 80(2)) details
states in Parliament and any of the Lists in the 7th the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (the upper
schedule require recti¿cation of the Legislature of house of Parliament) per State or Union Territory.
not less than one half of the states for a constitution 36. (d) Social and economic democracy is the
amendment. foundation on which political democracy would be
26. (d) As per Article 156, the governor shall hold a way of life in the Indian polity.
of¿ce during the pleasure of the president. He can 37. (d) According to Dr. B.R Ambedkar, right
resign his of¿ce, or can be removed from his of¿ce to constitution remedies is the very soul of
by president at any time. the constitution and very heart of it. Right to
27. (d) Art. 14 to 18 are the fundamental rights constitutional remedies is mentioned in articles
to equality. They are equally before law(14), from 32 to 35. It empowers the citizens to move to a
prohibition of discrimination (15), Equality of court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental
opportunity (16), Abolition of untouchability (17) and rights. For instance, in case of imprisonment, the
abolition of Titles (18). citizen can ask the court to see if it is according to
28. (b) The word minority is not de¿ned in the the provisions of the law of the country. If the court
constitution of India, yet it recognizes two types ¿nds that it is not, the person will have to be freed.
of minorities, based on religion and language. 38. (a) Finance commission recommends the
The minorities commission is a statutory body president on the principle that should govern the
constituted in 1993 by an act of Parliament. grants-in-aid to the states by the centre.
29. (b) Art. 59 of the constitution-The president shall 39. (a) First amendment made in 1951, inserted two
not be a member of the either House of Parliament new articles, 31A and 31B and the 9th schedule to
or House of the legislatures of any state. So, both 1 give protection from challenge to land reforms. It
and 2 are correct. formed the subject-matter of dilatory litigation,
30. (a) The rights of equality before the law, protection as a result of which the implementation of these
of life and personal liberty and freedom of religion important measures, affecting large numbers of
are available to both citizens and non-citizens of people, had been held up. Accordingly, a new article
India. 31A was introduced with retrospective effect to
uphold such measures. Further, another new article
31. (d) Art 253- Parliament has power to make any law
31B was introduced to validate 13 enactments
for the whole or any part of the country or territory
relating to zamindari abolition.
of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or
40. (d) Stamp duties on bills of exchanges, promissory
convention with any other country or any decision
notes and others are levied by the centre but
made at any international conference, association or
collected and appropriated by the states.
other body without the consent of any state.
41. (c) 7th Constitutional amendment Act (1956) and
32. (c) The order of precedence of the functionaries 31st amendment Act (1973) are related to raising the
given in the options are chief justice of India> number of members of Lok Sabha to be elected from
cabinet Minister of the Union> Chief Election the states, increase size of Parliament from 525 to
commissioner > Cabinet secretary. 545 seats. Increased seats are going to the new states
33. (c) The ¿nance commission can only advise the formed in North East India and minor adjustment
president on ¿nancial matters such as distribution of consequent to 1971 Delimitation exercise.
the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the 42. (b) Stock exchange and future markets are listed
states. in the Union list, but not in the concurrent list.
34. (a) The states and UTs of India are speci¿ed in the 43. (a) 44th amendment act detected the right to
¿rst schedule. So to form a new state and alteration property from the list of fundamental rights, and
made it only a legal right. Making it a legal right Article 17- Abolition of untouchability
under the Constitution serves two purposes: Firstly, it Article 18- Abolition of titles.
gives emphasis to the value of socialism included in 51. (c) UK — Nominal Head – President (like
the preamble and secondly, in doing so, it conformed Queen); Cabinet System of Ministers; Post of PM;
to the doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution. Parliamentary Type of Govt.; Bicameral Parliament;
44. (c) University Grants commission, N.H.R.C. Lower House more powerful; Council of Ministers
and C.V.C are non-constitutional bodies, whereas responsible to Lower House; Speaker in Lok Sabha
election commission is a constitutional body under US — Independence of Judiciary and judicial
Article 324. The superintendence, direction and review; Written Constitution; Executive head of
control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, state known as President and his being the Supreme
and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and to Commander of the Armed Forces; Vice- President
the Legislature of every State and of elections to the as the ex-of¿cio Chairman of Rajya Sabha;
of¿ces of President and Vice President held under Fundamental Rights; Supreme Court; Provision of
this Constitution shall be vested in a Commission States; Preamble; Removal of Supreme court and
(referred to in this Constitution as the Election High court Judges
Commission). USSR — Five year Plan; Fundamental Duties
45. (c) Under the constitutional (Ninety-second
Australia — Concurrent list; Language of the
amendment) Act, four languages Bodo, Dogri,
preamble; Provision regarding trade, commerce and
Santhali and Maithali were added to languages
intercourse
under the eight schedule of the constitution of India
Japan — Law on which the Supreme Court function
thereby raising the total number of languages listed
in the schedule to 22. Ireland — Method of election of President; Concept
46. (b) The directive Principles commit the state to of Directive Principles of States Policy(Ireland
raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living borrowed it from SPAIN); Nomination of members
and to improve public health by prohibiting other in the Rajya Sabha by the President
drugs which are injurious to health. 52. (a) The words ‘SOCIALIST’, ‘SECULAR’ and
47. (b) A person can become a member of the ‘UNITY’ & ‘INTEGRITY’ were added by the 42nd
legislative assembly of the state if he or she is a Amendment in 1976.
citizen of India and not less than 25 years of age. 53. (d)
48. (a) Article 54- Election of the president. Schedule Added by Particulars
Article 155- Appointment of the PM and council of
ministers. Ninth Ist Contains acts & orders
Article 164- Appointment of the CM and council of amendment related to land tenure, land
Ministers of a state. in 1951 tax, railways, industries.
49. (a) Parliament supervises the Activities of the {Right of property not a
executives with the help of its committees like fundamental right now}
committees on Govt. assurance, committees on
Tenth 52nd Contains provisions of dis-
subordinate legislation, committees on petition
amendment quali¿cation of grounds of
etc. Considering the volume of legislation to be
handled by the Parliament, committees have been in 1985 defection
established to transact a good deal of the legislation. Eleventh 73rd Contains provisions of
Parliamentary Committees are of two kinds - amendment Panchayati Raj.
Standing Committees and ad hoc Committees. The in 1992
former are elected or appointed periodically and they Twelfth 74th Contains provisions of
work on a continuous basis. The latter are appointed
amendment Municipal Corporation
on an ad hoc basis as need arises and they cease to
exist as soon as they complete the task assigned to in 1992
them. 54. (d) Article 124A (2) enables that law to lay down
50. (c) Article 14- Equality before Law the following features of the Commission: (i) the
Article 15- Prohibition of Discrimination composition, (ii) the appointment, quali¿cations,
Article 16- Equality of Opportunity conditions of service and tenure of the Chairperson
and Members, (iii) the functions, (iv) procedure communities as are deemed under Article 342
to be followed, (v) other necessary matters. The to be Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of India
parliamentary panel viewed: “The present process Constitution. The Bill amended the Schedule of the
adopted by the collegium of judges is beset with 1950 Order to include certain groups as Scheduled
its own problem of opacity and non-accountability Tribes.
besides excluding the Executive entirely in 63. (b) The Government of India Act 1935 introduced
the collaborative and consultative exercise for the provincial autonomy and provided for an all
appointment of judges to a Bench of the higher India federation.
judiciary. Because of its inherent de¿ciencies in Indian Councils Act of 1909 -The right of separate
the collegium, as many as 275 posts of judges in electorate was given to the Muslims.
various High Courts are lying vacant, which has a
Government of India Act, 1919: The Act provided
direct bearing on the justice delivery system and
a dual form of government (a “dyarchy”) for the
thereby affecting the judiciary.”
major provinces.
55. (a) In the Constitution, in Part III, in article 16, for
clause (4A), the following clause shall be substituted, The government of India act 1858: The
namely: “(4A) Notwithstanding anything contained Company’s territories in India were to be vested
elsewhere in the Constitution, the Scheduled Castes in the Queen, the Company ceasing to exercise its
and the Scheduled Tribes noti¿ed under article 341 power and control over these territories. India was
and article 342, respectively, shall be deemed to be to be governed in the Queen’s name.
backward and nothing in this article or in article 335 64. (b) Government of India Act of 1858: The Council
shall prevent the State from making any provision of Secretary of State was to compromise 8-to-12
for reservation in matters of promotions, with people, three of them Indian.
consequential seniority, to any class or classes of Indian Council Act 1861: It made a beginning of
posts in the services under the State in favour of the representative institutions by associating Indians
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes to the with the law-making process
extent of the percentage of reservation provided to Indian Council Act 1909: This Act is also known as
the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in Morley-Minto Reforms (Lord Morley was the then
the services of the State.” Secretary of State for India and Lord Minto was the
56. (a) Article 102 of the Constitution provides that a then Viceroy of India).
person shall be disquali¿ed from being chosen as a Government of India Act 1919 : The Act provided
Member of Parliament (MP) if he holds an of¿ce of a dual form of government (a “dyarchy”) for the
pro¿t under the government of India or the government major provinces
of a state. However, Parliament can declare by law 65. (c) Seats allocated to each British province were to
that the holding of certain of¿ces will not incur this
be decided among the three principal communities
disquali¿cation. The Parliament (Prevention of
Muslim, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and
Disquali¿cation) Act, 1959 lists certain of¿ces of
Sikhs), in proportion to their population.
pro¿t under the central and state governments, which
The chairman of the Union constitution committee
do not disqualify the holders from being an MP.
The Chairperson of the National Commission for was Jawaharlal Nehru.
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is exempted The total strength of constituent Assembly was to
from disquali¿cation as per this list. be 389.
57. (c) Article 342 of the Constitution of India states Drafting Committee was consisted of seven
that the President may notify the Scheduled Tribes members.
in a state after consultation with the Governor of 66. (a) Steering Committee – Rajendra Prasad
the state. The President issued the 1950 Order, Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J.B.
in accordance with this Article. According to the Kripalani
Article 342 of the Constitution of India, Scheduled Union Constitution Committee – Jawahar lal Nehru.
Tribes means such tribes or tribal communities Provincial Constitution Committee – Sardar
or parts of or groups within such tribes or tribal Vallabhbai Patel
67. (c) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha – Provisional 76. (b) Ninth Schedule- Added by Ist amendment in
president of the Constituent assembly. 1951. Contains acts & orders related to land tenure,
H.C Mukharjee- Vice President of the land tax, railways, industries.{Right of property not
Constituent Assembly. a fundamental right now}
68. (d) The constitution doesn’t mention direct control Tenth Schedule- Added by 52nd amendment in
by the people such as referendum, initiative and 1985. Contains provisions of disquali¿cation of
recall. grounds of defection
69. (c) Following are the features of Indian secularism: Eleventh Schedule- By 73rd amendment in 1992
Contains provisions of Panchayati Raj
1. The state should not have any religion of its
Twelfth Schedule- By 74th amendment in 1992
own.
Contains provisions of Municipal Corporation.
2. All the religions shall be equally protected by
77. (b) The Preamble reads:
the state.
We, the People of India having solemnly
3. Free exercise of right to freedom of religion. resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign,
4. State shall not discriminate against any Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic and
particular religion. It means that the state shall to secure to all its citizens;
not prefer, favour or disfavour any particular Justice, social, economic, political;
religion viz-a-viz others. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith
5. Religious tolerance. and worship;
70. (b) Finance, property Contracts and Suits are Equality of status and opportunity; and to
mentioned in part XII. The union territory in Part promote among them all;
V, The executive of states in part IV and Relation of Fraternity, assuring the dignity of the individual
states in part XI of the constitution. and the unity and integrity of the nation ;
71. (b) Indian Constitution is the lengthiest of all the 79. (a) Such Laws can be passed by a simple majority
written constitution of the world. It is largely based and by the ordinary legislative process.
on Government of India Act 1935. 80. (a) another linguistic Provinces committee
72. (c) Emergency Provision-Germany consisted of Jawahar Lal Nehru, Sardar Vallahbhai
Fundamental Rights-U.S.A Patel and Pattabhi Sitaramayya, submitted its report
Parliamentary System-U.K in April 1949 and formally rejected language as the
basis for reorganization of states.
Directive principles of State Policy-Ireland
81. (d) These are the new states and Union territories
73. (b) Forms of Oaths and Af¿rmations are the
created after 1956.
subject of Third Schedule.
82. (c) Under the citizenship Act 1955, a person can-
74. (b) Following are the features of Indian secularism: not be a citizen of India by Nationalisation.
1. The state should not have any religion of its 83. (c) The citizenship act 1955 has been amended in
own. 1986, 1992, 2003 and 2005.
2. All the religions shall be equally protected by 84. (c) Loss of Citizenship: - Renunciation: It is a
the state. voluntary act by which a person, after requiring the
3. Free exercise of right to freedom of religion. citizenship of another country, gives up his Indian
4. State shall not discriminate against any citizenship. Termination Takes place by operation
particular religion. It means that the state shall of law when an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires
not prefer, favour or disfavour any particular the citizenship of another country. He automatically
religion viz-a-viz others. ceases to be an Indian citizen. Deprivation It is a
5. Religious tolerance. compulsory termination of the citizenship of India
75. (d) The constitution of India establishes a federal obtained by registration or Naturalisation, by the
system of Government. It contains all the usual Government of India, on charges of using fraudulent
features of the Federation. means to acquire citizenship.
85. (c) Mandamid's for “we order,” a writ (more 90. (c) Preventive detention, the practice of
modernly called a “writ of mandate”) which orders incarcerating accused individuals before trial on
a public agency or governmental body to perform the assumption that their release would not be in
an act required by law when it has neglected or the best interest of society—speci¿cally, that they
refused to do so. would be likely to commit additional crimes if they
A writ of prohibition is a writ directing a subordinate were released.
to stop doing something the law prohibits. 92. (d) Abolition of Untouchability –Article 17
87. (b) The Writ Jurisdiction of Supreme Court can be Abolition of titles- Article 18
invoked under Article 32 of the Constitution for the Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion
violation of fundamental rights guaranteed under of any particular religion -Article 27
Part – III of the Constitution. These are as under: Protection of interests of minorities.—
(A) Writ of Habeas Corpus: Article 29
It is the most valuable writ for personal liberty. 96. (c) The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment)
Habeas Corpus means, “Let us have the body.” Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution
A person, when arrested, can move the Court for the of India to provide free and compulsory education
issue of Habeas Corpus. It is an order by a Court of all children in the age group of six to fourteen
to the detaining authority to produce the arrested years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner
person before it so that it may examine whether as the State may, by law, determine. The Right of
the person has been detained lawfully or otherwise. Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE)
If the Court is convinced that the person is illegally Act, 2009, which represents the consequential
detained, it can issue orders for his release. legislation envisaged under Article 21-A, means
(B) The Writ of Mandamus: that every child has a right to full time elementary
Mandamus is a Latin word, which means education of satisfactory and equitable quality in
“We Command”. Mandamus is an order from a a formal school which satis¿es certain essential
superior court to a lower court or tribunal or public norms and standards.
authority to perform an act, which falls within its 99. (a) The provision regarding a uniform civil code
duty. is contained in part VI of the constitution.
(C) The Writ of Quo-Warranto: 103. (a) Directive Principles of the state are
The word Quo-Warranto literally means fundamental in the governance of country.
“by what warrants?” It is a writ issued with a view
104. (a) Protection of monuments of national
to restraining a person from acting in a public of¿ce
importance is not included in the Directive Principle
to which he is not entitled.
of State Policy.
(D) The Writ of Prohibition:
105. (c) is not a directive principal of state policy.
Writ of prohibition means to forbid or to stop and
109. (b) Art. 51A, Part IVA of the Indian Constitution,
it is popularly known as ‘Stay Order’. This Writ
speci¿es the list of fundamental duties of the
is issued when a lower court or a body tries to
citizens. It says “it shall be the duty of every
transgress the limits or powers vested in it. It is a
citizen of India:
Writ issued by a superior court to lower court or a
1. to abide by the constitution and respect its
tribunal forbidding it to perform an act outside its
jurisdiction. ideal and institutions;
(E) The Writ of Certiorari: 2. to cherish and follow the noble ideals which
Literally, Certiorari means to be certi¿ed. The inspired our national struggle for freedom;
Writ of Certiorari is issued by the Supreme Court 3. to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity
to some inferior court or tribunal to transfer the and integrity of India;
matter to it or to some other superior authority for 4. to defend the country and render national
proper consideration. The Writ of Certiorari can be service when called upon to do so;
issued by the Supreme Court or any High Court for 5. to promote harmony and the spirit of common
quashing the order already passed by an inferior brotherhood amongst all the people of India
court. transcending religious, linguistic and regional
diversities, to renounce practices derogatory to The Finance Commission is required to make

the dignity of women; recommendations to the president of India on the
6. to value and preserve the rich heritage of our following matters two of them are as follows :
composite culture; 2. The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes
7. to protect and improve the natural environment to be shared between the centre and the states, and
including forests, lakes, rivers, and wild-life the allocation between the states of the respective
and to have compassion for living creatures; shares of such proceeds.
8. to develop the scienti¿c temper, humanism 3. The principles that should govern the grants in
and the spirit of inquiry and reform; aid to the states by the Centre (i.e. out of consolidated
9. to safeguard public property and to abjure fund of India)
violence; 128. (c) He audits the accounts related to all expenditure
10. to strive towards excellence in all spheres of from the consolidated fund of India.
individual and collective activity, so that the He holds of¿ce for a period of 6 years or up to the
nation constantly rises to higher levels of age of 65 years whichever is earlier.
endeavour and achievement. 129. (c) The CAG submits three audit report to the
114. (c) Though the swaran singh committee suggested president- audit report on appropriation accounts,
the incorporation of eight fundamental duties in the audit report on ¿nancial accounts and audit report
constitution, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment on public undertakings. The president lays these
Act 1976 included ten fundamental duties. reports before both the Houses of parliament. After
115. (b) An amendment of the constitution can be this the public accounts committee examines them
initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the and reports its ¿ndings to the parliament.
purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the 130. (d) The work of CAG does not include making of
state legislatures. ¿nancial policy and sanctioning grants to various
117. (c) A number of provision in the constitution can departments.
be amended by a simple majority of the two houses 132. (a) CAG audits the accounts related to all
of parliament outside the scope of Article 368. Some expenditure from the Consolidated Fund,
of these are: Consolidated Fund of each state, Contingency Fund
of India and Public Accounts of India.
1. Admission or establishment of new States.
133. (c) Attorney General of India is the ¿rst law
2. Formation of new states and related subjects
of¿cer of the Government of India.
3. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in
134. (b) The term of Of¿ce of the AG is not ¿xed by
states.
the constitution. Further the Constitution does not
4. Second schedule- emoluments, allowances,
contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.
privileges, and so on of the president, the
He holds of¿ce during the pleasure of the president.
governors,, the speakers, judges etc.
135. (d) He has the right to speak and to take part in the
123. (b) The seven current union territories are:
proceedings of both houses of parliament or their
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
joint sitting.
Chandigarh.
136. (c) The central Information Commission was
Dadra and Nagar Haveli.
established by the central government in 2005. It was
Daman and Diu.
constituted through an of¿cial Gazette Noti¿cation
Delhi (National Capital Territory of Delhi)
under the provisions of the Right to Information act
Lakshadweep.
(2005). Hence, It is not a constitutional body.
Puducherry (Pondicherry)
137. (a) Central Information Commission is a High
126. (a)
powered independent body and not a Constitutional
1. Article 280 of the constitution of India provides body.
for a ¿nance Commission as a quasi judicial body. 139. (d) The Scheduled Castes and Tribes (Prevention
It is constituted by the president of India every of Atrocities) Act, 1989 an Act of the Parliament of
¿fth year or at such earlier time as he considers India enacted to prevent atrocities against scheduled
necessary. castes and scheduled tribes
To, further strengthen the constitutional provision in 31th Amendment – 1972 – Increased the number of
Article 15 and Article 17, the parliament of India Lok Sabha seats from 525 to 545.
enacted the Untouchability (offences) Act in 1955. 45th Amendment 1980 – Extended the reservation of
This act was further amended and renamed in 1976 seats for the SCs and STs and special representation
as Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. for the Anglo Indians in Lok Sabha and the State
140. (b) Prohibition of discrimination – Article-15 legislature assemblies for a further period of ten
Prohibition of employment of children in years (i.e up to 1990)
factories –Article-24 146. (c)
Protection against arrest and detention in (i) 42nd Amendment - Amendment passed
certain cases- Article 22 during internal emergency by Indira Gandhi.
Abolition of untouchability- Article-17 Provides for curtailment of fundamental rights,
141. (c) is correct, Article 39-A Free legal Aid imposes fundamental duties and changes to the
Article- 43- Living wage of workers. basic structure of the constitution by making India a
Article- 44 – Uniform Civil Code. “Socialist Secular” Republic
Article- 50- Separation of Judiciary. (ii) 52nd Amendment Act 1985 - Anti Defection
Articles mentioned above are the part of Directive Law - Provide disquali¿cation of members from
principles of the state policy.
parliament and assembly in case of defection from
142. (a) Article 50 – Separation between judiciary and
one party to other
executive.
(iii) 62nd Amendment Act 1989 - Extend
Article-143- Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme
reservation for SC / ST and nomination of Anglo
Court.
Article 51 – Impeachment of the President. Indian members in Parliament and State Assemblies
Article- 320 – Function of Public Service for another ten years i.e. up to 2000
Commission. (iv) 21st Amendment Act 1966 - includes Sindhi
143. (c) Right to equality – Article-14 as an Of¿cial Language
Right to Freedom- Article-19 147. (b)
Right to freedom of Religion- Article 25 1. 24th Amendment - Enables parliament to
Right to constitutional Remedies – Article 32 dilute fundamental rights through amendments to
1. Union List contains 100 subjects (Originally the constitution
97) 2. 39th Amendment - It placed the election
2. Subjects of Union State and Concurrent Lists of the president, the Vice-President, the Prime
3. Union List contains 100 subjects (Originally Minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond
97) the scruting of Indian courts.
4. State List contains 61 subjects (Originally 66) 3. 42nd Amendment - It attempted to reduce the
5. Concurrent List contains 52 subjects power of the supreme court and High Courts to
(Originally 47) pronounce upon the constitutional Validity of
145. (b) The Nineteenth Amendment of the laws. It laid down the fundamental duties of Indian
Constitution of India, of¿cially known as The Citizens to themselves.
Constitution (Nineteenth Amendment) Act, 1966, 4. 70th Amendment - includes National Capital
abolished Election Tribunals in India and enabled of Delhi and Union Territory of Pondicherry in
trial of election petitions by High Courts.
Electoral College for Presidential Election
The Twenty-¿fth Amendment of the Constitution
148. (a)
of India, of¿cially known as The Constitution
1. 37th Amendment - Formation of Arunachal
(Twenty-¿fth Amendment) Act, 1971, curtailed the
Pradesh legislative assembly
right to property, and permitted the acquisition of
private property by the government for public use, 2. 49th Amendment - Recognizes Tripura as a
on the payment of compensation which would be Tribal State and enables the creation of a Tripura
determined by the Parliament and not the courts. Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council
3. 58th Amendment - Provision to publish of the Union of India’. Elections were held the next
authentic Hindi translation of constitution as on date year for a Legislative Assembly. This section cannot
and provision to publish authentic Hindi translation be legally amended as per provisions of Part XII of
of future amendments the constitution.
4. 77th Amendment - A technical amendment 153. (c) As per Article 56, “Term of of¿ce of President
to protect reservation to SC/ST Employees in (1) The President shall hold of¿ce for a term of ¿ve
promotions. years from the date on which he enters upon his
149. (c) According to Article 360, (1) If the President of¿ce under various provision.
is satis¿ed that a situation has arisen whereby the (2) Any resignation addressed under clause (a)
¿nancial stability or credit of India or of any part of the proviso to clause (1) shall forthwith be
of the territory thereof is threatened, he may by a communicated by him to the Speaker of the House
Proclamation make a declaration to that effect. 334 of the People.”
(2) A Proclamation issued under clause (1) 154. (b) As mentioned in Article 72 of Indian
(a) may be revoked or varied by a subsequent Constitution, the President is empowered with the
Proclamation; powers to grant pardons in the following situations:
(b) shall be laid before each House of Parliament; Punishment is for offence against Union Law
(c) shall cease to operate at the expiration of two Punishment is by a Military Court
months, unless before the expiration of that Sentence is that of death
period it has been approved by resolutions of The executive power is vested mainly in the
both Houses of Parliament. President of India, as per Article 53 (1) of the
150. (d) Part IV (Directive Principles of the State constitution. Article 75 (1) of the Constitution
Policy) and Part IVA (Fundamental Duties) of the of India reads: “The Prime Minister shall
Constitution are not applicable to J&K. In addition be appointed by the President and the other
to other fundamental rights, Articles 19(1)(f) and Ministers shall be appointed by the President
31(2) of the Constitution are still applicable to J&K; on the advice of the Prime Minister.”
hence the Fundamental Right to property is still The Attorney General for India is the Indian
guaranteed in this state. government’s chief legal advisor, and its
151. (d) According to the Constitution notwithstanding primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.
anything in the foregoing provisions of article He is appointed by the President of India under
370, the President may, by public noti¿cation, Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds
declare that this article shall cease to be operative of¿ce during the pleasure of the President.
or shall be operative only with such exceptions and 156 (a) The Constitution Provides for a Council of
modi¿cations and from such date as he may specify: Ministers to aid and advise the President in the
Provided that the recommendation of the exercise of his functions. (Art 74).
Constituent Assembly of the State referred to in 157. (d) In article 158 of the Constitution, after clause
clause (2) shall be necessary before the President (3), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:
issues such a noti¿cation. “(3A) Where the same person is appointed as
152. (d) On 15 February, 1954 the assembly members Governor of two or more States, the emoluments
who were present cast a unanimous vote ratifying and allowances payable to the Governor shall be
the J&K’s accession to India. Constitution was allocated among the States in such proportion as
drafted which came into force on 26 January 1957. the President may by order determine.” Clause 6
Part II, section (3) of the constitution states ‘The -Article 153 provides that there shall be a Governor
State of Jammu and Kashmir is and shall be an for each State. Since it may be desirable in certain
integral part of the Union of India’. In 1956 the circumstances to appoint a Governor for two or
Constituent Assembly ¿nalised its constitution, more States, it is proposed to add a proviso to this
which declared the whole of the former Princely article to remove any possible technical bar to such
State of Jammu and Kashmir to be ‘an integral part an appointment.
2 Political System
1. The members of the Lok Sabha from the Union 4. Consider the following statements regarding the
Territories of India are: chairman of the Legislative Council of a state in
(a) Nominated by the President India:
(b) Elected by the members of local bodies of 1. He is elected by the members of the
the Union Territories. concerned state legislature.
(c) Chosen by direct election 2. He can be removed from his of¿ce by a
(d) Chosen by direct election in Puducherry resolution passed by a majority of all those
whereas nominated by the president in other present and voting members of the concerned
territories. state legislature.
2. Which of the following statements about a Which of the statements given above is/are
parliamentary committee in India are correct? correct?
1. It is appointed or elected by the house or (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
appointed by the speaker/chairman. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. It works under the direction of the speaker/ 5. Which of the following bodies of India are headed
chairman of the house. by the Prime Minister?
3. It presents its report to the president. 1. National Development Council
Select the correct answer using the codes given 2. Interstate Council
below: 3. National Water Resource Council
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 4. National Integration Council
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the codes given
3. Which of the following features of the Indian below
Government system are the essential features of (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
the parliamentary Government system? (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Presence of nominal and real executives 6. Consider the following statements in regard to
2. Membership of the ministers in the the Union Council of Ministers
legislature 1. Parliamentary secretaries are the members
3. Separation of powers between the Union of the council of Ministers.
2. The cabinet is superior to the council of
and State government
Ministers.
4. Independent judiciary system
correct?
below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. The ¿rst reading of the Bill in a House of 11. Which of the following committee(s) is/are not
Parliament refers to : exclusively the committee of the lower House of
(a) The motion for leave to introduce a Bill in the Parliament of India?
the House 1. Estimate committee
(b) The general discussion on the Bill as whole 2. Committee on public undertaking
where only the principle underlying the Bill 3. Committee on the welfare of Scheduled
is discussed and not the details of the bill. Castes and STs
(c) The general discussion on the Bill where the
4. Committee on Empowerment of women
bill is discussed in details.
(d) The state when the Bill is referred either to
select committee of the House or to the joint below:
committee of the two houses. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
8. Consider the following statements : (c) 1 only (d) 2 and 4
1. Ministers are liable for the of¿cial acts done 12. Consider the following statements regarding state
by the President or the governor on their election commission
advice. 1. The state election commission is appointed
2. The ministers can be sued for crimes as by the Governors of the respective states.
well as torts in ordinary courts like common 2. State election commission conducts election
citizen. to the panchayats only
Which of the following statements given above Which of the statements given above is/are
is/are correct?
correct?
9. A member of UPSC may be removed on the
ground of misbehaviour by 13. Which of the following Bills requires prior
(a) Both the Houses of Parliament by way of assent of the President before presenting in the
impeachment Parliament?
(b) The President on the basis of enquiry by the 1. A Bill for the formation of boundaries of a
Supreme Court. state
(c) A resolution passed by the Rajya sabha 2. A money Bill
by 2/3 majority of members present and 3. A Bill which involved expenditures from the
voting. consolidated fund of India
(d) The PM on the basis of the recommendation 4. A Bill affecting taxation in which the interest
of the cabinet of states is vested
10. A governor can make recommendation to the
(a) 1 and 2 only
president on which of the following issues?
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. Removal of the members of the state PSC
2. Removal of the judges of the High Court (c) 3 and 4 only
3. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. Declaration of the breakdown of the 14. Department of of¿cial languages is subordinate
constitutional machinery in the state. of¿ce of which ministry?
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) Ministry of social justice and Empowerment
below: (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) Ministry of Rural Development
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Ministry of Culture
C-36 || Political System
15. Though the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha are 18. Consider the following statements regarding
constitutent part of Parliament, on some subject censure motion:
they have unequal powers which of the following 1. It need not state the ground on which it is
matters depict the difference of powers between based
these two houses? 2. It can be moved only against the council
1. No con¿dence motion of ministers and not against an individual
2. Power to vote on Demand for Grants minister.
3. Impeachment of judges of the High Court 3. No leave of house is required to move this
4. Passing of laws in the national interest on motion
the subject enumerated in state list 4. It is in the discretion of the government to
5. Creation of all India services. ¿nd time and ¿x a date for its discussion.
Select the correct answer by using the codes Which of the statements given above are not
given below: correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 19. Which among the following have the right to vote
(d) 1, 2 and 5 only in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the
16. With regard to union government, consider the Rajya Sabha?
following statements: 1. Elected members of the Lower House of the
1. The ministries /departments of government Parliament
of India are created by the PM on the advice 2. Elected members of the Upper House of the
of counsel of Ministers. Parliament
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a 3. Elected members of the Upper House of the
minister by the president on the advice of State Legislature.
PM. 4. Elected members of the Lower House of the
3. The administrative head of the cabinet State Legislature.
secretariat is also the ex-of¿cio chairman of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
the civil services Board (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only
Which of the statements given above are 20. The Dinesh Goswami committee was concerned
correct? with?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) De-nationalization of banks
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Electoral reforms
17 Consider the following statements regarding (c) Steps to put down insurgency in the north-
guidelines of the election commission to curb the east
paid news: (d) The problem of the chaknas
1. As per recent guidelines of the commission, 21. If in an election to a state Legislative Assembly,
candidates are required to reply within 48 the candidate who is declared elected loses his
hours to notices sent to them regarding paid deposit, it means that?
news. (a) The polling was very poor.
2. The recent guidelines issued by the election (b) The election was for a multi-member
commission will cover only cinema halls constituency.
and TV channels, but not FM radio (c) The elected candidate's victory over his
Which of the statements given is/are not correct? nearest rival was very marginal.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) A very large number of candidates contested
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the election.
22. Which one of the following is part of the Electoral 26. Match list I with list II and select the correct
College for the election of the president of India answer using the codes given below the lists :
but does not form part of the forum for his List I List II
impeachment? )XQFWLRQDULHV 2DWKVRUDI¿UPDWLRQV
(a) Lok Sabha A. President of India 1. Secrecy of
(b) Rajya Sabha Information
(c) State Legislative Councils B. Judges of Supreme 2. Faithful discharge
(d) State legislative Assemblies Court of duties
C. Members of 3. Faith and Allegiance
23. Proportional representation is NOT necessary in
Parliament to the constitution
a country where?
of India
(a) There are no reserved constituencies. D. Minister for 4. Upholding the
(b) A two-party system has developed the Union constitution and the
(c) The ¿rst past-post system prevails law
(d) There is a fusion of presidential and parlia- Codes:
mentary form of government. A B C D
24. If the PM belonged to the upper House of (a) 3 4 1 2
Parliament? (b) 4 3 2 1
(a) He will not be able to vote in his favour in (c) 3 4 2 1
the event of a no-con¿dence motion. (d) 4 3 1 2
(b) He will not be able to speak on the budget in 27. The Indian parliamentary system is different
the Lower House. from the British Parliamentary system in that
(c) He can make statements only in the Upper India has?
House. (a) Both a real and a nominal executive
(d) He has to become a member of the Lower (b) A system of collective responsibility
House within six months after swearing in (c) Bicameral legislature
as the PM. (d) The system of judicial review
25. Consider the following statements : 28. A college student desires to get elected to the
Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty-three municipal council of his city. The validity of
percent of seats for women in parliament and his nomination would depend on the important
state legislature does not require constitutional
condition, among others, that?
Amendment.
(a) He obtains permission from the principal of
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections
his college.
can allocate thirty-three per cent of seats they
(b) He is a member of a political party.
contest to women candidates without any
Constitutional Amendment (c) His name ¿gures in the voter’s list.
Which one of the following is correct? (d) He ¿les a declaration owing allegiance to
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct the constitution of India.
explanation of A. 29. The speaker can ask a member of the House to
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct stop speaking and let another member speak.
explanation of A. This phenomenon is known as?
(c) A is true but R is false. (a) Decorum (b) Crossing the Àoor
(d) A is false but R is true. (c) Interpolation (d) Yielding the Àoor
30. With reference to India polity, which one of the Total value of the votes of all elected MLAs
following statements is correct? Total no. of ellected MPs
(a) Planning commission is accountable to
parliament. 3. There were more than 5000 members in the
(b) President can make ordinance only when latest elections.
either of the two houses of parliament is not Which of these statements is/are correct?
in session. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
as a judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years. 35. Which of the following statements is not
(d) NDC is constituted of Union Finance Minister correct?
and the Chief Ministers of all the states. (a) In Lok Sabha, a no-con¿dence motion has to
31. The term of the Lok Sabha set out the grounds on which it is based.
(a) Can’t be extended under any circumstances (b) In the case of a no-con¿dence motion in Lok
(b) Can be extended by six months at a time Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have
(c) Can be extended by one year at a time during been laid down in the rules.
the proclamation of emergency (c) A motion of no-con¿dence once admitted
(d) Can be extended for two years at a time has to be taken up within ten days of leave
during the proclamation of emergency being granted.
32. The consultative committee of Members of (d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a
Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by motion of no-con¿dence.
the? 36. The resolution for removing the vice-president of
(a) President of India India can be moved in the?
(b) Ministry of Railways (a) Lok Sabha alone
(c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (b) Either House of Parliament
(c) Joint sitting of Parliament
(d) Ministry of Transport
(d) Rajya Sabha alone
33. Which one of the following statements is
37. Consider the following events :
correct?
1. Fourth general elections in India
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha
2. Formation of Haryana state
can have nominated members
3. Mysore named as Karnataka state
(b) There is a constitutional provision for
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full states
nominating two members belonging to the
Which one of the following is the correct
Anglo-Indian Community to the Rajya
chronological order of the above?
Sabha.
(a) 2-1-4-3 (b) 4-3-2-1
(c) There is no constitutional bar for nominated
(c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 4-1-2-3
members to be appointed as a Union Minister
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to
Presidential and Vice Presidential elections declare that it would be in national interest
34. Consider the following statements; for the parliament to legislate with respect to
In the electoral college for Presidential election in a matter in the state list.
India 2. Resolutions approving the proclamation
1. The value of the vote of an electoral member of emergency are passed only by the Lok
of Legislative Assembly equals. Sabha.
State population Which of the statements given is/are
u 100
No. of elected MLAs of the state correct?
2. The value of the vote of an electing member
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither1 nor 2
of parliament equals.
39. Consider the following statements: 43. Who among the following have held the of¿ce of
1. The chairman of the committee on public the Vice President of India?
accounts is appointed by the speakers of the (1) Mohd. Hidayatullah
Lok sabha (2) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
2. The committee on public Accounts (3) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
comprises members of Lok Sabha, members (4) Shankar Dayal Sharma
of Rajya sabha and a few eminent persons of Select the correct answer using the code given
industry and trade below:
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
correct? (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only 44. Department of Border management is a
(b) 2 only department of which one of the following Union
(c) Both 1 and 2 Ministers ?
(d) Niether1 nor 2 (a) Ministry of Defense
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs.
40. Consider the following statements given below:
(c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and
1. J. L. Nehru was in his fourth term as the PM
Highways
of India at the time of his death.
(d) Ministry of Environment and Forest.
2. J.L. Nehru represented Rae Bareilly 45. Consider the following statements regarding ‘No
constituency as a Member of Parliament. con¿dence motion’
3. The ¿rst non-congress PM of India assumed 1. Only a motion expressing want of
the of¿ce in the year 1977. con¿dence in the council of ministers as a
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? whole is admitted and one expressing lack
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only of con¿dence in an individual minister is out
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3 only of order
41. Consider the following statements and select the 2. A no con¿dence motion needs to set out
correct answer from the codes given below: grounds on which it is based.
Assertion (A): The council of ministers in the 3. Any no con¿dence motion once moved can’t
union of India is collectively responsible both to be withdrawn
the Lok sabha and the Rajya Sabha. 4. Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a
Reason (R): The members of both the Lok motion of no con¿dence
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Which of the following given above are not
Ministers of the Union Government. correct?
Codes: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) (A) and (R), both are correct
46. In both the Houses of Parliament under the
(b) (A) is correct and (R) is false
automotive vote recorder system each member
(c) (R) is correct and (A) is false
casts his vote from the seat allotted to him.
(d) (A) and (R), both are false Consider the following:
42. Which one of the following Bills must be passed 1. Green button represents AYES
by each House of the Indian parliament separately, 2. Red button represents ABSTAIN
by special majority. 3. Black button represent NOES
(a) Ordinary Bill Which of the above is/are correct?
(b) Money Bill (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Finance Bill (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
47. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Which of the statements given above is/are
effect of motions or resolutions adopted by the correct?
Houses of Parliament? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. The resolution expressing merely an (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
opinion of the Houses is not binding on the 51. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct
government. answer using the codes given below.
2. The resolutions adopted by the Houses on List - I List - II
matters concerning its own proceeding are A. First Vice- 1. V. T. Krishnamachari
not binding. president of
3. Resolutions having a statutory effect, if Constituent
adopted, are binding on the government.
Assembly
B. Originally the 2. Jawaharlal Nehru
48. When the House of people clearly and only Congress
conclusively determines that the government does Member of Draft
not command its support, the government has Committee
to resign. By which of the ways parliamentary C. Member of 3. K. M. Munshi
con¿dence in the government may be expressed Constitutent
by the House of People? Assembly
1. Defeating the government on a major issue representing
of policy. Rajasthan’s
2. Passing an adjournment motion Princely States
3. Defeating the government on ¿nance issues D. Chairman of 4. H. C. Mukherjee
4. Passing a motion of no con¿dence in the Union
council of ministers. Constitution
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only Committee
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Codes:
49. With reference to Union Government consider A B C D
the following statements :
(a) 1 4 2 3
1. The constitution of India provides that all
(b) 4 3 1 2
cabinet ministers shall be compulsorily the
sitting members of Lok Sabha only. (c) 1 2 3 4
2. The Union cabinet secretariat operates under (d) 3 4 1 2
the direction of the ministry of Parliamentary 52. Consider the following statements related to
Affairs. women members of 15th Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. They are less than 10% of the total members
correct? of the Lok Sabha.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. The maximum women members are from
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Indian National Congress.
50. With reference to Union Government consider 3. Three women members are elected from
the following statements: Rajasthan.
1. The ministries/Departments of the 4. The maximum women members are elected
government of India are created by the PM from Uttar Pradesh.
on the advice of the cabinet secretary. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
2. Each of the ministries is assigned to a (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
minister by the president of India on the
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
advice of the PM.
53. Consider the following and select correct answer Codes:

by using codes given below A B C D
1. The Governor shall take oath or af¿rmation (a) 3 1 2 4
before entering upon his of¿ce. (b) 1 3 2 4
2. The format of oath or af¿rmation is given in (c) 1 2 3 4
the Third schedule of Indian Constitution. (d) 1 2 4 3
3. The Governor shall make and subscribe the 56. Consider the following facts about Comptroller
oath or af¿rmation in the presence of Chief and auditor general of India, and choose the correct
Justice of the High Court or in his absence answer:
senior most judge of that Court. 1. CAG is a constitutional Body.
4. The process of oath and af¿rmation is given 2. CAG has absolute power to audit accounts
in the Article 159 of Indian Constitution. of all the functionaries of Central and States’
Codes: governments as well as of private corporate
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 bodies.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) Only 1 is correct
54. Select the constitutional duties of the Chief (b) Only 2 is correct
Minister from following by using codes given (c) 1 and 2 both are correct
below (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
57. Which of the following pairs of Constitutional
1. The Chief Minister communicates to the
authority and procedure of appointment is/are
Governor all decisions of the Council of
correctly matched?
Ministers related to the administration of the
1. President: Elected by an electoral college
affairs of the State.
consisting of elected MLAs and MPs.
2. The Chief Minister communicates to the
2. Vice-president: Elected by an electoral
Governor the proposals for legislation.
college consisting of MLAs and MPs.
3. The Chief Minister participates in the
3. Speaker: The House of People chooses after
meetings of National Development Council.
its ¿rst sitting.
4. The Chief Minister submits for the
consideration of the Council of Ministers any
below:
matter on which decision has been taken by (a) 1, 2 and 3
a minister but which has not been considered (b) 1 only
by the council as if the Governor requires. (c) 1 and 3 only
Codes: (d) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
55. Consider the List-I and List-II and choose the about Indian Government?
correct code given below. 1. Rajya Sabha represents the local interests of
List - I List - II the States.
A. National Front 1. 1996-98 2. A member of Rajya Sabha must be a resident
B. United Front 2. 1998-2004 of the State from which he is elected.
C. National 3. 1989-90 3. Number of seats allotted to a State has to be
Democratic
proportionate to its population.
Alliance
D. United Progressive 4. 2004-14 4. The term of a member of Rajya Sabha is same
Alliance as that of Senator in the US.
Codes: 62. Which of the following are the principles on
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 the basis of which the Parliamentary system of
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 government in India operates ?
59. Given below are two statements, one labelled as 1. Nominal Executive Head
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason 2. Vice-President as the Chairman of the Upper
(R). Find the correct answer using the codes given House
3. Real executive authority with the Council of
below.
Ministers.
Assertion (A) : Adequate measures must be taken
4. Executive responsibility to the Lower House
by the Government to ensure the stop page of the
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
practice of corruption. below :
Reason (R) : Corruption leads to decline of (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
democratic process. (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Codes : 63. Match List I with List II and select the correct
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not answer using the codes given below :
correct explanation of (A). List-I List -II
(b) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (Types of (Characteristics)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct *RYHUQPHQW
explanation of (A). A. Parliamentary 1. Cenralisation of powers
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. Government
60. Consider the following facts about the disallowance B. Presidential 2. Division of powers
of State legislation. Government
C. Federal System 3. Separation of powers
1. The President has no direct power to disallow
D. Unitary System 4. Collective responsibility
a bill passed by the state legislative assembly. Codes :
2. But there is a provision for disallowance of A B C D
the bill, passed by state legislative assembly, (a) 2 1 4 3
as are reserved by the State Governor for (b) 4 3 2 1
assent of the President. (c) 2 3 4 1
(a) 1 only (d) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 only 64. Consider the following statements and select the
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct answer from the codes given below :
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct Assertion (A) : In a parliamentary democracy
61. Consider the following statements: like India the Government
1. The ¿rst Public Service Commission in goes out of power if the
India was set up in the year 1926, on the Lower House passes a no-
recommendation of the Lee Commission on con¿dence motion against the
the Superior Civil Services in India. Government.
2. The Government of India Act, 1935, provided Reason (R) : The Constitution of India
provides for the removal of
for setting up of public service commissions
the Prime Minister through a
at both the federal and provincial levels.
no-con¿dence motion passed
in the Lok Sabha.
correct?
Codes :
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is Assertion (A) : India is a Union of States and not
not the correct explanation of A a Federal State.
(c) A is true but R is false Reason (R) : In the Indian Constitution, the
(d) A is false but R is true Centre is given emergency
65. Consider the following statements and select the powers which can convert the
correct answer from the codes given below : Federal State into a Unitary State.
Assertion (A) : Parliamentary system of Codes :
government is based on (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
the principle of collective the correct explanation of A
responsibility. (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
Reason (R) : A parliamentary defeat is not the correct explanation of A
not necessarily a suf¿cient (c) A is true but R is false
cause for resignation of the (d) A is false but R is true
Ministry. 69. Consider the following statements and select the
Codes : correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is Assertion(A) : K.C. Wheare calls Indian
the correct explanation of A Constitution a quasi-federal
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is Constitution.
not the correct explanation of A Reason (R) : There are three lists (Union, State
(c) A is true but R is false and Concurrent) in the Seventh
(d) A is false but R is true Schedule of the Constitution of
66. Consider the following features : India dividing powers between
1. Presence of a nominal or titular head of state the Centre and the state and
2. Collective responsibility of cabinet giving residuary powers to the
3. Accountability of executive to the legislature central government.
4. Separation of powers Codes :
Which of these are the features of a parliamentary (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
form of Government ?
the correct explanation of A
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
67. Which of following federal principles are not
found in Indian federation ?
1. Bifurcation of the judiciary between the
70. Match List I with List II and select the correct
Federal and State Governments
2. Equality of representation of the states in the
List-I List -II
upper house of the Federal Legislature
3. The Union cannot be destroyed by any state )RUPVRI (Essential Features)
seceding from the Union at its will *RYHUQPHQW
A. Cabinet 1. Separation of powers
4. Federal Government can redraw the map of
Government
the Indian Union by forming new States
Select the correct answer using the codes given B. Presidential 2. Collective responsibility
below : Government
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 C. Federal 3. Concentration of powers
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4 D. Government 4. Division of powers
68. Consider the following statements and select the Unitary 5. Administrative law
Government
Codes : C. Taxes levied and 3. Capitation tax
A B C D collected by the
(a) 3 4 2 5 Centre but assigned
(b) 2 1 4 3 to the States
(c) 3 5 1 2 D. Taxes levied 4. Taxes on lands and
(d) 4 1 2 5 and collected by buildings
71. Consider the following statements : the Centre and
1. For the Parliament to make laws with respect distributed between
to any matter enumerated in the State List, a the Union and the
resolution must be passed in both the Houses States
of the Parliament. 5. Taxes on
2. A resolution passed as stated above can be consignment of
extended beyond one year. goods in the course
Which of the statements given above is / are of inter-state trade
correct ? Codes :
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 A B C D
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 5 4 2
72. Consider the following statements and select the (b) 2 4 5 1
correct answer from the codes given below : (c) 1 3 5 2
Assertion(A) : The All-India Services violate (d) 2 5 4 1
the federal principal of the 74. Which of the following statements regarding the
Constitution as well as the residuary powers in the Constitution of India are
autonomy of States. correct ?
Reason (R) : The All-India Service of¿cers are 1. Residuary powers have been given to the
governed by Central Government Union Parliament
rules and the State Government 2. In the matter of residuary powers, the
do not have full control over Constitution of India follows the Constitution
them. of Australia
Codes : 3. The ¿nal authority to decide whether a
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is particular matter falls under the residuary
the correct explanation of A power or not is the Parliament
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is 4. The Government of India Act, 1935 placed
not the correct explanation of A residuary powers in the hands of the
(c) A is true but R is false Governor-General
(d) A is false but R is true Select the correct answer using the codes given
73. Match List I with List II and select the correct below :
answer using the codes given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
List-I List -II (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
(Source) (Tax) 75. Which of the following is/are correctly matched ?
A. Taxes levied by the 1. Taxes on income 1 Duty levied by the : Succession duty and
Union but collected other than Union but collected estate duty in respect
and appropriated by agriculture and appropriated by of property other than
the States the States agricultural land
B. Taxes levied, 2. Stamp duties 2. Taxes levied and : Stamps duties and
collected and collected by the duties of excise on
retained by states Union but assigned medicinal and toilet
to the States preparations
Choose the correct answer from the codes given (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
below : not the correct explanation of A
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) A is true but R is false
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) A is false but R is true
76. Which of the following constitutional provisions 79. Consider the following pairs :
facilitate Union control over States ? 1 Taxes levied by the : Stamps duties
1. All-India services Union but collected
2. Grants-in-aid and appropriated by
3. Inter-State Councils the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given 2. Taxes levied and : Taxes on the sale of
below : collected by the goods in the course of
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Centre but assigned inter-state trade
to the States
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the pair given above is/are correctly
matched :
correct answer from the codes given below : (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Assertion (A): Sarkaria Commission recommended (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
that the Governor of a state should 80. Which of the following formed a part of the
be appointed after consultation terms of reference of the Punchhi Commission
with the Chief Minister of the on Centre-State Relations constituted by the
State. Government of India ?
Reason (R) : This could be achieved through 1. Panchayati Raj institutions
amending Article 165 of the 2. Communal violence
Indian Constitution. 3. An integrated domestic market
Codes : 4. Central Law Enforcement Agency
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is Select the correct answer using the codes given
the correct explanation of A below :
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
not the correct explanation of A (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) A is true but R is false 81. Match List I with List II and select the correct
(d) A is false but R is true answer using the codes given below :
78. Consider the following statements and select the List-I List-II
correct answer from the codes given below : (Source) (Tax)
Assertion (A): Parliament or a State Legislature A. Taxes levied by the 1. Income Tax
should keep within the domain Union of India and
assigned to it and one should not assigned to the Centre
B. Tax levied by the Union 2. Land Revenue
trespass into the domain reserved
of India but assigned to
for the other.
the States
Reason (R) : Legislation will be invalid if it
C. Tax levied by the State 3. Taxes on goods of
encroaches on matters which and assigned to the State inter-state trade
have been assigned to another D. Tax levied by the Union 4. Surcharge
legislature. of India and distributed
Codes : between the Union and
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the States
Codes : 84. Consider the following statement :
A B C D 1. The President nominates twelve members of
(a) 4 1 2 3 the Rajya Sabha on the advice of the Council
(b) 2 3 4 1 of Ministers.
(c) 2 1 4 3 2. The President has absolute power to appoint
(d) 4 3 2 1 and remove the Chairman and members of
82. Consider the following statement : statutory bodies at his discretion.
1. No Proclamation of Emergency can be made Which of the statements given above is/are
by the President of India unless the Union correct ?
Ministers of Cabinet rank, headed by the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Prime Minister, recommended to him, in
85. Consider the following statement :
writing, that such a Proclamation should be 1. The President can commute death sentence
issued. to life imprisonment.
2. The President of India must issue a 2. The Governor cannot commute death
Proclamation of Revocation of Emergency sentence to life imprisonment.
any time that the Lok Sabha passes a 3. The President’s power to pardon extends to
punishments or sentences by court martial.
resolution disapproving the proclamation or
its continuance. correct ?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
correct ? (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 86. Consider the following statements and select the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct answer from the codes given below :
83. Consider the following statements and select the Assertion (A): President of India is the Chief
Executive of Government of India.
Reason (R) : President of India is elected by the
Assertion (A): An imminent danger of war elected members of Parliament
or external aggression is not and elected members of state
enough for the proclamation of legislative assemblies.
emergency. Codes :
Reason (R) : The Proclamation of Emergency (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
shall cease to operate at the
expiration of one month unless not the correct explanation of A
approved by both the Houses of (c) A is true but R is false
Parliament. (d) A is false but R is true
Codes : 87. Consider the following statement :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is The charge of violation of the Constitution by the
President of India for his impeachment cannot be
preferred by a House unless:
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is 1. A resolution containing the proposal is
not the correct explanation of A moved after a seven days notice in writing
(c) A is true but R is false signed by not less than 1/4th of the total
(d) A is false but R is true number of the members of that House.
2. The resolution is passed by the majority of Codes :

not less than 2/3rd of the total membership (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
of that House. the correct explanation of A.
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
correct ? not the correct explanation of A.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) A is true but R is false.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) A is false but R is true.
Assertion (A): The President is part of the
Assertion (A): The President of India can return Parliament.
any bill passed by Parliament of Reason (R) : A bill passed by the two Houses
reconsideration of the Houses. of Parliament cannot become
Reason (R) : The President cannot return law without the assent of the
money bills to the Parliament for President.
reconsideration of the Houses. Codes :
Codes : (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false.
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true.
(d) A is false but R is true 92. Which of the following bodies are headed by the
89. Consider the following statements relating to the Prime Minister ?
1. National Integration Council
President of India :
2. National Water Resources Council
1. He may resign by writing to the Vice-President.
3. National Development Council
2. He shall continue, not withstanding the
4. Inter-State Council
expiration of his term, to hold of¿ce until 5. Zonal Council
his successor enters upon his of¿ce. Select the correct answer using the codes given
3. His is not entitled to hold the of¿ce for more below:
than two terms. (a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 3, 4 and 5
Which of the statements given above are correct ? (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only 93. Who of the following became Prime Minister
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only after being Chief Ministers ?
90. Consider the following statements and select the 1. P.V. Narasimha Rao
correct answer from the codes given below : 2. Charan Singh
Assertion (A): The President of India occupies 3. H.D. Deve Gowda
almost the same position as the 4. V.P. Singh
King or Queen of England. 5. Morarji Desai
Reason (R) : The President is ultimately bound Select the correct answer from the codes given
to act in accordance with the below :
advice given by the Council of (a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 4
Ministers. (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 4
94. Consider the following statements and select the such date as the Prime Minister may ¿x and
correct answer from the codes given below : the Secretary General shall send to every
Assertion (A): Collective responsibility of member notice of this date.
the Cabinet signi¿es unity and 2. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be
coordination among members of held on such date as the Speaker may ¿x and
the Council of Ministers. the Secretary General shall send to every
Reason (R) : It is the prerogative of the Prime member notice of this date.
Minister to select or drop a Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
member of the Cabinet. correct?
Codes : (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
1. The nature of a Bill, if it is certi¿ed by the
(c) A is true but R is false Speaker of the House of People as a Money
(d) A is false but R is true Bill, is not open to question in a Court of
95. Consider the following statement : Law.
1. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which 2. The President of India has the power to
has not been passed by the Lok Sabha shall question the nature of a Bill to be taken as a
lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Money Bill even if it is certi¿ed to be so by
2. A bill pending in Parliament shall lapse by the Speaker of the House of People.
reason of the propogation of the Houses. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
correct ? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 99. Consider the following statement :
96. Consider the following statement : The expenditure charged on the Consolidated
1. The Chairman of the Council of States Fund of India comprises:
or Speaker of the House of the People, or 1. Pension payable to Judges of High Court
person acting as such, shall not vote at any
2. Debt charges for which the Government of
sitting of either House of Parliament or joint
India is liable
sitting of the House in the ¿rst instance, but
shall have and exercise a casting vote in the 3. Salary, allowances and pension payable to
case of an equality of votes. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
2. A person is quali¿ed to ¿ll a seat in the Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Council of States or House of the People if (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
he is not less than twenty-¿ve years of age. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are 100. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
correct ? matched?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 6WDWH 1RRIPHPEHUVLQWKH
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 5DM\D6DEKD
97. Consider the following statements relating to the (a) Maharashtra – 19
procedure of the election of the Speaker and the (b) Tamil Nadu – 18
Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha: (c) Bihar – 18
1. The election of a Speaker shall be held on (d) West Bengal – 16
101. Consider the following statements and select the Codes :

correct answer from the codes given below : A B C D
Assertion (A): After a Money Bill is passed by (a) 2 3 4 1
the Lok Sabha and transmitted (b) 1 4 3 2
to the Rajya Sabha, the (c) 2 4 3 1
recommendations of the Rajya (d) 1 3 4 2
Sabha have to be accepted by the 104. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of
Lok Sabha within 14 days from ‘Zero Hour’ discussion?
receipt of the recommendations 1. It is not directed against individual Minister.
and then get them incorporated in 2. It covers questions raised over matters of
the Bill. public importance.
Reason (R) : A Money Bill cannot be introduced Select the correct answer using the codes given
in the Rajya Sabha. below:
Codes : (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the correct explanation of A 105. Which of the following regarding the Rajya
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is Sabha are correct?
not the correct explanation of A 1. It is not subject to dissolution.
(c) A is true but R is false 2. It has a term of six years.
(d) A is false but R is true 3. One-third of its members retire after every
102. Consider the following statements and select the two years.
correct answer from the codes given below : 4. Its members shall not be less than 25 year of
Assertion (A): Money bills originate only in the age.
Lower House of Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given
Reason (R) : The Lower House of the below:
Parliament is a popularly elected (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
body. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Codes : 106. Consider the following statements with respect to
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the powers of the Governor of a State :
the correct explanation of A 1. The governor can summon, prorogue and
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is dissolve the State Assembly.
not the correct explanation of A 2. The Governor can adjourn the sittings of the
(c) A is true but R is false State Assembly.
(d) A is false but R is true 3. The Governor addresses the ¿rst session of
103. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct the Legislative Assembly after elections.
answer by using the codes given below: 4. The Governor causes to lay the annual budget
List-I List-II in the State Assembly.
6XEMHFW (Article of the Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Constitution of (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
India) (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
A. Annual Financial Statement 1. Article 110 107. Which of the following are functions to which the
or Budget scope of the discretionary powers of the Governor
B. Supplementary, additional 2. Article 112 is limited ?
or excess grants 1. The appointment of the Chief Minister
C. Appropriation Bill 3. Article 114 2. The dismissal of the Ministry
D. De¿nition of ‘Money Bill’ 4. Article 115
3. The dissolution of the Legislative Assembly Reason (R) : The President of India can
4. Assent to Bills disallow a Bill passed by a
Choose the correct answer from the codes given State Legislature or return it for
below : reconsideration.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Codes :
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
108. Consider the following statements: the correct explanation of A
The Governor of a State has the power of appoint: (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
1. Judges of the High Court not the correct explanation of A
2. Members of the State Public Service (c) A is true but R is false
Commission (d) A is false but R is true
3. Members of the State Finance Commission 112. Consider the following statements and select the
4. The Accountant General correct answer from the codes given below :
Which of these statements are correct? Assertion (A): The Chief Minister of a State
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 is the head of the Council of
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ministers of that State.
109. Consider the following statements: Reason (R) : The Chief Minister is responsible
Under Article 200 of the Constitution of India, to the State Legislative Assembly
the Governor may: and enjoys the support of a
1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the majority in the House.
State Legislature. Codes :
2. Reserve the Bill passed by the State (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
Legislature for the consideration of the
President.
3. Return a Bill, other than a Money Bill, for
reconsideration of the legislature.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
113. In which of the following bodies, does the Chief
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Minister of a State hold membership?
110. On which of the following issues can a Governor
1. National Integration Council
make recommendation to the President?
2. National Development Council
1. Dismissal of the State Council of Ministers
2. Removal of the Judges of the High Court 3. Inter-State Council
3. Dissolution of the State Legislative 4. Zonal Council
Assembly Select the correct answer from the codes given
4. Declaration of the breakdown of the below :
Constitution Machinery in the State (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the codes given (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
below : 114. Consider the following statements :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 1. The Governor cannot function without the
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 State Council of Ministers.
111. Consider the following statements and select the 2. A person who is not a member of the
correct answer from the codes given below : State Legislature cannot be appointed as a
Assertion (A): Reservation of a State Bill for minister.
the assent of the President is 3. The State Council of Ministers can function
a discretionary power of the for sometime even after death or resignation
Governor. of the Chief Minister.
4. In the absence of the Chief Minister, only the 4. To advise on the principles to be followed in
Home Minister can preside over emergency respect of promotions and transfers.
meetings of the State Council of Ministers. Select the correct answer using the codes given
Which of these is / are correct ? below :
(a) Only 1 (b) 3 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
115. The salaries and allowances of the Council of 120. Consider the following statements :
Ministers of the State Government are paid from A member of the Union Public Service
the : Commission is :
(a) Reserve Bank of India 1. Debarred from re-appointment as a member
(b) Treasury of the State Government 2. Ineligible for any other employment under
(c) Contingency Fund of the State the Central or State Government
(d) Consolidated Fund of the State 3. Disquali¿ed from becoming a constitutional
116. The ministers in the Council of Ministers at the functionary like a Governor
state level are appointed by : Of the above statements :
(a) President of the party (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) Governor (b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) Chief Minister (c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) Prime Minister
(d) 1 and 2 are correct
117. The President can make regulations for the peace,
progress and good government of the:
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Assertion (A): The Union Public Service
2. Lakshadweep
3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli Commission must be consulted
4. Daman and Diu as regards the reservation of posts
5. Chandigarh for Backward classes, Scheduled
Select the correct answer from the codes given Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
below : Reason (R) : The functions of the Union Public
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Service Commission are only
(c) 2, 3 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 3 advisory and the Government
118. Which/Who of the following can appoint a need not act upon the advice of
commission to examine and report on any matter the Commission in any case.
relating to the administration of the autonomous Codes :
districts or regions? (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
(a) Legislative Assembly of the State the correct explanation of A
(b) Governor of the State (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
(c) President of India not the correct explanation of A
(d) Parliament of India (c) A is true but R is false
119. Which of the following are the functions of the (d) A is false but R is true
Union Public Service Commission? 122. Consider the following statements and select the
1. To conduct examinations for recruitment to correct answer from the codes given below :
the services of the Union. Assertion (A): No quali¿cations have been
2. To advise on matters referred to it by the prescribed for the membership
President or the Governor.
of the Union Public Service
3. To advise on all disciplinary matters
Commission.
affecting a government servant.
Reason (R) : The Constitutions does not ¿x the Codes :
number of members of the Union (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
Public Service Commission. the correct explanation of A
Codes : (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
the correct explanation of A (d) A is false but R is true
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is 126. Consider the following statements and select the
not the correct explanation of A correct answer from the codes given below :
(c) A is true but R is false Assertion (A): The Finance Commission
(d) A is false but R is true prescribes the framework for
123. Consider the following statements and select the the working of the Planning
Commission.
Reason (R) : The jurisdiction and functions
Assertion (A): UPSC is an independent of the Finance Commission are
organisation. outlined in the Constitution of
Reason (R) : UPSC is a constitutional body. India.
Codes : Codes :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
the correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true
(d) A is false but R is true 127. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
124. Consider the following statements : answer by using the codes given below:
A member of the Union Public Service List-I List-II
Commission )LQDQFH&RPPLVVLRQ &KDLUPDQ
1. Is appointed by the President of India. A. First Finance 1. P.V. Rajamannar
2. Is ineligible for re-appointment to that Commission
of¿ce. B. Fourth Finance 2. K.C. Neogy
3. Holds of¿ce for a period of 6 years or till the Commission
age of 60 years, whichever is earlier. C. Sixth Finance 3. Y.B. Chavan
Of the above statements : Commission
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct D. Eighth Finance 4. Brahamananda
(b) 1 and 2 are correct Commission Reddy
(c) 2 and 3 are correct Codes :
(d) 1 and 3 are correct A B C D
correct answer from the codes given below : (b) 4 3 2 1
Assertion (A): After being chairman of UPSC, (c) 2 3 4 1
one cannot become a member of (d) 4 1 2 3
Central or State legislature. 128. The principles concerning the provisions of the
Reason (R) : He is completely debarred from grant-in-aid to the States out of the Consolidated
any future employment under Fund of India are recommended by the :
the Central or State Government (a) Planning Commission
after retirement. (b) Administrative Reforms Commission
(c) Finance Commission
(d) Public Accounts Committee
129. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Which of the statements given above is / are
answer by using the codes given below: correct ?
List-I List-II (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(Bodies) (Articles) (c) 1 only (d) 2 and 4
A. Finance Commission 1. Article 148 131. Consider the following statements:
B. Union Public Service 2. Article 280 1. The ¿rst National Commission for
Commission Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was
C. Election Commission 3. Article 315 constituted in the year 1992.
D. Comptroller and 4. Article 324 2. The ¿rst National Commission for
Auditor-General of India Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was
Codes : constituted under the Constitution (Sixty-
A B C D ¿fth Amendment) Act.
(a) 4 1 2 3 3. The 87th Amendment bifurcated the
(b) 2 3 4 1 combined National Commission for
(c) 4 3 2 1 Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into
(d) 2 1 4 3 two separate bodies.
130. Consider the following statements about the Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Finance Commission: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
1. The duty of the Finance Commission is to (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
make recommendations as to the distribution 132. Consider the following Vice-Presidents of India:
of revenue resources between the Union and 1. V.V. Giri 2. M. Hidayatullah
the States. 3. B.D. Jatti 4. G.S. Pathak
2. It is appointed every ¿fth year by the Which on of the following is the correct
President of India chronology of their tenures?
3. It raises revenue for central ¿nancial (a) 1-4-3-2 (b) 2-1-3-4
transfers to the States. (c) 3-2-1-4 (d) 4-1-3-2
4. It borrows money form the market for
central grants to the States.
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 15. (c) 29. (d) 43. (b) 57. (c) 71. (b) 85. (b) 99. (a) 113. (c) 127. (a)
2. (b) 16. (b) 30. (b) 44. (b) 58. (c) 72. (a) 86. (b) 100. (c) 114. (a) 128. (c)
3. (a) 17. (b) 31. (b) 45. (d) 59. (a) 73. (b) 87. (b) 101. (d) 115. (d) 129. (b)
4. (d) 18. (a) 32. (c) 46. (a) 60. (c) 74. (c) 88. (d) 102. (a) 116. (b) 130. (a)
5. (d) 19. (d) 33. (d) 47. (d) 61. (c) 75. (d) 89. (b) 103. (c) 117. (b) 131. (a)
6. (a) 20. (b) 34. (b) 48. (d) 62. (c) 76. (d) 90. (a) 104. (b) 118. (b) 132. (a)
7. (a) 21. (d) 35. (a) 49. (d) 63. (b) 77. (c) 91. (a) 105. (c) 119. (c)
8. (b) 22. (d) 36. (d) 50. (b) 64. (b) 78. (a) 92. (c) 106. (b) 120. (d)
9. (b) 23. (b) 37. (a) 51. (b) 65. (c) 79. (c) 93. (c) 107. (a) 121. (d)
10 (c) 24. (a) 38. (a) 52. (c) 66. (d) 80. (d) 94. (b) 108. (b) 122. (b)
11. (d) 25. (d) 39. (a) 53. (b) 67. (c) 81. (d) 95. (d) 109. (d) 123. (a)
12. (a) 26. (b) 40. (d) 54. (d) 68. (a) 82. (c) 96. (a) 110. (c) 124. (b)
13. (d) 27. (d) 41. (c) 55. (a) 69. (a) 83. (d) 97. (b) 111. (b) 125. (d)
14. (b) 28. (c) 42. (d) 56. (a) 70. (b) 84. (a) 98. (a) 112. (a) 126. (d)
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) All the members of the Lok Sabha, except two 5. (d) The given bodies like NDC, Interstate council,
members may be nominated by the President from NWRC and NIC are headed by the Prime Minister
Anglo-Indian Community. of India. NDC-The National Development Council
2. (b) Parliamentary committee in India presents (NDC) or the Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex
its report to the speaker/Chairman of the house. body for decision making and deliberations on
The work done by the Parliament in modern times development matters in India, presided over by the
is not only varied and complex in nature, but also Prime Minister. It was set up on 6 August 1952 to
considerable in volume. The time at its disposal is strengthen and mobilize the efforts and resources
limited. It cannot, therefore, give close consideration of the nation in support of the Plan, to promote
to all the legislative and other matters that come up common economic policies in all vital spheres, and
before it. A good deal of its business is, therefore, to ensure the balanced and rapid development of all
transacted in Committees of the House, known as parts of the country. Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan
Parliamentary Committees. Singh has reconstituted the Inter-State Council.
3. (a) Separation of powers between the Union and NWRC- National Water Resources Council was
state government or federal system may exist under set up by the Government of India in March 1983.
the presidential government system also as it is The Prime Minister is the Chairman. The National
found in the United states of America. The doctrine Integration Council (NIC) is a group of senior
of “separation of powers” envisages the concept of politicians and public ¿gures in India that looks
division of powers. In India, the fountain-head of for ways to address the problems of communalism,
power is the Constitution. casteism and regionalism.
4. (d) The Chairman of legislative council is elected 6. (a) Since the cabinet is a part of the council of
by the members of state legislative council. ministers, it never can be superior to that.
7. (a) The ¿rst reading of the bill in a house of speci¿ed in sub-clauses (a) to (f) of clause (1) of
parliament refers to motion for leave to introduce the article 110 of the Constitution. Financial bills can
bill in the House.If a motion for leave to introduce be further classi¿ed as ¿nancial bills categories A
a Bill is opposed, the Speaker, after permitting, if and B. Category A bills contain provisions dealing
he thinks ¿t, brief statements from the member who with any of the matters speci¿ed in sub-clauses (a)
opposes the motion and the member who moved to (f) of clause (1) of article 110 and other matters
the motion, may, without further debate, put the and Category B bills involve expenditure from
question: provided that where a motion is opposed the consolidated fund of India. The bill requires
on the ground that the Bill initiates legislation prior assent of the president before presenting
outside the legislative competence of the House, in the parliament and is related to formation of
the Speaker may permit a full discussion thereon. boundaries of state, money-bill, expenditure from
Provided further that the Speaker shall forthwith put the consolidated fund etc.
to vote the motion for leave to introduce a Finance 14. (b) Department of of¿cial languages is subordinate
Bill or an Appropriation Bill. of¿ce of the Ministry of Home affairs. It deals
8. (b) The ministers are not liable for the of¿cial acts with the implementation of the provisions of the
done by the president and the governors on their Constitution relating to of¿cial languages and the
advice as the courts are debarred from inquiring into provisions of the Of¿cial Languages Act, 1963.
such cases. 15. (c) Both the Houses have been enshrined with
9. (b) According to Article 317 of the constitution equal powers on the matter of impeachment of
of India, the chairman or any other member of a judges of the High Courts. Soumitra Sen is a retired
PSC shall be removed from his of¿ce by the order judge of the Calcutta High Court. He was the ¿rst
of the president with reference to the supreme court judge in independent India to be impeached in
on reference being made to it by the President, has, India's Rajya Sabha for misappropriation of funds.
on inquiry, held in accordance with the procedure 16. (b) The ministry / department of government of
prescribed in that behalf under Article 145, reported India is created by the PM on the advice of cabinet
that the Chairman or such other member, as the case secretary. The administrative head of the cabinet
may be, ought on any such ground to be removed. secretariat is also the ex-of¿cio chairman of the civil
10. (c) A Governor can make recommendation, to services board.
the president on dissolution of the state legislative 17. (b) The new guidelines issued by the Election
assembly and the declaration of the breakdown commission on Oct 9, 2012 will cover cinema
of the constitution machinery in the state. Under halls besides TV channels, cable networks and
article 356 State emergency is declared on failure radio including private FM channels. The Election
of constitutional machinery in a state. Nearly every Commission of India (EC) has issued guidelines
state in India has been under a state of emergency regarding media coverage under section 126 of
at some point of time or the other. The state of Representation of People Act, 1951. As per a
emergency is commonly known as 'President's press release issued by the EC, Section 126 of the
Rule'. Representation of the People, Act 1951, prohibits
11. (d) A no con¿dence motion does not need to set displaying any election matter by means, inter alia,
out grounds on which it is based. The withdrawal of television or similar apparatus, during the period
of the notice of no con¿dence motion by a member of 48 hours before the hour ¿xed for conclusion of
may be made when he is called upon by the speaker poll in a constituency.
to ask for leave of the House. 18. (a) It must state the grounds on which it is based.
12. (a) The state Election Commission is the Censure motion can be moved against the council
constitutional body responsible for conducting of ministers or an individual minister or a group of
and supervising elections to the local bodies in the Ministers. "Censure" is meant to show disapproval
state. and does not result in the resignation of ministers.
13. (d) Money Bills are those Bills which contain only The censure motion can be against an individual
provisions dealing with all or any of the matters minister or a group of ministers.
19. (d) Article 80 states that the state legislature Crossing the Àoor = Changing the party
participates in the election of the members of Rajya Interpolation = Seeking clari¿cation through ruling
Sabha and also of the president (Art.54) Yielding the Àoor = Respecting speaker’s order
20. (b) In general, the Dinesh Goswami committee 30. (b) President can promulgate ordinances when
(1990) was concerned with electoral reforms. The the parliament is not in session. These ordinances
Goswami Committee on electoral reforms stated must be approved by the parliament within six
that irregularities in electoral rolls are exacerbated weeks from its re-assembly. Article 123 in the
by purposeful tampering done by election of¿cials Constitution of India 1949 describes the power of
who are bought by vested interests or have partisan President to promulgate Ordinances during recess
attitudes. of Parliament. If at any time, except when both
21. (d) A candidate loses his deposit only when he Houses of Parliament are in session, the President
is polled less than 1/6th of votes. It can only be is satis¿ed that circumstances exist which render it
possible when a very large number of candidates necessary for him to take immediate action, he may
contested the elections. promulgate such Ordinance as the circumstances
22. (d) State legislature assemblies, both houses of the appear to him to require.
parliament form part of the electoral college for the 31. (b) The term of Lok Sabha can be extended
election of the president. An electoral college is a during the period of national emergency by a law of
set of electors who are selected to elect a candidate parliament for six months at a time for any length of
to a particular of¿ce. Often these represent different time.
organizations or entities, with each organization or 32. (c) The ministry of parliamentary affairs
entity represented by a particular number of electors constitutes consultative committees of MPs attached
or with votes weighted in a particular way. to various ministers and arranges meetings thereof.
23. (b) In proportional representation, a candidate 33. (d) Article 368-A states that constitutional
requires 50% + 1 vote to get elected. In a bi-party Amendment bill must be passed by each House
system, one automatically secures it. Proportional separately with a special majority. Amendment
representation (PR) is a concept in voting systems of the Constitution of India is the process of
used to elect an assembly or council. PR means making changes to the nation's fundamental law or
that the number of seats won by a party or group of supreme law. The procedure of amendment in the
candidates is proportionate to the number of votes constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368)
received. of the Constitution of India. This procedure ensures
24. (a) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the the sanctity of the Constitution of India and keeps a
event of a no-con¿dence motion. check on arbitrary power of the Parliament.
25. (d) The reservation of 33% of seats for women 34. (b) The value of the vote of an electing member of
in parliament and state legislature requires parliament equals.
constitutional amendment. 35. (a) ‘No-con¿dence motion’ need not state the
26. (b) President- Upholding the constitution and the reason for it being adopted in the Lok Sabha
law; 36. (d) A formal impeachment is not required for
Judge of the supreme court- Faith and allegiance to vice-president’s removal, he can be removed by a
the constitution of India; Members of Parliament- resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective
Faithful Discharge of Duties; majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
Minister for the Union-Secrecy of Information 37. (a) Haryana state - Act 1966
27. (d) Independence of judiciary and judicial review Fourth Lok Sabha - 16th March 1967
have been taken from the U.S. constitution. In the Manipur Tripura and Meghalaya- Act, 1971
context of U.K. the parliament is supreme. Karnataka - Act, 1973
28. (c) The validity of nomination of a person to get 38. (a) The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to
elected to the municipal council would depend on declare that it would be in national interest for the
the condition that his name should be ¿gured in the parliament to legislative with respect to a matter in
voter’s list. the state list.
29. (d) Decorum = Parliamentary etiquette
39. (a) ‘Committee on public Accounts’ consists of be in the form of a declaration of opinion, or a
22 members, 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from recommendation; or may be in the form so as
Rajya Sabha. A Lok Sabha member from a major to record either approval or disapproval by the
opposition party is appointed its chairman. The House of an act or policy of government, or
Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a committee convey a message; or commend, urge or request an
of selected members of Parliament, constituted action; or call attention to a matter or situation for
by the Parliament of India, for the auditing of the consideration by government; or in such other form
expenditure of the Government of India. as the Speaker may consider appropriate.
40. (d) J.L Nehru was in PM’s of¿ce for 4th term 48. (d) The government may be expressed by the
represented ‘Phulpur’ near Allahabad as a member House of People by all the statements given. So the
of Parliament. Morarji Desai of Janta party was the all statements are correct.
¿rst non-congress PM of India assumed the of¿ce 49. (d) The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the
on march 24, 1977. president and the other Ministers shall be appointed
41. (c) The council of Ministers in the Union of India by the president on the advice of the PM(Article
is collectively responsible to the lower house of the 75(1)). The cabinet secretariat is under the
Parliament (Lok Sabha). direct charge of the P.M.
42. (d) The Constitutional amendment bill must be 50. (b) The government of India consists of a number
passed by each house of the Indian Parliament of ministers/departments for its administration, each
separately by special majority. ministry assigned to a minister who runs it with the
43. (b) Mohd. Hidayatullah and Shankar Dayal assistance of a secretary in charge of the particular
Sharma have held the of¿ce of the vice-president of ministry.
India. 54. (d) National Development Council is not
44. (b) Department of border management is a constitutional.
department of ministry of Home affairs of the 61. (c) The ¿rst Public Service Commission was set up
union minister. Department of Border Management on October 1st, 1926. However, its limited advisory
is dealing with management of borders, including functions failed to satisfy the people’s aspirations
coastal borders. and the continued stress on this aspect by the leaders
45. (d) A no-con¿dence motion does not need to set of our freedom movement resulted in the setting up
out grounds on which it is based. The withdrawal of the )HGHUDO3XEOLF6HUYLFH&RPPLVVLRQunder
of the notice by a member may be made when he is the Government of India Act 1935. Under this Act,
called upon by the speaker to ask for leave of the for the ¿rst time, provision was also made for the
House. formation of Public Service Commissions at the
46. (a) Red Button represents NOES, Black button provincial level.
represents ABSTAIN. 62. (c) Vice president as the chairman of the upper
47. (d) The resolution adopted by the House in house does not come under the basic structure of
matters concerning its own proceedings are binding parliamentary system.
and have the force of law. 65. (c) The ministers are collectively responsible to
Notice of resolution 170 : A member other than the parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in
a minister who wishes to move a resolution on a particular (Article 75). The principle of collective
day allotted for private members' resolutions, shall responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can
give a notice to that effect at least two days before remove the ministry (Council of Ministers headed
the date of ballot. The names of all members from by the prime minister) from of¿ce by passing a vote
whom such notices are received shall be balloted of no con¿dence.
and those members who secure the ¿rst three 66. (d) The features of parliamentary government in
places in the ballot for the day allotted for private India are:
members' resolutions shall be eligible to give notice 1. Nominal and Real Executive
of one resolution each within two days after the date 2. Majority Party Rule.
of the ballot. 3. Collective Responsibility
)RUP RI UHVROXWLRQ A resolution may
4. Political homogeneity 80. (d) The Government of India set up a commission
5. Double Membership on Centre-state relations on April 27, 2007 to look
6. Leadership of the Prime Ministers into the new issues of Centre-state relations keeping
7. Dissolution of the Lower House in view the changes that have been taken place in
8. Secrecy the polity and economy of India since the Sarkaria
9. Fusion of Powers Commission had last looked at the issue of Centre-
67. (c) Features of Federal Government :- state relations over two decades ago.
Dual Government (National Government and The commission was chaired by Justice
Regional Government) Madan Mohan Punchhi, former Chief Justice of
Written Constitution India. Shri Dhirendra Singh, Shri Vinod Kumar
Division of powers between national and Duggal, Prof. (Dr.) N.R. Madhava Menon, and
regional government Dr. Amaresh Bagchi, were the other members of the
Supremacy of the Constitution commission. Secretary, Inter-State Council served
Rigid Constitution as the secretary of the commission.
Independent Judiciary 82. (c) According to Article 352, the President shall
Bicameral Legislature not issue a Proclamation under clause (1) or a
68. (a) However the term federation has no where been Proclamation varying such Proclamation unless
used in the constitution. Instead ,ArticleInstead, the decision of the Union Cabinet (that is to say,
Article one of the constitution describes India as a the Council consisting of the Prime Minister and
Union of ‘states’. According to Dr. B.R Ambedkar. other Ministers of Cabinet rank appointed under
The phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to article 75) that such a Proclamation issued has
Federation of States to indicate two things (1) the been communicated to him in writing. Every
Indian constitution is not the result of an agreement Proclamation issued under this article shall be laid
among the states like the American federation; before each House of Parliament and shall, except
and (ii) the states have no right to secede from the where it is a Proclamation revoking a previous
federation. The federation is union because it is Proclamation, cease to operate at the expiration
indestructible. of one month unless before the expiration of that
In an emergency the central government period it has been approved by resolutions of both
becomes all powerful and the states go into the total Houses of Parliament: Provided that if any such
control of the centre. It converts federal structure Proclamation (not being a Proclamation revoking
into a unitary one without a formal amendment of a previous Proclamation) is issued at a time when
the constitution. This kind of transformation is not the House of the People has been dissolved, or the
found in any other federation. dissolution of the House of the People takes place
72. (a) Though the all India Services violate the during the period of one month referred to in this
principle of federalism under the constitution by clause.
restricting the autonomy and patronage of the states. 83. (d) A state of emergency in India refers to a period
They are supported on the ground that (i) they help of governance under an altered constitutional setup
in maintaining high standard of administration in that can be proclaimed by the President of India,
the centre as well as in the states (ii) they help to when he/she perceives grave threats to the nation
ensure uniformity of the administrative system from internal and external sources or from ¿nancial
throughout the country; and (iii) they facilitate situations of crisis.
liaison, cooperation, coordination and joint action Every Proclamation shall be laid before each
on the issue of common interest between the Centre House of Parliament and shall, except where it is
and States. a Proclamation revoking a previous Proclamation,
These services are controlled jointly by the cease to operate at the expiration of two months
centre and the states. The ultimate control lies with unless before the expiration of that period it has
the central government while the immediate control been approved by resolutions of both Houses of
vests with the state governments. Parliament: Provided that if any such Proclamation
(not being a Proclamation revoking a previous 87. (b)

Proclamation) is issued at a time when the House 1. According to Article 61, when a President is to
of the People is dissolved or the dissolution of the be impeached for violation of the Constitution,
House of the People takes place during the period of the charge shall be preferred by either House
two months referred to in this clause. of Parliament.
84. (a) Twelve of Rajya Sabha members are nominated 2. No such charge shall be preferred unless -
by the President from persons who have earned (a) the proposal to prefer such charge is contained
distinction in the ¿elds of literature, art, science and in a resolution which has been moved after at
social service. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body. least fourteen days’ notice in writing signed by
It is not subject to dissolution but one-third of its not less than one-fourth of the total number of
members retire every two years. Rajya Sabha was members of the House has been given of their
duly constituted for the ¿rst time on April 3, 1952 intention to move the resolution, and
and it held its ¿rst sitting on May 13, that year. (b) such resolution has been passed by a majority
85. (b) Article 72 mentions: of not less than two-thirds of the total
(1) The President shall have the power to grant membership of the House.
pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of 88. (d) All bills passed by the Parliament can become
punishment or to suspend, remit or commute laws only after receiving the assent of the President.
the sentence of any person convicted of any After a bill is presented to him, the President shall
offence— declare either that he assents to the Bill, or that
(a) in all cases where the punishment or sentence he withholds his assent from it. As a third option,
is by a Court Martial; he can return a bill to the Parliament, if it is not a
(b) in all cases where the punishment or sentence money bill or a constitutional amendment bill, for
is for an offence against any law relating to reconsideration. When, after reconsideration, the
a matter to which the executive power of the bill is passed and presented to the President, with or
Union extends; without amendments, the President cannot withhold
(c) in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of his assent from it.
death. 89. (b) According Article 56(1) in the Constitution of
Thus, Article 72 empowers the President to India
grant pardons etc. and to suspend, remit or (1) The President shall hold of¿ce for a term of
commute sentences in certain cases. ¿ve years from the date on which he enters
86. (b) India’s head of state is the president who is upon his of¿ce: Provided that
elected to a ¿ve-year renewable term by an electoral (a) the President may, by writing under his hand
college consisting of the elected members of both addressed to the Vice President, resign his
houses of parliament and the elected members of of¿ce;
the legislative assemblies of all the states. Effective (b) the President may, for violation of the
executive power rests with the Council of Ministers, constitution, be removed from of¿ce by
headed by the prime minister, who is chosen by the impeachment in the manner provided in
majority party or coalition in the Lok Sabha and is Article 61:
formally appointed by the president. (c) the President shall, notwithstanding the
Whenever the of¿ce becomes vacant, the expiration of his term, continue to hold of¿ce
new President is chosen by an electoral college until his successor enters upon his of¿ce
consisting of the elected members of both houses 90. (a) Late B. R. Ambedkar stated as under in the
of Parliament (M.P.), the elected members of the Constituent Assembly: “The President occupies
State Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabha) of all the same position as the King under the English
States and the elected members of the legislative Constitution. In a parliamentary system of
assemblies (M.L.A.) of two Union Territories i.e., Government, the Executive is responsible to the
National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi and Legislature. The Council of Ministers hold their
Union Territory of Puducherry. of¿ces not by the grace of the President (or literally
during the pleasure of the President) but because of became Bombay’s Home Minister and later was
the con¿dence of Parliament which they enjoy. elected as Chief Minister of Bombay State in
91. (a) When a bill has been passed, it is sent to 1952.
the President for his approval. The President can 94. (b) The collective responsibility under Article
assent or withhold his assent to a bill or he can 75 of the Constitution of India has two meanings:
return a bill, other than a money bill which is (I) All members of a Government are unanimous in
recommended by president himself to the houses, support of its policies, (II) The ministers, who had
with his recommendations. The president can an opportunity to speak for or against the policies
exercise absolute veto on aid and advice of council in the cabinet are thereby personally and morally
of ministers. Following position can be arrived responsible for its success and failure.
by reading article 111 of Indian constitution with The prime minister selects and can dismiss
article 74. The president may also effectively other members of the cabinet; allocates posts to
withhold his assent as per his own discretion, which members within the Government; is the presiding
is known as pocket veto. If the president returns it member and chairman of the cabinet and is
for reconsideration, the Parliament must do so, but responsible for bringing proposal of legislation.
if it is passed again and returned to him, he must 95. (d) After a Bill has been passed by both Houses,
give his assent to it. it is presented to the President for his assent. The
92. (c) The National Integration Council (NIC) is President can assent or withhold his assent to a Bill
a group of senior politicians and public ¿gures in or he can return a Bill, other than a Money Bill,
India that looks for ways to address the problems for reconsideration. If the Bill is again passed by
of communalism, casteism and regionalism is the Houses, with or without amendment made by
chaired by Prime Minister. The Prime Minister is the President, he shall not withhold assent there
the Chairman of National Water Resources Council. from. But, when a Bill amending the Constitution
The National Development Council (NDC) or passed by each House with the requisite majority is
the Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for presented to the President, he shall give his assent
decision making and deliberations on development thereto. A Bill becomes an Act of Parliament after
matters in India, presided over by the Prime being passed by both the Houses of Parliament and
Minister. The Inter-State Council shall consist of:
assented to by the President.
(a) Prime Minister - Chairman
97. (b) Usually, a member belonging to the ruling
(b) Chief Ministers of all States - Member
party is elected the Speaker. A healthy convention,
(c) Chief Ministers of Union
however, has evolved over the years whereby the
Territories having a Legislative Assembly and
ruling party nominates its candidate after informal
Administrators of UTs not having a Legislative
consultations with the Leaders of other Parties and
Assembly - Member
Groups in the House. This convention ensures that
(d) Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union
Council of Ministers to be nominated by the once elected, the Speaker enjoys the respect of
Prime Minister – Member all sections of the House. Once a decision on the
93. (c) Narasimha Rao’s tenure as Chief Minister of candidate is taken, her name is normally proposed by
Andhra Pradesh is well remembered even today the Prime Minister or the Minister of Parliamentary
for his land reforms and strict implementation Affairs. If more than one notice is received, these
of land ceiling act in Telangana region. Charan are entered in the order of receipt. The Speaker pro
Singh became Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh in term presides over the sitting in which the Speaker
1967, and later in 1970. Deve Gowda was the 14th is elected, if it is a newly constituted House. If the
Chief Minister of Karnataka from 1994 to 1996. election falls later in the life of a Lok Sabha the
V.P. Singh was appointed by Indira Gandhi as the Deputy Speaker presides. The election of a Deputy
Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh in 1980, when Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker
Gandhi was re-elected after the Janata interlude. may ¿x, and the Secretary-General shall send to
Before the independence of India, Morarji Desai every member notice of this date.
98. (a) Article 109 special procedures in respect of a Bill is a Money Bill. The certi¿cate of the Speaker
Money Bills mentions a Money Bill shall not be to the effect that a Bill is a Money Bill, is to be
introduced in the Council of States. After a Money endorsed and signed by him when it is transmitted
Bill has been passed by the House of the People it to Rajya Sabha and also when it is presented to the
shall be transmitted to the Council of States for its President for his assent.
recommendations and the Council of States shall 102. (a) Procedure for a Money Bill:
within a period of fourteen days from the date of its Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok
receipt of the Bill return the Bill to the House of the Sabha (the directly elected ‘people’s house’ of the
People with its recommendations. Indian Parliament). Money bills passed by the Lok
If a Money Bill passed by the House of the Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha (the upper house
People and transmitted to the Council of States for of parliament, elected by the state and territorial
its recommendations is not returned to the House of legislatures or appointed by the President). The
the People within the said period of fourteen days, Rajya Sabha may not amend money bills but can
it shall be deemed to have been passed by both recommend amendments.
Houses at the expiration of the said period in the 103. (c) The Union Budget of India also referred to
form in which it was passed by the House of the as the Annual ¿nancial statement in the Article
People. 112 of the Constitution of India, is the annual
99. (a) In accordance with the provisions of Article budget of the Republic of India. Article 115 deals
266, all Government revenues, including loans with Supplementary, additional or excess grants.
raised by the government and proceeds from Appropriation Bills deal with Article 114. De¿nition
lending operations are credited to the Consolidated of Money Bill is given in Article 110.
Fund of India (CFI) and all other moneys received 104. (b) During the Zero Hour members raise matters
by the Government are credited to Public Account. of importance, especially those which cannot be
All Government expenditures are met from the delayed. Nobody knows which issue a member
Consolidated Fund of India. Appropriation of would raise during this hour. As a result, questions
moneys out of the CFI is done in accordance with so raised without prior notice result in avoidable
the Constitutional provisions contained in Articles loss of precious time of the House.
112 to 117. 105. (c) The Rajya Sabha is also known as “Council
Article 112 mentions: of States” or the upper house. Its members are
(c) debt charges for which the Government of India indirectly elected by members of legislative bodies
is liable including interest, sinking fund charges of the States. The Rajya Sabha has 250 members in
and redemption charges, and other expenditure all. Elections to it are scheduled and the chamber
relating to the raising of loans and the service and cannot be dissolved. Each member has a term of six
redemption of debt; years and elections are held for one-third of the seats
(d) (i) the salaries, allowances and pensions after every two years. The composition is speci¿ed
payable to or in respect of Judges of the Supreme in Article 80 of the Constitution of India.
Court, 106. (b) The Governor is a part of the state legislative
(e) the salary, allowances and pension payable to and can summon, adjourn or prorogue the state
or in respect of the Comptroller and Auditor General legislative. The governor can even dissolve the
of India; Vidhan Sabha. At the commencement of the ¿rst
100. (c) Bihar represents 16 members to Rajya Sabha. session after each general election to the Legislative
All the other options are correct. Assembly and at the commencement of the ¿rst
101. (d) Under article 110(1) of the Constitution a session of each year the Lieutenant Governor shall
Money Bill can be introduced in Lok Sabha only. If address the Legislative Assembly and inform it of
any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill the causes of its summons. As per Article 202 of
or not, the decision of Speaker thereon is ¿nal. The the Constitution of India the Governor of a State
Speaker is under no obligation to consult any one in shall, cause to be laid before the House or Houses
coming to a decision or in giving his certi¿cate that of the Legislature of the State a Statement of the
estimated receipts and expenditure of the State for from the powers of the High Court as to endanger
a ¿nancial year. This estimated statement of receipt the position which that Court is by this Constitution
and expenditure for a ¿nancial year named in the designed to ¿ll.
Constitution as the “Annual Financial Statement” is 110. (c) In case no political party bags a majority in
commonly known as “Budget”. the Vidhan Sabha of the state, the Governor holds
107. (a) State Governor has constitutional discretion in the power to use his discretion to select the Chief
the following cases: Minister. The Governor informs the President in
ii. Recommendation for the imposition of the an of¿cial report, of a particular emergency arisen
President’s Rule in the State; in the state, and imposes ‘President’s Rule’ on the
a. Appointing the Chief Minister when no party behalf of the President. The Governor, in such
has acquired clear cut majority in the State circumstances, overrides the advice or functions of
Legislative Assembly and when the Chief the Council of Ministers, and directs upon himself,
Minister dies when in of¿ce. the workings of the state.
b. Dismissal of the Council of Ministers when 111. (b) Assent to Bills – When a Bill has been passed
they lose the con¿dence of the State Legislative by the Legislative Assembly of a State or, in the
Assembly. case of a State having a Legislative Council, has
108. (b) The Governor has the power to appoint the been passed by both Houses of the Legislature of
Council of Ministers including the Chief Minister the State, it shall be presented to the Governor and
of the state, the Advocate General and the members
the Governor shall declare either that he assents to
of the State Public Service Commission. However,
the Bill or that he withholds assent therefrom or
the Governor cannot remove the members of the
that he reserves the Bill for the consideration of the
State Public Service Commission as they can only
President.
be removed by an order of the President.
Bills reserved for consideration – When a Bill
109. (d) Article 200 Assent to Bills When a Bill has
is reserved by a Governor for the consideration of
been passed by the Legislative Assembly of a State
the President, the President shall declare either that
or, in the case of a State having a Legislative Council,
has been passed by both Houses of the Legislature he assents to the Bill or that he withholds assent
of the State, it shall be presented to the Governor therefrom.
and the Governor shall declare either that he assents 114. (a) The Constitution provides that there shall be a
to the Bill or that he withholds assent there from Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the
or that he reserves the Bill for the consideration of head to aid and advice the Governor in the exercise
the President: Provided that the Governor may, as of his functions except in so far as he is by or under
soon as possible after the presentation to him of the the Constitution required to act in his discretion.
Bill for assent, return the Bill if it is not a Money The governor appoints the Chief Minister and other
Bill together with a message requesting that the Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister.
House or Houses will reconsider the Bill or any 115. (d) Members of the Legislative Assembly and the
speci¿ed provisions there of and, in particular, will Legislative Council of a State shall be entitled to
consider the desirability of introducing any such receive such salaries and allowances as may from
amendments as he may recommend in his message time to time be determined, by the Legislature of
and, when a Bill is so returned, the House or Houses the State by law and, until provision in that respect
shall reconsider the Bill accordingly, and if the Bill is so made, salaries and allowances at such rates and
is passed again by the House or Houses with or upon such conditions as were immediately before
without amendment and presented to the Governor the commencement of this Constitution applicable
for assent, the Governor shall not withhold assent in the case of members of the Legislative Assembly
therefrom: Provided further that the Governor shall of the corresponding province. The salary is paid
not assent to, but shall reserve for the consideration from state consolidated fund.
of the President, any Bill which in the opinion of 119. (c) The Union Public Service Commission
the Governor would, if it became law, so derogate has been established under Article 315 of the
Constitution of India. The Commission consists of a 127. (a) First Finance Commission – K.C. Neogy
Chairman and ten Members. Fourth Finance Commission– P.V. Rajamannar
The Union Public Service Commission has been Sixth Finance Commission– Brahamananda
entrusted with the following duties and roles under Reddy
the Constitution: Eighth Finance Commission– Y.B. Chavan
1. Recruitment to services & posts under the Union 131. (a) The ¿rst Commission was constituted in 1992
through conduct of competitive examinations; with Shri S.H. Ramdhan as chairman. The second
2. Recruitment to services & posts under the Central Commission was constituted in October 1995 with
Government by Selection through Interviews; Shri H. Hanumanthappa as chairman.
3. Advising on the suitability of of¿cers for The 65th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1990
appointment on promotion as well as transfer-on- provided for the establishment of a high level
deputation; National Commission for SCs and STs.
4. Advising the Government on all matters relating The 89th constitution Amendment Act of 2003
to methods of Recruitment to various services and bifurcated the Combined National Commission for
posts; SCs and STs into two separate bodies.
5. Disciplinary cases relating to different civil services; 132. (a) Presidents, Vice Presidents, Prime Ministers
and etc.
6. Miscellaneous matters relating to grant of extra (i) Sh. V.V. Giri
ordinary pensions, reimbursement of legal expenses (Term of Of¿ce 13.5.1967 to 3.5.1969)
etc. (ii) Sh. Gopal Swarup Pathak
124. (b) Chairman and members of union public service (Term of Of¿ce 31.8.1969 to 30.8.1974)
commission are appointed by President. (iii) Sh. B.D.Jatti
Chairman and members of joint public service (Term of Of¿ce 31.8.1974 to 30.8.1979)
commission are appointed by President. (iv) Sh. M. Hidayatullah
Chairman and members of state public service (Term of Of¿ce 31.8.1979 to 30.8.1984)
commission are appointed by governor.
3 Local Government and
Public Policy
1. With reference to the Union Ministry of Drinking 2. Only the insured person, who becomes
Water and Sanitation, which state has ranked unemployed, on or after 1st April, 2005,
as the top performer among 28 states in ‘Rural shall be entitled to receive unemployment
Population managing rural drinking water supply allowance.
scheme’? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Jammu and Kashmir correct?
(c) Karnataka (d) Punjab (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. ‘Local government’ as a subject, is mentioned in (c) Both 1and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
which of the following parts of the Constitution 5. The Prime Minister of India recently ruled out
of India? the decision of the Cauvery River Authority, in
which Karnataka was ordered to release water to
(a) State list under the 7th schedule
Tamil Nadu. Which of the following statement(s)
(b) Concurrent list under the 7th schedule
is/are correct?
(c) 11th Schedule (d) 12th schedule 1. The Cauvery River Authority comprises of
3. Reducing water consumption and improvising the Chief Ministers of Puducherry, Kerala,
water ef¿ciency in building is a major step Tamil Nadu and Karnataka along with the
towards sustainable water management. How do PM as chairman.
we reduce our water footprint? 2. Inter-state water disputes are excluded from
1. Conventional faucet should be replaced by the primary jurisdiction of the Supreme
modern taps. Court of India.
2. We should use top-loading washing machines Select the correct answer using the codes given
in place of front loading washing machines. below:
3. Single-Àush toilets should be replaced by (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
dual-Àush toilets. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the codes given 6. Consider the following statements about the
below: National water policy, 2012:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 1. It proposes reversal of heavy under-pricing
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 of electricity, which leads to wasteful use of
4. Consider the following statements about Rajiv both electricity and water.
2. The draft policy presents a holistic picture
Gandhi Shramik Kalyan Yojna:
of ecological need of the rivers rather
1. Workers losing employment on account
than restricting to only minimum Àow
of closure, retrenchment and permanent requirement.
invalidity arising out of non-employment Which of the statements given above is/are
will get unemployment allowance about 50 correct?
percent of their wage for a maximum period (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
of 1 year. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Consider the following statements regarding Select the correct answer using the codes given
National policy on Urban street vendors, 2009 below:
1. The town vending committee consists (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
of the Mayor of the urban local body as (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
chairperson. 11. Which of the following governments has/have
2. The TVC will be responsible for the redressal the responsibility to operate Public Distribution
of grievances and resolution of disputes System (PDS)?
arising among street vendors and third 1. Central Government
parties as their ¿rst point of intervention. 2. State Government
Which of the statement given above is/are Select the correct answer using the codes given
correct? below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Which of the following provisions about the 12. Which of the following is/are the main features of
Panchayati Raj in the Constitution of India is/are ‘Aajeevika Mission’?
correct? 1. It targets to cover 100% households of rural
1. All the members of Panchayats at the village, areas.
intermediate and district levels are elected 2. It provides for income-generating assets
directly by the voters. through a mix of back credit and govt.
2. The Chairperson of Panchayats at the subsidy to the rural poor household
village, intermediate and district levels is Select the correct answer using the codes given
elected directly by the voters. below:
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
below: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 13. Consider the following statements in regard to
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the Public Accounts Committee of India.
9. Consider the following statements regarding the 1. Its members are selected from both the
Central Board for Workers Education (CBWE) Houses of the Parliament.
1. It was established in 1958 by the Ministry of 2. Generally it is formed for ¿ve years though
it may be dissolved before its tenure.
Human Resource and Development.
3. Its chairman is appointed by the President.
2. Its basic aim is to implement the workers
education scheme at national and state
correct?
level.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
14. Consider the following statements about the 117th
Constitution Amendment bill of India related
to the claim of SC and ST to the government
10. Which of the following can be associated with
services and post:
MGNREGA programme?
1. Recently it was passed by the required
1. It provides wage employment to every
special majority, in the Rajya Sabha.
household whose adult members volunteer 2. It authorizes the government to relax in the
to do unskilled manual work. Parameters of eligibility, to provide promotions
2. It focuses on strengthening of natural to the SC and ST candidates in the government
resource management. jobs, without considering ‘the maintenances of
3. It encourages sustainable development. ef¿ciency of administration.
C-66 || Local Government and Public Policy
Which of the statements given above is/are 18. Recently government of India launched an online
correct? patent ¿lling services which use digital signature
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only for e-¿ling. Consider the following statements in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 this regard:
15. Consider the following statements in regard to 1. Online patent Filing services require class
‘The protection of children from sexual offence III digital signature for e-¿ling
Act, 2012’ which came in force from Nov. 2012 2. Digital signature can be used as a legal proof
1. It de¿nes a child on a Gender-neutral basis to identify the sender.
2. Any person below 16 years of age is de¿ned 3. Digital signature is one of the secure and
as child according to the act. authentic way by which a document can be
3. The act provides for de¿nition of different submitted electronically.
forms of sexual abuse. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 3 only 19. Consider the following statements:
1. The goal of empowering Gram Sabha as the
(c) 1and 3 only (d) 1, 2 nor 3
voice of Panchayats through Article 243A of
16. Consider the following statements in respect to
the constitution was to provide a democratic
the ‘Swadhar Grah’ scheme:
basis to decentralized decision making.
1. The scheme has been launched by the
2. The Ministry of Environment and Forests,
Haryana Govt.
has recently modi¿ed a circular it issued
2. It aims to provide temporary accommodation,
in 2009 and allowed building activities in
maintenance and rehabilitative service to forests areas without the need for Gram Sabha
destitute homeless and traf¿cked women/ consent.
girls : Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 20. The National Human Rights commission can:
17. Consider the following statements with respect to 1. Enquire only on the presentation of a
the National Vocational Education Quali¿cation petition of the victim and not suo moto, into
Framework (NVEQF). the complaint of violation of human rights.
1. The scheme is launched by the ministry 2. Not intervene in any proceeding involving
of Human Resource Development (HRD) violation of human rights pending before a
in collaboration with the University Grant court.
Commission. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. A student can choose to avail of competency correct?
based skill learning along with general (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
education in this scheme without losing the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
possibility of changing course. 21. Govt. decided to add four new tribes, Abuj
Which of the statements given above is/are Maria, Korba, Hill Korba and Kodaku into the
correct? list of scheduled tribes. Which of the following
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only is/are correct in regard to granting the status of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 scheduled tribe to a tribe?
1. President has the authority to include or 3. North Eastern Indira Gandhi Regional
exclude a tribe from the list of schedule Institute of Health and Medical Science,
tribes. Shillong
2. The criterion for a community to be 4. Indian Institute of Remote Sensing,
recognized as scheduled tribe is not spelled Dehradum.
out in the constitution Select the correct answer using the codes given
below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 25. Consider the following statements about
22. Consider the following statements : ‘Saakshar Bharat’
1. Union Rural Development and Panchayati 1. ‘Inclusive education for disabled children’
Raj minister Jairam Ramesh launched a was recasted as Saakshar Bharat and was
programme ‘Maila Mukti Yatra’ under launched by the PM in 2009.
Rashtriya Garima Abhiyan 2. Sikkim is the only state which has received
2. Union government has earmarked ` 1500 ‘Saakshar Bharat’ Award in the Country.
crore to convert dry toilets into Àush toilets 3. The decentralized model of the mission
under the Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan. provides panchayati raj institutions a pivotal
3. Kerala is the ¿rst state in the country where role in implementation of the programme at
the practice of open-area defecation has district level.
been eradicated. Which Statement given above is/are correct?
Which of the following statements given above (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
is/are correct? (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 26. Which of the following statements is/are correct
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 about India’s e-governance initiatives?
23. Which of the following schemes are not a part of 1. E-Choupal is a business initiative by ministry
govt. of India’s initiative for providing a minimum of rural development that provides internet
level of social protection to the workers in the access to rural artisans in order to improve
unorganized sector? their product competitiveness.
1. Aam Admi Bima Yojna 2. Under National E-Governance plan (NEG)
2. Ashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna there is a provision for state wide area
3. Bilateral Social Security Agreement with network (SWAN) to inter-connect all the
foreign countries. govt. of¿ces up to the block level through the
4. Rajiv Awas Yojna Common Service Centre (CSCs) for citizens
5. National Rural Health Mission from both rural and the urban areas.
Select the correct answer using the codes given Select the correct answer by using the codes
below given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 4 and 5 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
24. Which of the following institutions have been 27. Consider the following statements about Bharat
kept out of the purview of the central educational Nirman :
institution Act, 2006? 1. Bharat Nirman is a time-bound plan for rural
1. Homi Bhabha National Institute, Mumbai infrastructure by the government of India
2. Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, in partnership with state governments and
Mumbai Panchayati Raj Institutions.
2. It also emphasizes on environment protection State the correct answer using the codes given
and sustainable development. below:
3. Under this scheme, one of the objectives is (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
to replace village public telephones installed (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
on Multi Access Radio Relay (MARR)
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
technology
Which of the statements given above are (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct? 31. The objective of ‘Anand Marriage Amendment
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Act 2012’ is to:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Enable registration of marriages performed
28. Consider the following Statements about the as per the Sikh rituals (Anand Karaj)
Indian Union Government's Àagship programme 2. Provide the Sikhs the liberty to register their
Direct Bene¿ciary Transfer (DBT) scheme: marriages separately and to exempt from
1. This scheme is essentially inÀationary in registering these under the Registration of
nature.
Births, Marriages and Deaths Act, 1969.
2. This is a step in the right direction to reduce
leakages in the subsidy system. 3. Provide for divorce among the Sikh Couples.
3. This leakage is small in cash transfers Codes:
provided to the poor by the government in (a) 1 and 2 only
comparison to the subsidies. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are (c) 1 and 3
correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 32. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 nor 3
of local government in India?
29. With reference to the schemes launched by the
Union Government, consider the following (a) According to the Indian constitution, local
statements: government is not an independent tier in the
1. Ministry of Health and Family welfare federal system.
launched the ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima (b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved
Yojna’. for women.
2. Ministry of Textiles launched the Rajiv (c) Local government ¿nances are to be
Gandhi ‘Shilpi Swasthya Bima Yojna’.
provided by a commission.
Which of the following codes is correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 by a commission.
30. Which of the following is among the main 33. What is the system of governance in the
provisions of the ‘MGNREGA’ ? Panchayati Raj set up?
1. There is no time bound limit to provide (a) Single tier structure of local self govt. at the
employment to the bene¿ciaries registered village level
under the act
(b) Two tier system of local self govt. at the
2. There is a provision for daily unemployment
village and block levels.
allowance in cash to be paid.
3. Employment is limited and con¿ned within (c) Three tier structure of local self govt. at the
a limited radius. village, block and district levels.
4. At least one-third bene¿ciaries have to be (d) Four tier system of local self govt. at the
women village, block, district and state levels.
34. Which one of the following was NOT proposed Codes:

by the 73rd constitutional amendment in the area A B C D
of Panchayati Raj? (a) 2 1 4 3
(a) Thirty percent seats in all elected rural (b) 1 2 4 3
local bodies will be reserved for women (c) 3 2 1 4
candidates at all levels. (b) 2 1 3 4
(b) The state will constitute their Finance 38. The concept of Public Interest Litigation
Commissions to allocate resources to originated in
Panchayati Raj Institutions. (a) The United Kingdom
(c) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries (b) Australia
will be disquali¿ed to hold their of¿ces if (c) The United States
they have more than two children. (d) Canada
(d) The elections will be held in six months time 39. Which one of the following Union ministries
if Panchayati Raj bodies are superseded or implements the Cartagena Protocol on
dissolved by the state government. biosafety?
35. Which one of the following states of India (a) Ministry of Science and Technology
has passed a legislation (1996) making the (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
maintenance of one’s parents mandatory? (c) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(a) Kerala (b) West Bengal (d) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
(c) Maharashtra (d) Himachal Pradesh 40. In India, the ¿rst municipal corporation was set
36. Consider the following statements regarding the up in which one of the following
National Human Rights Commission of India (a) Calcutta (b) Madras
1. Its chairman must be a retired CJI. (c) Bombay (d) Delhi
2. It has formations in each state as state 41. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be
Human Rights Commission. held within:
3. Its powers are only recommendatory in (a) 1 month (b) 3 months
nature. (c) 6 months (d) 1 year
4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a 42. In the context of governance, consider the
member of the commission. following:
Which of the above statements are correct? 1. Encouraging FDI inÀows
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only 2. Privatization of higher educational
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 institutions
37. Match list I with list II and select the correct 3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
4. Selling/ofÀoading the shares of PSUS
answer using the codes given below the list:
Which of the above can be used as measures to
List I List II
control the ¿scal de¿cit in India?
(Local Bodies) (State as 1999) (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
A. Zilla Parishads at 1. Andhra Pradesh (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
the subdivisional 43. India started Visa on Arrival (VOA) facility for
level Pakistan. Consider the following statements
B. Mandal Praja 2. Assam regarding this VOA facility.
Parishad 1. The visas are valid for Pakistan senior
C. Tribal Councils 3. Mizoram citizens only.
D. Absence of 4. Meghalaya 2. This visa will be given at Attari/Wagah
village checkpost for 45 days.
Panchayats 3. It will be a multiple entry visa.
Which of the statements given above is/are Codes:
correct? (a) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) None of the above
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 47. Consider the following statements:
44. The Union cabinet of India recently cleared the 1. In the year 1892, Derrick Nicholson gave
criminal law Bill, 2013. In this regard consider suggestions for setting up of co-operative
the following provisions mentioned in the bill: societies
1. It provides the age of consent for sex 2. The ¿rst Famine Commission, 1901 also
18 years. recommended for organization of co-
2. It makes of rape as a gender-neutral offence operative societies
under which both men and women can be 3. Based on the recommendations of the ¿rst
charged for it. famine commission, the government passed
3. It provides for minimum jail term of 20 years ‘co-operative societies act in 1904’
for rape which may be extended to natural 4. Under 1919 Administrative Reforms Act,
life of the convict in jail. cooperatives was made a provincial subject
Which of the provisions given above is/are Select the correct answer from the codes given
correct? below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only Codes
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
45. Which of the following statements is not correct (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
regarding recent guidelines issued by the Union 48. Consider the above statements and select the
Home Ministry for regulating surrogacy? correct answer:
(a) Surrogacy should be recognized in the 1. National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)
country of the foreign couple who intended Aajeevika is a self employment programme
to have an Indian surrogate. which aims at lifting the assisted rural poor
(b) Single foreigners as well as gay couples families above the poverty line.
would not be eligible for Indian surrogate. 2. Under the scheme, rural poor are organized
(c) Only these foreign men and women, who into self-help groups (SHGS) and their
are married for at least two years, would be capabilities are enhanced built through
granted the visas. training and skill development
(d) Foreign couples who intended to have an Codes:
Indian surrogate should provide a letter (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
from the Foreign Ministry of their country (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
certifying that a child has the rights to enter 49. Consider the following statements about
the home country as a biological child. ‘Saksham’ and select the correct ones:
46. Which one of the following Programmes doesn’t 1. Saksham is a scheme launched by Ministry
form a component of the Swarna Jayanti Shahari of HRD to empower adolescent boys by
Rozgar Yojana? educating them on gender sensitivity and
1. Urban Self Employment Programme moral behaviour.
(USEP) 2. It aims to target young boys in the age group
2. Urban Women Self Help Programme 10–18 yrs for their holistic development
(UWSP) by giving lessons in gender sensitivity and
3. Skill Training for Employment Promotion inculcating in them respect for women.
amongst Urban Poor (STEP UP) Codes:
4. Urban Community Development Network (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(UCDN) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
50. Government of India has tabled prohibition of 2. Compensation for the owners of the acquired
employment as manual scavengers and their land shall be four times the market value in
rehabilitation Bill 2012. Consider the following case of rural areas and twice in case of urban
statements related to the bill : areas.
1. Under the bill every insanitary latrine will 3. In case of acquisition of land for use
have to be demolished or converted into by private companies or public private
sanitary toilets within six months after the partnerships, consent of 80 per cent of the
noti¿cation. displaced people will be required. Purchase
2. National commission for SC/ST will of large pieces of land by private companies
monitor the implementation of the law. will require provision of rehabilitation and
3. Employing people for cleaning septic tanks resettlement.
and sewers within 1 year of the noti¿cation 4. The provisions of this Act shall override
of the Act can attract imprisonment of up to on the existing legislations including the
2 years and ¿ne of 2 lakh. Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, the
Atomic Energy Act, 1962, the Railways Act,
Which of the above statements is/are false?
1989, etc.
Select the answer from the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
51. Which of the provisions are related to the National (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
Food Security Act, 2013? 53. The Panchayati Raj system under 73rd Constitu-
1. Upto 75 per cent of the rural population and tional Amendment Act, 1993 does not apply to
upto 50 per cent of the urban population will (a) Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram
have uniform entitlement of 5 kg foodgrains (b) Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand
per month at highly subsidized prices of Rs. (c) Uttarakhand, Bihar, Rajasthan
3, Rs. 2, Rs. 1 per kg. for rice, wheat, coarse (d) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Mizoram
grains respectively . 54. Consider the following functions of State Election
2. It will entitle about two thirds of India’s 1.2 Commission and select correct answer by using
billion population to subsidised foodgrains code given below
under the Targeted Public Distribution 1. Prepares the electoral rolls for Panchayats
System (TPDS). and Municipalities elections in the State.
3. Eldest woman of eighteen years of age or 2. Conducts elections for Panchayat and
above will be head of the household for Municipalities of the State.
issue of ration card, and if not available, the 3. Conducts elections to various bodies except
eldest male member is to be the head of the Panchayats and Municipalities as directed by
household. the Governor.
4. Prepares the electoral rolls and conducts
4. Provisions for disclosure of records
elections as assigned by Election Commission
relating to PDS. Social audits and setting of India.
up of Vigilance Committees will ensure Codes:
transparency and accountability. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
Select the answer from the code given below- (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) Only 4
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 55. Which of the following Committee was appointed
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above
by the Government of India to identify the creamy
52. The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency
layer among Backward Classes in India?
in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettle-
ment Act, 2013 provides for- (a) Justice R. N. Mishra Committee
1. All acquisitions require rehabilitation and (b) Justice R. N. Madholkar Committee
resettlement to be provided to the people (c) Justice Ram Nandan Committee
affected by the acquisition. (d) Justice Rajender Sachar Committee
56. Consider the following statements : 59. Which of the following is/are correct with respect
1. A Panchayat elected in the place of a to the 73rd Amendment to the Constitution of
dissolved one, does not enjoy the full period India?
but remains in of¿ce for the remaining 1. Constitutional status to Panchayats
period after the dissolution. 2. Reservation of seats for women belonging
to the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled
2. In Panchayats, seats are reserved for the
Tribes
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and
3. Providing permanent structures for district
women but not for Backward Classes of planning
citizens. Select the correct answer from the codes given
Which of the statements given above is / are below :
correct ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 60. In 1977, under whose chairmanship, the
57. Consider the following statements : Panchayati Raj Committee was formed ?
1. Courts have no jurisdiction to examine the (a) Ashok Mehta
validity of a law relating to delimitation (b) Sardar Swaran Singh
of constituencies or allotment of seats in (c) Balwant Rai Mehta
(d) Madhu Dandawate
respect of Panchayats.
61. Which of the following statements are correct?
2. An election to a Panchayat can be called in Village Panchayats are responsible for :
question only by an election petition, which 1. Agricultural production
should be presented to such authority and 2. Rural industrial development
in such manner as may be prescribed by the 3. Maternity and child welfare
State Election Commission. 4. Higher vocational education
Which of the statements given above is / are Select the correct answer using the codes given
correct ? below :
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
58. Consider the following statements and select the 62. Which one of the following States was the ¿rst to
introduce the Panchayati Raj system ?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) West Bengal
Assertion (A): The Constitution of India now (c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
provides a mechanism for regular 63. Consider the following features :
Àow of funds to Panchayati Raj 1. Panchayats have now been brought under
institutions. the direct supervision of the Governor.
Reason (R) : The Panchayati Raj institutions 2. Finance Commission of the State now
have been greatly handicapped in determines the distribution of taxes and
the performance of their assigned duties between the State and Panchayats.
duties by paucity of funds. 3. Panchayats are now entitled to receive
Codes : grants-in-aid directly from the Central
Government.
4. 1/3 of the seats in the Panchayats are now
the correct explanation of A.
reserved for women.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is According to 73rd Amendment of the Constitution,
not the correct explanation of A. which of these are correct features of Panchayats?
(c) A is true but R is false. (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(d) A is false but R is true. (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
64. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (b) Indirectly elected by the members of the
answer by using the codes given below: Village Panchayat
List-I List-II (c) Nominated by the Block Development
(Features) (Related to) Of¿cer
A. Democratic 1. 73rd Amendment (d) Nominated by the president / chairman of
Decentralisation the Panchayat Samiti
B. Nagar Panchayats 2. 74th Amendment 66. Consider the following statements :
C. Panchayati Raj 3. B.R. Mehta The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provided:
Elections Committee 1. For 27% reservation of seats in the
D. Two Tier System 4. Ashok Mehta Panchayats for the Other Backward Castes
Committee (OBCs).
Codes : 2. That the Chairpersons of the Panchayats at
A B C D intermediate or district level, shall be elected
(a) 3 1 2 4 by, and from amongst the elected members
(b) 4 1 2 3 thereof.
(c) 4 2 1 3 Which of the statements given above is / are
(d) 3 2 1 4 correct ?
65. The members of a Panchayat Samiti are: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Directly elected by the people (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 10 (d) 19. (c) 28. (b) 37. (a) 46. (d) 55. (c) 64. (d)
2. (a) 11. (c) 20. (d) 29. (b) 38. (c) 47. (c) 56. (c) 65. (a)
3. (c) 12. (b) 21. (b) 30. (b) 39. (c) 48. (c) 57. (a) 66. (b)
4. (b) 13. (a) 22. (c) 31. (a) 40. (b) 49. (b) 58. (a)
5. (c) 14. (a) 23. (d) 32. (b) 41. (c) 50. (c) 59. (a)
6. (c) 15. (c) 24. (d) 33. (c) 42. (b) 51. (d) 60. (a)
7. (b) 16. (b) 25. (c) 34. (a) 43. (a) 52. (a) 61. (c)
8. (a) 17. (b) 26. (b) 35. (d) 44. (d) 53. (a) 62. (c)
9. (d) 18. (a) 27. (c) 36. (d) 45. (b) 54. (a) 63. (d)
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) Karnataka has emerged as the top performer in water. A front load washing machine gets by with
the country in management of rural drinking water so little water because as it turns on, the clothes fall
schemes and devotion of powers to panchayati Raj down into the water and are cleaned by the friction
institution in 2012-13. The Department of Rural created by the wet clothes rubbing together. On the
Development and Panchayat Raj (RDPR) has contrary, a top load washing machine relies upon
¿nalised a comprehensive scheme for supplying water and an agitator to clean clothing.
puri¿ed drinking water to all villages, given the 4. (b) The Rajiv Gandhi Shramik Kalyan yojna,
fact that nearly 60 per cent of diseases afÀicting the came into effect on 1st April 2005. The daily rate
rural population is waterborne. Over 1,000 water of unemployment allowance shall be the “ standard
puri¿cation plants are to be set up with each village bene¿t rate” as speci¿ed in the table of Standard
having a plant to serve a population of 5,000 to Bene¿t Rates under Rule-54 of ESI (Central) Rules
10,000. 150, corresponding to the average daily wage
2. (a) 11th and 12th Schedules of the Constitution of drawn by the said insured person during the last
India belong to only subjects under the ‘Panchayati four completed contribution periods, immediately
Raj’, whereas 7th schedule of the state list, titled preceding the date of unemployment. The allowance
as ‘Local Government’. Local government, refers shall be payable in the form of monthly payments
to the constitution and powers of municipal by branch Of¿ces of ESI where the employee was
corporations, improvement trusts, district boards, registered on submission of a claim in prescribed
mining settlement authorities and other local form duly supplied by relevant documents after
authorities for the purpose of local self-government approval of the Regional / Sub Regional Of¿ce.
or village administration. 5. (c) The Cauvery River authority comprises of
3. (c) In general, front loading water washing the CMs of puducherry, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and
machines are much more water ef¿cient than top- Karnataka. Inter-State water disputes are excluded
loading machines. The most recognizable bene¿t from the primary jurisdiction of the supreme court of
of a front load washing machine is in the amount India. On 20 February 2013, based on the directions
of water it uses to clean each load of laundry. A of the Supreme Court, the Indian Government has
typical front load washer only ¿lls the bottom of the noti¿ed the ¿nal award of the Cauvery Water Disputes
tub with about 3 inches of water. While a top load Tribunal (CWDT) . The Tribunal, in a unanimous
washing machine may use as much as 18 inches of decision in 2007, determined the total availability of
water in the Cauvery basin at 740 thousand million country through self-managed Self Help Groups
cubic (tmc) feet at the Lower Coleroon Anicut site, (SHGs) and federated institutions and support them
including 14 tmcft for environmental protection for livelihoods collectives in a period of 8-10 years.
and seepage into the sea. The ¿nal award makes an 13. (a) The public account committee of India is
annual allocation of 419 tmcft to Tamil Nadu in the formed every year and its chairman is appointed by
entire Cauvery basin, 270 tmcft to Karnataka, 30 the speaker of the Lok Sabha.
tmcft to Kerala and 7 tmcft to Puducherry. 14. (a) The 117th constitution amendment bill of
6. (c) National water policy, 201 proposes reversal India, related to the claims of SC and ST to the
of heavy under-pricing of electricity, which leads to government services and posts demands retaining
wasteful use of both electricity and water. of article 335.
7. (b) A Town Vending Committee (TVC) consists of 15. (c) A child is de¿ned as any person below the
the Municipal commissioner/Chief Executive of¿ce age of 18 years. The act provides for de¿nition of
of the Urban Local Body as chairperson different forms of sexual abuse.
8. (a) The Chairperson of Panchayats at inter-mediate 16. (b) Department of women and child development
and district levels are elected indirectly Ministry of Human Resource development in 1969
9. (d) It was established in 1958 by the ministry of launched the ‘Swadhar Grah’ Scheme. The aim of
labour and employment, government of India to the scheme is to provide primary need of shelter,
food, clothing and care to the marginalized women/
implement the education scheme at national, regional
girls living in dif¿cult circumstances who are
and unit/village levels. The Central Board for
without any social and economic support; to provide
Workers Education (CBWE) is an autonomous body
emotional support and counseling to such women;
under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. to rehabilitate them socially and economically
10. (d) MGNREGA Programme provides through education, awareness, skill upgradation
employment to every household adult members to and personality development through behavioural
do unskilled manual work, focuses on natural training etc.; to arrange for speci¿c clinical, legal
resources management and encourages sustainable and other support for women/girls in need of
development. The statute is hailed by the government those intervention by linking and networking with
as "the largest and most ambitious social security other organizations in both government and Non-
and public works programme in the world". government sectors on case to case basis; to provide
11. (c) Both the central and state governments share for help line or other facilities to such women in
the responsibility of regulating the PDS. while distress; and to provide such other services as will
the central government is responsible for storage, be required for the support and rehabilitation to
transportation and allocation, the state government such women in distress.
is responsible for distributing the same through the 17. (b) The scheme is launched by the Ministry of
network of fair price shops. HRD in collaboration with the AICTE. The All
12. (b) Aajeevika’s (NRLM) ultimate target is to cover India Council for Technical Education (AICTE),
100 percent of BPL families in rural areas. Aajeevika Ministry of Human Resource Development
- National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) was (MHRD) has launched the National Vocational
launched by the Ministry of Rural Development Education Quali¿cation Framework (NVEQF)
(MoRD), Government of India in June 2011. to be implemented in polytechnics, engineering
colleges and other colleges in the university systems
Aided in part through investment support by the
from 2012-13. The programmes are sector speci¿c
World Bank, the mission aims at creating ef¿cient
and the sectors like IT, media, entertainment,
and effective institutional platforms of the rural telecommunications, mobile communications,
poor enabling them to increase household income automobile, construction, retail, food processing,
through sustainable livelihood enhancements and tourism, hotels, jewellery design and fashion
improved access to ¿nancial services. NRLM has design and many other have been identi¿ed for
set out with an agenda to cover 7 Crore rural poor implementation. The launch was done by Shri
households, across 600 districts, 6000 blocks, 2.5 Kapil Sibal, Union Minister for Human Resource
lakh Gram Panchayats and 6 lakh villages in the Development.
18. (a) This is the only secure and authentic way that in the country. It was initiated to create a literate
a document can be submitted electronically. society through a variety of teaching learning
19. (c) Article 243 A of the constitution is to provide a programmes for non-literate and neo-literate of 15
democratic basis to decentralized decision-making. years and above. It was launched on 8 September
A Gram Sabha may exercise such powers and 2009. It aims to recast India's National Literacy
perform such functions at the village level as the Mission to focus on literacy of women, which is
legislature of a state may by law, provide expected to increase the literate population by 70
20. (d) The commission can inquire suo moto or on million adults, including 60 million women.
a petition presented to it by victim or any person 26. (b) E-choupal is business initiative by ITC Ltd.
on his behalf or on a direction into complaint of that provides internet access to rural farmers.
violation of human rights. 27. (c) Bharat Nirman is a time-bound business plan
21. (b) According to article 342 of the constitution it for action in rural infrastructure. Under Bharat
is the parliament, which can decide on the inclusion Nirman, action is proposed in the area of irrigation,
and exclusion of a tribe into the list of schedule road etc. Bharat Nirman is a business plan for
tribe. The President may with respect to any State creating and augmenting basic rural infrastructure.
or Union territory, and where it is a State, after It comprises of projects on irrigation, roads
consultation with the Governor thereof, by public (Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana), housing
noti¿cation, specify the tribes or tribal communities (Indira Awaas Yojana), water supply (National
or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal Rural Drinking Water Programme), electri¿cation
communities which shall for the purposes of this (Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana) and
Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in telecommunication connectivity.
relation to that State or Union territory, as the case
28. (b) According to T.C.A. Anand, chief statistician of
may be.
India, the Union government’s Àagship direct bene¿t
22. (c) Sikkim is the ¿rst state in the country where
Transfer scheme is not inÀationary.
the practice of open-area defecation has been
29. (b) Ministry of labour and employment launched
eradicated.
the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna in 2008. The
23. (d) Rajiv Awas Yojna is an infrastructure
scheme aims to provide health insurance coverage for
development scheme and National Rural Health
Mission is a Health care improvement scheme. Below Poverty Line (BPL) families. The objective
Rajiv Awas Yojana (RAY) envisages a “Slum Free of RSBY is to provide protection to BPL households
India" with inclusive and equitable cities in which from ¿nancial liabilities arising out of health shocks
every citizen has access to basic civic infrastructure that involve hospitalization. Bene¿ciaries under
and social amenities and decent shelter. The scheme RSBY are entitled to hospitalization coverage up
aims to encourage states/Union Territories (UTs) to to Rs. 30,000/- for most of the diseases that require
tackle slums in a de¿nitive manner by focusing on hospitalization.
bringing all existing slums, noti¿ed or non-noti¿ed 30. (b) Under this act, there is a time bound limit to
(including recognised and identi¿ed) within the provide employment to the bene¿ciaries registered
formal system and enabling them to avail the basic under the act.
amenities that are available for the rest of the cities/ 31. (a) The amendment bill doesn’t provide for
UAs; to redress the failures of the formal system divorce among Sikh couples. They will have to
that lies behind the creation of slums by planning use the Hindu Marriage Act. Although the Anand
for affordable housing stock for the urban poor Marriage Law was enacted in 1909, there was no
and to initiate crucial policy changes required for provision for registration of marriages and they were
facilitating the same. registered under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
24. (d) All of the institutions given below have been “The Anand Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 2012,
kept out of the preview of the central Educational after having received the assent of the President on
Institution Act, 2006. June 7, 2012, has been published as corresponding
25. (c) National literacy mission was recasted as act in the Gazette of India,”
‘Saakshar Bharat’ and was launched by the Prime 32. (b) Under Article 243, it has been mentioned that
Minister in 2009. Andhra Pradesh is the only state not less than 1/3rd (33%) seats in the local bodies
which has received the ‘Saakshar Bharat’ award shall be reserved for women.
33. (c) Part IX of the constitution envisages a 3-tier Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 is an Indian legislation
system of panchayats, namely (a) the village level passed by the Lok Sabha on 19 March 2013, and by
(b) the district panchayat (district-level) (c) The the Rajya Sabha on 21 March 2013, which provides
intermediate panchayat (block-level) for amendment of Indian Penal Code, Indian Evidence
34. (a) The act provides for the reservation of not less Act, and Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 on laws
than one third(33%) of the total of seats for women related to sexual offences.
at all levels. 45. (b) Single foreigners as well as the gay couples
35. (d) Himachal Pradesh passed a legislation (1996) would not be eligible for having the Indian
making the maintenance of one’s parents mandatory. surrogate.
36. (d) Only 1 and 3 statements are correct. They are 46. (d) None of the above given programmes form a
not necessarily formed in each state as state Human component of the Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar
Rights Commission. Till now only 15 states have
Yojna. Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana
SHRCs and not mandatory appoint a woman as a
(SJSRY) in India is a centrally sponsored scheme
member.
37. (a) Zilla parishads at the sub-divisional level- which came into effect on 1 December 1997. The
Assam Mandal Praja parishad-Andhra Pradesh, scheme strives to provide gainful employment
Tribal Councils-Meghalaya and Absence of village to the urban unemployed and underemployed
panchayats-Mizoram poor through encouraging the setting up of self-
38. (c) The concept of public Interest litigation (PIL) employment ventures by the urban poor living
originated in the USA. below the poverty line.
39. (c) The ministry of environment and forest 47. (c) First Famine commission was formed in 1880.
government of India, is Implementing a GEF/ It was the 2nd commission formed in 1901 that
World Bank funded project on capacity building on suggested creation of cooperative societies.
biosafety in context of Cartagena Protocol 48. (c) NRLM, Aajeevika is a self-employment
40. (b) In 1687, the ¿rst municipal corporation in India programme, under which rural poor are organised
was set up at Madras during the British rule period. into self -help groups. This scheme was launched
The Chennai Municipal Corporation (of¿cially in 2011 with a budget of $ 5.1 billion and is one
the Corporation of Chennai), formerly known as of the Àagship programmes of Ministry of Rural
the Corporation of Madras, is the civic body that Development. This is one of the world's largest
governs the city of Chennai (formerly Madras), India. initiative to improve the livelihood of poor. This
Inaugurated on September 29, 1688, under a Royal
programme is supported by World Bank with a
Charter issued by King James II on December 30,
credit of $ 1 Billion.
1687 as the Corporation of Madras, it is the oldest
municipal body of the Commonwealth of Nations 49. (b) Saksham is launched by ministry of women
outside Great Britain. It is headed by a mayor, who and child development. It aims to target young male
presides over 200 councilors each of whom represents children in the age group 10-18 yrs for their holistic
one of the 200 wards of the city. It is also the second development by giving lessons in gender sensitivity
oldest corporation in the world. and inculcating in them respect for women.
41. (c) The fresh elections to constitute a panchayat 50. (c) According to the bill, every insanitary latrine
shall be completed in case of dissolution before the will have to be demolished or converted into sanitary
expiry of a period of six months. toilets within nine months of the noti¿cation of the
42. (b) A ¿scal de¿cit is often funded by issuing law. National commission for SC/ST will monitor
bonds, like treasury bills or consoles and gilt-edged the implementation of the law.
securities. Highlights of the Bill:
43. (a) India on 1st April 2013 started visa on arrival 1. The Bill prohibits the employment of manual
(VOA) facility for the senior citizen of Pakistan scavengers, the manual cleaning of sewers and
and will allow a Pakistan resident in India for a septic tanks without protective equipment and
maximum period of 45 days. It is a single entry visa. the construction of insanitary latrines. It seeks to
44. (d) The criminal law (Amendment) bill, 2013, rehabilitate manual scavengers and provide for their
makes of rape as a gender-speci¿c offence under alternative employment.
which only men can be charged for it. The Criminal
2. Each local authority, cantonment board and had as its members M. L. Sahara, former Chairman of
railway authority is responsible for surveying the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC); P. S.
insanitary latrines within its jurisdiction. Krishnan and R. L. Majitha. The committee formed
3. They shall also construct a number of sanitary
on February 23, 1993 submitted its report on March
community latrines. Each occupier of insanitary
latrine shall be responsible for converting or 10, 1993.
demolishing the latrine at his own cost. 56. (c) The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution,
4. If he fails to do so, the local authority shall 1992 was the most signi¿cant year in the history
convert the latrine and recover the cost from him. of Panchayats in India as the 73rd amendment of
5. The District Magistrate and the local authority the Constitution (amendment of Article 243) was
shall be the implementing authorities. Offences under passed by the Indian Parliament that declared
the Bill shall be cognizable and non-bailable, and Panchayats as institutions of self government. (The
may be tried summarily. 74th amendment done at the same time relate to
51. (d) The Bill provides for a two-tier grievance urban local bodies). These amendments came into
redressal structure, involving the District Grievance force from April 24 1993.
Redressal Of¿cer (DGRO) and State Food 59. (a) There should be three tiers of Panchayats
Commission. State governments must also put in (District Panchayats, Block Panchayats i.e.,
place an internal grievance redressal mechanism intermediary Panchayats and Village or Gram
which may include call centres, help lines, etc. Panchayats) in states with over 25 lakh of population.
Mandatory transparency provisions include: (1) States with less than this population will have only
placing all PDS-related records in the public domain; two tiers omitting the intermediary tier.
(2) conducting periodic social audits of the PDS and Panchayats declared as institutions of self
other welfare schemes; (3) using information and governments (signifying that the status of Panchayats
communication technology “to ensure transparent is same in their respective areas, as that of the Union
recording of transactions at all levels”; (4) setting Government at the national and State Governments
up vigilance committees at all levels to supervise all at the state level).
schemes under the Act. States were mandated to devolve functions
52. (a) The provisions of this Act shall not apply to relating to 29 subjects (including agriculture, land
acquisitions under 16 existing legislations including reforms, minor irrigation, fisheries, cottage and
the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, the Atomic small scale industries, rural communication, drinking
Energy Act, 1962, the Railways Act, 1989, etc. water, poverty alleviation programmes etc.) to the
The process for land acquisition involves a Social Panchayats.
Impact Assessment survey, preliminary noti¿cation Panchayats were mandated to prepare plan(s)
stating the intent for acquisition, a declaration of for economic development and social justice and
acquisition, and compensation to be given by a implement them.
certain time. States were asked to constitute a State Finance
54. (a) As per the provision of Art. 243 K of Part IX of Commission every five years to determine the
Indian Constitution. Panchayats’ share of state’s ¿nancial resources as
“The superintendence, direction, and control of a matter of entitlement (just as the Central Finance
the preparation of electrol list for and the conduct Commission determines how resources of the Central
of all elections to Panchayats and urban local government should be shared between the union and
bodies (Art. 243 ZA) shall be vested in a State state governments).
Election Commission consisting of a State Election Panchayat bodies must have proportionate
Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor...... representation of Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribes
Provided that the State Election Commissioner shall and women. Such reservation should also apply in
not be removed from his of¿ce except in like manner the cases of Chairpersons and Deputy Chairpersons
and on the like ground as a judge of a High Court. of these bodies.
55. (c) The Central Government had appointed a There shall be State Election Commission in each
Committee under the chairmanship of Ram Nandan state which shall conduct elections to the local bodies
Prasad, a former judge of the Patna High Court, which in every ¿ve years.
4 Judiciary
1. Match the following: 3. After the passing of the states reorganization Act
List I List II 1956, the number of states and Union Territories
A. Insertion of part 1. 116th Amendment formed were.
XIV B in the (a) 20 states, 5 UTs (b) 14 States, 6 UTs
constitution (c) 20 States, 6 UTs (d) 14 States, 7 UTs
B. Reservation in 2. 117th Amendment 4. Consider the following statements:
Promotions for 1. The Attorney General of India is appointed
SCs/STs by the President upon the recommendation
C. Introduction 3. 115th Amendment of the Chief Justice of Supreme Court.
of the Goods 2. The Attorney General of India has the right
and service Tax to speak in the Parliament but he can’t vote.
D. Increasing age 4. 114th Amendment Which of the statements given above is/are
limit of High correct?
Court judges to 65 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Codes:
5. Which of the following don’t fall under the
A B C D
purview of the administrative tribunal act, 1985?
(a) 4 2 3 1
1. Any member of the naval, military or air
(b) 1 2 3 4
force or of any other armed forces of the
(a) 1 3 2 4 union.
(a) 4 3 2 1 2. Any of¿cer of the Supreme Court or of any
2. Consider the following statements and select the High court.
correct answer: 3. Secretarial staff of either House of
1. The original jurisdiction of Supreme Court Parliament.
extends only to any dispute between the Codes:
government of India and one or more (a) only 1 (b) 1 and 2 only
States. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these
2. The Supreme Court also has an appellate 6. The Twentieth Law Commission was constituted
jurisdiction over all courts and tribunals in through a government order with effect from
India 1st Sep. 2012. It has a three year term ending
3. The Supreme Court has special advisory on 31st Aug. 2015. Who is the chairman of the
jurisdiction in matters which may speci¿cally commission?
be referred to it by the president of India (a) Justice D.K. Jain
Codes: (b) Justice J.S. Verma
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) Justice Markanday Katju
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All the above (d) Justice M. Mualyal
C-80 || Judiciary
7. Retirement age for High Court judges is sought Codes:
to be raised to 65 years by the 114th Amendment (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Bill. The following classes of High Court judges (c) 2 only (d) 1,2 and 3
are included in it. 14. Special leave petition power of the Supreme Court
(a) Full time judges only does not extend to the following judgements,
(b) Additional judges decrees etc.
(c) Acting judges 1. interim order
(d) All the above 2. Any court or tribunal constituted by or under
8. In the following cases, the Supreme Court has no any law relating to the Armed forces
adjudicatory jurisdiction to change the award 3. Criminal cases.
(a) Inter state river water disputes (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Delimitation of constitution (c) 3 only (d) 2 only
(c) Both (a) and (b) 15. The concept of ‘basic features’ that was introduced
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati
9. Following is an example of residuary powers in case verdict
India (a) 25th Amendment Act
(a) Preventive detention (b) 29th Amendment Act
(b) Service taxation (c) 32nd Amendment Act
(c) Labour Laws (d) None of these
(d) None of these 16. Among the three types of alternative dispute
10. The minimum number of judges who are to sit resolutions-arbitration, conciliation and
for the purpose of deciding any case involving mediation, the award is binding in the following
any substantial question of law for the purpose of (a) Arbitration (b) Conciliation
hearing any reference under Art 143 shall be (c) Mediation (d) None of these
(a) Five (b) Seven 17. Pensions of High Court judges are charged on the
(c) Nine (d) Eleven following
11. One High Court may have jurisdiction over two (a) Consolidated fund of India
or more states if the following so decides (b) Consolidated fund of State
(a) President of India (b) Parliament (c) Subject to the decision of Supreme Court
(c) Supreme Court (d) The states involved (d) None of these
12. Answer the incorrect one from below about the 18. If any question arises as to the age of a judge of a
Lok Ayuktas? High Court, the question shall be decided by
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh have no (a) Chief Justice of India
Lokayuktas. (b) President of India
(b) 11th All India Lokayukta Conference 2012 (c) Collegiums of judges headed by the Chief
was held in New Delhi. Justice of India
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Three judges committee constituted by the
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) Vice President of India
13. Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction under 19. The power of the Supreme Court of India to
the following article in relation to decide disputes between the centre and the states
1. Constitutional cases falls under its :
2. Federal cases (a) Advisory jurisdiction
3. Cases related to directive principles of state (b) Appellate jurisdiction
policy
(c) Original jurisdiction
4. River water disputes.
(d) Constitutional jurisdiction
20. When the chief justice of a High Court acts in an 25. The Salaries and allowances of the judges of the
administrative capacity, he is subject to. High Court are charged to the:
(a) The writ jurisdiction of any of the other (a) Consolidated Fund (India)
judges of the High Court. (b) Consolidated fund (State)
(b) Special control exercised by the chief justice (c) Contingency fund (India)
of India. (d) Contingency Fund (State)
(c) Discretionary power of the Governor of the 26. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the
State Supreme Court of India with respect to any
(d) Special powers provided to the Chief matter included in the Union list of legislative
Minister in this regard powers rests with:
21. According to the constitution of India the term (a) The President of India
‘district judge’ shall not include (b) The Chief Justice of India
(a) Chief Presidency Magistrate (c) The Parliament
(b) Sessions Judge (d) The Union Ministry of Law
(c) Tribunal Judge 27. Which one of the following High Courts has the
(d) Chief Justice of a Small Cause Court territorial jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar
22. Consider the following statements about the Island?
attorney general of India:
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Calcutta (Kolkatta)
1. He is appointed by the President of India
(c) Madras(Chennai) (d) Odisha
2. He must have the same quali¿cations as
required for a judge of the Supreme Court
1. There are 25 high courts in India
3. He must be a member of either House of
2. Punjab, Haryana and the UT of Chandigarh
Parliament
have a common High Court.
4. He can be removed by impeachment by
Parliament 3. NCT of Delhi has a High Court of its own
Which of these statements are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 correct?
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
23. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
President on a matter of law or fact 29. Consider the following
(a) On its own initiative 1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
(b) Only if he seeks such advice 2. Motor accident cases
(c) Only the matter relates to the Fundamental 3. Pension cases
Rights of citizens For which of the above are Lok Adaalats held?
(d) Only if the issue poses a threat to country (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
24. Consider the following statements regarding the (c) 2 Only (d) 1, 2 and 3
High Courts in India: 30. Consider the following statements and select the
1. There are eighteen High Courts in the correct answer from the codes given below :
Country. Assertion (A) : In India, Every State has a
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more High Court in its territory
than one state. Reason (R) : The constitution of India
3. No Union territory has a High Court of its provides for a High Court in
own. each state
4. Judges of the High court hold of¿ce till the (a) (A) and (R) is correct
age of 62. (b) (A) and (R) is wrong
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (c) (A) is correct (R) is wrong
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 4 only (d) (A) is wrong (R) is correct
C-82 || Judiciary
31. Who was the chief justice of India when Public 2. Justice now became costlier than before.
Interest Litigation(PIL) was introduced to the 3. The government of¿cials often favoured the
Indian Judicial System? rich.
(a) M. Hidayatullah (b) A.M. Ahmadi Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) A.S. Anand (d) P.N. Bhagwati (a) 1and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
32. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
India does not extend to which of the following 36. Recently London High Court granted right to few
matters? elderly people to go ahead with their case against
(a) between the Government of India and one or government in relation to Mau Mau Rebellion.
more States In which country this rebellion took place?
(b) between the Government of India and any (a) Kenya (b) Libya
State or States on one side and one or more (c) Ethiopia (d) Republic of Congo
other States on the other 37. Recently, why ‘Cabotage Law’ was in news;
(c) between two or more States, if and in so consider the following statements in regard to it:
far as the dispute involves any question 1. It states that only Indian Àagged vessels can
(whether of law or fact) on which the handle coastal cargo.
existence or extent of a legal right depends 2. Government recently tightened the cabotage
(d) dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, law in order to reduce the illegal movement
covenant, engagement, sand or other similar of cargo through coastal water.
instrument Which of the statements given above is/are
33. Recently the Supreme Court of India issued correct?
certain guidelines to put a halt to eve-teasing. In (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
this regard consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. women cops, in civil uniform, should be 38. Consider the following statements about the
deputed at the public places judicial system introduced by the British in India:
2. The court also ordered the states and the 1. It judicially uni¿ed India.
UTs to form a uniform law 2. The British established a new system of
3. The eve-teasing can lead to violation of the law through the process of enactment and
fundamental rights. relevant interpretation of customary laws.
Which of the following statement given above 3. In general the British tended to avoid the
are correct? customary laws of India.
(a) 1and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Which of the Statements given above are correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
34. According to the North-Eastern Areas (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Aamendment Bill, 2011, a combined cadre for 39. Which of the following statements is/are correct
All India Services has been suggested for which regarding writ of ‘prohibition’?
among the following states? 1. It is an order issued by the Higher Court
(a) Tripura and Manipur commanding Lower Court to cease from
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura proceeding in some matters not within its
(c) Mizoram and Manipur jurisdiction.
(d) Sikkim and Mizoram 2. This writ is available against a public of¿cer
35. Consider the following statements in regard to even if he is not vested with judicial powers.
‘equality before law’ introduced by the British in Select the correct answer using the codes given
India. below.
1. There were similar courts for Indians and (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Europeans. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Consider the following statements regarding law 44. Consider the following regarding death penalty
commission of India: 1. Indian law permits execution only in the
1. Recently, the 20th law commission was cases of ‘rarest of rare’ crimes.
constituted under the chairmanship of D.K. 2. In India pardoning power of the president
Jain with respect to death sentence is decided by
2. The commission is constituted for a period the president as per recommendations of the
of ¿ve years Union Home Ministry.
3. Codi¿cation of the penal code, and 3. Recently, China, Pakistan, voted against
the Criminal Procedure Code were a UN resolution on calling for a ban on
recommended by the law commission capital punishment while India supported
constituted under charter Act of 1833. the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct? Which of the following given statements is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,3 and 4 only (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
41. Parliament of which of the following SAARC (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 nor 3
country has recently voted to remove chief justice 45. Which of the following is not correct regarding
of the country on charges of corruption, in a move writ?
analysts say could trigger a constitutional crisis?
1. The Supreme Court of India and High Court
(a) Pakistan (b) Sri Lanka
are empowered to issue writs under Article
(c) Bangladesh (d) India
32 and 226 of the constitution but parliament
42. Article 136 of Indian Constitution authorizes the
of India confers this power on any other
Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal.
court in addition to the Supreme Court and
Which of the following statement is not correct
High Court.
with respect to ‘Appeal by Special Leave’?
2. The Supreme Court has wider jurisdiction to
(a) It is a discretionary power of the Supreme
issue writs than the High Courts.
Court
3. The Supreme Court may refuse to exercise
(b) It can be granted against any court or tribunal
its writ jurisdiction while a high court may
including the military court
(c) It can be related to any matter not refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction
(d) None of these correct code:
1. There is no provision in the constitution of (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 only
India for the impeachment of a judge of the 46. Consider the following statements:
High Court or Supreme Court. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the
2. The parliament is not empowered to discuss president of India on matters of law or fact
the conduct of any judge of the Supreme 1. On its own initiative
Court or a High Court and the protection in 2. If he seeks such an advice
this regard is applied to his judicial duties as 3. Only if the matters relate to the fundamental
well as his private conduct. Rights of the citizens
Which of the Statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2
C-84 || Judiciary
47. With reference to Lok Adalats which of the 1. The FTCs were started by the Central govern-
following statements is correct? ment pursuant to the observations of the First
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle National Judicial Pay Commission, 1999,
the matters at pre-litigative stage and not the 120th Report of the Law Commission on
those matters pending before any court. Manpower Planning in the judiciary,
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are 2. The FTCs are established to expeditiously
civil and not criminal in nature. dispose of long pending cases in the Sessions
(c) Every Lok Adalat consist of either serving Courts and long pending cases of undertrial
or retired judicial of¿cers only or not any prisoners.
other person. 3. When judges were appointed to the FTCs,
(d) None of the statements given above is their service conditions were settled by
correct. the framing of rules which were done in
48. Consider the following statements: consultation with the High Courts of the States.
1. The Advocate General of a state in India is
appointed by the President of India upon
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above
the recommendation of the Governor of the
52. Match the lists with regard to the Criminal Law
concerned state.
Amendment Act
2. As provided in Civil procedure Code, High List I
Courts have original appellate and advisory (Offences)
jurisdiction at the state level A. Acid Attack
Which of the following statements is/are correct? B. Stalking
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only C. Voyeurism
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 D. Sexual Harassment
49. With reference to Lok Adalat, consider the List II
following statements: (Punishment)
1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed 1. Rigorous imprisonment up to ¿ve years, or with
to be a decree of a Civil Court and no appeal ¿ne, or with both in case of physical contact
lies against thereto before any Court. and advances involving unwelcome and explicit
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not sexual overtures; or a demand or request for
covered under Lok Adalat sexual favours.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are 2. In case of ¿rst conviction, imprisonment not less
correct? than one year, but which may extend to three
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only years, and shall also be liable to ¿ne.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Imprisonment not less than one year but which
50. Consider the following statement may extend to three years, and shall also be liable
1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) to ¿ne
was set up during the ministership of Lal 4. Imprisonment not less than ten years but which
Bahadur Shastri. may extend to imprisonment for life and with ¿ne
2. The member of CAT are drawn from both which shall be just and reasonable to meet the
Judicial and administrative streams. medical expenses and it shall be paid to the victim
Which of the following statements given above Codes:
is/are correct? A B C D
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 2 3 4
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 3 4 1
51. Which of the following statements are correct (c) 2 1 4 3
regarding the Fast Track Courts (FTCs) in India? (d) 4 3 2 1
53. Which of the salient features of the Lokpal and Codes:

Lokayuktas Act 2014? A B C D
1. Lokpal will consist of a chairperson and a (a) 4 1 3 2
maximum of eight members, of which 50 (b) 2 1 3 4
per cent shall be judicial members. (c) 1 4 3 2
2. The selection of chairperson and members (d) 4 2 3 1
of Lokpal shall be done by the Ethics 56. In a latest development in Niira Radia case The
Committee of Parliament. Supreme Court directed the Central Bureau of
3. Prime Minister has been brought under the Investigation to probe into the;
purview of the Lokpal. 1. Allotment of coal blocks to Sasan Power
Project run by the Anil Ambani Group.
4. 50 per cent of members of Lokpal shall be
2. Allotment of iron ore mines at Anuka in
from SC/ST/OBCs, minorities and women.
Singhbhoomi district of Jharkhand to Tata
Steel.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
3. ‘Favoures’ allegedly shown by V. K. Sibal,
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
then Chief of the Directorate General of
54. Identify the incorrect pair of Case and Ruling in Hydrocarbons, to Reliance Industries and
that case by Supreme Court quid pro quo received.
(a) Indira Sawhney Case - Creamy Layer for 4. Allotment of land to J. P. Group in Uttar
other Backward Classes Pradesh for Yamuna Expressway.
(b) Vishakha Case - Protection of working The correct answer is
women against sexual harassment at her (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
place of work (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Maneka Gandhi Case - Articles 14, 19 and 57. Consider the following statements and select the
21 are not mutually exclusive correct answer from the codes given below :
(d) Bella Banerji Case - Right to travel abroad is Assertion (A): The Supreme Court is a Court of
part of personal liberty. Record.
55. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Reason (R) : Once a Court is made a Court of
answer by using code given below: Record, its power to punish for
List - I List - II its contempt necessarily follows
(Article of Constitution) (Provision) form that position.
A. 215 1. Transfer of one Codes :
Judge from one (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
High Court to the correct explanation of A
another (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
B. 222 2. Powers of not the correct explanation of A
superintendence
over all courts by
the High Court
C. 226 3. Power of High
Assertion (A): Judicial Review is a process to
Court to issue restrain the executive or the
certain writs. legislature from exercising power
D. 227 4. High Court to be which may not be sanctioned by
court of Record the Constitution.
C-86 || Judiciary
Reason (R) : The source of the power of (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
judicial review is Article 13 of the not the correct explanation of A
Constitution. (c) A is true but R is false
Codes : (d) A is false but R is true
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is 61. Which of the following statements regarding
the correct explanation of A Supreme Court of India are correct ?
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is 1. It has the power to entertain appeal from any
not the correct explanation of A court or tribunal within India.
(c) A is true but R is false 2. It has the power to deliver advisory opinion
on any question of fact or law referred to it
by the President.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court
1. Parliament can extend, but cannot curtail
are subject to vote by the Parliament.
the jurisdiction and power of the Supreme 4. Its jurisdiction is binding on all other courts
Court. within India.
2. No discussion can take place in parliament Select the correct answer from the codes given
with respect to the conduct of any judge of below :
the Supreme Court in the discharge of his (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
duties. (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
3. A retired judge of the Supreme Court cannot 62. Consider the following statements :
appear or plead in any court or before any 1. The maximum number of Judges in a High
authority within the territory of India. Court are speci¿ed in the Constitution of
4. The salaries and allowances of the judges India.
of the Supreme Court are charged on the 2. Every High Court has a power of
Consolidated Fund of India. superintendence over all courts and tribunals
Which of these statements are correct ? (except military tribunals) provided they are
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 subject to appellate jurisdiction of the High
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 Court.
60. Consider the following statements and select the Which of the statements given above is / are
correct answer from the codes given below : correct?
Assertion (A): The rule-making power of the
Supreme Court is not subject to
63. Which of the following are the main jurisdictions
any law made by the Parliament
of the High Court of a State ?
of India. 1. Original jurisdiction
Reason (R) : Only an impartial and independent 2. Appellate jurisdiction
judiciary can protect the rights 3. Supervisory jurisdiction
of the individual without fear or 4. Advisory jurisdiction
favour. Choose the correct answer from the codes given
Codes : below :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
the correct explanation of A (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 9. (b) 17. (a) 25. (a) 33. (d) 41. (b) 49. (a) 57. (b)
2. (c) 10. (a) 18. (a) 26. (c) 34. (a) 42. (b) 50. (b) 58. (b)
3. (b) 11. (a) 19. (c) 27. (b) 35. (b) 43. (a) 51. (d) 59. (a)
4. (b) 12. (a) 20. (c) 28. (a) 36. (a) 44. (b) 52. (d) 60. (d)
5. (c) 13. (c) 21. (c) 29. (c) 37. (a) 45. (a) 53. (c) 61. (d)
6. (a) 14. (d) 22. (a) 30. (d) 38. (a) 46. (b) 54. (d) 62. (d)
7. (d) 15. (d) 23. (b) 31. (d) 39. (a) 47. (d) 55. (a) 63. (a)
8. (c) 16. (a) 24. (b) 32. (d) 40. (c) 48. (d) 56. (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Insertion of part XIV(B) in the constitution approval. On the recommendation of cabinet the
— 116th Amendment president appoints Attorney General.
Reservation in Promotions for SCs/STs 5. (c) Any member of the naval, military, air-forces,
— 117th Amendment of¿cer of the SC or High Court and the secretarial
Introduction of the Goods and Services Tax staff of either House of Parliament doesn’t fail under
— 115th Amendment the preview of the administrative tribunal Act, 1985.
Increasing age limit of High Court judges to 65 It extends, — (a) In so far as it relates to the Central
— 114th Amendment Administrative Tribunal, to the whole of India; (b)
2. (c) The exclusive original jurisdiction of Supreme In so far as it relates to Administrative Tribunals
Court extends to any dispute between the government for States, to the whole of India, except the State of
of India and one or more states, if and insofar as Jammu and Kashmir. (3) The provisions of this Act,
the dispute involves any question on which the in so far as they relate to the Central Administrative
existence or extent of a legal right depends. Tribunal, shall come into force on such date as the
3. (b) After the passing of the states reorganizations Central Government may, by noti¿cation, appoint.
Act, 1956, the number of states and UTs formed (4) The provisions of this Act, in so far as they relate
were 14 states and 6 UTs. The States Reorganisation to an Administrative Tribunal for a State, shall come
Act, 1956 was a major reform of the boundaries into force in a State on such date as the Central
of India's states and territories, organising them Government may, by noti¿cation, appoint.
along linguistic lines. In December 1953, Prime 6. (a) Justice D K Jain is appointed the chairman of
Minister Jawaharlal Nehru appointed the States the Twentieth Law commission for a three year term
Reorganisation to reorganize the Indian states. This ending on 31st Aug 2015. The terms of reference
was headed by Justice Fazal Ali and the commission are:
itself was known as the Fazal Ali Commission. The (i) Identify laws which are no longer needed or
efforts of this commission were overseen by Govind relevant and can be immediately repealed.
Ballabh Pant, who served as Home Minister from (ii) Identify laws which are not in harmony with
December 1954. The commission created a report the existing climate of economic liberalization and
in 1955 recommending the reorganisation of states. need change.
4. (b) The proposal for appointment of Law of¿cers (iii) Identify laws which otherwise require changes
viz. Attorney General, Solicitor General, is sent to or amendments and to make suggestions for their
the Appointments committee of the cabinet for its amendment.
C-88 || Judiciary
(iv) Consider in a wider perspective the suggestions 14. (d) Special leave petition power of the SC does not
for revision/amendment given by Expert Groups to the judgment of any court or tribunal constituted
in various Ministries/Departments with a view to by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces
coordinating and harmonising them. 15. (d) The concept of ‘Basic Features’ that
(v) Consider references made to it by Ministries/ was introduced by the Supreme Court in the
Departments in respect of legislation having Kesvananda Bharati case verdict was a response
bearing on the working of more than one Ministry/ to the 24th constitutional Amendment Act. The
Department. Twenty-fourth Amendment of the Constitution
(vi) Suggest suitable measures for quick redressal of India, of¿cially known as The Constitution
of citizens grievances, in the ¿eld of law. (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971, enables
7. (d) The retirement age of High Court judges is Parliament to dilute Fundamental Rights through
to be raised to 65 years by the 114th constitution Amendments of the Constitution. It also amended
Amendment Bill includes Full time judges, article 368 to provide expressly that Parliament has
Additional judges and Acting judges. power to amend any provision of the Constitution.
8. (c) The supreme court has no adjudicatory The amendment further made it obligatory for the
jurisdiction to change the award in the case of President to give his assent, when a Constitution
interstate river water disputes and delimitation of Amendment Bill was presented to him.
constitution. 16. (a) The award is binding in the arbitration among
9. (b) Service taxation is an example of residuary the three types of alternative dispute resolution—
powers in India. arbitration, conciliation and mediation.
10. (a) The minimum number of judges who are to 17. (a) Pensions of High Court judges are charged on
sit for the purpose of hearing any reference under the consolidated Fund of the India.
Article 143 shall be ¿ve. If at any time it appears to 18. (a) Any question arising as to the age of a judge of
the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, a High court, the question shall be decided by chief
or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of justice of India.
19. (c) Under Article 131, disputes between different
such public importance that it is expedient to obtain
units of the Federation will be within the exclusive
the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may
original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Subject
refer the question to that Court for consideration
to the provisions of this Constitution, the Supreme
and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks ¿t,
Court shall, to the exclusion of any other court, has
report to the President its opinion thereon.
original jurisdiction in any dispute (a) between the
11. (a) President of India decides one High Court may Government of India and one or more States; or (b)
have jurisdiction over two or more states. between the Government of India and any State or
12. (a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra pradesh have already States on one side and one or more other States on
set up Lokayauktas. So the incorrect answer is the other; or (c) between two or more States.
option (a). The Lokayukta appointed by the people 20. (c) According to Article 227(b), the Chief Justice
is an anti-corruption ombudsman organization of High Court when acts in an administrative
in the Indian states. The Administrative Reforms capacity, any rules made by him shall not be
Commission (ARC) headed by Morarji Desai inconsistent with the provision of any law in force
submitted a special interim report on "Problems of and requires the previous approval of the governor.
Redressal of Citizen's Grievances" in 1966. In this 21. (c) According to Article 236, the expression
report, the ARC recommended the setting up of district judge includes judge of a city Civil Court,
two special authorities designated as 'Lokpal' and additional district judge, joint district judge,
'Lokayukta' for the redressal of citizens' grievances. assistant district judge, chief judge of a Small Cause
13. (c) Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction Court, chief presidency magistrate, additional chief
under the Article in relation to federal Cases. presidency magistrate, sessions judge, additional
sessions judge and assistant sessions judge.
22. (a) Article 76 of the constitution says about judiciary. A PIL may be introduced in a court of
Attorney General of India. The president shall law by the court itself (suo motu), rather than the
appoint a person who is quali¿ed the same as a aggrieved party or another third party.
judge of the Supreme Court. 32. (d) Any dispute between the Union and one or
23. (b) Article 143 of the constitution says that, if at more states comes under the exclusive original
any time it appears to the president that a question jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.
of law or fact has arisen, the court may, after such 33. (d) The Supreme Court of India ordered the state
hearing as it thinks ¿t, report to the president its governments and the UTs to depute female police
opinion thereon. of¿cers in plain clothes at the public places to check
24. (b) There are 21 High Courts in the country, three the incidents of eve-teasing.
having jurisdiction over more than one state. The 34. (a) According to the North-Eastern Areas
Judge in the High Court holds of¿ce up to 62 years amendment Bill, 2011, a combined cadre for all
of age. India services has been suggested for Tripura and
25. (a) The salary and other allowances of the judge Manipur.
are charged upon the consolidated fund of India. 35. (b) There were separate courts and even laws
26. (c) The parliament can regulate the organization for Indians and Europeans. In Criminal cases the
and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. It can expand Europeans could be tried only by European judges.
the jurisdiction but can’t curtail the same.
36. (a) The Mau Mau Rebellion took place in Kenya.
27. (b) The Calcutta High Court has the territorial
The Mau Mau Uprising (also known as the Mau
jurisdiction over West Bengal, it is having circuit
Mau Revolt, Mau Mau Rebellion and Kenya
bench at Port Blair.
Emergency) was a military conÀict that took place
28. (a) There are 21 High Courts in the country
in Kenya between 1952 and 1960. It involved
Punjab, Haryana and UT of Chandigarh have a
Kikuyu-dominated anti-colonial groups summarily
common High Court in Chandigarh.
called Mau Mau and elements of the British Army,
29. (c) Lok Adalats settle disputes through conciliation
the local Kenya Regiment mostly consisting of
and compromise. Lok Adalats have been organized
the British, auxiliaries and anti-Mau Mau Kikuyu.
for settlement of motor accident cases, insurance
The capture of rebel leader Dedan Kimathi on 21
claims and Land dispute cases. Lok Adalat is a
October 1956 signalled the ultimate defeat of Mau
system of alternative dispute resolution developed
in India. It roughly means "People's Court". India Mau, and essentially ended the British military
has had a long history of resolving disputes through campaign.
the mediation of village elders. The System of Lok 37. (a) The relaxation of Cabotage Law for
Adalats is an improvement and is based on the Vallarpadam terminal augurs well for Gateway
principles of Mahatma Gandhi. Distriparks, which may see an improvement in
30. (d) ‘A’ is wrong because, there are 21 High Courts CFS volumes in the coming quarters. Its CFS near
in the country, B having jurisdiction over more than the terminal is likely to attract some of the cargo.
one state. Under the existing rules of Cabotage Law, only
31. (d) P.N. Bhagwati was the Chief Justice of India Indian Àagged vessels can handle coastal cargo.
when PIL concept was developed in the Indian Hence, foreign carriers transshipped India destined
judicial system in 1981. Public Interest Litigation cargo at Colombo or Dubai ports earlier. This
is litigation for the protection of the public interest. resulted in lower capacity utilization in Vallarpadam
In Indian law, Article 32 of the Indian constitution International Container Transshipment Terminal
contains a tool which directly joins the public with (ICCT) at Kochi, which was set up eighteen months
C-90 || Judiciary
ago. With the relaxation of the rules, foreign carriers 47. (d) Lok Adalat has the jurisdiction to settle, by way
can now handle coastal cargo through Vallarpadam of effecting compromise between the parties, any
ICTT. matter which may be pending before any court. Lok
38. (a) In general the British observed customary laws Adalat is a non-adversarial system, whereby mock
of India. courts (called Lok Adalats) are held by the State
39. (a) Write of prohibition is not available against Authority, District Authority, Supreme Court Legal
a public of¿cer not vested with judicial or quasi Services Committee, High Court Legal Services
judicial powers. Committee, or Taluk Legal Services Committee.
40. (c) The law commission of India is constituted for 48. (d) Article 165, Advocate-General for the state.
the period of three years. It is a statutory body. The governor of each state shall appoint a person
41. (b) Parliament of Sri Lanka has recently voted to who is quali¿ed to be appointed a judge of a High
remove Chief Justice of the country on charges of court to be advocate General for the state.
corruption. Shirani Bandaranayake, the 43rd Chief 49. (a) An award made by a Lok adalat is deemed
Justice of Sri Lanka, was impeached by Parliament to be a decree of a Civil Court and no appeal lies
and then removed from of¿ce by President Mahinda against thereto before any court. It was according to
Rajapaksa in January 2013. Bandaranayake was the Legal Services Authority Act 1987, which gave
accused of a number of charges including ¿nancial statutory status to Lok Adalat.
impropriety and interfering in legal cases, all of 50. (b) CAT was set up in 1985 during Rajiv Gandhi’s
which she has denied. The impeachment followed tenure. The members of CAT are drawn from
a series of rulings against the government by both judicial and administrative streams. The
the Supreme Court, including one against a bill Administrative Tribunals in India were set up in
proposed by Minister Basil Rajapaksa, President 1985 and function from 17 Benches across the
Rajapaksa's brother. Bandaranayake was replaced country. These Tribunals are unique in the sense that
as chief justice by former Attorney General Mohan the Members of these Tribunals are both from the
Peiris. Administrative as well as Judicial side.
42. (b) According to Article 136, ‘Appeal by special 51. (d) A unique feature of the FTCs is to prove to
leave’ can be granted against any court or tribunal be cost effective. This is so because the new courts
including the military court. charged with the exclusive work of disposing of
43. (a) The parliament is not empowered to discuss undertrial cases in the ¿rst year of their existence.
the conduct of any judge of the Supreme Court, or A large majority of undertrials being those who
a High Court but the protection of the judge in this had been booked for petty/minor offences, they are
regard is restricted to his of¿cial duties and does not bound to be discharged forthwith as most of them
apply to his private conduct. have been behind bars for periods which are longer
44. (b) India was among the 39 countries that voted than the punishment warranted by the offence.
against a UN General Assembly draft resolution In plain terms, this mean a huge saving in jail
which called for abolishing the death Penalty. expenditure.
45. (a) The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the 52. (d) The Criminal Law [Amendment] Bill, 2013
enforcement of fundamental rights whereas a high was passed by the Lok Sabha on 19th March,
court can issue writs not only for the enforcement of 2013, and by the Rajya Sabha on 21st March,
fundamental rights but also for any other purpose. 2013. The President of India has accorded his
46. (b) Article 143 of the constitution of India assent to the Bill on 2nd April, 2013 and it is now
describes the power of president to consult supreme be called the Criminal Law [Amendment] Act,
court, if he seeks such an advice. 2013. The new laws have provisions for increased
sentence for rape convicts, including life-term and 58. (b) The Indian Constitution adopted the Judicial
death sentence, besides providing for stringent Review on lines of U.S. Constitution. Parliament
punishment for offences such as acid attacks, is not supreme under the Constitution of India. Its
stalking and voyeurism. Through the revised Bill, powers are limited in a manner that the power is
the government has amended various sections of the divided between centre and states.
Indian Penal Code, the Code of Criminal Procedure, Moreover the Supreme Court enjoys a position
the Indian Evidence Act and the Protection of which entrusts it with the power of reviewing the
Children from Sexual Offences Act. legislative enactments both of Parliament and the
53. (c) The selection of chairperson and members State Legislatures. This grants the court a powerful
of Lokpal shall be through a selection committee instrument of judicial review under the constitution.
consisting of Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok 59. (a) The jurisdiction of the Court cannot be
Sabha, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, curtailed by parliament. The conduct of judge of the
Chief Justice of India or a sitting Supreme Court Supreme Court is not to be discussed in Parliament,
judge nominated by CJI, eminent jurist to be except upon a motion for an address to the President
nominated by the President of India on the basis of for the removal of the judge. After retirement a
recommendations of the ¿rst four members of the judge of the Supreme Court shall not plead or act
selection committee. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas in any Court or before any authority within the
Bill, 2013 is published as Act No.1 of 2014 in the territory of India. Article 125 empowers Parliament
Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part-II, Section-1, to determine by law the salaries etc., of the Judges.
dated the 1st January 2014. The Lokpal can inquire By the 54th Amendment Act 1986 the salaries of
into offences under the Prevention of Corruption the Judges were revised upwards to minimize the
Act, 1988 committed by members of Parliament, inÀationary pressures and attract the best talent to
judicial posts. They are entitled to a pension etc.
group A and B government of¿cials, employees of
The salaries of the Judge and other expenses of the
a company, society or a trust set up by an Act of
Supreme Court are changed on the Consolidation
Parliament, or ¿nanced or controlled by the central
Fund of India.
government. The Lokpal And Lokayuktas Act,
61. (d) The Supreme Court is the highest Court appeal
2013 also made amendments to the Commission
from all courts in India. It hears appeals in (i) cases
of Inquiry Act 1952, Delhi Police Establishment
involving interpretation of the constitution- civil,
Act 1946, Prevention of Corruption Act 1988, Code
Criminal or otherwise (Article 132) (ii) Civil cases
of Criminal Procedure 1973 and Central Vigilance
irrespective of any constitutional issue (Article.
Commission Act 2003.
133) (iii) Criminal matters irrespective of any
(15) Under which of the following articles the
constitutional issue (134). Besides, the Supreme
Supreme Court decided that the Right to Life and
Court may grant special leave to appeal in certain
Liberty is also available to the foreigners
cases (136).
(a) Article 19 of the Constitution of India
The Supreme Court renders advice on any
(b) Article 21 of the Constitution of India
question of law or fact of public importance as may
(c) Article 25 of the Constitution of India
be referred to it for consideration by the President.
(d) Article 28 of the Constitution of India
These are no litigation involved and the opinion
57. (b) According to Article 129 the Supreme Court to
given by the Supreme Court is not to be considered
be a court of record. The Supreme Court shall be a as a judgment. The advice is not binding on the
court of record and shall have all the powers of such President who may or not accept it. The decision
a court including the power to punish for contempt of the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within
of itself. R is not the correct explanation of A. the territory of India. However the Supreme Court
C-92 || Judiciary
is not bound by its earlier decision it can come to a Supervisory Jurisdiction
different decision if it is convinced that it had made Control over subordinate courts
an error or harmed public interest. A court of record
63. (a) At present a high court enjoys the following Power of judicial review
jurisdiction and powers:
Original Jurisdiction
Appellate Jurisdiction
1 Indian Economy
1. What does the term ‘Green shoots’ represent in an Which of the statements given above are correct?
Economy? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) signs of growth of agriculture sector in a (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
growing economy 4. Consider the following statements in regard to
(b) signs of economic recovery during an ‘RESIDEX’:
economy downturn (1) The index is prepared to track the prices of
(c) signs of growth of agriculture sector in a residential properties in India on the basis of
declining economy actual transaction prices.
(d) signs of economic decline in a developed (2) The index is prepared from the secondary data
economy. available from various sources like housing,
2. Consider the following statement in regard to ¿nance companies and banks.
reserve currency : Which of the statements given above is/are
(1) Reserve currency acts as the international correct?
pricing currency in the global market for (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
commodities like oil and gold. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(2) The country whose local currency is accepted 5. Which of the following is/are the functions of the
as reserve currency gets an added advantage National Development Council of India?
in terms of lower commodity rates in the (1) To prescribe guidelines for preparation of the
international market. national economic plan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct (2) To review the working of the national
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only economic plan from time to time.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (3) To consider important questions of social
3. Consider the following in regard to the reason and economic policy affecting national
for the persistence of inÀation according to the development
Economic Survey 2012-13 : Select the correct answer using the codes given
(1) InÀation in protein foods, particularly eggs, below?
meat and ¿sh and in fruits and vegetables has (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
persisted because of changes in dietary habits (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
and supply constraints. 6. Consider the following statements in regard to
(2) Rise in income is also a reason for sustained inclusive development :
food inÀation. (1) Inclusive developments refer to the social
(3) An increase in MSP while necessary to ensure inclusion of the socially excluded sections
remunerative returns to farmers, raised the of the society.
Àoor prices and also contributed to the rise (2) Creating productive and gainful employment
in input prices. opportunities.
D-2 || Indian Economy
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
7. Consider the following statements in regard to 11. What do you understand by ‘regressive taxation’?
Hedge funds: (a) Tax that takes a larger perentage from low-
(1) Hedge funds are open to all types of investors. income people than from high income people.
(2) Hedge funds are immune to risk of the market (b) Taxation where the tax rate increases
and always produce positive returns. irrespective of fall or rise in taxable incomes.
(3) Investments in hedge funds are illiquid as they (c) Taxation where the tax rate increase with the
often require investors keep their money in increase of taxable income
the fund for at least one year. (d) None of above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 12. Consider the following statements in regard to
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only Zero Base Budgeting (ZBB) :
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only (1) Existing Government programmes can be
8. Consider the following systems : discarded under ZBB if they are found to be
(1) Introduction of portfolio system in the outdated.
Executive. (2) ZBB is difficult to be applied to Human
(2) Establishment of a Federal public service Development programmes as the outcome
commission. of such programme is intangible in nature.
(3) Separation of provincial budgets from the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
central budget for the ¿rst time. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which of the systems given above was/were (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
provided by the government of India, Act 1935? 13. In the hours of surging energy needs, why and
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only how it is necessary to manage coal wisely for a
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only sustainable socio-economic development?
9. Consider the following statements in regard to (1) Coal ¿red power plants are the biggest source
money market in India: of manmade CO2 emissions and coal energy
(1) It is a market for short-term and long-term the single greatest threat our climate faces.
funds with maturity ranging from overnight (2) To get to the coal we must either cut down
to one year. the forests and/or displace large number of
(2) It acts as an instrument of liquidity adjustment people from these regions.
for the Central Bank. Select the correct answer using the codes given
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? below :
10. Consider the following statements in regard to 14. Which of the following can be the outcomes of
‘InÀation Index bonds’? very high inÀation in the economy?
(1) Investment in these bonds is more risky (1) Reduction in economic growth
as these bonds increase the inÀation risk (2) Increase in savings
attached to the investment. (3) Reduction in exports
(2) It is better ¿nancial instrument compared to Select the correct answer using the codes below :
gold to hedge the risk rising out of volatile (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only
economy. (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
Economics || D-3
15. Which of the following activities can lead to 20. Which of the following best explains the cascading
¿nancial inclusion in India? effect of taxation?
(1) Issuing of general purpose credit cards. (1) When tax imposition leads to a disproportionate
(2) Strict know your customer’ (KYC) norms increase in prices by an extent more than the
(3) Opening of Bank branches in unbanked rural rise in the tax.
areas. (2) When tax imposition leads to a disproportionate
(4) Opening of no-frills account. decrease in prices by an extent more than the
Select the correct answer using the codes given rise in the tax.
below : (3) When tax imposition leads to a disproportionate
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only decrease in imports.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only (4) When tax imposition leads to a disproportionate
16. Consider the following statements in regard to decrease in exports.
Gross Domestic product (GDP) of India: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(1) Between 1951 and 2000 the share of (c) 4 only (d) 3 and 1 only
agriculture in GDP fell from around 56% to 21. An economy with very low rate of interest and
around 25% where economic agents expect the interest rate
(2) Share of the services sector in GDP was less to rise in future and consequently bond prices to
than industrial sector between 1951 and 2000 fall, causing capital loss in the economy is going
Which of the statements given below is/are not through a situation known as
correct? (a) HyperinÀation
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) Double dip recession
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Slow down in the economy
17. In an economy a condition of lack of money supply (d) Liquidity trap
in comparison to the supply of the goods services, 22. Consider the following statements :
will lead to: (1) Fiat money is a term used for Gold coins
(a) InÀation (b) DeÀation (2) Currency Deposit Ratio is the proportion of
(c) HyperinÀation (d) Devaluation
the total deposits commercial banks keep as
18. Currency devaluation done by the government
reserves.
leads to which of the following?
(a) Fall in domestic prices
(b) Increase in domestic prices
(c) No impact on domestic prices
23. Which of the following are correct in regard to
(d) Irregular Àuctuations in domestic prices.
the austerity measures taken by a country going
19. Consider the following statements in regard to
through adverse economy conditions:
‘poverty line’ :
(1) These measures include a reduction in
(1) The International poverty line according to
spending.
World Bank is US $ 1.25/day/person based
(2) These measures include an increase in tax
on PPP (Purchasing Power Parity).
(3) These measures include reduction in budget
(2) Planning commission of India has de¿ned
poverty line based on intake of calories and de¿cit.
is different for rural and urban areas. Select the correct answer using the codes given
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? below :
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
24. Consider the following statements in regard to the 30. When the RBI wants to inject liquidity into
GDP of a country : economy, it may adopt the following :
(1) Real GDP is calculated by keeping inÀation (1) Buy the government securities from the
into consideration. banks.
(2) Nominal GDP is calculated on the basis of (2) Enter into reverse repo operations
the prices of goods and services produced in (3) Raise cash Reserve Ratio
the current year. (4) Reduce SLR.
below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
25. Which of the following is associated with ¿scal 31. Which of the following statements is/are correct
policy? in regard to ‘micro-¿nance’?
(a) InÀation (b) Taxation (1) Micro-credit extended by banks to individual
(c) Consumption (d) Money supply is reckoned as a part of their priority sector
26. Consider the following statements in regard to lending.
Headline inÀation : (2) RBI has prescribed a particular model the
(1) It provides an accurate picture of the inÀation banks to provide micro-¿nance.
in the country. Choose the correct answer using the codes given
(2) It is affected by short term transitory effect below:
on prices of products. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 32. Which of the following steps that will result in
containing inÀation?
(1) Increasing Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(2) Decreasing Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
(1) Higher growth in GDP and population can (3) Permitting Central/State agencies to import
occur together. duty free pulses and sugar.
(2) Per capita income always decreases with high Select the correct answer using the codes given
population growth. below:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 33. Which of the following will not contribute to a
28. Which of the following is not a part of India’s higher current account de¿cit?
National Debt? (1) Increase in price of crude oil
(a) National Savings Certi¿cates (2) Rise in export of software services
(b) Dated Government Securities (3) Rise in import of services
(c) Provident Funds Choose the correct answer using the codes given
(d) Life Insurance Policies below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
29. ‘Fiscal Drag’ expresses the impact of inÀation on
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
which of the following ?
34. Consider the following statements in regard to
(a) Fiscal De¿cit devaluation and depreciation of a currency:
(b) Tax Revenue and GDP (1) Devaluation is an activity conducted by
(c) Black money central government whereas depreciation
(d) Investment happens due to market forces.
Economics || D-5
(2) In both the devaluation and depreciation 39. Which of the following is the characteristic of
currency loses value against other currencies progressive tax?
in a Àoating currency exchange market. (1) Marginal tax rate should be increasing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2) Marginal tax rates should be more than
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only average tax rate.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code given
35. GDP deÀator is used to : below:
(a) measure the relative reduction in GDP growth (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
rate of a country. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) measure the inÀation in a country. 40. Consider the following statements in regard to the
(c) compare the GDP of a country vis a vis other Goods and Service Tax:
countries of the world. (1) The GST shall have two components : one
(d) estimate the purchasing power of the citizen levied by the centre, and the other levied by
of a country. the states.
36. Consider the following statements in regard to (2) The central GST and state GST are to be paid
‘Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)’ of RBI : to the joint accounts of the centre and the
(1) It will help in reducing volatility in the states.
overnight lending rates in the inter-bank (3) While the imports would be zero-rated, the
market. exports would be subjected to the GST.
(2) The borrowing under the MSF should be over Which of the above statements is/are correct?
and above the statutory liquidity requirement. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 41. Which of the following will not be the part of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ‘¿nancial inclusion’?
37. Which of the following should be considered for (1) Opening educational centres
‘Pigovian taxation’? (2) Opening wealth management centres by
(1) Consumption of cigarettes
citibank.
(2) Research for new technologies
(3) Eradication of poverty.
(3) Burning of fossil fuels
(4) Report of Khan commission on financial
(4) Restoration of lost cultural heritage
inclusion.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
38. ‘Basel III’ norms target at which of the following?
42. Which of the following can be associated with
(1) Improve the banking sector’s ability to absorb
‘Gini Coef¿cient’?
shocks arising from ¿nancial and economic
(1) National income inequality
stress.
(2) Lorenz curve
(2) Improve risk management and governance.
(3) Strengthen banks’ transparency. (3) Education system
Choose the correct answer using the codes given Select the correct answer using the codes given
below: below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
43. In India, rural incomes are generally lower than (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
the urban incomes. Which of the following reasons (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
account for this? 48. National Income is the
(1) A large number of farmers are illiterate and (a) NNP at market price
know little about scienti¿c-agriculture. (b) NNP at factor cost
(2) Prices of primary products are lower than (c) Net Domestic product at market price
those of manufactured products. (d) Net domestic product at factor cost.
(3) Investment in agriculture has been lower 49. The Minimum Alternative Tax (MAT) was
when compared to investment in industry : introduced in the budget of the Government of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 India for the year?
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 (a) 1991-92 (b) 1992-93
44. Human Development Index comprises literacy (c) 1995-96 (d) 1996-97
rates, life expectancy at birth and 50. The supply-side economics lays greater emphasis
on the point of view of :
(a) GDP per head in the US dollars.
(a) producer (b) global economy
(b) GDP per head at real purchasing power.
(c) consumer (d) middle-man
(c) GNP in US dollars
51. The volatility in the Indian share market is due to
(d) National Income per head in US dollars.
1. inÀow and outÀow of foreign funds.
45. In India, inÀation is measured by the : 2. Àuctuations in foreign capital markets.
(a) wholesale price Index Number 3. changes in the monetary policy.
(b) consumers price Index for urban non-manual Which of the above mentioned causes are correct?
workers. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) consumers price Index for agricultural (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
(d) National Income DeÀation 52. Fiscal de¿cit implies
46. For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below. (a) Total expenditure – (Revenue receipts +
Choose the correct alternative. recovery of loans + receipts from disinvestment)
(A) : The emergence of economic globalism does (b) Total expenditure – Total receipts
not imply the decline of socialist ideology. (c) Total expenditure – (Revenue receipts +
(R) : The ideology of socialism believes in receipts from disinvestment)
Universalism and globalism. (d) Total expenditure – Disinvestment receipts
Which one of the following is correct? 53. India’s Trade Policy (2009-14) seeks to
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1. double the country’s share of global trade by
explanation. 2020
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 2. achieve a growth of 25 percent per annum in
explanation of A. exports.
(c) A is true but R is false. 3. double Indian exports of goods and services
(d) A is Àase but R is true. by 2014.
Choose the correct statement:
47. Which of the following comes under Non-plan
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
expenditure?
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Subsidies
54. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
2. Interest payments
(a) Chitra Ramkrishna – National Stock
3. Defence expenditure Exchange
4. Maintenance expenditure for the infrastructure (b) Chanda Kochar – ICICI Bank
Choose the correct answer using the codes given (c) Naina Lal Kidwai – HSBC
below: (d) Shikha Sharma – SBI
Economics || D-7
55. Which of the following de¿nitions are correct? 1. the Primary Agricultural Co-operative
(i) Basis points: increase in interest rates in Societies, Commercial Banks, RRBs and
percentage terms. Private money lenders.
(ii) Repo rate: rate at which commercial banks 2. the NABARD, RBI, Commercial banks and
borrow from the RBI by selling their Private money lenders.
securities or ¿nancial assets to the RBI for a 3. the District Central Co-operative Banks
long-period of time. (DCCB), the lead banks, IRDP and JRY
(iiii) Reverse repo rate: rate of interest at which the 4. the Large Scale Multi-purpose programme,
central bank borrows funds from other banks DCCB, IFFCO and Commercial banks.
(a) All of the above (b) 1 and 2 only
for a short duration.
(iv) Cash reserve ratio: minimum percentage of
59. Which of the following is true regarding Indian
cash deposits that banks must keep with itself
Economy from 2007-2008 to 2012-13 ?
to avoid liquidity issues. 1. Indian Economy’s growth was continuously
(a) (i) & (ii) (b) (ii), (iii) & (iv) slowing down from 2007-2008 to 2012-2013
(c) (ii) & (iv) (d) (iii) & (iv) due to many factors including Eurozone crisis
56. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs has noti¿ed the as well as domestic factors.
Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules and 2. WPI has high weightage for food and fuel
they would come into effect from April 1. Under than CPI.
the new laws that govern companies, spending on 3. In India lack of food grain production due to
CSR or social welfare activities is mandatory for continuous failure of monsoons is the primary
certain class of ¿rms. They are required to shell reason for food inÀation.
out at least 2 per cent of their three—year aver- 4. GAAR (General Anti Avoidance Rule) was
age annual pro¿t towards such works. Which of re-introduced in budget 2013.
the following ¿rms classify under the new law to Options :
make CSR spend? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(i) Companies having net worth of at least (c) All the above (d) None of the above
`750 crore 60. What are the difference between Millenium
(ii) Companies having minimum turnover of Development Goals and Sustainable Development
`500 crore Goals?
1. Millenium Development Goals (MDGs) were
(iii) Companies with at least net pro¿t of `5
not developed through an inter-governmental
crore
process, while SDG were.
(a) (i) & (ii) (b) (i), (ii) & (iii)
2. All the MDGs are applicable only to the
(c) Only (iii) (d) (i) & (iii)
developing countries except for MDG
57. Consider the following : 8 which relates to aid and ¿nance.
1. Market borrowing Options :
2. Treasury bills (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. Special securities issued to RBI (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Which of these is/are components of internal debt? 61. Which of the following grants/grant direct credit
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 assistance to rural households ?
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Regional Rural Banks
58. The farmers are provided credit from a number of 2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
sources for their short and long term needs. The Development
main sources of credit to the farmers include : 3. Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
below : (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) None of the above
62. In the context of Indian economy, open market (d) 3 and 4 only
operations to : 67. One of the reasons for India’s occupational
1. borrowing by scheduled banks from RBI structure remaining more or less the same over
2. lending by commercial banks to industry and the years has been that :
trade 1. invest pattern has been directed towards
3. purchase and sale of government securities capital intensive industries
by the RBI 2. productivity in agriculture has been high
4. None of the above
enough to induce people to stay with
agriculture
below :
3. ceiling on land holdings have enabled more
people to own land and hence their preference
to stay with agriculture
1. InÀation bene¿ts the debtors. 4. people are largely unaware of the signi¿cance
2. InÀation bene¿ts the bond-holders. of transition from agriculture to industry for
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? economic development
(a) 2 only (b) 1 only Find out the correct option from the code :
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 2 and 3 only
64. Disguised unemployment generally means: (b) 4 only
1. large number of people remain unemployed (c) None of the above
2. alternative employment is not available (d) 1 only
3. marginal productivity of labour is zero 68. The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio
4. productivity of workers is low between their cash in the hand and total assets.
Find out the correct option from the code: This is called :
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 3 and 1 only 1. Statutory Bank Ratio (SBR)
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only 2. Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR)
65. In India, deficit financing is used for raising 3. Central Bank Reserve (CBR)
resources for : 4. Central Liquid Reserve (CLR)
1. redemption of public debt Choose the correct option from the code :
2. adjusting the balance of payments (a) 2 and 3 only (b) All of the above
3. reducing the foreign debt (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 only
4. economic development 69. Fiscal de¿cit in the Union Budget means :
Which of the above statements is/are correct ? 1. the difference between current expenditure
(a) 4 only (b) None of the above
and current revenue
2. net increase in Union Governments borrowings
66. To obtain full bene¿ts of demographic dividend,
from the Reserve Bank of India.
what should India do ?
3. the sum of budgetary de¿cit and net increase
1. Promoting skill development
2. Introducing more social security schemes in internal and external borrowings
3. Reducing infant mortality rate 4. the sum of monetised de¿cit and budgetary
4. Privatisation of higher education de¿cit
Economics || D-9
Choose the correct option from the code : 74. The ‘activity rate’ of an economy depends upon
(a) 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only so many factors, such as :
(c) All of the above (d) 2 only 1. School leaving age
70. Gilt-edged market means : 2. Popularity of higher education
1. bullion market 3. Social customs
2. market of government securities 4. Retirement age
3. market of guns Code :
4. market of pure metals (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Find out the correct option from the code: (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 2 only (b) 4 and 3 only 75. The “Dual Economy” is a mixture of ?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only (a) traditional agriculture sector and modern
71. Consider the following statements about ‘hidden industrial sector
price rise’ and select the correct code : (b) industrial sector and manufacturing sectors
1. A situation of reduction in quality or amount (c) state ownership of the means of production
of a product offered at an unchanged price (d) industrial sector and trading of goods obtained
2. A situation of increase in indirect taxes on through imports
goods, which compromises on the quality of (e) None of these
the goods offered for sale 76. Economic liberalization in India started with?
Code : (a) Substantial changes in industrial licensing
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 policy
(c) 1 and 2 both (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) The convertibility of Indian rupees
72. Consider the following statements and select the (c) Doing away with procedural formalities for
correct code : foreign direct investment
1. Most of the governments run unbalanced (d) Signi¿cant reduction in tax rates
budgets. 77. Quaternary sector implies
2. In a balanced budget there could be budget (a) Activities related to mining and quarrying
surplus but no budget de¿cit. (b) Activities related to manufacturing
Code : (c) Fishing activities
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) Research and developmental activities
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 78. Consider the following statements:
73. Which of the following statements are not correct I. Government disinvesting its share in various
about ‘bond’ ? public sector undertakings
1. It is an instrument of raising long-term capital. II. Process of disinvestment is very fast
2. Bond-issuing body pays interest on it which III. Process of disinvestment is very slow and
is known as ‘contango rate’. government always falls short of target
3. It may be issued by governments and private Which of above statements is/ are true about
companies both. government policy of disinvestment
4. ‘Bonds’ and ‘debantures’ are different in (a) Only I (b) I and III
nature. (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
Codes: 79. Market Based economic climate means:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) Neither of the above (a) All ¿nancial determinations are taken based
(c) 2 only (d) All are true mostly on the demand and provide forces
(b) Some ¿nancial choice are taken by authorities (b) will increase
and different are left to market forces (c) will neither increase nor decrease
(c) Government has full handle over the exclusive (d) None of the above
sector 83. Consider the following liquid assets:
(d) Economic judgements are taken after 1. Demand deposits with the banks
maintaining in view the social welfare 2. Time deposits with the banks
80. In pursuance with the recommendations of 3. Savings deposits with the banks
Narsimhan Committee, the RBI has framed new 4. Currency
guidelines The correct sequence of these decreasing orders
(a) to govern entry of new private sector banks of Liquidity is:
to make the banking sector more competitive (a) 1-4-3-2 (b) 4-3-2-1
(b) to reduce the freedom given to banks to (c) 2-3-1-4 (d) 4-1-3-2
rationalize their existing branch network 84. In the context of Indian economy; which of the
(c) to setup more foreign exchange banks following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory
(d) to lend more easily for industrial development Reserve Requirements’?
81. De¿cit ¿nancing leads to inÀation in general, but 1. To enable the Central Bank to control the
it can be checked if: amount of advances the banks can create
(a) government expenditure leads to increase in 2. To make the people’s deposits with banks safe
the aggregate supply in ratio of aggregate and liquid
demand 3. To prevent the commercial banks from
(b) only aggregate demand is increased making excessive pro¿ts
(c) all the expenditure is denoted national debt 4. To force the banks to have suf¿cient vault
payment only cash to meet their day-to-day requirements
(d) All of the above Select the correct answer using the code given
82. If all the banks in an economy are nationalized and below.
converted into a monopoly bank, the total deposits (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) will decrease (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Economics || D-11
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 12. (c) 23. (d) 34. (a) 45. (a) 56. (c) 67. (d) 78. (b)
2. (c) 13. (d) 24. (c) 35. (b) 46. (a) 57. (d) 68. (d) 79. (a)
3. (d) 14. (d) 25. (c) 36. (a) 47. (d) 58. (c) 69. (a) 80. (a)
4. (c) 15. (c) 26. (b) 37. (a) 48. (d) 59. (d) 70. (a) 81. (d)
5. (d) 16. (b) 27. (c) 38. (d) 49. (d) 60. (c) 71. (a) 82. (c)
6. (c) 17. (d) 28. (c) 39. (c) 50. (a) 61. (c) 72. (a) 83. (d)
7. (d) 18. (c) 29. (b) 40. (a) 51. (c) 62. (b) 73. (c) 84. (b)
8. (b) 19. (a) 30. (b) 41. (b) 52. (a) 63. (b) 74. (d)
9. (b) 20. (a) 31. (a) 42. (c) 53. (c) 64. (d) 75. (a)
10. (d) 21. (d) 32. (b) 43. (a) 54. (d) 65. (a) 76. (a)
11. (a) 22. (d) 33. (b) 44. (d) 55. (c) 66. (a) 77. (d)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Green shoots is the ¿rst signs of an improvement is also being collected from the housing ¿nance
in an economy that is performing badly. It was ¿rst companies and banks, which is based on housing
used in this sense by Norman Lamont, the then loans contracted by these institutions.
Chancellor of the Exchequer of the United Kingdom, 5. (d) The National Development Council (NDC) or
during the 1991 recession. the Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for
2. (c) A reserve currency (or anchor currency) is decision making and deliberations on development
a currency that is held in signi¿cant quantities by matters in India, presided over by the Prime Minister.
governments and institutions as part of their foreign The functions of the Council are to prescribe
exchange reserves, and that is commonly used in guidelines for the formulation of the National Plan; to
international transactions for commodities like consider the National Plan as formulated by the NITI
oil and gold. Persons who live in a country that Aayog; to consider important questions of social and
issues a reserve currency can purchase imports and economic policy affecting national development; and
borrow across borders more cheaply than persons in to review the working of the Plan from time to time
other nations because they need not exchange their and to recommend such measures as are necessary for
currency to do so. achieving the aims and targets set out in the National
3. (d) According to the economic survey 2012-13 Plan.
InÀation persisted because of changes in dietary 6. (c) Inclusive growth is a concept which includes
habits and supply constraints, Rise in income of equitable allocation to every section of society. It
consumers and increase in Minimum support prices creates an environment of equality in opportunity
which raised the Àoor prices and also contributed to in all dimensions such as employment creation,
the rise in input prices. market, consumption, and production and has created
4. (c) At present, index is being developed only for a platform for people who are poor to access a good
residential housing sector. However, at a later stage, standard of living.
the index could be expanded to develop separate 7. (d) Hedge funds invest in a diverse range of markets
indices for commercial property and land. Primary and use a wide variety of investment styles and
data on housing prices is being collected from ¿nancial instruments. Hedge funds are open only to
real estate agents by commissioning the services certain types of investors in a country speci¿ed by the
of private consultancy/research organisations of regulator and cannot be offered or sold to the general
national repute. In addition, data on housing prices public. Legally, hedge funds are most often set up
as private investment partnerships that are open to a 14. (d) InÀation is a persistent increase in the general
limited number of investors and require a very large price level of goods and services in an economy
initial minimum investment. over a period of time . When the general price level
8. (b) The limited advisory function accorded to the rises, each unit of currency buys fewer goods and
Public Service Commission and the continued stress services. Consequently, inÀation reÀects a reduction
on this aspect by the leaders of our freedom movement in the purchasing power per unit of money – a loss of
resulted in the setting up of a Federal Public Service real value .High inÀation means excessive supply of
Commission under the Government of India Act, money and thus leads to rise in the cost of credit and
1935. The Federal Public Service Commission interest rates. Higher inÀation leads to reduction in
became the Union Public Service Commission after economic growth, decrease in cost of credit, increase
Independence. The portfolio system in the Executive in spending rather than saving as the value of money
was introduced by the Indian constitution council act, is declining.
1861. The separation of provincial budgets from the 15. (c) Financial inclusion or inclusive financing
central budget was introduced by the Indian councils is the delivery of ¿nancial services at affordable
Act, 1919. costs to sections of disadvantaged and low-income
9. (b) The money market consists of financial segments of society. For ¿nancial inclusion ‘Know
institutions and dealers in money or credit who wish your customer’ norms should be relaxed and no frills
to either borrow or lend. Participants borrow and account should be opened for low income segments
lend for short periods of time, typically up to thirteen which are looking for basic banking only. Along with
months. Money market trades in short-term ¿nancial general purpose credit cards should be issued and
instruments commonly called “paper.” bank branches should be opened in unbanked rural
10. (d) InÀation-indexed bonds are bonds where the areas.
principal is indexed to inflation. They are thus 16. (b) Between 1951 and 2000 the share of agriculture
designed to cut out the inÀation risk of an investment. in GDP fell from around 59% to around 25%. Share
These bonds thus decrease the inÀation risk attached of the services sector in GDP was more than industrial
to the investment. Moreover these bonds are a better sector. Between 1951 and 2000 it was around 28% for
hedge than gold in a volatile economy as gold does. services and 13 % for manufacturing in 1950. In 1990
11. (a) A regressive tax is generally a tax that is applied it was around 40 % services and 24 % manufacturing.
uniformly. This means that it hits lower income It was around 51 % services in 2000.
individuals harder. Regressive tax imposes a greater 17. (d) DeÀation may be caused by a combination of
burden (relative to resources) on the poor than on the the supply and demand for goods and the supply and
rich — there is an inverse relationship between the demand for money, speci¿cally the supply of money
tax rate and the taxpayer’s ability to pay as measured going down and the supply of goods going up.
by assets, consumption, or income. 18. (c) Devaluation is a deliberate downward
12. (c) Zero-based budgeting is an approach to adjustment to the value of a country’s currency,
planning and decision-making which reverses the relative to another currency, group of currencies.
working process of traditional budgeting. In zero- Since it is relative to other currency so internal price
based budgeting, every line item of the budget must remains unchanged. It causes a country’s exports to
be approved, rather than only changes. During the become less expensive and imports more expensive.
review process, no reference is made to the previous 19. (a) The poverty line is a minimum level of income
level of expenditure. Regarding zero Base Budgeting deemed adequate in a particular country. The
(ZBB) Existing Government programme can be common international poverty line has in the past
discarded under ZBB if they are found to be outdated. been roughly $1 a day. In 2008, the World Bank came
Moreover ZBB is dif¿cult to be applied to Human out with a revised ¿gure of $1.25 at 2005 purchasing-
Development programmes as the outcome of such power parity. In India poverty line is identi¿ed in
programmes is intangible in nature. monetary units as the level of income or consumption
13. (d) For sustainable socio-economic development it expenditure required in order to avoid poverty.
is necessary to manage coal wisely. However, coal 20. (a) “Taxation over taxes” or “cascading-effect” of
energy is not the single greatest threat our climate the taxes adds to the deadweight loss i.e. slump in
faces and coal is formed due to dead and decaying total surplus of supply chain consisting of supplier,
plants and animals under earth for thousands of years manufacturer, retailer and consumer. Due to
and to get to the coal it is not necessary to either cut cascading tax imposition leads to a disproportionate
down the forests and/or displace large number of increase in prices by an extent more than the rise in
people from these regions. the tax.
Economics || D-13
21. (d) A liquidity trap is a situation in which injections take away liquidity from the market as the banks
of cash into the private banking system by a central will have to deposit more money with the RBI and
bank fail to lower interest rates and hence fail to similarly entering the reverse repo operations may
stimulate economic growth. A liquidity trap is caused also take away liquidity from the market.
when people hoard cash because they expect interest 31. (a) Micro-credit extended by banks to individuals is
to rise in future ,an adverse event such as deÀation, reckoned as a part of their priority sector lending and
insuf¿cient aggregate demand, or war. no particular model has been prescribed for micro-
22. (d) Currency notes and coins are called ¿at money. ¿nance and banks have been extended freedom to
They don’t have intrinsic value like a gold or silver formulate their own models.
coin. The currency-deposit ratio measures the 32. (b) In order to curb inÀation if CRR is increased,
relationship between the cash people have on hand then it may take liquidity from markets as banks will
and what they have in their accounts. have to deposit more money with RBI. Moreover
23. (d) Austerity describes policies used by governments inÀation may also be curbed by Permitting Central/
to reduce budget de¿cits during adverse economic State agencies to import duty free pulses and sugar.
conditions. These policies may include spending However, Decreasing SLR will leave more money
cuts, tax increases. This is done in economic crisis with banks to give loans, which in turn will lead to
situation to improve the credit rating of the countries inÀation.
going through adverse economic condition. 33. (b) Current account de¿cit is a measurement of
24. (c) Real Gross Domestic Product (real GDP) is a a country’s trade in which the value of goods and
macroeconomic measure of the value of economic services it imports exceeds the value of goods and
output adjusted for price changes (i.e., inÀation or services it exports. Increase in crude oil price and rise
deÀation). Nominal gross domestic product is de¿ned in import of services oil increase the current account
as the market value of all ¿nal goods produced in a de¿cit. However increase in exports will reduce the
geographical region. de¿cit.
25. (c) Fiscal policy is the use of government revenue 34. (a) Devaluation happens in countries with a
collection (taxation) and expenditure (spending) to ¿xed exchange rate. In a ¿xed-rate economy, the
inÀuence the economy. The two main instruments of government decides what its currency should be
¿scal policy are changes in the level and composition worth compared with that of other countries. The
of taxation and government spending in various exchange rate can change only when the government
sectors. decides to change it. If a government decides to
26. (b) Headline inÀation also called as WPI inÀation make its currency less valuable, the change is called
is a measure of the total inÀation within an economy devaluation. Depreciation happens in countries with
and is affected by areas of the market which may a Àoating exchange rate. A Àoating exchange rate
experience sudden inÀationary spikes such as food means that the global investment market determines
or energy. As a result, headline inÀation may not the value of a country’s currency.
present an accurate picture of the current state of the 35. (b) GDP deflator is An economic metric that
economy as it doesn’t take account of service sector. accounts for inÀation by converting output measured
27. (c) Higher growth in GDP and population can at current prices into constant-dollar GDP. The GDP
occur together. Per capita income always decreases deÀator shows how much a change in the base year’s
with high population growth as income per person GDP relies upon changes in the price level.
decreases with rise in population. 36. (a) Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is the rate at
28. (c) Government debt is the debt owed by central which scheduled banks could borrow funds overnight
government. Government usually borrows by issuing from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) against
securities, government bonds, bills through NSC, approved government securities. Banks can borrow
Prvident funds etc. However pension policies are not funds through MSF during acute cash shortage
included in the list. (considerable shortfall of liquidity). This measure
29. (b) Fiscal drag is an economics term referring to has been introduced by RBI to regulate short-term
a situation where a government’s net ¿scal position asset liability mismatch more effectively and the
(equal to its spending less any taxation) does not meet borrowing is within Statutory liquidity requirements.
the net savings goals of the private economy. Fiscal The Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is pegged
drag is a concept where inÀation and earnings growth 100bps or 1 % above the Repo Rate.
may push more taxpayers into higher tax bracket. 37. (a) A Pigovian tax is a tax applied to a market
30. (b) By buying the government securities from the activity that is generating negative externalities
banks and reducing SLR may inject money into the (costs for somebody else) like cigarette consumption,
system. However Raising cash Reserve Ratio may burning of fossil fuel.
38. (d) Basel III (or the Third Basel Accord) is a subsidies, interest payments etc. Non-plan revenue
global, voluntary regulatory standard on bank capital expenditure is accounted for by interest payments,
adequacy, stress testing and market liquidity risk . So subsidies , wage and salary payments to government
all the given statements are correct. employees, grants to States and Union Territories
39. (c) A progressive tax is a tax in which the tax governments, pensions, police, economic services
rate increases as the taxable base amount increases in various sectors, other general services such as
Regarding progressive tax, marginal tax rate should tax collection, social services, and grants to foreign
be increasing and it should be more than average tax rate. governments. Non-plan capital expenditure mainly
40. (a) The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a Value includes defence, loans to public enterprises, loans
Added Tax (VAT) replacing all indirect taxes levied to States, Union Territories and foreign governments.
on goods and services by the Indian Central and State 48. (d) National Income is the Net National product at
governments. India is a federal republic, and the GST the factor cost. (NI = NNP at factor cost = NNP at
is thus implemented concurrently by the central and market price – Indirect taxes + subsidies)
state governments as the Central GST and the State 49. (d) The Minimum Alternative Tax (MAT) was
GST respectively. Exports will be zero-rated and introduced for the ¿rst time in the Budget for the
imports will be levied the same taxes as domestic year 1996-97. Minimum alternate tax or MAT is a
goods and services adhering to the destination tax levied on ¿rms/ companies or limited liability
principle. partnership (LLPs) making abundant pro¿ts as well
41. (b) Financial inclusion is the delivery of ¿nancial as distributing dividend to its shareholders who
services, at affordable costs, to sections of leveraging on the features of the Indian Taxation
disadvantaged and low income segments of society. system do not contribute towards the government’s
It includes opening educational centres, opening taxation kitty. Thus, for such corporates a minimal tax
wealth management centres by Citibank etc. Khan amounting to some ¿xed percentage of book pro¿ts
commission had put forward its report on ¿nancial i.e. pro¿ts according to accounting records is charged
inclusion. as minimal alternative tax (MAT).
42. (c) The Gini coef¿cient is a measure of statistical 50. (a) Supply side economics lays greater emphasis on
dispersion intended to represent the income the point of view of the producer whereas the demand
distribution of a nation’s residents. Gini coef¿cient side economics lays emphasis on the interest of the
commonly used as a measure of inequality of consumer.
individual income or wealth. Lorenz curve helps to 52. (a) Fiscal Deficit: When a government’s total
¿nd mathematical value of Gini coef¿cient. expenditure exceed the revenue that it generates
43. (a) In India a large number of farmers are illiterate (excluding money from borrowings). De¿cit differs
and know little about scienti¿c-agriculture, prices from debt, which is an accumulation of year de¿cits.
of primary products are lower than those of 53. (c) India’s Trade Policy 2009-14 had a view to
manufactured products and Investment in agriculture achieve a growth of 15% per annum in export rather
has been lower when compared to investment in than 25% per annum.
industry. All these reasons are responsible for lower 55. (c) Basis points: It is the increase in interest rates
rural income. in percentage terms. For instance, if the interest rate
44. (d) Human Development Report the HDI combines increases by 50 basis points (bsp), then it means
three dimensions: A long and healthy life: Life that interest rate has been increase by 50%. One
expectancy at birth, Education index: Mean years of percentage point is broken down into 100 basis
schooling and Expected years of schooling and A points. Therefore, an increase from 2% to 3% is an
decent standard of living: GNI per capita (PPP US$). increase of one percentage point or 100 basis points.
45. (a) In India, inÀation is measured by the wholesale Repo rate: Repo rate is the policy rate and is part
price Index . The wholesale prices of commodities of RBI’s Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF). It is
of base year are compared with wholesale prices of the rate at which commercial banks borrow from the
current year to compute inÀation. RBI by selling their securities or ¿nancial assets to
46. (a) Both A and R are true and R gives correct the RBI for a short-period of time. It comes with an
explanation of A. It believes in universalism and agreement that the sold securities will be repurchased
globalism. by the commercial banks from the RBI at a future
47. (d) Expenditure incurred on the non-development date at predetermined price. The repo rate is used by
plans is called non-plan expenditure which includes the central bank to increase liquidity in the system.
Economics || D-15
Reverse repo rate: Reverse Repo Rate is also a 63. (b) InÀation redistributes wealth from creditors
part of LAF. It is the rate of interest at which the to debtors i.e., lenders suffer and borrowers bene¿t
central bank borrows funds from other banks for a out of inÀation. Bond holders = this person has lend
short duration. The banks deposit their short term money (to debtors) and received bond in return. So
excess funds with the central bank and earn interest he is lender, he suffers, by the way they haven’t
on it. This rate is used by the central bank to absorb specifically used the word – “inflation indexed
liquidity from the economy. Generally it is one bonds”, hence we cannot say inÀation bene¿ts the
percentage less than the Repo rate. Bank rate: The bond-holders.
only way the bank rate is different from the repo rate 64. (d) Suppose three people work in farm, produce
is that the bank rate is the rate at which banks borrow 200 kg wheat. If one of them is removed, still
money from the central bank without any sale of farm produces 200 kg wheat. That is disguised
securities. It is generally for a longer period of time.
unemployment marginal productivity is zero.
Cash reserve ratio: CRR is the minimum percentage
65. (a) De¿cit ¿nancing is a pragmatic tool of economic
of cash deposits that banks must keep with the central
bank. The current rate is 4%, which means for a cash development and has been used by Indian govt. to
deposit of `100, the bank has to park 4 rupees, with obtain necessary resources to ¿nance the ¿ve year
the central bank. plans.
56. (c) Companies having net worth of at least `500 66. (a) To rip maximum demographic dividend,
crore or having minimum turnover of `1,000 crore India has to promote skill development. This is
or those with at least net pro¿t of `5 crore, have to what Economic Survey and 12th FYP have been
make CSR spend. advocating.
57. (d) All these statements are components of internal 67. (d) The gap between poor and rich will be wide
debt. and it must be increase when their investment lean
58. (c) Statement 1 lists all the main and primary towards capital sector. They only prefer pro¿t.
sources of agricultural credit institutions exclusively 68. (d) Banks are required to investment a portion of
for farmers. their statutory liquidity ratio besides CRR. Statutory
59. (d) Indian Economy grew by 8.6% and 9.3% in liquidity ratio (SLR) is the Indian government term
2009-10 and 2010-11 before it plunged again into for reserve requirement that the commercial banks
slow growth. CPI has high weightage for food. in India require to maintain in the form of gold, cash
In India, during the mentioned period food grain
or government approved recurities before providing
production actually had gone up. GAAR is kept in
credit to the customers. SLR is determined and
obeyance as of now.
60. (c) The Millenium Development Goals focus maintained by Reserve Bank of India in order to
on developing countries. There is one exception : control the expansion of bank credit.
MDG number 8 on developing a global partnership 69. (a) When a government’s total expenditure exceeds
for development, which includes commitments for the revenue that it generates (excluding money from
developed countries to help developing countries. borrowings). De¿cit differs from debt, which is an
An important difference is that the sustainable accumulation of yearly de¿cits.
Development Goals are meant to apply to all A ¿scal de¿cit is regarded by some as a positive
countries, including developed countries. economic event.
Another difference is that the sustainable Development 70. (a) Gilts are bonds issued by certain, national
Goals are explicitly meant to include the three governments. The term is of British origin and
dimensions of sustainable development economic, originally referred to the debt securities issued by
social and environmental. the Bank of England, which had a gilt (or gilded)
61. (c) NABARD doesn’t give “direct” credit assistance. edge. Hence, they are called gilt-edged securities,
It provides credit via intermediaries such as micro
or gilts for short. The term is also sometimes used in
finance companies, co-operative society, RRB.
Therefore, 2 is false. Ireland and some British Commonwealth Countries,
62. (b) Open market operation : When RBI buys/sells South Africa and India. The term “Gilt Account” is
securities in open market, in case of OMO, ¿rst party also a term used by the RBI of India to refer to a
permanently sells the Government security to second constituent account maintained by a custodian bank
party. Second party is free to do whatever it wants for maintenance and servicing of dematerialised
with that security. Government Securities owned by a retail customer.
71. (a) For example, reduction in the weight of a packet disinvestment is very slow due to host of legal and
of chocolate sold at the same price as before. This political hurdles.
may take place in quality, too. 79. (a) Market based mostly economic climate refers
72. (a) When the total expenditures of a government is back to the ¿nancial system the place all ¿nancial
equal to the taxes and other receipts it is a balanced judgements are taken based mostly on the demand
budget. All budgets with either de¿cits or surpluses and provide circumstances prevailing out there.
are unbalanced. Government has minimal interference in ¿nancial
73. (c) The interest paid on bonds is known as ‘coupon’ actions. Private gamers are free to supply the items
or ‘coupon rate’. Bonds and debentures both are the and expertise based mostly on the demand and
instruments of raising long-term capital but while provides alerts out there.
the former is supported by collateral in the former 80. (a) The risk weight for a Government guaranteed
is supported by collateral in the form of immovable advance should be the same as for other advances.
property, the latter are not. To ensure that banks do not suddenly face dif¿culties
74. (d) The labour force of an economy is known as in meeting the capital adequacy requirement, the
the activity rate (also called participation rate). It is new prescription on risk weight for Government
shown in per cent and always as a proportion of an guaranteed advances should be made prospective
economy. The concept of the ‘demographic dividend’ from the time the new prescription is put in place.
is related to this rate.
81. (d) The de¿nition of de¿cit ¿nancing is likely to
75. (a) A dual economy is the existence of two separate
vary with the purpose for which such a de¿nition is
economic sectors within one country, divided by
needed.
different levels of development, technology, and
In one sense by de¿cit ¿nancing we mean the excess
different patterns of demand. The concept was
of government expenditure over its normal receipts
originally created by Julius Herman Boeke to
describe the coexistence of modern and traditional raised by taxes, fees, and other sources. In this
economic sectors in a colonial economy. de¿nition such expenditure whether obtained through
76. (a) With the introduction of Economic liberalisation borrowing or from the banking system measures the
requirement for government licensing has been budget de¿cit. De¿cit ¿nancing is said to have been
abolished except for a small list of strategic and used whenever government expenditure exceeds its
potentially hazardous industries and a few industries receipts.
which are reserved for the small scale sector. For In under-developed countries de¿cit ¿nancing may
most industries however industrial investment has be in two forms:
been effectively delicensed and investors are free to (i) Difference between overall revenue receipts and
set up new units or expand existing units subject only expenditure
to environmental clearances. (ii) De¿cit ¿nancing may be equal to borrowing
77. (d) Quaternary sector is characterized by the from the banking system of the country.
intellectual persons or individuals or group of 82. (c) It will remain the same, because banks do not
individual. It includes the research and development increase the national income. So it remains the same
activities. Mining and quarrying and ¿shing are immaterial whether banks are there or not.
concerned with primary sector activities. 83. (d) Currency is most liquid, because you can use it
78. (b) Government of India is divesting its share from as and when you want. Time deposit with bank (e.g.
public sector undertakings. Most of government ¿xed deposit), are least liquid compared to savings/
undertakings were incurring losses during the pre demand deposit with banks and currency.
liberalization period. Hence, after the introduction 84. (b) Because Reserve requirements are designed as
of new economic policy in 1991, government started “precautionary measures” and not to stop banks from
downsizing its share in PSU. But the process of “excessive” pro¿t. This eliminates c and d.
2 Planning and
Economic Development
1. Which one of the following statements is true? 5. The theme of the approach paper of the Eleventh
(a) Prime Minister is the chairman of NITI Aayog Five Year Plan has been :
of India. (a) Indicative planning
(b) The National Development Council is presided (b) Growth with social justice
over by the Prime Minister of India.
(c) Towards faster and more inclusive
(c) CEO of the NITI Aayog is also the secretary
of the National Development Council. (d) Planning for prosperity
(d) NITI Aayog is the highest decision making 6. Planning was considered a prerequisite :
body for planning in India. (1) For balanced socio-economic development
2. The ¿nal authority in India to adopt the ¿ve year (2) For extending the bene¿ts of development in
plan for the country vests in : an even manner.
(a) NITI Aayog (3) For focussing on removal of regional
(b) The National Development Council disparities
(c) The Union Cabinet
(4) For maximizing the utilization of available
(d) The parliament
resources
3. The National Development Council (NDC) :
(1) discusses progress of the National plan. Select the correct answer using the codes given
(2) suggests the ways to achieve goals of the below :
national plan. Codes :
(3) gives guidelines to formulate the National (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
plan. (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All the above
(4) suggests plan allocation. 7. Consider the following statements regarding Indian
Consider the above statements, select the correct planning.
(1) The second ¿ve year plan emphasized on the
Codes :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 establishment of heavy industries.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of the above (2) The third ¿ve year plan aimed to achieve
4. Inclusive growth would necessitate : self-suf¿ciency in foodgrains and increase
(a) Development of infrastructural facilities agricultural production to meet the
(b) Revival of agriculture requirements of industry and exports.
(c) Increase availability of social services such Which of the statements given above is/are
as education and health. correct?
(d) All the above.
D-18 || Planning and Economic Development
8. Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh 14. Under which ¿ve year plan did the government
Five Year Plan does NOT include one of the introduce an agricultural strategy which gave rise
following: to Green Revolution in India?
(a) Reduction of poverty (a) Second Five Year Plan
(b) Extension of Employment opportunities (b) Third Five Year Plan
(c) Reduction of Gender inequality (c) Sixth Five Year Plan
(d) Strengthening of capital market (d) Seventh Five Year Plan
9. In the context of Indian Five Year Plans, a shift 15. Consider the following statements :
in the pattern of industrialization, with lower (1) MNREGA was launched in the 11th ¿ve year
emphasis of heavy industries and more on plan.
infrastructure being in :
(2) Indira Awas Yojana was launched in the 9th
(a) Fourth plan (b) Sixth plan
Five Year Plan.
(c) Eighth plan (d) Tenth plan
10. Which of the following can aid in furthering the
Government’s objective of inclusive growth? correct?
(1) promoting self help group (a) only 1 (b) only 2
(2) promoting micro, small and medium (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Enterprises 16. In India, the concept of minimum needs and
(3) Implementing the Right to Education Act directed anti-poverty programmes were the
Select the correct answer using the codes given innovation of :
below : (a) Fourth Five Year Plan
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (b) Fifth Five Year Plan
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Sixth Five Year Plan
11. Who presides over the National Development (d) Seventh Five Year Plan
Council of India? 17. Consider the following statements :
(a) Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission (1) In the 11th Five Year Plan, the growth rate of
of India the agriculture sector was above 4%.
(b) Prime Minister of India (2) In the 11th Five Year Plan, the agriculture
(c) Finance Minister of India sector contributed more than 25% in the
(d) Vice President of India overall GDP of India.
12. In the post-Independence period, economic Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
reforms were ¿rst introduced in India under :
(a) only 1 (b) only 2
(a) Janata Party Government (1977)
(b) Indira Gandhi Government (1980)
(c) Rajiv Gandhi Government (1985)
(1) National Development Council is an organ
(d) P.V. Narsimha Rao Government (1990)
13. Consider the following statements about Indian of the Planning Commission
Economy? (2) The Economic and Social Planning is kept
(1) During 11th Five Year Plan, the foodgrain in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of
production steadily increased. India
(2) During 11th Five Year Plan, the average (3) The Constitution of India prescribes
inflation on the wholesale price Index is that Panchayats should be assigned the
above 10%. task of preparation of plans for economic
Which of the statements given above is/are development and social justice
correct? Which of statements is\are correct?
(a) only 1 (b) only 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Economics || D-19
19. Consider the following statements : 23. Match List I with List II and select the correct
(1) The Ninth Five Year Plan was launched in the answer using the codes given below the list
50th year of India’s independence. List I List II
(2) For the ¿rst time in the Indian economy the (Five Year Plan) (Objective)
GDP growth rate of the Ninth Five Year Plan
A. First Plan 1. Growth with social
was set at 7%.
justice
correct? B. Third Plan 2. Sustainable inclusive
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only growth
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 C. Fifth Plan 3. Self reliant and
20. Consider the following components of the PURA generating economy
model of economic development : D. Twelfth plan 4. Agriculture, Irrigation
(1) Facilitating road connectivity in villages. and power projects
(2) Enhancement of electricity in rural areas. Codes :
(3) Establishment of cyber cafes in villages.
A B C D
(4) Construction of hospitals in rural areas.
(a) 2 4 3 1
Which of the components given above is/are
(b) 2 3 4 1
the major connectivity formulated by the PURA
model? (c) 4 3 1 2
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 3 2 1
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 24. Which one of the following matching of village
21. Which one of the following is correct about the clusters of the PURA-model is correct?
Twelfth Five Year Plan recently approved by the (a) Type-A : situated far interior with no
Indian Government? infrastructure facilities at all.
(a) 12th Five Year Plan of Indian Economy is (b) Type-B : situated closed to urban area but
from 2011 to 2016.
with sparsely spread infrastructure and
(b) 12th Five Year Plan aims to grow GDP at the
connectivity
rate of 10%.
(c) 12th Five Year Plan aims to sustain the (c) Type-C : located very closed to urban area
inclusive growth which started in 11th plan. with highly developed infrastructure
(d) Both (b) and (c) are correct about the 12th (d) None of the above
Five Year Plan. 25. Consider the following statements :
22. Consider the following statements : (1) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana was launched in the
(1) In the 11th Five Year Plan, the growth rate of Seventh Five Year Plan.
the export was always positive. (2) Small-scale and food processing industries
(2) In the middle of the 11th Five Year Plan, the
were given new impetus in Seventh Five
import growth was negative due to external
Year Plan.
factors.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
26. Consider the following statements : Options:
(1) The National Development Council (NDC) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
was constituted in 1948. (c) 2 and 3 (d) none
(2) The National Development Council (NDC) 30. Consider the following statements :
is an extra-constitutional body. (1) The Fourth Five Year Plan period is from
Which of the statements given above is/are 1966-71.
correct? (2) The Fourth Five Year Plan sought to raise
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only the standard of living through programmes
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 designed to promote equality and social
27. Match List I with List II and select the correct justice.
answer using the codes given below the list Which of the statements given above is/are
List I List II
(plan model) (proposer) correct?
A. Bombay plan 1. Jai Prakash Narayan (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
B. Gandhian plan 2. M N Roy (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
C. People’s plan 3. Sriman Narayan 31. Consider the following statements :
D. Sarvodaya plan 4. Birla and Tata Groups (1) LPG model of Indian Economy was fully
Codes
A B C D implemented in Eighth Five Year plan.
(a) 2 4 3 1 (2) The Eighth plan envisaged an annual average
(b) 2 3 4 1 growth rate of 5.6% but real growth rate was
(c) 4 2 3 1 6.8%.
(d) 4 3 2 1 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Indo-china war had hampered the proper
progress and implementation of Fourth Five (a) only 1 (b) only 2
Year Plan in India. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(2) In the Indian Economy, the plan Holiday took 32. Which one of the following missions given below
place during 1966 to 1969 is the main submission of the Jawaharlal Nehru
Which of the statements given above is/are National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM)?
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Integrated Housing and Slum Development
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Programmes (IHSDP)
29. In the context of food and nutritional security of (b) Development of Women and Children in
India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ Urban Areas (DWCUA)
of various crops helps in achieving the food (c) Basic Services to the Urban Poor (BSUP)
production targets of the future. But what is/are
(d) Both (a) and (c)
the constraint/ constraints in its wider/greater
implementation? 33. From which one of the following enshrined in
1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place the constitution, the planning of India derives its
2. There is no participation of private sector objectives and social premises?
seed companies in the supply of quality (a) Fundamental Rights
seeds of vegetables and planting materials (b) Fundamental Duties
of horticultural crops
3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
quality seeds in case of low value and high (d) None of the above
volume crops
Economics || D-21
34. In which of the following Five Year Plan, the High (2) Establishment of factory limits of MNCs in
Yielding Varieties Programme (HYVP) was started India.
in India? (3) Acquisition of branded foreign companies by
Indian business tycoons.
(a) First Five Year Plan
Which of the economic processes given above is/
(b) Second Five Year Plan
are encompassed under globalization?
(c) Third Five Year Plan (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(d) Fourth Five Year Plan (c) 2 and 3 (d) only 2
35. Consider the following statements : 40. From which one of the following years, the Rolling
(1) PURA model of economic model was plan of the Indian Economy was started?
advocated by Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam. (a) 1966-69 (b) 1978-80
(2) PURA model of economic development is (c) 1980-85 (d) 2002-07
mainly aimed to bridge the gap between 41. Which one of the following is not the member of
rural-urban divide. the National Development Council of India?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Ministers of the Union Cabinet
correct? (b) Chief Ministers of the states
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Administrators of the Union Territories
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Governors of the states
36. Which one of the following sectors of the Indian 42. Consider the following statements:
Economy got highest growth in the term GDP (1) The state sets broad parameters and goals for
contribution after the adoption of LPG model of the economy.
Economic Development? (2) The targets to be achieved are broadly set by
(a) Agriculture sector the state.
(b) Fishing and Forestry sector (3) The plan is made for the speci¿c time period
(c) Mining and Quarrying sector of about 15 years.
(d) Services sector Which of the statements given above is/are correct
37. Which one of the following pairings is not correct about the Indicative planning?
about the Five Year Plan of India? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(a) First Five Year Plan : 1951-56 (c) 1 and 3 (d) only 1
(b) Fourth Five Year Plan : 1966-71 43. Consider the following statements :
(c) Eighth Five Year Plan : 1990-95 (1) The growth of wire line telephone connections
(d) Both (b) and (c) in the last five years is decreasing every
38. Which among the following Five Year Plans of the year.
Indian Economy adopted the indicative planning (2) The share of private operations in the wireless
model? telephone in India is more than 85%.
(a) Fourth Five Year Plan Which of the following statements above is/are
(b) Sixth Five Year Plan correct?
(c) Eight Five Year Plan (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) Tenth Five Year Plan (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
39. Consider the following economic processes taking 44. The Team-9 initiative is a techno economic
place in Indian Economy : cooperation venture between India and eight
countries of
(1) Import of western culture through the mass
(a) West Africa (b) East Africa
media and telecommunication system in
(c) North Africa (d) Central Africa
India.
45. Which one of the following Five year plans of 50. Consider the following statements about the LPG
Indian Economy was terminated by the Janata model of economic development process in India?
Government? (1) Disinvestment of pro¿t making public sector
(a) Fourth Five Year Plan Enterprises.
(b) Fifth Five Year Plan (2) Permitting private sectors to establish
(c) Seventh Five Year Plan Industrial Units without taking a licence.
(3) Chronically sick industries were referred
(d) Eighth Five Year Plan
to BIFR for the formulation of revival or
46. Consider the following statements : rehabilitation plan.
(1) In the history of Indian planning, the actual Which of the processes given above is/are taken
growth rate of the GDP has never been higher after adoption of LPG model?
than the targeted growth rate. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(2) In the ¿rst ¿ve year plan, the actual GDP (c) 2 and 3 (d) only 2
growth rate was more than the targeted
51. Match the following
growth rate.
List-I List-II
(Govt. Policy) (Year)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only A. Information 1. 2000
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Technology Policy
47. During which plan was the National Bank for B. Mineral Policy 2. 2006
Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) C. Hotel Policy 3. 2010
established to facilitate the rural credit and D. Industrial and 4. 2011
agriculture development? Investment
(a) Third Five Year Plan Promotion Policy
(b) Fifth Five Year Plan Codes:
(c) Sixth Five Year Plan A B C D
(d) Eighth Five Year Plan (a) 2 1 4 3
48. A Five Year Plan was severely affected by the (b) 1 4 2 3
immigration of huge number of people from (c) 3 2 1 4
Bangladesh was? (d) 4 2 3 1
(a) First Five Year Plan 52. Consider the following two statements and answer
(b) Third Five Year Plan the question–
(c) Fourth Five Year Plan I. The rural poverty alleviation programme will
henceforth run on mission mode.
(d) Sixth Five Year Plan
II. National Rural Livelihood Mission is
49. Which among the following plans adopted the
centrally sponsored programme implemented
policy for the universalization of elementary
by the states.
education in India?
(a) Only I is correct
(a) Sixth Plan (b) Eighth Plan
(c) Ninth Plan (d) Eleventh Plan (b) Only II is correct
(c) Both I and II are correct
(d) None is correct
Economics || D-23
53. Match the items in List-I with List-II: III. The recharge will entitle them to a 30 minute
List - I List-II talk time, 30 SMS text message and 30 MB
A. Reproductive 1. Police Research of data usage.
Child Health IV. The mobile handset and connection will be
B. The National Rural 2. Trauma provided to a women in the eligible family.
Employment The correct answer is
Guarantee Act (a) Only I and II (b) I and III
C. Post Traumatic 3. Mother (c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
Stress Disorder and Child 56. Which of the following areas has been excluded,
D. Bureau of Police 4. Employment at by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, from the
Research and village level ambit of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
Development activities?
Codes : (a) livelihood enhancement and rural development
A B C D projects.
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) contributions made ‘directly or indirectly’ to
(b) 3 4 2 1 any political party.
(c) 4 3 2 1 (c) promoting preventive health care and
(d) 1 2 3 4 sanitation.
54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (d) making safe drinking water available would
answer from the codes given below – be considered as CSR activities.
List-I List-II 57. Which of the following is the objective of
A. Sarva Shiksha 1. 1987 Quantitative easing, an unconventional monetary
Abhiyan policy?
B. Saakshar Bharat 2. 1988 I. to increase the money supply
Mission II. to decrease the interest rate
C. Operation 3. 2001 (a) Only I is true
Blackboard (b) Only II is true
D. National Literacy 4. 2009 (c) Both I & II are true
Mission (d) Neither I nor II are true
Codes : 58. Consider the following statements
A B C D 1. Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
(a) 3 4 1 2 which gives free electricity connections
(b) 4 3 2 1 to the below poverty line households is
(c) 1 2 3 4 implemented by Power Grid Corporation of
(d) 1 2 4 3 India.
55. Consider the following facts about the Centre’s 2. The Integrated Rural Energy Programme
Rural Connectivity Scheme aims to meet the energy needs of cluster of
I. MGNREGA bene¿ciaries will get a cellular villages through a blend of conventional and
phone and a connection by paying a one time non-conventional sources of energy.
fee of ` 300. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
II. A free recharge of ` 30 will be provided by (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
the BSNL on the ¿rst day of every month for (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
two years.
59. Which of the following is/are not features of Digital Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
India programme initiated by the Government (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
recently: (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
1. Broadband connectivity at village level 63. Which committee was related with the policies
2. improved access to services through IT and programme for Agriculture?
enabled platforms (a) Wanchoo committee
3. increased indigenous production of IT (b) Boothalingam Committee
hardware and software for exports and (c) Bhanu Pratap Singh Committee
improved domestic availability (d) Aggrawal Committee
4. supply of computers free of cost to rural 64. Which of the following is not a feature of India’s
youths above 21 years in selected districts economic planning?
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 4 only (a) Limited centralisation
(c) 4 only (d) 3 only (b) Democratic solution
60. Consider the following about the Rajiv Gandhi (c) Planning of imperative nature
Scheme for Empowerment of Adolescent Girls (d) Planning of indicative nature
‘SABLA’. 65. Which of the following is true?
1. To enhance the nutritional status of adolescent (a) Financial planning is more important than
girls. physical planning.
2. To enhance the economic status of adolescent (b) Physical planning is more important than
girls. ¿nancial planning.
Which of the statements given above is/are the (c) Physical and ¿nancial planning are equally
aims of the SABLA Scheme? important.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) Physical and financial planning are
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 complementary.
61. The term “Hindu rate of growth” refers to the 66. Which one of the following is the objective of
3.70% per annum growth rate achieved by the the National Watershed Development Project for
Indian economy over the ¿rst six Five -Year Plans” rainfed areas of India?
The term was coined by: (a) Sustainable farming systems
(a) J.N. Bhagwati (b) Integrated watershed management
(b) K.N. Raj (c) Reclamation of forest area
(c) Raj Krishna (d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Sukhamoy Chakravarty 67. On whose recommendation the government has
62. With reference to the Government Welfare decided to constitute the ¿nancial inclusion fund
Schemes, consider the following statements: and ¿nancial inclusion technology fund?
1. Under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, the food (a) C. Rangarajan Committee
grains are available to the poorest of the poor (b) Kothari Committee
family at `2 per kilogram for wheat and `3 (c) Raghuraj Committee
per kilogram for rice. (d) Rajaram Committee
2. Under the National Old Age Pension Scheme, 68. Consider the following schemes:
the old and destitute are provided `75 per 1. Scheme for Backward districts
month as Central pension, in addition to the 2. Special Plan for K.B.K. districts of Orissa
amount provided by most State Governments. 3. Special Scheme for Bihar
3. Government of India has allocated 25 Which of the above schemes are component of
kilogram of food grains per Below Poverty ‘Rashtriya Vikas Yojana?
Line (BPL) family per month, at less than half (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
of the economic cost. (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Economics || D-25
69. Bharat Nirman Yojana: Choose the incorrect option/s:
1. This scheme aims at developing rural (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
infrastructure. (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 3
2. The duration of implementation of this 70. Who was the first administrator-statesman to
scheme has been determined for ¿ve years. attempt planning as a means for economic
3. The major six sectors to be looked in are development?
irrigation, road, housing, water supply, (a) Sir CP Ramaswami Aiyyar
electri¿cation, rural communication. (b) M Viswesvarayya
(c) VT Krishnamachari
(d) C Rajagopalachari
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 10. (d) 19. (c) 28. (b) 37. (d) 46. (b) 55. (d) 64. (c)
2. (b) 11. (b) 20. (d) 29. (b) 38. (c) 47. (c) 56. (b) 65. (d)
3. (a) 12. (d) 21. (c) 30. (b) 39. (a) 48. (c) 57. (a) 66. (d)
4. (d) 13. (d) 22. (b) 31. (c) 40. (b) 49. (c) 58. (b) 67. (a)
5. (c) 14. (b) 23. (c) 32. (d) 41. (d) 50. (a) 59. (c) 68. (d)
6. (d) 15. (b) 24. (b) 33. (c) 42. (b) 51. (b) 60. (c) 69. (b)
7. (c) 16. (b) 25. (c) 34. (c) 43. (c) 52. (c) 61. (c) 70. (b)
8. (d) 17. (d) 26. (b) 35. (c) 44. (a) 53. (b) 62. (d)
9. (b) 18. (b) 27. (d) 36. (d) 45. (b) 54. (a) 63. (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Union Government on 1 January, 2015 set of economic growth with bene¿ts incurred by every
up the National Institution for Transforming India section of society. Inclusive growth necessitates
(NITI) Aayog. NITI Aayog that replaced the 65 year development of infrastructural facilities, revival of
old Planning Commission will be headed by Prime agriculture and also increases availability of social
Minister. It will have a governing council comprising services such as education and health.
Chief Ministers of all the states and Lt. Governors of 5. (c) Faster and more inclusive growth is the theme
Union Territories. of the approach paper of the Eleventh ¿ve year
2. (b) The National Development Council (NDC) or plan. The Inclusive growth in eleventh plan has
the Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for the objectives of increasing GDP, Agricultural
decision-making and deliberations on development GDP, Increasing work opportunities, developing
matters in India, presided over by the Prime education, providing clean drinking water, reducing
Minister. The National Development Council is the malnutrition, increasing energy ef¿ciency, healthcare
¿nal authority to adopt the Five Year Plan for the facilities ,road connectivity, broadband connectivity
country. to villages, increasing forest etc.
3. (a) National Development Council aims to prescribe 6. (d) Planning was considered for balanced socio-
guidelines for the formulation of the National Plan, economic development to focus on removal of
including the assessment of resources for the Plan; regional disparities and maximizing the utilization
to consider the National Plan as formulated by of available resources.
the Planning Commission; to consider important 7. (c) The Second Five Year Plan heralded in a
questions of social and economic policy affecting true sense the Socialist Project of the then Prime
national development; and.to review the working of Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru. The economic policies
the Plan from time to time and to recommend such of Nehru were heavily inÀuenced by the erstwhile
measures as are necessary for achieving the aims and Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) which
targets set out in the National Plan. had followed the path of speedy industrialisation
4. (d) Inclusive growth is a concept which involves to expand the manufacturing base of its economy.
equitable allocation of resources during the process The Second Five year Plan focused mainly on
Economics || D-27
heavy industry as against the First Plan which was goal was to establish self reliance and self generating
essentially an agricultural plan. This was done to economy.But the earlier plans had shown that the
boost domestic production and manufacturing of agricultural production was the limiting factor; so
goods. Third plan aimed to achieve self-suf¿ciency agriculture was given top priority.
in foodgrains and to increase agricultural production 15. (b) The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
to meet the requirements of industry and exports. Employment Guarantee Act (MNREGA) is an Indian
8. (d) Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh law that aims to guarantee the ‘right to work’ and
¿ve year plan does not include the strengthening of ensures livelihood security in rural areas by providing
capital market. The Inclusive growth in eleventh plan at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment
has the objectives of increasing GDP, agricultural in a ¿nancial year to every household whose adult
GDP, increasing work opportunities, developing members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
education, providing clean drinking water, reducing MNREGA was launched in 200 select districts in
malnutrition, increasing energy ef¿ciency ,healthcare 2006. However Indira Awas Yojana was lauched
facilities ,road connectivity ,broadband connectivity in the 9th Five Year Plan to provide housing for the
to villages,increasing forest etc. rural poor in India.
9. (b) Sixth five year plan started in 1980-85 16. (b) In the fifth five year plan, the concept
marked the beginning of economic liberalization in of ‘minimum needs’ and directed anti-poverty
India. In Sixth Five year plan, a shift in pattern of programmes were innovated. The Minimum needs
Industrialisation with lower emphasis on the heavy Programme aimed to establish a network of basic
industry and move on infrastructure begins. services to raise living standards and in reducing
10. (d) The Governments objective of inclusive growth the regional disparities in development. The basic
can be furthered by promoting self help groups, needs of the people identi¿ed for this programme
promoting micro, small and medium enterprises are Elementary Education, Adult Education, Rural
and implementing the right to education. This will Health, Rural Roads, Rural Electri¿cation, Rural
improve employement opportunities, increase GDP Housing. Moreover, it was during the plan, slogan
etc. of ‘Garibi hatao’ was given to remove poverty.
11. (b) The National Development Council is the ¿nal 17. (d) In the 11th Five Year Plan, the growth rate of
the agriculture sector was 3.3% and the agriculture
authority in India to adopt the Five Year Plan for the
sector contributed 15.2 % in the overall GDP of the
country. Prime Minister of India presides over the
country. Thus Both the given statements regarding
National Development Council of India.
the 11th Five Year Plan are not correct.
12. (d) The economy of India had undergone signi¿cant
18. (b) Current list item number 20 deals with economic
policy shifts in the beginning of the 1990s. This
and social planning. Seventy-Third Amendment Act,
new model of economic reforms is commonly
1992 empowers the Panchayats to make plans for
known as the LPG or Liberalization, Privatization
economic development and social justice.
and Globalization model. LPG model of economic
19. (c) The Ninth Five Year Plan was launched in the
development in India was proposed by Dr. Manmohan
50th year of India’s independence. Under the plan for
Singh ,economist and ¿nance minister at that time
the ¿rst time in the Indian Economy the GDP growth
under the PV Narshimha Rao Government in 1990.
rate was set at 7%.
13. (d) During The eleventh plan ( 2007-12) the food
20. (d) Provision of Urban Amenities to Rural Areas
grain production steadily increased and the average
(PURA) is a strategic plan for rural development in
inÀation on the wholesale price Index was above
India. This concept was given by former President
10%.
Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. PURA proposes that urban
14. (b) Under the third ¿ve year plan, the government
infrastructure and services be provided in rural
introduced an agricultural strategy which gave rise
hubs to create economic opportunities outside of
to green revolution in India. Under the third plan the
cities. Physical connectivity by providing roads,
electronic connectivity by providing communication was a renowned interpreter of Gandhian economic
network, and knowledge connectivity by establishing thought whose “Gandhian plan for Economic
professional and Technical institutions. All the given Development for India’’ was published as early as
statements are the components of the PURA model 1944. In 1944, Roy published People’s Plan for
of economic development. Economic Development of India. Sarvodaya plan
21. (c) The Twelfth Five Year Plan approved by the was given by Jai Prakash Narayan for upliftment of
government aims to sustain the inclusive growth all.
which started in 11th plan. 12th Five Year Plan is 28. (b) Despite big investments during the ¿rst three
from 2012 to 2017 and it aims to grow GDP at the Plans the living standards of the poor could not be
rate of 9%. raised and poverty and inequity in distribution of
22. (b) Regarding the 11th Five Year Plan, in the middle state resources remained stark. Consequently, the
of the plan, the import growth was negative due to period between 1966 and 1969 marked the shift from
external factors and the growth rate of the export a ‘growth approach’ to a ‘distribution from growth
was negative during certain periods. approach’. Looking at the failures and pitfalls the
23. (c) First plan – agriculture, Irrigation and power planners suspended the impending Fourth Plan,
projects which was due in 1966, until 1969 for a revision of
Third Plan – self reliance and generating economy objectives and targets. This was called as the ‘Plan
Fifth Plan – growth with social justice Holiday’ extending from 1 April 1966 to 31 March
Twelfth plan – sustainable inclusive growth 1969.
24. (b) PURA is classi¿ed into three different categories. 29. (b) A low seed replacement rate (SRR) is one of
Type-A : situated close to urban areas but has sparsely the main reasons for low productivity in India but
spread infrastructure and no connectivity. Type-B : the realisation has ¿nally dawned on farmers in the
situated close to urban areas but with sparsely spread agrarian state. SRR is a measure of how much of the
infrastructure and no connectivity.Type-C : located total area of crop has been sown with certi¿ed, quality
far interior with no infrastructure. seeds rather than farm-saved seeds. However, the
25. (c) Jawahar Rozgar Yojna was launched on April present supply of best quality of developed seed is not
1, 1989 by merging National Rural Employment adequately available so there is a demand-supply gap
Program (NREP) and Rural Landless Employment regarding quality seeds. Agricultural development is
Guarantee Programme (RLEGP). In Seventh Five major characteristic in India.
Year Plan the small-scale and food processing 30. (b) The Fourth Five Year Plan period is from 1969-
industries were given new impetus as the plan 74 and it sought to raise the standard of living through
laid stress on improving the productivity level of programmes designed to promote equality and social
industries by upgrading technology. justice.
26. (b) The National Development Council (NDC) is 31. (c) The economy of India had undergone signi¿cant
the apex body for decision making and deliberations policy shifts in the beginning of the 1990s at the time
on development matters in India, presided over by of eighth plan. This new model of economic reforms
the Prime Minister. It was set up on 6 August 1952 is commonly known as the LPG or Liberalization,
to strengthen and mobilize the efforts and resources Privatization and Globalization model. LPG model
of the nation in support of the Plan. It is an extra- of economic development in India was proposed by
constitutional and non-statutory body. Dr Manmohan Singh, economist and ¿nance minister
27. (d) The Bombay Plan is the name commonly given at that time. Moreover the Eighth plan envisaged an
to a World War II-era consisting of a set of proposals annual average growth rate of 5.6% but real growth
for the development of the post-independence rate was 6.8%.
economy of India. The plan, published in 1944/1945 32. (d) JNNURM is a huge mission which relates
was endorsed by eight leading Indian industrialists primarily to development in the context of urban
including Tata & Birla Group. Shri Shriman Narayan conglomerates focusing to the Indian cities. JnNURM
Economics || D-29
aims at creating ‘economically productive, ef¿cient, the state employs “inÀuence, subsidies, grants, and
equitable and responsive Cities’ by a strategy of taxes.
upgrading the social and economic infrastructure 39. (a) Under Globalisation, all the following are
in cities, provision of Basic Services to Urban Poor covered – Import of western culture through the mass
(BSUP) and wide-ranging urban sector reforms to media and telecommunication system, establishment
strengthen municipal governance in accordance with of factory limits of MNCs and acquisition of branded
the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. foreign companies by business tycoons.
33. (c) The planning of India derives its objectives 40. (b) The Rolling plan concept in National planning
and social premises followed by the Directive was introduced by the Janata Party government. Fifth
Principles of State Policy. The Directive Principles FYP was launched and planned for period 1974-79
of State Policy are guidelines to the central and state but Janata government came in power in 1978 and
governments, to be kept in mind while framing laws ended the plan prematurely in 1978. The Janata
and policies. These provisions, contained in Part IV government launched sixth FYP for period 1978-
of the Constitution of India, are not enforceable by 1983. Congress government when came to power in
any court, but the principles laid down therein are 1980 abandoned the sixth FYP and launched a new
considered fundamental in the governance of the sixth FYP for period 1980-1985. The plan for period,
country. 1978-80, is called the rolling plan.
34. (c) The main objective of the third ¿ve year plan 41. (d) The National Development Council is presided
was to make economy self-dependent. The third Five- over by the Prime Minister of India and includes
year Plan stressed on agriculture and improvement all Union Ministers, Chief Ministers of all the
in the production of wheat so as to be self-suf¿cient. States and Administrators of Union Territories and
Thus during the planned period the high yielding Members of the Planning Commission. Ministers of
varieties programme (HYVP) was started in India State with independent charge are also invited to the
to increase the yield of crops. deliberations of the Council. The Governor of the
35. (c) Provision of Urban Amenities to Rural Areas state is not the member of the National Development
(PURA) is a strategy for rural development in India council of India.
to bridge the gap between rural and urban India. 42. (b) Indicative planning is a form of economic
This concept was given by former president Dr. planning implemented by a state in an effort to solve
A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. PURA proposes that urban the problem of imperfect information in market and
infrastructure and services be provided in rural hubs mixed economies in order to increase economic
to create economic opportunities outside of cities.
performance. Regarding the indicative planning,
36. (d) Services sector of the Indian economy got the
state sets broad parameters and goals for the economy
highest growth in the term GDP contribution after the
and the targets to be achieved are broadly set by the
adoption of LPG model of economic development.
state.
37. (d) First Five Year Plan : 1951-56, Fourth Five Year
43. (c) The growth of wire line telephone connections
Plan : 1969-74, Eighth Five Year Plan : 1992-97.
in the last ¿ve years are decreasing every year due to
Thus the period of ¿rst Five Year Plan of India is
increase in mobile connections. Moreover, the share
1951-56 which is only the correct paring in the given
of private operations in the wireless telephone is more
statements.
than 85%. So, the both statements are correct.
38. (c) During the Eighth Five Year Plan, the Indian
44. (a) In a bid to expand its economic reach, India
Economy adopted the indicative planning model.
launched an initiative in 2004 called Techno-
Indicative planning is a form of economic planning
Economic Approach for Africa–India Movement
implemented by a state in an effort to solve the
problem of imperfect information in market and (TEAM–9), together with eight energy and resource-
mixed economies in order to increase economic rich West African countries viz. Burkina Faso, Chad,
performance. When utilizing indicative planning, Cote D’Ivoire, Equatorial Guinea, Ghana, Guinea
Bissau, Mali, Senegal, and India. The initiative was
part of a broader policy to engage the underdeveloped, (because of either deÀation or extremely low money
yet resource-wealthy countries of West Africa, which demand), when a large number of non-performing
required both low-cost technology and investment or defaulted loans prevent further lending (money
to develop their infrastructure. In particular, India supply growth) by member banks, and when the main
increasingly wants to play an important role in systemic risk is a recession or depression because
helping Ivory Coast and other West African countries banks cannot lend any more money, then central
channel their energy resources more ef¿ciently. banks need to implement a new set of tactics. These
are known as quantitative easing.
45. (b) Fifth FYP was launched and planned for the
The central bank may enact quantitative easing
period 1974-79 but Janata government came in
by purchasing a predetermined quantity of bonds
power in 1978 and ended the plan prematurely in
or other assets from ¿nancial institutions without
1978. The Janata government launched sixth FYP reference to the interest rate. The goal of this policy is
for period 1978-1983. Congress government when to increase the money supply rather than to decrease
came in power in 1980 abandoned the sixth FYP and the interest rate, which cannot be decreased further.
launched a new sixth FYP for period 1980-1985. This is often considered a last resort to stimulate the
46. (b) In the ¿rst Five Year Plan, the actual GDP economy.
growth rate was more than the targeted growth 58. (b) Since 2005, REC has been appointed nodal
rate. agency by Ministry of Power for Government of India
47. (c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural scheme Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
Development (NABARD) is an apex development aimed at building rural electricity infrastructure
bank in India having headquarters in Mumbai. It was and household electri¿cation towards the National
established on 12 July, 1982 in sixth ¿ve year plan Common Minimum Programme goal of access to
by a special act by the Parliament and its main focus electricity for all. This programme aims to meet the
was to uplift rural India by increasing the credit Àow energy needs of cluster of villages through a blend of
for elevation of agriculture and rural non-farm sector. conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.
59. (c) Digital India is an initiative of Government of
48. (c) The 4th Five Year 1969-74 was severely
India to integrate the government departments and the
affected by the immigration of huge number of people
people of India. It aims at ensuring the government
from Bangladesh. services are made available to citizens electronically
49. (c) The Ninth Plan treats education as the most by reducing paperwork. The initiative also includes
crucial investment in human development. The plan plan to connect rural areas with high-speed internet
had the national goal of providing primary education networks. Digital India has three core components.
as a universal basic service, and the Supreme Court These include creation of digital infrastructure,
also declared education to be a fundamental right for delivering services digitally and digital literacy. It
children upto 14 years of age aims to supply computers free of cost to rural youths
50. (a) LPG model of economic development process above 21 years in selected districts.
in India involves disinvestment of pro¿t making 60. (c) The objectives of Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for
public sector enterprises, permitting private sectors Empowerment of Adolescent Girls ‘SABLA’ are – to
to establish industrial units without taking a licence enable the Adolescent girls for self-development and
and chronically sick industries were referred to BIFR empowerment, improve their nutrition and health
status, promote awareness about health, hygiene,
for the formulation of revival or rehabilitation.
nutrition, adolescent reproductive and sexual health
54. (a) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, 2001; Saakshar Bharat
(ARSH) and family and child care, upgrade home-
Mission, 2009; Operation Blackboard, 1987. National
based skills, life skills and integrate with the National
Literacy Mission, 1988.
Skill Development Program (NSDP) for vocational
57. (a) Quantitative easing is distinguished from
skills, mainstream out of school adolescent girls into
standard central banking monetary policies, which formal/non formal education, provide information/
usually targets the interbank interest rate. When guidance about existing public services such as PHC,
interest rates have been lowered to nearly zero CHC, Post Of¿ce, Bank, Police Station, etc.
Economics || D-31
61. (c) The Hindu rate of growth is a derogatory of the state. There is complete control over the factors
term referring to the low annual growth rate of the of production by the state. There is no consumer’s
planned economy of India before the liberalizations sovereignty in such planning.
of 1991, which stagnated around 3.5% from 1950s 65. (d) Physical planning refers to the allocation of
to 1980s, while per capita income growth averaged resources in terms of men, materials and machinery.
1.3%. The term was coined by Indian economist In physical planning, an overall assessment is made
Raj Krishna. It suggests that the low growth rate of the available real resources such as raw materials,
of India, a country with a high Hindu population manpower, etc., and how they have to be obtained so
was in a sharp contrast to high growth rates in other that bottlenecks may be eliminated during the plan.
Asian countries, especially the East Asian Tigers, Physical planning requires the ¿xation of physical
which were also newly independent. This meaning targets with regard to agricultural and industrial
of the term, popularised by Robert McNamara, production, socio-cultural and transportation
was used disparagingly and has connotations that services, consumption levels and in respect of
refer to the supposed Hindu outlook of fatalism and employment, income and investment levels of the
contentedness. economy. Physical planning has to be viewed as an
62. (d) The Antyodaya Anna Yojana, an important overall long-term planning rather than a short-term
milestone in providing foodgrains to the poor was piecemeal planning.
launched on December 25, 2000. It contemplated Financial planning refers to the technique of planning
providing 25 kg. of foodgrains per month at highly in which resources are allocated in terms of money.
subsidized rates of ` 2 per kg. for wheat and ` 3 Financial planning is essential in order to remove
per kg. for rice to each Antodaya family. The total maladjustments between supplies and demand and
number of families to be covered under this scheme for calculating costs and bene¿ts of the various
was placed at one crore. projects. Thus, Financial planning is thought to secure
Antyodaya Anna Yojana has started in six States a balance between demands and supplies, avoid
- Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, inÀation and bring about economic stability.
Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and 66. (d) The scheme of National Watershed Development
the UT of Dadra & Nagar Haveli. About 36 lakh Project for Rainfed Areas (NWDPRA) was launched
families in these States have been identi¿ed and are in 1990-91 in 25 States and 2 Union Territories
being given distinctive Antyodaya ration cards. based on twin concepts of integrated watershed
It is expected that by April end this year the management and sustainable farming systems. The
Antyodaya Anna Yojana would start in most of the objectives of the project include--- conservation,
States. The annual requirement of food grains for development and sustainable management of natural
Antyodaya families would be 30 lakh tonnes. The resources, enhancement of agricultural production
total subsidy on Antyodaya Anna Yojana for a full and productivity in a sustainable manner, restoration
year will be Rs. 2315 crore. of ecological balance in the degraded and fragile
63. (c) Bhanupratap Singh committee on agriculture rainfed ecosystems by greening these areas through
report in 1990 recommended that agricultural appropriate mix of trees, shrubs and grasses,
enterprises should be treated as industries. reduction in regional disparity between irrigated and
64. (c) Indicative planning is peculiar to the mixed rainfed areas and; creation of sustained employment
economy. In a mixed economy, the public and private opportunities for the rural community including the
sectors work together. In indicative planning the landless.
private sector is neither rigidly controlled nor directed 67. (a) Dr. C. Rangarajan mentioned in his report that
to ful¿ll the targets and priorities of the plan. The state access to ¿nance by the poor and vulnerable groups
provides all types of facilities to the private sector is a prerequisite for poverty reduction and social
but does not direct it, rather indicates the areas in cohesion. This has to become an integral part of
which it can help in implementing the plan. Under our efforts to promote inclusive growth. In fact,
imperative planning all economic activities and providing access to ¿nance is a form of empowerment
resources of the economy operate under the direction of the vulnerable groups. Financial inclusion denotes
delivery of ¿nancial services at an affordable cost and state-speci¿c arrangements as in the case of
to the vast sections of the disadvantaged and low- Nagaland and the hill areas of Manipur.
income groups. The various financial services 69. (b) Bharat Nirman is a time-bound business plan for
include credit, savings, insurance and payments action in rural infrastructure. Under Bharat Nirman,
and remittance facilities. The objective of ¿nancial action is proposed in the areas of irrigation, rural
inclusion is to extend the scope of activities of the housing, rural water supply, rural electrification
organised ¿nancial system to include within its ambit and rural telecommunication connectivity. The
people with low incomes. Through graduated credit, programme was targeted to be implemented over a
the attempt must be to lift the poor from one level to period of four years but many of its schemes have
another so that they come out of poverty. been extended.
68. (d) The Backward Regions Grant Fund (BRGF) was 70. (b) Before independence, M.Visvesvaraya’s
launched in 2006–07. Implemented by the Ministry “District Development Scheme: Economic Progress
of Panchayati Raj and the Planning Commission, by Forced Marches” published in 1939, was the
it subsumes the Rashtriya Vikas Yojana (RVY), ¿rst signi¿cant attempt at evolving a methodology
which was launched in 2003–04 and was being for decentralised planning. In his district plan
administered by the Planning Commission. BRGF Visvesvaraya worked out a concrete programme
covers 250 districts in 27 states, of which 232 of action for the economic reconstruction of the
districts fall under the purview of Part IX and Part countryside. His scheme of district planning included
IX-A of the Constitution dealing with panchayats main lines of development, district organisation,
and the municipalities respectively. Th e remaining village and town organisations and aid development.
18 districts are covered by other local government After independence, in every plan, local planning
structures, such as Autonomous District and Regional was recognised as an important requirement for local
Councils under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution development.
3 Agriculture in Indian
Economy
1. Which is the agency the Government has engaged 2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities
to grade and standardise various products? under the Essential Commodities Act. Which
(a) Food Corporation of India of these statements are correct?
(b) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Bureau of Indian Standards (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither1 nor 2
(d) Central Statistical Organisation
7. In India, which of the following have the highest
2. Which of the following has not been a component
share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture
of the agriculture strategy that brought about the
Green Revolution? and allied activities?
(a) Greater intensity of crops (a) Commercial Banks
(b) Guaranteed maximum prices (b) Co-operative Banks
(c) New agricultural technology (c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) Package of inputs (d) Micro¿nance Institutions
3. Indian agriculture is typically 8. Which of the following is the chief characteristic
(a) Land surplus, labour scare economy of mixed farming?
(b) Land surplus, labour surplus economy (a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food
(c) Land scare, labour surplus economy crops
(d) Land scare, labour scare economy (b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same
4. The commission in India dealing with minimum
¿eld
support price, procurement price etc., in connection
(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops
with agricultural goods is the
(a) Planning commission together
(b) Agricultural costs and price commission (d) None of the above
(c) Agricultural price commission 9. What is the contribution of livestock in agricultural
(d) National marketing commission sector?
5. The term Green Revolution has been used to (a) 5% (b) 15%
indicate higher production through (c) 25% (d) 10%
(a) Creation of grasslands 10. The importance of agriculture in Indian economy
(b) Planting more trees is indicated by its contribution to which of the
(c) Creation of gardens in urban areas following?
(d) Enhanced agricultural productivity per
(a) National Income and Employment
hectare
6. Consider the following statements : (b) Industrial development and international
1. The Union Government ¿xes the statutory trade
minimum price of sugarcane for each sugar (c) Supply of food-grains
season. (d) All the above
D-34 || Agriculture in Indian Economy
11. Consider the following statements : Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Indian Government announces the minimum correct?
support price for the wheat rice and sugarcane (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
in a year. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The common paddy has higher minimum 16. Choose the correct statements in the context of
support price than the paddy Grade-A. Cooperative Banks in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Cooperative Banks operate on no pro¿t no
correct? loss basis.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Cooperative Banks are allowed to operate
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 only in the agriculture sector.
12. Consider the following statements : 3. NABARD is a Cooperative Bank.
1. Coconut Palm Insurance Scheme (CPIS) is (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
implemented in the Kerala, Karnataka and (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Tamil Nadu on Pilot basis. 17. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
2. Coconut Palm Insurance Scheme (CPIS) was (a) The technology mission on oil seeds was
started since 2009-10. launched by the Central Government in
Which of the statements given above is/are 1987.
correct? (b) The National Agriculture Insurance scheme
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only was launched from 1999-2000.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) The Kiasan Credit Card Scheme was launched
13. Which of the following ministeries is implementing in August, 1998.
the National Bamboo Mission in India? (d) Kisan call centre was launched in January
(a) Ministry of Science and Technology 2004.
(b) Ministry of Rural development 18. With reference to agriculture sector of India,
(c) Ministry of Agriculture consider the following statements.
(d) Ministry of North-Eastern Region 1. Command Area Development (CAD)
14. Consider the following statements : programme was started in 1995-96.
1. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme 2. CAD was aimed to maximise the agricultural
(NAIS) was launched in the Sixth Five Year productivity through optimisation of the
Plan of the Indian Economy. irrigation of the command areas.
2. The growth rate of the primary sector of Which of the statements given above is/are
the Indian Economy sector never reached correct?
8% during the planning history of Indian (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
economy. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are 19. Consider the following reasons :
correct? 1. Lack of irrigation facilities, low productivity
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only of land.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Single crop mode of cultivation.
15. Consider the following statements : 3. Indian Agriculture gamble on the monsoon.
1. India is meeting 85% of the urea fertilizer Which of the reasons given above is/are responsible
through indigenous production. for the migration of people from rural to urban
2. India produces surplus amount of the areas
fertilizers containing phosphorous and (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
potassium. (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 only
Economics || D-35
20. With reference to the agriculture sector of India, Which of the statements given above is/are
consider the following statements correct?
1. Rural infrastructure Development Fund (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
disperses loans to the states to complete the
minor irrigation projects. 1. Central warehousing corporation is
2. Rural infrastructure Development Fund is responsible for the construction and running
managed by the public sector Commercial of the godowns for storage of agriculture
Banks. products.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. Central warehousing corporation of India was
established in 1957.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
21. Which one of the following is correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Revolution Sector (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Rainbow : Industry 27. Consider the following statements :
1. Farm Income Insurance scheme at the
(b) Blue : Fisheries
beginning covered only rice and wheat
(c) Yellow : Agriculture and Allied crops.
Services 2. National Agricultural Insurance scheme is
(d) None of the above withdrawn from the crops which are covered
22. The Indian Institute of Horticultural Research is under the farm Income Insurance scheme.
located at which among the following places? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Bhopal (b) Jaipur
(c) Lucknow (d) Bengaluru (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
23. In which year National Seed Policy was announced? 28. Consider the following statements :
(a) 2000 (b) 2002 1. Agriculture including allied activities
(c) 2003 (d) 2004 accounted for about 55% employment in the
24. Which one of the following ¿ve year plans has the country according to census 2011.
2. The growth in agriculture and allied sectors
highest GDP growth rate in Agriculture sector in
is a necessary condition for inclusive growth
India? in India.
(a) Eighth Five Year Plan Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Ninth Five Year Plan correct?
(c) Tenth Five Year Plan (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) Eleventh Five Year Plan
29. Consider the following statements about the
25. Consider the following statements : National Cooperative Marketing Federation of
1. Minimum Wages Act is only applicable to the India Limited (NAFED).
scheduled employments of the centres and the 1. NAFED promotes the inter-state trade as well
states. as export of certain agricultural commodities
2. Minimum Wages Act has allowed discrimination to many foreign countries.
2. NAFED is responsible for the movement of
between male and female workers or different
the essential commodities from surplus areas
minimum wages for them.
to scarcity areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are 34. Consider the following statements :
correct? 1. Kisan credit card scheme facilitates the short
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only term credits to farmers.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Kisan credit card is implemented only by the
30. Consider the following statements about the commercial banks of India.
Agriculture Income Tax Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Agriculture Income Tax is levied and collected correct?
by the Union Government. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Agriculture Income Tax is levied throughout (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the country in India. 35. Consider the following statements about Indian
Agriculture:
correct?
1. The area under foodgrains has declined in the
last two decades.
2. The average farm size in the country is very
small and declining over the years.
1. In India, more than 85% agriculture workers
are mainly casual labourers. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Agriculture labourers in India are mainly correct?
dominated by the backward classes. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct? 36. Consider the following statements about the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only different seed production cycles.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Netiher 1 nor 2 1. Breeder seed is the primary stage of the seed
32. Consider the following statements : production cycle.
1. 20-point programme of the Indian Government 2. Certi¿ed seed is the secondary stage of the
includes the measures to uplift the landless seed production cycle.
workers. 3. Foundation seeds are produced and distributed
2. The 20-point programme was started by to all farmers and regions.
Janata Party Government in 1978. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given about is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 37. Which one of the following agencies is
33. Consider the following statements : implementing the National Agricultural Insurance
1. Regional Rural Banks grant direct loans Schemes (NAIS) in India?
and advances to marginal farmers and rural (a) General Insurance Corporation of India
artisans.
Limited
2. NABARD is responsible for laying down
(b) Life Insurance Corporation of India Limited
policies and to oversee the operations of the
(c) National Assurance Company of India
RRBs.
Limited
(d) Agriculture Insurance Company of India
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Limited
Economics || D-37
38. Consider the following statements : 42. Consider the following statements :
1. National project for cattle and Buffalo 1. In the Eleventh Five Year Plan, the average
Breeding (NPCBB) was started for genetic foodgrains production was more than 200
improvement. million tonnes.
2. The main reason for the increase in the
2. National Project for Cattle and Buffalo
production of the coarse cereals in 2000s is
Breeding (NPCBB) was launched in 2000.
mainly due to increase in demand of coarse
cereals as a nutri-food.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
39. Consider the following statements about National (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Watershed Development Project for rainfed areas 43. Consider the following statements :
launched in India? 1. India is the 3rd largest producer of Natural
1. National Watershed Development Project for Rubber in the world.
2. India in the world, shares more than 8.0% in
rainfed areas was launched in 1990-91.
the Natural Rubber Production.
2. National Watershed Development Project for
rainfed areas was launched throughout the
correct?
country. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
correct? 44. Consider the following statements :
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. India is the 6th largest producer of coffee.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. India’s share in Global Area under coffee is
40. Consider the following statements : about 2%.
1. India ranks ¿rst in the world in dairy milk 3. India contributes about 4% to world coffee
production. production as well as in the International
trade.
2. The per capita availability of dairy milk in
India is more than the per capita availability
correct?
of the world. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. The farm power availability in India is much
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 lower than that of Korea.
41. Which one of the following schemes is not included 2. India is meeting 80% of its Urea requirement
in the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY)? through indigenous production.
(a) National mission for protein supplements Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(b) Saffron mission
(c) Accelerated fodder development programme
(d) All of the above
46. Consider the following statements : 51. Where is the Central Rice Research Institute
1. In India, the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) located?
policy for fertilizers was implemented in (a) Bangaluru (b) Kanpur
2010. (c) Coimbatore (d) Cuttack
2. The Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) policy for 52. Monoculture is a typical characteristic of -
fertilizers is applied only to the Phosphorus
(a) Shifting cultivation
based fertilizers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Subsistence farming
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Specialized horticulture
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Commercial grain farming
47. Consider the following statements : 53. The Commission of Agricultural Costs and Prices
1. India has about 15% of livestock population ¿xes the
of the world. (a) Support price (b) Wholesale price
2. India is second to China in the population of (c) Retail price (d) None of these
buffalo livestock in the world. 54. The National Mission for Saffron has been
Which of the statements given above is correct? launched as a sub-scheme of which among the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only following programmes?
(a) National Food Security Mission
(b) National Horticulture Mission
1. Agriculture and Allied sectors contribute less
than 20% of Gross Domestic Product of India. (c) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
2. Around 60% of net sown agricultural area of (d) National Cash Crop Programme
India is depended on rainfall. 55. The Rastriya Krishi Vikas Yojana of Government
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? of India envisages the development in the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only following ¿elds in India:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Production of Pulses and Oilseeds
49. What is the main aim of the Agriculture and Allied 2. Production of Fodder
sector in the approach paper to the Twelfth Five 3. Development of Rainfed areas of India
Year Plan? 4. Cultivation of Saffron
(a) To achieve the target of compounded GDP
5. Development of Vegetable clusters
growth rate of 58%.
(b) To achieve the growth rate of more than 5%. Choose the correct option:
(c) Redouble the efforts to ensure 4% average (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1, 3 & 4
growth. (c) 1, 3, 4 & 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
(d) Redouble the efforts to ensure 6% average 56. Which one of the following items has the highest
growth. share of India in the World Exports?
50. Which one of the following agencies is not (a) Coffee, tea, mate, spices etc
included in the operation of the Kisan Credit (b) Pearls, precious stones, metals, coins, etc
Cards? (c) Lac, gums, resins, vegetable saps, and extracts
(a) Scheduled Commercial Banks etc
(b) Co-operative Banks
(d) Vegetable plaiting materials, vegetable
(c) Regional Rural Banks
products etc
(d) NABARD
Economics || D-39
57. Consider the following statements about the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS)? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
1. In National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(NAIS), the premium of the insurance for the 63. Which one of the following crops has been
different crops is same. exceeding target since 2004-05 in India but its
2. The National Agricultural Insurance Scheme growers have been committing suicide in large
(NAIS) has no any sun-set clause for the premium numbers in many parts of the country every year?
subsidy provided by the governments. (a) Pulse (b) Cotton
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Oilseeds (d) Wheat
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 64. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the following statements
1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to
58. On which of the following item groups, is the share
the Government.
of food expenditures increasing at the fastest rate
2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
in India?
3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before
(a) Milk and its Products being taxed.
(b) Pulses Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Cereals (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(d) Vegetables (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these
59. Which one among the following Agricultural 65. Consider the following statements
Sectors is covered under the Market Intervention 1. The crop development scheme of the
Scheme (MIS) of the Indian Government? Government of India called National Food
(a) Forestry (b) Irrigation Security Mission (NFSM) was launched in
(c) Horticulture (d) Animal Husbandry 2007.
60. Consider the following statements 2. Accelerated Pulses Production Programme is
1. India is the sixth largest producer of coffee. an important component of the National Food
2. India’s share in Global Area under coffee is Security Mission (NFSM).
about 2%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. India contributes about 4% to world coffee (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
production as well as in the international (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
trade. 66. Which one of the following is not included in
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? the Agriculture and Allied Services of Indian
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Economy?
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Fishing (b) Forestry
61. Among the following states, which one has (c) Logging (d) Food Processing
the most suitable climatic conditions for the 67. Which one of the following is not the aim of
the Rainbow Revolution of Indian Economy
cultivation of a large variety of Orchids with the
formulated in the National Agricultural Policy,
minimum cost of production and can develop an
2000?
export oriented in this ¿eld?
(a) Target to achieve 4% growth rate in
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh agriculture
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Greater private sector participation in
62. Consider the following statements agriculture
1. The farm power availability in India is much (c) National Agriculture Insurance Scheme for
lower than that of Korea. all farmers
2. India is meeting 80% of its urea requirement (d) Import of High Yielding Varieties of crops
through indigenous production. from other countries
68. Consider the following statements about the 72. With reference to agriculture sector of India,
National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture consider the following statements
(NMSA) started in India in 2010 1. Rural Infrastructure Development Fund
1. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture disperses loans to the states to complete the
(NMSA) aims at enhancing food security and minor irrigation projects.
protection of resources such as land, water, 2. Rural Infrastructure Development Fund is
biodiversity, and genetic resources. managed by the public sector commercial
2. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture banks.
(NMSA) is one of the very important programme
under the National Action Programme on
Climate Change.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 73. Consider the following statements
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The National Seed Research and Training
69. Which one of the following is the main objective Centre (NSRTC) has been notified as a
of the Farm Income Insurance Scheme? Central Seed Testing and Referral Laboratory
(a) To provide income protection to the farmers from April-1-2007.
by insuring production 2. The NSRTC has become a member laboratory
(b) To provide income protection to the farmers of the International Seed Testing Association,
by insuring market risks Zurich, Switzerland from 2007.
(c) To provide income protection to the farmers Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
by providing the insured seeds to farmers (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
70. Which one of the following is the apex cooperative 74. Swaroop Committee is associated with
organisation at the national level of India? (a) ¿nancial products marketing
(a) TRIFED (b) NAFED (b) sugar marketing
(c) FCS (d) RRBs
(c) banking
(d) capital marketing
1. Farm Income Insurance Scheme at the
75. Which one of the following ministries is
beginning covered only rice and wheat crops.
2. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme is implementing the National Bamboo Mission in
withdrawn from the crops which are covered India?
under the Farm Income Insurance Scheme. (a) Ministry of Science and Technology
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Ministry of Rural Development
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Ministry of Agriculture
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Ministry of North-Eastern Region
Economics || D-41
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 11. (d) 21. (b) 31. (c) 41. (d) 51. (d) 61. (d) 71. (c)
2. (b) 12. (b) 22. (d) 32. (a) 42. (c) 52. (d) 62. (c) 72. (a)
3. (c) 13. (c) 23. (b) 33. (c) 43. (c) 53. (a) 63. (b) 73. (c)
4. (c) 14. (d) 24. (a) 34. (a) 44. (d) 54. (c) 64. (c) 74. (a)
5. (d) 15. (a) 25. (a) 35. (c) 45. (c) 55. (d) 65. (c) 75. (c)
6. (c) 16. (a) 26. (c) 36. (d) 46. (a) 56. (c) 66. (d)
7. (a) 17. (a) 27. (c) 37. (d) 47. (a) 57. (d) 67. (d)
8. (c) 18. (b) 28. (c) 38. (c) 48. (c) 58. (a) 68. (c)
9. (c) 19. (a) 29. (c) 39. (a) 49. (c) 59. (c) 69. (d)
10. (d) 20. (a) 30. (d) 40. (a) 50. (d) 60. (d) 70. (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) The Directorate of Marketing and Inspection the Commission has been known as Commission for
(DMI) headed by the Agricultural Marketing Agricultural Costs and Prices.
Advisor, Department of Agriculture & Co-operation 5. (d) The term Green Revolution has been used
(DAC) implements agricultural marketing policies to indicate higher production through enhanced
and programmes of the Government of India. It agricultural productivity per hectare.
undertakes: Standardisation, Grading and quality 6. (c) The union government fixes the statutory
control of agricultural and allied produce, Market minimum price of sugarcane for each sugar season.
Research and Surveys along with other functions. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under
2. (b) ‘Guranteed maximum prices’ has not been a the essential commodities Act. So both statements are
component of the agriculture strategy that brought correct.
about the Green Revolution.The strategy aimed 7. (a) In India, commercial banks have the highest
at increasing the yield of crops using fertilizer,
share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture
pesticides and high yielding varities in agriculture.
and allied activities.The commercial banks disburse
3. (c) Indian agriculture is typically characterised as
around 60% credit followed by cooperative banks
land scare, labour surplus economy. India has high
around 30% and RRB and others.
man/land ratio. There are large number of skilled
8. (c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops
labours but there is absence of land or capital.
together is the chief characteristic of mixed farming.
4. (c) The Agricultural Prices Commission was set
9. (c) Livestock contributes 25 per cent of gross
up in January, 1965 to advise the Government on
price policy of major agricultural commodities with value added in the agriculture sector and provides
a view to evolve a balance and integrated price self-employment to about 21 million people. Growth
structure in the perspective of the overall needs of of livestock output averaged 4.8 per cent per annum
the economy and with due regard to the interests of during the Eleventh Plan recovering from an average
the producer and the consumer. Since March 1985, of 3.6 per cent in the Ninth and theTenth Plans.
10. (d) The importance of agriculture in Indian 15. (a) In the given statements, India is meeting 85%
Economy is indicated by its contribution to national of the urea fertilizer through indigenous production
income, industrial development and supply of is correct. However, we are de¿cient in phosphatic
foodgrains. It contributes around 13.7% to GDP, and potassic resources and around 90% is imported.
supplies raw material for development of industries 16. (a) Cooperative Banks operate on no profit no
along with supplying foodgrains for livelihood. loss basis, and they operate in all sectors including
11. (d) Regarding to minimum support price neither agriculture sector. NABARD is not a Cooperative
of the statements given above is correct. In order Bank. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
to help the farmers in getting remunerative prices Development (NABARD) is an apex development
for their produce with a view to encourage higher bank in India.
investment and also to increase production and 17. (a) The technology mission on oil seeds was
productivity of a commodity, government of India launched by the central government in 1986. The
declares Minimum Support Price (MSPs) for 25 National Agriculture Insurance scheme was launched
noti¿ed agricultural commodities for each Kharif from 1999-2000. The Kiasan Credit Card Scheme
and Rabi crop. Moreover, the common paddy does was launched in August, 1998. Kisan Call Centres
not has higher minimum support price than the paddy were launched in January 2004.
Grade-A. 18. (b) The centrally sponsored Command Area
12. (b) A pilot Coconut Palm Insurance Scheme
Development (CAD) Programme was launched
(CPIS) was introduced in 2009-10 for the bene¿t of
in 1974-75 with the main objectives of improving
coconut growers in major coconut growing states
the utilization of created irrigation potential and
like Kerala, Karnataka,Tamilnadu, Goa, AP, West
optimizing agriculture production and productivity
Bengal and Maharashtra. In this scheme, coconut
from irrigated agriculture.
plants of the age from 4th year to 60th year are
20. (a) Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF)
covered. Insurance coverage is provided for total
was instituted in NABARD with an announcement
loss/death/becoming useless of the plant. Fifty per
in the Union Budget 1995-96 with the sole objective
cent subsidy in premium is provided by Government
of giving low cost fund support to State governments
of India and twenty ¿ve per cent by the concerned
and state owned corporations for quick completion
State Government.
of ongoing projects relating to medium and minor
13. (c) The National Bamboo Mission is a Centrally
Sponsored Scheme in which the contribution of the irrigation, soil conservation, watershed management
Central Government will be 100%. The Scheme is and other forms of rural infrastructure.
implemented by the Division of Horticulture under 21. (b) The Blue Revolution is similar to the Green
the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation in Revolution only that it deals with aquaculture, ¿sh
the Ministry of Agriculture. and water preservation for human use.
14. (d) In the year 1999 the National Agricultural 22. (d) Indian Institute of Horticultural Research is
Insurance Scheme was introduced by replacing located at Bengaluru. The Institute spreads research
comprehensive crop Insurance Scheme. NAIS activities by establishing its experimental stations
covers all food crops (cereals and pulses), oilseeds, at Lucknow, Nagpur, Ranchi, Godhra, Chettalli and
horticultural and commercial crops. It covers all Gonikopal.
farmers, both loanees and non-loanees, under the 23. (b) National seed policy was announced in 2002.
scheme. Growth rate of primary sector reached above National seed policy is based on the recommendations
8% with green revolution. Both the given statements of M.V. Rao committee in 2002.The Policy is meant
are not correct. to “strengthen the seed industry’’ in view of the
Economics || D-43
liberalisation in the farm sector under the World Trade 30. (d) Agricultural income tax is levied on the income
Organisation. The policy seeks to provide intellectual from Agriculture. At present agriculture is subjected
property protection to stimulate investment in to – two direct taxes and they are Agricultural Income
research and development of new plant varieties. Tax and Land Tax. They are levied by the state
24. (a) The growth performance of the agriculture governments. Not all states levy agricultural income
sector has been Àuctuating across the plan periods. tax.
It witnessed a growth rate of 4.8 per cent during the 31. (c) Agriculture labourers in India are mainly
Eighth plan period (1992–97). dominated by the backward classes and more than
25. (a) The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 is an Indian 85% agriculture workers are mainly casual labourers.
legislation enacted by the Parliament of India for 32. (a) The Twenty Point Programme was initially
statutory ¿xing of minimum wages to be paid to launched by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in 1975.
skilled and unskilled labours of centre and state. The basic objective of the 20-Point Programme was
Minimum wages Act does not allow discrimination to eradicate poverty and to improve the quality of
between male and female workers. life of the poor and the under privileged population
26. (c) CWC is a Warehousing Agency in India, of the country including landless workers.
established in 1957. It provides logistics support to the 33. (c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
agricultural sector. CWC is operating 464 Warehouses Development (NABARD) is an apex development
across the country with a storage capacity of 10.54 bank in India. It was established on 12 July, 1982 in
million tonnes providing warehousing services for sixth ¿ve year plan and its main focus was to uplift
a wide range of products ranging from agricultural rural India by increasing the credit Àow for elevation
produce to sophisticated industrial products. of agriculture and rural non-farm sector and laying
27. (c) The Central Government formulated the Farm down policies and to oversee the operations of the
Income Insurance Scheme (FIIS) during 2003-04. RRBs. Moreover Regional Rural Banks grant direct
The scheme provided income protection to the loans and advances to marginal farmers and rural
farmers by insuring production and market risks. artisans. So both statements are correct.
Initially, the scheme covered only wheat and rice 34. (a) A Kisan Credit Card is a credit card to provide
and was compulsory for farmers availing crop loans. affordable credit for farmers in India. It was started
NAIS was withdrawn for the crops covered under by the government of India, Reserve Bank of India
FIIS. (RBI), and National Bank for Agricultural and Rural
28. (c) The growth in agriculture and allied sectors is Development (NABARD) in 1998-99 to help farmers
a necessary condition for inclusive growth in India. access timely and adequate short term credit. The
Agriculture including allied activities accounted for farmers can use card to withdraw from most of the
about 55% employment in the country according to banks like commercial banks, cooperative banks and
census 2011. regional rural banks.
29. (c) National Cooperation Marketing Federation 35. (c) The area under foodgrains has declined in the
of India Limited (NAFED) promotes cooperative last two decades and the average farm size in the
marketing, promotes the inter-state trade as well as country is very small and declining over the years.
export of certain agricultural commodities to many 36. (d) About the different seed production cycles
foreign countries. It is responsible in stabilizing the breeder seed is the primary stage of the
prices of commodities and thus responsible for the seed production cycle. Breeder seed is seed or
movement of the essential commodities from surplus vegetative propagating material directly controlled
areas to scarcity areas. by the originating or sponsoring plant breeder of the
breeding programme or institution. Breeder seed during the period under the 11th Five Year Plan
shall be genetically so pure as to guarantee that in (2007–11).
the subsequent generation. Foundation seed shall be 42. (c) In the Eleventh Five Year Plan, the average
the progeny of Breeder seed. Certi¿ed seed shall be foodgrains production was more than 200 million
the progeny of foundation seed. tonnes, and during 2000s production of the coarse
37. (d) Agriculture Insurance Company of India cereals increased mainly due to increase in demand
Limited is implementing the National Agricultural of coarse cereals as a nutri-food.
Insurance Scheme (NAIS) in India. In the year 43. (c) India is the third largest producer, fourth largest
1999 the National Agricultural Insurance Scheme consumer of natural rubber and ¿fth largest consumer
was introduced by replacing comprehensive crop of natural rubber and synthetic rubber together in the
Insurance Scheme. NAIS covers all food crops world. India in the world, shares more than 8.0% in
(cereals and pulses), oilseeds, horticultural and the Natural Rubber Production.
commercial crops. It covers all farmers, both loanees 44. (d) India is the 6th largest producer of coffee in the
and non-loanees, under the scheme. world having a share of around 2% in terms of global
38. (c) Government of India has initiated a major area. India contributes about 4% to world coffee
programme ‘National Project for Cattle and Buffalo production as well as in the International trade.
Breeding’ (NPCBB) from October 2000. The NPCBB 45. (c) The farm power availability in India is much
envisages genetic upgradation on priority basis with a lower than that of Korea. India is meeting 85% of
focus on development and conservation of important the Urea fertilizer through indigenous production.
indigenous breeds. However, we are de¿cient in phosphatic and potassic
39. (a) The scheme of National Watershed Development resources and around 90% is imported.
Project for Rainfed Areas (NWDPRA) was launched 46. (a) Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Policy on
in 1990-91 in 25 States and 2 Union Territories decontrolled Phosphatic and Potassic fertilizer came
based on twin concepts of integrated watershed into effect from 1st April, 2010. It has been decided
management and sustainable farming systems. At to ¿x the subsidy on the nutrients ‘N’ - Nitrogen, ‘P’
present, this scheme is being implemented as a - Phosphorus, ‘K’ - Potash and ‘S’ – Sulphur contents.
programme of Centrally Sponsored Scheme of Macro 47. (a) Regarding the livestock population, India has
Management of Agriculture in 28 States and 2 Union about 15% of livestock population of the world.
Territories. However, the world population of buffalo has been
40. (c) The Indian dairy sector has acquired substantial estimated at over 140 million head . Of these, 97 per
growth momentum from the Ninth Five-Year Plan cent are found in Asia and the Paci¿c regions, mainly
onwards, as a result of which the country now ranks in India (75 million), China (21 million), Pakistan
¿rst among the world’s milk producing nations. The (14 million).
per capita availability of the milk has reached a level 48. (c) Agriculture and Allied sectors contribute less
of 290g per day by the year 2012, which is more than than 20% around 17% of Gross Domestic product
the world average of 284g per day. of India. Around 60% of net sown agricultural area
41. (d) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was launched of India is depended on rainfall.
in August 2007 as a part of the 11th Five Year Plan 49. (c) The main aim of the agriculture and allied sector
by the Government of India. Launched under the in the approach paper to the 12th Five Year Plan is to
aegis of the National Development Council, it seeks redouble the efforts to ensure 4% average growth.
to achieve 4% annual growth in agriculture through 50. (d) A Kisan Credit Card is a credit card to provide
development of Agriculture and its allied sectors affordable credit for farmers in India. It was started
Economics || D-45
by the Government of India, Reserve Bank of India to adopt modern technology, and raise productivity
(RBI), and National Bank for Agricultural and Rural and overall grain production in line with the emerging
Development (NABARD) in 1998-99 to help farmers demand patterns in the country.
access timely and adequate credit. The farmers can 54. (c) Three new sub-schemes have been introduced
use cards to withdraw money from most of the banks under RKVY from 2010-11. National Mission for
like commercial bank,cooperative bank and regional Saffron-Economic Revival of J&K Saffron Sector
rural banks. However in day-to-day operations has been provided with special grants.
NABARD is not included. 55. (d) Provision of `9217 crore has been made for
51. (d) The outbreak of devastating epiphytotic brown this scheme in the Budget of 2012-13. It includes
spot disease of rice (Helminthosporium spp) in 1942 9 sub components. These are: special initiative for
in the then Bengal Province (the areas of which pulses and oilseeds development in selected pulses
are now in the state of West Bengal in India and and oilseed growing villages in rain-fed areas, scheme
Bangladesh resulted in a serious shortage of rice. to bridge yield gap in agriculture in eastern India,
Added to this, the failure of the civil administration initiative on vegetable clusters, accelerated fodder
to cope with such a disastrous situation culminated development programme, rain-fed area development
in what was called the Great Bengal Famine of 1943. programme, promotion of oil palm, nutri- cereals,
With this background, the Central Government, national mission for protein supplements and
in the year 1944, decided to intensify research on Provision of `9217 crore has been made for this
all aspect of rice crop. In 1945, the Government
scheme in the Budget of 2012-13. It includes 9 sub
of India decided to establish a central Institute for
components. These are: special initiative for pulses
rice research. As a result, the Central Rice Research
and oilseeds development in selected pulses and
Institute (CRRI) was setup on 23 April 1946 at
oilseed growing villages in rain-fed areas, scheme
Bidhyadharpur, Cuttack, Odisha with an experimental
to bridge yield gap in agriculture in eastern India,
farm land of 60 hectares provided by Government
initiative on vegetable clusters, accelerated fodder
of Orissa. Subsequently, in 1966, the administrative
development programme, rain-fed area development
control of the institute was transferred to the Indian
programme, promotion of oil palm, nutri-cereals,
Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
national mission for protein supplements and saffron
52. (d) Monoculture is the agricultural practice
mission.
of producing or growing a single crop or plant
56. (c) These exports have marked a growth of 0.8 in
species over a wide area and for a large number
the year 2012-13. Recently India has diversi¿ed its
of consecutive years. It is widely used in modern
industrial agriculture and its implementation has export basket for these products.
allowed for large harvests from minimal resources. 57. (d) For Kharif crops premium is 3.5% of Sum
Monocultures can lead to the quicker spread of pests insured for all Oilseed crops and Bajra and 2.5%
and diseases, where a uniform crop is susceptible to for all others foodcrops including pulses. For Rabi
a pathogen. ‘Crop monoculture’ is the practice of crops Premium rates are 1.5% for wheat and 2% for
growing the same crop year after year. all other foodcrops including pulses and oilseeds.
53. (a) The Commission of Agricultural Costs & Prices The premium subsidy will be phased out on sunset
(CACP since 1985, earlier named as Agricultural basis in a period of three to ¿ve years subject to
Prices Commission) came into existence in January review of ¿nancial results and the response of farmers
1965. It is mandated to recommend minimum at the end of the ¿rst year of the implementation of
support prices (MSPs) to incentivize the cultivators the Scheme.
58. (a) Milk and milk products, exhibited high rates Arunachal Pradesh is so much favourable that the
of inÀation recently. Pulses, MFE, and milk and state holds about 60% of the Indian variety of orchids.
milk products which together constituted around Till today about 605 spp. of orchids of Arunachal
30 per cent of the total food expenditure in 2009-10 Pradesh have been identi¿ed and the work is in
(2004-05=100, as per the 66th NSSO Round) were progress. The Àowering of orchids depends on the
responsible for around 42 per cent of food inÀation seasonal condition and variation.
during the latter period. This signi¿es that protein 62. (c) According to the Department of Agriculture,
sources of food, both plant and animal, have emerged the share of agriculture workers and draught animals
an important driver of food inÀation in recent period. (farm power sources in agriculture) has come down
59. (c) Government implements Market Intervention from 63.5 per cent in 1971-72 to 13.67 per cent in
Scheme (MIS) on the request of a State/UT 2009-10, whereas the share of tractors, power tillers,
Government for procurement of agricultural and and motors has gone up from 36.51 per cent to 86.33
horticultural commodities not covered under the per cent during the same period. Although India is
Price Support Scheme. The MIS is implemented in the largest manufacturer of tractors in the world,
order to protect the growers of these commodities accounting for one-third of the global production,
from making distress sale in the event of bumper farm mechanisation in India is still at a nascent
crop when the prices tend to fall below the economic stage, with the average farm power availability in
level/cost of production. Losses, if any, incurred by the country lower than in countries such as Korea,
the procuring agencies are shared by the Central Japan and the US.
Government and the concerned State Government India is meeting 80 per cent of its urea requirement
on 50:50 basis (75:25 in case of North-Eastern through indigenous production but is largely import
States). However, the amount of loss to be shared dependent for meeting the requirements of potassic
between Central Government and the concerned (K) and phosphatic (P) fertilizers. Chemical fertilizers
State Government is restricted to 25% of value of have played a signi¿cant role in the development of
procurement. Pro¿t, if any, earned by the procuring the agricultural sector. Consumption of chemical
agencies is retained by them. fertilizers has steadily increased over the years.
60. (d) The coffee industry of India is the sixth largest 63. (b) A study conducted in 2014 found that there are
producer of coffee in the world, accounting for over three speci¿c characteristics associated with high risk
four per cent of world coffee production, with the farmers: “those that grow cash crops such as coffee
bulk of all production taking place in its Southern and cotton; those with ‘marginal’ farms of less than
states. India is most noted for its Indian Kathlekhan one hectare; and those with debts of 300 Rupees or
Superior variety. It is believed that coffee has been more.” The study also found that the Indian states in
cultivated in India longer than anywhere outside of which these three characteristics are most common
the Arabian Peninsula. India exported over 440,000 had the highest suicide rates and also accounted for
pounds of coffee in the 2005-2006 season, slightly “almost 75% of the variability in state-level suicides.
less than in 2005 and nearly 5 per cent less than 2004. 64. (c) Ryotwari System was introduced by Thomas
Over a quarter of the India’s coffee exports go to Italy. Munro in 1820. Major areas of introduction include
Russia is a distant second place, importing nearly 15 Madras, Bombay, parts of Assam and Coorgh
per cent of India’s exports. provinces of British India. In Ryotwari System the
61. (d) There are about 20,000 varieties of orchids in ownership rights were handed over to the peasants.
the world out of which about 1200 accounts in India. British Government collected taxes directly from the
The ecological condition and climate variation in peasants. The revenue rates of Ryotwari System were
Economics || D-47
50% where the lands were dry and 60% in irrigated crops, spices, aromatic and medicinal plants);
land. As per the system every ryot in an estate shall, ¿sheries sector; animal husbandry and livestock; and
with effect on and from the noti¿ed date, be entitled sericulture. India’s varied agro-climatic conditions
to a ryotwari patta in respect of all ryoti lands. are highly favourable for the growth of large number
65. (c) The National Development Council (NDC) in of horticultural crops, which occupy around 10 per
its 53rd meeting held on 29th May, 2007 adopted cent of gross cropped area of the country producing
a resolution to launch a Food Security Mission 160.75 million tonnes. However food processing does
comprising rice, wheat and pulses to increase the not fall under this category.
production of rice by 10 million tons, wheat by 8 67. (d) In July 2000, the Centre Government of India
million tons and pulses by 2 million tons by the end of had announced the ¿rst-ever national agriculture
the Eleventh Plan (2011-12). Accordingly, a Centrally policy. The policy aimed at achieving a growth rate
Sponsored Scheme, ‘National Food Security Mission’ of over 4 per cent per annum by introducing ‘rainbow
(NFSM), was launched in October 2007. The Mission revolution’ in the next two decades so that the total
is being continued during 12th Five Year Plan with GDP growth can be sustained at 6.5 per cent. Import
new targets of additional production of food grains of High Yielding Varieties of crops from other
of 25 million tons of food grains comprising of 10 countries was not included in the objective of this
million tons rice, 8 million tons of wheat, 4 million revolution.
tons of pulses and 3 million tons of coarse cereals by 68. (c) Presently, the threat of climate change poses a
the end of 12th Five Year Plan. challenge for sustainable agricultural growth. This
In order to accelerate the pulses production, the threat is compounded due to accumulated greenhouse
scope of National Food Security Mission will be gas emissions in the atmosphere, anthropogenically
enhanced through the following changes: Merger of generated through long-term intensive industrial
Integrated Scheme on Oilseeds Pulses, Oil palm and growth and high consumption lifestyles and
Maize (ISOPOM) Pulses components and area with preferences. While the international community is
NFSM pulses, Inclusion of additional programmes collectively engaging itself to deal with this threat,
such as innovative “Accelerated Pulses Production India needs to evolve a national strategy for adapting
Programme (A3P)” with nutrient and plant protection to climate change and its variabilities in order to
centric block demonstrations over 1 million hectares ensure ecological sustainability in its socio-economic
of pulses crop area and, Inclusion of innovative developmental priorities. Thus the National Mission
development and research projects. for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) was launched
66. (d) Agriculture and allied sectors are considered in 2008 with the objective of promoting Sustainable
to be the mainstay of the Indian economy. They are Agriculture.
the important source of raw material and demand 69. (d) The Central Government formulated the Farm
for many industrial products, particularly fertilizers, Income Insurance Scheme (FIIS) during 2003-04.
pesticides, agricultural implements and a variety The two critical components of a farmer’s income are
of consumer goods. They contribute nearly 22 per yield and price. FIIS targeted these two components
cent of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India. through a single insurance policy so that the insured
About 65-70 per cent of the population is dependent farmer could get a guaranteed income. The scheme
on agriculture for their livelihood. ‘Agriculture provided income protection to the farmers by
and allied’ industry is further divided into several insuring production and market risks. The insured
segments, namely: horticulture and its allied sectors farmers were ensured minimum guaranteed income
(including fruits and vegetables, Àowers, plantation (that is, average yield multiplied by the minimum
support price). If the actual income was less than waterlogged areas, drainage, forest development,
the guaranteed income, the insured would be market yard/godown, apna mandi, rural haats and
compensated to the extent of the shortfall by the other marketing infrastructure, cold storage, seed/
Agriculture Insurance Company of India. Initially, the agriculture/horticulture farms, plantation and
scheme would cover only wheat and rice and would horticulture, grading and certifying mechanisms such
be compulsory for farmers availing crop loans. NAIS as testing and certifying laboratories, etc., community
(explained in the section below) would be withdrawn irrigation wells for irrigation purposes for the village
for the crops covered under FIIS, but would continue as a whole, ¿shing harbour/jetties, riverine ¿sheries,
to be applicable for other crops. animal husbandry and modern abattoir.
70. (b) National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing 73. (c) National Seed Research and Training Centre
Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED) is an apex (NSRTC) is located at Varanasi. This institute has
organisation of marketing cooperatives for been has been noti¿ed as a Central Seed Testing
agricultural produce in India, under Ministry of and Referral Laboratory (CSTL), with effect from 1
Agriculture, Government of India. It was founded April 2007. The primary objective for establishing the
in October 1958 to promote the trade of agricultural NSRTC is to have a separate National Seed Quality
produce and forest resources across the nation. Control Laboratory to serve as CSTL and a referral
NAFED is now one of the largest procurement as laboratory for courts in India, and also to act as a
well as marketing agencies for agricultural products human resource development centre in the ¿eld of
in India. seed quality. The CSTL of the NSRTC has become a
71. (c) Farm Income Insurance Scheme was designed member laboratory of the International Seed Testing
to provide a comprehensive crop insurance cover Association (ISTA), Zurich, Switzerland with effect
to farmers against loss in farm income due to from 2007.
fluctuations in yield and price, the scheme was 74. (a) Swaroop Committee recommended the no-
adopted as a pilot project in respect of paddy and entry load structure for insurance products. So it is
wheat at a block each in 25 States. Implemented by associated with ¿nancial products marketing.
the National Insurance Company, the scheme carried 75. (c) With a view to harness the potential of bamboo
a subsidy of 75 per cent on the premium, given by the crop, Department of Agriculture & Cooperation
Union Government in respect of small and marginal (DAC), Ministry of Agriculture is implementing a
farmers and 50 per cent in respect of others. 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme called Mission
72. (a) The RIDF was set up by the Government in for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH)
1995-96 for ¿nancing ongoing rural Infrastructure in which National Bamboo Mission (NBM) is being
projects. The Fund is maintained by the National implemented as a sub scheme. The Mission envisages
Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development promoting holistic growth of bamboo sector by
(NABARD). The scope of RIDF has been widened adopting area-based, regionally differentiated
to include activities such as rural drinking water strategy and to increase the area under bamboo
schemes, soil conservation, rural market yards, cultivation and marketing. Under the Mission, steps
rural health centres and primary schools, mini have been taken to increase the availability of quality
hydel plants, shishu shiksha kendras, anganwadis, planting material by supporting the setting up of
and system improvement in the power sector. new nurseries and strengthening of existing ones.
The activities to be ¿nanced under RIDF include To address forward integration, the Mission is taking
minor irrigation projects/micro irrigation, flood steps to strengthen marketing of bamboo products,
protection, watershed development/reclamation of especially those of handicraft items.
4 Industry
1. Which of the following pairs are correctly Code:

matched? A B C D
Enterprise Industrial Group (a) 3 1 4 2
1. VSNL Bharti Group (b) 2 4 1 3
2. Mundra SEZ Adani Group (c) 3 4 1 2
3. CMC Ltd. Tata Group (d) 2 1 4 3
5. Correlate the following
4. IPCL Reliance Group
Industry Field
Select the correct answer using the codes given A. Basic industry 1. Fertilizer
below : B. Strategic industry 2. Petroleum
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 C. Critical industry 3. Automobile
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 D. Goods based industry 4. Arms and
2. Consider the following factors regarding an Ammunition
industry : Code :
1. Capital Investment A B C D
2. Business Turnover (a) 4 2 3 1
3. Labour Force (b) 4 1 2 3
4. Power Consumption (c) 1 4 2 3
Which of these determine the nature and size of (d) 2 4 3 1
6. Read the following statements carefully :
the industry?
1. In public sector of India there are basic and
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
heavy industries.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 2. All industries of public sector are profit
3. Which one of the following pairs is not properly oriented.
matched? 3. Jobs are secured in the industries of public
Industry Industrialists sector.
(a) Reliance Mukesh Ambani Answer on the basis of following codes:
(b) Wipro R. Krishnamurthy (a) 1 and 2 are true (b) 1 and 3 are true
(c) Airtel Bharati Mittal (c) 2 and 3 are true (d) 1, 2 and 3 are true
(d) Nano Car Ratan Tata 7. Consider the following statements :
4. Match the given companies with their locations 1. The expansion of public sector was based on
and select the correct answer by using the codes industrial policy resolution 1956.
given below : 2. Government has announced new industrial
policy in July 1991.
Company Location
3. Government has not announced the industrial
A. Balco 1. Hirakund policy at all.
B. Hindalco 2. Korba The correct statements are :
C. Indian Aluminium company 3. Koraput (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
D. Nalco 4. Renukoot (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
D-50 || Industry
8. Economic liberalisation in India started with : 14. Which one of the following committees
(a) Substantial changes in industrial licensing recommended the abolition of reservation of items
policy. for small scale sector in industry?
(b) The convertibility of Indian rupee. (a) Nayak Committee
(c) Doing away with procedural formalities for (b) Abid Hussain Committee
Foreign Direct Investment. (c) Narasimhan Committee
(d) Signi¿cant reduction in tax rates. (d) Rakesh Mohan Committee
9. National Renewal Fund was constituted for the 15. Consider the following pairs :
purpose of : Firm Group
(a) Providing pension for retiring employees. 1. Ashok Leyland Hinduja
(b) Social security 2. Hindalco Industries A. V. Birla
(c) Rural reconstruction 3. Suzlon Energy Tulsi Tanti
(d) Restructuring and modernisation of industries Which of the pairs given above are correctly
10. The licensing policy for the industries drew matched?
strength from: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(a) Industrial Policy Resolution, 1948 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956 16. In the context of India’s Five Year Plans, a shift in
(c) Congress Party Resolution of establishing the pattern of industrialisation with lower emphasis
socialistic pattern of society on heavy industries and more on infrastructure
(d) Industrial Act, 1951 began in :
11. Disinvestment is : (a) Fourth plan (b) Sixth Plan
(a) OfÀoading of shares of private companies to (c) Eighth plan (d) Tenth plan
government. 17. Consider the following statements about the second
(b) Off-loading of government shares to private Five Year Plan :
companies. 1. Priorities were given in the production of iron
(c) Increase in investment.
and steel and heavy engineering and machine
(d) Closing down of business concerns.
building industries.
2. Strengthening the oil exploration and coal in
1. The ¿rst modern steel producing unit was
India.
established at Kulti (W. Bengal) in 1874.
2. Bhilai steel plant was established during
second Five Year Plan.
3. Rourkela steel plant was established with the
18. Consider the following statements about Tata Steel:
collaboration of the west Germany.
1. It is Asia’s ¿rst privately own integrated iron
4. Bokaro steel plant was established during the
and steel plant.
third Five Year Plan.
2. It is the ¿rst company outside Japan to get
Which of the statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 the Deming Application Prize in 2008 for
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 excellence in total quality management
13. Maruti views Tata Motors as a prominent 3. Immediately after the enactment of the
competitor but does not view Volvo as a competitor. Provident Fund Law in India, Tata Steel
This type of competition in the market is known as introduced provident fund for its employees.
(a) Product competition 4. It is the ¿rst company in the world to get
(b) Production Àow competition social accountability 8000 certi¿cation from
(c) Cost control competition the social accountability international from
(d) None of these the USA.
Economics || D-51
Which of the statements given above are correct? machinery which is de-licensed under the
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 current industrial policy and quali¿es for
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 100% FDI under automatic approval.
19. Consider the following statements : Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. MMTC limited is India’s largest international (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
trading organisation. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Neelanchal Ispat Nigam Limited has been set 24. Consider the following statements :
up by MMTC jointly with the government of 1. Miniratna public sector enterprises can be
Odisha. a joint venture, set subsidiary company or
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? overseas of¿ce but with certain conditions.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Till now there are less than 50 public sector
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 enterprises which have been given Miniratna
20. Consider the following statements about the status by the Indian government.
Navaratna status industries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Navaratna was originally assigned to nine (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
public sector enterprises in 1997. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The number of PSEs (Public Sector 25. Consider the following statements :
Enterprises) having Navaratna status is now 1. The USSR assisted in building of Bhilai Steel
more than 15 industries. Plant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. The British assisted in the building of the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Bokaro Steel Plant.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
21. Consider the following statements : (a) 1 only (b) 1 only
1. The ¿rst petrochemical industry in India was (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
started with the establishment of National 26. In India, in the overall index of industrial
organic chemical industry limited in sixties. production, the indices of eight core industries
2. The real thrust of petrochemical industry in have a combined weight of 37-90%. Which of the
India came with the establishment of Indian following are among those eight core industries?
Petrochemical Corporation Limited (IPCL) 1. Cement 2. Fertilizers
at Baroda. 3. Natural gas 4. Re¿nery products
Which of the statements given above is/are: 5. Textiles
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 below :
22. Which one of the following is not correctly (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
matched? (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 5
(a) Hindalco industries : Novelis 27. A Labour intensive industry is one that :
(b) Tata Steel : Chorus Group (a) Requires hard manual labour
(c) Jet Airways : Air Sahara (b) Pays adequate wages to the labour
(d) King¿sher Airlines : MDR Airlines (c) Employs more hands
23. Consider the following statements : (d) Provides facilities to labour
1. Packaging machinery industry, like other 28. Consider the following aims of the National
industrial machinery is allowed for 100%. Manufacturing Policy (NMP) of Indian economy.
FDI under automatic approval. 1. National Investment and Manufacturing
2. Food processing machinery can be classi¿ed Zones (NIMZs) will be established on lands
under the general category of industrial which are degraded and uncultivable.
D-52 || Industry
2. NIMZs (National Investment and 34. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
Manufacturing Zones) are the integrated Industries clusters Location
industrial townships with world class physical (a) Textiles Tirupur
and social infrastructure. (b) Marble Kishangarh
Which of the statements about NIMZs formulated (c) Surat Gems & Jewellery
in NMP given above is/are correct? (d) All of the above
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 35. Consider the following statements according to
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises development
29. Which one of the following indusrial policies has (MSMED) Act 2006 of Indian Economy.
abolished (with a few exception) the industrial 1. The Micro Enterprises are those whose capital
licensing?
assest is less than 25 lakh.
(a) Industrial Policy 1970
2. The Small Enterprises are those industries
(b) Industrial Policy 1980
whose capital assest is from 10 lakh to 5 crore.
(c) Industrial Policy 1991
3. The capital assest including machinery more
(d) Industrial Policy 1995
30. The SEZ Act 2005 which came into effect in than 5 crore is known as Medium Enterprises.
February 2006 has certain objectives? In this Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
context consider the following : (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
1. Development of infrastructure facilities (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Promotion of investment from foreign 36. Consider the following statements :
sources. 1. National Thermal Power Corporation has
3. Promotion of export of services only. diversi¿ed into hydropower sector.
Which of the above is/are objective of this Act? 2. Power Grid Corporation of India has
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only diversi¿ed into telecom sector.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
31. Identify the correct sequence of the establishment (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
of steel plant in India from the earliest to the latest. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Bokaro–Jamshedpur, Vishakhapatnam, Bhilai 37. With reference to India, consider the following
(b) Jamshedpur–Bhilai, Bokaro–Vishakhapatnam central acts:
(c) Bhilai, Jamshedpur, Vishakhapatnam, Bokaro 1. Import and Export (control) Act 1947
(d) Jamshedpur, Bokaro, Bhilai, Vishakhapatnam 2. M i n i n g a n d M i n e r a l D e v e l o p m e n t
32. Consider the following statements : (Regulation) Act 1957
1. The ¿rst news print plant was set up in India 3. Custom Act 1962
at Nepanagar. 4. Indian Forest Act 1927
2. The ¿rst modern steel plant in India was set Which of the above acts has relevance to bearing
up at Bhadrawati.
on the biodiversity conservation in the country?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None of these
1. The erratic trend in the production of sugar 1. India has attained self-suf¿ciency in almost
is mainly due to monsoons. all consumer goods.
2. The output of sugar is inÀuenced by both cane 2. In terms of capital goods, India still depends
and Gur prices. on the import.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Economics || D-53
39. Which one of the following statement is incorrect? 2. SIDBI has taken over the responsibility of
(a) India is the second largest manufacturer of administering small industry development
cement in the world. funds managed by the IDBI.
(b) India ranks 4th in the world in terms of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
production of ceramic tiles. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) India holds 3rd position in the production of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
salt in the world. 44. Consider the following statements:
(d) India is the second largest producer of cotton 1. The per capita consumption of plastics in
in the world after China. India is the highest in the world.
40. Consider the following statements about 2. The petrochemical industry in India gives a
Competition Commission of India. big boost to the small scale industries.
1. Competition Commission of India (CCI) was Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
established with effect from 14th October (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2003. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
45. What is/are the recent policy initiative of
2. The goal is to combat the monopoly
government of India to promote the growth of
tendencies and faster the competition among
manufacturing sector?
public sector enterprises.
1. Setting up of National Investment and
3. CCI (Competition Commission of India)
Manufacturing Zones.
consists of a chairperson and 6 members
2. Providing the benefit of single window
appointed by the central government. clearance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. Establishing the technology acquisition and
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only development fund.
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above Select the correct answer using the codes given
41. Consider the following sectors of the Indian below :
economy with respect to share of employment. (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3
1. Agriculture sector (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Industrial sector 46. Arrange the following Acts in order in which they
3. Services sector were enacted. Use the codes given below.
Arrange these sectors from highest to lowest in 1. The Industrial Employment (Standing orders)
terms of employment and select the correct answer Act.
using the codes given below : 2. The Indian Trade Unions Act.
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3, 2 3. The Industrial Disputes Act.
(c) 3, 1, 2 (d) 3, 2, 1 4. The Employment Exchange (Compulsory
42. Sunrise industries are industries : Noti¿cation) Act.
(a) Which are well developed and have ample Codes :
scope for future development. (a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) Which improve exports performance of the (c) 1, 2, 4, 3 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
country. 47. Container Corporation of India Limited
(c) Which are small scale industries (CONCOR), a public sector undertaking is
(d) Which have high growth potential and meet under the administration control of which of the
future requirements of the economy. following ministries?
43. Consider the following statements : (a) Heavy Industry
1. Small Industry Development Bank of India (b) Small scale
(SIDBI) was set up as a whole owned (c) Ministry of Railways
subsidiary of the RBI. (d) Shipping Road Transport and Highways
D-54 || Industry
48. What would be the new investment ceiling rate for 53. With reference to India, consider the following
Maharatna Public Sector Enterprises? statements
(a) ` 2000 crore (b) ` 5000 crore 1. WPI is available on a monthly basis only.
(c) ` 7000 crore (d) ` 10000 crore 2. As compare to Consumer Price Index for the
49. Consider the following objectives of the National Industrial Worker (CPI-IW), the WPI gives
Manufacturing Policy (NMP) of Indian Economy? less weightage to food articles.
1. To enable the manufacturing sector to
contribute at least 25% of GDP by 2022.
2. To create 500 million additional jobs in the 54. For which one of the following items, is Tirupur
manufacturing sector by 2022. well known as a huge exporter to many parts of
3. To create the appropriate skill sets among the the world?
rural migrant and urban poor for their easy (a) Gems and Jewellery
absorption in manufacturing sector. (b) Leather Goods
4. To allow more Foreign Direct Investment in (c) Knitted Garments
Manufacturing sector by 2017? (d) Handicrafts
Which of the statements given above are correct? 55. Debenture holders of a company are its
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (a) shareholders (b) creditors
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 (c) debtors (d) directors
50. Which one of the following is not an immediate 56. Consider the following statements about Competition
Commission of India
indicator of Industrial Sickness?
1. Competition Commission of India (CCI) was
(a) Drop in pro¿tability
established with effect from 14th October, 2003.
(b) Labour unrest 2. The goal is to restrict the monopoly tendencies
(c) Shrinking of market credit and increase the competition among public
(d) Decline in market share enterprises.
51. With reference to India, consider the following 3. CCI consists of a chairperson and 6 members
Central Acts appointed by the Central Government.
1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947 (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) (c) Only 2 (d) All of these
Act, 1957 57. Which one of the following is not correct about
3. Custom Act, 1962 ‘plastic parks’?
4. Indian Forest Act. 1927 (a) This is a scheme too assist plastic industries
Which of the above Acts has relevance to bearing in India
(b) These parks will help to develop biodegradable
on the biodiversity conservation in the country?
plastics
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) To increase competitiveness and investment
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these in plastic sector is one of the objectives
52. Which one of the following is not a feature of (d) It emphasises environmentally sustainable
Limited Liability Partnership Firm? growth in plastic sector with cluster
(a) Partner should be less than 20 development approach
(b) Partner and management need not to be 58. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
separate Industry Status
(c) Internal governance should be decided by (a) SAIL Maharatna
mutual agreement among partners (b) IOC Navratna
(d) It is a corporate body with perpetual succession (c) Coal India Ltd. Mini-Ratna
(d) BHEL Mini-Ratna
Economics || D-55
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 9. (b) 17. (c) 25. (a) 33. (c) 41. (b) 49. (c) 57. (b)
2. (a) 10. (d) 18. (c) 26. (b) 34. (d) 42. (d) 50. (d) 58. (d)
3. (b) 11. (b) 19. (c) 27. (c) 35. (a) 43. (b) 51. (a)
4. (b) 12. (d) 20. (c) 28. (c) 36. (a) 44. (b) 52. (b)
5. (d) 13. (a) 21. (c) 29. (c) 37. (c) 45. (d) 53. (b)
6. (b) 14. (b) 22. (d) 30. (a) 38. (b) 46. (a) 54. (c)
7. (c) 15. (d) 23. (c) 31. (b) 39. (b) 47. (c) 55. (a)
8. (a) 16. (b) 24. (c) 32. (a) 40. (d) 48. (b) 56. (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) The correctly matched pairs are : Mundra SEZ 6. (b) In public sector of India there are basic and
— Adani Group, CMC Ltd. — Tata Group heavy industries. Employees and their jobs are
IPCL — Reliance Group. However, Bharti is secured in public sector industries. However, all the
associated with Airtel. public sector companies are not pro¿t-oriented. Some
2. (a) The factors which are responsible for an industry of them have been established keeping in mind no
are capital investment, labour force and power pro¿t no loss basis for the welfare of the society.
consumption. However, nature and size of business 7. (c) The expansion of public sector was based on
is not determined by the turnover of business. industrial policy resolution, 1956. The government
3. (b) Reliance-Mukesh Ambani, Wipro-Azim Premji, announced new industrial policy in July 1991.
Airtel- Bharati Mittal and Nano Car-Ratan Tata. The ¿rst industrial policy of the government was
Wipro was established by Mohamed Hasham Premji
announced in April 1948. Subsequently Industrial
in 1945 as a vegetable manufacturer in Amalner,
Policy resolutions were announced in 1956, 1980,
Maharashtra.
1990 and 1991.
4. (b) The correct locations of the given companies
8. (a) Economic liberalisation in India started with
are :
substantial changes in Industrial licensing policy.
BALCO — Korba
The LPG Model ( Liberalisation, privitisation &
HINDALCO — Renukoot
Globalisation) was introduced by Dr. Manmohan
Indian Aluminium Company — Hirakund
NALCO — Koraput Singh in 1991 as India was facing problems of
5. (d) The correct correlation of industries and their depleting reserves. Under liberalisation, the Industrial
¿elds are : licensing policy was changed and under the new
Basic industry — petroleum licensing policy the private players were allowed to
Strategic industry — Arms and Ammunition set up their industrial units without obtaining License
Critical industry — Automobile from government and thus private investment in India
Goods based industry — Fertilizer increased drastically.
D-56 || Industry
9. (b) The National Renewal Fund (NRF), was set up Group company. Hindalco is the world’s largest
in February 1992. It aims to provide a social safety net aluminium rolling company belonging to
to protect the workers in industrial enterprises from A.V. Birla. Suzlon Energy Limited, is an Indian
possible adverse consequences of the new economic multinational wind power company based in Pune.
policy. 16. (b) In the Sixth Five Year Plan, a shift in the pattern
10. (d) The licensing policy for the industries drew of industrialisation with lower emphasis on heavy
strength from the industrial Act, 1951. Industries industries and more on infrastructure began.
Development and Regulation Act (IDRA), 1951 17. (c) According to the Second Five Year Plan the
was enacted in pursuance of the Industrial Policy priorities were given in the production of iron and
Resolution, 1948. The Act was formulated for the steel and heavy engineering and also to strengthen
purpose of development and regulation of industries the oil exploration and coal.
in India by the Central Government. 18. (c) Tata Steel is Asia’s first privately owned
11. (b) Disinvestment is a process in which off-loading integrated iron and steel plant. It is the ¿rst company
of government shares is done to private companies. outside Japan to get the Deming Application Prize
A company or government organization will divest in 2008 for excellence in total quality management.
an asset or subsidiary as a strategic move for the Tata Steel started provident fund for its employees
company, planning to put the proceeds from the as early as in 1920, however, it became a law for
divestiture to better use that garners a higher return all employers under the Provident Fund Act only in
on investment. 1952.
12. (d) The ¿rst notable attempt in steel industry in 19. (c) MMTC Ltd., Metals and Minerals Trading
India was made in 1874 when the Bengal Iron Works Corporation of India, is one of the two highest
(BIW) came into being at Kulti, near Asansol in West earners of foreign exchange for India and India’s
Bengal. The Bhilai Steel Plant, located in Bhilai, largest public sector trading body. Neelachal Ispat
in the Indian state of Chhattisgarh was set up with Nigam Limited (NINL), is a company promoted by
the help of the USSR in 1955. SAIL Rourkela Steel MMTC Ltd, Industrial Promotion and Investment
Plant (RSP), located in Rourkela, Odisha is the ¿rst Corporation of Odisha Limited (IPICOL).
integrated steel plant in the public sector in India, was 20. (c) Navratna was the title given originally to 9
set up with German collaboration with an installed Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) identi¿ed by the
capacity of 1 million tonnes in 60s. Bokaro Steel government in 1997 as public sector companies
Plant is located in the Bokaro district of Jharkhand. that have comparative advantages enjoying greater
It is the fourth integrated public sector steel plant in autonomy to compete in the global market so as
India built with Soviet help in 1972 . to support in their drive to become global giants.
13. (a) Maruti views Tata motors as a prominent However, the number of PSEs (Public Sector
competitor but does not view Volvo as a competitor. Enterprises) having Navaratna status is now more
This type of competition in the market is knwon than 15 industries.
as product competition because the companies are 21. (c) The ¿rst petrochemical industry in India was
competing on the same and similar products. started with the establishment of National Organic
14. (b) Abid Hussain committee recommended the Chemical Industry Limited in 1961. The company
abolition of reservation of items for small scale sector manufacture various organic and inorganic chemicals.
in industry. The real thrust of Petrochemical industry in India
15. (d) Ashok Leyland, 2nd largest commercial came with the establishment of Indian Petrochemical
vehicle manufacturer in India is a Hinduja Corporation Limited (IPCL) at Baroda on March 22,
Economics || D-57
1969, with a view to promote and encourage the use 29. (c) Economic liberalisation in India started with
of plastics in India. substantial changes in Industrial licensing policy.
22. (d) Hindalco industries : Novelis The LPG Model ( Liberalisation, privitisation &
Tata Steel : Chorus group Globalisation) was introduced by Dr Manmohan
Jet airways : Air Sahara Singh in 1991 as India was facing problems of
King¿sher Airlines: MDR Airlines Kin¿sher depleting Reserves. Under liberalization the
Airlines is not correctly matched with MDR Airlines. Industrial licensing policy was changed and under
23. (c) Packaging machinery industry, like other the new licensing policy the private players can set
industrial machinery is allowed for 100%. FDI under up their industrial units without obtaining license
automatic approval i.e., without prior approval either from government and thus private investment in India
of the government or the Reserve Bank of India. increased drastically.
Food processing machinery can be classi¿ed under 30. (a) The main objectives of the SEZ Acts 2005, is
the general category of industrial machinery which to develop infrastructure facilities and to promote
is de-licensed under the current industrial policy and investment from foreign sources.
quali¿es for 100% FDI under automatic approval. 31. (b) TISCO was founded in 1907 by Dorabji Tata.
24. (c) Miniratna public sector enterprises can be a joint The Bhilai Steel Plant, located in Bhilai, in the Indian
venture, set subsidiary company or overseas of¿ce state of Chhattisgarh, was set up with the help of
but with certain conditions i.e., Miniratna-I is up to the USSR in 1955. Bokaro Steel Plant is located
Rs. 500 crore or equal to their net worth, whichever in the Bokaro district of Jharkhand. It is the fourth
is lower. Miniratna-II: is up to ` 300 crore or up to integrated public sector steel plant in India built with
50% of their net worth, whichever is lower. Till now Soviet help in 1972. Visakhapatnam Steel Plant,
less than 50 public sector enterprises have been given popularly known as Vizag Steel, is the most advanced
Miniratna status by the Indian government. steel producer in India with the help of German and
25. (a) The Bhilai Steel Plant, located in Bhilai, in the
soviet technology founded in 1974.
Indian state of Chhattisgarh, was set up with the help
32. (a) The ¿rst newsprint plant was set up in India
of the USSR in 1955. Bokaro Steel Plant is located
at Nepanagar in 1948. The ¿rst modern steel plant
in the Bokaro district of Jharkhand. It is the fourth
TISCO was founded in 1907 by Dorabji Tata in
integrated public sector steel plant in India built with
Jamshedpur.
Soviet help in 1972 .
33. (c) The erratic trend in production of sugar is mainly
26. (b) In India, in the overall index of industrial
due to monsoons and the output of sugar is inÀuenced
production, the indices of eight core industries have
by both cane and gur prizes.
a combined weight of 37-90%. Among those eight
34. (d) All the above industrial clusters and the related
core industries are cement, Fertilizers, Natural gas
locations are correctly matched. Tirupur is famous for
and Re¿nery products.
textiles, Kishangarh is famous for marbles, Surat is
27. (c) A labour intensive industry is one that employs
more hands i.e., employs more labour. famous for Gems and Jewellery.
28. (c) National Investment and manufacturing zones 35. (a) A micro enterprise is an enterprise where
are degraded and uncultivable. National Investment investment in plant and machinery does not exceed
and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) are green ¿eld ` 25 lakh.
integrated Industrial Townships with state–of-the- A small enterprise is an enterprise where the
art infrastructure and the land use is on the basis of investment in plant and machinery is more than
zoning clean and energy ef¿cient technology and `25 lakh but does not exceed `5 crore; and
requisite social infrastructure. A medium enterprise is an enterprise where the
D-58 || Industry
investment in plant and machinery is more than initially as a wholly owned subsidiary of Industrial
`5 crore but does not exceed `10 crore. Development Bank of India. SIDBI has taken over
36. (a) In order to give impetus to hydro power growth the responsibility of administering small industry
in the country and to have a balanced portfolio development fund managed by the IDBI.
of power generation, NTPC entered hydro power 44. (b) Per capita consumption of polymers products
business with the 800 MW Koldam hydro project in in the country during 2012-13 was low at just
Himachal Pradesh. Two more projects have also been 9.7 kg as compared to 109 kg in USA, 45 kg in China
taken up in Uttarakhand. and 32 kg in a Brazil. Thus India is not the highest
37. (c) Import and Export (control) Act 1947 restricts consumer. The petrochemical indusry in India gives
import and export of endangered species and their a big boost to the small scale industries is the correct
by products. Mining and Mineral development statement.
(Regulation) Act 1957 restricts mining in protected 45. (d) The recent policy initiative of government
areas. Custom Act 1962 again links to import and of India to promote the growth of manufacturing
export. Indian Forest Act 1927 restricts construction sector is setting up of National Investment and
and encroachment in restricted and protected areas. manufacturing zones, providing the bene¿t of single
38. (b) In terms of capital goods, India still depends on window clearance and establishing the technology
the import has not attained self suf¿ciency in almost acquisition and development.
all consumer goods. 46. (a) The Indian Trade Unions Act – 1926
39. (b) The given statement India ranks 4th in the world The Industrial Employment (standing orders)
in terms of production of ceramic tiles is incorrect. Act – 1946
40. (d) Competition Commission of India is a body of The Industrial Disputes Act – 1947
the government of India responsible for enforcing The Employment Exchange (Compulsory
the Competition Act, 2002 throughout India and Noti¿cation) Act – 1959
to prevent activities that have an adverse effect 47. (c) Container Corporation of India Ltd. (CONCOR)
on competition in India. It was established on 14 is a Navratna Public sector undertaking under
October, 2003. the Indian Ministry of Railways. Incorporated in
The goal is to combat the monopoly tendencies March 1988 under the Companies Act, CONCOR
and faster the competition among public sector commenced operations in November 1989 taking
enterprises. CCI (Competition Commission of India) over an existing network of seven inland container
consists of a chairperson and 6 members appointed depots (ICDs) from Indian Railways. It now has
by the central government. a network of 61 ICDs/CFSs (Container Freight
41. (b) In Indian economy the sectors from highest to Stations) throughout India.
lowest in terms of employment are agriculture sector 48. (b) The government has relaxed norms for giving
around 50%, service sector around 35% and Industrial Maharatna status to public sector enterprises, a move
sector. that will bene¿t blue chip companies such as Coal
42. (d) Sunrise industries are industries which have India, GAIL, BHEL and NMDC in their expansion
high growth potential and meet future requirements plans. Only four state-run companies --ONGC, SAIL,
of the economy. IOC and NTPC -- at present enjoy the Maharatna
43. (b) Small Industries Development Bank of India status, which gives them the ¿nancial and managerial
is a non-independent ¿nancial institution aimed to autonomy to invest up to ` 5,000 crore in a new venture
aid the growth and development of micro, small without seeking government approval. Under the new
and medium-scale enterprises. It was incorporated norms, a company qualifying for the Maharatna
Economics || D-59
status should have an average annual turnover of other Maritime Zones Act, 1976, Water (Prevention
` 20,000 crore during the last three years against and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977, Maritime
` 25,000 crore prescribed earlier. Further, the criteria Zones of India (Regulation and Fishing by Foreign
on average annual net worth has been relaxed to Vessels) Act. 1980, Forest (Conservation) Act,
` 10,000 crore from the earlier limit of 15,000 crore. 1980, Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,
49. (c) The Government of India has announced a 1981, Agricultural and Processed Food Products
National Manufacturing Policy with the objective of Export Development Authority Act, 1985/1986,
enhancing the share of manufacturing in GDP to 25% Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, Spices Board
within a decade and creating 100 million jobs. It also Act, 1986, National Dairy Development Board, 1987
seeks to empower rural youth by imparting necessary etc.
skill sets to make them employable. Sustainable 52. (b) The LLP will be a separate legal entity, liable
development is integral to the spirit of the policy to the full extent of its assets, with the liability of the
and technological value addition in manufacturing partners being limited to their agreed contribution
has received special focus. in the LLP which may be of tangible or intangible
50. (d) Just as diseases are identified by certain nature or both tangible and intangible in nature. No
symptoms, industrial sickness can be identi¿ed by partner would be liable on account of the independent
the following symptoms. These symptoms act as or un-authorized actions of other partners or their
leading indicators of sickness, and if immediate misconduct. The liabilities of the LLP and partners
remedial actions are not taken, the sickness will grow who are found to have acted with intent to defraud
to the extent that the organization will ¿nd its natural creditors or for any fraudulent purpose shall be
death. Continuous reduction in turnover, Piling up of unlimited for all or any of the debts or other liabilities
inventory, Continuous reduction of net pro¿t to sales of the LLP.
ratio, Short term borrowings at high interest rate, 53. (b) This rise in wholesale food prices was not
Continuous cash losses leading to erosion of tangible captured by WPI as the weightage for food articles
net worth etc. However, decline of market share is is just 14.3% compared to 65% for manufactured
not an immediate indicator. products in this index. On the other hand, the
51. (a) Important Govt. of India Central Acts and Rules weightage for food is 57% in CPI items which
having Relevance to Biodiversity Conservation: captures the impact of food prices better. Further,
Fisheries Act, 1897, Destructive Insects and Pests wholesale prices do not take into account the
Act, 1914, The Indian Forest Act, 1927, Agricultural substantial margins at the retail level, which tend to
Produce (Grading and Marketing) Act, 1937, Indian rise when there are shortages.
Coffee Act, 1942, Import and Export (Control) 54. (c) Tiruppur is the “knitwear capital” of India. It
Act, 1947, Rubber (Production and Marketing) has spurred up the textile industry in India for the
Act, 1947, Tea Act, 1953, Mining and Mineral past three decades. It contributes to a huge amount
Development (Regulation) Act, 1957, Prevention of of foreign exchange in India. The city exports ` 120
Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, Customs Act, 1962, billion worth of goods. Netaji Apparel Park has 53
Cardamom Act, 1965, Seeds Act, 1966, The Patents companies manufacturing knitwear for exports. Each
Act, 1970, Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, Marine unit will be a model to answer the requirements of
Products Export Development Authority Act,1972, international standards in all aspects. In addition to
Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, investment of 920 million on infrastructure and
1974, Tobacco Board Act, 1975, Territorial Water, factory buildings about 3 billion is being invested on
Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and machinery. The NAP presently provides employment
D-60 || Industry
to 15,000 people and generates export revenue of of goods and services at the most competitive prices.
` 15 billion from the apparels produced in it. There With increased competition, producers will have
are about 3000 sewing units, 1326 knitting units, 730 maximum incentive to innovate and specialise. This
dyeing units and other ancillary units. Some of the would result in reduced costs and wider choice to
world’s largest retailers including C&A, Switcher consumers. Thus the CCI restricts Monopoly and
SA, Walmart, Primark, Oviesse, Switcher, Polo Ralph increases competition.
Lauren, Diesel, Tommy Hil¿ger, M&S, FILA, H&M, 57. (b) The plastic park scheme envisages clusters
Reebok import textiles and clothing from Tirupur. of plastic industry operations including small and
55. (a) A person having the debentures is called medium-sized enterprises and recycling operations.
debenture holder whereas a person holding the shares These parks will provide raw materials, power and
is called shareholder. A shareholder subscribes to the land for plastic companies. These parks are expected
shares of a company. Shares are the parts of share to generate huge direct and indirect employment.
capital. On the other hand, debenture-holders are 58. (d) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL),
the subscribers to debentures. Debentures are part of owned by Government of India, is a power plant
loan. A shareholder or member is the joint owner of equipment manufacturer and operates as an
a company; but a debenture holder is only a creditor
engineering and manufacturing company. This
of the company.
Public Sector enterprise has the status of a Maharatna
56. (c) Competition is the best means of ensuring that
Company.
the ‘Common Man’ has access to the broadest range
5 World Economy
1. Which of the following constitutes the world B. IDA 2. Multi-lateral trade

bank? negotiation body
1. International Bank for Reconstruction and C. IMF 3. Sanction of soft loans
Development. D. IBRD 4. Facilitating lending and
2. International Finance Corporation borrowing for reconstruction
3. International Development Association and development
4. International Monetary Fund A B C D
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 2 4 1
2. The emerging trading blocs in the world, such (d) 3 2 1 4
as NAFTA, ASEAN and others are expected to 5. The most appropriate measure of a country’s
(a) act as constrictions in free trade across the economic growth is its
world. (a) Gross Domestic product
(b) promote free trade on the line laid down (b) Net Domestic product
by the WTO. (c) Net National product
(c) permit transfer of technology between (d) Per capita real income
member countries. 6. Match List I with List II and select the correct
(d) promote trade in agricultural commodities answer using the codes given below the lists :
between countries of the North and South. List I List II
3. Which of the following were the aims behind (Term) (Explanation)
the setting up of the World Trade Organization A. Fiscal de¿cit 1. Excess of total
(WTO)? expenditure over
1. Promotion of free trade and resource Àow total receipts
B. Budget de¿cit 2. Excess of revenue
across countries expenditure over
2. Protection of intellectual property rights revenue receipts
3. Managing balanced trade between different C. Revenue de¿cit 3. Excess of total
countries expenditure over
4. Promotion of trade between the former East total receipts less
Block countries and the western world. borrowings
Select the correct answer using the codes given D. Primary de¿cit 4. Excess of total
below : expenditure over
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 total receipts less
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 borrowings &
4. Match List I with List II and select the correct interests payments.
answer using the codes given below the lists : A B C D
List I List II (a) 3 1 2 4
A. WTO 1. Provides loans to (b) 4 3 2 1
address short term (c) 1 3 2 4
balance of payments. (d) 3 1 4 2
D-62 || World Economy
7. The term National Income represents: 12. NAMA-11, group of countries frequently appears
(a) Gross national product at market prices in the news in the context of the affairs of which
minus depreciation one of the following?
(b) Gross national product at market prices
(a) Nuclear Suppliers Group
minus depreciation plus net factor income
from abroad. (b) World Bank
(c) Gross national product at market prices (c) World Economic Forum
minus depreciation and indirect taxes plus (d) W.T.O.
subsidies. 13. In the context of the affairs of which of the following
(d) Gross national product at market prices is the phrase “Special Safeguard Mechanisms”
minus net factor income from abroad. mentioned in the news frequently?
8. A country is said to be in a debt trap if :
(a) United Nations Environment Programme
(a) it has to abide by the conditionalities
imposed by the International Monetary (b) World Trade Organisation
Fund. (c) ASEAN - India Free Trade Agreement
(b) it has to borrow to make interest payments (d) G-20 Summits
on outstanding loans. 14. In order to comply with TRIPS agreement, India
(c) it has been refused loans or aid by creditors exacted the Geographical Indications of goods
abroad. (Registration and protection Act 1999.) The
(d) the World Bank charges a very high rate
of interest on outstanding as well as new difference/differences between a “Trade Mark”
loans. and a ‘Geographical Indicate’ is/are :
9. Consider the following statements : 1. A trade mark is an individual or a company’s
1. The agreement on South-Asian Free Trade right whereas a Geographical Indication is
Area (SAFTA) came into effect from 1st a community’s right.
Dec, 2005. 2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a
2. As per SAFTA agreement terms, India,
Geographical Indication can’t be licensed.
Pakistan and Sri Lanka have to decrease
their custom duties to the level of 0-5% by 3. A Trade mark is assigned to the manufactured
the year 2013. goods whereas the Geographical Indication
Which of the statements given above is/are is assigned to the agricultural goods/
correct? products and handicrafts only.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2. correct?
10. Basel II relates to which one of the following?
(a) International standards for safety in civil
aviation. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3.
(b) Measures against cyber crimes. 15. Which of the following statements is an
(c) Measures against drug abuse by sports appropriate description of deÀation?
persons. (a) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency
(d) International standards for measuring the against other currencies.
adequacy of a bank’s capital. (b) It is a persistent recession in both the
11. What does S& P 500 relate to
(a) Super computer. ¿nancial and real sectors of economy.
(b) A new technique in e-business. (c) It is a persistent fall in the general price
(c) A new technique in bridge building. level of goods and services.
(d) An Index of stocks of large companies. (d) It is a fall in the rate of inÀation over a
period of time.
Economics || D-63
16. In the parlance of ¿nancial investment the term Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
‘bear’ denotes (a) 3 and 1only (b) 2 only
(a) An investor who feels that the price of a (c) 1 and 2 only (d) All are correct
particular security is going to fall. 20. With reference to BRICS countries, consider the
(b) An investor also feels that the price of a following statements :
1. At present, China’s GDP is more than
particular share is going to rise.
the combined GDP of all the three other
(c) A shareholder or a bankholder who has an
countries.
interest in a company, ¿nancial or otherwise
2. China’s population is more than the
(d) Any lender whether by making a loan or combined population of any two other
buying a bond. countries.
17. A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
to India comes from Mauritius comparing with (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
many major and mature economies like UK and (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2.
France. Why? 21. Stiglitz commission established by the President
(a) India has preference for certain countries of the United Nations General Assembly was
as regards receiving FDI. in the international news. The commission was
(b) India has double taxation avoidance supposed to deal with:
agreement with Mauritius. (a) The challenges posed by the impending
(c) Most citizens of Mauritius have ethnic global climate change and prepare a road
identity with India and so they feel secure map.
(b) The working of the global ¿nancial systems
to invest in India
and to explore ways and means to secure a
(d) Impending dangers of global climatic change
more sustainable global order.
prompt Mauritius to make huge investments
(c) Global terrorism and prepare a global action
in India. plan for the mitigation of terrorism.
18. Consider the following countries : (d) Expansion of the United Nations Security
1. Brazil 2. Mexico Council in the present global scenario.
3. South Africa 22. As regards the use of international food safety
According to UNCTAD, Which of the above is/ standards as reference point for the dispute
are categorized as “Emerging Economies” settlements, which one of the following does
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only WTO collaborate with?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3. (a) Codex Alimentarius Commission
19. Consider the following statements regarding (b) International Federation of Standards Users
ASEAN. (c) International organization for Standardization
1. Association of Southeast Asian Nations (d) World standards co-operation
(ASEAN) has 10 member states, one candidate 23. Consider the following actions by the Government:
1. Cutting the tax rates.
member state, and one observer state.
2. Increasing the government spending.
2. ASEAN was founded on 8 August 1967
3. Abolishing the subsidies.
with ¿ve members: Indonesia, Malaysia,
In the context of economic recession, which of
the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand. the above actions can be considered a part of
3. The ASEAN is an organisation on the the ‘¿scal stimulus’ package?
Southeast Asian region that aims to (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
accelerate agricultural growth. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
24. As a result of their annual survey the National (b) It is the impact of the surge in demand due
Geographic society and an international polling to rapid economic growth.
¿rm Globe Scan gave India top rank in Greendex (c) It is the impact of the price levels of previous
2009 score. What is this score? year on the calculation of inÀation rate.
(a) It is a measure of efforts made by different (d) None of the statements given above is
countries in adopting technologies for correct.
reducing carbon footprint. 28. A ‘closed economy’ is an economy in which
(b) It is a measure of environmentally sustainable (a) the money supply is fully controlled.
consumer behaviour in different countries. (b) de¿cit ¿nancing takes place.
(c) It is an assessment of programmes/ (c) only exports take place.
schemes undertaken by different countries (d) neither exports nor imports take places.
for improving the conservation of natural
29. Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle
resources.
with the help of which one of the following
(d) It is an index showing the volume of carbon
credits sold by different countries. theories?
25. In the context of bilateral trade negotiations (a) Empirical Liberalism
between India and European Union, what is the (b) Existentialism
difference between European commission and (c) Darwin’s Theory of Evolution
European Council? (d) Dialectical Materialism
1. European Commission represents the EU 30. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and
in trade negotiations whereas European Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related
Council participates in the legislation of to investment in a country. Which one of the
matter pertaining to economic policies of following statements best represents an important
the European union. difference between the two?
2. European commission comprises the (a) FII helps bring better management skills
heads of state or government of member and technology, while FDI only brings in
countries whereas the European council capital.
comprises the persons nominated by (b) FII helps in increasing capital availability
European parliament. in general, while FDI only targets speci¿c
Which of the statements given above is/are sectors.
correct? (c) FDI Àows only into the secondary market,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only while FII targets primary market.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) FII is considered to be more stable than
26. Consider the following actions which the FDI.
government can take:
31. With reference to ‘look east’ policy of India,
1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
consider the following statements :
2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
1. India wants to establish itself as an important
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract
greater FDI and more funds from FIIs. regional player in the East Asian Affairs.
Which of the above action/actions can help in 2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by
reducing the current account de¿cit? the termination of cold war.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 3. India wants to restore the historical and
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 cultural ties with its neighbours in South-
27. A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is East and East-Asia.
sometimes attributed to the base effect. What is Which of the statements given above is/are
base effect? correct?
(a) It is the impact of drastic de¿ciency in (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
supply due to failure of crops. (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3.
Economics || D-65
32. Regarding the International Monetary Fund, 36. World Bank helps countries with loans for the
which one of the following statements is correct? purpose of :
(a) It can grant loans to any country. (a) Reconstruction and development
(b) It can grant loans to only developed (b) Stimulating private investment
(c) Tackling foreign exchange crises
countries.
(d) Meeting de¿cits in government budget.
(c) It can grant loans to only member countries. 37. ‘The Doing Business Report’ is prepared by which
(d) It can grant loans to the central bank of a of the following organisations every year ?
country. (a) World Bank
33. Why is the offering of ‘teaser loans’ by (b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
commercial banks a cause of economic concern? (c) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
1. The teaser loans are considered to be an (d) World Trade organisation (WTO)
aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may 38. The term ‘Paper Gold’ means:
(a) Special Drawing Rights of the IMF.
be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
(b) Special accommodation facility of the world
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given bank.
to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up (c) Currencies still on Gold standard.
manufacturing or export units. (d) De¿cit ¿nancing.
Which of the statements given above is/are 39. Consider the following organisations:
correct? 1. IBRD 2. IFC
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. IFAD 4. IMF
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of these are agencies of the United
Nations?
34. Special Drawing Rights (SDR) facility is available
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
at :
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) International Monetary Fund (IMF) 40. ‘World Development Report’ is annual publication
(b) International Bank for Reconstruction and of :
Development (IBRD)/World Bank. (a) International Bank of Reconstruction and
(c) International Development Association Development (IBRD)/World Bank.
(IDA) (b) United Nations Development Programme
(d) Organisation of Economic Co-operation and (UNDP)
(c) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
Development (OECD).
(d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
35. IMF was established to meet which of the
41. Many times we read a term “Free Market” in
following objectives? newspapers. What does it mean?
1. Promoting international monetary co- 1. It is a market where pricing is driven by
operation. the laws of supply and demand.
2. Expanding international trade. 2. In free market things are available without
3. Lessening the disequilibrium in balance of restraints of the government.
trade. 3. In such market, goods are free from
extraneous influences such as buffer or
4. Avoiding competitive exchange depreciations.
quotas.
Codes :
Codes :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (a) only 1 (b) only 2
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) only 3 (d) Both 1 and 2
42. A country is said to be in a debt trap if : (c) Moody’s Investor Service
(a) It has to borrow to make interest payments (d) Samuel’s Investor Group
on outstanding loans. 47. Consider the following
(b) It has to borrow to make interest payments 1. Manufacturing products
on to standing loans. 2. Fuel products
(c) It has been refused loans or aid by creditors 3. Fish and ¿sh products
abroad. 4. Forestry products
(d) the world bank charges a very high rate 5. Mining products
of interest on outstanding as well as new Which of the items given above is/are included
loans. in the NAMA?
43. Which among the following statements is/are (a) 1 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
true with regard to WTO membership? (c) 1, 2 and 5 (d) All of these
1. All WTO members automatically receive 48. Match List I with List II and select the correct
the most favourable nation status. answer using the codes given below the lists
2. Over 75% of WTO members are from List I List II
developing countries, and the membership (WTO session) (Centre)
allows them access to develop markets at A. First 1. Doha, Qatar
lower tariff. B. Second 2. Singapore
Which of the statements given above is/are C. Third 3. Geneva,
correct? Switzerland
(a) only 1 (b) only 2 D. Fourth 4. Seattle, US
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Codes :
44. Consider the following objectives of the Bretton A B C D
Woods system (a) 2 4 3 1
1. To maintain the exchange rate by trying its (b) 2 3 4 1
currency to the US dollar. (c) 4 3 1 2
2. To bridge temporary imbalances of
(d) 4 1 3 2
payments.
49. Consider the following statements.
Which of the objectives given above is/are
1. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
correct?
became operational in 1945.
(a) only 1 (b) only 2
2. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
is the insurance wing of the World Bank
45. Which of the following International organisations
group.
is India’s member ?
1. Indian ocean Rim association for Regional
correct?
Co-operation.
2. Organisation for Economic Co-operation (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
and Development. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are 50. Consider the following pillars
correct? 1. Domestic Support
(a) only 1 (b) only 2 2. Market access
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Export Subsidies
46. Which one of the following agencies given below Which of the following pillars given above is/
is not the rating agency of an economy? are included in Agreement on Agriculture of the
(a) Fitch Group WTO?
(b) Credit Rating and Information Services of (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3
India Limited (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Economics || D-67
51. Human Development Index (HDI) is constructed 3. Administrative ef¿ciency hypothesis
with reference to 4. Stability of income hypothesis
1. Life expectancy at birth, real GDP per capita, Codes:
gross enrolment ratio, adult literacy rate. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
2. Life expectancy at birth, real GDP per
(c) 1 only (d) 3 and 4
capita, combined gross enrolment ratio,
adult literacy rate. Directions : Read the following questions and select
3. Life expectancy, GDP per capita, infant the right combination of Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
mortality rate, literacy rate. from the codes given below.
4. GDP per capita, infant mortality rate, literacy 56. Assertion (A): There is a natural tendency to
rate collude under oligopoly.
Codes: Reason (R): Inter-dependence of firms in
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
oligopolistic markets.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
52. The unbalanced growth model was propounded Codes:
¿rst by (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the
1. Albert O. Hirschman correct explanation of (A).
2. H. S. Singer and Raul Prebisch (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not
3. Kindelberger and Ragnar Nurkse the correct explanation of (A).
4. W. W. Rostow and Paul Streeten (c) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Codes:
(d) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1only 57. Assertion (A): In short run, the marginal cost
53. Harrod-Domar model of growth is based on the of output is the cost of additional labour and
concepts of and their equality. materials used in production.
1. Population and productivity growth. Reason (R): Materials and labour used in
2. Investment and average growth rate of production alone vary in short run.
income. Codes:
3. Actual, warranted and natural growth rate.
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
4. Productivity growth and investment
growth. (b) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Codes: (c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is the
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 correct explanation of (A).
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
54. Factor endowment theory is also known as 58. Assertion (A): Post reform liberal trade policies
1. Modern theory of international trade. have stimulated India’s growth.
2. Classical theory of international trade.
Reason (R): Private enterprise got opportunities
3. Reciprocal demand theory.
4. Factor proportions theory of international to contribute to growth of Indian manufacturing
trade. industries.
Codes: Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 correct explanation of (A).
55. Most important theory of increasing public (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not
expenditure is associated with the correct explanation of (A).
1. Adolph Wagner’s hypothesis
(c) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
2. Critical limit hypothesis
59. Assertion (A): Use of goods and services from 62. Assertion (A): K/L will adjust through time to
which one can be excluded are pure private the equilibrium value of the ratio.
goods. Reason (R): Technical coef¿cients of production
are ¿xed.
Reason (R): Such goods and services are not
Codes:
provided free by the State. (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not
Codes: the correct explanation of (A).
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A). correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not (c) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
the correct explanation of (A).
63. Assertion (A): Investment has a demand effect.
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Reason (R): Investment augments the productivity
(d) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct. and income in the economy.
60. Assertion (A): ‘A country is poor because it is Codes:
poor’. (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the
Reason (R): Income of a poor country is low, correct explanation of (A).
so its savings and investment are low. Low (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
investment limits its productive capacity which
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
leads to low output and income. (d) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Codes: 64. Assertion (A): Agriculture is the main source
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not of livelihood of people in India.
the correct explanation of (A). Reason (R): Measures for agricultural development
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the should be undertaken.
Codes:
correct explanation of (A).
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect. correct explanation of (A).
(d) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct. (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not
61. Assertion (A): All historical events are the result the correct explanation of (A).
of a continuous economic struggle between (c) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
different classes and groups in a society. (d) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Reason (R): This struggle is because of the 65. Assertion (A): In the following regression
equation
conÀict between the mode of production and the
Y = a + bX, ‘a’ shows the autonomous value of Y.
value attached to the roles of different agents of Reason (R): If X = 0, Y = a holds. Hence, a is
production. the minimum value of Y which is independent
Codes: of any inÀuence of X on Y.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not Codes:
the correct explanation of (A). (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the
true explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the
(b) (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct
correct explanation of (A). explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect. (c) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(d) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct. (d) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
Economics || D-69
Directions : Read the questions and select the correct Codes:
sequence from the codes given below. (a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4
66. Identify the order of chronological development (c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 1, 4, 3, 2
of the theory of demand. 71. Arrange the following summits of SAARC
1. Marshall’s theory of demand members in order in which these were organized?
2. Indifference curves 1. New Delhi 2. Bangalore
3. Revealed preference theory 3. Islamabad 4. Kathmandu
4. Weak Preference ordering theory of Codes:
demand. (a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
Codes: (c) 2, 4, 3, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 4, 2, 1, 3 72. Arrange the structure of balance of payments
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 accounts in which these items appear.
67. Identify the correct chronological order of the 1. Capital account
following theories. 2. Errors and omissions
1. Cambridge version of quantity theory of 3. Current account
money. 4. Of¿cial settlements account
2. Fisher’s version of quantity theory of Codes:
money. (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 1, 4, 2
3. Tobin’s theory of demand for money. (c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
4. Baumol’s theory of demand for inventory. 73. State the order of the appointment of the
Codes: following as chairman of Finance Commission.
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3 1. K. C. Neogy
(c) 4, 1, 2, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 2. K. Brahamanand Reddy
68. Identify the correct chronological order of the 3. N. K. P. Salve
following. 4. A. K. Chanda
1. Keynes’ consumption function Codes:
2. Life Cycle hypothesis (a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 1, 4, 2, 3
3. Relative income hypothesis (c) 1, 3, 4, 2 (d) 1, 2, 4, 3
4. Friedman’s permanent income hypothesis 74. Indicate the sequence of the following in terms
Codes: of the implementation.
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 1. Income Tax 2. Expenditure Tax
(c) 1, 3, 4, 2 (d) 3, 4, 2, 1 3. Value Added Tax 4. Fringe Bene¿ts Tax
69. Identify the correct chronology of stages of Codes:
Marxian model of economic development - (a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
1. Capitalist crisis (c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
2. Capital accumulation 75. Determine the order in which the following were
3. Surplus value developed.
4. Materialistic interpretation of history 1. Fisher’s F test of signi¿cance of difference
Codes: between the means of more than two
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1 samples.
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4 2. Gosset’s t-test of difference between the
70. The sequencing process of Harrod’s model of means of two samples.
development is. 3. Pearson’s correlation coef¿cient.
1. Natural growth rate 4. Spearman’s rank correlation coef¿cient.
2. Warranted growth rate Codes:
3. Actual growth rate (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
4. Divergence (c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
Directions (Qs. 76-85) : Read the following questions Codes:
and match the correct pair from List-I and List-II. Use A B C D
the codes given below for answering- (a) 1 2 3 4
76. List - I List - II (b) 2 1 4 3
A. Kinked demand 1. William Baumol (c) 4 2 3 1
curve hypothesis (d) 3 4 1 2
79. List - I List - II
B. Sales maximization 2. Paul Sweezy
A. Monetary Policy 1. Tax Rate
model of oligopoly B. Trade Policy 2. Margin Money
C. Social Welfare 3. Adam Smith C. Credit Policy 3. Imports and Exports
Criterion D. Fiscal Policy 4. Bank Rate
D. Law of Invisible 4. Bergson Codes:
hand A B C D
Codes: (a) 4 3 2 1
A B C D (b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 2 1 4
(a) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 1 4 3 80. List - I List - II
(c) 2 3 1 4 A. J. M. Buchanan 1. Canons of
(d) 1 4 3 2 Public
77. List - I List - II Expenditure
A. Psychological 1. Irving Fisher B. Findlay Shirras 2. Functional
Law of Finance
Consumption C. R. N. Bhargava 3. Public-Choice
B. Time preference 2. J. M. Keynes Theory
D. A. P. Lerner 4. Federal Finance
theory of interest
Codes:
C. Public Choice 3. Mundell and A B C D
View Fleming (a) 3 2 1 4
D. Open Economy 4. Gorden Tullock (b) 3 1 4 2
IS-LM model (c) 2 3 1 4
Codes: (d) 1 4 3 2
A B C D 81. List - I List - II
(a) 3 2 4 1 A. Organic 1. Hirschman
(b) 4 1 3 2 Composition
of Capital
(c) 2 1 4 3
B. Doctrine of 2. Schumpeter Law
(d) 1 3 4 2 Natural
78. List - I List - II C. Innovation 3. Marx
A. Mid-day Meal 1. 2006 D. Doctrine of 4. Adam Smith
Scheme Unbalanced Growth
B. Implementation 2. 1995 Codes:
of MNREGA A B C D
C. Cash Reserve 3. Finance (a) 3 4 2 1
Ratio Commission (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 1 3 4
D. Divisible Taxes 4. Reserve Bank of
(d) 1 2 4 3
India
Economics || D-71
82. List - I List - II 85. List - I List - II
A. Low Income 1. Karl Marx A. Theory of 1. Single value to
Equilibrium Trap Probability represent
B. Poverty 2. Adam Smith distribution
Measurement B. Mean 2. Uncertain
C. Laissezfair 3. Nelson events
D. Industrial Reserve 4. Suresh C. Normal 3. Mini replica of
Army Tendulakar Distribution population
Codes:
D. Sample 4. Symmetrical
A B C D
with almost total
(a) 1 2 4 3
area within
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2 M (mean) +
(d) 2 1 3 4 – 30 (sig, ma)
83. List - I List - II Codes:
A. Law of Absolute 1. Haberler A B C D
Cost Advantage (a) 1 2 3 4
B. Doctrine of 2. Hescher-Ohlin (b) 4 3 2 1
Comparative Cost (c) 2 1 4 3
Advantage (d) 4 1 2 3
C. Modern Theory of 3. Adam Smith 86. Externality theory is the basic theory of the
International Trade following branch of Economics–
D. Opportunity Cost 4. Ricardo (a) Macro Economics
Principle (b) Environomics
Codes: (c) Fiscal Economics
A B C D (d) International Economics
(a) 4 2 1 3
87. “Functional Finance” is associated with–
(b) 3 4 2 1
(a) Abba ‘P’ Lerner (b) Adolph Wogner
(c) 2 3 4 1
(c) Adam Smith (d) Adams
(d) 1 4 3 2
84. List - I List - II 88. Green Box subsidies under WTO are allowed
A. Monetarism 1. R. F. Kahn because they are considered to be
B. Employment 2. T. Havelmo (a) Minimally trade distorting.
multiplier (b) Higher among developed and relatively
C. Multiplier effect 3. John Muth lower for developing countries.
of balanced (c) They are con¿ned to agriculture sector.
budget (d) They are related to GATS provision.
D. Rational 4. Milton 89. “Freedom as Development” book is written by
expectation Friedman (a) Keynes
hypothesis (b) Amartya Kumar Sen
Codes: (c) Mrs. Joan Robinson
A B C D (d) Gunnar Myrdal
(a) 2 4 3 1 90. Critical minimum effort theory is given by
(b) 4 1 2 3 (a) Leibenstein (b) Rosenstein Rodan
(c) 1 3 4 2
(c) Arther Lewis (d) Marx
(d) 3 2 1 4
91. Arrange the following in order in which they 94. Which of the following is an ideal Index Number?
appeared. Use the code given below: (a) Lespeyre (b) Bowley
(i) Friedman’s Quantity Theory of Money (c) Fisher (d) Marshall-Edgeworth
(ii) Fisher’s Equation of Exchange 95. According to Milton Friedman, Quantity Theory
(iii) Cambridge Equation of Exchange of Money deals with
(iv) Don Patinkins Theory of Money (a) Prices (b) Income
Codes: (c) Supply of Money (d) Demand for Money
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 96. European Union decided to enforce European
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Stability Mechanism (ESM). ESM is a system
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) to achieve / safeguard–
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (a) ¿nancial stability
92. Bretton Woods twins are (b) political stability
(a) USA and UK (b) IMF and World Bank (c) free access to oil reserves in UAE and
(c) ITO and WTO (d) GATT and UNESC Kuwait
93. Forward and backward linkages were propounded (d) free access to uranium reserves in Libya
by (e) interests of all the members in case of attack
(a) Gunnar Myrdal (b) Hirschman by Iran or any other country
(c) Boeke (d) Leibenstein
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 13. (b) 25. (d) 37. (a) 49. (b) 61. (b) 73. (b) 85. (c)
2. (b) 14. (b) 26. (d) 38. (a) 50. (d) 62. (b) 74. (b) 86. (d)
3. (a) 15. (c) 27. (c) 39. (d) 51. (a) 63. (a) 75. (c) 87. (a)
4. (b) 16. (a) 28. (d) 40. (a) 52. (a) 64. (b) 76. (b) 88. (a)
5. (d) 17. (b) 29. (d) 41. (d) 53. (c) 65. (a) 77. (c) 89. (b)
6. (a) 18. (d) 30. (b) 42. (b) 54. (c) 66. (d) 78. (b) 90. (a)
7. (c) 19. (c) 31. (b) 43. (b) 55. (c) 67. (b) 79. (a) 91. (c)
8. (b) 20. (a) 32. (c) 44. (c) 56. (a) 68. (c) 80. (b) 92. (b)
9. (b) 21. (b) 33. (a) 45. (a) 57. (c) 69. (c) 81. (a) 93. (b)
10. (d) 22. (a) 34. (a) 46. (d) 58. (a) 70. (b) 82. (b) 94. (c)
11. (d) 23. (a) 35. (a) 47. (d) 59. (a) 71. (c) 83. (b) 95. (c)
12. (d) 24. (b) 36. (a) 48. (b) 60. (b) 72. (b) 84. (b) 96. (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) World Bank and International Monetary IBRD, IFC, IDA, MIGA and ICSID.
Fund (IMF) were established in Dec, 1944 on the 2. (b) NAFTA, ASEAN and other regional trading
recommendation of Bretton Wood Conference. Five blocs in the world will promote free trade on the line
constituents of the world bank are : laid down by the WTO.
Economics || D-73
3. (a) All the given statements are correct regarding 16. (a) A bull investor wishing to invest thinks the
the World Trade Organization. The members of market or the company he/she’s investing in is going
the GATT signed agreement of Uruguay Round in to be better. A bear investor is pessimistic about the
1994 for establishing WTO which of¿cially was market and many make more conservative stock
constituted on Jan 1, 1995. choices.
4. (b) WTO - Multi-lateral trade negotiation body. 17. (b) The double taxation avoidance agreement
IDA - Sanction of soft loans between India and Mauritius has boosted investment
IMF - provides loans to address short-term balance
in India to a great extent in the last decade making
of payment problems.
IBRD - Facilitates lending and borrowing for Mauritius one of the key economic partners of India.
reconstruction and development. 18. (d) Emerging markets are nations with social or
5. (d) The most appropriate measure of the country’s business activity in the process of rapid growth and
economic growth is its “per capita real income” which industrialization.
is also denoted as NNP at factor cost population. 19. (c) The Association of Southeast Asian Nations,
6. (a) Fiscal de¿cit - Excess of total expenditure over or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967 in
total receipts less borrowings. Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN
Budget de¿cit - Excess of total expenditure over total
Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the Founding
receipts.
Fathers of ASEAN, namely Indonesia, Malaysia,
Revenue de¿cit - Excess of total expenditure over
Philippines, Singapore and Thailand. Brunei
revenue receipts.
Primary de¿cit - Excess of total expenditure over Darussalam then joined on 7 January 1984, Viet Nam
total receipts less borrowings & Interest payments. on 28 July 1995, Lao PDR and Myanmar on 23 July
9. (b) The agreement in South-Asian Free Trade Area 1997, and Cambodia on 30 April 1999, making up
(SAFTA) came into effect from 1st Jan, 2005. India, what is today the ten Member States of ASEAN.
Pakistan and Sri Lanka have to decrease their custom 20. (a) In economics, BRICS is a grouping acronym
duties to the level of 0-5% by the year 2013. that refers to the related countries of Brazil, Russia,
10. (d) Basel II is the revised international capital India, China and South Africa. China is the second
framework. The Basel II framework describes a more
largest economy of the world while Brazil is the 7th
comprehensive measure of minimum standard for
and India is in 10th position.
capital adequacy that national supervisory authorities
are now working to implement through domestic 21. (b) The president of the UN General Assembly,
rule-making and adoption procedures. set up a commission of experts chaired by Joseph
11. (d) The S & P 500 is a stock market index containing Stiglitz, whose mandate is to reÀect on the causes
the stocks of 500 large-cap corporations, most of of the crisis, assess its impacts on all countries and
which are American. suggest adequate responses to avoid its recurrence
12. (d) The ¿ght on pruning industrial tariffs at the and restore global economic stability.
WTO has become more fierce with a group of 22. (a) The codex alimentarius is a collection of
developing countries (NAMA - 11). internationally recognized standards, codes of
13. (b) Safeguard Mechanism is one of the three types practice, guidelines and other recommendations
of trade protection measures taken by WTO members, relating to foods, food production and food safety.
alongside anti-dumping and countervailing measures. 23. (a) Fiscal stimulus - Government measures,
14. (b) A Geographical Indication shows that particular normally involving increased public spending and
agricultural, natural or manufactured goods originates lower taxation are aimed at giving a positive jolt to
from a de¿nite geographical territory. economic activity.
24. (b) The second annual Greendex survey, conducted income home buyers. Unfortunately, these borrowers
by the National Geographic survey of society and with increased monthly payments, at times can’t afford.
international polling ¿rm Globe-Scan, canvassed 43. (b) Regarding WTO membership, over 75% of
17,000 adults online in 17 countries in 2009 to gauge WTO members are from developing countries, and
consumer attitudes and their behaviour. the membership allows them access to develop
25. (d) The European Council is the institution of the markets at lower tariff.
44. (c) The objectives of the Bretton Woods system is
European Union responsible for de¿ning the general
to maintain the exchange rate by trying its currency
political direction and priorities of the union. The
to the US dollar and to bridge temporary imbalances
European Commission is the executive body of the of payments.
European Union. 51. (a) HDI is the geometric mean of (i) Life
26. (d) In the traditional accounting of balance of Expectancy Index (LEI), Education Index (EI) and
payments, the current account equals the change in Income Index (II).
HDI 3 LEI u EI u II
net foreign assets. A current account de¿cit implies
a paralleled reduction of the net foreign assets. Life Expectancy 20
LEI
27. (c) The base effect relates to inflation in the 82.3 20
corresponding period of the previous year: If the (where 20 and 82.3 are the minimum and maximum
values of expectancy of life at birth in years).
inÀation rate was too low in the corresponding period
MYSI.EYSI 0
of the previous year, even a smaller rise in the price EI
0.951 0
index will arithmetically give a high rate of inÀation.
where MYSI (Mean Years of Schooling Index)
28. (d) This is an economy that does not interact with MYS 0
the economy of any other country. A closed economy 13.2 0
prohibits imports and exports and prohibits any other EYSI (Expected Years of Schooling Index)
country from participating in their stock market. EYS 0
29. (d) The basic idea of Dialectrical Materialism is that 20.6 0
every economic order grows to a state of maximum Log Per Capita GNI log100
II
ef¿ciency, while at the same time develops interval log 107721 log100
contradictions or weaknesses that contribute to its (100 and 107721 are the minimum and maximum
decay. values of Per Capita Gross National Income in US $).
30. (b) FDI is an investment that a parent company 59. (a) A private good is de¿ned in economics as a
makes in a foreign country. On the contrary, FII is good that exhibits these properties (1) Excludable –
an investment made by an investor in the markets of the owners in possession of the good can exercise
private property rights, preventing a class of
a foreign nation.
consumers (e.g., those who have not paid for it)
31. (b) India’s ‘Look East’ policy was initiated in 1991,
from using the good or consuming its bene¿ts (2)
marked a strategic shift in its perspective of the world.
Rivalrous – consumptions by one consumer prevents
32. (c) The IMF is an intergovernmental organization
simultaneous consumption by other consumers.
that oversees the global ¿nancial system by taking Private goods satisfy an individual want while public
part in the macroeconomic policies of its established goods satisfy a collective want of the society.
members, in particular those with an impact on 63. (a) Investment in capital and labour will increase
exchange rate and the balance of payments. productivity and production which will cause either
33. (a) Teaser loans are considered an aspect of rise in wages or creation of employment or both
subprime lending, as they are usually offered to low- thus the overall income will rise.
Economics || D-75
66. (d) Marshall’s cardinal utility analysis is the Fund, private assets held abroad, and direct foreign
oldest theory of demand propounded in 1920. investment. Assets owned by foreigners, private and
Indifference curve technique was ¿rst of all invented of¿cial, are also recorded in the ¿nancial account.
by Edge-worth and then Hicks and Allen (1936) Errors and Omissions : The errors may be due to
put forward the indifference curve approach based statistical discrepancies and omissions may be due
on the notion of ordinal utility. Then Samuelson to certain transactions that may not be recorded.
(1938) propounded Revealed Preference theory 73. (b) K. C. Neogy (1951); A. K. Chanda (1960); K.
and ¿nally Hicks in 1956 gave Weak Preference Brahamanand Reddy (1972); N.K.P. Salve (1987).
ordering theory of demand. 74. (b) Income Tax (1860); Expenditure Tax (1956);
67. (b) Quantity theory of money was developed by Value Added Tax (1996-97) Fringe Bene¿ts Tax
Simon New-comb, Alfred de Foville, Irving Fisher (2005).
and Ludwig Von Mises in the latter 19th and early 86. (d) Externalities are where the consumption or
20th century, Alfred Marshall, A.C. Pigou and J. M. production of a good impacts on people other than
Keynes (before he developed his own, eponymous the producers or consumers that are participating in
school of thought) associated with Cambridge the market for that good. They are the side effects
borne by third parties. In each case the ¿rms or
University, took a slightly different approach to
the individuals will bear some form of cost known
the quantity theory, focusing on money demand
as the external cost. There are a number of types
instead of money supply. The Baumol-Tobin model
of externality. Some are of particular relevance to
is an economic model of the Transactions demand
the copper industry.
for money as developed independently by William
Producer on producer externalities e.g., a
Baumol (1952) and James Tobin (1956).
copper smelting ¿rm contributing to acid rain
68. (c) After Keynes propounded theory of consumption,
which affects the crops of surrounding farmers
Duesenberry gave relative income hypothesis. Producer on consumer externalities e.g., a
Permanent income theory of consumers’ behaviour copper smelting ¿rm causing air pollution that
was put forward by Milton Friedman in 1957 in his causes tuberculosis
book “A theory of consumption Function”. Modigliani Consumer on consumer externalities e.g.,
and Ando in 1963 put forward Life Cycle theory. smokers causing smoking relating ailments
71. (c) Bangalore (1986); Kathmandu (1987), in non-smokers
Islamabad (1988), New Delhi (1995). Consumers on producer externalities e.g.,
72. (b) The current account : The current account is passenger cars causing congestion and slowing
used to mark the inÀow and outÀow of goods and business traf¿c
services into a country. Earnings on investments, The above suggest that these externalities are
both public and private, are also put into the current always negative and result in external costs.
account.
87. (a) Functional Finance is a heterodox macroeconomic
The capital account : The capital account is where
theory developed by Abba Lerner during World War
all international capital transfers are recorded. This
II that seeks to eliminate economic insecurity (i.e.,
refers to the acquisition or disposal of non-¿nancial
assets (for example, a physical asset such as land) the business cycle) through government intervention
and non-produced assets, which are needed for in the economy. Functional ¿nance emphasizes the
production but have not been produced, like a mine end result of interventionist policies on the economy
used for the extraction of diamonds. and is based on three major beliefs:
The Of¿cial Settlement Account of The Financial 1. It is the role of government to stave off inÀation
Account : In the ¿nancial account, international and unemployment by controlling consumer
monetary Àows related to investment in business, spending through the raising and lowering of
real estate, bonds and stocks are documented. taxes.
Aslo included are government-owned assets such 2. The purpose of government borrowing and
as foreign reserves, gold, Special drawing rights lending is to control interest rates, investment
(SDRs) held with the International Monetary levels and inÀation.
3. The government should print, hoard or destroy encourages investment in facilities that enable the
money as it sees ¿t to achieve these goals. project to succeed. Normally, projects create both
88. (a) In WTO terminology, subsidies in general forward and backward linkages. Investment should
are identi¿ed by “boxes” which are given the be made in those projects that have the greatest total
colours of traf¿c lights: green (permitted), amber number of linkages. Projects with many linkages
(slow down — i.e. be reduced), red (forbidden). In will vary from country to country; knowledge about
agriculture, things are, as usual, more complicated. project linkages can be obtained through input and
The Agriculture Agreement has no red box, output studies.
although domestic support exceeding the reduction 94. (c) Prof. Irving Fisher has given a number of
commitment levels in the amber box is prohibited; formulae for constructing index numbers and of
and there is a blue box for subsidies that are tied these he calls one as the ‘ideal’ index. Fisher has
to programmes that limit production. discovered weighted index number in which he
In order to qualify for the “green box”, a subsidy try to calculate best index number because he has
must not distort trade, or at most cause minimal taken both current and past years quantity as the
distortion. These subsidies have to be government- base of price index number. The main quality of
funded (not by charging consumers higher prices) ¿sher index number is that it qualify both time
reversal test and factor reversal test.
and must not involve price support. They tend to
95. (c) In monetary economics, the quantity theory
be programmes that are not directed at particular
of money states that money supply has a direct,
products, and include direct income supports for
proportional relationship with the price level. For
farmers that are not related to (are “decoupled”
example, if the currency in circulation increased,
from) current production levels or prices. “Green
there would be a proportional increase in the price
box” subsidies are therefore allowed without limits,
of goods.
provided they comply with relevant criteria.
89. (b) Development as Freedom is a book by 96. (a) The European Stability Mechanism (ESM) is
economist Amartya Sen, published in 1999, which an important component of the comprehensive EU
focuses on international development. strategy designed to safeguard ¿nancial stability
90. (a) The theory of critical minimum effort is within the euro area. Like its predecessor – the
associated with the name of Harvey Leibenstein. The temporary European Financial Stability Facility
theory is based on the relationship between the three (EFSF) set up in 2010 –the ESM provides ¿nancial
factors, viz. (i) per capita income, (ii) population assistance to euro area Member States experiencing
growth, and (iii) investment. Leibenstein identi¿ed or threatened by ¿nancing dif¿culties. The two
population also an income-depressing factor (or a),
institutions functioned concurrently from October
whereas investment is an income-generating factor.
2012 (when the ESM was inaugurated) until June
91. (c) (i) Friedman’s Quantity Theory of Money 1923
(ii) Fisher’s Equation of Exchange 1911 2013. As of 1 July, 2013 the EFSF will not enter
(iii) Cambridge Equation of Exchange 1917 into any new financial assistance programmes
(iv) Don Patinkins Theory of Money 1950 but will continue the management and repayment
92. (b) The Bretton Woods twins refers to the two of any outstanding debt. The ESM will then
multilateral organizations created at the Bretton remain as the sole and permanent mechanism for
Woods Conference in 1944. They are: The World responding to new requests for ¿nancial assistance
Bank, The International Monetary Fund. by euro area Member States. The EFSF will cease
93. (b) Hirschman introduces the concept of backward to exist once all loans outstanding under EFSF
and forward linkages. A forward linkage is created assistance programmes have been reimbursed and
when investment in a particular project encourages all funding instruments issued by the EFSF and
investment in subsequent stages of production. any reimbursement amounts due to Guarantors have
A backward linkage is created when a project been repaid in full.
Section e : general SCIENCE
1 Physics
1. An iron needle sinks in water whereas a ship 5. Of the two bulbs in a house, one glows brighter
made of iron Àoats on it because than the other. Which of the following statements
(a) the edge of the needle is pointed is correct?
(b) the ship is Àat (a) The brightness does not depend on
(c) the ship is driven by powerful engine resistance.
(d) speci¿c gravity of the needle is greater than (b) Both the bulbs have the same resistance.
that of water displaced by it. (c) The brighter bulb has larger resistance.
2. The cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights (d) The dimmer bulb has larger resistance.
because 6. A Àuorescent tube is preferred to an electric bulb
because
(a) clouds prevent escape of radiation of heat
(a) it has a larger light emitting surface.
from the ground and the air.
(b) voltage Àuctuations do not affect it.
(b) absorb sunlight in the day and radiate the (c) in a tube electrical energy is almost converted
same in night. into light.
(c) clouds make the atmosphere damp and (d) None of these
generate heat. 7. Consider the following statements in respect of a
(d) clouds obstruct the movement of air which jet engine and a rocket:
creates heat. 1. A jet engine uses the surrounding air for
3. Food gets cooked faster in a pressure cooker its oxygen supply and so is unsuitable for
because motion in space.
(a) water starts boiling at a lower temperature 2. A rocket carries its own supply of oxygen in
due to high pressure the gas form as a fuel.
(b) water starts boiling at a higher temperature Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
due to high pressure (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) water boils only at 100°C but the heat (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
content is higher at high pressure 8. The leaning tower of Pisa does not fall because
(d) convection currents are set inside the (a) it is tappered at the top.
cooker (b) it covers a large base area.
4. It is more comfortable to wear white cloths in (c) its centre of gravity remains at the lowest
position.
summer because
(d) the vertical line through the centre of gravity
(a) they reÀect heat falling on them.
of the tower falls within the base.
(b) they radiate heat tansferred from the body. 9. Given below are two statements:
(c) they absorb perspiration. Assertion (A): Universe is expanding.
(d) they are soothing to the eye. Reason (R): The result is based on red shift of
spectra of galaxies.
E-2 || Physics
Codes: C. Pressure 3. Pascal
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct D. Force 4. Newton
10. Electronic motors operating at low voltages tend (d) 2 1 4 3
to burn out because 15. Which one of the following statements is not true
(a) they draw more current which is inversely about cosmic rays?
proportional to the voltage. (a) They have very high frequency.
(b) they draw more current which is inversely (b) They have very high wavelength.
proportional to the square root of the (c) They are made of highly energetic charged
voltage. particles.
(c) they draw heat proportional to V2. (d) They originate from the sun.
(d) low voltage sets in electrical discharge. 16. Pendulum clocks become slow in summer
11. If the doors of a refrigerator are left open for a because
few hours, the room temperature will (a) days in summer are large.
(a) decrease (b) of the friction in the coil.
(b) increase (c) the length of the pendulum increases.
(c) remain the same (d) the weight of the pendulum changes.
(d) decrease only in the area in the vicinity of 17. Consider the following statements and select the
the refrigerator correct code:
12. If a rock is brought from the surface of the moon Assertion (A): A piece of ice added to the drink
to the earth, then cools it.
(a) its mass will change. Reason (R): Ice takes latent heat from the drink
(b) its weight will change but not its mass. for melting resulting in the cooling of the drink.
(c) both mass and weight will change. Codes:
(d) both mass and weight will remain the same. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct explanation of A.
answer using the codes given below the lists: (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
A. Wavelength 1. Hertz (c) A is true, but R is false.
B. Energy 2. Angstrom (d) A is false, but R is true.
C. Intensity of sound 3. Joule 18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
D. Frequency 4. Decibel answer using the codes given below the lists:
A B C D A. Revolver 1. Alfred Nobel
(a) 2 3 4 1 B. Dynamite 2. Pascal
(b) 1 2 3 4 C. Law of cooling 3. Colt
(c) 2 3 1 4 D. Law of pressure 4. Newton
(d) 2 1 3 4 Codes:
answer with the help of codes given below: (a) 1 3 2 4
A. Temperature 1. Kelvin (c) 3 1 2 4
B. Power 2. Watt (d) 3 1 4 2
General Science || E-3
19. The atmosphere exerts enormous pressure on us. Codes:
But, we don’t feel it because A B C D
(a) our blood exerts a pressure slightly more (a) 1 2 3 4
than that of the atmosphere. (b) 4 3 2 5
(c) 2 1 3 5
(b) we are used to it.
(d) 3 1 2 4
(c) our bones are very strong and can withstand 24. Magnetic resonance imaging is based on the
the pressure. phenomenon of
(d) the surface area of our head is very small. (a) nuclear magnetic resonance
20. Which one of the following statements is not true (b) electron spin resonance
for a person suffering from hypermetropia? (c) electron paramagnetic resonance
(a) The person can see far objects distinctly. (d) diamagnetism of human tissues
25. A man is standing on a boat in still water. If he
(b) The focal length of the lens is large.
walks towards the shore, the boat will
(c) The image of the close object is focussed (a) move towards the shore
behind the retina. (b) move away from the shore
(d) A concave lens is used to correct this defect. (c) remain stationary
21. Consider the following statements and select the (d) sink
correct answer using the codes given below: 26. An endoscope is used by a physician to view the
Assertion (A): If ice collects on the freezer, the internal parts of a body organ. It is based on the
principle of
cooling in the refrigerator is affected adversely.
(a) refraction of light
Reason (R): Ice is a poor conductor. (b) reÀection of light
Codes: (c) total internal reÀection of light
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct (d) dispersion of light
explanation of A. 27. A piece of ice is Àoating in a beaker containing
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct water. When whole of the ice melts
explanation of A. (a) the level of water will come down.
(b) the level of water will come up.
(c) the level of water will ¿rst rise and then fall.
(d) A is false, but R is true. (d) the level of water will remain the same.
22. The minimum height of a plane mirror to see the 28. A man inside a moving train tosses a coin, the
full size image of a person is equal to coin falls behind him. The train is moving
(a) the height of the person (a) forward with a uniform speed
(b) half the height of the person (b) backward with a uniform speed
(c) one-fourth the height of the person (c) forward with deceleration
(d) forward with acceleration
(d) double the height of the person
29. A fan produces a feeling of comfort during hot
23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct weather because
answer from the codes given below the lists: (a) fan supplies cool air
List-I List-II (b) our body radiates more heat in air
(Energy conversion) (Device/process) (c) conductivity of air increases
A. Heat to electrical 1. Car braking (d) our perspiration evaporates rapidly
B. Electric to sound 2. Nuclear reactor 30. Rainbow is formed due to a combination of
(a) refraction and absorption
C. Mass to heat 3. Loud speaker
(b) dispersion and diffraction
D. Chemical to heat 4. Solar cell (c) refraction and scattering
and light 5. Fuel burning (d) dispersion and total internal reÀection
E-4 || Physics
31. Consider the following statements and select the 35. Consider the following statements and select the
correct code. correct code.
Assertion (A): A diamond sparkles more than a Assertion (A): A stick is dipped in water in a
glass imitation cut to the same shape. slanting position. If observed sideways, the stick
Reason (R): The refractive index of diamond is appears short and bent at the surface of water.
less than that of glass. Reason (R): The light coming from the stick
Codes: undergoes scattering from water molecules giving
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct the stick a short and bent appearance.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct
explanation of A.
explanation of A.
(d) A is false, but R is true. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
32. Consider the following statements: explanation of A.
1. Two persons on the surface of moon cannot (c) A is true, but R is false.
talk to each other. (d) A is false, but R is true.
2. Sound waves cannot travel through 36. Consider the following statements and select the
vacuum. correct code.
3. Speed of sound is greater in solid medium Assertion (A): A piece of copper and a piece of
than in liquid or gas medium. glass are heated to the same temperature. When
(a) 3 alone is correct touched, thereafter, the copper piece appears
(b) 1 and 2 are correct hotter than the glass piece.
(c) 1 and 3 are correct Reason (R): The density of copper is more than
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct that of glass.
correct code. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Assertion (A): The temperature of a metal wire explanation of A.
rises when an electric current is passed through (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
it. explanation of A.
Reason (R): Collision of metal atoms with each
other releases heat energy.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 37. Consider the following natural phenomena:
explanation of A. 1. Terrestrial heating
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 2. ReÀection of light
explanation of A. 3. Refraction of light
(c) A is true, but R is false. 4. Diffraction of light
(d) A is false, but R is true. Due to which of these phenomena is mirage
34. Consider the following statements: formed?
1. If a person looks at a coin which is in a (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
bucket of water, the coin will appear to be (c) 1 and 3 (d) 4 only
closer than it really is. 38. Consider the following statements:
2. If a person under water looks at a coin above, 1. Light of longer wavelength is scattered much
the water surface, the coin will appear to be more than the light of shorter wavelength.
at a higher level than it really is. 2. The speed of visible light in water is 0.95
Which of the above statements is/are correct? times the speed in vacuum.
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 alone 3. Radio waves are produced by rapidly
(c) 2 alone (d) Neither 1 nor 2 oscillating electrical currents.
4. To detect the overspeeding of vehicles, 43. Consider the following statements:
police use the Doppler effect to reÀected 1. If magenta and yellow-coloured circles
short radio waves. intersect, the intersected area will have red
Which of these statements are correct? colour.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 2. If cyan and magenta coloured circles
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
intersect, the intersected area will have blue
39. A hydrogen-inÀated polythene balloon is released
from the surface of the earth. As the balloon rises colour.
to an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(a) decrease in size correct?
(b) Àatten into a disc-like shape (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) increase in size (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) maintain the same size and shape 44. Consider the following statements:
40. An oil tanker is partially ¿lled with oil and moves 1. A Àute of smaller length produces waves of
forward on a level road with uniform acceleration. lower frequency.
The free surface of oil then 2. Sound travels in rocks in the form of
(a) remains horizontal.
longitudinal elastic waves only.
(b) is inclined to the horizontal with smaller
depth at the rear end. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(c) is inclined to the horizontal with larger depth correct?
at the rear end. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) assumes parabolic curves. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
41. Which one of the following statements is NOT 45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
correct? answer from the codes given below:
(a) The velocity of sound in air increases with List-I List-II
the increase of temperature. A. Acceleration 1. Jule
(b) The velocity of sound in air is independent
B. Electric current 2. Newton second
of pressure.
C. Work done 3. Newton
(c) The velocity of sound in air decreases as the
humidity increases. D. Impulse 4. Metre per sec2.
(d) The velocity of sound in air is not affected Codes:
by the change in amplitude and frequency. A B C D
correct code. (b) 2 3 4 1
Assertion (A): In our houses, the current in A.C. (c) 4 3 1 2
electricity line changes direction 60 times per (d) 3 4 1 2
second. 46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Reason (R): The frequency of alternating voltage
answer using the codes given below:
supplied is 50 Hz.
List-I List-II
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct A. Joule 1. Henery–ampere/sec
explanation of A. B. Watt 2. Farad–volt
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the C. Volt 3. Coloumb–volt
correct explanation of A. D. Coulomb 4. Orested–cm
(c) A is true, but R is false. 5. Amp–gauss
(d) A is false, but R is true. 6. Amp2–ohm
E-6 || Physics
Codes: Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
A B C D correct?
(a) 1 6 5 4 (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(b) 3 6 1 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 6 1 5 52. Heavy water is used as a moderator in a nuclear
(d) 2 6 1 3 reactor. The function of the moderator is
47. Which of the following statements are true (a) to control the energy released in the reactor.
regarding heat? (b) to absorb neutrons and stop the chain
1. Heat is a form of energy. reaction.
2. Heat can be reÀected by mirror. (c) to cool the reactor.
3. Heat is an electromagnetic radiation. (d) to slow down the neutrons.
4. Heat cannot pass through a vacuum. 53. What does the term Dolby B or Dolby C printed
Select the correct answer from the codes given: on tape recorders and other sound systems refer
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 to?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (a) frequency modulated system
48. Ultrasonic waves are used for stirring liquid (b) amplitude modulated system
solutions because they (c) noise reduction circuit
(a) do not produce noise during the operation (d) both DC and AC power can be used
(b) are easy to produce 54. A man inside an arti¿cial satellite feels
(c) can produce perfectly homogeneous weightlessness because the force of attraction
solution
due to earth is
(d) do not produce chemical reactions in the
(a) zero
solution
(b) balanced by the force of attraction due to
49. According to the modern theory of nature of light,
moon
the light has
(c) equal to centripetal force
(a) wave nature only
(b) particle nature only (d) non-effective due to particular design of the
(c) both wave and particle (dual) nature satellite
(d) neither particle nature nor wave nature 55. A liquid drop tends to assume a spherical shape
50. According to Coulomb’s law, the electrostatic because of
force between two charges is (a) surface tension (b) viscous force
(a) inversely proportional to the product of the (c) gravitational force (d) centrifugal force
charges 56. The freezer in a refrigerator is located at the top
(b) inversely proportional to the square of the section so that
distance between the charges (a) the entire chamber of the refrigerator is
(c) directly proportional to the cube of the cooled quickly due to convection.
distance between charges (b) the motor is not heated
(d) none of these (c) the heat gained from the environment is
51. What is the difference between a CFL and an high
LED lamp? (d) the heat gained from the environment is
1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury low
vapour and phosphorus while an LED lamp 57. Consider the following statements and select the
uses semiconductor material. correct code.
2. The average lifespan of a CFL is much Assertion (A): The velocity of sound in air
longer than that of LED lamp. increased due to the presence of moisture in it.
3. A CFL is less energy - ef¿cient as compared Reason (R): The presence of moisture in air
to an LED lamp. lowers the density of air.
Codes: 3. a man with a load on his head is walking on
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct a horizontal road.
explanation of A. 4. moon is revolving round the earth.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Which of the statements given above are
explanation of A. correct?
(c) A is true, but R is false. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(d) A is false, but R is true. (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
58. Which of the following properties is not possible 64. Consider the following statements:
in case of X-rays? A body weighs less at the equator than at the
(a) Interference poles because:
(b) Diffraction 1. earth rotates about its axis.
(c) Polarisation 2. the ice cap at the poles increases gravitational
(d) All of the above pull.
59. Which of the following is not correctly 3. equatorial diameter is greater than the polar
matched? diameter.
(a) Voltmeter — Potential difference 4. of some unknown facts.
(b) Ammeter — Electric current Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Potentiometer — E.M.F. incorrect?
(d) Galvanometer — Electric resistance (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
60. If alpha, beta and gamma rays carry same (c) 1 and 3 (d) 4 only
momentum, which has the longest wavelength? 65. What is the correct sequence in which the lengths
(a) Alpha rays of the following units increase?
(b) Beta rays 1. Angstrom
(c) Gamma rays 2. Micron
(d) None, all have same wavelength 3. Nanometer
61. Consider the following statements : Select the correct answer using the codes given
The fraction of a ball Àoating inside the liquid
below:
depends upon
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 1, 2
1. density of the liquid
(c) 1, 3, 2 (d) 2, 3, 1
2. mass of the ball
66. The position– time (x – t) graph for motion of a
3. density of the ball
body is given below:
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
62. When a ship Àoats on water
(a) it displaces no water
(b) the mass of water displaced is equal to the
mass of the ship
(c) the mass of water displaced is lesser than the
mass of the ship
(d) the mass of water displaced is greater than Which one among the following is depicted by
the mass of the ship the above graph?
63. Consider the following statements. Work is not (a) Positive acceleration
done, when: (b) Negative acceleration
1. a man is walking on a horizontal road. (c) Zero acceleration
2. a man is climbing up a hill. (d) None of the above
E-8 || Physics
67. Consider the following statement: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
The principle of total internal reÀection is (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
applicable to explain the 72. Consider the following statements:
1. Formation of mirage in desert. Heat produced in a conductor carrying current is
2. Formation of image in microscope. independent of
3. Colour of evening sky. 1. Current passing through it.
4. Operation of optical ¿bres. 2. Thermal conductivity.
Which of the statement given above are correct? 3. Speci¿c resistance.
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 Which of the statement given above is/are
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 correct?
68. Which of the following statements is/are true (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
regarding a light wave travelling from air to (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
glass? 73. Match List I with List II and select the correct
1. Its frequency remains unchanged. answer using the code given below:
2. Its speed changes. List I List II
Select the correct answer using the codes given (Magnet) (Property)
below: A. Arti¿cial magnet 1. Long lived
B. Permanent magnet 2. Last for in¿nitely
long period
69. Refractive index of an optical medium changes
C. Temporary 3. Short lived
with
1. the nature of the medium. magnet
2. the change in the angle of incidence of the D. Earth as a magnet 4. Induced magnet
ray. Codes:
3. colour of the incident ray. A B C D
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) 3 1 4 2
below: (b) 3 4 1 2
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 1 4 3
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 4 1 3
Hypermetropia is a defect of vision in which 1. If a piece of bar magnet is broken into two
1. a person cannot see the distant objects equally long pieces, the pieces will not lose
clearly. the magnetic properties.
2. a person cannot see the near objects clearly. 2. Magnetic properties of a substance lie in the
3. the near point of the eye gets shifted away atomic level.
from the normal position. Which of the statements given above is/are
4. the far point of the eye gets shifted towards correct ?
the eye. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above are (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct? 75. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 1. The gravitational force exerted by the sun
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 on the moon is greater than the gravitational
71. Consider the following statements : force exerted by the earth on the moon.
1. The magnetic pole in the northern hemisphere 2. A heavy body falls at a faster rate than a
is the north magnetic pole. light body in vacuum.
2. At all points on a magnet, an iron bar gets Which of the following statements given above
attracted. is/are correct ?
Which one of the following statements given (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
above is/are correct ? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
76. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the sky is 81. Consider the following statements :
produced by the (1) For a spherically symmetric earth, the
1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky acceleration due to gravity should be about
2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds the same at the equator and at the poles.
3. violent upward movement of air and water (2) If earth suddenly stops rotating about its axis,
particles then the value of g will be same at all the
Select the correct answer using the codes given places.
below. Which of these statement(s) is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (a) (1) only (b) (2) only
(b) 2 and 3 (c) Both (1) and (2) (d) Neither (1) nor (2)
(c) 1 and 3 82. Two vessels A and B of cross-sections as shown
(d) None of the above produces the thunder in ¿gure contain a liquid up to the same height.
77. Choose the incorrect option ? As the temperature rises, the liquid pressure at
(a) A bulb in an electric circuits glows due to the bottom (neglecting expansion of the vesels)
heating effect of current. will
(b) Tin cans, used for storing food are made by
electroplating tin on to iron
(c) When the cells are connected in series, A B
the resultant voltage is equal to sum of the

individual voltage of the cells (a) increase in A, decrease in B
(d) None of these (b) increase in B, decrease in A
78. A car is moving on a road and rain is falling (c) increase in both A and B
vertically. Select the correct answer (d) decrease in both A and B
83. A : At high altitude regions the cooking of food
(a) The rain will strike the wind screen only
becomes dif¿cult.
(b) The rain will strike the front screen only B : Water boils at lower temperature when the
(c) The rain will strike both the screens pressure is low.
(d) The rain will not strike any of the screens (a) Both A and B are wrong
79. What happens when a heavy object and a light (b) A and B are correct and B is not the correct
object are allowed to fall from the certain height explanation of A
in the absence of air (c) A and B are correct and B is the correct
(a) heavy object reaches the ground later than explanation of A
the lighter object (d) A is correct but B is wrong.
(b) lighter object reaches the ground later than 84. When a sound wave goes from one medium to
the heavier object another, the quantity that remains unchanged is
(a) Frequency (b) Amplitude
(c) both heavy and light objects reach the
(c) Wavelength (d) Speed
ground simultaneously 85. Choose the incorrect statement ?
(d) none of these (a) Light from sun takes nearly eight minutes 20
80. A ball is dropped from a satellite revolving around seconds to come to earth.
the earth at a height of 120 km. The ball will (b) For a convex lens, if the object is placed
(a) continue to move with same speed along a between the focus and optical centre then
straight line tangentially to the satellite at the image formed will be magni¿ed
that time (c) For a convex lens, if the object is placed
(b) continue to move with the same speed along between the focus and optical centre then
the original orbit of satellite the image formed will be diminished
(c) fall down to earth gradually (d) Cinematography makes use of persistence
of vision.
(d) go far away in space
E-10 || Physics
86. Consider the following statements : 91. Two spheres of same size are made of the same
(1) A light and a heavy body, having equal metal but one is hollow and the other is solid.
momenta, have equal kinetic energies. They are heated to same temperature, then
(2) The total energy of a body in motion is equal (a) both spheres will expand equally
to the work it can do in being brought to rest. (b) hollow sphere will expand more than the
(3) A body cannot have momentum when its solid one
energy is zero. (c) solid sphere will expand more than the
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct ? hollow one
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (2) and (3) (d) none of the above
(c) Only (2) (d) Only (3) 92. A car is moving on a circular path and takes a
87. Which of the following are true about speed of turn. If R1 and R2 be the reaction on the inner and
sound? outer wheels respectively, then
(i) Sound propagates through a medium at a ¿nite (a) R1 = R2 (b) R1 R2
speed.
(c) R1 > R2 (d) R1 t R 2
(ii) The speed of sound decreases when we go
from solid to gaseous state. 93. An astronaut orbiting the earth in a circular orbit
(iii) Speed of sound increases with increase in 120 km above the surface of earth, gently drops a
temp. spoon out of the space ship. The spoon will
(a) only (i) (b) (i) & (iii) (a) fall vertically down to the earth
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii) (d) (i) & (ii) (b) move towards the moon
88. The sun is seen before the actual sunrise because (c) will move along with the space ship
of ..... . (d) will move in an irregular way and then fall
(a) reÀection down to earth
(b) refraction 94. Which of the following describes the energy
(c) scattering of light changes takes place when a steam engine drives a
(d) rectilinear propagation of light generator which lights a lamp?
89. What is the reason to pivot the compass needle on (a) Heat o Kinetic oElectricity o Heat and
a sharp pin? light
(a) To minimise the magnetic effect on the pin (b) Heat o Sound o Kinetic o Electricity
(b) To maximize the magnetic effect on the pin (c) Heat o Light o Sound o Kinetic
(c) To minimize the friction between the pin (d) Kinetic o Light o Heat o Electricity
and the compass needle 95. If a liquid is heated in space under no gravity, the
(d) To ensure that the compass needle will not transfer of heat will take place by process of
drop from the pivoted point (a) conduction
90. Column I Column II (b) convection
(A) Radioactivity (p) Emission of (c) radiation
electrons (d) cannot be heated in the absence of gravity
from metals 96. A plane mirror is approaching you at a speed of
(B) Photoelectric effect (q) Atom bomb 10 cm/s you can see your image in it. At what
(C) Nuclear fusion (r) Spontaneous speed will your image approach you?
emission (a) 10 cm/s (b) 5 cm/s
of radiations (c) 20 cm/s (d) 15 cm/s
(D) Nuclear ¿ssion (s) Hydrogen bomb
97. A watch shows time as 3 : 25 when seen through
(a) A - (p); B - (r); C - (q); D - (s)
a mirror, time appeared will be
(b) A - (q); B - (p); C - (r); D - (s)
(a) 8 : 35 (b) 9 : 35
(c) A - (s); B - (r); C - (q); D - (p)
(c) 7 : 35 (d) 8 : 25
(d) A - (r); B - (p); C - (s); D - (q)
98. Consider the following statements and select the on the ship. What colour would it appear to an
correct code. observer on the earth?
Assertion (A) : Small glass beads ¿xed on traf¿c (a) Blue (b) Orange
signals glow brightly when light falls upon them. (c) Yellow (d) Yellow-orange
Reason (R) : Light is totally reÀected when 100. Consider the following statements and select the
the angle of incidence exceeds a certain critical correct code.
value and light travelling in a denser medium is Assertion (A) : A jet aircraft moving at Mach
reÀected from a rarer medium. Number equal to 1 travels faster at an altitude of
Codes : 15 km than while moving at Mach Number equal
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct to 1 near the sea level.
explanation of A Reason (R) : The velocity of sound depends on
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct the temperature of the surrounding medium.
explanation of A (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) A is true but R is false explanation of A
(d) A is false but R is true (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
99. Suppose a rocketship is receding from the earth explanation of A
at a speed of 2/10 th the velocity of light. A light (c) A is true but R is false
in the rocketship appears blue to the passengers (d) A is false but R is true
E-12 || Physics
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 14. (c) 27. (d) 40. (c) 53. (c) 66. (c) 79. (c) 92. (b)
2. (a) 15. (b) 28. (d) 41. (c) 54. (a) 67. (a) 80. (b) 93. (c)
3. (a) 16. (c) 29. (d) 42. (d) 55. (a) 68. (c) 81. (b) 94. (a)
4. (a) 17. (a) 30. (b) 43. (c) 56. (a) 69. (d) 82. (a) 95. (c)
5. (d) 18. (d) 31. (c) 44. (b) 57. (a) 70. (d) 83. (c) 96. (c)
6. (c) 19. (a) 32. (d) 45. (c) 58. (d) 71. (d) 84. (a) 97. (a)
7. (c) 20. (d) 33. (a) 46. (b) 59. (d) 72. (d) 85. (c) 98. (a)
8. (d) 21. (a) 34. (a) 47. (c) 60. (d) 73. (a) 86. (d) 99. (d)
9. (a) 22. (b) 35. (c) 48. (c) 61. (c) 74. (c) 87. (c) 100. (d)
10 (a) 23. (b) 36. (b) 49. (c) 62. (b) 75. (a) 88. (b)
11. (b) 24. (a) 37. (c) 50. (b) 63. (d) 76. (d) 89. (c)
12. (b) 25. (b) 38. (d) 51. (c) 64. (d) 77. (d) 90. (d)
13. (a) 26. (c) 39. (d) 52. (d) 65. (c) 78. (b) 91. (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Because the speci¿c gravity of the needle is 7. (c) In respect of a jet engine and a rocket, both the
greater than that of water displaced by it. given statements are correct.
Speci¿c gravity (or relative density) 8. (d) Because the vertical line through the centre of
gravity of the tower falls within the base.
Density of the substance 10. (a) Electronic motors draw more current which
=
Density of water at 4°C is inversely proportional to the voltage, therefore,
The average density of iron needle is greater than more heat
water, therefore, it sinks. H = I2Rt is generated.
2. (a) The cloudy nights are warmer because clouds 11. (b) If the doors of a refrigerator are left open for a
prevent escape of radiation of heat from the ground few hours, the room temperature will increase as the
and the air. system release heat to the surroundings.
3. (a) Because water starts boiling at a lower 12. (b) If a rock is brought from the surface of the
temperature due to high pressure. According to moon to the earth, its weight will change but not its
Gay-Lussac’s law Uv T. mass. Mass is a invariant physical quantity whereas
4. (a) The white clothes reÀect heat falling on them weight of a body (w = mg) is variable as the value
in summer and they absorb the least from the sun. of acceleration due to gravity (g) changes.
13. (a) Wavelength is the distance between two
5. (d) The dimmer bulb has larger resistance than the
consecutive crests or troughs and 1 angstrom
brighter one.
1 = 10–10m, joule is the unit of energy. Intensity
Power of the bulb v of sound is measured in decibel. Frequency is
Resistance
measured in hertz (Hz).
Resistance is the obstruction offer to the Àow of 14. (c) The unit of temperature is kelvin, power is
current. measured in watt, pressure in pascal and force in
6. (c) In a Àuorescent tube, electrical energy is newton.
almost converted into light. The inner wall of the 15. (b) Cosmic rays have very high frequency
Àuorescent tube is coated with phosphorus which >1023 Hz and wavelength 10–24 m.
immediately transformed into bright light.
16. (c) Pendulum clocks become slow in summer 31. (c) A diamond sparkles more than a glass imitation
because the length of the pendulum increases. cut to the same shape is only the true statement. The
Increase in length 'l = lo D 'T refractive index of diamond 2.42 > glass 1.5.
where lo = original length, D = coef¿cient of 32. (d) Sound waves require material medium to
linear expansion and 'T = change in temperature. travel. On the surface of the moon, there is no
17. (a) A piece of ice added to the drink cool it because atmosphere. The speed of sound is maximum in
ice takes latent heat from the drink for melting solids and minimum in gas medium.
resulting in the cooling of the drink. 33. (a) The temperature of a metal wire rises when
18. (d) Revolver was discovered by Colt. Dynamite an electric current is passed through it because
was discovered by Alfred Nobel. Law of cooling collision of metal atoms with each other releases
was discovered by Newton and law of pressure by heat energy.
Pascal. 34. (a) When the person looks at a coin which is in a
19. (a) We don’t feel the atmospheric pressure because bucket of water, the coin will appear closer and at a
our blood exerts a pressure slightly more than that higher level than it really is.
of the atmosphere. real depth
20. (d) Hypermetropia is corrected by using a concave P2 =
apparent depth
lens. Myopia is corrected by convex lens.
21. (a) If ice collects on the freezer, the cooling in the 35. (c) A stick is dipped in water in a slanting position.
refrigerator is affected adversely because ice is a If observed sideways, the stick appears short and
poor conductor of heat. bent because of refraction of light.
22. (b) The minimum height of a plane mirror to see 36. (b) Because thermal conductivity of copper is
the full size image of a person is equal to the half the greater than glass.
height of the person. 37. (c) The phenomenon of mirage is formed by the
23. (b) Heat to electrical energy conversion occurs in terrestrial heating and refraction of light. Due to
solar cell. Electric to sound occurs in loud speaker. terrestrial heating, layers of air of different densities
Mass to heat occurs in nuclear reactor. Chemical to (different refractive indices) are formed. The ray of
heat and light occurs in fuel burning. light strikes different layers/refracted and causes
24. (a) Magnetic resonance imaging is based on the mirage-an optical illusion.
phenomenon nuclear magnetic resonance. 38. (d) Radio waves are produced by rapidly oscillating
25. (b) Aman is standing on a boat in still water. If he electrical currents. For detecting over speeding of
walks towards the shore, the boat will move away vehicles, police use the Doppler effect to reÀected
from the shore. This is according to Newton’s third short radio waves.
law of motion — to every action there is equal and 1
opposite reaction. Scattering v
26. (c) An endoscopic process is based on the principle O4
of total internal reÀection of light. 39. (d) A hydrogen-inÀated polythene balloon rises to
27. (d) After the melting of ice, the level of water an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will maintain the
remains the same because the total volume of the same size and shape.
melted ice is equal to the volume of Àoating ice. 40. (c) The free surface of oil is inclined to the
28. (d) When the man tosses a coin, the coin falls horizontal with larger depth at the rear end as
behind him because the train is moving forward the oil tanker is moving forward with uniform
with acceleration. acceleration.
29. (d) A fan produces a feeling of comfort during 41. (c) The velocity of sound in air increases as the
hot weather because our perspiration evaporates humidity increases.
rapidly. Evaporation process takes surroundings 42. (d) In our houses, the frequency of alternating
temperature. voltage supplied is 50 Hz, i.e. 50 times per second.
30. (b) Rainbow is a spectrum of seven colours— In America, frequency of A.C. line is 60 Hz.
VIBGYOR. It is formed on account of dispersion 43. (c) The intersected area of magenta and yellow-
and total internal reÀection. coloured circles will have red colour. The intersected
E-14 || Physics
area of cyan and magenta coloured circles will have 59. (d) Galvanometers are electrical devices used
blue colour. for the detection or measurement of the electric
Magenta = Red + Blue currents.
Cyan = Blue + Green 60. (d) When alpha, beta and gamma rays carry same
44. (b) Sound travels in rocks in the form of momentum, then all have same wavelength as
longitudinal elastic waves only. h
45. (c) The unit of acceleration is metre per sec2. O=
P
The unit of electric current is ampere. The unit of
work done is joule. The unit of impulse is newton where O = wavelength, P = momentum and
second. h = Plank’s constant (= 6.62 × 10– 34 Js).
46. (b) Joule denoted by coulomb–volt. Watt denoted 61. (c) The fraction of a ball Àoating inside the liquid
by amp2–ohm. Volt denoted by henery–amp/sec. depends only upon density of the liquid and the ball.
Coulomb denoted by farad–volt. 62. (b) According to Archimede’s principle when a
47. (c) Heat is a form of energy. Heat can be reÀected body is immersed fully or partially in a liquid, it
by mirror. Heat can’t pass through vacuum. experiences an upward force that is equal to the
48. (c) Ultrasonic waves can produce perfectly weight of the Àuid displaced by it therefore the mass
homogeneous solution. It is used in homogenising of water displaced is equal to the mass of the ship.
milk cosmetics, etc. 63. (d) Work done is given by, w = F s cos T
49. (c) According to the modern theory of nature of where T is the angle between the directions of force
light, the light has both wave and particle nature. applied and displacement.
50. (b) The electrostatic force between two charges is In cases 1 and 3, T = 0
inversely proportional to the square of the distance ? work done = 0
between the charges. In case 2, w = f s cos 0 = mgh, h being height
1 q1q2 covered.
F
4SH0 r 2 In case 4, force is always perpendicular to motion
51. (c) To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour i.e., T = 90°, hence w = 0
and phosphorus while an LED lamp uses semi- 64. (d) For a given point on the surface of earth,
conductor material. g decreases as w increases. Hence, body
52. (d) The function of the moderator is to slow down weighs less at the equator than at the poles also
the neutrons. equatorial diameter is greater than polar diameter,
53. (c) The term Dolby B or Dolby C printed on tape GM
so according to g = , value of g decreases.
recorders and other sound systems refers to noise R2
reduction circuit. 65. (c) The multiplier for the given units are as
54. (a) A man inside an arti¿cial satellite feels follows:
weightlesness because the force of attraction due to Angstrom 10–10
earth i.e. g (= acceleration due to gravity) is zero. Micron 10–6
55. (a) Due to the surface tension, a liquid drop tends Nanometer 10–9
to assume a spherical shape to minimise the surface Hence, the order in which the lengths of the given
area. units increase is given by
56. (a) Because of the entire chamber of the refrigerator Angstrom, Nanometer, Micron
is cooled quickly due to convection. Therefore, the correct sequence is 1, 3, 2.
57. (a) The velocity of sound in air increases as the 66. (c) From the given (x – t) graph it is clear that
humidity increases. velocity is constant. Therefore, acceleration is zero.
58. (d) Due to high penetrating power, the properties 67. (a) The principle of total internal reÀection is
of interference, diffraction and polarization are not applicable to explain the formation of image in
possible in X-ray. desert and operation of optical ¿bres. The formation
of image in microscope and colour of evening sky 76. (d) Thunderstorms result from the rapid
are based on refraction of light. upward movement of warm, moist air. They
68. (c) When a light wave passes from one medium to can occur inside warm, moist air masses and
other, its frequency remains constant but its speed at fronts. As the warm, moist air moves upward,
and wavelength change. it cools, condenses, and forms cumulonimbus
69. (d) Refractive index of a medium depends on its clouds that can reach heights of over 20 km (12.45
nature. miles). The thunderstorms are associated with the
Refractive index () is also given by cumulonimbus clouds. These clouds normally form
sin i on warm sunny days but they can also be found
P on cold front. But this question is asking about the
sin r
Thunder i.e. the sound produced. The lightning
where i = angle of incidence generates between 100 million and 1 billion volts of
r = angle of refraction electricity and can heat the air to around 50K°F. The
Thus, depends on the angle of incidence. rapid expansion causes the shock waves. Thunder
C0 happens because the lightning would heat the air at
Again, P where C0 is the velocity of light in
c huge temperatures and the air expands so fast that it
vacuum and c is the velocity in a medium. We know make a loud clap of thunder.
that frequency remains constant when light passes 77. (d) (a) Due to the heating effect of current, the
from one medium to other, therefore, ¿lament of the bulb gets heated to a high
O0 temp and it starts glowing.
P
O (b) Tin being less reactive than iron is used
The colour of light depends on wavelength. for containerisation of food items.
Thus, depends on the colour of the incident ray. (c) When cells are connected in series,
the resultant voltage is the sum of the
70. (d) The medical name for long-sightedness
individual voltage of the cells.
is hypermetropia, sometimes called hyperopia.
81. (b) There is difference in acceleration due to
Eyesight problems, such as hypermetropia, are
gravity at equator and poles. The gravity is more on
also known as refractive errors. Long sight leads
the poles due 2 factors:-
to problems with near vision, and the eyes may (1) the effect due to the angular rotation of earth is
commonly become tired. Distance vision (long minimum or zero at poles.
sight) is, in the beginning, often clear. Long sight (2) the earth is Àatish towards the poles so g is more
can be corrected by glasses or contact lenses, or at poles.
sometimes 'cured' with laser eye surgery. 82. (a) As temperature rises, the density decreases,
73. (a) Properties of different types of magnets are; height increases. In A, the top cross-section is
Arti¿cial magnet- short lived, permanent magnet- smaller. Therefore hA > hB.
long lived, Temporary magnet- induced magnet,
85. (c) (a) Light from sun takes nearly eight minutes
earth as a magnet- last for in¿nitely long period.
20 seconds to come to earth.
74. (c) Broken pieces of magnet never lose their
(b) The image formed by a convex lens
magnetic properties.
when the object is placed between the
75. (a) The gravitational force F between two bodies
focus and the optical centre is virtual and
is directly proportional to the product of masses magni¿ed.
of those bodies. Here, since the product m1m2 is (d) Cinematography makes use of
greater for the sun and the moon than that of the persistence of vision. Persistence of
earth and the moon (because mass of the sun is vision is the ability of an eye to continue
greater than that of earth), therefore F exerted by to see the image of an object for a very
the sun on the moon is greater than the F exerted by short duration even after the removal of
the earth on the moon. the object.
E-16 || Physics
86. (d) Because they have equal momenta, hence boundary, no light can pass through and all of the
equal mv, the heavy body will move very slowly and light is reÀected. Thus because of this phenomena
the light body will move very quickly. As Kinetic traf¿c light beads glow when light falls on them.
1 99. (d) The observer on the earth will detect a
energy is mv 2 . Thus the speed of the light body wavelength given by
2
O – O0
will be high giving a higher kinetic energy to it in v r c
comparison to the kinetic energy of heavy body. O
90. (d) A - (r); B - (p); C - (s); D - (q) where O = original wavelength
92. (b) It has been calculated in the theory of the O0 = apparent wavelength
chapter i.e., v = velocity of source
mg § v 2 h ·
Here, source is receding, therefore +ve sign
R1 = 1 , will be taken
2 ¨© rga ¸¹
2 O – O0
mg § v 2 h · ∵ c c
and R2 = 1 , so R1 R2 . 10 O
2 ¨© rga ¸¹
O O0 2 O 2
93. (c) When spoon is dropped gently, its tangential 1 0
O 10 O 10
speed is equal to the speed of spaceship, and so it
revolves like a satellite. O0 2 8 10
1 O O0 1.25 O 0
94. (a) A steam engine converts the heat energy O 10 10 8
produce by coal into kinetic energy and this The wavelength of blue light varies from 450 nm
produces electricity which further light the lamp to 475 nm. Therefore, the observed light will have
and convert electricity into heat and light. wavelength ranging from 562.5 nm to 593.75 nm
96. (c) Velocity of object w.r.t mirror = 10 cm/s which will be yellow orange.
So velocity of image w.r.t you 100. (d) Mach number, a useful quantity in
= 2 × 10 = 20 cm/s. aerodynamics, is the ratio of air speed to the local
98. (a) Both of the statements are correct and speed of sound. The speed of sound varies with
statement 2 is also correct explanation for statement temperature. Since temperature and sound velocity
1. Total internal reÀection is an optical phenomenon normally decrease with increasing altitude, sound
that happens when a ray of light strikes a medium is refracted upward. Mach number is a function
boundary at an angle larger than a particular critical of temperature at altitude. With decrease in sound
angle with respect to the normal to the surface. If velocity Mach number increases.
the refractive index is lower on the other side of the
2 Chemistry

A. Morphine 1. Antiseptic (b) 2 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 3 4
B. Sodium 2. Alloy
(d) 3 2 4 1
C. Boric acid 3. Analgesic 4. Consider the following parts of spectra:
D. German silver 4. Kerosene oil 1. Visible 2. Infrared
Codes: 3. Ultraviolet 4. Microwave
A B C D Which of the following is the correct sequence in
(a) 4 3 1 2 which the wavelengths increase?
(b) 2 4 3 1 (a) 4, 3, 1, 2 (b) 4, 1, 2, 3
(c) 3 1 4 2 (c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
answer given below: A. Moderator 1. Uranium
List-I List-II B. Control rod 2. Graphite
A. Electron 1. Goldstein C. Fuel rods 3. Boron
B. Proton 2. J.J. Thomson D. Coolant 4. Lead
C. Neutron 3. Chadwick 5. Sodium
Codes:
D. Positron 4. Anderson
A B C D
Codes: (a) 2 1 3 5
A B C D (b) 2 3 1 5
(a) 2 1 3 4 (c) 3 2 1 5
(b) 4 3 1 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3 6. The difference between a nuclear reactor and
(d) 4 3 2 1 atomic bomb is that
3. Match List-I with List-II (a) no chain reaction takes place in nuclear
reactor while in the atomic bomb there is a
List-I List-II
chain reaction.
A. Thomson model 1. Dual nature of (b) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is
electron controlled.
B. Rutherford model 2. Nuclear theory (c) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is not
C. Bohr’s model 3. Plum pudding model controlled.
D. de-Broglie theory 4. Concept of quanti- (d) no chain reaction takes place in atomic
zation of energy bomb while it takes place in nuclear reactor.
E-18 || Chemistry
7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 3. the blotting paper would fail to function.
answer from the codes given below 4. the big trees that we see around would not
List-I List-II have grown on the earth.
A. Zero mass 1. Positron Which of the statements given above is/are
B. Fractional charge 2. Neutrino correct?
C. Fractional spin 3. Quark (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
D. Integral spin 4. Photon (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Codes: 12. The blue colour of water in the sea. What is the
A B C D reason behind the phenomenon?
(a) 4 3 1 2 (a) Refraction of the blue light by the impurities
(b) 3 2 4 1 in sea water.
(c) 2 3 4 1 (b) Scattering of blue light by water molecules.
(d) 3 2 1 4 (c) Refraction of blue sky by sea water.
8. H2O is liquid and H2S is a gas because (d) Absorption of other colours except the blue
(a) oxygen forms stronger hydrogen level than colour by water molecules.
sulphur. 13. What is “ Kiss of death” ?
(b) oxygen is less electronegative than sulphur. (a) A Àower whose smell was the basis of a
(c) atomic radius of oxygen is less than that of discovery on smell that led to award of 2004
sulphur. Nobel Prize in Medicine.
(d) atomic radius of oxygen is greater than that (b) A chemical whose discovery ultimately
of sulphur. won the scientists the 2004 Nobel Prize in
9. Consider the following statements and select the Chemistry.
correct code. (c) A good wine Àavour working on which
Assertion (A): A chemical reaction becomes scientist won the 2004 Nobel Prize in
faster at higher temperature. Chemistry.
Reason (R): At higher temperature, molecular (d) A network in brain associated with smell
motion becomes more rapid. whose discovery led the scientists win
Codes: the 2004 Nobel Prize in Physiology and
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Medicine.
explanation of A. 14. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct (a) controlled fusion reaction
explanation of A. (b) uncontrolled fusion reaction
(c) A is true, but R is false. (c) controlled ¿ssion reaction
(d) A is false, but R is true. (d) uncontrolled ¿ssion reaction
10. The order of appearance of the following with 15. Which of the following substances is/are ozone
increasing temperature during the re¿ning of depleting?
crude oil is __________ Select the correct answer from the codes given
(a) Kerosene, gasoline, diesel below:
(b) Diesel, gasoline, kerosene 1. ChloroÀuorocarbons
(c) Gasoline, kerosene, diesel 2. Halons
(d) Gasoline, diesel, kerosene 3. Carbon tetrachloride
If there were no phenomenon of capillarity (a) 1 only
1. It would be dif¿cult to use a kerosene lamp. (b) 1 and 2 only
2. One would not be able to use a straw to (c) 2 and 3 only
consume a soft drink. (d) 1, 2 and 3
16. Helium is preferred to hydrogen in air balloons 22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
because it answer from the codes given below:
(a) is cheaper List-I List-II
(b) is less dense A. Sour milk 1. Malic acid
(c) has greater lifting power B. Vinegar and 2. Carbonic acid
(d) does not form an explosive mixture with air pickle
17. Which one of the following pairs is correctly C. Soda water 3. Acetic acid
matched? D. Apple 4. Lactic acid
(a) Silver iodide — Horn silver Codes:
(b) Silver chloride — Arti¿cial rain A B C D
(c) Zinc phosphide — Rat poison (a) 1 2 3 4
(d) Zinc sulphide — Philosopher’s wool (b) 4 3 1 2
18. While tinning of brass utensils, the ammonium (c) 4 3 2 1
chloride powder used to clean the hot utensil (d) 3 4 2 1
produces fumes of 23. Enriched uranium is
(a) ammonia (a) Uranium rods kept under special shield
(b) carbon monoxide (b) Natural uranium in which the component of
(c) hydrochloric acid radioactive isotope U235 is arti¿cial increased
(d) ammonia and hydrochloric acid (c) Natural uranium mixed with thorium
19. HydroÀuoric acid is not kept in glass bottles (d) Uranium rods coated with chromium
because it reacts with 24. The inexhaustible source of energy of the stars is
(a) visible light due to
(b) sodium oxide of glass (a) conversion of hydrogen to helium
(c) aluminium oxide of glass (b) conversion of helium to hydrogen
(d) silicon dioxide of glass (c) decay of radioactive elements
20. In the process of electroplating a utensil with zinc, (d) excess of oxygen that helps burning and
(a) the utensil is made the cathode release of energy
(b) pure zinc is made the anode 25. When soggy biscuits are kept inside the fridge
(c) the utensil is made the cathode and pure zinc for sometime they become crisp because
is made the anode (a) cooling releases extra moisture
(d) the utensil is made the anode and pure zinc (b) humidity inside the fridge is low and extra
is made the cathode moisture is absorbed
21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) humidity inside the fridge is high and extra
answer from the codes given below: moisture is absorbed
List-I List-II (d) pressure inside the fridge is high and helps
A. Silicon carbide 1. Photosynthesis in releasing extra moisture
B. Carbon ¿bre 2. Refrigerant 26. Which one of the following statements is not true
C. Carbon dioxide 3. Arti¿cial diamond about cosmic rays?
D. Dichloro-diÀuro- 4. Aircraft (a) They are electromagnetic waves
methane (b) They have very short wavelength
Codes: (c) They are made of highly energetic charged
A B C D particles
(a) 4 3 1 2 (d) They originated from the sun
(b) 3 4 1 2 27. In cold weather, aquatic animals survive even
(c) 2 3 1 4 when water to the top layer of the lake freezes
(d) 3 2 1 4 into ice because
E-20 || Chemistry
(a) they can breathe in ice 32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(b) they have enough of accumulated oxygen answer from the codes given below:
inside them List-I List-II
(c) their body structure is such that they can A. German silver 1. Tin
survive without oxygen. B. Solder 2. Nickel
(d) water has highest density of 4°C so C. Bleaching powder 3. Sodium
underneath the top layer of ice there is layer D. Hypo 4. Chlorine
of water Codes:
28. Which one of the following is NOT correct? A B C D
(a) Theory of evolution was propounded by
(a) 1 2 4 3
Charles Darwin.
(b) 2 1 3 4
(b) The breaking apart of the nucleus of an atom
(c) 1 2 3 4
is called fusion.
(c) Dry ice is nothing but solid carbon dioxide. (d) 2 1 4 3
(d) Telephone was invented by Graham Bell. 33. Living in the atmosphere of CO is dangerous
29. Consider the following statements: because it
Assertion (A): LPG is a pollution free vehicular (a) Reduces organic matter of tissues
fuel. (b) Dries up the blood
Reason (R): Plying of CNG fuelled-buses is (c) Combined with O2 present inside to form
recommended for metropolitan cities in India. CO2
Codes: (d) Combines with haemoglobin and makes it
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct incapable of absorbing oxygen
explanation of A. 34. Consider the following statements:
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the Hard water is not suitable for
correct explanation of A. 1. Drinking
(c) A is true, but R is false. 2. Washing clothes with soap
(d) A is false, but R is true. 3. Use in boilers
30. Biogas mainly consists of 4. Irrigating crops
(a) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen Which of these statements are correct?
(b) Hydrogen and methane (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Carbon dioxide and methane (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Hydrogen and oxygen 35. Domestic cooking gas consists of mostly
(a) Methane and ethane
(b) Liqui¿ed butane and isobutane
List-I List-II
(c) Ethylene and carbon monoxide
A. Potassium bromide 1. Fertiliser
(d) Hydrogen and acetylene
B. Potassium nitrate 2. Photography
C. Potassium sulphate 3. Bakery
D. Monopotassium 4. Gunpowder answer from the codes given below:
tartarate List-I List-II
Codes: A. CNG 1. Carbon monoxide,
A B C D hydrogen
(a) 2 4 1 3 B. Coal gas 2. Butane, propane
(b) 2 4 3 1 C. LPG 3. Butane, ethane
(c) 4 2 3 1 D. Water gas 4. Hydrogen, methane,
(d) 4 2 1 3 CO
Codes: Codes:
A B C D A B C
(a) 2 1 3 4 (a) 1 2 3
(b) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 3 1
(c) 2 4 3 1 (c) 1 3 2
(d) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 1 3
37. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in
the water puri¿cation system?
1. It inactivates / kills the harmful micro- answer from the codes given below:
organisms in water. List-I List-II
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from A. Limestone 1. Cement
the water. B. Copper 2. Electrical goods
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid C. Bauxite 3. Manufacture of
particles and improves the clarity of water. aeroplanes
Which of the statements given above is/are D. Manganese 4. Steel
correct? Codes:
A B C D
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 2 3 4
38. Which one of the following sets of elements was
primarily responsible for the origin of life on the (b) 2 3 1 4
Earth? (c) 4 3 2 1
(a) Hydrogen, oxygen, sodium (d) 3 4 1 2
(b) Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen 43. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
(c) Oxygen, calcium, phosphorus matched?
(d) Carbon, hydrogen, potassium (a) Dry ice : Solid carbon dioxide
39. Acid rains is caused due to emission of which of (b) Mustard gas : Poisonous liquid used in
the following into the atmosphere? chemical warfare
(a) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur (c) TeÀon : Polymer containing
(b) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide Àuorine
(c) Ozone and carbon dioxide
(d) Fullerene : Organic compounds
(d) Carbon monoxide and nitrogen
containing Àuorine
40. A sample of chloroform before using as an
anaesthetic, is tested by 44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) Fehling’s solution answer from the codes given below:
(b) Ammonical cuprous chloride List-I List-II
(c) Ammonical silver nitrate solution A. Diamond 1. Calcium
(d) Silver nitrate solution after boiling with B. Marble 2. Silicon
alcoholic KOH C. Sand 3. Aluminium
41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct D. Ruby 4. Carbon
answer from the codes given below: Codes:
List-I List-II A B C D
A. Bleaching 1. Calcium
(a) 1 2 3 4
powder oxychloride
(b) 4 1 2 3
B. Gypsum 2. Calcium sulphate
C. Marble 3. Calcium carbonate (c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 2 1 3
E-22 || Chemistry
45. Consider the following statements and select the (Scientist) (Discovery)
correct code. A. Goldstein 1. Atomic theory
Assertion (A): The main constituent of the B. Chadwick 2. Proton
lique¿ed petroleum gas is methane. C. JJ Thomson 3. Neutron
Reason (R): Methane can be used directly for D. John Dalton 4. Electron
burning in homes and factories where it can be Codes:
supplied through pipelines. A B C D
Codes: (a) 2 3 4 1
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct (b) 2 4 3 1
explanation of A. (c) 1 4 3 2
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the (d) 1 3 4 2
correct explanation of A. 49. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) A is true, but R is false. diamond:
(d) A is false, but R is true. 1. It is an allotrope of silicon.
46. Which one among the following statements 2. It is a bad conductor of heat and electricity.
regarding the properties of mixtures and 3. It is the hardest substance.
compounds is not correct? 4. It burns to produce carbon dioxide.
(a) A mixture shows the properties of its Which of the statements given above are correct?
constituents but the properties of a compound (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, and 4
are entirely different from its constituents (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(b) A mixture may be homogeneous or 50. Following statements are made in connection
with carbon dioxide (CO2)
heterogeneous but a compound is a
1. CO2 is a poisonous gas.
homogeneous substance
2. CO2 is an acidic oxide.
(c) The constituents of a mixture can be
3. CO2 turns limewater milky.
separated by physical methods but those of
a compound cannot be separated by physical Which of the statements given above is/are
methods correct?
(d) Energy is either absorbed or evolved during (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
the preparation of a mixture but not in the
51. Which of the following statements about diamond
preparation of a compound
are correct?
47. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
1. It is used as a gem in jewellery because of its
matched?
ability to reÀect light.
1. Isotopes : Atoms with same atomic number
2. It is good conductor of electricity.
but different atomic mass. 3. It is used for cutting glass, marble stones and
2. Isobars : Atoms with same number of other hard materials.
neutrons but different atomic number. 4. It is used for drilling of rocks.
3. Isotones : Atoms with same mass number Select the correct answer using the codes given
but different atomic number. below :
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
below : (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only 52. Consider the following statements :
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 only 1. Diamond is hard and graphite is soft.
48. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct 2. Diamond is soft and graphite is hard.
answer using the code given below: 3. Diamond is a bad conductor but graphite is a
List-I List-II good conductor.
4. Diamond is a good conductor but graphite is Which of the above are correct?
a bad conductor. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
correct ? 58. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 only answer using the codes given below :
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 List–I List–II
53. Consider the following statements: (Compound) (Use)
Nitrogen is an essential constituent of A. Cellulose nitrate 1. Soft soap
1. soils 2. animals B. Potassium sulphate 2. Gun powder
3. plants C. Potassium salt 3. Fertilizer
Which of the statements given above is/are of fatty acids
correct ? D. Calcium oxide 4. Glass
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only Codes:
54. When iron is left exposed in open air, it gets rusted. (a) 2 3 1 4
Which constituent(s) of air is /are responsible for (b) 3 2 1 4
rusting iron? (c) 4 1 2 3
1. Oxygen gas present in air (d) 3 1 2 4
2. Moisture present in air
59. What are the elements which are liquids at room
3. Carbon dioxide gas present in air
Select the correct answer using the codes given temperature and standard pressure?
below : 1. Helium 2. Mercury
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. Chlorine 4. Bromine
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the codes given
55. Which of the statements given below is/are below:
correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4
Permanent hardness of water is due to the (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
presence of soluble. 60. The correct order of these fuels in terms of their
1. chloride of calcium calori¿c value in increasing order is
2. bicarbonate of calcium 1. Hydrogen gas 2. Kerosine oil
3. sulphate of magnesium 3. Charcoal 4. Wood
4. bicarbonate of magnesium (a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 4, 2, 3, 1
Select the correct answer using the codes given (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 1, 3, 2, 4
below. 61. Consider the following about non-metals
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
1. Non-metals are malleable
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Non-metals are ductile
1. An alloy is a mixture of two or more metals. 3. Non-metals are brittle
2. An alloy is a mixture of a metal or metals The correct answer is
with a non-metal. (a) 1 and 2 are correct
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 1 and 3 are correct
correct ? (c) 2 and 3 are correct
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) Only 3 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 62. Consider the following statements
57. Consider the following: 1. Most of the metal oxides are insoluble in
Crude oil is a direct source of water.
1. Asphalt 2. Paraf¿n wax 2. Sodium oxide and potassium oxide are metal
3. Fatty acids 4. Gas oil oxides and hence insoluble in water.
E-24 || Chemistry
The correct answer is 67. What happened when a hard boiled egg after
(a) Only 1 is true shelling is immersed in saturated brine?
(b) Only 2 is true (a) It shrinks
(c) 1 and 2 both are true (b) It grows in size
(d) Neither of the two is true (c) Its size remains unchanged
63. If by mistake some radioactive substance get into (d) it initially grows in size and then shrinks.
human body, than from the point of view radiation 68. Consider the following statements : The purpose
damage, the most harmful will be one that emits - of adding sodium sulphate and sodium silicate to
(a) J - rays (b) Neutrons washing powder is -
(c) E - rays (d) D - rays 1. To keep washing powder dry
64. Match List - I (oxidation number) with List - II 2. To maintain the alkalinity of the powder
(The element) and select the correct answer using
which of these statements is/are correct ?
the code given below the list :
List - I List - II
(Oxidation number) (The element) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A. 2 1. Oxidation number of 69. In the hooch tragedy (casualty occurring due to
Mn in MnO2 the wine poisoning) sometimes the incidents of
B. 3 2. Oxidation number of S blindness occurs due to the poisonous substance:
in H2 S2 O7 (a) ethyl alcohol (b) methyl alcohol
C. 4 3. Oxidation number of (c) amyl alcohol (d) benzyl alcohol
Ca in CaO 70. It is suggested by the doctors that the person
D. 6 4. Oxidation suffering from prostrates in the kidney or
number of Al in NaAlH4 gallbladder should not consume excessively the
Code : food stuffs like tomatoes, eggs, milk etc which
A B C D are the major causes of the crystal formation as
(a) 3 4 1 2 the prostrates, which is made of :
(b) 4 3 1 2 (a) Calcium phosphate (b) Calcium Oxalate
(c) 3 4 2 1 (c) Calcium chloride (d) Calcium sulphate
(d) 4 3 2 1
71. Match column-I (acid) with column-II (use) and
65. The pH of water at 25°C is 7. When it is heated to
select the correct answer using the code given
100°C, the pH of water
(a) Increases below the columns :
(b) Decreases Column I (Acid) Column II (Use)
(c) Remains same A. Oxalic acid (p) As an eye-wash,
(d) Decreases up to 50°C and then increases antiseptic and
66. Consider the following statements and select the grain preservation
correct code. B. Nitric acid (q) For making
Assertion (A) : In the periodic table of chemical explosives
elements, electron affinity is always found to C. Boric acid (r) In food
increase from top to bottom in a group preservation
Reason (R) : In a group, the atomic radii generally D. Benzoic acid (s) As a constituent
increase from top to bottom. of ink stain
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is remover
correct explanation of A (a) A – (s), B – (q), C – (r), D – (p)
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is (b) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
not the correct explanation of A (c) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p), D – (s)
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r)
72. Match column-I with column-II and select the 79. Which of the following is/are not caused due to
correct answer using the code given below the Nitric oxide pollution -
columns. 1. leaf spotting in plants
Column I Column II 2. bronchitis-related respiratory problems in
A. Fertilizer (p) King of chemicals human
B. Sulphuric acid (q) Basic 3. production of corrosive gases through
C. Lime water (r) Magnesium photochemical reaction
hydroxide 4. silicosis in human
D. Milk of magnesia (s) Potassium (a) 1 and 3 (b) only 1
nitrate (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) only 4
(a) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r) 80. Sodium stearate is a salt and is used
(b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
(a) in gunpowder
(c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r)
(b) in Paint
(d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (r), D – (q)
(c) to make Soap
73. The compound that has the least value for octane
(d) to make fertilizer
number is -
(a) n-heptane (b) 2-methyl heptane 81. Which of the following atmospheric gases
(c) Iso-octane (d) 2, 2-dimethyl hexane constitute greenhouse gases?
74. The credit of construction of ¿rst nuclear reactor 1. Carbon dioxide 2. Nitrogen
goes to - 3. Nitrous oxide 4. Water vapour
(a) Niels Bohr (b) Fermi Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) Einstein (d) Oppenheimer below:
75. Which of the following is/are not correctly (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
matched? (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(I) Absolute alcohol – 100% ethanol 82. Which of the following do not contain nitrogen
(II) Power alcohol – 90 – 95% ethanol element?
(III) Recti¿ed spirit – 5% ethanol 1. Superphosphate of lime
(a) I only (b) II only 2. Urea
(c) III only (d) II and III 3. Indian saltpeter
76. Which of the following can be used for removal 4. Chille saltpeter
of stains of rust on clothes? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
1. H2O2 2. Oxalic acid (c) 1 only (d) 3 only
3. Petrol 4. Alcohol 83. Which of the following copper alloys is used for the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only manufacture of springs and suspension ¿laments
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 in electrical instruments?
77. From which mineral is radium obtained - (a) Bronze
(a) Limestone (b) Haematitie
(b) Aluminium bronze
(c) Pitchblende (d) Rutile
(c) German silver
78. Why ethylene dibromide is added to petrol -
(d) Phosphor bronze
1. It increases the octane number of fuel
84. Which of the following is correctly matched?
2. It helps in elimination of lead oxide
3. It removes the sulphur compound in petrol (a) Aluminium-Haematite
4. It serves as a substitute of tetraethyl lead (b) Lead-Galena
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Iron-Bauxite
(c) 1 only (d) 2 only (d) Magnesium-Malachite
E-26 || Chemistry
85. Which of the following is/are not use(s) of (a) Goldschmidt
glycerol. Glycerol is used. (b) Mond
1. as a sweetening agent in beverages and (c) Charles-Martin Hall
confectionery (d) Parkes
2. as an antifreeze in automobile radiators 91. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched
3. as a lubricant for heavy machinery (a) Fossil fuel burning - release of CO2
4. for preparation of better quality of soaps and (b) Nuclear power - radioactive wastes
cosmetics (c) Solar energy - Greenhouse effect
(a) 1 and 2 (b) only 3 (d) Biomass burning - release of CO2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) only 2 92. Which one of the following pairs is correctly
86. What does the airbag, used for safety of car driver, matched ?
contain? (a) Mass Spectrograph : Chadwick
(a) Sodium bicarbonate (b) Atomic number : Moseley
(b) Sodium azide (c) Neutron : Millikan
(c) Sodium nitrite (d) Measurement of charge
(d) Sodium peroxide of an electron : Aston
87. Which one among the following elements/ions is 93. While performing cathode ray experiments, it was
essential in small quantities for development of observed that there was no passage of electric
healthy teeth but causes mottling of the teeth if current under normal conditions. Which of the
consumed in higher quantities? following can account for this observation ?
(a) Fluoride (b) Iron (a) Dust particles are present in air
(c) Chloride (d) Potassium (b) Carbon dioxide is present in air
88. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) Air is a poor conductor of electricity under
answer using the code given below the lists- normal conditions
List-I List-II (d) None of the above
(A) Formic acid 1. Tamarind 94. Consider the following statements :
2
(B) Tartaric acid 2. Orange In 90
38 Sr :
(C) Oxalic acid 3. Spinach (i) atomic number is 36
(D) Citric acid 4. Ant's sting (ii) number of electrons is 38
Codes: (iii) number of neutrons is 52
(A) (B) (C) (D) (iv) number of protons is 38
(a) 2 3 1 4 Which of these are correct ?
(b) 2 1 3 4 (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) 4 3 1 2 (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
(d) 4 1 3 2 95. Solid calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water
89. Which of the following is likely to reach our body to form calcium hydroxide accompanied by
via the food chain in the event of an atomic bomb liberation of heat. This process is called slaking
explosion? of lime. Calcium hydroxide dissolves in water to
(a) U-235 (b) Sr-90 form its solution called lime water. Which among
(c) K-40 (d) H-3 the following is (are) true about slaking of lime
90. Until the nineteenth Century, aluminium was and the solution formed?
almost as expensive as gold. The invention of (i) It is an endothermic reaction
(ii) It is an exothermic reaction
an inexpensive way to extract this metal by a
(iii) The pH of the resulting solution will be more
22-year-old American made this metal inexpensive
than seven
subsequently. The inventor was
(iv) The pH of the resulting solution will be less 98. In a sample of ethyl ethanoate (CH3COOC2H5)
than seven the two oxygen atoms have the same number of
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) electrons but different number of neutrons. Which
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) of the following is the correct reason for it?
96. Consider the following statements : (a) One of the oxygen atoms has gained electrons
(i) Washing soda on strong heating gives sodium (b) One of the oxygen atoms has gained two
oxide and carbon dioxide. neutrons
(ii) Plaster of Paris is obtained by heating gypsum (c) The two oxygen atoms are isotopes
at 373 K. (d) The two oxygen atoms are isobars.
(iii) Bleaching powder is used for disinfecting 99. Which of the following is/are the hazardous
drinking water. pollutant(s) present in automobile exhaust gases?
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct ? (i) N2 (ii) CO
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (iii) CH4 (iv) Oxides of nitrogen
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) All are correct (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
97. Consider the following statements (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
(a) A molecule of sulphur contains 4 sulphur 100. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
atoms. correct code given below the columns.
Column I Column II
(b) Metals placed below hydrogen in activity
(A) Electron (p) 1.00867 u
series lose electrons to H+ ions of acids.
(B) Proton (q) 9.1 × 10–31 kg
(c) Silver acquires a blackish tinge when exposed
(C) Neutron (r) 1.00728 u
to air for a long time.
(a) A – (q); B – (r); C – (p)
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct ?
(b) A – (p); B – (q); C – (r)
(a) (a) and (b) (b) (a) and (c)
(c) A – (r); B – (q); C – (p)
(c) (b) and (c) (d) Only (c)
(d) A – (q); B – (p); C – (r)
E-28 || Chemistry
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 14. (b) 27. (d) 40. (c) 53. (c) 66. (d) 79. (d) 92. (b)
2. (a) 15. (d) 28. (b) 41. (a) 54. (c) 67. (c) 80. (c) 93. (c)
3. (d) 16. (d) 29. (d) 42. (a) 55. (b) 68. (a) 81. (d) 94. (c)
4. (d) 17. (c) 30. (c) 43. (d) 56. (a) 69. (b) 82. (c) 95. (b)
5. (b) 18. (d) 31. (a) 44. (b) 57. (d) 70. (b) 83. (d) 96. (b)
6. (b) 19. (d) 32. (d) 45. (d) 58. (a) 71. (d) 84. (b) 97. (d)
7. (a) 20. (c) 33. (d) 46. (d) 59. (c) 72. (a) 85. (d) 98. (c)
8. (a) 21. (b) 34. (b) 47. (b) 60. (a) 73. (a) 86. (b) 99. (c)
9. (a) 22. (c) 35. (b) 48. (a) 61. (d) 74. (b) 87. (a) 100. (a)
10 (c) 23. (b) 36. (b) 49. (b) 62. (a) 75. (d) 88. (d)
11. (b) 24. (a) 37. (a) 50. (b) 63. (a) 76. (b) 89. (b)
12. (b) 25. (b) 38. (b) 51. (a) 64. (a) 77. (c) 90. (c)
13. (b) 26. (b) 39. (a) 52. (a) 65. (b) 78. (d) 91. (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Morphine is an analgesic drug that is used to ¿eld towards cathode which proves that they are
relieve severe pain. It was ¿rst isolated in 1804 by composed of positively charged particles. These
Friedrich Serturner, which is generally believed to lightest positively charged particles were named
be the ¿rst ever isolation of a natural plant alkaloid and characterised as protons by Ernest Rutherford
in history. in 1919 who purposed Rutherford model for atom
Boric acid, also called orthoboric acid, is a weak acid to explain the atomic structure.
of boron often used as an antiseptic or insecticide. Anti-electron or in other words the positron was
Nickel silver, also known as German silver, is a discovered in 1932 by Anderson, a physicists and he
copper alloy with nickel and often zinc. The usual found that the bombardment of boron with an alpha
formulation is 60% copper, 20% nickel and 20% particle resulted in the emission of this particle.
zinc. In 1932, James Chadwick, an English physicist who
Sodium is an extremely reactive metal and a had worked with Rutherford, detected neutrons.
powerful reducing agent. When exposed to air, it 3. (d) The “plum pudding model” was put forward
very quickly oxidizes. It also reacts violently to by J.J. Thomson in 1904. In this model, the atom is
water. We store sodium under kerosene because made up of negative electrons that Àoat in a “soup”
kerosene is already highly reduced and won't react of positive charge, much like plums in a pudding
with sodium metal. or raisins in a fruit cake. In 1906, Thomson was
2. (a) The electron was discovered in 1896, by the awarded the Nobel Prize for his work in this ¿eld.
British physicist J. J. Thomson, using cathode rays Louise de Broglie suggested that electron exhibits
while doing discharge tube experiments. a dual nature. Broglie also got Physics Noble Prize
In 1886, Eugen Goldstein discovered the existence for his theory.
of a new type of rays in discharge tube and named In 1913, Bohr proposed his quantized shell model
as anode rays or canal rays. Canal or anode rays of the atom to explain how electrons can have stable
travel in straight line and are deÀected by electric orbits around the nucleus.
Ernest Rutherford published his atomic theory interacting elementary subatomic particle with half-
describing the atom as having a central positive integer spin. All evidence suggest that neutrinos
nucleus surrounded by negative orbiting electrons. have mass but that their mass is tiny even by the
This model suggested that most of the mass of the standards of subatomic particles. Their mass has
atom was contained in the small nucleus, and that never been measured accurately.
the rest of the atom was mostly empty space. Photon has zero mass and rest energy.
4. (d) Ultra-violet rays < visible light < infrared 8. (a) H2O has intermolecular hydrogen bond
radiation < microwaves between its molecules (H—O—H------H—O—H)
(0.1 micrometres) (0.7 micrometres ) (0.01 mm) while H2S has weak Van der Waals forces between
(less than 10 cm) its molecules. Hence the molecules of H2O are
5. (b) A nuclear reactor coolant — usually water strongly packed than H2S, thus water is at liquid
but sometimes a gas or a liquid metal (like liquid state at room temperature.
sodium) or molten salt — is circulated past the 9. (a) The rates of most reactions increase with a rise
reactor core to absorb the heat that it generates. The in temperature. Raising the temperature increases
heat is carried away from the reactor and is then the fraction of molecules having very high kinetic
used to generate steam. energies. These are the ones most likely to react
Control rods that are made of a neutron poison are when they collide. The higher the temperature, the
used to absorb neutrons. Absorbing more neutrons larger the fraction of molecules that can provide the
in a control rod means that there are fewer neutrons activation energy needed for reaction.
available to cause ¿ssion, so pushing the control rod 10. (c) Petroleum products are usually grouped into
deeper into the reactor will reduce its power output, three categories: light distillates (LPG, gasoline,
and extracting the control rod will increase it. naphtha), middle distillates (kerosene, diesel), heavy
A neutron moderator is a medium that reduces the distillates and residuum (heavy fuel oil, lubricating
speed of fast neutrons, thereby turning them into oils, wax, asphalt). Hence, the correct option would
thermal neutrons capable of sustaining a nuclear be: Gasoline, kerosene, diesel.
chain reaction involving uranium-235. Commonly 11. (b) Except option (2), all are applications of
used moderators include regular (light) water capillary action. One would not be able to consume
(roughly 75% of the world's reactors), solid graphite soft drink, if there is no atmospheric pressure, i.e.,
(20% of reactors) and heavy water (5% of reactors). in vacuum.
Nuclear fuel is a material that can be 'burned' by 12. (b) Water molecules scatter blue wavelengths by
nuclear ¿ssion or fusion to derive nuclear energy. absorbing the light waves, and then rapidly remitting
Nuclear fuel can refer to the fuel itself, or to physical the light waves in different directions. That is why
objects (for example, bundles composed of fuel there are mostly blue wavelengths that are reÀected
rods) composed of the fuel material, mixed with back to our eyes.
structural, neutron moderating, or neutron reÀecting 13. (b) Aaron Ciechanover, Avram Hershko and
materials. The most common ¿ssile nuclear fuels Irwin Rose have been awarded the Nobel Prize in
are uranium-235 (235U) and plutonium-239 (239Pu). Chemistry 2004 for “...helping to understand how
6. (b) There are two main fundamental differences the human body gives the 'kiss of death' to rogue
between the design of an atomic bomb, and the proteins to defend itself from diseases like cancer”
design of a nuclear reactor. One difference is the (Reuters, 6 October 2004). These scientists—the
way the ¿ssion reactions are controlled and the former two from Israel, the latter from the US —
second difference stems from the enrichment of the discovered ubiquitin-mediated protein degradation.
fuel. Knowledge of ubiquitin-mediated protein
7. (a) Quarks have fractional electric charge values– degradation offers an opportunity to develop drugs
either 1»3 or 2»3 times the elementary charge. against cervical cancer, cystic ¿brosis and other
The positron has an electric charge of +1e, a spin of diseases.
1/2, and has the same mass as an electron. 14. (b) Thermonuclear fusion, or hydrogen bombs
A neutrino is an electrically neutral, weakly explode with enormous power using uncontrolled
E-30 || Chemistry
self-sustaining chain fusion reactions. Deuterium since its thermal conductivity is close to that of
and tritium, under extremely high temperatures, diamond, more than any other diamond substitute.
form helium providing the energy. The properties of carbon ¿bres, such as high
D + T o 4He + n stiffness, high tensile strength, low weight, high
In principle, a mixture of D, T and 6Li heated to very chemical resistance, high temperature tolerance
high temperature and con¿ned to a high density will and low thermal expansion, make them very
start a chain fusion reaction, liberating an enormous popular in aerospace, civil engineering, military,
amount of energy. and motor sports.
15. (d) All the three substances are responsible for DichlorodiÀuoromethane (R-12) is a colourless gas,
ozone layer depletion in different ways. Which are: and usually sold under the brand nameFreon-12, is
CFC—mostly used in refrigeration, air conditioning a chloroÀuorocarbon halo-methane (CFC), used as
and heat pump systems. a refrigerant and aerosol spray propellant.
Halons—used historically as ¿re suppression agents In photosynthesis, solar energy is converted to
and ¿re ¿ghting, but now only allowed in very chemical energy. The chemical energy is stored in
limited situations. the form of glucose (sugar). Carbon dioxide, water,
Carbon tetrachloride (tetrachloromethane)—limited and sunlight are used to produce glucose, oxygen,
solvent used in laboratories and chemical and and water.
pharmaceutical industries. 22. (c) Sour milk – Lactic acid
16. (d) Hydrogen combines with oxygen with Vinegar and pickel – Acetic acid
explosive force in the presence of a spark.Helium is Soda water – Carbonic acid
an inert gas that will not burn or explode, so is much Apple – Malic acid
safer to use in balloons instead of hydrogen. 23. (b) Enriched uranium is a type of uranium in
17. (c ) Cerargyrite, also called Horn Silver, gray, very which the percent composition of uranium-235
heavy halide mineral composed of silver chloride has been increased through the process of isotope
(AgCl); it is an ore of silver. separation.
Tiny particles of silver iodide are sprayed on a cloud Enriched uranium is a critical component for both
from an aeroplane. The particles attract water drops civil nuclear power generation and military nuclear
from the cloud. When they form a drop that is large weapons. The International Atomic Energy Agency
enough, it starts raining. attempts to monitor and control enriched uranium
Zinc phosphide is an inorganic compound that is supplies and processes in its efforts to ensure nuclear
used in pesticide products as a rodenticide.. power generation safety and curb nuclear weapons
Zinc oxide is also known as philosopher's wool. proliferation.
18. (d) It produces fumes of ammonia and hydrochloric 24. (a) The energy released from the collapse of the
acid. gas into a star causes the centre of the star to become
19. (d) HydroÀuoric acid is one of the most dangerous extremely hot. When the core is hot enough, nuclear
acids known. It needs to be treated differently then fusion commences. Fusion is the process where two
even strong acids like sulphuric and hydrochloric. hydrogen atoms combine to form a helium atom,
HF reacts with many materials, therefore, avoid releasing energy.
contact with glass, concrete, metals, water, other The fusion reaction is a very ef¿cient process,
acids, oxidizers, reducers, alkalis, combustibles, releasing a huge amount of energy. This is because
organics and ceramics. a single helium atom contains less mass than two
20. (c) The zinc serves as a sacri¿cial anode, so that it hydrogen atoms. The excess mass is released as
cathodically protects exposed steel. energy.
21. (b) As a gemstone used in jewellery, silicon 25. (b) Because the humidity inside the fridge is low
carbide is called "synthetic moissanite" or just and extra moisture is absorbed.
"moissanite". Moissanite is similar to diamond 26. (b) Cosmic waves have very high wavelength.
in several important respects it is transparent and cosmic rays are high-energy charged particles that
hard . Moissanite has become popular as a diamond travel through space at nearly the speed of light.
substitute, and may be misidenti¿ed as diamond, Their extremely high energies are comparable
to those of gamma rays at the upper end of the Ca(ClO)2. It is widely used for water treatment and
electromagnetic spectrum. as a bleaching agent. This chemical is considered
27. (d) In cold countries, when the temperature of to be relatively stable and has greater available
fresh water reaches 4°C, the layers of water near chlorine than sodium hypochlorite (liquid bleach).
the top in contact with cold air continue to lose heat Hypo solution is the abbreviation for sodium
energy and their temperature falls below 4°C. On thiosulphate or sodium hyposulphite, a chemical
cooling below 4°C, these layers do not sink but may used to ¿x the image on photographic ¿lm after it
rise up as fresh water has a maximum density at 4°C. has been developed.
Due to this, the layer of water at 4°C remains at the 33. (d) When CO is not ventilated it binds to
bottom and above this layers of water 3°C, 2°C, 1°C haemoglobin, which is the principal oxygen-
and 0°C are formed. Because ice is a poor conductor carrying compound in blood; this produces a
of heat, it does not absorb heat energy from the compound known as carboxyhaemoglobin. The
water beneath the layer of ice which prevents the traditional belief is that carbon monoxide toxicity
water freezing. Thus, aquatic creatures survive in arises from the formation of carboxyhaemoglobin,
such places. which decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of
28. (b) Nuclear fusion is a nuclear reaction in which the blood and inhibits the transport, delivery, and
two or more atomic nuclei collide at a very high utilization of oxygen by the body.
speed and join to form a new type of atomic 34. (b) Hard water is not suitable for washing clothes
nucleus. with soap and use in boilers.
29. (d) Two recent studies have examined LPG-fuel- 35. (b) Cooking gas consists of mostly liqui¿ed
oil fuel mixes and found that smoke emissions and butane and isobutane.
fuel consumption are reduced but hydrocarbon 36. (b) CNG – Butane, ethane
emissions are increased. Coal gas – Hydrogen, methane, CO
30. (c) Bio gas is primarily methane (CH4) and carbon LPG – Butane, propane
dioxide (CO2) and may have small amounts of Water gas – CO, hydrogen
hydrogen sulphide (H2S), moisture and siloxanes. 37. (a) It inactivates/kills the harmful micro-
31. (a) Potassium bromide is a salt used to make organisms in water.
photographic papers and plates and for process 38. (b) Carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen were primarily
engraving. responsible for the origin of life on the earth.
Gunpowder, also known since the late 19th century 39 (a) Acid rain is caused by emissions of sulphur
as black powder, is a mixture of sulphur, charcoal, dioxide and nitrogen oxide, which react with the
and potassium nitrate (saltpeter)—with the sulphur water molecules in the atmosphere to produce acids.
and charcoal acting as fuels, while the saltpeter 40. (c) It is tested by ammonical silver nitrate solution.
works as an oxidizer. 41. (a) Bleaching powder or calcium hypochlorite is a
The principal use of potassium sulphate is as a chemical compound with formula Ca(ClO)2.
fertilizer. K2SO4 does not contain chloride, which The chemical formula for marble is CaCO3. It
can be harmful to some crops. Potassium sulphate is is calcium carbonate. Marble is used in various
preferred for these crops, which include tobacco and applications, including home design.
some fruits and vegetables. Gypsum is a very soft sulphate mineral composed
A white, acid, crystalline solid or powder, of calcium sulphate dihydrate, with the chemical
KHC4H4O6, used in baking powder, in the tinning formula CaSO4 · 2H2O. It can be used as a fertilizer,
of metals, and as a component of laxatives. Also is the main constituent in many forms of plaster and
called cream of tartar. is widely mined.
32. (d) Nickel silver, also known as German silver, is 42. (a) Manganese is essential to iron and steel
a copper alloy with nickel and often zinc. production. At present, steel making accounts
Solders are typically made from tin or lead 85 to 90% of the total demand, most of the total
or a combination of both in the ratio of 63:37 demand. Manganese is a key component of low-cost
respectively. stainless steel formulations and certain widely used
Calcium hypochlorite, also known as bleaching aluminium alloys.
powder, is a chemical compound with formula
E-32 || Chemistry
Limestone can be used in constructing buildings. that every carbon atom has 6 protons, so that the
It can be used for making cement and mortar. neutron numbers of these isotopes are 6, 7 and 8
Limestone is used to make glass and even used to respectively.
make roads. 48. (a) Goldstein discovered proton, Chadwick-
Bauxite is the mineral ore of aluminium which is Neutron, J. J. Thomson- Electron and John Dalton-
used in the manufacture of cans, airplanes, sporting Atomic Theory.
and electronic equipment and home appliances. 49. (b) Diamond is an allotrope of carbon not silicon.
The Wright Brother's ¿rst airplane to Ày in 1903 50. (b) (i) CO2 is an acidic oxide. It dissolve in water
only was able to get off the ground because they formic unstable carbonic acid.
modi¿ed its engine with aluminium in order to H 2 O CO 2 H 2 CO3
reduce its weight. Without the ability of the strong
(ii) Limewater Ca(OH)2 is turned milky on
aluminium, alloys to withstand the huge pressures
passing CO2
and stresses involved, high altitude Àying would not
be conceivable. In fact, aluminium comprises about Ca(OH) 2 CO 2
o CaCO3 H 2 O
insohible
80% of an aircraft’s unladen weight.
The element copper is used extensively as an 51. (a) Diamond, an allotrope of carbon, has very high
electrical conductor, for the making of electrical refractive because of which it is used as a gem in
wire. jewellery. It is used for cutting glass, marble stones
43. (d) Fullerene is a pure carbon molecule composed and other hard materials and for drilling of rocks.
of at least 60 atoms of carbon. It is a bad conductor of electricity. It is the hardest
44. (b) Diamond is a metastable allotrope of carbon, material known.
where the carbon atoms are arranged in a variation 52. (a) Diamond is hard and bad conductor but
of the face-centred cubic crystal structure called a Graphite is soft and good conductor.
diamond lattice. 53. (c) Nitrogen is a essential constituent of all
The most common constituent of sand is silica vegetables and animal proteins. Soil contains
(silicon dioxide, or SiO2), usually in the form of nitrogen as ammonium salts.
quartz, which, because of its chemical inertness and 54. (c) Both oxygen and moisture present in air cause
considerable hardness, is the most common mineral rusting of iron.
resistant to weathering. 55. (b) Chlorides and sulphates of calcium and
Marble is composed of recrystallized carbonate magnesium are responsible for permanent hardness
minerals, most commonly calcite or dolomite. of water.
Calcite is a carbonate mineral and the most stable Note: Bicarbonates are responsible for temporary
polymorph of calcium carbonate (CaCO3). hardness of water.
A ruby is a pink to blood-red-coloured gemstone, a 56. (a) A homogeneous mixture of two or more metals
variety of the mineral corundum (aluminium oxide). is known as alloys.
45. (d) The main components of LPG are butane and 58. (a) These compounds are used in the manufacture
propane. of the following products. Cellulose nitrate- Gun
46. (d) The compound is always formed by absorption powder, Potassium Sulphate- Fertiliser, Potassium
or evolution of energy but no energy is released or salts of fatty acids- Soft soap, Calcium oxide- Glass.
absorbed during the formation of mixture. 63. (a) J - rays has highest frequency range and hence
47. (b) Isotopes are variants of a particular chemical highest penetrating power. These are able to travel
element: while all isotopes of a given element share many feet in air and many inches in human tissue.
the same number of protons and electrons, each These readily penetrate most materials and are
isotope differs from the others in its number of sometimes called "penetrating" radiation.
neutrons. For example, carbon-12, carbon-13 and 64. (a)
carbon-14 are three isotopes of the element carbon (i) MnO2
with mass numbers 12, 13 and 14 respectively. Oxidation of Mn in MnO2 :
The atomic number of carbon is 6, which means x + 2 (– 2) = 0
x=4
(ii) H2S2O7 74. (b) The credit of construction of first nuclear
2(+1) + 2(x) + 7(–2) = 0 reactor goes to Fermi. On December 2, 1942 Fermi
2 + 2x – 14 = 0 reported having produced the ¿rst self sustaining
x=6 chain reaction.
(iii) CaO 75. (d) Recti¿ed spirit is a mixture with composition of
x + 1 (– 2) = 0 95% ethanol and 5% water. Absolute alcohol is 100%
x=2 concentrated ethanol. Power alcohol is a mixture of
(iv) NaAlH4 75-80% petrol, 20-25% ethanol and minute amount
1(+ 1) + x + 4 (– 1) = 0 of aromatic compounds.
(H is hydride in this compound) 76. (b) Oxalic acid is used as rust removal agent because
1+x–4=0 it forms a stable water soluble salt with ferric iron
x=3 i.e., ferrioxalate ion.
65. (b) Dissociation of water is temperature dependent 77. (c) Radium was discovered in 1898 by Madame
o H+ + OH– Curie from pitchblende a material that contains
H2O m uranium.
Dissociation constant = Kw = [OH–] [H+]
78. (d) Lead oxide deposit is harmful to engine life.
Water at 100°C will have more of the molecules
Thus a small amount of ethylene dibromide is added
dissociated to ions then at 25°C i.e., Kw increase with
to petrol for simultaneously removal of lead oxide.
increase in temperature.
79. (d) Silicosis is a chronic lung disease caused by
? pH of water decreases on increasing temperature.
breathing in tiny bits of silica dust.
At 100°C pH of water becomes 6.14.
80. (c) Sodium stearate is a typical example of detergent
66. (d) Electron af¿nity generally decreases from top or soap. It contains a long hydrocarbon tail and a
to bottom in a group. carboxylic acid head group.
Atomic radii increases from top to bottom as energy 81. (d) The primary greenhouse gases in Earth's
levels increases because as we move down a group atmosphere are water vapour, carbon dioxide,
number of electrons increases. methane, nitrous oxide and ozone.
67. (c) When hard boiled egg after shelling is immersed 82. (c) Superphosphate of lime – Ca(H2PO4)2
in saturated brine, its size remains same. Due to Urea – CO(NH2)2
coagulation of inner liquid there is no Àow of solvent Indian saltpeter – KNO3
Chille saltpeter – NaNO3
molecules across the membrane.
83. (d) Phosphor bronze is used for manufacture
68. (a) Sodium sulphate and sodium silicate are added
of springs and suspension ¿laments in electrical
to keep the washing powder dry.
instruments.
Sodium triphosphate or sodium carbonate is added 84. (b) Haematite – Iron (Fe2O3)
to washing powder to maintain the alkalinity. Galena – Lead (PbS)
69. (b) In most of the hooch tragedies methyl alcohol Bauxite – Aluminum (Al(OH)3)
was used as the chief adulterant in liquor. Toxicity Malachite – Copper (Cu2CO3(OH)2)
of methyl alcohol manifests as permanent blindness 85. (d) Glycerol is used as softening agent in baked
or ultimately death due to respiratory failure. goods, stabilizers in ice cream. As a lubricant for
The main reasons for its use as adulterant are being heavy machinery and for preparation of soaps. At
similarity in appearance and taste with ethyl alcohol one time its largest single use was as automotive
and easy availability. antifreeze. Methanol and ethylene glycol have
70. (b) Prostrate in kidney or gallbladder is composed replaced, it for this
of calcium oxalate. 86. (b) Sodium azide is used in airbag, used for safety
73. (a) n-heptane has octane number of 0.0 of car driver. Under room temperature, sodium azide
2-methyl heptane o 21.7 is a stable compound. However when heated by
Iso-octane o100.00 an impulse it disintegrates to produce sodium and
2, 2-dimethyl hexane o72.5 nitrogen. It only takes about 50-100 grams sodium
E-34 || Chemistry
azide to produce enough nitrogen gas to ¿ll a normal Since it has lost 2e– so no. of electrons = 38 – 2 = 36
air bag for driver. Atomic mass = no. of protons + no. of neutrons
87. (a) Consumption of high concentration of Àuoride 90 = 38 + no. of neutrons
causes mottling of teeth or Àuorosis. 90 – 38 = no. of neutrons
88. (d) Formic acid – Ant's sting 52 = no. of neutrons
Tartaric acid – Tamarind Hence, no. of neutrons = 52, no. of protons = 38.
Oxalic acid – Spinach 95. (b) CaO + H2O o Ca(OH)2 + heat
Citric acid – Orange Ca(OH)2 formed will be basic thus pH > 7.
90. (c) Charles Martin Hall was an American inventor, 96. (b) Washing soda is sodium salt of carbonic acid. It
businessman and chemist. He is best known for his
occurs as a crystalline heptahydrate, which on heating
invention in 1886 of an inexpensive method for
looses its water to form a white powder monohydrate.
producing aluminium which became the ¿rst metal to
This process is called efÀorescence.
attain wide spread use since the prehistoric discovery
of iron. heat
Na 2 CO3 7H 2 O
o Na 2 CO3 H 2 O 6H 2 O
91. (c) Solar energy is not responsible for green house
effect instead it is a source of energy for the plants 97. (d) Silver forms a black thin layer of silver sulphide
and animals. on reaction with hydrogen sulphide which is present
92. (b) Scientist Discovery in trace amount in the atmosphere.
Moseley – Atomic number 98. (c) Isotopes have same atomic number (number
Chadwick – Neutron of protons) but different mass number (number of
Millikan – Measurement of charge of an neutron + number of protons).
electron. 99. (c) CO and oxides of nitrogen are poisonous gases
Aston – Mass spectrograph present in automobile exhaust gases.
100. (a) Electron – 9.1 × 10–31 kg
94. (c) In 90 2
38 Sr , Proton – 1.00728 u
Atomic number = no. of protons = 38 Neutron – 1.00867 u
3 Biology
1. Consider the following statements about Vechur C. Silver ¿sh 3. Mollusca

cattle breed D. Bombay duck 4. Coelenterata
1. Vechur is the world’s largest cow. Codes:
2. It is indigenous breed found in Kerala. A B C D
3. Its milk protein has medicinal value. (a) 3 4 2 1
4. Commonly used in farming as draught (b) 3 2 4 1
animal. (c) 2 3 1 4
Which of the statements given above are correct? (d) 2 1 3 4
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 5. Which of the following professionals are more
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
likely to run the risk of a permanent change in
their cell’s DNA?
1. Warm-blooded animals can remain active
1. Researchers from carbon-14 isotope
in cold environment in which cold-blooded
2. X-ray technician
animals can hardly move.
3. Coal miner
2. Cold-blooded animals require much less
4. Dyer and painter
energy to survive than warm-blooded
animals.
below:
(a) 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 6. Consider the following statements about gene
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Word ‘Gene’ was given by Johanssen.
3. Consider the following statements: 2. Genes are situated on chromosomes.
1. Human beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes. 3. Genes located at different locus and having
2. Sex chromosome in human male is named different expression are multiple alleles.
XX. Which of the statements given above are true?
3. Chromosomes are best seen in metaphase. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above are false (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
about chromosomes? 7. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
1. Frogs can breathe by lungs as well as skin.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these
2. Gills are not present in any stage of lifespan
4. Match List-I (animals) with List-II (class/
of frogs.
phylum) and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
correct?
List-I List-II
A. Octopus 1. Pisces
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
B. Jelly¿sh 2. Arthropoda
E-36 || Biology
8. Consider the following statements: Which of these statements are correct?
Assertion (A): In humans, female sex is (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
determined by XX-chromosomes. (b) 1, 2 and 3
Reason (R): Male sex is determined by (c) 2, 3 and 4
YY-chromosomes. (d) 1 and 4
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct answer from the codes given below:
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct A. Arber and 1. Developed
explanation of A. Smith transgenic plants
(c) A is true, but R is false. with Agrobacterium
(d) A is false, but R is true. T-DNA
9. With reference to the work of human kidney, B. Feldman 2. Discovered
consider the following statements: endonucleases
1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, C. Mullis 3. Discovered reverse
the cleaner blood is sent back through renal transcriptase
artery. D. Temin and 4. Discovered
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the ¿ltered liquid Baltimore polymerase
passes through tiny tubes where much of the chain reaction
glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the Codes:
blood in the renal vein. A B C D
Which of the statements is/are correct? (a) 2 1 4 3
(a) 1 only (b) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 only (c) 2 1 3 4
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1 2 3 4
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 13. Consider the following statements:
10. Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Human diet should compulsorily
Assertion (A): Drinking of whisky increases the contain glycine, serine and tyrosin.
frequency of urination. Reason (R): Essential amino acids can’t be
Reason (R): Alcohol intake speeds up the synthesized in the human body.
secretion of vasopressin in the body. Codes:
Codes: (a) A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
explanation of A. (b) A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
explanation of A. (c) A is true, but R is false.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
(d) A is false, but R is true. 14. Oxygen transportation in a human body takes
11. With reference to the human body, consider the place through
following statements: 1. Blood
1. The production of somatropin goes up when 2. Lungs
a person exercises. 3. Tissue
2. Men’s testes produce progesterone. The correct sequence of transportation is
3. Women’s adrenal glands secret testosterone. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3, 1 and 2
4. Stress causes the adrenal to release very less (c) 2, 1 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 2
amount of cortisol than usual.
15. Consider the following statements: 18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Assertion (A): Scientists can cut apart and paste answer from the codes given below:
together DNA molecules at will, regardless of the List-I List-II
source of the molecules. (Bone) (Name)
Reason (R): DNA fragments can be manipulated A. Breast bone 1. Clavicle
from restriction endonucleases and DNA ligases. B. Collar bone 2. Patella
Codes: C. Knee cap 3. Scapula
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct D. Shoulder blade 4. Sternum
16. Consider the following statements: (d) 4 1 2 3
Assertion (A): ‘DNA ¿ngerprinting’ has become 19. Match the hormones in List-I with items in
a powerful tool to establish paternity and identity List-II and select the correct answer from the
of criminals in rape and assault cases. codes given below:
Reason (R): Trace evidences, such as hairs, List-I List-II
saliva and dried semen, are adequate for DNA A. Adrenaline 1. Anger, fear, danger
analysis. B. Oestrogen 2. Attracting partners of
Codes: smell through sense
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct C. Insulin 3. Females
explanation of A. D. Pheromones 4. Glucose
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Codes:
explanation of A. A B C D
(c) A is true, but R is false. (a) 3 1 4 2
(d) A is false, but R is true. (b) 1 3 2 4
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) 1 3 4 2
answer from the codes given below: (d) 3 1 2 4
A. Discovery of 1. Khorana answer from the codes given below:
transduction and List-I List-II
conjugation in bacteria A. Ptyalin 1. Converts angiotensinogen
B. Establishing the 2. Kornberg in blood into angiotensin
sex-linked inheritance B. Pepsin 2. Digests starch
C. Isolation of DNA 3. Lederberg C. Renin 3. Digests proteins
polymerase from E. coli D. Oxytocin 4. Hydrolyses fats
D. Establishing the 4. Morgan 5. Induces contraction of
complete genetic code 5. Ochoa smooth muscles
Codes: Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (a) 2 3 1 5
(b) 3 4 1 5 (b) 3 4 2 5
(c) 4 3 1 5 (c) 2 3 5 1
(d) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 1 2 4
E-38 || Biology
answer by from the codes given below the lists: 1. Dengue is a protozoan disease transmitted
List-I List-II by mosquitos.
A. EEG 1. Muscle 2. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of
B. ECG 2. Eye dengue.
C. EOG 3. Brain 3. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums
D. EMG 4. Heart
are some of the symptoms of the dengue.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 correct?
(b) 3 4 2 1 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 3 4 1 (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(d) 4 3 1 2 26. Consider the following statement about lymph
22. Which of the following diseases are infectious in 1. Lymph is another medium of circulation in
milch animals? the human body.
2. Lymph Àows in only one direction - from the
1. Hand diseases
heart to body tissues.
2. Anthrax
3. Lymph protects the body by killing the
3. Black quarter germs drained out of the body tissues with
4. Cowpox the help of Lymphocytes.
Select the correct answer from the codes given (a) 1 and 3 are correct
below: (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
23. Consider the following statements: 27. Consider the following statements:
1. Meningococcal meningitis is transmitted 1. ELISA test is employed as the ¿rst and most
from person to person by mosquito bites. basic test for an individual to detect cancer.
2. Vomiting and neck pain are two of the 2. Almost 50% human being have Rh+ blood
symptoms of meningococcal meningitis. while the remaining have Rh– blood.
correct? correct?
correct answer from the codes given below: answer from the codes given below the lists:
Assertion (A): If somebody stops taking green List-I List-II
vegetables, he will suffer from night blindness. A. Plague 1. Protozoa
Reason (R): He will suffer from vitamin A B. AIDS 2. Fungus
de¿ciency. C. Baldness 3. Virus
Codes: D. Malaria 4. Bacteria
explanation of A. A B C D
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (a) 1 2 3 4
(c) A is true, but R is false. (c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
29. Consider the following statements Reason (R): An undifferentiated, unorganised
Assertion (A): An enzyme is basically a protein ¿brillar chromosome exists inside the prokaryotic
which acts like a catalyst in the metabolic cells.
reactions of an organism. Codes:
Reason (R): The pancreatic juice is basically (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
composed from three enzymes trypsin, amylase explanation of A.
and lipase. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(a) A and R are correct and R is the correct (c) A is false, but R is true.
explanation of A. (d) Both A and R are false.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 33. Consider the following statements and choose the
explanation of A. correct code.
(c) A is true, but R is false. Assertion (A): Regeneration in animals is one of
(d) A is false, but R is true. the strategies to escape predation.
30. Match the following columns: Reason (R): These strategies include the
Types of Function rearrangement of pre-existing tissue.
blood cells Codes:
A. Neutrophils 1. Heparin and (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
histamine secretion explanation of A.
B. Basophils 2. Antibodies formation (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
C. Acidophils 3. Scavenger explanation of A.
D. Monocytes 4. Phagocytes (c) A is false, but R is true.
E. Lymphocytes 5. Antiallergic and (d) Both A and R are false.
healing of wounds 34. Which one of the following animals is correctly
Codes: matched with its one characteristic and taxon?
A B C D E Animal Characteristic Taxon
(a) 3 1 5 4 2 (a) Sea anemone Ventral nerve Arachnide
(b) 1 4 5 3 2 cord
(c) 3 2 1 4 5 (b) Millipede Triploblastic Cnidaria
(d) 2 3 1 4 5 (c) Duckbilled Oviparous Mammaliar
31. Consider the following statements and choose the platypus
correct ones. (d) Silver ¿sh Pectoral ¿ns Cnordate
1. Once the HIV gains a foothold, it can never 35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
be eradicated from the body. answer from the codes given below:
2. Many HIV patients, however, can manage List-I List-II
the infection with a cocktail of drugs. A. Gonads 1. Insulin
3. It is very mutable and infects the respiratory B. Pituitary 2. Progesterone
system itself. C. Pancreas 3. Growth hormone
(a) 1 and 2 only D. Adrenal 4. Cortisol
(b) 2 and 3 only Codes:
(c) None A B C D
(d) All are correct (a) 2 3 4 1
32. Consider the following statements and choose the (b) 2 3 1 4
correct code. (c) 3 2 4 1
Assertion (A): A true nucleus is absent in E. coli (d) 3 2 1 4
and other prokaryotes.
E-40 || Biology
36. Match the List-I and LIst-II: (3) CT scanning was developed by Godfrey
List-I List-II Houns¿eld.
(Organs of the Body) (Process of Treatment) (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
A. Heart 1. Cataract Operation (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All are correct
B. Kideny 2. Angioplasty 40. Match the List-I with List-II
C. Eye 3. Hysterectomy List - I List - II
D. Uterus 4. Dialysis A. Phobia 1. Maladaptive habit
Codes: B. Neurosis 2. Undue concern about
A B C D
health
(a) 1 2 3 4
C. Hypochondria 3. Lack of sleep
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 2 1 3 D. Insomnia 4. Intense fear
(d) 1 2 4 3 Codes:
37. Consider the following statements and choose the A B C D
correct code. (a) 1 3 4 2
Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is a reduction in (b) 2 4 3 1
bone mass causing weakness of skeletal bones. (c) 4 1 2 3
Reason (R): It is caused by excessive resorption (d) 3 2 1 4
of calcium and phosphorus from the bone. 41. Match the List-I with List-II
(Disease) (Meanings)
A. Jaundice 1. Allergic inÀammation of nose
explanation of A
B. Stenosis 2. Loss of motor functions
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct C. Rhinitis 3. Defect of heart values
explanation of A D. Paralysis 4. Increase in bile pigments in
(c) A is true, but R is false. the blood
(d) Both A and R are false. Codes:
38. Match the List-I with List-II A B C D
Carcinogens Organs affected (b) 3 2 4 1
A. Cigarette smoke 1. Lungs and arteries (c) 4 3 1 2
B. Mustard gas 2. Lungs (d) 2 1 3 4
C. Asbestos 3. Lungs and pleural 42. The main reason why antibiotics could not solve
membrane all the problems of bacterial diseases is
D. Vinylchloride 4. Liver (a) Insensitivity of the individual following
Codes:
prolonged exposure to antibiotics
A B C D
(b) Inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4 enzymes
(c) 4 2 1 3 (c) Decreased ef¿ciency of the immune system
(d) 3 1 2 4 (d) The development of mutant strains resistant
39. Consider the following statements and the correct to antibiotics
ones. 43. Consider the following statements:
(1) Fish that eradicates the mosquito larva is 1. Annual rings are distinct in plants which
Gambusia. grow in temperate region.
(2) The instrument used to measure blood 2. One growing ring of plant consists of only
pressure is Autoanalyser. spring wood.
Which of the statements given above is/are 48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
correct about annual ring? answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only List-I List-II
(b) 2 only (Institutes) (Places)
(c) 1 and 2 A. National Botanical 1. Shimla
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Research Institute
44. Consider the following statements: (NBRI)
1. Carolus Linnaeus is the father of binomial B. Central Potato Research 2. Lucknow
nomenclature of organisms. Institute (CPRI)
2. The word taxonomy was coined by Augustin C. Central Rice Research 3. Cuttack
de Candolle. Institute (CPRI)
Which of the above statements is/are correct? D. Central Forest 4. Dehradun
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Research Institute
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (CFRI)
answer by using the codes given below: A B C D
A. Ribosome 1. Suicidal bag of cells (b) 1 3 4 2
B. Lysosome 2. Protein factory of cells (c) 3 4 2 1
C. Mitochondria 3. Controller of cell (d) 4 2 1 3
D. Nucleus 4. Power house of cell 49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Codes: answer by using the codes given below:
A B C D List-I List-II
(a) 2 1 4 3 A. Sundew 1. Drosera
(b) 4 3 2 1 B. Venus Àytrap 2. Dionaea
(c) 1 4 3 2 C. Bladderwort 3. Utricularia
(d) 3 2 1 4 D. Pitcher plant 4. Nepenthes
46. Which of the following is the correct sequence of Codes:
the different phases of cell division? A B C D
1. Anaphase (a) 1 2 3 4
2. Telophase (b) 2 3 4 1
3. Prophase (c) 3 4 1 2
4. Metaphase (d) 4 1 2 3
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4 answer by using the codes given below:
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 List-I List-II
47. Consider the following statements: A. Dark reaction 1. Grana of chloroplast
1. The cell was discovered by Robert Hooke. B. Light reaction 2. Stroma of
2. Nucleus was described by Robert Brown. chloroplast
3. Plant cells generally have lysosomes. C. Glycolysis 3. Cytoplasm
D. Kreb's cycle 4. Mitochondrial
matrix
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
E-42 || Biology
Codes: 2. Bryophytes do not have vascular tissue.
A B C D 3. Selaginella is an example of Bryophytes.
(a) 2 1 3 4 Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 3 4 2 1 correct?
(c) 1 3 4 2 (a) 1 only
(d) 4 2 1 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) 1, 2 and 3
answer by using the codes given below: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 only 3
List-I List-II 55. Consider the following statements:
A. Cycas 1. Living fossil 1. Food prepared by plant is transported to
B. Zamia pygmaea 2. Smallest different parts of plant through phloem.
gymnosperm 2. Water and minerals in plant is transported
C. Sequoia gigantea 3. Tallest gymnosperm through phloem.
D. Abies balsamea 4. Canada balsam 3. The cell wall of phloem cells is rich in lignin.
A B C D correct?
(a) 1 2 3 4 (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 4 1 2 3 56. Consider the following statements:
(d) 3 4 1 2 1. Lichens show symbiotic association between
52. Consider the following statements: algae and bryophytes.
1. Sphagnum is used as a packing material for 2. Lichens are sensitive to SO2 and indicators
transporting living plants. of pollution.
2. Drug ephedrine is obtained from stem of Which of the statements given above is/are
Sphagnum. correct about lichens?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 57. Consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Chlorella is present in sewage.
53. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 2. Chlorella produces food rich in vitamins,
answer by using the codes given below: proteins, etc.
List-I List-II 3. Chlorella is used in prolonged space Àight
A. Sanjeevani 1. Adiantum sp. for O2.
B. Maiden hair fern 2. Dryopteris sp. 4. Chlorella yields an antibiotic, penicillin.
C. Horse tail 3. Equisetum sp. Which of the statements given above is/are
D. Male shield fern 4. Selaginella sp. correct?
Codes: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
A B C D (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 2 4 3 58. Diabetes mellitus takes place only when
(b) 4 3 1 2 (a) D-cells of pancreas are in excess
(c) 4 1 3 2 (b) E-cells of pancreas are in excess
(d) 3 1 2 4 (c) D-cells of pancreas are in hypo
54. Consider the following statements: (d) E-cells of pancreas are in hypo
1. Bryophytes are the amphibians of plant
kingdom.
59. Consider the following statements and select the Which of the statements given above is/are
correct answer from the codes given below: correct?
Assertion (A): In ¿lariasis, the lower legs and (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
scrotum are swelled to unproportionate level (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Reason (R): The ¿larial worms block the lymph 64. Consider the following statements:
vessels and lymph node. 1. ECG is a test that measures the electrical
Codes: activity of the heart.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 2. ECG is not used to measure the rate and
explanation of A. regularity of heart beats.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Which of the statement/s given above is/are
(c) A is true, but R is false. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) A is false, but R is true. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
60. Consider the following statements: 65. Match the List-I with List-II
1. Progeria is the genetic disease associated List-I List-II
with fast ageing. A. Neoplasm 1. Haematopoietic cell tumours
2. Progeric patients never live beyond early B. Benign 2. Bone, cartilage tissue
years of 5 or 6. tumour cancers
Which of the statements given above is/are C. Carcinomas 3. Malignant tumour
correct? D. Sarcomas 4. Cancer of epithelial tissues
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only E. Lymphomas 5. Non-cancerous tumour
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 6. Initiation of new tumours
61. Match the List-I with List-II Codes:
List-I List-II A B C D E
Disease Causative agent (a) 3 5 4 2 1
A. Amoebiasis 1. Trypanosoma (b) 2 5 4 3 6
gambiense (c) 6 4 3 2 1
B. Sleeping sickness 2. Treponema pallidum (d) 2 3 5 6 4
C. Syphilis 3. Entamoeba histolytica 66. Consider the following statements:
D. Bubonic plague 4. Pasteurella pestis 1. A colour blind person cannot distinguish red
Codes: and green.
A B C D 2. Colour blindness is related with a defect in
(a) 1 3 4 2 nerve cells.
(b) 3 1 2 4 Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 4 2 3 1 correct?
(d) 2 4 1 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
62. Which of the following statements are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Stewart's disease of corn is caused by 67. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Erwinia stewartii. answer by using the codes given below:
2. The primary vector of Erwinia stewartii is List-I List-II
corn Àea beetle Chaetocnema pulicaria. A. Agroforestry 1. Growing plant
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only without soil in water
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 containing nutrients
63. Consider the following statements: B. Hydroponics 2. Growing of tree with
1. Hashimoto disease results in thymosin cultivation of crop in
de¿ciency. the same ¿eld
2. Cretinism in children occurs due to thyroxine
de¿ciency.
E-44 || Biology
C. Pomology 3. Study of fruits 71. Match the following:
D. Palynology 4. Study of pollen grains List-I List-II
Codes: A. Chili pepper 1. Capsaicin
A B C D B. Coriander 2. Allicin
(a) 2 1 3 4 C. Garlic 3. Lycopene
(b) 3 4 2 1 D. Tomato 4. Geraniol
(c) 1 3 4 2 Codes:
(d) 4 2 1 3 A B C D
answer by using the codes given below: (b) 3 1 2 4
(Physiological processes) (Cell organelles) (d) 2 1 3 4
A. Photosynthesis 1. Plasma membrane 72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
B. Mineral uptake 2. Chloroplast answer by using the codes given below:
C. Respiration 3. Mitochondria List-I List-II
D. Protein synthesis 4. Ribosomes A. Fruit 1. Ovule
Codes: B. Seed 2. Leaf
A B C D C. Wood 3. Stem
(a) 1 2 3 4 D. Starch 4. Ovary
(b) 1 2 4 3 Codes:
(c) 2 1 3 4 A B C D
(d) 2 1 4 3 (a) 2 1 3 4
69. Consider the following plants: (b) 2 3 1 4
1. Bougainvillea 2. Carnations (c) 4 1 3 2
3. Cocoa 4. Grapes (d) 4 3 1 2
Which of these plants are propagated by stem 73. Consider the following statements:
cutting? 1. Swine Àu is also called swine inÀuenza.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 2. It is an infection caused by swine inÀuenza
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 viruses.
70. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 3. Swine Àu is transmitted from person to
answer by using the codes given below: person by inhalation or ingestion of droplets
List-I List-II containing virus from people sneezing or
A. Theory of mutation 1. Beadle and Tatum coughing.
B. Theory of evolution 2. Jacob and Monod 4. It is also spread by eating cooked pork.
C. One gene one 3. Darwin Which of the statements given above are correct?
enzyme hypothesis (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
D. Concept of operon 4. de Vries (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Codes: 74. AIDS is transmitted by
A B C D 1. Sexual intercourse
(a) 3 4 1 2 2. Blood transfusion
(b) 3 4 2 1 3. Mosquitoes and other blood sucking insects
(c) 4 3 1 2 4. Across the placenta
(d) 4 3 2 1 Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 79. Match the List-I with List-II.
answer from the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II
List-I List-II (Disease) (Prophylaxis)
(Diseases) (Organs) A. Tuberculosis 1. Chloramphenicol
A. Myxedema 1. Reproductive system B. Diphtheria 2. ATS and DPT vaccines
B. Nephrosis 2. Nervous disorder C. Tetanus 3. BCG vaccine
C. Paralysis 3. Endocrine gland D. Typhoid 4. DPT vaccine
D. Syphilis 4. Excretory system 5. TAB vaccine
Codes: Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1 (b) 3 4 2 5
(c) 1 2 4 3 (c) 5 3 2 4
(d) 2 1 3 4 (d) 3 4 5 1
76. Consider the following statements: 80. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
1. Hepatitis-B is several times more infectious answer from the codes given below the lists:
than HIV/AIDS. List-I List-II
2. Hepatitis-B can cause liver cancer. A. Leprosy 1. Fungi
Which of the statements given above is/are B. Measles 2. Protozoa
correct? C. Kala-azar 3. Bacteria
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only D. Athlete's foot 4. Virus
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Codes:
answer from the codes given below the lists: (a) 1 2 3 4
(Disease) (Cause) (c) 4 3 1 2
A. Khaira 1. Vitamin C de¿ciency (d) 3 4 2 1
B. Anaemia 2. Iodine de¿ciency 81. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
C. Goitre 3. Iron de¿ciency answer from the codes given below the lists:
D. Scurvy 4. Zinc de¿ciency List-I List-II
Codes: A. Cardiologist 1. Eye
A B C D B. Nephrologist 2. Urinary tract
(a) 1 2 3 4 C. Urologist 3. Heart
(b) 2 1 4 3 D. Oculist 4. Kidney
(c) 3 4 1 2 Codes:
(d) 4 3 2 1 A B C D
78. Which of the following are characteristics of (a) 3 4 2 1
diabetes mellitus, a common disease of human (b) 4 3 1 2
beings? (c) 1 2 4 3
1. Increase of sugar in blood (d) 2 1 3 4
2. Appearance of sugar in urine
82. Which one of the following is not correctly
3. Loss of hunger
matched?
4. Lack of energy
(a) Antipyretic — Paracetamol
(b) Antifoaming agent — Polyamides
silicones
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
E-46 || Biology
(c) Antiseptic — Aspirin 86. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(d) Antirachitic — Calciferol answer from the codes given below the lists:
answer from the codes given below the lists: A. Anthrax 1. A disease due to a
List-I List-II defective gene
(Disease) (Cause) B. Thalassaemia 2. Womb-renting
A. Night blindness 1. Vitamin D C. Surrogecy 3. Science of altering
B. Rickets 2. Vitamin C genes
C. Scurvy 3. Vitamin B D. Transgenics 4. A toxin used by
biowarfare
D. Beri-beri 4. Vitamin A
Codes:
Codes:
A B C D
A B C D (a) 4 1 2 3
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 1 2 3 4
(d) 2 3 4 1 87. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
84. Match the following columns 1. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.
Column I Column II 2. Athlete’s foot is a disease caused by virus.
A. Ligament 1. Stores fat Select the correct answer from the codes given
B. Tendon 2. Connects bone to bone below:
C. Areolar tissue 3. Connects muscle to (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
bone (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
D. Adipose tissue 4. Forms blood cells 88. Consider the following conditions of a sick
5. Filling tissue human body:
Codes: 1. Swollen lymph nodes
A B C D 2. Sweating at night
(a) 2 3 5 4 3. Loss of memory
(b) 2 3 5 1 4. Loss of weight
(c) 2 3 1 4 Which of these are symptoms of AIDS?
(d) 2 4 5 1 (a) 1 and 2 only
85. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
answer from the codes given below the lists: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
List-I List-II (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(Disease) (Cause) 89. Which one of the following sets is correctly
A. Marasmus 1. Prolonged starvation matched?
B. Kwashiorkor 2. Protein de¿ciency (a) Diphtheria, pneumonia : Hereditary
C. T.B. 3. Bacterial infection and leprosy
D. Hepatitis B 4. Viral infection (b) AIDS, syphilis and : Bacterial
Codes: gonorrhoea
A B C D (c) Colour blindness, : Sex linked
(a) 1 2 3 4 haemophilia and sickle
(b) 2 1 3 4 cell anaemia
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) Polio, Japanese : Nematode
(d) 2 4 1 3 encephalitis and plague
90. Consider the following statements and select the C. Encephalitis 3. Muscle
correct answer from the codes given below: D. Leukaemia 4. Lymph node
Assertion (A): The person with diabetes 5. Blood cells
insipidus feels thirsty. Codes:
Reason (R): A person with diabetes insipidus A B C D
suffers from low secretion of vasopressin. (a) 5 3 2 1
(b) 5 4 2 1
Codes:
(c) 5 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 5 1
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct answer from the codes given below:
(c) A is true, but R is false. (Disease) (Organism)
(d) A is false, but R is true. A. Malaria 1. Fungi
91. Which of the following are associated with B. Poliomyelitis 2. Bacteria
diabetes mellitus, a common disease in adults? C. Tuberculosis 3. Virus
1. Higher sugar level in blood D. Ringworm 4. Protozoan
2. Lower sugar level in blood Codes:
3. Lower insulin level in blood A B C D
4. Higher insulin level in blood (a) 4 3 2 1
Select the correct answer from the codes given (b) 3 4 2 1
below: (c) 3 4 1 2
Codes: (d) 4 3 1 2
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 95. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 answer by using the codes given below:
answer from the codes given below the lists: A. Rhizome 1. Colocasia
List-I List-II B. Corm 2. Ginger
C. Tuber 3. Potato
(Diseases) (Types of diseases)
D. Bulb 4. Onion
A. Haemophilia 1. De¿ciency disease
Codes:
B. Diabetes 2. Genetic disease A B C D
C. Rickets 3. Hormonal disorder (a) 2 1 3 4
D. Ringworm 4. Fungal infection (b) 1 3 4 2
Codes: (c) 3 4 2 1
A B C D (d) 4 2 1 3
(a) 2 3 4 1 96. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 3 1 4 1. Carbon dioxide, chlorophyll and sunlight all
(c) 3 2 1 4 are essential for photosynthesis.
(d) 3 2 4 1 2. Rate of photosynthesis is minimum in red
93. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct light and maximum in green light.
answer from the codes given below: 3. Increase in O2 concentration decreases
List-I List-II photosynthesis.
A. Malaria 1. Bone marrow Which of the statements given above are correct
B. Filaria 2. Brain about photosynthesis?
E-48 || Biology
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 3. Vernalization cannot be replaced by
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 gibberellins.
1. Lateral outgrowth of leaf base is called correct?
stipule. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Leaves with stipules are called as exstipulate (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
leaves. 102. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
3. Leaves without stipules are called as answer by using the codes given below:
stipulate leaves. List-I List-II
Which of the statements given above is/are A. Mango 1. Endosperm
B. Coconut Àesh 2. Mesocarp
correct?
and water
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
C. Litchi 3. Aril
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 D. Apple 4. Fleshy thalamus
98. Consider the following statements and choose the Codes:
correct ones. A B C D
1. Anthesis is a phenomenon of ripening of (a) 4 3 1 2
fruits. (b) 1 4 2 3
2. Fruits developed without fertilization are (c) 2 1 3 4
parthenocarpic. (d) 1 3 4 2
3. Plants undergo single fertilization event. 103. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only 1. Photolysis of water involves breakdown of
(c) 2 only (d) All are correct oxygen by light.
99. Which of the following is not a true statement 2. The speci¿c function of light energy in
about chloroplasts and mitochondria? the process of photosynthesis is to activate
(a) Each contains a small amount of DNA chlorophyll.
(b) Neither are components of the endomem- 3. Byproduct of photosynthesis is carbon
brane system dioxide.
(c) Both are membrane less organelles Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Mitochondria do not synthesise all their correct?
proteins (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
100. Consider the following statements: (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. During rainy season, wood swells up due to
104. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the
imbibition.
correct code given below:
2. Excessive supply of fertilizers often causes
List - I List-II
death of crop plant due to exosmosis.
A. Sericulture 1. Bee keeping
3. Water present in soil for the roots of plant is
surface water. B. Pisciculture 2. Rearing of silk
Which of the statements given above is/are worm
correct? C. Apiculture 3. Micropropagation
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 D. Tissue culture 4. Fish farming
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Codes:
101. Consider the following statements: A B C D
1. Gibberellins were discovered in rice plants. (a) 2 4 1 3
2. Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the (b) 4 2 3 1
plant with gibberellic acid. (c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
105. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
correct code given below: (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
List - I List-II 109. Which of the following is a correct statement
A. Largest perennial 1. :ROI¿D about nitrogen ¿xation?
alga (a) Plants convert atmospheric nitrogen to
B. Smallest Àowering 2. Macrocystis ammonia.
plant (b) Ammonia is converted to N2, which is the
C. Living fossil 3. Selaginella form of nitrogen most easily absorbed by
D. Rhizophore 4. Ginkgo plants.
Codes: (c) Mutant strains of rhizobium are able to
A B C D secrete excess protein into the soil.
(a) 1 2 3 4 (d) The enzyme nitrogenase reduces N2 to form
(b) 2 1 4 3 ammonia.
(c) 4 3 2 1 110. Consider the following facts about plants.
(d) 2 3 1 4 1. Carbon dioxide and water vapour in plants
106. Consider the following statements and choose the are produced as wastes during respiration.
correct ones. 2. Oxygen is produced as a waste during
1. Commensalism can be seen between sea photosynthesis.
anemone and pagurus. 3. The gaseous wastes of respiration and
2. Viceroy butterÀy mimics monarch butterÀy photosynthesis in plants are removed
to avoid predation. through the xylem vessels.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only The correct answer is:
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2and 3
107. Read the following statements and choose the (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct Codes: 111. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Assertion (A): Angiosperms have dominated the answer using the codes given below:
land Àora. List-I List-II
Reason (R): Angiosperms are highly adaptable A. Barleycorn 1. Wine
in diverse habits. B. Corn 2. Beer
Codes: C. Grapes 3. Whisky
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct D. Molasses 4. Rum
(c) 2 3 1 4
108. Vaseline was applied to both surfaces of the (d) 1 4 2 3
leaves of a plant. Which of the following process/
processes would be affected?
1. Photosynthesis
List-I List-II
2. Respiration
A. Respiratory root 1. Orchids
3. Transpiration
B. Fasiculated root 2. Piper betle
C. Climbing root 3. Dahlia
below:
D. Epiphytic root 4. Rhizophora
E-50 || Biology
A B C D 1. Camphor
(a) 1 2 3 4 2. Chicory
(b) 3 1 4 2 3. Vanilla
(c) 4 1 2 3 Which of the above is/are correct plant product?
(d) 2 3 4 1 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
113. Consider the following statements and select the (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct answer from the codes given below: 117. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Mendel worked on garden pea. 1. Bisexual Àowers contain both male and
Reason (R): Garden pea belongs to the family female reproductive organs.
Malvaceae. 2. Unisexual Àowers have only one essential
Codes: Àoral whorl either androecium or gynoecium.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 3. Flowers having only male reproductive
explanation of A. structure are called pistillate Àowers.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 4. Flowers having only female reproductive part
explanation of A. are called staminate Àowers.
(c) A is true, but R is false. Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) A is false, but R is true. correct?
114. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
answer by using the codes given below: (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(Family) (Example) 1. Largest family of Àowering plants is
A. Solanaceae 1. Radish Malvaceae.
B. Malvaceae 2. Onion 2. Agaricaceae includes mushrooms.
C. Liliaceae 3. Cotton Which of the statements given above is/are
D. Cruciferae 4. Potato correct?
Codes: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
A B C D (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 4 3 2 1 119. Consider the following statements
(b) 2 1 4 3 1. Pulmonary artery is the only artery in which
(c) 3 2 1 4 the impure blood is circulated from heart to
(d) 1 4 3 2 lungs.
115. Consider the following statements: 2. Pulmonary vein is the only artery in which
1. Androecium and gynoecium are reproductive the pure blood is circulated from lungs to
organs of Àower. heart.
2. Calyx and corolla are accessory female 3. Deoxygenated blood is circulated in the
reproductive organs of a Àower. arteries.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
answer from the codes given below: 1. Femur is the smallest bone in the human
List-I List-II body.
A. Father of circulatory 1. Stephen Hales 2. Stapes is the longest bone in the human
system body.
B. Father of plant 2. William Harvey 3. Enamel is the hardest part of the human
physiology body.
C. Coined the term 3. Karl Landsteiner Which of the statements given above is/are
‘Genera’ correct?
D. Discovered various 4. John Ray (a) 1 and 2 only
blood groups (b) 2 and 3 only
Codes:
(c) 3 only
A B C D
(d) All of the above
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
1. The virus was discovered by Ivanovski.
(c) 2 1 4 3
2. The bacteria were discovered by Rudolf
(d) 4 3 1 2
Virchow.
3. The cell theory was proposed by Schleiden
Assertion (A): Arteries carry blood from various
and Schwann.
body organs to heart.
Reason (R): Veins carry blood from heart to
correct?
various body organs.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Codes:
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
explanation of A.
answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
explanation of A.
(Sugar) (Source)
A. Cellulose 1. Honey
(d) Both A and R are false.
B. Fructose 2. Sugarcane
C. Maltose 3. Cotton wool
D. Sucrose 4. Disaccharide
List-I List-II
Codes:
(Blood group) (Antibody)
A B C D
A. A 1. anti-B
B. B 2. anti-A (a) 1 2 3 4
C. A B 3. None (b) 3 1 4 2
D. O 4. Both anti-A and anti-B (c) 2 3 4 1
Codes: (d) 4 1 2 3
A B C D 126. Match the following casual agents and the disease
(a) 1 2 3 4 they cause in plants.
(b) 4 3 2 1 List-I List-II
(c) 4 2 3 1 A. Xanthomonas spp. 1. Bacterial leaf
(d) 3 4 2 1 blight of rice
B. Magnoporthe grisea 2. Citrus canker
C. Phytophthora infestans 3. Blast of rice
D. Xanthomonas 4. Blight of potato
axonopodis or late blight
E-52 || Biology
Codes: 131. Match the following plants with the drugs they
A B C D yield.
(b) 1 3 4 2 (Plants) (Drugs)
(c) 3 1 2 4 A. Papaver somniferum 1. Quinine
(d) 1 4 2 3 B. &LQFKRQDRI¿FLQDOLV 2. Isabgol
127. Consider the following statements and choose the C. Withania somnifera 3. Ashwagandha
correct ones. D. Plantago ovata 4. Opium
1. Flavr savr is a genetically modi¿ed tomato Codes:
that remains fresh and Àavourful for longer A B C D
than normal tomato. (a) 2 4 3 1
2. This GM tomato has blocked the enzyme (b) 3 2 4 1
polygalacturonase. (c) 1 2 3 4
3. This enzyme is responsible for cell wall (d) 4 3 1 2
formation. 132. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Prophyra, laminaria and sargassum are
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 edible algae.
128. Consider the following statements: (b) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and
1. Cambium is responsible for the secondary Gracilaria.
growth. (c) Algin is obtained from red algae, while
2. Cork is obtained from apical meristem. carrageenin from brown algae.
3. Vascular cambium and cork cambium are (d) Chlorella and Spirulina are unicellular algae
the examples of lateral meristem. rich in protein.
Which of the statements given above is/are 133. Which of the following statements are correct
correct? about the functions of the blood?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Transportation of oxygen.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Transportation of hormones.
129. Consider the following statements and choose the 3. Control of body temperature.
correct ones. 4. Excessive bleeding.
1. Hirudin, an anticoagulant protein, is obtained Codes:
from Brassica napus. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
2. Pyrethrin is an insecticide obtained from (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Àoral heads of Vincia rosea. 134. Consider the following statements:
3. Tissue culture technique is based on the Assertion (A): All the proteins in our food are
totipotency. digested in small intestine only.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Reason (R): The protein-digesting enzymes
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All are correct from pancreas are released into small intestine.
130. Consider the following statements and choose the Codes:
correct ones. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
1. Loose smut of wheat is caused by Puccinia explanation of A.
graminis. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
2. Father of Indian mycology and plant explanation of A.
pathology is E.J. Butler. (c) A is true, but R is false.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) A is false, but R is true.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 or 2
correct answer from the codes given below: answer from the codes given below:
1. In DNA, the base adenine, guanine, thymine List-I List-II
and cytosine are found. 2UJDQLVPV 6FLHQWL¿FQDPH
2. The nucleus contains all the DNAs of a cell. A. Man 1. Homo sapiens
3. In RNA, thymine is replaced with uracil. B. Cat 2. Felis domestica
4. RNA is mainly found to be in the cytoplasm. C. Cow 3. Bos indicus
Codes: D. Dog 4. Canis familiaris
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only Codes:
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 A B C D
answer from the codes given below: (b) 1 3 2 4
(Organisms) (Chromosomes in pairs) (d) 3 4 1 2
A. Human 1. 6 (= 12) 140. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
B. HouseÀy 2. 23 (= 46) answer from the codes given below:
C. Mosquito 3. 39 (= 78) List-I List-II
D. Dog 4. 3 (= 6) A. Testosterone 1. Sedative drug
Codes: B. Codeine 2. Indian rubber
A B C D C. Caoutchouc 3. Aromatic oil of clove
(a) 1 2 3 4 D. Eugenol 4. Hormone
(b) 4 3 2 1 Codes:
(c) 3 4 1 2 A B C D
(d) 4 3 1 2 (a) 4 1 2 3
137. With reference to the animal cell, which of the (b) 1 2 3 4
following statements are correct? (c) 4 3 2 1
1. There is no cell wall in animal cell but the (d) 2 3 4 1
cell is covered by plasma membrane. 141. Match List-I (generic name) with List-II
2. Chlorophyll is not found in animal cells. (scienti¿c name) correctly and select the correct
3. Lysosome occurs in plant cells. answer from the codes given below:
4. Almost in all animal cells, centrioles exist. List-I List-II
Codes: A. Buffalo 1. Caprine
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only B. Sheep 2. Ovine
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of the above C. Goat 3. Bovine
138. Consider the following statements with reference D. Horse 4. Equine
to human body: Codes:
1. The common bile duct releases its contents A B C D
into stomach. (a) 1 2 3 4
2. The pancreatic duct releases its contents into (b) 3 2 1 4
duodenum. (c) 4 2 1 3
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 2 1 3 4
correct?
E-54 || Biology
:LOGOLIHVSHFLHV 6FLHQWL¿FQDPHV (b) 2 1 4 3
A. Asiatic wild 1. Boselaphus (c) 3 2 1 4
ass tragocamelus (d) 4 1 1 2
B. Barasingha 2. Rucervus duvaucelii 146. Consider the following statements:
C. Chinkara 3. Equus hemionus 1. Beans are richer source of proteins than
khur potatoes.
D. Nilgai 4. Gazella bennettii 2. Apples are richer source of carbohydrates
Codes: than bananas.
A B C D Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 2 3 1 4 correct ?
(b) 3 2 4 1 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 3 4 1 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 3 2 1 4
1. In algae, the reproductive organs are single-
answer from the codes given below: celled.
List-I List-II 2. Fern plants lack true vascular system.
A. Indian buffalo 1. Tallest Which of the statements given above is/are
B. Tamaraw buffalo 2. Dwarf smallest correct ?
C. Anoa buffalo 3. Dwarf (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
D. Cape buffalo 4. Medium (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Codes: 148. Which of the following statements about sexual
A B C D reproduction in Àowering plants are correct ?
(a) 1 2 3 4 1. Stamen is present in the centre of a Àower.
(b) 4 3 2 1 2. Stamen produces pollen grains in the ovary.
(c) 1 3 4 2 3. The swollen bottom part of carpel is the
(d) 4 1 3 2 ovary.
144. Consider the following statements: 4. The fusion of germ cells gives rise to zygote.
1. Toothless mammals, such as pangolins, are Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
not found in India.
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only
2. Gibbon is the only ape found in India.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
correct?
1. Different plant species grow together.
2. Light cannot penetrate into the lower strata
full of undergrowth.
145. Match List-I (cattle) with List-II (type) which
Which of the following types of vegetation is
contains related elements and select the correct
characterised by the above ?
(a) Equatorial moist evergreen
List-I List-II
(b) Tropical deciduous
A. Long-horned cattle 1. Gir type
(c) Mediterranean
B. Long ear cattle 2. Mysore type
(d) Warm temperate broad leaved deciduous
C. Danny cattle 3. Dwarf type
D. Himalyan cattle 4. Danny type
150. With regard to animal breeding, which one 153. Statement I : Oxidation in our body cells releases
among the following is not correct? dangerous free radicals.
(a) In-breeding: Mating of more closely related Statement II : Our body itself produces
animals within the same breed for 1 – 2 antioxidants to neutralise harmful free radicals.
generations 154. Statement I : Red blood cells burst when placed
(b) Out- breeding : Breeding of unrelated in water.
animals of the same breed without common Statement II : Due to the phenomenon of
ancestors for 4 – 6 generations osmosis water enters into red blood cells.
(c) Cross- breeding: Superior males of one 155. Consider the following statements regarding
breed are mated with superior females of osmosis in animal cells :
another breed 1. If the water potential of the solution
(d) Out- crossing: Offspring is called an ‘out- surrounding the cell is too high, the cell
cross’ shrinks.
151. Consider the following statements regarding the 2. If the water potential of the solution
recent global outbreak of ‘Swine Àu’ surrounding the cell is too low, the cell
I. The agent of infection is not well identi¿ed swells and bursts.
II. The risk is higher in those who consume 3. It is important to maintain a constant water
pork potential inside the animal body.
III. It has a propensity to spread from contact 4. In animal cells, water potential far exceeds
with an infected person the solute potential.
IV. Absence of an effective treatment or vaccine Which of the statements given above is/are
makes it risk for a global pandemic correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
correct? (c) 4 only (d) 2 and 3
(a) I, II and IV (b) III and IV 156. The following question consist of two statements,
(c) II and III (d) III only one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other
152. Balanced diet should have approximately as ‘Reason (R), You are to examine these two
(a) 1/5 protein, 3/5 fat and 1/5 carbohydrate statements carefully and select the answers to
(b) 3/5 protein, 1/5 fat and 1/5 carbohydrate these items using the codes given below:
(c) 1/5 protein, 1/5 fat and 3/5 carbohydrate Assertion (A) : Though carbohydrates are
(d) 1/2 protein, 1/4 fat and 1/4 carbohydrate covalent compounds, they are soluble in water.
Directions (Qs. 153-154) : The next four (04) items Reason (R) : Compounds which form hydrogen
consist of two statements, statement I and statement bond with water are generally soluble in water.
II. You are to examine these two statements carefully (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
and select the answers to these items using the code the correct explanation of A
given below. (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
Code : NOT the correct explanation of A
(a) Both the statements are individually true and (c) A is true but R is false
statement II is the correct explanation of statement (d) A is false but R is true
I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but
statement II is not the correct explanation of
statement I
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true
E-56 || Biology
157. Match list-I (Name of the crop) with list-II 163. The following statements are pertaining to green
(Name of the high yielding variety), and select revolution in India :
the correct answer using the codes given below Green revolution is most successful in the area
the list : of:
List-I List-II (1) Controlled and assured source of irrigation
(Crop) (High yielding variety) (2) Where chemical fertilizer (NPK) is
adequately applied
A. Maize 1. Arjun
(3) Where hydel power is adequately available
B. Paddy 2. Jaya (4) Where farmers are more receptive to
C. Wheat 3. Ranjit innovation
Codes :
below :
A B C A B C
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 3 1 2
164. Consider the following respiratory pigments :
158. With reference to human nutrition consider the
(1) Haemoglobin (2) Haemocyanin
following statements :
(3) Haemoerythrin (3) Haemocynoglobin
(1) Banana is richer source of carbohydrates
Iron is contained in :
than apples
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(2) Banana contains some amount of protein
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 4
also
Directions (Qs. 165 & 166) : The following questions
(3) Spinach has no protein at all
consists of two statements one labelled Assertion (A)
(4) Potatoes are richer sources of protein than
and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct
peas
answers to these questions from the codes given below:
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
explanation of A
(b) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct
159. Cow milk is a rich source of :
explanation of A
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D
160. The only snake that builds its nest is :
165. Assertion (A) : Bacterial chromosome is highly
(a) Krait (b) King cobra
folded.
(c) Chain viper (d) Saw scaled viper
Reason (R) : The bacterial chromosome lacks
the histone proteins.
(1) Heart is three chambered in ¿shes
166. Assertion (A) : Conifers Àourish in the cold
(2) Heart is four chambered in birds
zones of north.
(3) All animals of class amphibia are
Reason (R) : Evergreen conifers can carry out
characterised by two pairs of limbs
photosynthesis even in short days.
(4) In all reptiles respiration is by lungs only
167. Which of the following is represented by X in
Which of the above statements are correct ?
¿gure ?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
DNA o C G A T C G C T
162. Arti¿cial insemination involves the use of : ||| ||| || || ||| ||| ||| ||
(a) Natural semen and natural diluent m-RNA
oG C X A G C G A
(b) Natural semen and arti¿cial diluent (a) Adenine (b) Guanine
(c) Arti¿cial semen and natural diluent (c) Uracil (d) Thimine
(d) Arti¿cial semen and arti¿cial diluent
168. Match list-I (Name of the plant) with list-II (Seed 175. Thermoregulation in mammals is a balance of
dispersal mechanism) and select the correct heat gain and heat loss. All of the following can
answer using the codes given below the lists : affect both heat gain and heat loss except
List-I List-II (a) activity of the sweat glands
(Name of the plant) (Seed dispersal (b) thickness of the fat layer under the skin
mechanism) (c) air movements near the body surface
A. Coconut 1. By animals (d) blood Àow in the skin
B. Drumstick 2. Explosive 176. When a person, after a certain degree of exertion,
mechanism suffers from pain in the chest or below the collar
C. Coklebur (Xanthium) 3. By water bones, in the events of inadequate supply of
D. Castor 4. By wind oxygen to the heart muscles, he is said to suffer
Codes : from
A B C D A B C D (a) coronary thrombosis
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 (b) myocardial infarction
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2 (c) angina pectoris
169. The yellow colour of urine is due to the presence (d) arteriosclerosis
of : 177. Unwanted sound creates noise pollution, and its
(a) Bile (b) Lymph unit is decibel (db). Prolonged exposure of noise
(c) Cholesterol (d) Urochrome level of how many db may gradually lead to
170. SA-node of mammalian heart is known as : permanent loss of hearing ability ?
(a) Autoregulator (b) Pace-maker (a) 40 db (b) 60 db
(c) Time controller (d) Beat regulator (c) 80 db (d) 100 db
171. A drop of blood contains. 178. What happens each day when the leaf of a plant is
(a) about 10,000 cells ¿rst exposed to light ?
(b) about 100,000 cells (a) the epidermal cells on the upper surface of
(c) several million cells the leaf begin to photosynthesize.
(d) less than 25,000 cells (b) carbon dioxide diffuses out of the leaf.
172. Acupuncture is a medical system of treatment in (c) the cells of the spongy mesophyll begin to
which take up carbon dioxide, and are the only
(a) herbs are used to relieve pain cells that are able to do so.
(b) needles are inserted into particular parts of (d) the guard cells become more turgid and the
the body to relieve pain stomatal apertures open.
(c) surgery is done to relieve pain 179. Which one of the following provides the best
(d) none of these estimate of the world’s biological diversity?
173. Human blood contains ________ percentage of (a) of about 10 million species probably alive
plasma. today, some 20 species are lost every day,
(a) 35% (b) 40% most of them unknown because no more
(c) 50% (d) 65% than half a million have yet been actually
174. Vivipary in plants means identi¿ed by scientists
(a) germination of seeds in the crevices of stem (b) of about 30 million living species, some 50
where some soil is deposited are lost every day, most of them unknown
(b) development of pea nut fruits after the because no more than one million have been
fertilization actually identi¿ed
(c) organization of several shoots (c) of about 45 million living species, some 100
(d) germination of seeds inside the fruit while it are lost every day, most of them unknown
is still on the plant parent tree
E-58 || Biology
because no more than 1.5 million have been 185. Scari¿cation of seeds is done for removing
actually identi¿ed (a) dormancy
(d) of about 75 million living species, some 500 (b) germination inhibitors
are lost every day, most of them unknown (c) growth
because no more than 3 million have been (d) embryo
actually identi¿ed 186. The correct sequence of anaerobic reactions in
180. Biologically, marriage should be avoided in yeast is
between cytoplasm mitochondria
Glucose
o Pyruvate o
(a) Rh+ male and Rh+ female (a)
(b) Rh– female and Rh– male Ethanol Carbondioxide
(c) Rh+ female and Rh– male cytoplasm cytoplasm
(d) Rh+ male and Rh– female (b) Glucose
o Pyruvate
o
Lactic acid
181. A disorder which is linked to the Y chromosome
in humans (holandric) will cytoplasm mitochondria
(c) Glucose
o Pyruvate o
(a) only be expressed in males whose mothers Lactic acid
were a carrier of the gene cytoplasm cytoplasm
(b) never be passed from father to child (d) Glucose o Pyruvate o
Ethanol + Carbondioxide
(c) show a pattern of skipping generations in a
family 187. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true
(d) be passed only from father to son about respiration?
182. A dog can smell a breeding bitch from almost 1 (i) During inhalation, ribs move inward and
km. This is due to the diaphragm is raised
(a) release of sex pheromones by the bitch (ii) In the alveoli, exchange of gases takes place
during breeding i.e., oxygen from alveolar air diffuses into
(b) season release of some chemicals by both blood and carbon dioxide from blood into
the dog and bitch during breeding season alveolar air
(c) special type of barking by the bitch during (iii) Haemoglobin has greater af¿nity for carbon
breeding season dioxide than oxygen
(d) none of the above (iv) Alveoli increase surface area for exchange
183. Normal adult human male has of gases
(a) 10 g of haemoglobin/100 g of blood (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(b) 14 g of haemoglobin/100 g of blood (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
(c) 18 g of haemoglobin/100 g of blood 188. Which of the following statement (s) is (are) true
(d) 24 g of haemoglobin/100 g of blood about heart?
184. Most ¿sh do not sink in water because of the (i) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from
presence of the different parts of body while right atrium
(i) swim bladder receives deoxygenated blood from lungs
(ii) air bladder (ii) Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to
(iii) air sacs different body parts while right ventricle
(iv) air in spongy bones pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs
(a) i and ii are correct (iii) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to
(b) ii and iii are correct right ventricle which sends it to different
(c) iii and iv are correct body parts
(d) i, ii, iii and iv are correct (iv) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood
from different parts of the body while
left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to
different parts of the body
(a) (i) (b) (ii) 193. Offspring formed by asexual method of
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii) reproduction have greater similarity among
189. Choose the forms in which most plants absorb themselves because
nitrogen (i) asexual reproduction involves only one
(i) Proteins parent
(ii) Nitrates and Nitrites (ii) asexual reproduction does not involve
(iii) Urea gametes
(iv) Atmospheric nitrogen (iii) asexual reproduction occurs before sexual
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) reproduction
(b) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv) (iv) asexual reproduction occurs after sexual
190. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) reproduction
correct ? (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(i) Pyruvate can be converted into ethanol and (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
carbon dioxide by yeast 194. Factors responsible for the rapid spread of bread
(ii) Fermentation takes place in aerobic bacteria mould on slices of bread are
(iii) Fermentation takes place in mitochondria (i) large number of spores
(iv) Fermentation is a form of anaerobic (ii) availability of moisture and nutrients in
respiration bread
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (iii) presence of tubular branched hyphae
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii) (iv) formation of round shaped sporangia
191. Which of the following statements are true ? (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(i) Sudden action in response to something in (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
the environment is called reÀex action 195. Which among the following is not the function of
(ii) Sensory neurons carry signals from spinal testes at puberty?
cord to muscles (i) formation of germ cells
(iii) Motor neurons carry signals from receptors (ii) secretion of testosterone
to spinal cord (iii) development of placenta
(iv) The path through which signals are (iv) secretion of estrogen
transmitted from a receptor to a muscle or a (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
gland is called reÀex arc (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) 196. New species may be formed if
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) (i) DNA undergoes signi¿cant changes in germ
192. Which of the following statements are true about cells
the brain ? (ii) chromosome number changes in the gamete
(i) The main thinking part of brain is hind brain (iii) there is no change in the genetic material
(ii) Centres of hearing, smell, memory, sight etc (iv) mating does not take place
are located in fore brain (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(iii) Involuntary actions like salivation, vomiting, (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
blood pressure are controlled by the medulla 197. Select the incorrect statement
in the hind brain (a) Frequency of certain genes in a population
(iv) Cerebellum does not control posture and change over several generations resulting in
balance of the body evolution
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) Reduction in weight of the organism due to
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv) starvation is genetically controlled
(c) Low weight parents can have heavy weight
progeny
E-60 || Biology
(d) Traits which are not inherited over (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
generations do not cause evolution (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
198. Select the statements that describe characteristics 200. The pH of water sample collected from a river
of genes was found to be acidic in the range of 3.5 – 4.5,
(i) genes are speci¿c sequence of bases in a on the banks of the river were several factories
DNA molecule that were discharging efÀuents into the river. The
(ii) a gene does not code for proteins efÀuents of which one of the following factories
(iii) in individuals of a given species, a speci¿c is the most likely cause for lowering the pH of
gene is located on a particular chromosome river water?
(iv) each chromosome has only one gene (a) Soap and detergent factory
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (b) Lead battery manufacturing factory
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) (c) Plastic cup manufacturing factory
199. Excessive exposure of humans to U V-rays results (d) Alcohol distillery
in
(i) damage to immune system
(ii) damage to lungs
(iii) skin cancer
(iv) peptic ulcers
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 21. (b) 41. (c) 61. (b) 81. (a) 101. (b) 121. (d) 141. (b) 161. (c) 181. (d)
2. (b) 22. (b) 42. (d) 62. (c) 82. (c) 102. (c) 122. (a) 142. (b) 162. (b) 182. (a)
3. (b) 23. (b) 43. (a) 63. (b) 83. (c) 103. (b) 123. (c) 143. (b) 163. (b) 183. (b)
4. (a) 24. (a) 44. (c) 64. (a) 84. (b) 104. (a) 124. (c) 144. (b) 164. (b) 184. (a)
5. (b) 25. (c) 45. (a) 65. (a) 85. (b) 105. (b) 125. (b) 145. (b) 165. (b) 185. (a)
6. (a) 26. (a) 46. (d) 66. (a) 86. (a) 106. (c) 126. (b) 146. (a) 166. (a) 186. (d)
7. (a) 27. (d) 47. (d) 67. (a) 87. (a) 107. (a) 127. (c) 147. (a) 167. (c) 187. (d)
8. (c) 28. (d) 48. (a) 68. (c) 88. (d) 108. (d) 128. (c) 148. (c) 168. (c) 188. (c)
9. (b) 29. (b) 49. (a) 69. (d) 89. (c) 109. (d) 129. (b) 149. (c) 169. (d) 189. (b)
10. (c) 30. (a) 50. (a) 70. (a) 90. (a) 110. (a) 130. (b) 150. (d) 170. (b) 190. (c)
11. (d) 31. (a) 51. (a) 71. (a) 91. (c) 111. (c) 131. (a) 151. (c) 171. (c) 191. (c)
12. (a) 32. (a) 52. (a) 72. (c) 92. (b) 112. (b) 132. (c) 152. (c) 172. (b) 192. (c)
13. (d) 33. (d) 53. (c) 73. (c) 93. (b) 113. (c) 133. (c) 153. (b) 173. (d) 193. (a)
14. (c) 34. (c) 54. (b) 74. (c) 94. (a) 114. (c) 134. (d) 154. (a) 174. (d) 194. (c)
15. (a) 35. (b) 55. (a) 75. (b) 95. (a) 115. (a) 135. (d) 155. (b) 175. (a) 195. (c)
16. (a) 36. (b) 56. (b) 76. (c) 96. (c) 116. (d) 136. (d) 156. (c) 176. (c) 196. (a)
17. (d) 37. (a) 57. (b) 77. (d) 97. (b) 117. (c) 137. (d) 157. (c) 177. (c) 197. (b)
18. (d) 38. (b) 58. (d) 78. (c) 98. (c) 118. (b) 138. (b) 158. (a) 178. (d) 198. (b)
19. (c) 39. (c) 59. (a) 79. (b) 99. (c) 119. (a) 139. (b) 159. (a) 179. (a) 199. (c)
20. (a) 40. (c) 60. (a) 80. (d) 100. (a) 120. (c) 140. (a) 160. (b) 180. (d) 200. (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) The Vechur cattle is a rare breed of Bos indicus, in females and XY in males. All the 46 chromosomes
named after the village Vechoor in Kottayam in pairs can be seen under microscope at metaphase
district of the state of Kerala in India. Its average stage in the cells which are undergoing mitosis.
length is 124 cm and height is 87 cm, according to 4. (a) Octopus belongs to Mollusca. Jelly¿sh belongs
the Guineas Book of Records, it’s the smallest cattle to Coelenterata. Silver ¿sh belongs to Arthropoda.
breed in the world. Its milk is considered to have Bombay Duck belongs to Pisces.
medicinal properties. Unlike other cattle, they can 5. (b) Carbon-14 is radioactive isotope of carbon,
resist drought by being hardy towards it. which can mutate the DNA by getting incorporated
2. (b) Cold-blooded animals require much less energy into it. X-rays are high energy and ionizing rays.
to survive than warm-blooded animals. These can cause mutation at genetic level though
3. (b) Humans are diploid organisms by having two they generally damage the bio-molecules by altering
members or homologous chromosomes in a pair. their function. Coal miners have the risk to develop
Total 23 pairs of chromosomes exist in each somatic certain types of cancers.
cell of the body. Total 46 chromosomes occur. One 6. (a) All the statements are correct. The term gene was
particular pair individually in male and female coined by Danish biologist Wilhelm Johannsen in
determines their respective sex. This one pair is XX 1909. Genes are the discrete DNA segments sitting
E-62 || Biology
in the chromosomes which express to give rise to a the discovery of restriction endonucleases. For the
particular protein. Alleles are the alternative forms ¿rst time, Feldmann and Marks had demonstrated
of same gene. In diploid organisms, there are two the production of transgenic plants without invitro
alleles on the two homologous chromosomes. If step. They just grew the Arabidopsis seeds with the
there exists multiple number of alleles of same gene containing Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
gene, it means all the alleles are multiple or simply Kary Mullis is the inventor of the technique PCR
multiple alleles. for in vitro synthesis of DNA fragments. Reverse
7. (a) Frogs generally breathe by their lungs but they transcriptase was discovered by Howard Temin and
can also breathe with their skin too. Their skin is independently isolated by David Baltimore in 1970.
glandular which can exchange oxygen and carbon 13. (d) Essential amino acids or indispensable amino
acids are those amino acids which cannot be
dioxide along with some other bodily secretions.
synthesized de novo by any particular organism.
The mature frogs have no gills, but before their
In humans also, some amino acids are essential
larval stage have tail as well as internal gills like
and must be supplied in the diet. The amino acids
¿shes through which most of the breathing occurs. regarded as essential for humans are phenylalanine,
These two particular features disappear once the valine, threonine, tryptophan, methionine, leucine,
tadpoles are ready to metamorphose. isoleucine, lysine, and histidine.
8. (c) Humans are diploid with 23 pairs of 14. (c) Lungs are the organs which actually oxygenate
chromosomes. Of this, 22 pairs are somatic and the up the blood by exchanging the carbon dioxide to
one pair is sex chromosomes. This particular pair outside and taking up oxygen which comes to them
exists as XX in human females and XY in males. by breathing in by the organism. This oxygen in the
The presence of two X chromosomes contributes blood is then transported to each tissue of the body.
to the female phenotype while presence of only Integrated and coordinated works of circulatory and
one Y chromosome is responsible for the human
respiratory systems are responsible for this.
to be male. Females produce only X-type haploid
15. (a) In genetic engineering, a DNA segment from
gametes and males produce two types (X and Y) of
any foreign source can be inserted into any other
haploid gametes. Fusion of either X or Y of male
genetic material. The enzymes, called restriction
gamete with the female gamete determines the sex
endonucleases, act like scissors that cut apart a
of the offspring.
9. (b) After the removal of wastes from the kidneys, the particular or speci¿c part of the DNA. This cut
cleaner blood is sent back through the renal veins. out DNA piece can be inserted into other genetic
From Bowman’s capsule, the ¿ltered liquid passes material which has been cut to make space for
through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is containing the foreign DNA. The DNA once inserted
reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal can be ligated by enzymes known as ligases.
vein. 16. (a) Regarding to the DNA ¿ngerprinting, both the
10. (c) Alcohol acts as a diuretic. It actually promotes given statements are correct.
urine production by inhibiting the release of 17. (d) Transduction and conjugation were discovered
antidiuretic hormone, or vasopressin from the by Joshua Lederberg. Morgan investigated about
pituitary gland. In turn, reduced levels of antidiuretic the sex-linked inheritance in Drosophila. In 1956,
hormone prevent the kidneys from reabsorbing Arthur Kornberg and colleagues had discovered the
water and thereby increase urine production. enzyme DNA polymerase I, also known as Pol I,
11. (d) During exercise, the level of somatotropin
in Escherichia coli. Hargobind Khorana, Marshall
goes up. Testes secrete testosterone and females’
W. Nirenberg and Robert W. Holley were given the
adrenal glands secrete progesterone. Stress causes
the adrenal glands to release very less amount of Nobel Prize for their work on the discovery of the
cortisol (a steroid hormone) than usual. genetic code in 1968.
12. (a) Werner Arber along with American researchers 18. (d) Sternum is the breast bone. Clavicle is the collar
Hamilton Smith and Daniel Nathans, had won the bone. Patella is the knee cap. Scapula is the shoulder
1978 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for blade.
19. (c) Adrenalines are secreted in the situations of avoidance over a long period may cause the vit-A
exercise, fear or any kind of dangerous situation. de¿ciency symptoms.
Oestrogens are steroid hormones or female primary 25. (c) Dengue is a viral disease transmitted through
sex hormones. Insulin is responsible for the mosquito. Fever, headache, pain in joints, back
metabolism of sugar in the body. Pheromones are muscles and eyeballs, skin rash for a few days,
the compounds which are secreted generally from bleeding from nose and gums are some of the
symptoms of the dengue fever.
insect; go out to affect the other insects. Some of the
26. (a)
pheromones include alarm pheromones, food trail 27. (d) ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)
pheromones, and sex pheromones. is an important test for diagnosing viral diseases
20. (a) Ptyalin digests the starch in the mouth. Pepsin like AIDS (caused by HIV). Majority of the human
is a proteolytic enzyme which breaks down the beings are Rh+ while very few are Rh–.
proteins into simple peptides. Renin is responsible 28. (d) Plague is a deadly infectious disease, caused
for converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin. by the enterobacteria Yersinia pestis. Until 2007,
Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates the plague, yellow fever, and cholera were the three
contraction of smooth muscles of the body. epidemic diseases reported to WHO.
21. (b) Electroencephalography (EEG) is the recording AIDS is caused by human immunode¿ciency virus.
of electrical activity along the scalp. EEG measures Baldness can be caused by a fungus Microsporum
voltage Àuctuations resulting from ionic current audouinii, a common cause of ringworm and
Àows in neurons of the brain. Electrocardiography associated hair loss. Malaria is mosquito-borne
(ECG) is a transthoracic interpretation of the infectious disease of humans caused by protozoa of
electrical activity of the heart over a period of genus Plasmodium.
time detected by electrodes attached to the surface 29. (b) An enzyme is basically a protein which acts like
of the skin and recorded external device. Electro- a catalyst in the metabolic reaction and the juice
oculography (EOG) is a technique of measuring of the pancreas is basically composed from three
the corneoretinal standing potential existing enzymes trypsin, amylase and lipase.
between the front and the back of the human eye. 30. (a) Leucocytes are white blood cells. These comprise
Electromyography (EMG) is a technique for of neutrophils which provide protection to the body
evaluating physiologic properties of muscles. through phagocytosis of bacteria and thus act as
22. (b) Milch animals are those animals which are scavengers. The basophils are the granulocytes
source of milk, e.g. cow, goat, buffalo. Foot-and- which contain histamines and heparin. Heparin
mouth disease, caused by Aphthae epizooticae is thins blood to prevent clotting. Histamines dilate
an infectious disease that affects cloven-hoofed the blood vessels and increase the permeability of
animals. Anthrax is an acute infectious disease capillaries. Monocytes are of two types namely
caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis. macrophages and dendritic cells. Acidophils
Blackleg, black quarter is an infectious bacterial take up role in anti-allergic reactions and wound
disease caused by Clostridium chauvoei affecting healing. The lymphocytes are B cells, T cells and
cattle, sheep and goats. Cowpox is caused by natural killer cells. These are mainly involved in the
cowpox virus and is infectious. immune responses by producing speci¿c antibodies.
23. (b) Meningococcal meningitis is transmitted 31. (a) All the statements are correct. The HIV is highly
from person to person through air via droplets of mutable retrovirus and if remain dormant in the body
respiratory secretions and direct contact with an for long time, it becomes all the more dif¿cult to
infected person like oral contact with shared items. detect it and remove it from the body once detected.
24. (a) Vitamin A has a major role in photo- The most severe thing it does to the body is that,
transduction. Its de¿ciency causes night blindness it directly attacks the immune system killing many
in humans. Xerophthalmia, keratomalacia can also T-cells. And it takes around 10 years to develop
occur with its de¿ciency. Green, yellow-orange-red AIDS. However, a patient can lead a normal life
(dark- coloured) fruits and vegetables, eggs, milk; via taking antiretroviral therapies (ARTs) which can
forti¿ed cereals are rich source of vitamin A. Their decrease the virus load to undetectable level.
E-64 || Biology
32. (a) In the prokaryotes, all the genetic materials lie 39. (c) The instrument used for measuring blood
inside the cell, no clear or separate nuclear wall pressure is known as Sphygmomanometer or BP
is recognized in these cells. In fact no membrane- apparatus. Blood pressure is usually measured from
bound organelles are found in the prokaryotes. While left brachial artery.
on the other hand, one of the characteristic features Autoanalyser is a computer controlled instrument
of the eukaryotic cells is the presence of membrane for various biochemical tests on sample of blood,
bound organelles. Clear and distinguished nuclear urine or other body Àuids.
membrane bounds the genetic material inside. CT scanning, developed by Godfrey Houns¿eld in
33. (d) Both assertion and reason are false. Regeneration 1968, (Nobel Prize in 1979).
is not itself a strategy but rather the shedding off Gambusia is a larvivorous ¿sh, used as a biocontrol
of any organ is a strategy to avoid predation. The agent for mosquitoes.
strategy to regenerate the body parts from the pre- 40. (c) Phobia is a kind of intense fear from something.
existing tissue or adult stem cells. This actually e.g., hydrophobia, ailurophobia is fear of cats,
involves the de-differentiation of the mature cells to astraphobia is fear of thunder and lightning,
make them a sort of stem cells again which can then achluophobia is fear of darkness. Neurosis is less
differentiate to make the lost part. The later strategy severe than mental illness and is normal to overcome
is different than the strategy involved in escaping worry, fear, anxiety and feeling of insecurity. This
predation. can also develop due to maladaptive habits.
34. (c) Duckbilled platypus is that rare mammal which Hypochondria is a condition in which there is undue
is oviparous. Oviparous animals are those that lie concern about health by a person about himself.
eggs, inside which the young ones develop before Insomnia is lack of sleep over many nights.
hatching. 41. (c) Jaundice is a result of increased bile pigments in
35. (b) Progesterone is released from the female gonads. the blood.
It has roles in the female menstrual cycle, pregnancy Defects of heart valves leads to stenosis, in which
and embryogenesis. Growth hormone or somatropin the blood vessels are narrowed abnormally so, there
or somatropin, is a peptide hormone that stimulates is abnormal blood sounds.
growth, cell reproduction and regeneration in Highly allergic infection and inÀammation of nose
humans and other animals, the pituitary gland is known as Rhinitis.
secretes this hormone. The pancreas secretes insulin Paralysis is the loss of motor functions due to
that regulates the sugar metabolism in the body. damage to nervous system.
Cortisol is released from the zona fasciculata of the 42. (d) Antibiotics act against the growth of micro-
adrenal cortex in response to stress. organisms. Some antibiotics are broad range and
36. (b) others are speci¿c being active against many micro-
37. (a) Osteoporosis is a disease of bones and cartilage organismal species or selective for only some. The
in which there is a reduction in bone tissue mass ‘Resistance genes’ in the bacteria develop resistance
causing weakness of skeletal bones and fragility. It against a particular antibiotic over a long time due
is caused by excessive resorption of calcium and to mutation and thus, that particular antibiotic does
phosphorous from the bones. not act on this resistant mutant strains.
38. (b) Cigarette smoke contains N-nitrosodimethylene 43. (a) Temperate climatic zones see spring and autumn
and causes accumulation of toxics in lungs and distinctly in a year. Spring brings plenty of water
arteries to block the passages. that the trees can take up to form larger xylem
Mustard gas, chemically known as Bis vessels and a broader and soft 'spring wood'. In
(2-chloroethyl) sulphide, blocks lungs and affects late summer or in winters, the climate becomes dry
respiration as it is a strong mutagen and Carcinogen. severing enough water supply, thus, the vascular
Asbestos affects lungs and pleural membranes as it cambium cuts off smaller xylem vessels forming
is made up of tiny ¿bers that enter into lungs when
a narrow and darker dense 'autumn woods'. Spring
breathed in. Vinylchloride is an organochloride,
and autumn woods together form a growth ring or
H2C = CHCl is highly toxic, Àammable and
annual growth ring. Counting each growth ring as
carcinogenic and lungs are affected.
the age of the tree.
44. (c) Carolus Linnaeus is credited as the father of found in old world tropics.
modern taxonomy. He had created the binomial 50. (a) The dark reactions of photosynthesis occur in
nomenclature of the living organism as he the stroma of the chloroplast. The light reactions
introduced it in Species Plantarum in 1753. The occur in the thylakoid membranes or the grana of the
term taxonomy was originally coined by Augustin chloroplasts. The glycolytic pathways occur in the
Pyramus de Candolle in 1813. cytoplasm of the cells. Kreb's cycle or tricarboxylic
45. (a) Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis in acid or citric acid cycle occurs in the mitochondria
the cytoplasm of the cells. The RNA template sits in to produce energy through oxidation.
between the two subunits of the ribosomes and the 51. (a) Living fossils are those organisms whose close
peptide synthesis take place. Intracellular digestion relatives are not living on the earth. Cycas is a living
occurs via lysosomes. The mitochondria are the fossil. Zamia pygmaea is endemic to Cuba and is the
sites of cellular respiration and power house of the smallest gymnosperm on the earth. Sequoiadendron
cells generating ATPs. The nucleus contains all the giganteum is the tallest coniferous gymnosperm
genetic materials which get expressed to produce a known as redwoods. Canada balsam is obtained
phenotype thus, making nucleus the controller of from the Abies balsamea (a North American ¿r)
the cells. also known as Canada balsam.
46. (d) Somatic cells undergo mitosis during the cell 52. (a) Sphagnum is also called as peat moss. These
cycle. The phase in which the cells undergo division have leaf-like appendages that have many circular
is called M-phase. The ¿rst stage of this phase is openings which enable them to absorb liquids
prophase, the second is metaphase in which the readily. Thus they are commercially important as
chromosomes come and lie at the equatorial plate. soil structure enhancer, packing material for living
This stage is followed by anaphase in which the plants. Ephedrine is a sympathomimetic amine
sister chromatids separate out and go to the poles. commonly used as a stimulant, appetite suppressant,
The telophase is the last stage when the cell’s concentration aid, decongestant. Ephedrine is
cytoplasm is divided to give rise to two daughter obtained from the plant Ephedra sinica and other
cells. members of the Ephedra genus.
47. (b) The cell was discovered by Robert Hooke in 53. (c) Selaginella bryopteris, a lithophytic plant, is
1665. The nucleus was the ¿rst organelle to be used as a medicinal plant in India and commonly
discovered. The oldest description of the nucleus known as 'Sanjeevani' or one that infuses life. It is
was given by Anton van Leeuwenhoek (1632– very much drought hardy and can remain alive for
1723). But the nucleus was described in more detail many years without water. Adiantum is the maiden
for the ¿rst time in 1831 by Scottish botanist Robert hair fern. Equisetum or horsetail is a living fossil
Brown in a talk at the Linnean Society of London. and the only living genus of class Equisetopsida.
Lysosomes are found in animal cells but their Dryopteris is commonly known as wood fern or
presence in yeasts and plant cells is disputed. male fern.
48. (a) NBRI — Lucknow, 54. (b) Bryophytes are the phylum of small simple plants
CPRI — Shimla, with no vascular tissue and root like rhizoids. They
CRRI — Cuttack,
are called the amphibians of the plant kingdom as
CFRI — Dehradun they can survive in both conditions with and without
49. (a) Sundews are one of the largest genera of
water. Selaginella is an example of Pteridophyte.
carnivorous plants. These are the members of the
55. (a) In the leaves, the photosynthates or sugars are
family Droseraceae. So, Drosera is a sundew
converted into starch and via phloem their transport
carnivorous plant. Dionaea is the member of the
to all the other parts occur. The xylem cells transport
family Tachinidae, commonly called as venus
Àytrap. Utricularia is member of the family only water and some minerals from the roots upto
Lentibulariaceae, which are carnivorous, plants the shoots. The xylem vessels are dead cells with
commonly known as bladderworts. Nepenthes are empty lumen but they are hard to carryout the water
genera comprising tropical carnivorous plants and transport by depositing secondary wall materials,
also known as monkey cups. These are generally such as lignin.
E-66 || Biology
56. (b) Lichens are the symbiotic association of algae a variety of cells and antibody-mediated immune
and fungi. The algal member is generally a green processes. It results in hypothyroidism.
alga or blue-green alga. The fungal partner is usually Cretinism is a condition of several stunted physical
of Ascomycota. Lichens are sensitive to pH change, and mental growth due to untreated congenital
thus making them good indicators of pollution or de¿ciency of thyroid hormone or maternal
SO2 as the later makes H2SO4 with water. hypothyroidism.
57. (b) In sewage treatment tanks, different aerobic 64. (a) ECG is a test that measures the electrical activity
bacteria are used to degrade organic wastes. of the heart. ECG is used to measure the rate and
'Chlorella' is used as a source of providing oxygen regularity of heart beats.
to the bacteria. Chlorella is an attractive food source 65. (a) Benign tumours are those which do not spread
from the site of formation and is not cancerous.
as it is high in protein and other essential nutrients.
They can be operated and treated by removal.
Dried Chlorella contains around 45% protein, 20%
Malignant tumours are dangerously cancerous as
fat, 20% carbohydrate and pretty good amount of they spread from the place of formation to other
vitamins. Chlorella is a potential plant to be used in tissues. Neoplasm is a malignant tumour.
space Àight shuttles for continuous oxygen supply. Cancer of epithelial tissues are called carcinomas.
Chlorellin is an antibiotic obtained from chlorella. Sarcoma is the cancer developed in bone and
58. (d) Three types of cells are found in pancreas. cartilage tissues. Lymphomas are the cancers of
D-cells, E-cells, G-cells. D-cells secrete peptide blood-forming haematopoietic cells.
hormone glucagon. E-cells synthesise and secrete 66. (a) A condition in colour blindness known as
the endocrine hormone, insulin, the hyposecretion 'Protanomaly' where a person is not able to
of which leads to abnormal metabolism of body’s distinguish between red and green. Colour blindness
sugar and causes Diabetes mellitus. G-cells produce is an X-linked disease condition in which retinal
somatostatin. cone cells are not developed properly.
59. (a) Lymphatic ¿lariasis is caused by nematodes of 67. (a) Agroforestry involves the practice of growing
genera, Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi and trees with the cultivated crops on the same ¿eld.
Brugia timori, which occupy the lymphatic system, Hydroponics is a scienti¿c technique of growing
including the lymph nodes. In chronic cases, the plants on soil less arti¿cial liquids or water media
worms lead to disease elephantiasis in which legs that contain the nutrients. The scienti¿c study of
and sometimes genital organs swell up. fruits and cultivation of fruits comes under the
60. (a) Progeria or Hutchinson-Gilford progeria branch of biology known as Pomology. Palynology
syndrome is a genetic disease with a defect in
is the scienti¿c study of pollen grains and spores,
the gene LMNA, in which the ageing process is
live as well as fossilized.
manifested at a very early age and the progeric
68. (c) The site of photosynthesis is the thylakoid
children typically live to their mid-teens to early
membranes of the chloroplasts. The entire mineral
twenty.
61. (b) Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebiasis, uptake by the cells is done via the plasma membrane
the symptoms of which are chronic diarrhoea to which is selectively permeable for some minerals
fulminant dysentry. Trypanosoma gambiense causes and not permeable for most of the substances. The
sleeping sickness in which there are fevers, joint cellular respiration to derive out the energy occurs in
pains, numbness poor coordination and trouble in the mitochondria. Ribosomes act as the sites for the
sleeping. Syphilis is a STD, caused by Treponema peptide synthesis. The RNA template sits on the two
pallidum, a spirochete becterium, Pasteurella pestis subunits of the ribosomes to carry out translation.
causes Bubonic plague, in which the lymph nodes 69. (d) The process of stem cutting is also known
are swollen especially in armpit and groin. as striking or cloning. It is a vegetative mode of
62. (c) Stewart's wilt or disease is caused by Erwinia propagation of plants. Stems, roots or both can
stewartii in maize. This bacterium is carried in corn be used to propagate the plants. Bougainvillea,
Àea beetle which acts as a vector for its transmission. carnations, cocoa and grapes can all be propagated
63. (b) Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune with stem cuttings.
disease in which the thyroid gland is attacked by
70. (c) Hugo de Vries introduced the term mutation and 77. (d) Khaira is a disease of rice, in which the plants
developed the mutation theory of evolution. Darwin develop chlorotic or yellow patches at leaf base
had given the theory of evolution. One gene one on both sides of the midrib. Anaemia is a decrease
enzyme hypothesis was an idea which said that one in number of red blood cells caused due to iron-
gene is responsible for producing one enzyme only. de¿ciency. De¿ciency of iodine causes goitre.
This was proposed by Beadle and Tatum in 1941. Scurvy is a gum disease caused due to vitamin-C
The concept of Operon was given by Jacob and de¿ciency.
Monod in 1961. 78. (c) The characteristics of diabetes mellitus are
71. (a) Pure capsaicin is a white crystalline powder. increase of sugar in blood, appearance of sugar in
Capsaicin is a capsaicinoid which belongs to the urine and lack of energy.
79. (b) Prophylaxis is a medical or public health
alkaloid family. It is present in chili peppers. It
procedure whose purpose is to prevent, rather than
is bene¿cial for heart as it has role in controlling
treat an ailment. For tuberculosis, BCG vaccine is
cholesterol. Geraniol is a natural antioxidant. given. DPT vaccine prevents diphtheria, pertussis
Geraniol has been suggested to help prevent cancer. and tetanus. ATS (antitetanus serum) and DPT
It is found in coriander, lavender, lemon, lime, vaccines are used to prevent tetanus. TAB vaccine
nutmeg, oranges. Allicin is an antioxidant found in is typhoid-paratyphoid A and B vaccine.
garlic and is effective against cancers. Lycopene is a 80. (d) Leprosy is caused by bacteria, Mycobacterium
carotenoid present in tomatoes. It is a very ef¿cient leprae and Mycobacterium lepromatosis. Measles is
antioxidant, which can neutralize oxygen-derived caused by virus. Kala-ajar is caused by protozoa of
free radicals. genus Leishmania. Athlete's foot is caused by fungi
72. (c) In the Àower, the ovules undergo fertilization by (SLGHUPRSK\WRQÀRFFRVXP7ULFKRSK\WRQVS.
fusing the egg with the pollen. These then develop 81. (a) Cardiologist cures heart diseases. Nephrologist
into seeds nestling the small embryo inside. The cures kidney. Urologist cures urinary tract ailments.
ovary swells to become the Àeshy fruit. The wood Oculist cures eye.
in trees is the result of secondary growth of the outer 82. (c) Antipyretics are drugs or herbs that reduce fever.
layers of stem by cell divisions. The leaves are the Paracetamol or N-acetyl-p-aminophenol is used
site of photosynthesis and the photosynthates (the as an antipyretic. Antifoaming agent is a chemical
sugars are converted into starch) are stored in the that reduces foam formation, is chemically
form of starch. polydimethylsiloxanes or polyamides, silicones.
73. (c) Swine Àu is caused by swine inÀuenza viruses. Aspirin is a salicylate drug, used as an analgesic.
It is transmitted person to person by sneezing or Saframycin, rifamycin, etc. are antiseptics.
coughing. It is not spread by eating cooked pork. Calciferol is antirachitic.
74. (c) The HIV is transmitted by exchange of body 83. (c) Night blindness is caused by de¿ciency of
Àuids during sexual intercourse, any kind of infected vitamin-A. De¿ciency of vitamin D causes rickets.
blood transfusion. It can also be transmitted from De¿ciency of vitamin C causes scurvy. De¿ciency
mother to the foetus via blood transfusion across of vitamin B causes beri-beri.
placenta. 84. (b) Ligaments connect two bones together. Tendon
75. (b) Myxedema is case of either hypothyroidism or connects muscles. Areolar tissue is ¿lling tissue.
hyperthyroidism due to defect in endocrine thyroid Fats are stored in adipose tissue.
gland. Nephrosis is disease of nephrons of kidney, 85. (b) Marasmus is caused by protein de¿ciency
which is a part of excretory system. Paralysis is in under ¿ve years children. Kwashiorkor is
most often caused by damage in the nervous system de¿ciency of proteins, energy malnutrition caused
or spinal cord. Syphilis is a sexually-transmitted by prolonged starvation. Tuberculosis is caused
disease of the reproductive system. by Mycobacterium infection. Hepatitis B is a viral
76. (c) Hepatitis B is around hundred times more diseases.
infectious than HIV. Hepatitis B kills more than 1 86. (a) The causative agent of Anthrax is used as a
million people every year. In this disease, liver can potent bioweapon in warfare. Thalassaemia is a
also swell up and develop cancer. disease caused by defective genes of haemoglobin.
E-68 || Biology
Surrogecy is an intermediate stage in arti¿cial 93. (b) 'Filariasis' or Philariasis is a parasitic disease
insemination for producing an offspring. The transmitted from black Àies and mosquitoes to
science of altering genes is a branch of biology humans. Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi,
known as transgenics. Brugia timori cause 'lymphatic Filariasis'. In
87. (a) Cholera is a disease caused by bacterium Vibrio malaria, red blood cells are infected.
cholerae. 'Encephalitis' is an acute inÀammation of the
Athlete's foot is caused by fungal species such as brain. Some of the most common causes of acute
(SLGHUPRSK\WRQÀRFFRVXP, Tricho-phyton sp. viral encephalitis are rabies virus, herpes simplex,
88. (d) Acquired Immune De¿ciency Syndrome (AIDS) poliovirus, measles virus and J.C. virus.
is caused by HIV, a retrovirus in which immune 'Leukemia' or Leukaemia is a type of cancer of bone
system of the body is seriously affected. The marrow.
symptoms are swollen-lymph nodes, sweating at 94. (a) Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease
night, loss of weight and loss of memory. of humans caused by parasitic protozoans of genus
89. (c) Diphtheria is a respiratory tract illness caused Plasmodium. Poliomyelitis is caused by poliovirus.
by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Pneumonia is an Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium
inÀammatory condition of the lung caused by virus tuberculosis. Ringworm is caused by fungi.
or bacteria. Leprosy or Hansen's disease is caused 95. (a) Ginger is an underground stem modi¿cation
by Mycobacterium leprae and Mycobacterium known as rhizome, which is a horizontal underground
lepromatosis. AIDS, syphilis and gonorrhoea stem. Corm is an underground modi¿ed stem, in a
are viral diseases. Polio, Japanease encephalitis form of short swollen food-storing stem surrounded
and plague are viral diseases. Colourblindness, by protective scale leaves, e.g. colocasia. Tuber, a
haemophilia, and sickle cell anaemia are X-linked modi¿ed, stem has many nodes and internodes, e.g.
(sex-linked) disease conditions. potato. Onion is a modi¿ed stem in the form of a
90. (a) Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is a condition bulb.
characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of 96. (c) The raw materials needed by plants to undergo
large amounts of severely diluted urine. Diabetes photosynthesis are sunlight, water, soil nutrients, and
mellitus is a group of metabolic diseases in which carbon dioxide. The chlorophyll molecules capture
a person has high blood sugar, due to two causes
the photons of sunlight to pass it to reaction centre.
either the pancreas does not produce enough insulin,
The range of the spectrum of sunlight absorbed by
or because cells do not respond to the insulin that
chlorophylls in photosynthesis is red and blue. They
is produced. The most common type in humans is
do not absorb the green portion of the spectrum. The
the neurological form which involves a de¿ciency
of arginine vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone. concentration of oxygen when increases beyond a
91. (c) Diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disease in which limit it causes the rate of photosynthesis to decrease.
a person has high blood sugar, either because the 97. (b) A small lateral outgrowth present at the leaf
pancreas does not produce enough insulin or because base is called stipule. Leaves with stipule are called
cells do not respond to the insulin. Hyposecretion of as stiupulate and leaves without stipule are called
insulin affects the rate of sugar metabolism. exstipulate.
92. (b) Hemophilia is a group of hereditary genetic 98. (c) Anthesis is the phenomenon of opening of Àower
disorders that impairs the body's ability to buds to become Àowers. Fruits which are developed
control blood clotting or coagulation. It is an without fertilization are called parthenocarpic fruits.
X-chromosome-linked disorder and more likely to It does not have seeds. The plants undergo double
occur in males. fertilization as the egg fuses with the male gamete
Diabetes is a hormonal disorder in which sugar and the two polar bodies also get fused with another
metabolism is affected. De¿ciency of vitamin-D male gamete. The fertilized egg develops into the
causes rickets in which bones of legs bend. diploid embryo while the double fertilized polar
Ringworm is fungal lesion like skin infection bodies become the triploid endosperm.
caused by Trichophyton rubrum, Trichophyton 99. (c) Chloroplasts and mitochondria are considered
tonsurans, T. interdigitale, Microsporum canis, T. to be the membrane bound endosymbionts in the
mentagrophytes. eukaryotic cells. Both possess their own genetic
material or genome. But most of their genes case of protective or defensive mimicry. Viceroy,
have been integrated into the nucleus. So, many a palatable one mimics itself as an unpalatable
proteins are transferred from the cytoplasm into the Monarch butterÀy or queen butterÀy.
organelles. 107. (a) Angiosperms could dominate the land Àora
100. (a) The absorption of moisture or water by a solid among other plants, such as gymnosperms,
substance is known as 'imbibition'. Imbibition pteridophytes or bryophytes because they inhabited
causes the solid substance to increase a little in diverse habitats and adapted better to those areas.
volume. In rainy season, wood imbibes moisture to Moreover, they also had better seed dispersal
swell up. Excessive fertilizers in soil cause increase mechanisms.
of their concentration when dissolved in water. It 108. (d) When vaseline is applied to both surfaces of
becomes hypertonic than the solutes present in plant the leaf of a plant, all the three processes will be
roots thus, exosmosis may occur. The capillary affected. Stomata of both surfaces will get closed.
water is the water in the roots causing a negative
As a result there will be no exchange of gases like
root pressure.
CO2, O2 and water vapour. This will affect all the
101. (b) Gibberellins were discovered in the fungus,
three processes.
Gibberella fujikuroi. Gibberellic acid causes tallness
109. (d) The enzyme nitrogenase reduces N2 to form
in plants. Vernalization is stimulus for the plants to
ammonia. Mutant strains of Rhizobium are not able
Àower up. Cold treatment or gibberellic acids also
cause Àowering and bolting in the plants. to secrete excess protein into the soil.
102. (c) The pulpy edible part of mango fruit is a 110. (a) Carbon dioxide and water vapour in plants are
mesocarp which is the middle layer of pericarp (fruit produced as wastes during respiration. Oxygen is
wall). Coconut Àesh and water are technically the produced as a waste during photosynthesis. All these
endosperm. Litchi is an aril which is an outgrowth gaseous wastes of photosynthesis and respiration
from the testa of a seed. Apple is also not a true fruit, are removed though stomata.
being a Àeshly thalamus. The actual fruit lies inside 111. (c) Wine is a fermented drink made from the grapes
the apple containing the seeds. or sugarcane or other fruits. Beer is an alcoholic
103. (b) The breakdown of water molecules to the beverage produced by the sacchari¿cation of starch
constituent atoms by light energy is known as and fermentation of the resulting sugar. The starch
'photolysis'. The chlorophyll molecules absorb the and sacchari¿cation enzymes are often derived from
light energy and funnel it to a speci¿c chlorophyll malted cereal grains of barley and wheat. Whisky is
molecule in the reaction centre which gets excited made from fermented grain mash of barley, malted
to a higher energy state. All green plants undergo barley, rye, malted rye, wheat, buckwheat and corn.
oxygenic photosynthesis in which the byproduct of Rum is made from molasses.
carbon dioxide ¿xation and electron transport chain, 112. (b) Rhizophora constitutes the red mangroves which
is molecular oxygen. have respiring roots known as pneumatophores.
104. (a) Fasciculated roots are tuberous roots. Dahlias have
105. (b) The largest perennial plant is a marine alga, fasciculated roots. Climbing roots are developed in
Macrocystis sp. The smallest Àowering plant is Piper betle. Orchids have a characteristic feature
:ROI¿D, which is under 2 mm (0.079 in) long. of developing epiphytic roots. Epiphytic plants are
Ginkgo is one of the living fossils. those plants which develop aerial roots.
113. (c) Mendel worked on garden pea as it was easy
Rhizophores are root-like water and nutrient absorbing
for genetic studies and easy to work with as it had
organs found in a pleridophyte Selaginella sp.
short lifespan, self-pollinating crop, and had seven
106. (c) Commensalism is a class of relationship between
distinguishable contrasted features to compare
two organisms where one organism bene¿ts without
between. Pea (Pisum sativum) is a leguminous crop
affecting the other, e.g. sea anemone hitches a ride
which belongs to the family Fabaceae.
on a hermit crab. 114. (c) Potato, Solanum tuberosum, belongs to the
Batesian mimicry is demonstrated by Viceroy family Solanaceae, other member being tomato
butterÀy to avoid predation. Batesian mimicry is a
E-70 || Biology
and brinjal. Malvaceae include cotton (Gossypium 122. (a) Blood group A contains antigen A and anti-B
sp), okra (Abelmoschus esculentus.), Hibiscus antibodies in the blood plasma. Similarly, blood
sp., Theobroma cacao. Liliaceae members are group B contains antigen B and anti-A antibodies
herbaceous, bulbous, Àowering monocots, e.g. in the blood plasma. A particular blood group
onion (Allium cepa). Cruciferae or Brassicaceae known as AB contains both A and B antigens but no
members are economical crops to which cabbage antibodies. The blood group O contains no antigens
(Brassica oleracea), radish (Raphanus sativus), but both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the blood
mustard (Brassica juncea) belong. plasma.
115. (a) Androecia contain stamens and gynoecia contain 123. (c) Femur is the most proximal bone of the leg in the
carpels. The calyx and corolla are the accessory tetrapod vertebrates. It is the single bone in the thigh
reproductive organs. Corolla is the whorl of petals and longest bone in the human body. The stapes is
around the male and female reproductive organs. a bone in the middle year of the humans. It is the
smallest in the human body. Enamel is the hardest
Corolla is the outermost whorl of sepals, which
substance in the human body which is made up of
persist after fertilization and fruit development.
96% of minerals.
116. (d) Camphor is a waxy, Àammable, white or
124. (c) In 1892, Dmitri Ivanovsky for the ¿rst time had
transparent solid with a strong aromatic odour.
described a non-bacterial pathogen which infected
Cinnamomum camphora is the source of camphor. tobacco plants. Then the actual discovery of tobacco
Vanilla is a Àavour obtained from the orchid of mosaic virus was done by Martinus Beijerinck in
the genus Vanilla, generally from Mexican Vanilla 1898. Anton van Leeuwenhoek of 17th century is
planifolia. Chicory is a root extract or roots of credited with the discovery of bacteria for the ¿rst
Cichorium intybusis used commercially as a time in a drop of pond water under a glass lens.
substitute for coffee. Theodor Schwann, Matthias Jakob Schleiden, and
117. (c) Bisexual Àowers are those Àowers which have Rudolf Virchow proposed the cell theory. In 1839,
both stamens (male reproductive organ) and carpels Schwann and Schleiden suggested that cells were
(female reproductive organs). Those plants which the basic unit of life.
have only one, either male or female reproductive 125. (b) Cotton wool is all made of ¿bres of cellulose.
part are called unisexual Àowers. Flowers having Honey gets its sweetness from fructose and glucose.
only male reproductive part are called staminate and Maltose or malt sugar is a disaccharide. Sugarcane
the Àowers having only female reproductive part are contains sucrose.
called pistillate Àowers. 126. (b) Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by
118. (b) The largest family containing most number of Xanthomonas spp. Magnoporthe grisea causes rice
genera is Asteraceae. Mushrooms are the fruiting blast disease.
bodies of the fungus belonging to the order Phytophthora spp. causes late blight of potato. It
Agaricales and family Agaricaceae. had caused the Great Irish Famine in 1845–1849.
119. (a) All the arteries carry oxygenated blood from Citrus canker is developed in citric fruits by
the heart to various parts of the body except the
Xanthomonas axonopodis.
pulmonary artery which carries the deoxygenated
127. (c) Flavr Savr, a genetically modi¿ed tomato, had
or impure blood from the heart to the lungs to make
been made to retain the freshness and Àavour by
it oxygenated. All the veins carry deoxygenated
blood from various parts of the body towards the blocking an enzyme known as polygalacturonase.
heart except the pulmonary vein which brings the This enzyme is responsible for ripening of tomato
oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. but blocking it by genetic engineering delays
120. (c) Willian Harvey discovered the circulatory ripening and thus prolonging its shelf life.
system of animals. Stephan Hales is considered to 128. (c) Cambium is the lateral meristematic tissue that
be the Father of Plant Physiology. John Ray coined gives off secondary xylem cells towards inside and
the term ‘genera’ in around 17th century. Karl secondary phloem towards outside. Cork cambium
Landsteiner discovered the blood groups in humans. is a tissue found in many vascular plants as part of
121. (d) Arteries carry blood from heart to various body the periderm. It is responsible for developing cork.
organs. Veins carry blood from body organs to heart.
Commercial cork is derived from the bark of the and guanine. But in RNA, no thymine is present
cork oak (Quercus suber). instead only uracil is present which pair up with
129. (b) Hirudin, an anticoagulant protein that does not adenine. All the RNAs which are synthesized inside
allow blood to clot or coagulate, has been obtained the nucleus during transcription, come out to the
from GM Brassica napus. Tissue culture is a cytoplasm for becoming the template for protein
technique that employs the ability of mature cells synthesis (translation).
to dedifferentiate and give rise to whole organism. 136. (d) Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes.
HouseÀies have 6 pairs of chromosomes.
This particular ability is totipotency.
Mosquitoes have 3 pairs of chromosomes. Dogs
Pyrethrin is an insecticide obtained from Àowers of
have 39 pairs of chromosomes.
Chrysanthemum cinerarifolium of Asteraceae. 137. (d) Lysosome occurs in animal cells.
130. (b) Father of Indian mycology (study of fungus) and 138. (b) The common bile duct releases its contents into
plant pathology is E.J. Butler. the small intestine. The pancreatic duct releases its
Loose smut of wheat is a fungal disease of wheat in contents into duodenum.
which the ears of and grains of wheat are replaced 139. (b) Man is called Homo Sapiens. Cat is called Felis
by a mass of dark spores. It is caused by Ustilago domestica. Cow is called Bos indicus. Dog is called
tritici. Canis familiaris.
131. (a) Papaver somniferum or poppy is the source 140. (a) Testosterone is a male sex hormone. Codeine
of opium which is used as a narcotic. Quinine is is a sedative drug. Caoutchouc is an Indian rubber.
an anti-malarial drug obtained from Cinchona Eugenol is an aromatic oil of clove.
RI¿FLQDOLV. Ashwangandha, used as a relief agent in 141. (b) Bovines are medium to large-sized ungulates
common cold, is obtained from Withania somnifera. and ruminants, buffalo (Bubalus bubalis) is a
Isabgol, used as a remedial intake during stomach bovine. Ovines are quadrupedal, ruminant mammals
upsetness, is obtained from Plantago ovata. generally kept as livestock. Sheep (Ovis aries) is
132. (c) Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum are edible. ovine. Goats (Capra aegagrus hircus) are caprine.
Agar-agar which is used as a growth medium for Horse (Eqqus ferus) is equine.
microbes, is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria. 142. (b) The Indian or Asian wild ass is Equus hemionus
Algin is obtained from brown algae or kelps, e.g. khur. It is a subspecies of the onager native to
the macrocystics while carrageenin is from red Southern Asia. The barasingha or the swamp deer is
algae, Chondrus crispus, Chlorella and Spirulina Rucervus duvaucelii syn. Cervus duvaucelii. It is a
are unicellular algae which are rich in protein with deer species distributed in the Indian subcontinent.
around 65% of it in the cells. Chinkara is Gazella bennettii. Nilgai or Boselaphus
133. (c) Blood is the medium through which oxygen tragocamelus is the largest Asian antelope.
is transported in every tissue. The hormones 143. (b) Indian buffalo is medium. Tamaraw buffalo is
secreted by endocrine glands are transported to the dwarf. Anoa buffalo is dwarf smallest. Cape buffalo
site of action via blood. Although, the core body is the tallest. Cape buffalo is also called African
temperature remains at 37 degrees centigrade, the buffalo.
tips of ¿ngers and toes can become cold as blood 144. (b) Pangolins (Manis crassicaudata) is found in
transfers energy to outside at those places. Platelets, India, Sri Lanka, Nepal and some parts of Pakistan.
which are the constituent of blood, are responsible Gibbons are the only apes found in India. The
to prevent bleeding from the body. Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary is in Assam which
134. (d) The digestion of protein begins in stomach. The is a safe recluse for gibbons.
enzyme pepsin acts on protein and brings about their 145. (b) Mysore type cattle is long horned. Gir type cattle
breakdown in the stomach. The protein-digesting is long eared. Danny type cattle is called Danny.
enzymes from pancrease are released into small Himalaya cattle is called Dwarf type.
intestine. 146. (a) Beans are highly rich in proteins, potatoes and
135. (d) All the DNAs are found to be inside the nucleus bananas are carbohydrate rich. Banana provides an
of the cell. In DNA, the four nucleotide bases
amount of sugar, minerals and vitamins and some
which are present are adenine, cytosine, thymine
acids (mainly malic acid).
E-72 || Biology
147. (a) Fern plants are related to Pteridophyta which 161. (c) Fishes have 2 chambered heart. Birds have
have true vascular system i.e. xylem and phloem four chambered heart. Frogs, toads, newts and
present. Vessels are absent in xylem and companion salamenders have four legs. But caecilians, which
cells are absent in phloem. form the least known group of amphibians, have
148. (c) Stamen produces pollen grains in the anther no limbs and only a very short tail. They resemble
which is a bilobed structure and placed terminally. snakes, worms or eels.
Mammalian germ cells give rise to spermatozoa and 162. (b) The natural semen, collected from the male
ova which fuse during fertilisation to produce a cell should be ideally used with 30-45 minutes of
called a zygote, which develops into an embryo. collection. In general, if semen has to be stored
149. (c) Mediterranean vegetation exists. beyond one hour after collection, dilution with ideal
150. (d) Outcross is used to describe a type of extender and careful handling is essential. Diluents
crossbreeding used within a pure breed to increase increase the volume of semen, retains cell integrity
the genetic diversity within the breed, particularly and buffering the detrimental effect arising on
when there is a need to avoid inbreeding. storage.
151. (c) Swine Àue is an infection by Swine inÀuenza 164. (b) Haemocyanin contains copper.
Virus, (SIV or S-OIV) is any strain of the inÀuenza 167. (c) In RNA, thymine is replaced by uracil. Thus
family of viruses that is endemic in pigs. As of 2009, Adenine will bind to uracil of RNA.
the known SIV strains include inÀuenza C and the 169. (d) Urochrome is the chemical which is responsible
subtypes of inÀuenza A (H1N1,H1N2 for the yellow colour of urine.
H3N1, H3N2 and H2N3). 172. (b) Acupuncture is the stimulation of speci¿c
Swine inÀuenza virus is common throughout acupuncture points along the skin of the body using
pig populations worldwide. People with regular thin needles.
exposure to pigs are at increased risk of swine 174. (d) Viviparous plants produce seeds that germinate
Àue infection. In August 2010, the World Health before they detach from the parent plant.
Organization declared the swine Àu pandemic 175. (a)
of¿cially all over. 176. (c) Angina pectoris is the medical term for chest
152. (c) A balanced diet is a diet which provides pain or discomfort due to coronary heart disease.
suf¿cient amount of carbohydrates, fats, proteins, It occurs when the heart muscle doesn’t get as
vitamins and minerals nutrients to maintain good much blood as it needs. Angina usually causes
health and with a small provision for periods of uncomfortable pressure, fullness, squeezing or pain
leanness or scarcity. in the center of the chest.
153. (b) Some antioxidants are produced by our body 180. (d) Rh factor is a protein found in blood. A person
whereas those the body cannot produce are obtained having Rh factor in blood is called Rh positive
from the diet. whereas that who does not carry this protein in
154. (a) Osmosis is the spontaneous net movement of the blood is called Rh negative. Marriage should
solvent molecules through a partially permeable be avoided in between Rh negative female & Rh
membrane into a region of higher solute positive male. This can be fatal for the mother as
concentration, in the direction that tends to equalize well as the baby of such parents.
the solute concentrations on the two sides. 187. (d) During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts
155. (b) Osmosis is de¿ned as the movement of solvent and moves downward. This increases the space in
molecules through a semi-permeable membrane the chest cavity and thus the lungs expand. The inter
to a region that has a higher solute concentration. coastal muscles contract to pull the rib cage upward
Osmosis helps animal cell by bringing about a state and outward.
of balance between important minerals and body Haemoglobin binding af¿nity for carbon monoxide
solutions. is 250 times greater than its af¿nity for oxygen.
160. (b) King Cobra is the only snake in the world that 188. (c) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from
builds a nest. The female snake, which is about 13 lungs while right atrium receives deoxygented
feet long, builds a nest to lay its eggs. blood from different parts of the body. Left atrium
transfers oxygenated blood to left ventricle which 193. (a) Offsprings formed by asexual reproduction
sends it to different parts of body. show greater similarity among themselves because
189. (b) Most plants absorb nitrogen in the form of asexual reproduction involve only one parent and
nitrates and nitrites and urea. Atmospheric nitrogen their is no involvement of gametes in the process.
is not available to the plants because the plants do 194. (c) In the presence of moisture and nutrients, the
not have enzymes to break the triple bond between fungi show enormous growth and produce large
the two atoms of Nitrogen. number of spores.
190. (c) Fermentation takes place in anaerobic bacteria. 195. (c) Ovaries secrete estrogen and progesterone
It occurs in the cytoplasm. which are responsible for secondary sexual
191. (c) Sensory neurons carry signals from receptors characters of females and for reproduction.
to spinal cord. Motor neurons carry signals from 196. (a) New species can be formed if there is
spinal cord to the effector muscles which take action considerable change in the genetic make up of an
accordingly. organism. This change can be a signi¿cant change
192. (c) The fore-brain is the main thinking part of the in the DNA of germ cells or changes in the number
brain. Cerebellum controls the posture and balance of chromosomes.
of the body. 198. (b) A Genes codes for an amino acid which give
rise to proteins. Each chromosome has many genes.
4 Environment and
Ecology
1. Which one of the following pairs is correctly Codes:
matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(a) Biosphere — Eduard Suess (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
(b) Ecosystem — A.P. de Candolle 6. Which of the following statements about
(c) Ecology — A.G. Tansley Radioactive pollution are correct?
(d) Biodiversity — Reiter 1. It causes genetic changes in the animals.
2. Which of the following groups of gases contribute 2. It causes disbalance among different
to the ‘Green House Effect’? minerals in the soil.
(a) Ammonia and Ozone 3. It hinders blood circulation.
(b) Carbon mono-oxide and Sulphur di-oxide 4. It causes cancers.
(c) Carbon tetraÀuoride and Nitrous oxide Select the correct answer from the codes given
(d) Carbon dioxide and Methane below:
3. Which one of the following is the correct Codes:
de¿nition of “ Agenda 21” ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(a) It is an action plan of U.N.O for protecting (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
human rights. 7. Given below are two statements:
(b) It is a book of 21 chapters on nuclear Assertion (A): Natural vegetation is the true
disarmament. index of climate.
(c) It is an action plan for the sustainable Reason (R): Water loving plants are found in
development. moist climate
(d) It is an agenda for the election of the In the context of the above statements, which one
president in the next meeting of SAARC. of the following is correct?
4. Environmental degradation means (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) Overall lowering of environmental qualities. explanation of A.
(b) Adverse change brought in by human (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
activities. explanation of A.
(c) Ecological imbalance (c) A is true but R is false.
(d) All the above (d) A is false but R is true.
5. Which of the following countries suffer from the 8. Which of the following conditions indicate the
acid rains? impact of global warming?
1. Canada 2. France 1. Melting of glaciers
3. Norway 4. Germany 2. Lowering down of sea level
Select the correct answers from the codes given 3. Changes in weather conditions
below: 4. Rise in global temperature
Select the correct answer from the codes given 13. Consider the following statements:
below: Assertion (A): Plants are called primary
Codes: producers.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 Reason (R): Plants produce their food themselves
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 through the process of photosynthesis.
9. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer from the codes given
Assertion (A): Forests are a renewable resource. below:
Reason (R): They enhance the quality of (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
environment. explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
below:
explanation of A.
Codes:
explanation of A. (d) A is false but R is true.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 14. Which one of the following statements is not
(c) A is true but R is false. (a) Ecosystem’s structure, species composition
(d) A is false but R is true. and functioning change seasonally between
10. As an ecosystem, wetlands are useful for which years.
of the following? (b) Nature has spent millions of years to re¿ne a
(a) For nutrient recovery and cycling stable ecosystem.
(b) For releasing heavy metals through (c) Ecosystem functions mainly through the
absorption by plants. input of solar energy
(c) They maintain the rivers and control Àoods. (d) The relative loss of energy due to respiration
(d) All the above decreases with higher trophic levels.
11. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly 15. Consider the following statements:
matched? Assertion (A): Conservation is a basic element
(a) Kyoto Protocol — Carbon Trading of environmental planning.
(b) Environmental — Leopold Matrix Reason (R): Conservation and development are
impact assessment
complementary to each other.
(c) The year without — 1816
summer
below
(d) Milankovich — On the origin of
Theory Species Codes:
12. Which of the following statements are true about (a) Both A and R are ture and R is the correct
ecosystem? Select the correct answer from the explanation of A.
codes: (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
1. Ecosystem comprises both biotic and abiotic explanation of A.
components. (c) A is true but R is false.
2. Solar radiation is the main driving force of (d) A is false but R is true.
the ecosystem. 16. Which one of the following does not promote
3. Ecosystem is a closed system. stability of the ecosystem?
4. Ecosystem does not have its own (a) Balancing between production and
productivity consumption of each element in the
Codes: ecosystem.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (b) Balance between input and output of energy.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
E-76 || Environment and Ecology
(c) Normal functioning of different biochemical scienti¿c research on genetic modi¿cation
cycles. of crop plants.
(d) Increase of human population. 3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights
17. Consider the following statements: related to genetic/biological resources can
Assertion (A): Ecological productivity decreases not be made without the approval of NBA.
from the equator towards the poles. Which of the statements given above is/are
Reason (R): Insolation rapidly decreases from correct?
the equator towards the poles. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer from the codes given (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
below: 21. Consider the following protected areas:
Codes: 1. Bandipur 2. Bhitarkanika
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 3. Manas 4. Sunderbans
explanation of A. Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
explanation of A. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) A is true but R is false. 22. With reference to the wetland of India, consider
(d) A is false but R is true. the following statements:
18. Which one of the following statements is correct? 1. The country’s total geographical area under
(a) The relative loss of energy due to respiration the category of wetlands is recorded more in
is lower from higher trophic levels. Gujarat as compared to other states.
(b) Species at higher trophic levels appear to be 2. In India, the total geographical area of
less ef¿cient in using their available food coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland
supply. wetlands.
(c) Higher trophic levels tend to be less discrete Which of the statements given above is/are
than the lower ones. correct?
(d) Food chains tend to be reasonably long. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
19. Consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Assertion (A): Organic farming reduces the 23. Which of the following can be threats to the
emission of greenhouse gases. biodiversity of a geographical area?
Reason (R): Organic forming utilise alternate 1. Global warming
practices. 2. Fragmentation of habitat
Select the correct answer from the codes given 3. Invasion of alien species
below: 4. Promotion of vegetarianism
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct below:
explanation of A. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
explanation of A. 24. Consider the following statements:
(c) A is true but R is false. 1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower
(d) A is false but R is true. latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
20. How does National Biodiversity Authority 2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity
(NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture? is normally greater in the lower altitudes as
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the compared to the higher altitudes.
indigenous and traditional genetic resources. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) correct?
directly monitors and supervises the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Codes:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 A B C D
25. The Red Data Books published by the (a) 1 2 3 4
International Union for Conservation of Nature (b) 4 3 2 1
and Natural Resources (IUCN) contains lists of (c) 3 4 1 2
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in (d) 2 3 1 4
the bio-diversity hotspots. 29. Which of the following regions of India have
2. Threatened plant and animal species. been designated as biodiversity hotspots?
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature Select the correct answer from the codes given
and natural resources in various countries. below:
1. Eastern Himalaya 2. Eastern Ghat
below:
3. Western Ghat 4. Western Himalaya
Codes:
26. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
in the following ways: (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
1. Soil formation 30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
2. Prevention of soil erosion answer from the code given below:
3. Recycling of waste List-I List-II
4. Pollination of crops (Biosphere Reserve) (State)
Select the correct answer using the codes given A. Dehang-Debang 1. Odisha
below: B. Manas 2. Meghalaya
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only C. Nokrek 3. Assam
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. Similipal 4. Arunachal Pradesh
(National Park) (Location) (b) 2 1 3 4
A. Gir 1. Assam (c) 4 3 2 1
B. Sundarban 2. Gujarat (d) 3 4 1 2
C. Betla 3. West Bengal 31. Arrange the following states of India in descending
D. Kaziranga 4. Jharkhand order of their mangrove cover and select the correct
Codes: answers from the codes given below:
A B C D 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Gujarat
(a) 1 3 4 2 3. Odisha 4. West Bengal
(b) 2 3 1 4
Codes:
(c) 2 3 4 1
(a) 3, 2, 1, 4 (b) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 4 2 3 1
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 4, 2, 1, 3
List-I List-II
(Biosphere sites) (Year of setting-up) List-I List-II
A. Nilgiri 1. 2000 A. Biodiversity 1. G. Tansley
B. Nanda Devi 2. 1989 B. Wildlife 2. E.O. Wilson
C. Sundarban 3. 1988 C. Ecosystem 3. E. Haeckel
D. Kanchanjunga 4. 1986 D. Ecology 4. W.T. Hornaday
Codes: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
A B C D (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 2 4 3 1 37. Which of the following are the incorrect
(b) 2 4 1 3 statements about 'Keystone species'.
(c) 4 2 3 1 1. Keystone species are the small-sized plants
(d) 4 2 1 3 and organisms which have large effect on
33. Consider the following statements: the environment.
1. Dachigam National Park is in Jammu and 2. Keystone species play critical role in
Kashmir. maintaining the structure of an ecological
2. Loktak lake is known as Àoating national community.
park. 3. Keystone species do not generally affect
3. Loktak lake is located in Assam. other organisms.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) All are correct
(b) 2 only 38. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1 and 2 Assertion (A): Many mangrove plants possess
high levels of organic solutes.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Reason (R): This is an adaptation to survive and
grow in salty waters. Select the correct answer
from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
Codes:
(Sanctuaries) (State)
(a) Both A and R are true R is correct explanation
A. Namdapha 1. Karnataka
of A.
B. Periyar 2. Arunachal Pradesh (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
C. Bandipur 3. Manipur explanation of A.
D. Lamjao 4. Kerala (c) A is true but R is false.
Codes: (d) A is false but R is true.
A B C D 39. Consider the following statements:
(a) 2 4 1 3 Assertion (A): Amensalism is a negative
(b) 4 2 1 3 interaction between two living individuals.
(c) 4 2 3 1 Reason (R): In amensalism, allochemicals are
(d) 2 4 3 1 secreted by one individual.
35. Consider the following kinds of organisms and Select the correct code:
identify the pollinating agent/agents. Codes:
(a) Bat and Bee but not bird (a) Both A and R are true, R is correct
(c) Bee, bat and birds explanation of A.
(c) Hummingbird but not bee (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
(d) Wind, bee, bat, birds. correct explanation of A.
36. Consider the following statements regarding the (c) A is true, R is false.
Millennium Assessment (MA) report 2005 and (d) A is false, R is true.
choose the correct ones: 40. Consider the following statements:
1. MA de¿nes Ecosystem services as bene¿ts Assertion (A): Use of weedicides affect photo-
people obtain from ecosystems. synthetic ability of plants.
2. It includes supporting services and Reason (R): Weedicides are metabolic inhibitors.
provisioning services only.
Codes: 2. Indonesia is located on the so-called Paci¿c
(a) Both A and R are true, R is correct "Ring of Fire", which is an arc of volcanoes
explanation of A. and fault lines.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the 3. An earthquake of magnitude 7.1 rocked
correct explanation of A. parts of Indonesia's main Java Island on 25
(c) A is true, R is false. January, 2014.
(d) A is false, R is true. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
41. Consider the following statements and choose the (c) 2 only (d) 3 only
correct ones: 45. As per National Aeronautics and Space Adminis-
1. A new online Atlas of freshwater biodiversity tration (NASA) research scientists found that
has been launched on 29 January, 2014 concentrations of mercury near the ground level
which is an output of Biofresh. had increased in the Arctic Sea by mercury-
2. This will help in managing and protecting pumping reaction which takes place because -
the freshwater in future.
1. of open water in a lead is much warmer than
the air above it.
2. of the temperature difference, the air above
42. Consider the following statements and choose the
the lead churns like the air above a boiling
correct ones.
pot.
1. The prestigious Gold Standard Foundation
(GSF) certi¿cation has been awarded to the 3. the mixing is so strong that it actually pulls
Kolkata Metro, on 2 February, 2014. down mercury from a higher layer of the
2. This certi¿cation is given for using the atmosphere to near the surface.
energy ef¿ciently. Select the answer from the codes given below-
3. Kolkata Metro has become the ¿rst ever (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
railway system in the world with GSF (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
certi¿cation standard. 46. Biodiesel researchers have produced hydrocarbons
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only in bacterium—
(c) 1 only (d) 2 only (a) Escherichia coli
43. Consider the following statements and choose the (b) Streptococcus pyogenes
correct ones. (c) Vibrio cholerae
1. The International Union for Conservation (d) Enteritis salmonella
of Nature (IUCN) is the world's oldest and 47. A new nuclear waste disposal strategy announced
largest global environmental organization. by United States include-
2. IUCN was founded in 1948, its Green 1. a “pilot interim store” will become
data book does conservation planning, operational in 2021
monitoring to protect endangered species. 2. a larger “full-scale interim store” will open
3. On 30 January, 2014, IUCN announced that be open by 2025
it is celebrating 50 years of the IUCN Red 3. an underground disposal facility to be
List of threatened species. established by 2048 to permanently dispose
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only of the material.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All are correct 4. a new organisation will be established
44. Consider the following statements and choose the to manage the siting, development and
wrong ones. operation of the future waste stores.
1. The World's largest archipelago, Indonesia Select the answer from the codes given below-
is prone to seismic activities and dangers
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
associated with it.
48. Consider the following statements protect the natural resources that are needed
1. The Paci¿c salmon ¿sh uses the Earth's by us to survive.
magnetic ¿eld to ¿nd their way 2. provides the information on population size
2. Machli, Queen Mother of tiger dynasty was as well as trends depending upon the range
found in the Ranthambhore National Park, and habitat needs of species.
India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) None of these 52. The steps taken by the Government of India for
49. Which of the following statements are correct ? conversion of endangered species are
1. A new study has found that changes in solar 1. The Central Government has enacted
activity contributed no more than 10 per the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 for
cent to global warming in the 20th century protection of wildlife including birds.
published in the journal Environmental 2. Wetland (Conservation and Management)
Research Letters. Rules 2010 have been framed for protection
2. It has been proposed that cosmic rays may of wetlands, in the States, which are habitats
have a role in cooling the earth by encouraging of birds.
clouds to form, which subsequently reÀect 3. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau has been
the sun’s rays back into space. established for control of illegal trade in
3. Researchers found high correlation between wildlife, including endangered species of
cosmic rays and global temperatures birds and their parts and products.
occurring every 22 years. 4. The Centrally Sponsored Scheme of
Select the answer from the codes given below- National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only Eco-System also provides assistance to the
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above States for management of wetlands including
50. The International Union for Conservation of Ramsar sites in the country.
Nature (IUCN) red list version 2013 of the Select the answer from the codes given below-
birds indicates 15 species of birds from India as (a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4
critically endangered. The reason for the decline (c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above
in the number of these birds are: 53. The Delhi Metro is the ¿rst ever railway system
1. Loss, modi¿cation, fragmentation and in the world to be awarded with the prestigious
degradation of habitat Gold Standard Foundation (GSF) certi¿cation
2. Environmental contaminants standard for
3. Poaching (a) providing security to the people
4. Use changes mainly conversion of large (b) using the energy ef¿ciently
areas to intensive crop cultivation (c) carrying largest number of passengers
Select the answer from the codes given below- (d) All of the above
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4 54. The three species of vultures that are critically
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above endangered that have declined by more than 97
51. The International Union for Conservation of percent since 1990s are:
Nature (IUCN) on 30 January 2014 completed 1. Egyptian vulture (Neophron percnopterus)
its 50 years of the IUCN Red List of Threatened 2. Oriental white-backed (Gyps bengalensis)
Species in guiding conservation action and policy 3. Long-billed (Gyps indicus)
decisions. The IUCN: 4. Slender-billed vulture (Gyps tenuirostris)
1. acts as a powerful tool to inform and catalyse Select the answer from the codes given below-
action for biodiversity conservation and (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
policy change for things that are critical to (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) None of the above
55. Consider the following statements 2. There is some disintegration in the upper
1. Tree Foundation, an NGO engaged in regions of the Gangotri glaciers due to
conservation of the sea turtle found more tectonic activities.
than 1000 dead Olive Ridley Turtles in the 3. Retreat of Gangotri glaciers in this decade
shores of Nagapattinam.
was higher than in the previous decade due
2. The Olive Ridley turtles ¿nd the coastline of
Nagapattinam as a favourable nesting habitat to global warming.
and that’s why they reach to the shore from Select the answer from the codes given below-
December to March every year. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
3. The Olive Ridley looks very similar to the (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
Kemp's Riddle, but has a deeper body and 59. In December 2013, China built a new research
slightly up-turned edges to its carapace station in Antarctica called
(shell). (a) Taishan (b) Great Wall
4. Olive Ridley weighs around 45 kilograms (c) Zhongshan (d) Kunlun
and are 70cm in size and this makes them
the smallest of the sea turtles along with 60. Which of the following are the new species
Kemp riddles. of freshwater cat¿sh discovered in Idukki and
Which of the following statements are correct? Pathanamthitta districts of Kerala in November
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 2013?
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above 1. Horabagrus melanosoma
56. Which of the following lake has been named 2. Mystus heoki
Destination Flyways by the United Nations 3. Mystus indicus
World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) on 21 4. Mystus miami
January 2014?
(a) Chilika lagoon in Odisha Select the answers from the codes given below:
(b) Dal Lake in Kashmir valley (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Loktak Lake in Manipur (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
(d) Kolleru Lake in Andhra Pradesh 61. The Ministry of Environment and Forest declared
57. Which of the following statements is/are correct? India's ¿rst marine eco-sensitive zone in –
1. First Climate Change theatre in India (a) Gulf of Kutch (b) Palk Strait
(second theatre in the world) was opened at (c) Gulf of Khambat (d) Gulf of Mannar
Pusa, New Delhi in January 2014. 62. Which of the following has been cited as a cause
2. The Inter-governmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC) UN report on 17 January for the deaths of the Penguin chicks from the
2014 reported that during 2000 to 2010, world’s largest colony of Magellanic Penguins
the CO2 has grown by 2.2 percent per year (a) Lack of food (b) Warm Ocean Currents
and this rise is almost twice higher from the (c) Climate Change (d) All of the above
growth of the period of 1970 to 2000. 63. Scientists from the University of Technology,
Answer from the codes given below: Sydney (UTS) explained that seagrass can play
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only a crucial role in ¿ghting against the climate
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) None of these change.Which of the following is/ are correct
58. G.B. Pant Institute of Himalayan Environment about seagrass?
and Development (GBPIHED) released the 1. Seagrass helps by capturing and storing the
Report titled Estimation of retreat of Gangotri carbon by the process of photosynthesis.
glacier on 7 January 2014. The Report includes- 2. Seagrass also traps the particles in the water
1. Gangotri glacier is retreating in the column.
Himalayas and its volume and size are 3. The seagrass plant is 35 times better in
shrinking between Gaumukh and Bhojbasa. locking the carbon than the rainforests.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) nitrogen and carbon
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) nitrogen and phosphorus
64. Dung beetles live in regions where cattle graze, (c) carbon and phosphorus
quickly burying and recycling cattle droppings. (d) carbon, nitrogen and phosphorus
Because of the dung beetles activities, breeding 68. In case of a parasitic food chain, the shape of the
habitats for disease-carrying Àies are reduced and pyramid of number is always:
the plants upon which cattle feed are nourished. (a) Upright (b) Linear
The relationship between the dung beetles and (c) Inverted (d) Not certain
the disease-carrying Àies is a type of : 69. In a forest, deer, raccoons, squirrels, and other
(a) mutualism animals eat and ¿nd shelter. A detritus food web
(b) commensalism occurs as their wastes accumulate on the forest
(c) intraspeci¿c competition Àoor. In this detritus web:
(d) interspeci¿c competition (a) deer and raccoons function as the producers
65. Discussing the consequences of global climate (b) fungi and earthworms function as producers
change at a conference, representatives of a (c) decomposers function as consumers
developing nation suggest that those nations that (d) the deer and raccoons represent decomposers
contribute the most greenhouse gases (GHGs) 70. In a rural hilly district in Himachal Pradesh, a
to the atmosphere should contribute the most land developer uses bulldozers to clear all but the
to paying for adaptive responses worldwide. largest trees and cleans up a nearby stream, lining
Further, this representative pointed out that her the bottom of the stream with pretty rocks and
poor country contributes less than 1% of the
steeping-stones. Planting lawn grasses around
annual GHGs and has less than 0.1% of the
the base of the trees, the owner wants to create
world’s wealth. This representative’s appeal
a pretty park-like setting around his home. We
represents:
expect that in this cleared yard, there will be:
(a) the precautionary principle
(a) more species of invertebrates in the stream
(b) the polluter pays and equity principles
and on the land but fewer species of
(c) an argument for mitigation instead of
vertebrates and plants everywhere
adaptation.
(d) stages 2 and 3 of the climate change skeptics (b) more mammal and plant species, but fewer
responses birds and invertebrates on the land and in the
66. Flea beetles alone are unlikely to eliminate all of stream
the leafy spurge in a region. Instead, the number (c) fewer species of vertebrates and plants
of leafy spurge plants and the number of Àea everywhere but more invertebrates in the
beetles in a particular community may stabilize. steam
At this point, the leafy spurge and Àea beetle (d) fewer species of plants, invertebrates, and
populations: vertebrates everywhere
(a) have exhibited exponential growth followed 71. In the communities found deep in the ocean off
by a crash the shore of Japan, bacteria have special enzymes
(b) have experienced constant growth that allow them to form organic matter by
(c) are still experiencing exponential growth chemosynthesis. These communities frequently
(d) are experiencing environmental resistance have worms, clams, shrimp and many other
67. Eutrophication in the Chesapeake Bay along the organisms clustered together. These communities
eastern edge of Maryland has resulted in low nestle around hydrothermal vents where super
oxygen levels in the water and alternation of food heated water, springs from the bottom of the
webs. The cause of this eutrophication appears to ocean. In hydrothermal vent communities, we
be pollution that contains high levels of : would not expect to ¿nd :
(a) carbon compounds (b) Both crops require the same fertilizing
(b) chemosynthesis supplies, so farmers save by buying fertilizer
(c) chlorophyll in bulk.
(d) producers (c) Corn adds large amounts of phosphorus to
72. Iron ore mining companies are expanding the soil, which helps the soyabean crop
into the deep forest of Orissa where native (d) The corn crop bene¿ts from reactive nitrogen
populations of indigenous people have lived off added to the soil by the soyabean crop
the land for many centuries. In order to resolve 76. The concept of biodiversity hotspots is given by :
the growing conÀicts between the natives and (a) F.P. Odum (b) Norman Myers
the mining companies. They have been urged (c) James Lovelock (d) Rachel Carson
by the Government of¿cials to bring together all 77. The concern about human-to-human transmission
of the interested parties. The mining company of bird Àu is most closely monitored by :
operations in the forest will likely lead to the loss (a) the national governments of the countries of
of ecosystem services, such as: the world
(a) the depletion of iron ore from the ground (b) the World Health Organization and the
(b) the shift from logging to mining Centers for Disease Control
(c) sources of freshwater (c) World Wide Institute for Infectious Disease
(d) International Centers for Health and Human
(d) the construction of new roads
Disease
73. Neena gets a new baby turtle from a friend, and
78. Walking along a large city park on a hot summer
is told to feed it worms. For the ¿rst few months,
day, you look for a cool resting place and sit down
the turtle seemed to grow ¿ne. But as time
on a large rock under a tree, at the quiet edge of
passed, the turtle’s shell appeared soft and fragile.
a stream. You have searched for and found an
Someone suggested that the turtle might not be
example of a :
getting enough calcium in its diet. If this is true
(a) microclimate (b) biome
for this turtle, dietary calcium is : (c) landscape (d) population
(a) a limiting factor 79. Which of the following is regarded as the main
(b) an environmental condition cause of groundwater contamination?
(c) a habitat condition (a) agricultural products
(d) a natural environmental stressor (b) land¿lls
74. On a winter day, most automobiles keep the (c) septic tanks
passengers warm by using heat generated by the (d) All of the above main sources of ground water
engine. This use of the heat by-product from a contamination.
gas engine is an example of : 80. Chipko Movement occurred in which of following
(a) non-fossil-fuel energy region?
(b) cogeneration (a) Tribal areas of MP
(c) nuclear power (b) Rural area of Rajasthan
(d) a sustainable source of energy (c) Tehri Garhwal
75 Some farmers rotate their crops from year to year, (d) Darjeeling region
switching from soyabeans to corn on the same 81. Which of following is One of the best solutions
¿elds. What is one of the advantages of doing to get rid of non-biodegradable wastes is :
this? (a) Recycling waste
(a) Soyabeans add large amounts of carbon (b) Burying waste
dioxide to the soil, which helps the corn (c) Burning waste
crop. (d) All of the above
82. Which of following is correct statement about the 86. Which of the following statement is correct about
Ozone? the intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(a) Ozone in troposphere is good for breathing (IPCC)?
(b) Ozone in Troposphere is not good for (a) IPCC was established in 1988
breathing (b) IPCC does not evaluate the risk of climate
(c) Ozone is present only in Troposphere. change on human
(d) All of the above (c) IPCC published its ¿rst report in 1989
83. Consider following statements about the Ozone (d) All of the above
Hole 87. Which of following statement is true about the
(I) Ozone formation and destruction keep on Ecotone?
happening (a) It is meeting place of two different eco
(II) Ozone destruction rate is higher than its systems
formation rate (b) It is meeting place of two same eco systems
(III) Ozone destruction rate is equal to the its (c) Density of species is very low here
formation rate (d) All of the above.
Which of above statement is/ are true? 88. Consider following statement about the estuary
(a) (I) only (I) Estuary is a place where the river fresh water
meets with ocean water
(b) (I) and (II) Only
(II) This area is highly productive
(c) (I) and (III)
(III) This area is highly unproductive
(d) (III) Only
(IV) All of the above
84. Earlier there was balance between the formation
Which of above the statements is/are true?
and destruction of Ozone layer but after the release
(a) (I) only (b) (II) only
of varieties of harmful substances into atmosphere,
(c) (I) and II) (d) (III)
this balance has been disturbed. Now rate of
89. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
destruction is higher than the rate of formation of the Biosphere?
Ozone layer which is causing widening of Ozone (a) Biosphere is a combination of lithosphere,
hole. CFC (ChloroÀuorocarbons) is one of the hydrosphere and atmosphere
sources responsible for causing hole in Ozone (b) Biosphere is missing at extreme of north and
layer, which of following statement is correct about south pole
the CFC: (c) Organisms are uniformly present in Biosphere
1. CFC is made of Chlorine, Àuorine, and carbon (d) All of the above
2. CFC is released from Refrigerant, foams in 90. What is the carbon credit?
plastic manufacturing, etc (a) It is the difference between the carbon
3. Refrigerant is the major source of CFC emission allowed and actually emitted carbon
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) It is the loan amount by IMF for reducing
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 pollution
85. Nitrogen Oxide is also held responsible for the (c) It is loan given to poor people for buying
depletion of Ozone layer, which of the following Modern Stoves
is source of Nitrogen Oxide? (d) All of the above
(a) Industrial emission 91. What is the meaning of coral bleaching?
(b) Fertilizers which are used in agricultural (a) Paling of coral color or decline in zooxanthellae
activities due to climate change
(c) Thermonuclear weapons (b) Impacts of excessive sea trade on ¿shing
(d) All of the above industry
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Species of Àowering plants
(d) None of the above (d) None of above
92. Relative contributions of CO2, CH4, CFCs and 97. Upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem contains
N2O towards global warming are: (a) plankton
(a) 50 %, 30 %, 10 % , and 10 % respectively (b) nekton
(b) 60%, 20%, 14%, and 6% respectively (c) plankton and nekton
(c) 40 %, 30%, 20% and 10% respectively (d) benthos.
(d) None of the above 98. Competition for light, nutrients and space is most
93. Which of the following can be used for controlling severe between
Gaseous Pollutant? (a) closely related organism growing in different
(a) Arrestor (b) Incineration niches
(c) Absorption (d) None of above (b) closely related organisms growing in the same
94. What does the high Biological Oxygen Demand area/niche
(BOD) indicates? (c) distantly related organisms growing in the
(a) High level of Microbial Pollution same habitat
(b) Low level of Microbial Pollution (d) distantly related organisms growing in
(c) Absence of Microbial Pollution different niches.
(d) Water is fully pure 99. Deep black soil is productive due to high proportion
95. What percent of area in the plain should be under of
forest? (a) sand and zinc
(a) 21 % (b) 25% (b) gravel and calcium
(c) 17% (d) 33% (c) clay and humus
96. Biodiversity Hotspot are characterized on the basis (d) silt and earthworm.
of: 100. Pick up the correct food chain
(a) Endemic flowering plants and threat (a) grass ochamelion o insect o bird
perception (b) grass o fox o rabbit o bird
(b) Endemic Àowering plants (c) phytoplankton o zooplankton o ¿sh
(d) fallen leaves o bacteria o insect larvae.
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 14. (d) 27. (c) 40. (a) 53. (b) 66. (d) 79. (d) 92. (b)
2. (d) 15. (b) 28. (b) 41. (c) 54. (d) 67. (b) 80. (c) 93. (c)
3. (c) 16. (d) 29. (b) 42. (d) 55. (b) 68. (c) 81. (a) 94. (a)
4. (d) 17. (a) 30. (c) 43. (b) 56. (a) 69. (a) 82. (b) 95. (d)
5. (b) 18. (c) 31. (d) 44. (d) 57. (b) 70. (d) 83. (b) 96. (a)
6. (b) 19. (a) 32. (b) 45. (d) 58. (d) 71. (c) 84. (d) 97. (a)
7. (a) 20. (c) 33. (c) 46. (a) 59. (a) 72. (c) 85. (d) 98. (b)
8. (c) 21. (b) 34. (a) 47. (d) 60. (c) 73. (a) 86. (a) 99. (c)
9. (b) 22. (c) 35. (d) 48. (c) 61. (a) 74. (b) 87. (a) 100. (c)
10. (d) 23. (c) 36. (a) 49. (b) 62. (c) 75. (d) 88. (c)
11. (d) 24. (c) 37. (c) 50. (d) 63. (d) 76. (b) 89. (c)
12. (a) 25. (b) 38. (a) 51. (c) 64. (d) 77. (b) 90. (a)
13. (a) 26. (d) 39. (b) 52. (d) 65. (b) 78. (a) 91. (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Eduard Suess was an Austrian, responsible high number of factories, power plants and large
for hypothesising two major former geographical number of automotive plants. Europe, Poland,
features, the supercontinent Gondwana and the Germany, Czech Republic, Sweden, Norway
Tethys Ocean.The term "biosphere" was coined by and Finland are affected because of British and
geologist Eduard Suess in 1875, which he de¿ned as European factories. In Asia, India and China are
"The place on Earth's surface where life dwells." mostly affected mainly because of the large number
2. (d) The most abundant greenhouse gases in Earth's of factories.
atmosphere are: 6. (b) Radioactive contamination or pollution causes
Water vapor (H2O), Carbon dioxide (CO2), Methane severe life- threatening consequences in organisms.
(CH4), Nitrous oxide (N2O), Ozone (O3) and CFCs. Because of the radioactive decay of the contaminants,
3. (c) Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily which emit harmful ionising radiation such as alpha
implemented action plan of the United Nations or beta particles, gamma rays or neutrons, genetic
with regard to sustainable development. It is a mutations occur which are hereditary. Carcinogenic
product of the UN Conference on Environment and contaminants cause cancer.
Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro, 7. (a) Natural vegetation is the true index of climate
Brazil, in 1992. The "21" in Agenda 21 refers to the because water loving plants are found in moist
21st Century. climate.
4. (d) Environmental degradation means lowering of 8. (c) Global warming is the increase in the global
temperature. It has put many negative impacts on
environmental qualities, adverse changes by human
glaciers causing them to start melting, so, rise of sea
activities and ecological imbalance.
level. Unpredictable weather conditions prevailing
5. (b) United States and Canada are the countries
in some geographical areas are some of the other
which are mostly affected by acid rain because of
effects of global warming.
9. (b) Forests are renewable natural resources and 18. (c) The relative loss of energy increases in
enhance the quality of environment by providing successive trophic levels. Primary consumers use
the Oxygen needed to sustain life on the earth. 10% of the energy stored in plants. Secondary and
Although both assertion and reason are correct tertiary consumers transfer 20% of the energy from
statements but reason is not the correct explanation their own bodies so they are more ef¿cient. In going
of the assertion. from lower to higher trophic levels energy transfers
10. (d) As an ecosystem, wetlands are useful for are insuf¿cient so making the food chains limited
nutrient recovery and cycling, releasing heavy to only 4-5 trophic levels. Higher trophic levels are
metals through absorption by plants. They also less discrete due to their less specialised food habits.
control Àoods and maintain Àoods. 19. (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
11. (d) The Milankovitch theory is an explanation explanation of A. Organic farming depends on
of long term climate change. The book ‘On the on-farm resources, using alternative sources like
Origin of Species’ was written by Charles Darwin, usage of no chemical pesticides and fertilizers, on-
published on 24 November 1859. farm practices which do not depend on fossil fuels
12. (a) Ecosystem is the dynamic community of consumption.
living organism with physical environment. Thus, 20. (c) The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
it comprises of both biotic and abiotic components. an autonomous body was established in 2003 to
Solar energy is the ultimate source of energy in it, so implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002).
is the main driving force. Dynamic energy transfers 21. (b) Bandipur National Park, a tiger reserve is
occur making it an open system. The autotrophs located in the south Indian state of Karnataka.
make the ecosystem’s biotic components self- Manas National Park or Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
suf¿cient. is a National Park, UNESCO Natural World
13. (a) Plants are called primary producers because Heritage site, a Project Tiger Reserve, an Elephant
plants produce their food themselves through the Reserve and a Biosphere Reserve in Assam. The
process of photosynthesis. Sundarban National Park is a National Park, Tiger
14. (d) As we go higher in the trophic levels through Reserve, and a Biosphere Reserve in India. It is a
the food chain, the loss of energy due to respiration part of the Sundarbans on the Ganges Delta of India
as well as metabolic activities successively increase. and Bangladesh.
So, there occurs the transference of only 10% of the Bhitarkanika National Park is a national park
preceding trophic level to the next higher trophic located in the Kendrapara District Odisha, which is
level. not speci¿cally for Tiger reserve.
15. (b) Both the assertion and reason are correct 22. (c) Wetlands cover around 3% of the total land
area of India. Gujarat occupies around 3 million
statements but the later is not the correct explanation
hectares of wetlands out of India’s total 10 million
of the former. The basic planning for environment
hectares of wetland area. India has total 27,403
includes ‘conservation of organisms and resources’
wetands, of which 23,444 are inland wetlands and
as the most valuable component. Development can
3,959 are coastal wetlands but the coastal wetlands
be complementary to conservation, only when it is
occupy an estimated 6,750 sq km, which is more
sustainable.
than the inland wetlands.
16. (d) The ever-increasing human population creates
23. (c) Global Warming, fragmentation of habitat and
a loss of natural habitat of organisms and have other
invasion of alien species can be threats to the bio-
impacts such as various kinds of pollution. Thus,
diversity of a geographical area.
the ecosystem gets imbalanced in many ecological
24. (c) There is an increase in biodiversity from the
terms.
poles to the tropics. Thus localities at lower latitudes
17. (a) Both the statements are true and R is the
have more species than localities at higher latitudes.
25. (b) The ICUN Red list of threatened species or the 33. (c) Dachigam National Park is located 22
Red Data Book is the state document established kilometers from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. It
for documenting rare and endangered species covers an area of 141 square kilometres. Loktak
of animals, plants and fungi existing within the Lake, the largest freshwater lake in India, also
territory of the state or country. called the only Floating lake in the world due
26. (d) Biological diversity helps in the formation to the Àoating phumdis (heterogeneous mass of
and maintenance of soil structure and the retention vegetation, soil, and organic matters at various
of moisture and nutrient levels. Trees on the other stages of decomposition) on it, is located near
hand, lower the water table and remove deposited Moirang in Manipur.
salt from the upper soil horizons. 34. (a) Namdapha National Park is the largest
27. (c) The Gir Forest National Park and Wildlife protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity
Sanctuary is a forest and wildlife sanctuary in hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh. Periyar
Gujarat. It is the sole home of the Asiatic Lions National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected
(Panthera leopersica). Sundarbans National Park area in the districts of Idukki and Pathanamthitta in
in West Bengal is the home of Bengal tigers. Betla Kerala. Bandipur National Park, established in 1974
National Park is located in the Chota Nagpur Plateau as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger, is a national
of the Latehar district of Jharkhand. Kaziranga
park located in the south Indian state of Karnataka.
National Park is located in Golaghat and Nagaon
The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park
districts of Assam, a World Heritage Site, the park
in the Bishnupur district of Manipur.
hosts two-thirds of the world's Great One-horned
35. (d) Bees, bats and birds are the biotic pollinating
Rhinoceroses.
agents. Wind is also an agent of pollination but is an
28. (b) Nilgiri biosphere site was set up in 1986.
abiotic agent.
Nanda Devi biosphere site was set up in 1988.
36. (a) The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA)
Sundarban biosphere site was set up in 1989.
report 2005 de¿nes Ecosystem services as bene¿ts
Kanchanjunga biosphere site was set up in 2000.
29. (b) A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic people obtain from ecosystems and distinguishes
region with a signi¿cant reservoir of biodiversity four categories of ecosystem services: 1. Supporting
that is under threat from humans. Around the world, services, 2. Provisioning services, 3. Regulating
as many as 25 areas qualify to be the hotspots. Out services, 4. Cultural services.
of which India has 2 hotspots: Eastern Himalayas 37. (c) Keystone species are not necessarily small
and Western Ghats. sized though they put great effect on the environment.
30. (c) Dihang-Dibang or Dehang-Debang is a They play very critical role in maintaining the
biosphere reserve constituted under the Man & structure of an ecological community by affecting
Biosphere Programme. It is in the Arunachal many other organisms. An ecosystem may
Pradesh. Manas National Park is in Assam. Nokrek experience a dramatic shift if a keystone species
National Park is located in West Garo Hills district is removed, even though that species may be small
of Meghalaya. Simlipal National Park is an elephant part of the ecosystem by measures of biomass or
reserve situated in the Mayurbhanj district in productivity.
Odisha. 38. (a) Mangrove- plants have higher concentration
31. (d) The correct descending order of mangrove of salts and minerals (solutes, such as proline and
cover in the states are West Bengal, Gujarat, Andhra sorbitol) in the cells making their osmotic potential
Pradesh, Orissa. higher than the surrounding water in which they
32. (b) The concept of biodiversity was propounded grow. This is a type of adaptation that allows water
by E.O. Wilson. The concept of wildlife was uptake by the plants in spite of growing in salty
propounded by W. Hornaday. The concept of waters. Some mangroves also pump out excess salt
Ecosystem propounded by G. Tansley. The concept by specialised roots.
of Ecology was propounded by E. Haeckel.
39. (b) The term ‘ammensalism’ generally refers to Once the mercury is completely removed from
the complete or partial inhibition or death of one the air, these reactions stop. However, this newly
organism by another through production of some discovered mixing ice forces down additional
chemicals (allochemicals) as a result of metabolic mercury to restart and sustains the reactions.
pathways. In it, none of the organisms gets any 46. (a) The researchers isolated metabolic genes from
bene¿t. It is more common in microbial world. multiple species of bacteria and pieced them together
40. (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct in Escherichia coli (E.coli) to create arti¿cial
explanation of A. The weedicides and herbicides biochemical pathways that convert free fatty acids to
are metabolic inhibitors, inhibiting the metabolic hydrocarbons. One such pathway, named CEDDEC,
pathways as well as photosynthesis. Some contained metabolic genes from the bioluminescent
weedicides also cause phloem cells’ proliferation so bacterium Photorhabdus luminescens and the
as to block the transport of plants’ food materials. cyanobacterium Nostoc punctiforme. When grown
41. (c) A new online Atlas of freshwater biodiversity in broth containing various combinations of fatty
has been launched on 29 January, 2014. It will acids, or when modi¿ed to express additional
present spatial information and species distribution genes, the engineered E. coli produced molecules
patterns. The Atlas is an output of BioFresh – an EU- that are structurally and chemically identical to 10
funded project in which the IUCN Global Species retail diesel fuel hydrocarbons commonly used in
Programme is a key partner. It is working to better temperate climates.
understand, manage and protect our freshwaters, for 47. (d) The schedule is meant to reduce the growth
generations to come. of the US government’s liabilities under the 1982
42. (d) The prestigious Gold Standard Foundation Nuclear Waste Policy Act, under which it was
(GSF) certi¿cation has been awarded to the Delhi to begin taking spent reactor fuel from power
Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC), for ef¿cient companies in 1998. About 68,000 tonnes of used
usage of energy, on 2 February, 2014. DMRC has reactor fuel remains at 72 different power plant sites
become the ¿rst ever Railway system in the world across the country, with the Department of Energy
with GSF certi¿cation standard. In 2008, DMRC (DoE) reimbursing power companies the cost. The
had also become the ¿rst Railway project in the current production rate of spent fuel is 2,000 tonnes
world to be registered by the UN under the Clean a year. The two interim facilities will accept used
Development Mechanism (CDM). reactor fuel at a rate faster than this in order to
43. (b) IUCN, the world’s oldest and largest global reduce gradually the inventory at power companies.
environmental organization, is celebrating its 48. (c) It is believed that other sea creatures such
completion of 50 years. It was founded in 1948. It as turtles, sharks and whales may also use Earth's
lists out all types of organisms vulnerable to any magnetic ¿eld to roam the oceans.
kind of loss, in its Red data book. The 17-year-old Machli is the longest living
44. (d) The earthquake felt in Java, Indonesia, had wild tigress in the world, besides being the most
been measured to be 6.1 on Richter’s scale. It is photographed big cat. The tigress was identi¿ed as
prone to such tremors due to its location in Paci¿c T-16. Machli had survived in the dense forest by
Ring of ¿re. One of the incidents occurred in here hunting her own prey despite her advanced age.
in 2004 when a monster temblor off Aceh shores 49. (b) The Researchers found a small correlation
triggered a tsunami that killed 230,000 people in a between cosmic rays and global temperatures
dozen countries. occurring every 22 years; however, the changing
45. (d) Almost all of the mercury in the Arctic cosmic ray rate lagged behind the change in
atmosphere is transported there in gaseous form temperatures by between one and two years,
from sources in areas farther south, from sources suggesting that the cause might not be down to
such as wild¿res, coal burning and gold mining. cosmic rays and cloud formation but might be due
Scientists have long known that mercury in the air to the direct effects of the sun. By comparing the
near ground level undergoes complex chemical small oscillations in the cosmic ray rate, which were
reactions that deposit the element on the surface. taken from data from two neutron monitors, and
temperature with the overall trends in both since (DMRC) registered for the certi¿cation standard
1955, the research team found that less than 14 per for its energy ef¿ciency measures undertaken in 51
cent of the global warming seen during this period stations in Phase II of the DMRC Project. The energy
could be attributable to solar activity. ef¿ciency measures were primarily undertaken in
50. (d) Other reasons for the decline in the number the heating, venting and air conditioning (HVAC)
of these birds are changes in cropping pattern due systems, lighting system and other energy ef¿cient
to various reasons including implementation of measures of station buildings; the measures adopted
irrigation schemes; increased pesticide usage and in the HVAC system resulted in reduction in
livestock-grazing; high levels of disturbance; and electrical energy consumption.
developmental activities like mining and hydel 54. (b) The veterinary drug Diclofenac that is used
projects. This also includes collision of the birds in vetting the cattle has been identi¿ed as a reason
with vehicles, wind turbines and power lines that is causing the sharp deep in the number of
51. (c) The IUCN also provides the information that vultures. Use of this drug has been banned in India.
is related to species-based conservation actions. Diclofenac is toxic for any and all vultures that feed
It also helps in identifying globally important on the carcass of recently treated cattle. Saving
sites for conservation including important plant Asia’s Vultures from Extinction (SAVE) in its study
areas, important bird areas, key biodiversity says that the version for human use is being illegally
areas and alliance for zero extinction sites. It given to the cattle. A programme named SAVE in
helps in inÀuencing the decisions of conservation its plan will release up to 25 birds into the 30000
at multiple scales that include environmental kilometer square safe zone. The captive-bred birds
impact assessments to international multilateral will be released into the wild by 2016 under the
environments agreements. It indicates the current project.
status of species and revealing trends in their 55. (b) Tree foundation, an NGO engaged in
extinction risk over time, to track progress towards conservation of the sea turtle, found more than
biodiversity targets. 100 dead Olive Ridley turtles in the shores of
52. (d) For conservation of endangered species Nagapattinam. The Olive Ridley turtles are rusty
Wildlife Crime Control Bureau has been established coloured carapace and have slightly smaller head
for control of illegal trade in wildlife, including and shell than the Kemp turtles. These Olive Ridley
endangered species of birds and their parts and turtles generally occur through the Antilles, around
products. Research and monitoring activities on the north coast of South America, in West Africa,
birds are promoted by the Government through the Indian Ocean, Australia and Southeast Asia.
reputed research organizations. Wildlife Institute As per the reports the populations of Olive Riddles
of India, Bombay Natural History society and have declined in Pakistan, Myanmar, Malaysia and
Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural Thailand, and possibly on the east coast of India,
History are some of the research organizations south of Orissa and in the Andaman and Nicobar
undertaking research on conservation of birds. The islands.
Indian government has banned the veterinary use 56. (a) Chilika is the only site to be selected from Asia
of diclofenac drug that has caused rapid decline in by the UNWTO and was included in a list of eight
vulture population across the Indian Subcontinent. such sites. The Destination Flyways initiative of
Conservation Breeding Programmes to conserve UNWTO aims at promotion of sustainable tourism.
these vulture species have been initiated at Pinjore The lagoon was named so for its sustainable and
(Haryana), Buxa (West Bengal) and Rani, Guwahati resilient destination for migratory birds. The status
(Assam) by the Bombay Natural History Society. will help Chilika Development Authority (CDA)
53. (b) GSF standard certi¿cation is a globally to develop strategies for protection of migratory
accepted certi¿cation standard for carbon mitigation birds through creation of innovative tourism and
projects. The Delhi Metro Rail Corporation livelihood products. Chilika Lake is the largest
brackish water lake in Asia with estuarine character species of cat¿sh worldwide. They range in size
that sprawls along the east coast. It is the largest from 1.5 to 2 in chesto more than 8 feet in length.
wintering ground for migratory waterfowl found 61. (a) The ministry declared 313 sq km around the
anywhere in the Indian sub-continent. It is one of Marine National Park in Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat
the hotspot of biodiversity in the country, and some as an eco-sensitive zone through a noti¿cation. Of
rare, vulnerable and endangered species listed in the this, 208 sq km is land while the remaining is on
IUCN Red List of threatened Animals inhabit the the seaside. Land use for recreational, commercial
lagoon for at least part of their life cycle. or industrial development will not be permitted in
57. (b) First Climate Change theatre was opened at the area except for residential purpose. Mining,
Pushpa Gujral Science City in Kapurthala, Punjab including fresh water mining, and release of
on 16 January 2014. The theatre will educate people polluted water and waste will also be prohibited.
on climate change. This is the second theatre in the The ministry even disallowed ¿shing by trawlers.
world to be opened after Canada. The theatre is 18 The government will prepare a zonal ecology
metre in diameter and it is set up in a dome-shaped conservation master plan. The plan will restore
building with a seating capacity of 125 persons. denuded areas as well as existing water bodies. The
The 25-minute ¿lm shows what worst can happen if plan should also have provision for management
humans do not take action on current or impending of catchment areas, watershed management,
problems which could threaten civilization. The groundwater and soil conservation.
¿lm starts by giving a glimpse of future - Àoods, 62. (c) Magellanics are medium-sized penguins
droughts, earthquakes and other natural disasters. standing about 15 inches tall and weighing about
58. (d) The estimation of retreat of Gangotri 10 pounds. Males of the species sound like braying
glacier has been measured using rapid static and donkeys when they vocalize. Among 17 species
kinematic GPS survey. The Gangotri is one of the of penguins, 10 including Magellancis breeds are
largest Himalayan glaciers in Uttarkashi district, found in the region, where there is no snow, it is
Uttarakand.The glaciers originate at about 7100 relatively dry and temperatures can be temperate.
meter above the sea level and are 30.2 km long and To protect the chicks, parents are too big to sit
width that varies between 0.5 and 2.5 km. The River over and those are still too young to have grown
Bhagirathi, one of the main tributaries of the Ganga, waterproof feathers. Downy penguin chicks
originates from Gangotri glacier. exposed to drenching rain can struggle and die in
59. (a) The aim of the Taishan research base station absence of the attention of their concerned parents.
is to provide a base for research on bio-ecology During extreme heat chicks without waterproo¿ng
and remote satellite sensing. The camp will be used can’t take a dip in cooling waters as adults.
from December to March every year and is located 64. (d) Dung beetles and disease carrying Àies
near the United States' McMurdo Station, Italy's both compete for the same food, that is cattle
Zucchelli Station and a recently built South Korean droppings. Since both of these organisms belong
station. Base Stations of India at Antarctica are to different species, this competition is called
Dakshin Gangotri, Maitri, and Bharathi. interspeci¿c competition.
60. (c) Along with the ¿rst 3 species Mystus menoni 65. (b) In environmental law, the polluter pays
species of Cat¿sh were discovered from the principle is enacted to make the party responsible
Manimala river. Cat¿sh are freshwater, bottom- for producing pollution, to be held responsible
dwelling ¿sh. Unlike other ¿sh, they have no for paying the damage done to the natural
scales and are smooth-skinned. They are known for environment.
growing whiskers, called "barbels," at some point 66. (d) The Àea beetles have proved to be an
during their lifespan. Cat¿sh use their barbels as effective means of controlling leafy spurge. The
feelers as they swim along the bottom of the various Àea beetles typically take 3-5 years to establish
bodies of water in which they live. There are 2,900 and impact leafy spurge infestations.
67. (b) Scientists have recognized that nutrient 79. (d) Materials from land’s surface can travel
enrichment was a threat to the bay. In 1987 through the soil ultimately reaching the
formal goals were established to reduce nitrogen groundwater. For example pesticide and fertilizers
and phosphorous inputs to the bay from both can enter into the ground water supplies. Untreated
point and non point sources. waste from septic tanks and toxic chemicals from
68. (c) In parasitic food chains, the pyramid of underground storage tanks and leaky land¿lls can
number is always inverted as a single plant may also contaminate groundwater.
support many herbivores and birds and each one 81. (a) Recycling is the best way to get rid of non-
of these in turn, may provide nutrition to several biodegradable waste. Burying will not have any
hyperparasites. effect on the non-biodegradable wastes. Burning
71. (c) In hydrothermal vent communities, causes pollution.
we should not expect to ¿nd chlorophyll as 82. (b) Ozone present in the stratosphere, acts as a
photosynthesis cannot take place due to absence protection from U.V. light. Without this protective
of light. shield, all life would be more susceptible to
74. (b) Cogeneration or combined heat and power cancer, impaired immunity and other health issues.
(CHP) is the use of a heat engine or power station Whereas the ozone present in the troposphere,
to simultaneously generate electricity and useful which is close to earth surface, can damage our
heat. lungs. Hence it is not good for breathing.
75. (d) In addition to increasing corn yields and 83. (b) In an pollution free stratosphere, the
cutting nitrogen expense, keeping soyabeans in production and destruction of ozone are in balance
the rotation lowers next years corn rootworm and hence the concentration of O3 remains constant
management costs. with time. When CFC’s are released into the lower
76. (b) The concept of biodiversity hotspot was troposphere, they diffuse up into the stratosphere
given by Norman Myers. In 1988 he ¿rst identi¿ed since their lifetime is 50-100 years when CFCs
10 tropical forest “hotspots” characterised reach the middle stratosphere, UV radiation
by both exceptional level of plant endemism liberates the chlorine atom.
and by serious levels of habitat loss. Later on, CFC + UV o Cl
Conservation International (CI) adopted Myers’ Cl is then able to destroy as man as 100,000 O3
hotspots. They gave a broad de¿nition criteria of molecules.
the Biodiversity hotspot. 84. (d) It has been proved that CFCs are a major cause
77. (b) The concern about human-to-human of depletion of the earth’s stratospheric ozone layer
transmission of bird Àu virus H5N1 is closely and contribute to the green house effect.
monitored by government agencies in order to Large quantities of CFCs are used as refrigerants
determine whether human-to-human transmission in a number of refrigerating and air conditioning
is occurring. systems. Though the refrigerant moves in a closed
The CDC (Centre for Disease Control) and cycle, there are lots of leakages that escape to the
WHO recommend the prescription antiviral drug atmosphere and cause destruction of the ozone
TamiÀu (oseltamivir) for treating and preventing layer. CFCs have exceptionally long atmospheric
human infections with the bird Àue virus. life, which can extend upto 100 years.
78. (a) Microclimate is de¿ned as the climate of a 86. (a) IPCC is the leading international body
very small or restricted area, especially when this for the assessment of climate change. It was
differs from the climate of the surrounding area. established by the United Nations Environment
Here, while the climate of the surrounding area Programme (UNEP) and the World Meteorological
is very hot the place at the edge of the stream, Organisation (WMO) in 1988 to provide the world
under the tree, on a rock will have a cooler with a clear scienti¿c view on the current state
microcleinate. of knowledge in climate change and its potential
environmental and socio-economic impacts. body. Hence a higher demand of oxygen (BOD)
87. (a) Ecotone is a place where two different eco indicates higher level of microbial pollution.
systems meet each other. Mangrove and terrestrial 95. (d) National Forest Policy has recommended
eco system is an example of Ecotone. This area is that in order to maintain the ecological balance
very rich in species. The ecotone has species of there should be 33 % area under the forest in plain
both ecosystems as well as some species which areas. However, the present forest cover in India
are charecterstic and restricted to the ecotone. is around 21-22 %.
88. (c) Estuary is a place where the fresh water of 96. (a) Biodiversity hotspots are areas rich in plant
river or stream meets with ocean water. This place species and these species are endemic to this
provides the conducive conditions for development area. Endemism implies the presence of species
of different species. in particular area only.
89. (c) Biosphere is a combination of lithosphere, 97. (a) Planktons are passively Àoating in upper
hydrosphere and atmosphere. Biosphere is water, nektons are actively swimming while
not found everywhere, some areas do not benthos lead sedentary life upon the sea bottom.
support the conditions required for Biosphere. Planktons are producers and are present in large
Hence Organisms are not uniformly distributed number.
throughout the world. 98. (b) Competition is rivalry for obtaining the
90. (a) Carbon credit shows that a country or any same resource. Competition of light, nutrients
entity emits the carbon below the limit prescribed and space is most severe between closely related
by the government, hence the country or entity can organisms growing in the same area/niche, due to
sell it in exchange where carbon credits are traded. overproduction of population in the same area/
91. (a) Coral Bleaching is being caused by the niche.
climate change. Increase in surface temperature 99. (c) Deep black soil is productive due to high
of ocean due to climate change is increasing proportion of clay and humus. The organic matter
the decline of zooxanthellae. Zooxanthellae is present in the soil is contributed by the death and
responsible for the process of photosynthesis. decay of living organisms. These are the richest
92. (b) CO2 is the largest contributor towards global in nutrients and therefore these soils are the most
warming, followed by methane, CFCs and N2O. fertile.
93. (c) Absorption technique is used for controlling 100. (c) The process of transfer of energy from
Gaseous pollutant. These pollutants are brought producers through a series of organisms, i.e., from
into contact with a liquid such as water. The liquid primary consumers to secondary consumers and
absorbs the gas. from secondary consumers to tertiary consumers
94. (a) Oxygen is required for decomposition of by process of eating and being eaten is known
microorganism under the water. Increase in as a food chain. The correct food chain is
waste and pollution enhances the decomposition phytoplankton ozooplankton o¿sh.
activities and thereby reduces the availability of
oxygen for other organic activities under the water
5 Science and
Technology
answers from the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(Organization) (Location) (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
A. ISRO 1. Thiruvanthapuram correct explanation of A.
B. IUCAA 2. Pune (c) A is true, but R is false.
C. IUAC 3. Bengaluru (d) A is false, but R is true.
D. VSSC 4. New Delhi 4. Scientists of Britain have built a “Gravity
Codes: Tractor”. Identify the same from the following:
A B C D (a) A double storeyed “Jugaad” type tractor
(a) 3 2 4 1 trolley to be used in public transport.
(b) 1 2 3 4 (b) A tractor with a mechanism to sweep public
(c) 2 4 1 3 roads and is economical to run.
(d) 3 1 2 4 (c) A bullet train run on the principle of earth’s
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct gravity with the help of powerful magnets.
answer using the codes given below: (d) A space-craft with a mechanism which
List-I List-II would check asteroids from hitting the earth.
A. Arihant 1. American Cryogenic 5. Consider the following as objectives of the New
Rocket Science and Technology Policy, and state which
B. AWACS 2. Anti-tank missile is/are correctly stated, with the help of codes
C. Atlas Centaur 3. For Air Defence given below:
1. Optimal utilisation of existing physical and
D. Nag 4. Missile Submarine
knowledge resources.
Codes:
2. Development of innovative technologies.
A B C D
3. Development of systems and technologies
(a) 4 3 2 1
for mitigation and management of natural
(b) 4 3 1 2
hazards.
(c) 3 4 1 2
4. Management of intellectual property.
(d) 3 4 2 1
Codes:
Assertion (A): Space Based Solar Power (SBSP)
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) all the four
is considered to be made a national goal.
6. The earth’s satellite is kept moving in its orbit.
Reason (R): Supply of SBSP is 99% uninterrupted
It is due to the phenomenon of centripetal force
throughout the year, besides the enormity of
provided by
energy availability. (a) the rocket engine propelling the satellite
Select the correct answers from the codes given (b) the gravitational attraction of the earth on
below: the satellite
(c) the gravitational attraction of the sun on the (a) Moon and Mars Missions of future
satellite (b) Meteorology and Space Exploration
(d) the gravitational attraction of satellite on (c) Heliophysics
earth (d) All of the above
7. Multiple Independent Re-entry Vehicles (MIRVs) 11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
are used in Agni-V missile made by DRDO, answers using the codes given below the lists:
consider the following statements in regard to List-I List-II
MIRVs. A. Curiosity 1. Tablet
1. Under it, each missile will be capable of B. MESSENGER 2. Unmanned Aerial Vehicle
carrying 2-10 separate nuclear warheads. of DRDO
2. Under it, each warhead can be assigned to a C. Rustom-1 3. Mars Probe Space
different target. Vehicle of USA
3. Under it, two or more warheads can be D. Akash-2 4. Mercury Probe Space
assigned to the same target. Vehicle of NASA
Which of the following statements is/are correct? Codes:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only A B C D
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 3 4 2 1
8. Consider the following statements with respect to (b) 4 3 2 1
Intelligent Flight Control System (IFCS): (c) 3 4 1 2
1. It is developed by NASA (d) 1 2 3 4
2. It is used in NF-15B aircraft 12. What is a keyboard used in a computer for?
3. The IFCS Generation-I Àight was ¿rst tested (a) To input text and numbers and send
in 2003. commands to the computer.
4. An arti¿cial neural network is used in this (b) To create new keys to use with your
control sytem. computer.
Which of the following statement codes are (c) To open the computer up.
correct? (d) To create pictures and images and send them
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only to your computer.
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None of these 13. Which one of the following is not correctly
9. Consider the following statements regarding matched?
Indian polar research station: (a) Akash — A medium range
1. India established a research station named multi-target missile
“Bharti” at Ny-Alesund in Svalbard region (b) Nag — An anti-tank missile
of Norway. (c) Pinaka — A multi-barrel rocket
2. India established a research station named launcher weapon system
“Himadri” in the Larsemann Hills region of (d) Trishul — A short range surface to
East Antarctica. surface missile
Which of the statements given above is/are 14. Radar is used for
correct? (a) detecting objects by using light waves
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) reÀecting sound waves to detect objects
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) determining the presence and location of
10. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and objects with radiowaves.
the United States Space Agency NASA, have (d) tracking rain bearing clouds.
agreed to form a working group for co-operation
in which of the following endeavours?
E-96 || Science and Technology
15. Consider the following statements regarding (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
‘INS Tarkash’ (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It is built indigenously by DRDO. 19. A team of scientists at NASA with the European
2. It is a multi-role stealth frigate. Space Agency are working to probe dark energy
Which of the above statements is/are correct? or the existence of dark matter. Consider the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only following statements in this regard.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Dark matter is called so because it does not
16. Consider the following statements with respect to interact with light.
the new Remote Sensing Data Policy: 2. Dark matter interacts with ordinary matter
1. Agencies other than ISRO can also be nodal through gravity and binds galaxies together
agencies for remote sensing. like an invisible glue.
2. All remote sensing imagery and data up to 3. While dark matter pulls matter together,
one meter resolution will be made freely dark energy pushes the universe apart at
available. ever increasing speed.
3. The old 2001 policy mandated that ISRO 4. Dark matters are potentially effective
could release only data up to 6.8 resolutions. in many dignostic devices such as PET
Which of the statements given above are correct? scanners.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
17. The new version of advanced television, beyond (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
the high de¿nition television is 4 K television. 20. Consider the following statements about a
Consider the following statements in this regard? computer named “ Greenware” .
1. The basic principle of 4K TV is Near Field 1. ‘Greenware’ is completely free of both
Communication (NFC). hazardous PVC (Polyvinylchloride) and
2. The term 4K refers to the horizontal BFR (brominated Àame-retardants).
resolution of the images, which are all on 2. Manufacturing of ‘Greenware’ can be a
the order of 4,000 pixels. special action like replacing all standard
3. If the screen is too big then the HD gives the light bulbs with CFLs or a more general
blurred images because the resolution of the application to live more ecologically.
images and pixels are limited. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. What is the difference between present Wi – Fi 21. Consider the following statements regarding
technology and super Wi – Fi? the High Frequency Active Auroral Research
1. Present Wi – Fi technology supports 802.11 Programme (HAARP):
b/g/n standard while new super Wi – Fi will 1. It is an ionospheric research Program.
support 802.11 ad standard. 2. The purpose of HAARP is to investigate
2. Super Wi – Fi can send data upto the length the potential for developing ionospheric
of 1 – 2 GB and eventually there would be enhancement technology for radio
no log in the speed. communications and surveillance.
3. The new super Wi – Fi would function at the 3. The most prominent instrument at the
speed of 7 gigabytes per second, much more HAARP station is the Ionospheric Research
than the speed of ordinary Wi – Fi. Instrument (IRI) a high-power radio
Select the correct answer using the codes given frequency transmitter facility operating in
below: the High Frequency (HF) band.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 2. The radio waves generated from this
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only telescope can provide details of the cosmos
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 far away and the gases that resulted in the
22. Orbital decay, a process of prolonged reduction formation of any particular star.
in the attitude of a Satellite’s Orbit is caused by Select the correct answer using the codes given
which of the following reasons? below:
1. Atmospheric drag (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Tides (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Gravitational pull 26. Consider the following statements:
Correct code: 1. Megha–Tropiques is an advanced weather
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only and climate research satellite.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Megha–Tropiques is a joint atmospheric
23. How do you distinguish between Passive Optical satellite mission of India (ISRO) and Russia
Network (PON) and Gigabit Passive Optical (Roscosmos).
Network (GPON)? 3. Megha–Tropiques has been launched by
1. PON is a network architecture that brings ISRO from Sriharikota.
¿ber cabling and signals to the home using Which of the statements given above is/are not
a point-to-multipoint scheme that enables true?
a single optical ¿bre to serve multiple
premises.
2. PON standard differs from non-PON
standards in that it achieves higher bandwidth
1. Nirbhaya is a subsonic cruise missile being
and higher ef¿ciency using larger, variable-
developed by DRDO.
length packets.
2. The air version of Brahmos has been
3. GPON offers ef¿cient packaging of user
traf¿c, with frame segmentation allowing successfully test-¿red recently.
higher Quality Of Service (QOS) for delay- 3. Brahmos-II will be hypersonic cruise missile
sensitive voice and video communications with target range of more than 300 km.
traf¿c. Which of the above statements is/are not true?
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) all of the above (d) none of these
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 28. RAM (Random Access Memory) is the primary
memory used in a computer. RAMs are divided
24. Recently, scientists have developed a device to
into two categories as static RAM (SRAM) and
near completion like an ipad that could be folded
Dynamic RAM (DRAM). What is the difference
or rolled up repeatedly. What has been used in its
between static and Dynamic RAM?
development?
1. DRAMs are less expensive and slower than
(a) Laser Fludik Imaging Film
SRAMs.
(b) Infra-Red Laser Fludine Imaging Film
2. DRAM requires to be refreshed periodically
(c) NANO Garf¿ne Imaging Film
as opposed to the SRAM.
(d) Electro Fluidic Imaging Film
3. DRAM has higher bit density and lower
25. Which of the following statements is correct
power consumption.
regarding the SKA telescope? Which of the above statements are correct?
1. At present, it has 36 antennas with diameter (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
of 12 meters each and it is placed at the (c) 2 and 3 only (d) all the above
remote Murchison Radio Astronomy
Observatory.
29. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) 4. Cookies can install malware on the host
is creating a GEO Imaging Satellite (GISAT) computer.
which it plans to launch. Consider the following Codes:
statements about it: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. The satellite will carry a GEO Imager with (c) 3 and 4 only (d) All the above
multi-spectral, multi-resolution imaging 33. Consider the following statements about Ethernet
instruments. and select the correct answers:
2. Gisat will provide near real time pictures of 1. Ethernet is a family of computer networking
technologies for wide area networks (WANs)
large areas of the country, under cloud free
2. Data rates over Ethernet can be upto 100
conditions, at frequent intervals. gigabits per second.
Codes: 3. Ethernet has a good degree of compatibility.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Codes:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
30. Consider the following statements about Dhanush (c) 1 and 3 (d) all the above
missile and select the correct answer: 34. ISRO space vision 2025 includes:
1. Dhanush missile is an indigenously 1. Satellite based communication and navigation
developed naval version of the Prithvi short systems mainly for rural connectivity.
range ballistic missile. 2. Space science mission for better under-
2. It is a single stage missile and was developed
standing of solar system and universe.
by the DRDO and it uses liquid propellant.
3. Reusable Launch Vehicles Technology
3. It has a strike range of up to 350 km and can
demonstrator mission leading to Two-stage-
carry 500 kg of conventional warheads only.
Codes: To-orbit-(TSTO).
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 4. Planetary explorations to Mars and Venus.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) all the above Which of the above statements is/are correct?
31. Consider the following statements about Dornier (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
228, which India has recently handed over to (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Seychelles and select the correct answers: 35. Consider the following statements:
1. The Dornier 228 is manufactured by the 1. A Ramjet is a form of an air-breathing using
DRDO. the engine’s forward motion to compress
2. It is a highly reliable, multi-purpose, fuel incoming air, without a rotary compressor.
ef¿cient rugged, lightweight twin turbo prop 2. Ramjets cannot move an aircraft from standstill.
aircraft with a retractable tricycle landing 3. A subsonic combustion Ramjet or Scramjet
gear. is a variant of a Ramjet air-breathing.
3. It is a frontline surveillance platform for (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
applications like maritime reconnaissance, (c) All of the above (d) None of these
intelligence, warfare, search and rescue, 36. Consider the following statements:
pollution control and transport. 1. European Space Agency (ESA) has joined
Codes: the NASA’s Euclid Mission to be launched
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only in 2020.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) all the above 2. Euclid Mission is a space telescope designed
32. A computer cookie is a small text ¿le placed to investigate the cosmological mysteries of
on computers by a website. Which among the dark matter and dark energy.
following can be the use of cookie? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Cookies can carry viruses.
correct?
2. Cookies can be used to maintain data.
3. Cookies can be used to track internet user’s
web browsing. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
37. Recently, India successfully test-¿red ‘Nirbhay’. (a) HD40307g (b) HD40308g
Consider the following statements in the above (c) HE40307g (d) HE40308g
context: 41. Consider the following statements
1. Nirbhay is the country’s second supersonic 1. Mars-500 is a psychosocial experiment
cruise missile, the ¿rst being Brahmos. conducted by USA, Europe and India.
2. It is a 3-stage surface-to-air missile and is 2. The idea is to exactly mimic the time scale
inspired by the technology of ‘Lakshya- of a Mars mission.
aircraft’. Which of the above statements is/are true?
3. It is also called ‘treetop missile’ as its shape (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
is similar to the stem of a tree. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
4. The missile has a good loitering capability. 42. Consider the following statements
5. The missile is designed by the Aeronautical 1. Hayabusa an unmanned spacecraft developed
Development Establishment (ADE) of by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
DRDO. (JAXA).
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. It landed on the Itokawa asteroid and
correct? collected samples in the form of tiny grains
(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 4 and 5 only of asteroidal material.
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Which of the above statements is/are true?
38. Which of the following is/ are correct about the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
dwarf planets? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
1. A dwarf planet is a planetary-mass object 43. Consider the following about Brown Dwarf
that is neither a planet nor a satellite. 1. It is a small star that is somewhat cooler than
2. A dwarf planet is a celestial body in direct a Red Dwarf.
orbit of the Sun that is massive enough for 2. It is a very large planet.
its shape to be controlled by gravitation, but Which of the above statements is/are true?
that unlike a planet has not cleared its orbital (a) 1 only
region of other objects. (b) 2 only
3. Dwarf planets are any astronomical objects (c) Both 1 and 2
orbiting the Sun that did not show the disk (d) None of these
of a planet and were not observed to have 44. Where do most of the known asteroids orbit
the characteristics of an active comet. the Sun?
4. Dwarf planets are formed out of cosmic dust (a) Between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
grains that collide and stick to form larger (b) Between the orbits of Venus and Earth
and larger bodies. (c) Between the orbits of Earth and Mars
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (d) Between the orbits of Pluto and Saturn
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 45. What are the rings of Saturn made from?
39. Which of the following is equal to 1 Mars year? (a) Gases and clouds
1. 23 Earth months (b) Large pieces of ice and rock
2. 686.65 days (c) Wind and storms
3. 1.88 Earth years
(d) Satellites
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
1. The Indian National Satellite was established
40. An Anglo-German team of astronomers has
in 1983.
discovered a new planet orbiting a nearby Sun at
2. The INSAT system use transponder TDMA
just the right distance for an Earth-like climate that
technology Ku-band C-band technology.
could support life. The name of new planet is
3. GSLV is for launching 2000 kg class of (c) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
communication satellite into geosynchronous (d) None of the above
transfer orbit. 52. Consider the following statements
4. CARTOSAT is the only satellite in the world 1. SARAL is a joint project of India and France.
for maping and creating atlas. 2. SARAL and six other satellite launch through
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? PSLV-C20.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only 3. SARAL will be used to study the ocean
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only currents and sea surface heights.
47. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
‘Carbon Aerogel’
1. Zhejiang University of China, the team of
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) All of these
scientists, produced an ultra-light substance
53. The space plane constructed by Richard Branson’s
known as ‘Carbon Aerogel.’
Spaceflight Company called Virgin Galatic
2. The Carbon Aerogel has the density of 0.16
successfully completed the Àight test which would
milligrams per cubic centimetres.
be able to carry the people to space. The name of
3. The Carbon Aerogel is made of graphite as
this space craft is
well as the carbon Manotubes which can
(a) Boeing X-37
absorbs around 900 times its own body
(b) Soviet Buran
weight.
(c) Bor-4
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(d) Sapceship 2
54. Jiuquan Satellite Centre is situated in which
(c) 3 only (d) All of these
country?
48. NASA’s Swift satellite discovered one of the
(a) China (b) Japan
youngest known supernova remnants which is
believed to be less than 2500 years old, in our (c) S. Korea (d) Russia
Milky Way Galaxy has been designated as 55. Enriched uranium is one in which?
(a) G 306.3 - 0.9 (b) G 603.3 - 0.9 (a) Percentage of 235U has been artificially
increased
(c) G 309.6 - 0.3 (d) None of these
(b) Percentage of U has been arti¿cially increased
49. Astronomers at the National Radio Astronomy
(c) Percentage of 234U has been artificially
observatory discovered cluster of hydrogen clouds
increased
between which of the nearby Galaxies?
(d) Extra energy is pumped from outside
(a) Triangulum-M33
(b) Andromeda-M31 Isotope Use
(c) Both a and b A. Holmium-166 1. to treat bone cancer
(d) None of these B. Iron-57 2. to ¿nd tumor in body
50. The name of the new sexually transmitted sex- C. Arsenic-74 3. used in blood as tracer
superbug, which can be much more deadly than D. Phosphorus-32 4. to treat joint pains
AIDS virus is _____ Codes:
(a) HO41 (b) H41O A B C D
(c) H14O (d) HO14 (a) 4 3 2 1
51. Researchers discovered a new species of dragonÀy (b) 1 2 3 4
from which of the wildlife sanctuaries in India? (c) 4 3 1 2
(a) Bhagwan Mahaveer Wildlife Sanctuary, Goa (d) 1 2 4 3
(b) Corbett National Park
57. Param Padma is (b) An award winning feature ¿lm.
(a) a new civilian award instituted by the (c) An NGO working for the welfare of visually
Government of India handicapped.
(b) the name of supercomputer developed by (d) A SHG working in Andhra Pradesh for the
India welfare of street children.
(c) the name given to a proposed network of 63. Scientists have succeeded in creating a ghost in
canals linking Northern and Southern rivers the laboratory. Which of the following is/are true
of India regarding this?
(d) a software programme to facilitate 1. Researcher Olaf Blanke's team at Ecole
e-governance in Madhya Pradesh Polytechnique Federale de Lausanne in
58. Consider the following statements Switzerland, was able to recreate the illusion
1. The ¿rst programmable electronic computer of a similar presence in the laboratory.
was the Colossus. 2. They showed that the 'feeling of a presence'
2. The Colossus was designed by Tommy actually results from an alteration of sensory
Flowers. motor brain signals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. These signals are involved in generating self
awareness by integrating the information
from our movements and the position of our
body in space.
59. Select the correct statements given below about
the components of the Robots.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) All of these
(a) In robot, the lead acid battery is used to get
64. Neutrinos are
power supply.
1. tiny particles that carry no charge.
(b) The actuators of a robot act like the muscles 2. interact very strongly with electrons and
of human beings. protons.
(c) The end effectors of the robot act as hands of 3. high in energy.
robot to manipulate the objects. 4. may be produced by the giant black hole at
(d) All the statements given in ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ are the centre of the Milkyway.
correct about the components of the Robots. (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4
60. Which one of the following robots uses for the ¿rst (c) 1, 3, 4 (d) All of the above
time the Zero Moment Point (ZMP) algorithm to 65. Frog from Titicaca lake, are the main ingredients
bring bipedal locomotion like human beings? in juice blend that has the power to cure asthma,
(a) ASIMO (b) Choromet bronchitis, sluggishness and a low Sex drive.
(c) iCube (d) Ibn Sina This lake is situated in
61. Consider the following statements: (a) Chile (b) Peru
1. ISRO has recently given clearance for using (c) Atlanta (d) None of these
the frequency from KU band for using the 66. Agni-1, was test-¿red for its 700 km strike range
satellite for internet in trains in India. from the wheeler island off the Odisha coast on
2. KU frequency range is allocated to be Sept. 11, 2014.
exclusively used by satellite communication 1. It is a surface to air missile.
system. 2. It is nuclear weapons capable ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. It carried 1100 kg payload and zeroed in on
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only the target with a high degree of accuracy.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above are correct.
62. What is ‘Netra’? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) An internet spy system capable of detecting (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Both 2 and 3
mala¿de messages.
67. Which of the following statements about Mars 2. Under an accord, Russia has agreed to
Orbiter Mission is/are true? share the Glonass Signal with India.
1. India is the first nation to successfully put (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
spacecraft in Mars orbit in second attempt. (c) 1 and 2 both (d) None
2. India becomes the 4th nation in the world to 73. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
have sent spacecraft to Mars. matched?
3. The other three nations are – The USA, (a) Arjun : Indigenously produced Main Battle
Russia and China Tank (MBT)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) Phalcon : Cruise missile supplied by Russia
(c) 3 only (d) All of these to India.
68. ‘New Horizons’ spacecraft was launched by (c) Saras : Indigenously developed civilian
NASA to Study which of the following Planet? passenger aircraft.
(a) Mars (b) Pluto (d) Operation Seabird: New Indian naval base at
(c) Jupiter (d) Mercury Karwar.
69. The Liquid Propulsion System Centre (LPSC) of 74. High Altitude Warfare School of the Indian Army is
the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) located at
is at? (a) Gulmarg (b) Siachin
(a) Mahendragiri (Tamil Nadu) (c) Leh (d) Manali
(b) Bangalore (Karnataka)
75. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
(c) Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh)
matched?
(d) Ahmadabad (Gujrat)
1. Kiran MK 11 : Aerobatic aircraft
70. GSLV and PSLV are famous acronyms associated
2. MI 35 : Attack helicopter
with ISRO. Consider following
3. Mirage 2000 : Military transport aircraft
1. GSLV is four staged vehicle
2. PSLV is three staged vehicle which of above Select the correct answer using the code given
is true below
Which of above is true (a) 1 only (b) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of the above 76. Consider the following statements:
71. What is the chronological sequence of the 1. The Armed Forces Special Powers Act
following events in Indian Science scene ? (AFSPA) was declared ¿rst time in Manipur
1. Launching of Rohini-I satellite. in 1980 as foreign trained insurgents had
2. Pokhran nuclear test. become uncontrollable.
3. Start of Indian Space Research Organisation. 2. Under the Act, the army has been deployed
4. First unit of Kalpakkam nuclear powers to assist the civil administration in the state.
station going critical 3. Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA)
Choose the correct answer from the codes given was passed in 1958 by the Parliament of
below : India.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 3 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 1 Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(c) 3, 2, 1 and 4 (d) 4, 1, 3 and 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
72. Russia has successfully launched a next- (c) 2 only (d) 1 only
generation navigation satellite for its Glonass 77. Scientists at the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic
global communication system. Which among Research, Kalpakkam, have successfully extended
the following statements in this reference is/are the life of Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) by
correct? another 20 years. This centre is located in:
1. Glonass will not be integrated with the US (a) Karnataka (b) Gujarat
Global Positioning System (GPS). (c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu
78. The stages of India’s Nuclear Power Programme 3. It will use cryogenic engine and not solid and
differs with respect to: liquid propellants.
1. Fuel used 2. Technology Which of the above statements are correct?
3. Stage of development (a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All 86. What is the objective of SMAP Satellite launched
79. The output quality of a printer is measured by by NASA?
(a) Dot per inch (a) Observe and measure moisture of soil on Earth.
(b) Dot per sq. inch (b) Detect moisture in atmosphere of Mars.
(c) Dots printed per unit time (c) Measure rigidity of rocks on Moon.
(d) All of above (d) Measure sea level on Earth.
80. Data becomes ...... when it is presented in a format 87. Which district has become the ¿rst one in India to
hat people can understand and use have high speed Rural Broadband Network?
(a) processed (b) graphs (a) Ajmer of Rajasthan
(c) information (d) presentation (b) Vidisha of Madhya Pradesh
81. The cloud computing is based on: (c) Idukki of Kerala
1. Software as a service mode. (d) Hisar of Haryana
2. Users should pay scheme. 88. Which bank has launched India’s ¿rst contactless
3. Common objective of all the users. debit and credit cards?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) ICICI Bank (b) Axis bank
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None (c) HDFC (d) HSBC
82. Consider the following statements- 89. The Defense Research Development Organisation
1. The DVD uses red laser and its thickness is (DRDO) has developed a drug named ‘Lukosin’.
1.4 mm. It will be used in the treatment of
2. The BD uses blue laser and its thickness is (a) Leukemia (b) Lucoderma
(c) Lung cancer (d) Brain tumor
1.3 mm.
3. The double sided BD is having 54 GB
1. Inbreeding helps in accumulation of superior
storage capacity.
genes
Choose the correct statement(s):
2. Continued inbreeding reduces productivity
(c) 3 only (d) None (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
83. What is Kessler Syndrome ? (c) 1 and 2 (d) None
(a) A disease where human talk while sleeping. 91. Which of the following national missions
(b) A rare viral disease causing respiratory is entrusted with Ministry of Science &
problems. Technology?
(c) A problem found in space launch vehicles. (a) National Mission for Sustaining Himalayan
(d) Proliferation of space debris in low earth Ecosystem (NMSHE)
orbit. (b) National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for
84. What is the purpose of India’s Mars orbiter Climate Change (NMSKCC)
mission? (c) Both
(a) Study its surface (d) None
(b) study its atmosphere 92. What is Nuclear transmutation?
(c) Study its mineral composition (a) Conversion of one chemical element or
(d) All the above isotope into another.
85. Consider the following statements about GSLV (b) Conversion of solid directly into gas
Mk3 (c) Conversion of gas directly into solid
1. It can carry up to 4500 to 5000 kg satellites. (d) Conversion of a nucleated human nerve cell
2. It is a 4 stage vehicle. into a non-nucleated one
93. TamiÀu is an anti-viral disease used to treat 2. The TMT will enable scientists to study
(a) Swine Àu (b) Asthama fainter objects far away from earth providing
(c) Diabetes information about early stages of the
(d) Japanese Encephalitis. evolution of the universe.
94. Consider the following statements 3. India is also a partner in the project.
1. Thirty Meter Telescope will be the largest of Which of the statements given above are correct?
the existing and announced extremely large (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
telescopes (ELT). (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Hints & Solutions

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 13. (d) 25. (d) 37. (b) 49. (c) 61. (c) 73. (b) 85. (a)
2. (b) 14. (c) 26. (d) 38. (d) 50. (a) 62. (a) 74. (a) 86. (a)
3. (a) 15. (b) 27. (b) 39. (a) 51. (a) 63. (d) 75. (b) 87. (c)
4. (d) 16. (a) 28. (d) 40. (a) 52. (d) 64. (c) 76. (a) 88. (a)
5. (d) 17. (b) 29. (c) 41. (b) 53. (a) 65. (b) 77. (d) 89. (b)
6. (b) 18. (d) 30. (a) 42. (c) 54. (a) 66. (d) 78. (d) 90. (c)
7. (d) 19. (a) 31. (c) 43. (c) 55. (a) 67. (b) 79. (b) 91. (c)
8. (c) 20. (c) 32. (b) 44. (a) 56. (a) 68. (b) 80. (c) 92. (a)
9 (d) 21. (d) 33. (b) 45. (b) 57. (b) 69. (a) 81. (c) 93. (a)
10. (d) 22. (d) 34. (c) 46. (a) 58. (c) 70. (d) 82. (d) 94. (b)
11. (a) 23. (c) 35. (a) 47. (d) 59. (d) 71. (c) 83. (d)
12. (a) 24. (d) 36. (c) 48. (a) 60. (a) 72. (b) 84. (d)
1. (a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is Atlas – Centaur is an American expendable launch
headquartered in Bengaluru. The Inter–University system. It is the ¿rst production rocket stage to use
Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA) cryogenic propellent.
is located in Pune, India. Nag is a third generation ¿re–and–forget" anti-tank
Inter–University Accelaerator Centre (IUAC) is missile of India.
an autonomous research facility of University 3. (a) Space based solar power (SBSP) is
Grants Commission which is based in New Delhi. considered to be made a national goal, because its
Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) is a major supply is 99% uninterrupted throughout the year,
space research centre of the Indian Space Research besides the enormity of energy availability.
Organisation, focusing on rocket and space 4. (d) A 'Gravity tractor' (GT) is a spacecraft with a
vehicles, is located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. mechanism that can deÀect another object in space
2. (b) Arihant is a class of nuclear–powered ballistic without physically contacting it. It will use only its
missile submarine. gravitational ¿eld to transmit the required impulse.
AWACS, abbreviation of Airborne Warning It can effect a potentially hazardous asteroid that
and Control System, is a mobile, long–range might hit earth.
surveillance and control centre for air defence, 5. (d) The main objectives of the New Science
developed by the U.S. Air Force, is mounted on and Technology Policy are optimal utilisation
Boeing 707 aircraft. of existing physical and knowledge resources,
development of innovative technologies and Akash–2 is a computer Tablet developed by
management of intellectual property. DATAWIND an Indian company.
6. (b) An orbiting satellite is a projectile, that 12. (a) A computer keyboard, a typewriter–style
the only force acting upon an oribiting satellite device having a particular arrangement of buttons
is the force of gravity. The force of gravity also or keys, is a main input device. It inputs text,
accelerates it towards the earth. But the earth's numbers and sends commands to the computer.
round shape prevents it to fall on ground and if 13. (d) Akash is a medium–range mobile surface–to–
the satellite is in more than 8000 m/s speed it air missile. Nag is an antitank missile by DRDO.
also contributes to the maintenance of motion in a Pinaka is a multiple rocket launcher produced for
particular orbit or elliptical path. Indian Army by DRDO while Trishul is a missile
7. (d) Multiple Independent Re–entry Vehicle system of a short range surface to–air missile as a
(MIRV) is a ballistic missile payload or "bus" of part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development
a ballistic missile. It is capable of being aimed to Program.
hit one of a group of targets. A unitary warhead 14. (c) Radar is a system that uses radio waves for
is a single warhead on a single missile Multiple object deÀection. It determines the range, altitude,
re-entry vehicle (MRV) is an intermediate direction, or speed of objects.
case in which the MRV missile carries several 15. (b) INS Tarkash is a Talwar–class multirole
reentry vehicles, which can be dispersed but not stealth frigate constructed by Indian Navy.
individually aimed. 16. (a) The old 2001 policy mandated that ISRO
8. (c) The Intelligent Flight Control System (IFCS) could release only data upto 5.8 meter resolution.
is a next–generation Àight control system designed 17. (b) 4K TV is an Ultra high de¿nition television.
to provide increased safety for the crew and UHDTV, has horizontal resolution on the order
passengers. It was developed by NASA and IFCS of 4,000 pixels. Since its screen is too big the HD
tested it in NF–15B. Generation 1 IFCS Àight tests gives blurred images.
conducted in 2003. 18. (d) New Super Wi-Fi will support 802.11 ad
9. (d) Both the statements regarding Indian Polar standard, it can send data upto the length of 1-2 GB
Research stations are incorrect. and would function at the speed of 7 gigabits per
India's ¿rst expedition to Antarctica was in 1981, second.
she expanded it by undertaking its ¿rst Arctic 19. (a) Dark matter is a type of matter hypothesized
expedition in August 2007 by setting up 'Himadri' in astronomy and cosmilogy to account for a large
part of the mass that appears missing from the
at Nye–Alesund in Norway in 2008 to mark the
universe, it does not interact with light. It is also
International Polar Year (IPY).
hypothesized that it interacts with ordinary matter
The ¿rst Antarctic research station was Gangotri
through gravity and binds galaxies, and it pushes
(1983) and second was Maitri (1989). 'Bharti' or
the universe apart.
'Bharthi' is the third Antarctic station at Larsemann
20. (c) ‘Greenware’ is completely free of both
in East Antarctica.
hazardous PVC and BFR and its manufacturing
10. (d) ISRO and NASA have agreed to form a can be a special action like replacing all standard
working group for co-operation in Moon and Mars light bulbs with CFLs or a more general
mission for future metrology and space exploration application to live more ecologically.
and also in Helio physics. 21. (d) High Frequency Active Auroral Research
11. (a) 'Curiosity' is a car–sized robotic rover, Programme (HAARP) is an ionspheric research
exploring Gale Crater on Mars as part of NASA's programme and the main purpose is to investigate
Mars Science Laboratory Mission (MSL) the potential for developing ionaspheric
'MESSENGER' is an acronym of Mercury Surface enhancement technology for radio communications
Environment, Geochemistry, and Ranging. It is a and surveillance.
robotic NASA spacecraft orbiting the planet Mercury. 22. (d) Orbital decay, a process of prolonged
Rustom is a medium Altitude Long Endur-ance reduction in the altitude of a satellite’s orbit
unmanned combat air vehicle (UCAV) being is caused due to atmospheric drag, tides and
developed by DRDO. gravitational pull.
23. (c) GPON standard differs from other passive 31. (c) It is a highly reliable, multi-purpose, fuel
optical network standards in that it achieves higher ef¿cient rugged, lightweight twin turbo prop
bandwidth and higher ef¿ciency using larger aircraft with a retractable tricycle landing gear.
variable length packets. GPON offers ef¿cient 32. (b) Cookies can be used to maintain data. They
packaging of user traf¿c with frame segmentation can be used to track internet user’s web browing as
allowing higher quality of service for delay- well.
sensitive voice and video communications traf¿c. 33. (b) Data rates over Ethernet can be upto 100
On the other hand, PON is a network architecutre gigabits per second. Ethernet has a good degree of
that brings ¿bre cabling and signals to the home compatability.
using a point-to-multipoint scheme that enables a 34. (c) ISRO space vision 2025 includes satellite
single optical ¿bre to serve multiple premises. based communication and navigation systems
24. (d) The device has been developed to near mainly for rural connectivity.
completion using a bistable 'electroÀuidic imaging 35. (a) A ‘Ramjet’ is also referred to as a Àying
¿lm' for e–paper. The screen of proposed Àexible ‘stovepipe’ or an athodyd. Ramjets are frequently
devices would need to be able to display text and confused with pulsejets, which use an intermittent
images, yet be Àexible and tough enough. combustion but Ramjets employ a continuous
25. (d) The Square Kilometre Array (SKA) is a radio combustion process. They can not produce thrust
telescope developed in Australia and South Africa at zero airspeed. They are also confused with
which will have a total collecting area of one ‘Scramjets’, which are a similar system designed
square kilometre. Atleast 13 countries and close for higher speeds, using supersonic Àow.
to 100 organisations are involved radio telescopes 36. (c) NASA has joined the European space
collect radio wave from objects million or billions Agency’s (ESA’) Euclid mission, a telescope
light years away from earth. designed to investigate the cosmological mysteries
26. (d) Megha-Tropiques is an Indo-French Joint of dark matter and dark energy. Euclid is a medium
satellite mission for studying the water cycle and –class (“M–class”) mission and is part of ESA’s
energy exchanges in the tropics. It was launched “Cosmic Vision”, 2015–2025 scienti¿c program.
on 12 October 2011 from the Satish Dhawan Space 37. (b) Nirbhay is a long range, subsonic cruise
Centre, Sriharikota. missile being developed in India by Defence
27. (b) The air version of Brahmos has been Research and Development Organisation. The
successfully test-¿red recently. Brahmos-II will be missile has a good loitering capability i.e., it can
hypersonic cruise missile with range more than 300 go round a target and perform several manoeuvres
km. and then re-engage it. Its ¿rst trial on 12 March
28. (d) DRAMs are less expensive and slower 2013 from Chandipur, Odisha was failed. Brahmos
than SRAMs. DRAM requires to be refreshed is a supersonic cruise missile, while ‘Lakshya’ is
periodically as opposed to the SRAM. DRAM has an Indian pilot-less target drone system. Nirbhy’s
higher bit density and lower power consumption.
technology is not inspired by it. It is a “tree–top”
29. (c) The ISRO is designing a Geo imaging
missile because it can Àyover or around hills, can
satellite (Gisat) which is planned to be launched
Ày at a very low altitude and avoid detection.
during 2016–17. It will carry a GEO imager
38. (d) A dwarf planet is a planetary-mass object
with multi–spectral (Visible, near–infra–red and
that is neither a planet nor a satellite. More
thermal) and multiresolution (50m to 1.5 km)
explicitly, the International Astronomical Union
imaging instruments. It will acquire images of a
(IAU) de¿nes a dwarf planet as a celestial body in
geographical strip and also provide near real time
direct orbit of the Sun that is massive enough for
images of large areas of the country.
its shape to be controlled by gravitation, but that
30. (a) Dhanush missile is an indigenously
unlike a planet has not cleared its orbital region of
developed naval version of the Prithvi short range other objects.The point 3 refers to asteroids.
ballistic missile. It is a single stage missile and 39. (a) 1 Mars year = 23 Earth months = 686.65 days
was developed by the DRDO and it uses liquid = 1.88 Earth years
propellant. It was successfully test-¿red on 13 1 Day on Mars = 24 hours 39 minutes 35 seconds
November, 2013. Mars has all four seasons that the Earth does, but,
since the year is longer on the planet, the axial among the youngest-known supernova remnants in
tilt is different, and Mars has a more eccentric our Milky Way Galaxy.
orbit than Earth, the seasons are not the same 49. (c) In a dark, starless patch of intergalactic space,
length as each other nor are they the same in each astronomers have discovered a never-before-seen
hemisphere. In the northern hemisphere spring is cluster of hydrogen clouds strewn between two
the longest season. In the northern hemisphere of nearby galaxies, Andromeda (M31) and Triangulum
Mars the seasons break down like this: Spring – 7 (M33).
months, Summer – 6 months, Fall – 5.3 months, 50. (a) One causal virus of gonorrhea has been
and Winter – just over 4 months. In the south detected which is more aggressive than HIV in
seasons not exactly the same length as in the north, spreading AIDS and is resistance to any antibiotic.
but they are similar; however, the temperatures can Although no infected persons are yet detected with
be as much as 30 C warmer. this virus.
40. (a) HD40307g is an exoplanet orbiting in the 51. (a) A new species had been discovered in 2013
habitable zone of HD40307. It is located 42 in Bhagvan Mahaveer Wildlife Sanctuary, Goa. Its
light-years away in the direction of the southern name is Idionyx gomantakensis.
constellation Pictor. The planet was discovered 53. (a) The space plane constructed by Richard
using the European Southern Observatory’s HARPS Branson’s Spaceflight company, Virgin Galactic
apparatus by a team of astronomers of University of successfully completed to carry off people to space
Hertfordshire and Guillem Anglada-Escude of the is called as Boeing X-37.
University of Goettingen, Germany.
54. (a) Jiuquan Satellite Launch Center (JSLC) is
41. (b) The Mars-500 mission was a psychosocial
a Chinese space vehicle launch facility spaceport
isolation experiment conducted between 2007 and
located in the Gobi desert, about 1,600 km from
2011 by Russia, the European Space Agency and
Beijing.
China, in preparation for an unspecified future
55. (a) Natural uranium is 99.284% 238U isotope, with
manned space flight to the planet Mars. The 235U only constituting about 0.711% of its weight.
experiment’s idea was to mimic the time scale of a
MARS mission. Enriched uranium is a type of uranium in which
42. (c) Hayabusa was an unmanned spacecraft the percent composition of uranium-235 has been
developed by the Japan Aerospace Exploration increased arti¿cially through the process of isotope
Agency (JAXA). Its goal was to return a sample separation.
of material from a small near-Earth asteroid named 56. (a) Holmium-166-chitosan complex for the
25143 Itokawa to Earth for further analysis. treatment of knee and joint synovitis. The four
43. (c) Brown dwarfs are substellar objects too low in naturally occurring isotopes of iron, iron-54, iron-56,
mass to sustain hydrogen-1fusion reactions in their iron-57, and iron-58 are used primarily as tracers in
cores. Red Dwarfs are cool but Brown Dwarfs are studies on blood. Arsenic -74 is used to detect the
cooler than them and it is very large planet. tumours in the human body. Phosphorus-32 is used
44. (a) The asteroid belt is a doughnut-shaped in radiotherapy in cancer patients.
concentration of many different sized asteroids 57. (b) Param Padma, a supercomputer was introduced
between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter, closer to in April 2003. It had a peak speed of 1024 GFLOPS
the orbit of Mars. The asteroids orbit the Sun. The (about 1 TFLOP) and a peak storage of 1 TB.
asteroid belt is not smooth but there are concentric 58. (c) Colossus was the world’s first electronic
gaps in it known as Kirkwood gaps. digital computer that was at all programmable. The
45. (b) The rings of Saturn is made up of many Colossus computers were developed for British
uneven particles. The ring particles are made almost code breakers during World War II to help in
entirely of water ice, with a trace component of thecryptanalysis of the Lorenz Cipher. Colossus
rocky material. There is still no consensus as to their was designed by the engineer Tommy Flowers.
mechanism of formation. 60. (a) Zero moment point is a concept related
48. (a) NASA’s Swift satellite had uncovered in 2013, with dynamics and control of legged locomotion.
the previously unknown remains of a shattered ASIMO, Advanced Step in Innovative Mobility, is a
star designated G306.3–0.9. The new object ranks humanoid robot designed and developed by Honda.
64. (c) Neutrinos are tiny particles that carry no charge drought, predict floods, assist crop productivity,
and interact very weakly with electrons and protons. weather forecasting and linking water, energy and
NASA scientists have found that the giant black hole carbon cycles.
at the centre of the milkyway may be producing the 87. (c) Idukki district of Kerala has become first
mysterious high energy neutrinos. district in India to have high speed Rural Broadband
66. (d) Agni-1 is a surface to surface, nuclear weapons Network i.e. National Optical Fibre Network
capable ballistic missile. (NOFN) Internet connectivity. NOFN is the largest
67. (b) India is the first nation to successfully put rural connectivity project of its kind in the world.
spacecraft in Mars orbit in maident attempt. India 88. (a) Contactless cards launched by ICICI Bank can
is the 4th nation in the world to have sent spacecraft be used to make electronic payments by waving the
to Mars. The other 3 nations are – The USA, Russia cards near the merchant terminal instead of dipping
and European space agency. or swiping. These cards are based on Near Field
70. (d) GSLV is three staged vehicle equipped with
Communication technology.
solid propellant at ¿rst stage, liquid at second and
89. (b) Lukosin is a herbal drug developed by Defense
cryogenic engine at third and PSLV is 4 marked by
Research Development Organisation(DRDO) for
alternate solid and liquid busters.
treatment of Lucoderma( White patches on skin).
73. (b) Phalcon is radar system provided by Israel to
90. (c) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of superior
India.
genes and elimination of less desirable genes.
74. (a) The High Altitude Warfare School (HAWS)
Continued inbreeding usually reduces fertility
is located at Gulmarg (Jammu and Kashmir). It
and even productivity. This is called inbreeding
was set up in 1948 by the Indian Army to train its
depression.
personnel high altitude warfare, counter intelligence
91. (c) The Department of Science & Technology,
and survival.
75. (b) Kiran MK 11: Aerobatic aircraft Ministry of Science & Technology has been
MI 35 : Attack helicopter entrusted with the responsibility of coordinating two
out of eight national missions launched under the
Mirage 2000 is a jet ¿ghtor aircraft
83. (d) The Kessler syndrome (also called the Kessler National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
effect, proposed by the NASA scientist Donald J. These are National Mission for Sustaining
Kessler in 1978, is a scenario in which the density Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE) and National
of objects in low Earth orbit (LEO) is high enough Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate
that collisions between objects could cause a Change (NMSKCC).
cascade—each collision generating space debris 92. (a) Nuclear transmutation is the conversion of one
which increases the likelihood of further collisions. chemical element or isotope into another. In other
One implication is that the distribution of debris in words, atoms of one element can be changed into
orbit could render space exploration, and even the atoms of another element through nuclear reactions
use of satellites, unfeasible for many generations. or through radioactive decay.
85. (a) GSLV Mk-3 is the latest version of GSLV. It 93. (a) TamiÀu (oseltamivir) is an antiviral medication
can carry up to 4500 to 5000 kg satellites. Until now, used to treat Swine Àu.
India relied on EU’s Arianespace launch vehicle 94. (b) Thirty Meter Telescope will be the second
to send those INSAT-4 satellites. It will consist of largest of the existing and announced extremely
3 stages. 1st stage will have solid propellant, 2nd large telescopes (ELT) which is under construction
stage will have liquid propellant and 3rd stage will on Mauna Kea in Hawaii. The TMT will enable
be cryogenic engine. GSLV MK-3 will make ISRO scientists to study fainter objects far away from
a competitive player in commercial launches of earth providing information about early stages of the
foreign satellites. evolution of the universe. As a founding member of
86. (a) SMAP (Soil Moisture Active Passive) Satellite the important international scienti¿c project, India
is a three-year mission which will measure the will be a 10 percent partner in the project and 70
amount of moisture in soil. It will help to monitor percent of its contributions will be "in kind".
Section F : general awareness
1 Art and Culture
answer by using the codes given below: 1. Raja Ravi Varma is called as ‘Raffale of
List-I List-II East’.
A. Dhamar 1. Krishna theme/ Holi theme 2. M.F. Hussain is called as ‘Piccaso of India’.
B. Thumri 2. Only rhythm is important 3. Pahari painting discovered by Metcalfe in
C. Tarana 3. Words are important Kangra
D. Tappa 4. Extinct 4. Kangra painting is a mixture of Rajasthani
Codes: and Mughal
A B C D A B C D Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 correct?
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Consider the following statements: (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
1. Flute and Sexophone are wind instruments 5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
2. Dhol, Tabla, Mridanga are percussion answer by using the codes given below:
instrument List-I List-II
3. Piano, Sitar and Vina are chordophone A. Bharatnatyam 1. Tamil Nadu
4. Ghungru and Jaltarangs are percussion B. Kathakali 2. Kerala
instruments C. Mohiniattam 3. Andhra Pradesh
Which of the above statements is/are correct? D. Odissi 4. Odisha
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above A B C D A B C D
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
answer by using the codes given below: (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 2 4 3 1
A. Sahitya Academy 1. 1954 1. Odisi dance related to Odisha.
B. Sangeet Natak Academy 2. 1953 2. Kathak belongs to North India (Uttar
C. National Book Trust 3. 1957 Pradesh)
D. National School of Drama 4. 1959 3. Sattaria dance belongs to Assam.
A B C D A B C D correct?
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 1 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
F-2 || Art and Culture
7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 11. Consider the following statements :
answer by using the codes given below: 1. Mudiyettu of Kerala enlisted in UNESCO.
List-I List-II 2. It is performed in Kali temple.
A. Chhau 1. Punjab 3. It depicts the victory of Goddess Kail over
B. Gatka 2. West Bengal & Jharkhand Asur.
C. Dumhal 3. Kashmir Which of the statements given above is/are
D. Garba 4. Gujarat correct?
A B C D A B C D (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 answer by using the codes given below:
answer by using the codes given below: A. String puppet 1. Katputli (Rajasthan)
List-I List-II B. Rod puppet 2. Putul Nautch
A. Bhand pathar 1. Kashmir (Bengal)
B. Swang 2. Haryana & U.P. C. Glove puppet 3. Kundhei Nach
C. Nautanki 3. Uttar Pradesh (Odisha)
D. Naach 4. Madhya Pradesh D. Shadow puppet 4. Ravanchhaya
Codes: (Odisha)
A B C D A B C D Codes:
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 A B C D A B C D
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 1 3 2 4 (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
9. Consider the following statements : (c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 1 3 2 4
1. Bhaona, the presentation of Ankia Noat of 13. Consider the following statements:
Shankar Dev in Assam. 1. Tamasha, dialogue delivery and footwork at
2. Jatra, Chaitanya’s Bhakti form of West lightning speed belongs to Maharashtra.
Bengal. 2. Dashavatar, Vishnu’s 10 Avatars is main
3. Budesia, female role played by male in theme belongs to Konkan & Goa.
Bihar. 3. Bhavai, Rare synthesis of devotional and
4. Prahlad Natak belongs to Odisha. romantic sentiment.
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
answer by using the codes given below: answer by using the codes:
A. Mudiyettu 1. Kerala A. Sitar 1. Pt. Ravi Shankar
B. Burrakatha 2. Andhra Pradesh B. Tabla 2. Ustad Shafat Ahmed Khan
C. Therukoothu 3. Tamil Nadu C. Flute 3. Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
D. Yakshagan 4. Karnataka D. Sarod 4. Hari Prasad Chaurasiya
Codes: Codes:
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 4 3 2 (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
General Awareness || F-3
15. Consider the following statements : 19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
1. Zubin Mehta is the famous exponent of answer by using the codes given below :
Simphoni. List-I List-II
2. Himanshu Biswas is the exponent of Jal (Festival) (States)
Tarang. A. Ugadi 1. West Bengal
3. Jnan Prakash Ghosh is the exponent of B. Navbarsha 2. Gujarat
Ghatam. C. Bhadra Purnima 3. Maharashtra
4. V. Balsara is the exponent of Piano. D. Gudi Padwa 4. Andhra Pradesh
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only A B C D A B C D
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 3
16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 1 2 4
answer by using the codes given below : 20. Consider the following statements:
List-I List-II 1. Bharatnatyam is considered the mother
A. Chong 1. Nagaland art of most of the other classical dances of
B. Goudi 2. Chattisgarh India.
C. Mask dance 3. Arunachal Pradesh 2. ‘Kathak’ means the one who tells a story.
3. Kuchipudi derives its name from the
D. Yakshagan 4. Karnataka
Kuchipudi village of Andhra Pradesh.
Codes:
4. Odissi is considered a dance of love, joy and
A B C D A B C D
intense passion, pure, divine and human.
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
correct?
answer by using the codes given below : (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
List-I List-II 21. ‘Saptarang - 2014’ is a
A. Bidesia 1. Jharkhand (a) Musical and Cultural Festival Organised by
B. Lajri 2. Uttarakhand the Maharashtra Government
C. Dangri 3. Himachal Pradesh (b) Theme of ‘Filmfare Award-2014’ programme
D. Thullal 4. Kerala (c) A folk dance festival organised by the
Codes: Odisha Government
A B C D A B C D (d) Theme of ‘Taj Mahotsava 2014’
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3 22. Choose the correct chronological sequence.
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 1 2 (a) Firoze Minar, Chand Minar, Char Minar,
18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Qutub Minar
answer by using the codes given below : (b) Chand Minar, Char Minar, Qutub Minar,
List-I List-II Firoze Minar
(Tribes) (States) (c) Qutub Minar, Firoze Minar, Chand Minar,
A. Baggarwal 1. Jammu and Kashmir Char Minar
B. Chencus 2. Andhra Pradesh (d) Char Minar, Qutub Minar, Chand Minar,
C. Tharu 3. Jharkhand Firoze Minar
D. Bhumij 4. Uttar Pradesh 23. Choose the correct sequence of location from
Codes: north to south.
A B C D A B C D (a) Monolithic Kailashnath Temple,
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3 Brihadiswara Temple, Modhera Sun Temple,
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 2 4 3 Avantiswami Temple
(b) Brihadiswara Temple, Avantiswami Temple, 27. Consider the following statements:
Monolithic Kailashnath Temple, Modhera Assertion (A) : It would be logical to propose that
Sun Temple social reality is integral to an artist’s expression
(c) Avantiswami Temple, Modhera Sun in the domain of visual arts.
Temple, Monolithic Kailashnath Temple, Reason (R) : Because it is an inherent and
Brihadiswara Temple natural instinct for human expression to seek
(d) Modhera Sun Temple, Avantiswami contemporary relevance while formulating the
Temple, Brihadiswara Temple, Monolithic visual image, both in form and content.
Kailashnath Temple Select the correct answer using the codes given
24. Choose the correct chronological sequence of below.
sculptors whose preferred medium was stone Codes:
(a) Mahendra Pandya, Balbir Singh Katt, (a) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Rajshekhar Nair, M. Dharmani (b) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
(b) M. Dharmani, Mahendra Pandya, Balbir (c) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
Singh katt, Rajshekhar Nair (d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(c) Balbir Singh Katt, M. Dharmani, Mahendra 28. Consider the following statements:
Pandya, Rajshekhar Nair Assertion (A) : Sanat Kar explored and
(d) Rajshekhar Nair, M. Dharmani, Mahendra experimented with ‘Sunmica’ for achieving desired
Pandya, Balbir Singh Katt visual effects in colour viscosity prints.
25. Consider the following statements: Reason (R) : Because this was a period in modern
Assertion (A) : Tertiary colours are the colours
Indian art when printmakers were exploring all
formed by mixing a primary and a secondary
possible new avenues in medium and material.
colour.
Reason (R) : That is why tertiary hues are two-
below.
word names, such as blue-green, red-violet, and
Codes:
yellow-orange.
(b) (A) in incorrect, but (R) is correct.
below.
Codes: (c) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect. (d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(b) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct. 29. Consider the following statements:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct. Assertion (A) : Bronze sculptures are stronger
(d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. than brass sculptures. It is the composition of
26. Consider the following statements: alloys in bronze that makes it stronger.
Assertion (A) : Sunga sculpture were invariably Reason (R) : The high ratio of copper in bronze,
carved in low-relief with Àat surfaces. with a little addition of lead, makes the material
Reason (R) : Because the sculptors had no stronger and ensures greater pliability in the
knowledge of perspective. medium.
Select the correct answer using the codes given Select the correct answer using the codes given
below. below.
Codes: Codes:
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect. (a) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(b) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct. (b) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (c) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. (d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
30. Consider the following statements: 1. Banda Bahadur was appointed as the
Assertion (A) : Traditional Indian painting military leader of the Sikhs by Guru Tegh
avoided historical subjects and concentrated on Bahadur.
the religious as theme. 2. Guru Arjan Dev became the Sikh Guru after
Reason (R) : Because religion was the exclusive Guru Ram Das.
determining factor for cultural expression in that 3. Guru Arjan Dev gave to Sikhs their own
period. script- Gurumukhi.
Select the correct answer using the codes given Which of the statements given is/are correct?
below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
Codes:
34. Match the following :
List-I List-II
(b) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct. (Folk Dances) (State)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct. A. Bharat Natyam 1. Tamil Nadu
(d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. B. Kathak 2. North India
31. Match the following objects with their museums : C. Kutchipudi 3. Andhra Pradesh
List-I List-II D. Karma 4. Madhya Pradesh
A. Ashokan lion 1. Mathura Codes:
capital A B C D
B. Bust of Kanishka 2. Patna (a) 1 2 3 4
C. Govardhandhari 3. Sarnath (b) 2 1 3 4
(Gupta Period) (c) 3 4 2 1
D. Didarganj Yakshi 4. Bharat Kala Bhavan (d) 4 3 1 2
BHU 35. Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct
Codes: answer by using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A B C D
A. Nat-Natin 1. Karnataka
(a) 3 1 4 2 B. Yakshagan 2. Bihar
(b) 2 4 1 3 C. Mando 3. Meghalaya
(c) 1 2 3 4 D. Laho 4. Goa
(d) 4 3 2 1 Codes:
32. Match the following: A B C D
A. Neo-tantricism 1. Bikash Bhattacharya (b) 2 1 4 3
B. Photo-realism 2. Nandalal Bose (c) 1 2 3 4
C. Folk 3. Biren De (d) 1 2 4 3
D. Abstraction 4. Jehangir Sabavala 36. Consider the following statements :
1. Ustad Kausar Ali is a Sitar Player
Codes:
2. Pandit Anindo Chatterjee is related with
A B C D
Flute
(a) 3 1 2 4 3. Pt. Vishwa Mohan Bhatt plays Guitar .
(b) 1 2 3 4 4. Pt. Vishwa Mohan Bhatt plays Mohan Veena
(c) 2 3 4 1 Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 4 3 2 1 correct.
33. Consider the following statements about Sikh (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Gurus: (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only.
37. Consider the following statements : 3. Its development took place indigenously.
1. Ustad Ali Akbar Khan is a Sarod player Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Zubin Mehta is a Symphony player correct
3. Ustad Shafaat Ahmed Khan is a Sitar player (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
4. Dr. N. Rajan is a Tabla player (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are 42. Which statement is /are correct regarding
correct: Mathura School of Art .
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 1. Strong Greek inÀuence.
(c) 1,2 and 4 (d) 1,2,3 and 4 2. Spotted Red Sandstone
38. Consider the following statements : 3. Initially inspired by Yaksha Images
1. Shujaat Khan, is a Sitar Player 4. The halo around the head of Buddha was
2. Latif Khan is a Tabla player profusely decorated.
3. Ashiq Ali Khan is a Sarangi player Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Ha¿z Khan is a sarod player correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 ,2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
correct: (c) 1,2 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4
(a) 1 ,2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 4 (d) 1,2,3 and 4
1. Amaravati School of art Àourished during
39. Consider the following statements regarding
the Kushana time.
Rashtrakavi (“National poet”) Ramdhari Singh
2. White Marble was used in this art.
Dinkar :
1. He got the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1959 3. In this school, the Kings, Princes, Palaces
for his work Sanskriti ke Char Adhyay. etc. have got prominence.
2. Dinkar was awarded the Jnanpith Award in Which of the statements given above is/are
1972 for Urvashi. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1,and 3
correct. (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 44. Consider the following statements
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only. 1. Mughal architecture reached its zenith
40. Consider the following statements: during the reign of emperor Shah Jahan
1. Chausath Yogini Temple is located in (1628–58),
Khajuraho. 2. This period is marked by a fresh emergence
2. 2. Sudama cave is located in Orissa . in India of Persian features that had been
Which of the statements given above is/are seen earlier in the tomb of Humayun.
correct. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 only (d) neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) None of the above 45. Consider the following statements
41. Consider the following statements regarding 1. The Humayun’s Tomb was built by the
Gandhar Art. Emperor’s widow Bega Begum in 1570.
1. Gandhara School was based on Greco- 2. In 1990, UNESCO declared the garden tomb
Roman norms encapsulating foreign as a World Heritage Site for its architectural
techniques and an alien spirit. It is also grandeur and for its inÀuence on the later
known as Graeco-Buddhist School of art. Mughal architecture.
2. In all the Buddha depicted in the Gandhara Which of the statements given above is/are
Art is shown making three types of hand correct?
gestures and this is a remarkable feature in (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
this art.
(c) neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1 only
46. Consider the following statements 50. Consider the following statements.
1. The Lahore Fort was built by the Mughal 1. Nitisara – Kamandaka
Emperor Akbar (ruled 1556-1605) in the 2. Nitishatak – Bhartrihari
1560s. 3. Kathasaritsagar – Bhasa
2. In 1981, UNESCO inscribed it on the 4. Natyashastra – Bharata
World Heritage Site List as one of the ¿nest Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
examples of Mughal architecture. (a) 1 ,2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) 1,2 and 4 only
(c) neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1 only 51. Consider the following observations about the “
47. Consider the following statements Sulbasutras” discussed in context of the ancient
1. The Taj Mahal was declared World Heritage Indian history and heritage:
Site by UNESCO in 2000. 1. The formulae in the Sulbasutras enabled the
2. In 2007, UNESCO designated it as a World accurate construction of altars needed for
Heritage Site for its architectural splendour. sacri¿ces
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Apart from Bodhayana, Lopamudra is also
correct? credited for some Sulbasutras
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only 3. The mathematics in the Baudhayan’s
(c) neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1 only Sulbasutras was algebraic
48. Consider the following statements. Which among the above observations is / are
1. The Badshahi Mosque was built by Shah correct?
Jahan’s son and successor Aurangzeb (ruled (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 & 2
1658-1707). (c) Only 2 & 3 (d) 1, 2 & 3
2. It remains one of the top 10 largest mosques 52. The temples constructed at Khajuraho are:
in the world 1. Jain temples
2. Vaishnavite Temples
3. Saivite Temples
correct
Choose the correct option from the codes given
below:
(c) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only 1 & 3 (b) Only 2 & 3
49. Consider the following statements.
(c) 1, 2 & 3 (d) Only 1 & 2
1. Bada Imambara, (Uttar Pradesh) also
53. The “Siddhimatrika” script was one of the forms
called the Asafai Imambara this huge and
of writing Sanskrit in ancient India. This script,
elegant building is almost built like a fort.
which made Sanskrit works known in China and
Sirajuddaula built this building in a famine
Japan was developed during the times of ___:
relief program in 1784. (a) Kanishka
2. Chota Imambara, (Uttar Pradesh) The third (b) Harsha
Nawab of Avadh, Muhammad Ali Shah built (c) Meander
this imposing structure of Chota Imambara (d) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
in 1840. The real name of this structure is 54. To perform which among the following functions,
Husainabad Imambada. Rajukas were appointed by Asoka?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Revenue Functions
correct (b) Judicial Functions
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) Religious Functions
(c) neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1 only (d) Military Functions
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 7. (b) 13. (d) 19. (a) 25. (c) 31. (a) 37. (a) 43. (d) 49. (b)
2. (d) 8. (a) 14. (b) 20. (d) 26. (a) 32. (a) 38. (c) 44. (a) 50. (d)
3. (a) 9. (d) 15. (d) 21. (a) 27. (c) 33. (d) 39. (a) 45. (d) 51. (a)
4. (d) 10. (a) 16. (a) 22. (d) 28. (c) 34. (a) 40. (a) 46. (a) 52. (c)
5. (a) 11. (d) 17. (a) 23. (c) 29. (a) 35. (b) 41. (d) 47. (c) 53. (b)
6. (d) 12. (a) 18. (d) 24. (b) 30. (a) 36. (c) 42. (d) 48 (a) 54. (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Dhamar — Krishna theme. Dhamar is one blowing through a reed; others require buzzing into
of the talas used in Hindustani classical music. It a metal mouthpiece.
is associated with the dhrupad style and typically Percussion instruments- A percussion instrument is
played on the pakhawaj. Dhamar tala has 14 beats a musical instrument that is sounded by being struck
grouped asymmetrically into a 5 - 2 - 3 - 4 pattern. or scraped by a beater (including attached or enclosed
Thumri — Words are important. ThumrƯ is a beaters or rattles); struck, scraped or rubbed by hand;
common genre of semi-classical Indian music.The or struck against another similar instrument. The
text is romantic or devotional in nature, and usually percussion family is believed to include the oldest
revolves around a girl’s love for Krishna. The lyrics musical instruments, following the human voice.
are usually in Uttar Pradesh dialects of Hindi called Chordophone- A chordophone is any musical
Awadhi and Brij Bhasha. Thumri is characterized instrument that makes sound by way of a vibrating
by its sensuality, and by a greater Àexibility with the string or strings stretched between two points. It
raga. is one of the four main divisions of instruments in
Tarana — Rhythm is important. The structure the original Hornbostel-Sachs scheme of musical
consists of a main melody, usually short, repeated instrument classi¿cation. The string instruments are
many times, with variation and elaboration at classi¿ed as chordophones. Violins, guitars, lyres,
the performer’s discretion. There is a second, and harps are examples.
contrasting melody, usually with higher notes, 3. (a) A – Sahitya Academy 1. 1954
which is introduced once before returning to the B – Sangeet Natak Academy 2. 1953
main melody. C – National Book Trust 3. 1957
Tappa — Extinct. Tappa is a form of Indian semi- D – National School Drama 4. 1959
classical vocal music. Its specialty is its rolling pace 4. (d) All of the statements given above are correct.
based on fast, subtle and knotty construction. Its (1) Raja Ravi Varma is called as ‘Raffale of East’.
tunes are melodious, sweet and depict the emotional Raja Ravi Varma was an Indian artist from the
outbursts of a lover. princely state of Travancore who got recognition
2. (d) All of the statements given above are correct. for his depiction of scenes from the epics of the
Wind instruments- A wind instrument is a musical Mahabharata and Ramayana.
instrument that contains some type of resonator (2) M.F. Hussain is called as ‘Piccaso of India’.
(usually a tube), in which a column of air is set into Maqbool Fida Husain commonly known as MF
vibration by the player blowing into (or over) a Husain, was a painter and Film Director. Husain
mouthpiece set at the end of the resonator. The pitch was associated with Indian modernism in the 1940s.
of the vibration is determined by the length of the (3) Pahari painting was discovered by Metcalfe in
tube and by manual modi¿cations of the effective Kangra. Pahari painting (literal meaning a painting
length of the vibrating column of air. In the case from the mountainous regions, pahar means a
of some wind instruments, sound is produced by mountain in Hindi) is an umbrella term used for a
form of Indian painting, originating from Himalayan These are all the traditional folk dance forms of the
Hill kingdom of North India, during 17th-19th respective states.
century. Notably Basohli, Mankot, Nurpur, Chamba, 10. (a) Kerala. Mudiyett or Mudiyettu is a traditional
Kangra, Guler, Mandi, and Garhwal fall in these ritual theatre and folk dance drama from Kerala that
regions and it was done mostly in miniature forms. enacts the mythological tale of a battle between the
(4) Kangra painting is a mixture of Rajasthani and goddess Kali and the demon Darika. The ritual is a
Mughal art forms.This great art originated in a small part of the bhagavathi or bhadrakali cult. The dance is
hill state ‘Guler’ in the Lower Himalayas in the ¿rst performed by a set of people known as Kuruppanmar
half of the 18th century when a family of Kashmiri and is performed in temples called ‘Bhagvati Kavus’,
painters trained in Mughal painting Style sought the temples of the Mother Goddess, between February
shelter at the court of Raja Dalip Singh (1695-1741) and May after the harvesting season.
of Guler. The artists adopted themes of eternal love Andhra Pradesh. Burra katha, also spelled burrakatha
between Radha and Krishna. The paintings were or burrakathe, is a oral storytelling technique in the
naturalistic and employed cool, fresh colors. The Katha tradition, performed in villages of Telangana
colors were extracted from minerals, vegetables and coastal Andhra regions of Andhra Pradesh. The
and had enamel-like luster. Verdant greenery of troupe consists of one main performer and two co-
the landscape, brooks, springs were the recurrent performers. It is a narrative entertainment that consists
images on the miniatures. of prayers, solo drama, dance, songs, poems and jokes.
5. (a) Andhra Pradesh – Kuchipudi, Ottam The topic will be either a Hindu mythological story or
Thedal, Mohiniattam a contemporary social issue.
Kolattam Tamil Nadu. it has great social importance and
Kerala – Kathakali, religious importance relevant to village and
Kaikottikali agricultural life. It is one of the most entertainment
Tamil Nadu – Bharatnatyam, forms of art. Therukoothu literally means “street
Kolattam, Oyilattam party”. The three forms of ancient Tamil Nadu
arts are Iyal (literature), Isai (music) and Nadagam
etc.
(drama). All three forms have their roots in this
Odisha – Odissi, Ghumara,
ancient dance form. Spontaneous dialogue delivery
Sambalpuri
and use of effective dance movements and music
6. (d) Odissi, also known as Orissi is one of the
are the unique characteristics of Therukoothu.
eight classical dance forms of India. It originates
Karnataka. Yakshagana is a theater form that
from the state of Odisha, in eastern India. It is the combines dance, music, dialogue, costume, make-
oldest surviving dance form of India on the basis up, and stage techniques with a unique style and
of archaeological evidences. The classic treatise form. This theater style, resembling Western
Natya Shastra, refers to it as Odra-Magadhi. This opera, is mainly found in the coastal districts and
dance is characterised by various Bhangas (Stance), the Malenadu region of India. Yakshagana is
which involves stamping of the foot and striking traditionally presented from dusk to dawn.
various postures as seen in Indian sculptures. The 12. (a) All the names given are of different types of
common Bhangas are Bhanga, Abanga, Atibhanga puppet dance forms belonging to the respective states.
and Tribhanga. 14. (b) A. Sitar 1. Pt. Ravi Shankar
7. (b) A. Chhau 1. West Bengal & Jharkhand B. Tabla 2. Ustad Shafat Ahmed Khan
B. Gatka 2. Punjab C. Flute 3. Hari Prasad Chaurasiya
C. Dumhal 3. Kashmir D. Sarod 4. Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
D. Garba 4. Gujarat 18. (d) The correctly matched pairs are :
These are all the folk dance forms of the respective Baggarwal — Jammu and Kashmir
states. Chencus — Andhra Pradesh
8. (a) A. Bhand pathar 1. Kashmir Tharu — Uttar Pradesh
B. Swang 2. Haryana & U.P. Bhumij — Jharkhand
B. Nautanki 3. Uttar Pradesh All these are the names of different tribes existing in
D. Naach 4. Madhya Pradesh the respective states given above.
19. (a) The correctly matched pairs are : 45. (d) In 1993, UNESCO declared the garden-
Ugadi — Andhra Pradesh tomb as a World Heritage Site for its architectural
Navbarsha — West Bengal grandeur and for its inÀuence on the later Mughal
Bhadra Purnima — Gujarat architecture.
Gudi Padwa — Maharashtra 46. (a) The Lahore Fort was built by the Mughal
This is the time when New Year’s Day is celebrated Emperor Akbar (ruled 1556-1605) in the 1560s on a
in the states of Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Punjab, site of an earlier citadel that had been built, rebuilt
West Bengal, Gujarat, Karnataka and Assam. and demolished by several Mughal rulers. Akbar’s
36. (c) Ustad Kausar Ali and Pandit Anindo Chatterjee fort was modi¿ed by his successors and later by
both are Tabla Players. the British rulers as well but in 1981, UNESCO
inscribed it on the World Heritage Site List as one
39. (a) He got the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1959 for
of the ¿nest examples of Mughal architecture. The
his work Sanskriti ke Char Adhyay and Dinkar was
Lahore Fort is located in the city of Lahore, the
awarded the Jnanpith Award in 1972 for Urvashi. capital of the province of Punjab in Pakistan.
40. (a) Sudama Caves are located at Jahanabad 47. (c) The Taj Mahal was declared World Heritage
District in Bihar State. Site by UNESCO in 1983. The Taj Mahal which is
41. (d) In all the Buddha depicted in the Gandhara Art also the ¿nal resting place of Shah Jahan (he was
is shown making four types of hand gestures and buried next to his beloved wife) is located in the city
this is a remarkable feature in this art. of Agra, about 125 miles south from New Delhi.
Abahayamudra : Don’t fear Dhyanamudra : 48. (a) Built by Shah Jahan’s son and successor
meditation Dharmachakramudra: a preaching Aurangzeb (ruled 1658-1707), the Badshahi
mudra Bhumisparshamudra: Touching the earth. Mosque was the largest mosque in the world when
Was based on Greco-Roman norms encapsulating completed in 1673. It lost the title of the world’s
foreign techniques and an alien spirit. It is also largest mosque in 1983, however, it remains one of
known as Graeco-Buddhist School of art. the top 10 largest mosques in the world. Its style is
42. (d) No foreign InÀuence, however, later it cross reminiscent to that of Jama Masjid in Delhi but it is
fertilized with the Gandhara School. much larger as it has a capacity for 100,000 people.
Prominent features of Mathura School of Art : 49. (b) Bada Imambara, U.P Also called the Asafai
1. No foreign InÀuence, however, later it cross Imambara this huge and elegant building is almost
fertilized with the Gandhara School. built like a fort. Nawab Asaf-ud-Daulla built this
2. Its development took place indigenously. building in a famine relief program in 1784.
3. Initially inspired by Yaksha Images 50. (d) Kathasaritsagar is written by Somdeva.
Kathasaritsagara is a famous Sanskrit 11th-century
4. The halo around the head of Buddha was
collection of Indian legends, fairytales and folk tales
profusely decorated.
as retold by a Saivite Brahmin named Somadeva.
43. (d) The third type of sculpture art that Flourished
Nothing is known about the author other than that
during the Kushana time was Amaravati School of his father’s name was Ramadevabatta.
art in the Andhra Pradesh. White Marble was used 52. (c) Khajuraho, as we know, is the ancient capital
in this art and the themes were Buddha’s life and of the Chandela Dynasty. The temples here were
Jatakas tales. The curly hair of Buddha is a feature erected simultaneously in the 11th century and are
that is inÀuenced by the Greeks. In this school, the nearly equally divided among the three religions
Kings, Princes, Palaces etc. have got prominence. viz. Jaina, Saiva and Vaishnava. Each group has
44. (a) Mughal architecture, building style that one shrine greater than the rest around which small
Àourished in northern and central India under the temples have been clustered. This largest temple
patronage of the Mughal emperors from the mid- is Kandariya Mahadev in Saivite, Ramachandra in
16th to the late 17th century. The Mughal period Vaishnavite and Jinanatha in Jain.
marked a striking revival of IslƗmic architecture in 53. (b) Harsha During the times of Harsha, an script
northern India. Under the patronage of the Mughal called Siddhimatrika was developed which is
emperors, Persian, Indian, and various provincial sometimes called Harsha Script. Siddhimatrika was
styles were fused to produce works of unusual the form of writing in which Sanskrit works became
quality and re¿nement. known in China and Japan.
2 National and
International Awards
NATIONAL 4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct

answer from the codes given below : A. Saraswati Samman 1. Science
List-I List-II B. Kabir Award 2. Sports
A. Padma Vibhushan 1. For distinguished C. Arjuna Award 3. Social solidarity
service in any ¿eld. D. Bhatnagar Award 4. Literature
B. Padma Bhushan 2. For distinguished Codes:
service of high order. A B C D A B C D
C. Padma Shri 3. For exceptional and (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 1 4 3
distinguished service (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 4 1 2
Codes: 5. Consider the following statements :
A B C A B C 1. Bharat Ratna is not awarded to the dead
(a) 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 persons like the Nobel Prize.
(c) 2 1 3 (d) 2 3 1 2. The holders of the Bharat Ratna rank 7th in
2. Arrange the following awards in the correct the Indian order of precedence.
chronological order :
1. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
correct?
2. Arjuna Award
3. Dhyanchand Award
4. Dronacharya Award (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer from the codes : 6. Consider the following statements :
Codes: 1. Jnanpith Award is given to any of Indian
(a) 3, 2, 4, 1 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1 citizens who writes in the eight scheduled
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4 languages of India.
3. Consider the following statements : 2. Jnanpith Award was awarded for the ¿rst
1. The Saraswati Samman is the most prestigious time in 1961.
award of the KK Birla Foundation. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The Samman is given annually to an correct?
outstanding literary work published in Hindi (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
only during the last 10 years. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. It was initiated in 1991. 7. Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Bharat Ratna is given to the outstanding
correct? Indian every year since its inception.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 2. Padma Bhushan is the lowest civilian award
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only given in the Republic of India.
F-12 || National and International Awards
correct? A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 4 3 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 2 4 1 3
8. Who presents the following mentioned awards to 12. Consider the following statements :
the winners? 1. Vyas Samman is presented for the out-
1. Swarna Kamal standing work in literature.
2. Rajat Kamal 2. Kabir Samman presented for socio-
3. Dadasaheb Phalke Award communal harmony.
(a) The President 3. Bhatnagar award presented for Science.
(b) Vice-President 4. Dhanwantari Award presented for medical
(c) The Prime Minister science.
(d) Minister of Cultural activities (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
9. Consider the following statements : (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
1. Padma Vibhushan is the second highest 13. Which of the following awards is presented on
civilian award of India. the eve of Republic Day of India?
2. Tagore Literature Awards are jointly 1. Bharat Ratna
2. Padma Vibhushan
instituted by the Sahitya Akademi and
3. Padma Shree
UNESCO.
Codes:
correct?
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
10. Consider the following statements about the K K
List-I List-II
Birla Foundation Awards :
A. Param Vir Chakra 1. Highest gallantry
1. Saraswati Samman is meant for outstanding
award
literary work in any Indian language. B. Mahavir Chakra 2. Second highest
2. Vyas Samman is for an outstanding work in gallantry award
Hindi. C. Vir Chakra 3. Third highest
3. Bihari Puraskar is given for an outstanding gallantry award
work in Hindi or Indian philosophy. Codes:
Which of the statements given above is/are A B C A B C
correct? (a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1
(a) 1 Only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 3 1 2 (d) 1 3 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 15. Consider the following statements :
11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 1. Ashok Chakra is the country’s highest peace
answer from the codes given below : time gallantry award equivalent to Param
List-I List-II Vir Chakra.
A. Jnanpith Award 1. Literature (1961) 2. Kirti Chakra is awarded for conspicuous
B. Saraswati Award 2. Literature (1991) gallantry.
C. Vachaspati Samman 3. Sanskrit (1992) 3. Shaurya Chakra is awarded for an act of
D. Shankar Award 4. Indian philosophy gallantry.
correct? 1. Sahitya Akademi Award, the highest literary
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only prize given by the government of India.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Indira Gandhi Paryavaran Puraskar is an
16. Which of the following medals are awarded to environmental prize.
personnel of all the three services? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Param Vishisht Seva Medal (PVSM) correct?
2. Ati Vishisht Seva Medal (AVSM) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. Vishisht Seva Medal (VSM) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are 21. What is the correct chronological order of
correct? conferring Bharat Ratna for the following
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only persons?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. MS Subbulakshmi
17. Consider the following statements : 2. Amartya Sen
1. Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award is 3. APJ Abdul Kalam
given for outstanding contributions to neat 4. Lata Mangeshkar
technology and development. Select the correct answer using the codes given
2. First Bharat Ratna Award initiated in 1954. below:
3. The Indira Gandhi Award for National Codes:
Integration consists of a citation and ` 5 lakh (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4
in cash. (c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2
Which of the statements given above is/are 22. Consider the following statements:
correct? 1. Devika Rani was the ¿rst Indian to win
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Dadasaheb Phalke Award.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Bhanu Athaiya was the ¿rst Indian Oscar
18. Consider the following statements : Winner.
1. The Times of India Group founded the 3. Arundhati Roy is the ¿rst Indian to win
Bharatiya Jnanpith Trust. Booker Prize.
2. ICAR gives the Swamy Sahajanand Which of the statements given above is/are
Saraswati Award.
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
correct?
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 Only
23. Anna Hazare was awarded the Padma Bhushan in
(c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
recognition for
(a) his war against corruption and launching
1. Tagore Awards have been instituted as
Bhrashtachar Virodhi Jan Andolan
part of Hope Project, a corporate social
(b) his service to the Indian army
responsibility initiative.
(c) transforming a barren dry village
2. Under this award literary works in 24 Indian
called Ralegan Siddhi in Maharashtra’s
languages are eligible.
Ahmednagar district into a model village of
self-suf¿ciency, eco-friendly and harmony
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) his remarkable social service in the Adivasi
areas of Bihar
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
24. Consider the following statements 28. Consider the following ¿elds
1. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was 1. Biology 2. Physics
instituted in the year 1991-92 to national 3. Medicine 4. Mathematics
accolade in the ¿eld of sports. Which of the ¿elds given above is/are awarded in
2. Viswanathan Anand was the ¿rst recipient the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize?
of th Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
correct? 29. Consider the following statements about National
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Energy Conservation Awards
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. This award is given on the basis of
25. Consider the following statements improvement in speci¿c energy and energy
1. Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India’s highest conservation initiatives.
award in cinema given annually by the 2. This was instituted by the Ministry of Power.
government of India for lifetime contribution
3. These awards are given in seven major
to Indian cinema.
categories.
2. Prithviraj Kapoor was the ¿rst recipient of
4. This award is given on National Energy
the Dadasaheb Phalke Award.
Conservation Day on 14th December every
year.
correct?
26. National Urban Water Awards is instituted by (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of the above
Ministry of Urban Development for excellence in INTERNATIONAL
1. Services to the Poor
2. Citizen Services and Governance 30. Consider the following statements
3. Urban Sanitation 1. The ¿rst recipient of the Bharat Ratna was
4. Communication Strategy and Awareness politician C. Rajagopalachariwho was
Generation honoured in 1960.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 only 2. In 1966, former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 only Shastri became the ¿rst individual to be
27. Which of the following statements is/are correct? honoured posthumously.
1. Tagore Literature Awards are jointly instituted
by the Sahitya Akademi and Nokia.
2. The Awards are given to the best of correct?
literary contributions by writers in 8 Indian (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
languages. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of these
3. Literary works in 24 Indian languages are 31. Consider the following statements
eligible for consideration under the Scheme. 1. As a tribute to the ideals espoused by
4. Awards have been instituted as part of Hope Mahatma Gandhi, the Government of India
Project, a corporate social responsibility had launched the International Gandhi Peace
initiative. Prize in 1995 on the occasion of the 125th
Select correct answer form the codes given anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
below
2. First recipient of the prize is Dr. A.
T. Ariyaratane President, Sarvodaya
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Shramadana Movement, Sri Lanka.
correct? 1. Nobel prize in Physics, Chemistry,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Physiology and Literature are awarded in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of these Oslo, Norway.
32. Consider the following statements 2. The Nobel peace prize is awarded in
1. The Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award is Stockholm, Sweden.
an annual prestigious award instituted by Lal Which of the statements given above is/are
Bahadur Shastri Institute of Management, correct?
Delhi.
2. It is awarded to a business leader, management
practitioner, public administrator, educator
or institution builder for his/her sustained
individual contributions for achievements of 1. Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International
high professional order and excellence. Understanding was founded in 1965.
3. The award was started in 2000. 2. Mother Teresa was the ¿rst person to get the
Which of the statements given above is/are Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International
correct? Understanding.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1, and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 correct?
33. Consider the following statements (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. The Lady Tata Memorial Trust was (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
established by Sir Dorabji Tata in April 1932 37. Consider the following statements:
in memory of his wife, Lady Meherbai. 1. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament
2. Awards are restricted to studies and Development is awarded only to Indians.
of leukaemogenic agents, and the 2. UNICEF is the only agency of the United
epidemiology, pathogenesis, immunology Nations to get the Indira Gandhi Prize for
and genetic basis of leukaemia and related Peace, Disarmament and Development.
diseases. Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of these 38. Consider the following statements:
34. Consider the following statements: 1. Nobel Prize is sometimes given to the
1. V.K. Krishna Menon Foundation is based in outstanding persons in the related ¿elds
New Delhi. posthumously.
2. The ¿rst recipient of the V.K. Krishna 2. The Nobel Prizes in Physics, Chemistry,
Menon Award is the Chief Justice of India, Physiology or Medicine, Literature and
KG. Balakrishnan. peace were ¿rst awarded in 1901.
correct?
correct?
1. The Pritzker Architecture prize is awarded A B C D A B C D
annually to honour an architect whose built (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
work demonstrates a combination of those (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 4 2 3 1
qualities of talent, vision and commitment 43. Consider the following statements:
posthumously. 1. BAFTA award is presented in Britain.
2. The Stirling Prize is a British Prize for 2. Golden Globe Award is presented in USA.
excellence in architecture. 3. Palm D’or Award is presented in France.
correct?
correct?
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) All of the above
1. The Miss World pageant is the oldest 44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
surviving major international beauty answer from the codes given below:
pageant. It was created in the United List-I List-II
Kingdom. A. Grammy Award 1. Music
2. Miss Universe is an annual international B. Ramon Magsaysay 2. International under-
beauty contest that is run by the Miss Award standing
Universe organization. The contest was C. Pulitzer Award 3. Agriculture
founded in 1953 by California. D. Borlaug Award 4. Journalism
correct? A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
1. The Kalinga Prize is an award given by 1. International Gandhi Peace Prize is awarded
UNESCO for exceptional skill in presenting biannually by the Government of India.
scienti¿c ideas to lay people. 2. The Government of India launched the
2. World Economic Forum gives the ‘Crystal International Gandhi Peace Prize in 1995.
Award’. 3. It was started on the occasion of the 125th
3. Laureates award is related to sports. Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) All of the above
46. The correct ¿elds in which Ramen Magsaysay
Award is given:
42. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct 1. Government Services
answer from the codes given below: 2. Public Services
List - I List - II 3. Journalism, Literature and Creative
A. Kalinga Award 1. Popularization of communication Arts
Science 4. Emergent Leadership
B. Borlaug Award 2. Agriculture Codes:
C. Pulitzer Award 3. Journalism (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
D. Laureates Award 4. Sports (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
47. The ¿rst ever India Human Development Award Select the correct answer using the codes given
2012 is instituted by below
1. Ministry of Rural Development (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Government of India and World Bank (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Planning Commission and UNDP 52. Consider about BAFTA Awards
4. Ministry of Social Justice 1. It is the British Counterpart of the Academy
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Awards (Oscars).
(c) 3 only (d) 4 only 2. It was ¿rst awarded in 1939.
48. Aegis Graham Bell Award is intended to promote 3. It honours the best national and foreign
innovation in the ¿eld of ¿lms.
1. Telecom 2. Internet Select the correct answer from the codes given
3. Media 4. Education below
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 only Codes:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
49. Consider the following statements: (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
1. International Children’s Peace Prize is 53. Which of the following has/have been honoured
conferred by the Kids Right Foundation of with Padam Vibhushan in 2014?
Netherland. (a) Dr. Raghunath A Mashelkar, Science and
2. Man Booker International Prize is conferred Engineering, Maharashtra
for the eminent writing skill. (b) B.K.S. Iyengar, Yoga, Maharashtra
3. Pritzer Award is presented in the ¿eld of (c) Both (a) and (b)
Architecture. (d) Prof. Padmanabhan Balaram, Science and
4. Abel Prize is conferred to the Mathematics. Engineering, Karnataka
Which of the statements given above is/are 54. Consider the following statements
correct? 1. Nobel Prize, any of the prizes (¿ve in number
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only until 1969, when a sixth was added) that are
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above awarded annually from a fund bequeathed
50. Consider the following statements for that purpose by the Swedish inventor and
1. The Nobel Prize awarding ceremony takes industrialist Alfred Bernhard Nobel.
place on December 10 of every year. 2. The ¿rst distribution of the prizes took place
2. The Nobel Prize for Literature was added
on December 10, 1901, the ¿fth anniversary
later on to the other ¿ve existing areas –
Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine, of Nobel’s death.
Peace and Economics. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 55. Consider the following statements
51. Arab poet Shihab Ghanem bagged the 1. The Pulitzer Prize was established in 1917
Rabindranath Tagore Peace Prize for his
by provisions in the will of American
translation of Indian works into both the Arabic
and English language. (Hungarian-born) publisher Joseph Pulitzer,
Consider the following statements about this and is administered by Columbia University
award in New York City.
1. This is given biannually. 2. In twenty of the categories, each winner
2. This is instituted on the 150th birth receives a certi¿cate and a US$10,000 cash
anniversary of Tagore, for promoting values award.
of universal brotherhood.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. A joint initiative between Green Cross
correct? International (GCI), the UN Of¿ce for
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only the Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of these (OCHA) and the UN Environment
56. Consider the following statements Programme (UNEP), the Green Star Awards
1. Golden Peacock Awards have given boost to seeks to increase awareness of environmental
the Industry worldwide. emergencies by drawing attention to efforts
2. Award winners cannot use the Golden made to prevent, prepare for and respond to
Peacock Awards Logo on all promotional such emergencies.
literatures. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of these
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of these 60. Consider the following statements
57. Consider the following statements 1. The Man Booker International Prize is an
1. The Manthan Award was launched on 10th international literary award given every two
October 2004 by Digital Empowerment years to a living author of any nationality
Foundation. for a body of work published in English or
2. Its areas of operation now are all of South generally available in English translation.
Asia & Asia Paci¿c countries. 2. The inaugural winner was Albanian writer
Which of the statements given above is/are Ismail Kadare.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of these (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
58. Consider the following statements (c) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither of these
1. The FiFi Awards are an annual event 61. Consider the following statements:
sponsored by The Fragrance Foundation 1. Nobel Peace Prize is presented annually in
which honour the fragrance industry’s Oslo by the King of Norway.
creative achievements and is the most 2. The Nobel laureate receives three things- a
prominent and prestigious celebratory event diploma, a medal and a document con¿rming
of the fragrance industry. the prize amount.
2. These awards have been held annually in Which of the statements given above is / are
New York City since 1973. correct?
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of these 1. Nobel Prize award in Economics has been
59. Consider the following statements awarded since 1969.
1. The biennial Green Star Awards recognize 2. Arjuna Award was introduced in 1965.
individuals, organizations, governments Which of the statements given above is / are
and companies who have demonstrated correct?
achievements in prevention, preparedness (a) 1 only (b) only
and response to environmental emergencies. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 9. (a) 17. (d) 25. (a) 33. (c) 41. (a) 49. (d) 57. (c)
2. (c) 10. (d) 18. (a) 26. (a) 34. (b) 42. (a) 50. (a) 58. (c)
3. (c) 11. (a) 19. (c) 27. (c) 35. (c) 43. (d) 51. (c) 59. (c)
4. (a) 12. (d) 20. (b) 28. (a) 36. (a) 44. (b) 52. (c) 60. (c)
5. (c) 13. (d) 21. (b) 29. (c) 37. (d) 45. (b) 53. (c) 61. (c)
6. (c) 14. (a) 22. (a) 30. (b) 38. (b) 46. (d) 54. (c) 62. (a)
7. (d) 15. (d) 23. (c) 31. (a) 39. (c) 47. (c) 55. (c)
8. (a) 16. (d) 24. (c) 32. (a) 40. (d) 48. (d) 56. (a)
Hints & Solutions

NATIONAL 5. (c) Both the statements are correct. The holders
of the Bharat Ratna rank 7th in the Indian order
1. (a) Padma Vibhushan is awarded to recognize of precedence and it has also been awarded
exceptional and distinguished service to the nation posthumously to various persons.
in any ¿eld, including government service. It is 6. (c) Both the statements are correct. Any Indian
awarded to recognize distinguished service of a citizen who writes in any of the eighth scheduled
high order to the nation in any ¿eld while Padma languages of India is eligible for the honour. The
Shri is awarded to citizens of India to recognize award was instituted in 1961.
their distinguished contribution in various spheres
7. (d) Both the statements are incorrect. Bharat
of activities including the Arts, Education,
Ratna is not given every year. The Padma Bhushan
Industry, Literature, Science, Sports, Medicine,
is not the lowest civilian award but the third highest
Social Service and Public Affairs.
civilian award in the Republic of India, after the
2. (c) Arjuna Awards was instituted in 1961, Drona Bharat Ratna and the Padma Vibhushan, but comes
Charya award was instituted in 1985 while Rajiv before the Padma Shri.
Gandhi Khel Ratna award was commenced in
9. (a) Only statement 1 is correct. The Padma
the year 1991–92 and Dhyan chand award was
Vibhushan is the second highest civilian award in
initiated in 2002.
the Republic of India and is instituted by Samsung
3. (c) The Saraswati Samman was instituted in Electronics and the Sahitya Akademi and not by
1991 by the K. K. Birla Foundation.The Saraswati UNESCO.
Samman is an annual award for outstanding prose 10. (d) All the statements are correct. The Saraswati
or poetry literary works in any Indian language . Samman is an annual award for outstanding prose
4. (a) Saraswati Samman is meant for outstanding or poetry literary works in any Indian language. To
literary work in any Indian language. Kabir Award be eligible for the Vyas Samman, the literary work
is given for promotion of communal harmony. must be in the Hindi language. Bihari Puruskar is
Arjuna Award is meant for sports and Bhatnagar awarded to an outstanding work published in Hindi
Award is conferred in the ¿eld of Science. or Rajasthani by a Rajasthani writer.
11. (a) Jnanpith award is a literary award in India. research towards alleviation of human suffering
The Saraswati Samman is also a literary award from disease.
for outstanding prose or poetry literary works in 35. (c) Both the given statements are correct regarding
any Indian language.Vachaspati Samman is given the Nobel Prize. The Nobel Prize is a set of annual
in Sanskrit literature while Shankar award is for international awards bestowed in a number of
Indian Philosophy. categories by Swedish and Norwegian committees in
12. (d) All the statements are correct. Vyas Samman recognition of cultural and/or scienti¿c advances. The
is presented for the outstanding work in literature. will of the Swedish inventor Alfred Nobel established
the prizes in 1895. The prizes in Physics, Chemistry,
Kabir Samman is presented for communal
Physiology or Medicine, Literature, and Peace were
harmony. Bhatnagar Award is presented for science ¿rst awarded in 1901. The related Nobel Memorial
and Dhanwantari award is conferred in medical Prize in Economic Sciences was created in 1968.
science. 36. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International
13. (d) All the three awards Bharat Ratna, Padma Understanding was founded in 1965. It is administered
Vibhushan and Padma Shree are presented or by the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR)
announced on the eve of Republic Day. to people “for their outstanding contribution to the
14. (a) The Param Vir Chakra is India’s highest promotion of international understanding, goodwill
military decoration award. The Maha Vir Chakra and friendship among people of the world”. The
is the second highest military decoration while money constituent of this award is 2.5 million rupees.
veer chakra is third in precedence in the war time 37. (d) Neither of the given statements are correct.
gallantry awards. 38. (b) The Nobel prize except the Economics ¿rst
awarded in 1901.
16. (d) All the three medals are awarded to recognize
39. (c) Both the given statements are correct.
“distinguished service of an exceptional order” to
The Pritzker Architecture Prize is awarded annually
all ranks of the Indian armed forces.
to honour a living architect whose built work
19. (c) Tagore Literature Awards have been instituted demonstrates a combination of those qualities
as part of Samsung Hope Project and recognize the of talent, vision and commitment, which has
best literary contributions in 24 Indian languages. produced consistent and signi¿cant contributions
20. (b) Only statement 2 is correct. Sahitya Akademy to humanity and the built environment through the
Award is the second-best award in literature. art of architecture.” Founded in 1979 by Jay A.
Pritzker and his wife Cindy, the award is funded
INTERNATIONAL by the Pritzker family and sponsored by the Hyatt
Foundation and is considered to be one of the world’s
30. (b) The ¿rst recipient of the Bharat Ratna was premier architecture prizes; it is often referred to as
politician C. Rajagopalachari who was honoured in the Nobel Prize of architecture. The prize is said to
1954. be awarded “irrespective of nationality, race, creed,
31. (a) First recipient of the prize is Dr. Julius K. or ideology.” The recipients receive US$100,000, a
Nyerere Former President of Tanzania. citation certi¿cate, and a bronze medallion.
32. (a) He award was started in 1999. The Royal Institute of British Architects Stirling Prize
33. (c) The Lady Tata Memorial Trust was established is a British prize for excellence in architecture. It is
by Sir Dorabji Tata in April 1932 in memory of named after the architect James Stirling, organised
his wife, Lady Meherbai, who was struck with and awarded annually by the Royal Institute of
leukaemia in 1930 at the age of 50, and succumbed British Architects (RIBA). The RIBA Stirling Prize
to the disease a year later in Wales, and passed away is awarded to “the architect of the building which has
on 18th June 1931. made the greatest contribution to British architecture
The Trust offers one-¿fth of its income to scholars in the past year.” The architects must be RIBA
doing scienti¿c investigations in Indian Universities members, but the building can be anywhere in the
and Institutes into diseases of the blood, with European Union. Stirling Prize laureates receive a
special references to leukaemia, and for scienti¿c stipend of GB£20,000.
40. (d) None of the given statements are correct. many Grammy Award categories for 2012. The 56th
The Miss World pageant is the oldest surviving major Grammy Awards were held on January 26, 2014, at
international beauty pageant. It was created in the the Staples Center in Los Angeles, California.
United Kingdom by Eric Morley in 1951. Since his Ramon Magsaysay Award — International
death in 2000, Morley’s wife, Julia Morley, co-chairs understanding. The Ramon Magsaysay Award is
the pageant. an annual award established to perpetuate former
Miss Universe is an annual international beauty Philippine President Ramon Magsaysay’s example
contest that is run by the Miss Universe Organization. of integrity in government, courageous service to the
The contest was founded in 1952 by the California people, and pragmatic idealism within a democratic
clothing company Pacific Mills. The pageant society. The Ramon Magsaysay Award is often
became part of Kayser-Roth, and then Gulf Western considered to be Asia’s Nobel Prize. The prize was
Industries, before being acquired by Donald Trump established in April 1957 by the trustees of the
in 1996. Rockefeller Brothers Fund based in New York City
41. (a) Laureates Awards is associated with aerospace, with the concurrence of the Philippine government.
aviation and defense arenes and Laureus awards is Pulitzer Award — Journalism.
associated with sports. Borlaug Award — Agriculture.
42. (a) Kalinga Award — Popularization of Science. 45. (b) The government of India laurelled the
The Kalinga Prize for the Popularization of Science International Gandhi peace prize in 1995.This is an
is an award given by UNESCO for exceptional skill annual award given to individuals and institutions
in presenting scienti¿c ideas to lay people. It was for their contributions towards social, economic and
created in 1952, following a donation from Biju political transformation through non-violence and
Patnaik, Founder President of the Kalinga Foundation other Gandhian methods. The award carries ` 10
Trust in India. million in cash, convertible in any currency in the
Borlaug Award — Agriculture. The Borlaug Award world, a plaque and a citation. It is open to all persons
is an award recognition conferred by a fertilizer regardless of nationality, race, creed or sex.
company, Coromandel International, for outstanding
48. (d) Graham Bell award is intended to promote
Indian scientists for their research and contributions
innovation in the ¿eld of Telecom, Media, Internet
in the ¿eld of agriculture and environment. The award
and Education.
was created in 1972 and named in honour of Nobel
49. (d) International Childrens - Kids Rights Foundation
Laureate Norman E. Borlaug. It carries a cash prize
- peace prize. The Kids Rights Foundation is an
of ` 5 lakh, a gold medal, and a citation.
international children’s aid and advocacy organisation
Pulitzer award — Journalism. The Pulitzer Prize is a based in Amsterdam, the Netherlands. Founded
U.S. award for achievements in newspaper and online in 2003, Kids Rights raises funds for independent
journalism, literature, and musical composition. It local aid projects in a number of countries around
was established in 1917 by provisions in the will the world, including Zimbabwe, Ukraine and
of American (Hungarian-born) publisher Joseph Haiti. The organisation’s mission is to support and
Pulitzer, and is administered by Columbia University empower vulnerable children around the world, by
in New York City. raising funds for small-scale local projects, and by
Laureates Award — Sports. raising awareness for children’s rights through the
44. (b) Grammy Award — M u s i c . A G r a m m y international media.
Award (originally called Gramophone Award) – or Man Booker International Prize — Authors.The
Grammy – is an accolade by the National Academy Man Booker International Prize is an international
of Recording Arts and Sciences of the United States literary award given every two years to a living author
to recognize outstanding achievement in the music of any nationality for a body of work published in
industry. The first Grammy Awards ceremony English or generally available in English translation.
was held on May 4, 1959 to honour the musical The introduction of the International Prize was
accomplishments by performers for the year 1958. announced in June 2004. The award, sponsored
Following the 2011 ceremony, NARAS overhauled by the Man Group, complements the Man Booker
Prize and rewards an author’s “continued creativity, 56. (a) Award winners are eligible to use the Golden
development and overall contribution to ¿ction on Peacock Awards Logo on all promotional literatures.
the world stage.” 57. (c) It was launched on 10th October ‘2004, by
Pritzker Award — Architecture. The Pritzker Digital Empowerment Foundation in partnership
Architecture Prize is awarded annually to “honour with World Summit Award, Department of
a living architect whose built work demonstrates a Information Technology, Govt. of India, and
combination of those qualities of talent, vision and
various other stakeholders like similar organisations
commitment, which has produced consistent and
signi¿cant contributions to humanity and the built engaged in promoting digital content inclusiveness
environment through the art of architecture.” in the whole of South Asian & Asia Paci¿c nation
Abel prize — Mathematics.The Abel Prize is an for development.
international prize presented by the King of Norway 58. (c) The FiFi Awards is an annual event sponsored
to one or more outstanding mathematicians. Named by The Fragrance Foundation which honour the
after Norwegian mathematician Niels Henrik Abel fragrance industry’s creative achievements and
(1802–1829), the award was established in 2001 by is the most prominent and prestigious celebratory
the Government of Norway and complements the event of the fragrance industry. These awards have
Holberg Prize in the humanities, social sciences, law been held annually in New York City since 1973
and theology.The Abel Prize has often been described and are attended by around 1,000 members of
as the “mathematician’s Nobel prize”. It comes with
the international fragrance community, designers
a monetary award of 6 million Norwegian kroner
(NOK) (approximately US$1 million), to be used to and celebrities from the fashion, theatre, ¿lm, or
fund future research. television industries.
54. (c) After Nobel’s death, the Nobel Foundation 59. (c) The idea for the Award was conceived in
was set up to carry out the provisions of his will and June 2007 during the 7th Advisory Group on
to administer his funds. In his will, he had stipulated Environmental Emergencies (AGEE) meeting in
that four different institutions—three Swedish and Rosersberg, Sweden, where meeting participants
one Norwegian—should award the prizes. recommended the establishment of a special
55. (c) The Pulitzer Prize is an award for recognition scheme. As a result, the United Nations
achievements in newspaper and online journalism, Of¿ce for the Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs,
literature, and musical composition in the United the United Nations Environment Programme and
States. It was established in 1917 by provisions in Green Cross International were requested to develop
the will of American (Hungarian-born) publisher a suitable award.
Joseph Pulitzer, and is administered by Columbia 60. (c) Ten writers are on the judges’ list of ¿nalists
University in New York City. Prizes are awarded under serious consideration for the sixth Man
yearly in twenty-one categories. In twenty of the Booker International Prize, the £60,000 award which
categories, each winner receives a certi¿cate and recognises one writer for his or her achievement in
a US$10,000 cash award. The winner in the public ¿ction.
service category of the journalism competition is 62. (a) Arjuna Award was introduced in 1961
awarded a gold medal.
3 Books and Authors
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Which of the statements given above is/are
answer using the codes given below: correct?
List-I List-II (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(Books) (Authors) (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
A. Panchatantra 1. Pt. Vishnu Sharma 5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
B. Mudra Rakshas 2. Vishakhadatta answer using the codes given below :
C. Prem Vatika 3. Raskhan List-I List-II
D. Astadhyayi 4. Panini A. Geet Govind 1. Jayadev
Codes: B. Kadambari 2. Bana Bhatt
A B C D A B C D
C. Malti Madhav 3. Bhavabhuti
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
D. Amarkosh 4. Amar Singh
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
Codes:
1. Mrichhakatikam was written by Shudrak. A B C D A B C D
2. Raghuvansham and Meghdootam was (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
written by Panini. (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 3 1 2
3. Kamasutra was composed by Vatsyayana. 6. Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Niti-Shatak was written by Bhartrihari.
correct? 2. Shahnama was written by Firdausi.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. Akabarnama was written by Abul Fazal.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 4. Sursagar was written by Kabir Das.
answer using the codes given below : correct?
List-I List-II (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
A. Mitakshara 1. Vigyaneshwar (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. Daybhag 2. Jeemootwahan 7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
C. Rajtarangini 3. Kalhana
D. Natural History 4. Plini
List-I List-II
Codes:
A B C D A B C D A. Bijak 1. Kabirdas
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3 B. Humanyunama 2. Gulbadan Begum
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 2 3 1 4 C. Kitab-ul-Hind 3. Al Beruni
4. Consider the following statements : D. Padmavat 4. Malik Mohd. Jayasi
1. Arthashastra was written by Kautilya. Codes:
2. Dashkumaracharitam was written by Dandi. A B C D A B C D
3. Bhagwat Gita was written by Ved Vyas. (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
4. Buddha Charitam was written by Kalhana. (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
F-24 || Books and Authors
answer using the codes given below : A B C D A B C D
List-I List-II (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
A. Coolie 1. Mulk Raj Anand (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 1 3 1
B. Hinduism 2. Nirad C. Chaudhary
C. Gitanjali 3. Rabindra Nath Tagore
D. The judgement 4. Kuldip Nayyar answer using the codes given below :
A B C D A B C D A. Jhootha sach 1. Yashpal
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 4 3 2 B. Kamayani 2. Jai Shankar Prasad
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 C. Agnii Verma 3. Kazi Nazrul Islam
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct D. Bharat Bharati 4. Maithilisharan Gupt
answer using the codes : Codes:
List-I List-II
A B C D A B C D
A. Jyotsana 1. Sumitra Nandan
Pant (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
B. Life Divine 2. Shri Aurobindo (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
Ghosh 13. Consider the following statements :
C. Divine Life 3. Swami Shivanand 1. Kurukshetra and Urvashi were written by
D. Death of a City 4. Amrita Pritam Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’.
Codes: 2. Eternal India was written by Indira Gandhi.
A B C D A B C D
3. Yama was written by Mahadevi Verma.
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
4. Guide was written by Vijay Tendulkar.
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
1. Godan and Gaban were written by correct?
Premchand. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. ‘The Company of Women’ was written by (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
Khushwant Singh. 14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
3. Untold story was written by B.M. Kaul. answer using the codes given below :
4. Sakharam Binder was written by R.K.
List-I List-II
Narayanan.
A. Amrit Aur Vish 1. Amrit Lal
correct? Nagar
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only B. A Voice of Freedom 2. Nayantara
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of the above Sehgal
11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct C. Area of Darkness 3. V.S. Naipaul
answer using the codes given below : D. Chandrakanta Santati 4. Devkinandan
List-I List-II Khatri
A. The Dark Room 1. R.K. Narayanan
Codes:
B. Indian 2. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Philosophy A B C D A B C D
C. Golden Threshold 3. Sarojini Naidu (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 4 3 2
D. Anamika 4. Nirala (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
answer using the codes given below : A B C D A B C D
List-I List-II (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
A. Devdas 1. Sharat Chandra (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 1 3 2
Chattopadhyaya 19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
B. Jhansi Ki Rani 2. Vrindavanlal Verma answer using the codes given below :
C. Tyagpatra 3. Jainendra Kumar List-I List-II
D. Chitralekha 4. Bhagwati Charan Verma A. Vinay Patrika 1. Tulsidas
Codes: B. Virangana 2. Maithili Sharan
Gupta
A B C D A B C D
C. Vish Vriksha 3. Bankim Chandra
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
Chatterji
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 1 3 2 D. Voice of Conscience 4. V.V. Giri
1. ‘Malgudi Days’ was written by R.K. A B C D A B C D
Narayanan. (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
2. ‘Kagaz te Canvas’ was written by Amrita (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 4 3 1 2
Pritam. 20. Consider the following statements :
3. ‘Swami and Friends’ was written by B.M. 1. ‘In Custody’ was written by Anita Desai.
Kaul 2. ‘Sea of Poppies’ was written by Amitav
Which of the statements given above is/are Ghosh.
correct? 3. ‘The Argumentative Indian’ was written by
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Amartya Sen.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 4. ‘My Presidential Years’ was written by
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct R. Venkataraman.
answer using the codes given below : Which of the statements given above is/are
List-I List-II correct?
A. Maila Aanchal 1. Phanishwar Nath (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
‘Renu’ (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) All of the above
21. Which of the following books is written by Dr.
B. Chand Ka Munh 2. Muktibodh
A.P.J. Abdul Kalam?
Tedha hai
1. Ignited Minds
C. Bharat Durdasa 3. Bhartendu 2. Wings of Fire
Harishchandra 3. The Luminous Sparks
D. Mare Gaye Gulfam 4. Phanishwar Nath Select the correct answer using the codes given below
‘Renu’ Codes:
A B C D A B C D (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All these
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2 22. Match List I (Book) and List II (Author) and
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 1 2 3 select the correct answer using the codes given
18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct below:
answer using the codes given below : List-I List-II
List-I List-II A. In Custody 1. Amartya Sen
A. Playing to Win 1. Saina Nehwal B. Sea of Poppies 2. Amitav Ghosh
B. Accidental Apprentice 2. Vikas Swarup C. The Argumentative 3. Anita Desai
C. Durbar 3. Tavleen Singh Indian
D. Land of the Seven 4. Sanjeev Sanyal D. Unaccustomed 4. Jhumpa Lahiri
Rivers Earth
Codes: 28. Consider the following statements
A B C D A B C D 1. A Suitable Boy was written by Vikram Bhat.
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 1 3 4 2 2. Jagmohan wrote the book ‘My Frozen
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 1 2 3 Turbulence in Kashmir’
23. Ramachandra Guha wrote which of the following 3. ‘To Live or Not Live’ was written by Nirad
books? C. Chaudhuri.
1. ‘Makers of Modern India’ Which of the statements given above is/are
2. ‘India After Gandhi: The History of the correct
World’s Largest Democracy’ (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 or 2 29. Consider the following statements
24. Consider the following statements 1. ‘A Voice for Freedom’ is a book written by
1. Freedom from Fear - Aung San Suu Kyi Nayantara Sahgal.
2. Decision Points - George W. Bush 2. The father of English Poetry is Chaucer
3. The Illusion of Density - Prof. Amartya Sen 3. Neem ka Ped’ was written by Rahi Masoom
4. The Brief History of Time - Stephen Hawking Raza.
Which of the above is/are correctly matched? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 correct?
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
25. Match the following (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
List-I List-II 30. Match the following :
(Books) (Author) List 1 List 2
A. Rich Like Us 1. Nirad C Chaudhari Book Author
B. ReÀection on 2. P N Haksar 1. War and Peace’ Leo Tolstoy
our Time 2. Anandmath- Rabindrnath Tagore
C. Hinduism a 3. Nayantara Sahgal 3. Savitri- Aurobindo
religion to live by 4. The Gathering Winston Churchill
D. Bliss was it in 4. Monoo Masani Storm’
that Dawn Select the correct answer.
Codes: (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
A B C D A B C D (b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2 (c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 1 2 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
26. A much acclaimed book “The Immortals of
Meluha” has been authored by
1. Charitraheen’ is a book written by Sarat
(a) Amish Tripathi (b) Karan Johar
Chandra Chattopadhaya
(c) Mahesh Bhatt (d) Karan Thaper
2. Swamy and Friends’ is a book written by
Swami Vivekanand
1. Nani Palkhivala wrote the famous book -
3. The Naked Face’ is a book written by Sidney
‘We the people’
Sheldon
2. George Orwell is the author of the book
4. A Secular Agenda’ i is a book written by
‘Nineteen Eighty Four’
Arun Shourie
3. Manasorovar is NOT written by Munshi
Premchand Select the correct answer.
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
correct (b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above (d) All are correct
32. Consider the following statements 36. Consider the following statements
1. Three Decades in Parliament’ is a collection 1. Kalidasa lived in 4th century CE and was
of the speeches of Yashwant Sinha. contemporary of Chandragupta II.
2. Khushwant Singh is the author of book ‘We 2. His earliest production was Ritusamhara.
Indians’. But earliest drama was Malvikagnimitram.
3. ‘India of our Dreams’ is a book written by Select the correct answer
M.V. Kamath (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
4. Paul Kennedy is the author of the book- (c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither of 2
‘Preparing for the Twenty - First Century. 37. Consider the following statements
Select the correct answer. 1. Bhatti was contemporary of Shunga
(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct Dynasty.
(b) 1 ,2 and 4 are correct 2. ĝiĞupƗla-vadha was written by Magha in
(c) 2,3 and 4 are correct 7th century AD and is one of the 6 Sanskrit
(d) All are correct Mahakavyas.
33. Consider the following statements Select the correct answer
1. Vikramorvasiyam is the second of the three (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
dramas attributed to Kalidasa. (c) All of the above (d) None of the above
2. It tells the story of mortal King Chandragupt 38. Consider the following statements
Vikramaditya and celestial nymph Urvashi 1. Samkhyakarika is a book written by Ishwar
who fall in love. Krishna
Select the correct answer 2. Nyaya Sutra Bhashya, is written by
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Vatsyayana
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the above 3. Kavyadarshana is written by Panini
34. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer
1. The Tuzk-e-Babri, or the memoirs of Babur, (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
were translated into Persian by Mirza Abdul (c) All of the above (d) None of the above
Rahim Khan Khana 39. Consider the following statements
1. Brahma Sutras was written by Badarayana.
2. Abul Fazl translated the Panch Tantra
2. Natya Shastra was written by Bhartbihari.
(Anwar-i-Sahili) into Persian.
Select the correct answer
3. Faizi translated the story of Nal-Damayanti
(a) 2 only
into Persian.
(b) 1 only
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the above
(c) All of the above (d) None of the above 40. Match the following
35. Match the following : A. Harsha Vardhana 1. Kathasaritsagara
List 1 List 2 B. Kshemendra 2. Shishupala Vadha
Book Author C. Magha 3. Brihat-Katha-Manjari,
1. Abul Fazl (a) Akbarnama D. Somadeva 4. Priyadarsika,
2. Nizam-ud- (b) Tabaqat-i-Akbari A B C D
Din Ahmad (a) 4 3 2 1
3. Gulbadan (c) Humayun-Nama (b) 4 2 3 1
Begum (c) 2 3 1 4
4. Jauhar (d) Tazkiratul-Waqiat (d) 2 3 4 1
Select the correct answer 41. Consider the following statements:
A B C D 1. Baital Pachisi is written by Somdev.
(a) 4 3 2 1 2. Vasavdatta is written by Subandhu.
(b) 1 2 3 4 Select the correct answer
(c) 1 2 4 3 (a) 2 only (b) 1 only
(d) 3 4 2 1 (c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither of 2
42. Match the following 45. Scholars patrons
A. Ratnavali- 1. Harshavardhana A. Dandin- 1. Narasimhavarma
B. Uttar Ramachari Ta- 2 Bhavabhuti Pallava
C. Bala Ramayana- 3. Rajasekhara B. Bharavi- 2. Simha Vishnu
D. Karpuri Manjari - 4. Rajasekhara Pallava
A B C D C. Gunadhyaya- 3. Hala of Satavahana
(a) 1 2 3 4 D. Inasena- 4. Amoghavarsha of
(b) 4 2 3 1 Rashtrakuta
(c) 2 3 1 4 A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(d) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 3 1 4
Scholars patrons (d) 2 3 4 1
A. Hemchandra- 1. Kumarapala Chalukya 46. Consider the following statements:
of Anhilwad 1. Patron of Jinasena was Amoghavarsha
B. Nagarjuna- 2. Kanishka (Rashtrakuta King)
C. Amarsimha- 3. Chandragupta 2. Patron of Jaideva was Lakshmanasena
Vikramaditya (Bengal)
D. Ravikirti- 4. Pulakesin Select the correct answer
A B C D (a) 2 only
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 only
(b) 4 2 3 1 (c) Both 1 & 2
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) Neither of the above
(d) 2 3 4 1 47. Consider the following statements:
44. Match the following: 1. Bilhana was in the court of Vikramaditya VI
Scholars patrons Chalukya of Kalyani
A. Bhavabhuti- 1. Yasovarman of 2. Lakshmidhara was in the court of
Kannauj Govindchandra of Gahadavalas of Kannauj
B. Harisena- 2. Samudragupta Select the correct answer
C. Rajasekhara- 3. Mahipala
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither of 2
D. Somadeva- 4. Prithviraj III
A B C D 1. Mahavircharita was written by Bhavabhuti
(a) 1 2 3 4 2. Harekali Nataka was written by Vighraharaja
(b) 4 2 3 1 Select the correct answer
(c) 2 3 1 4 (a) 2 only (b) 1 only
(d) 2 3 4 1 (c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither of 2
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 8. (a) 15. (a) 22. (a) 29. (d) 36. (c) 43. (a)
2. (c) 9. (a) 16. (c) 23. (c) 30. (d) 37. (b) 44. (a)
3. (a) 10. (c) 17. (a) 24. (d) 31. (b) 38. (a) 45. (a)
4. (c) 11. (a) 18. (a) 25. (c) 32. (c) 39. (b) 46. (c)
5. (a) 12. (a) 19. (a) 26. (a) 33. (a) 40. (a) 47. (c)
6. (c) 13. (c) 20. (d) 27. (a) 34. (c) 41. (c) 48. (c)
7. (a) 14. (a) 21. (d) 28. (b) 35. (b) 42. (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Panchatantra — Pt. Vishnu Sharma. Vishnu 5. (a) Jayadeva was a Sanskrit poet circa 1200 AD.
Sharma was a scholar and author who had written He is most known for his composition, the epic
the Panchatantra, collection of fables. The exact poem Gita Govinda, which depicts the divine love
period of the composition of the Panchatantra is of Krishna, and his consort, Radha.
uncertain, and estimates vary from 1200 BCE to BƗnaBhatta was a Sanskrit prose writer and
300 CE. Some scholars place him in the 3rd century poet of India. He was the Asthana Kavi in the
BCE. court of King Harsha Vardhana, who reigned
Mudra Rakshas — Vishakhadatta. Vishakhadatta c. 606–647 CE in north India. Bana’s principal works
was an Indian Sanskrit poet and playwright. include a biography of Harsha, the Harshacharita,
Although Vishakhadatta furnishes the names of his and one of the world’s earliest novels, Kadambari.
father and grandfather as Maharaja Bhaskaradatta Bhavabhuti was an 8th-century scholar of India
and Maharaja Vateshvaradatta in his political drama noted for his plays and poetry, written in Sanskrit.
Mudra Rakshas, we know little else about him. His plays are considered equivalent to the works of
only two of his plays, the Mudra Rakshas and the Kalidasa.
Devichandraguptam are known to us. 6. (c) Niti-Shatak was written by Bhartrihari.
Prem Vatika — Raskhan. Raskhan was a poet who Bhartrihari is a Sanskrit author who has written
was both a Muslim and follower of Lord Krishna. two inÀuential Sanskrit texts: the Vakyapadiya, on
His real name was Sayyad Ibrahim and is known to Sanskrit grammar and linguistic philosophy, and the
have lived in Pihani. ĝatakatraya, a work of Sanskrit poetry, comprising
Astadhyayi — Paniniwas a Sanskrit grammarian three collections of about 100 stanzas each.
from ancient India. He was born in Pushkalavati, Shahnama was written by Firdausi. Hakim
Gandhara, in the modern-day Charsadda of Khyber Abul-Qasim Firdausi, most commonly known
Pakhtunkhwa, Pakistan. as Ferdausi; also spelled as Firdausi or Firdausi;
2. (c) Mirchhakatikam was written by Shudrak. 940 – 1020 CE, was a highly revered Persian poet.
Kamasutra was composed by Vatsyayana. He is the author of the Shahnama, the national epic
of Iran and the Persian-speaking world.
3. (a) Mitakshara — Vigyaneshwar
Akabarnama was written by Abul Fazal. Shaikh
Daybhag — Jeemootwahan
Abual Fazal ibn Mubarak (January 14, 1551 –
Rajtarangini — Kalhana
August 12, 1602) was the wizier of the great Mughal
Natural History — Plini
emperor Akbar, and author of the Akbarnama, the
4. (c) Arthashastra — Kautilya.
of¿cial history of Akbar’s reign in three volumes,
Dashkumaracharitam — Dandi.
(the third volume is known as the Ain-i-Akbari) and
Bhagwat Gita — Ved Vyas. a Persian translation of the Bible. He was also one
of the Nine Jewels (Navaratans) of Akbar’s royal Sri Aurobindo, was a nationalist, freedom ¿ghter,
court and the brother of Faizi, the poet laureate of philosopher, yogi, maharishi, guru and poet. He
emperor Akbar. joined the Indian movement for freedom from
7. (a) Kabir was a mystic poet and saint, whose British rule, for a while became one of its inÀuential
writings have greatly inÀuenced the Bhakti leaders and then turned into a spiritual reformer,
movement. The name Kabir comes from Arabic al- introducing his vision on human progress and
KabƯr which means ‘The Great’ – the 37th name of spiritual evolution.
God in Islam. He was a direct disciple of Ramakrishna, and
The Imperial Princess Gulbadan Begum was a became the second president of the Ramakrishna
Perso-Turkic Princess, the daughter of Emperor Mission. His devotees refer to him as Mahapurush
Babur, she is most known as the author of Humayun Maharaj (Great Soul).
Nama, the account of the life of her half-brother, Amrita Pritam was a Punjabi writer and poet,
Humayun. considered the ¿rst prominent woman Punjabi poet,
Abu al-Rayhan Muhammad ibn Ahmad albiruni novelist, and essayist, and the leading 20th century
known as Alberonius in Latin and Albiruni in poet of the Punjabi language, who is equally loved
English, was a Persian-Khwarezmian Muslim on both sides of the India Pakistan border.
scholar and polymath from the Khwarezm region. 10. (c) Godan and Gaban were written by Premchand.
Malik Muhammad Jayasi was an Indian poet who Munshi Premchand was a writer famous for his
modern Hindustani literature. He is one of the most
wrote in the Avadhi dialect of Hindi. He hailed from
celebrated writers of the Indian subcontinent, and is
Jais, presently a city in the Rae Barieli district in
regarded as one of the foremost writers of the early
Uttar Pradesh.
twentieth century.
8. (a) Mulk Raj Anand (12 December 1905 – 28 ‘The Company of Women’ was written by
September 2004) was an Indian writer in English, Khushwant Singh. Khushwant Singh was a novelist
notable for his depiction of the lives of the poorer and journalist. An Indo-Anglian novelist, Singh
castes in traditional Indian society. One of the is best known for his trenchant secularism, his
pioneers of Indo-Anglian ¿ction, he, together with humour, and an abiding love of poetry.
R. K. Narayan, Ahmad Ali and Raja Rao, was one Untold Story was written by B.M. Kaul.
of the ¿rst India-based writers in English to gain an 11. (a) The Dark Room — R.K. Narayanan
international readership. Indian Philosophy — Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Nirad C. Chaudhuri was a BengaliíEnglish writer Golden Threshold — Sarojini Naidu
and cultural commentator. He was born in 1897 in Anamika — Nirala
Kishoreganj, which today is part of Bangladesh but 12. (a) (December 3, 1903 – December 26, 1976) was
at that time was part of Bengal, a region of British a Hindi language author who wrote in a range of
India. genres, including essays, novels and short stories.
Rabindranath Tagore, sobriquet Gurudev, was He also wrote a play and an autobiography.
a Bengali polymath who reshaped his region’s Jaishankar Prasad was one of the most famous
literature and music. ¿gures in modern Hindi literature as well as Hindi
Kuldip Nayar is a veteran Indian journalist, theatre.
syndicated columnist, human right activist and Kazi Nazrul Islam, known popularly as Nazrul, was
author, noted for his long career as a left-wing a Bengali poet, musician and revolutionary who
political commentator. pioneered poetic works espousing intense spiritual
rebellion against fascism and oppression.
9. (a) Sumitranandan Pant was one of the most
Maithilisharan Gupt was one of the most important
famous modern Hindi poets. He is considered one
modern Hindi poets. He is considered one among
of the major poets of the Chhayavaadi school of
the pioneers of Khari Boli poetry and wrote in
Hindi literature. Pant mostly wrote in Sanskritized
Khari Boli dialect, at a time when most Hindi poets
Hindi.
favoured the use of Braj Bhasha dialect.
14. (a) Amrit Aur Vish — Amrit Lal Nagar 20. (d) In custody. Anita Mazumdar Desai is a novelist
A voice of — Nayantara Sehgal and professor of Humanities at the Massachusetts
freedom Institute of Technology.
Area of Darkness — V.S. Naipal Sea of Poppies — Amitav Ghosh. Amitav Ghosh,
Chandrakanta — Devkinandan is a Bengali author best known for his work in
Santati Khatri English ¿ction.
15. (a) Devdas — Sharat Chandra The Argumentative Indian — Amartya Sen.
Chattopadhyaya Amartya Kumar Sen, is an Indian economist and
Jhansi Ki Rani — Vrindavanlal Verma a Nobel laureate. He has made contributions to
Tyagpatra — Jainendra Kumar welfare economics, social choice theory, economic
Chitralekha — Bhagwati Charan and social justice, economic theories of famines.
Verma My Presidential Years — R. Venkata Raman.
17. (a) Maila Aanchal — Phanishwar Nath ‘Renu’ Ramaswamy Venkataraman was a lawyer, Indian
Chand Ka Munh Tedha hai — Muktibodh independence activist and politician who served
Bharat Durdasa — Bhartendu Harishchandra as a Union minister and as the eighth President
Mare Gaye Gulfam — Phanishwar Nath ‘Renu’ of India. Venkataraman was born in Rajamadam
18. (a) The correctly matched pairs are : village in Tanjore district, Madras Presidency.
Playing to Win — Saina Nehwal
27. (a) Nani Palkhivala- ‘We the people’
Accidental Apprentice — Vikas Swarup
George Orwell-’Nineteen Eighty Four’
Durbar — Tavleen Singh
Land of the Seven Rivers — Sanjeev Sanyal Manasorovar- Munshi Premchand
19. (a) The correctly matched pairs are : 28. (b) A Suitable Boy was written by Vikram Seth.
Vinay Patrika — Tulsidas.Tulsidas, also known as 30. (d) Anandmath is written by Bankim Chand
Goswami Tulsidas; 1497/1532–1623) was a poet- Chattarji.
saint, reformer and philosopher renowned for his 32. (c) Three Decades in Parliament’ is a collection
devotion to the god Rama. of the speeches of A.B. Vajpayee.
Virangana — Maithili Sharan Gupta. Maithilisharan 33. (a) It tells the story of mortal King Pururavas and
Gupt was one of the most important modern Hindi celestial nymph Urvashi who fall in love.
poets. He is considered one among the pioneers of 36. (c) The true beauty and grandeur of the literature
Khari Boli poetry and wrote in Khari Boli dialect, at in Gupta Era can be seen in the kavyas. The greatest
a time when most Hindi poets favoured the use of among all the names is Kalidasa who lived in 4th
Braj Bhasha dialect. century CE and was contemporary of Chandragupta
Vish Vriksha — Bankim Chandra Chatterji. Rishi II. His earliest production was Ritusamhara. But
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (27 June 1838 – earliest drama was Malvikagnimitram.
8 April 1894) was a Bengali writer, poet and 37. (b) Bhatti was contemporary of Gupta Dynasty.
journalist. He was the composer of India’s national 38. (a) Kavyadarshana is written by Dandin
song Vande Mataram, originally a Bengali and 39. (b) Natya Shastra was written by Bharata Muni.
Sanskrit stotra personifying India as a mother
41. (c) Vetala Panchavimshati, is a collection of tales
goddess and inspiring the activists during the Indian
and legends within a frame story, from India. It was
Freedom Movement.
originally written in Sanskrit.
Voice of Conscience — V.V. Giri.Varahagiri Venkata
Vasavadatta is a Gupta period romantic akhyayika
Giri, commonly known as V. V. Giri, was the fourth
written in an ornate style of language that was in
President of India from 24 August 1969 to 23 August
fashion at the height of Classical Sanskrit literature.
1974. He served as Acting President of India from 3
Its author is Subandhu, a courtier of Kumaragupta I
May 1969 to 20 July 1969, before getting elected.
and his son Skandagupta.
4 Sports and Games
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct C. Japan 3. Table Tennis
answer using the codes given below the lists : D. China 4. Judo
A. Wally Grout 1. Swimming A B C D A B C D
B. Eusebio 2. Lawn Tennis (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
C. Rod Laver 3. Cricket (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 4 3 2
D. Mark spitz 4. Football 5. Consider the following statements :
Codes:
1. Dhyan Chand Award is India’s highest
A B C D A B C D
award for lifetime achievement in sports and
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 games.
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 2. The award is named after the legendary
answer using the codes given below the lists : Indian Hockey player Dhyan Chand.
List-I List-II Which of the above is/are true?
A. Deodhar Trophy 1. Football (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
B. Durand Cup 2. Cricket (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
C. Grand master 3. Chess 6. Consider the following statements :
Codes: 1. The term catch out is associated with Golf.
A B C A B C
2. Pierre de Coubertin is the father of modern
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 1 3 4
olympic games.
(c) 2 1 3 (d) 1 3 2
3. Consider the following statements : Which of the given above is/are true?
1. ‘The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna’ is India’s (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
highest honour given for achievement in (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
sports. 7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
2. It carries a medal, a scroll of honour and a answer using the codes given below :
substantial cash component. List-I List-II
Which of the above is/are true? A. Ravindra Jadeja 1. Cricket
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only B. Gagan Narang 2. Shooting
C. Saina Nehwal 3. Badminton
D. Somdev Devvarman 4. Tennis
Codes:
List-I List-II
A B C D A B C D
(Country) (National game)
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
A. India 1. Hockey
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 3 4 2
B. Spain 2. Bull Fighting
8. Consider the following statements : 12. Match the following :
1. Saina Nehwal is the ¿rst Indian badminton List-I List-II
player who won the bronze medal in the (Grand slam (Surface)
Olympic Games 2012.
tournament)
2. Karnam Malleshwari was the ¿rst Indian
woman to win the individual medal in A. Wimbledon 1. Grass
Olympic games. B. US open 2. Hard (Turf)
3. Karnam Malleshwari is associated with C. French open 3. Clay
weight lifting. D. Australian open 4. Hard (Plexicushion)
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only A B C D A B C D
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
9. Consider the following statements : (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
Arrange the international tennis opens 13. Which one of the following is correct about the
chronologically from the beginning of a year Thomas cup?
tournament schedule? (a) It is the World Men’s Team Badminton
1. Wimbledon 2. Australian open Championship
3. US open 4. French open
(b) It is the World Men’s Tennis Team
(a) 2, 4, 1, 3 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
Championship
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
10. Match the following : (c) It is the World Women’s Table Tennis Team
List-I List-II Championship
(Name) (Event in London (d) It is the World Women’s Badminton
Olympic 2012) Championship
A. Vijay Kumar 1. Men’s 10 m air riÀes 14. Consider the following statements :
B. Gagan Narang 2. Men’s 25 m rapid fire pistol 1. Australia is the only country to win the ICC
C. Sushil Kumar 3. Men’s 60 kg freestyle Cricket World Cup three times consecutively.
D. Yogeshwar Dutt 4. Men’s 66 kg freestyle
2. India won the ICC Cricket World Cup for
Codes:
the ¿rst time in 1983.
A B C D A B C D
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
11. Which of the following statements about ICC (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
One Day World Cup 2011 is/are correct? 15. Consider the following statements :
1. India won the World Cup ICC one day ¿nal 1. Hopman cup is the mixed team championship
at Wankhede Stadium in Mumbai. Lawn Tennis Cup.
2. Man of the match was awarded to Mahendra
2. Hopman cup is the International Tennis
Singh Dhoni.
Tournament held every three years.
3. Man of the series was won by Sachin
Tendulkar. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the above is/are correct? correct?
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
F-34 || Sports and Games
1. Davis Cup is the premier international team 1. Bolt has defended 100 m, 200 m and 4 × 100
even in men’s tennis. m. Gold in Beijing and London Olympics
2. Davis cup was begun in 1900 as a challenge 2. Michel Phelps is associated with swimming.
between Britain and the United states. 3. Phelps holds world record for winning most
3. Davis cup is the premier international team olympic gold medals.
event in women’s tennis championship. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
correct?
(c) 1and 3 (d) None of these
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only answer using the codes given below :
answer using the codes given below : (Year) (World Cup
List-I List-II Football winners)
(Country) (National game) A. 2010 1. Spain
A. USA 1. Baseball B. 2006 2. Italy
B. Canda 2. ICC Hockey C. 2002 3. France
C. China 3. Table Tennis D. 1998 4. Brazil
D. Japan 4. Judo Codes:
Codes: A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 2 4 3 1 22. Consider the following statements given below :
18. A player wins Grand Slam in tennis when he 1. The ¿rst commonwealth games were held in
1930 at Hamilton, Canada.
wins in:
2. India, for the ¿rst time, participated in the
1. Australian open 2. Wimbledon
second commonwealth games held in London
3. French open 4. Davis cup in 1934.
5. China cup 6. US open Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 4, 5, 6 correct?
(c) all the above (d) 1, 2, 3 and 6 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
19. Consider the following statements : (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
1. First ICC Cricket World Cup was held in
1. The ¿rst SAF Games were held in
India.
Kathmandu in 1984.
2. West Indies had won the inaugural ICC
2. The Motto of SAF games is ‘Peace, Prosperity
Cricket World Cup 1975. and Progress’.
3. India has won the ICC Cricket World Cup in 3. The ¿rst SAF games were held in India at
1983 and 2011. Chennai 1995.
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
24. Consider the following statements : 29. Which one of the following is not correctly
1. The game basketball was invented by matched?
Dr. James Naismith of USA in 1891 at Sports Trophy
Spring¿eld college. (a) Wellington Cup 1. Hockey
2. International Basketball Federation was set (b) Champions Trophy 2. Football
up in 1940. (c) Travancore Cup 3. Table Tennis
3. Basketball Federation of India was formed (d) Polo 4. Radha Mohan Cup
in 1950. 30. Match List-I with List-II :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Sports Number of players
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 A. Basketball 1. 11
(c) 3 only (d) None of these
B. Volleyball 2. 7
C. Netball 3. 6
D. Football 4. 5
List-I List-II
(Game) (Terminology) Codes:
A. Wrestling 1. Basketball A B C D A B C D
B. Dribbling 2. Nelson (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
C. Flat hit 3. Polo (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3
D. Chucker 4. Table Tennis 31. Match List I with LIst II and select the correct
Codes: answer by using the codes given below the lists.
A B C D A B C D List-I List-II
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 (Country) (National Game)
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 4 3 1 A. Russia 1. Football
26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct B. Spain 2. Bull Fighting
answer using the codes given below : C. Japan 3. Table Tennis
List-I List-II D. China 4. Judo
(Game) (Terminology) Codes:
A. ButterÀy 1. Baseball A B C D A B C D
B. Upper cut 2. Swimming (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
C. Diamond 3. Golf (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 2 4 3
D. Bunker 4. Boxing 32. Match List I with LIst II and select the correct
Codes: answer by using the codes given below the lists.
A B C D A B C D List-I List-II
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 4 1 3 (Trophy) (Game)
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
A. Aga Khan Cup 1. Bridge
B. Durand Cup 2. Hockey
1. Aga Khan Cup is associated with the
Badminton. C. Irani Trophy 3. Football
2. Uber Cup is associated with the Hockey. D. Holker Trophy 4. Cricket
Which of the statement given above is/are correct? Codes:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only A B C D A B C D
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
28. Which one of the following is not correctly (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 1 2
matched? 33. Which of the following countries have never won
Player Game the World Cup Cricket?
(a) Yelena Isinbayeva 1. Pole Vault 1. New Zealand 2. England
(b) Ande Marre 2. Tennis 3. Zimbabwe 4. South Africa
(c) Virdhaval Khade 3. Boxing (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) Vijay Singh 4. Golf player (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
34. Consider the following statements. 39. Consider the following statements.
To be eligible for the Arjuna Award, a sportsperson 1. The National Sports Day is observed on
should 29th August.
1. have good performance consistently for 2. Mardeka Cup is associated with the game of
the previous three years at the international Football.
level with excellence for the year for which Which of the above is/are true?
the Award is recommended. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. show qualities of leadership, sportsmanship
and a sense of discipline.
Which of the above is/are true? 40. Consider the following statements.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. FIFA World Cup 2014 will be organised in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these Brazil.
35. Consider the following statements about the 2. Indian Swan Cup is associated with the
World anti-Doping Agency (WADA). game of Volleyball.
1. It was set up on November 10, 1999 in New Which of the above is/are true?
York. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. The agency’s key activities include scienti¿c (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
research, educaiton, development of anti- 41. Consider the following statements.
doping capacities and monitoring of the 1. Mohinder Amarnath was the Man of the
World Anti-Doping Code. Match in 1983 World Cup Cricket ¿nal.
2. Geet Sethi is associated with Billiards.
36. Consider the following statements. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. The Paralympic Games are where athletes (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
with a physical disability compete. 42. Consider the following statements.
2. All Paralympic Games are governed by the 1. The 1st Indian to win an individual medal in
International Paralympic Committee (IPC). Olympics was K D Jadhav.
Which of the above is/are true? 2. Kunjarani Devi is associated with Weight
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only lifting.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these Which of the above is/are true?
37. Consider the following statements. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. Colombo Cup is associated with the game of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Football.
2. Sultan Azlan Shah Tournament is associated
answer by using the codes given below the lists.
with races.
Which of the above is/are true? List-I List-II
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only A. Somdev 1. Badminton
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these Devvarman
38. Consider the following statements. B. Gagan Narang 2. Shooting
1. Usain Bolt, The 100-metre race world record C. Anita Sood 3. Golf
holder is from Jamaica. D. Saina Nehwal 4. Tennis
2. Narain Karthikenyan is the sportsman in the Codes:
¿eld of Formula One Car Racing. A B C D A B C D
Which of the above is/are true? (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 3 1 2 4
answer by using the codes given below the lists. A B C D
A. Bull’s Eye 1. Cricket (b) 2 1 3 4
B. Caddy 2. Tennis (c) 4 3 2 1
C. Deuce 3. Shooting (d) 2 1 3 4
49. Match the following:
D. Googly 4. Golf
A. Tiger Woods - 1. Golf.
Codes: B. Vijay Kumar - 2. Shooting.
A B C D A B C D C. Jwala gutta - 3. Badminton
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 D. Lionel Messi - 4. Football.
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 Select the correct answer
45. Consider the following statements. A B C D
1. Roger Federer is one of the most winning of (a) 4 3 2 1
the men’s singles titles of Wimbledon Grand (b) 1 2 3 4
Slam. (c) 1 2 4 3
2. Roger Federer has won the men’s single (d) 3 4 2 1
titles of the Wimbledon Grand Slam than 50. Consider the statements:
Pete Sampras. 1. Begum Hazarat Mahal Cup–Football
2. Begam Rasul Trophy–Hockey
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Champions Trophy–Cricket
correct? 4. Asia Cup–Basketball
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer
(b) 2 only Codes:
(c) None of the above (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All of the above (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
46. Consider the following statements. 51. Match the Following:
1. Stanley Cup is associated with the hockey. A. Arthur Walker Trophy - 1. Billiards
2. Heisman Trophy is associated with the B. Naidu Trophy, - 2. Chess
football. C. President’s Trophy 3. Golf
3. Wightman Cup is associated with the track D. Federation Cup - 4. Athletics
and ¿eld. Select the correct answer
A B C D
Which of the following is wrong? (a) 4 3 2 1
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 only (d) None of these (c) 1 2 4 3
47. Which one of the following is not correctly (d) 3 4 2 1
matched? 52. Consider the statements:
(a) Golden Ball : The best player 1. The Commonwealth Games is a sporting
(b) Golden Boot : The top goal scorer event staged between the elite athletes of
(c) Yashin Award : The best player aged countries from the Commonwealth .
21 or younger 2. It is held every year.
(d) Ballon d’or : Best player in the Select the correct answer
previous season (a) I only (b) 2 only
48. Match the following lists
53. Consider the statements:
List-I List-II 1. FIFA (The Fédération Internationale de
(Players) (Sport) Football Association ) was founded in 1904.
A. Samir Suhag 1. Polo 2. Headquarter of FIFA is situated in Brazil.
B. Vikas Krishan 2. Boxing Select the correct answer
C. Anup Kumar 3. Kabaddi (a) I only (b) 2 only
D. Yash Pal Solanki 4. Judo (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 7. (a) 13. (a) 19. (c) 25. (a) 31. (d) 37. (a) 43. (c) 49. (b)
2. (c) 8. (c) 14. (c) 20. (a) 26. (b) 32. (b) 38. (c) 44. (d) 50. (b)
3. (c) 9. (a) 15. (a) 21. (b) 27. (d) 33. (d) 39. (c) 45. (a) 51. (b)
4. (a) 10. (c) 16. (d) 22. (b) 28. (c) 34. (d) 40. (a) 46. (c) 52. (a)
5. (c) 11. (c) 17. (a) 23. (a) 29. (b) 35. (b) 41. (c) 47. (c) 53. (a)
6. (b) 12. (a) 18. (d) 24. (b) 30. (a) 36. (c) 42. (c) 48. (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Correctly matched : Durand Cup — Football. The Durand Football
Wally Grout — Cricket. Arthur Theodore Wallace Tournament is a football competition in India which
Grout was a Test cricketer who kept wicket for has a history dating back to 1888.The Tournament is
Australia and Queensland. Grout played in 51 Test named after its founder, Sir Mortimer Durand, British
matches between 1957 and 1966. India’s Foreign Member of the time, the counterpart
Eusebio — Football. Eusébio da Silva Ferreira, of the Foreign Secretary in London.
GCIH, GCM.( 25 January 1942 – 5 January 2014) Grand master — Chess.
was a Mozambican-born Portuguese football forward. 3. (c) The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna is India’s highest
He is considered one of the greatest footballers of all honour for achievement in sports awarded annually. It
time. During his professional career, he scored 733 carries a medal, scroll of honour and cash component.
goals in 745 matches. 4. (a) Correctly matched :
Rod Laver — Lawn Tennis. Rodney George “Rod” Country — National game
Laver MBE is an Australian former professional tennis Indian — Hockey
player who holds the record for most singles titles won Spain — Bull Fighting
in the history of tennis, with 200 career titles. Japan — Judo
Mark spitz — Swimming. Mark Andrew Spitz is China — Table Tennis
an American former swimmer, Olympic champion, 5. (c) Both A and R is correct. Dhyan chand award is
and former world record-holder. He won seven highest award for lifetime achievement in sports and
gold medals at the 1972 Summer Olympics, an games.
achievement only surpassed by Michael Phelps. Dhyan chand was the greatest Indian player of
2. (c) Correctly matched : Hockey.
6. (b) Catch out is associated with Cricket and Mr.
Deodhar Trophy — Cricket. The Deodhar Trophy
Pierre de Coubertin is considered to be the father of
is a List A cricket competition in Indian domestic
Modern Olympic Games. Modern Olympic games
cricket. It is named after Prof. D. B. Deodhar (known
were ¿rst held in 1896.The Olympic Games are
as the Grand Old Man of Indian cricket) and is a
considered the world’s foremost sports competition
50-over knockout competition played on an annual
with more than 200 nations participating. The
basis among the 5 zonal teams - North Zone, South Olympic Games are held every four years, with the
Zone, East Zone, West Zone and Central Zone. The Summer and Winter Games alternating by occurring
competition was introduced in 1973-74 season with every four years but two years apart. Their creation
South Zone winning the trophy. was inspired by the ancient Olympic Games, which
were held in Olympia, Greece, from the 8th century 17. (a) Correctly matched :
BC to the 4th century AD. Country National game
7. (a) Correctly matched : USA Baseball
Ravindra Jadeja — Cricket Canda ICC Hockey
Gagan Narang — Shooting China Table Tennis
Saina Nehwal — Badminton Japan Judo
Somdev Devvarman — Tennis 18. (d) A player wins Grand Slam in tennis, if
8. (c) Saina Nehwal is the ¿rst Indian badminton he competes in Australian open, French open,
player, won the bronze medal in the Olympic Games Wimbledon and American open title.
2012 and Karnam Malleshwari was the ¿rst Indian 19. (c) First ICC Cricket World Cup held in England.
woman to win the individual medal in Olympic The ¿rst World Cup was organized in England in June
games, who is associated with weight lifting. 1975, with the ¿rst ODI cricket match having been
9. (a) Australian open – French open – Wimbledon – played only four years prior.
US open. 20. (a) Usain Bolt hails from Jamaica and he is an
10. (c) Correctly matched : athlete. He holds the record of Olympic and World
Vijay Kumar — Men’s 25 m rapid ¿re pistol Championship in 100 m and 200 m.
Gagan Narang — Men’s 10 m air riÀes 21. (b) Correctly matched :
Sushil Kumar — Men’s 66 kg freestyle Year World Cup Football winners
Yogeshwar Dutt — Men’s 60 kg freestyle 2010 Spain
11. (c) India won the World Cup ICC one day ¿nal at 2006 Italy
Wankhede Stadium in Mumbai. 2002 Brazil
Man of the match was Mahendra Singh Dhoni 1998 France
and man of the series was won by Yuvraj Singh.
22. (b) The first commonwealth games were held
12. (a) Correctly matched :
in 1930 at Hamilton, Canada and India ¿rst time
Wimbledon — Grass
participated in London games in 1934. And last
US open — Hard (Turf)
commonwealth games were held in New Delhi in
French open — Clay
2011, India secured second rank in the medal tally.
Australian open — Hard (Plexicushion)
23. (a) SAF Games means South Asian Federation
13. (a) Thomas Cup is the World Men’s Team
Badminton Championship. Uber Cup is the World Games. It is sport festival of South Asian countries.
Women’s team badminton championship. China has The South Asian sports Federation comprising India,
won maximum number of times Thomas and Uber Pakistan, Srilanka, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan and
Cups. Maldives was formed in New Delhi on November
14. (c) Australia is the only country which has won the 26, 1982.
ICC Cricket World Cup four times in 1987, 1999, 24. (b) International Basketball Federation was set up in
2003 and 2007 and won three times consecutively. 1932. This game was invented by Dr. James Naismith
Indian have also won the ICC Cricket World Cup of USA in 1891.
1983 and 2011.
25. (a) Correctly matched :
15. (a) Hopman Cup is the mixed team championship
Lawn Tennis Cup. It is the International Tennis Games Terminology
Tournament held every year. Wrestling Nelson
16. (d) Davis Cup is the premier international team Dribbling Basketball
event in men’s tennis started between Britain and the
United states in 1900. This championship is only for Flat hit Table Tennis
men. Chucker Polo
26. (b) Correctly matched : 29. (b) Champions trophy is associated with Cricket.
Games Terminology 30. (a) Correctly matched :
ButterÀy Swimming Sports No. of players
Upper cut Boxing Basketball 5
Diamond Baseball Volleyball 6
Bunker Golf Netball 7
27. (d) Aga Khan Cup is associated with the Hockey. Football 11
And Uber Cup is associated with the Badminton. 50. (b) Asia Cup is related to Badminton
52. (a) Commonwealth Games is organized in every
28. (c) Virdhaval Khade is the player of swimming.
four years.
Yelena Isinbayeva, Ande Marre and Vijay Singh
53. (a) Headquarters of FIFA is situated in Zürich,
are the players of Pole Vault, Tennis and Golf Switzerland.
respectively.
5 Miscellaneous
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 4. Consider the following statements :
answer from the codes given below : 1. Lord Clive was the ¿rst Governor of
List-I List-II Bengal.
A. Labour’s Day 1. May 31st 2. G.V. Mavlankar was the ¿rst speaker of Lok
B. Anti-Tobacco Day 2. May 2nd Sabha.
C. Mother’s Day 3. May 1st 3. Dr. Zakir Hussain was the ¿rst Muslim
D. National Girl Child 4. Jan 24th President of Indian Republic.
Codes: 4. Rakesh Sharma was the ¿rst Indian
Cosmonaut.
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 1 2 4
correct?
(c) 1 3 2 1 (d) 4 3 2 1 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
answer from the codes given below : 5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
List-I List-II answer from the codes given below :
(Folk Dance) (State) List-I List-II
A. Bidesia 1. Jharkhand A. The largest lake 1. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Lajri 2. Uttarakhand B. The largest delta 2. Sunderbans
C. Dangri 3. Himachal Pradesh (Kolkata)
D. Tamasha 4. Mahrashtra C. The largest 3. Birla Planetarium
Codes: planetarium (Kolkata)
A B C D A B C D D. The highest 4. Leh (Ladakh)
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2 airport
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 1 4 2 Codes:
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
List-I List-II
A. Khadakvasla 1. Victorial Memorial 1. Panchatantra was written by Pt. Vishnu
B. Konark 2. Ambabai Sharma.
C. Kolhapur 3. Sun Temple 2. Buddha charitam was written by Ashwaghosh.
D. Kolkata 4. National Defence 3. Prem Vatika was written by Raskhan.
Academy 4. Arthashastra was written by Kautilya.
A B C D A B C D correct?
(a) 1 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 4 3 1 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
F-42 || Miscellaneous
answer from the codes given below : answer from the codes given below :
A. Bandipur National Park 1. Mysore, A. Pichavaram 1. Odisha
Karnataka B. Krishna estuary 2. Maharashtra
B. Dachigam Sanctuary 2. Jammu and C. Ratnagiri 3. Andhra Pradesh
Kashmir D. Bhitar Kanika 4. Tamil Nadu
C. Ghana Bird Sanctuary 3. Bharatpur, Codes:
Rajasthan A B C D A B C D
D. Periyar 4. Idukki, (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
Kerala (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 1 3
Codes: 12. Consider the following statements :
A B C D A B C D 1. Kapilvastu related to Lord Buddha.
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 2. Kedarnath the temple of Lord Kedar.
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1 3. Khajuraho, famous for its temples and erotic
8. Consider the following statements : sculpture.
1. Nagarjuna Sagar Project located on river Which of the statements given above is/are
Krishna. correct?
2. Kakarpara Project located on river Tapi. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Banasagar project located on river Sone. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
4. Dul Hasti project located on river Chenab. 13. Which among the following famous dancers is an
Which of the statements given above is/are exponent of the Odissi dance style?
correct? 1. Sonal Man Singh
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. Sanjukta Panigrahi
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. Yamini Krishnamurthy
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 4. Madhavi Mudgal
answer from the codes given below : Which of the statements given above is/are
A. Brihadeeshwara temple 1. Tanjore (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
B. Dilwara temple 2. Mt. Abu (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of the above
C. Nataraja temple 3. Chennai 14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
D. Golden temple 4. Amritsar answer from the codes given below :
A B C D A B C D (Birds sanctuary) (State)
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3 A. Keoladeo 1. Rajasthan
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 1 3 B. Point Calimere 2. Tamil Nadu
10. Consider the following statements : C. Ratan Mahal 3. Gujarat
1. Largest port of India is Jawaharlal Nehru D. Ghat Prabha 4. Karnataka
Port in Mumbai. E. Astamudi 5. Kerala
2. Kandla in Gujarat is a tidal port. Codes:
3. The largest natural port is in Vishakapatnam. A B C D E
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 2 3 4 5
correct? (b) 4 5 1 2 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 4 5 1 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 5 4 3 2 1
15. Consider the following statements : 3. Worldwide Wildlife Day is observed on 6th
1. Darjeeling Himalayan Railway started in Oct.
1881 is the oldest. 4. World Heart Day is observed on 29th Sept.
2. Kalka Shimla Railway covers the longest Which of the statements given above is/are
distance among the three trains. correct?
3. Nilgiri mountain covers the shortest (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
distance. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
correct? answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only List-I List-II
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 A. National Youth Day 1. 12th January
B. Kargil Memorial Day 2. 26th July
C. Indian Air Force Day 3. 8th October
D. National Sports Day 4. 29th August
List-I List-II
Codes:
A. Tejas 1. Air-to-air missile
A B C D A B C D
B. Arjun 2. Ship-based missile
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
C. Dhanus 3. Main battle tank (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 3 4 2
D. Astra 4. Light combat aircraft 20. Consider the following statements :
Codes: 1. Ajanta Caves included in UNESCO’s list in
A B C D A B C D 1983.
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 2. Elephanta Caves of Mumbai founded by
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 1 3 2 4 Rashtrakutas.
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 3. Buddhists were founder of Ellora caves.
answer from the codes given below : 4. Jantar Mantar was founded by Sawai Jay
List-I List-II Singh.
A. National Institute of 1. Pune Which of the statements given above is/are
Immunology correct?
B. National centre for cell 2. Manesar
Science
C. Centre for DNA ¿nger 3. Hyderabad
Printing and diagnostics List-I List-II
D. National Brain Research 4. New Delhi (Nickname) (Person)
Centre A. Grand Old Man of India 1. Dadabhai
Codes: Naoroji
A B C D A B C D B. Tota-e-Hind 2. Amir Khushro
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 1 2 3 4 C. Shakespeare of India 3. Kalidas
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1 D. Nightingale of India 4. Sarojini Naidu
1. World Peace Day is observed on 6th August A B C D A B C D
2. World Literacy Day is observed on 8th (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
September. (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 4 3 2
answer from the codes given below: answer from the codes given below:
(Crematorium) (Persons) (Ports) (Rivers/ Ocean)
A. Kandla 1. Arabian Sea
A. Raj Ghat 1. Mahatama Gandhi
B. Paradip 2. Bay of Bengal
B. Veer Bhumi 2. Rajiv Gandhi C. New Tuticorin 3. Bay of Bengal
C. Shakti Sthal 3. Indira Gandhi D. Kolkata 4. Hoogly River
D. Shanti Van 4. J.L. Nehru Codes:
Codes: A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 4 1 2 3
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
26. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 2 4 3 answer from the codes given below :
answer from the codes given below : (Scientists) (Country)
List-I List-II A. Archimedes 1. Britain
(Places) (Persons) B. Graham Bell 2. Germany
C. Nicolos Copernicus 3. Greece
A. Anand Bhawan 1. J.L. Nehru
D. Albert Einstein 4. USA
B. Sabarmati 2. Mahatma Gandhi 5. Poland
C. Kushi Nagar 3. Gautam Buddha Codes :
D. Kundgram 4. Mahavir A B C D A B C D
Codes: (a) 3 1 5 2 (b) 3 2 4 5
A B C D A B C D (c) 4 5 2 1 (d) 4 3 5 2
27. Consider the following statments :
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
1. Zubin Mehta is a renowned musician.
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 4 1 2 3 2. Orhan Pamuk is an environmentalist.
24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 3. Robert Zoellick is a novelist.
answer from the codes given below: Which of the statements given above is/are
A. Central Rice Research 1. Cuttack (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Institute
28. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct
B. National Dairy Research 2. Karnal answer from the codes given below :
Institute List-I List-II
C. National Institute of 3. Panaji (Person) (Company)
Oceanography A. Steve Jobs 1. Google
D. National Aeronautical 4. Bangalore B. Sheryl Sandberg 2. Apple
C. Larry Page 3. Yahoo
Laboratory
D. Marissa Mayer 4. Facebook
Codes: Codes:
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 1 4 2 3 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 4 1 2
29. Consider the following statments : Codes:
1. In Custody is written by Anita Desai. A B C D A B C D
2. Sea of Poppies is written by Amitav Ghosh. (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
3. The Argumentative Indian is written by
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 4 2 3 1
Amartya Sen.
4. Unaccustomed Earth is written by Jhumpa 33. Consider the following statements :
Lahiri. 1. ‘Rahul Dravid : Timeless Steel’ is written by
Which of the statements given above is/are Greg Chappell.
correct? 2. ‘An Ashes Summer’ is written by V.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Krishnaswamy.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above 3. ‘Sachin: A Hundred Hundreds Now is
30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct written by Steve Waugh and Naseer Hussain.
4. ‘Opening up: My Autobiography’ is written
List-I List-II
by Mike Artherton.
(Books) (Author)
A. Moon and Sixpence 1. Salman Rushdie Which of the statements given above is/are
B. The Moor’s Last Sigh 2. Ved Mehta correct?
C. Portrait of India 3. Sidney Sheldon (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
D. Rage of Angels 4. Somerset (c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above
Maugham 34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Codes: answer from the codes given below :
A B C D A B C D
List-I List-II
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 4 1 2 3 A. Death Valley 1. Arizona
31. Consider the following statments : B. Edward’s Plateau 2. California
1. ‘The Struggle is My Life’ is written by C. Sonoran Desert 3. Florida
Nelson Mandela D. The Everglades 4. Texas
2. ‘The Struggle and the Triumph’ is written by Codes:
Lech Walesa.
A B C D A B C D
3. ‘Friends and Foes’ is written by Mujibur
Rehman. (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 3 1 4 2
4. ‘Rebirth’ is written by Leonid Brezhnev. (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3
correct? 1. India banned imports of milk and milk
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only products from China.
2. Melamine was detected in milk.
answer from the codes given below : 3. China is the largest producer of milk in the
List-I List-II world.
(Books) (Author) 4. The ban was under the control of the ministry
A. Freedom From Fear 1. Aung San Suu Kyi of commerce and industry.
B. Decision Points 2. George W. Bush Which of the statements given above is/are
C. The Illusion of 3. Amartya Sen correct?
Destiny (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
D. The Brief History 4. Stephen Hawking
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Time
36. Consider the following statements : List-I List-II
1. Mauritius is the largest source of Foreign (Organisation) (Reports)
Direct Investment (FDI) into India. A. WEF 1. Trade and
2. India has signed a nuclear deal with Development
Report
Kazakhastan, Argentina, Namibia, Mongolia
B. UNCTAD 2. The Global
and France. Competitiveness
Which of the statements given above is/are Report.
correct? C. Charities Aid 3. World Giving Index
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Foundation
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these D. RICS, India 4. Sustainable
37. Consider the following statements : competitiveness
1. A conventional warhead contains high report.
energy explosives. Codes :
A B C D A B C D
2. Strategic warhead, radioactive materials are (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
present, they exhibit huge radioactivity that (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 1 2 3
can wipe out even cities. 41. Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. The Global Integrity Report is an essential
correct? guide to anti-corruption institutions and
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only mechanisms around the world.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these 2. The report is presented by local researchers,
38. Consider the following statements : journalists and academics using double-
blind peer review process.
1. Better Life Index is given by OECD. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The Happy Planet Index is launched by New correct?
Economics Foundation. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. The EU is the world’s largest economy.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The EU has its own Àag, anthem and currency.
3. The EU’s combined armed forces are the
second largest in the world.
answer from the codes given below : 4. The EU has its own constitution.
List-I List-II Which of the statements given above is/are
(Organisation) (Reports) correct?
A. World Bank 1. Doing Business (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
Index (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
B. Yale and WB 2. Better Life Index 43. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
C. OECD 3. Environmental answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
Performance Index
(Parliament) (Country)
D. UN 4. Global HDI A. Knesset 1. Israel
Codes: B. Diet 2. Japan
A B C D A B C D C. Majlis 3. Iran
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 1 3 2 3 D. Shura 4. Afghanistan
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 1 2 3 Codes :
40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 1 3
1. North Atlantic Co-operation Council (NACC) correct?
is the name of the new organization which (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
has replaced the North Atlantic Treaty (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Organization (NATO). 48. Consider the following statements :
2. The United States of America and the United 1. Asia Development Bank is located in Tokyo.
Kingdom became the members of the NATO 2. Asian Paci¿c Economic Cooperation is
when it was formed in the year 1949. located in Singapore.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. ASEAN is located in Bangkok.
45. Consider the following statements : (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
1. East Asia Summit (EAS) is formed in 2005 49. Consider the following statements :
with ASEAN in a leadership position. 1. The headquarters of UNESCO is located in
2. The ¿rst EAS summit was held in Kuala Geneva.
Lumpur, Malaysia. 2. The headquarters of IMF is located in Paris.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. The headquarters of ILO is located in
correct? Washington.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 4. The headquarters of UNIDO is located in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Vienna.
answer from the codes given below : correct?
List-I List-II (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(Agencies) (Headquarters) (c) 4 only (d) All of the above
A. United Nations 1. Nairobi 50. Consider the following statements regarding
Development IAEA;
Programme (UNDP) 1. The IAEA has its headquarters in Vienna,
B. United Nations 2. Vienna Austria.
Environment 2. IAEA encourages the development of the
Programme (UNEP) peaceful applications of nuclear technology.
C. United Nations 3. Berne Which of the statements given above is/are
Industrial correct?
Development (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Organisation (UNID) (c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
D. Universal Postal 4. New York 51. Consider the following statements :
Union (UPU) 1. Organization of the Petroleum Exporting
Codes : Countries (OPEC) is an inter-governmental
A B C D A B C D organisation of twelve oil producing
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 1 2 3 countries.
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 2. Ecuador and Venezuela are the members of
47. Consider the following statements : the OPEC outside the Arab countries.
1. India is a member of the Asia Paci¿c Which of the statements given above is/are
Economic Cooperation (APEC) Forum. correct?
2. Russia is a member of North Atlantic Treaty (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Organization (NATO). (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. International Labour Organisation is a correct?
specialised agency of the United Nations. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. International Labour Organisation is one of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) All of the above
the oldest specialised agencies of the United 57. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Nations. answer from the codes given below :
Which of the statements given above is/are List-I List-II
correct? (Tribes) (Country)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only A. Eskimo 1. Canada
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 B. Khirgir 2. Central Asia
53. Consider the following statements about NATO? C. Masai 3. Tanzania
1. It is 28 members organization. D. Maori 4. New Zealand
2. It was founded in 1949. Codes:
3. Iceland is one of the original members of A B C D A B C D
NATO. (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
4. The Head quarters of NATO is in New York. (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 4 2 1 3
correct? answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 List-I List-II
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of the above A. Baalaika 1. Russia
54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct B. Cabaca 2. Latin America
answer from the codes given below : C. Hityokin 3. Japan
List-I List-II D. Sitar 4. India
A. 4th November 1. World Citizen Day Codes:
B. 10th December 2. International Human A B C D A B C D
Rights Day (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
C. 26th November 3. National Law Day (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 4 2 3 1
D. 5th October 4. World Teacher’s 59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Day answer from the codes given below:
A B C D A B C D (Detective Agency) (Country)
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 A. Federal Bureau of 1. USA
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 2 3 4 Investigation (FBI)
55. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct B. MOSSAD 2. Israel
answer from the codes given below : C. KGB/G.R.U 3. Russia
List-I List-II D. Naicho 4. Japan
A. 8th September 1. World Literacy Day Codes :
B. 21st September 2. World Peace Day A B C D A B C D
C. 6th March 3. World Wide Wildlife Day (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
D. 29th September 4. World Heart Day (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 4 2 3 1
Codes : 60. Consider the following facts about Education
A B C D A B C D Development Index:
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 1. This index has been developed by National
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 2 3 4 University of Educational Planning and
56. Consider the following statments : Development.
1. International Women’s Day observed on 8th 2. EDI comprises of four components - Access,
March. infrastructure, teachers and outcomes.
2. World AIDS Day observed on 1st The correct code is
December. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
3. World Forest day observed on 21st March. (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
61. Which government body promotes measures for Select the correct answer using the codes given
care and protection of persons with disability in below
the event of death of their parents or guardians? Codes:
(a) Child Welfare Committee (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Central Social Welfare Board (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(c) National Trust 65. Which of the following are true of Matrilineal
(d) National Handicapped Finance and societies?
Development Corporation 1. Newly married couple stays with the
62. Determinant of population growth is- woman’s parents.
1. Family 2. Marriage 2. As per the rules of inheritance, the property
3. Economy 4. Fertility passes from mother to daughter.
Codes: 3. Women play a dominant role in the family.
4. Examples of matrilineal societies are those
(a) 1and 2 (b) 2 and 3
of the Khasi and Jaintia tribes of Meghalaya.
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 only
63. Match List - I with List-II and select the correct
below:
answer by using the codes given below.
Codes:
List - I List - II
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 only
(Commission/ (Mandate) (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Committee) 66. Consider the following statements about the
A. Sachar Committee 1. Anti-Sikh Riots, Palestine-
1984 1. UNO General Assembly Voted to upgrade
B. Srikrishna 2. Socio-economic the status of the Palestine to that of a ‘Non-
Commission and educational member observer State’.
conditions of 2. Now Palestine is a sovereign state.
Muslims in India 3. Palestinian Authority is eligible for
C. Ranganath Misra 3. Bombay membership of several U.N. agencies.
Commission 4. Palestinian Authority is still not eligible
Communal to sign Rome Statute of the International
Riots, 1992 Criminal Court.
D. Nanavati 4. Linguistic and (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
Commission religious (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
minorities in India 67. Which of the following statements about India-
Codes: China relations is/are correct?
A B C D 1. ‘Look East Policy’ is a vital part of the
(a) 2 3 4 1 relationship.
(b) 2 4 3 1 2. There is an active defence exchange
(c) 1 4 3 2 programme.
(d) 1 3 4 2 3. Institutional mechanism to share
64. Which of the following are UNESCO recognized international waters is in place.
world heritage sites? Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
1. Caves of Ajanta
Codes:
2. Temple and Caves at Ellora
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
3. Mandapas of Mahabalipuram
4. Caves of Kanheri
68. Consider the following statements about the 71. Consider the following statements:
UNO: Assertion (A) : Inspite of best efforts Sarva
1. The creation of the UNO was a reÀection Shiksha Abhiyan failed to achieve desirable
of the ongoing quest for international peace literacy rate.
during the Second World War. Reason (R) : Results can be achieved without
2. The Charter of the UN explicitly mentions political will.
two vital objectives of the organisation: (i) Select the correct answer from the codes given
the quest for international peace and (ii) all below:
round welfare of the people of the world. Codes :
3. The UN has resolved all the major global (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
disputes including the Palestine dispute. (b) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
correct?
(d) (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 explanation of (A).
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only 72. Consider the following statements
69. Arrange the following Acts in order in which they 1. Mascot of Census 2011 is the Female
were enacted? Use the codes given below: Enumerator.
1. Child Marriage Restraint Act. 2. After Census 2011 India became 5th most
2. Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act. populous country in the World.
3. Hindu Marriage Act.
4. Dowry Prohibition Act. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
Codes : 73. Consider the following statements
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4, 2 When a man circles round the earth in a satellite,
(c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1 then
70. Match the following (a) His mass becomes zero but weight remains
constant
List-I List-II
(b) Mass remains constant but weight becomes
(Event) (Date of zero
Observance) (c) Both mass and weight remain constant
A. World Consumer 1. October 24th (d) Both mass and weight remain zero
Day 74. Consider the following statements
B. International 2. September 8th 1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has signed
a US $400 million currency swap agreement
Literacy Day with the Central Bank of Sri Lanka.
C. World Mental 3. October 10th 2. The currency swap agreement will allow
Health Day central banks of both nations to make
D. UN Day 4. March 15th withdrawals of US Dollar or Euro in multiple
tranches up to a maximum of USD 400
Codes :
million or its equivalent.
A B C D A B C D Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 3 4 2 1 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 1 4 3 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the 2
75. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer
1. The Supreme Court (SC) on 24 March (a) Insider trading
2015 struck down the Section 66A of the (b) LIBOR interest rates
Information and Technology Act 2000 calling (c) Money laundering
it unconstitutional and untenable. (d) Credit Default Swap
2. SC in its ruling held that Section 66A 79. Consider the following statements
interferes with freedom of speech and Which of the following places was recently attacked
expression envisaged under Article 15 of by armed militants from the fundamentalist ‘Ansar
Constitution of India. Dine’ group just two days after it was named as an
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? endangered world heritage site by UNESCO?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Select the correct answer
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above (a) Baku,Azerbaijan
76. Consider the following statements: (b) Zabid,Yemen
1. Madhav Gadgil has won the prestigious Tyler (c) Timbuktu, Mali
Prize 2015. (d) Bamiyan Valley, Afghanistan
2. Madhav Gadgil is a Meteorologist. 80. Consider the following statements
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which among the following has recently been
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only included by UNESCO in its coveted list of World
Heritage Sites?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
(a) Silk Route sites in India
1. National Food Security Mission (NFSM) is
(b) Matheran Light Railway Network
a Central Scheme of government of India
(c) Riverine Island of Majuli
launched in 2007.
(d) Western Ghats
2. Its Motto is to increase production and
productivity of wheat, rice and pulses on a
1. There are 12 Millennium Development Goals
sustainable basis.
(MDGs) which have to be met by 2015.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. According to the latest United Nations
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Report, India is likely to miss the Millennium
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above Development Goal (MDG) related to maternal
78. Consider the following statements health.
Barclays Chairman ‘Marcus Agius’ was recently Which among the above Statement(s) is/are
compelled to resign for being involved in a scandal correct?
which has dealt a devastating blow to the bank’s (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
reputation. The scandal is related to: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 10. (d) 19. (a) 28. (c) 37. (c) 46. (b) 55. (d) 64. (b) 73. (b)
2. (a) 11. (c) 20. (d) 29. (d) 38. (c) 47. (d) 56. (a) 65. (a) 74. (c)
3. (a) 12. (d) 21. (a) 30. (d) 39. (b) 48. (b) 57. (a) 66. (b) 75. (a)
4. (d) 13. (c) 22. (a) 31. (d) 40. (a) 49. (c) 58. (a) 67. (d) 76. (a)
5. (a) 14. (b) 23. (a) 32. (a) 41. (c) 50. (c) 59. (a) 68. (d) 77. (c)
6. (d) 15. (d) 24. (a) 33. (d) 42. (a) 51. (c) 60. (b) 69. (b) 78. (b)
7. (a) 16. (c) 25. (a) 34. (c) 43. (a) 52. (c) 61. (c) 70. (a) 79. (c)
8. (d) 17. (a) 26. (a) 35. (b) 44. (b) 53. (c) 62. (d) 71. (d) 80. (d)
9. (a) 18. (d) 27. (a) 36. (c) 45. (c) 54. (d) 63. (a) 72. (a) 81. (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) The correctly matched pairs are : Kolhapur — Ambabai. The Shri Mahalakshmi
Temple of Kolhapur in Maharashtra, India, is one
Labour’s Day — 1st May
of the Shakti Peethas listed in various puranas of
Anti-Tobacco Day — 31st May
Hinduism. According to these writings, a Shakti
Mother’s Day — 2nd May Peetha is a place associated with Shakti, the goddess
National Girl Child Day — 24th Jan. of power.
2. (a) The correctly matched pairs are : Kolkata — Victorial Memorial. The Victoria
Bidesia — Jharkhand Memorial is a large marble building in Kolkata,
Lajri — Uttarakhand West Bengal, India which was built between 1906
and 1921.
Dangri — Himachal Pradesh
4. (d) All the statements given above are correct.
Tamasha — Mahrashtra
5. (a) The correctly matched pairs are :
These are names of folk stage performances in
Largest lake — Jammu and Kashmir
their respective states.
Largest delta — Sunderbans (Kolkata)
Largest planetarium — Kolkata
Khadakvasla — National Defence Academy.The Highest airport — Leh (Ladakh)
National Defence Academy (NDA) is the Joint 6. (d) All of these statements given above are correct.
Services academy of the Indian Armed Forces,
7. (a) The correctly matched pairs are:
where cadets of the three services, the Army,
Bandipur National Park — Mysore.Bandipur
the Navy and the Air Force train together before
National Park, established in 1974 as a tiger reserve
they go on to pre-commissioning training in their under Project Tiger, is a national park located in
respective service academies. The NDA is located the south Indian state of Karnataka. It was once
in Khadakwasla near Pune, Maharashtra. It is the a private hunting reserve for the Maharaja of the
¿rst tri-service academy in the world. Kingdom of Mysore.
Konark — Sun Temple. Konark Sun Temple is a Dachigam Sanctuary — Jammu and Kashmir.
13th century temple, at Konark, in Odisha, India. Dachigam National Park is located 22 kilometers
It was supposedly built by king Narasimhadeva I of from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. It covers an
Eastern Ganga Dynasty around 1250. area of 141 square kilometers.
Ghana Bird Sanctuary — Bharatpur.The Keoladeo Point Calimore — Kerala. Point Calimere, also
National Park or Keoladeo Ghana National Park called Cape Calimere, is a low headland on the
formerly known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary Coromandel Coast, in the Nagapattinam district of
in Bharatpur, Rajasthan, India is a famous avifauna the state of Tamil Nadu, India. It is the apex of the
sanctuary that plays host to thousands of birds Cauvery River delta, and marks a nearly right-angle
especially during the summer season. turn in the coastline.
Periyar — Idukki, Kerala.Periyar National Park and Ratan Mahal —Gujarat.This sanctuary harbours
Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area in the districts maximum population of sloth bears in the entire
of Idukki and Pathanamthitta in Kerala, south India. state, which is the star attraction in the wilds of
It is notable as an elephant reserve and a tiger reserve. Ratanmahals.
8. (d) All the given statements are correct. Ghat Prabha —Karnataka. Ghataprabha River
9. (a) Brihadeeshwara temple — Tanjore. The originates in the Western Ghats at an altitude of
Peruvudaiyar Kovil, also known as Brihadeeswara 884 meters and Àows eastward for a distance of 283
Temple, RajaRajeswara Temple and Rajarajeswaram, kilometers before its conÀuence with the Krishna
at Thanjavur in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu, is a River at Almatti. The river basin is 8,829 square
Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva. kilometers wide and stretches across Karnataka and
Dilwara temple — Mt. Abu.The Jain Delwara Maharashtra states.
temples of India are located about 2½ kilometres Astamudi —Kerala. Ashtamudi Lake in the Kollam
from Mount Abu, Rajasthan’s only hill station. District of Kerala, India, is the second largest and
These temples built by Chalukya between the 11th deepest wetland ecosystem, a palm-shaped large
and 13th centuries AD are world famous for their water body, next only to the Vembanad estuary
stunning use of marble. The ¿ve legendary marble ecosystem of the state.
temples of Dilwara are a sacred pilgrimage place of 16. (c) Tejas — Light combat aircraft.The HAL Tejas
the Jains. is a 4+ generation, multirole light ¿ghter developed
Nataraja temple — Chennai.Thillai Natarajah by India. It is a tailless, compound delta-wing design
Temple, Chidambaram or Chidambaram temple is a powered by a single engine.
Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva located in the Arjun — Main battle tank.The Arjun is a third
town of Chidambaram, East-Central Tamil Nadu, generation main battle tank developed by India’s
South India. Defence Research and Development Organization
Golden temple — Amritsar.The Harmandir Sahib, (DRDO), for the Indian Army. The Arjun features
also Darbar Sahib and informally referred to as the a 120 mm main riÀed gun with indigenously
“Golden Temple”, is a prominent Sikh Gurdwara developed APFSDS ammunition, one 7.62 mm
located in the city of Amritsar, Punjab, India. It was coaxial machine gun, and a 12.7 mm machine gun.
built by the ¿fth Sikh guru, Guru Arjan, in the 16th Dhanush — Ship based missile. Dhanush is a
Century. variant of the surface-to-surface/ship-to-ship Prithvi
10. (d) All the above statements are correct. II missile, which has been developed for the Indian
11. (c) Pichavaram — Tamil Nadu Navy. It is capable of carrying both conventional as
Krishna estuary — Andhra Pradesh well as nuclear warheads with pay-load capacity of
Ratnagiri — Maharashtra 500 kg and can strike targets in the range of 350
Bhitar Kanika — Odisha km.
12. (d) All the above statements are correct. Astra — Air-to-air missile.Astra is an active radar
13. (c) The famous exponents of Odissi dance style are homing beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile
Sonal Man Singh, Sanjukta Panigrahi and Madhavi (BVRAAM) developed by the Defence Research
Mudgal. and Development Organisation (DRDO), India.
14. (b) Keoladeo — Rajasthan. The Keoladeo Astra is designed to be capable of engaging
National Park or Keoladeo Ghana National Park targets at varying ranges and altitudes allowing
formerly known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary for engagement of both short-range targets (up to
in Bharatpur, Rajasthan, India is a famous avifauna
20 km) and long-range targets (up to 80 km) using
sanctuary that plays host to thousands of birds
alternative propulsion modes.
especially during the summer season.
17. (a) A. National Institute of 1. New Delhi Sabarmati — Mahatma Gandhi.Sabarmati Ashram
Immunology (also known as Gandhi Ashram, Harijan Ashram,
B. National Centre for Cell 2. Pune or Satyagraha Ashram) is located in the Sabarmati
Science suburb of Ahmedabad, Gujarat, on the banks of the
C. Centre for DNA Finger 3. Hyderabad River Sabarmati. This was one of the residences of
Printing and diagnostics Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, generally called
D. National Brain Research 4. Manesar Mahatma Gandhi, who lived there for about twelve
years along with his wife, Kasturba Gandhi.
Centre
Kushi Nagar — Gautam Buddha. Kushinagar,
18. (d) All the statements given below are correct.
Kusinagar or Kusinara is a town and a Nagar
19. (a) National Youth Day — 12th January
panchayat in Gorakhpur Uttar Pradesh located
Kargil Memorial Day — 26th July
around NH-28, being 52 km east to Gorakhpur.
Indian Air Force Day — 8th October
Kundgram — Mahavir. Mahavira was Kshatriya
National Sports Day — 29th August
of the Jnatri clan and a native of the (Kshatriya)
20. (d) All of the above statements are correct.
Kundagram, a suburb of the town of Vaishali (near
21. (a) A. Grand old man of India
Patna). He was the second son of Siddhartha and
1. Dadabhai Naoroji. Dadabhai Naoroji, known
Trishala.
as the Grand Old Man, was a Parsi intellectual,
24. (a) Central Rice Research — Cuttack
educator, cotton trader, and an early Indian political
and social leader. Institute
National Dairy Research — Karnal
B. Tota-e-Hind
Institute
2. Amir Khushro. Ab’ul Hasan Yamin ud-Din
National Institute of — Panaji
Khusrow was a Su¿ musician, poet and scholar. He
Oceanography
was an iconic ¿gure in the cultural history of the National Aeronautical — Bangalore
Indian subcontinent. Laboratory
C. Shakespeare of India 25. (a) Kandla — Arabian Sea
3. Kalidas. Kalidas was a Classical Sanskrit
Paradip — Bay of Bengal
writer, widely regarded as the greatest poet and New Tuticorin — Bay of Bengal
dramatist in the Sanskrit language. His Àoruit cannot Kolkata — Hoogly River
be dated with precision, but most likely falls within 26. (a) The correctly matched pairs are :
the 5th century AD. Archimedes – Greece
D. Nightingale of India Graham Bell – Britain
4. Sarojini Naidu. Sarojini Naidu, born as Sarojini Nicolas Copernicus – Poland
Chattopadhyay also known by the sobriquet as The Albert Einstein – USA
Nightingale of India, was a child prodigy, Indian These are the names of famous scientists who
independence activist and poet. belong to the respective countries.
22. (a) Raj Ghat — Mahatama Gandhi 27. (a) Zubin Mehta is a renowned musician. Zubin
Veer Bhumi — Rajiv Gandhi Mehta is an Indian Parsi conductor of Western
Shakti Sthal — Indira Gandhi classical music. He is the Music Director for Life
Shanti Van — J.L. Nehru of the Israel Philharmonic Orchestra and the Main
23. (a) Anand Bhawan — J.L.Nehru.The Anand Conductor for Valencia’s opera house.
Bhavan is a historic house museum in Allahabad, 28. (c) The correctly matched pairs are :
focusing on the Nehru-Gandhi Family. It was Steve Jobs – Apple. Steven Paul “Steve” Jobs was
constructed by Motilal Nehru in the 1930s to serve an American entrepreneur, marketer, and inventor,
as the residence of the Nehru family when the who was the co-founder, chairman, and CEO of
original mansion Swaraj Bhavan (previously called Apple Inc.
Anand Bhavan) was transformed into the local Sheryl Sandberg – Facebook. Sheryl Kara Sandberg
headquarters of the Indian National Congress. is an American businesswoman. Till August 2013,
she had been the chief operating of¿cer of Facebook.
Larry Page – Google. Lawrence “Larry” Page Decision Points – George W. Bush.George Walker
is an American computer scientist and Internet Bush is an American politician and businessman
entrepreneur who is the co-founder of Google, who served as the 43rd President of the United
alongside Sergey Brin. On April 4, 2011, Page States of America from 2001 to 2009 and the 46th
succeeded Eric Schmidt as the chief executive Governor of Texas from 1995 to 2000.
of¿cer of Google. The Illusion of Destiny – Amartya Sen. Amartya
Kumar Sen (born 3 November 1933), is an Indian
Yahoo. Ross Levinsohn is the CEO of Guggenheim
economist and a Nobel laureate. He has made
Digital Media, overseeing such assets as The contributions to welfare economics, social choice
Hollywood Reporter, Billboard, Adweek, The Clio theory, economic and social justice, economic
Awards and Film Expo Group. Previously, he served theories of famines, and indexes of the measure
as interim CEO of Yahoo! in 2012. of well-being of citizens of developing countries.
29. (d) All the statements given above are correct in He was awarded the Nobel Memorial Prize in
respect of the books and their authors. Economic Sciences in 1998 for his work in welfare
30. (d) The correctly matched pairs are : economics.
Moon and Six pence – Somerset Maughan.William A Brief History of Time – Stephen Hawking.
Somerset Maugham CH was a British playwright, Stephen William Hawking is an English theoretical
novelist and short story writer. He was among the physicist, cosmologist, author and Director of
most popular writers of his era and reputedly the Research at the Centre for Theoretical Cosmology
in the University of Cambridge.
highest paid author during the 1930s.
33. (d) All of the statements given above are correct.
The Moor’s Last Sigh – Salman Rushdie.Sir Ahmed 34. (c) Death Valley – California
Salman Rushdie is a British Indian novelist and Edward’s Plateau – Texas
essayist. His second novel, Midnight’s Children, Sonaran Desert – Arizona
won the Booker Prize in 1981. Much of his ¿ctions The Everglades – Florida
are set in the Indian subcontinent.
35. (b) The Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Portait of India – Ved Mehta. Ved Parkash Mehta
banned imports of milk from China because
is a writer who was born in Lahore, British India.
He lost his sight at the age of four to cerebrospinal Malanine was detected in milk.
meningitis. 39. (b) The correctly matched pairs are :
Rage of Angels – Sidney sheldon. Sidney Sheldon World Bank – Doing Business Index
(February 11, 1917 – January 30, 2007) was an Yale and WB – Environmental
American writer. His TV works spanned a 20-year Performance Index
period during which he created The Patty Duke OECD – Better Life Index
Show (1963–66), I Dream of Jeannie (1965–70) and
UN – Global HDI
Hart to Hart (1979–84), but he became most famous
after he turned 50 and began writing best-selling 40. (a) WEF – The Global
novels, such as Master of the Game (1982), The Competitiveness Report
Other Side of Midnight (1973) and Rage of Angels UNCTAD – Trade and Development
(1980). He is the seventh best selling ¿ction writer Report
of all time. Charities Aid – World Giving Index
All these are names of famous books written by the Foundation
respective authors.
RICS, India – Sustainable
31. (d) All the statements given above are correct.
Competitiveness Report.
Freedom from Fear – Aung San Suu Kyi. Aung 41. (c) Both the statements given above are correct.
San Suu Kyi is a Burmese opposition politician and 42. (a) 1. The EU is the world’s largest economy
chairperson of the National League for Democracy 2. The EU has its own Àag, anthem and
in Burma. In the 1990 general election, the NLD currency
won 59% of the national votes and 81% of the seats 3. The EU’s combined armed forces are the
in Parliament. second largest in the world.
43. (a) Knesset – Israel 71. (d) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (Education for all
Diet – Japan Movement) is a programme by the Government of
Majlis _ Iran India aimed at the universalization of elementary
Shura – Afghanistan education “in a time bound manner”, as mandated
All these are the names of Parliament of the by the 86th amendment to the Constitution of India
respective countries. making free education to children aged 6–14 a
44. (b) USA and UK became members of NATO in fundamental right. The programme was pioneered
1949. by Atal Bihari Vajpayee. SSA is being implemented
46. (b) The correctly matched pairs are : in partnership with State Governments to cover the
UNDP – New york entire country and address the needs of 192 million
UNEP – Nairobi children in 1.1 million habitations.
UNID – Vienna 72. (a) After Census 2011 India became second most
UPU – Berne populous country in the World.
48. (b) Asian Paci¿c Economic Cooperation is located 73. (b) Mass remains constant but weight becomes zero
in Singapore. 74. (c) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has signed
49. (c) The headquarter of UNIDO is located in a US $400 million currency swap agreement with
Vienna. the Central Bank of Sri Lanka. The currency swap
50. (c) IAEA encourages the development of the agreement will allow central banks of both nations to
peaceful applications of nuclear technology. make withdrawals of US Dollar or Euro in multiple
51. (c) Both the statements given above are correct. tranches up to a maximum of USD 400 million or its
52. (c) Both the statements given above are correct. equivalent. The agreement will be valid for a period
53. (c) All the statements given above are correct. of three years and further economic co-operation
54. (d) The correctly matched pairs are : between the two countries.
World Citizen Day – 4th December 75. (a) Supreme Court held that
International Human – 10th November Section 66 A is unconstitutional because it failed
Rights Day two major tests, the clear and present danger test
National Law Day – 26th November and the tendency to create public disorder test.
World Teacher’s Day – 5th October Language used in this section is vague and
55. (d) 8th September – Word Literacy Day nebulous does not properly de¿ne words like
21st September – Word Peace Day offensive or even persistent.
6th March – Word Wide Wildlife Day
SC in its ruling held that Section 66A interferes
29th September – Word Heart Day
with freedom of speech and expression
57. (a) Eskimo – Canada
envisaged under Article 19 of Constitution of
Khirgir – Central Asia
India and also hit the root of two cardinal pillars
Masai – Tanzania
of democracy liberty and freedom of expression.
Maori – New Zealand
76. (a) Madhav Gadgil is an Ecologist. Renowned
All these are names of tribes existing in their
Indian Ecologist Madhav Gadgil has won the
respective countries.
prestigious Tyler Prize 2015 for Environmental
58. (a) Ballaiaka – Russia
Achievement. He will share this prize with noted
Cebaca – Latin America
American marine ecologist and environmental
Hityokin – Japan
scientist Jane Lubchenco.
Sitar – India
All these are names of musical instruments played 77. (c) National Food Security Mission (NFSM) is a
in their respective countries. Central Scheme of GOI launched in 2007 for 5 years
59. (a) FBI – USA to increase production and productivity of wheat, rice
MOSSAD – Israel and pulses on a sustainable basis so as to ensure food
KGB/ GRU – Russia security of the country.
Naicho – Japan 81. (b) The United Nations Millennium Development
All these terms are the names of investigative Goals (MDGs) are 8 goals that UN Member States
bureaus of the following countries. have agreed to try to achieve by the year 2015.
Section G : current affairs
1 National
1. Recently, Union Ministry of Food Processing Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Industries on sanctioned 17 Mega Food Parks (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(MFPs). Which of the following is/are true about (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the 2
MFPs? 4. Consider the following statements
1. The 17 MFPs will be spread across 11 States. 1. Ministry of Railways constituted Ajay
2. The Scheme was launched in 2008 by UPA Shankar Committee to review PPP Cell
Government. functioning.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Ajay Shanka is former Secretary, Department
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither of these of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP)
2. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct under the aegis of Union Ministry of
about the recently launched Pradhan Mantri Commerce and Industry.
Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKY)? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The programme aims to impart skill training correct?
to youth with focus on first time entrants to
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of these
the labour market and class 10 and class 12
dropouts.
1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched
2. The programme will be implemented by the
Pro-Active Governance and Timely
Union Ministry of Skill Development and Implementation (PRAGATI) platform on 25
Entrepreneurship through the National Skill March 2015.
Development Corporation (NSDC) training 2. PRAGATI is a multi-purpose and multi-
partners. modal platform aimed at addressing
3. Sector Skill Councils and the State grievances of common man.
Governments would closely monitor skill Which of the statements given above is/are
training that will happen under the PMKVY. correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All the above (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of these
3. Consider the following statements: 6. Consider the following statements
1. The Indian Navy on 24 March 2015 1. Twitter ‘Samvad’ has been launched by the
commissioned three Immediate Support union government to revive the importance
Vessels (ISVs) comprising T-38, T-39 and of Vedas.
T-40 at the Visakhapatnam Naval Dockyard 2. Twitter Chief Executive is Dick Costolo.
in Andhra Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Two ISVs were built by Rodman Spain and correct?
the third vessel was built by the Hindustan (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Shipyard Limited. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of these
G-2 || National
7. Consider the following statements: 11. Consider the following statements
1. The Supreme Court (SC) on 24 March 1. Union Government has selected Irom Chanu
2015 struck down the Section 66A of the Sharmila as Brand Ambassador for the
Information and Technology Act 2000 North East Region.
calling it unconstitutional and untenable. 2. She is also first Indian woman boxer to get
2. SC in its ruling held that Section 66A a Gold Medal in the 2014 Asian Games held
interferes with freedom of speech and at Incheon, South Korea.
expression envisaged under Article 15 of Which of the statements given above is/are
Constitution of India. correct?
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the above
(c) Both 1 and 2 d . Neither of the above 1. Union Government has launched Pharma
8. Consider the following statements: Jan Samadhan scheme, for redressal of
1. Union Government has approved 17 mega grievances of consumers related to drug
food parks for food processing across the pricing and availability of medicines.
country. 2. The scheme is a web-enabled system
2. Out of these 17 food parks, 6 parks have
created by National Pharmaceutical Pricing
been allotted to state agencies whereas 11 to
Authority (NPPA).
private players in 11 states.
correct?
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the above
9. Consider the following statements 13. Consider the following statements:
1. ‘Kaya kulp’ Council is an innovation council 1. Supreme Court has barred High Courts
for poor states . (HCs) from entertaining pleas under writ
2. Ratan Tata will head the KayaKalp council. jurisdiction against the verdicts of the
Which of the statements given above is/are Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT).
correct? 2. Section 30 of AFT Act stipulates that an
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only appeal against the final decision or order of
(c) Both 1 and 2 d . Neither of the above the Tribunal shall lie in the Supreme Court.
10. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Delhi High Court has rejected the correct?
notification issued by Union Government (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
to include Jats in the Central list of Other (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the above
Backward Classes (OBC) for the benefit of 14. Consider the following statements:
reservation. 1. Delhi High Court in its ruling has held that
2. SC gave this decision on Public Interest Attorney General of India comes under the
Litigation (PIL) filed by the OBC Reservation ambit of Right to Information (RTI) Act,
Raksha Samiti which had challenged Union 2005.
Governments notification of including Jats 2. Attorney General is not a constitutional
in the Central list of OBC. authority.
correct? correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the above (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the above
Current Affairs || G-3
15. Consider the following statements: 3. Baldev Sharma is the former editor of
1. Union Government has announced that 5 Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS)
sick public sector undertakings (PSUs) will mouthpiece Panchajanya.
be closed. 4. NBT established in 1955.
2. It includes HMT, Hindustan Shipyard, Which of the statements given above is/are
BHEL, BEL, HPCL. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 ,2 only (b) 2 ,3 only
correct? (c) 1,2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the above 1. A historic bronze statue of Father of the
16. Consider the following statements: Nation Mahatma Gandhi was unveiled at the
1. Union Government has released ‘Digital Parliament of USA.
Gender Atlas for Advancing Girls 2. The statue has been crafted by British
Education’ a web-based tool for advancing sculptor Philip Jackson.
girls education. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. It was unveiled by Department of Higher correct?
education of the Union Ministry of Human (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Resources Development (HRD) in New
Delhi.
1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 14
correct?
March 2015 flagged off the first train from
Thalaimannar to Madhu Road in North Sri
Lanka.
2. The rail project connects the Sri Lanka’s
1. Shipping Samvad is a website launched by
Union Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport Jaffna province to capital Colombo and a
& Highways. branch line connects Thalaimannar to the
2. The ideas and suggestions submitted by main rail line.
public and experts will be further examined Which of the statements given above is/are
for implementation by Ministry of Shipping. correct?
3. Website’s objective is to invite innovative (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
ideas and suggestions from general public (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the above
and experts related to Indian maritime sector 21. Consider the following statements:
for improvements in the ports, shipping and 1. Chennai has become India’s first Wi-Fi-
inland waterways sector. enabled metro city.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Private telecom operator, Reliance Jio is
correct? providing the 4G enabled Wi-fi services in
(a) 1 & 2 only (b) 2 & 3 only the city.
(c) All of the above (d) None of the above Which of the statements given above is/are
18. Consider the following statements: correct?
1. Union Ministry of Human Resource (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Development (HRD) has appointed Baldev (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the above
Sharma as chairman of National Book Trust 22. Consider the following statements about Pingali
(NBT) Venkayya.
2. He succeeded veteran Malayalam writer A. 1. He was the designer of national flag of
Sethumadhavan India.
G-4 || National
2. He was honoured by naming All India Radio Which of the statements given above is/are not
(AIR) Vijayawada (in Andhra Pradesh) correct?
building after him. (a) 1, 2 only (b) 3, 2 only
3. He was born in Bhatlapenumarru, near (c) 3 only (d) All of the above
Masulipatnam district in Andhra Pradesh. 26. Consider the following statements about ‘Pradhan
4. India’s present flag was adopted during the Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana’.
meeting of Constituent Assembly held on 1. It was launched on 15th August 2014.
the 22 July 1950. 2. Every individual who opens a bank account
Which of the statements given above is/are will become eligible to receive an accident
correct? insurance cover of up to ` 1 Lakh for his
(a) 1 ,2 only (b) 1,2 ,3 only entire family.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above
3. An additional ` 30,000 life insurance cover
23. Consider the following statements about Rajendra
will be provided for those opening bank
Singh.
1. He has been conferred with 2015 Stockholm accounts before January 26, 2015
Water Prize. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The prize is founded and financed correct?
by Stockholm Water Foundation and (a) 1, 2 only (b) 2 only
administered by the Stockholm International (c) 3 only (d) All of the above
Water Institute (SIWI). 27. Consider the following statements about Sansad
Which of the statements given above is/are Aadarsh Gram Yojana’.
correct? 1. On the basis of some parameters, each of the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only MPs should make one village of his or her
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the above constituency a Model Village by 2016.
24. Consider the following statements: 2. After 2016, select two more villages for this
1. National Mission for a Green India aims for purpose, before the General Elections in
afforestation at 10 million hectares of land 2019.
over the next decade in order to increase and 3. After 2019, each Member of Parliament,
improve the country’s forest cover during his/her tenure of 5 years must
2. Union Government has merged Green India establish at least five model villages in his/
Mission (GIM) with the Mahatma Gandhi her area.
National Rural Employment Guarantee Act Which of the statements given above is/are
(MGNREGA) Scheme. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1, 2 only (b) 2 only
correct?
(c) 3, only (d) All of the above
1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched a
25. Consider the following statements about Soil
Health Card (SHC) scheme. scheme, ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ (save
1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has launched the girl child, educate the girl child), on
nationwide Soil Health Card (SHC) scheme January 22 at Panipat in Haryana.
in Suratgarh town of Sriganganagar district, 2. With an initial corpus of `100 crore, the
Rajasthan. scheme has been launched in a hundred
2. The card carries crop-wise recommendation districts across the country.
of fertilisers that are required for farm lands. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. In the budget, government had allotted correct?
`1000 crore for issuing cards under the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
scheme. (c) All of the above (d) Neither of the above
29. Which of the following states/part of these states (3) To set up Relief Corpus Fund for helping
have been declared as “Disturbed Areas” and the heinous crime victims.
armed forces here have special powers under (4) Promotion of Sports from North East India
Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958? to establish bond with rest of India.
(1) Assam (2) Tripura Codes:
(3) Sikkim (4) Meghalaya (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
Codes: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of these
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 34. Which of the following statements are correct?
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only (1) Digital Village Project has been launched by
30. Which of the following statements are correct State Bank of India
regarding Judicial Appointments Commission (2) The project was launched in Rajasthan
(NJAC) Bill, 2014? (3) The digital village has three themes i.e.
(1) The bill grants Constitutional status to the cashless, comprehensive and connected.
NJAC. Codes:
(2) NJAC will be headed by the Chief Justice of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
India. (c) 3 only (d) All of these
(3) It will be responsible for transfer of judges 35. Which of the following statements are correct
to the Supreme Courts and the High Courts. regarding Dr. V.R Gowarikar?
Codes: (1) He is considered as the ‘Father of the Indian
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Monsoon Model’.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (2) He was honoured with Padma Vibhushan
31. Which of the following pairs are correctly Award.
matched? (3) He is the author of book ‘I Predict’.
(1) R.K Srivastava : Chairman of Airports Codes:
Authority of India (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(2) A.K Mittal : Chairman of Railway (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these
Board 36. Which of the following statements are correct?
(3) Shailesh Nayak : Chairman of BARC (1) Recently, President’s rule has been imposed
Codes: in Jammu and Kashmir
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (2) It was imposed under Article 356 of the
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these Indian constitution.
32. Which of the following statements are correct? Codes:
(1) Indian Science Congress 2015 has started in (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Delhi. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(2) The theme of this year Congress is “Science 37. Which of the following statements are correct
and Technology for Human Development” regarding ordinance-issuing power of the
Codes: President?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (1) It can be issued under article 123 of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 constitution.
33. Which of the following statements are correct (2) It comes under legislative powers of the
regarding recommendations by Bezbaruah panel President.
on safety of North East people? (3) He can issue ordinances when at least one
(1) Any offence against North East people house of parliament is not in session.
should be made cognizable and non-bailable. (4) Every ordinance must be laid and approved
(2) The trial should be completed within 90 by both houses of the parliament within one
days. month from the reassembling.
G-6 || National
Codes: 42. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only matched?
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) All of these (1) Rajaram Sanjaya: A Mexican Scientist
38. Which of the following statements are correct? (2) Kanwaljit Singh A politician in New
(1) Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan is a campaign Bakhshi: Zealand
launched by Ministry of Human Resource (3) Kamlesh Lulla: A scientist in NASA
Development. (4) Mala Mehta: Founder of Indo-
(2) The campaign seeks to generate a spirit of Australian Bal
innovation and exploration amongst school Bharatiya Vidyalaya
children. Codes:
(3) Higher education institutions will be (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
encouraged to assist secondary and (c) 1 and 2 only (d) All of these
elementary schools in the study of Science 43. Which of the following statements are correct?
and Mathematics. (1) Pulicat Lake is second largest brackish water
Codes: lake in India
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (2) It is separated from Bay of Bengal by the
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these barrier island of Sriharikota.
39. Which of the following pairs are correct? (3) Recently, Flamingo Festival was held at
(1) World Hindi Day: 10 January Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary.
(2) Pravasi Bharatiya Divas: 7 January Codes:
(3) International Day of Yoga: 21 June (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Codes: (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 44. Which of the following statements are correct
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these regarding Film Certi¿cation Appellate Tribunal
40. Which of the following statements are correct? (FCAT)?
(1) Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated (1) It is located at Mumbai
Dandi Kutir in Ahmedabad. (2) It is a statutory body
(2) Dandi Kutir is the biggest permanent (3) It comes under the aegis of Ministry of
museum in the world based on life of one Information and Broadcasting
person. Codes:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of these
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 45. Which of the following pairs are correctly
41. Which of the following are the provisions of matched?
ordinance signed recently by the President, which Monument State
amends Citizenship Act, 1955? (1) Konark sun temple Odisha
(1) The ordinance merges Person of Indian (2) Hazarduari palace Jharkhand
Origin (PIO) and Overseas Citizenship of (3) Rang ghar Assam
India (OCI) schemes. (4) Vaishali-Kolhua West Bengal
(2) It will provide life-long Indian visa facility Codes:
to PIOs. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(3) It provides for relaxation of visa norms for (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 4 only
minor children of OCI cardholders. 46. Which of the following statements are correct?
Codes: (1) India’s ¿rst compressed natural gas (CNG)
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only powered train was Àagged off between
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these Vadodara and Ahmedabad.
(2) It is based on dual fuel system- electricity 51. Who has been appointed as the chairperson of
power and CNG. Central Board of Film Certi¿cation (CBFC)?
Codes: (a) Pahlaj Nihalani (b) Ashoke Pandit
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Mihir Bhuta (d) Ramesh Patange
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 52. On which of the following bills can President
47. Which of the following statements are correct summon the joint sitting of two Houses of
about Resident Identity Card (RIC) scheme? Parliament, in case of a deadlock?
(1) It will be implemented in coastal areas. (1) Ordinary Bill
(2) It is being implemented by the Of¿ce (2) Money Bill
of the Registrar General and Census (3) Constitution Amendment Bill
Commissioner. (4) Finance Bill
(3) These card readers will be issued to the Codes:
Navy and Coast Guard. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
Codes:: (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 53. India and the USA have recently signed
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these Memoranda of Understandings (MoUs)
48. The recent ordinance which amended the Land on smart cities for which of the following cities?
Acquisition Act 2013 has made exemptions for (1) Ajmer (2) Allahabad
(1) Urban infrastructure (3) Haridwar (4) Kota
(2) Affordable housing Codes:
(3) Special Economic Zones (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(4) Industrial corridor (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Codes: 54. Which of the following statements are correct
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only about Pancheshwar multi-purpose project?
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 4 only (1) It is largest dam in the world
49. Which of the following statements are correct (2) It is located on River Mahakali
about eminent political scientist and scholar (3) It is a joint project of India and Bhutan
Rajani Kothari? Codes:
(1) He was the member of Planning Commission. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(2) He was honoured with Right Livelihood (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Award. 55. Which of the following statements are correct
(3) He was nominated as Member of Rajya regarding Beti Bachao-Beti Padhao(BBBP)
Sabha during 1996-2002. campaign?
(4) He was the founder of Centre for the Study (1) Ministry of Women and Child Development
of Developing Societies (CSDS). is the nodal agency for the implementation
Codes: of the scheme.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (2) The scheme was launched from Panipat.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of these (3) It will be implemented in 100 districts of the
50. Which among the following states has recently country
signed a pact with the International Crop Research (4) Central government has provided initial
Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) to corpus of 100 crore rupees for it.
boost sustainable farming in the state? Codes:
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Rajasthan (d) Andhra Pradesh (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of these
G-8 || National
56. Shekhar Sen has been appointed as the new 61. Which of the following statements are correct?
chairman of (1) “Towards Zero Poaching in Asia”, a
(a) Sahitya Akademi symposium was held in Kathmandu, Nepal.
(b) Sangeet Natak Akademi (2) India is the only country to achieve zero
(c) Indian Academy of Sciences poaching among the tiger range countries in
(d) Lalit Kala Akademi Asia.
57. Arrange the following words in the way they Codes:
appear in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(1) Secular (2) Republic (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(3) Socialist (4) Sovereign 62. Which of the following statements are correct
(5) Democratic regarding international intellectual property (IP)
Codes: index-2015?
(a) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5 (1) It is released by Global Intellectual Property
(c) 1, 4, 3, 5, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 Centre (GIPC).
58. Which of the following statements are correct (2) The US has been placed at the top in the list.
regarding solar fenced elephant sanctuary to be (3) India has been ranked lowest among thirty
built by the People for the Ethical Treatment of countries.
Animals (PETA)? Codes:
(1) It will be India’s ¿rst solar fenced elephant (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
sanctuary (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
(2) It will be located in Bannerghatta Biological 63. Which of the following statements are correct
Park, Karnataka about Bharat Rang Mahotsav?
Codes: (1) It is an international theatre festival,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only organized by National School of Drama
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (NSD).
(2) This year was the 17th edition of the festival.
59. Which of the following pairs are correct?
(3) It is regarded as the largest theatre festival of
Tiger Reserve State
Asia.
(1) Kanha Tiger Reserve Madhya Pradesh
Codes:
(2) Palamau Tiger Reserve Jharkhand
(3) Bandipur Tiger Reserve Kerala
(c) 3 only (d) All of these
(4) Simlipal Tiger Reserve Odisha
Codes:
regarding Jackal Research & Translocation
Project launched in Uttar Pradesh?
(1) It has been launched by Wildlife SOS in
collaboration with Uttar Pradesh Forest
about Surajkund International Crafts Mela,
Department and Archaeological Survey of
Faridabad?
India (ASI).
(1) This year is the 29th edition of the fair.
(2) It aims to protect blackbuck population
(2) Jordan is the Partner Nation in the fair. along with jackal population in Akbar’s
(3) The theme state of this year is Chhattisgarh. tomb premises, Sikandra near Agra.
Codes: Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
65. Which of the following statements are correct? 69. Which of the following statements are correct
(1) According to recent published report of regarding Sustainable Livelihoods and Adaption
Forest Survey of India, West Bengal has to Climate change (SLACC) Project?
registered the highest increase in forest (1) It aims to improve adaptive capacity of the
cover. rural poor engaged in farm-based livelihoods
(2) Arunachal Pradesh has the largest forest (2) India has recently signed a loan grant
cover in India. agreement of US $8 million with the World
(3) More than 90% of total area of Mizoram is Bank for SLACC Project.
under forest cover. (3) NABARD is the implementing agency of
Codes: the project.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
66. Which of the following statements are correct (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
regarding World Press Freedom Index (WPFI) 70. Which of the following statements are correct
- 2015 released by France-based organization regarding Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana?
Reporters Without Borders (RWB)? (1) The scheme is fully funded by the central
(1) Finland has been ranked at top in the list. government.
(2) India improved its rank as compared to last (2) It is managed by the National Rural Roads
year. Development Agency.
Codes: (3) The villages under Saansad Adarsh Gram
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Yojana will get priority in the selection of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 roads for new connectivity.
(1) The National Deworming initiative was (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
launched by Union Ministry for Health & (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
Family Welfare. 71. Which of the following statements are correct
(2) First National Deworming Day was regarding Project 17A of the Indian government?
observed on 12th February 2015. (1) The project is aimed at building country’s
(3) Albendazole tablets are used against most advanced fighter planes
parasitic worm infestation. (2) Under the project, Advanced RADAR
Codes: system will be installed in order to counter
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only stealth technology during war or any other
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these such situation.
68. Which of the following statements are correct? (3) India has signed for joint programmes with
(1) The first Renewable Energy Global France and Russia to accomplish the project.
Investors Meet and Expo (Re-Invest) 2015 Codes:
has been launched in New Delhi. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(2) Renewable sources contribute around 6% in (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of these
the total power produced in India. 72. Which of the following statements are correct
(3) After hydro power, solar power is the major regarding Soil Health Card (SHC) scheme?
contributor in India’s renewable energy (1) The scheme aims to provide information to
production. the farmers about nutrients present in the
Codes: soil.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (2) It is sponsored jointly by centre and state in
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of these the ratio 75:25.
G-10 || National
(3) According to health card report, soil (2) The agreement has paved the way for
nutrients will be provided to the farmers free deeper negotiation and enhancing defence
of cost. cooperation.
Codes: Codes:
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of these (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
73. The Indian government in Union Budget 2014-15 78. What is the purpose of establishing Kaya Kulp
has proposed to open new AIIMS in which of the Council?
following states? (a) To give recommendations to improve the
(1) Kerala (2) Punjab Indian Railways
(3) Tamil Nadu (4) Assam (b) To give recommendations to improve Air
Codes: India
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) To give recommendations to improve to
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of these working of National Highway Authority of
74. Which of the following statements are correct? India
(1) Gujarat Forest Department has signed (d) To give recommendations to enhance the
a MoU with The Zoological Society of role of waterways in transportation
London (ZSL) for conservation of Asiatic 79. Which of the following statements are correct
lion and its habitat. regarding Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
(2) Asiatic lions are found only in Gir forest. (PMKVY)?
(3) They have been listed as endangered species (1) It has been launched by the Ministry of
by IUCN. Human Resource Development.
Codes: (2) The scheme will be implemented with an
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only outlay of 1, 500 crore rupees.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (3) Centre and state will contribute the funds in
75. Which of the following statements are correct? the ratio of 75:25.
(1) 3D printing makes products by layering Codes:
material until a three-dimensional object is (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
created. (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(2) World’s ¿rst 3D-printed jet engine has been 80. India is helping to develop some ports in other
created in Germany. countries. Which of the following such ports are
Codes: correctly matched with the country in which they
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only are located?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (1) Kankesanthurai Maldives
76. Which of the following pairs are correctly (2) Chabahar Iran
matched? (3) Sittwe Myanmar
(1) Meenakshi Temple Madurai Codes:
(2) Vishwanath Temple Varanasi (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(3) Pashupatinath Temple Cuttack (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Codes: 81. Which of the following agreements/
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) were
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these signed between India and Qatar in March 2015?
77. Which of the following statements are correct? (1) MoU in the ¿eld of Television and Radio
(1) India has recently signed an agreement on (2) MoU in the ¿eld of Information and
Mutual Protection of Classi¿ed Information Communication technology
with France. (3) MoU in the ¿eld of sports
Codes: Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
82. A panel under T.S.R Subamaniam has been set up 87. Which of the following are the components of
to review the eco laws. Which of the following scheme called “Enhancement of Competitiveness
laws are to reviewed? of the Capital Goods Sector” approved by CCEA?
(1) Environment Act, 1986 (Protection) (1) Creation of Advanced Centres of Excellence
(2) Wildlife Act, 1972 (Protection) for R&D and Technology Development
(3) National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 (2) creation of a Technology Acquisition Fund
(4) Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (3) Expansion of National Investment &
Codes: Manufacturing Zone (NIMZ)
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (4) Establishment of Machine Tool Parks
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1,2 and 4 only Codes:
83. KIRAN scheme is related to (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(a) Women Engineers (b) Women Doctors (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 4 only
(c) Women Scientists (d) Women teachers 88. Which of the following statements are correct
84. If one moves from East to West, in which order regarding Independent Commission on
would he ¿nd the below passes? Multilateralism (ICM)?
(1) Zoji La (2) Nathu La (1) Hardeep Singh Puri has been appointed as
(3) Bomdila (4) Dungri La the Secretary General of the commission.
Codes:: (2) The commission has been launched by
(a) 3, 2, 4, 1 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1 International Peace Institute (IPI).
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 1,3, 4, 2 (3) It is being funded by Norway and Canada
85. Which of the following statements are correct Codes:
about Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(1) Account holders will be provided zero- (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
balance bank account with RuPay debit card 89. Which of the following are the features of Deen
(2) An accidental insurance cover of Rs 1 lakh Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana?
will be provided to the account holders (1) The minimum age for entry in skill
(3) After six months of opening account, the development programme is 15 years.
person can apply for a loan of more than Rs (2) Private agencies will be promoted to impart
10000 skills to the rural youth
Codes: (3) Youth belonging to only Below the Poverty
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Line (BPL) households will be bene¿tted
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only under the scheme.
86. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Codes:
Corporate Social Responsibily (CSR) in India is/ (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
are correct? (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(1) CSR norms would be applicable on 90. Which of the following statements are correct
companies having at least Rs 5 crore net about “Make in India” campaign?
pro¿t or Rs. 500 crore net worth (1) All Central government services to be
(2) These corporates would need to spend 2% integrated with an e-Biz single window
of their 3-year average yearly net pro¿t on online portal
CSR activities (2) Expert group from DIPP and FICCI to be
(3) CSR activities also include safeguard of set up to propose reforms to the Centre and
national heritage, art and culture states.
G-12 || National
(3) States are recommended to initiate the self- (3) India is a signatory to the declaration adopted
certi¿cation by the UN General Assembly to reduce the
(4) Home Ministry to provide all security consumption of tobacco
clearances to investment proposals within 3 Codes:
months. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Codes: (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only 95. Which of the following statements are correct
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) All of these about "The Maithreyi International Visiting
91. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Professorship"?
National Career Service Portal is/are correct? (1) The programme has been launched by the
(1) It is to be launched by the Ministry of Ministry of Human Resource Development.
Human Resource Development (2) 12 leading international scholars in science
(2) An MoU has been signed with the UK to and technology will be invited to deliver
learn from a similar project launched by the talks in schools, colleges and reasearch
UK government. institutions.
Codes: Codes:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
92. A Person of Indian Origin (PIO) is a person
without an Indian passport and may fall under
matched?
which of the following categories?
(1) Chief of Indian Navy: RK Dhovan
(1) Any person who has at any time held an
(2) Natinal Security Adviser: Ajit Doval
Indian passport
(3) Defence Secretary : RK Mathur
(2) Any person whose parent(s) or
(4) Cabinet Secretary : Rajiv Mehrishi
grandparent(s) or great grandparents(s) was
born in India or was a permanent resident in Codes:
India . (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(3) Any person who is a spouse of a citizen of (c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above
India 97. Which of the following statements are correct
(4) Any person who is a spouse of a PIO who about Tithi Bhojan?
falls under category (1) or (2) (1) It has been introduced by Ministry of Human
Codes: Resource Development
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only (2) It is a part of Mid Day Meal Scheme
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) All of these (3) It seeks to involve the members of the
93. Which of the following are bird sanctuaries? community to provide nutritious food to the
(1) Sur Sarovar (Keetham) lake children
(2) Sultanpur (4) It was first successfully implemented in
(3) Periyar Madhya Pradesh
(4) Keoladeo National Park Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only 98. Which of the following statements are correct
94. Which of the following statements is/are correct? regarding Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana?
(1) India is the largest producer of tobacco (1) It encourages MPs to identify and develop
(2) India is the second largest consumer of one village from their respective constituency
tobacco as a model village by 2016.
(2) An MP cannot pick his/her own village or 102. Which of the following statements are correct
spouse’s village about Kalakshetra Foundation?
(3) It integrates with Bharat Nirman Yojana to (1) Kalakshetra was founded in 1936 by
provide basic facilities to all the inhabitants. Rukmini Devi Arundale
(4) The implementation will be ensured by web- (2) It is located in Chennai
based monitoring. (3) It is an ‘Institute of National Importance’.
Codes: (4) Y. S Rao has been appointed as the new
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only chairman of the foundation
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) All of the above Codes:
99. Which of the following International days (a) 1 and 2 ony (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
are correctly matched with the dates they are (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
obeserved on? 103. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(1) International day of the : 11 October matched?
Girl Child Tribe State
(2) International day of the : 15 October (1) Onges : Andaman & Nicobar
rural Women (2) Khasi : Assam
(3) World Environment Day : 5 June (3) Bakkarwal : Andhra Pradesh
(4) World No-Tobacco Day : 31 July
(4) Ho : Jharkhand
Codes:
Codes:
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
regarding new counter-Naxal doctrine?
Ashtamudi lake are correct?
(1) The state police will be in lead but central
(1) It’s Clam governing council is the first
paramilitary forces will help them
(2) There will be an oversight committee at fishery Certified in India by the Marine
national level headed by the Prime Minister Stewardship Council
(3) It seeks to encourage police/CPMFs to (2) It is the largest estuarine system in Kerala
recruit local tribal youth (3) It is among the sites in Ramsar Wetland of
Codes: International importance.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
101. Which of the following statements regarding (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these
India Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) are 105. Which of the folloiwing statements regarding
correct? Bureau of Energy Ef¿ciency (BEE) are correct?
(1) It was founded in 1950. (1) It is an agency of Government of India
(2) Presently, Lokesh Chandra is the chairman working under the Ministry of Environment
of ICCR. and Forests
(3) The chairman of ICCR is appointed by the (2) It was formed in the year 2002
Prime Minister (3) The primary objective of the agency is to
(4) ICCR develops relations with national and reduce energy intensity in the economy.
international organizations in the field of (4) Presently, Ajay Mathur is the chairperson of
culture the agency
Codes: Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 ony (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these
G-14 || National
106. Which of the following states have female sex (1) Sailana Kharmor : Madhya Pradesh
ratio more than 1000 per 1000 males? Sanctuary
(1) Kerala (2) Tamil Nadu (2) Tillangchong : Mizoram
(3) Pudducherry (4) Meghalaya Sanctuary
Codes: (3) Dihaila Jheel : Chandigarh
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (4) Ranebennur Black : Karnataka
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only buck Sancruary
(1) The Palk strait connects the Bay of Bengal (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
with the Palk Bay.
(2) Adam’s bridge is a chain of low islands and
reef shoals
Codes: matched?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (1) Irrfan Khan : UN Women’s Goodwill
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 Ambassador for South Asia
108. Which of the following are among the themes of (2) Aamir Khan : UNICEF Goodwill Ambassador
nationwide Bal Swachhta Mission? for South-East Asia
(1) Clean Anganwadis (3) Sachin : UNEP Goodwill Ambassador
(2) Clean Toilets Tendulkar for India
(3) Clean drinking water Codes:
(4) Clean food (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Codes: (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only 113. Which of the following were included in ‘good’
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) All of these category in the latest assessment of International
109. According to Union Finance Ministry, which of Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)?
the following states/UTs have achieved 100% (1) Keoladeo National Park
¿nancial inclusion under Jan Dhan Yojana? (2) Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National
(1) Kerala (2) Punjab Park
(3) Chandigarh (4) Daman & Diu (3) Great Himalayan National Park
(5) Lakshadweep (6) Goa
Codes:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 3 only (d) None of these
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 4, 5 and 6 only
110. Which of the following statements are correct? 114. Which of the following measures are announced
(1) “Jeevan Praman” is a self certification and a by the Government of India for Paci¿c island
“Digital Life Certificate” for pensioners. nations?
(2) Aadhar card is essential to avail this benefit (1) Visa on Arrival (VoA) for all 14 Pacific
(3) The facility is to be operated under the island nations.
National e-Governance Plan. (2) Special Adaptation Fund of 1 million US
Codes: dollars for Climate change.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (3) Pan Pacific Islands Project for telemedicine
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these and tele-education to be formulated.
111. Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) has (4) Negotiation for Free Trade Agreement to be
put ten bird sanctuary “in seriously danger” accelerated.
category. Some of them have been mentioned Codes:
below with their respective states/UTs. Which of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
the following pairs are correctly matched? (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

about Verghese Kurien? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(1) He is known as “the Father of the Green (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of these
Revolution”. 119. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(2) He was the founder of Amul brand of dairy matched?
products.
(1) Guru Ghasidas National : Rajasthan
(3) He was the recipient of Ramon Magsaysay
Award. Park
Codes: (2) Bandhavgarh tiger : Madhya Pradesh
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only reserve
(c) 1 only (d) All of these (3) Bandipur tiger reserve : Karnataka
116. According to Delhi Special Police Establishment (4) Dampa tiger reserve : Mizoram
(Amendment) Bill, 2014; passed in the Lok Codes:
Sabha, the committee to appoint the Director of (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
Central Bureau of Investigation would include (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(1) Prime Minister 120. Which of the following statements regarding
(2) Home Minister
Union Public Service Commission are correct?
(3) Law Minister
(4) Chief Justice of India or a supreme court (1) It is a statutory body
judge nominated by him (2) Rajni Razdan is the present chairman of the
(5) Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha or UPSC.
Leader of the single largest opposition party (3) The chairman and members of the UPSC are
(in case there is no Leader of Opposition) appointed by the parliament.
Codes: Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 4 and 5 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of these (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of these
117. Which of the following statements are correct? 121. What is the full form of ICANN?
(1) India and Nepal has signed an agreement to
(a) Internet Corporation for Authorized Names
construct hydropower plant on Arun River
which flows through Nepal and India. and Numbers
(2) Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam will construct this (b) Internet Council for Authorized Names and
mega power plant Numbers
(3) 22 per cent of the power generated from the (c) Internet Corporation for Assigned Names
plant could be used by Nepal free of cost. and Numbers
Codes: (d) Internet Council for Assigned Names and
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Numbers
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of these 122. Recently, Lok Sabha has passed School of
Planning & Architecture Bill, 2014. School of
regarding Information Management and Analysis
Planning & Architecture (SPA) are located at
Centre (IMAC)?
(1) It is located in Pune which places?
(2) It will function under the DRDO. (1) Bhopal (2) Delhi
(3) It is a joint initiative of Indian Navy, Coast (3) Allahabad (4) Vijayawada
Guard and Bharat Electronics Ltd Codes:
(4) The main focus is to provide coastal security (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
to check terrorist activities through sea. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of these
G-16 || National
123. Which of the following pairs are correctly Codes:
matched? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Fair/Festival State (c) 2 and 4 only (d) All of these
(1) Baneshhwar Fair Rajasthan 129. Which of the following pairs are correct matched?
(2) Hornbill Festival Nagaland Adventure Sport/ State
(3) Thrissur Pooram Tamil Nadu martial arts
Codes: (1) Dahi Handi : Madhya Pradesh
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (2) Gatka : Punjab
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (3) Kalaripayattu : Kerala
124. Who among the following are the members of the (4) Varma Kalai : Tamil Nadu
National Development Council (NDC)? Codes:
(1) Prime Minister (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(2) Home Minister (c) 1 and 4 only (d) All of these
(3) Finance Minister 130. Which of the following statements are correct
(4) Attorney General of India regarding Lok Adalats?
(5) Chief Ministers of all states (1) The first National Lok Adalat was held in
Codes: 1982.
(2) The decision of the Lok Adalat is binding on
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
the parties to the dispute.
(3) Its decision cannot be challenged in any
125. Dineshwar Sharma has been named as the new
other court.
chief of
Codes:
(a) National Investigating Agency (NIA)
(b) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
(c) Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW) 131. Which of the following statements are correct
(d) Intelligence Bureau (IB) about Jayant Vishnu Narlikar?
126. Tiladhak University (an ancient university), (1) He is a prominent writer of Hindi literature
located in Bihar, was established during the rule world.
of which dyansty? (2) He has been chosen for Sahitya Akademy
(a) Mauryan dyansty (b) Gupta dyansty Award- 2014.
(c) Kushan dyansty (d) Pala dyansty Codes:
127. Which of the following pairs are correctly (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
matched? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(1) Sambhar Lake : Rajasthan 132. Which of the following are the features of
(2) Sepahijala Sanctuary : Tripura “Protection and Preservation of Endangered
(3) Kaziranga Sanctuary : Assam Languages of India” scheme initiated by the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only central government?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (1) The languages of India spoken by less
128. Which of the following statements are correct than 10,000 people will be considered as
regarding Sunderbans? endangered languages
(1) It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. (2) All endangered languages will be protected,
(2) Major portion of Sunderbans is located in preserved and documented by the Central
India. Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL),
(3) The largest delta of the world is in Chennai.
Sunderbans. (3) Digital map will be prepared for all the
(4) Sunderbans are well known for their words, their pronounciation and basic
Mangrove forests. grammer of the endangered languages.
Codes: (1) He was the founder of Banaras Hindu

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only University (BHU) at Varanasi, which was
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these established in 1912.
133. Which of the following statements are correct (2) He was the founder member of Congress
regarding Central Vigilance Commission CV(c)? Nationalist Party.
(1) Central Vigilance Commission is a statutory (3) He started Sanatana Dharma, a magazine
body. dedicated to religious, dharmic interests.
(2) It has the powers to exercise superintendence Codes:
over functioning of the Delhi Special Police (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
Establishment. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
(3) The Central Vigilance Commissioner and 138. Which of the following statements are correct?
the Vigilance Commissioners are appointed (1) Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is scheduled to be
by the Parliament. held from 7-9 January, 2015 in Gujarat.
Codes: (2) It will be 6th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (3) The youth segment of the ocassion will have
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these the theme Bharat ko Jano and Bharat ko
134. Which of the following statements are correct Mano
regarding Maritime Silk Road initiative?
Codes:
(1) It is an initiative of Chinese government.
(2) The latest country to join the project is
Maldives.
Codes:
(1) Generally, 2.1 children per woman is
considered to be the Replacement level
fertility.
about Sukhna Lake? (2) According to Sample Registration Survey
(1) It is a natural lake at the foothills of the by Registrar General of India, Kerala has
Shivalik hills. India’s lowest fertility.
(2) The lake has been listed under the Ramsar (3) In India, only nine states have not reached
wetland sites replacements levels.
Codes: (4) Infant Mortality Rate in India has been
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only estimated as 40 deaths under the age of 5
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 years per 1000 live births.
136. Who among the following personalities have Codes:
been chosen as new brand ambassadors of ‘Clean (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
India’ campaign by the Prime Minister Narendra (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
Modi recently? 140. Which of the following pairs are correct?
(1) Sourav Ganguly (2) Harbhajan Singh (1) Mission Indradhanush : Ministry of tourism
(3) Kapil Sharma (4) Kiran Bedi and culture
Codes: (2) Van bandhu kalyan : Ministry of Tribal
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only yojna Affairs
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only (3) Pradhan mantri jan : Ministry of Rural
137. Which of the following statements are correct dhan yojana Development
regarding Madan Mohan Malaviya, who was Codes:
named for Bharat Ratna posthumously in (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
December 2014? (c) 2 only (d) All of these
G-18 || National
(1) Garuda is a bilateral exercise between Indian (1) There are 32 World Heritage Sites in India
and French armies. that are recognized by UNESCO
(2) Fifth bilateral exercise held this year. (2) The latest site to be added was Great
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? Himalyan National Park
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (3) The earliest sites added from India were
(c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None Mahibalipuram and Khajuraho temples.
142. Consider the following statements: Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) Telangana has become the India’s 29th state (a) 1 and 2 Only (b) 1 and 3 Only
(2) A bill has to be passed in the Parliament by (c) 2 and 3 Only (d) 1, 2 and 3
two-third majority for the creation of a new 147. Which of the following are objectives of Project
state. Mausam launched by Ministry of Culture?
(3) There is no need for the approval of the state (1) to increase interaction among diverse culture
whose boundaries are being demarcated. of India
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (2) to conserve the minority culture
(a) 1 and 2 Only (b) 1 and 3 Only Choose the correct codes:
(c) 2 and 3 Only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None
(1) There is no Leader of opposition in current
(1) Bor Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the
Lok Sabha.
state of Maharashtra
(2) The Leader of opposition is chosen from the
(2) It will become the 47th Tiger Reserve in
oppsition which has the highest number of
India
representatives in the house.
Which of the above statement/s are correct?
(3) The largest opposition party should have (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
atleast 10% seats in the house to nominate a (c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None
leader of opposition. 149. The new fastest train in India traveled for ¿rst
Which of the above statements are correct? time between which stations?
(a) 1 and 2 Only (b) 1 and 3 Only (a) Delhi-Agra
(c) 2 and 3 Only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Delhi-Kota
144. Diamond Quadrilateral Project is a project: (c) Mumbai-Ahmedabad
(a) of high speed trains linking four main (d) Bangalore-Chennai
metros. 150. Indian government has recently announced
(b) of development of national highways linking addition of some new vaccines in its Universal
four main metros. Immunization Programme (UIP). The vaccines
(c) to improve airways connectivity among all are against which of the following diseases?
the domestic airports. (1) Rotavirus (2) Rubella
(d) to launch new waterways. (3) Malaria (4) Dengue
145. Consider the following statements: Choose the correct code from the options given
(1) Mukul Rohatgi is attorney General of India below:
(2) Attorney General is appointed by the (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
President (c) 3 and 4 only (d) all of these
(3) He could be removed in the same manner as 151. Which of the following statement(s) regarding
a judge of the supreme court. report released by Union Ministry of Environment
Which of the above statements are correct? and Forest is correct?
(a) 1 and 2 Only (b) 1 and 3 Only (1) 21.23% of the total geographical area of the
(c) 2 and 3 Only (d) 1, 2 and 3 country is under forest and tree cover.
(2) The maximum percentage of increase in (1) Percentage of Public Funds in health sector
Mangrove forest is seen in Gujarat since is more than 50%.
2011. (2) Uttar Pradesh reported the maximum
(3) The maximum increase in forest cover is in number of foeticide and infanticide cases.
West Bengal since 2011. Choose the correct code from the options given
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
below: (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 both (d) None
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 156. Which of the following statements regarding
152. Who among the following has been recently proposed ‘Mahila Suraksha Dal’ is/are correct?
sworn in as the judges of the Supreme Court? (1) It will be established in Delhi for the safety
of women at public places
(1) Arun Kumar Mishra
(2) It will comprise of retired army personnel,
(2) Gyan Sudha Misra
representatives from the local community
(3) Adarsh Kumar Goel
and local NGO representatives
(4) Rohinton Nariman Choose the correct code from the options given
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
below: (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 2 both (d) None
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 157. According to Red data list 2013, which of the
153. A new 24×7 channel called Arun Prabha is following bird species reported from India is
proposed to be started which would act as a critically endangered?
platform? (1) Great Indian Bustard
(a) for culture of tribal people all over India. (2) Bengal Florican
(b) for cultural and linguistic identity of the (3) Indian Vulture
North-East. (4) Pink-headed Duck
(c) to showcase success of the Indians all over (5) Asian Koel
the world. Choose the correct code from the options given
(d) for all art forms related to Indian culture. below:
154. Which of the following recommendation in (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3,4 and 5
Juvenile Justice Bill, 2014 were not present in (c) 1, 2 and 5 (d) 2,3 and 4
the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) 158. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
Act, 2002? correct?
(1) It incorporates the principles of the Hague (1) K.N Tripathi took oath as the Governor of
convention on protection of children, 1993 Punjab
(2) The President administer oath to the
(2) The word ‘juvenile’ has been replaced by
Governor
the word ‘child’
Choose the correct option from codes given
(3) Central Adoption Resource Authority
below:
(CARA) has been made a statutory body (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
Choose the correct code from the options given (c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None
below: 159. Which of the following are the recommedations
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only of the Law Commision headed by Justice A.P.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Shah?
155. Which of the following statement(s) is/are (1) To introduce “cooling off” period for retired
regarding the Ninth Edition of the National judges before they accept the position
Health Profile, 2013 are correct? offered by the government.
G-20 || National
(2) To fix the same retirement age of 65 years Expenditure management Commission
for the judges of Supreme court and the (EMC).
High courts 2. Haryana government has decided to
(3) To fix the tenure of the Chief Justice of India constitute Mahila Suraksha Dals to ensure
to minimum two years safety of women.
Choose the correct option from the codes given Choose the correct option:
below: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these 164. Consider the following statements given below
160. Which of the following are the features of Judicial and Choose the statement (s) which is/are correct?
Appointments Commission (JAC) Bill? 1. Renuka Dam Project in Himachal Pradesh
(1) JAC will recommend for the appointment will bring 275 million Gallons water a day
of the Supreme Court judges and the High
to Delhi.
Court judges.
2. Adani group bought Lanco Power Unit for
(2) JAC will recommend the transfer of the
`8000 crores.
judges of the High courts.
(3) It will set criteria for the appointment of Choose the correct option:
lower court judges. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Choose the correct option from the codes given (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
below: 165. Consider the following statements given below
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only and choose the correct option
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these 1. In Collegium system the CJI recommends
161. Consider the following statements given below the names of the Supreme court Judges after
and select the statement (s), which is/are correct? consulting apex courts and also have powers
1. The Union Cabinet allowed 59 percent FDI to transfer judges.
in Railways, apart from raising the FDI cap 2. The Judicial appointment commission will
in Defence from 26 to 51 percent. record names for the CJI, Supreme court
2. The amendments proposed to the Juvenile Judges, High court chief justice and judges
Justice Act will allow the Juvenile Justice and also have powers to transfer judges.
Board to decide whether those in the age Choose the appropriate option:
group of 16 to 18 can be tried as adults in (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
case of heinous crimes. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the appropriate option: 166. Consider the following statements given below
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only and select which is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None 1. Salman Khan has become the ¿rst Indian
162. Consider the following statements given below, to become the brand ambassador of the
and choose the Statement (s) which is/are correct? International Criminal Police Organization
1. National development and reform (INTERPOL).
commission is an institution modelled on 2. Interpol has signed Salman Khan as the
the Lines of Planning commission of Nepal. ambassador for its global “Turn Back
2. Planning commission has been replaced Crime” campaign.
with National development and Reform Choose the appropriate option:
commission which will be more promising. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Choose the appropriate option: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 167. Who among the following has been appointed as
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Neither 1 nor 2 the new chief of Joint Intelligence Committee?
163. Consider the following statements given below (a) Ramesh Chand Tayal
and Choose the statement (s) which is/are correct? (b) RN Ravi
1. The NDA is set to appoint Bimal Jalan (c) K V Thomas
(former RBI Governor) as the Head of (d) None of these
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 21 (b) 41 (d) 61 (a) 81 (a) 101 (b) 121 (c) 141 (b) 161 (b)
2 (d) 22 (b) 42 (d) 62 (c) 82 (a) 102 (c) 122 (c) 142 (b) 162 (b)
3 (a) 23 (c) 43 (d) 63 (d) 83 (c) 103 (d) 123 (a) 143 (d) 163 (a)
4 (c) 24 (c) 44 (c) 64 (c) 84 (a) 104 (c) 124 (b) 144 (a) 164 (a)
5 (c) 25 (c) 45 (a) 65 (b) 85 (a) 105 (b) 125 (d) 145 (a) 165 (c)
6 (b) 26 (d) 46 (d) 66 (c) 86 (d) 106 (a) 126 (c) 146 (a) 166 (d)
7 (d) 27 (d) 47 (d) 67 (b) 87 (c) 107 (c) 127 (d) 147 (d) 167 (b)
8 (a) 28 (c) 48 (d) 68 (c) 88 (d) 108 (d) 128 (b) 148 (c)
9 (b) 29 (d) 49 (b) 69 (a) 89 (a) 109 (b) 129 (b) 149 (a)
10 (b) 30 (d) 50 (d) 70 (d) 90 (d) 110 (d) 130 (c) 150 (b)
11 (b) 31 (a) 51 (a) 71 (d) 91 (a) 111 (d) 131 (b) 151 (c)
12 (c) 32 (b) 52 (b) 72 (b) 92 (d) 112 (d) 132 (b) 152 (c)
13 (c) 33 (d) 53 (a) 73 (b) 93 (d) 113 (d) 133 (a) 153 (b)
14 (a) 34 (c) 54 (b) 74 (d) 94 (c) 114 (c) 134 (c) 154 (d)
15 (a) 35 (c) 55 (d) 75 (a) 95 (b) 115 (b) 135 (d) 155 (d)
16 (a) 36 (d) 56 (b) 76 (d) 96 (b) 116 (b) 136 (d) 156 (c)
17 (c) 37 (a) 57 (a) 77 (b) 97 (c) 117 (c) 137 (c) 157 (a)
18 (c) 38 (d) 58 (c) 78 (a) 98 (a) 118 (b) 138 (b) 158 (a)
19 (b) 39 (b) 59 (b) 79 (b) 99 (b) 119 (d) 139 (b) 159 (d)
20 (c) 40 (b) 60 (b) 80 (d) 100 (b) 120 (d) 140 (c) 160 (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) The 17 MFPs will be spread across 11 Partnership (PPP) Cell in the Railway Board with
States. While Kerala, Telangana, Haryana, Punjab, former IAS officer Ajay Shankar as its head.
Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu were sanctioned 5. (c) PRAGATI is a multi-purpose and multi-modal
two MFPs each whereas Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, platform aimed at addressing grievances of common
Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Bihar were sanctioned man. It also aims at simultaneously monitoring
one MFP each. The Scheme was launched in 2008 and reviewing important Union government
by UPA Government. Its focus is to overcome the programmes and projects as well as projects flagged
bottlenecks in the food supply chain due to which by State Governments.
around 33 percent food is wasted in India making it 6. (b) Union Government has launched a new digital
the largest food waster in the world. platform ‘Twitter Samvad’ in association with
3. (a) Two ISVs were built by Rodman Spain and social networking giant Twitter (Chief Executive
the third vessel was built by the Abu Dhabi Ship is Dick Costolo). The service aims to boost the
Builders (ADSB). nation’s e-governance plans and facilitate direct
4. (c) Union Ministry of Railways has constituted communication between leaders, government
a Committee to review the existing Public Private agencies and citizens.
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7. (d) Supreme Court held that Human Resources Development (HRD) in New
Section 66 A is unconstitutional because it Delhi.
failed two major tests, the clear and present 17. (c) Union Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport
danger test and the tendency to create public & Highways on 3 March 2015 launched a website
disorder test. Shipping Samvad to invite innovative ideas and
Language used in this section is vague and suggestions from general public and experts related
nebulous does not properly define words like to Indian maritime sector for improvement in the
offensive or even persistent. ports, shipping and inland waterways sector.
8. (a) Out of these 17 food parks, 7 parks have been 18. (c) NBT established in 1957 under Union Ministry
allotted to state agencies whereas 10 to private of HRD (then Union Ministry of Education).
players in 11 states. 19. (b) A historic bronze statue of Father of the Nation
9. (b) Union Ministry of Railways has constituted
Mahatma Gandhi was unveiled at the Parliament
‘Kaya kulp’ Council, an innovation council for
Square in London.
Indian Railways. Purpose of the Council. To
20. (c) The North-South Rail link was completely
recommend innovative methods and processes for
destroyed by the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
the improvement, betterment and transformation of
the Indian Railways. (LTTE) militants during the civil war in 1980s.
10. (b) Supreme Court (SC) has rejected the 21. (b) Kolkata has become India’s first Wi-Fi-
notification issued by Union Government to include enabled metro city as the service was launched from
Jats in the Central list of Other Backward Classes Park Street in city.
(OBC) for the benefit of reservation. 23. (c) The prize is founded and financed by
11. (b) Union Government has selected legendary Stockholm Water Foundation and administered
boxer and five-time world boxing champion MC by the Stockholm International Water Institute
Mary Kom as Brand Ambassador for the North East (SIWI). It recognizes persons for their outstanding
Region. achievements in conservation and protection
12. (c) The scheme will provide consumers with an of the world’s water resources and presented
online facility to redress their complaints related annually. Rajendra Singh is fourth Indian to win the
to over-pricing of medicines, non-availability of prestigious global award.
medicines and refusal of supply for sale of any 24. (c) By merging GIM with MGNREGA Scheme
medicine without good and sufficient reason. government seeks to increase 10 million hectares of
13. (c) This judgment was given by two member SC forest cover.
bench comprising of Justices SJ Mukhopadhaya and 25. (c) In the budget, government had allotted `100
NV Ramana. crore for issuing cards under the scheme
14. (a) Attorney General is not merely a lawyer for Key facts of Soil Health Card (SHC) scheme
the government, but is a constitutional authority. SHC is centrally-sponsored nationwide scheme
This is because functions performed by the AG
which aims to help farmers to improve the
under Article 76 (2) of the Constitution of India are
productivity of farms by providing them basic
in the nature of public functions. So the office of
information for use of nutrients or fertilizers.
Attorney General is a public authority and comes
The card carries crop-wise recommendation of
under the ambit of section 2(h) of the RTI Act.
15. (a) The 5 sick PSU that will be closed include fertilisers that are required for farm lands.
HMT and its three units, Hindustan Shipyard. It also helps farmers identify health of soil and
Government also has declared Air India and MTNL judiciously use soil nutrients.
as sick PSU units as per the criteria after they have Under this scheme Centre plans to target over
incurred losses worth 50 per cent or more of their 14 crore farmers in the next three years. In
average net worth during past four years. financial year 2014-15, around 3 crore farmers
16. (a) It was unveiled by the Department of School will be covered to check the excess use of
Education and Literacy in the Union Ministry of fertilisers.
26. (d) PM Narendra Modi launched the ambitious schools in the study of Science and Mathematics
‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana’ which aims to and to create awareness among the students in
achieve comprehensive financial inclusion. Mr. Science and Mathematics.
Modi had announced this scheme on his maiden 39. (b) Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated in India
Independence Day speech on August 15, 2014. On on 9 January each year to mark the contribution of
the very first day, a record 1.5 Crore (15 million) the overseas Indian community to the development
bank accounts were opened under this scheme. of India.
27. (d) While delivering his maiden Independence Day 40. (b) Dandi Kutir museum was inaugurated in
speech Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced Gandhinagar.
a scheme on behalf of the Member of Parliament- 41. (d) The ordinance gives better visa facilities
‘Sansad Aadarsh Gram Yojana’ calling upon the to Person of Indian Origin (PIO) and Overseas
Members of Parliament (MPs) to select any one of Citizenship of India (OCI) schemes.
the villages having population of 3 to 5 thousand 42. (d) All these personalities were honoured with
in their constituency. They must fix parameters Pravasi Bharatiya Samman 2015.
according to the time, space and situation of that 43. (d) Flamingo Festival began at Lake Pulicat in
locality. It will include the conditions of health, Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary located at Nellore district
cleanliness, atmosphere, greenery, cordiality etc. of Andhra Pradesh.
28. (c) The scheme aims at making girls independent 44. (c) FCAT is located at New Delhi
socially as well as financially through education. 45. (a) Hazarduari palace is located at West Bengal
This approach of the Government can facilitate in
and Vaishali-Kolhua in Bihar. All these monuments
generating awareness and improving the efficiency
have been coveted with Adarsh Monument tag
of delivery of welfare services meant for the women.
recently by the Archaeological Survey of India
29. (d) Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958
(ASI).
is not extended to Sikkim. Recently, AFSPA is
46. (d) India’s ¿rst CNG powered train ran between
extended for one more year in Assam.
Rewari and Rohtak and it will be based on dual fuel
30. (d) NJAC Bill, 2014 seeks to scrap the collegium
system- diesel and CNG.
system of appointing judges to higher judiciary.
31. (a) Shailesh Nayak has succeeded K 47. (d) The scheme aims to strengthen coastal security
Radhakrishnan to become the new Chairman of measures in 9 states and 4 Union Territories which
ISRO. have a sea-line running along their borders. It is
32. (b) Indian Science Congress 2015 was inaugrated being implemented under the aegis of Union Home
in Mumbai on January 3. Ministry.
33. (d) The committee has recommended immediate, 48. (d) The ordinance has made exemptions for
short term and long term measures to be implemented defence, rural infrastructure, affordable housing and
in certain time period to prevent discrimination industrial corridor.
against people of eight North-Eastern states. 49. (b) He was never nominated as Member of Rajya
34. (c) Digital Village Project was launched by ICICI Sabha.
bank in Akodara Village of Gujarat in the presence 50. (d) ICRISAT will assist Andhra Pradesh in making
of Prime Minister Narendra Modi. agriculture sustainable and pro¿table by increasing
35. (c) He was honoured with Padma Shree and productivity of agriculture and allied sectors.
Padma Bhushan Awards. 51. (a) Pahlaj Nihalani has been appointed as the
36. (d) Governor’s Rule has been imposed in Jammu chairperson of Central Board of Film Certi¿cation
and Kashmir under Section 92 of J&K Constitution. (CBFC).
37. (a) Every ordinance must be laid and approved by 52. (b) Rajya Sabha has limited power in case of
both houses of the parliament within six weeks from money bill. Constitution Amendment Bill should be
the reassembling. passed by both the Houses separately.
38. (d) The campaign will encourage higher education 53. (a) Memorandam of Understandings were signed
institutions to assist secondary and elementary on Ajmer, Allahabad and Vishakhapatnam.
G-24 || National
54. (b) The project has been started by India and 72. (b) The scheme is fully sponsored by the central
Nepal. It be the second largest dam in the world government. The scheme plans to target 14 crore
with a capacity of 6720 MW power generation. farmers in next three years.
55. (d) The scheme aims to spread awareness about 73. (b) The budget has proposed to open few new
the declining trend of Child Sex Ratio in the country. AIIMS in Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Tamil
56. (b) Eminent singer and theatre artist Shekhar Sen Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Bihar and Assam.
has been appointed as the new chairman of Sangeet
74. (d) Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary in
Natak Akademi.
Western Gujarat is the only habitat for the Asiatic
57. (a) The words Secular and Socialist were added
through 42nd Amendment Act in 1976. Recently, lion. ZSL will provide technical assistance to forest
question on their addition in the preamble created department in handling rescue operations and
controversy in the political sphere. treatment centres.
58. (c) The fenced sanctuary will allow elephants to 75. (a) Australian researchers have created the world’s
move around freely within the secure area. ¿rst 3D-printed jet engine. Australia is the world
59. (b) The Supreme Court has ordered to continue leader in using 3D printing for manufacturing.
to close the roads through Bandipur Tiger Reserve, 76. (d) Pashupatinath Temple is located at Kathmandu.
Karnataka during night. Kathmandu-Varanasi bus has been started to
60. (b) Lebanon is the Partner Nation of this year’s promote tourism between the two cities, which will
fair. connect Pashupatinath temple to Kashi Vishwanath
61. (a) Nepal is the only country to achieve zero temple.
poaching with no tiger killed in last three years. 77. (b) The agreement has been signed with Spain. It
62. (c) India was ranked second last and Thailand last
will deepen the defence cooperation between the
in the list.
two nations.
63. (d) The 17th edition of Bharat Rang Mahotsavwas
inaugurated by Culture Minister Dr Mahesh Sharma 78. (a) Kaya Kulp Council is an innovation council
and actor Om Puri. constituted by the Ministry of Railways to
64. (c) The project seeks to check the dwindling recommend ways to improve and transform the
population of jackals and blackbuck in Akbar’s Indian Railways. The council will be headed by
tomb premises. Ratan Tata.
65. (b) Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in 79. (b) The scheme will be implemented by the
India followed by Arunachal Pradesh. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
66. (c) India improved its rank from 140th in 2014 to with 100% contribution by the central government.
136th this year, but absolute score has declined from 80. (d) Kankesanthurai port in Sri Lanka is the nearest
40.34 to 40.49. port for all eastern ports in India. Prime Minister
67. (b) First National Deworming Day was observed of India, in his recent visit to Sri Lanka, re-assured
on 10th February 2015. India’s commitment to help to re-develop the port.
68. (c) Solar power is the second major contributor in
It was closed during the war in Sri Lanka.
India’s renewable energy production.
81. (a) The agreements were signed for exchange
69. (a) National Rural Livelihoods Mission is the
implementing agency of SLACC. of English-language news, TV and radio, ICT,
70. (d) The union government has recently revised diplomatic institutions, scienti¿c collaboration in
the guidelines for the scheme. It accord priority in earth sciences and oceanography and transfer of
the selection of roads for new connectivity to those sentenced prisoners.
villages which are being developed under Saansad 82. (a) The laws to be reviewed are Environment
Adarsh Gram Yojana. Protection Act of 1986, Forest Conservation Act of
71. (d) Under Project 17A, seven advance warships 1980, Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, the Water
will be built indigenously with stealth features. This (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1974
will help India to combat the rise of Chinese Navy and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
in Indian Ocean. Act of 1981.
83. (c) KIRAN (Knowledge and Involvement in 100. (b) The oversight committee at national level will
Research Achievement through Nurturing)is a be headed by the Home Minister
scheme that would allow Public Sector institutions 101. (b) The chairman of ICCR is appointed by the
to make alternate offers to women scientists who President.
have/had a break in their career or change in their 102. (c) N.Gopalaswami has been named as the
residence. Chairman of the governing board of the Kalakshetra
84. (a) Bomdila is in Arunachal Pradesh, Nathula Foundation. Y. S Rao is the chairman of Indian
in Sikkim, Dungri La in Uttrakhand and Zoji La Council of Historical Research (ICHR).
in Ladakh. Nathu La has been in news recently as 103. (d) Bakkarwal is a tribe which lives in hilly
Prime Minister approved China’s proposal for an regions of Jammu & Kashmir
alternative route to Kailash Mansarovar via Nathu 104. (c) Ashtamudi is the second largest estuarine
La. system after Vembad in Kerala
85. (a) After six months of opening account, the 105. (b) Agency is an autonomous body under the
person can avail a loan of Rs. 5000. Ministry of Power.
86. (d) Government has noti¿ed certain amendments 106. (a) Tamil Nadu and Meghalaya have sex ratio less
in CSR spending norms which include all the above than 1000 females to 1000 males.
108. (c) The Palk strait is a strait between Tamil Nadu
provisions.
and Mannar state (Srilanka).
87. (c) Expansion of National Investment &
108. (d) Bal Swachhta Mission has been launched with
Manufacturing Zone (NIMZ) is not a component of
above theme along with clean surrounding and
the scheme.
clean self (personal hygiene). Bal Swachhta Week is
88. (d) The commission is being funded by Norway
being observed from 14 November to 19 November
and Canada and Kevin Rudd (Former Australian
2014.
Prime Minister) will be the ¿rst chairman. 109. (b) The Ministry has declared that Goa, Kerala,
89. (a) The scheme is not limited to the youth of BPL Chandigarh, Puducherry and Lakshadweep have
households. became the states/UTs to achieve 100% ¿nacial
90. (d) Make in India campaign focus to make inclusion.
investments hassle-free and reduce time in giving 110. (d) Jeevan Praman is a Aadhar-based Digital Life
clearance to various projects. Certi¿cate for pensioners. From now, the pensioners
91. (a) The portal will be launched by the Labour will not have to submit a Physical Life Certi¿cate
Ministry. each year.
92. (d) According to the noti¿cation of the Union 111. (d) Tillangchong Sanctuary and Dihaila Jheel are
Government, the people falling under all these located in Andaman & Nicobar islands and Madhya
categories are regarded as PIOs. Pradesh respectively.
93. (d) Periyar is a tiger reserve. Sur Sarovar was 112. (d) Recently, Farhan Akhtar has been named as
recently in news due a case in National Green UN Women’s Goodwill Ambassador for South Asia.
Tribunal. 113. (d) All these sites were assessed as ‘good with
94. (c) India is the second largest producer of tobacco some concerns’.
95. (b) The programme has been launched by the 114. (c) Free Trade Agreement with the Paci¿c Island
Ministry of Science and Technology countries was not a part agenda of Indian Prime
96. (b) Rajiv Mehrishi has been recently appointed Minister’s recent visit to Fiji.
as Secretary to Department of Economic Affairs in 115. (b) Verghese Kurien is known as “the Father of the
Finance Ministry. White Revolution”.
97. (c) Tithi Bhojan was ¿rst implemented in Madhya 116. (b) The committe would not include the Home
Pradesh Minister and the Law Minister.
98. (a) There is no provision to integrate Nirmal 117. (c) Arun river Àows through China and Nepal.
Bharat and Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana 118. (b) The centre is located at Gurgaon and it will
99. (b) World No-Tobacco Day is observed on 31st function under the National Security Adviser
May (NSA).
G-26 || National
119. (d) Guru Ghasidas National Park is located in 133. (a) The Commissioners in CVC are appointed by
Chhattisgarh. The National Tiger Conservation the President on the recommendation of a committee
Authority (NTCA) has given in-principle approval consisting of the Prime Minister, a Cabinet Minister
for creation of Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla tiger and the Leader of the Opposition. Supreme Court
reserve. has recently directed the government to not appoint
120. (d) Deepak Gupta has replaced Rajni Razdan as the CVC without its approval.
new chairman of the UPSC which a constitutional 134. (c) Maldives has become the latest country to
body. He was appointed by the President. join the Chinese strategic initiative named as he
121. (c) Internet Corporation for Assigned Names 21st Century Maritime Silk Route Economic Belt
and Numbers (ICANN), located in Los Angeles, Maritime Silk Roa(d).
manages Internet protocol numbers and Domain 135. (d) Sukhna Lake is an arti¿cial lake declared
name system. as protected national wetland. It is going through
122. (c) There are three SPAs located in Delhi, Bhopal problem of siltation. Recently, it was shut due to
and Vijayawada. The bill seeks to convert these spread of avian Àu virus among its birds.
SPAs into centres of excellence. 136. (d) Recently, Prime Minister has chosen Sourav
123. (a) Thrissur Pooram is a temple festival celebrated Ganguly, Kapil Sharma and Kiran Bedi as new
in Kerala. Prime Minister Narendra Modi brand ambassadors of ‘Clean India’ campaign,
inaugurated the Hornbill festival of Nagaland this which was started in October.
year. 137. (c) Banaras Hindu University (BHU) was
124. (b) NDC comprises of the Prime Minister, all established in 1916 under the Parliamentary
cabinet ministers, and chief ministers and ¿nance legislation, B.H.U. Act 1915.
ministers of all states. New body replacing Planning 138. (b) It will be 12th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas.
Commission may become a part of NDC. 139. (b) According to Sample Registration Survey by
125. (d) Dineshwar Sharma will succeed Syed Asif Registrar General of India, West Bengal has India’s
Ibrahim to become the new IB chief. lowest fertility.
126. (c) Excavation near Nalanda institution has shown 140. (c) Mission Indradhanush has been launched by
that the foundation of Tiladhak University was laid Ministry of health and family welfare. P r a d h a n
down during the rule of Kushanas. mantri jan dhan yojana has been launched by
127. (d) Sambhar Lake, the largest wetland of India Ministry of Finance.
under Ramsar list, is fast degrading and losing its 141. (b) Garuda is a bilateral air exercise between India
biodiversity. Sepahijala Sanctuary was in news and France.
recently due to death of a Rhino due to Anthrax. 142. (b) A bill under article 3 has to be passed which
The Rhino was brought from Kaziranga Sanctuary requires only simple majority. The bill then has to
in 2001. be sent to the concerned State Legislative Assembly,
128. (b) 60% area of Sunderbans is located in but approval is not required.
Bangladesh and rest in India. The ecosystem in 143. (d) There is no Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha
Sunderbans and its surrounding sea is in danger due as the largest opposition party, Congress has just got
to recent oil spill. 48 seats which is less than 10% of the total seats
129. (b) Maharashtra government has recently declared 144. (a) The project will provide special high speed
Dahi Handi as an adventurous sport. railway corridors to link the four main metros.
130. (c) The ¿rst National Lok Adalat was held in 145. (a) Attorney General in India serves on the
2013. The First Lok Adalat was held in Junagarh pleasure of the president and he could be removed
district of Gujarat in 1982. by the President easily.
131. (b) Jayant Vishnu Narlikar is an astrophysicist and 146. (a) The earliest sites to be added in World Heritage
well known for his contribution in Hoyle–Narlikar Sites from India were Agra Fort and Ajanta caves.
theory. He has been awarded Sahitya Akademy 147. (d) The objective of the project is to increase the
Award- 2014 for his autobiography. communication between the countries of the Indian
132. (b) Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL) is Ocean and to enhance understanding of various
located in Mysore. cultures in the region.
148. (c) Bor Wildlife Sanctuary has been noti¿ed 157. (a) Asian Koel is mentioned under “least
as new Tiger Reserve by the Union Ministry of concerned” category in Red data book.
Environment and Forests. 158. (a) The Chief Justice of the state high court
149. (a) The ¿rst trial run of the India’s fastest train administer oath to the Governor. K.N Tripathi took
was performed on Delhi-Agra route. The train with oath as the Governor of West Bengal.
maximum speed of 160 km/hour surpassed highest 159. (d) Justice A.P. Shah chaired Law Commission
speed of 150 km/hour of Bhopal Shatabdi. has recommended fixed tenure for CJI along with
150. (b) Union Government on 3 July 2014 introduced fixing 65 years as the retiring age for supreme court
four new vaccines as part of India’s Universal and High courts judges. It also suggested a cooling
Immunization Programme (UIP). These include off period for judges before taking any government
vaccines against rotavirus, rubella and polio position post-retirement.
(injectable), along with an adult vaccine against 160. (a) JAC will not be responsible for the appointment
Japanese encephalitis. The adult vaccine against of lower court judges.
Japanese encephalitis will be introduced in districts 161. (b) Statement 1st is incorrect because the FDI in
with high levels of the disease (in 179 endemic Railways is 100 percent and in Defence sector the
districts in 9 states). FDI limit has been raised from 26 percent to 49
151. (c) 21.23% of the total geographical area of the percent.
country is under forest cover, while 24.01% is under 162. (b) National Development and Reform
forest plus tree cover. commission is a new institution which is likely to
152. (c) Justice Gyan Sudha Misra retired from the be modelled after China’s policy advisory body.
Supreme Court in April, while all the other three has 163. (a) Statement 2nd is incorrect because, Delhi
been recently appointed. government has decided to constitute the Mahila
153. (b) Arun Prabha, which would be a 24x7 channel, Suraksha Dals for women safety and not the
will act as a platform for cultural and linguistic Haryana Government.
identity of the North-East 164. (a) Adani group bought Lanco Power Unit for
154. (d) The proposal has been made to make CARA a `6000 Crores and not for `8000 crores.
statutory body in the bill. The draft bill has changed 165. (c) Both the statements regarding the Judicial
the use of phrase ‘juvenile in conflict with law’ to Appointment Commission are correct.
‘child in conflict with law’. 166. (d) Shah Rukh Khan, has become the ¿rst Indian
155. (d) Percentage of Public Funds in health sector is to become the Brand ambassador of the INTERPOL,
26.70%. Madhya Pradesh reported the maximum for its global “Turn Back Crime” Campaign.
number of foeticide and infanticide cases, while it 167. (b) Union Government on 25 August 2014 cleared
was followed by Uttar Pradesh. the name of RN Ravi for appointment as Chief of
156. (c) Mahila Surasha Dals will be set up across the the Joint Intelligence Committee. RN Ravi is a
national capital to ensure women safety at public 1976-batch batch Indian Police Service (IPS) of¿cer
places from Kerala. In 2012, he retired as Special Director
of Intelligence Bureau.
2 International
1. Consider the Statements: 4. Consider the Statements:

1. Houthi rebels are associated with Jordan. 1. Every year March 23 is observed as World
2. Saudi Arabia along with Gulf Cooperation Meteorological Day (WMD).
Council (GCC) and several other countries
2. On this day in 1950 the World Meteorological
have started military operations against
Houthi rebels. Organisation (WMO) Convention came into
3. GCC members involved are United Arab force that aimed at creating WMO.
Emirates (UAE), Bahrain, Qatar and Kuwait. Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 only (d) All of the above
2. Consider the Statements: 5. Consider the following statements about Asian
1. Bangladesh has won the prestigious Women Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
in Parliaments (WIP) Award for regional 1. AIIB is an international ¿nancial institution
leadership in the South and Southeast Asia proposed by Japan which seeks to provide
category for closing the gender gap in support to infrastructure projects in Asia.
politics. 2. its headquarters are located at Beijing.
2. The award was presented by WIP Global 3. India along with other 20 member nations
Forum at annual summit held in Addis were founding member of AIIB.
Ababa, Ethiopia. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above 6. Consider the following statements:
3. Consider the following Statements: 1. Pakistan successfully tested its ¿rst
1. Madhav Gadgil has won the prestigious indigenously built all-weather armed drone
Tyler Prize 2015. named Burraq and a laser guided missile
2. Madhav Gadgil is second Indian to receive named Barq.
this prize. 2. Pakistan became the 5th country in the
3. It recognizes and honours persons for their World to develop an unmanned combat
exceptional dedication for Social Work. aerial vehicle (UCAV) domestically.
correct? correct?
(c) 2 only (d) All of the above (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
Current Affairs|| G-29
1. Solar Impulse 2 is a Swiss long-range solar- correct?
powered aircraft project. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. The aircraft was piloted by Swiss pilots (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
Bertrand Piccard and Andre Borschberg 11. Consider the following statements:
from its ¿rst halt Muscat, Oman. 1. World’s ¿rst electric satellites were
3. It will stop in Ahmedabad and Delhi in successfully lifted off by a Space Exploration
India. (SpaceX) Technologies rocket from Cape
Which of the statements given above is/are Canaveral Air Force Station, United States.
correct? 2. The rocket was carrying two all-electric
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only commercial satellites built by Airtbus.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above 3. The satellites are owned by the French
8. Consider the following statements: satellite provider Eutelsat and Asia
1. Pakistan on 9 March 2015 successfully Broadcast Satellite (ABS).
conducted the ¿rst test of surface-to-surface Which of the statements given above is/are
Shaheen-III ballistic missile off the Arabian correct?
Sea. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. The missile, also called White Falcon-III in (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
English has been developed by Pakistan’s 12. Consider the following statements:
Space and Upper Atmosphere Research 1. H-1B visa is a non-immigrant visa in US
Commission (SUPARCO) and NESCOM under section 101(a)(15)(H) of Immigration
along with its subsidiary NDC.
and Nationality Act.
correct? 2. H-1B visa allows US employers to
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only temporarily employ foreign workers in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above specialty occupations.
9. Consider the following statements: 3. United States has announced to provide
1. City of Hatra, a UNESCO World Heritage work permits to spouses of H-1B visa
Site was founded 2,000 years ago, in the holders from 26 May 2015.
days of the Parthian Empire.
2. It is located in south-west of Syria.
correct?
3. Islamic State (IS) militants have destroyed
the ruins at the ancient city of Hatra.
13. Consider the following statements?
correct?
1. Rana Bhagwandas recently passed away,was
second Hindu Chief Justice of Pakistan
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above (CJP).
10. Consider the following statements: 2. He was second non-Muslim to head of the
1. Sunil Sabharwal, has been re-nominated as Supreme Court of Pakistan.
Alternate Executive Director at International 3. First non-Muslim CJP was Alvin Robert
Monetary Fund (IMF). Cornelius (He was Christian).
2. For the ¿rst time he was nominated Alternate Which of the statements given above is/are
Executive Director at IMF in April 2014. correct?
3. He is an independent Indian-American (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
investor, born in 1964 in New Delhi. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
G-30 || International
1. Rashad Hussain, an Indian-American has 1. Tony Abbott is the Prime Minister of
been appointed United States (US) Special Norway.
Envoy and Coordinator for Strategic 2. Tony Abbott was elected as the Prime
Minister of Norway in September 2013.
Counterterrorism Communications. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Prior to this appointment, he was Special correct?
Envoy of the US to Organisation for Islamic (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Countries (OIC). (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
Which of the statements given above is/are 18. Consider the Statements:
correct? 1. The U.S. Chamber of Commerce’s Global
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Intellectual Property Centre (GIPC) has
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the above released its third annual international
15. Consider the Statements: intellectual property (IP) index list.
2. In this list India is placed at 15th rank among
1. In recently released World Press Freedom
the 30 countries. While, US has been placed
Index (WPFI), India was placed at 136th
rank out of 180 nations surveyed worldwide at the top in the list and Thailand at last
in terms of press freedom in 2015. position.
2. World Press Freedom Index is produced
correct?
by France-based international non-
governmental organization Reporters
Without Borders (RWB), or Reporters Sans
Frontières (RSF). 19. Consider the statements:
1. ISRO has launched Soil Moisture Active
Passive (SMAP) satellite to observe soil
correct?
moisture.
2. SMAP satellite is three-year mission which
will measure the amount of moisture in soil.
16. Consider the statements regarding Maritime Silk
Road (MSR):
correct?
1. The 21st century MSR project is an initiative
by China to resurrect the ancient maritime
Silk Road.
20. Consider the statements:
2. China has announced a USD 40 billion Silk 1. Carl Djerassi was a Chemist.
Road fund which became operational in 2. He was famously known as the father of the
February 2015 for attracting small countries birth control pills.
in the projects.
3. The project will prioritize construction correct?
ports and infrastructure, industrial parks (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
in strategically signi¿cant countries in (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
Southeast Asia, the Mideast, Africa, Europe 21. Consider the following statements:
and the Indian Ocean region.
1. Zimbabwe’s President Robert Mugabe has
Which of the statements given above is/are been appointed as Chairman of African
correct? Union (AU).
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. Its headquarters are located at Nairobi
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above (Kenya).
correct?: 1. Veteran Indian-origin civil servant Joseph
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Yubaraj Manuel Pillay was reappointed as
the Chairman of the Presidential Council
22. Consider the Statements:
1. Britain’s Queen Elizabeth II is now the of Advisers (CPA) by Singapore President
world’s 3rd oldest living monarch. Tony Tan Keng Yam.
2. She is also the second longest reigning 2. In 2012, for his public service, Pillay was
monarch in British history. awarded the Order of Nila Utama (First
3. She acceded to the throne on 6 February Class) award- one of Singapore’s most
1952.
prestigious National Day Awards.
correct? 3. He was sworn in as top advisor to Singapore’s
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only President for a period of next two years.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above Which of the statements given above is/are
23. Consider the Statements: correct?
1. The 5th General Assembly of the
International Renewable Energy Agency
(IRENA) has begun in Qatar. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
2. India is not one of the 33 Permanent 27. Consider the Statements:
members of IRENA. 1. Russia and four ex-Soviet nations have
Which of the statements given above is/are ¿nalized the formation of a new economic
correct? alliance- Eurasian Economic Union (EEU).
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Four ex-Soviet nations are Belarus,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above Kazakhstan, Armenia and Kyrgyzstan.
24. Consider the Statements: 3. Ukraine has joined the EEU on 1 January
1. India and Bangladesh inaugurated third 2015.
border haat in Srinagar-Purba on the Tripura- Which of the statements given above is/are
Bangladesh border. correct?
2. This is the ¿rst border haat opened in state (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Tripura which shares 856-km border with (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
Bangladesh. 28. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Denmark has presented claim to United
correct? Nations over the area surrounding the North
Pole.
25. Consider the following statements: 2. As per Denmark, this area is connected to
1. Justice Surendra Kumar Sinha was appointed the continental shelf of Greenland is their
Chief Justice of Pakistan. autonomous territory.
2. He has become the 3rd Hindu to hold 3. There is trade dispute between Denmark,
highest judicial post in the Muslim-majority Canada and Russia.
country. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
29. Consider the Statements about Global Arms 32. Which among the following West African nations
Trade Treaty (ATT). has been recently declared as Ebola-free by its
1. It came into force on 24 December 2014 government and the United Nations?
after it was adopted by the UN General (a) Guinea (b) Sierra Leone
Assembly in April 2013. (c) Mali (d) Liberia
2. It is the ¿rst legally-binding multilateral 33. Which of the following countries have been
agreement that prohibits nations from requested to join ‘Quad’ proposed by Japan?
exporting conventional weapons to countries (1) Australia (2) India
that may use it for genocide, crimes against (3) Germany (4) USA
humanity or war crimes. Codes:
3. India has already signed the treaty. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
correct? 34. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only matched?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above Place Country
30. Consider the Statements: (1) Bamiyan Iraq
1. Bangladesh’s oil spill disaster is considered (2) Aleppo Syria
as ecological catastrophe which may (3) Nimrud Afghanistan
threaten rare dolphins, other wildlife species Codes:
and world’s largest mangrove forests in the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Sundrban’s. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of these
2. The tanker carrying an estimated 350,000 35. Which of the following pairs are correctly
litres of furnace oil partly sank in the matched?
Sundarban’s Shela River after it collided Name of parliament Country
with another vessel. (1) Rashtriya Panchayat Bangladesh
3. This disaster may be considered as an (2) Diet Japan
ecological catastrophe and can destroy (3) Knesset Germany
the delicate ecology of the Sundarbans – a (4) Majlis Iran
UNESCO-listed World Heritage Site. Codes:
correct? (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 36. Who among the following personalities have
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above been included in 2015 Fortune magazine’s “50
31. Which of the following statements are correct greatest leaders” list?
regarding International Renewable Energy (a) Sonia Gandhi (b) Kailash Satyarthi
Agency (IRENA)? (c) Narendra Modi (d) Raj Panjabi
(1) It is an intergovernmental organization to Codes:
promote adoption and sustainable use of (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
renewable energy (c) 1 and 4 only (d) All of these
(2) Headquarter of the organization is located at 37. Which of the following statements are correct
Abu Dhabi. regarding Earth Hour?
(3) This year’s session was its ¿fth General (1) It is observed on 28th March every year.
Assembly and was held at Beijing. (2) The initiative was taken in 2007 in New
Codes York to conserve the energy.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (3) It is organised by World Wide Fund.
Codes: 43. Which of the following pairs of mountains with
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only the places given are correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (1) Mt Hermon : Syria
38. Which of the following pairs are correctly (2) Mt Qasioun : Lebanon
matched: (3) Mt Sinjar : Iran
(1) Golan Heights : Syria (4) Mt Carpathian : Ukraine
(2) Mogadishu : Sudan Codes:
(3) Dakar : Senegal (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
Codes: (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 44. Which of the following water bodies touch the
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 border of Scotland?
39. During the visit of Australian Prime Minister (1) Atlantic Ocean (2) North Sea
Tony Abbott to India, MoU have been signed in (3) Irish Sea (4) English Channel
which of the following ¿elds? Codes:
(1) Civil Nuclear (2) Sports (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(3) Agriculture (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Codes: 45. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only correct about International Economic Association
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 (IEA)?
40. Which of the following statement (s) is/are (1) IEA is an inter-government association
correct? to promote mutual understanding among
(1) Australia is the largest producer of Uranium economists in different parts of the world.
while Canada has the largest reserves (2) IEA organize a congress every three years.
(2) India has signed civil nuclear deal with both (3) The 2014 International Congress was held at
Australia and Canada
Jordan
Codes:
(4) Kaushik Basu became the ¿rst Indian to be
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 president-elect of the association
41. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly Codes:
matched (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(1) Fiji Paci¿c Ocean (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(2) Scotland Arctic Ocean 46. Which of the following are the features of
(3) Ukraine Black Sea Ukraine-EU Pact?
Codes:
(1) Three years of limited self-rule to parts of
rebel held territory offered
42. Which of the following statement(s) is/are (2) Right for use of Russian in all state
correct? institutions guaranteed
(1) India is a regular member of Shanghai (3) Rights of Legislatures of rebel-held regions
Cooperation Organization (SCO) to set up their own police forces recognised
(2) China and India are members of East Asia (4) Merging of Crimea into Russia recognised
Summit (EAS)
Codes:
Codes:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
47. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct (1) United Nations Development Programme
regarding the expanded Paci¿c Remote Islands (UNDP)
Marine National Monument? (2) World Health Organization (WHO)
(1) It is the largest ocean preserve in the world. (3) World Food Programme (WFP)
(2) It is located between Kiribati islands and (4) Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO)
Hawaii Codes:
(3) It is under the jurisdiction of the United (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
States. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of these
Codes: 53. Aral Sea borders which of the following
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only countries?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only (1) Kazakhstan (2) Uzbekistan
48. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct (3) Azerbaijan (4) Iran
about Hatf IX (Nasr) of Pakistan? Codes:
(1) It is a Surface-to-Surface missile (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(2) It has a maximum range of 500 km (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Codes: 54. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only matched?
(1) Mount Ontake : China
(2) Mount Baker : USA
49. Which of the following pairs are correct?
(3) Mount Fuji : Japan
(a) John Ashe : President of UN
(4) Mount Mayon : Philippines
General Assembly
Codes:
(b) K Radhakrishan : Chairman of ISRO
(c) John Key : President of Spain
Code: 55. Which of the following are the feature of Bilateral
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only Security Agreement signed between the USA and
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these Afghanistan?
50. Which of the following countries are members of (1) All US and NATO troops will be called back
BCIM Forum? from Afghanistan
(1) Bhutan (2) Maldives (2) NATO has agreed to fund Afghanistan’s
(3) India (4) Bangladesh police and security forces till 2017
Codes: (3) Afghanistan and USA retain the right to
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only withdraw from the agreement after two
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) All of these years
51. Which of the following pairs of joint defence Codes:
exercises of India are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(1) Yudh Abhyas : USA (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(2) Garuda : UK 56. Which of the following pairs are correct?
(3) Hand-In-Hand : Russia Cyclone Country/region
(4) Varuna : France (1) Bejisa Mauritius
Codes: (2) Iselle East Africa
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only (3) Phanfone Japan
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of these (4) Hudhud India
52. Which of the following United Nations’ Codes:
Organizations are involved in publishing annual (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
report on global food insecurity? (c) 1 and 4 only (d) All of the above
57. Which of the following statements are correct 61. Which of the following statements are correct?
about UN Economic and Social Commission (1) UN Secretary-General, Ban Ki-moon, has
for Asia and the Paci¿c (ESCAP) Trade and constituted a blue-ribbon panel to respond
Investment Report 2014 (APTIR-2014)? to the emergency situation created by Ebola
(1) Trade of Asia-Pacific grew by more than 10 outbreak.
percent in 2013 (2) Eastern Africa has witnessed the maximum
(2) North East Asia is the largest contributor in number of deaths due to the disease
Asia-Pacific trade Codes:
(3) FDI in new and small locations has increased (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Codes: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
about Philae, a probe separated from the Rosetta
about Living Planet Report-2014? mother craft?
(1) The report has been published by UNDP (1) Philae is the first probe to carry out a landing
(2) The theme of the report is Species and on a comet
Spaces, People and Places (2) The mission is being carried out by NASA
(3) Populations of fish, birds, mammals, (3) The mission was started in 2004
amphibians and reptiles have declined by 52
Codes:
percent since 1970
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above 63. Which of the following statements are correct
59. Which of the following statements regarding regarding G-20?
(1) It was founded in 1999 as a forum for the
gender parity report of World Economic Forum
governments of 20 major economies of the
(WEF) are correct? world.
(1) India has slipped to 114th rank in the overall (2) The summit for 2014 is being held at
gender parity Australia
(2) India has fared better in health sub-index (3) The 2015 Summit will be presided by
compared to last report in 2006. Turkey.
Codes: (4) No African nation is a regular member of the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only group.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 Codes:
60. Which of the following statements regarding (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
“Ease of Doing Business” Report released (c) 1 and 4 only (d) All of these
recently are correct? 64. Arrange the below countries in chronological
(1) The report has been released by World Trade order starting from highest to lowest emitter of
Organization. carbon dioxide?
(2) India ranks 125th among the 189 countries (1) USA (2) Russia
surveyed for the report. (3) China (4) India
Codes: Codes:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4
65. Which of the following statements are correct 70. Recently, India and Russia has inked which of the
regarding the United Nations Population Fund’s following agreements?
(UNFPA) “State of the World’s Population” (1) Oil and gas pact (2) Atomic energy
Report released recently? (3) Health research (4) Civil aviation
(1) The theme of the report is “The Power of Codes:
1.8 Billion: Adolescents, Youth and the (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
Transformation of the Future.” (c) 2 and 4 only (d) All of these
(2) India has the world’s largest population in 71. Which of the following statements are correct
the age group of 10-24 years. about Web Index released by World Wide Web
(3) The African population is younger than the Foundation?
Northern European population. (1) It measures the internet’s contribution to
Codes: social, economic and political progress.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (2) India ranks last among the BRICS nations.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these Codes:
66. Which of the following pairs are correctly (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
matched? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Tribe Country 72. Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) Maasai Sudan (1) Cuba is the largest island in the Caribbean.
(2) Yazidi Iraq
(3) Vedda Srilanka (2) Cuba follows a single party system in its
Codes: political set up.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (3) The recent deal between the US and Cuba
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these will allow a broad US tourism to Cuba.
67. Which of the following countries are in Paci¿c (4) The US and Cuba have also agreed for
Ocean region?
repatriation of prisoners.
(1) Fiji (2) Nauru
Codes:
(3) Kiribati (4) Madagascar (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Codes: (c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of these
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only 73. Which of the following countries have observer
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of these status in CERN?
68. Which among the following countries are the (1) Russia (2) India
observer members of SAARC? (3) Pakistan (4) USA
(1) China (2) Myanmar Codes:
(3) Iran (4) Mauritius (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(5) Maldives (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Codes: 74. Which of the following countries are members of
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (b) 1, 3 and 5 only Eurasian Economic Union?
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 5 only (1) Belarus (2) Kazakhstan
69. Which of the following pairs are correctly (3) Kyrgyzstan (4) Turkmenistan
matched? Codes:
Endemic Species Country (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(1) Forest Owlet Srilanka (c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of these
(2) Muscicapa sodhii Indonesia 75. Which of the following statements are correct
(3) Yellow-throated Bulbul India about Global Arms Trade Treaty (ATT) ?
Codes: (1) It is a legally-binding agreement.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (2) It sets global standards for cross-border
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these transfers of conventional weapons.
(3) It prohibits transfer of uranium to Non- (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
nuclear states. (c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None
(4) India has already ratified the treaty in 2013. 82. Which of the following statements regarding
Codes: New Development Bank to be established by
BRICS nations are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (1) The headquarter of the bank will be in
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Shanghai
(2) It will provide financial assistance to
76. Boko Harem, a terrorist group was in news infrastructure projects of BRICS nations
recently for its activities. The group is mainly only
active in? (3) The proposal for the bank was first made in
(a) Egypt 2012 summit in New Delhi.
(b) South Sudan Choose the correct code from the options given
(c) Democratic Republic of Congo below:
(d) Nigeria (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
77. Juan Manual Santos has been elected as the 83. Which of the following statements regarding
President of which country? IBSA are correct?
(a) Equador (b) Chile (1) It is an initiative to promote South-South
(c) Colombia (d) Cuba cooperation and exchange
(2) India will host the 7th IBSA summit in 2015.
78. Who among the following have been chosen to Choose the correct code from the options given
assist UN rights probe in Sri Lanka? below:
(1) Martti Ahtisaari (2) Silvia Cartwright (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(c) 1 and 2 both (d) None
(3) Asma Jehangir 84. Consider the following statements about Ninth
Choose the correct code: edition of Earth Hour.
(a) 1 and 2 Only (b) 1 and 3 Only 1. It was observed on 28 March 2015 across
the World.
(c) 2 and 3 Only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. It is an annual global event organized by the
79. Consider the following statements: World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).
3. The initiative began in 2007 in New York,
(1) India has become the ¿rst country to ratify U.S.A and later became global event.
Marrakesh Treaty for visually impaired Which of the statements given above is/are
(2) The treaty was adopted in World Intellectual correct?
Property Organisation (WIPO) (a) 1 only (b) 1,2 only
Which of the above statement/s are correct? 85. Consider the following statements about World
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only Wetland Day (WWD):
(c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None 1. Every year World Wetland Day (WWD) is
80. Chung Hung Won is the Prime Minister of? observed on 2nd February.
(a) South Korea (b) Vietnam 2. This day marks the date of the adoption of
(c) Laos (d) Cambodia the Convention on Wetlands also called as
81. Which of the following statement(s) is/are Ramsar Convention on 2nd February 1971
correct about the UN report “World Urbanisation in the Iranian city of Ramsar.
3. The maximum Ramsar sites are located in
Prospects”? Canada.
(1) Delhi ranks second in the world in terms of 4. The largest area covered by the Ramsar sites
population is in U.K
(2) Shanghai is the most populous city of the Which of the statements given above is/are
world correct?
Choose the correct option from the codes given
below: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 11 (c) 21 (a) 31 (a) 41 (b) 51 (c) 61 (d) 71 (c) 81 (b)
2 (c) 12 (d) 22 (b) 32 (c) 42 (b) 52 (c) 62 (c) 72 (b) 82 (b)
3 (b) 13 (b) 23 (d) 33 (c) 43 (c) 53 (a) 63 (a) 73 (c) 83 (c)
4 (c) 14 (c) 24 (c) 34 (b) 44 (c) 54 (d) 64 (b) 74 (b) 84 (b)
5 (b) 15 (c) 25 (d) 35 (b) 45 (d) 55 (b) 65 (d) 75 (a) 85 (b)
6 (a) 16 (d) 26 (a) 36 (b) 46 (d) 56 (a) 66 (b) 76 (d)
7 (a) 17 (d) 27 (a) 37 (b) 47 (c) 57 (c) 67 (a) 77 (c)
8 (c) 18 (a) 28 (a) 38 (b) 48 (a) 58 (b) 68 (c) 78 (d)
9 (c) 19 (b) 29 (a) 39 (d) 49 (b) 59 (a) 69 (c) 79 (c)
10 (d) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40 (b) 50 (b) 60 (d) 70 (a) 80 (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) Houthi rebels is associated with Yamen. 5. (b) AIIB is an international ¿nancial institution
2. (c) Bangladesh is only country in the world where proposed by China which seeks to provide support
the Prime Minister, Parliament speaker, Leader of to infrastructure projects in Asia.
the Opposition, Deputy Leader of the house, and a 6. (a) By successfully testing of Burraq, Pakistan
major opposition leader are all women. became the 9th country in the World to develop
3. (b) an unmanned combat aerial vehicle (UCAV)
Instituted in 1973. John and Alice Tyler are the domestically.
founders of prize. 7. (a) Solar Impulse 2 will stop in Ahmedabad and
It recognizes and honours persons for their Varanasi in India, Mandalay (Myanmar), Chongqing
exceptional dedication for environmental
& Nanjing (China).
science, environmental health, and energy.
8. (c) Solid-fuelled multi stage ballistic missile.
First Indian was Father of Indian Green
Capable of carrying both nuclear as well as
Revolution MS Swaminathan to receive the
conventional warheads. Range: 2,750 km.
prize in 1991.
9. (c) Islamic State (IS) militants have destroyed the
Awarded by International Tyler Prize Executive
ruins at the ancient city of Hatra located in south-
Committee. The administrative support to
west of Mosul in Northern Iraq.
committee is provided by the University of
10. (d) He was re-nominated to key post at IMF by US
Southern California.
President Barack Obama. In this regard, President
4. (c) Every year March 23 is observed as World
Meteorological Day (WMD). Theme for this year is Obama has forwarded his decision to re-nominate
Climate Knowledge for Climate Action. Sabharwal to the US Senate.
On this day in 1950 the World Meteorological 11. (c) The rocket was carrying two all-electric
Organisation (WMO) Convention came into force commercial satellites built by Boeing.
that aimed at creating WMO. Later in 1951, WMO 12. (d) United States (US) has announced to provide
became United Nations specialized agency for work permits to spouses of H-1B visa holders from
meteorology, geophysical sciences and operational 26 May 2015. Under existing US laws, spouses of
hydrology. H-1B visa holders are not eligible to work.
13. (b) First Hindu Chief Justice of Pakistan (CJP) 28. (a) There is territorial dispute between Denmark,
Rana Bhagwandas passed away in Karachi, Canada and Russia over the energy rich Arctic
Pakistan. He was 72 year old. territory.
15. (c) In WPFI 2015, India has shown improvement Greenland geographically forms part of North
from its rank of 140 in 2014 America rather than Europe. But it is largely
17. (d) Tony Abbott is the Prime Minister of Australia. self-governed, but it remains part of former
18. (a) In this list India is placed at 29th rank among colonial master Denmark, which controls
the 30 countries. While, US has been placed at the foreign affairs and defence policy.
top in the list and Thailand at last position. 29. (a) Major weapons producers like Russia, China,
19. (b) National Aeronautics and Space Administration India and Pakistan have not signed the treaty.
(NASA) has launched Soil Moisture Active Passive 31. (a) Its General Assembly in January 2015 held at
(SMAP) satellite to observe soil moisture. It was Abu Dhabi.
launched from the Delta 2 rocket from Vandenberg 32. (c) United Nations Mission for Ebola Emergency
Air Force Base in California. Response (UNMEER) has declared Mali Ebola-free
20. (c) Renowned chemist Carl Djerassi passed as no new case was reported in last 42 days.
away in San Francisco, US. He was 91. He was 33. (c) The proposed “Quad” will comprise of the
famously known as the father of the birth control USA, Australia, India and Japan.
pills for his contribution to the development of oral 34. (b) Nimrud, an ancient city of Iraq has been
contraceptive birth pills. destroyed by the ISIS. Bamiyan is located at
21. (a) It’s Headquarters is located at Addis Ababa, Afghanistan. Aleppo has also been attacked in
Ethiopia. Syrian war. All the three places are world heritage
22. (b) Britain’s Queen Elizabeth II is now the world’s sites.
oldest living monarch. Currently she is 88 years old. 35. (b) Rashtriya Panchayat and Knesset are the
23. (d) The 5th General Assembly of the International parliaments of Nepal and Israel respectively. In
Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) has begun recent elections, Benjamin Netanyahu’s Likud
in Abu Dhabi.India is one of the 33 Permanent party has again won the largest number of seats in
members of IRENA. Knesset.
24. (c) Haats in India Language means Rural Market. 36. (b) Kailash Satyarthi is ranked 28 in the list
The aim of this border haat is to enhance border for leading global ¿ght against child labour. Raj
trade between the two countries.It will also cater Panjabi, an Indian-origin Liberian is at 34th spot.
to the needs of the people living within a ¿ve km He is CEO of non-pro¿t Last Mile Health. Narendra
radius in this border area. Modi is at 5th spot in the list.
25. (d) Justice Surendra Kumar Sinha was appointed 37. (b) For the ¿rst time, Earth Day was observed
Chief Justice of Bangladesh by President in Sydney, Australia in the year 2007. During the
Mohammad Abdul Hamid. With this appointment, event, the lights are turned off for an hour.
he has become the ¿rst Hindu to hold highest 38. (b) Mogadishu is located in Somalia
judicial post in the Muslim-majority country. 39. (d) MoU have been signed between India and
26. (a) He was sworn in as top advisor to Singapore’s Autralia in the ¿eld of Civil Nuclear, Sports and
President for a period of next four years. Agriculture.
27. (a) EEU came into existence on 1stJanuary 2015. 40. (b) Australia has the largest reserves while
Earlier Russia had tried to encourage Ukraine to join Kazakhstan is the largest producer of Uranium.
EEU. But after Crimean crisis of February 2014 i.e. 41. (b) Scotland is surrounded by Atlantic Ocean,
after Russia annexed Ukraine’s Crimean Peninsula, North Sea and Irish Sea.
Ukraine decided to stay away from EEU and moved 42. (b) India is an observer member of Shanghai
closer towards NATO and EU. Cooperation Organization (SCO)
43. (c) Mt Qasioun is located in Syria and Mt Sinjar in 63. (a) South Africa is the only African nation to be a
Kurd region of Iraq. The places have been in news member of G-20.
recently for internal disturbances. 64. (b) China is the highest emitter of carbon dioxide
44. (c) English Channel separates Southern England with 24.65% of the total emissions. The emissions
and Northern France. by the USA, India and Russia are 16.16%, 5.98%
45. (d) IEA is an non-government association. and 5.18% respectively.
Kaushik Basu became the ¿rst Indian to be president- 65. (d) India has the world’s largest population in the
elect of the association after Amartya Sen.
age group of 10-24 years followed by China.
46. (d) Merging of Crimea into Russia or independence
Indian population is 10 years younger than the
of Crimea has not been recognised in the Ukraine-
European population.
EU Pact.
47. (c) The reserve located between American Samoa 66. (b) Maasai live in Kenya and Tanzania. T h e y
and Hawaii islands. were in news recently as they are being deprived
48. (a) Hatf IX is a short range missile with maximum of their ancestral land by the Tanzanian government
range of 60 km. for commercial purposes.
49. (b) John Key has been re-elected as the President 67. (a) Madagascar is a country in Indian Ocean
of Newzealand region.
50. (b) Bangladesh, China, India and Myanmar are 68. (c) Maldives is a regular member of SAARC.
the member countries of BCIM Forum for Regional 69. (c) Forest Owlet was recently spotted in Western
Cooperation. Ghats. The bird is thought to be endemic to the
51. (c) Hand-In-Hand is a joint defence exercise Satpura mountain ranges. Muscicapa sodhii is
between India and China. named after Indian ornithologist Navjot Sodhi.
52. (c) UNDP is not involved in publishing this report.
70. (a) The agreements between Russia and India
53. (a) NASA’s Earth Observatory has claimed
included oil and gas pact, atomic energy, health
that Aral Sea which lie between Kazakhstan and
Uzbekistan is at the verge of vanish. research, defence training, data non-disclosure,
54. (d) Mount Ontake is in Japan. It erupted on 27th building accredition system and cooperation in
September killing more than 30 people. external affairs.
55. (b) The NATO and US forces combined are 71. (c) India ranked 48th, last among the BRICS
expected to be reduced to 12,000 and the US will nations. Overall, Denmark ranked number 1.
retain access to 9 major land and airbases. 72. (b) The US and Cuba have initiated diplomatic
56. (a) Hurricane Iselle hit Hawaii, US in August relations after around ¿ve decades which may pave
2014. a way for end of economic sanctions on Cuba among
57. (c) Trade of Asia-Pacific grew by only 2 percent in others. Though, travel restrictions for US citizens to
2013 Cuba has been eased, but broad US tourism to Cuba
58. (b) The report has been published by WWF. has not been approved.
59. (a) India is among the lowest in health sub-index 73. (c) Pakistan has been granted the status of
due to its decreasing female to male child sex ratio. Associate Member State in CERN. Russia, Japan,
60. (d) India ranks 142nd among the 189 countries India and the USA are the observer countries.
surveyed for the report released by the World Bank. 74. (b) Russia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Armenia and
61. (d) Blue-ribbon panel has been created to Kyrgyzstan are members of Eurasian Economic
recommend changes to international peacekeeping Union.
to enable it to cope with increasingly complex and 75. (a) The treaty is only for conventional weapons
dangerous conÀicts worldwide. Western Africa is and not nuclear weapons. India has not rati¿ed the
worst hit by Ebola disease. treaty and had abstained from voting in UN General
62. (c) The mission is being carried out by European Assembly. Treaty came into force on 24 December
Space Agency (ESA). 2014.
76. (d) Boko Harem has kidnapped many teenaged April 2014. Chung Hong-Won resigned as Prime
Christian girls in Nigeria and has demanded the Minister on 27 April 2014 taking the responsibility
Nigerian government to release some prisoners who of government’s inability and untimely response
were involved in terrorist activities. to the ferry disaster. President Park accepted the
77. (c) Juan Manual Santos has been elected for the resignation and asked him to remain in the job until
second time as the President of Colombia new Prime Minister was found.
78. (d) The above three personalities will help the 81. (b) According to UN report, Tokyo is the most
team set up to conduct an investigation of human populous city of the world. Shanghai is at third
rights violation in Sri Lanka. place.
79. (c) Marrakesh Treaty for visually impaired was 82. (b) New Development Bank will provide financial
adopted by 79 countries of WIPO and India has assistance to developing and emerging economies
become the ¿rst country to ratify the treaty. The mainly for infrastructure projects.
treaty can come into force only if it is rati¿ed by at 83. (c) India will be hosting the IBSA summit for the
least 20 member countries. third time in 2015.
80. (a) Chung Hung Won was retained as Prime 84. (b) The initiative began in 2007 in Sydney,
Minster of South Korea on 25 June 2014. The Australia and later became global event.
President of South Korea, Park Geun-Hye 85. (b) The maximum Ramsar sites are located in UK
announced the decision to retain the Chung Hung i.e. 168. The largest area covered by the Ramsar
Won who had resigned over ferry disaster in sites is in Canada.
3 Economical
1. Consider the following statements: 1. The proposed bill gives powers to tax
1. Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL) the authorities to track and deal with illegal
corporate entity of Vizag Steel Plant (VSP) wealth stashed abroad.
on 31 March 2015 launched novel green 2. The bill also has provision of punishment to
project that can generate 120 MW power. deal with the black money cases. It proposes
2. It is ¿rst of its kind green project launched penalty at the rate of 100 per cent of taxes
in Indian Steel Industry that can generate to be levied on the concealed income and
pollution free captive power using 100 per assets, in addition to 5 years rigorous
cent Blast Furnace Gas and Coke Oven Gas. imprisonment.
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above 1. State-run insurance giant GIC will provide
2. Parliament has passed Mines and Minerals a Financial Assistance of Rs 1.5 lakh
(Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, crore to Indian Railways for developing
infrastructure.
2015. The bill was ¿rst passed in Rajya Sabha
2. The investment will be done in the form of
and later in Lok Sabha on 20 March 2015.Which bonds issued by various railway entities such
of the following statements is/are correct. as Indian Railways Finance Corporation
1. The bill adds a new 4th schedule in the (IRFC).
parent Act to include mining of bauxite, 3. There will be a 5 year moratorium in interest
iron ore, limestone and manganese ore as and loan repayment. The rate will be linked
noti¿ed minerals. to 10-year benchmark plus 10 basis points.
2. Bill has changed it for 100 years, as against 4. From the Financial Year 2015-16 the
present 30 years for all minerals other than ¿nancial assistance will be made available
coal, lignite and atomic minerals by LIC for over a period of 5 years as part of
3. State governments will grant mining leases its commercial decision.
and prospecting licence-cum-mining leases Which of the statements given above is/are
along with approval of Union government.
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 ,3 only
(a) 1 ,2 and 3 only (b) 2,3 and 4 only
3. Union Cabinet has cleared the black money bill
5. Consider the following statements about National
to curb the menace of black money in the country.
Payments Corporation (NPCI).
Which of the following statements is/are correct 1. NPCI is an umbrella body for all retail
about black money bill : payments system in India.
2. Its main objective is to facilitate an Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
affordable payment mechanism in order to (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
facilitate ¿nancial inclusion. (c) All of the above (d) None of the above
3. National Payments Corporation (NPCI) has 9. Consider the following statements regarding
successfully linked 15 crore Direct Bene¿t single window government-to-business (G2B)
Transfer (DBT) accounts with the Aadhaar portal- e-Biz (www.ebiz.gov.in).
numbers. 1. It provides single platform for online
Which of the statements given above is/are submission and processing of forms
correct? including online payment.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 2. Government has identi¿ed 10 pilot states
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above for its initial implementation and later to
6. Consider the following statements: expand it across the country.
1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 4 March 3. The portal will provide in total 10 Union
2015 has cut down repo rate by 25 basis government services to meet its objective.
points to 7.5 percent from 7.75 percent, with Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
immediate effect. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
2. RBI has Changed cash reserve ratio (CRR) (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
to 4 percent. 10. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet
correct? and Expo (Re-Invest) 2015 held in Mumbai.
(a) 1 , only (b) 2, only 2. It will provide single platform to attract
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above large scale investments for solar and wind
7. Consider the following statements about Union power generation in India.
Budget 2015-16. 3. At present, renewable energy contributes
1. No change in the Tax slab on personal over 6 percent of the total power generated
income. in India.
2. Wealth tax has been increased. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Service tax increased to14 per cent. correct?
4. A University of Disability Studies will be (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
established in Tamilnadu. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of the above
correct? 1. Balasubramaniam Venkataramani has been
(a) 1 ,and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only appointed as new MD & CEO of Multi
(c) 1,2 and 3 only (d) All of the above Commodity Exchange (MCX).
8. Consider the following statements: 2. Anish Aggarwal has been appointed as
1. Six Indian women entrepreneurs and new Director (Pipelines) in Indian Oil
businesswomen have been named by Fortune Corporation (IOC).
as among the 50 ‘Power Businesswomen’ 3. Vijay Kumar Saraswat has taken charge as
from Asia. full time-member of National Institution for
2. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw is the MD of Shriram Transforming India (NITI) Aayog.
Capital. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Shikha Sharma is the MD of Life Insurance correct?
Corporation of India (LIC). (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
G-44 || Economical
12. Consider the following statements: authorities in Brussels found consignments
1. The Cabinet Committee on Economic of the premium Alphonso mangoes infested
Affairs (CCEA) has made packaging of food with fruit Àies.
grains & sugar in jute material mandatory 2. Along with Alphonso mangoes they also had
for jute year 2015-16. banned import of 4 vegetables- aubergines,
2. As per CCEA guidelines, packaging with jute bitter gourds, snake gourds and patra leaves.
material will be mandatory for minimum 90 3. They had imposed ban citing the reason
per cent of production in case of foodgrains that fruit Àies from these consignments may
and 20 per cent in case of sugar production. damage European cash crops.
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. European Union (EU) has decided to lift
correct? seven-month-long ban on the import of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only mangoes from India.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above. 5. India is the second largest producer of
13. Consider the following statements mangoes in the world.
1. Shanta Kumar Committee is the High Level Which of the statements given above is/are
Committee (HLC) for Restructuring of Food correct?
Corporation of India (FCI). (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,2 and 4
2. One of the Recommendations of Shanta (c) 1,3 and 5 (d) 2,3 and 4
Kumar Committee is that it should focus 16. Consider the following statements:
on Western belt, where farmers do not get 1. India ranked 78th globally in Global
minimum support price. Talent Competitiveness Index (GTCI)
Which of the statements given above is/are 2014 list of 93 countries in terms of talent
correct? competitiveness of its human capital.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. This GTCI list was compiled by INSEAD
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above business school in partnership with Adecco
14. Consider the following statements about Pradhan and Human Capital Leadership Institute of
Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY): Singapore (HCLI).
1. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) Which of the statements given above is/are
has entered into Guinness book of World correct?
Records. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Guinness book of World Records has given (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
certi¿cate stating it as the maximum bank 17. Consider the following statements:
accounts having opened in one month. 1. Railway Ministry has Àagged off India’s
3. Initially, after its launch the scheme had a ¿rst compressed natural gas (CNG)
target of opening 7.5 crore bank accounts powered train between Rewari and Rohtak
by 26 January, 2015, but later it was revised in Haryana.
and raised to 10 crore bank accounts. 2. It is powered by Diesel Electric Multiple
Which of the statements given above is/are Unit (DEMU).
correct? 3. It is capable of running at a speed of 80 km
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only per hour.
1. EU had imposed temporary ban on import (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
of mangoes from in 1 May 2014 after (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
1. Arvind Panagariya is Vice-Chairman of 1. Sutirtha Bhattacharya has taken charge as
the newly-created National Institution for full-time Chairman and Managing Director
Transforming India (NITI) Aayog . (CMD) of Coal India Limited (CIL)
2. He was an ex-Chief Economist at the World 2. It is headquartered in Dhanbad,Jharkhand
Bank. 3. It is the largest coal producer company in
3. He is an Indian-American economist the world and contributes around 81% of the
and Professor of Economics at Harvard coal production in India.
University. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 22. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above 1. Kudankulam has started generating
electricity on a commercial basis after it
received green signal from Nuclear Power
1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has released
Corporation (NPC).
commemorative coins to honour Tata Group 2. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is a
founder Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata. nuclear power station in Koodankulam in
2. PM released coins in the denomination of Tamil Nadu with a capacity of generating
100 and ¿ve rupee to mark Jamsetji Tata’s 2000 MW with 2 reactors.
175th birth anniversary. 3. It is India’s largest nuclear reactor with the
3. Earlier, government had honoured Jamsetji capacity of 1000 MV.
twice by releasing his postal stamps; one in Which of the statements given above is/are
1960 and another in 1965. correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 23. Consider the following statements:
(c) 3 only (d) All of the above 1. NTPC has emerged as the country’s biggest
20. Consider the following statements about Budget company in terms of annual revenue as per
Vision 2022: an annual list of Fortune 500 companies in
1. A roof for each family in India under the India- 2014.
vision Housing for All by 2022 requiring 2. This year’s list of the country’s 500 largest
construction of 2 crore houses in Urban corporations was compiled by the global
areas and 4 crore houses in rural areas. business magazine Fortune’s Indian edition.
2. To electrify remaining 20000 villages in Which of the statements given above is/are
the country by 2020, this will be met by correct?
different process including by off-grid solar (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
power generation. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
3. 178000 unconnected habitations will be 24. Consider the following statements:
connected by all weather roads. 1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
Which of the statements given above is/are has constructed Nyaborongo Hydro Electric
correct? Project in Republic of Uganda.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 2. It was BHEL’s ¿rst order from this East-
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above African country.
G-46 || Economical
3. Nyaborongo Hydro Electric project is achieved 100 percent ¿nancial inclusion
owned by the Government of Uganda and under PMJDY.
has been ¿nanced under the Government of Which of the statements given above is/are
India’s Line of Credit. correct?
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 28. Consider the following statements:
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above 1. 21 Asian countries, including India, have
25. Consider the following statements: signed an agreement to become the founding
1. The government has approved revival of 7 members of the Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB).
sick central PSUs through disinvestment or
2. AIIB is an international ¿nancial institution
joint venture route.
that was proposed by India.
2. It includes HMT Machine Tools and Tyre
3. The Headquarters of the AIIB will be at
Corporation, Tungabhadra Steel Products, Beijing,
HMT Bearings, Richardson & Cruddas Ltd,
Central Inland Water Transport Corp and
correct?
Hoogly Docks & Port Engineers Ltd.
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
correct? 29. Which of the following statements is/are correct
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only about Direct Bene¿ts Transfer scheme?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the above 1. Scheme was launched in 54 districts from
26. Which of the following statements is/are correct November 15, 2014 and in the rest of the
about ‘Swachh Bharat Kosh’? country from January 1, 2015.
1. Funds will be used for improving cleanliness 2. The subsidy amount to be given per domestic
levels only in rural areas. subsidized LPG cylinder shall remain ¿xed.
2. It will be under the Ministry of Rural 3. Persons who have opened accounts under
Development. the newly introduced Jan Dhan Yojana can
3. Its functioning will be monitored on quarterly also link their LPG connection to such an
basis by Union Minister of Agriculture. account.
correct?
regarding National Institution for Transforming
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of the above India (NITI) Aayog?
27. Consider the following statements: (1) The Prime Minister will be the chairperson.
1. Union Finance Ministry has announced that (2) Chief Executive Of¿cer and Vice-Chairperson
Goa and Kerala became the ¿rst states in the would be appointed by the parliament.
country to achieve 100 percent Financial (3) Maximum of 4 members of the Union Council
Inclusion under Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan of Ministers can be nominated by the Prime
Yojana (PMJDY). Minister.
2. Union Finance Ministry also announced Codes
that three Union Territories (UTs) namely (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Chandigarh, Puducherry and Lakshadweep (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
31. Which of the following statements are correct 35. Which among the following are the recommendations
regarding Insurance Regulatory and Development of the High Level Committee (HLC) for
Authority of India (IRDA)? Restructuring of Food Corporation of India (FCI)
(1) It is an advisory body. chaired by Shanta Kumar?
(2) It was created by an act passed in 1999. (1) FCI procurement should focus on eastern belt,
(3) The headquarter of IRDA is located in where farmers do not get minimum support
Hyderabad. price.
Codes (2) It proposes to virtually dilute the scope of
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only National Food Security Act (NFSA) by
(c) 3 only (d) All of these lowering its coverage to about 40 per cent
32. Which of the following statements are correct population.
about Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Castes (3) It proposes to start Direct Bene¿t Transfer in
Scheme? lieu of distribution through Public Distribution
(1) Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) System.
Limited will be the Sponsor this scheme. Codes
(2) Union Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment will provide assistance of Rs.
15 crore each to 30 persons a year in the form
36. RBI has recently eased the restriction on
of loan.
export and import of bank notes of 1,000 and
(3) Atleast 40% of bene¿ciaries will be women.
Codes 500 denominations to which of the following
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only countries?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (1) Bangladesh (2) Bhutan
33. Which of the following statements are correct (3) Nepal (d) Srilanka
regarding National Optical Fibre Network Codes
(NOFN)? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(1) It is the largest rural connectivity project of (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
its kind in the world. 37. Which of the following statements are correct
(2) It has been launched by the Ministry of regarding Heritage City Development and
Information Technology and Communications Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY) scheme?
(3) Vellore has become ¿rst district in India to (1) It has been launched by the Ministry of
have high speed Rural Broadband Network Tourism
Codes (2) Twelve cities has been identi¿ed which will
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only be rejuvenated and developed under HRIDAY
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these scheme.
34. Recently, State Bank of India (SBI) has signed a Codes
loan agreement for 100 million euro with European (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Investment Bank (EIB). It will be used for: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(1) the development of small and medium-sized 38. Which of the following statements are correct
enterprises regarding high-level panel on urban cooperative
(2) the development of social and economic banks (UCB) appointed by the Reserve Bank of
infrastructure India?
(3) the climate change mitigation and adaptation (1) The panel will be headed by Raghuram Rajan.
Codes (2) It will suggest appropriate size of UCBs and
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only the line of businesses it may be permitted to
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these undertake.
G-48 || Economical
(3) It will analyse the modalities of implementing Codes:
the suggestion of the Malegam Committee. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Codes (c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of these
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these regarding Sukanya Samridhi Yojna?
39. Which of the following statements are correct (1) It has been started under Beti Bachao Beti
regarding Credit Suisse emerging consumer Padhao (BBBP) campaign.
scorecard 2015? (2) All the girls under 18 years of age can open
(1) The scorecard was prepared by ¿fth annual Sukanya Samridhi Account.
Emerging Consumer Survey by the Credit (3) A minimum of ` 1000 needs to be deposited
Suisse Research Institute. every year in the account.
(2) India has topped the list among nine emerging (4) The government deposits ` 1000 every year
economies. in the account.
(3) e-commerce share in India have increased to Codes
32 per cent from 20 per cent in 2013. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
Codes (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of these
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these regarding Council of Scienti¿c & Industrial
40. According to UN report on global investments, Research (CSIR)?
arrange the following countries in the decreasing (1) It is an autonomous body established in
order of FDI inÀows in the respective countries? 1942.
(1) India (2) China (2) It is India’s largest research and development
(3) Brazil (4) Singapore (R&D) organization.
Codes (3) President of India is the Chairman of CSIR.
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 2, 4, 3, 1 (4) As Kiran Kumar is the present Director
(c) 4, 2, 1, 3 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4 General of CSIR.
41. Which of the following statements are correct Codes
about Coal India Limited? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(1) It is the largest coal producer company in the (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) All of these
world. 45. Which bank has launched ‘Pockets’, India’s ¿rst
(2) It is a Maharatna company of the Indian digital Bank on mobile phones?
government. (a) ICICI Bank
(3) The Indian government holds 51% stake in (b) HDFC Bank
the company. (c) Kotak Mahindra
Codes (d) Punjab National Bank
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these regarding National Minorities Development and
42. Which of the following are the criteria adopted Finance Corporation (NMDFC)?
by the central government for capital infusion (1) It works under the aegis of Ministry of
into banks? Minority Affairs.
(1) Return on Assets for last three years (2) It is a public enterprise with centre holding
(2) Return on Credits for last ¿nancial year 51% shares.
(3) Return on Equity for last ¿nancial year (3) It provides loans at lower interest rates for
(4) Percentage increase in number of branches self-employment to backward sections of
in rural areas the minority communities.
(4) Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains (1) The bank will refinance Micro-Finance
and Parsis are covered under this scheme. Institutions.
Codes (2) It will give priority to SC/ST enterprises in
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only lending.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of these (3) It will be created with a corpus of `20,000
47. Which company has become the ¿rst corporate crore and credit guarantee corpus of `3,000
to cross the 700 billion dollar mark in market crore.
capitalization? Codes
(a) Microsoft (b) Exxon (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Google (d) Apple Inc. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
48. Which of the following statements are correct 52. Economic Survey 2014-15 has given three-
regarding Commercial Courts Bill, 2015? pronged strategy. Which of the following are
(1) It proposes to establish at least 60 include in it?
commercial courts across the country. (1) Revival of public investment in short term
(2) It proposes to establish Commercial (2) Flexibility in labour and environment law
Appellate Division of two judges at Supreme (3) Reorientation and restructuring of the PPP
Court to hear appeal from commercial model.
courts. Codes
(3) It proposes to set a time limit of 90 days for (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
delivery of judgment after conclusion of (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
arguments. 53. Below mentioned women are included in Asia’s
Codes 50 Power Businesswomen 2015 list released by
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Forbes. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these matched?
49. Which of the following statements are true Businesswomen Associated with
regarding e-Biz portal launched by the Indian (1) Arundhati Bhattacharya State Bank of India
government recently? (2) Chanda Kochchar ICICI Bank
(1) It has been launched by the Finance Ministry. (3) Kiran Mazumdar Shaw Axis Bank
(2) It will provide single window facility for (4) Akhila Srinivasan Biocon
business transactions and other formalities. Codes
(3) Initially, the portal will be launched in 10 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
pilot states. (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Codes 54. Under Mines and Minerals (Development and
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2015, which of
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these the following minerals have been categorised as
50. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) noti¿ed minerals?
has recently approved four highway projects in (1) Bauxite (2) Limestone
which of the following states? (3) Manganese (4) Mica
(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Madhya Pradesh Codes
(3) Odisha (4) Chhattisgarh (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Codes (c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of these
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only 55. Which of the following are provisions of Insurance
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of these Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2015?
51. Which of the following statements are correct (1) It increases FDI cap to 49%
regarding Micro Units Development Re¿nance (2) It rename Life Insurance Corporation as Life
Agency (MUDRA) Bank? Insurance Council
G-50 || Economical
(3) It allows PSU general insurers to raise funds 60. Which of the following statements are true
from the capital market. regarding Mega Food Parks?
Codes (1) Their aim is to replace the Food Corporation
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only of India.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (2) All these parks would function under the
56. Recently, Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs central government through public sector
(CCEA) has approved to extend subsidy on which enterprises.
of the following till March 31, 2015? (3) They will be based on cluster approach.
(1) PDS kerosene (4) They will give boost to the food processing
(2) LPG industries by providing forward and backward
(3) Freight to far-Àung areas linkages.
(4) Wheat Codes
Codes (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) All of these 61. Central Warehousing Corporation has approved to
57. Arrange the following countries in decreasing set up steel silos for storage of wheat at which of
order with highest steel producer as ¿rst and so on. the following places?
(1) Japan (2) USA (1) Nabha
(3) China (4) India
(2) Muzzafarnagar
Codes
(3) Rayanapadu
(a) 3, 2, 1, 4 (b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(4) Ernakulam
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 3, 4, 2, 1
regarding Warehousing Corporations (Amendment) (a) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
Bill, 2015? (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4
(1) It seeks to give status of ‘Maharatna’ Public 62. Recently, Cabinet Committee for Economic Affairs
Sector Enterprise to Central Warehousing (CCEA) has given approval for sale of stakes in
Corporation (CWC) which of the following companies?
(2) The central government will become the (1) Life Insurance Corporation
¿nancial guarantor once the bill is passed. (2) National Hydroelectric Power Corporation
Codes (3) National Thermal Power Corporation
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (4) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (5) Coal India Limited
59. Which of the following are the guidelines recently Codes:
approved by SEBI to govern international ¿nancial (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 5 only
services centres (IFSC)? (c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 3, 4 and 5 only
(1) The existing stock exchanges can establish 63. Consider the following statements regarding the
their subsidiaries in the IFSC. latest data (for 2012-13) of Central Statistics Of¿ce
(2) The minimum initial capital to set up stock (CSO):
exchange is lowered to ` 25 crore.
(1) Bihar has registered the fastest growth rate
(3) IFSC will be established under the Company
(2) The growth rate of Punjab and Goa is under
Act, 2013.
¿ve percent
Codes
Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct?
64. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 69. Which of the following are the correct features of
(1) RBI has prescribed the maximum age the Small Factories (Regulation of Employment
of CEOs of private banks as 70 years in and Conditions of Services) Bill, 2014?
accordance with PJ Nayak Committee (1) The factories covered under the bill will have
(2) This is the first time that the RBI has to register within 60 days of commencement
prescribed the retirement age in private bank of business
Codes: (2) The employer can pay to employee through
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only cash, cheque or account transfer
(3) The chief inspector will be authorised to
65. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
cancel the registration of a factory
(1) The maximum limit for an MSME (Micro,
Small and Medium Enterprises) in service (4) The sacking procedure has been eased
sector is Rs. 10 crore Codes:
(2) The growth rate of MSMEs in 11th ¿ve year (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
pln was more than 10%. (c) 2 and 4 only (d) All of the above
(3) MSMEs count for more than one-third of 70. Which of the following statements are correct
exports from India regarding Deendayal Upadhyay Shramev Jayate
Codes: Karyakram?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (1) Apprentice Protsahan to be started
(2) Revamped Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
66. State Bank of India has recently signed a $500
(RSBY) for the workers in the unorganized
Line of Credit (LoC) with the Exim Bank of
(a) Japan (b) China sector will be implemented
(c) South Korea (d) Indonesia (3) It provides portability for Employees’
67. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Provident Fund Account Holders
(1) GIF, a fund has been started by International Codes:
Monetary Fund (IMF). (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(2) The key focus of the fund is sustainable (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
infrastructure in emerging economies. 71. Which of the following country is the largest
(3) GIF will also work with certain private economy in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)?
entities to tap into multiple sources of
(a) USA (b) China
funding.
Codes: (c) Luxemberg (d) Switzerland
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above about Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
68. Which of the following are the recommendations (AIIB)?
of Deepak Parekh Committee on Infrastructure? (1) The headquarter of the bank will be in
(1) Establish a PPP model for power distribution Beijing.
(2) Power Tariffs should be under a grading (2) India is among the founding member of the
system according to the paying capabillities bank.
of households. (3) Japan will be the second largest share holder
(3) Privatisation of coal mining
of AIIB after China.
(4) Disinvestment in Public Sector Banks
Codes:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 ony (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these
G-52 || Economical
73. Recently, Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana has been (1) Existing non-bank Pre-paid Payment
implemented in which of the following states? Instrument (PPI) issuers, mobile ¿rms and
(1) Bihar (2) Himachal Pradesh supermarket chains etc will be allowed to
(3) Rajasthan (4) Uttar Pradesh work as payment banks.
(5) Telangana (2) Payment Banks will initially be restricted to
Codes: hold a maximum balance of 1 lakh rupees
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only per individual customer
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only (d) 3, 4 and 5 only (3) Payment Banks will not be allowed to issue
74. Which of the following pairs are correct? ATM or debit cards.
Organization Headquarter
(4) These banks will need to maintain the Cash
(1) New Development Bank Shanghai
Reserve Ratio (CRR) with the Reserve Bank
(2) Asian Development Bank Tokyo
of India.
(3) International Monetary Washington,
Fund DC Codes:
(4) IBRD Geneva (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only 78. Which of the following statements are correct
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only regarding Pre-paid Payment Instruments (PPIs)?
75. Which of the following statetments are correct (1) The limit of the payment card is ` 1 lakh.
regarding the National Institute of Public Finance (2) One bene¿ciary can use only one card.
and Policy (NIPFP)? (3) RBI has recently enhanced the validity of
(1) National Institute of Public Finance and gift card from 2 years to 5 years.
Policy (NIPFP) is a think tank for doing (4) The banks are not allowed to issue rupee
applied research in the ¿eld of public ¿nance. denominated PPIs for visiting foreign
(2) It is based in New Delhi. nationals
(3) Presently, Rathin Roy is the chairman of the Codes:
institute. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
Codes: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of these
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 79. Which among the following insurance companies
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these has announced an insurance plan to have life cover
upto the age of 100 years?
about Kisan Vikas Patra Scheme?
(a) ICICI Lombard (b) MaxBupa
(1) The investments could be made in the range
(c) IDBI Federal (d) LIC
of `1000 - `50,000.
(2) Tax rebate will be provided on the amount 80. Which of the following statements are correct?
invested. (1) Repo Rate (presently 8 percent) is the rate at
(3) The certi¿cates can be used as pledged which banks borrow funds from RBI.
secuity to avail loans from banks. (2) Cash Reserve Ratio (Presently 4 percent)
(4) The certi¿cates will carry a lock-in period of is the portion of total deposits of customers
2 years and 6 months. which the commercial banks have to hold as
Codes: reserves with RBI.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (3) Reverse Repo Rate is greater than Repo
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only Rate.
77. Which of the following are the guidelines issued Codes:
by the Reserve Bank of India in November 2014 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
for Licensing of Payments Banks? (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
81. ONGC Videsh Ltd (OVL) will sign a deal to aquire (3) Appeals on the decision of Dispute
oil¿elds in Siberia. Which of the following oil¿elds Settlement Authority to settle disputes
are included in the deal? regarding GST lie with the Supreme Court.
(1) PetroCarabobo (4) Petroleum products are exempted from the
(2) San Cristoba bill.
(3) Vankor Codes:
(4) Yurubcheno Tokhomskoye (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 85. Recently, Reserve Bank of India has imposed
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only monetary penalty on two banks due to violation
82. Which of the following statements are correct of Know Your Customer (KYC norms).
regarding Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK)? Which of the following are those banks?
(1) It is a national credit fund for women (a) ICICI Bank and Bank of Baroda
under the Ministry of Women and Child (b) ICICI Bank and State Bank of Patiala
Development. (c) State Bank of Patiala and Yes Bank
(2) It extends credit to the women in the informal
(d) HDFC Bank and IDBI Bank
sector.
86. Consider the following Statements:
(3) It extends monetary help to the pregnant
(1) Arun Jaitley is a member of the Board of
women
Governors of the Asian Development Bank
Codes:
(ADB).
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (2) Asian Development Bank is based in
83. Which of the following are the features of Phillippines.
the Insurance Laws (Amendment) Bill being Choose the correct statement/s using the following
introduced in the parliament? codes:
(1) The bill allows 49% foreign stakes in (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
insurance ¿rms, which may include both (c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None
foreign direct investment (FDI) and foreign 87. Consider the following statements:
portfolio investment. (1) RBI has lowered Statutory Liquidity Rate
(2) The limit for paid-up capital for health (SLR) by 0.50% in its June review.
insurance ¿rms is Rs 100 crore. (2) Reduction in SLR helps in increasing credit
(3) The management of an insurance company availability in the market
can be in foreign hands. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Codes: (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these 88. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
84. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the recommendations of P.J Nayak
regarding Goods and Services Tax (GST) Bill committee?
2011? (1) Dilute the ownership of government in public
(1) The bill seeks to amend the constitution sector banks to 50%
under 115th Constitution Amendment Bill, (2) Allow separate Authorized bank investors to
2011. own up to 20% of public bank’s shares.
(2) Parliament and state legislatures would have Choose the correct option:
exclusive power to levy GST on imports and (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
inter-state trade respectively. (c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None
G-54 || Economical
89. Consider the following statements: 94. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
(1) After acceptance of Mayaram panel report, correct?
any investment more than 10% would be (1) Rs. 100 crore has been allocated for Van
treated as FDI Bandhu Kalyan Yojna
(2) Quali¿es Foreign Investors (QFIs) are also a (2) The scheme was earlier implemented by the
part of FDI. government of Madhya Pradesh in the state.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? Choose the correct option from the codes given
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only below:
(c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
90. Which of the following statement/s are correct (c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None
about new reforms of SEBI? 95. The government in its budget has announced to
(1) All Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) to open Horticulture university in:
ensure atleast 25% public shareholding within (a) Haryana and Telangana
3 years. (b) Haryana and Andhra Pradesh
(2) SEBI has approved to set norm and regulate (c) Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
‘research analysts’ (d) Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
Choose the correct option: 96. According to RBI, which of the following are
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only the criteria to designate banks as Domestic
(c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs)?
91. Which of the following companies are recognised (1) It should have a size beyond 1 per cent of
as Navratna by the Government of India? GDP
(1) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (2) Interconnectedness
(2) Engineers India Limited (3) lack of readily available substitutes
(3) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (4) its complexity
(4) Airports Authority of India Choose the correct option from the codes given
Choose the correct option: below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
92. Price Stabilisation Fund Scheme includes which 97. Which of the following are the reasons for
of the following commodities? opposing Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA)
(1) Tea (2) Coffee by India at WTO?
(3) Paddy (4) Rubber (1) TFA restricts farm subsidies to 10% of the
Choose the correct option: value of agricultural production
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (2) TFA is discriminatory as it imposes
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 restriction on farm subsidies only on
93. Which of the following commodities have been developing nations.
recently approved by Cabinet Committee on Choose the correct option from the codes given
Economic Affairs (CCEA) to include under the below:
purview of stock holding limits under the Essential (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
Commodities Act, 1955? (c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None
(1) Onion (2) Jute 98. Which of the following Indian companies have
(3) Potato (4) Tomato achieved market capitalization of `5 lakh crore?
Choose the correct code from the options given (a) ONGC
below: (b) TCS
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) GAIL
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) all of these (d) Reliance industries
99. Which of the following are the recommendations 101. Which of the following has bought 100 percent
of Mahendra Dev Committee? stake in Australian mining and exploration
(1) The wages under MGNREGA should be company Legend Mining’s iron ore project in
more than or equal to the minimum wages Cameroon?
in the state. (a) Jindal steel and Power
(b) Mittal-Arcelor
(2) MGNREGA wages should be revised every
(c) Tata Iron and steel
year on the basis of Consumer Price Index- (d) SAIL
Agricultural Labour (CPI-AL) 102. What is the name of new commission, announced
Choose the correct option from the codes given by Modi in his maiden speech on 15th August 2014,
below: which will replace the Planning Commission?
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (a) National Development commission
(c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None (b) National Development and Reform
100. Which of the following statements are correct commission
regarding Insurance Law (Amendment) Bill? (c) National Development Council
(1) It seeks to increase the FDI cap in insurance (d) National Planning and Development
commission
to 49%.
103. Consider the following statements given below,
(2) Investment proposal beyond 26% to be and choose which is/are correct?
approved by FIPB 1. Union Finance Ministry ordered the forensic
(3) Voting rights of foreign partner is capped at audit of Punjab National Bank and ICICI
49%. Bank.
(4) The management control will be shared by 2. Textile Ministry signed MoU with Flipkart
the Indian and foreign investors. to provide marketing platform to handloom
Choose the correct option from the codes given weavers.
below: Select the appropriate option
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 4 only (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
G-56 || Economical
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 16 (c) 31 (b) 46 (b) 61 (a) 76 (d) 91 (b)
2 (c) 17 (a) 32 (a) 47 (d) 62 (c) 77 (a) 92 (b)
3 (a) 18 (a) 33 (a) 48 (c) 63 (c) 78 (a) 93 (b)
4 (b) 19 (b) 34 (d) 49 (d) 64 (b) 79 (c) 94 (a)
5 (d) 20 (d) 35 (a) 50 (b) 65 (d) 80 (a) 95 (a)
6 (a) 21 (b) 36 (c) 51 (d) 66 (c) 81 (d) 96 (c)
7 (b) 22 (d) 37 (b) 52 (b) 67 (b) 82 (a) 97 (c)
8 (d) 23 (b) 38 (c) 53 (a) 68 (b) 83 (b) 98 (b)
9 (a) 24 (b) 39 (d) 54 (a) 69 (b) 84 (d) 99 (a)
10 (c) 25 (c) 40 (b) 55 (b) 70 (d) 85 (a) 100 (a)
11 (d) 26 (d) 41 (a) 56 (a) 71 (b) 86 (a) 101 (a)
12 (b) 27 (c) 42 (a) 57 (b) 72 (a) 87 (c) 102 (b)
13 (a) 28 (b) 43 (a) 58 (d) 73 (c) 88 (a) 103 (b)
14 (b) 29 (d) 44 (a) 59 (a) 74 (d) 89 (a)
15 (b) 30 (b) 45 (a) 60 (b) 75 (a) 90 (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) The plant is built at a cost of Rs 676 crore. 6. (a) RBI has kept the cash reserve ratio (CRR)
It will help VSP to move step towards achieving unchanged at 4 percent
self-suf¿ciency in power generation and to reduce 8. (d) Six Indian women entrepreneurs and
dependency on the State Grid in the process of steel
businesswomen have been named by Forbes
making.
magazine as among the 50 ‘Power Businesswomen’
2. (c) Bill has changed it for 50 years, as against
present 30 years for all minerals other than coal, from Asia.
lignite and atomic minerals. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw- Chairman & MD of
3. (a) The bill has provision of punishment to deal Biocon.
with the black money cases. It proposes penalty at Shikha Sharma- CEO of Axis Bank.
the rate of 300 per cent of taxes to be levied on the 9. (a) The portal will provide in total 11 Union
concealed income and assets, in addition to 10 years government services to meet its objective.
rigorous imprisonment.
10. (c) Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet and
4. (b) State-run insurance giant LIC will provide a
Expo (Re-Invest) 2015 held in New Delhi .
Financial Assistance of Rs 1.5 lakh crore to Indian
12. (b) The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
Railways for developing infrastructure.
(CCEA) has made packaging of foodgrains & sugar
5. (d) NPCI is also nodal agency for all retail payment
in jute material mandatory for jute year 2014-15.
systems under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
13. (a) FCI procurement should focus on eastern belt,
(PMJDY) which was launched in 2014 to push DBT
and ¿nancial inclusion. where farmers do not get minimum support price.
14. (b) Guinness book of World Records has given 28. (b) AIIB is an international ¿nancial institution
certi¿cate stating it as most bank accounts opened that was proposed by China.
in one week. 30. (b) Chief Executive Of¿cer and Vice-Chairperson
15. (b) They had imposed ban citing the reason that of NITI Aayog would be appointed by the Prime
fruit Àies from these consignments may damage Minister.
European salad crops.India is the biggest producer 31. (b) IRDA is an autonomous statutory body. Insurance
of mangoes in the world. Regulatory and Development Authority was renamed
17. (a) Its highest speed is 100 km/hr. as Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
18. (a) of India on 30 December 2014.
He is an Indian-American economist and 32. (a) There is no such provision in the scheme.
Professor of Economics at Columbia University. 33. (a) Idukki district of Kerala has become ¿rst district
He holds a Ph.d. degree in Economics from in India to have high speed Rural Broadband Network
prestigious Princeton University. i.e. National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN) internet
He was an ex-Chief Economist at the Asian connectivity.
Development Bank (ADB). 34. (d) SBI has signed a loan agreement of 100 million
19. (b) government had honoured Jamsetji twice by euro with European Investment Bank majorly
releasing his postal stamps one in 1958 and another to boost private industries in India and develop
in 1965. infrastructure along with climate change mitigation
21. (b) It is headquartered in Kolkata, West Bengal and adaptation.
22. (d) Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is a nuclear 35. (a) It proposes to defer implementation of NFSA in
power station in Koodankulam in Tamil Nadu with states that have not done end to end computerization.
a capacity of generating 2000 MW with 2 reactors. 36. (c) RBI has lifted ban on carrying Indian bank notes
23. (b) State-run Indian Oil Corp (IOC) has emerged of `1,000 and 500 denominations to and from Nepal,
as the country’s biggest company in terms of Bhutan.
annual revenue as per an annual list of Fortune 500 37. (b) HRIDAY scheme has been launched by the
companies in India- 2014. IOC topped the list with Ministry of Urban Development
annual revenue of Rs 4, 75, 867 crore. 38. (c) RBI’s Deputy Governor R Gandhi will head the
24. (b) Public sector power equipment maker Bharat committee.
Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) has achieved one 39. (d) The survey provides insights regarding
more milestone by constructing and successfully consumer sentiment and future consumption patterns
commissioning 28 MW (2×14 MW) Nyaborongo in emerging economies. India improved its rank from
Hydro Electric Project in Republic of Rwanda. fourth to ¿rst.
25. (c) Board for Reconstruction of Public Sector 40. (b) FDI inÀows to India increased to $35 Billion
Enterprises (BRPSE) was established in 2004 for (26% increase) in 2014.
this purpose. 41. (a) At present, the central government holds around
26. (d) Funds will be used for improving cleanliness 89% stakes in the company. It has announced to sell
levels in rural and urban areas, including in schools. up to 10 per cent of its stakes.
It will be under the Ministry of Finance and will 42. (a) Centre has adopted new criteria for capital
be managed by a Governing Council headed by infusion into banks based on the ef¿ciency of the
Expenditure Secretary. banks with extra equity capital.
Its functioning will be monitored on quarterly basis 43. (a) A minimum of one thousand Rupees and
by the Finance Minister and by the Prime Minister maximum of One lakh ¿fty thousand rupees can
from time-to-time. be deposited annually, upon which interest of 9.1%
27. (c) On 28th August 2014, Prime Minister
will be accrued.
Narendra Modi had launched the scheme with the
44. (a) Prime Minister is the Chairman of CSIR. Dr
goal of eradicating ¿nancial untouchability of the
poor by opening at least one bank account for every M.O. Garg has recently taken charge as Director
family in the country in less than six months. General (DG) of CSIR.
G-58 || Economical
45. (a) The users can instantly send money to any Enterprises. As per the criteria, the government
e-mail id, mobile number, friends on Facebook and will not continue as the ¿nancial guarantor of the
bank account through this facility. enterprise.
46. (b) Recently, the share of centre has been increased 59. (a) IFSC will be established under the Special
to 73% from 65%. Economic Zone Act, 2005. SEBI has relaxed the
norms for setting up of stock exchanges and capital
47. (d) Apple Inc. registered 64.36% growth in market
market infrastructure in such centres.
capitalization to cross $700 billion mark.
60. (b) The scheme was started in 2009 to give boost to
48. (c) Commercial Appellate Division are proposed the food processing industry along with infrastructure
to be established at High Courts. development. The aim was to establish 42 such parks.
49. (d) The single window facility will help in Recently, the government has approved last 17 parks,
bringing transparency. It will improve ease of doing out of which 7 have been allotted to the states and 10
business in the country. to private companies.
50. (b) CCEA has approved six laning of Chakeri- 61. (a) Steel silos for storage of wheat are to be set up
Allahabad section and Handia-Varanasi section in at Nabha, Muzzafarnagar, Rayanapadu, Miraj and
UP, Baleshwar-Chandikhole section in Odisha and Kandhwa.
Raipur-Bilaspur section in Chhattisgarh. 62. (c) LIC and NTPC are not among the companies
51. (d) Through MUDRA Bank, the government aims which are approved for disinvestment by CCEA.
to fund SMEs. The bank will enable existing small 63. (c) According to CSO date for the year 2012-13,
businesses to expand their activities. Bihar was the fastest growing state with 10.73%
52. (b) Economic survey states that creative solutions growth rate. The growth rate of Punjab and Goa were
are needed to be devised to strengthen institutions below 5% at 4.63% and 4.10% respectively.
relating to bankruptcy. It doesn’t talk about labour 64. (b) PJ Nayak Committee recommended the
and environment law. maximum retirement age as 65 years whereas RBI
53. (a) Kiran Mazumdar Shaw is founder and MD of has prescribed it as 70 years
Biocon and Akhila Srinivasan is MD of Shriram Life 65. (d) The maximum limit for an MSME in service
Insurance. The CEO and MD of Axis Bank is Shikha sector is Rs. 5 crore and for manufacturing is Rs 10
Sharma. crore.
54. (a) The bill has included bauxite, iron ore, limestone 66. (c) SBI has signed a $500 LoC with the Exim Bank
and manganese ore as notified minerals. A new of South Korea in addition to the $200 LoC signed
schedule 4 s proposed to be added through the earlier in this year.
amendment. 67. (b) Global Infrastructure Fund (GIF) has been
55. (b) It provides for the establishment of Life started by the World Bank.
Insurance Council and the General Insurance 68. (b) Disinvestment in Public Sector Banks is not a
Council. These bodies will regulate the insurance proposal by the committee.
industry. 69. (b) The employer can pay to employee only through
56. (a) CCEA has given its nod to extend the PDS account transfer
Kerosene and Domestic LPG Subsidy Scheme, 2002 70. (d) The aim of the scheme is to create conducive
and Freight Subsidy Scheme, 2002 for far-Àung for
environment for industrial development and doing
a period of one year that is up to 31st March, 2015.
business with ease
These schemes ended on 31st March, 2014.
57. (b) India has overtaken the US to achieve third 71. (b) According to October 2014 update of the
position in steel production. China is the largest International Monetary Fund (IMF), China has
producer of steel followed by Japan, India and the overtook the US to become the world’s largest
US. economy in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) terms.
58. (d) The bill states that the CWC has been awarded 72. (a) Japan will be the second largest share holder of
the ‘Miniratna’ by the Department of Public AIIB after China.
73. (c) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are not among the 90. (c) SEBI has asked all PSUs to increase public
states where the Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (for shareholding from atleast 25% which was earlier
development of tribals) has been launched. 10%. SEBI has approved regulate ‘research analysts’
74. (d) The headquarter of Asian Development Bank including stringent disclosure requirements.
and IBRD are in Manila and Washington, DC 91. (b) Engineers India Limited and National Buildings
respectively. Construction Corporation Limited have been added
75. (a) Vijay Kelkar has been appointed as the chairman recently in Navratna List of PSUs by the Union
of the institute. Government. BHEL is a Maharatna while AAI is a
76. (d) There is no upper limit on the investment. Miniratna company.
92. (b) Price Stabilisation Fund Scheme includes tea,
No tax bene¿ts would be available on these investments.
coffee, rubber and tobacco.
77. (a) Payment Banks will be allowed to issue ATM
93. (b) The CCEA has recently announced inclusion of
or debit cards but not credit cards.
Onion and Potato under the Essential Commodities
78. (a) RBI has enhanced the validity of gift card from to empower the State governments to carry out
2 years to 5 years. It has also allowed the banks to de-hoarding operations.
issue rupee denominated PPIs for visiting foreign 94. (a) The scheme is already running in the state of
nationals. Gujarat under the state government.
79. (c) IDBI Federal has announced IDBI Federal 95. (a) The government has announced to open
Lifesurance Whole Life Savings insurance plan, Horticulture universities in Haryana and Telangana
providing for life cover upto the age of 100 years. and new agriculture universities in Andhra Pradesh
80. (a) Reverse Repo Rate (presently 7 percent) is and Rajasthan.
less than Repo Rate. RBI borrows money from the 96. (c) The bank should have a size beyond 2 per cent
commercial banks at Reverse Repo Rate. of GDP to be designated as a D-SIB.
81. (d) Petro Carabobo and San Cristoba oil¿elds are 97. (c) If farm subsidies are restricted to 10%, it will
located in Venezuela. become dif¿cult to continue the policy of providing
82. (a) There is no provision to extend monetary help MSP and subsidies on fertilizers and seeds to the
to the pregnant women. The target is to cover at farmers. It will also hamper PDS system. It will
least 10 lakh women under Rashtriya Mahila Kosh not have any effect on farm subsidies in the USA
(RMK) over the next three years. as restriction will not be imposed on developed
83. (b) The bill retains the condition that management countries.
and control of the company has to remain in Indian 98. (b) TCS has become the ¿rst Indian company
hands. to achieve market capitalization of ` 5 lakh crore
84. (d) Parliament will have exclusive power to levy followed by ONGC at 3.5 lakh crore.
GST on imports and inter-state trade. 99. (a) Mahendra Dev Committee recommended that
85. (a) RBI has imposed monetary penalty on ICICI the CPI-Rural is the suitable index for protecting the
Bank and Bank of Baroda as these banks violated wages against inÀation.
the RBI’s instructions on KYC and anti-money 100. (a) Voting rights of foreign partner is capped at
laundering norms. 26%.Indian investors will retain the management
86. (a) Arun Jaitley has been appointed as the member control.
of the Board of Governors of the Asian Development 101. (a) Jindal Steel and power has bought Australian
Bank (ADB). He replaced P. Chidambaram. mining and exploration company Legend Mining’s
87. (c) The reduction in SLR increases the liquidity in iron ore project in Cameroon for Australian $17.5
the market as banks have more money in hand and million (`100 crores).
can provide more credit. 102. (b) Narendra Modi, said that the Planning
88. (a) The committee has recommended to allow commission based on the Russian model will
separate authorized bank investors to own up to 20% be replaced by the newly constituted National
of private bank’s shares. Development and reform commission.
89. (a) QFIs comes under Foreign Portfolio Investment 103. (b) Union Finance Ministry ordered the forensic
(FPI). audit of Dena Bank and Oriental Bank of Commerce.
4 Awards and Honours
1. Consider the following Statements: 2. For the ¿rst time he had served as PM for
1. Madan Mohan Malviya was conferred with just 13 days in 1996 and second time for 13
Bharat Ratna posthumously. months in 1998-1999.
2. He founded Banaras Hindu University in 3. Union government led by Narendra Modi has
1916. declared his birthday as Good Governance
3. Malviya was 3 time President of Indian Day.
National Congress. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
1. Gopaldas Neeraj was awarded with National
1. Adoor Gopalakrishnan was awarded the Dr
Kavi Pradeep Samman on 24 March 2015.
Bhupen Hazarika International Solidarity
Award on 29 March 2015. 2. This award was instituted by the Madhya
2. It is a biennial award instituted in 2013 and Pradesh government.
named in the memory of the cultural doyen 3. He is the 3rd recipient of this prize.
Dr Bhupen Hazarika. Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above 6. Consider the following Statements:
3. Consider the following Statements: 1. Veteran actor and ¿lm producer Shashi
1. NASA (National Aeronautics and Research Kapoor has been awarded with prestigious
Administration) has been selected for the Dada Saheb Phalke Award 2014.
Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2014. 2. Dada Saheb Phalke Award was established
2. The prize carries an award of Rs. 1.00 crore, in 1959 to commemorate the birth centenary
a plaque and a citation. year of father of Indian cinema Dadasaheb
3. Ramakrishna Mission was the ¿rst recipient Phalke.
of the prize (1995). 3. The award comprises a Swarna Kamal
Which of the statements given above is/are (Golden Lotus) medallion, a cash prize of
correct?
10 lakh rupees and a shawl.
correct?
1. Atal Bihari Vajpayee was awarded Bharat
Ratna on 27 March 2015.
7. Consider the following Statements: 11. Consider the following Statements:
1. Rajendra Singh has won 2015 Stockholm 1. Vinod Mehta has been awarded with Yash
Water Prize. Bharti Samman.
2. The prize is founded and ¿nanced 2. Yash Bharti Samman is conferred by the
by Stockholm Water Foundation and Rajasthan Government for excellence in
administered by the Stockholm International literature, ¿ne arts, folk and classical music
Water Institute (SIWI). and sports.
3. He is fourth Indian to win the prestigious 3. Currently, he is editorial chairman of the
global award. Outlook Group
correct?
correct?
8. Consider the following statements: (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
1. Veerappa Moily has been selected for the 12. Consider the following statements:
Saraswati Samman 2014. 1. Paulina Vega was crowned 63rd Miss
2. He is the second Kannada author to receive Universe.
the honour after S. L. Bhyrappa (2010). 2. She is daughter of celebrated Colombian
3. Saraswati Samman was established by the singer Gastón Vega.
Sir Ratan Tata foundation in 1991. 3. It was founded by the California clothing
Which of the statements given above is/are company Paci¿c Mills in 1952.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
9. Consider the following statements about Stree (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
Shakti Puraskar 13. Consider the following Statements:
1. Stree Shakti Puraskar was given in six 1. Arundhathi Subramaniam has won the
categories. inaugural Khushwant Singh Memorial
2. Awarded by Union Ministry of Women and Prize.
Child Development. 2. It was established by the Indian Government
3. Its objective is to recognize the spirit of
in memory of the late Khushwant Singh.
courage of women in dif¿cult circumstances.
3. She was awarded for her work When God is
a Traveller
correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above correct?
1. Former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
has been awarded the inaugural Charleston- 14. Consider the following statements:
EFG John Maynard Keynes Prize 2015. 1. Jhumpa Lahiri has won prestigious DSC
2. It is an international award, instituted in the Prize for South Asian Literature 2015.
memory and spirit of British Economist John 2. She has received the prize for her work The
Maynard Keynes’ work, life and legacy. Lowland.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. It is awarded annually to writers of any
correct? ethnicity or nationality writing about South
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Asia such as culture, politics, history, or
(c) Both1and 2 (d) None of the above people.
G-62 || Awards and Honours
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) Both1and 2 (d) None of the above
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above 19. Consider the following Statements:
15. Consider the following Statements: 1. Australian author Richard Flanagan won the
1. Frank Islam was given Martin Luther King Man Booker Prize 2014.
Jr. Award. 2. He is the third Australian to win the Man
2. Prabhu Nath Dwivedi has been conferred Booker Prize.
with prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award 3. The Booker Prize was ¿rst awarded in 1969.
2014. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. M.Y.S. Prasad has been selected for the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
prestigious Vikram Sarabhai memorial
award 2014-15.
1. The Nobel Prize for Economics was awarded
4. Dr Kamal Kishore Goyanka was awarded
to Jean Tirole.
with Saraswati Samman. 2. He is 6th Frenchman to have been awarded
Which of the statements given above is/are a Nobel Prize this year.
correct? 3. It is not one of the original Nobel Prizes
(a) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 1,3 and 4 only established by Alfred Nobel’s will in 1895.
(c) 2,3,and 4 only (d) All of the above Which of the statements given above is/are
16. Consider the following Statements: correct?
1. Boxer Manoj Kumar was awarded with (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Arjuna Award. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
2. He has won silver medal in Commonwealth 21. Consider the following statements:
Games 2010. 1. French author, Patrick Modiano is the
Which of the statements given above is/are recipient of the Nobel Prize in Literature for
correct? 2014.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. His stories also tend to be of an
(c) Both1and 2 (d) None of the above autobiographical nature and draw upon his
17. Consider the following Statements: city and its history.
1. Dilip Vengsarkar has been selected for Col. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both1and 2 (d) None of the above
2. Vengsarkar is the 19th recipient of the
22. Match the following:
Lifetime Achievement Award.
Person Nobel Prize
3. Sunil Gavaskar is also recipient of the
A. William E. Moerner 1. Physics
award. B. Isamu Akasaki 2. Literature
Which of the statements given above is/are C. May-Britt and 3. Chemistry
correct? Edvard Moser
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only D. Patrick Modiano 4. Medicine
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above Codes:
18. Consider the following Statements: A B C D
1. Marathi litterateur Bhalchandra Nemade has (a) 2 3 1 4
been chosen for 2014 Jnanpith Award. (b) 3 1 4 2
2. Kedarnath Singh was the recipient of 2013 (c) 1 2 2 4
Jnanpith Award. (d) 3 1 2 4
23. Consider the following Statements: 27. Consider the following statements:
1. Balbir Singh Senior was awarded with 1. Women scientists Dr. Tessy Thomas and
Major Dhyan Chand Lifetime Achievement Geeta Varadanwere jointly named for
Award. Dr. Y Nayudamma Memorial Award 2014.
2. He is often called Balbir Singh Senior to 2. This is the second time in the history of the
distinguish him from other Indian hockey trust that two eminent women scientists are
players named Balbir Singh. being concurrently honoured.
3. Balbir Singh Senior was a member of 3. Dr. Tessy Thomas is the Director, Advanced
three Olympic gold medal winning Indian Systems Laboratory of the Defence
team. Research and Development Organization
Which of the statements given above is/are (DRDO), Hyderabad and Geeta Varadan is
correct? the Project Director (Mission) of Agni V,
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only and Director, Advanced Data Processing
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above Research Institute at ISRO.
24. Consider the following Statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Indian-American author Akhil Sharma correct?
wonThe Folio Prize 2015 for his novel (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Family Life. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
2. The prize recognises the best ¿ction of 28. Consider the following Statements:
any language from around the world. 1. Lal Krishna Advani was conferred with
3. The Folio Prize was instituted in 2000. Padma Bhushan.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Harish Salve was conferred with Padma
correct? Vibhushan.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 3. Bimal Roy was conferred with Padma Shri.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Hi¿kepunye Pohambawon the Mo
Ibrahim prize for achievement in African
1. Subhash Chandra Agrawal was conferred
leadership for year 2014.
with Giraffe Hero award 2015.
2. He was the president of Ghana.
2. Baba Amte was also the recipient of the
3. Mo Ibrahim prize was established in 1995.
award.
correct?
correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above (c) Both1and 2 (d) None of the above
26. Consider the following statements: 30. Which of the following pairs of awards and
1. Wipro on 19 February 2015 won seven awareness in 72nd Golden Globe Award are
awards at the third annual edition of the correctly matched?
CIO Choice Honour and Recognition 2015. Award Awardee
2. The CIO Choice Honour and Recognition (1) Best ¿lm (drama) Boyhood
was organised by the Centre of Recognition (2) Best actor (drama) Richard Linklater
and Excellence (CORE). (3) Best ¿lm
Which of the statements given above is/are (foreign language) Leviathan
correct? Codes::
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
31. Which of the following pairs are correct regarding 35. Which of the following categories of National Film
recipient of Padma Vibhushan Awards 2015? Awards 2014 have been correctly paired with the
Recipient Category recipients?
(1) Karim Al Hussaini Public Affairs (1) Best Actor Bobby Simhaa
Aga Khan (2) Best Actress Kangana Ranaut
(2) Dr.D.Veerendra Heggade Social Work (3) Best Film on Pagdi- The Honour
(3) Prof. Malur Ramaswamy Science & Social Issues
Srinivasan Engineering (4) Best Feature Film Court
(4) Dilip Kumar Art Codes:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only 36. Which of the following Indian buildings were
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of these among the UNESCO Asia-Pacific Heritage
32. Which of the following pairs are correctly Awards- 2014?
matched? (1) Lal Chimney compound
(1) John Maynard Keynes (2) Royal Bombay Yacht Club
Prize 2015 Amartya Sen (3) Shri Shakhargad Nivasini Devi Complex
(2) National Science Gurpreet Singh (4) Esplanade House
Foundation CAREER Codes::
Award (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(3) Dr. Y Nayudamma (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1,2, 3 and 4
Memorial Award 2014 J.V Narlikar 37. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct
Codes: regarding MIDORI Prize?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (1) R.Kamal Bawa has won the prize for the year
2014.
(2) The award is presented by IUCN.
33. Which of the following statements are correct (3) It is given to an individual for outstanding
regarding new scheme for forming selection contribution to conserve and sustain
committee for Arjuna Award? biodiversity
(1) A sportsperson will be its head. Codes::
(2) It will have one para sports expert as its (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
member. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
(3) It can have only one member from one 38. Consider the following statements:
particular sport. (1) Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar Award is named
Codes: after Sir Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar who was
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only the ¿rst chairman of UGC.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (2) The award is given to the individuals for their
34. Which of the below statements are correct contribution in the ¿eld of art and architecture
regarding the International Women of Courage Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Codes::
Award?
(1) It is given by UN Women. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(2) It was established in the year 2007. 39. Kailash Satyarthi, who has been selected for Nobel
(3) No Indian has been honoured with the award Peace Prize recently is associated with
this year. (a) Narmada Bachao Andolan
Codes: (b) Beej Bachao Andolan
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) Bachpan Bachao Andolan
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (d) Save Democracy
40. Richard Flanagan recently won Man Booker Prize Codes:
for which of the following book? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(a) The Narrow Road to the Deep North (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of these
(b) The Sound of One Hand Clapping 44. Consider the following statements given below
(c) Death of a River Guide regarding Arjuna Awards 2014 and select which
(d) The Unknown Terrorist is/are correct?
41. Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Arjuna Awards is given to sportspersons for
(1) Jnanpith Award is presented by the Ministry their consistent outstanding performance for
of Broadcasting. 5 years preceding the year of award.
(2) Kedarnath Singh has received the award for 2. Arjuna Awards carry a cash prize of 7 lakh
the year 2013. rupees, a statuette and a citation.
(3) Any Indian citizen who writes in hindi is Choose the appropriate option from those given
eligible for the award. below:
Codes:: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only 45. Consider the following statements given below
42. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Dronacharya Awards 2014 and select
about International Children’s Peace Prize? which is/are correct?
(1) The prize is an initiative of KidsRights 1. Mahabir Prasad, has been awarded Dronacharya
Foundation. Award for Wrestling
(2) The Prize was launched in the year 2005. 2. Gurcharan Singh Gogi, has been awarded
(3) The prize for 2014 has been awarded to Neha Dronacharya Award for Boxing.
Gupta, an Indian citizen. Choose the appropriate option from those given
Codes: below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
matched?
Personalities Awards/Prizes (2014)
(1) Xu Youyu : UNESCO-Madanjeet
Singh Prize
(2) Ramesh Chandra : Sahitya Akademi
Award
(3) Jayprakash Panwar : ICT Mountain
Shah Development Award
(4) Manoj Kumar : Arjuna Award
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 8 (a) 15 (a) 22 (b) 29 (c) 36 (c) 43 (c)
2 (c) 9 (d) 16 (a) 23 (d) 30 (b) 37 (b) 44 (d)
3 (c) 10 (b) 17 (d) 24 (a) 31 (c) 38 (a) 45 (a)
4 (d) 11 (b) 18 (c) 25 (a) 32 (a) 39 (c)
5 (a) 12 (b) 19 (d) 26 (c) 33 (c) 40 (a)
6 (b) 13 (b) 20 (b) 27 (b) 34 (c) 41 (b)
7 (d) 14 (d) 21 (c) 28 (b) 35 (c) 42 (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) He was 4 time President of Indian National 12. (b) Paulina Vega is granddaughter of celebrated
Congress and had served his term in 1909, 1918, Colombian singer Gastón Vega.
1932 and 1933. 13. (b) It was established in 2014 by Suhel Seth in
2. (c) Gopalakrishnan is regarded as one of the memory of the late Khushwant Singh.
¿nest ¿lmmakers of India. As a director, producer 15. (a) Dr Kamal Kishore Goyanka was awarded with
and script writer he had played a major role in Vyas Samman.
revolutionizing Malayalam cinema. 16. (a) He has won gold medal in Commonwealth
3. (c) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Games 2010.
The award was instituted in 1961. It carries a
has been selected for the Gandhi Peace Prize for
monetary prize of Rs. 500,000, a bronze statuette of
the year 2014. Julius Nyerere (the ¿rst President of
Arjuna and a scroll.
Tanzania) was the ¿rst recipient of the prize (1995).
17. (d) Dilip Vengsarkar is also known by the
4. (d) In his third term as PM he completed his full
nickname ‘Colonel’. He was a member of the Indian
¿ve-year term and became ¿rst PM from outside the team that won the World Cup in 1983 and the World
Congress party to serve a full term. Championship of Cricket in 1985.
5. (a) He is the ¿rst recipient of this prize. 18. (c) Eminent Marathi litterateur Bhalchandra
6. (b) Dada Saheb Phalke Award was established in Nemade, whose 1963 novel Kosala(Cocoon)
1969 to commemorate the birth centenary year of changed the dimensions of Marathi novel, was
father of Indian cinema Dadasaheb Phalke. selected for the 2014 Jnanpith Award.
8. (a) Saraswati Samman was established by the K. 20. (b) Jean Tirole is the second Frenchman to have
K. Birla Foundation in 1991. been awarded a Nobel Prize this year. It is not one
9. (d) These categories are Kannagi, Rani Gaidinliu of the original Nobel Prizes established by Alfred
Zaliang, Rani Ahilyabai Holkar, Rani Lakshmibai, Nobel’s will in 1895. The Economics Prize was
Rani Rudramma Devi and Mata Jijabai. established only in 1968, and is funded by Sweden’s
10. (b) Amartya Sen has been awarded the inaugural central bank, Sveriges Riksbank.
Charleston-EFG John Maynard Keynes Prize 2015. 21. (c) Modiano was born on July 30, 1945 in a suburb
11. (b) Yash Bharti Samman is conferred by the Uttar of Paris. He studied at the Lycée Henri-IV in Paris.
23. (d) Balbir Singh Senior was a member of three
Pradesh Government.
Olympic gold medal winning Indian team, viz.,
London Olympics (1948), Helsinki Olympics Court. The amendments in National Sports Award
(1952) and Melbourne Olympics (1956). He was Scheme have been based on the suggestions given
the Vice Captain of the Indian Hockey team during by selection committee for Arjuna Awards headed by
Helsinki Olympics and Captain during Melbourne Kapil Dev.
Olympic. 34. (c) The award was established in the year 2007 by
24. (a) The prize recognises the best Englishlanguage the US government. Nirbhaya (fearless), victim of
¿ction from around the world, published in the Delhi gang rape and Ms. Laxmi, an acid attack victim
United Kingdom (UK) during a given year, were awarded in 2013 and 2014 respectively.
regardless of form, genre or the author’s country of 35. (c) Vijay for Nanu Avanalla Avalu (Kannada) and
origin.The Folio Prize was instituted in 2014. Bobby Simhaa for ¿lm Jigarthanda (Tamil) were
25. (a) He was the president of Namibia.Mo Ibrahim adjudged as Best Actor and Best Supporting Actor
prize was established in 2007. respectively. Chotoder Chobi (Bengali) by Kaushik
26. (c) Wipro won the award in the categories of Ganguly was adjudged as the Best Film on Social
Managed IT Services, Managed Security Services, Issues.
Enterprise Infrastructure Automation Services, 36. (c) Shri Shakhargad Nivasini Devi Complex and
Systems Integrator, Network Maintenance Services, Esplanade House were among the 14 winners of
Service Assurance Program, and Application UNESCO Asia-Paci¿c Heritage Awards- 2014.
Managed Service. 37. (b) The prize is given by the AEON Foundation
27. (b) This is the ¿rst time in the history of the and the secretariat of the Convention on Biological
trust that two eminent women scientists are being Diversity (CBD).
concurrently honoured.The award was established 38. (a) The award is given to the individuals for their
in 1986 in memory of distinguished chemical contribution in the ¿eld of science and technology.
scientist, leather technologist and former Director- 39. (c) Kailash Satyarthi, through Bachpan Bachao
General of CSIR Yelavarthy Nayudamma. Andolan campaigns for protection of child rights and
28. (b) Lal Krishna Advani- Padma Vibhushan to abolish illegal human traf¿cking.
Harish Salve - Padma Bhushan 40. (a) The Narrow Road to the Deep North is set in the
Bimal Roy- Padma Shri. background of World War II and give details about
29. (c) Earlier, the following people from India were life of Prisoners of War.
41. (b) Jnanpith Award is presented by the Bhartiya
honoured with the Giraffe Hero award including
Jnanpith (a trust). Any citizen who writes in any of the
Baba Amte, Mabelle Arole, Jaya Arunachalam, C
of¿cial languages of India is eligible for the award.
P Bhatt, Sunitha Krishnan, Usha Narayane, Bunker 42. (a) Neha Gupta, the winner of International
Roy, Vijay Saluja and G Venkatasamy. Children’s Peace Prize-2014, is a citizen of the USA.
30. (b) Richard Linklater has been conferred with the 43. (c) Xu Youyu, a Chinese pro-democracy activist,
award for best director. has been awarded with Sweden’s Olof Palme Human
31. (c) Karim Al Hussaini Aga Khan has been honoured Rights prize
with the award under Trade & Industry category. 44. (d) Arjuna award is given to the sportspersons for
32. (a) Tessy Thomas of DRDO and Geeta Varadan of their consistent outstanding performance for 4 years
ISRO have been honoured with Dr. Y Nayudamma preceding the year of award. It carry a cash prize of
5 Lakh rupees.
Memorial Award 2014.
45. (a) Gurcharan Singh Gogi, has been awarded
33. (c) The selection committee for Arjuna Award will Dronacharya Award not for Boxing, but in the ¿eld
be headed by retired judge of Supreme Court or High of Judo.
5 Sports and Games

1. Saina Nehwal won the India Open Super 1. Mahendra Singh Dhoni has become ¿rst
Series Badminton Women’s Singles 2015 Indian Cricket team Captain to register the
Title. 100 One Day International (ODI) match
2. She defeated Thailand’s Ratchanok Intanon wins.
in the ¿nal match played at Siri Fort Indoor 2. He was able to achieve this feat after Indian
Complex in New Delhi. team defeated Bangladesh in the 2015 ICC
World Cup quarter-¿nal match by 109-
run in Melbourne Cricket Ground (MCG),
correct? Australia.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. He is the third captain in the history of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above cricket to record 100 wins.
2. Consider the following statements about ICC Which of the statements given above is/are
Cricket World Cup 2015. correct?
1. Australia won the ICC Cricket World Cup (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
2015 for the record fourth time. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
2. In the ¿nal match Australia defeated, New 5. Consider the following statements:
Zealand. 1. Kidambi Srikanth won badminton’s Swiss
3. It was ¿rst time of New Zealand to enter Open Grand Prix Gold title in Men’s singles
¿nal of Cricket World Cup. category on 15 March 2015.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Kidambi Srikanth became third Indian to
correct? win this prestigious title in Men’s singles
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only category.
1. Shivani Cherukuli Dolly has created new (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
record in Archery and has entered into the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
India Book of Records. 6. Consider the following statements about Mary
2. Shivani is the kid sister of late Indian coach Kom.
and International archer Cherukuri Lenin. 1. Her full name is Mangte Chungneijang
3. Shivani Cherukuli Dolly belongs to Tamil Mary Kom and belongs to Meghalaya.
Nadu. 2. She is ¿ve-time World Boxing champion.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. She is the only woman boxer to have
correct? won a medal in each one of the six world
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only championships.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above 4. Her autobiography is Unbreakable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. BCCI was established in 1930 by replacing
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only Calcutta Cricket Club.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above 3. It is third term of Jagmohan Dalmiya as
7. Consider the following statements about WAADS. President of BCCI.
1. The WAADS World Association of Anti- Which of the statements given above is/are
Doping Scientists’ is an international correct?
organisation that comprises anti-doping (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
scientists from all the WAADA-accredited (c) 1 and 2 only (d) All of the above
labs across the world. 11. Consider the following statements:
2. It provides assistance to combat the issue of 1. Chris Gayle became ¿rst batsman to score a
doping in sport. double century in the World Cup.
3. India’s Dr. Alka Beotra has been nominated 2. Gayle’s record score comprised of 10 fours
as a member of the WAADS executive board.
and 16 sixes that helped West Indies score
correct? 372 runs during the match.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above correct?
1. Mumbai won the Ranji Trophy for season (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
2014-2015.
2. In the history of Ranji Trophy, Mumbai
(formerly Bombay) has recorded most wins 1. Anil Kumble has been chosen to be inducted
i.e. 40 wins. into the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. He will be 77th inductee into the ICC
correct? Cricket Hall of Fame.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. The ICC Cricket Hall of Fame was launched
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above in January 2007 by the International Cricket
9. Consider the following statements: Council (ICC).
1. Carolina Marin Martin of Spain has won the Which of the statements given above is/are
prestigious Women’s Singles Title in the All correct?
England Open Badminton Championships (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
2015. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
2. She defeated India’s Saina Nehwal. 13. Consider the following statements:
3. Carolina Marin became the ¿rst Spanish 1. The Union Ministry of Youth Affairs &
player to win this prestigious title. Sports has revised the Scheme of Rashtriya
4. The ¿rst England Open Badminton Khel Protsahan Puruskar.
Championships tournament was held in 2. According to the revised plan, this scheme
1898 in London. will be given in six categories.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Corporates now can spend and provide
correct? funds for promotion and development
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only of sports from the funds earmarked for
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above CSR(Corporate Social Responsibility).
1. Jagmohan Dalmiya is the incumbent correct?
President of the Board of Control for Cricket (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
in India (BCCI). (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
G-70 || Sports and Games
1. Leander Paes and Martina Hingis have won 1. Sania Mirza and Bethanie Mattek-Sands
2015 Australian Open mixed doubles title. won the Sydney International Tennis
2. With this win Leander Paes clinched his Tournament double title 2015.
10th Grand Slam title. 2. It is played annually at the Sydney Olympic
Which of the statements given above is/are Park Tennis Centre in Homebush, New
correct? South Wales, Australia.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. Bethanie Mattek-Sands is the tennis player
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above of England.
15. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Serena Williams of United States has won (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Australian Open 2015 Women’s Singles (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
title. 19. Consider the following statements:
2. She defeated Russia’s Maria Sharapova. 1. Indian cricket team has unveiled new eco-
3. With this win Serena Williams has won 6th friendly ODI jersey ahead of the triangular
Australian Open title and 19th Grand Slam series starting in Australia on 16 January
title. 2015.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Eco-friendly ODI jersey is made out of
correct? 100% recycled polyester obtained from 33
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only recycled plastic bottles.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above 3. It was unveiled in Melbourne.
16. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Pakistan will host International Cricket (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Council (ICC) World Twenty20 in 2016. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
2. England will host three ICC events in the 20. Consider the following statements:
next fouryear period. 1. Bhakti Sharma has set a new world record
Which of the statements given above is/are by swimming 1.4 miles in 52 minutes in one
correct? degree temperature in the Antarctic Ocean.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. She has become youngest female swimmer
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above in the world to swim in 5 oceans (Indian,
17. Consider the following statements: Atlantic, Paci¿c, Antarctic and Arctic) and
1. Saina Nehwal Syed Modi International India 7 seas.
Grand Prix Gold badminton title 2015 in the 3. She is also the second Asian girl and
women’s singles category. youngest in the world to achieve this feat.
2. In the ¿nal match she defeated world Which of the statements given above is/are
champion Carolina Marin (Spain) by score correct?
of 19-21, 25-23, 21-16 held at Lucknow, (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Uttar Pradesh. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
3. After the death of badminton player 21. Consider the following statements:
Syed Modi, a badminton tournament was 1. Ronaldinho has won the FIFA Ballon d’Or
constituted in his memory. award for year 2014.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. It is an annual football association award
correct? given by FIFA to the male player who has
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only performed the best in the previous calendar
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above year.
3. This award was instituted in 2010.
correct? correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
22 Consider the following statements: 26. Consider the following statements:
1. Tennis player Roger Federer has recorded 1. World Snooker Title was won by Yan
1000 titles wins in men’s professional circuit Bingtao the 14-year-old prodigy from China.
career. 2. He has become the youngest player to win
2. Roger Federer is third tennis player to win the men’s title in the IBSF World Snooker
more than 1000 titles. Championship.
3. He is a Spanish professional tennis player. 3. He defeated Pankaj Advani 8-7 in the ¿nal
match held in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
correct?
1. Ankita Raina has won ITF singles title in (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
tennis. 27. Consider the following statements:
2. She defeated Katy Dunne from Britain. 1. Indian Woman Boxer, Sarjubala Devi has
3. After Saniya Mirza, she became the second won gold medal in the World Women’s
Indian to win the title in the tournament after Boxing Championships held in Jeju City,
14 years. Korea.
2. In 2011, she won gold medal in Youth World
Women Boxing Championship organised in
Turkey.
3. Sarjubala Devi is from Manipur.
1. Viswanathan Anand has won 6th London
Chess Classic title.
correct?
2. He defeated British Grandmaster Michael
Adams.
3. London Chess Classic title was held at
the Olympia Conference Centre, West
1. Viswanathan Anand won the world chess
Kensington, London.
championship 2014.
2. He defeated Norway’s Magnus Carlsen.
correct?
3. Magnus Carlsen is the second youngest
grandmaster in history, although he has
since become the third youngest.
25. Consider the following statements About
Champions Trophy Hockey:
correct?
1. It is an international ¿eld hockey tournament
organized by the International Hockey
Federation.
2. It was established in 1978 by Pakistan’s Air
1. Sri Lankan cricket captain Angelo Mathews
Marshal Nur Khan and the Pakistan Hockey
has been named as captain of the ICC Test
Federation.
Team of the Year 2014.
3. India has won the title ¿ve times.
G-72 || Sports and Games
2. Indian cricket captain Mahendra Singh 34. Who among the following badminton players
Dhoni was named as the captain of ICC ODI became the ¿rst Indian to be ranked world no. 1?
Team of the Year 2014. (a) Pullela Gopichand (b) Saina Nehwal
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Prakash Padukone (d) U. Vimal Kumar
correct? 35. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only matched:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above Grand Slam Title Winner
30. Consider the following statements. (1) US Open women’s Serena Williams
1. India was chosen as the host country for title 2014
Under-17 FIFA World Cup in 2017 by the (2) US Open men’s Roger Federer
FIFA executive committee. title 2014
2. By virtue of being the host country, India (3) French Open women’s Maria Sharapova
will take part in the 24-nation tournament title 2014
for the ¿rst time in its history. (4) French Open men’s Rafael Nadal
3. The tournament comprises 24 teams and title 2014
it will be held in ¿ve cities across India Codes:
Including New Delhi (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 36. Which of the following players are correctly
(c) 3 only (d) All of the above matched according to the game they are associated
31. Consider the following statements: with?
1. Lewis Hamilton of Britain on 15 March 2015 (1) Rajat Chauhan : Archery
won the 2015 Formula 1 Rolex Australian (2) Gurpreet Singh : Shooting
Grand Prix. (3) Saurav Ghoshal : Swimming
2. This was the ¿rst Australian Grand Prix win Codes:
for Lewis Hamilton since 2008. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
3. Overall it was his 34th Grand Prix. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are 37. Who among the following are gold medalist
correct? wrestlers in the Commonwealth games-2014?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (1) Vinesh Phogat (2) Amit Kumar
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above (3) Babita Kumari (4) Vikas Gowda
32. Which of the following pairs are correctly Choose the correct option from the codes given
matched? below:
(1) Ramkumar Ramanathan Table Tennnis (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(2) Anirban Lahiri Golf (c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of these
(3) Sandeep Sejwal Swimming 38. Consider the following statements given below,
(4) Ankita Raina Lawn Tennis and choose which is/are correct?
Codes: 1. Kapil Dev has been appointed as the Director
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only of Indian Cricket Team.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of these 2. Adille Sumariwala appointed as the Chef-de-
33. Who is the winner of ATP Tennis Championship Mission for 2014 Asian Games.
2015 Women’s singles title held in Dubai? Select the appropriate option
(a) Karolina Pliskova (b) Timea Babos (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Simona Halep (d) Maria Sharapova (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 6 (c) 11 (c) 16 (b) 21 (c) 26 (a) 31 (d) 36 (b)
2 (c) 7 (d) 12 (a) 17 (d) 22 (a) 27 (c) 32 (c) 37 (b)
3 (a) 8 (b) 13 (b) 18 (a) 23 (a) 28 (c) 33 (c) 38 (b)
4 (d) 9 (a) 14 (a) 19 (d) 24 (d) 29 (c) 34 (c)
5 (a) 10 (a) 15 (d) 20 (a) 25 (a) 30 (a) 35 (b)
Hints & Solutions

2. (c) Australia won the ICC Cricket World Cup 21. (c) Cristiano Ronaldo has won the FIFA Ballon
2015 for the record ¿fth time. d’Or award for year 2014.
3. (a) Shivani Cherukuli Dolly belongs to Vijaywada, 22. (a) Roger Federer is third tennis player to win
Andhra Pradesh. more than 1000 titles. Other two tennis player are
4. (d) Other two captains to achieve this feat are – Jimmy Connors and Ivan Lendl.
Australians Allan Border (107 wins) and Ricky 23. (a) She also became the ¿rst Indian to clinch the
Ponting (165 wins). title in the tournament after 14 years. She is native
5. (a) Kidambi Srikanth became ¿rst Indian to win of Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
this prestigious title in Men’s singles category. 25. (a) India has won it once.
6. (c) She belongs to Manipur. 26. (a) He defeated Pakistan’s Muhammad Sajjad 8-7
7. (d) All statements are correct. in the ¿nal match held in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
8. (b) Karnataka won the Ranji Trophy for season 27. (c) Sarjubala Devi won Silver medal in World
2014-2015. Women’s Boxing Championships.
9. (a) The ¿rst England Open Badminton 28. (c) Norway’s Magnus Carlsen retained his title of
Championships tournament was held in 1898 in World chess champion by defeating Indian opponent
Guildford. Viswanathan Anand in the 11th round of their title
10. (a) BCCI was established in 1928 by replacing match held in Sochi, Russia.
Calcutta Cricket Club.It is his second term as 30. (a) The tournament comprises 24 teams and it
President of BCCI. will be held in six cities across India Including New
11. (c) He made this record by scoring 215 runs off Delhi.
just 147 balls in a Pool-B match against Zimbabwe. 31. (d) All statements are correct.
12. (a) The ICC Cricket Hall of Fame was launched in 32. (c) Ramkumar Ramanathan is the winner of Lawn
January 2009. Tennis event in 35th National Games.
13. (b) According to the revised plan, this scheme will 33. (c) Simona Halep defeated Karolina Pliskova in
be given in following four categories. They are the ¿nal match of ATP Tennis Championship 2015.
Identi¿cation and nurturing of budding/young Roger Federer was the winner of men’s singles title.
talent. Rohan Bopanna and Daniel Nestor won the men’s
Encouragement of sports through Corporate doubles title.
Social Responsibility (CSR). 34. (c) Prakash Padukone became the ¿rst Indian to be
Employment of sportspersons and sports ranked world no. 1. Saina Nehwal is the ¿rst Indian
welfare measures. women to do so.
Sports for Development. 35. (b) Marin Cilic of Croatia won the US Open men’s
14. (a) Leander Paes clinched his 15th Grand Slam title. title 2014.
16. (b) India will host International Cricket Council 36. (b) Saurav Ghoshal is associated with squash.
(ICC) World Twenty20 in 2016. 37. (b) Vikas Gowda won the gold medal in discuss
17. (d) Syed Modi Memorial and All India Syed Modi throw event.
badminton championship is organised each year at 38. (b) Ravi Shastri, has been appointed as the Director
Lucknow. of the Indian Cricket Team. Adille Sumariwala,
18. (a) Bethanie Mattek-Sands is the tennis player of President of Athletics Federation of India (AFI), was
America. appointed as the Chef-de-Mission for Asian Games,
20. (a) She is also the ¿rst Asian girl and youngest in by Indian Olympic Association to represent India in
the world to achieve this feat. the Asian Games 2014.
6 Science and Technology
1. Consider the following statements about Minor 2. It was launched by Geosynchronous Satellite
planet. Launch Vehicle (GSLV) C-27.
1. It was named after India’s chess legend 3. It is fourth Indian navigation satellite.
Vishwanathan Anand by the Minor Planet 4. IRNSS-1D will be launched into a sub
Centre. Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (sub GTO).
2. Now the Minor planet will be called as 4538 Which of the statements given above is/are
Vishyanand. correct?
3. It is located somewhere between the Mars (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 , 2 and 3 only
and Venus. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above
4. Consider the following Statements about
PRAGATI.
correct?
1. Pro-Active Governance and Timely
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Implementation (PRAGATI) platform is a
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above multi-purpose and multi-modal platform
2. Consider the following statements AWACS aimed at addressing grievances of common
project. man.
1. Airborne Warning and Control Systems 2. Designed in-house by the Prime Minister’s
(AWACS) can detect incoming aerial threats Of¿ce (PMO) team with the help of National
like hostile ¿ghters, drones and cruise Informatics Centre (NIC).
missiles from 400 km away. 3. On a monthly basis, Prime Minister will
2. The project will involve mounting interact with bureaucrats i.e. on fourth
indigenous 360-degree coverage active Wednesday of every month at 3.30 PM-
electronically scanned array (AESA) radars called as PRAGATI Day.
on Airbus A-330 wide body jets. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. HAL will develop the AWACSs. correct?
4. Union Government on 27 Mach 2015 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
gave its approval to build next generation (c) All of the above (d) None of the above
Airborne Warning and Control Systems 5. Consider the following statements:
(AWACS). 1. Polar Remotely Operated Vehicle (PROVe)
was successfully operationalised for
research in North Antarctica by National
correct?
Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT).
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 , 2 and 3 only 2. It is India’s second Polar Remotely Operated
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of the above Vehicle (PROVe) in North Antarctica.
3. Consider the following statements: 3. It will help researchers to study and ¿nd
1. Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) out details about dissolved oxygen in sea
has successfully launched Indian Regional bottom, salinity and the quantity of sunlight
Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS)-1D. hitting the bottom of the sea.
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above
6. Consider the following Statements about ‘Twitter 9. Consider the following Statements:
Samvad’. 1. World’s ¿rst electric satellites were
1. It is a new digital platform in association successfully lifted off by a Space Exploration
with social networking giant Twitter which (SpaceX) Technologies rocket from Cape
has been launched by Indian Government. Canaveral Air Force Station, United States.
2. The service aims to boost the nation’s 2. The rocket was carrying two all-electric
e-governance plans and facilitate commercial satellites built by Boeing.
direct communication between leaders,
3. It was lifted off from Cape Canaveral Air
government agencies and citizens.
Force Station, United States.
3. Twitter Chief Executive is Mark Elliot
4. The satellites are owned by the French
Zuckerberg.
satellite provider Eutelsat and Asia
correct? Broadcast Satellite (ABS)
7. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 ,2 and 3 only (b) 1 ,3 and 4 only
1. NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope has spotted (c) 2 ,3 and 4 only (d) All of the above
massive saltwater ocean under the icy crust 10. Consider the following Statements:
of Jupiter’s largest moon Ganymede. 1. U.S.A has become the ¿rst country to
2. Ganymede is the largest moon in our solar legalise the creation of three-parent IVF
system. designer babies using Mitochondrial
3. It is also the only moon with its own Donation Technique.
magnetic ¿eld. 2. This law will help to prevent serious
Which of the statements given above is/are inherited diseases that are being passed on
correct? from mother to child.
8. Consider the following statements about Solar (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Impulse 2: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
1. World’s ¿rst solar powered aircraft is on 11. Consider the following Statements:
global journey. 1. India successfully test-¿red its nuclear
2. It is a Swiss long-range solar-powered capable Prithvi-II missile from a test ranges
aircraft project and claimed to be ¿rst
at Chandipur in Odisha.
aircraft to Ày in day only without consuming
2. It is surface-to- air ballistic missile.
conventional fuel.
3. Dhanush is the variant of prithvi designed
3. The Solar Impulse 2 has 17,248 solar cells
for Indian Navy.
inbuilt into its wings. These cells supply
renewable energy to propel the electric Which of the statements given above is/are
motors of aircraft. correct?
4. It was successfully landed in Ahmedabad, (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Gujarat. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
G-76 || Science and Technology
12. Consider the following Statements: 3. It is 5 day event and will witness deliberations
1. National Aeronautics and Space and presentation of papers by the scienti¿c
Administration (NASA) has launched Soil fraternity from across the globe.
Moisture Active Passive (SMAP) satellite. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. SMAP satellite is one-year mission which correct?
will measure the amount of moisture in soil. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
3. The satellite is built to measure moisture in (c) 3 only (d) All of the above
the top 5 inches (10 centimeters) of soil.
1. China has launched Yaogan-26 a remote
Which of the statements given above is/are sensing satellite.
correct? 2. It will mainly be used for scienti¿c
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only experiments, land surveys, crop yield
(c) 3 only (d) All of the above estimates and disaster prevention.
13. Consider the following Statements about ISRO’s 3. China launched Yaogan-1, ¿rst satellite in
Mars Orbiter Mission(MOM) the Yaogan series in 2006.
1. It was launched on 5 November, 2013. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The team of ISRO’s Mars Mission has been correct?
awarded 2015 Space Pioneer Award. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
3. Mars Orbiter Programme Team will receive (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
the award during NSS’ 34th International 17. Consider the following Statements:
Space Development Conference which will 1. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
be held in New Delhi from 20 May 2015. has successfully lifted off GSLV Mark-
III X from Satish Dhawan Space Centre,
Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
correct?
2. It is India’s ¿rst sub-orbital Àight and latest
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only generation launch vehicle.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above 3. The GSLV-Mark III is a two stage/engine
14. Consider the following statements: launch vehicle.
1. Defence Research and Development Which of the statements given above is/are
Organisation (DRDO) has successfully correct?
tested an advanced electronic warfare (EW) (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
suite from Tejas-PV1. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
2. EW suite consists of Radar Warner and 18. Consider the following Statements:
Jammer. 1. India’s multi-band communication satellite
3. It will replace existing EW systems, which GSAT-16 was successfully put on a
are ¿tted on various combat aircraft as they Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) by
consist of basic equipment – Radar Warner the European launcher Ariane 5 VA221,
from the Kourou space port in French
Receiver.
Guiana.
2. It is indigenously developed by Indian Space
correct? Research Organisation (ISRO).
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 3. GSAT-16 satellite will help to boost public
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above and private TV and radio services, large-
15. Consider the following statements: scale Internet and telephone operations.
1. 102nd Indian Science Congress 2015 was Which of the statements given above is/are
held in New Delhi. correct?
2. Delhi is hosting it again after the gap of 45 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
years. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
19. Consider the following statements: 2. The engine will help engineers in making
1. India has launched IRNSS 1C the next and testing parts of jet engines in days
satellite in IRNSS (Indian Regional instead of months.
Navigational Satellite System) series on 3. 3D printing makes products by layering
16th October. material until a three-dimensional object is
2. IRNSS is a navigation system that will cover created.
India, and also extend 2000 kms from its Which of the statements given above is/are
boundaries. correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above 1. India's Defence Research and Development
20. Consider the following statements: Organisation (DRDO) on 19 December
1. Canada’s M3M (Maritime Monitoring and 2014 successfully tested an indigenously
Messaging Micro-Satellite) is set to be built 1000 kg glide bomb.
launched by India’s PSLV rocket. 2. The bomb had successfully hit a target 200
2. The satellite is due to be launched in July km away in the Bay of Bengal off the Odisha
2015. coast.
3. The satellite was built for the Canadian Which of the statements given above is/are
Department of National Defence, and is a correct?
communications satellite. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Both1 and 2 (d) None of the above
correct? 24. Consider the following Statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 1. Bridgmanite was declared the most abundant
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above mineral on earth by a team of American
geologists.
2. The mineral is named in honour of Percy
1. Port Blair Magnetic Observatory (PBMO)
Bridgman, a physicist who won the 1946
was inaugurated at Shoal Bay No. 8 in Port
Nobel Prize in Physics.
Blair, Andaman and Nicobar Islands on 30
March 2015.
correct?
2. The observatory has been set up by the
Indian Institute of Geomagnetism (IIG)
(c) Both1 and 2 (d) None of the above
under the Multi-Parametric Geophysical
Observatories (MPGO).
1. The world’s tallest hybrid wind generator
3. The IIG is located in Chennai.
turbine was installed in Kutch on 6
November 2014.
correct? 2. It is installed by Suzlon Energy.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 3. With this new turbine, the installed wind
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above energy capacity at the Kutch region of
22. Consider the following Statements: Gujarat has gone up to 100 MW.
1. Austrian researchers unveiled the world's Which of the statements given above is/are
¿rst 3D-printed jet engine. This is the ¿rst correct?
of its kind 3D printed engine on 26 February (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
2015. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
26. Consider the following statements: 3. It is equipped with Combined Gas and Gas
1. NASA installed and activated its ¿rst Earth- (COGAG) propulsion system.
observing instrument ISS-RapidScat (ISS Which of the statements given above is/are
Rapid Scatterometer) on the International correct?
Space Station (ISS). (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
2. It will monitor ocean winds and hurricane (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
for climate research. 30. Consider the following statements:
3. It is closer to Earth and it sees Earth at 1. Dongfeng-41 (DF-41) missile was
different times of the day with a different developed by North Korea.
schedule. 2. Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM)
Which of the statements given above is/are has a range of 12,000 kms.
correct? 3. It is world’s longest-range missiles.
1. Unit 3 of the Rajasthan Atomic Power (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
Station (RAPS) is the 2nd longest running 31. Prezista (Darunavir Ethanolate) manufactured by
reactor in the world by being in operation
drug ¿rm Lupin will be used to treat
for 765 days nonstop.
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Breast cancer
2. Unit 7 of Canada’s Pickering nuclear plant
(c) HIV (d) Ebola
holds the world record of running the largest
operating plant that ran continuously for 894
regarding advance Electronic Warfare (EW) suite
days.
tested recently?
(1) It has been developed by Council of
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Scienti¿c & Industrial Research (CSIR).
(c) Both1 and 2 (d) None of the above (2) It is ¿tted with a Jammer in addition to a
28. Consider the following Statements: Warner, which would enhance its capability
1. Union Government launched a new domain against the RADAR system.
Dot Bharat (.Bharat) in Devanagari script. (3) It was tested onboard of Tejas-PV1.
2. Originally the domain will cover 22 Codes:
languages mentioned in the Schedule-8 of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
the Constitution of India. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
3. The domain was developed jointly by 33. Which of the following statements are correct
National Internet Exchange of India about proposed India-based Neutrino Observatory
and CDAC (Centre for Development of (INO) project?
Advanced Computing). (1) The project will be located in Maikal Hills.
Which of the statements given above is/are (2) The project is jointly supported by the
correct? Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only the Department of Science and Technology
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above (DST).
29. Consider the following statements about INS (3) It will also host experiments such as the
Kolkata. search for dark matter.
1. It is constructed by the Mazagon Dockyards Codes:
Limited. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
2. It is largest indigenously-built warship. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
34. Which of the following statements are correct (2) It does not allow passage of defective
regarding Agni-V missile? mitochondria from mother to babies.
(1) It is an Inter-Continental Ballistic Codes:
Missile (ICBM) designed and developed (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
indigenously. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(2) It can carry Multiple Independently 39. Which of the following pairs are correctly
Targetable Re-entry Vehicles (MIRV) matched?
payloads. Exercise Conducted by
(3) It is a 3-stage solid fuelled missile. (1) HADR Indian Navy
(4) It can be transported and can be launched (2) Hand in Hand Indian Army
from any place. (3) Iron Fist Indian Air Force
Codes: Codes:
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
35. Which of the following statements are correct? 40. Which of the following statements are correct
(1) Space Pioneer Award is conferred by the US regarding HAL Advanced Medium Combat
government. Aircraft (AMCA)?
(1) It is twin engine ¿fth generation ¿ghter
(2) The team of ISRO’s Mars Mission has been
plane being developed by HAL.
awarded 2015 award in the Science and
(2) It will be equipped with the stealth
Engineering category.
technology.
Codes:
(3) It will have the ability to release weapons at
supersonic speeds.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (4) It is ¿tted with Kaveri engines.
36. Which of the following are the characteristics Codes:
of the algal species Ulva paschima Bast and (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Cladophora goensis Bast discovered recently? (c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of these
(1) They have excellent ability to absorb carbon 41. Which of the following pairs are correctly
dioxide from the atmosphere. matched?
(2) Both species are endemic to western coast of Substance/mineral Use
India. (1) Graphite electrode Vulcanization of rubber
Codes: (2) Limestone Smelting of iron
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (3) Aluminium Mixing with other
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 metals to provide
37. Which of the following statements are correct strength and lightness
about the ship ‘Amogh’? Codes:
(1) It has been inducted by the Indian Navy (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(2) It is a stealth ship powered by nuclear fuel (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
(3) It has facilities like ¿ring gun, rubber boats, 42. Which of the following pairs are correct?
GPS system and upgraded radar system. Disease Caused by
Codes: (1) Swine Àu Protozoa
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (2) Malaria Bacteria
(c) 3 only (d) All of these (3) Measles Virus
38. Which of the following statements are correct (4) Athlete’s foot Fungi
about Mitochondrial Donation Technique? Codes:
(1) It uses a modi¿ed version of In-vitro (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
fertilisation (IVF)and involves three parents. (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
43. Which company has acquired Pipavav Defence (2) Agreements such as Montreal Protocol are
and Offshore Engineering? helping to recover ozone in the stratosphere.
(a) Reliance Infrastructure (3) The Ozone depletion is greater over Arctic
(b) Adani Group zone than over Antarctic zone
(c) Tata Realty and Infrastructure Codes:
(d) GMR Infra (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
regarding Astra missile?
48. Which of the following products are released
(1) It is an air-to-air missile indigenously built
by DRDO. when tyre is burnt?
(2) It can intercept target aircraft at supersonic (1) Vanadium (2) Carbon dioxide
speed. (3) Carbon Monoxide (4) Arsenic
(3) It uses an indigenous liquid fuel propellant. Codes:
Codes: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only 49. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
45. Which of the following nuclear power plants correct?
(planned or active) are correctly matched with (1) R-22 gas is another name for
the state where they are located? ChoroÀourocarbon
(1) Kakrapar Gujarat (2) R-22 is used in refrigerators and ACs
(2) Gorakhpur Rajasthan
Codes:
(3) Mithivirdi Maharashtra
Codes:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only 50. Graphene is a
46. Which of the following statements are true (a) two-dimensional material comprising of
regarding Indian Regional Navigation Satellite sheets of carbon atoms
System (IRNSS)? (b) three-dimensional material comprising of
(1) The system would comprise of seven sheets of carbon atoms
satellites which would cover 1500-2000 km (c) two-dimensional material comprising of
around the Indian landmass. sheets of Silicon atoms
(2) All the satellites are being developed (d) three-dimensional material comprising of
indigenously by ISRO. sheets of Silicon atoms
(3) Four out of seven satellites have already 51. Which of the following pairs regarding to Indian
been launched.
Navy’s ship/weapon system is/ are correct?
(4) All the satellites are being launched through
(1) Varunastra : Torpedo
GSLV.
Codes: (2) Mareecha : Decoy
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (3) INS Arihant : Submarine
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) All of these (4) INS Kolkata : Aircraft carrier
47. Which of the following statement(s) is/are Codes:
correct regarding report- “Scienti¿c Assessment (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
of Ozone Depletion”? (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(1) The report has been prepared by the World 52. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
Meteorological Organisation (WMO) and about Mars Orbitor Mission (MOM)?
United Nations Environment Programme (1) India became the ¿rst Asian nation to
(UNEP). successfully send a satellite to Mars’ orbit
(2) MOM is the India’s ¿rst inter-planetry Codes:
mission (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(3) The mission used Geostatinary Satellite (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
Launch Vehicle (GSLV) for the launch 58. Which of the following statements are correct
Codes: regarding Nirbhay missile?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (1) It is a cruise missile
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only (2) It has a range of 1000 km
53. Which of the following are contibutors to global (3) It has capability to reach speed of 2 Mach
warming? Codes:
(1) Nitrous oxide (2) Black carbon (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(3) Methane (4) Sulphur dioxide (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
Codes: 59. Which of the following statements are correct
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only regarding National Air Quality Index (NAQI)?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these (1) The index has been prepared by the Ministry
54. Which of the following pairs are correctly of Environment and Forests
matched? (2) The index is a part of Swachh Bharat
(1) MAVEN : Mars Abhiyan
(2) MESSENGER : Mercury
Codes:
(3) Akatsuki : Saturn
Codes:
60. Which of the following diseases are vector-borne
diseases?
55. White LED light is produced by making certain
(1) Dengue (2) Filariasis
combination of which of the following LED
lights? (3) Yellow fever (4) Chikungunya
(1) Red (2) Blue (5) Tuberculosis
(3) Green (4) Yellow Codes:
Codes: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) All of the above 61. Which of the following pairs are correctly
56. Following cells/tissues/parts and organs have matched?
been paired. Which among these pairs are (1) Spike : Surface to Air Missile
correct? (2) Nag : Anti tank missile
(1) Atrium : Heart (3) Tarkash : stealth ship
(2) Bowman's capsule : Kidney (4) Indra II : Radar system
(3) Hippocampus : Liver Codes:
(4) Alveoli : Lungs (a) 1 and 2 ony (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Codes: (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only 62. Which of the following statements are correct
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) All of the above about Staphefekt?
57. Which of the following statements are correct (1) Staphefekt is an anti-biotic
about Dongfeng-31B? (2) Endolysine enzyme is used in its production
(1) It has long range missile with a reach of Codes:
10,000 km. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(2) It can carry multiple nuclear warheads. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
63. Which of the following statements are correct (2) Each baryon has a corresponding antiparticle
about Very-small-aperture terminal? (antibaryon) where quarks are replaced by
(1) It is two way satellite ground station their corresponding antiquarks.
(2) Its Data rates generally range from 4 kbit/s Codes:
up to 4 Mbit/s (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(3) It access geosynchronous orbit to relay data (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
from small remote earth stations 68. Which of the following statements are correct?
Codes: (1) GSLV Mark III will be about 50 percent
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only heavier than the GSLV
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these (2) GSLV Mark III will operate in three-stages
64. Which of the following statements are correct? (3) GSLV Mark III will be less sensitive than the
(1) Prime Minister’s Council on Climate GSLV to disturbances that might occur as it
Change, which has been reconstituted accelerates through the dense atmosphere.
recently will have 18 members. Codes:
(2) The council includes Home Minister along (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
with 7 more ministers (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of these
(3) The Council will facilitate inter-ministerial 69. Which of the following statements are correct
about space probe ‘Hayabusa 2’?
coordination and guide policy in relevant
(1) It has been launched by Japan Aerospace
areas.
Exploration Agency through the H-IIA
Codes:
rocket.
(2) This project aims to send the explorer
towards Mercury.
Codes:
(1) Prithvi-II is a Surface-to-Surface Missile (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(2) It can carry a 500 kg nuclear warhead (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(3) It has a range of 350 KM 70. Which of the following statements are correct?
(4) Akash is the naval variant of the Prithvi (1) Green diesel is chemically same as biodiesel.
missile (2) Green diesel can be made from vegetable
Codes: oils, waste cooking oil and animal fats.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only (3) A Boeing aircraft ecoDemonstrator 787 is
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) All of these the ¿rst test Àight to use green diesel blended
66. Which of the following statements are correct with petroleum jet fuel.
about Akash Missile? Codes:
(1) It has been developed by the ISRO (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(2) It is a Surface to Air supersonic missile (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of these
(3) It can be ¿red from both tracked and wheeled 71. Which of the following statements are correct
platforms regarding INS Arihant?
(4) It has the capacity to carry upto 60 kg (1) It is India’s ¿rst indigenously designed and
warhead built nuclear submarine.
Codes: (2) It will be powered by thorium fuel.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (3) It is capable to launch K-4 missiles, which
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only have range upto 500 km.
(1) A baryon is a composite subatomic particle (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
made up of three quarks. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of these
72. Which of the following statements are correct? Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) Crew Module Atmospheric Re-entry (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
Experiment (CARE) is an experimental test (c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None
vehicle of ISRO launched by GSLV Mark 77. Consider the following statements:
III. (1) INS Kolkata is the largest warship in India
(2) CARE was made of aluminium alloy with (2) INS Kolkata is an indigenous warship
ablative thermal protection. (3) BrahMos missile has been test ¿red from
(3) The tested technology can be used for INS Kolkata
manned-mission to space. Which of the above statements are correct?
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 Only (b) 1 and 3 Only
(c) 2 and 3 Only (d) 1, 2 and 3
73. Which of the following statements are correct? 78. RAPS-5, a pressurised heavy water reactor set a
(1) Dr. K Radhakrishnan, the Head of ISRO, has new Asian record for non-stop operation. RAPS-
topped the list of eminent scientist inNature, 5 is a part of which atomic power station?
a science magazine. (a) Tarapur (b) Kalpakkam
(2) Mars Orbiter Mission has been named as (c) Narora (d) Rawatbhatta
the most important scienti¿c Breakthrough 79. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
of the Year 2014 by Science journal. regarding the Scorpene-class submarines?
Codes: (1) These submarines run on nuclear power
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (2) India has ordered these submarines from
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 France.
74. Which of the following pairs are correct according Choose the correct option:
to the possible date for the event? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(1) Summer solstice : June 21 (c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None
(2) Winter solstice : December 22 80. Consider the following statements:
(3) Vernal Equinox : February 20 (1) Akash is a Surface-to-Air missile
(4) Autumn Equinox : August 22 (2) It will be inducted in the Army and the Air
Codes: Force
(3) It has capability to intercept supersonic
cruise missile.
(1) Naval Light Combat Aircraft is indigenously
designed and developed. (a) 1 and 2 Only (b) 1 and 3 Only
(2) It is a supresonic aircraft (c) 2 and 3 Only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(3) It requires shorter run during take-off and 81. Sensing Skin Technology could help in?
landing. (a) Diagnosing skin diseases in human beings
(4) It had ¿rst successful Àight from INS (b) Tracing oil and gas reserves
Vikramaditya. (c) Detecting cracks in concrete structure
Codes: (d) Early warning of Tsunami danger
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 82. Which of the following satellites launched by
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only PSLV-C23 have been paired correctly with their
76. Consider the following statements: respective countries?
(1) India is one of six nations with an operational (1) SPOT-7 : France
nuclear submarine (2) AISAT : Germany
(2) India’s Nuclear Command Authority is (3) NLS 7.1 : Canada
chaired by the President (4) VELOX-1 : Italy
Choose the correct code from the options given 84. The full form of REIT is?
below: (a) Renewable Energy and Infrastructure Trust
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (b) Real Estate Investment Trust
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) all of these (c) Regional Enterprises of Information
83. Which of the following statements regarding INS Technology
Kamorta is/are correct? (d) Regional institute of Engineering and
(1) It is an anti-submarine stealth corvette Information Technology
(2) It is the ¿rst indigenous anti-submarine 85. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
corvette correct?
(3) It is the ¿rst indigenous stealth corvette (1) Malaria is mainly a tropical disease.
(4) It has a rail-less helicopter traversing system. (2) RTS,S, to be launched soon, is claimed to be
Choose the correct option from the codes given the ¿rst Malarial Vaccine
below: Choose the correct option from the codes given
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only below:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 14 (d) 27 (b) 40 (a) 53 (d) 66 (c) 79 (b)
2 (c) 15 (c) 28 (b) 41 (c) 54 (a) 67 (c) 80 (a)
3 (c) 16 (d) 29 (d) 42 (c) 55 (a) 68 (a) 81 (c)
4 (c) 17 (a) 30 (c) 43 (a) 56 (a) 69 (a) 82 (a)
5 (b) 18 (d) 31 (c) 44 (c) 57 (c) 70 (c) 83 (d)
6 (a) 19 (a) 32 (c) 45 (a) 58 (a) 71 (a) 84 (b)
7 (d) 20 (d) 33 (c) 46 (a) 59 (c) 72 (d) 85 (c)
8 (b) 21 (a) 34 (d) 47 (a) 60 (c) 73 (c)
9 (d) 22 (c) 35 (b) 48 (d) 61 (b) 74 (a)
10 (b) 23 (a) 36 (c) 49 (b) 62 (b) 75 (d)
11 (b) 24 (c) 37 (c) 50 (a) 63 (d) 76 (a)
12 (b) 25 (a) 38 (c) 51 (a) 64 (c) 77 (c)
13 (a) 26 (d) 39 (d) 52 (b) 65 (a) 78 (d)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) A minor planet is a term used to describe 8. (b) It is a Swiss long-range solar-powered aircraft
an astronomical object that is neither a dominant project and claimed to be ¿rst aircraft to Ày day and
planet nor a comet and thus includes the dwarf night without consuming conventional fuel.
planets that orbit around the Sun. Minor planet 4538 9. (d) It will provide services like mobile, internet,
Vishyanand was discovered on 10 October 1988 by video and other communications services to expand
Japanese astronomer Kenzo Suzuki which is located its reach into the Americas.
somewhere between the Mars and Jupiter. 10. (b) United Kingdom has become the ¿rst country
2. (c) Defence Research and Development to legalise the creation of three-parent IVF designer
Organisation (DRDO) will develop the AWACSs. babies using Mitochondrial Donation Technique.
3. (c) It was launched by Polar Satellite Launch
11. (b) Prithvi-II is surface-to-surface missile
Vehicle (PSLV) C-27. It is launched from Satish
Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota in Andhra developed by DRDO.
Pradesh. 12. (b) SMAP satellite is three-year mission which
4. (c) Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched Pro- will measure the amount of moisture in soil. It will
Active Governance and Timely Implementation measure in top2 inches (5 centimeters) of soil
(PRAGATI) platform on 25 March 2015. 13. (a) NSS’ 34th International Space Development
5. (b) It is India’s ¿rst Polar Remotely Operated Conference will be held in Toronto.
Vehicle (PROVe) in North Antarctica. 14. (d) This suit gives pilot an additional capability
6. (a) Twitter Chief Executive Dick Costolo. Mark of nullifying the effect of detected radar threat by
Elliot Zuckerberg is the founder of social networking appropriate mode of jamming.
website Facebook. 15. (c) Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated
7. (d) Scientists believe that this ¿nding could
the Indian Science Congress 2015 at the Mumbai
potentially support life. NASA’s Galileo mission
University. Mumbai is hosting it again after the gap
had provided ¿rst evidence of ocean in Ganymede
after measuring its magnetic ¿eld in 2002. of 45 years.
16. (d) The satellite was carried by a Long March-4B 36. (c) Ulva paschima Bast and Cladophora goensis
rocket, marking the 202th mission for the rocket Bast are the ¿rst algal species discovered in past 40
family. years in India. These were discovered by Dr. Felix
17. (a) The GSLV-Mark III is a three stage/engine Bast and two research students working with him.
launch vehicle. 37. (c) Amogh is a high-speed patrolling ship inducted
18. (d) After it was successfully placed in GTO, by Indian Coast Guard into its Àeet.
ISRO’s Master Control Facility (MCF) at Hassan, 38. (c) Recently UK parliament has voted to legalise
Karnataka has taken control of GSAT-16 satellite. law for creation of three parent IVF babies using
19. (a) The satellite weighed 1, 425.4 kg and was Mitochondrial Donation Technique.
successfully placed into a sub geosynchronous 39. (d) Indian Navy recently undertook Humanitarian
transfer orbit just 20 minutes after the launch. Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) exercise
21. (a) The IIG is located in Mumbai. involving more than 20 ships from the Western
22. (c) Australian researchers unveiled the world's and Eastern Fleet and various aircraft of the Indian
¿rst 3D-printed jet engine. Navy.
23. (a) The bomb had successfully hit a target 100 km 40. (a) AMCA will be ¿tted with K9 or K10 engines.
away in the Bay of Bengal off the Odisha coast. The engines will be developed in collaboration with
24. (c) Bridgmanite makes up about 70 percent a foreign manufacturer.
of the earth's lower mantle and 38 percent of the 41. (c) Graphite electrode is used in melting of steel.
total volume of earth. It is made up of high-density Recently, the Indian government has imposed anti-
magnesium iron silicate. dumping duty on import of graphite electrode to
25. (a) With this new turbine, the installed wind protect domestic industry.
energy capacity at the Kutch region of Gujarat has 42. (c) Swine Àu/inÀuenza is caused by virus.
gone up to 1100 MW. There are several types of swine inÀuenza such as
26. (d) It has a different orbit than other Earth remote inÀuenza C and inÀuenza A (includes H1N1, H1N2,
sensing platforms. H2N1, H3N1, H3N2, and H2N3). Malaria is caused
27. (b) Unit 5 of the Rajasthan Atomic Power Station by protozoa, plasmodium.
(RAPS) is the 2nd longest running reactor in the 43. (a) Anil Ambani will take over as chairman of
world by being in operation for 765 days nonstop. Pipavav Defence as Reliance Infrastructure has
28. (b) Originally the domain will cover 8 languages acquired it.
like Hindi, Bodo, Dogri, Konkani, Maithili, Marathi, 44. (c) Astra is a single stage solid fuelled missile. It
Nepali and Sindhi. can be integrated with all the major ¿ghter planes of
29. (d) Length: 164 m, Width: 18 m, Full load Indian Air Force. Recently, it was successfully test-
displacement: 7400 tonnes; ¿red from a Sukhoi-30 ¿ghter aircraft.
30. (c) China has unveiled the sophisticated Inter- 45. (a) Gorakhpur nuclear power plant has been
Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM). It is widely proposed to be constructed at Fatehabad (Haryana),
speculated that the DF-41 missiles will be capable but has met with continuous protest from the
of carrying three nuclear warheads. farmers. Recently, Ministry of Environment, Forests
31. (c) The tablets will be used to treat HIV-1 & Climate Change has given coastal regulatory
infection. zone approval to Mithivirdi Nuclear Power Plant,
32. (c) It has been developed by Defence Research Bhavnagar (Gujarat).
and Development Organisation (DRDO). 46. (a) IRNSS will be used for both civil as well as
33. (c) The project will be located in Bodi West Hills, defence purpose. All the four satellites have been
Tamil Nadu. launched by PSLV.
34. (d) Recently, Canister-based Agni-V missile was 47. (a) The ozone depletion over Antarctic zone is
launched which provided operational Àexibility to more severe than in the Northern hemisphere.
the missile. 48. (d) National Green Tribunal has banned the
35. (b) Space Pioneer Award is conferred by the burning of tyres in open as harmful products are
National Space Society (NSS), an American released while burning them.
educational and scienti¿c organization. 49. (b) R-22 gas is another name for Chloro-di-Àuoro-
methane.
50. (a) Graphene is a two-dimensional material 70. (c) Green diesel is chemically distinct fuel product
comprising of sheets of carbon atoms and is one than biodiesel.
of the the strongest, most lightweight and Àexible 71. (a) It will use uranium as fuel. K-4 missiles have
materials range upto 3500 km.
51. (a) INS Kolkata is a missile-guided destroyer 72. (d) The technology will make possible for
provided with anti-air missiles, anti-ship missiles spaceships to re-enter the atmosphere of the earth
and guns and capability for anti-submarine by providing protection against the heat produced
warfare. during re-entry.
52. (b) The mission used Polar Satellite Launch 73. (c) Science Journal (a US magazine) has been
Vehicle (PSLV) for the launch. named Mission Rosetta as the most important
scienti¿c Breakthrough of the Year 2014.
53. (d) Compounds including Carbon dioxide, Nitrous
74. (a) Equinox occurs twice a year, around 20 March
oxide, Black carbon, Methane, Sulphur dioxide and
and 22 September.
CFCs are major contributors to global warming. 75. (d) In December 2014, Naval Light Combat
54. (a) Akatsuki is a Japanese space mission to Venus. Aircraft had its ¿rst successful Àight from INS
55. (a) Yellow light is not used to produce white LED Hans, a shore-based test facility.
light. 76. (a) India’s Nuclear Command Authority is chaired
56. (a) Hippocampus where place cells are located is by the Prime Minister.
a part of brain. 77. (c) INS Kolkata is the largest indigenous warship
57. (c) The missile is a variant of Dongfeng-31 A with and is yet to be commissioned.
same range but improved capability in carrying 78. (d) RAPS-5 continuously operated for 678 days
warheads. and surpassed the record of unit 2 of the Tarapur
58. (a) Nirbhay is a subsonic missile with capability atomic power station.
to reach speed of 0.7 Mach 79. (b) French-origin Scorpene-class are diesel-
59. (c) The index will measure eight major pollutants electric submarines and are being constructed at
in major cities based on real time monitoring. Mazagaon Dock.
60. (c) Tuberculosis is not a vector-borne disease as it 80. (a) Akash missile has capability to intercept
is not transmitted by the bite of an anthropod subsonic cruise missile.
61. (b) Israeli built Spike anti-tank missile is a third 81. (c) Researchers have developed Sensing Skin
generation ¿re and forget system. Technology which could serve as an early warning
62. (b) Staphefekt is a new drug which does not system for cracks in concrete structure.
contain the antibiotics 82. (a) VELOX-1 is a Singaporean satellite. ISRO’s
PSLV C23 was launched on 30 June 2014 from
63. (d) A very small aperture terminal (VSAT), is
Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota in
a two-way satellite ground station or a stabilized
Andhra Pradesh at 9.52 am. The PSLV C23 carried
maritime VSAT antenna with a dish antenna ¿ve satellites belonging to four countries namely
64. (c) The composition of the re-constituted Prime France, Germany, Canada and Singapore. All these
Minister’s Council on Climate Change does not ¿ve satellites were launched under commercial
include the Home Minister. arrangements that ANTRIX (ISRO’s commercial
65. (a) Dhanush is the naval variant of the Prithvi arm) has entered with the respective foreign
missile. agencies.
66. (c) It has been developed by the DRDO. 83. (d) INS Kamorta has been handed over to the
67. (c) Baryon are sub-atomic particles. CERN Indian Navy it is the ¿rst indigenous stealth corvette
scientists have recently discovered two new heavy- as well as ¿rst indigenous anti-submarine corvette.
weight subatomic particles belonging to the family 84. (b) REITs sell units to investors and use the money
of baryon to invest in completed or almost-completed projects.
68. (a) GSLV Mark III will be more sensitive than the Major changes are proposed by the government in
PSLV and the GSLV to disturbances that might occur the working of RIETs to increase the investments in
as it accelerates through the dense atmosphere. real estate sector.
69. (a) The explorer is intended to be sent to 1999JU3 85. (c) RTS,S, world’s ¿rst malaria vaccine would be
asteroid. launched by 2015 by GSK.
7 Miscellaneous
1. Which of the following statements are correct? Codes :

(1) International Mother Language Day is (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
observed on 21 February every year. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
(2) The theme for this year was Inclusive 5. The author of the book “Family Life” is
Education through and with Language - (a) Gopaldas Neeraj (b) Meira Kumar
Language Matters. (c) Subodh Sarkar (d) Akhil Sharma
Codes : 6. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (1) The Western coast of India experiences more
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 cyclones than the Eastern coast.
2. Recently, Expert Appraisal Committee on (2) The direction of cyclone is counter-
Infrastructure Development has approved the clockwise.
development of no-frill airports at which of the (3) Nilofar which recently hit Gujarat coast was
following places? an anti-cyclone.
(1) Kishangarh, Ajmer (Rajasthan) Codes:
(2) Belgaum (Karnataka) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(3) Holongi (Arunachal Pradesh) (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Codes : 7. Which of the following pairs are correctly
matched?
Animal IUCN Red list category
(1) Asian elephant Vulnerable
3. National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) is
(2) Pink headed duck Extinct
set to add 10,000 MW to its existing capacity of
(3) Snow leopard Threatened
43,143 MW through the planned solar projects. It
(4) Indian Wild Ass Endangered
is planning to install these solar plants in which
Codes:
of the following states? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Madhya Pradesh (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(3) Telangana (4) Rajasthan 8. Which of the following statements are correct
Codes : regarding Slavery Index-2014 released by Walk-
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only free Foundation Group?
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of these (1) Out of 167 countries surveyed, India has the
4. Which of the following statements are correct? greatest number of slaves.
(1) World Water Day is observed on 22nd March. (2) In percentage term, Qatar has the maximum
(2) Rajendra Singh (Water Man) of India has won slaves in its population.
Stockholm Water Prize 2015. Codes:
(3) Rajendra Singh is also the winner of Ramon (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Magsaysay Award for Public Service. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
9. Which of the following pairs are correctly 14 Which of the following statement(s) regarding
matched? Human Development Report-2014 is/are correct?
(1) Idukki dam : Tamil Nadu (1) The theme of the report is “Human Progress
(2) Mullaperiyar dam : Kerala in a Diverse World”
(3) Mettur dam : Andhra Pradesh (2) India ranked 135th in the Human
(4) Ranganadi dam : Arunachal Pradesh Development Index (HDI)
Codes: Choose the correct option from the codes given
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
10. Which of the following pairs are correctly (c) 1 and 2 Both (d) None
matched? 15. Consider the following statements about the
Mineral Leading Producer Shaurya Missile:
(1) Coal China 1. It has been developed by DRDO
(2) Mica India 2. It is a supersonic missile
(3) Diamond Canada 3. It is a surface-to-surface missile
(4) Uranium Kazakhstan Which among the above statements is/are correct?
Codes: (a) 1 & 2 (b) 1 & 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 2 & 3 (d) 1, 2 & 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of these 16. Consider the following facts about Jaitapur
11. Which of the following pairs are correctly Nuclear Power Project:
matched? 1. Being developed by Areva of France
(1) Beijing Protocol Biodiversity 2. Will be a Light water reactor
(2) Montreal Protocol Ozone layer 3. Will be the largest nuclear power generating
(3) Cartagena Protocol Genetically Modified station in the world by net electrical power
Organisms (GMOs) rating once completed
Codes:
4. Located in the seismically moderate Risk
Zone.
(a) 1, 2, 3, (b) 1, 3, 4
(c) 2, 3, 4, (d) 1,2 3, 4
(1) Rani ki Vav has been approved for inscription
on the World Heritage List
1. Amaravathi will be the new capital of
(2) Rani ki Vav is located in Rajasthan
Andhra Pradesh.
(3) World Heritage List is maintained by
2. Amaravathi is located on the banks of river
UNSECO
Kaveri .
Choose the correct option:
3. It is also known as ‘Dakshina Kashi’ (Kashi
(a) 1 and 2 Only (b) 1 and 3 Only
of the south).
(c) 2 and 3 Only (d) 1, 2, and 3
4. It was ancient seat of Satavahana ruler’s
13. Which of the following sites has become 1000th
kingdom.
World Heritage Site of UNESCO?
Which among the above statements is/ are
(a) Caves of Maresha (Israel)
(b) Cave of Pont d’Arc (France) correct?
(c) Erbil Citadel (Iraq) (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Okavango Delta (Botswana) (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
G-90 || Miscellaneous
18. Consider the following statements: Which among the above statements is/are correct?
1. National Payments Corporation (NPCI) has (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
successfully linked 15 crore Direct Benefit (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
Transfer (DBT) accounts with the Aadhaar 22. Consider the following statements about Kalvari:
numbers. 1. It is first indigenously-built Scorpene
2. NPCI is an umbrella body for all retail Submarine.
payments system in India. 2. It was undocked at the Goa Shipyard
3. It operates under the aegis of Reserve Bank Limited.
of India (RBI) 3. The submarine is part of the Indian Navy’s
4. It wasIt was incorporated in 2008 under the ambitious submarine programme- Project
Companies Act. 75.
Which among the above statements is/ are Which among the above statements is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above 23. Consider the following statements:
19. Consider the following statements: 1. National Air Quality Index (AQI) has been
1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has cut launched by the Indian Government to give
down repo rate by 25 basis points to 7.5
pollution information on real time basis.
percent from 7.75 percent.
2. Initially the new index will cover 20 cities.
2. Current cash reserve ratio (CRR) is 5
3. The AQI has been developed for six
percent.
pollutants- nitrogen oxides, sulphur dioxide,
Which among the above statements is/ are
ozone, Particle Pollution (PM) 2.5, PM10
correct?
and carbon monoxide.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
20. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
enhanced the limit for foreign exchange 24. Consider the following statements:
(FOREX) remittances. 1. India will host the 5th meeting of the South
2. It would be Rs. 2 crore per person per year. Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
3. This limit was doubled compared to earlier (SAARC) Health Ministers in New Delhi.
limit of per person per year. 2. The purpose of the meeting is to frame a
Which among the above statements is/are correct? road map for strengthening collaboration
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 among SAARC countries on a number of
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above issues and challenges faced by them.
21. Consider the following statements 3. The 4th meeting of the SAARC Health
1. Nepal and India on 5 March 2015 launched Ministers was hosted by Maldives in April
a direct bus service linking cultural cities 2012.
Kathmandu and Varanasi. Which among the above statements is/are correct?
2. It was launched under the ambit of Motor (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Vehicle Agreement between India and Nepal (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
signed during 18th SAARC Summit. 25. Consider the following statements:
3. This bus service will connect Kathmandu’s 1. 8th edition of India-Nepal Combined
Pashupatinath Temple with Varanasi’s Kashi Exercise Surya Kiran VIII concluded on 8
Vishwanath. March 2015 at Salijhandi in Nepal.
2. The first Renewable Energy Global Investors Which among the above statements is/are correct?
Meet and Expo (Re-Invest) 2015 started in (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Gujarat. (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
Which among the above statements is/are correct? 30. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Chutak Hydroelectric Plant is situated in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above Himachal Pradesh.
26. Consider the following statements: 2. The power station is a run-of-the-river
1. Hamdan bin Mohammed Cruise Terminal power project on Sutlej.
was unveiled in Dubai. 3. The project is being executed by National
2. It is world’s third largest cruise ship terminal. Hydroelectric Power Corporation Ltd.
3. It can handle 14,000 cruise passengers a day. Which among the above statements is/are correct?
Which among the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) All of the above
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above 31. Consider the following statements:
27. Consider the following statements: 1. Iran, the P5+1 and the European Union
1. India’s first Coral garden’ will be set up in (EU) conceded on a framework agreement
Gujarat. called as Joint Comprehensive Plan of
2. Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) and Tata Action (JCPOA) intended to stop Iran from
Chemicals Limited (TCL) have inked developing nuclear weapons.
a MoU to set up the first of its kind coral 2. P5+1 include all the permanent members
garden. of the United Nations Security Council
3. The project will be financed by the Union (UNSC) viz., the US, the UK, Spain , China
government. and Russia plus Germany.
Which among the above statements is/are correct? Which among the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above (c) 3 only (d) All of the above
1. Arab poet Adonis has been chosen for 2015
1. The first Indian Institute of Engineering
Kumaran Asan World Prize for poetry.
Science and Technology (IIEST) has been
2. The award is instituted by Chennai based
inaugurated in Chennai.
Kumaran Asan Memorial Association.
2. IIEST is a group of academic institutions
3. The award carries a cash prize of three lakh
in India for research and education in
rupees, a memento and citation.
engineering.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above 33. Consider the following statements:
29. Consider the following statements: 1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 25
1. China opened its third railway line in Tibet, March 2015 signed a 400 million US dollar
close to Indian border in Sikkim currency swap agreement with the Central
2. The railway line stretched over 253 km Bank of Sri Lanka
connects Tibet’s provincial capital Lhasa 2. According to the agreement, the Central
with Beijing. Bank of Sri Lanka can make withdrawals of
3. It cuts the travel time between Lhasa and US dollar or Euro in multiple tranches up to
Xigaze from the current 4 hours by road to a maximum of 400 million US dollar or its
around 2 hours. equivalent.
Which among the above statements is/are correct? 3. NEMMP (National Electric Mobility
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Mission Plan ) aims to achieve national fuel
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above security by promoting hybrid and electric
34. Consider the following statements: vehicles in the country.
1. Union Government on 1 April 2015 launched Which among the above statements is/are correct?
Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Hybrid and Electric vehicles (FAME) – (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
India Scheme.
2. The scheme was launched with an aim to
boost sales of eco-friendly vehicles in the
country.
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 6 (b) 11 (c) 16 (b) 21 (d) 26 (b) 31 (a)
2 (a) 7 (c) 12 (b) 17 (b) 22 (b) 27 (a) 32 (d)
3 (d) 8 (a) 13 (d) 18 (d) 23 (b) 28 (b) 33 (c)
4 (a) 9 (d) 14 (b) 19 (a) 24 (d) 29 (c) 34 (d)
5 (d) 10 (c) 15 (b) 20 (b) 25 (a) 30 (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) 21 February is observed International Mother 11. (c) Beijing Protocol is related to terrorist actions
Language Day since 2000. It was proclaimed by against civil aviation. India is also a signatory to
UNESCO. the protocol. So, a bill has been introduced in the
2. (a) The committee has not approved for the parliament which would ratify the protocol.
12. (b) Rani Ki Vav, a stepwell is located in the Patan
development of airport at Holongi as it is in river
town of Gujarat. It was designed as an inverted temple
plain and no construction is allowed in such areas. highlighting the sanctity of water.
3. (d) NTPC is planning to install 500MW of solar 13. (d) Okavango Delta (Botswana) has become 1000th
project in Andhra Pradesh and 250MW each in World Heritage Site of UNESCO. The delta has rich
Madhya Pradesh, Telangana and Rajasthan. biodiversity and is home to many endangered animals
4. (a) Rajendra Singh was awarded with Ramon including Cheetah.
Magsaysay Award for Community Leadership in 14. (b) The theme of the report is”Sustaining Human
the year 2001. He has received Stockholm Water Progress: Reducing Vulnerabilities and Building
Resilience”.
Prize 2015 along with USD 150,000 and a specially
15. (b) Shaurya Missile is a hypersonic missile.
designed sculpture.
16. (b) It is the first set of two third-generation
5. (d) Akhil Sharma’s “Family Life” won the 2015 European Pressurized Reactors.
Folio Prize for ¿ction. It is his second novel after 17. (b) Amaravathi is located on the banks of river
“An Obedient Father”. Krishna.
6. (b) Cyclone Nilofar hit the Western coast of India 18. (d) Apart from this linking programme NPCI is
recently. The cyclone in this part are fewer than the also nodal agency for all retail payment systems
Eastern coast which witness frequent cyclones. under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
(PMJDY) which was launched in 2014 to push DBT
7. (c) Asian elephant and Snow leopard are listed as
and financial inclusion.
Endangered species in Reda data list book
19. (a) Current cash reserve ratio (CRR) is 4 percent.
8. (a) In percentage term, Mauritiana has the 20. (b) It would be Rs. 1.5 crore per person per year
maximum slaves in its population, while Qatar has 21. (d) Nepal and India are also planning to establish
come to 4th place this year from 96th place last year. a direct bus service to link Kathmandu and Patna in
9. (d) Idukki dam is located in Kerala and Mettur dam future.
is located in Tamil Nadu. 22. (b) Kalvari was undocked at the Mazagaon
10. (c) The largest producer of diamond is Russia. Dockyard Limited (MDL) in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
India is stepping up to directly procure diamond from The undocked submarine was named Kalvari and is
Russia instead of being routed through European expected to be commissioned into Indian Navy by
Union. September 2016.
23. (b) Initially the new index will cover 10 cities. 30. (c) Chutak Hydroelectric Plant is situated at
24. (d) The 5th meeting is scheduled to start on 9 April Kargil in Jammu and Kashmir. The power station is
2015 and is being held in pursuance of decisions a run-of-the-river power project on the Suru River
taken by the SAARC Summit of Heads of States (a tributary of Indus).
held at Kathmandu in November 2014. 31. (a) The permanent members of the United Nations
25. (a) The first Renewable Energy Global Investors Security Council (UNSC) viz., the US, the UK,
Meet & Expo, Re-invest 2015 was inaugurated by
France , China and Russian Federation.
the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi on the 15th
33. (c) This facility will be available to all South Asian
February in New Delhi.
26. (b) The terminal covers 28,000 square metres and Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
is the latest addition to The Dubai Cruise Terminal member countries, that is, Afghanistan, Bangladesh,
facility at Mina Rashid. Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
27. (a) The project will be financed by the Gujarat forest 34. (d) Union Government launched the National
department as WTI has inked a broader MoU with Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020 in
the state. 2013. There is an ambitious target to achieve 6-7
28. (b) The first Indian Institute of Engineering Science million sales of hybrid and electric vehicles year on
and Technology (IIEST) has been inaugurated in year from 2020 onwards.
Shibpur located in the city of Howrah, West Bengal. There is an ambitious target to achieve 6-7 million
29. (c) China opened its second railway line in Tibet, sales of hybrid and electric vehicles year on year
close to Indian border in Sikkim. from 2020 onwards.

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CONTENTS

Section A : HISTORY A-1–A-94

1. Indus Valley Civilization 1-5

Section B : GEOGRAPHY B-1–B-82

Section C : INDIAN POLITY & GOVERNANCE C-1–C-92

1. Indian Constitution 1-33

1. Indian Economy 1-16

Section E : GENERAL SCIENCE E-1–E-108

Section F : GENERAL AWARENESS F-1–F-56

1. Art and Culture 1-10

Section G : CURRENT AFFAIRS G-1–G-94

Hints & Solutions

Hints & Solutions

Hints & Solutions

3. Which of the following is correctly matched?

Hints & Solutions

Hints & Solutions

Hints & Solutions

Hints & Solutions

Hints & Solutions

Hints & Solutions

Hints & Solutions

1. Consider the following statements regarding Codes:

Hints & Solutions

1. Consider the following statements and select the Codes:

Hints & Solutions

1. Consider the following statements and select the Codes:

Hints & Solutions

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Codes:

Hints & Solutions

Hints & Solutions

Heavy Electricals India Ltd (Bhopal)

88. (c) N H No. Cities connected

NH 1 Delhi and Amritsar

NH 2 Delhi and Kolkata

NH 3 Agra and Mumbai

NH 5 Behragoda and Chennai various types of vegetations found in Karnataka,

of Khambat. It is clear from the following map. river Barak (121km).

Copper - Madhya Pradesh they lie along the same longitude.

C. Indian Councils 3. Beginning of Codes:

B. Tenth Schedule 2. Provisions hereditary

Hints & Solutions

diversities, to renounce practices derogatory to The Finance Commission is required to make

53. Consider the following and select correct answer Codes:

2. The resolution is passed by the majority of Codes :

101. Consider the following statements and select the Codes :

Hints & Solutions

(not being a Proclamation revoking a previous 87. (b)

34. Which one of the following was NOT proposed Codes:

Hints & Solutions

53. Which of the salient features of the Lokpal and Codes:

Hints & Solutions

Hints & Solutions

Hints & Solutions

Hints & Solutions

1. Which of the following pairs are correctly Code:

Hints & Solutions

1. Which of the following constitutes the world B. IDA 2. Multi-lateral trade

Hints & Solutions

the resultant voltage is equal to sum of the