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AJHGAA
O6 This Booklet contains 28 pages.

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with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions
in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos – 1 to 35,
51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
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136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out
of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
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O6 2
Section - A (Physics) 5. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of
capacitance C and a resistor of resistance ‘R’ are
1. The electron concentration in an n-type connected in series to an ac source of potential
semiconductor is the same as hole concentration difference ‘V’ volts as shown in figure.
in a p-type semiconductor. An external field Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V,
(electric) is applied across each of them. Compare 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of
the currents in them. current flowing through LCR series circuit is
(1) current in n-type > current in p-type. 10 2 A. The impedance of the circuit is :
(2) No current will flow in p-type, current will
only flow in n-type.
(3) current in n-type=current in p-type.
(4) current in p-type > current in n-type.
2. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined
plane, starting from rest at time t=0. Let Sn be
the distance travelled by the block in the interval
(1) 4Ω
Sn
t=n−1 to t=n. Then, the ratio is : (2) 5Ω
Sn+1
(3) 4 2 Ω
2n+1
(1) 2n−1 (4) 5 2 Ω

2n 6. Polar molecules are the molecules :

(2) 2n−1 (1) acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic
field is absent.
2n−1
(3) (2) having a permanent electric dipole moment.
2n
(3) having zero dipole moment.
2n−1
(4) (4) acquire a dipole moment only in the presence
2n+1
of electric field due to displacement of
3. The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v. charges.
The escape velocity from the surface of another
7. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
planet having a radius, four times that of Earth
used to measure the diameter of a wire
and same mass density is :
Main scale reading : 0 mm
(1) 3v
(2) 4v Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
(3) v Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to
(4) 2v 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter
of the wire from the above data is :
4. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In (1) 0.26 cm
which direction will it move ?
(2) 0.052 cm
(3) 0.52 cm
(4) 0.026 cm

8. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours.

The fraction of original activity that will remain
after 150 hours would be :

2
(1) towards the left as its potential energy will (1)
3
decrease.
(2) towards the right as its potential energy will 2
(2)
increase. 3 2
(3) towards the left as its potential energy will (3) 1/2
increase.
(4) towards the right as its potential energy will 1
(4)
decrease. 2 2
3 O6
9. The number of photons per second on an average 13. Column - I gives certain physical terms associated
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of Column - II gives some mathematical relations
3.3×10−3 watt will be : (h=6.6×10−34 Js) involving electrical quantities. Match
(1) 1016 Column - I and Column - II with appropriate
relations.
(2) 1015
(3) 1018 Column - I Column - II
(4) 1017 m
(A) Drift Velocity (P)
10. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in ne2 ρ
x-direction, which one of the following combination
gives the correct possible directions for electric
field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively ? (B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd
∧ ∧ ∧ ∧
(1) j +k, − j−k eE
(C) Relaxation Period (R) τ
∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ m
(2) − j+k, − j+k
∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ E
(3) j+k, j+k (D) Current Density (S)
J
∧ ∧ ∧ ∧
(4) − j+k, − j−k (1) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)

11. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density (2) (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P)
d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine
(3) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
becomes constant after some time. If the density
d (4) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
of glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on
2
the ball will be :
3 14. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives
(1) Mg
2 balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another
cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at
(2) 2Mg what length of the wire, the balance point occurs ?
Mg (1) 64 cm
(3)
2
(2) 62 cm
(4) Mg
(3) 60 cm
12. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric
→ (4) 21.6 cm
field ‘ E ’ in the space between the plates. If the
distance between the plates is ‘d’ and the area of
each plate is ‘A’, the energy stored in the capacitor 15. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that
is : (ε0=permittivity of free space) consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of
1 cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω. What
(1) ε E2 Ad will be the effective resistance if they are connected
2 0
in series ?
E2 Ad
(2) (1) 1Ω
ε0
(2) 4Ω
1
(3) ε E2
2 0 (3) 0.25 Ω

(4) ε0EAd (4) 0.5 Ω

O6 4
16. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a 20. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with
current of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving frequency ‘n’, the frequency of its potential energy
with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. is :
The perpendicular distance between the electron
(1) 3n
and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant.
Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced (2) 4n
by the electron at that instant.
(3) n
(4) 2n

21. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The

time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg
is suspended by it is :
(1) 4π×10−20 N (1) 3.14 s
(2) 8×10−20 N (2) 0.628 s
(3) 4×10−20 N
(3) 0.0628 s
(4) 8π×10−20 N
(4) 6.28 s
17. If E and G respectively denote energy and
E
gravitational constant, then has the dimensions 22. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
G fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
of :
(1) [ M ] [ L0 ] [ T0 ] energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is
7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The
(2) [ M2 ] [ L−2 ] [ T−1 ] total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is :
(3) [ M2 ] [ L−1 ] [ T0 ]
(1) 804 MeV
(4) [ M ] [ L−1 ] [ T−1 ]
(2) 216 MeV
18. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength ‘λ’ is
incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible (3) 0.9 MeV
work function. If ‘m’ mass is of photoelectron (4) 9.4 MeV
emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength
λd, then :
23. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is
 2mc  2 best suited as an objective of an astronomical
(1) λ= λd
 h  telescope since :
 2h  2 (1) a large aperture contributes to the quality
(2) λ= λd and visibility of the images.
 mc 
(2) a large area of the objective ensures better
 2m  2
(3) λ= λd light gathering power.
 hc 
(3) a large aperture provides a better resolution.
 2mc  2
(4) λd= λ (4) all of the above.
 h 

19. A radioactive nucleus AZ X undergoes spontaneous 24. A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave
lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the
decay in the sequence
same axis with a distance ‘d’ between them. If a
A
X → Z −1B → Z −3C → Z − 2 D , where Z is the parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a
Z
atomic number of element X. The possible decay parallel beam, then the distance ‘d’ in cm will be :
particles in the sequence are : (1) 50
(1) β+, α, β−
(2) 30
(2) β−, α, β+
(3) α, β−, β+ (3) 25
(4) α, β+, β− (4) 15
5 O6
25. The equivalent capacitance of the combination 28. A thick current carrying cable of radius ‘R’ carries
shown in the figure is : current ‘I’ uniformly distributed across its
cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r)
due to the cable with the distance ‘r’ from the axis
of the cable is represented by :

(1)
(1) C/2

(2) 3C/2

(3) 3C

(4) 2C
(2)

26. A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’, is connected across

an ac source of voltage V, given by

V=V0 sinωt

The displacement current between the plates of

the capacitor, would then be given by :
(3)

V
(1) Id= 0 sin ωt
ωC

(2) Id=V0 ωCsinωt

(3) Id=V0 ωCcosωt

(4)
V
(4) Id= 0 cosωt
ωC

27. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) 29. A cup of coffee cools from 908C to 808C in t minutes,
and identify the correct answer. when the room temperature is 208C. The time
taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 808C
(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, to 608C at a room temperature same at 208C is :
when used as a voltage regulator.
10
(1) t
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies 13
between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.
5
(2) t
(1) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect. 13

(2) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct. 13

(3) t
10
(3) (A) and (B) both are correct.
13
(4) t
(4) (A) and (B) both are incorrect. 5
O6 6
30. If force [ F ], acceleration [ A ] and time [ T ] are 34. A particle is released from height S from the
chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic
Find the dimensions of energy. energy is three times its potential energy. The
(1) [ F ] [ A ] [ T−1 ] height from the surface of earth and the speed of
(2) [ F ] [ A−1 ] [ T ] the particle at that instant are respectively :
(3) [F] [A] [T] S 3gS
(4) [ F ] [ A ] [ T2 ] (1) ,
2 2
31. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the S 3gS
prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3 . (2) ,
4 2
S 3gS
(3) ,
4 2
S 3gS
(4) ,
4 2

35. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and

R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of
(1) 458 surface charge densities of the spheres (σ1/σ2) is :
(2) 908
 R1 
(3) 608 (1)  
(4) 308  R2 

32. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of R12

15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to (2)
frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How R22
much power is generated by the turbine ?
R1
(g=10 m/s2) (3) R2
(1) 12.3 kW
(2) 7.0 kW R2
(3) 10.2 kW (4) R1
(4) 8.1 kW

33. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose Section - B (Physics)

the correct match from the given choices.
36. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from
Column - I Column - II
a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane
1
(A) Root mean square (P) nm v 2 mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis
3 of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the
speed of gas molecules final image would be formed at a distance of :
3 RT
(B) Pressure exerted (Q)
M
by ideal gas
5
(C) Average kinetic energy (R) RT
2
of a molecule
3
(D) Total internal energy (S) kBT (1) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a
2 virtual image.
of 1 mole of a
diatomic gas (2) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a
virtual image.
(1) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R) (3) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real
(2) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S) image.
(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q) (4) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real
(4) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P) image.
7 O6
37. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains 40. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor,
supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W 80 µF capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to
lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, 230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular
what is the current in the primary circuit ? frequencies of the source at which power
(1) 2A transferred to the circuit is half the power at the
(2) 4A resonant angular frequency are likely to be :
(3) 0.2 A (1) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
(4) 0.4 A (2) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
(3) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
38. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2.
At t=4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a (4) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and
acceleration of the ball at t=6 s ? 41. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at
(Take g=10 m/s2) 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop.
(1) 20 2 m/s, 0 Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
(2) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2 (1) 1520 V
(3) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2 (2) 1980 V
(4) 20 m/s, 0 (3) 660 V

39. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are (4) 1320 V
applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would
be the output at the terminal y ? 42. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3
are connected as shown in the given circuit. The
i
ratio 3 of currents in terms of resistances used
i1
in the circuit is :

r1
(1) r1 +r2

r2
(2) r1 +r3

r1
(3) r2 +r3

r2
(4) r2 +r3

43. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height

(1) 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same
height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to
the ball is (g=10 m/s2) nearly :
(2)
(1) 2.1 kg m/s
(3) (2) 1.4 kg m/s
(3) 0 kg m/s
(4)
(4) 4.2 kg m/s
O6 8
44. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is 47. From a circular ring of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ an
balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A arc corresponding to a 908 sector is removed. The
mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring
and another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended from about an axis passing through the centre of the
the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is
Find the value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in ‘K’ times ‘MR2’. Then the value of ‘K’ is :
equilibrium. (g=10 m/s2) 1
(1)
4
1
(2)
8
3
(3)
4
7
1 (4)
(1) kg 8
6
48. A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity
1 v=kVe(k < 1) from the surface of the earth.
(2) kg
12 (Ve=escape velocity)
1 The maximum height above the surface reached
(3) kg by the particle is :
2
1 R2 k
(4) kg (1)
3 1+k

Rk2
45. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and (2)
resistance ‘R’ is wound up as a current carrying 1−k2
coil in the shape of, 2
 k 
(i) an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’. (3) R 
 1−k 
(ii) a square of side ‘a’. 2
 k 
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each (4) R 
case respectively are :  1+k 
(1) 3 Ia2 and 4 Ia2 49. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a
(2) 4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2 uniform speed takes a time T to complete one
revolution.
(3) 3 Ia2 and 3 Ia2 If this particle were projected with the same speed
(4) 3 Ia2 and Ia2 at an angle ‘θ’ to the horizontal, the maximum
height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of
projection, θ, is then given by :
46. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2
are placed in the same plane with their centres 1
 π2 R  2
coinciding. If R1> > R2 , the mutual inductance M (1) θ=sin −1
 
between them will be directly proportional to :  gT2 
 
2 1
R1
(1) −1
 2gT2  2
R2 (2) θ=sin  
 π2 R 
2
 
R2
(2) 1
R1
−1
 gT2  2
(3) θ=cos  
R1  π2 R 
 
(3) R2 1
 π2 R  2
R2 (4) θ=cos−1  
(4)  gT2 
R1  
9 O6
50. In the product 54. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid
are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct
→
(
F =q v × B
→ →
) option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate
solution is :
→
( ∧
=q v × B i +B j+B0 k
∧ ∧
) (1) 7.75

∧ ∧ ∧ (2) 6.25
→
For q=1 and v =2 i +4 j+6 k and (3) 8.50
→ ∧ ∧ ∧ (4) 5.50
F=4 i −20 j+12 k
→
What will be the complete expression for B ? 55. The maximum temperature that can be achieved
in blast furnace is :
∧ ∧ ∧
(1) 8 i +8 j −6 k (1) upto 1900 K
(2) upto 5000 K
∧ ∧ ∧
(2) 6 i +6 j −8 k (3) upto 1200 K
∧ ∧ ∧ (4) upto 2200 K
(3) −8 i −8 j −6 k
∧ ∧ ∧ 56. Given below are two statements :
(4) −6 i −6 j −8 k Statement I :
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of
Section - A (Chemistry) narcotic analgesics.
Statement II :
51. Zr (Z=40) and Hf (Z=72) have similar atomic and
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics.
ionic radii because of :
(1) lanthanoid contraction In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(2) having similar chemical properties
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II
(3) belonging to same group is false.
(4) diagonal relationship (2) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true.
52. The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect
is exhibited by”, is : (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
true.
(1) Starch solution
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) Urea solution
false.
(3) NaCl solution
(4) Glucose solution 57. Which one of the following polymers is prepared
by addition polymerisation ?
53. Match List - I with List - II. (1) Novolac
List - I List - II (2) Dacron
(a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal (3) Teflon
(b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar (4) Nylon-66
(c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
(d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal 58. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound.
Hybridization and number of electrons around the
Choose the correct answer from the options given
central atom, respectively are :
below.
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (1) sp2 and 6

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) sp2 and 8

(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (3) sp3 and 4
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (4) sp3 and 6
O6 10
59. Which of the following reactions is the metal 63. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane
displacement reaction ? Choose the right option. is :
(1) Fe+2HCl → FeCl2+H2↑ (1) 608
(2) 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO+4NO2+O2↑ (2) 08
∆
(3) 2KClO3 → 2KCl+3O2 (3) 1208
∆
(4) Cr2O3+2Al → Al2O3+2Cr (4) 1808
60. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits
which of the following particles ? 64. Statement I :
(1) Gamma (γ) Acid strength increases in the order given as
(2) Neutron (n) HF << HCl << HBr << HI.
(3) Beta (β−) Statement II :
(4) Alpha (α) As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases
61. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl,
and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength
option for the empirical formula of this compound increases.
is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) CH3 correct answer from the options given below.
(2) CH4 (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II
(3) CH is false.
(4) CH2
(2) Statement I is incorrect but
62. For a reaction A→B, enthalpy of reaction is Statement II is true.
−4.2 kJ mol−1 and enthalpy of activation is (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
9.6 kJ mol−1. The correct potential energy profile true.
for the reaction is shown in option.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false.

65. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :

(1) Vitamin B1
(1)
(2) Vitamin B2
(3) Vitamin B12
(4) Vitamin B6

66. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :

(1) Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms
(2)
(2) Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor
atoms
(3) Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two
“N” donor atoms
(4) Unidentate ligand

(3) 67. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi,

broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light,
c=3.0×108 ms−1]
(1) 2192 m
(2) 21.92 cm
(4) (3) 219.3 m
(4) 219.2 m
11 O6
68. Choose the correct option for graphical representation 70. Which one of the following methods can be used to
of Boyle’s law, which shows a graph of pressure vs. obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room
volume of a gas at different temperatures : temperature ?
(1) Distillation
(2) Zone refining
(3) Electrolysis
(1) (4) Chromatography

71. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound

formed in the following chemical reaction ?

(i) C2H5MgBr , dry Ether Product

Acetone  →
(ii) H2O, H+
(1) pentan-3-ol
(2) 2-methyl butan-2-ol
(2)
(3) 2-methyl propan-2-ol
(4) pentan-2-ol

72. The major product of the following chemical

reaction is :

(3)

(1)

(2)

(4) (3)

(4)

69. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and 73. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving
CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1),
and 91.0 S cm2 mol−1 respectively. The molar 10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and
conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is. 10 g of sucrose (C 12 H 22 O 11 ) in 250 ml of
Choose the right option for your answer. water (P3). The right option for the decreasing
order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :
(1) 698.28 S cm2 mol−1
(1) P2 > P3 > P1
(2) 540.48 S cm2 mol−1
(2) P3 > P1 > P2
(3) 201.28 S cm2 mol−1 (3) P2 > P1 > P3
(4) 390.71 S cm2 mol−1 (4) P1 > P2 > P3
O6 12
74. The compound which shows metamerism is : 79. Which one among the following is the correct option
(1) C3H6O for right relationship between CP and CV for one
mole of ideal gas ?
(2) C4H10O
(1) CP=RCV
(3) C5H12
(2) CV=RCP
(4) C3H8O
(3) CP+CV=R
75. Noble gases are named because of their inertness (4) CP−CV=R
towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect
statement about them. 80. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of ‘C–X’ bond
is :
(1) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
(1) CH3−F < CH3−Cl > CH3−Br > CH3−I
(2) Noble gases have large positive values of
electron gain enthalpy. (2) CH3−Cl > CH3−F > CH3−Br > CH3−I
(3) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water. (3) CH3−F < CH3−Cl < CH3−Br < CH3−I
(4) Noble gases have very high melting and (4) CH3−F > CH3−Cl > CH3−Br > CH3−I
boiling points.
81. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation
reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This
76. The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene
product formation is based on ?
is :
(1) Hofmann Rule
(2) Huckel’s Rule
(1) (3) Saytzeff’s Rule
(4) Hund’s Rule

82. The correct option for the number of body centred

unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit
(2) cells is :
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 7
(3) (4) 5

83. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg’s

reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.

(4)
(1)

77. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and

(2)
octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell
are :
(1) 2, 1
(2) 12, 6
(3)
(3) 8, 4
(4) 6, 12
(4)
78. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides,
one which is covalent and soluble in organic 84. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state
solvents is : and vapour phase, are :
(1) Magnesium chloride (1) Dimer and Linear, respectively
(2) Beryllium chloride (2) Chain in both
(3) Calcium chloride (3) Chain and dimer, respectively
(4) Strontium chloride (4) Linear in both
13 O6
85. The incorrect statement among the following 89. In which one of the following arrangements the
is : given sequence is not strictly according to the
(1) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and properties indicated against it ?
electricity. (1) NH3 < PH3 : Increasing
(2) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, < AsH3 < SbH3 acidic character
especially when finely divided. (2) CO2 < SiO2 : Increasing
(3) Actinoid contraction is greater for element < SnO2 < PbO2 oxidizing power
to element than Lanthanoid contraction. (3) HF < HCl : Increasing acidic
(4) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are < HBr < HI strength
colorless in the solid state. (4) H2O < H2S : Increasing pKa
< H2Se < H2Te values
Section - B (Chemistry)
90. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in
86. Match List - I with List - II. nature ?
List - I List - II (1) SbCl5
(a) 2SO2(g)+O2(g) → (i) Acid rain (2) NO2
2SO3(g) (3) POCl3
(b) hν
HOCl(g)  (ii) Smog (4) CH2O
→
i i
OH+C l 91. The intermediate compound ‘X’ in the following
(c) CaCO3+H2SO4→ (iii) Ozone chemical reaction is :
CaSO4+H2O+CO2 depletion
(d) hν
NO2(g)  (iv) Tropospheric
→
NO(g)+O(g) pollution
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(1)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

87. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure (2)
of a solution at 458C with benzene to octane in
molar ratio 3 : 2 is :
[At 458C vapour pressure of benzene is
(3)
280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg.
Assume Ideal gas]
(1) 336 mm of Hg
(2) 350 mm of Hg (4)
(3) 160 mm of Hg
(4) 168 mm of Hg

NaOH, + ?
88. CH3CH2COO−Na+  → CH3CH3+ 92. Choose the correct option for the total pressure
Heat
Na2CO3. (in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined
in a total volume of one litre at 08C is :
Consider the above reaction and identify the
missing reagent/chemical. [Given R=0.082 L atm mol−1K−1, T=273 K]
(1) CaO (1) 25.18
(2) DIBAL-H (2) 26.02
(3) B2H6 (3) 2.518
(4) Red Phosphorus (4) 2.602
O6 14
93. Match List - I with List - II. 96. The product formed in the following chemical
reaction is :
List - I List - II

(a) [Fe(CN)6]3− (i) 5.92 BM

(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM

(c) [Fe(CN)6]4− (iii) 4.90 BM

(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM

Choose the correct answer from the options given

(1)
below.

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (2)

(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

 1
94. The slope of Arrhenius Plot  ln k v/s  of first
 T (3)
order reaction is −5×103 K. The value of Ea of
the reaction is. Choose the correct option for your
answer.

[Given R=8.314 JK−1mol−1]

(4)
(1) 166 kJ mol−1

(2) −83 kJ mol−1

97. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under
(3) 41.5 kJ mol−1 isothermal condition, the correct option is :
(4) 83.0 kJ mol−1 (1) ∆U=0, ∆Stotal ≠ 0
(2) ∆U ≠ 0, ∆Stotal=0

95. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is (3) ∆U=0, ∆Stotal=0
20 S cm 2 mol −1. What is the dissociation (4) ∆U ≠ 0, ∆Stotal ≠ 0
constant of acetic acid ? Choose the correct option.
98. The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of chemical
reaction is :
 Λ = 350 S cm mol
2 −1
 H+ 
Λ 2 −1 
 CH COO−= 50 S cm mol 
3

(1) 1.75×10−5 mol L−1

(2) 2.50×10−5 mol L−1 (1) HI

(2) CuCN/KCN
(3) 1.75×10−4 mol L−1
(3) H2O
(4) 2.50×10−4 mol L−1 (4) CH3CH2OH
15 O6
99. Match List - I with List - II. 103. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II List - I List - II
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen
(a) (i) Hell-Volhard- (b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition
Zelinsky reaction (c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases
(d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(b) (ii) Gattermann-Koch (a) (b) (c) (d)
reaction
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(c) R−CH2−OH (iii) Haloform
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
+R'COOH reaction
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Conc. H SO
→
2 4
104. Which of the following is an incorrect
(d) R−CH2COOH (iv) Esterification statement ?
(i) X /Red P (1) The perinuclear space forms a barrier

2 →
(ii) H2O between the materials present inside the
nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins
below.
and RNA molecules in both directions
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) between nucleus and cytoplasm.
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (3) Mature sieve tube elements possess a
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic
organelles.
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(4) Microbodies are present both in plant and
animal cells.
100. From the following pairs of ions which one is not
an iso-electronic pair ? 105. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from
(1) Mn2+, Fe3+ anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant
which, during pollination, brings genetically
(2) Fe2+, Mn2+
different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
(3) O2−, F− (1) Chasmogamy
(4) Na+, Mg2+ (2) Cleistogamy
(3) Xenogamy
Section - A (Biology : Botany) (4) Geitonogamy

106. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum

101. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium is :
bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear
(1) Succinic acid
as :
(2) Phosphoglyceric acid
(1) Dark red bands
(3) Pyruvic acid
(2) Bright blue bands
(4) Oxaloacetic acid
(3) Yellow bands
107. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(4) Bright orange bands
(1) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
102. Which of the following plants is monoecious ? (2) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland
ecosystem is upright.
(1) Marchantia polymorpha
(3) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
(2) Cycas circinalis inverted.
(3) Carica papaya (4) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
(4) Chara upright.
O6 16
108. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen ? 113. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
(1) Red algae is :

(2) Blue-green algae (1) 2, 4-D

(3) Green algae (2) IBA

(4) Brown algae (3) IAA

(4) NAA
109. When gene targetting involving gene amplification
is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat 114. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a
disease, it is known as : population is :
(1) Molecular diagnosis (1) Mutation
(2) Safety testing (2) Genetic drift
(3) Biopiracy (3) Natural selection
(4) Gene therapy (4) Genetic recombination

110. Plants follow different pathways in response to 115. Match List - I with List - II.
environment or phases of life to form different
List - I List - II
kinds of structures. This ability is called :
Cells with active cell Vascular
(1) Plasticity (a) (i)
division capacity tissues
(2) Maturity Tissue having all cells
Meristematic
(3) Elasticity (b) similar in structure (ii)
tissue
(4) Flexibility and function
Tissue having
(c) (iii) Sclereids
111. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, different types of cells
which mechanism the competing species might Dead cells with highly
have evolved for their survival ? (d) thickened walls and (iv) Simple tissue
narrow lumen
(1) Mutualism
Select the correct answer from the options given
(2) Predation
below.
(3) Resource partitioning
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Competitive release
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
112. Match List - I with List - II. (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
List - I List - II
Primary constriction in (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(a) Cristae (i)
chromosome
Disc-shaped sacs in 116. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,
(b) Thylakoids (ii) phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any
Golgi apparatus
Infoldings in given time, is referred as :
(c) Centromere (iii)
mitochondria (1) Standing state
Flattened membranous (2) Standing crop
(d) Cisternae (iv) sacs in stroma of
(3) Climax
plastids
(4) Climax community
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. 117. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two
(a) (b) (c) (d) kinds of spores. Such plants are known as :
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) Homosporous
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (2) Heterosporous
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (3) Homosorus
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (4) Heterosorus
17 O6
118. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves 124. Match List - I with List - II.
division of centromere ?
List - I List - II
(1) Anaphase II More attraction in
(a) Cohesion (i)
(2) Telophase II liquid phase
Mutual attraction
(3) Metaphase I
(b) Adhesion (ii) among water
(4) Metaphase II molecules
Water loss in liquid
(c) Surface tension (iii)
119. Gemmae are present in : phase
Attraction towards
(1) Some Gymnosperms (d) Guttation (iv)
polar surfaces
(2) Some Liverworts Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) Mosses below.
(4) Pteridophytes (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
120. Which of the following is a correct sequence of (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
125. In the equation GPP−R=NPP
(3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
R represents :
(4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(1) Environment factor

121. Complete the flow chart on central dogma. (2) Respiration losses
(3) Radiant energy
(4) Retardation factor
(1) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;
(c)-Translation; (d)-Protein 126. The site of perception of light in plants during
photoperiodism is :
(2) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation;
(c)-Replication; (d)-Protein (1) Axillary bud
(2) Leaf
(3) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;
(c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein (3) Shoot apex
(4) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (4) Stem
(c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
127. Which of the following is not an application of PCR
(Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
122. Diadelphous stamens are found in :
(1) Purification of isolated protein
(1) Pea
(2) Detection of gene mutation
(2) China rose and citrus
(3) Molecular diagnosis
(3) China rose
(4) Gene amplification
(4) Citrus
128. During the purification process for recombinant
123. Amensalism can be represented as : DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol
precipitates out :
(1) Species A (−) ; Species B (−)
(1) Histones
(2) Species A (+) ; Species B (0)
(2) Polysaccharides
(3) Species A (−) ; Species B (0) (3) RNA
(4) Species A (+) ; Species B (+) (4) DNA
O6 18
129. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as Section - B (Biology : Botany)
reserve food material ?
136. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site
(1) Volvox
within gene amp R that confers ampicillin
(2) Ulothrix
resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a
(3) Ectocarpus gene for β-galactoside production and the
(4) Gracilaria recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
130. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by : (1) it will lead to lysis of host cell.
(1) Gamma rays (2) it will be able to produce a novel protein with
(2) Zeatin dual ability.
(3) Kinetin (3) it will not be able to confer ampicillin
resistance to the host cell.
(4) Infrared rays
(4) the transformed cells will have the ability
131. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is : to resist ampicillin as well as produce
(1) 7-nucleate and 7-celled β-galactoside.
(2) 8-nucleate and 8-celled 137. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the
(3) 8-nucleate and 7-celled process of transcription in eukaryotes ?
(4) 7-nucleate and 8-celled (1) Transcribes precursor of mRNA
132. Which of the following are not secondary (2) Transcribes only snRNAs
metabolites in plants ? (3) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
(1) Vinblastin, curcumin (4) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
(2) Rubber, gums 138. In the exponential growth equation
(3) Morphine, codeine Nt=Noert, e represents :
(4) Amino acids, glucose (1) The base of natural logarithms
133. The production of gametes by the parents, (2) The base of geometric logarithms
formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be (3) The base of number logarithms
understood from a diagram called : (4) The base of exponential logarithms
(1) Punnett square 139. Match Column - I with Column - II.
(2) Net square Column - I Column - II
(3) Bullet square
(4) Punch square (a) (i) Brassicaceae

134. When the centromere is situated in the middle of (b) (ii) Liliaceae
two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome
is referred as : (c) (iii) Fabaceae
(1) Sub-metacentric
(2) Acrocentric (d) (iv) Solanaceae
(3) Metacentric
Select the correct answer from the options given
(4) Telocentric below.
135. Match List - I with List - II. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
List - I List - II
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones
140. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
(1) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both
below.
PS I and PS II.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Both ATP and NADPH+H + are
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) synthesized during non-cyclic
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) photophosphorylation.
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (4) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) NADP reductase.
19 O6
141. Match Column - I with Column - II. 145. Select the correct pair.
(1) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular
Column - I Column - II
that form part of cambium
(a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
cambial ring
Conversion of
(b) Rhizobium (ii) (2) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy
ammonia to nitrite
rupturing the epidermis parenchyma
Conversion of nitrite and forming a lens-
(c) Thiobacillus (iii)
to nitrate shaped opening in bark
Conversion of (3) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells
(d) Nitrobacter (iv) atmospheric nitrogen cells in the epidermis
to ammonia of grass leaves
Choose the correct answer from options given (4) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive
below. bundles are surrounded tissue
(a) (b) (c) (d) by large thick-walled
cells
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 146. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (1) ATP is synthesized through complex V.
(2) Oxidation-reduction reactions produce
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
proton gradient in respiration.
142. Match List - I with List - II. (3) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is
limited to the terminal stage.
List - I List - II (4) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one
(a) Protein (i) C=C double bonds molecule of NADH+H + gives rise to
Unsaturated 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise
(b) (ii) Phosphodiester bonds
fatty acid to 3 ATP molecules.
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
147. Match List - I with List - II.
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
Choose the correct answer from the options given List - I List - II
below. Proteins are
(a) S phase (i)
(a) (b) (c) (d) synthesized
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase

(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) Interval between

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (c) Quiescent stage (iii) mitosis and initiation
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) of DNA replication

(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication

143. Which of the following statements is correct ?
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Organisms that depend on living plants are
below.
called saprophytes.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
cells.
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy. (4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile
on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy. 148. Identify the correct statement.
(1) The coding strand in a transcription unit is
144. In some members of which of the following pairs copied to an mRNA.
of families, pollen grains retain their viability for (2) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of
months after release ? prokaryotes.
(1) Poaceae ; Solanaceae (3) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate
is added to the 39 end of hnRNA.
(2) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
(4) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to
(3) Poaceae ; Rosaceae terminate the process of transcription in
(4) Poaceae ; Leguminosae bacteria.
O6 20
149. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated 153. Match the following :
gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe
to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of List - I List - II
cells, followed by its detection using Physalia
(a) (i) Pearl oyster
autoradiography because :
(b) Limulus (ii) Portuguese Man of War
(1) mutated gene does not appear on a (c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
photographic film as the probe has no (d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm
complimentarity with it.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) mutated gene does not appear on below.
photographic film as the probe has
complimentarity with it. (a) (b) (c) (d)

(3) mutated gene partially appears on a (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
photographic film.
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) mutated gene completely and clearly
appears on a photographic film. (3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

150. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences
in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called
as : 154. For effective treatment of the disease, early
diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology
(1) Single nucleotides is very important. Which of the following
molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for
(2) Polymorphic DNA early detection ?
(3) Satellite DNA (1) ELISA Technique
(4) Repetitive DNA (2) Hybridization Technique

(3) Western Blotting Technique

Section - A (Biology : Zoology) (4) Southern Blotting Technique

151. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. 155. Which one of the following is an example of
formation is produced by : Hormone releasing IUD ?

(1) The cells of bone marrow (1) Cu 7

(2) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney (2) Multiload 375
(3) Alpha cells of pancreas (3) CuT
(4) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis (4) LNG 20

156. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows

152. Which one of the following belongs to the family terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive
Muscidae ? feature ?

(1) Cockroach (1) Diakinesis

(2) House fly (2) Pachytene

(3) Fire fly (3) Leptotene

(4) Grasshopper (4) Zygotene

21 O6
157. With regard to insulin choose correct options. 162. Match List - I with List - II.
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
List - I List - II
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology
(a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata
has C-peptide.
(b) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(c) Comb plates (iii) Annelida
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are (d) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera
interconnected by disulphide bridges.
Choose the correct answer from the options given Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. below.

(1) (a), (c) and (d) only (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) (a) and (d) only (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (b) and (d) only (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (b) and (c) only (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
158. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow
and pneumatic long bones ?
163. A specific recognition sequence identified by
(1) Macropus endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions
(2) Ornithorhynchus within the DNA is :

(3) Neophron (1) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences

(4) Hemidactylus (2) Poly(A) tail sequences
(3) Degenerate primer sequence
159. Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as
(4) Okazaki sequences
“Universal recipients”. This is due to :
(1) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B,
on RBCs 164. Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability”
to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination
(2) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in in the process of transcription in prokaryotes ?
plasma
(1) DNA Ligase
(3) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface
(2) DNase
of RBCs
(4) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma (3) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
160. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of
inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ? 165. Identify the incorrect pair.
(1) Epinephrine
(1) Lectins - Concanavalin A
(2) Thrombokinase
(2) Drugs - Ricin
(3) Thrombin
(3) Alkaloids - Codeine
(4) Renin
(4) Toxin - Abrin
161. Which of the following statements wrongly
represents the nature of smooth muscle ? 166. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2)
and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of
(1) Communication among the cells is diffusion) are :
performed by intercalated discs
(1) pO2=95 and pCO2=40
(2) These muscles are present in the wall of
blood vessels (2) pO2=159 and pCO2=0.3
(3) These muscle have no striations (3) pO2=104 and pCO2=40
(4) They are involuntary muscles (4) pO2=40 and pCO2=45
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167. The organelles that are included in the 172. Match List - I with List - II.
endomembrane system are :
(1) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and List - I List - II
Lysosomes
Entry of sperm through
(2) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, (a) Vaults (i)
Cervix is blocked
Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas deferens
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria,
Ribosomes and Lysosomes Phagocytosis of sperms
(c) Vasectomy (iii)
within the Uterus
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex,
Lysosomes and Vacuoles (d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube

168. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what

Choose the correct answer from the options given
will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and
below.
Cytosine in it ?
(1) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25 (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20 (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
169. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of : (4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(1) Ozone
(2) Troposphere 173. The centriole undergoes duplication during :
(3) CFCs
(1) Metaphase
(4) Stratosphere
(2) G2 phase
170. Read the following statements.
(3) S-phase
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(4) Prophase
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
animals.
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of 174. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are
body organization. present on :
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
digestion. (1) Perivitelline space
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of (2) Zona pellucida
Echinoderms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) Corona radiata
below.
(4) Vitelline membrane
(1) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
(2) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
175. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect
(3) (c), (d) and (e) are correct with respect to cockroach ?
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(1) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a
genital pouch.
171. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro
muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening (2) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears
and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as : a pair of anal cerci.
(1) Myasthenia gravis (3) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the
(2) Gout junction of midgut and hind gut.
(3) Arthritis (4) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed
(4) Muscular dystrophy by the mouth parts.
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176. Match List - I with List - II. 181. In a cross between a male and female, both
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
List - I List - II percentage of the progeny will be diseased ?
(a) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic Acid
(1) 25%
(b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid
(c) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric Acid (2) 100%
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid (3) 50%
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) 75%
below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) 182. During the process of gene amplification using
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained
in the beginning, then which of the following steps
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) of PCR will be affected first ?
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) Denaturation
177. Veneral diseases can spread through : (2) Ligation
(a) Using sterile needles
(3) Annealing
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(c) Infected mother to foetus (4) Extension
(d) Kissing
(e) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. 183. Which of the following is not an objective of
Biofortification in crops ?
(1) (b) and (c) only
(2) (a) and (c) only (1) Improve vitamin content
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) Improve protein content
178. Which of the following RNAs is not required for
the synthesis of protein ? (4) Improve resistance to diseases
(1) rRNA
(2) siRNA 184. Sphincter of oddi is present at :
(3) mRNA
(4) tRNA (1) Gastro-oesophageal junction

(2) Junction of jejunum and duodenum

179. Select the favourable conditions required for the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli. (3) Ileo-caecal junction
(1) High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher
temperature (4) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and
(2) Low pO2, low pCO2 , more H+, higher duodenum
temperature
(3) High pO 2 , low pCO 2 , less H +, lower
temperature 185. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell.
During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
(4) Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the
temperature number of chromosomes after S phase ?

180. Succus entericus is referred to as : (1) 4

(1) Gastric juice
(2) 32
(2) Chyme
(3) Pancreatic juice (3) 8
(4) Intestinal juice (4) 16
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Section - B (Biology : Zoology) 190. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II
186. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop
the leakage of the substances across a tissue and (a) Allen's Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
facilitation of communication with neighbouring Physiological
cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules. (b) (ii) Desert lizard
adaptation
(1) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, Behavioural
respectively. (c) (iii) Marine fish at depth
adaptation
(2) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, Biochemical
respectively. (d) (iv) Polar seal
adaptation
(3) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
respectively. Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, below.
respectively. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
187. Statement I : (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and (3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
phenylalanine.
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Statement II :
‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the amino 191. Match List - I with List - II.
acid lysine.
List - I List - II
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. Haemophilus
(a) Filariasis (i)
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II influenzae
is false (b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton
(2) Statement I is incorrect but (c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti
Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are (d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica
true Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are below.
false (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
188. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology
(MOET) ? (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
(2) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate 192. Match List - I with List - II.
mothers at 8-32 cell stage List - I List - II
(3) Cow is administered hormone having LH Selection of resistant
like activity for super ovulation Adaptive varieties due to excessive
(a) (i)
(4) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time radiation use of herbicides and
pesticides
189. Following are the statements about prostomium
Convergent Bones of forelimbs in Man
of earthworm. (b) (ii)
evolution and Whale
(a) It serves as a covering for mouth. Divergent Wings of Butterfly and
(c) (iii)
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which evolution Bird
it can crawl. Evolution by
(c) It is one of the sensory structures. (d) anthropo- (iv) Darwin Finches
(d) It is the first body segment. genic action
Choose the correct answer from the options given Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. below.
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
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193. Which of the following secretes the hormone, 197. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into :
relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy ? (1) Digestive disorder
(1) Foetus (2) Addison’s disease
(2) Uterus (3) Dysfunction of Immune system
(3) Graafian follicle (4) Parkinson’s disease
(4) Corpus luteum
198. During muscular contraction which of the
194. Which one of the following statements about following events occur ?
Histones is wrong ? (a) ‘H’ zone disappears
(1) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine (b) ‘A’ band widens
and Arginine. (c) ‘I’ band reduces in width
(2) Histones carry positive charge in the side (d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP
chain. and Pi
(3) Histones are organized to form a unit of (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
8 molecules.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) The pH of histones is slightly acidic. below.
(1) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
195. Following are the statements with reference to
‘lipids’. (2) (b), (d), (e), (a) only
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called (3) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
unsaturated fatty acids. (4) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
199. Which of these is not an important component of
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol. initiation of parturition in humans ?
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including (1) Release of Oxytocin
carboxyl carbon.
(2) Release of Prolactin
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
(3) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. (4) Synthesis of prostaglandins

(1) (b) and (c) only 200. Assertion (A) :

(2) (b) and (e) only A person goes to high altitude and experiences
(3) (a) and (b) only ‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like breathing
difficulty and heart palpitations.
(4) (c) and (d) only
Reason (R) :
196. Match List - I with List - II. Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude,
the body does not get sufficient oxygen.
List - I List - II
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints correct answer from the options given below.
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Choose the correct answer from the options given correct explanation of (A)
below. (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(a) (b) (c) (d) correct explanation of (A)
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) -o0o-
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
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Space For Rough Work
27 O6
Space For Rough Work
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Space For Rough Work