A.T.

Belonio
2019 Edition

3
Agricultural and Food
Process Engineering
AGRICULTURAL AND BIOSYSTEMS ENGINEERING REVIEWER
VOLUME
Agricultural and Food Process
Engineering
AGRICULTURAL AND BIOSYSTEMS ENGINEERING REVIEWER
VOLUME 3

by

Alexis T. Belonio, MS, PAE, ASEAN Engineer

Copyright © 2019

No part of this book is allowed to be photocopied or reproduced in any form

without any written permission from the author.
Revised Edition

Acknowledgment/Prayer:

I am very much thankful to you God our Father for inspiring me to prepare this review
material to help those agricultural and biosystems engineering graduates who are
preparing for the Professional Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Licensure
Examination. May this review material be instrumental to them in their pursuit of
passing the board examination and may You grant them the desires of their hearts I
pray!

All glory and honor belong to You, God! In Jesus name, Amen!
PREFACE
This book, Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Comprehensive Board
Exam Reviewer Volume 3, was prepared primarily for the agricultural and
biosystems engineering graduates who are preparing for the professional
agricultural and biosystems engineering licensure examination. With this
material, they can be refreshed and updated on the new principles, systems,
and developments in agricultural and biosystems engineering. Also, they
can develop their analytical ability in analyzing the problems related to
current practices in agricultural engineering.

The contents of the book are series of questions and problems that compel
the students to review the fundamentals, theories, and concepts in the field
of agricultural and biosystems engineering. Formula and sample problems
are provided at the end of each topic. The questions and problems are
grouped into subtopics. Most questions are practical in nature but tricky to
test whether students have thorough understanding of the fundamental
principles in each of the different subject matters in agricultural and food
process engineering as well as in utilization of agricultural wastes. The
answers for the questions and problems are provided at the end of each
topic. It can also be requested through email at [email protected].

This book is the third of the six volumes of the review materials. It focuses
on the different topics on agricultural and food process engineering. At the
end of the reviewer, specific topics on refrigeration, cold storage, heat
transfer, and thermal insulation are included.

This book is still in draft form and is produced in limited copies. Additional
items will be included in the future to make this material more
comprehensive. Comments and suggestions are welcome for the
improvement of this book.

May this book become useful to the aspiring Agricultural and Biosystems
Engineers as they prepare for their Professional Board Exam!

God bless!

ALEXIS T. BELONIO
Table of Contents

No. of Pages
General Information 1
Basic Engineering 9
Properties of Agricultural and Food Products 11
Moisture Content 9
Cleaning, Grading and Sorting 3
Size Reduction 5
Mixing and Blending 3
Air Moving Device 9
Material Handling 19
Crop Drying 13
Crop Storage 9
Rice Milling 13
Corn Milling 3
Coconut Processing 3
Sugar Processing 5
Food Process Engineering 9
Feed Milling 5
Refrigeration and Cold Storage 13
Heat Transfer and Thermal Insulation 13
General Information

1. A study that deals with the principles 6. Processing operation which changes
and practices of processing agricultural the physical properties of the product
products suitable for food and feeds. such as processing banana into catsup.
a. Agricultural processing a. Primary processing
b. Food processing b. Secondary processing
c. Feed processing c. Tertiary processing
d. All of the above d. None of the above

2. A study that deals with the application 7. Processing operation which does not
and practices in converting agricultural significantly change the physical
products into different kinds and forms of characteristics of the product such as
food suitable for animal consumption. drying and dehydration of fruits and
a. Agricultural processing vegetables.
b. Food processing a. Primary processing
c. Feed processing b. Secondary processing
d. All of the above c. Tertiary processing
d. None of the above
3. A study that deals with the application
and practices in converting agricultural 8. Which country does not belong to the
products into different kinds and forms of ASEAN Free Trade Agreement?
food. a. China
a. Agricultural processing b. Japan
b. Food processing c. Korea
c. Feed processing d. All of the above
d. All of the above e. None of the above

4. These are crops that are produced and

harvested with normally low moisture
content of about 20 to 30% and do not
easily deteriorate or spoil.
a. Perishable crops
b. Durable crops
c. Flexible crops
d. None of the above

5. These are crops that have high

moisture content of 30% and more such
as fruits and vegetables including dairy,
meat, poultry, and fish and easily
deteriorate or spoil.
a. Perishable crops
b. Durable crops
c. Flexible crops
d. None of the above
Basic Engineering

1. The study that deals with fluids at rest 6. Newton’s law of motion states that:
such as those fluids like coconut oil, milk, a. Everybody continues in a state of rest
etc. or of uniform motion in a straight line
a. Hydrodynamic unless compelled by force to change that
b. Hydrostatic state.
c. Hydro pneumatic b. The rate of change of momentum is
d. None of the above proportional to the force applied and
took place in the direction of the force
2. The study that deals with the various application.
factors affecting the relationship between c. To every action there is always an
the rate of flow of fluid and the various equal and opposite reaction.
pressures tending it to cause or inhibit its d. All of the above
flow.
a. Hydrodynamic 7. Mass flow rate states that:
b. Hydrostatic a. The rate of flow of fluid is constant at
c. Hydro pneumatic any point in the system and there is no
d. None of the above accumulation or depletion of fluid within
the system.
3. Which of the following resources are b. The rate of flow of fluid is not
considered fluid? constant at any point in the system and
a. Biogas there is accumulation or depletion of
b. Producer gas fluid within the system.
c. Bioethanol c. The rate of flow of fluid increases at
d. Coconut oil any point of the system and there is
e. Sugar cane juice accumulation and no depletion within
f. All of the above the system.
g. None of the above d. None of the above

4. Which of the following resources are 8. Fluids include ___.

not fluid? a. solid, gas, and liquid
a. Biomass b. gas and liquid
b. Grains and Cereals c. liquid
c. Fruits and vegetables d. All of the above
d. All of the above
9. The characteristic of agricultural
products that determines the angle by
5. What is the mass flow rate of coconut
which it will move freely by gravity with
oil in a 2-in. pipe if the velocity of the fluid
respect to the material in which it is
is measured at 0.02 m/s? The specific
held, such as hopper bottom of a storage
weight of oil is 1500 kg/m3 .
bin structure.
a. 3.54 kg/sec
a. Angle of repose
b. 3.13 kg/sec
b. Angle of friction
c. 2.35 kg/sec
c. Angle of slide
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
Basic Engineering

10. This refers to the characteristics of 16. Reynolds number equation.

fluid that is linearly related to shear force. a. Re = DVδ/μ
a. Newtonian fluid b. Re = DV/μ
b. Non-Newtonian fluid c. Re = DV/δμ
c. All of the above d. None of the above
d. None of the above
17. When fluids flow in elemental swirl or
11. An example of Newtonian fluid. eddies, it is classified as ___.
a. turbulent flow
a. Coconut oil
b. laminar flow
b. Butter
c. Slurries c. mixture of laminar and turbulent flow
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
18. When fluids flow in parallel elements, it
12. This refers to the characteristics of is classified as ___.
fluid not linear with the shear force. a. turbulent flow
a. Newtonian fluid b. laminar flow
b. Non-Newtonian fluid c. mixture of laminar and turbulent flow
c. All of the above d. None of the above
d. None of the above
19. Which of the following factors affect
13. An example of Non-Newtonian fluid. the flow of fluid in pipes?
a. Purees a. Characteristics of fluid
b. Jathropha oil b. Size of pipe
c. Coconut water c. Shape of pipe
d. None of the above d. Condition inside the surface of the pipe
e. Fluid velocity
14. This refers to the internal resistance of f. All of the above
fluid to shear. g. None of the above
a. Viscosity 20. Which of the following statements is
b. Coefficient of friction of fluid to fluid true?
c. All of the above a. The velocity of fluid flowing in a pipe is
d. None of the above highest at the center and decreases
towards its surfaces.
15. Reynolds number is a function of the b. The velocity gradient for streamlined
___. flow in a long circular conduit is parabolic in
a. inside diameter of the pipe shape.
b. velocity of fluid inside the pipe c. The velocity gradient for turbulent flow
c. specific weight of the fluid flattens and the relationship between the
d. fluid viscosity maximum and the average velocity
e. All of the above changes.
f. None of the above d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Basic Engineering

21. The angle formed by agricultural 26. The plenum chamber of a flatbed
product itself with respect to the dryer registers 2 inches of water. How
horizontal axis which varies with the much is the equivalent pressure of the
moisture content and the amount of chamber in psig?
foreign matter. a. 0.072 psig
a. Angle of repose b. 1.201 psig
b. Angle of friction c. 1.537 psig
c. Angle of slide d. None of the above
d. None of the above
27. High pressure is usually expressed in
22. A simple device used to measure ___.
pressure by taking the difference in the a. psi
height of fluid inside a tube. b. inches of water
a. Pyschrometer c. inches of mercury
b. Hydrometer d. All of the above
c. Manometer e. None of the above
d. None of the above
28. Low pressure is usually expressed in
23. The pressure taken from the direction ___.
of fluid which is also the pressure a. psi
resulting from force due to change in b. inches of water
velocity of the fluid. c. inches of mercury
a. Static pressure d. All of the above
b. Dynamic pressure e. None of the above
c. Isothermic pressure
d. None of the above 29. Very low pressure is usually
expressed in ___.
24. The pressure taken perpendicular from
a. psi
the direction of fluid where sample
b. inches of water
application of which is taking the velocity
c. inches of mercury
of flow of fluid in pipes using pitot-tube
d. All of the above
manometer.
e. None of the above
a. Static pressure
b. Dynamic pressure
30. In fluid mechanics, the total hydraulic
c. Isothermic pressure
energy is the sum of ___ energy plus the
d. None of the above
work supplied by the pump or blower
25. The unit of pressure. less friction (conduit and fittings) in the
a. Psi system.
b. Inches of water a. potential and kinetic
c. Inches of mercury b. pressure and kinetic
d. All of the above c. potential, kinetic, and pressure
e. None of the above d. None of the above
Basic Engineering

31. An open tube pointing to the direction 36. The available energy due to the
of flow of the fluid that is usually used elevation above a reference plane.
with manometer to measure static and a. Pressure Energy
dynamic pressures. b. Kinetic Energy
a. Pitot-Tube c. Potential Energy
b. Orifice d. None of the above
c. Weir
d. None of the above 37. The available energy due to the
internal pressure.
32. Which of the following instruments a. Pressure Energy
can measure the flow of fluid? b. Kinetic Energy
a. Pitot tube c. Potential Energy
b. Venturi meter d. None of the above
c. Hot wire anemometer
d. All of the above 38. The energy available from moving
e. None of the above fluids.
a. Pressure Energy
33. Which of the following fluids is b. Kinetic Energy
considered as highly incompressible? c. Potential Energy
a. Flue gases d. None of the above
b. Biogas
c. Vegetable oil 39. The process which results in the
d. All of the above diffusion of substances from the region
of high concentration to the region of
34. Which of the following fluids is low concentration.
considered as compressible? a. Energy transfer
a. Producer gas b. Mass transfer
b. Vegetable oil c. Heat transfer
c. Molasses d. None of the above
d. None of the above
40. The amount of heat transfer from
35. The mass flow rate equation: within the product.
a. Q = AVδ a. Thermal diffusivity
b. Q = AV b. Thermal conductivity
c. Q = Aδ c. Thermal expansion
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Basic Engineering

41. A coconut oil is to be pumped into a 45. What is the change in the total head
6m-high tank from the pump at 100 kg per delivered by the pump in item 44 above?
minute rate. The container where the oil a. 14.57 m
is contained is located 1 m below the b. 15.32 m
pump. The estimated dynamic head loss c. 16.75 m
in the system is 0.2 m of water. What is d. None of the above
the horsepower required to pump the oil?
a. 0.158 hp 46. What would be the increase in the
b. 0.175 hp input power of the pump in item above?
c. 0.200 hp a. 3.25 hp
d. None of the above b. 4.56 hp
c. 5.34 hp
42. In item 41 above, assuming a 0.93 d. None of the above
kg/l specific weight of oil, what is the
brake horsepower required for the pump
above if the pump efficiency is 60%?
a. 0.175 hp
b. 0.263 hp
c. 0.312 hp
d. None of the above

43. What is the horsepower required for

the motor if the transmission and motor
efficiencies are 80% and 90%,
respectively?
a. 0.360 hp
b. 0.451 hp
c. 0.514 hp
d. None of the above

44. A rotary pump is used in pumping

vegetable oil to a tank at a rate of 1 gpm.
The pump is driven directly by an electric
motor with 1.5-hp input power running at
a speed of 1700 rpm. The total head loss
of the system is 10 m. If the motor drives
the pump at 2200 rpm, what is the rate of
flow of the pump?
a. 1.294 gpm
b. 1.357 gpm
c. 2.186 gpm
d. None of the above
Basic Engineering
Conversion of Units
Inches of water psi x 27.648
Inches of water In. mercury x 13.6
psi In. of water x 0.0361
psi In. mercury x 0.491
Inches mercury psi x 2.036
Inches of mercury In. of water x 0.0736
Static Pressure Continuity Equation

P = W H Q = A V
where: where:
P - intensity of pressure, kg/m2 Q - discharge, m3 /sec
W - unit weight of liquid, 1000 kg/m3 A - cross sectional area of pipe, m2
H - depth of water, m V - average velocity of water, m/s
Velocity of Flow Friction Loss in Pipe

V = [2 g H] 1/2 Hf = [f L V2 ] / [2 g D]
where: where:
V - velocity of flow, m/s Hf - pressure loss in pipe, m
g - gravitational acceleration, m/s2 f - friction factor
H - height of water, m L - length of pipe, m
V - average velocity of water in pipe, m/s
g - gravitational acceleration, 9.8 m/s2
D - pipe diameter, m
Flow from Vertical Pipe (50- to 200-mm Pipe Flow from Vertical Pipe (50- to 200-mm Pipe
Diameter with H = 0.075 to 0.1m ) Diameter with H = 0.3 to 0.6m )
0.87 D H 2 1/2 0.97 D2 H 1/2
Q = -------------------- Q = --------------------
287 287
where: where:
Q - pipe discharge, lps Q - pipe discharge, lps
D - pipe diameter, mm D - pipe diameter, mm
H - vertical rise of water jet, m H - vertical rise of water jet, m
Flow from Horizontal Pipe

Q = 3.6 A X/ y ½
where:
Q - discharge, gpm
A - cross sectional area of water at the end
of the pipe, in.2
X - coordinate of the point on the surface
measured parallel to the pipe, in.
y - vertical coordinate, in.
Basic Engineering

Problem 1

What is the rate of flow of coconut oil in a 2-in.

pipe if the velocity of the fluid is measured at 0.02
m/s? The specific weight of oil is 1500 kg/m3 .

Given:
Inside diameter of pipe - 2 in.
Fluid velocity - 0.02 m/s
Specific weight of fluid - 1500 kg/m3

Required: Mass Flow Rate

Solution:

Q = A V d
= 3.14 (2 in.)2/4 x 0.025 m/in. x 0.02 m/s
x 1500 kg/m3
= 2.35 kg/sec

Problem 2

The plenum chamber of a flatbed dryer registers 2 inches of water. How much is the
equivalent pressure of the chamber in psig?
Given:
Pressure draft - 2 inches of water

Required:
Pressure Draft, in psig

Solution:

Pressure Draft, in psig =. 0.0361 x 2 in. of water

= 0.072 psig
Basic Engineering

Problem 3

A coconut oil is to be pumped into a 6m-

high tank from the pump at 100 kg per
minute rate. The container where the oil is
contained is located 1 m below the pump.
The estimated dynamic head loss in the
system is 0.2 m of water. What is the
horsepower required to pump the oil?
Assume a 0.93 kg/l specific weight of oil.
Also, compute the brake horsepower and
motor horsepower with 60%, 80%, and 90%
efficiencies for pump, transmission and
motor, respectively.

Given:
Q - 100 kg/min
Hsd - 6 m
Hss - 1 m
Hd - 0.2 m
Y - 0.93 kg/li

Required: Fluid Horsepower

Solution:

FHP = Q H Y / 33,000 ft-lb/min

Q = 100 kg/min
= 220 lb/min
H = (6 m + 1 m + 0.2 m) x 3.28 ft/m
= 23.6 ft
FHP = 220 lb/min x 23.616 ft / 33,000 ft-
lb/min-hp
= 0.158 hp
BHP = FHP / Ep
= 0.158 hp / 0.6
= 0.263 hp
MHP = BHP / (Em x Et)
= 0.263 hp / (0.9 x 0.8)
= 0.36 hp

Therefore, use ½-hp pump.

Basic Engineering

Problem 4

A rotary pump is used in pumping vegetable

oil to a tank at a rate of 1 gpm. The pump is
driven directly by an electric motor with 1.5-
hp input power running at a speed of 1700
rpm. The total head loss of the system is 10
m. If the motor drives the pump at 2200 rpm,
what is the rate of flow of the pump? What is
the change in the total head delivered by the
pump? What would be the increase in the
input power of the pump?

Given:
Q1 - 1 gpm
HP1 - 1.5 hp
N1 - 1700 rpm
H1 - 10 m
N2 - 2200 rpm

Required: Rate of Flow, Q2

Change in Total Head, H2
Increase in Input Power, HP2 ,

Solution:

N1 /N2 = Q1 /Q2

Q2 = N2 Q1 /N1
= 2200 rpm ( 1gpm)/1700 rpm
= 1.294 gpm

N1 2 /N2 2 = H1 /H2
H2 = H1 (N2 2 ) / N1 2
= 10 m (2200 rpm)2 / (1700 rpm)2
= 16.75 m

N1 3 /N2 3 = HP1 /HP2

HP2 = HP1 (N2 3 ) / N1 3
= 1.5 hp (2200 rpm)3 / (1700 rpm)3
= 3.25 hp
Properties of Agricultural Products

1. The unhulled grain of Oryza sativa. 7. The slender type paddy has ___
a. Palay length to width ratio.
b. Paddy a. less than 2.0
c. Rough rice b. between 2 to 3
d. All of the above c. more than 3.0
d. None of the above
2. The fibrous layer of paddy when hull
is removed and is commonly known as 8. The free space between the husk of
the silver skin of brown rice. rough rice and the brown rice kernel
a. Lemma and Palea greatly affects milling in the sense that
b. Pericarp ___.
c. Bran layer a. the larger the free space the greater
d. None of the above is the amount of broken grains
b. the smaller the free space the
3. An angle with tangent equals the lesser its abrasive effect to the
coefficient of friction between surfaces rubber-roll huller
of the stored materials. c. the larger the free space, the
a. Angle of contact lesser the breakage and losses
b. Angle of friction d. All of the above
c. Angle of repose
d. All of the above 9. The uneven expansion and
contraction of the inner and the outer
4. The coefficient of friction of rice to layers of the grains that cause fissuring is
steel material is 0.41. What would be a factor of ___.
the minimum angle of the hopper a. mechanical stress
required for the system? b. thermal stress
a. 22 deg. c. physical stress
b. 30 deg. d. All of the above
c. 50 deg. e. None of the above
d. None of the above
10. The property of a product that holds
5. The drying temperature of copra is moisture when subjected to a prolong
___. condition of known temperature and
a. less than 50°C relative humidity.
b. between 50° to 95°C a. Dry matter loss
c. above 95°C b. Mass transfer coefficient
d. None of the above c. Equilibrium moisture content
d. None of the above
6. The density of pig and poultry feeds
is approximately ___. 11. The specific gravity of rice.
a. 250 kg/m3 a. 1.11 to 1.12
b. 450 kg/m3 b. 1.19 to 1.30
c. 650 kg/m3 c. 1.22 to 1.26
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Properties of Agricultural Products

12. The specific gravity of sorghum. 19. The angle-of-friction of rough rice in
a. 1.11 to 1.12 steel.
b. 1.19 to 1.30 a. 0.41
c. 1.22 to 1.26 b. 0.37
d. None of the above c. 0.36
d. None of the above
13. The bulk density of rough rice.
a. 25 lbs/ft3 20. The angle-of-friction of shelled corn
b. 36 lbs/ft3 in steel.
c. 45 lbs/ft3 a. 0.41
d. None of the above b. 0.37
c. 0.36
14. The specific gravity of corn. d. None of the above
a. 1.11 to 1.12
b. 1.19 to 1.30 21. The angle-of-friction of soybean in
c. 1.22 to 1.26 steel.
d. None of the above a. 0.41
b. 0.37
15. The physical properties of important c. 0.36
to agricultural processing. d. None of the above
a. Surface area
b. Porosity 22. Which of the following thermal
c. Bulk density properties are important in agricultural
d. Angle of repose processing?
e. Angle of friction a. Thermal conductivity
f. All of the above b. Specific heat
c. Coefficient of thermal expansion
16. The angle of repose of rough rice. d. Heat of vaporization
a. 27 degrees e. Thermal diffusivity
b. 33 degree f. All of the above
c. 36 degrees
d. None of the above 23. The thermal conductivity of paddy
grain ___ linearly with temperature, bulk
17. The angle of repose of shelled corn. density, and moisture content.
a. 27 degrees a. increases
b. 33 degree b. decreases
c. 36 degrees c. do not increase or decrease
d. None of the above d. None of the above

18. The angle of repose of sorghum. 24. The bulk density of shelled corn.
a. 27 degrees a. 25 lbs/ft3
b. 33 degree b. 36 lbs/ft3
c. 36 degrees c. 45 lbs/ft3
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Properties of Agricultural Products

25. The amount of heat required to raise 30. The terminal velocity of rough rice.
the temperature of the product one a. 1.3 to 5.2 m/s
degree higher when heat is added. b. 6.0 to 7.1 m/s
a. Heat of vaporization c. 7.5 to 9.0 m/s
b. Specific heat d. None of the above
c. Thermal diffusivity
d. None of the above 31. The pressure drop in the product
during drying is a function of ___.
26. The amount of heat required to a. airflow
remove a certain amount of moisture b. amount of foreign matter present
from the product. c. moisture content
a. Heat of vaporization d. depth of drying
b. Specific heat e. All of the above
c. Thermal diffusivity
d. None of the above 32. What is the porosity of a medium-
sized paddy having 21% moisture
27. Hygroscopic properties important in content wet basis?
agricultural processing. a. 68.86%
a. Equilibrium moisture content b. 72.32%
b. Mass transfer coefficient c. 79.54%
c. Dry matter loss d. None of the above
d. Tempering period
e. All of the above 33. If the paddy in item 32 above is to be
dried to 14% wet basis, what is the
28. The mass transfer among agricultural percentage increase in the porosity of
products is a function of ___. the sample?
a. air temperature a. 0.1%
b. air relative humidity b. 0.2%
c. airflow rate c. 0.3%
d. thickness d. None of the above
e. All of the above
34. A receiving pit for rough rice is to be
29. The equivalent loss in the dry matter designed for a rice mill. If concrete
of a product due to respiration during material is to be used, what is the
storage. minimum angle-of-inclination of the pit
a. Moisture loss to make it self-emptying? Consider a
b. Dry matter loss 0.52 coefficient-of-friction for rough rice
c. Respiration loss to smooth concrete.
d. None of the above a. 20.45 deg
b. 27.47 deg
c. 30.12 deg
d. None of the above
Properties of Agricultural Products

35. If steel will be used in item 34 above 40. What is the latent heat of
instead of concrete with 0.46 coefficient-of- vaporization of paddy at 28% moisture
friction, what will be the hopper inclination content wet basis and at 40°C
needed for the pit? temperature?
a. 24.70 deg a. 1,983.4 kJ/kg of water
b. 29.65 deg b. 2,409.7 kJ/kg of water
c. 32.98 deg c. 3,132.4 kJ/kg of water
d. None of the above d. None of the above

36. Ten tons of shelled corn is to be stored 41. If 200-kg moisture will be removed
in a cylindrical silo. Loading is from bottom from the bulk of paddy in item 40
to top of the cylindrical container, without above, what is the amount of heat
considering the additional volume of the required to remove the moisture?
cone due to the effect of the angle-of- a. 481,946.2 kJ
repose of the sample. If the silo requires b. 543,124.5 kJ
2D = H ratio, what would be the diameter c. 632,231.4 kJ
of the silo? Assume a 45 lb/ft3 bulk density d. None of the above
for shelled corn.
a. 2.07 m 42. Five hundred tons of paddy, at 16%
b. 3.67 m wet basis, is to be stored in a silo for 6
c. 4.01 m months. If the storage temperature in
d. None of the above the warehouse will be maintained at
95°F, what would be the dry matter
37. What would be the height of the silo in loss of paddy?
Item 36 above? a. 0.015
a. 4.14 m b. 0.016
b. 6.34 m c. 0.017
c. 7.23 m d. None of the above
d. None of the above
43. What would be the expected weight
38. What is the specific heat of medium of the paddy in Item 42 above after the
sized paddy if it has a moisture content of storage period? Neglect losses due to
14% wet basis? insects and pests.
a. 0.22190 BTU/lb-F a. 445.32 tons
b. 0.35679 BTU/lb-F b. 462.34 tons
c. 0.41236 BTU/lb-F c. 491.45 tons
d. None of the above d. None of the above

39. If 1.5 tons of paddy in item 28 above is 44. If the coefficient-of-friction of rice
to be raised from 27 C to 45 C temperature, to steel material is 0.41, what is the
what is the amount of heat needed? minimum angle of hopper required for
a. 23,725.548 BTU the system?
b. 24,214.326 BTU a. 16.7 deg
c. 25,123.654 BTU b. 20.1 deg
d. None of the above c. 22.3 deg
d. None of the above
Properties of Agricultural Products

45. Which of the following rice variety that

is characterized by short and bold?
a. Japonica
b. Indica
c. Java
d. None of the above

46. Which of the following variety that is

characterized by long and slender?
a. Indica
b. Java
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

47. Variety of rice which is difficult to

threshed?
a. Japonica
b. Indica
c. Java
d. All of the above

48. Variety of rice which is easy to cracked

when pass through a rubber rice mill?
a. Japonica
b. Indica
c. Java
d. None of the above
e. Two of the above
Properties of Agricultural Products

Paddy Porosity Thermal Conductivity of Paddy Grains

Pm = 69.05 - 0.885 M
Pl = 65.55 - 0.475 M K = 0.0500135 + 0.000767 M
where: where:
Pm - porosity for medium paddy, % K - thermal conductivity, BTU/hr-ft-°F
Pl - porosity for long paddy, %t M - moisture content, % wb
M - moisture content wet basis, %
Specific Heat of Paddy Length of Paddy (Short Grain)
C = 0.22008 + 0.01301 M 11.21%<M<21.89%
where: L = 0.7318 + 0.00122 M
C - specific heat, BTU/lb-°F where:
M - moisture content, % wb L - length of paddy, cm
M - moisture content of paddy, % wb
Width of Paddy (Short Grain) Thickness of Paddy (Short Grain)
11.21%<M<21.89% 10.40%<M<22.59%
W = 0.3358 + 0.00089 M T = 0.2187 + 0.000089 M
where: where:
W - width of paddy, cm T - thickness of paddy, cm
M - moisture content of paddy, % wb M - moisture content of paddy, % wb
Coefficient of Thermal Expansion of Milled Coefficient of Thermal Expansion of Milled
Rice (For Temperature Below 53°C) Rice (For Temp. Equal and Above 53°C)
Ck = 0.0002403 per °C Ck = 0.0003364 per °C
where: where:
Ck – coefficient of thermal expansion at Ck – coefficient of thermal expansion at
storage moisture over a temperature storage moisture over a temperature
of 30°-70°C of 30°-70°C
Latent Heat of Vaporization of Paddy Equilibrium Moisture Content
Md = E – F ln [ -R ( T + C) ln RH ]
HV = 2.32 [(1094 - 1.026) x (T + 17.78)] where:
x [1 + 2.4962 Exp (-21.73 M)] Md - moisture content, dec dry basis
where: E - constant, 0.0183212 to 0.480920
HV - latent heat of vaporization, KJ/kg F - constant, 0.026383 to 0.066826
T - air temperature, °C R - universal gas constant, 1.987
M - moisture content, dec dry basis T - temperature, °C
C - constant, 12.354 to 120.098
RH - relative humidity, dec
Mass Transfer Coefficient of Paddy Dry Matter Loss
Kg = 0.008489 - 0.000225T DML = 1- exp [(A x TC) exp [D (T-60)] exp (E
+ 0.000236 RH – 0.00042 Q (W-0.14))]
where: Where:
Kg - mass transfer coefficient, moisture Tc – storage time, months
2 2
dec drybasi-cm /h-m -kg T – storage temperature, F
T - temperature of drying air, °C W- moisture content, %
RH - relative humidity, %
Q - airflow rate of drying air, m3 /min
Properties of Agricultural Products

Problem 1

What is the porosity of a medium-sized paddy having 21% moisture content wet
basis? If the paddy is to be dried to 14% wet basis, what is the percentage increase
in the porosity of the sample?

Given:
MC wb 1 - 21%
MC wb 2 - 14%

Required: Porosity and Percentage Increase if

sample is dried to 14%
Solution:
At 21% MC, PM = 69.05 - 0.885 MC
= 69.05 – 0.885 (0.21)
= 68.86%
At 14% MC, PM = 69.05 – 0.885 MC
= 69.05 – 0.885 (0.14)
= 68.92%
% Increase = (68.92% - 68.86%) x 100 / 68.86%
= 0.1%

Problem 2

A receiving pit for rough rice is to be designed for a rice mill. If concrete material is
to be used, what is the minimum angle-of-inclination of the pit to make it self-
emptying? Consider a 0.52 coefficient-of-friction for rough rice to smooth
concrete. If steel will be used instead of concrete with 0.46 coefficient-of-friction,
what will be the inclination needed for the pit?

Given:
Material - rough rice
Coef.-of-friction to concrete - 0.52
Coef.-of-friction to steel - 0.46

Required: Minimum Angle-of-Friction to

Concrete and Steel materials
Solution:
Angle-of-friction to Concrete = tan -1 0.52
for concrete
= 27.47 deg
Angle-of-Friction to Steel = tan -1 0.46 for steel
= 24.70 deg
Properties of Agricultural Products

Problem 3

Ten tons of shelled corn is to be stored in a cylindrical silo. Loading is from bottom
to top of the cylindrical container, without considering the additional volume of the
cone due to the effect of the angle-of-repose of the sample. If the silo requires 2D
= H ratio, what would be the dimension of the silo? Assume a 45 lb/ft3 bulk density
for shelled corn.

Given:
Sample - shelled corn
Weight of sample - 10 tons
Ratio - 2D = H
Density of sample - 45 lb/ft3

Required: Dimension of Silo

Solution:

Volume of paddy = Weight/Density

= [10 tons x 1000 kg/ton]/[45 lb/ft3 x kg/2.2lb x (3.28 ft/m)3 ]
= 13.85 m3

πD2 /4 x H = 13.85 m3
πD2 /4 x 2 D = 13.85 m3
D3 = (8/π) 13.85 m3
D = 2.07 m
H = 4.14 m
Properties of Agricultural Products

Problem 4

What is the amount of heat

needed to raise the temperature of
a 1.5-ton medium-sized paddy
from 27°C to 45°C? The moisture
content of paddy is 14% wet basis.

Given:
Sample - paddy
Weight of sample - 1.5 tons
Initial temperature of sample - 27°C (106.2°F)
Final temperature of sample - 45°C (138.6°F)
Moisture content - 14% wet basis

Required: Heat Energy Required to raise the

temperature of the sample

Solution:

C = 0.22008 + 0.1301 M
= 0.22008 + 0.1301 (0.14)
= 0.22190 BTU/lb-°F

Qs = 1.5 tons x 0.2219 BTU/lb-°F x (138.6°F – 106.2°F)

= 23,725.548 BTU
Properties of Agricultural Products

Problem 5

What is the latent heat of vaporization of paddy at 28% moisture content wet basis
and at 40°C temperature. If 200-kg moisture will be removed from the bulk of
paddy, what is the amount of heat required to remove the moisture?

Given:
Moisture content - 28% wet basis
Temperature - 40°C
Moisture to be removed - 200 kg

Required: Latent Heat of Vaporization

Amount of Heat Required to remove the moisture

Solution:

HV = 2.32 [1094 - 1.026 (T + 17.78)] [1 + 2.4962 –21.73 M]

= 2.32 [1094 – 1.026 (40°C + 17.78] [1 + 2.4962 – 21.73 (0.28)]
= 2,409.731 kJ/kg of water

Heat Required = HV x Moisture to be Removed

= 2,409.731 kJ/kg x 200 kg
= 481,946.2 kJ
Properties of Agricultural Products

Problem 6

Five hundred tons of paddy, at 16% wet basis, is to be stored in a silo for 6 months.
If the storage temperature in the warehouse will be maintained at 95°F, what
would be the expected weight of the paddy after the storage period? Neglect
losses due to insects and pests.

Given:
Product - paddy
Weight of product - 500 tons
Storage time - 6 mos.
Moisture content - 16%
Storage temperature - 95°F

Required: Weight of Paddy after Storage

Solution:

DML = 1- exp [(A x TC) exp [D (T - 60)] exp (E (W-0.14))]

= 1-exp [(-0.000914 x 4.32 0.6540) exp [0.03756 (95-60)]
Exp [33.61 (0.16 – 0.14)]]
= 1 – exp [-(0.00237)(3.715)(1.958)]
= 1 – 0.983
= 0.017

Weight of Paddy = 500 – 0.017 (500)

= 491.45

Therefore, the weight of paddy after 6 months is 491.45 tons.

Properties of Agricultural Products

Problem 7

If the coefficient-of-friction of rice to steel

material is 0.41, what is the minimum angle of
hopper required for the system?

Given:
Coefficient of friction - 0.41

Required: Angle of Friction of the hopper

Solution:

tan θ = 0.41
θ = tan -1 0.41
= 22.3°

Problem 8

A grain dryer is used to reduce the moisture content of

four tons of paddy rice from 25% to 15% wet basis. What
is the amount of moisture removed?

Given:
MC initial - 25%
MC final - 14%
Initial weight - 4 tons

Required: Weight of Moisture Removed

Solution:

Wt. of Moisture removed = Wi - W f

Wt. final = W i (1 – MCi) / (1 – MCf)
= 4 tons (1- 0. 25) / (1 -0.14)
= 4(0.75) / (0.86)
= 3.53 tons
Wt. of moisture removed = 4 tons – 3.53 tons
= 0.47 ton
Moisture Content
Moisture Content

1. The amount of moisture in the grain 6. The method of measuring the

expressed as a percentage of the total moisture content of the product by
weight of the samples. direct extraction of water.
a. Moisture content dry basis a. Primary method
b. Moisture content wet basis b. Secondary method
c. Moisture content c. Tertiary method
d. All of the above d. None of the above

2. The amount of moisture in the grain 7. Which of the following is considered

expressed as a percentage of the weight primary method in determining
of dry matter. moisture content?
a. Moisture content dry basis a. Oven method
b. Moisture content wet basis b. Distillation method
c. Moisture content c. Infrared method
d. None of the above d. All of the above
e. None of the above
3. A moisture meter that determines the
moisture content of the product based on 8. If a product has 12% moisture
the ability of the current to pass through content expressed in wet basis, the
the material. equivalent percentage moisture content
a. Capacitance-type moisture meter in dry basis is ___.
b. Resistance-type meter a. 13.6%
c. Infrared moisture meter b. 16.3%
d. All of the above c. 13.4%
d. None of the above
4. When the amount of water in a
product is determined based on its dry 9. An expression of moisture content
matter content, the moisture content is commonly used in commercial scale.
expressed in ___. a. Moisture content wet basis
a. wet basis b. Moisture content dry basis
b. dry basis c. Moisture content
c. semi wet basis d. All of the above
d. None of the above
10. Which of the following is considered
5. A product has 25% moisture content secondary method in determining
expressed in dry basis. What is the moisture content?
percentage moisture content of the a. Electrical-resistance method
product in wet basis? b. Electrical-capacitance method
a. 20% c. Chemical method
b. 22% d. Hygrometric method
c. 26% e. All of the above
d. None of the above f. None of the above
Moisture Content

11. The moisture found at the surface of 16. The device usually used in calibrating
the material. resistance- and capacitor-type moisture
a. Unbound water (Free moisture) meters.
b. Bound water a. Oven
c. Chemically bound b. Distillation
d. All of the above c. Infrared
d. All of the above
12. An important index to determine
whether the paddy is ready for 17. The device used by the industry in
harvesting, storage or milling. determining moisture content of grains.
a. Color a. Oven
b. Moisture content b. Electrical resistance- and
c. Hardness capacitance-type meter
d. None of the above c. Infrared moisture meter
d. All of the above
13. The moisture inside the tissue of a
material that can only be removed by 18. If 20 kg of water is to be removed
heating or reducing the vapor pressure from 110-kg paddy, what is the
within the material. percentage moisture content of the
a. Chemically-bound moisture paddy in wet basis?
b. Bound moisture a. 14.5%
c. Unbound b. 16.9%
d. All of the above c. 18.18%
d. None of the above
14. The difficult-to-remove moisture from
the product that requires other method 19. What is the percentage moisture
than heating in order to remove it. content of the paddy in Item 19 when
a. Chemically-bound moisture expressed in dry basis?
b. Bound moisture a. 16.4%
c. Free moisture b. 19.9%
d. All of the above c. 22.2%
d. None of the above
15. A plot or a graph representing the
equilibrium moisture content of grains at 20. Determine the amount of moisture
different relative humidity but with that can be removed from 9 tons of
constant temperature. paddy with 24% initial moisture content
a. Isothermal graph dried to 14%.
b. Sorption isotherms a. 1.05 tons
c. Isothermal humidity b. 1.26 tons
d. None of the above c. 1.57 tons
d. None of the above
Moisture Content

21. What is the amount of moisture to 26. If 20 kg of water is removed from a

be removed from a material with 14.5% 110-kg paddy, what is the percentage
moisture content and 76 kg dry matter moisture content of paddy in wet basis?
weight? a. 18.18%
a. 10.45 kg b. 19.05%
b. 12.89 kg c. 20.45%
c. 14.32 kg d. None of the above
d. None of the above
27. If 9 tons of a product is to be dried
22. What is the percentage moisture from 24% to 14%, what would be the
content of paddy in Item 22 when final weight of the product?
expressed in dry basis? a. 7.9 tons
a. 16.95% b. 8.2 tons
b. 13.23% c. 8.9 tons
c. 15.67% d. None of the above
d. None of the above
28. What is the moisture loss of the
23. What is the equilibrium moisture product in Item 28 above?
content of paddy in dry basis stored in a. 1.05 tons
bags at 27°C storage temperature with b. 1.67 tons
90% humidity. c. 1.98 tons
a. 19.78% d. None of the above
b. 20.66%
c. 21.56% 29. Shelled corn initially at 24% is to be
d. None of the above dried to 14%. If the initial weight of the
shelled corn is 1000 kilos, what will be its
24. What is the moisture content of final weight?
paddy in wet basis in Item 23? a. 789.32 kg
a. 17.08% b. 883.72 kg
b. 19.45% c. 943.12 kg
c. 20.23% d. None of the above
d. None of the above
30. What is the moisture loss in corn
25. If the moisture content of paddy grains in Item 30?
stored is 14% wet basis, is there a a. 116.28 kg
danger for the grains to deteriorate b. 187.34 kg
when the condition prevails for a longer c. 199.21 kg
period? d. None of the above
a. No
b. Yes
c. Either yes or no
d. None of the above
Moisture Content

Moisture Content (Wet Basis) Moisture Content (Dry Basis)

MCw = (Ws – Wdm) 100 / Ws MCd = (Ws – Wdm) 100 / Wdm

where: where:
MCw - moisture content wet basis, % MCd - moisture content dry basis, %
Ws - weight of sample, g Ws - weight of sample, g
Wdm - weight of dry mater, g Wdm - weight of dry mater, g
Wet Basis to Dry Basis Dry Basis to Wet Basis

MCd = MCw 100 / (100 – MCw) MCw = MCd 100 / (100 + MCd)
where: where:
MCd - moisture content dry basis, % MCw - moisture content wet basis, %
MCw - moisture content wet basis, % MCd - moisture content dry basis, %
Moisture Loss

Wi ( 1 – MCi ) = Wf ( 1- MCf )
ML = Wi - Wf
where:
Wi - initial weight of sample, kg
MCi - initial moisture content, % wb
Wf - final weight of sample, kg
MCf - final moisture content, % wb
ML - moisture loss, kg
Moisture Content

Problem 1

What is the amount of moisture to be removed

from a material with 14.5% moisture content
and 76 kg dry matter weight?

Given:
MCi - 14.5%
Wdm - 76 kg

Required: Amount of Moisture to be Removed

Solution:

MC = Wmr x 100 / (Ww + Wdm)

Wmr = 0.145 (Wm + 76 kg)
Wmr = 0.145 Wmr + 11.02 kg
0.855 Wmr = 11.02 kg
Wmr = 11.02 kg / 0.855
= 12.89 kg

Problem 2

What is the percentage moisture content of

paddy in Problem 1 when expressed in dry basis?

Given:
MCw - 14.5%

Required: MCd

Solution:

MCd = (MCw x 100 )/ (100 - MCw)

= (14.5 x 100) / (100-14.5)
= 16.95%
Moisture Content

Problem 3

What is the equilibrium moisture content of paddy stored in bags at 27°C storage
temperature with 90% humidity. If the moisture content of paddy stored is 14% wet
basis, is there a danger for the grains to deteriorate when the condition prevails for a
longer period?

Given:
Storage temperature - 27°C
Storage humidity - 90%
Moisture content of sample - 14%

Required: Equilibrium Moisture Content

Solution:

Md = E – F ln [-R (T + C) ln RH)
= 0.325 – 0.046 ln [-1.987 (27 +35.703) ln (0.90)
= 0.206 or 20.66% moisture dry basis

Mw = Md 100 / (100 – Md)

= 20.6% x 100 / (100 – 20.6%)
= 17.08%

Problem 4

If 20 kg of water is removed from a 110-kg paddy,

what is the percentage moisture content of paddy
in wet basis?

Given:
Wm - 20 kg
Wi - 110 kg

Required: % MC wet basis

Solution:

% MCw = ( Wi – Wf ) x 100 / Wi
= ( 20 kg / 110 kg ) x 100
= 18.18 %
Moisture Content

Problem 5

If a product has 12% moisture content

wet basis, what is the equivalent
percentage moisture content in dry
basis?

Given:
MCw - 12%

Required: MCd

Solution:

MCd = MCw x 100 / (100 – MCw)

= 12 x 100 / ( 100 – 12 )
= 13.64%

Problem 6

A product has 25% moisture content,

expressed in dry basis . What is the
percentage moisture content of the
product in wet basis?

Given:
MCd - 25%

Required: MCw

Solution:

MCw = MCd x 100 / (MCd + 100)

= ( 25 x 100 ) / (25 + 100 )
= 20%
Moisture Content

Problem 7

If 9 tons of a product is to be dried from 24%

to 14%, what would be the final weight of
the product?

Given:
Wi - 9 tons
MCi - 24%
MCf - 14%

Required: Weight Final

Solution:

Wi ( 1 – Mci ) = Wf (1- MCf)

Wf = Wi (1-MCi) / (1-MCf)
= 9 tons (1-0.24) / (1.014)
= 7.9 tons

Problem 8

What is the moisture loss of the product in

Problem 7 above?

Given:
Wf - 7.9 tons

Required: Moisture Loss

Solution:

ML = Wi – Wf
ML = 9 tons – 7.9 tons
= 1.05 tons
Moisture Content

Problem 9

Shelled corn initially at 24% is to be dried to 14%. If the

initial weight of the shelled corn is 1000 kilos, what is its
final weight?

Given:
Grain - corn
MC initial - 24%
MC final - 14%
Initial weight - 1000 kg

Required: Final Weight of the Corn

Solution:
W i (1 – MCi)
Wt. = (1 - MCf)
1000 kg (1 – 0.24) = (1 – 0.14)
= 883.72 kg

Problem 10

Referring to Problem 9, what is the moisture loss of corn

grains?

Given:
Wt. - 883.72 kg

Required: Moisture Loss

Solution:

ML = Wti – Wtf
= 1000 kg – 883.72 kg
= 116.28 kg
Problem 11

A 1 ton paddy is to be dried on a flatbed dryer having a thickness of 30 cm. What

is the area of the bin required for the dryer? If a 1.2 m by 2.4 perforated sheets is
to be used, how many pieces of metal sheet is required? Assume a bulk density of
paddy of 567 kg/m3. If the paddy will be sundried at 5 cm thick? What is the area
needed to do sundrying?

Given:
Weight of paddy to be dried – 1 ton
Thickness of bed in flatbed dryer – 0.30 m
Size of perforated sheet – 1.2 m x 2.4 m
Density of paddy – 567 kg/m3
Sundrying thickness – 5 cm

Required: Floor area of flatbed dryer

No. of metal sheets needed
Sundrying area

Solution:
Cleaning, Grading & Sorting

1. The process of removing contaminants 6. The process of separating lower

from the product. density materials from grains.
a. Sorting a. Aspiration
b. Grading b. Cleaning
c. Cleaning c. Fanning
d. None of the above d. All of the above

2. The process of separating cleaned 7. A kind of cleaner that uses air in

products in various quality fractions that separating lesser-density materials from
maybe defined based on the size, shape, corn kernel/corn grits such as floured
texture, colors, and other factors. corn, germ and bran.
a. Sorting a. Aspirator
b. Grading b. Oscillating screen
c. Cleaning c. Cleaner
d. None of the above d. Cyclone separator
3. Which of the following parameters are e. All of the above
taken into consideration during cleaning
and grading products? 8. A machine used to remove hard
a. Size materials of almost the same size as
b. Weight milled rice through gravity separation
c. Surface Texture using air stream to cause rice grains to be
d. Affinity to liquid carried away by the air stream leaving
e. Color heavy materials behind.
f. Shape a. Aspirator
g. All of the above b. De-stoner
c. Sifter
4. The rough cleaning of paddy removing d. None of the above
most foreign materials prior to drying and
storage. 9. The machine used to separate grains
a. Aspiration according to color or reflectivity.
b. Scalping a. Color meter
c. Sieving b. Electronic color sorter
d. All of the above c. Electric color separator
d. None of the above
5. Self-cleaning sieves used for rice mills
basically consist of ___. 10. A primary cleaner which separates
a. a brush to remove particles that clogs larger particles from rice, also known as
the screen of the cleaner “rough cleaning” of rough rice.
b. one or two balls that continuously a. Rotary sieve
hammer the top sieve of the cleaner b. Scalper
c. assigned operator to do the cleaning c. Vibrating screen
while the machine is operating d. All of the above
d. None of the above
Cleaning, Grading & Sorting

11. The recommended size of scalper for 16. A separator used for particles with
paddy is ___. low and high terminal velocity.
a. 0.2-0.25sq.m. per ton a. Air-blast separator
b. 0.3-0.35sq.m. per ton b. Aspirator
c. 0.4-0.45sq.m. per ton c. Fanning mill
d. None of the above d. None of the above

12. A type of screen cleaners that uses air 17. Vibrator separator is recommended
blast to assist in the cleaning. for separating grains based on ___.
a. Screen separator a. weight
b. Fanning mill b. surface texture
c. Blower c. size
d. None of the above d. None of the above

13. The percentage of grains free from 18. The amount of foreign materials in a
foreign matter. sample of grains.
a. Percentage foreign matter a. Impurities
b. Percentage Cleanliness b. Chalky grain
c. Purity c. Dockage
d. None of the above d. None of the above

14. When removing light particles from 19. The material commonly used in
threshed grains that goes with the chaffs separating grains from chaffs according
during operation, what would be the best to size.
course of action that you should a. Indented plate
recommend as an Agricultural Engineer in b. Perforated sheet
order to achieve better cleaning and c. Steel screen
separation? d. All of the above
a. Install additional perforated sheets in
20. When using a cylindrical slotted
the cleaning system.
rotating screen or sheet, the material can
b. Provide an air-blast system using a
be separated in terms of ___.
blower so it can carry light particles.
a. weight
c. Reduce the feeding of threshed grains.
b. shape
d. None of the above
c. thickness
d. None of the above
15. A grain separator for seed based on
the affinity for liquid or on the rate at 21. Indented rotating cylinders are
which the surface of the seed absorbs usually used for separating grains in
liquid. terms of ___.
a. Vibrator separator a. thickness
b. Aspirator b. width and length
c. Magnetic separator c. size
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Cleaning, Grading & Sorting

22. Air blast separation is effective for 27. Efficiency of ordinary cyclone ranges
separating the product based on ___. from ___.
a. size a. 80 to 90%
b. weight b. 95 to 98%
c. length c. 98 to 99%
d. None of the above d. None of the above

23. Precleaners are provided for the rice

milling plant primarily to ___ and to
improve the quality of the final product.
a. add for the machine requirement
b. protect other processing equipment
c. reduce the load
d. None of the above

24. Magnetic separator basically is

installed in the rice milling plant before
the ___.
a. precleaner
b. husker
c. whitener
d. polisher
e. None of the above

25. In a tray-type paddy separator, brown

rice moves at the ___ of the tray.
a. bottom
b. middle
c. top
d. None of the above

26. A separation equipment coupled to

the end of a pneumatic conveyor to
separate solid particles from the air
stream.
a. Magnetic separator
b. Cyclone separator
c. Vibratory separator
d. None of the above
Size Reduction

1. The process of making too-large-to- 6. Which of the following statements is

be-used solid materials usable. true in relation to reducing particle size
a. Size reduction of a material?
b. Grinding a. Reduction of materials to very fine
c. Cutting sizes is more costly in terms of energy as
d. All of the above compared with reduction to relatively
coarse particles.
2. Size-reduction processes include ___. b. Reduction of materials to very fine
a. cutting sizes is much cheaper in terms of energy
b. crushing as compared with reduction to relatively
c. grinding coarse particles.
d. All of the above c. Reduction of materials to very fine
sizes has the same cost as with reduction
3. Raw materials for feeds are processed
to relatively coarse particles.
primarily using a size-reduction
equipment to ___. d. None of the above
a. increase the surface area of contact of
7. Which of the following is an example
the material to facilitate taking place of of size-reduction processes?
reaction
a. Chopping corn fodder
b. make it palatable when used as feed
b. Slicing of sweet potato
for animals
c. Milling of cassava into flour
c. facilitate conveyance operation at
d. All of the above
the feed mill
f. All of the above 8. A trade term used relative to the
4. A physical mechanism used in size- reduction of grains into meal or flour.
a. Shredding
reduction process.
b. Crushing
a. Compression
c. Milling
b. Impact
d. None of the above
c. Attrition
d. Cutting
9. Vertical-axis hammer mill is more
f. All of the above
advantageous to use than horizontal-axis
5. Which of the following statements is for the reason that:
true in relation to size-reduction a. It is more effective in grinding
operation? grains with higher moisture content of
a. Size reduction is the most inefficient up to 25%.
unit operation in terms of energy use. b. The power requirement of the
b. Size reduction is the most efficient unit vertical-axis hammer mill is much lower
operation in terms of energy use. than that of the horizontal-axis hammer
c. Size reduction is neither efficient nor mill.
inefficient unit operation in terms of c. Less broken grains can be derived
energy use from vertical-axis.
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Size Reduction

10. Size-reduction machines are 15. An indicator of the uniformity of

characterized based on ___. ground materials in the resultant
a. capacity product.
b. power required unit material reduce a. Uniformity index
c. size and shape of the product after b. Particle size
reduction c. Fineness modulus
d. range of size and shape of resulted d. All of the above
product
e. All of the above 16. The power requirement of size-
reduction equipment is ___ for fibrous
11. The process of reducing the size of than for crystalline materials.
materials by applying force to the product a. lesser
in excess of its strength. b. the same
a. Shearing c. higher
b. Crushing d. None of the above
c. Milling
d. None of the above 17. Performance characteristics of size-
reduction equipment are based on ___.
12. The process of reducing the size of a. size uniformity
materials by pushing or forcing a thin b. temperature rise
sharp knife into it. c. power requirement
a. Shearing d. trouble-free operation
b. Crushing e. All of the above
c. Cutting
d. All of the above 18. Hammer mills are designed
purposely to ___.
13. The process of reducing the size of a. chop forage materials
materials by cutting and crushing actions. b. reduce the sizes of granular
a. Milling products
b. Grinding c. compact powdered product
c. Shearing d. None of the above
d. None of the above
19. A type of mill used for crushing
14. The power requirement in reducing grains by allowing it to pass through two
the size of grains is ___ for moist grains rotating-cylinder steels, one of which is
than for dried grains. smaller than the other.
a. lesser a. Hammer mill
b. the same b. Roller mill
c. higher c. Plate mill
d. None of the above d. All of the above
Size Reduction

20. The size-reduction machine usually 26. Sieves used in determining the
used in feed milling to break dried grains fineness modulus of a material includes
into suitable size for feeds. 3/8-, 4-, 8-, 14-, 28-, 48-. and ___ -in.
a. Hammer mill mesh.
b. Roller mill a. 60
c. Burr mill b. 80
d. None of the above c. 100
d. None of the above
21. In hammer milling, the fineness of a
material is determined by the ___. 27. A cassava processing plant is
a. number of hammers required to grind fresh cassava into flour,
b. speed of hammer what size-reduction machine would you
c. size of hole of the screen recommend as an Agricultural Engineer?
d. None of the above a. Hammer mill
b. Roller mill
22. The energy requirement of a hammer c. Burr mill
mill in grinding shelled corn. d. None of the above
a. 7.4 kw-hr/ton
b. 5.8 kw-hr/ton 28. In burr milling, the size of grind can
c. 2.3 kw-hr/ton be varied by ___.
d. None of the above a. varying the size of the screen opening
b. varying the pressure on the plates
23. When reduced material size is c. varying the opening between rolls
between 1/8 in. or more, it is classified as d. None of the above
___.
a. microscopic range 29. The operating speed of burr mills.
b. sieve range a. Less than 1200 rpm
c. dimension range b. 1200 to 2400 rpm
d. None of the above c. 2400 to 3200 rpm
d. None of the above
24. When reduced material size is less
than 0.0029 in., it is classified as ___. 30. A grain milling machine consisting of
a. microscopic range two cast-iron disk plates with teeth or
b. sieve range serration on one or on both faces.
c. dimension range a. Hammer mill
d. None of the above b. Attrition mill
c. Roller mill
25. When reduced material size is d. All of the above
between 0.125 to 0.0029 in., it is
classified as ___. 31. A burr or plate mill.
a. microscopic range a. Micro mill
b. sieve range b. Attrition mill
c. dimension range c. Roller mill
d. None of the above d. All of the above
Size Reduction

32. A device used for classifying granular 38. The factor affecting the power
materials by passing through series of requirement of grinding mill.
screens. a. Type of material
a. Tyler sieves b. Moisture content of material
b. Tyler screen c. Fineness of grinding of material
c. Tyler separator d. Rate of feeding the material
d. None of the above e. Type and condition of mill
f. All of the above
33. The most suitable machine for
reducing size of materials like forages, 39. The rotating disk of the burr mill can
straws, stalks, and weeds. be found ___.
a. Hammer mill a. near the hopper
b. Roller mill b. away from the hopper
c. Burr mill c. underneath the hopper
d. Cutter mill d. None of the above
e. All of the above
40. The biomass shredder employs ___ in
34. A grain milling machine suitable for
producing shredded products.
grinding grains with moisture content of
a. cutting and crushing by twisting
up to 30%.
pressure
a. Hammer mill
b. cutting and crushing by impact
b. Attrition or burr mill
c. cutting and shearing
c. Roller mill
d. None of the above
d. All of the above

35. The operating speed of burr mills. 41. A forage chopper employs ___.
a. Less than 1200 rpm a. cutting
b. 1200 to 2400 rpm b. crushing
c. 2400 to 3200 rpm c. shearing
d. None of the above d. None of the above

36. The speed of hammer mills. 42. Hammer mill is protected from foreign
a. 200 to 1000 rpm objects by making it ___.
b. 1500 to 4000 rpm a. fix in position to the shaft
c. 4500 to 6000 rpm b. swing freely in the shaft
d. None of the above c. detachable from the the screen
d. None of the above
37. During grinding, the temperature of
the material ___ when grinding fibrous 43. Which of the following size-reduction
than granular material. equipment operates by crushing method?
a. decreases a. Hammer mill
b. increases b. Attrition mill
c. does not change c. Roller mill
d. None of the above d. All of the above
Size Reduction

44. An Important reason for reducing the

size of a product.
a. Easy handling
b. Increase surface area per unit volume
c. Separation of entrapped components
d. All of the above

45. A kind of grinder for intermediate

grinding which uses round shaped metals
inside a cylinder that breaks the material
finely by impact action.
a. Caster mill
b. Roller mill
c. Ball mill
d. All of the above

46. Which of the following statements is

true?
a. Size reduction is to make too large
solids to be usable.
b. Size reduction increases the surface
area per unit volume of the material
which enhances the rate of reaction.
c. Size reduction makes handling of
materials much easier.
d. All of the above
Mixing & Blending

1. The process of combining different 6. An indicator of satisfactory mixing.

materials until a certain degree of a. Produce uniform mixture.
homogeneity is achieved. b. Less time in mixing materials.
a. Milling c. Less cost.
b. Mixing d. All of the above
c. Feeding e. None of the above
d. None of the above
7. Feed materials are purposely mixed
2. The assembling and measuring of the to ___.
needed amount of every solid raw feed a. obtain a homogenous feed to
material in the formulation of the desired ensure that animals are given the
composition of a mixture. same proportions of nutrient
a. Mixing b. reduce the density of the feed
b. Blending material so that it can be easily
c. Pelleting transported
d. All of the above c. improve the digestability of
feeds
3. The blending of ingredients or of d. None of the above
materials in agricultural processing
operation. 8. During mixing, round or small
a. Sorting particles tend to move towards the ___
b. Molding of the container.
c. Mixing a. top
d. All of the above b. middle
c. bottom
4. Basically, the purpose of mixing is ___. d. All of the above
a. to promote the transfer of heat
between hot and cold products 9. Difficulty in mixing may result if the
b. to obtain good contact between solid particles has ___.
materials being mixed a. the same size but of different specific
c. to promote reactions between gravity
reactants b. different sizes
d. All of the above c. different shapes
e. Any two of the above d. All of the above

5. During mixing, heavier particles tend to 10. If mixing is needed during conveying,
remain ___ of the container. the suitable conveyor to use is ___ type.
a. near the bottom a. bucket
b. away from the bottom b. screw
c. at the middle c. belt
d. None of the above d. All of the above
Mixing & Blending

11. A mixer with U-shaped bin containing 16. The auger that is centrally located in
a central mixing blade or a ribbon a vertical feed mixer and usually rotates
mounted on a rotating shaft. at ___ speed.
a. Horizontal mixer a. 100-250 rpm
b. Inclined mixer b. 250-400 rpm
c. Vertical mixer c. 400-650 rpm
d. All of the above d. None of the above

12. A feed mixer characterized by high 17. A type of mixer suitable for either
capacity, short mixing time, and high free flowing or non-free flowing
power requirement. materials.
a. Horizontal mixer a. Rotating mixer without stirrers
b. Inclined mixer b. Rotating mixer with stirrers
c. Vertical mixer c. All of the above
d. All of the above d. None of the above

13. Horizontal feed mixer is not 18. The type of mixer satisfactory for
advantageous for feed mixing as extensively large operations.
compared with vertical feed mixer for the a. Batch-type mixer
reason that ___. b. Semi-continuous-type mixer
a. it has lower capacity c. Continuous-type mixer
b. it has high power requirement d. None of the above
c. it has shorter life span
d. None of the above 19. The type of mixer suitable for
moderate to small operation in which
14. A feed mixer characterized by low overhead cost is low and labor cost is
capacity, longer mixing time and low not critical.
power requirement. a. Batch-type mixer
a. Horizontal mixer b. Semi-continuous-type mixer
b. Inclined mixer c. Continuous-type mixer
c. Vertical mixer d. None of the above
d. All of the above
20. Difficulty in mixing often occurs if the
15. A feed mixer with an auger that solids are ___ size and shape but of
elevates the feed to the top of the mixing different specific gravity.
bin and spreads them evenly throughout a. not the same
by gravity for another mixing cycle. b. the same
a. Horizontal mixer c. either the same or not the same
b. Vertical mixer d. None of the above
c. Inclined mixer
d. All of the above
Mixing & Blending

21. Mixing of particles is also difficult if 27. The ___ mixer operates with the use
they have ___ size and shape. of screw conveyors having especial
a. the same flights to insure thorough mixing of
b. different materials being mixed.
c. All of the above a. batch
d. None of the above b. semi-continuous
c. continuous
22. Heavier particles remains at the ___ d. None of the above
during mixing.
a. top
b. middle
c. bottom
d. All of the above

23. Round or small particles tend to

move to the ___ during mixing.
a. top
b. middle
c. bottom
d. All of the above

24. Satisfactory mixing process is

achieved when ___.
a. uniform mixture is produced
b. mixing is done with minimum time
c. minimum cost is incurred for
overhead, power, and labor
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

25. The small size batch-type mixer.

a. Rotating drum with flights
b. U-shaped mixer with rotating flights
and paddles
c. Vertical mixer with central auger
d. None of the above

26. A ___ mixer basically uses a number

of mixers in which feed materials are
loaded into one mixer at a time and are
emptied into a common conveyor or
storage.
a. batch
b. semi-continuous
c. continuous
d. None of the above
Air-Moving Device

1. An air-moving device commonly used 7. A Class 1 air-moving device operating

for drying which produces high pressure at pressure equal to or more than 1 psi.
but low airflow. a. Blower
a. Blower b. Fan
b. Fan c. Exhauster
c. Compressor d. All of the above
d. None of the above
8. A Class 2 air-moving device operating
2. An air-moving device that produces at pressure less than 1 psi.
high airflow but low head. a. Blower
a. Fan b. Fan
b. Blower c. Compressor
c. Compressor d. All of the above
d. All of the above
9. An air-moving device in which the air
3. The measure of the power output of a flow is at the same axis with the shaft of
fan in relation to its power input. the device.
a. Fan thermal efficiency a. Propeller fan
b. Fan performance index b. Axial-flow fan
c. Fan efficiency c. Tube-axial fan
d. All of the above d. Vane-axial fan
e. All of the above
4. Which of the following operations f. None of the above
employs air-moving devices?
a. Drying 10. The air-moving device commonly
b. Material handling used for 6-ton flatbed paddy dryers.
c. Refrigerating a. Forward-curved centrifugal blower
d. All of the above b. Propeller fan
c. Vane-axial fan
5. An air-moving device suitable for grain d. None of the above
cleaning.
a. Axial fan 11. The air-moving device commonly
b. Propeller fan used for pneumatic conveyor systems.
c. Cross-flow fan a. Backward-curved-centrifugal blower
d. All of the above b. Propeller fan
c. Vane-axial fan
6. If the diameter of the blower is d. None of the above
increased, the pressure will consequently
___. 12. The air-moving device commonly
a. increase used for tunnel-ventilated poultry farms.
b. decrease a. Radial-centrifugal blower
c. be the same b. Propeller fan
d. None of the above c. Vane-axial fan
d. None of the above
Air-Moving Device

13. An axial-flow-type fan with set of 18. An axial-type fan with wider axial-
guide vanes located before or after the flow wheel capable of delivering higher
wheel and is capable to deliver higher pressure than that of the axial-flow fan
pressure than that of the tube-axial fan. and is driven either by belt or by direct-
a. Propeller fan drive system.
b. Axial-flow fan a. Propeller fan
c. Tube-axial fan b. Axial-flow fan
d. Vane-axial fan c. Tube-axial fan
e. None of the above d. Vane-axial fan
e. None of the above
14. An axial-type fan with enlarged hubs
and warped blades for better efficiency in 19. An air-moving device in which
order to operate against higher pressure airflow enters the axis of the shaft of the
than that of the propeller fan. rotating blades and leaves in
a. Propeller fan perpendicular manner.
b. Axial-flow fan a. Propeller fan
c. Tube-axial fan b. Axial-flow fan
d. Vane-axial fan c. Tube-axial fan
e. None of the above d. Centrifugal blower
e. None of the above
15. An axial-type fan that delivers large
20. If the width of the impeller of a
volume of air at low head and has few
centrifugal-type blower is increased, the
narrow blades.
airflow will relatively ___.
a. Propeller fan
a. increase
b. Axial-flow fan
b. decrease
c. Tube-axial fan
c. remain the same
d. Vane-axial fan
d. None of the above
e. None of the above
21. If the diameter of the impeller of
16. If the width of the blade of an axial- the centrifugal-type blower is increased,
type fan is increased, the airflow will the pressure will relatively ___.
relatively ___. a. increase
a. increase b. decrease
b. decrease c. remain the same
c. remain the same d. None of the above
d. None of the above
22. A low-pressure high-airflow
17. If the diameter of the blade of an centrifugal-type blower that delivers
axial-type fan is increased, the airflow will uniform airflow along its length.
relatively ___. a. Axial-type fan
a. increase b. Centrifugal blower
b. decrease c. Cross-flow centrifugal blower
c. remain the same d. All of the above
d. None of the above e. None of the above
Air-Moving Device

23. A centrifugal-type blower operating at 26. The air-moving device commonly

low speed at several inches of pressure used for refrigeration and ventilation
than that of the axial-type fan and has a systems.
squirrel-cage rotor and large number of a. Forward-curved
blades. b. Radial
a. Forward-curved-blade centrifugal c. Backward-curved
blower d. None of the above
b. Radial or straight-blade centrifugal
blower 27. Noise level is highest for ___
c. Backward-curved-blade centrifugal centrifugal blower.
blower a. forward-curved
d. All of the above b. radial
c. backward-curved
24. A centrifugal blower with blades d. None of the above
positioned at the same plane with the
rotating shaft and has a larger housing 28. For the same shaft rpm, which of the
than other types of centrifugal blower and following centrifugal blowers delivers
is capable to handle dirty air and conveys higher pressure?
materials that go through the fan. a. Forward-curved
a. Forward-curved-blade centrifugal b. Radial
blower c. Backward-curved
b. Radial or straight-blade centrifugal d. None of the above
blower
c. Backward-curved-blade centrifugal 29. The factor to consider in selecting an
blower air-moving device.
d. All of the above a. Quantity of air to be moved per unit
time.
25. A type of centrifugal blower with few b. Estimated system resistance or head.
blades tilted backward from the direction c. Amount of noise permitted.
of wheel rotation and is inherently high d. Space available.
speed with self-limiting horsepower e. Economic implication.
characteristics, and delivers higher f. All of the above
pressure than that of the forward and g. None f the above
radial-type centrifugal blowers.
a. Forward curved-blade centrifugal 30. A vane-axial fan for a flat-bed dryer
blower runs at 800-rpm speed. The rate of flow
b. Radial or straight- blade centrifugal of the fan is 100 cfm at 1 in. of water
blower pressure head. What is the specific
c. Backward curved-blade centrifugal speed of the fan? (Problem 1)
blower a. 8,000
d. All of the above b. 9,000
c. 10,000
d. None of the above
Air-Moving Device

31. A 12in -diameter fan rotates at 1800- 37. Fan law states that varying the rpm
rpm speed. The fan blade has 10-degree of the fan by 10 percent will decrease or
pitch angle. What is the pitch of the increase the flow rate by ___.
pan? (Problem 2) a. 5%
a. 4.6 in. b. 10%
b. 5.6 in. c. 20%
c. 6.6 in. d. None of the above
d. None of the above
38. Reducing the speed of the fan by
32. What is the flow rate of the fan in 10% will decrease the static pressure by
item 31 above if it has 40% static ___.
efficiency? (Problem 2) a. 10%
a. 313.35 CFM b. 19%
b. 423.24 CFM c. 29%
c. 525.12 CFM d. None of the above
d. None of the above
39. Increasing the speed of the fan by
33. The ratio between the discharge 10% will increase the static pressure by
pressure to the suction pressure of a fan. ___.
a. Pressure ratio a. 19%
b. Head ratio b. 21%
c. Specific ratio c. 34%
d. None of the above d. None of the above

34. The specific ratio of fan. 40. Reducing the speed of the impeller
a. Below to 1.11 of the fan by 10% will decrease the
b. 1.11 to 1.20 power of the fan by ___.
c. 1.20 and above a. 27%
d. None of the above b. 34%
c. 41%
35. The specific ratio of blower. d. None of the above
a. Below to 1.11
b. 1.11 to 1.20 41. Increasing the speed of the impeller
c. 1.20 and above of the fan by 10% will increase the
d. None of the above power of the fan by ___.
a. 11%
36. The specific ratio of compressor. b. 22%
a. Below to 1.11 c. 33%
b. 1.11 to 1.20 d. None of the above
c. 1.20 and above
d. None of the above
Air-Moving Device

42. The volume of air delivered 48. Forward-curved fans are ___
multiplied by the total pressure divided efficient than backward-curved fans.
by the power input to the fan shaft. a. less
a. Fan mechanical efficiency b. more
b. Fan static efficiency c. same
c. Fan dynamic efficiency d. None of the above
d. None of the above
49. Centrifugal fans are suitable for ___
43. The volume of air delivered flow at high pressure.
multiplied by the static pressure divided a. low to moderate
by the power input to the fan shaft. b. low to high
a. Fan mechanical efficiency c. moderate to high
b. Fan static efficiency d. None of the above
c. Fan dynamic efficiency
d. None of the above 50. Axial fans are suitable for ___ flow
at low pressure.
44. When buying a fan, the parameters a. low to moderate
to be provided to the suppliers are ___. b. low to high
a. air flow and power c. moderate to high
b. airflow and pressure d. None of the above
c. airflow and speed
d. None of the above 51. Centrifugal fans are relatively ___
expensive than axial-flow fans.
45. In general, the safety margin a. less
required over the maximum air flow rate b. more
of a fan is ___. c. not
a. 5% d. None of the above
b. 10%
c. 15% 52. The system resistance of a fan varies
d. None of the above ___ the volumetric flow of air of the
system.
46. The safety margin for induced draft a. linear with
fan based on volume. b. square of
a. 10% c. exponentially with
b. 20% d. None of the above
c. 30%
d. None of the above

47. The safety margin for induced draft

fan based on head.
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. None of the above
Air-Moving Device

Specific Speed Impeller Width (Centrifugal and Mixed Flow

Blower)
Ns = [ N Q0.5 ] / [Ps0.75 ] 175 Q
where: W = ----------------
Ns - specific speed, dmls φ N D2
N - speed of air-moving unit, rpm where:
Q - airflow, cfm W – width of impeller, in.
Ps - pressure requirement, in. H2 O Q - airflow, cfm
N - speed of impeller, rpm
D - diameter of impeller, in.
φ - flow coefficient, 0.01 to 0.80
Impeller Diameter Impeller Width (Traverse Flow)
550 Q
(2.35) 108 Ps W = ---------------
D = [--------------------------] 0.5 φ N D2
ψ N2 for 0.5 ≤ W/D ≤ 10
where: where:
D - diameter of impeller, in. W - width of impeller, in.
Ps - pressure requirement, in. H2 O Q - airflow, cfm
ψ - pressure coefficient, 0.05 to 2.0 N - speed of impeller, rpm
N - speed of impeller, rpm D - diameter of impeller, in.
φ - flow coefficient, 0.01 to 0.80
Pitch Angle for Axial Fan Casing Dimension
(Forward-Curved Centrifugal)
350 Q
Hc = 1.7 D
α = Sin –1 ----------------
φ N D3 Bc = 1.5 D
where: W c = 1.25 W + 0.1 D
α - pitch angle, deg where:
Q - airflow, cfm Hc - height of casing, in.
N - speed of impeller, rpm Bc - breadth of casing, in
D - diameter of impeller, in. W c - width of casing, in.
φ - flow coefficient, 0.01 to 0.80 D - diameter of impeller, in
W - width of impeller, in
Air-Moving Device

Casing Dimension Casing Dimension

(Narrow Backward-Curved Centrifugal) (Wide Backward-Curved Centrifugal)
Hc = 1.4 D Hc = 2.0 D
Bc = 1.35 D Bc = 1.6 D
W c = W + 0.1 D W c = W + 0.16 D
where: where:
Hc - height of casing, in. Hc - height of casing, in.
Bc - breadth of casing, in. Bc - breadth of casing, in.
W c - width of casing, in. W c - width of casing, in.
D - diameter of impeller, in. D - diameter of impeller, in.
W - width of impeller, in. W - width of impeller, in.
Casing Dimension (Mixed Flow) Casing Dimension (Traverse Flow)
Hc = 2.0 D Hc = 2.2 D
Bc = 2.0 D Bc = 2.2 D
W c = 0.46 D W c = W + [D/4]
where: where:
Hc - height of casing, in. Hc - height of casing, in.
Bc - breadth of casing, in. Bc - breadth of casing, in.
W c - width of casing, in. W c - width of casing, in.
D - diameter of impeller, in. D - diameter of impeller, in.

Casing Dimension (Vane-Axial Flow) Casing Dimension (Tube-Axial Flow)

W c = 1.2 D W c = 1.0 D
where: where:
W c - width of casing, in. W c - width of casing, in.
D - diameter of impeller, in. D - diameter of impeller, in.
Casing Dimension (Partially-Cased Fan) Mechanical Efficiency

W c = 0.5 D ξf = AHP / BHP

where: where:
W c - width of casing, in. ξf - fan efficiency, dec
D - diameter of impeller, in AHP - air horsepower, hp
BHP - brake horsepower, hp
Air Horsepower Brake Horsepower
Q V H Q Pa
AHP = ---------------- BHP = --------------
33,000 6360 ξf
where: where:
AHP - air horsepower, hp BHP - brake horsepower, hp
Q - airflow rate, cfm Q - airflow rate, cfm
V - specific weight of air, lb/ft3 Pa - static pressure, in. H2 O
H - total head, ft ξf - fan efficiency, dec
Air-Moving Device

Propeller Fan Pitch Fan Laws (Similar Geometrical Shape)

H1 1/4 Q2 1/2
P = 2 π r tan α D2 = D1 --------- ---------
where: Q1 1/2 H2 ¼
P - pitch, in. where:
r - fan radius, in. D - impeller diameter, in.
α - angle of fan blade twist, deg H - fan head, in. H2 0
Q - air flow rate, cfm
Fan Laws (Similar Geometrical Shape) Fan Laws (Similar Geometrical Shape)
D2 5 N2 3 Q1 1/2 H2 3/4
HP2 = HP1 -------- --------- N2 = N1 ---------- ---------
D1 5 N1 3 H1 3/4 Q2 ½
where: where:
HP - fan horsepower, hp N - impeller speed, rpm
D - fan diameter, in. H - fan head, in. H2 0
N - speed of impeller, rpm Q - air flow rate, cfm
Fan Law (Changing the Speed of the same Fan Law (Changing the Speed of the same
fan) fan)

Q1/Q2 = N1/N2 SP1/ SP2 = (N1 / N2) 2

where: where:
Q – airflow, m3 /hr SP – static pressure, cm of H2O
N – speed of the impeller, rpm N – speed of the impeller, rpm

Fan Law (Changing the Speed of the same Air Velocity

fan)
Va = cp x (2 x 9.81 ∆p x 𝛿a) ½ ] / 𝛿a
PI1/ PI2 = (N1 / N2) 3
where:
where: Va – velocity of air, m/s
PI – input power, kW Cp – pitot tube constant, approx 0.85
N – speed of the impeller, rpm ∆P - average pressure, mm of water
𝛿a – density of air, kg/m3
Air Density Fan Mechanical Efficiency

𝛿a = (273 + 1.293 ) / (273 + Ta) 𝝽m = (V x ∆p) / 102 x PI

where: where:
𝛿a – air density, kg/m3 𝜉m – mechanical efficiency, %
Ta – air temperature, C V – volumetric flow rate, m3 /sec
∆p – total pressure, mm water
PI – power input to the shaft, kW
Air-Moving Device

Problem 1

A vane-axial fan for a flat-bed dryer runs at 800-rpm speed.

The rate of flow of the fan is 100 cfm at 1 in. of water
pressure head. What is the specific speed of the fan?

Given:
Speed - 800 rpm
Rate of flow - 100 ft3

Required:
Specific Speed of the Fan

Solution:

Ns = N x Q 0.5 / Ps 0.75
= (800 rpm)(100 cfm)0.5 / (1 in.H2 O)0.75
= 800 x 10 x 1
= 8,000

Problem 2

A 12in.-diameter fan rotates at 1800-rpm speed. The fan blade has 10-degree pitch
angle. What is the fan pitch and flow rate if it has 40% static efficiency?

Given:
Diameter - 12 in.
Speed - 1800 rpm
Static efficiency - 40%

Required:
Fan Flow Rate

Solution:

Pitch = 2 π ( 6.in) Tan 10 deg

= 6.6 in.

Q = 6.6 in per rev x 3.1416 (12 in)2 /4 x 1800 rpm x 40%

= 313.35 cfm
Material Handling

1. The movement of material in a 6. When a bucket elevator is to be fed at

processing plant in any direction may it be the downside section, instead of the
horizontal, vertical or any combination. upside section of the elevator booth, its
a. Transporting power requirement will ___.
b. Shipping a. decrease
c. Material handling b. increase
d. All of the above c. be the same
d. None of the above
2. The commonly used material- handling
equipment. 7. What is the theoretical rpm of a
a. Bucket elevator bucket elevator with 0.2m-diameter
b. Screw conveyor head pulley and a 0.1-m bucket
c. Belt conveyor projection? (Problem 1)
d. All of the above a. 77 rpm
b. 120 rpm
3. The type of bucket elevators designed c. 160 rpm
to handle grains. d. None of the above
a. Centrifugal
b. Positive (gravity) 8. If the operational efficiency of the
c. Continuous (direct gravity) bucket elevator in Item 7 above is 85%
d. None of the above of the theoretical speed, what is the
operation speed of the elevator?
4. Which of the following is a good design (Problem 2)
feature for bucket elevators. a. 65 rpm
a. Clean out provision for booth. b. 102 rpm
b. Belt tension take up. c. 136 rpm
c. Replaceable liners at point of wear. d. None of the above
d. Provision to remove large foreign
materials such as metals and stones. 9. What is the theoretical horsepower
e. All of the above requirement of a bucket elevator with
f. None of the above 740-kg/min capacity and 12-m lift and is
loaded up side? (Problem 7)
5. What is the theoretical horsepower a. 2.3 hp
requirement of a bucket elevator with b. 3.5
545-kg/min capacity and has 10.7-m lift. c. 4.1 hp
The elevator is loaded down side. d. None of the above
(Problem 3)
a. 2.19 hp 10. A drag, flight or scraper conveyor.
b. 1.92 hp a. Screw conveyor
c. 2.91 hp b. Chain conveyor
d. None of the above c. Belt conveyor
d. None of the above
Material Handling

11. What is the theoretical rpm of a 16. The capacity of a bucket elevator is a
bucket elevator with 0.4m-diameter head function of ___.
pulley and 0.1-m bucket projection? a. bucket size
(Problem 5) b. bucket spacing
a. 45.3 rpm c. belt speed
b. 55.4 rpm d. All of the above
c. 66.7 rpm e. None of the above
d. None of the above
17. The actual horsepower requirement
12. If the operational speed of the bucket of bucket elevators is ___ higher than the
elevator in Item 11 is 85% of the theoretical value due to friction, power
theoretical speed, what is its operational transmission and drive losses.
speed? (Problem 6) a. 5 to 10%
a. 53.4 rpm b. 10 to 15%
b. 62.1 rpm c. 15 to 20%
c. 69.3 rpm d. None of the above
d. None of the above
18. Which of the following statements is
13. If 850 kg of paddy is to be lifted per true in selecting belts for bucket
minute to a 12-m height, what is the elevators.
horsepower requirement of the elevator? a. As the diameter of the pulley
Loading is on the downside of the elevator increases, the number of plies required
booth. (Problem 8) for the belt increases.
a. 3.35 hp b. As the diameter of the pulley
b. 4.12 hp increases, the number of plies required
c. 5.7 hp for the belt decreases.
d. None of the above c. As the diameter of the pulley
increases, the number of plies required
14. Speed range of the head pulley of a for the belt remains the same.
bucket elevator in a feed milling plant. d. None of the above
a. 40 to 70 rpm
b. 70 to 100 rpm 19. A bucket elevator with 4-in. cup
c. 100 to 250 rpm spaced at 6-in. apart has a throughput
d. None of the above capacity of 1000 kg of rice per hour. The
head pulley is rotating at a speed of 100
15. Carrying capacity of a single bucket in rpm. If the throughput capacity of the
a bucket elevator is usually calculated by elevator is need to be doubled, what
design engineers considering a ___ of the would you recommend?
rated capacity. a. Increase the rpm of the pulley.
a. 60 to 75% b. Double the size of the buckets.
b. 85 to 90% c. Install another bucket in between the
c. 95 to 100% buckets.
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Material Handling

20. Which of the following is not 25. The factor affecting the capacity of
considered a material handling belt conveyors.
equipment? a. Belt width
a. Bucker elevator b. Angle of trough
b. Screw conveyor c. Belt speed
c. Belt conveyor d. All of the above
d. Lifts, trucks, and carts e. Two of the above
e. None of the above
f. All of the above 26. The horsepower requirement of belt
conveyors includes the power ___.
21. A conveyor which is essentially made a. to drive empty
of an endless belt operating between two b. to drive at horizontal
or more pulleys with load supported by c. to drive vertical
idlers. d. All of the above
a. Bucket elevator
b. Screw conveyor 27. The type of belt conveyor suitable for
c. Pneumatic conveyor conveying grains.
d. None of the above a. Flat belt
b. Trough belt
22. A machine recommended for use in c. V-belt
conveying products with less damage. d. None of the above
a. Bucket elevator
b. Screw conveyor 28. Determine the speed of the belt of a
c. Belt conveyor 10m-long belt conveyor needed to
d. All of the above deliver shelled corn to a feeder of a
storage bin which is 1-m high from the
23. The part of a belt conveyor used to main floor. The pulley diameter and
discharge materials over the end of the width of the conveyor is 60 cm and 50
belt with the use of a diagonal scraper. cm, respectively, running at 40-rpm
a. Scraper speed. The cross-sectional area of the
b. Tripper conveyor is 0.031 m2 . Assume a 700-
c. Head pulley kg/m3 density for shelled corn. (Problem
d. None of the above 11)
a. 65.7 m/min
24. Which of the following is a b. 75.4 m/min
characteristic of belt conveyors? c. 81.2 m/min
a. Self cleaning d. None of the above
b. Limited elevating capacity
c. Can convey materials in long distance 29. Commonly used belt conveyor for
d. Negligible damage to product being paddy in bag storage.
conveyed a. Flat belt
e. Two of the above b. Trough belt
f. All of the above c. V-belt
d. None of the above
Material Handling

30. The angle of inclination of belt 35. A 15-degree inclination of conveyor

conveyors for conveying paddy and most will roughly increase its power by 25%
grains. while a 25-degree inclination will
a. 9 to 12 degrees increase the power of the conveyor by
b. 16 to 17 degrees roughly ___.
c. 20 to 24 degrees a. 30%
d. None of the above b. 40%
c. 50%
31. A device used to tighten the belt in d. None of the above
order to provide proper tension of the
belt of a belt conveyor. 36. What is the capacity of a 10in.-
a. Belt take up unit diameter screw conveyor running at 300-
b. Belt idler pulley rpm speed? The screw pitch is equal to
c. Belt tripper its diameter and the shaft diameter is
d. None of the above equal to ¼ D. The percentage load is
30% while the density of corn is 45
32. The conveyor used to handle finely
lbs/ft3 .
divided powders, damp , sticky, and
a. 2824 kg/hr
heavy viscous materials and hot
b. 3104 kg/hr
substances and granular materials of all
types. c. 4231 kg/hr
d. None of the above
a. Belt conveyor
b. Screw conveyor
37. Assuming the roughness of the
c. Bucket elevator
surface of rough rice and corn is equal,
d. Pneumatic conveyor
e. None of the above which of them requires more power to
convey using a screw conveyor?
33. A conveyor used for fine materials a. Rough rice
and is made of a helical plate that rotates b. Shelled corn
on a trough and moves the product by c. Same for both materials
dragging. d. None of the above
a. Chain conveyor
b. Pneumatic conveyor 38. Screw conveyors are seldomly used
c. Screw conveyor for conveying rough rice for the reason
d. None of the above that ___.
a. it is expensive since the materials are
34. If a screw conveyor is inclined, its difficult to fabricate
capacity to convey will ___. b. it easily wears out screw and trough
a. increase because rough rice is abrasive
b. decrease c. it doesn’t look good to convey rough
c. be the same rice using the conveyor
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Material Handling

39. The standard screw pitch for screw 44. What will be the throughput rate of
conveyors. the screw if the loading capacity is
a. 1/2 of the diameter 100%. Consider a rice husk bulk density
b. 1 of the diameter of 100 kg/m3 . (Problem 14)
c. 1-1/2 of the diameter a. 50 kg/hr
d. None of the above b. 86 kg/hr
c. 97 kg/hr
40. The type of screw utilized for screw d. None of the above
conveyors, which are used to mix
materials while conveying. 45. A type of bearing used for tightening
a. Variable-pitch screw the belt of bucket elevators.
b. Steeped-diameter screw a. Pillow-block bearing
c. Ribbon screw b. Flange bearing
d. None of the above c. Take-up units
d. None of the above
41. A device used to support long
horizontally-oriented screw. 46. Pulleys used to hold the belts of a
a. End bearings belt conveyor to keep them in place.
b. Hangers brackets a. Head pulley
c. Trough b. Booth pulley
d. None of the above c. Idlers
d. None of the above
42. A U-shaped trough without cover is
usually used for screw conveyors ___ in 47. Pulleys used to drive the belt at the
position. inlet and at the outlet ends of a belt
a. vertically-oriented conveyor.
b. inclined a. Head pulley
c. horizontally-oriented b. Booth pulley
d. None of the above c. End pulleys
d. None of the above
43. A 6-in. screw feeder for a rice husk
furnace is driven by a 1-hp electric motor 48. The pulley diameter of a belt
at 1740 rpm through a gear box at a speed conveyor is 50 cm. It will ran at 48-rpm
ratio of 1:60. The pulley drive between speed. If the width of the belt is 40 cm
the motor and gear box is 5in-by-8in while with an estimated cross-sectional area
for the gear box and screw feeder is 14T of 0.012 m2 and a 20-deg surcharge
by 31T. What is the speed of the feeder angle, what will be the speed of the
screw? (Problem 14) belt? (Problem 9)
a. 8.2 rpm a. 75.4 m/min
b. 12.6 rpm b. 82.1 m/min
c. 20.5 rpm c. 93.2 m/min
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Material Handling

49. What is the capacity of the belt 54. The trough angle for belt conveyors
conveyor in Item 48 in tons of paddy per used for paddy and grains.
hour. Assume a paddy density of 600 a. 10 degrees
kg/m3 . (Problem 9) b. 20 degrees
a. 29.4 tons per hour c. 45 degrees
b. 32.6 tons per hour d. None of the above
c. 41.3 tons per hour
d. None of the above 55. A machine recommended to use in
removing metallic elements during
50. What is the horsepower requirement conveying.
of the conveyor in Item 48 running a. Screen separator
empty? b. Magnetic separator
a. 0.72 hp c. Pneumatic separator
b. 0.81 hp d. None of the above
c. 0.89 hp
d. None of the above 56. The type of a conveyor feeder
used for feeding birds in cages in a
51. What is the horsepower requirement poultry farm.
of the conveyor above (Item 48) in lifting a. Flat-chain feeder
the product? b. Auger feeders
a. 0.32 hp c. Round chain feeders
b. 0.48 hp d. All of the above
c. 0.53 hp
d. None of the above 57. An electrically-operated device
commonly used for automatic bagging
52. Referring to Item 48, what is the of grains or of feeds.
horsepower required to move the a. Solenoid switch
product horizontally? b. Transducer
a. 0.32 hp c. Load cell
b. 0.48 hp d. None of the above
c. 0.89 hp
d. None of the above 58. An auger which releases conveyed
materials uniformly along a substantial
53. Still referring to Item 48, what is the portion of its length.
total horsepower requirement of the a. Feeding auger
conveyor? b. Portable auger
a. 1.22 hp c. Distributing auger
b. 1.69 hp d. None of the above
c. 2.15 hp
d. None of the above
Material Handling

59. An auger capable of discharging 65. Pneumatic conveyor is used very

materials to one or more locations. seldom in conveying rough rice for the
a. Feeding auger reason that ___.
b. Portable auger a. it is heavy to convey
c. Distributing auger b. the shape is not round
d. None of the above c. it is abrasive
d. None of the above
60. An auger with accessories that include
a suitable support system for mobility. 66. A pneumatic conveyor system that
a. Feeding auger usually operates below atmospheric
b. Portable auger pressure.
c. Distributing auger a. High-pressure system
d. None of the above b. Low-pressure system
c. Suction system
61. The size of an auger is referred to the d. All of the above
___.
a. diameter of the auger 67. A pneumatic conveyor system that
b. inside diameter of the auger tube uses low-velocity, high-density air
c. outside diameter of the auger tube employing a positive displacement
d. None of the above blower for which elevator is a function
of ___.
62. A conveyor with high power a. high-pressure system
requirement per unit capacity. b. low-pressure system
a. Bucket c. suction system
b. Belt d. All of the above
c. Pneumatic
d. All of the above 68. The main reason that pneumatic
conveyor is not preferred over bucket,
63. A pneumatic conveyor moves granular belt and screw conveyors is because the
materials at a velocity beyond the ___ of pneumatic conveyor ___.
the materials. a. is expensive
a. superficial velocity b. has high power requirement
b. apparent velocity c. requires manpower when loading a
c. terminal velocity material
d. None of the above d. None of the above

64. Conveying material can be changed 69. For grains, the air conveying capacity
easily when using ___. required for pneumatic conveyor is ___.
a. screw conveyor a. 15 to 50 ft3 /lb
b. bucket elevator b. 55 to 100 ft3 /lb
c. pneumatic conveyor c. 105 to 250 ft3 /lb
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Material Handling

70. The static pressure for fan design in a 76. In the Item above, what is the
pneumatic conveyor system is ___ times recommended pulley width of the bucket
of the air pressure requirement. elevator?
a. 1.2 to 1.3 a. 4 in.
b. 2.2 to 2.3 b. 5 in.
c. 3.2 to 3.3 c. 6 in.
d. None of the above d. None of the above

71. The design grain-to-air weight ratio for 77. The bearing use to tighten bucket and
pneumatic conveyor is ___. belt conveyor.
a. 1:1.2 to 1:3.7 a. Pillow block bearing
b. 1:3.8 to 1:4.5 b. Flange bearing
c. 1:4.6 to 1:5.5 c. Take-up unit
d. None of the above d. None of the above

72. The drive motor of belt conveyor as 78. The bearing used to support two in-
usually located at the ___ of the conveyor. line screws in a screw conveyor to prevent
a. head pulley sagging.
b. booth pulley a. Pillow block bearing
c. legs b. Take-up unit
d. None of the above c. Hanger bearing
d. None of the above
73. The drive motor of belt conveyor is
usually located at the ___ of the conveyor. 79. The bearing used for screw conveyor
a. receiving pulley ends.
b. discharge pulley a. Pillow block bearing
c. idler pulley b. Flange bearing
d. None of the above c. Hanger bearing
d. None of the above
74. The drive motor of the screw conveyor
can be found at the ___ of the conveyor. 80. Idler pulleys are provided much ___ at
a. inlet end the top belt than at the bottom belt.
b. outlet end a. Closer
c. casing b. farther
d. None of the above c. All of the above
d. None of the above
75. If 4 inches cup is used for a bucket
elevator, the recommended width of belt 81. Power requirement in bucket elevator
is ___ inches. is less when loading is to be located at the
a. 4 ___ of the elevator.
b. 5 a. down side section
c. 6 b. up side section
d. None of the above c. edge side section
d. None of the above
Material Handling

Belt Capacity Horsepower to Drive Empty Belt Conveyor

S A + B (3.28L)
C = 60 A S HPe = ----------- + --------------------
0.3048 100
where: where:
C - capacity, m /hr3 HPe - horsepower (empty), hp
A - area of cross-section of belt, m 2 S - belt speed, m/min
S - belt speed, m/min A - constant, 0.20 to 0.48 @ 36-76 belt
width
B - constant, 0.00140 to 0.00298 @
36-76 belt width
L - belt length, m
Horsepower to Lift Materials in Belt Horsepower to Convey Materials in Belt
Conveyor Conveyor on Level Position
h C 0.48 + 0.01 L
HPh = ---------- x 1.015 x ---------- HPl = C x --------------------
0.3048 1000 100
where: where:
HPh - horsepower to lift materials, hp HPl - horsepower to drive belt conveyor on
h - lift, m level position, hp
C - capacity, tph C - belt capacity, tph
L - belt length, m
Total Horsepower of Belt Conveyor Capacity of Screw Conveyor
( D2 - d2 )
HPt = HPe + HPl + HPh C = ------------------ x P x N
36.6
where: where:
HPt - total horsepower, hp C - capacity of screw conveyor, ft3 /hr
HPe - power to drive empty, hp D - screw diameter, in.
HPl - power to drive in level, hp d - shaft diameter, in.
HPh - power to lift materials, hp P - screw pitch, in. (normally equal to D)
N - shaft speed, rpm
Horsepower Requirement when Screw is in Power Requirement of Screw Conveyor
Inclined Position L (D S + Q K)
HP = ---------------------
Hpi = HPh sin α 1,000,000
where: where:
HPi - power requirement when screw is in HP - horsepower requirement, hp
inclined position, hp L - overall length, ft
HPh - power requirement in horizontal D - bearing factor, 10 to 106 for ball
position, hp bearing @ conveyor diameter of 7.5 to
α - inclination of the screw, deg 40 cm
S - speed, rpm
Q - quantity of materials, lbs/hr
K - material factor, 0.4 to 0.7
Material Handling

Motor Horsepower of Screw Conveyor RPM of Head Pulley

HP P
MHP = --------------- Nt = 54.19 / (R)½
0.85
where: where:
MHP - motor horsepower, hp Nt - RPM of head pulley
HP - power requirement, hp R - radius of pulley plus ½ of
P - 2 when HP is less than 1; bucket projection
1.5 when HP is equal to 1 and above

Bucket (Elevator) Capacity Horsepower Requirement of Bucket

Elevator
C = 60 Qb nb Sb
where: Hp = Q H F / 4562
C - elevator capacity, m3 /hr where:
Qb - bucket capacity, m3 /1,000,000 Hp - bucket elevator horsepower, hp
nb - number of buckets per meter of belt Q - throughput capcity, kg per min
Sb - belt speed, m/min H - height of bucket levator, m
F - factor, 1.5 if loading down booth
and 1.2 if loading up booth
Motor Horsepower of Bucket Elevator

HP P
MHP = ----------------
0.85
where:
MHP - motor horsepower, hp
HP - power requirement, hp
P - 3 when HP is less than 1;
2 when HP is equal to 1 and above
Material Handling

Problem 1

What is the theoretical rpm of a bucket elevator with

0.2m-diameter head pulley and 0.1-m bucket
projection?

Given:
Pulley Diameter - 0.2 m
Bucket projection - 0.1 m

Required: Theoretical rpm

Solution:

Radius = 0.1 m + 0.05 m

= 0.15 m

Nt = 54.19 / (R)½
= 54.19 / ( 0.15 m x 3.28 ft/m)½
= 54.19 / 0.701
= 77.3 rpm

Problem 2

If the operational efficiency of the bucket elevator in

Problem 1 is 85% of the theoretical speed, what is its
operating speed?

Given:
Nt - 77.3 rpm
ξ - 0.85

Required: Operational Speed

Solution:

No = ξ x Nt
= 0.85 (77.3 rpm)
= 65.7 rpm
Material Handling

Problem 3

What is the theoretical horsepower requirement of

a bucket elevator with 545-kg/min capacity and
10.7-m lift? The elevator is loaded down side.

Given:
Capacity - 545 kg/min
Lift - 10.7 m
Loading - downside

Required: Theoretical Hp

Solution:

Hp = Q H F / 4562
= [545 kg/min (10.7 m) (1.5 m)] 4562
= 1.9 hp

Problem 4

Compute the theoretical capacity of an 8in.-diameter screw conveyor loaded at 45%

of the full load. The screw shaft diameter is 2 inches with 4 inches screw pitch. The
speed of the conveyor is 80 rpm.

Given:
Screw diameter - 8 in.
Shaft diameter - 2 in.
Screw pitch - 4 in.
Screw speed - 80 rpm
Loading - 45%

Required: Theoretical Capacity of the

Conveyor
Solution:

Ct = [(D2 – d2 )/36.6][P x N]
= [(8 in)2 – (2 in)2 /36.6] [4 in x 80 rpm]
= 524.59 ft3 /hr
@ 45% loading
= 524.59 ft3 /hr x 0.45
= 236.07 ft3 /hr
Material Handling

Problem 5

What is the theoretical rpm of a bucket elevator

with 0.4m-diameter head pulley and 0.1-m bucket
projection?

Given:
Pulley diameter - 0.4 m
Bucket projection - 0.1 m

Required: Theoretical rpm

Solution:

Nt = 54.19 [(0.2 + 0.05)(3.28 ft/m)]0.5

= 54.19 / 0.812
= 66.7 rpm

Problem 6

If the operational speed of the bucket elevator in

Problem 5 above is 85% of the theoretical speed,
what is its operational speed?

Given:
Efficiency - 0.80
Theoretical speed - 66.7 rpm

Required: Operational Speed

Solution:

No = 0.80 Nt
= 0.80 (66.7 rpm)
= 53.4 rpm
Material Handling

Problem 7

What is the theoretical horsepower requirement of a

bucket elevator with 740-kg/min capacity and 12-m lift and
is loaded up side?

Given:
Capacity - 740 kg/min
Lift - 12 m
Loading - up side

Required: Theoretical Hp

Solution:

Hp = QHF/4562
= (740 kg/min)(12 m)(1.2) / 4562
= 2.3 Hp

Problem 8

If 850 kg of paddy is to be lifted per minute to a 12-m

height, what is the horsepower requirement of the
elevator? Loading is at the downside of the elevator
booth.

Given:
Q - 850 kg/min
H - 12 m
Loading - downside
Required: Hp Requirement
Solution:
QHF
Hpe =
4562

850 kg/min (12 m) (1.5)

=
4562

= 3.35 hp
Material Handling

Problem 9

The pulley diameter of a belt conveyor is 50 cm. It will be ran at 48-rpm speed. If the
width of the belt is 40 cm with a 0.012 m2 estimated cross-sectional area and a 20-
deg surcharge angle, what will be the capacity of the belt conveyor in tons of paddy
per hour? Assume a 600 kg/m3 paddy density.

Given:
Pulley diameter - 50 cm
Pulley speed - 48 rpm
Belt width - 40 cm
Belt cross-sectional area - 0.012 m2
Surcharge angle - 20 deg
Paddy density - 600 kg/m3
Required: Belt Capacity in tph
Solution:
(a) V belt = 3.1416 x Dp x Np
= 3.1415 x (50 cm/100 cm/m) x 48 rpm
= 75.4 m / min
(b) Capacity = A x V x 60
= 0.012 m2 x 75.4 m/min x 60
= 54.3 m3 /min x 600 kg/ m3
= 32,580 kg/hr x ton/1000 kg
= 32.58 tons/hr

Problem 10

A screw conveyor discharges grains on a

horizontal position at 10-kg per minute. If
the conveyor will be inclined at 45-degree
position, what will be its output in tons per
hour?

Given:
Q - 10 kg/min
Angle - 45°
Required: Output, ton/hr
Solution:
Q inc = Q horizontal Sin 45
= (10 kg/min) x Ton/1000 kg x
60 min/hr x 0.707
= 0.42 ton per hr
Material Handling

Problem 11

Determine the power required of a 10m-long

belt conveyor needed to deliver shelled corn
to a feeder of a storage bin which is 1-m high
from the main floor. The pulley diameter and
width of the conveyor are 60 cm and 50 cm,
respectively, running at 40-rpm speed. The
cross-sectional area of the conveyor is 0.031
m2 . Assume a 700-kg/m3 density for shelled
corn.
Given:
Belt length - 10 m
Lift - 1 m
Pulley diameter - 60 cm
Belt width - 50 cm
Pulley speed - 40 rpm
Belt x-area - 0.031 m2
Product - shelled corn
Density - 700 kg/m3
Required: Horsepower Required to Drive the
Belt Conveyor
Solution:
V = 3.14 D x N
= 3.14 x 0.6 m x 40 rpm
= 75.4 m/min
C = V x A x 60
= 75.4 m/min x 0.031 m2 x 60
= 140.24 m3 /hr x 700 kg/m3 x
ton/1000 kg
= 98.17 ton/hr
(a) Hpe = [(S/0.3048) (A + B (3.28 L))] / 1000
= [[(75.4 m3 /min)/0.3048]
[0.3+0.00187(3.281x10 m)]]/100
= 0.89 hp
(b) Hpv = C (0.48 + 0.01 L) / 100
= 98.17 (0.48 + 0.01 (1m) / 100
= 0.48 hp
(c) Hph = (L/0.3048) (1.015) (C/1000)
= (1/0.3048) (1.015) (98.17 ton/hr)
= 0.32 hp
Total Hp = Hpe + Hpv + Hph
= 0.89 hp + 0.48 hp + 0.32 hp
= 1.69 hp (use 2 hp)
Material Handling

Problem 12

Calculate the theoretical power required to drive a 10m-long screw conveyor

having 6-in. diameter. The conveyor shaft is supported by a roller-type bearing and
is used to convey ground lime at 10-tph rate. The conveyor speed is 40 rpm. Also,
compute the power required for the motor.

Given:
Screw length - 10 m
Screw diameter - 6 in.
Type of bearing - roller
Product - ground lime
Capacity - 10 tons per hr
Screw speed - 40 rpm
Required: Theoretical Power
Motor Power
Solution:
HP = L (DS + Q k) / 1,000,000
= 10 m x 3.28 ft/m ( 18 x 40 rpm + 10,000 kg/hr x 2.2 lb/kg x 0.6) / 1,000,000
= 32.8 ft/min (720 rpm + 1320 lb/hr) / 1,000,000
= 0.456 hp
MHP = H x P / 0.85
= 0.456 x 2 / 0.85
= 1.074 hp

Problem 13

A screw conveyor discharges 10-kg of grains per

minute on a horizontal position. It consumes 2 hp
of power during operation. If the conveyor will be
inclined at 45 degree position, what will be the
power required to drive the conveyor?

Given: Q - 10 kg/min
Angle - 45°
Required: Output, in tons/hour
Solution:
HPinc = HPhor x Sin α
= 2 hp x sin 45 deg
= 1.4 hp
Material Handling

Problem 14

A 6-in. screw feeder for a rice husk furnace is driven by a 1-hp electric motor at
1740 rpm through a gear box at a speed ratio of 1:60. The pulley drive between
the motor and gear box is 5in-by-8in while for the gear box and screw feeder is 14T
by 31T. What is the speed of the feeder screw? What will be the throughput rate of
the screw if the loading capacity is 100%.
Given:
Motor - 1 hp @ 1740 rpm
Gear Box - 1:60
Pulley Motor - 4 in.
Gear Box Pulley - 8 in.
Gear Box Sprocket - 14T
Screw Sprocket - 31T
Screw pitch - 3 in.
Screw Diameter - 6 in.
Loading Capacity - 100%
Density of Rice Husk - 100 kg/m3

Required: Screw RPM

Screw Throughput Rate

Solution:

Pulley ratio = 8 in/5in = 1.6

Sprocket ratio = 31T/14T = 2.21

Input Speed of gearbox = 1740 rpm/1.6

= 1087.5 rpm
Output speed of gearbox = 1087.5 rpm/60
= 18.12 rpm
Output rpm of screw = 18.12 rpm/2.21
= 8.2 rpm
Cross sectional area of screw = 3.1416 x (0.18) 2 / 4
= 0.025 m2
Volume per rotation of screw = 0.025 m2 x 0.076 m
= 0.00175 m3 per rev
Throughput rate = 8.2 rev/min x 60 min/hr x 0.00175 m3 /rev
x 100 kg/m3
= 86.1 kg/hr
Material Handling

Problem 15

A bucket elevator with 8-in. head pulley and 4-in. cup spaced at 4 in. was field
tested. For 10 revolutions of the head pulley the average elapse time obtained is 7
sec. Feeding 10 kg rice husk into the hopper of elevator gave 1.5 min to finish one
load. What is the actual throughput capacity of the elevator? If the capacity per
bucket is 20 g, what is the theoretical throughput capacity of the elevator?

Given:
Head pulley diameter - 8 in.
Cup size - 4 in.
Cup spacing - 4 in.
Time per 10 rev - 8 sec
Weight of rice husk - 14kg
Time consumed - 1.5 min
Weight of husk per bucket - 20 g

Required: Pulley Speed

Speed of Head Pulley
Belt Speed
Actual Throughput Capacity
Theoretical Throughput Capacity
Solution:

Pulley Rpm = (10 rev / 8 sec) x 60 sec/min = 75 rpm

Speed of head pulley = 3.1416/rev x 8 in. x 2.54 cm/in. x m/100 cm x 75 rev/min

= 47.87 m/min

Number of cups per meter = 1 m / (4 in. per cup x 2.54 cm x m /100 cm)
= 1 m /0.1016 m/cup
= 9.8 cups/m

Actual Throughput Capacity = (14 kg /1.5 min) x 60 min/hr

= 560 kg/min

Theoretical Throughput Capacity = 47.87 m/min x 9.8 cups/m x 20 g/cup

x 60 min/hr / 1000 g/kg
= 562.95 kg/hr
Crop Drying

1. The temporary holding of grains 6. A mechanical dryer equipped with

between drying passes to allow the series of holding bins that allow grains to
moisture in the center of the grain to continuously pass through its drying
equalize with that on its surface. chamber until their moisture content is
a. Tempering reduced to a desired level.
b. Static drying a. Batch dryer
c. Dryaeration b. Continuous-flow dryer
d. None of the above c. Recirculating dryer
d. None of the above
2. The process of subjecting the liquid
product into a stream of hot air in a drying 7. A batch-type dryer that circulates or
vessel to separate the water from the mixes the grains during drying.
particles producing fine particles as the a. Vertical-bin dryer
product. b. Recirculating dryer
a. Air drying c. Flat-bed dryer
b. Spray drying d. None of the above
c. Freeze drying
d. None of the above 8. An air chamber maintained under
3. A dehydration process that operates on pressure and is usually connected to one
principle of cooling the product until it or more distribution ducts in a drying
solidifies followed by subjecting it to a low system.
pressure to cause the water in the product a. Drying bin
to sublimate hence minimize alteration of b. Plenum chamber
its properties. c. Air duct
a. Air drying d. None of the above
b. Spray drying
c. Freeze drying 9. The pressure built up in the plenum
d. None of the above chamber used to maintain uniform
distribution of airflow throughout the
4. A device that generally removes excess mass of grains.
moisture by forced ventilation either with a. Velocity pressure
or without addition of heat. b. Static pressure
a. Fryer c. Dynamic pressure
b. Dehydrator d. Any combination of the above
c. Dryer
d. None of the above 10. The component of a dryer that
5. A batch-type dryer with vertical converts the velocity pressure of the fan
to static pressure.
holding-bin used for deep-bed drying.
a. Recirculating dryer a. Drying bin
b. Vertical-bin dryer b. Plenum chamber
c. Batch-type dryer c. Manometer
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Crop Drying

11. The dryer is equipped with a suitable- 15. The minimum heat utilization
size blower to deliver hot air into the efficiency requirement for direct-fired
drying bin. Unfortunately, the pressure petroleum-fueled mechanical dryers,
draft at the drying bin was found way based on standard performance
down below the requirement. As an criteria.
Agricultural Engineer, what would you a. 90%
recommend to improve the pressure b. 80%
draft of air at the plenum chamber of the c. 70%
bin? d. None of the above
a. Replace the bin with bigger plenum
chamber. 16. The minimum heating efficiency
b. Reduce the drying temperature of the requirement for direct-fired biomass-
air when operating the dryer. fueled grain dryers.
c. Seal the bin plenum chamber. a. 75%
d.None of the above b. 65%
12. The divisional layer between the dried c. 50%
and the undried products in a drying d. None of the above
system.
a. Drying layer 17. A flatbed dryer is using a direct fired
b. Drying zone biomass furnace for heating paddy. As
c. Drying front an Agricultural Engineer, what would
d. All of the above you recommend to eliminate entirely fly
ashes that goes with the hot air into
13. The minimum drying efficiency the bin during drying?
requirement for mechanical dryers, based a. Increase the height of the plenum
on standard performance criteria. chamber to slow down the velocity of
a. 90% the air in the bin.
b. 75% b. Reduce the rpm of the blower to
c. 50% slow down the air velocity of the hot
d. None of the above air.
14. In grain drying theory, drying occurs c. Install a heat exchanger in the
when ___. furnace.
a. the vapor pressure of grains is d. None of the above
higher than the vapor pressure of the
air 18. In heated-air drying in a flat-bed
b. the vapor pressure of grains is type dryer, the drying zone start from
lower than the vapor pressure of the the ___ of the drying bin adjacent to
air the plenum chamber.
c. the vapor pressure of grains is a. top
equal with the vapor pressure of the b. middle
air c. bottom
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Crop Drying

19. The usual depth of grains in a deep- 25. Two tons of paddy was dried in a
bed batch dryer. mechanical dryer from 24 to 14% in 8
a. 18 inches hours. What is the final weight of the
b. 2 to 8 ft product after drying?
c. 8 to 10 ft a. 1767.4 kg
d. None of the above b. 1677.4 kg
c. 1776.4 kg
20. The recommended depth of grains in a d. None of the above
shallow-bed dryer.
a. Up to 12 inches 26. What is the drying capacity of the
b. Up to 18 inches dryer in Item 25?
c. Up to 24 inches a. 200 kg/hr
d. All of the above b. 250 kg/hr
c. 125 kg/hr
21. If 9 tons of a product is to be dried d. None of the above
from 24 to 14% moisture content, what
would be the final weight of the product? 27. Referring to Item 25, what is the
a. 7953.4 kg moisture reduction per hour?
b. 8837.3 kg a. 29.07 kg/hr
c. 9741.4 kg b. 27.09 kg/hr
d. None of the above c. 20.97 kg/hr
d. None of the above
22. What is the weight of moisture to be
removed from the product in Item 21? 28. The amount of heat required to raise
a. 1046.5 kg one gram of water one degree
b. 2285.6 kg centigrade.
c. 2634.4 kg a. One BTU
d. None of the above b. One calorie
c. One joule
23. The warranty period requirement for d. All of the above
mechanical grain dryers.
a. 6 months 29. A 45°C drying temperature is equal to
b. 12 months ___.
c. One year a. 113°F
d. Two of the above b. 131°F
c. 121°F
24. A solar dryer is used to reduce the d. None of the above
moisture content of 4-ton paddy rice from
25 to 15% wet basis. How much is the 30. The ratio of the heat released by the
amount of moisture removed? fuel to the theoretical heat available in it.
a. 471 kilos a. Burner efficiency
b. 417 kilos b. Thermal efficiency
c. 714 kilos c. Combustion efficiency
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Crop Drying

31. The usual depth of grains in a deep- 36. Shelled corn initially at 24% is to be
bed batch dryer. dried to 14%. If the initial weight of the
a. 18 inches corn is 1000 kilos, what would be its
b. 2 to 8 ft final weight?
c. 8 to 10 ft a. 782 kg
d. None of the above b. 827 kg
c. 872 kg
32. If 20 kg of water is removed from a d. None of the above
110-kg paddy, what is the percentage
moisture content of the paddy in wet 37. What is the weight of moisture
basis? removed from the corn grains in Item 36
a. 12% above?
b. 18% a. 128 kg
c. 22% b. 173 kg
d. None of the above c. 218 kg
d. None of the above
33. What is the percentage moisture
content of the paddy in Item 32 when 38. A pyschrometer measures the ___ of
expressed in dry basis? the air.
a. 22% a. dry and wet bulb temperature
b. 30% b. dry bulb temperature and relative
c. 12% humidity
d. None of the above c. wet bulb temperature and relative
humidity
34. During the testing of a dryer, the d. None of the above
ambient relative humidity is 75%, if the
relative humidity at the outlet of the 39. What is the relative humidity of the
drying chamber reads 70%, the product air if the psychrometer measures 40°C
being dried undergoes ____. for both the dry bulb and the wet bulb
a. drying temperatures?
b. adsorption a. 40%
c. desorption b. 80%
d. All of the above c. 100%
d. All of the above
35. What is the amount of moisture to be
removed from a material with 14.5% 40. If the point is moved horizontally to
moisture content and 76-kg dry matter the left of the psychrometric chart, the
weight? process is ___.
a. 12.9kg a. heating
b. 24.1kg b. cooling
c. 14.5kg c. drying
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Crop Drying

41. Referring to the psychrometric chart, 47. The constant rate period during
the humidity ratio is ___ during heating drying happens when ___ moisture in
process . the product is being removed.
a. increasing a. unbound
b. decreasing b. bound
c. constant c. chemically bound
d. None of the above d. None of the above
42. In the psychrometric chart, the relative 48. The transfer of energy in the system
humidity ___ during heating process. and the environment that occurs without
a. increases the use of heat.
b. decreases a. Isothermal process
c. Is constant b. Isobaric process
d. None of the above c. Adiabatic process
d. None of the above
43. Still referring to the psychrometric
chart, the enthalpy of air ___ during 49. Heated-air drying is an example of
heating process. ___ process.
a. increases a. heating
b. decreases b. cooling
c. Is constant c. adiabatic
d. None of the above d. None of the above
44. Wet bulb thermometer measures the 50. In the psychrometric chart, the
temperature of the air at a condition that enthalpy of air is ___ during adiabatic
the air is ___. process.
a. unsaturated a. increasing
b. fully saturated b. decreasing
c. Dry c. constant
d. None of the above d. None of the above

45. The falling rate period is observed 51. In the psychrometric chart, the
during drying when ___ moisture in the relative humidity of air is ___ during
product is being removed. adiabatic process.
a. unbound a. increasing
b. bound b. decreasing
c. chemically bound c. constant
d. None of the above d. None of the above

46. The rate of moisture removal during 52. In the psychrometric chart, the dry
the falling rate period is ___. bulb temperature of air is ___ during
a. increasing adiabatic process.
b. decreasing a. increasing
c. not changing b. decreasing
d. None of the above c. constant
d. None of the above
Crop Drying

53. Equilibrium moisture level is attained 57. Compute the theoretical heat
when the vapor pressure of the product requirement for a 1-ton flat-bed dryer
is ___ to the vapor pressure of the operating on the following conditions:
ambient air. enthalpy of drying air, 46 BTU/ lbda.;
a. higher enthalpy of outlet air, 40 BTU/lbda;
b. lower specific volume of air, 0.9 m3 /kg. Airflow
c. equal rate is 100m3 /min.
d. None of the above a. 25,920 kcal/hr
b. 26,640 kcal/hr
54. Compute the drying efficiency of a c. 27,543 kcal/hr
1ton-capacity flat-bed dryer used to dry d. None of the above
paddy from 21 to 14% in 8 hrs. The fuel
consumption rate of the dryer is 7 lph. 58. How many 1.2-m x 2.4-m perforated
Assume a 600 kCal/kg heat of metal sheets are usually used in the
vaporization and a 9,000 kCal/kg heating construction of the 6-ton flatbed dryer
value of fuel. The density of fuel is 0.76. by the Department of Agriculture.
a. 10.24% a. 6 sheets
b. 11.35% b. 9 sheets
c. 12.75% c. 12 sheets
d. None of the above d. None of the above

55. What is the fuel consumption rate of 59. Drying at night time basically ___ the
a 2-ton grain dryer required to dry paddy drying time of the grains being dried due
from 22 to 14% in 8 hrs. The dryer to high humidity.
efficiency is 45%. Assume a 600-kCal/kg a. shortens
heat of vaporization for paddy. b. prolongs
a. 4.53 lph c. does not change
b. 3.56 lph d. None of the above
c. 2.78 lph
d. None of the above 60. The recommended thickness when
sundrying paddy in the Philippines.
56. What is the required dimension for a a. 2.5 cm
square bin with 1-ton paddy load if the b. 5.0 cm
dryer requires 0.45-m thickness. c. 7.5 cm
Assume a 576-kg/m3 grain density. d. None
a. 2 m
b. 3 m 61. The recommended frequency of
c. 4 m mixing when sundrying in the
d. None of the above Philippines.
a. Every 30 min
b. Every 1 hour
c. Every 1-1/2 hour
d. None of the above
Crop Drying

62. The apparent air velocity of paddy in a 67. A method of drying wherein the
shallow-bed heated-air dryer. relative humidity of the drying air is
a. 0.15 m/s controlled so that all the grain layers in
b. 0.20 m/s the deep bed reach equilibrium
c. 0.25 m/s moisture content.
d. All of the above a. Low-temperature drying
b. Heated-air drying
63. The apparent air velocity of paddy in a c. Flash drying
low-temperature deep-bed dryer. d. None of the above
a. 0.1 m/s
b. 0.2 m/s 68. An example of fixed-bed batch dryer.
c. 0.3 m/s a. Flat-bed dryer
d. All of the above b. Inclined-bed dryer
c. Circular-bin dryer
64. When drying paddy in a low- d. All of the above
temperature deep-bed dryer, the
recommended initial moisture content of 69. The traditional method of drying
the material must be ___. paddy in the field immediately upon
a. above 21% harvest and bundling without
b. 19 to 21% undergoing any threshing operation.
c. 18% and below a. Sundrying
d. All of the above b. Air drying
c. Panicle drying
65. The typical power requirement of d. None of the above
paddy in a heated-air shallow-bed paddy
dryer. 70. Untimely drying and improper
a. 1.5 kW per ton of paddy storage of paddy result in ___.
b. 2.0 kW per ton of paddy a. heat build up in the grain
c. 2.5 kW per ton of paddy b. mold development
d. All of the above c. insect infestation
d. discoloration/yellowing
66. The factor affecting the drying rate of e. loss of germination and vigor
paddy in the sun. f. loss of freshness/odor development
a. Ambient air temperature and humidity g. reduce head rice yield
b. Initial moisture content of product to h. All of the above
be dried i. Five of the above
c. Air velocity
d. Depth of drying 71. The optimum thickness and mixing
e. Mixing interval interval when sundrying paddy.
f. All of the above a. 2-4 cm and 30 min
g. Two of the above b. 5-6 cm and 45 min
h. Four of the above c. 7-8 cm and 60 min
d. All of the above
Crop Drying

Drying Capacity Final Weight of Dried Material

Cd = (W i / Td) W i (100 – Mci)

W f = -----------------------
where: (100 – MCf)
Cd - drying capacity, kg/hr where:
W i - initial weight of material, kg W f - final weight of dried material, kg
Td - drying time, hr W i - initial weight of material, kg
Mci - initial moisture content, %
MCf - final moisture content, %
Moisture Reduction Rate per Hour Heat Supplied to the Dryer

Wi – Wf 60 (h2 -h1 ) AR
MRR = --------------- Qsd = -----------------------
Td γ
where: where:
MRR - moisture reduction rate, kg/hr Qsd - heat supplied to the dryer, KJ/hr
W i - initial weight, kg h2 - enthalpy of drying air, KJ/kg da
W f - final weight, kg h1 - enthalpy of ambient air, KJ/kg da
Td - drying time, hr AR - airflow rate, m3 /min
γ - specific volume, m3 /kg da
Heat Available in the Fuel Heat System Efficiency

Qaf = FCR HVf ξhs = (Qsd / Qaf) 100

where: where:
Qaf - heat available in the fuel, KJ/hr ξhs - heating system efficiency, %
FCR - fuel consumption rate, kg/hr Qsd - heat supplied to the dryer, KJ/hr
HVf - heating value of fuel, KJ/hr Qaf - heat available in the fuel, KJ/hr
Heat Utilization Heat Utilization Efficiency
THU
HU = (Qsd x Td / MR) 100 ξhu = ---------- x 100
where: Qsd
HU - heat utilization, KJ/kg where:
Qsd - heat supplied to the dryer, KJ/hr ξhu - heat utilization efficiency, %
Td - drying time, hr THU - total heat utilized, KJ/hr
MR - amount of moisture removed, kg Qsd - heat supplied to the dryer, KJ/hr
Volume of Grain to be Dried Drying Floor Area

Vg = 1000 W i / Dg A f = Vg / Dg
where: where:
Vg - volume of grain to be dried, m3 A f - floor area of bin, m2
W i - initial weight of grain, ton Vg - volume of grain in bin, m3
Dg - grain density, kg/m3 Dg - depth of grain in bin, m
Crop Drying

Airflow Requirement Apparent Air Velocity in Grain Bed

A f = C SAF Vapp = AF / A f
where: where:
A f - air flow rate, m3 /min Vapp - apparent air velocity, m/min
C - dryer capacity, tons AF - total airflow, m3 /min
SAF - specific air flow rate, m3 /min-ton A f - dryer floor area, m2

Blower Pressure Draft Requirement Theoretical Weight of Fuel

Pd = Ps Dg WF = Qr / HVF
where: where:
Pd - blower pressure draft, cm of water WF - theoretical weight of fuel, kg/min
Ps - specific pressure draft, cm water per m Qr - total heat required, KJ/min
depth of grain HVF - heating value of fuel, KJ/kg
Dg - depth of grain in bed, m
Theoretical Heat Required Weight of Moisture Removed
Hn AF 1 - Mci
Qr = ------------- WMR = W i (1 - -------------)
Vs 1 – MCf
where: where:
Qr - theoretical heat required, KJ/min WMR - weight of moisture removed, kg
Hn - net enthalpy, KJ/kg W i - initial weight of grain to be dried, kg
AF - MCi - initial moisture content, dec
3
Vs - specific volume of air, m /kg MCf - final moisture content, dec
Theoretical Volume of Fuel Actual Volume of Fuel

Vf = WF / Df FVa = Vf / ξt
where: where:
Vf - theoretical volume of fuel, lpm FVa - actual volume of fuel, lph
WF - total weight of fuel, kg/min Vf - theoretical volume of fuel, lph
Df - density of fuel, kg/liter ξt - thermal efficiency, dec
Drying Time
WMR
DT = ---------------
AF Vs HR
where:
DT - drying time, min
WMR - weight of moisture to be removed,
kg
AF - airflow rate, mg/min
Vs - air density, kg/m3
HR - humidity ratio, kg moisture/kg da
Crop Drying

Problem 1

A 2-ton mechanical dryer dries paddy from 24 to 14%

in 8 hours. What is the final weight of the product
after drying?

Given:
Capacity - 2 tons
MCi - 24%
MCf - 14%
Time - 8 hrs

Required: Final Weight

Solution:

Wf = Wi (1-MCi) / (1 – MCf)
= 2 tons (1-0.24) / (1-0.14)
= 1.767 tons

Problem 2

What is the percentage moisture

reduction per hour in Problem 1?

Given:
MC initial - 24 %
MC final - 14 %
Drying time - 8 hrs

Required: % Moisture Reduction

per hr

Solution:

% moisture = (24% – 14%) / 8

= 1.25 % per hr
Crop Drying

Problem 3

Referring to Problem 1, what is the drying capacity of

the dryer?

Given:
Wt initial - 2 tons
Drying time - 8 hrs

Required: Drying Capacity

Solution:

Cd = Wi / Td
= 2 tons / 8 hrs
= 0.25 ton / hr

Problem 4

Still referring to Problem 1, what is the

rate of moisture reduction per hour?

Given:
Wt initial - 2 tons
Wt final - 1.767 tons
Drying time - 8 hrs

Required: Moisture Reduction per hr

Solution:

Wt. of Moisture Removed

= 2 tons – 1.767 tons
= 0.233 ton

Moisture Reduction per hr

= 0.232 ton / 8 hrs
= 0.029 ton/hr
Crop Drying

Problem 5

Compute the apparent air velocity in a 1-ton capacity flat-bed dryer with 2.4m-x-
2.4m dimension square bin. The specific airflow rate of the dryer is 50 m3 per
minute of air per m3 of grain. Assume a 500-kg/m3 density of grain.

Given:
Total airflow - 50 m3 /min
Area - 2.4 m x 2.4 m
Grain density - 500 kg/m3

Required: Apparent Air Velocity

Solution:
Volume= 1 ton x 1000 kg/ton x m3 /500kg
= 2 m3

Q = 50 m3 /min-m3 x 2 m3
= 100 m3 /min

Vapp = 100 m3 /min / 2.4 m x 2.4 m

= 17.36 m/min
Crop Drying

Problem 6

Compute the drying efficiency of a 1-ton capacity recirculating-type dryer used to dry
paddy from 21 to 14% in 8 hrs. The fuel consumption rate of the dryer is 7 lph of
diesel. Assume a 600 kcal/kg heat of vaporization and a 9,000 kcal/kg heating value
of fuel. The density of fuel is 0.76.
Given: Capacity - 1 ton FCR - 7 lph diesel
MC i - 21% Hv - 600 kcal/kg
MC f - 14% HVF - 9,000 kcal/kg
Td - 8 hrs δf - 0.76
Required:
Drying Efficiency
Solution:
Wf = 1 ton (1-.021)/(1-.14) Qf = 7 li/hr x 9,000 kcal/kg
= 0.918 ton x 0.76 kg/li
WR = 1 ton – 0.918 ton = 47,880 kcal/hr
= 81.4 kg Ed = 6,104 kcal/hr x 100/
Qo = 81.4 kg x 600 kcal/kg 47,880 kcal/hr
= 48,840 kcal/8 hrs = 12.75%
= 6,104 kcal/hr

Problem 7

What is the fuel consumption rate of a 2-ton grain dryer required to dry paddy
from 22 to 14% in 8 hrs.? The dryer efficiency is 45%. Assume a 600 kcal/kg heat
of vaporization for paddy.
Given:
Capacity - 2 tons ξd - 45%
Mci - 22% Hv - 600 kcal/kg
MCf - 14%
Drying Time - 8

Required: Fuel Consumption Rate

Solution:
FCR = (31,007 kcal/hr) / (9,000 kcal/kg
Wf = 2 (1-0.22)/(1-0.14) x 0.76 kg/li)
= 4. 53 li per hour
= 1.81 tons
WR = 2 tons - 1.81 tons
= 186 kg
Qr = 186 kg x 600 kcal/kg
= 111,627 kcal/8 hr
= 13,953 kcal/hr
Qf = 13,953 kcal/hr / 0.45
= 31,007 kcal/hr
Crop Storage

1. A storage practice in which grains are 6. The process in which air moves
stored in loose form in a large container. through the mass of stored grains at a
a. Bag storage low rate to maintain grain quality.
b. Bunker storage a. Cooling
c. Bulk storage b. Aeration
d. All of the above c. Fanning
d. None of the above
2. A storage method in which the
concentration of gas in the storage 7. A wooden frame used in stacking bags
atmosphere is changed. of rice.
a. Sealed storage a. Dunnage
b. Modified atmosphere b. Loading platform
c. Controlled atmosphere c. Bag holder
d. All of the above d. All of the above

3. A storage system for holding buffer 8. A warehouse used for storing paddy
stocks and is usually located at the or rice, either in bulk or in bags.
shipping receiving terminals. a. Silo
a. Village-level storage system b. Godown
b. Commercial-level storage system c. Farmstead
c. Centralized storage system d. None of the above
d. All of the above
9. The maximum allowable safe height
4. A storage structure made of pre- of sack pile in bag storage.
fabricated reinforcement concrete with a. 12-16 sacks
metal siding and with either a hopper b. 18-25 sacks
bottom or a flat bottom. c. 28-30 sacks
a. Warehouse d. None of the above
b. Silo
c. Bulk container 10. The recommended stacking density
d. All of the above for paddy per cubic meter of space.
a. 5 bags
5. The method of piling grains that b. 10 bags
provides ventilation space between bags c. 15 bags
and allows circulation of convective air d. None of the above
current which, in turn, becomes the
medium for heat dissipation. 11. The recommended stacking density
a. Chinese Method for corn per cubic meter of space.
b. Japanese Method a. 12 bags
c. Philippine Method b. 14 bags
d. None of the above c. 16 bags
d. None of the above
Crop Storage

12. The recommended stacking density for 18. If 5000 bags of paddy are to be piled
rice per cubic meter of space. 20-bags high, how many square meters
a. 10 bags of floor space is required? (0.23 m/bag)
b. 15 bags a. 108 sgm
c. 20 bags b. 121 sqm
d. None of the above c. 211 sqm
d. None of the above
13. If a pile of rice is 8-m long, 6-m wide,
and 3.6-m high, how many bags of rice are 19. What is the peak storage capacity of
safe to be piled? a 5m-diameter grain-storage bin with 6-
a. 2592 bags m average height and 28-deg minimum
b. 2952 bags angle of fill?
c. 2295 bags a. 126.5m³
d. None of the above b. 162.5m³
c. 156.2m³
14. The allowable space between the top
d. None of the above
of the stacks and the roof truss of a
warehouse. 20. A small metal probe used for taking
a. 1.0 meter samples of paddy from a sack.
b. 1.5 meters a. Sampling tube
c. 2.0 meters b. Trier
d. None of the above c. Sampler
15. The recommended dimension for d. None of the above
maximum piling of stacks to conform with 21. The optimum relative humidity for
the fumigating sheets in situations where storing fruits and vegetables is ___.
warehouses cannot be made airtight. a. 60-70%
a. 7.3 m x 21.9 m x 4.5 m b. 80-90%
b. 6.3 m x 20.9 m x 4.5 m c. 90-100%
c. 5.3 m x 19.8 m x 4.5 m d. None of the above
d. None of the above
22. In storing paddy, which of the
16. The recommended optimum stack following statements is true?
height for paddy stored in a warehouse. a. More paddy can be stored in a
a. 16 layers warehouse when it is placed in jute
b. 18 layers sacks.
c. 20 layers b. More paddy can be stored in a
d. All of the above warehouse when it is placed in woven
17. The recommended overall height by polypropylene bags.
ASAE for an agricultural pallet bin. c. The same volume of paddy can be
a. 72 or 133 cm stored in a warehouse whether they are
b. 62 or 122 cm stored in jute sacks or in woven
c. 52 or 112 cm polypropylene bags.
d. None of the above d. All of the above
Crop Storage

23. The size of wire mesh used in storage 28. Gases used to disinfect commodities
to protect stored product from insects either in stalks under gas-proof sheet or
and rodents. in sealed silos, warehouses, and
a. ¼-inch mesh transport container.
b. ½-inch mesh a. Fumigants
c. ¾ -inch mesh b. Aerosol
d. All of the above c. Carbon dioxide
d. None of the above
24. The recommended optimum stock
height for maize stored in a warehouse. 29. An example of fumigants.
a. 16 layers a. Methyl bromide
b. 18 layers b. Phosphine
c. 20 layers c. All of the above
d. All of the above d. None of the above

25. The moisture content of copra for 30. The dosage of fumigants to be
use as a feed ingredient that is safe for applied depends on the ___.
storage. a. temperature of commodity
a. 5.8 % b. exposure period
b. 11% c. amount of fumigant lost
c. 13% d. evenness of distribution and
d. None of the above penetration
e. pest to be controlled
26. The recommended stack height in a f. All of the above
warehouse should not exceed the height
of the walls plus a space of at least ___ 31. The average concentration of gas in
between the top of the stacks and the air to which a normal worker can be
roof frame. exposed continuously and repeatedly
a. 1 meter during the usual hours of work without ill
b. 1.5 meters effects, expressed in ppm.
c. 2.0 meters a. Threshold limit value
d. None of the above b. Average concentration limit
c. Average concentration value
27. Changes in texture, odor, flavor, and d. None of the above
nutritive value of grains during
prolonged storage, even in the absence 32. ppm means ___.
of insects and microorganisms, are due a. parts per minute
to ___. b. percent per minute
a. moisture and temperature c. parts per million
b. vapor pressure and temperature d. None of the above
c. vapor pressure and moisture
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Crop Storage

33. The relationship between the 38. The factor that needs to be considered
moisture content of a product at a given in determining the storage requirement.
relative humidity and temperatures. a. Number of crops per year
a. Moisture Sorption Isotherm b. Staggering of crops and harvest
b. Isothermal Moisture c. Consumption vs harvest
c. Moisture isotherm d. All of the above
d. None of the above e. Two of the above

34. The phenomenon that the moisture 39. Grain-infesting insects are very
content of a product for a particular temperature sensitive, they multiply
equilibrium relative humidity varies slowly ___ temperature.
when they are absorbing moisture than a. below 15.6°C
when they are desorbing moisture. b. between 15.6° and 4.6°C
a. Hysteresis c. above 41.6°C
b. Adiabatic d. None of the above
c. Isothermal
d. None of the above 40. Grain-infesting insect cannot survive
___.
35. The factor that affects the texture, a. below 15.6°C
color, flavor and nutrient of product b. between 15.6° and 4.6°C
during storage even not subjected to c. above 41.6°C
infestation of insects and microorganism. d. None of the above
a. Temperature
b. Moisture 41. Damage caused by fungi (molds) and
c. All of the above bacteria in stored grains.
d. None of the above a. Decrease in germinability
b. Kernel discoloration
36. The relative humidity of the air with c. Heating and mustiness
respect to the moisture condition of the d. Bad odor and off-flavor
product, i.e. when moisture between the e. Development of toxins
air and the product is at stead state. f. Weight loss
a. Equilibrium moisture content g. All of the above
b. Equilibrium relative humidity h. Five of the above
c. Equilibrium condition
d. None of the above 42. Aeration during storage is used to ___.
a. cool the grain
37. The amount of water present in the b. prevent storage odor in the grain
air. c. remove small amount of moisture in
a. Air moisture content the grain
b. Air humidity d. reduce moisture accumulation in grain
c. Relative humidity e. way to apply fumigants in grain
d. None of the above f. All of the above
g. Three of the above
Crop Storage

43. The process of keeping grains either 48. When the temperature outside the
in bags or in bulk in a structure to protect storage structure is cold, there will be
the grains from inclement weather and ___ as a result of temperature rise at the
pests for a short or long period of time to center of the stored grains and build up
await further processing or movement to moisture that condenses on top of the
other location. silo.
a. Grain drying a. moisture migration
b. Grain tempering b. equilibrium moisture development
c. Grain storage c. sorption isotherms
d. None of the above d. None of the above

44. Which of the following is not cereal 49. A storage level for community
grains? cooperatives in which traders offer
a. Rice storage to meet the needs of some
b. Wheat farmers with typical range of few tons to
c. Corn several hundred tons of palay consisting
d. Barley of single or multiple units.
e. None of the above a. Village level
b. Commercial level
45. Which of the following is cereals? c. Centralized level
a. Rice d. None of the above
b. Corn
c. Sunflower 50. A storage level with capacity of few
d. Mungbean hundreds to few thousand tons
e. All of the above consisting of several storage facility units.
a. Village level
46. A typical condition where the grain b. Commercial level
embryo is inactive and can be stored for c. Centralized level
a longer period. d. None of the above
a. 15°C storage temperature
b. Below 70% storage humidity 51. A storage level used for holding
c. 14-15% grain moisture buffer stocks and usually located at
d. All of the above shipping-receiving terminals with
e. None of the above capacity of few thousand tons and
above.
47. The basic requirement for safe a. Village level
storage of grains. b. Commercial level
a. Healthy and clean grains c. Centralized level
b. Uniformly dried grains d. None of the above
c. Storage structure that maintain
suitable environment that will prevent
insects and animal pests.
d. All of the above
e. Two of the above
Crop Storage

Loss Due to Resp Loss Due to Microorganism

Lres = W g x DML W i(100-Mi)

DML = 1-exp [[-AtC exp[D(T-60)] Lm = [ ---------------- + 0.68x10 0.44Mi-11.08 ] D
Exp [E (W-0.14)]] 100
where: where:
Lres - weight loss due to respiration, kg Lm - weight loss due to microorganism, kg
W g - weight of grain stored, kg W i - weight of incoming stock, ton
DML - dry mater loss, dec Mi - moisture content of incoming stock,
t - storage time, hr/1000 % w.b.
T - temperature, °F D - storage period, day
W - moisture content, dec wb
A - constant, 0.000914
C - constant, 0.6540
D - constant, 0.03756
E - constant, 33.61
Loss Due to Insects Loss Due to Rodents

Li = 0.003 Id Lr = C D
where: where:
Li - weight loss due to insects, kg Lr - weight loss due to rodents, kg
Id - percent insect damaged kernels at the C - coefficient, 0.0036, 0.020, 0.035
end of the storage period, % kg/day for mice, small rats, and big rats,
respectively
D - storage period, day
Loss Due to Birds Loss Due to Spillage

Lb = 0.005 D P Ls = 0.005 W g Hf
where: where:
Lb - weight loss due to birds, kg Ls - weight loss due to spillage, kg
D - storage period, day W g - weight of grain handled, kg
P - bird population Hf - number of times of handling
Total Weight Loss

Lt = Lr + Lm + Li + Lr + Lb + Ls
where:
Lt - total weight loss, kg
Lr - weight loss due to respiration, kg
Lm - weight loss due to microorganism, kg
Li - weight loss due to insect, kg
Lr - weight loss due to rodents, kg
Lb - weight loss due to birds, kg
Ls - weight loss due to spillage, kg
Crop Storage

Problem 1

If a pile of rice is 8-m long, 6-m wide and 3.6-m

high, how many bags of rice are safe to be piled?

Given:
Length of pile - 8 m
Width of pile - 6 m
Height of pile - 3.6 m

Required: Number of Bags of rice

Solution:

No. of Bags = [ L x W x H ] / 15 bags / m3

= [8 m x 6 m x 3.6 m]/15 bags/m3
= 2,592 bags

Problem 2

If 5000 bags of palay is to be piled 20-bags

high, how many square meters of floor
space is needed? (0.23 m/bag)

Given:
No of bags - 5000 bags
Height of pile - 20 bags
Height of bag - 0.23 m/bag

Required: Floor Area

Solution:

Volume of pile = 5000 bags/ 10 bags/m3

= 500 m3

Height of pile = 20 bags x 0.23 m/bag

= 4.6 m

Area of pile = 500 m3 / 4.6 m

= 108.69 m2
Crop Storage

Problem 3

What is the peak storage capacity of a 5m-

diameter grain-storage bin with 6-m average
height and 28-deg. minimum angle of fill?

Given:
Diameter of grain - 5m
Average height - 6m
Angle of fill - 28°

Required: Peak storage capacity

Solution:

D/2 tanθ
V = (πD2 /4) EH + (πD2 /4)
3

π(5m)2 5m/2 tan 28

= π(5m)2 /4) 6m +
4 3

= 117.8 m3 + 8.70 m3

= 126.50 m3
Crop Storage

Problem 4

Two piles of shelled corn in bags will be stored in a warehouse having a dimension
of 15m-wide by 30m-long and 6m-high. How many bags of the product would be
contained per pile inside the warehouse?

Given:
Length - 30 m
Width - 15 m
Height - 6 m
Required:
No. of bags per pile

Solution:
Volume = 30 m x 15 m x 6 m
= 2,700 m3
Number of Bags = 2,700 m3 12 bags/m3
= 32,400 bags
Problem 5

A 100,000-bag capacity pile will be constructed to stack paddy in a warehouse using

jute bags to a height of 20 ft. What will be the probable floor area of the stack if a
rectangular pile (2W=L) will be constructed? Assume a 0.23 m/bag height and
10bags-per-m3 stacking density.
Given:
Capacity - 100,000 bags
Height - 20 ft
Bag ht. - 0.23 m/bag
Ρ - 10 bags/m3
Required: Floor Area
Solution:
Volume = 100,000 bags / 10 bags per m3
= 10,000 m3
Floor Area = 10,000 m3 / 6 m
= 1,667 m2
2W x W = 1,667 m2
W 2 = 1,667 m2 /2
W = 28.8 m
L = 57.6 m
No. of Layers = 6 m / 0.23 m per bag
= 26 bags
Rice Milling

1. The hydrothermal treatment of paddy 7. Broken rice is a quality deterioration

before milling is called ___. index during ___.
a. parboiling a. drying
b. drying b. threshing
c. water treatment c. milling
d. None of the above d. None of the above
8. A fraction of grain with its length
2. The extent by which the bran layer of
equal to or greater than an average of
the brown rice is removed as a result of
three-fourths.
whitening.
a. Large broken grain
a. Milling degree
b. Small broken grain
b. Degree of whitening
c. Head grain
c. Milling recovery
d. None of the above
d. All of the above
9. The minimum hulling efficiency
3. A machine that converts paddy to requirement for rice mill, based on
milled rice. standard performance criterion.
a. Paddy husker a. 90%
b. Rice whitener b. 80%
c. Rice mill c. 70%
d. All of the above d. None of the above
10. If five tons of paddy is milled in 6
4. A kind of rice mill that employs only
hours produces 3950 kg of brown rice
one whitening machine.
and 3250 kg of milled rice, what is the
a. “Kiskisan” rice mill
milling recovery?
b. Single-pass rice mill
a. 60%
c. Rubber-roll rice mill
b. 65%
d. None of the above
c. 70%
d. None of the above
5. The ratio of the weight of milled rice to
the weight of paddy multiplied by one 11. Referring to Item 10 above, what is
hundred. the hulling coefficient of the huller?
a. Percentage head rice recovery a. 0.79
b. Percentage milling recovery b. 0.89
c. Percentage milling capacity c. 0.99
d. None of the above d. None of the above

6. The maximum percentage of milling 12. If the head rice recovery of paddy in
recovery from rice mills. Item 10 is equal to 85%, what is the
a. 69% amount of broken grains?
b. 75% a. 487.50 kg
c. 80% b. 478.50 kg
d. None of the above c. 475.85 kg
d. None of the above
Rice Milling

13. Referring to Item 10, what is the 19. If the end-product in milling is brown
amount of rice hull produced during rice, the grain has just passed through a
milling? ___.
a. 1000 kg a. paddy cleaner
b. 1050 kg b. Rubber-roll huller
c. 1100 kg c. whitener
d. None of the above d. sifter
e. None of the above
14. A multi-pass rice mill is characterized
by ___. 20. The recommended peripheral speed
a. having two or three separate of a rubber roller for hulling operation.
hullers in the system a. 10 m/s
b. having a series of two or three b. 14 m/s
whitening machines c. 18 m/s
c. having the paddy loaded in the rice mill d. None of the above
several times 21. The percentage speed difference
d. None of the above between rubber rollers.
15. A rice mill huller that has high milling a. 15%
recovery. b. 20%
a. Steel huller c. 25%
b. Rubber huller d. None of the above
c. Stone disk 22. The speed of the fixed rubber roll in a
d. All of the above rubber-roll huller is slower by ___
compared with that of the adjustable
16. An example of a rice huller.
roller.
a. Steel-fluted huller
a. 20 %
b. Rubber-roll
b. 25 %
c. Disk
c. 30 %
d. Centrifugal
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
23. The husking ratio of a rubber-roll
17. The measure of the machine’s ability huller is about ___.
to remove hulls with minimum breakage. a. 60-70 %
a. Coefficient of hulling b. 80-90 %
b. Coefficient of breakage c. 95-98 %
c. Coefficient of wholeness d. None of the above
d. All of the above
24. If the rubber-roll huller wears out,
18. A dehulled paddy but with bran layer the peripheral speed of the roller will
remaining intact. ___.
a. Rough rice a. decrease
b. Milled rice b. increase
c. Brown rice c. be the same
d. All of the above d. None of the above
Rice Milling

25. A rice processing plant operates at 5 30. The recommended clearance for a
tons per hour. The milling and head rice disk huller in order to achieve high
recoveries of the rice mill are 69% and brown-rice recovery with less breakage.
95%, respectively. What is its input a. ¼ of the length of the paddy grain
capacity? b. ½ of the thickness of the paddy grain
a. 7.24 tons per hour c. ¾ of the length of the paddy grain
b. 3.45 tons per hour d. None of the above
c. 4.75 tons per hour
d. None of the above 31. A machine used to remove the bran
from brown rice.
26. Referring to Item 24, what is the a. Polisher
throughput rate of the rice mill in ton b. Husker
broken grains per hour? c. Whitener
a. 0.172 ton per hour d. All of the above
b. 0.250 ton per hour
c. 0.350 ton per hour 32. A type of whitener consisting of a
d. None of the above flutted-roller rotating inside a hexagonal
chamber with slot-type perforations.
27. If a rice huller has 0.90 hulling
a. Abrasive-type whitener
coefficient and 0.80 wholeness
b. Frictional-type whitener
coefficient, what is the output per hour of
c. All of the above
the rice huller in Item 24 in tons of brown
d. None of the above
rice?
a. 6.52 tons per hour
33. The manufacturers’ recommended
b. 4.50 tons per hour
speed for the rotating cone in a vertical-
c. 4.00 tons per hour
abrasive whitening cone must not exceed
d. None of the above
___.
28. In a disk huller, the stationary disk is a. 13 m/s
located at the ___. b. 14 m/s
a. top of the huller c. 15 m/s
b. bottom of the huller d. None of the above
c. side of the huller
d. None of the above 34. The auxillary device in a rice mill that
receives the fine bran particles from
29. The manufacturers’ prescribed milled rice and gives a glossy appearance
peripheral velocity for a disk huller is ___. to the product.
a. 10 m/s a. Whitener
b. 14 m/s b. Grader
c. 18 m/s c. Polisher
d. None of the above d. All of the above
Rice Milling

35. The manufacturers’ recommended 41. A one-ton-per-hour rice mill is to be

speed for a horizontal-abrasive whitener is designed. The milling recovery is 68%
___. while the hulling efficiency is 90%. What
a. 800 rpm size of paddy separator will you
b. 1000 rpm recommend?
c. 1200 rpm a. 26 compartments
d. All of the above b. 32 compartments
c. 40 compartments
36. The adjustment clearance for rubber d. None of the above
brakes in a vertical-abrasive whitening
cone is ___ from cone coating. 42. Roller dimension of No. 4 rubber-roll
a. 1 to 2 mm huller.
b. 2 to 3 mm a. 100 mm long x 220 mm diameter
c. 3 to 4 mm b. 150 mm long x 220 mm diameter
d. None of the above c. 254 mm long x 254 mm diameter
d. None of the above
37. A machine that smoothens the
surfaces of milled rice after removing the 43. Roller dimension of No. 6 rubber-roll
bran making it shiny. huller.
a. Whitener
a. 100 mm long x 220 mm diameter
b. Polisher b. 150 mm long x 220 mm diameter
c. Sifter c. 254 mm long x 254 mm diameter
d. Grader d. None of the above
e. All of the above

38. A machine used to segregate various 44. Roller dimension of No. 10 rubber-
roll huller.
fractions/sizes of milled rice.
a. 100 mm long x 220 mm diameter
a. Whitener
b. 150 mm long x 220 mm diameter
b. Grader
c. 254 mm long x 254 mm diameter
c. Whitener
d. None of the above d. None of the above

39. A machine that separates paddy from 45. Throughput capacity of No. 10
brown rice. rubber-roll huller.
a. Screen sifter a. 0.9 to 1.2 tons per hour
b. Paddy separator b. 1.2 to 1.9 tons per hour
c. Paddy husker c. 2.2 to 3.8 tons per hour
d. Rice whitener d. None of the above
e. None of the above
46. Throughput capacity of No. 6 rubber-
40. The capacity of a compartment-type roll huller.
separator is ___. a. 0.9 to 1.2 tons per hour
a. 20-30 kg. brown rice per hour b. 1.2 to 1.9 tons per hour
b. 40-60 kg. brown rice per hour c. 2.2 to 3.8 tons per hour
c. 70-80 kg. brown rice per hour d. None of the above
d. None of the above
Rice Milling

47. Throughput capacity of No. 4 rubber 53. How many bags (50 kg) of paddy
roll huller. processed before a pair of No. 10
a. 0.9 to 1.2 tons per hour rubber-roll huller is to be replaced?
b. 1.2 to 1.9 tons per hour a. 850 to 900 bags
c. 2.2 to 3.8 tons per hour b. 950 to 1000 bags
d. None of the above c. 1500 to 2000 bags
d. None of the above
48. Horsepower requirement of No. 4
rubber-roll huller. 54. Capacity of 750-mm disc huller.
a. 2.5 hp a. 450 to 600 kg paddy per hour
b. 4.0 hp b. 700 to 1000 kg paddy per hour
c. 6.0 hp c. 1600 to 2100 kg paddy per hour
d. None of the above d. None of the above

55. Capacity of 1000-mm disc huller.

49. Horsepower requirement of No. 6
a. 450 to 600 kg paddy per hour
rubber-roll huller.
b. 700 to 1000 kg paddy per hour
a. 2.5 hp
c. 1600 to 2100 kg paddy per hour
b. 4.0 hp
d. None of the above
c. 6.0 hp
d. None of the above 56. Capacity of 1400-mm disc huller.
a. 450 to 600 kg paddy per hour
50. Horsepower requirement of No. 10 b. 700 to 1000 kg paddy per hour
rubber-roll huller. c. 1600 to 2100 kg paddy per hour
a. 2.5 hp d. None of the above
b. 4.0 hp
c. 6.0 hp 57. Horsepower requirement of the 750-
d. None of the above mm disc huller.
a. 3.0 hp
51. How many bags (50 kg) of paddy b. 3.5 hp
processed before a pair of No. 6 rubber- c. 5.5 hp
roll huller is to be replaced? d. None of the above
a. 850 to 900 bags
58. Horsepower requirement of the
b. 950 to 1000 bags
1000-mm disc huller.
c. 1500 to 2000 bags
a. 3.0 hp
d. None of the above
b. 3.5 hp
c. 5.5 hp
52. How many bags (50 kg) of paddy
d. None of the above
processed before a pair of No. 8 rubber-
roll huller is to be replaced? 59. Horsepower requirement of the
a. 850 to 900 bags 1400-mm disc huller.
b. 950 to 1000 bags a. 3.0 hp
c. 1500 to 2000 bags b. 3.5 hp
d. None of the above c. 5.5 hp
d. None of the above
Rice Milling

60. In a tray-type paddy separator, ___ 66. The husk aspirator is located after
moves upward of the tray. the ___.
a. brown rice a. precleaner
b. rough rice b. huller
c. milled rice c. paddy separator
d. All of the above d. whitener
e. polisher
61. In a try-type paddy separator, ___ f. None of the above
moves downward of the tray.
a. brown rice 67. Typically, the husk from the multiple-
b. rough Rice pass rice mill is collected at ___.
c. milled rice a. silo
d. None of the above b. bin
c. bag house
62. In a compartment-type paddy d. None of the above
separator, ___ moves downward of the 68. Milling recovery of the multiple-pass
compartment. rice mill is ___ single-pass rice mill.
a. brown rice
a. lesser than
b. rough Rice b. higher than
c. milled rice c. the same with
d. None of the above d. None of the above
63. In a compartment type paddy 69. Brown rice milling machine ___.
separator, ___ moves upward of the a. requires a whitener
compartment. b. requires a polisher
a. brown rice c. does not require a whitener and a
b. rough Rice polisher
c. milled rice d. All of the above
d. None of the above
70. The compartment-type paddy
64. In a multiple-pass rice mill, rough rice separator separates paddy and brown
obtained from the separator directly goes rice through ___ of the compartment
to the ___. assembly.
a. whitener a. vibration
b. huller b. oscillation
c. polisher c. upward-forward motion
d. None of the above d. None of the above

71. The tray-type paddy separator

65. The more the paddy passes the separates brown rice from paddy
husker, the ___. through ___ of the trays.
a. higher is the milling recovery a. vibration
b. lesser is the milling recovery b. oscillation
c. same is the milling recovery
c. upward and forward motions
d. All of the above d. None of the above
Rice Milling

Hulling Coefficient Wholeness Coefficient

Ch = W br / W p Cw = W wbr / W br
where: where:
Ch - hulling coefficient, dec Cw - wholeness coefficient, dec
W br - weight of brown rice, g W wbr - weight of whole brown rice, g
W p - weight of paddy, g W br - weight of brown rice, g
Hulling Efficiency Percentage Brown Rice Recovery

ξh = Ch Cw %BRR = (W brr / W p ) x 100

where: where:
ξh - hulling efficiency, dec %BRR - percentage brown rice recovery, %
Ch - hulling coefficient, dec W brr - weight of brown rice, kg
Cw - wholeness coefficient, dec Wp - weight of paddy, kg
Percentage Broken Milled Rice Throughput Capacity

%BR = (W br / W mr) 100 Ct = 0.2 W p / To : brown rice

where: Ct = [W p MR]/To : milled rice
%BR - percentage broken rice, % where:
W br - weight of broken rice, kg
Ct - throughput capacity, kg/hr
W mr - weight of milled rice, kg W p - weigh t paddy input, kg
To - operating time, hr
MR - milling recovery, dec 0.60 to 0.69
Percentage Brewer ’s Rice Head Rice Recovery

%BrR = (W brr / W mr ) 100 %HR = (W hr / W mr ) 100

where: where:
%BrR - percentage brewer’s rice, % %HR - head rice recovery, %
W brr - weight of brewer’s rice, kg W hr - weight of head rice, kg
W mr - weight of milled rice, kg W mr - weight of milled rice
Milling Recovery Speed of Low Speed Rubber Roller

%MR = ( W mr / W p ) 100 Ns = Nh - [0.25 / Nh]

where: where:
% MR - milling recovery, % Ns - speed of slower rubber roller, rpm
W mr - weight of milled rice, % Nh - speed of faster rubber roller, rpm
Wp - weight of paddy, kg
Rice Milling

Number of Compartments for Paddy Number of Brake for Vertical-Abrasive

Separator Whitener

NC = Cb / 40 : long grain NB = [D / 100] : Germany

NC = Cb / 60 : short grain NB = [D / 100] : Italy
where: where:
NC - number of compartments NB - number of brakes, unit or pc
Cb - throughput capacity, kg brown rice per D - cone diameter, mm
hr
Rubber Roll Peripheral Velocity

Vp = 𝝅 D N / 60

Where:
Vp – rubber roll huller peripheral velocity,
m/s
D - diameter of rubber roll, m
N – speed of rubber roll, rpm
Rice Milling

Problem 1

A single-pass rice mill was tested for 30 min. and gave the following results: input
paddy, 1000 kg; milled rice produced, 650 kg; broken rice produced, 150 kg; and
weight of head rice, 200 kg. Compute the following: (a) Throughput capacity, (b) %
Milling recovery, (c) % Broken grains, and (d) % Head rice recovery.

Given:
Wp - 1000 kg
W mr - 650 kg
W hr - 200 kg
W br - 150 kg
Time - 30 min.

Required: Throughput capacity

% Milling Recovery
% Broken Grains
% Head Rice Recovery

Solution:

Throughput Capacity = Wp x MR / To
= 1000 kg x 0.65 / 30 min/60 min/hr
= 1300 kg milled rice per hr

% Milling recovery = W mr 100 / W p

= 650 kg x 100 / 1000 kg
= 65%

% Broken rice = Wbr 100 / Wmr

= 150 kg x 100 / 650 kg
= 23%

% Head rice recovery = Whr 100/Wmr

= 200 kg x 100 / 650 kg
= 31%
Rice Milling

Problem 2

Five tons of paddy milled in 6 hours produces 3950

kg of brown rice and 3250 kg of milled rice. What
is the milling recovery?

Given:
Wt of paddy - 5 tons
Milling time - 6 hrs
Wt of brown rice - 3950 kg
Wt of milled rice - 3250 kg

Required: Milling Recovery

Solution:

MR = Wt milled rice x 100 / wt of paddy

= 3250 kg x 100 / 5000 kg
= 0.65 x 100
= 65%

Problem 3

What is the hulling coefficient of the huller in

Problem 2?

Given:
Weight of brown rice - 3950 kg
Weight of paddy - 5000 kg

Required: Hulling Coefficient

Solution:

Coef. of hulling = Wt of brown rice/Wt of paddy

= 3950 kg / 5000 kg
= 0.79
Rice Milling

Problem 4

If the head rice recovery of the paddy in Problem 2

is equal to 85%, what is the amount of broken
grains?

Given:
Head rice recovery - 85%

Required: Weight of Milled Rice

Solution:

Wt. of Broken Grains = Wt mr (100 – HRR)

= 3250 (100 – 0.85)
= 487.5 kg

Problem 5

Still referring to Problem 2, what is the amount of

rice hull produced during milling?

Given:
Wt. of paddy - 5000 kg

Required: Weight of Rice Hull

Solution:

Wt. of RH = Wt. of paddy x 20%

= 5000 kg x 0.20
= 1000 kg
Rice Milling

Problem 6

A disk huller with 600-mm diameter will be installed as a return huller for a rice
milling plant. As an Agricultural Engineer, determine the diameter of the pulley
required for the huller. The motor for the huller will have 4-inches pulley diameter
and is expected to run at 1740 rpm.

Given:
Diameter of huller - 600 mm
Motor pulley - 4 in.
Motor speed - 1740 rpm
Required: Huller Pulley Diameter
Solution:
Huller rpm = (14 m/s ) (60 s/min) /[ 3.14 (0.6 m)]
= 445.8 rpm
Huller Pulley D = 4 in. (1740 rpm) / 445.8 rpm
= 15.6 in. use 16 in.

Problem 7

A rice milling plant is to be designed to run at

5tons-per-hour throughput rate. The design
milling recovery is 69% while the hulling
efficiency is 95%. How many compartments
are needed for the paddy separator of the rice
mill? Assume a 50-kg br/hr-comp.

Given:
Throughput capacity - 5 tph
Milling recovery - 69%
Hulling efficiency - 95%
Required: No. of Compartments
Solution:
C p = 5 tph / 0.69
= 7.25 tph of paddy
C br = 7.25 tph x 0.95
= 6.9 tph brown rice
No. of compartments = 6.9 tph x 1000 kg/ton
x 1 comp/50 kg-hr
= 138 compartments
Rice Milling

Problem 8

A rubber-roll husker was tested to determine

its performance. The husker ran for 2 hours
at a rate of 1000 kg of input paddy. The
weight of brown rice obtained after passing
the husker was 805 kg. The weight of whole
brown rice obtain per kg of sample was 900
grams. What is the hulling coefficient,
wholeness coefficient, and hulling efficiency
of the huller? What is the throughput
capacity of the husker, in kilogram per hour of
brown rice?

Given:
Weight of paddy - 1000 kg
Operating time - 2 hrs
Weight of brown rice - 805 kg
Weight of whole brown rice - 900 g per
kg of brown rice

Required:
Hulling Coefficient, Wholeness Coefficient,
Husking Efficiency, and Throughput Rate

Solution:

Hulling Coefficient = 805 kg/1000 kg

= 0.805

Wholeness Coefficient = (900 g brown rice

x 1kg/1000 g) x 805 kg brown rice /
805 kg brown rice
= 0.9

Hulling Efficiency = (0.805 x 0.90) x 100

= 72.45%

Throughput Capacity = 805 kg / 2 hrs

= 402.5 kg/hr
Corn Milling

1. The process of reducing corn kernel 6. A kind of shelled corn kernels in which
into grits, germ and pericarp with or the germ and pericarp have been
without conditioning. removed.
a. Dry milling a. Milled corn kernel
b. Hammer milling b. Degerminated corn kernel
c. Attrition milling c. Polished corn kernel
d. None of the above d. None of the above
2. The process of milling corn kernels by
7. The major product(s) produced during
subjecting them into size-reduction
corn wet-milling process.
processes after cleaning.
a. Condensed Corn Fermented
a. Dry-milling process
Extractive
b. Wet-milling process
b. Corn Germ Meal
c. Wet-and-dry-milling process
c. Corn Gluten Feed
d. None of the above
d. Corn Gluten Meal
3. The process of milling corn kernels by e. All of the above
soaking them first in chemicals before
subjecting them to a size-reduction 8. The product of corn wet-milling
equipment and other successive process that has high protein
processes. concentrate typically supplied at 60%
a. Dry-milling process protein, 2.5% fat and 1% fiber and is
b. Wet-milling process considered an excellent cattle feed.
c. Wet-and-dry-milling process a. Condensed Corn Fermented
d. None of the above Extractive
b. Corn Germ Meal
4. The process of rewetting dried corn c. Corn Gluten Feed
kernels to about 18 to 22% moisture d. Corn Gluten Meal
content and tempering them to make the e. All of the above
pericarp and the germ become more
pliable and easier to remove during 9. The product of corn wet-milling
degermination process. process that consists of 20% protein, 2%
a. Wet milling fat and 9.5% fiber and contains amino
b. Degermination process acid balance that makes it valuable in
c. Conditioning poultry and swine rations, also used as
d. None of the above carrier of liquid feed nutrients.
5. The machine used to remove germs a. Condensed Corn Fermented
and pericarp from the corn kernel. Extractive
a. Conditioner b. Corn Germ Meal
b. De-germinator c. Corn Gluten Feed
c. Corn mill d. Corn gluten Meal
d. None of the above e. All of the above
Corn Milling

10. The process of softening and 15. The main product in milling corn.
conditioning corn kernels for subsequent a. Corn grit # 10
milling and for preventing germination b. Corn grit # 12
and fermentation. c. Corn grit # 14
a. Cleaning d. Corn grit # 16
b. Steeping e. All of the above
c. Grinding
d. None of the above 16. The ratio of the weight of corn kernel
input to the total operating time.
11. In steeping process, corn kernel is a. Input capacity
soaked in water at a controlled b. Output capacity
temperature of ___ for 30 to 50 hours. c. Milling capacity
a. 35°C d. All of the above
b. 48°C 17. The ratio of the weight of corn grits
c. 64°C to the total weight of corn kernel input,
d. None of the above expressed in percent.
a. % input capacity
12. A chemical added to prevent bacterial
b. % main product recovery
growth and to reduce the bond between c. % milling recovery
the gluten and starch in corn kernels d. All of the above
during steeping process.
a. Sulphur dioxide (SO 2 ) 18. The minimum main product recovery
b. Sodium chloride (NaCl) requirement based on the performance
c. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) criteria for corn mill.
d. None of the above a. 44%
b. 54%
13. The major component of a corn mill c. 64 %
that reduces corn kernels into grits. d. None of the above
a. Burr mill
b. Hammer mill 19. The minimum by-product recovery
c. Steel-roller mill requirement based on the performance
d. All of the above criteria for corn mills.
a. 21 %
14. The milled corn kernel where the b. 31%
outer covering and germs have been c. 41%
removed and with particle size of not less d. None of the above
than 0.86 mm. 20. The process of grinding pellets into
a. Broken corn kernel
coarse granular form.
b. Cracked corn kernel a. Coarse pelleting
c. Corn grits b. Crumbling
d. None of the above c. Milling
d. None of the above
Corn Milling

21. Grinding feeds will basically ___. 25. The starch component of corn kernel.
a. make it attractive to the a. 11-23%
animals b. 4-8%
b. improve its digestability c. 2-4%
c. prolong its storage period d. 61-68%
d. None of the above e. 2-16%
f. None of the above
22. A medium protein ingredient
composed of bran and fibrous portions 26. The fiber component of corn kernel.
which is widely used in complete feeds for a. 11-23%
dairy and beef cattle, poultry, swine, and b. 4-8%
pet foods. c. 2-4%
a. Condensed Corn Fermented d. 61-68%
Extractive e. 2-16%
b. Corn Germ Meal f. None of the above
c. Corn Gluten Feed
27. The oil component of corn kernel.
d. Corn gluten Meal
f. All of the above a. 11-23%
b. 4-8%
c. 2-4%
23. The corn-step liquor, which is a high-
d. 61-68%
energy liquid feed ingredient, with protein
e. 2-16%
value of 25% on a 50% solid basis and also
a source of B-vitamins and mineral when f. None of the above
used as pellet fiber. 28. The shrinkage component of corn
a. Condensed Corn Fermented kernel.
Extractive a. 11-23%
b. Corn Germ Meal b. 4-8%
c. Corn Gluten Feed c. 2-4%
d. Corn gluten Meal d. 61-67%
f. All of the above e. 2-16%
f. None of the above
24. The protein/gluten component of corn
kernel. 29. The process of compressing mashed
a. 11-23% feeds with the use of live steam to
b. 4-8% produce small chunks or cylindrical
c. 2-4% feeds.
d. 61-68% a. Mixing
e. 2-16% b. Crumbling
f. None of the above c. Pelleting
d. All of the above
Coconut Processing

1. A screened food-grade product 6. The process of drying grated coconut

obtained after drying, expelling and/or meat, extracting oil and pulverizing meal.
extracting most of the oil or milk from a. Dry process
sound coconut meat. b. Wet process
a. Copra c. Wet and dry process
b. Virgin coconut oil d. None of the above
c. Coconut flour
d. All of the above 7. The advantage of dry process over
wet process is that it gives ___ oil
2. A coconut flour prepared from unpared recovery and 0.1% free fatty acid.
dehydrated and edible coconut kernel by a. low
pre-pressing and solvent extraction. b. medium
a. Whole full fat coconut flour c. high
b. Defatted coconut flour d. All of the above
c. Paring Flour
f. All of the above 8. A natural oil obtained from fresh
mature coconut by mechanical
3. The coconut flour prepared from the extraction.
paring or from the “testa” of the coconut. a. Coconut oil
a. Whole full-fat coconut flour b. Virgin coconut oil
b. Defatted coconut flour c. Copra
c. Paring Flour d. All of the above
f. All of the above
9. Virgin coconut oil can be obtained in
4. The coconut flour obtained from food- ___.
grade copra meal. a. dry process
a. Whole full-fat coconut flour b. wet process
b. Defatted coconut flour c. wet and dry processes
c. Paring Flour d. None of the above
f. All of the above
10. In virgin coconut-oil processing,
5. The process wherein the meat is allowing coconut milk to stay in a jar for
extracted with milk, residue is dried and at least ___ hours will cause the oil to
grinded to produce flour. separate and a layer of curd will appear
a. Dry process at the top of the jar.
b. Wet process a. 12
c. Wet and dry process b. 24
d. None of the above c. 36
d. All of the above
Coconut Processing

11. The coconut meat obtained after 17. The dark-brown color of coconut
extracting oil for granulated copra. sugar is basically the result of drying
a. Copra sugar crystals at ___ temperature.
b. Copra meal a. low
c. Copra meat b. medium
d. None of the above c. high
d. None of the above
12. Which of the following products is not
a by-product of coconut processing? 18. The collection time requirement for
a. Virgin coconut oil harvesting coconut sap for coco sugar
b. Desiccated coconut powder processing.
c. Coconut vinegar a. 4 to 5 hours
d. Nata de coco b. 6 to 9 hours
e. None of the above c. 10 to 14 hours
d. None of the above
13. A cellulosic white cream yellow
substance formed by the bacteria 19. The cooking temperature for
Xylinium on the surface of sugar-enriched coconut sap for sugar processing.
coconut water. a. 80°C
a. Cocosugar b. 90°C
b. Virgin coconut oil c. 100°C
c. Nata de coco d. All of the above
f. All of the above
20. Coconut sap brix requirement for
14. A by-product of drying finely particles coconut sugar.
of homogenized coconut milk mixed with a. 9.1 to 10.5
maltodextrins and other emulsifiers. b. 11.0 to 12.9
a. Desiccated coconut powder c. 13.0 to 14.5
b. Spray-dried coconut milk powder d. All of the above
c. Heated-air dried coconut powder
d. All of the above 21. An instrument used to measure the
sugar level of coconut sap.
15. Coconut sugar contains ___ sucrose a. Refractometer
than sugarcane. b. pH meter
a. the same amount of c. Glycimeter
b. lesser amount of d. All of the above
c. more amount of
d. None of the above 22. The recommended temperature for
drying coconut sugar.
16. Coconut sugar contains ___ of macro a. 40° to 50°C
and micro nutrients than sugar cane. b. 51° to 60°C
a. the same amount c. 65° to 70°C
b. more amount d. None of the above
c. less amount
d. None of the above
Coconut Processing

23. The recommended relative 29. The process in heating copra to

humidity in drying coconut sugar. facilitate the removal of oil during
a. 80 to 95% pressing.
b. 50 to 75% a. Drying
c. 35 to 45% b. Steaming
d. None of the above c. Conditioning
d. None of the above
24. An instrument used to reduce the
relative humidity of air in coconut sugar 30. One thousand nuts, at 800 grams
storage. per nut, will produce ___ of copra.
a. Pyschrometer a. 220 kg
b. Dehumidifier b. 320 kg
c. Hydrometer c. 420 kg
d. None of the above d. None of the above

25. Bioethanol from coconut can be

produced from ______.
a. Coconut water
b. Coconut milk
c. Coconut sap
d. None of the above

26. Nata de coco can be produced from

coconut ____.
a. Water
b. Sap
c. Milk
d. None of the above

27. Coco sugar can be produced from

coconut _____.
a. water
b. milk
c. sap
d. None of the above

28. Cocosugar is commercially produce

in the Philippines because it has
____ glycemic index.
a. low
b. medium
c. high
d. None of the above
Sugar Processing

1. The term that refers to cane tops, 6. The process involving introduction of
leaves, dead stalks of cane, and any other carbon dioxide gas into limed juice or
vegetable matters delivered with the syrup to remove color and non-sugar
cane. solids.
a. Mud press a. Color extraction
b. Bagacillo b. Carbonization
c. Trash c. Extraction
d. All of the above d. All of the above

2. In sugarcane processing, water at 43° 7. Sugar crystals formed after

to 48°C is applied into the sugarcane evaporation are separated from sugar
tables to ___ it before milling. honey using a ___, which rotates at a
a. cool and soften very high speed.
b. wash and remove dirt from a. rotary dryer
c. increase the moisture content of b. centrifuge
d. All of the above c. extractor
d. None of the above
3. The process of separating sugarcane 8. The process of separation of sugar
juice from the water vapor by heating in a crystals from dark syrup after crystalizing
vacuum container to produce raw and with the use of a high-speed rotating
white sugar. cylindrical basket.
a. Extraction a. Fugalling
b. Evaporation b. Filtering
c. Crystallization c. Clarifying
d. All of the above d. All of the above
e. None of the above
9. After separating sugar crystals from
4. The concentrated juice from the sugar honey, which of the following
evaporator. needs to undergo drying and cooling
a. Molasses processes?
b. Syrup a. Sugar crystal
c. Extracted juice b. Sugar honey
d. None of the above c. Sugar crystal and honey
d. None of the above
5. Insoluble solids in juice or in other
liquids which can only be removed by 10. Sticking together of two or more
mechanical means. crystals during centrifuging and drying
a. Suspended solids operations.
b. Sugar crystals a. Crystallization
c. Bagasse b. Agglomeration
d. All of the above c. Coagulation
d. All of the above
Sugar Processing

11. The process of heating the juice and 16. Sugarcane passes through a series of
adding lime after passing the milling v-stripped roller mills to ___.
rollers to form coagulants from impurities a. soften the cane before subjecting it
and then allowed to settle in a large tank. for extraction process
a. Filtration b. extract juices
b. Clarification c. chop it into pieces before extracting
c. Extraction the juice
d. None of the above d. All of the above

12. The apparatus used for the separation 17. The by-product of sugarcane
of suspended-solid sediments from turbid- processing.
sugar solutions. a. Bagasse
a. Centrifuge b. Molasses
b. Clarifier c. Filter cake
c. Extractor d. All of the above
d. None of the above
18. The by-product from sugarcane juice
13. In sugarcane processing, clarifiers are extraction and is usually used as fuel for
used primarily to ___. the boiler of the sugar mill.
a. reduce odor of sugarcane juice a. Molasses
b. separate out suspended particles in b. Bagasse
sugarcane juice c. Filter cake
c. ensure that white sugar can be d. All of the above
produced during the process
d. None of the above 19. The fine fraction of bagasse obtained
by screening or by pneumatic separation
14. The process after clarification of sugar generally used as a filter aid in filtration.
juices before subjecting them to a. Mud press
evaporation. b. Bagacillo
a. Coagulation c. Trash
b. Extraction d. None of the above
c. Filtration
d. None of the above 20. The measure of dissolved solids in
sugar liquor or syrup using refractometer
15. Machines used in braking and also known as the “percentage sugar by
removing fibers from the steam cells of mass”.
the sugarcane. a. Glycemic index
a. Chippers b. Brix
b. Oscillating mincers c. Brix index
c. Fiber removers d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Sugar Processing

21. The mother liquor separated from 26. The brown sugar produced from a
crystals by centrifuging. sugar mill and is generally destined for
a. Sugar honey further processing to white sugar in a
b. Molasses refinery.
c. Syrup a. Molasses
d. All of the above b. Raw sugar
e. None of the above c. White sugar
d. None of the above
22. The type of molasses used as food
syrup and blended with other syrups. 27. Materials used for further refinement
a. Edible molasses of white or raw sugar.
b. Blackstrap molasses a. Activated charcoal and diatomaceous
c. Organic molasses earth
d. None of the above b. Bleaching solution, such as chlorine
c. Solution of caustic soda
23. The type of molasses used primarily as d. All of the above
animal feed and is also used to produce
ethanol, compressed yeast, citric acid, and 28. The treatment of raw sugar to
rum. remove the film of adhering molasses.
a. Edible molasses a. Clarification
b. Blackstrap molasses b. Extraction
c. Organic molasses c. Affination
d. None of the above d. None of the above

24. The residue derived from cane milling 29. The moisture content requirement
after extraction of juice. for raw sugar before storage and
a. Molasses packaging.
b. Bagasse a. 20%
c. Filter cake b. 2.0%
d. All of the above c. 0.2%
d. None of the above
25. The material retained on the filter
screen and is discharged from the filters 30. White and refined white sugars are
after filtering clarifier muds. packed in standard sizes which is ___,
a. Filter Scum respectively.
b. Filter Sediments a. 50 and 46 kg
c. Filter cake b. 60 and 40 kg
d. None of the above c. 60 and 50 kg
d. All of the above
Sugar Processing

31. The storage moisture content 37. Raw sugar that undergoes a process
requirement for white sugar. that removes all impurities and the
a. 3.0% surrounding plant matters in sugar
b. 0.3% leaving only the pure sucrose.
c. 0.03% a. Brown sugar
d. None of the above b. Cane sugar
c. Refined sugar
32. Water is sprayed during the pressing d. All of the above
of chopped sugar cane that passes
through the series of v-ribbed rollers 38. The facility where the raw sugar is
purposely to ___. separated from the plant and is shipped
a. clean the sugar cane being pressed to refinery.
b. cool the bagasse leaving the rollers a. Sugar farm
c. improve the efficiency of rollers in b. Sugar mill
extracting the juices. c. Sugar refinery
d. None of the above d. All of the above
33. Cane tops and leaves of sugar cane left
in the field which commonly burns by 39. Which of the following is not a
farmers. process in producing cane sugar from
a. Sugar cane trash sugar cane stalks.
b. Sugar bagasse a. Washing of stalks
c. Sugar waste b. Cutting or shredding of stalks
d. None of the above c. Pressing to produce juice
d. Clarifying to separate wax, fats, and
34. When sugarcane is cut during gums from sugar
harvesting, it undergoes ___. e. Concentrating to produce brown
a. slow deterioration syrup through evaporation
b. rapid deterioration f. Crystalizing by removing further the
c. nothing water to form crystals of sugar
d. All of the above g. All of the above
h. Two of the above
35. Sugarcane is harvested for the i. Four of the above
production of ____. j. None of the above
a. cane sugar
b. planting materials 40. The materials used during
c. All of the above clarification process of sugar cane juice
d. None of the above to remove non-sugar plant materials.
36. Unrefined or brown sugar. a. Lime
a. Sugar cane b. Carbon dioxide
b. Cane sugar c. Lime and carbon dioxide
c. Refined Sugar d. None of the above
d. All of the above
Sugar Processing

41. In order to protect the brown 46. The machine used in breaking cane
sugar to caramelize during of sugar.
concentration process, the a. Revolving knives
evaporating pan must be designed to b. Shredder
operate under ___. c. Crusher
a. pressurized condition d. All of the above
b. normal atmospheric condition e. Two of the above
c. vacuum condition
d. None of the above 47. The machine used in grinding or
milling of crushed cane sugar.
42. A thick raw syrup from a mill a. Rollers ( 3 to 6 sets)
containing, sugar, water, plant b. Hammer mill ( 2 sets)
material, mineral, and other non- c. Attrition mill ( 3 sets)
sugars. d. All of the above
a. Sugar cane juice
b. Sugar cane sap 48. The form of teeth used in grinding
c. Sugar cane molasses rollers of sugar mills.
d. None of the above a. Serrated
b. Peg
43. Raw sugar basically contains ___ c. V-ribbed
sucrose. d. All of the above
a. 80 to 86%
b. 87 to 94% 49. The process in which water or juice is
c. 96 to 98 % applied in crushed cane during grinding
d. None of the above or milling to enhance extraction of juice.
a. Juice extraction
44. An inedible molasses which is used b. Juice extrusion
primarily as an animal feed additive or c. Imbibition
processed to produce ethanol, citric d. None of the above
acid, and rum.
a. Blackstrap juice 50. The product after the cane sugar
b. Blackstrap molasses passes the rollers.
c. Black syrup a. Bagasse
d. None of the above b. Juice
c. Molasses
45. Molasses produced during d. All of the above
processing which are blended to other
syrups for human consumption. 51. The by-product after the cane sugar
a. Edible molasses passes the rollers.
b. Inedible molasses a. Bagasse
c. Nutritional molasses b. Juice
d. All of the above c. Molasses
d. None of the above
Sugar Processing

52. Typical rpm of rollers used in 56. Number of rollers in one roller set in
pressing sugar cane to extract sugar mill?
juices. a. 1 roller
a. 4.0 to 6.5 rpm b. 2 rollers
b. 9.5 to 15.0 rpm c. 3 rollers
c. 15.5 to 20.0 rpm d. None of the above
d. None of the above
57. Which of the following is true in
53. Which of the following roller cane juice extractor in sugar
statement is true? processing plants?
a. All roller sets have the same a. All rollers have the same rpm.
adjustment clearance. b. All roller have varying rpm.
b. The roller sets have a varying c. All rollers have no rpm.
adjustment clearance. d. None of the above
c. All the roller sets have no
clearances. 58. Choking of rollers are often
d. None of the above encountered during sugar milling for the
reason that _____.
53. Roller adjustment clearance for a. difficulty of pressing sugar cane
the 1 st roller set in 3-roller sets in during operation
sugar mills. b. rollers are sometimes over feed with
a. 20 mm cane from the other rollers.
b. 9 mm c. sliding of cane within the rollers in a
c. 3 mm roller set.
d. None of the above d. None of the above

54. Roller adjustment clearance for 59. To minimize or eliminate the choking
the 2 nd roller set in 3-roller set of rollers during operation in sugar mills,
sugar mill. as Agricultural Engineer what would you
a. 20 mm recommend.
b. 9 mm a. Only load soft cane in the rollers
c. 3 mm b. Increase the speed of rollers
d. None of the above c. Install frequency inverter to
individually control the speed of each
55. Roller adjustment clearance for rollers
the 3 rd roller set in 3-roller set d. None of the above
sugar mill.
a. 20 mm 60. Water is sprayed into the cane during
b. 9 mm roller pressing to ___________.
c. 3 mm a. clean the pressed cane
d. None of the above b. soften the press cane
c. enhance maceration of pressed cane
to improve the juice extraction efficiency
of the rollers
d. None of the above
Food Process Engineering

1. The prevention or protection of 6. A drying technology that has the

products against spoilage. ability to maintain the original
a. Preservation appearance of the product with no
b. Drying shrinkage, retain shape and structure.
c. Dehydration a. Heated air drying
d. None of the above b. Conduction drying
c. Freeze drying
2. The process of subjecting food d. All of the above
products to a temperature of about 65°C
for 30 min causing the death of many, but 7. A type of dryer commonly used in
not all, of the organisms present. food industry where dried materials are
a. Dehydration injected into it in an automized form to
b. Sterilization produce powdered product.
c. Pasteurization a. Spray dryer
d. None of the above b. Drum dryer
c. Pneumatic dryer
3. The process of preservation by means d. All of the above
of heating the product at a temperature
8. The process of preserving food
below 100°C to kill pathogenic bacteria.
materials in a hermetically-sealed
a. Drying
container which has been sterilized using
b. Dehydration
heat.
c. Pasteurization
a. Drying
d. All of the above
b. Canning
c. Steaming
4. The commonly used methods for
d. None of the above
pasteurizing foods.
a. Freezing and oven drying 9. The process used in canning in which
b. Steaming and Blanching there is a rigid regulation on the cooking
c. Boiling and drying temperature in such a manner that
d. All of the above packages are not misshapen or broken
e. None of the above by too rapid cooling.
a. Tempering
5. Pasteurizing is recommended for foods b. Freezing
that had been contaminated or used as c. Refrigeration
second treatment for vegetables held in d. None of the above
storage if the vegetables do not have any
mold on them ___. 10. The canning temperature for fruits,
a. before drying tomatoes and pickles in a water bath
b. before and during storage canner.
c. after storage a. 115°C
d. All of the above b. 100°C
e. None of the above c. 74°C
d. None of the above
Food Process Engineering

11. The canning temperature for low-acid 16. The process of heating vegetables in
vegetables, meat and poultry in a pressure steam or in boiling water to inactivate
canner. enzymes and to reduce microbial
a. 115°C population thereby prolonging storage at
b. 100°C subfreezing temperature.
c. 74°C a. Dehydration
d. None of the above b. Blanching
c. Drying
12. The process often used in heating cans d. None of the above
and their content under vacuum condition
to remove air and other entrapped gases 17. The process of hanging meat at a
before sealing. temperature between 0° to 3°C to create
a. Exhausting tenderizing effect before freezing.
b. Sterilizing a. Aging
c. Heating b. Freezing
d. All of the above c. Tempering
d. None of the above
13. The process of pumping the product
against a steel plate through a very small 18. The process applied in the
opening of 0.0001 diameter at a pressure manufacture of chocolates and other
of about 3500 psi to reduce the size of fat similar products producing a very marked
globules such as those in milk, effect on the products’ appearance and
mayonnaise, and others to a point that flavor through the elimination of
fats have no tendency to rise. moisture, harshness and acidity.
a. Homogenizing a. Conching
b. Conching b. Roasting
c. Pressing c. Frying
d. None of the above d. None of the above

19. The process of segregating alcohol,

14. The process usually applied to nuts
sugar and some soluble materials with
and beans of various sorts in order to
the use of water.
bring about the desired flavor.
a. Leaching
a. Drying
b. Hydrolysis
b. Blanching
c. Water adsorption
c. Roasting
d. None of the above
d. Pasteurization
e. None of the above 20. The process of boiling whole fruits
or pieces of fruit pulp with sugar to a
15. The roasting temperature for pumpkin moderate-thick consistency, without
seeds, sunflower seeds, and peanuts. retaining the shape of the fruit.
a. 200° - 250°F a. Jams
b. 250° - 300°F b. Jellies
c. 300° - 350°F c. Marmalades
d. None of the above d. All of the above
Food Process Engineering

21. The complete destruction of all forms 27. The process of removing solid
of life in the product being processed. particles from a liquid such as wine, fruit
a. Cooking juices, vinegar, and vegetable oil.
b. Sterilization a. Screening
c. Pasteurization b. Filtration
d. None of the above c. Leaching
d. None of the above
22. The termination of the entire
organisms in the product using heat at a
28. The process used in many food
temperature of about 50° to 100°C.
a. Pasteurization products by giving deaeration treatment
to improve the color and flavor, to retain
b. Heat sterilization
the aroma, and to reduce the volume of
c. Dehydration
the product.
d. None of the above
a. Degassing
23. The process of heating the product to b. Blending
nearly boiling point achieving stability of c. Exhausting
the food product against spoilage due to d. All of the above
microorganism.
a. Cooking 29. The use of rotating or exchanging
b. Sterilization trays in a dehydrator is recommended
c. Pasteurization when drying fruits and vegetables ___.
d. None of the above a. to reduce drying time
b. to increase efficiency of the
24. The cooking temperature that
dryer
destroys most bacteria in foods.
a. 115°C c. to promote even drying of product
d. None of the above
b. 100°C
c. 74°C
30. The formation of a “case” like a
d. None of the above
leathery material outside of a very high-
25. An equipment either in the form of sugar food, such as fruit, which doesn’t
sheets, rods or other shapes used in food allow water to pass through during
industry for feeding solid/liquid mixture drying is a factor of ___.
into a screw press or wringers. a. slow drying
a. Extruder b. rapid drying
b. Screw press c. normal drying
c. Screw feeder d. None of the above
d. All of the above
31. Brown spots on dried vegetables are
26. The recommended storage time for
caused by ___.
dried foods.
a. 2 – 4 months a. too-high drying temperature used
b. low drying temperature used
b. 4 – 12 months
c. optimum drying temperature used
c. 12 – 24 months
d. None of the above
d. All of the above
Food Process Engineering

32. The recommended temperature for 38. Pretreatment of fruits and vegetables
drying vegetables. are recommended to ___.
a. 125°F a. stop enzymatic activity which
b. 150°F results in color, flavor and
c. 175°F nutrient losses or changes
d. 200°F b. stop ripening and spoilage
e. All of the above c. hasten drying rate and improve
storability of the product
33. The pre-drying temperature
d. None of the above
requirement for mushroom.
a. 80-90°F 39. Conditioning dried fruits after drying
b. 120-125°F is basically done to ___.
c. 250-300°F a. allow the moisture to equalize
d. None of the above throughout the entire fruit so there will
e. All of the above be no damp spots where
molds may grow
34. The drying time requirement for solid
b. increase the quality of dried fruit
yellow or slightly brown-flecked bananas
in a dehydrator. prior to packaging
c. improve the color and taste of the
a. 4 - 8 hours
fruit
b. 8 - 10 hours
d. None of the above
c. 10 - 16 hours
d. All of the above 40. Which of the following statements is
true?
35. A pretreatment method used for
a. Different foods requiring similar
vegetables to destroy enzymes that can
cause undesirable changes in color and drying times and temperature
can be dried together.
flavor during drying and storage.
b. Vegetables with strong odor or
a. Cleaning
flavor should be dried separately.
b. Blanching
c. Don’t dry strong-smelling
c. Drying
d. None of the above vegetables in an electric
dehydrator because dehydrators
36. Another term used for citric acid. are not screened and insect may
a. Table salt invade the food.
b. Lemon salt d. All of the above
c. Acid salt e. None of the above
d. All of the above
41. A pretreatment procedure to keep
37. An example of chemicals used as the color and the quality of vegetables
sulfite dip. before drying.
a. Sodium bisulfite a. Trimming
b. Sodium sulfite b. Blanching
c. Sodium metabisulfite c. Salting
d. None of the above d. None of the above
e. All of the above
Food Process Engineering

42. A pretreatment method for fruits and 48. An example of Non-Newtonian fluid
vegetables to retard spoilage and with high viscosity.
darkening of skins. a. Juices
a. Blanching b. Drinks
b. Sulfuring c. Mashed vegetables
c. Sterilizing d. All of the above
d. All of the above
49. A product prepared by extracting the
43. Sulfured foods are recommended for juice from boiled fruits, and then boiled
storage using ___. with sugar and cooked to such
a. metal-can container consistency that gelatinize when cooled.
b. plastic container a. Jam
c. bottle-with-can-cover container b. Jellies
d. All of the above c. Marmalade
d. All of the above
44. Sulfur treatment on fruits and
vegetables can be replaced by ___. 50. A clear jelly which contains evenly
a. sulfite dips suspended slices of fruits or peel.
b. steam blanching a. Jam
c. water blanching b. Jellies
d. All of the above c. Marmalades
e. None of the above d. All of the above

45. An indicator of food quality which 51. These are fruit rolls characterized by
determines its acceptability to the tasty chewy dried fruit made by pouring
consumers. pursed fruit into a flat surface for drying.
a. Taste a. Fruit rolls
b. Flavor b. Dried fruit
c. Palatability c. Fruit leathers
d. None of the above d. All of the above
52. The process of decomposition of
46. The machine used for mixing solids
carbohydrates by microorganism or
and liquids at a ratio that forms a very
enzyme.
viscous mixture, like pastes and doughs.
a. Fermentation
a. Kneader
b. Roller b. Spoilage
c. Preservation
c. Mixer
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
53. Preservation of food in brine or in
47. An example of Newtonian fluid with vinegar, with or without bacterial
low viscosity. fermentation.
a. Soup a. Pickling
b. Chocolate
b. Salting
c. Juices c. Blanching
d. All of the above d. None of the above
Food Process Engineering

54. Substances that modify surface 59. Factors that change during cold
tension in the component phase of an storage of fish due to oxidation of fish
emulsion to establish a uniform oils and pigments, particularly in more
dispersion. fatty fish species.
a. Additives a. Color and flavor
b. Antioxidants b. Color and texture
c. Emulsifiers c. Flavor and texture
d. None of the above d. All of the above

55. Substances used to preserve food by 60. Chilling injury of banana occurs at a
retarding deterioration, rancidity or temperature ___.
discoloration due to oxidation. a. below 27°C
a. Additives b. below 14°C
b. Antioxidants c. below 5°C
c. Emulsifiers d. None of the above
d. None of the above
61. The lowest temperature that is safe
56. Any substance, including food for storing banana is ___.
additive, used as a component in the a. 14°C
manufacture or preparation of food and is b. 5°C
present in the final product. c. 0°C
a. Nutrient d. All of the above
b. Microelement
c. Ingredient 62. The most favorable cold storage
d. None of the above temperature for eggs.
a. 29° – 30°C
57. Any tag, brand, mark, pictorial, or b. 29° – 30°F
other descriptive matter written, printed, c. 28°F
marked, embossed or impressed on, or d. None of the above
attached to a container of food.
a. Nutrition facts 63. The freezing temperature for eggs.
b. Label a. 29° – 30°C
c. Trademark b. 29° – 30°F
d. None of the above c. 28°F
d. None of the above
58. The aseptic practice in the
preparation, processing and packaging of 64. The term used for internal organs of
food products. poultry suitable for cold storage.
a. Cleaning a. Carcass
b. Sanitation b. Giblets
c. Housekeeping c. Gills
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Food Process Engineering

65. The method used in preserving meat. 71. Tenderness of poultry meat can be
a. Smoking process maintained during cold storage by ___.
b. Refrigeration a. storing it in aluminum foil
c. Freeze drying b. storing it in plastic net
d. Irradiation c. storing it unpacked
e. All of the above d. All of the above

66. The flesh obtained from domesticated 72. Frozen poultry products are only good
animals. for a period of ___.
a. Carcass a. 1 to 6 months
b. Meat b. 6 to 12 months
c. Giblets c. 1 to 2 years
d. None of the above d. All of the above
73. If a poultry product is stored at a
67. The meat from rabbit. temperature between 35°- 40°F, the
a. Lapan product quality can be maintained within
b. Venison ___.
c. Chevon a. 1 to 2 months
d. None of the above b. 1 to 2 days
c. 1 to 2 hours
68. The meat of sheep that is less than d. None of the above
one year old.
a. Lamb 74. Which of the following statements is
b. Mutton true?
c. Chevon a. When beef is stored at a lower
d. None of the above temperature, it will have longer
storage life than when it is stored at
69. The meat of a less-than-one-year old higher temperature.
cattle. b. Storing beef at lower
a. Beef temperature will shorten its storage
b. Veal life.
c. Carabeef c. Storing beef at higher
d. All of the above temperature will prolong its storage
life.
70. In order to minimize darkening of d. All of the above
carcass of poultry meat, it is
75. Which of the following material is
recommended that before cold storage
used for packaging frozen poultry
poultry meat should be ___.
products?
a. slowly be frozen and undergo
a. Plastic
scalding process
b. Edible coating
b. frozen rapidly
c. Aluminum foil
c. undergo scalding process
d. Waxed cardboard
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
Food Process Engineering

76. Myoglobin content in meat is 80. The material used in packaging

responsible for ___. frozen products.
a. odor of meat after cold storage a. Plastic bags
b. appearance of meat b. Wax cardboard boxes
c. color of meat c. Aluminum foil
d. All of the above d. Edible coatings
e. Two of the above e. All of the above
f. None of the above f. Two of the above

77. Changes in the flavor of meat, fish 81. The material used in canning food
or poultry during freezing is due to the products.
___. a. Galvanized iron sheet no. 28
a. change in temperature of the b. Tin can
product c. Enameled electrotin plate
b. microorganisms that were d. None of the above
killed during storage 82. Which of the following statements is
c. oxidation of fats true in canning food products?
d. None of the above a. Empty cans should be protected from
dampness and steam and should be kept
78. Which of the following statements as clean as possible during storage.
is true in cold storage of meat? b. The can handling methods should be
a. Extreme temperature fluctuation designed to prevent scratching or
during defrosting contributes to denting during operation.
shorter storage life of the meat. c. Prior to filling the cans, they should be
b. Freezing meat and its subsequent spray washed with a relatively large
frozen storage improve the quality of volume of water at a minimum
meat products. temperature of 180°F.
c. Proper handling of meat prior to d. All of the above
freezing reduces the quality of frozen e. Two of the above
products.
d. None of the above 83. The process in applying the can with
detergent spray after closure to remove
79. A frozen product made from grease and bits of adhering products.
pasteurized mixture of sugar, solid a. Can cleaning
milk, stabilizer, food acid, and b. Filled can washing
flavorings such as fruits, fruit juices or c. Can sterilizing
extracts, and water. d. None of the above
a. Ice cream
b. Sherbet 84. Which of the following equipment is
c. Frozen milk used in canning?
d. All of the above a. Steam jacketed kettle
b. Weighing scale
c. Hoist and track work
d. All of the above
Food Process Engineering

85. The process of quick freezing of 88. A process which helps to preserve
products and then placing it in a meat products against oxidation and
chamber under a vacuum condition and growth of bacteria by providing
then raising the temperature so that the protective film on the product’s surface
material is kept near the triple point of by slow burning of wood.
water during dehydration. a. Oil coating
a. Vacuum drying b. Wet drying
b. Spray drying c. Smoking
c. Freeze drying d. None of the above
d. All of the above
89. The compound produced during
86. The ___ point of water is the smoking which serves as an active
theoretical condition where the antioxidant substance.
temperature and pressure of water can a. Phenol
exist as solid, liquid, and gas. At this b. Formaldehyde
point, minimum of amount of energy is c. Hydrocarbon
needed in removing the moisture from d. All of the above
solid to gas.
a. adiabatic 90. A principal bacterial agent that serves
b. isothermal as anti bacterial during smoking of meat
c. triple products.
d. None of the above a. Phenol
b. Formaldehyde
87. Which of the following is an c. Hydrocarbon
advantage of freeze drying? d. All of the above
a. Minimum change in the labile
constituents of the product due to low 91. The largest size of eggs.
temperature used during drying. a. Extra large
b. Small loss in volatile compound b. Double extra large
resulting to retained flavor during c. Jumbo
rehydration. d. All of the above
c. No foaming occurs in the product
during drying. 92. The smallest size of eggs.
d. Retains original structure of the a. Extra small
product. b. Double extra small
e. Coagulation is reduced to minimum. c. Pewee
f. No case hardening occurs in the d. None of the above
product being dried.
g. Retards bacterial growth and enzyme
change
h. Little oxygen is present in the
product.
i. All of the above
j. Five of the above
Feed Milling

1. The process of converting agricultural 6. The process of making feeds into

materials into suitable kind of feeds for acceptable solid particles so nutrients is
animal use. properly distributed.
a. Feed milling a. Mixing
b. Food processing b. Pelleting
c. Feed preservation c. Grinding
d. None of the above d. None of the above

2. The process in feed milling operation in 7. Pelleting of feeds in the feed milling
order to obtain the desired formulation plant is done after ___.
that includes such operation as weighing a. cleaning
and volumetric dosing of feed materials. b. grinding
a. Milling and flaking c. mixing
b. Blending and mixing d. None of the above
c. Weighing and bagging
d. None of the above 8. The steam is used in feed milling plant
during ___ process.
3. Which of the following grain processing a. bending
methods is a dry process? b. mixing
a. Grinding c. grinding
b. Pelleting d. pelleting
c. Extruding e. None of the above
d. Popping 9. The process of preparing raw
e. All of the above materials for mixing and making them
digestible to the animals.
4. The assembling and measuring of the a. Blending
required quantities of raw materials into b. Grinding
batch of desired operation. c. Pelleting
a. Mixing d. None of the above
b. Blending
c. Grinding 10. The most commonly used grinding
d. None of the above equipment in feed milling plants.
a. Roller mill
5. The process of obtaining a b. Attrition mill
homogenous mixture of feeds so that c. Hammer mill
animal can be offered with different d. None of the above
nutrients in the desired proportion.
a. Mixing 11. The mixing time of vertical mixer.
b. Blending a. 15 to 30 min
c. Grinding b. 30 to 60 min
d. None of the above c. 60 to 120 min
d. None of the above
Feed Milling

12. Any substance or product including 16. Cleaning and drying of feed materials
additives, whether processed, partially are done in the milling plant after ___.
processed or unprocessed, intended for a. grinding the feed material
oral feeding to animals. b. pelleting the feed material
a. Food c. reception of raw material
b. Feed d. None of the above
c. Feed materials
d. None of the above 17. The principal liquid ingredient in feed
milling plant.
13. Which of the following is not a feed a. Water
ingredient? b. Molasses
a. Corn bran c. Coconut oil
b. Blood meal d. None of the above
c. Cassava meal
d. Fish meal 18. Which of the following is not a
e. Brown sugar mineral supplement in the production of
f. None of the above feeds?
a. Calcium phosphate
14. Which of the following grain b. Oyster shell
processing methods is a wet process? c. Steamed bone meal
a. Soaking d. Limestone
b. Steam flaking e. All of the above
c. Exploding f. None of the above
d. All of the above
19. Quality control in feed milling plant is
15. This refers to various products from basically done ___.
vegetable or animal origin in their natural a. at the receiving center
state, fresh or preserved, products derived b. after pelleting process
from industrial processing, and organic or c. both at the receiving center and after
inorganic substances, whether or not pelleting process
containing additives, which are intended d. None of the above
for oral animal feeding either directly as
such or after processing, in the 20. Segregation of feed materials and
preparation of compound feeding stuff or ingredients is facilitated when there is
as carriers of premixtures. ___ variations on the specific density of
a. Feed materials to be mixed.
b. Feed material a. lower
c. Feedstock b. higher
d. None of the above c. lower and higher
d. None of the above
Feed Milling

21. Homogeneity of particles during 26. In feed milling plant, gravity

mixing can be better achieved for ___ conveyors for meal and light ingredients
materials. require a minimum slope of ___.
a. small-particle a. 26 degrees
b. large-particle b. 35 degrees
c. small and large c. 60 degrees
d. None of the above d. None of the above

22. The more uniform is the particle size 27. The conveyor used in feed milling
of materials, the ___ homogeneity is plants for distributing materials over
achieved. silos.
a. easier a. Belt conveyor
b. difficult b. Screw conveyor
c. harder c. Chain conveyor
d. None of the above d. None of the above

28. For the same size of a conveyor unit,

23. A mechanical feeding device that chain conveyors has ___ capacity over
controls the flow of feeds through the
screw conveyors.
amplitude of the vibration and by a. lower
regulating the thickness of the layer of b. higher
feeds with the use of a slide. c. the same
a. Rotating lock feeder d. None of the above
b. Feed rolls
c. Vibratory feeder 29. The typical speed requirement for
d. None of the above chain conveyor in a feed milling plant.
a. 10 to 20 m/min
24. A mechanical feeding device that b. 20 to 30 m/min
controls the flow of feeds through the c. 30 to 40 m/min
speed of rotation of the compartment d. None of the above
valve .
a. Rotating lock feeder 30. The usual storage period for mixed
b. Feed rolls feed.
c. Vibratory feeder a. 2 to 7 days
d. None of the above b. 8 to 15 days
c. 16 to 30 days
25. In feed milling plant, gravity conveyors d. None of the above
for dry grains require a minimum slope of 31. The standard size of pallet for 25-kg
___.
bag feeds.
a. 26 degrees a. 120 cm x 80 cm
b. 35 degrees b. 120 cm x 100 cm
c. 60 degrees c. 120 cm x 160 cm
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Feed Milling

32. The standard size of pallet for 50-kg 37. Which of the following are
bag feeds. compositions of feed nutrients?
a. 120 cm by 80 cm a. Carbohydrates
b. 120 cm by 100 cm b. Fats
c. 120 cm x 160 cm c. Proteins
d. None of the above d. Vitamins
e. Water
33. The approximate rpm of a batch-type f. All of the above
feed mixer. g. Three of the above
a. 25 rpm
b. 100 rpm 38. A system of approximating the value
c. 150 rpm of a feedstock or material for feeding
d. None of the above purposes without actually using the feed
in a feeding trial.
34. Vertical mixer has ___ mixing time a. Nutrient analysis
compared with batch mixer. b. Feed composition analysis
a. shorter c. Proximate analysis
b. longer d. All of the above
c. the same
d. None of the above 39. The proximate analysis of feedstuff is
composed of ___.
35. The power requirement of a vertical a. Water
mixer is ___ than that of the batch-type b. crude protein
feed mixer. c. crude fat or ether extract
a. lower d. crude fiber
b. higher e. nitrogen-free extract
c. the same with f. mineral matter or ash
d. None of the above g. All of the above
h. Three of the above
36. The important functions of feed i. Five of the above
nutrient is to serve ___.
a. as a structural material for building and 40. The process of passing the grains
maintaining the body structure of animals between a closely-fitted set of plain- or
b. as a source of energy for heat smooth-surface rollers to produce flat
production, work, and fat deposition shape feeds.
c. for regulating body processes or in the a. Rolling
formation of body produced regulators b. Flaking
d. All of the above c. Crimping
e. None of the above d. All of the above
Feed Milling

41. The process of passing the grains

between corrugated rollers instead of
smooth rollers.
a. Rolling
b. Flaking
c. Crimping
d. All of the above

42. Grains are basically processed to

produce ground materials in order to
provide ___ animals a suitable feed
nutrients they required.
a. very young
b. very old
c. full grown
d. All of the above
e. Two of the above
f. None of the above

43. Which of the following livestock

chew grains fairly thoroughly and don’t
need mechanically processed grains?
a. Calves 2-6 months of age
b. Sheep and lambs
c. Horses and mules
d. Fattening pigs
e. All of the above
f. Two of the above

44. The best size of ground grains for

animal feed.
a. Coarse grinding (cracked )
b. Medium grinding (coarse meal)
c. Fine grinding (dust and flour size)
d. All of the above

45. Which of the following is an

advantage of pelleting?
a. Less dusty
b. Reduces storage space requirement
c. More palatable
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Refrigeration & Cold Storage

11. The process of removing moisture 17. The introduction of fresh ambient
from the air. air to an air-conditioned or refrigerated
a. Dehydration space.
b. Air suction a. Cooling
c. Dehumidify b. Air changes
d. All of the above c. Air filtration
d. None of the above
12. To reduce the relative humidity of air,
it is recommended to use a ___. 18. A passage from the outside of a
a. humidifier leaky room caused by cracks in
b. dehumidifier windows, doors and other possible
c. psychrometer sources.
d. None of the above a. Heat loss
b. Air infiltration
13. A refrigeration appliance that c. Air gap
operates at higher temperature. d. None of the above
a. No-frost refrigerator
b. Air-conditioner 19. The air that flows through the gaps
c. Domestic freezer around doors, windows and others.
d. All of the above a. Air intake
b. Air changes
14. An equipment used to clean, cool, c. Infiltration
heat, humidify, or dehumidify air. d. None of the above
a. Air heat exchanger
b. Air conditioner 20. The intensity of the molecular
c. Air-cooled condenser movement of matter.
d. All of the above a. Energy
b. Heat
15. The process in which the air is c. Work
cooled, cleaned and circulated. d. All of the above
a. Air conditioner
b. Air conditioning 21. The measurement of the heat level
c. Air cooling and cleaning of a substance.
d. All of the above a. Thermometer
b. Temperature
16. An air-conditioning system in which c. Calorimeter
the condenser is located separately from d. All of the above
the evaporator and uses interconnecting
refrigerant lines. 22. The difference between the dry
a. Split-type air-conditioning system bulb and the wet bulb temperatures.
b. Package-equipment air-conditioning a. Wet bulb depression
system b. Relative humidity
c. All of the above c. Dew point temperature
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Refrigeration & Cold Storage

23. The instrument used to measure heat 29. One-hundred calories is equivalent to
is ___. ___.
a. thermometer a. 418.7 Joules
b. watt meter b. 481.7 Joules
c. calorimeter c. 471.8 Joules
d. None of the above d. None of the above

24. The temperature at which liquid is 30. One ton refrigeration is the amount
converted to solid state upon the removal of heat required to melt one ton of ice in
of its latent heat of fusion. ___.
a. Cooling point a. 12 hours
b. Solid point b. 24 minutes
c. Freezing point c. one day
d. None of the above d. None of the above

25. The heat moves from one substance 31. One ton refrigeration is equal to ___.
to another naturally ___. a. 288,000 BTU/day
a. from higher temperature to lower b. 12,000 BTU/hr
temperature c. 200 BTU/min
b. from lower temperature to higher d. All of the above
temperature
c. at either temperature 32. Which of the following statements is
d. None of the above true?
a. The freezing point of water is 0°F.
26. The quantity of heat in the substance b. The boiling point of water is 212°C.
is described in terms of ___. c. That 32°F and 0°C is the same
a. BTU temperature level.
b. calories d. None of the above
c. pascal
d. two of the above 33. At higher elevation, ___.
e. None of the above a. water will boil at 100°C
b. water will boil above 100°C
27. A substance is said to be cold if ___. c. water will boil below 100°C
a. heat is present d. water will not boil
b. heat is absent e. None of the above
c. heat is higher
d. All of the above 34. The amount of heat added to or
removed from a substance without
28. Ten BTU is equivalent to ___. changing its temperature.
a. 2520 calories a. Sensible heat
b. 2250 calories b. Latent heat
c. 2045 calories c. Specific heat
d. None of the above d. All of the above
Refrigeration & Cold Storage

35. The quantity of heat required to raise 41. The quantity of heat required to
the temperature of a substance one change a unit mass of solid to gas
degree scale. without change in temperature.
a. Sensible heat a. Latent heat of fusion
b. Specific heat b. Latent heat of vaporization
c. Latent heat c. Latent heat of sublimation
d. None of the above d. None of the above

36. The specific heat of water is ___. 42. The quantity of heat required to
a. 1 BTU/lb-°F change a unit mass of solid to liquid state
b. 1 kcal/kg-°C without change in temperature.
c. 1 cal/g-°C a. Latent heat of vaporization
d. All of the above b. Latent heat of fusion
c. Latent heat of sublimation
37. A dry ice is ___. d. All of the above
a. solid H2 O
b. solid CO 43. The latent heat of fusion of water is
c. solid CO 2 ___.
d. None of the above a. 336 kJ/kg
b. 144 BTU/lb
38. The heat added to or removed from a c. All of the above
substance causing a change in its state but d. None of the above
without changing its temperature.
a. Sensible heat 44. The amount of heat transmitted to a
b. Latent heat wall is a factor of ___.
c. Specific heat a. wall thickness
d. All of the above b. temperature difference
c. resistance of heat flow of the
39. The quantity of heat required to wall material
change a unit mass of gas to liquid state d. All of the above
without change in temperature.
a. Latent heat of vaporization 45. A material with high emissivity ___.
b. Latent heat of condensation a. will collect more heat
c. Latent heat of fusion b. will not collect heat
d. All of the above c. will transmit heat
d. None of the above
40. The quantity of heat required to
change a unit mass of a liquid into 46. Which of the following insulating
gaseous state without change in materials for a refrigeration system is
temperature. efficient and less expensive?
a. Latent heat of vaporization a. Asbestos
b. Latent heat of fusion b. Styrofoam
c. Latent heat condensation c. Aluminum foil
d. None of the above d. All of the above
Refrigeration & Cold Storage

47. An extruded foam used for low- 53. The condenser efficiency of an air
temperature systems such as conditioner can be increased by ___.
refrigeration, building and sub-zero a. reducing the condenser surface area
insulation. b. increasing the condenser surface
a. Polystyrene foam area
b. PVC foam c. increasing the amount of refrigerant
c. Plastic foam flowing in the condenser
d. All of the above d. None of the above

48. The basic use of insulating materials 54. A device used mostly in large cooling
for a refrigeration system is ___. units to cool the water that absorbs the
a. to retard heat flow heat from the condenser.
b. to prevent surface condensation a. Cold storage room
c. to control noise and vibration b. Cooling Tower
d. All of the above c. Heat Exchanger
d. None of the above
49. The basic part of a refrigeration
system which is characterized by high 55. The highest pressure in the
pressure side. refrigeration system is found at ___.
a. Condenser a. the capillary tube
b. Evaporator b. the entrance of the evaporator coil
c. Expansion valve c. the entrance of the condenser tube
d. All of the above d. the evaporator coil, immediately
before the compressor
50. In a domestic refrigerator, the e. None of the above
condenser can be found ___.
a. inside the refrigerator cabinet 56. Which of the following statements is
b. outside the refrigerator cabinet true?
c. beneath the freezer a. The motor and the compressor of a
d. None of the above refrigeration system is separately
installed.
51. When a condenser of a refrigeration b. The motor and the compressor of a
system is cooling, what is the common refrigeration system are housed in the
trouble? same compartment.
a. Too much refrigerant c. The compressor and the motor of a
b. Lacks refrigerant refrigeration system are non-hermetic
c. No refrigerant type.
d. None of the above d. None of the above
52. The component of a refrigeration 57. The cooling coil of a refrigeration
system positioned next to the condenser. system.
a. Capillary tube a. Condenser
b. Filter b. Evaporator
c. Compressor c. Compressor
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Refrigeration & Cold Storage

58. The removal of accumulated ice from 64. The part of a refrigeration system
the surface of cooling coils that operates that causes the refrigerant to circulate.
below freezing point. a. Condenser
a. Dehumidification b. Expansion valve
b. Defrosting c. Compressor
c. Ice melting d. None of the above
d. None of the above
65. A fluid that easily boils at lower
59. The component of a refrigeration temperature.
system found before the condenser.
a. Water
a. Filter b. Oil
b. Evaporator c. Refrigerant
c. Capillary tube d. All of the above
d. Compressor
e. None of the above
66. An example of a refrigerant.
60. The component of a refrigeration a. Ammonia
system located after the capillary tube. b. Carbon monoxide
a. Evaporator c. Methyl bromide
b. Compressor d. All of the above
c. Condenser
d. None of the above 67. The commonly used refrigerant in ice
plants.
61. The lowest temperature zone in a a. Ammonia
refrigeration system. b. Carbon dioxide
a. Condenser c. Methyl chloride
b. Capillary tube d. None of the above
c. Evaporator
d. None of the above 68. The primary refrigerant for air-
conditioning systems known as
62. The operating temperature of an
Monochlorodifluoro-methane.
evaporator in an air-conditioning system. a. R-11
a. 20°F b. R-12
b. 40°F c. R-22
c. 60°F d. None of the above
d. All of the above

63. The part of a refrigeration system that 69. The primary refrigerant for
causes the reduction of pressure of the refrigeration systems known as
refrigerant. Dichlorodifluoro-methane.
a. Evaporator a. R-11
b. Compressor b. R-12
c. Expansion valve c. R-22
d. All of the above d. None of the above
Refrigeration & Cold Storage

70. The popular refrigerant for low- 76. The charging pressure for refrigerator
temperature refrigeration systems which and for freezer using R-12 refrigerant.
is a mixture of Monochlorodifluoro- a. 19 psi
methane and R115. b. 65 psi
a. R-12 c. 75 psi
b. R-22 d. None of the above
c. R-502
d. None of the above 77. The charging pressure for air
conditioning unit using R-12 refrigerant.
71. A newly discovered refrigerant not
a. 19 - 45 psi
harmful to the ozone layer and also
b. 65 - 75 psi
known as “ozone-friendly gas.”
c. 80 - 90 psi
a. R12
d. None of the above
b. Ammonia
c. Suva Mp 52 (R-134a)
78. A term used to describe overcharging
d. All of the above
of refrigerant.
72. The state of the refrigerant at the a. Back frost
condenser side immediately after leaving b. Sweating
the compressor. c. Supercharging
a. Superheated gas d. None of the above
b. Lukewarm liquid
c. Saturated gas 79. Freezers in a refrigerator
d. None of the above compartment are normally found at the
upper section of the cabinet for the
73. The state of the refrigerant at the reason that ___.
evaporator side immediately before the a. it is easy to load a product
compressor. b. it is easy to install in the cabinet
a. Superheated gas c. heat will efficiently be
b. Lukewarm liquid distributed throughout the
c. Saturated gas refrigerator compartment
d. None of the above d. None of the above
74. The mixture of ½ vapor and ½ liquid.
80. Freezer-burn in meat products is a
a. Saturated gas
result of ___.
b. Saturated liquid
a. storing meat products in a freezer
c. Superheated gas
with plastic sheet to prevent moisture
d. None of the above
loss
75. The mixture of ½ liquid and ½ gas. b. storing meat products without
a. Saturated gas plastic sheet at high relative humidity
b. Saturated liquid c. storing meat products without
c. Superheated gas plastic sheet at low relative humidity
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Refrigeration & Cold Storage

81. A type of freezer that operates at - 86. The freezing point of milk.
30°F and below air temperature and at a. -0.545°C
500 to 100 fpm velocity. b. -0.545°F
a. Sharp freezer c. 0. 545°C
b. Air-blast freezer d. None of the above
c. Contact-plate freezer
d. None of the above 87. At –18°C, scallop meat has a frozen
storage life of ___.
82. A type of freezer used for fish a. 1 - 2 months
products in which the products are placed b. 3 - 6 months
in shelves or in aluminum pans or plates c. 7 - 12 months
covered by pipe coils or evaporators at a d. None of the above
temperature of –20° to - 29°C.
a. Sharp freezer 88. The use of plastic polyethylene sheet
b. Air-blast freezer as packaging material for cold storage is
c. Contact plate freezer ___.
d. None of the above a. to provide heat insulating effect
on the product
83. The method of freezing the surface of b. to make the product attractive
poultry meat using mist of liquid prior to to the customer
storage in an air-blast freezer or cold c. to prevent moisture loss in the
storage room. product
a. Liquid-immersion freezing d. None of the above
b. Liquid-spray freezing
c. Conveyor-tunnel freezing 89. Important factors in cold storage of
d. None of the above perishable products are ___.
84. The method of freezing shrimp in an a. energy and power requirement
agitated cold brine solution with fixed inside the storage room
concentration and temperature. b. temperature and heat loss in the
a. Blast freezing storage room
b. Immersion freezing c. humidity and air motion inside
c. Tunnel freezing the storage room
d. None of the above d. None of the above

85. When a product is termed as frozen, it 90. The recommended time for storing
is ___. beef cuts at –18°C is ___.
a. chilled and stored above freezing a. 6 to 12 months
point b. 3 to 4 months
b. stored between –10°F to 10°F c. 1 to 2 months
c. stored at 10°F to 50°F d. None of the above
d. All of the above
Refrigeration & Cold Storage

91. Ground beef can be safely stored at 96. The type of pump used in the
–18°C within a period of ___. compressor of a refrigerator.
a. 6 to 12 months a. Rotary
b. 3 to 4 months b. Reciprocating
c. 1 to 2 months c. Centrifugal
d. None of the above d. None of the above

92. ASHRAE is the acronym for ___. 97. The type of pump used extensively in
a. Association of Heat, Refrigeration, the compressor of an air conditioner.
and Air Conditioning Engineers a. Rotary
b. American Society of Heating, b. Reciprocating
Refrigerating, and Air Conditioning c. Centrifugal
Engineers d. None of the above
c. Association of Sensible Heating,
Refrigeration, and Air Cooling 98. The rated working pressure of
Engineers refrigeration compressor.
d. None of the above a. 110 psi
b. 360 psi
93. A large cabinet-type refrigeration unit c. 500 psi
consisting of two doors with compressor d. None of the above
up to 20 cubic feet at 1/3 horsepower.
a. Split-type refrigerator 99. A no-frost side-by-side refrigerator
b. Dual-door refrigerator basically operates with an/a ___ that
c. No frost size-by-side refrigerator circulates cool air to the other
d. All of the above compartment of the refrigerator cabinet.
a. axillary compressor
94. A device used in all types of b. forced pump
refrigerators installed close to the c. blower
evaporator outlet to trap all “flash gas” d. None of the above
or unboiled liquid not to directly enter
the compressor. 100. A device that stops the defrost
a. Expansion valve heater when the frost are all melted at a
b. Accumulator designated time of about 20 to 30
c. Chiller minutes, depending on the size of
d. None of the above evaporator coil.
a. Timer
95. Accumulator is used in refrigeration b. Thermostat
system so the ___ refrigerant will not c. Defrost terminator
enter and damage the compressor. d. All of the above
a. solid
b. liquid
c. gaseous
d. All of the above
Refrigeration & Cold Storage

Heat Gain on Walls Air Infiltration Load

Vr Hf AC
Qw = A Rt (To – Ti) Qai = ------------------
where: 86400
Qw - heat gain from walls, W where:
A - wall surface area, m2 Qai - air infiltration loss, W
Rt - thermal transmittance, W/m-°C Vr - room volume, m3
To - wall outside temperature, °C Hf - heat factor, J
Ti - wall inside temperature, ° C AC - air changes, KJ/m3
Product Load Heat of Respiration Load

Qp = W p Cp (Ti – Tf) / 86400 Qr = W p HRp / 86400

where: where:
Qp - product load, W Qr - heat of respiration load, W
W p - weight of the product, kg W p - weight of the product, kg
Cp - specific heat of the product, J/kg-°C HRp - product heat of respiration, J/kg-day
Ti - product initial temperature, °C
Tf - product final temperature, °C
Light Load Tons of Refrigeration

Ql = Lr TR = TL / 12,000
where: where:
Ql - light load, W TR - refrigeration capacity, tons of ref
Lr - lamp rating, W TL - total load, BTU/hr
Human Heat Load Latent Heat of Freezing

Qh = Nh HRh / 86400 Qlf = Mw LHF

where: where:
Qh - human heat load, W Qlf - latent heat of freezing water, KJ
Nh - number of human Mw - mass of water, kg
HRh - heat of respiration of human, LHF - latent heat of freezing, 336 KJ/kg
J/man-day
Refrigeration & Cold Storage

Problem 1

Compute the amount of heat needed to drop the

temperature of 100 cans of milk from 32°C to
25°C. Assume a specific weight of milk equal to
0.99 kg/liter. The specific heat of milk is 0.93
BTU/lb-°F.
Given:
No. of cans - 100
Volume per can - ¼ liter
Temp initial - 30°C
Temp final - 25°C
Cp =-0.93 BTU/lb-°F
Required:
Amount of Heat Needed
Solution:
Qs = (00.99kg/li x ¼ li x 100 cans)
x (0.93 BTU/lb-°F) (86°F – 79°F)
= 455.75 BTU

Problem 2

Compute the cooling load of a 150-kg

carabeef if it is to be cooled from 28°C to
-2.2 °C, after which it is frozen and
cooled to -20°C. The specific heat of
carabeef above and below freezing is 3.5
kJ/kg-°C and 1.75 kJ/kg-°C, respectively.
The freezing point is -2.2°C and the
latent heat of fusion is 250 kJ/kg.

Given:
m - 150 kg Solution:
Te - 28°C
Tf - -2.2°C Qt = m Cb (Te – Tf) + mh1 + m Ca (Tf – Ts)
Ts - -20°C = 150 kg (3.5 kJ/kg-°C) [28 - (-2.2)°C]
Cb - 3.5 kJ/kg-°C + 150 kg (250 kJ/kg) + 150 kg (1.75
Ca - 1.75 kJ/kg-°C kJ/kg-°C) [-2.2 – (-20)°C]
h1 - 250 kJ/kg = 58, 027.5 kJ
Required: Cooling Load (Qt)
Refrigeration & Cold Storage

Problem 3

One ton of poultry meat is put in a chiller

at 8°C and frozen to -18°C in 10 hours.
Compute the product load if the latent
heat is 235 kJ/kg and the freezing
temperature is -4°C. The specific heat of
poultry meat is 3.5 kJ/kg-°C above freezing
and 1.5 kJ/kg-°C below freezing.
Given:
Cb - 3.5 kJ/kg-°C
Ca - 1.5 kJ/kg-°C
Te - 8°C Solution:
Tf - -4°C
Ts - -18°C Qt = [m Cb (Te – Tf) + mh1 + m Ca (Tf – Ts)] / T
h1 - 235kJ/kg = 1000 kg (3.5 kJ/kg-°C) [8 - (-4)] + 1000 kg
m - 1 ton (= 1000 kg) (235 kJ/kg) + 1000 kg (1.5 kJ/kg-°C) [.-4 –
time - 10 hrs (-18)] / 10 hrs x 3600 sec/hr
= 278,000 kJ / 10 hrs x 3600 sec/hr
Required: Product Load (Qt) = 7.72 kJ/sec or 7.72 kW

Problem 4

How many units of 1-hp air conditioning

system is required to maintain the
temperature of a farm house at 27°C? The
floor dimension of the house is 10m-wide x
30m-long. The height of ceiling of the room
is 8 ft .
Given: Structure - Farm house
Dimension - 10-m W x 30-m L
Ceiling Height - 8 ft
Temperature - 27°C

Required: No. of Units of 1-hp air conditioner

Solution:
No. of Units = 10 m x 30 m / 20 m2 per 1-hp unit
= 5 units of 1-hp air conditioner
Refrigeration & Cold Storage

Problem 5

Determine the heat load of a proposed walk-in

cooler having 6-ft x 8-ft floor space and 7 ft
height. It is designed to have a 4-in cork
insulation (6.5 BTU/hr-ft2 ) on all surfaces and
an inside temperature of 35°F. The products to
be cooled are: cabbage, 100 lb/day (0.9
BTU/lb-°F) and fresh beef, 200 lbs/day (0.5
BTU/lb-°F). Assume the products are to be
cooled from 85° to 35°F in 24 hours.

Given:
Cooler Type - Walk-in
Floor Space - 6-ft x 8-ft
Height - 7 ft
Insulation - 4in.-thick cork
Heat insulating cap - 6.5 BTU/hr-ft2
Temp inside - 35°F
Product - 100-lb/day cabbage, 200-lbs fresh beef
Temp for cooling - 85°F to 35°F
Time of cooling - 24 hrs

Required: Heat Load

Solution:
Product Load:
0.9 x 100 x (85-35)/24 = 187 BTU/hr
0.75 x 200 x (85-35)/24 = 312 BTU/hr
Space Load:
6 x 8 + 6 x 7 x 2 + 8 x 7 x 2 + 6 x 8 = 292 ft2
Using 6.5 BTU/ft2 -hr
292 ft2 x 6.5 BTU/ ft2 -hr = 1,898 BTU/hr
Total Heat Load:
187 + 312 + 1,898 = 2,397 BTU/hr
Heat Transfer & Thermal Insulation

1. The form of energy that provides the 7. The transfer of heat from one part of
difference in temperature among a solid body to the other parts under the
molecular materials. influence of temperature gradient.
a. Heat a. Convection
b. Temperature b. Conduction
c. Thermal resistance c. Radiation
d. None of the above d. All of the above

2. Heat basically transfers from ___. 8. If more heat is to be transmitted from

a. lower temperature to high one side of a solid body to the other
temperature side, which of the following would you
b. high temperature to lower recommend as an Agricultural Engineer?
temperature a. Increase the thickness of material.
c. lower pressure to high pressure b. Decrease the thickness of material.
d. None of the above c. Maintain the thickness of material.
d. None of the above
3. The amount of heat required to raise 9. The shape factor for heat by
one pound of water one degree conduction is expressed as ___.
Farenheight. a. A/dx
a. Thermal capacity b. K A/dx
b. Specific heat c. dt/dx
c. British Thermal Unit d. None of the above
d. None of the above
10. The shape factor for conduction
4. One British thermal unit (BTU) is equal heating on a cylindrical wall is ___.
to ___. a. 6.3 L/ (ln r 2 /r 1 )
a. 1055 J b. 3.14 L/ (ln r 2 /r 1 )
b. 1505 J c. 3.14 kL/ (ln2 /r 1 )
c. 1550 J d. None of the above
d. None of the above
11. In a vacuum condition, heat transfer
5. The amount of heat required to raise a by conduction moves ___.
kilogram of water one degree centigrade. a. faster
a. Kilo Calories b. slower
b. Joules c. at constant rate
c. Watts d. None of the above
d. None of the above 12. Cooling meat, fruits and vegetables
are examples of heat transmission by
6. The unit of energy in SI system is ___. ___.
a. Newton-meter a. unsteady state conduction
b. Joules b. steady state conduction
c. W-sec c. free convection
d. All of the above d. None of the above
Heat Transfer & Thermal Insulation

13. The transfer of heat by mixing one 19. Which of the following statements is
parcel of fluid with another. true?
a. Convection a. When radiant energy falls on a body,
b. Conduction portion of it may be reflected, absorbed
c. Radiation and the remainder transmitted.
d. All of the above b. When radiant energy falls on a body,
part of it may be reflected and absorbed.
14. If a boiling water is pumped from a c. When radiant energy falls on a body,
boiler to a heat exchanger, heat is all of the energy are absorbed.
transmitted by ___. d. None of the above
a. natural convection
b. forced convection 20. In heat transfer by radiation,
c. radiation configuration factor for parallel planes is
d. None of the above ___.
a. higher than perpendicular planes
15. When heat is transmitted through b. lower for perpendicular planes
molecular waves, it is transmitted by ___. c. equal to perpendicular planes
a. convection d. None of the above
b. conduction 21. Which of the following statements is
c. radiation true?
d. None of the above a. Heat transfer rate is higher on edges
of boxes.
16. The equation for heat transfer by
b. Heat transfer rate is higher on
radiation in gray bodies is ___. corners of boxes.
a. Qr = λAT4 c. Heat transfer rate is lower on
b. Qr = ελAT4 walls of boxes.
c. Qr = ε AT4 d. None of the above
d. None of the above
22. If the heated pipe is changed with a
17. The Stefan–Boltzmann constant is higher pipe schedule, the transfer of heat
equal to ___. will ___.
a. 0.147 x 10 -8 BTU/hr-ft2 -F4 a. increase
b. 0.174 x 10 -8 BTU/hr-ft2 -F4 b. decrease
c. 0.174 x 10 -8 BTU/hr-ft2 -F3 c. remains the same
d. None of the above d. All of the above

18. In sundrying, heat is released to a 23. The amount of heat transmitted per
material by ___. unit time and temperature for a given
a. radiation surface area of a fluid.
b. force convection a. Heat coefficient
c. natural convection b. Specific heat
d. None of the above c. Heat transfer coefficient
d. None of the above
Heat Transfer & Thermal Insulation

24. Which of the following fluids has the 29. The heat transfer coefficient of
highest heat transfer coefficient? liquids, in kcal/m²-hr-°C , ranges from
a. Gases ___.
b. Liquids a. 3 to 20
c. Boiling water b. 100 to 600
d. All of the above c. 1000 to 2000
d. None of the above
25. Heat transfer coefficient is lower for
___. 30. Nusselt number is a function of ___.
a. liquids a. convection coefficient, pipe
b. gases diameter, and thermal conductivity
c. boiling water b. thermal conductivity, viscosity, and
d. condensing vapors diameter of pipe
e. None of the above c. convection coefficient, velocity of
fluid, diameter of pipe
26. Heat transfer coefficient by force d. None of the above
convection is determined by what 31. The Prantdl number is a function of
dimensionless numbers?
___.
a. Nusselt, Prantdl, Reynolds a. viscosity, specific heat, and thermal
b. Nusselt, Prantdl, Grashof conductivity
c. Reynolds, Grashof, Prantdl a. specific heat, heat transfer
d. None of the above coefficient, and thermal conductivity
c. viscosity, diameter of pipe, thermal
27. Dimensionless numbers used in conductivity
determining heat transfer coefficient by d. None of the above
natural convection.
a. Nusselt/Grashof/Prantdl 32. The overall heat transfer coefficient
b. Nusselt/Reynolds/Prantdl includes ___.
c. Prantdl/Reynolds/Grashof a. thermal conductivity and heat
d. None of the above transfer coefficient of the materials
b. heat transfer coefficient and
28. What is the heat loss per ft² of the emissivity of the materials
9inch-thick wall of a brick kiln made from c. thermal conductivity and emissivity
a material with thermal conductivity of of the materials
0.18 BTU/hr-ft-°F? The outside and inside d. None of the above
temperatures are 1500°F and 400°F,
respectively. 33. The amount of heat transferred per
a. 224 BTU/hr-ft² unit temperature per unit length.
b. 264 BTU/hr-ft² a. Emissivity
a. 246 BTU/hr-ft² b. Thermal conductivity
d. None of the above c. Heat transfer coefficient
d. None of the above
Heat Transfer & Thermal Insulation

34. A proportionality factor that 40. If the flow of fluid is on streamline

represents the property of a material characteristics, the fluid is at ___.
through heat conduction. a. turbulent condition
a. Thermal resistivity b. laminar condition
b. Thermal conductivity c. eddies
c. Thermal coefficient d. All of the above
d. None of the above
41. Which of the following materials has
35. The factor influencing thermal low thermal conductivity?
conductivity of a material. a. Building brick
a. Chemical composition of materials b. Asbestos
b. Temperature of materials c. Firebrick
c. Surrounding pressure d. Concrete
d. All of the above e. None of the above
42. Which of the following statements is
36. If the temperature surrounding the true?
material is reduced, the thermal a. The thermal conductivity of
conductivity also ___.
aluminum is higher than that of silver.
a. changes in a decreasing manner b. Silver transmits heat faster than
b. changes in an increasing manner aluminum.
c. does not change c. Aluminum and silver transfer heat at
d. None of the above the same rate.
d. All of the above
37. The temperature of the surrounding
air. 43. A device used in transferring heat.
a. Dry bulb temperature a. Insulator
b. Wet bulb temperature b. Heat absorber
c. Ambient temperature c. Heat exchanger
d. All of the above d. All of the above

38. Fluids with low molecular weight have 44. When two fluids in a heat exchanger
___. move in opposite direction, the device is
a. high thermal conductivity classified as ___.
b. low thermal conductivity a. parallel flow HE
c. no thermal conductivity b. cross flow HE
d. None of the above c. constant flow HE
d. None of the above
39. Basically, the thermal conductivity of a
45. The ability of a material to give up or
material will increase if the ___. to receive heat.
a. thickness is increased a. Resistance
b. temperature is increased b. Thermal conductance
c. temperature is decreased c. All of the above
d. All of the above
d. None of the above
Heat Transfer & Thermal Insulation

46. The insulating ability or resistance of a 50. An example of heat conductor.

material to the flow of heat. a. Silica brick
a. Thermal resistance b. Refractory cement
b. Thermal conductivity c. Asbestos fiber
c. Thermal insulator d. None of the above
d. All of the above
51. A material that is poor conductor of
47. A thick-walled stainless-steel tube (k = heat or has low thermal conductivity.
19 w/m-°C, with 2 cm ID and 4 cm OD) is a. Conductor
covered with a 3-cm layer of asbestos b. Insulator
insulation (k = 0.2 w/m-°C). If the inside c. Resistor
wall temperature of the pipe is d. All of the above
maintained at 600°C and the temperature
outside of the insulation is at 100°C, what 52. Insulators used for steam lines are
would be the heat loss per foot length of classified as ___.
the tube? a. Low-temperature-range insulator
a. 600 w/m b. medium-temperature-range
b. 680 w/m insulator
c. 720 w/m c. high-temperature-range insulator
d. None of the above d. None of the above

48. A ceramic material designed to be 53. A good example of a high-

resistant to high temperature -- i.e., 1000° temperature insulating material.
to 1800°C. a. Iron
a. Refractory b. Wood
b. Asbestos c. Asbestos
c. Fiber glass d. All of the above
d. None of the above
54. A good example of a dual-
49. What is the heat transfer loss per foot temperature insulator.
of a 2-inch nominal pipe (OD=2.37 in.) a. Expanded silica
covered with 1-inch-thick insulating b. Cellular glass
material having an average thermal c. Vermiculite
conductivity of 0.037 BTU/hr-ft-°F. The d. All of the above
inner and outer temperatures of the
insulation are 380° and 80°F, respectively. 55. A form of insulants used in industrial
a. 161 BTU/hr-ft insulation application.
b. 111 BTU/hr-ft a. Flexible strips
c. 125 BTU/hr-ft b. Foil
d. None of the above c. Flexible pipe section and mattresses
d. All of the above
Heat Transfer & Thermal Insulation

56. An extruded foam used for low- 61. The presence of moisture in a low-
temperature systems such as temperature insulation material may
refrigeration, building and sub-zero cause ___.
insulation. a. reduction in the insulating value of
a. Polystyrene foam the material
b. PVC foam a. improvement in the insulating value
c. Plastic foam of the materials
d. All of the above c. reduction in the cost of the
insulating materials
57. A good insulator for kiln dryer. d. All of the above
a. Rice husk
b. Brick
c. Concrete
d. None of the above

58. The factor that needs to be considered

in selecting an insulant.
a. Operating temperature
b. Maintenance cost
c. Ability to resist mechanical and heat
damage
d. All of the above

59. To protect the insulant from

mechanical damage, it must be provided
with ___.
a. metal sheet cladding
b. nets and asbestos cement
c. wire net and bituminous compound
d. All of the above

60. Which of the following statements is

true?
a. In insulation, heat gain is more costly
than heat loss.
b. The cost of extracting heat from a
refrigerated space is the same with the
cost of heat losses from a high-
temperature system.
c. The cost of insulating high-
temperature system is the same with that
of low temperature system.
d. All of the above
Heat Transfer & Thermal Insulation

Conduction (Homogenous Wall) Conduction (Composite Wall)

Qk = k A (To – Ti) / x A (T1 – T4 )

Qk = ------------------------------------------
where:
x12 /k12 + x23 /k23 + x34 /k34
Qk - heat transfer rate, W
k - thermal conductivity, W / °K-m where:
A - surface area, m2 Qk - heat transfer rate, W
To - outside wall temperature, °K k - thermal conductivity, W / °K-m
Ti - inside wall temperature, °K A - surface area, m2
x - wall thickness, m T4 - outside wall temperature, °K
T1 - inside wall temperature, °K
x - wall thickness, m
1,2,3,4 - represent wall surfaces
Conduction (Homogenous Cylindrical Wall) Convection

2 π k L (Ti - To) Qh = h A (Ts – Tf )

Qk = -----------------------------
Ln ro/ri where:
Qh - heat transfer rate, W
where:
h - heat transfer coefficient, W-m2 -°K
Qk - heat transfer rate, W A - surface area, m2
k - thermal conductivity, W / °K-m Ts - surface temperature, °K
L - length of cylinder, m
Tf - fluid temperature, °K
To - outside wall temperature, °K
Ti - inside wall temperature, K
r - radius of wall, m
o, i – outside and inside wall surfaces
Radiation

Qr = ε λ A T 4
where:
Qr - heat transfer rate, W
ε - emmissivity
λ - Stefan-Boltzman constant, 5.7x104
W/m2 -°K4
A - surface area, m2
T - temperature of the surface of the
material, °K
Heat Transfer & Thermal Insulation

Problem 1

The temperature inside a rice hull furnace is maintained at 1500 ° F by means of

suitable control apparatus. The wall of the furnace is 9-in. thick and constructed
from a material having 0.18 Btu/hr-ft-°F thermal conductivity. Calculate the heat
loss for each square foot of wall surface per hour. Assume that the inside and
outside wall temperatures are 1500°F and 400°F, respectively.
Given:
Furnace inside wall temperature - 1500°F
Wall thickness - 9 in.
K material - 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-°F
Outside wall temperature - 400°F
Required: Heat Transfer Loss per square foot
Solution:
dt = 1500°F – 400°F
= 1100°F
dx = 9 in. x ft/12 in.
= 0.75 ft
Qk/A = (0.18 BTU/hr-ft-°F)(1100°F) / 0.75 ft
= 264 BTU/hr-ft2

Problem 2

Calculate the thermal conductivity of a 4’ x 8’ test

panel, 1-in. thick if during a 3-hour test period it
conducted 900 BTU of heat through the panel with
15°F temperature differential between its surfaces.

Given:
Area of the wall - 4 ft x 8 ft
Wall thickness - 1 in.
Time - 3 hrs
Heat conducted - 900 BTU
Difference in temp - 15°F

Required: Thermal Conductivity

Solution:
Qk = 900 BTU/ 3 hrs
= 300 BTU/hr
K = (300 BTU/hr) (0.083 ft) / (32 ft2 ) (15°F)
= 0.052 BTU/hr-ft-°F
Heat Transfer & Thermal Insulation

Problem 3

The wall of a kiln is made up of 9-in. fire bricks

(k=0.72 BTU/hr-ft-°F), 5-in insulating bricks
(k=0.08 BTU/hr-ft-°F), and 7.5-in red bricks (K=0.5
BTU/hr-ft-°F). The inner (t1 ) and outer surface
temperatures (t4 ) are 1500°F and 150°F,
respectively. Neglecting the residences of the
mortar joints, compute the temperatures t2 and
t3 at the contact surface.

Given:
Fire brick - 9 in. K - 0.72 BTU/hr-ft-°F
Insulating Brick - 5 in. K - 0.08 BTU/hr-ft-°F
Red brick - 7.5 in. K - 0.5 BTU/hr-ft-°F
t1 - 1500°F
t4 - 150°F

Required:
Temperatures at t2 , t3 , and at the
contact surface area

Solution:
Qk1-4 = 1 ft2 (1500°F-150°F) /
[(9 in./12 in./ft/0.72 BTU/hr-ft-°F)
+ (5 in./12 in./ft/0.08BTU/hr-ft-°F)
+ (7.5 in./12 in./ft/0.5BTU/hr-ft-°F)]
= 180 BTU/hr

180 BTU/hr = 0.72 BTU/hr-ft-°F x 1 ft2 (1500

– t2 ) / (9 in./12 in./ft)
t2 = 1312°F

180 BTU/hr = 0.08 BTU/hr-ft-°F x 1 ft2

x (1312°F – t3 ) / (5 in./12 in./ft)
t3 = 375°F
Heat Transfer & Thermal Insulation

Problem 4

A biomass furnace with 1-in. horizontal-plate

steel wall is covered by a 2-in.-thick insulation.
The temperature of the upper side of the steel
wall is 450°F while at the lower side of the
insulation is 100°F. If the k for steel is 29
BTU/hr-ft-°F and the k for the insulation is 0.5
BTU/hr-ft-°F, what is the temperature at the
junction between the steel plate and the
insulation?

Given:
Material - steel plate
Thickness - 1 in.
Insulation - 2 in.
T1 - 450°F
T3 - 100°F
K steel - 29 BTU/hr-ft-°F
K insulation - 0.5 BTU/hr-ft-°F

Required:
Temperature between the
Steel Plate and the Insulation

Solution:
1 in. 2 in.
Qk = 1 ft2 x (450°F – 100°F) / (1 in./12 in./ft/29 BTU/hr-ft-°F)
+ (2 in./12 in./ft/0.5 BTU/hr-ft-°F)
= 1041 BTU/hr

1041 BTU/hr = 29 BTU/hr-ft-°F x 1 ft2 x (450-T2 ) /

1 in./12 in./ft
T2 = 447°F
Heat Transfer & Thermal Insulation

Problem 5

What is the heat loss per ft2 of a 9in.-thick brick-

kiln wall made of a material with 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-
°F thermal conductivity? The outside and inside
temperatures are 1500°F and 400°F, respectively.

Given: k - 0.18 BTU/ hr-ft-°F

To - 1500 °F
Ti - 400° F
x - 9 in.
Required: Heat Loss per ft2
Solution:
Qk = kA(To-Ti)/x
= 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-°F (1500°F – 400°F) / 9 in. x 12 ft/in.
= 264 BTU/hr-ft2

1 in.
Problem 6
To= 80 F
What is the heat transfer loss per foot of a 2-
inch nominal pipe (OD=2.37 in.) covered with
1in.-thick insulating material having of 0.037
Ti= 380°F
BTU/hr-ft-°F average thermal conductivity.
The inner and outer temperatures of the
insulation are 380° and 80°F, respectively.

Given: K = 0.037 BTU/hr-ft-°F

Required: Heat Transfer Loss per foot

Solution: 2.37 in.

Qk = 2π kL (Ti – To) / ( ln ro/ri )

= 2π (0.037 BTU/hr-ft-°F) (380°F – 80°F) / ln 2.187/1.1875
= 114.16 BTU/hr-ft
Heat Transfer & Thermal Insulation

Problem 7

A thick-walled stainless-steel tube (k = 19 w/m-°C, with 2 cm ID and 4 cm OD) is

covered with a 3-cm layer of asbestos insulation (k = 0.2 w/m-°C). If the inside
wall temperature of the pipe is maintained at 600°C and the outside of the
insulation at 100°C, what is the heat loss per foot length of the tube?

Given:
Pipe inside diameter - 2 cm
Pipe outside diameter - 4 cm
Thickness of asbestos - 3 cm
K pipe - 19 W/m-°C
K asbestos - 0.2 W/m-°C
Temperature inside the pipe - 600°C
Temperature outside the asbestos - 100°C

Required:
Heat Transfer Rate per foot length of pipe

Solution:

Qk = 2 π x L x (600°C – 100°C) / [[(ln 2 cm/1 cm)/19 W/m-°C]

+ [(ln 5 cm/2 cm)/0.23 W/m-°C)]]
= 680 W per m or 207 W/ft

Problem 8

What is the heat loss per ft² of the 9in.-thick wall of a brick kiln made from a
material with 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-°F thermal conductivity? The outside and inside
temperatures are 1500°F and 400°F, respectively.

Given:
Brick wall thickness - 9 in.
Thermal conductivity - 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-°F
Inside temperature - 1500°F
Outside temperature - 400°F
Required:
Heat Loss per ft 2
Solution:
Qk = A x [0.18 BTU/hr-ft-°F x (1500°F – 400°F)] / (9 in./12 in./ft)
= 264 BTU/hr-ft2
Heat Transfer & Thermal Insulation

Problem 9

Calculate the energy transfer rate across a

6-in. firebrick wall of a farm house with
50°C temperature difference across the
wall. The thermal conductivity of the
firebrick is 0.65 BTU/hr-ft-°F.

Given:

Thickness of wall - 6 in.

Temperature difference - 50°C
Heat transfer coefficient - 0.65
BTU/hr-ft-°F

Required:
Heat Transfer Rate by conduction

Solution:
Qk = A 0.65 BTU/hr-ft-°F (50°C) / 6 in.
= 0.65 BTU/hr-ft-°F (122°F) /
(6 in./12 in./ ft)
= 158.6 BTU/hr-ft2
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CONVERSION OF UNITS

Length 1 ft = 12 inches
1 yard = 3 feet
1 mi = 5280 feet
1 cm = 0.3937 inch
1 inch = 2.54 cm
1 m = 3.28 feet
1 cm = 10 4 microns
1 mi = 1.609 km
Area 1 acre = 0.4047 hectare
1 ha = 2.47 acre
= 10,000 m2
1 ft2 = 144 in.2
1 acre = 43,560 ft2
1 mi2 = 650 acres
1 m2 = 10.76 ft2
1 ft2 = 929 cm2
1 in.2 = 6.452 cm2
Volume 1 liter = 1000 cc
= 0.2642 gal
= 61.025 in.3
= 10 3 cm3
1 ft3 = 144 in.3
= 7.482 gal
= 28.317 liter
= 28,317 cm3
1 acre-ft = 43,560 ft3
1 gal = 3.7854 liter
= 231 in3
= 8 pint
1 m3 = 35.31 ft3
= 10 3 liter
Density 1 lb/in.3 = 1728 lb/ft3
1 slug/ft3 = 32.174 lb/ft3
= 0.51538 gm/cm3
1 lb/ ft3 = 16.018 kg/m3
1 gm/cm3 = 1000 kg/m3
Angular 2π = 6.2832 radian
1 rad = 57.3 deg
1 rev = 2 π
1 rpm = 2 π rad/min
1 rad/sec = 9.549 rpm
Time 1 min = 60 seconds
1 hour = 3600 seconds
= 60 min
1 day = 24 hours
Speed 1 mph = 88 fpm
= 0.44704 m/s
= 1.467 fps
1 fps = 0.6818 mph
= 0.3048 m/s
1 knot = 0.5144 m/s
= 1.152 mph
1 m/s = 3.6 kph
= 2.24 mph
= 3.28 fps
Force, Mass 1 lb = 16 oz
= 444,820 dynes
= 32.174 poundals
= 4.4482 N
= 7000 grains
= 453.6 g
1 slug = 32.174 lb
= 14.594 kg
= 14.594 kg
1 kg = 2.205 lb
= 9.80665 N
= 1 kilopond
1 kip = 1000 lb
1 g = 980.665 dynes
1 ton = 2000 lb
= 907.18 kg
1 oz = 28.35 gm
1 metric ton = 1000 kg
1 Newton = 9.8 kgf
= 0.225 lbf
Pressure 1 atm = 1.033 bar
= 33.90 ft of water (at 4°C)
= 10.33 m of water (at 4°C
= 14.7 psi
= 101,325 N/m2
= 29.921 in. Hg (0°C)
= 33.934 ft H2 O (60°F)
= 760 mm Hg (O°C)
= 406.79 in. H2 O (39.2°F)
= 1.0332 kg/cm2
1 bar = 10 m of water
1 mm Hg = 13.6 kg (0°C)
1 psi = 27.684 inches of water
= 2.036 inches mercury
= 51.715 mm Hg (0 C)
= 0.0731 kg/cm2
1 psf = 47.88 N/m3
1 in. Hg = 13.57 in. H2 O (60°F)
= 0.4898 psi
1 N/m2 = 0.1 dyne/cm2
1 in H2 0 = 0.0361 psi
= 0.0736 inches mercury
Energy 1 Btu = 778.16 ft-lb
= 251.98 cal
= 1.055 kJ
1 cal = 4.1868 J
1 ft-lb = 0.00129 BTU
= 1.355 N-m
1 hp-hr = 2544.4 Btu
1 J = 1 wt-s
= 1 N-m
= 0.01 bar-dm3
= 0.737 ft-lb
1 hp-s = 550 ft-lb
1 hp-min = 42.4 Btu
= 33,000 ft-lb
1 kw-hr = 3412.2 Btu
= 3600 kJ
1 kJ = 1 kw-s
= 101.92 kg-m
1 MJ = 238.8 kcal

Power 1 Hp = 745.7 W
= 0.746 kW
= 76.2 kg-m/sec
= 2544.4 BTU/hr
1 wt-s = 1 V-amp
1 kw-s = 737.562 ft-lb
1 kw-min = 56.87 Btu
1 atm-ft3 = 2.7194 Btu
1 J = 10 7 ergs
1 ft-lb = 1.3558 J
1 kcal = 4.1668 kJ
1 kW = 1.34 hp
= 1.32 cv metric
(horsepower in French)
1 PS = 0.986 Hp
1 wt-hr = 860 cal

Entropy, Specific Heat, Gas Constant

1 cal/g-°K = 1 Btu/lb-°R
1 kcal/kg-°K = 1 kcal/kg-°R
1 Btu/lb-°R = 4.187 kJ/kg-°K
Universal Gas Constant
1 pmole-°R = 1545.32 ft-lb
= 0.7302 atm-ft3
= 1.9859 Btu
= 10.731 psi-ft3
1 kgmole-°K = 8.3143 kJ
= 0.08206 atm-m3
1 gmole-°K = 82.057 atm-cm3
= 1.9859 cal
= 83.143 bar-cm3
= 8.3143 J
= 8.3149 x 10 7 erg
= 0.083143 bar-liter
Standard Gravity g, (as conversion unit)
1 slug = 32.174 fps2 -lb
1 psin = 388.1 ips2 -lb
1 s2 -kg = 9.80665 N-m
1 s2 -gm = 980.665 cm-dyne

Temperature ◦C = [(5/9)(F – 32)]

◦F = (9/5) C + 32
◦C = (273.15 + 0) K
The Author:

Alexis T. Belonio is a Professional Agricultural Engineer and a registered ASEAN Engineer. He

finished his Bachelor of Science in Agricultural Engineering and Master of Science degrees from
CLSU. He is a Senior Research Fellow at the Philippine Rice Research Institute, Science City of
Munoz, Nueva Ecija. He served as Affiliate Professor at the College of Engineering, Central
Luzon State University (CLSU), Science City of Munoz, Nueva Ecija and as Adjunct Assistant
Professor at the Departments of Agricultural and Chemical Engineering at the College of
Engineering and Agro-Industrial Technology, University of the Philippines at Los Banos. He was
former an Associate Professor at the Department of Agricultural Engineering and
Environmental Management, College of Agriculture, Central Philippine University, Iloilo City.
Since 1983, he has been deeply involved in teaching, research, technology development, and
entrepreneurial activities related to the field of agricultural engineering. He served as a
Reviewer for the Agricultural Engineering Board Examination at TGIM, CLSU, BUCAF, CBSUA,
SPAMAST, MSU-Gen San, BPSU, and MRI Review Centers in the fields of Agricultural Power,
Machinery and Allied Subjects as well as Agricultural Processing, Structures and Allied Subjects.

He was awarded by the Philippine Society of Agricultural Engineers (PSAE) as the “Most
Outstanding Agricultural Engineer in the field of Farm Power and Machinery”, in 1993. In that
same year, he was named by the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) as the “Outstanding
Professional in the field of Agricultural Engineering”. And in 1997, he was awarded by the TOYM
Foundation and the Jerry Roxas Foundation as the “Outstanding Young Filipino (TOYF) in the field
of Agricultural Engineering”. In 2008, he was awarded as “Associate Laureate of the Rolex Awards
for Enterprise ” (Geneva, Switzerland) and in 2010 as a “Laureate in Economic Business
Development Category of The Tech Awards” (San Jose, California). He was adjudged as one of the
“Inspiring Modern-Day Filipino Heroes” by Yahoo Southeast Asia in 2011 and one of the “25
Heroes-for-Better” by the Western Union in 2015. Recently, he has received the “2016 ASEAN
Outstanding Engineering Achievement Awards” given by the ASEAN Federation of Engineering
Organizations (AFEO).

As a dedicated professional, he is technically assisting various agricultural companies in the country

and abroad. He has written and published several research and technical papers, technical
handbooks, including instructional and review materials.