Medical Technology Licensure Examination Recalls

[Link] CHEMISTRY
1. What kind of quality control is important in maintaining long term accuracy of the analytical methods?
a. Internal quality control c. Sensitivity
b. External quality control d. Specificity

2. In statistics, this is used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the standard
deviations of two groups of data.
a. Mean c. F-test
b. Median d. T-test

3. It is a sample of known quantity with several analytes present.

a. Calibrator c. Standard
b. Reagent d. Control

4. The independent variable is plotted along the:

[Link] axis c. Y-axis
b. Vertical axis d. Ordinate

[Link] is the most widely used quality control chart in the clinical laboratory.
a. Gaussian Curve c. Youden/Twin Plot
b. Cumulative Sum Graph d. Levey-Jennings Chart

6. This type of error observed on a Levey-Jennings chart is formed by control values that distribute themselves on
one side or either side of the mean for six consecutive days.
a. Trend c. Outliers
b. Shift d. None of the above

7.A value of 11.2 µg/dL thyroxine is equivalent to _________ in SI units.

a. 135 nmol/L c. 145 nmol/L
b. 135 µmol/L d. 145 µmol/L

8. What is the conversion factor for bilirubin from conventional (mg/dL) to SI (µmol/L) unit?
a. 17.1 c. 88.4
b. 0.357 d. 0.0113

9. This instrument uses monochromatic light.

a. Spectrophotometer c. FEP
b. AAS d. ISE

10. Light that is not within the visible spectrum

a. UV c. Yellow
b. Red d. Violet

11. Class A fire extinguisher

a. Water c. Dry chemical
b. CO2 d. Dry sand
12. Correct order of draw for syringe method.
a. Red-Black-Lavender-Grey c. Grey-Lavender-Black-Red
b. Black-Red-Lavender-Grey* d. Red-Lavender-Grey-Black

13. Principle of POCT of pregnancy.

a. ELISA c. RIA
b. Immunochromatography d. EMIT

14. Who can do POCT for glucose?

a. Medtechs only c. Non lab personnel and diabetic patients
b. Medtech and nurse d. All of the above*

15. Correct angle of venipuncture.

a. 15 * c. 45
b. 30 * d. 90

16. Glucose is metabolized at room temperature at a rate of __mg/dl/hour, and at 4ºC, the loss is approximately
___ mg/dl/hour.
a. 2; 7 c. 8; 3
b. 3; 8 d. 7; 2

17. Whole blood fasting glucose level is _________ than in serum or plasma.
a.10 – 15% lower c. 10 – 15% higher
b. 5 – 10% lower d. 5 – 10% higher

18. Which test/s are used to diagnose DM?

a. FBS, OGTT, PP c. HBA1c
b. OGTT, PP d. FBS only

19. The glycated hemoglobin value represents the blood glucose value during the preceding:
a. One to three weeks c. Three to six weeks
b. Two to three weeks [Link] to twelve weeks

20. Apolipoprotein B-100 is the primary component of:

a. VLDL c. IDL
b. LDL d. HDL

21. This is considered as a risk factor for coronary heart disease.

a. HDL c. Cholesterol
b. Triglycerides d. Phospholipids

22. Intermediate density lipoprotein (IDL) and Lipoprotein (a) are considered as:
a. Major lipoproteins c. Abnormal lipoproteins
b. Minor lipoproteins d. Fatty acids

23. What age group has a moderate risk cut off value of > 240 mg/dl and high risk cut off value of > 260 mg/dl for
total cholesterol?
a. 2 – 19 years old c. 30 – 39 years old
b. 20 – 29 years old d. 40 years old and over

24. According to the NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable Measurement Error, the coefficient of variation for HDL
cholesterol should be on what range?
a. ≤ 2% c. ≤ 4%
b. ≤ 3% d. ≤ 5%

25. This is considered as a three-step method for cholesterol determination:

a. Liebermann – Burchardt c. Schoenheimer Sperry
b. Abell – Kendall d. Bloors

26. Cholesterol esterase is used in which method/s for cholesterol determination?

a. Chemical methods c. Both
b. Enzymatic methods d. Neither

27. This alpha2-globulin binds to 90% of copper and is decreased in Wilson’s disease
a. Transferrin c. Haptoglobin
b. Ceruloplasmin d. Alpha 2- Macroglobulin

28. Proteins that migrate in the alpha-2 globulin band in serum protein electrophoresis EXCEPT:
a. Transferrin c. Haptoglobin
b. Ceruloplasmin d. Alpha 2- Macroglobulin

29. This condition shows a beta-gamma bridging effect in serum protein electrophoresis.
a. Multiple myeloma c. Liver cirrhosis
b. Nephrotic syndrome d. Pulmonary emphysema

30. This is sensitive, but not specific for kidney damage.

a. Proteinuria c. BUA
b. BUN d. Creatinine

31. Which method for the assay of uric acid is simple and nonspecific?
a. Colorimetric: kinetic c. Enzymatic: UV
b. Colorimetric: end point d. Enzymatic: H2O2

32. This approach to the assay for urea nitrogen has a greater specificity and more expensive.
a. Colorimetric: diacetyl monoxime c. Kinetic
b. Caraway d. Enzymatic: NH3 formation

33. The most simple method for creatinine determination but is nonspecific is:
a. Colorimetric: endpoint c. Enzymatic: UV
b. Colorimetric: kinetic d. Enzymatic: H2O2

34. In hemolytic disease of the newborn, which form of bilirubin is elevated in plasma?
a. Conjugated bilirubin c. Delta bilirubin
[Link] bilirubin d. B and C

35. An enzyme with moderate specificity for heart, liver, skeletal muscle.
a. AST c. ALT
b. LDH d. CK

36. What is the enzyme classification of GGT, CPK, AST?

a. Transferase c. Ligase
b. Isomerase d. Oxidoreductase

37. What is the enzyme classification of LDH?

a. Transferase c. Ligase
b. Isomerase d. Oxidoreductase
38. It is the only enzyme whose clinical significance is not increased, but decreased levels.
a. Pseudocholinesterase 5’ Nucleotidase
b. GGT d. Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase

39. Which does not contribute to serum osmolarity?

a. Na c. Cl
b. K d. HCO3

40. Most common cause of hyperkalemia

a. Hemolysis c. Impaired renal excretion
b. Failure to separate serum d. IV infusion

41. Not major role of sodium

a. Water balance c. Osmotic regulation
b. Volume regulation d. Muscle contractility

42. For each degree of fever in the patient, pO2 will fall __ % & and pCO2 will rise __%.
a. 7, 3 c. 2, 5
b. 3, 7 d. 5, 2

43. An individual with hyperthyroidism will manifest with _________ triglyceride levels.
a. Increased b. Decreased

44. An individual with hypothyroidism will manifest with _________ T3 uptake levels.
a. Increased b. Decreased

45. Confirmatory test for acromegaly:

a. Physical activity test c. Somatomedin C
b. Insulin tolerance test d. Glucose suppression test

46. It is the most potent of the estrogens.

a. Estriol c. Estradiol
b. Estrone d. Testradiol

47. Effect of ADH = decrease _____ of fluid & ______serum sodium.

a. retention; increase c. loss; decrease
b. loss; increase d. retention; decrease

48. Hormone/s involved in in Calcium regulation.

a. PTH c. Calcitonin
b. Vit. D d. All of the above

49. This tumor marker is helpful in the diagnosis of urinary bladder cancer:
a. CA 19-9 c. HER-2/neu
b. Calcitonin d. NMP

50. The primary product of hepatic metabolism of cocaine is:

a. Morphine c. Benzoylecgonine
b. NAPA d. Primidone

51. Which of the following drugs is a barbiturate?

a. Cyclosporine c. Phenobarbital
b. Methotrexate d. Acetaminophen
52. What signs/symptoms will manifest with a blood alcohol level of 0.27 - 0.40%?
a. Coma, death c. Decreased inhibitions
b. Impaired motor skills d. Impaired consciousness

53. The signs and symptoms of this blood alcohol level in %w/v are mental confusion, dizziness and strongly
impaired motor skills (staggering, slurred speech).
a. 0.09 – 0.25 c. 0.27 – 0.40
b. 0.18 – 0.30 d. 0.35 – 0.50

II. MICROBIOLOGY
1. Which is NOT a common instrument/system in the Microbiology Laboratory?
a. Advance Expert System c. PCR
b. BacT Alert d. VITEK 2

2. This produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular and club-shaped with smooth walls
a. Fonsecaea pedrosoi c. Trichophyton rubrum
b. Microsporum audouinii d. Epidermophyton floccosum

3. Corn meal agar test is used to identify Candida albicans through the organism’s production of:
a. Chlamydospore c. Germ tube
b. Urease d. Inositol

4. This presumptive test for Candida uses serum.

a. Germ tube test c. Hair perforation test
b. Latex agglutination d. Chlamydospore test

5. Used to demonstrate of the encapsulated yeast Cryptococcus neoformans in wet preparations:

a. Methylene blue c. Malachite green
b. India ink d. Safranin

6. Which of the following is diagnostic for chromoblastomycosis?

a. Flowerette conidia c. Sclerotic body
b. Asteroid body d. Germ tube

7. Rose gardener’s disease:

a. Sporotrichosis c. Coccidioidomycosis
b. Histoplasmosis d. Blastomycosis

8. Which of the following media identifies species of Aspergillus?

a. Urease medium c. Czapek’s agar
b. Rice agar d. Blood agar

9. Which of the following parasite larva can be isolated in sputum?

a. Paragonimus westermani c. Taenia saginata
b. Entamoeba histolytica d. Ascaris lumbricoides

10. The following are techniques used for detection of parasitic infection and their corresponding causative
agent. Which of the following is correctly matched?
a. Harada Mori: Capillaria philippinensis c. Knott’s Technique: Microfilariae
b. Xenodiagnosis: Leishmania d. Cellotape Method: Trichuris trichiura
11. Proper collection of a sample for recovery of Enterobius vermicularis includes collecting:
a. A 24-hour urine collection c. Capillary blood
b. A first morning stool with proper preservative d. Perianal scotch tape preparation

12. Heart-lung migration except:

a. Roundworm c. Hookworm
b. Whipworm d. Seatworm

13. Diphyllobothrium latum adult resembles the adult form of:

a. Paragonimus westermani c. Taenia saginata
b. Echinococcus granulosus d. Spirometra

14. Second intermediate host of Paragonimus westermani:

a. Snail c. Freshwater crab
b. Fish d. Vegetation

15. What is a schistosomule?

a. Cercaria minus a tail c. Metacercaria
b. Cercaria minus a head d. Cercaria with a tail

16. The third Taenia spp.:

a. T. asiatica c. T. taeniaeformis
b. T. crassiceps d. T. saginata

17. The definitive host to Plasmodium is the:

a. Tsetse fly (Glossina) c. Mosquito (Female Anopheles)
b. Sandfly (Phlebotomus) d. Reduviid bug (Male Triatoma)

18. Plasmodium species which ruptures after 72 hours.

a. P. ovale c. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax d. P. malariae

19. What is the infective stage of Leishmania spp. to humans?

a. Amastigote c. Promastigote
b. Trypomastigote d. Sporozoites

20. Cytomegalovirus isolation is best accomplished using:

a. Monkey kidney cells c. Human embryonic fibroblasts
b. A549 cells d. Embryonated hen’s eggs

21. It is the smallest RNA virus:

a. Enterovirus c. Cytomegalovirus
b. Picornavirus d. Togavirus

22. Enteroviruses can be differentiated from rhinoviruses by:

a. Size c. Ribonuclease treatment
b. Ether stability d. Acid resistance

23. A medium that aids in the presumptive identification of organisms based on their appearance on the
medium is called:
a. Enriched c. Selective
b. Differential d. Transport
24. Which of the following is a suitable transport medium for bacteria and virus?
a. Phosphate buffered sucrose (2SP) c. Eagles minimum essential medium
b. Hank’s balanced salt solution d. Stuart’s medium

25. Lysostaphin susceptibility is a test used to differentiate:

a. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp. c. Staphylococcus spp. from Pseudomonas
b. Streptococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp. d. Streptococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.

26. Prosthetic heart valve endocarditis is most commonly caused by this staphylococcal species:
a. S. aureus c. S. saprophyticus
b. S. epidermidis d. S. pyogenes

27. Which Staphylococcus spp. is resistant to 5 µg novobiocin?

a. S. aureus c. S. saprophyticus
b. S. epidermidis d. S. pyogenes

28. In the β-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method, which indicates a positive reaction?
a. Production of acid c. Color change
b. Reduction of nitrates d. Turbidity

29. The following are DNase positive, except:

a. Staphylococcus aureus c. Moraxella catarrhalis
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Serratia marcescens

30. For the antibiotic susceptibility testing of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, how many units of
bacitracin is used?
a. 10.00 c. 5.00
b. 0.02 - 0.04 d. 1.00 – 2.00

31. Characteristically, species from the genus Enterococcus are:

a. Unable to grow in 6.5% NaCl c. Relatively sensitive to penicillin
b. Bile esculin positive d. Sodium hippurate negative

32. A positive Quellung test is:

a. Virtual proof that the organism is a pathogen c. Visible only by fluorescent light
b. From capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody reaction d. Oxidation but not fermentation

33. A medical technologist cultured a specimen from a suspected cystic fibrosis patient. After 24 hours of
incubation, the MT noticed colonies which were spreading and flat, with serrated edges and a metallic
sheen. There was a characteristic corn taco-like odor. Identify the bacteria.
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Escherichia coli d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

34. Serratia strains are readily differentiated from Klebsiella on the basis of their:
a. Failure to produce gas from inositol c. Rapid gelatin liquefaction
b. Slowness and reluctance to ferment lactose d. All of the above

35. Diagnosis of typhoid fever can be confirmed best by culture of:

a. Stool c. Bone marrow
b. Urine d. Blood

36. Cultures of Staphylococcus supplies which of the following for cultures of Haemophilus?
a. III Factor b. I Factor
c. X Factor d. V Factor

37. String test is used for the diagnosis of which bacteria?

a. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia c. Vibrio cholerae
b. Elizabethkingia meningoseptica d. Campylobacter jejuni

38. Which diphtheroid has the same morphology as Corynebacterium diphtheriae on blood agar plate (BAP)?
a. C. ulcerans c. C. jeikeium
b. C. minutissimum d. C. urealyticum

39. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best differentiated from Mycobacterium bovis by:

a. Growth rate c. Hydrolysis of Tween 80
b. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests d. Catalase test at 68°C

40. Woolsorter’s disease is caused by the __________ form of anthrax.

a. Gastrointestinal c. Pulmonary
b. Cutaneous d. Urinary

41. Acridine orange for fungal elements:

a. Fluorescent green c. Purple
b. Red d. Doesn’t stain

42. Acridine Orange is used to stain:

a. Cell wall c. Nuclei
b. Mitochondria d. Flagella

43. Color of C. diphteriae in Potassium tellurite

a. Green c. Red
b. Gray-black d. Brown

44. Enrichment of Enterobacteriaceae

a. extend lag phase of normal flora [Link] lag phase of normal flora
b. extend lag phase of pathogen d. decrease lag phase of pathogen

45. H. influenzae needs:

a. X factor c. Both
b. V factor d. Neither

46. P. aeruginosa:
a. grows at 35C & 42 C c. grows only at 42C
b. grows at 35C but not at 42C d. does not grow at 35C & 42C

47. MR/VP of E. coli:

a. Green c. Pink
b. Red d. Blue

48. In water bacteriology, the following are used as confirmatory test media except:
a. Lactose broth c. Eosin methylene blue agar
b. Endo agar d. Brilliant green lactose broth

49. Which anaerobic, gram-positive rods produce terminal “lollipop” spores?

a. Clostridium tetani c. Clostridium butyricum
b. Eubacterium lentum d. Bacteroides ureolyticus
c.
III. CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
1. Nomarski and Hoffman are examples of what microscopy?
a. Phase contrast microscopy c. Darkfield microscopy
b. Brightfield microscopy d. Fluorescent microscopy

2. Degree of Hazard: 3
a. Slight Hazard c. Extreme Hazard
b. Moderate Hazard d. Serious Hazard

3. For chemical spills, flush the area with large amounts of water for at least ________ minutes then seek
medical attention.
a. 15 c. 25
b. 20 d. 30

4. Arsenal fire:
a. Type A fire c. Type E fire
b. Type C fire d. Type F fire

5. Urine samples should be examined within one hour of voiding because:

a. RBC, leukocytes and casts agglutinate on standing for several hours at room temperature
b. Urobilinogen and bilirubin increase after prolonged exposure to light
c. Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of urine
d. Ketones will increase due to bacterial and cellular metabolism

6. The urine volume of a patient with oliguria is usually:

a. 1,200 – 1,500 mL c. < 400 mL
b. > 2,500 mL d. < 700 mL

7. The clarity of a urine sample should be determined:

a. Using glass tubes only, never plastic
b. Following thorough mixing of the specimen
c. After addition of salicylic acid
d. After the specimen cools to room temperature

8. Urine clarity grading: “Few particulates, print easily seen through urine”
a. Clear c. Cloudy
b. Hazy d. Turbid

9. Which method for the determination of urine specific gravity is based on refractive index?
a. Total solids meter
b. Hydrometer
c. Reagent strip
d. Harmonic oscillation densitometry

10. An albino patient’s urine became black after opening the specimen container.
a. Alkaptonuria c. Phenylketonuria
b. Tyrosinemia d. Melanuria

11. Urine reagent strips should be stored in a/an:

a. Incubator c. Refrigerator
b. Cool dry place d. Freezer
12. Principle for reagent strip reader:
a. Reflectance photometry c. Both
b. Spectrophotometry d. Neither

13. Reading time: 30 seconds

a. Bilirubin c. Specific gravity
b. Ketones d. pH

14. The protein section of urine reagent strip is most sensitive to:
a. Albumin c. Mucoprotein
b. Bence Jones protein d. Globulin

15. Bence Jones Protein is characterized by its unique ability to coagulate at ___ and dissolve at _____.
a. 30-50°C : 80-100°C c. 40-50°C : 80-90°C
b. 50-60°C : 90-100°C d. 40-50°C : 80-100°C

16. SSA turbidity: “Turbidity with granulation, no flocculation”

a. 1+ c. 3+
b. 2+ d. 4+

17. The parameter in the reagent strip which utilizes Ehrlich units is:
a. Bilirubin c. Glucose
b. Urobilinogen d. Leukocytes

18. Convert 0.4 mg/dL urobilinogen to Ehrlich units.

a. 0.4 c. 40
b. 4 d. 400

19. Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in what urine reagent strip?
a. Blood c. Leukocytes
b. Bilirubin d. All of the choices

20. Reagent strip result for hemoglobinuria:

a. speckled green c. uniform brown
b. uniform blue d. uniform green

21. Soluble in ether, except:

a. Red blood cells c. Chyle
b. Lipids d. Lymphatic fluid

22. Soluble in dilute acetic acid, except:

a. Red blood cells c. Calcium carbonates
b. Amorphous phosphates d. White blood cells

23. Ascending sequence of casts:

a. Waxy - hyaline – coarsely granular – finely granular – cellular
b. Coarsely granular – finely granular – hyaline – waxy – cellular
c. Hyaline – cellular – coarsely granular – finely granular – waxy
d. Cellular – hyaline – finely granular – coarsely granular - waxy

24. Major inorganic substance in urine:

a. Chloride c. Sodium
b. Calcium d. Phosphate

25. Normal urinary crystal which is colorless, resembling flat plates or thin prisms often in rosette form:
a. Amorphous phosphates c. Apatite
b. Struvite d. Calcium carbonate

26. If alcohol is added to urine with tyrosine crystals, this other abnormal crystal may be precipitated:
a. Bilirubin c. Leucine
b. Sulfonamide d. Cystine

27. Manner of reporting for RTE cells:

a. Average number per LPF c. Average number per OIO
b. Average number per HPF d. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+

28. Transitional epithelial cells seen in urine may be reported using rare/few/moderate/many by using the:
a. Scanner field c. High power field
b. Low power field d. Oil immersion field

29. In a urine specimen, 10 calcium oxalate crystals were seen per HPF. How do you report the finding?
a. Rare c. Moderate
b. Few d. Many

30. In a urine specimen, nine bacteria were seen per HPF. How do you report the finding?
a. Rare c. Moderate
b. Few d. Many

31. Most frequent parasite encountered in the urine:

a. Schistosoma haematobium c. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Giardia lamblia

32. A renal calculi described as very hard, dark in color with rough surface:
a. Calcium oxalate c. Cystine
b. Uric acid d. Phosphate

33. Renal disease whose etiology is the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody to
glomerular and alveolar basement membranes:
a. Berger’s disease c. Wegener’s granulomatosis
b. Goodpasture syndrome d. Membranous glomerulonephritis

34. The sperm acrosomal cap should encompass approx. ____ of the head and covers _____ of the nucleus.
a. One half, two-thirds c. Two-thirds, one fourth
b. One third, one half d. One fourth, one third

35. Sperm motility grading: “Slower speed, some lateral movement”

a. 4.0 c. 2.0
b. 3.0 d. 1.0

36. Reagent/s used for the assessment of sperm viability:

a. Papanicolau c. Giemsa
b. Wright’s d. Eosin-Nigrosin

37. Computer-Assisted Semen Analysis (CASA) is used to determine sperm cell:

a. Vertical movement c. Lateral movement
b. Circular movement d. Velocity and trajectory

38. Florence test, which detects choline, uses which reagent?

a. Potassium iodide c. Trichloroacetic acid
b. Picric acid d. Silver nitroprusside

39. Pellicle clot formation after 12-24 hours refrigeration of cerebrospinal fluid:
a. Bacterial meningitis c. Tubercular meningitis
b. Viral meningitis d. Fungal meningitis

40. Oligoclonal banding in cerebrospinal fluid but not in serum, except:

a. Multiple myeloma c. Neurosyphilis
b. Encephalitis d. Guillain-Barre disease

41. NOT normal in CSF:

a. 10 mg/dL glucose c. WBC: 8
b. 100% lymphocytes d. Protein: 25 mg/dL

42. 2nd most abundant protein in CSF:

a. Pre-albumin c. alpha-globulins
b. Albumin d. beta-globulins

43. Normal synovial fluid glucose should not be more than ________ mg/dL lower than the blood value.
a. 5 c. 15
b. 10 d. 20

44. Cell which could be seen in synovial fluid which resembles polished rice macroscopically:
a. Ragocytes c. Rice bodies
b. Cartilage cells d. Reiter cell

45. The normal color of gastric fluid is

a. Colorless c. White
b. Green d. Gray

46. What reagent is used for the APT Test?

a. Hydrochloric acid c. Sodium hydroxide
b. Sulfuric acid d. Potassium hydroxide

47. Lacks phenylalanine hydroxylase:

a. PKU c. Tyrosinemia
b. MSUD d. Alkaptonuria

IV. HEMATOLOGY
1. Length of needle usually used in routine phlebotomy:
a. 0.5 – 1.0 inch c. 1.5 – 2.0 inches
b. 1.0 – 1.5 inches d. 2.0 – 2.5 inches

2. In preparing a blood smear, the distance of the drop of blood from the label or end of the slide should be:
a. 1.0 cm b. 2.0 cm
c. 3.0 cm d. 4.0 cm

3. After staining a blood smear, the RBCs appeared bluish when viewed under the microscope. The following
are possible causes, except:
a. Stain or buffer is too basic
b. Inadequate rinsing
c. Inadequate buffering
d. Heparinized blood was used

4. Macrocytes: 25-50%
a. 1+ c. 3+
b. 2+ d. 4+

5. Codocytes: 41 per oil immersion field

a. 1+ c. 3+
b. 2+ d. 4+

6. Stomatocytes: 15 per oil immersion field

a. 1+ c. 3+
b. 2+ d. 4+

7. 12 RBCs with basophilic stippling were seen on a blood smear. How do report this finding?
a. Positive
b. Rare, few, moderate, many
c. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+
d. Average number / OIO

8. Hypochromia grading: “Area of pallor is two-thirds of cell diameter”

a. 1+ c. 3+
b. 2+ d. 4+

9. Polychromasia grading: 1+
a. 1% c. 5%
b. 3% d. 10%

10. How many platelets per oil immersion field should be observed in order to evaluate normal platelet
number in an appropriate area of a blood smear?
a. 4-10 c. 8-20
b. 6-15 d. 10-30

11. Hematopoietic stem cell marker:

a. CD10 c. CD35
b. CD34 d. CD56

12. Capillary tube:

a. Length: 11.5 cm Bore: 3.0 mm
b. Length: 30.0 cm Bore: 2.6 mm
c. Length: 7.0 cm Bore: 1.0 mm

13. Third layer in the examination of spun hematocrit:

a. Plasma c. Fatty layer
b. Buffy coat d. Packed red cells
14. If the RBC count of a patient is 5.0 x 1012/L, what is the approximate hemoglobin value?
a. 12 g/dL c. 15 g/dL
b. 14 g/dL d. 20 g/dL

15. MCHC: 28 g/dL

a. Outside reference range and considered normal
b. Within reference range and considered normal
c. Outside reference range and considered abnormal
d. Within reference range and considered abnormal

16. Which of the erythrocyte indices is not used in the classification of anemia?
a. MCV
b. MCHC
c. MCH
d. None of the above

17. Normocytic and normochromic anemia is usually seen in patients with ________________.
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Thalassemia
d. Anemia of chronic disease

18. What is the primary cause of death in patients with sickle cell anemia?
a. Aplastic crises c. Vaso-occlusive crises
b. Infectious crises d. Bleeding

19. Effect of multiple myeloma on ESR:

a. Markedly increased c. Normal
b. Moderately increased d. Decreased

20. A manual WBC count was performed on a hemacytometer, and 15,000 WBC/µL were counted. When the
differential count was performed, the medical technologist counter 20 NRBC per 100 total WBC. Calculate
the corrected WBC count.
a. 10,000 WBC/uL c. 12,000 WBC/uL
b. 11,500 WBC/uL d. 12,500 WBC/uL

21. If the white count is markedly elevated, in which it may be as high as 100 to 300 x 10 9/L, a
__________dilution is used.
a. 1:10 c. 1:200
b. 1:100 d. 1:250

22. How many WBCs can be counted in a differential when the WBC count is below 1.0 x 10 9/L?
a. 50 c. 150
b. 100 d. 200

23. Not an end-stage white blood cell:

a. neutrophils c. monocyte
b. eosinophils d. lymphocyte

24. Closest to the mast cells:

a. neutrophils c. basophils
b. eosinophils d. lymphocyte
25. A 200-cell count may be performed when the differential shows the following abnormal distribution,
except:
a. Over 10% eosinophils
b. Below 2% basophils
c. Over 11% monocytes
d. More lymphocytes than neutrophils except in children

26. Which of the following cells could be seen in lesions of mycosis fungoides?
a. T lymphocytes c. Monocytes
b. B lymphocytes d. Neutrophils

27. Major functional lymphocyte:

a. T cell c. NK cell
b. B cell d. All of the above

28. Absence of Philadelphia chromosome:

a. Good prognosis b. Poor prognosis

29. Fresh blood smears made from capillary blood are used for this cytochemical stain:
a. Sudan Black B c. Periodic Acid Schiff
b. Chloroacetate esterase d. Peroxidase

30. Color of blood in sulfhemoglobinemia:

a. Mauve lavender c. Cherry red
b. Chocolate brown d. Bright red

31. In hemoglobin C, glutamic acid on the 6th position of beta chain is replaced by which amino acid?
a. Lysine c. Arginine
b. Valine d. Glutamine

32. Five-part differential:

a. Granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes, platelets, erythrocytes
b. Immature cells, inclusions, erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets
c. Platelets, band cells, granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes
d. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils

33. Negative instrumental error:

a. Bubbles in the sample c. Extraneous electrical pulses
b. Aperture plugs d. Excessive RBC lysis

34. In an automated instrument, this parameter is calculated rather than directly measured:
a. RBC count c. Hemoglobin
b. WBC count d. Hematocrit

35. Reading in automation when there is platelet clumping

a. decreased WBC c. decreased RBC
b. decreased platelets d. increased platelets

36. Side angle scatter in a laser-based cell counting system is used to measure:
a. Cell size
b. Cell number
c. Cytoplasmic granularity
d. Antigenic identification
37. Number of platelet stages:
a. Six c. Eight
b. Seven d. Nine

38. Stage in the megakaryocytic series where thrombocytes are visible:

a. Metamegakaryocyte c. Promegakaryocyte
b. Megakaryocyte d. Megakaryoblast

39. Platelet estimate: 100,000 – 149,000

a. Low normal c. Normal
b. Slight decrease d. Moderate decrease

40. Normal value for template bleeding time:

a. 3 – 6 minutes c. 2 - 4 minutes
b. 6 – 10 minutes d. 7 – 15 minutes

41. Condition in which blood escapes into large areas of skin and mucous membranes, but not into deep
tissues:
a. Petechiae c. Ecchymosis
b. Purpura d. Hematoma

42. TRUE of Rosenthal disease:

a. Factor XI deficiency c. Both
b. Hemophilia C d. Neither

43. This is one of the coagulation factors which is activated in cold temperatures:
a. III c. VII
b. V d. IX

44. Similarity of factors V and VIII:

a. Vitamin-K dependent factors
b. Present in serum
c. Included in contact family of coagulation proteins
d. Labile factors

45. Prolonged APTT; Low fibrinogen; bleeding

a. DIC c. Hypofibrinogenemia
b. Hyperplasminemia d. Liver disease

46. Which pair is correct?

a. Intrinsic –PT [Link]- Fibrinogen/fibrin
b. Extrinsic- APTT d. None of the above

47. Euglobulin clot lysis time:

a. Screening test c. Other test
b. Confirmatory test d. None of these

48. Visual detection of fibrin clot formation:

a. Fibrometer
b. Electra 750
c. Coag-A-Mate X2
d. Tilt tube
V. SEROLOGY-IMMUNOLOGY & BLOOD BANKING
1. He was said to have been given the world's first blood transfusion by his Jewish physician Giacomo di San
Genesio, who had him drink the blood of three 10-year-old boys.
a. Pope Innocent VII c. Pope Gregory III
b. Pope Pius I d. Pope Boniface IV

2. The number of H antigen structures currently identified are:

a. Two c. Six
b. Four d. Eight

3. Greatest amount of H antigen:

a. A1 c. AB
b. O d. B

4. Identify the blood type based on the following reactions:

FORWARD GROUPING REVERSE GROUPING

Anti-A Anti-B A cells B cells

0 4+ 3+ 0

a. Type O c. Type B
b. Type A d. Type AB

5. Bombay phenotype antibodies include:

a. Anti-A c. Anti-H
b. Anti-B d. All of the choices

6. What type of blood should be given in an emergency transfusion when there is no time to type the
recipient’s sample?
a. O Rh-negative, whole blood c. O Rh-positive, whole blood
b. O Rh-negative, pRBCs d. O Rh-positive, pRBCs

7. This blood group is an anthropological marker in Asian ancestry:

a. Diego c. Colton
b. Cartwright d. Gerbich

8. The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an acidic environment.

a. Anti-S c. Anti-N
b. Anti-U d. Anti-M

9. Shelf-life of packed red blood cells obtained through open system with ACD anticoagulant:
a. 21 days c. 42 days
b. 35 days d. None of the choices

10. Indication for transfusion of neocytes:

a. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura c. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
b. Thalassemia d. Hydrops fetalis

11. Citrate in ACD functions as:

a. Anticoagulant b. ATP source
c. RBC membrane stabilizer d. Caramelization inhibitor

12. The most common cause of transfusion-related sepsis is:

a. Whole blood c. Leukocyte concentrates
b. Packed red blood cells d. Platelet concentrates

13. Major advantage of gel technology:

a. Decreased sample volume c. Enhanced sensitivity
b. Improved productivity d. Standardization

14. Agglutination reaction: “Several large clumps with clear background”

a. 4+ c. 2+
b. 3+ d. 1+

15. This type of autologous donation occurs when blood is collected from the patient before the start of
surgery. The patient’s blood volume is returned to normal with fluids, and autologous blood may be
returned to the patient after the surgery is complete.
a. Preoperative c. Intraoperative salvage
b. Normovolemic hemodilution d. Postoperative salvage

16. The anticoagulant preferred in direct antiglobulin testing is:

a. EDTA c. Citrate
b. Heparin d. Oxalate

17. A donor was deferred by the physician due to the presence of bluish purple areas under the skin of the
donor. This is typical of:
a. Syphilis c. Candidiasis
b. Herpes simplex d. Kaposi’s sarcoma

18. A resident of Palawan for 10 years is deferred from donating blood for:
a. 3 years c. 2 weeks
b. 1 year d. Permanent deferral

19. Size of pore in leukoreduction filter

a. 10um c. 2 um
b. 5um d. 4um

20. A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body temperature of _____ occurring in association
with the transfusion of blood or components and without any other explanation.
a. 1°C or more c. 3°C or more
b. 1°F or more d. 3°F or more

21. Rise in hematocrit after transfusion of fresh whole blood

a. 1-3% c. 5-10%
b. 3-5% d. >10%

22. The most severe form of HDN is associated with:

a. Anti-A c. Anti-K
b. Anti-B d. Anti-D

23. A diagnostic prenatal test in which a sample of the baby's blood is removed from the umbilical cord:
a. Cordocentesis c. Both
b. PUBS d. None of the above
24. Percentage of B cells present in the circulation
a. 2 – 5 % c. 10 – 15 %
b. 5 – 10 % d. 75 – 85 %

25. C3b
a. Anaphylatoxin c. Chemotaxin
b. Opsonin d. Cytokine

26. What is the most common complement component deficiency?

a. C1 c. C3
b. C2 d. C4

27. Which of the following is the most common congenital immunodeficiency?

a. Severe combined immunodeficiency c. Selective IgA deficiency
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia d. Common variable immunodeficiency

28. Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth muscle?

a. Chronic active hepatitis c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis d. Myasthenia gravis

29. The most common fungal infection for AIDS patients is caused by:
a. Candida albicans c. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Cryptococcus neoformans d. Cryptosporidium parvum

30. This dengue antigen has been detected in the serum of dengue virus infected patients as early as 1 day
post onset of symptoms (DPO), and up to 18 DPO.
a. NS1 c. E
b. C d. prM

31. These are expressed in the developing fetus and in rapidly dividing tissue, such as that associated with
tumors, but that are absent in normal adult tissue:
a. Oncogenes c. Sarcoma
b. Oncofetal antigens d. Tumor specific antigen

32. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a/an _________ assay.

a. Chemical c. Enzymatic
b. Molecular d. Biologic

33. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) is a/an _________ assay.

a. Chemical c. Enzymatic
b. Molecular d. Biologic

34. Hives and itching are under what type of hypersensitivity?

a. Type I c. Type III
b. Type II d. Type IV

35. Gamma counter uses these substances as labels:

a. Isotopes c. Enzymes
b. Fluorochromes d. Immune complexes

36. Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test: 10% treponemes are immobilized. Interpret the result.
a. Positive c. Doubtful
b. Negative d. Indeterminate

37. When reading for a slide agglutination for Salmonella, macroscopic agglutination is graded as 25%.
a. Non-reactive c. Positive
b. Negative d. 1+

38. Other name for “HCV RNA”:

a. Viral clade c. Viral load
b. Surface antigen d. Core antigen

39. Not included as a Hepatitis B serologic marker:

a. HBcAg c. Anti-HBeAg
b. HBeAg d. Anti-HBcAg

40. Autoimmune diseases are mostly associated with which class of HLA?
a. Class I c. Class III
b. Class II d. Class IV

41. Which of the following activates both T and B cells?

a. Pokeweed mitogen c. Concanavalin A
b. Lipopolysaccharide d. Phytohemagglutinin

42. Immunoglobulin found in secretions (tears):

a. IgG c. IgE
b. IgM d. IgA

43. Pentameric immunoglobulin:

a. IgG c. IgE
b. IgM d. IgD

44. Population of NK cells:

a. 5-10% c. 15-20%
b. <10 % d. 70-80%

45. Chemokines are produced from:

a. many types of cells c. T cells
b. B cells d. None of the above

46. Cytokines are released by:

a. T & B cells c. macrophages, T cells, B cells
b. T cells & macrophages d. NK cells

47. Large granular lymphocytes

a. NK cells c. T cells
b. B cells d. All of the above

48. CD 34:
a. HSC c. B cells
b. T cells d. Megakaryocyte

49. It is used as the receptor for the sheep red blood cells (sRBC) for e-rosette assay:
a. CD2 c. CD4
b. CD8 d. CD21
VI. HISTOPATHOLOGY, MEDTECH LAWS & ETHICS
1. Panunumpa ng Propesyonal: Ako, si (Pangalan) ng (__________) ay taimtim na nanunumpa…
a. Tirahan c. Bansa
b. Paaralan d. Kurso

2. Cursing a co-worker covers which part of the code of ethics?

a. Share my knowledge and expertise with my colleagues
b. Restrict my praises, criticisms, views and opinions within constructive limits.
c. Treat any information I acquire in the course of my work as strictly confidentials
d. Contribute to the advancement of the professional organization and other allied health
organizations.

3. Revocation of license:
a. 2/3 of BOMT c. 3/3 of PRC
b. 3/3 of BOMT d. 3/3 of CHED

4. Non-biodegradable wastes are contained in __________-colored bags:

a. Black c. Red
b. Yellow d. Orange

5. How do you sterilize a vacutainer?

a. ethylene glycol c. autoclave
b. gamma irradiation d. all of the above

6. Stat means:
a. Immediately c. Now
b. As soon as possible d. None of these

7. It is a general purpose fixative.

a. Mercuric chloride c. Chromate
b. Acetone d. 10% neutral buffered formalin

8. Clearing is also known as:

a. Dealcoholization c. Infiltration
b. Dehydration d. Embedding

9. Double embedding: the tissue is first infiltrated with ____, followed by embedding with ____
a. Celloidin > Paraffin c. Celloidin > Gelatin
b. Paraffin > Celloidin d. Paraffin > Gelatin

10. Most rapid embedding technique:

a. Manual c. Automatic
b. Vacuum d. None of the choices

11. He invented the Cambridge microtome:

a. Minot c. Trefall
b. Adams d. Queckett

12. The following characterizes honing except:

a. Heel to toe c. Knife sharpening
b. Removal of nicks d. Uses paddle made of horse leather
13. Knife used in the rotary microtome:
a. glass knife c. steel knife
b. diamond knife d. razor blade

14. Polyclonal antibodies used in immunohistochemical techniques are derived from:

a. Rabbit c. Pig
b. Goat d. Mice

15. Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC), which is __________ in color, is a common chromogen for peroxidases which
should be made fresh immediately before use.
a. Red c. Orange
b. Brown d. Pink

16. It is a surgical connection between two structures. It usually means a connection that is created between
tubular structures, such as blood vessels or loops of intestine.
a. Anastomosis c. Matrix
b. Network d. Reticulum

17. In an autopsy procedure, the prosector is the:

a. Pathologist c. Assistant
b. Medical technologist d. Patient

18. Post- mortem clotting of blood:

1 – immediately after death 3 – rubbery clot
2 – after rigor mortis 4 – friable clot

19. Normal lungs float on a basin of water during autopsy since it is filled with air. Lungs with pneumonia will:
a. float c. collapse
b. sink d. expand

20. If the heart does not receive enough oxygen, what kind of necrosis occurs?
a. Coagulative c. Caseating
b. Liquefaction d. Fibrinoid

21. Which of the following are found inside the cryostat?

1 - knife 3 - slides
2 – microtome 4 – dry ice, camel hair, brush, forceps

22. The following are found under the microscope in chronic inflammation:
1 – Macrophage 3 - collagen
2 – lymphocyte 4 – plasma cell

23. The suffix “-ITIS” means:

a. inflammation c. chronic inflammation
b. infection d. acute inflammation

24. Cardiac muscle under 400x magnification:

1 – uninucleated 3 – intercalated disks
2 – centrally located nucleus 4 - striated

25. H&E:
a. Regressive staining b. Progressive staining
26. Patient has high bilirubin, yellow sclera, jaundiced:
a. Sign c. Diagnosis
b. Symptom d. All of the above

27. Used in collecting sample from the transformation zone:

1 – brush 3 – modified ayre’s spatula
2 – ayre’s spatula 4 – cotton swab

28. This anatomic site for gynecologic samples is used for the detection of endocervical lesions or intrauterine
lesions.
a. Upper third of the vaginal wall
b. Ectocervix
c. Endocervix
d. Vulva

29. Instruments used in obtaining cervical samples for Papanicolau smear, except:
a. Glass pipette
b. Ayre’s spatula
c. Laryngeal cannula
d. Syringe
26