FINAL EXAMINATION in GENERAL PHYSICS 1
TEST I. Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully. Choose the letter of the correct answer.
1. Two small spheres, each 2 kg, are rotating around the same axis of rotation. The first sphere
is 1 meter from the axis, while the second sphere is 2 meters from the axis. Calculate the
moment of inertia about the axis of rotation for each sphere.
A. 10 kgm2 B. 11 kgm2 C. 12 kgm2 D. 13 kgm2
Solution:
Step 1: For each object, identify its mass and distance to the axis of rotation.
Object 1: m=2 kg, r=1 m
Object 2: m=2 kg, r=2 m
Step 2: Use the formula I=∑mr2I=∑mr2 to calculate the moment of inertia.
I=(2)(12)+(2)(22) I=(2)(12)+(2)(22)
I=(2)(12+22) I=(2)(12+22)
The moment of inertia of the spheres about the axis of rotation is 10 kgm2
2. Use Properties of the Cross Product to find the magnitude of the cross product of u=⟨0,4,0⟩
and v=⟨0,0,−3⟩.
A. 15 B. 17 C. 20 D. 12
Solution:
We have
∥u×v∥=∥u∥⋅∥v∥⋅sinθ
= √ 02 +4 2 +02 . √0 2+0 2+ ¿ ¿
= 4 (3) (1)
= 12
3. Use the cross product properties to calculate (2i×3j)×j.
A. -5i B. +5i C. -6i D. -7i
4. What quantity describes the ability of a force to rotate an object?
A. mass B. moment of inertia C. torque D. velocity
5. Which of the following is NOT a condition for an object to be in static equilibrium?
A. the object isn't moving
B. the object is in translational equilibrium
C. the object is in rotational equilibrium
D. the object is at a constant velocity
6. What is static equilibrium?
A. Where an object isn't moving, and where the various influences on that object are in
balance (are equal).
B. Where an object is moving, and the forces on it are balanced.
C. When an object is in translational equilibrium only.
D. Where the linear forces on an object in three dimensions are balanced.
7. A deep-sea fisherman hooks a big fish that swims away from the boat, pulling the fishing line
from his fishing reel. The whole system is initially at rest, and the fishing line unwinds from
the reel at a radius of 4.50 cm from its axis of rotation. The reel is given an angular
acceleration of 110rad/s2 for 2.00 s. What is the final angular velocity of the reel after 2 s?
A. 225rad/s B. 220rad/s C. 222rad/s D. 223rad/s
Solution:
We are given α and t and want to determine ω. The most straightforward equation to use is
ωf=ω0+αt, since all terms are known besides the unknown variable we are looking for. We are given
that ω0=0 (it starts from rest), so
ωf=0+(110rad/s2)(2.00s)
=220rad/s.
8. A figure skater starts spinning on one skate with his arms spread out. He then keeps
spinning and pulls his arms closer to his body. Which of the following statements are true?
A. Both the skater's angular momentum and rotational kinetic energy remain constant.
B. The skater's angular momentum remains constant, and his rotational kinetic energy
decreases.
C. The skater's angular momentum increases, and his rotational kinetic energy remains
constant.
D. The skater's angular momentum remains constant, and his rotational kinetic energy
increases.
9. A heavenly body revolves around massive star in highly elliptical orbit. Ignoring mass loss of
the heavenly body when it comes too close to the star, the angular momentum over the orbit
is ____________.
A. Horizontal Component C. Radial Component
B. Vertical Component D. Tangential Component
10. A uniform ladder which is 5 m long has a mass of 30 kg with its upper end against a smooth
vertical wall and its lower end is on a rough ground. The bottom of the ladder is 3 m from the
wall. Calculate the frictional force between the ladder and the ground. (g=10 m/s 2).
A. 202 N B. 200 N C. 220 N D. 222 N
Solution:
length of ladder =5 m
distance of base form vertical wall =3 m
mass of ladder =30 kg=m
friction act only on point A
let friction force at
A=fr
from figure
cosθ=53
θ=53o
making free body diagram of ladder
Then for vertical balance
=N1=mg.....(1)
for horizontal balance
fr=N.....(2)
Taking rotational equilibrium about C
as torque is only due to perpendicular component
⇒AC=BC=25
AC×fr sinθ+BC×N sinθ=AC×N1 cosθ
=25×frsin53+25×frsinθ=25×mg cosθ
as (N=fr,N1=mg from (1) & (2))
=2frsin53=30×10cos53
=fr=230×10×34=200 N
Hence friction between ladder and ground is 200 N
11. The solution of the problem involves substituting known values of G (6.673 x 10 -11 N m2/kg2),
m1 (5.98 x 1024 kg), m2 (70 kg) and d (6.38 x 106 m) into the universal gravitation equation
and solving for Fgrav.
A. Fgrav = 686 N B. Fgrav = 685 N C. Fgrav = 680 N D. Fgrav = 682 N
Solution:
12. A possible space habitat of the future is a cylinder in space rotating about its long axis. What
is the relative gravitational field along the axis of the habitat?
A. One-quarter g B. Zero C. Three-quarters g D. g
13. A 60.0-kg person jumps onto the floor from a height of 3.00 m. If he lands stiffly (with his
knee joints compressing by 0.500 cm), calculate the force on the knee joints.
A. F = 3.53 x 105 N C. F = 3.57 x 105 N
B. F = 3.50 x 105 N D. F = 3.55 x 105 N
Solution:
The work done on the person by the floor as he stops is given by
W=Fdcosθ=−Fd,
with a minus sign because the displacement while stopping and the force from floor are in opposite
directions (cosθ=cos180º=−1). The floor removes energy from the system, so it does negative work.
The kinetic energy the person has upon reaching the floor is the amount of potential energy lost by falling
through height h:
KE=−ΔPEg=−mgh,
The distance d that the person’s knees bend is much smaller than the height h of the fall, so the additional
change in gravitational potential energy during the knee bend is ignored.
The work W done by the floor on the person stops the person and brings the person’s kinetic energy to zero:
W=−KE=mgh.
Combining this equation with the expression for W gives
−Fd=mgh.
Recalling that h is negative because the person fell down, the force on the knee joints is given by
F=−
mgh
d
=− ( m
s )
( 60.0 kg ) 9.80 2 (−3.00 m)
5.00 . 10−3 m
F = 3.53 x 105 N
14. A geosynchronous satellite is a satellite that orbits the earth with an orbital period of 24
hours, thus matching the period of the earth's rotational motion. A special class of
geosynchronous satellites is a geostationary satellite. A geostationary satellite orbits the
earth in 24 hours along an orbital path that is parallel to an imaginary plane drawn through
the Earth's equator. Such a satellite appears permanently fixed above the same location on
the Earth. If a geostationary satellite wishes to orbit the earth in 24 hours (86400 s), then
how high above the earth's surface must it be located? (Given: M earth = 5.98x1024 kg, Rearth =
6.37 x 106 m)
A. 3.60 x 107 m B. 3.57 x 107 m C. 3.55 x 107 m D. 3.59 x 107 m
Solution:
T = 86400 s
Mearth = 5.98x1024 kg
Rearth = 6.37 x 106 m
G = 6.673 x 10-11 N m2/kg2
H = ??
The unknown in this problem is the height (h) of the satellite above
the surface of the earth. Yet there is no equation with the
variable h. The solution then involves first finding the radius of
orbit and using this R value and the R of the earth to find the
height of the satellite above the earth. As shown in the diagram at
the right, the radius of orbit for a satellite is equal to the sum of
the earth's radius and the height above the earth. The radius of
orbit can be found using the following equation:
The equation can be rearranged to the following form
R3 = [ (T2 * G * Mcentral) / (4*pi2) ]
The substitution and solution are as follows:
R3 = [ ((86400 s)2 • (6.673 x 10-11 N m2/kg2) • (5.98x1024 kg) ) / (4 • (3.1415)2) ]
R3 = 7.54 x 1022 m3
By taking the cube root of 7.54 x 1022 m3, the radius can be determined to be
R = 4.23 x 107 m
The radius of orbit indicates the distance that the satellite is from the center of the earth.
Now that the radius of orbit has been found, the height above the earth can be calculated.
Since the earth's surface is 6.37 x 106 m from its center (that's the radius of the earth), the
satellite must be a height of
4.23 x 107 m - 6.37 x 106 m = 3.59 x 107 m
above the surface of the earth. So the height of the satellite is 3.59 x 107 m.
[Link] period of the moon is approximately 27.2 days (2.35 x 106 s). Determine the radius of the
moon's orbit and the orbital speed of the moon. (Given: Mearth = 5.98 x 1024 kg, Rearth = 6.37 x
106 m). Find the R and v
A. R = 3.82 x 108 m, v = 1.02 x 103 m/s C. R = 3.80 x 108 m, v = 1.00 x 103 m/s
8 3
B. R = 3.85 x 10 m, v = 1.05 x 10 m/s D. R = 3.00 x 108 m, v = 1.01 x 103 m/s
Solution:
T = 2.35 x 106 s
Mearth = 5.98 x 1024 kg
G = 6.673 x 10-11 N m2/kg2
The radius of orbit can be calculated using the following equation:
The equation can be rearranged to the following form
R3 = [ (T2 • G • Mcentral) / (4 • pi2) ]
The substitution and solution are as follows:
R3 = [ ((2.35x106 s)2 • (6.673 x 10-11 N m2/kg2) • (5.98x1024 kg) ) / (4 • (3.1415)2) ]
R3 = 5.58 x 1025 m3
By taking the cube root of 5.58 x 1025 m3, the radius can be determined as follows:
R = 3.82 x 108 m
The orbital speed of the satellite can be computed from either of the following equations:
(1) v = SQRT [ (G • MCentral ) / R ] (2) v = (2 • pi • R)/T
Equation (1) was derived above. Equation (2) is a general equation for circular motion. Either
equation can be used to calculate the orbital speed; the use of equation (1) will be demonstrated
here. The substitution of values into this equation and solution are as follows:
v = SQRT [ (6.673 x 10-11 N m2/kg2)*(5.98x1024 kg) / (3.82 x 108 m) ]
v = 1.02 x 103 m/s
16. The average orbital distance of Mars is 1.52 times the average orbital distance of the Earth.
Knowing that the Earth orbits the sun in approximately 365 days, use Kepler's law of
harmonies to predict the time for Mars to orbit the sun.
A. 685 days B. 680 days C. 684 days D. 700 days
Solution:
Given: Rmars = 1.52 • Rearth and Tearth = 365 days
Use Kepler's third law to relate the ratio of the period squared to the ratio of radius cubed
(Tmars)2 / (Tearth)2 • (Rmars)3 / (Rearth)3
(Tmars)2 = (Tearth)2 • (Rmars)3 / (Rearth)3
(Tmars)2 = (365 days)2 * (1.52)3
(Note the Rmars / Rearth ratio is 1.52)
[Link] the amplitude, frequency, angular frequency, period, displacement, velocity, and
acceleration of oscillating systems.
A. 100 B. 10 C. 1 D. 0.1
Solution:
18.A mass on a spring undergoes Simple Harmonic Motion. The maximum displacement from
the equilibrium is called?
A. Period B. Frequency C. Amplitude D. Wavelength
[Link] a periodic process, the number of cycles per unit of time is called?
A. Period B. Frequency C. Amplitude D. Wavelength
20. A simple pendulum; a physical pendulum; a torsional pendulum and a spring-mass system,
each of same frequency are taken to the moon. If frequencies are measured on the moon,
which system systems will have it unchanged?
A. Simple pendulum; a physical pendulum; a torsional pendulum and a spring-mass
system, each of same frequency are taken to the moon. If frequencies are measured on
the moon, which system systems will have it unchanged?
B. Only spring-mass system
C. Spring-mass system and physical pendulum
D. None of these
[Link] is the acceleration due to gravity in a region where a simple pendulum having a length
75.000 cm has a period of 1.7357 s?
A. g=9.8281m/s2 B. g=9.8285m/s2 C. g=9.8290m/s2 D. g=9.8288m/s2
Solution:
1. Square T=2π
√ L and solve for g:
g
L
g=4π2
T2
2. Substitute known values into the new equation:
0.75000 m
g=4π2 2
(1.7357)
3. Calculate to find g:
g=9.8281m/s2.
[Link] is true about Damped Harmonic?
A. Returns the system to equilibrium as fast as possible without overshooting.
B. Oscillate through the equilibrium position
C. Have non-conservative forces that dissipate their energy.
D. Moves more slowly toward equilibrium than one that is critically damped.
23. This type of wave travels parallel to the direction of wave motion
A. Mechanical Wave C. Longitudinal Wave
B. B. Electromagnetic Wave D. Transverse Wave
24. What is the relation between the amplitude of a wave and its speed?
A. The amplitude of a wave is independent of its speed.
B. The amplitude of a wave is directly proportional to its speed.
C. The amplitude of a wave is directly proportional to the square of the inverse of its
speed.
D. The amplitude of a wave is directly proportional to the inverse of its speed.
25. Two charged objects have a repulsive force of 0.080 N. If the distance separating the
objects is doubled, then what is the new force?
A. 0.020 N B. 0.040 N C. 0.080 N D. 0.060 N
Explanation: The electrostatic force is inversely related to the square of the separation distance.
So if d is two times larger, then F is four times smaller - that is, one-fourth the original value. One-
fourth of 0.080 N is 0.020 N
26. Pure constructive interference occurs between two waves when they have the same _____.
A. frequency and are in phase C. amplitude and are in phase
B. frequency and are out of phase D. amplitude and are out of phase
27. A string with a linear mass density of 0.0062 kg/m and a length of 3.00 m is set into the
N = 100 mode of resonance. The tension in the string is 20.00 N. What is the wavelength
and frequency of the wave?
A. f100=947Hz B. f100=945Hz C. f =940Hz
100 D. f =950Hz
100
Solution:
λ100=0.06mv=56.8m/s,fn=nf1,n=1,2,3,4,5…
f =947Hz
100
28. A source is moving towards observer with a speed of 20 m/s and having frequency 240
Hz and observer is moving towards source with a velocity of 20 m/s. what is the apparent
frequency heard by observer, if velocity of sound is 340 m/s?
A. 270 Hz B. 240 Hz C. 268 Hz D. 360 Hz
29. The density of hot and cold water are different mainly because
A. The molecules in hot water move slower and are slightly closer together
B. The molecules in hot water are larger
C. The molecules in hot water move faster and are slightly further apart
D. The molecules in cold water move faster and are further apart
30. Why is a person can lie on a bed of nails if there is a very large number of nails?
A. The force produced by the man's weight is distributed over hundreds of nails of the
nail bed.
B. Pressure is equal to force divided by area.
C. With more force comes more pressure, and with more area comes less pressure
D. All the above
31. Consider the pressure and force acting on the dam retaining a reservoir of water (Figure).
Suppose the dam is 500-m wide and the water is 80.0-m deep at the dam, as illustrated
below. What is the average pressure on the dam due to the water?
A. p = 250kPa B. p = 300kPa C. p = 385kPa D. p = 392kPa
32. Consider the automobile hydraulic system shown.
Suppose a force of 100 N is applied to the brake
pedal, which acts on the pedal cylinder (acting as a
“master” cylinder) through a lever. A force of 500 N
is exerted on the pedal cylinder. Pressure created
in the pedal cylinder is transmitted to the four-
wheel cylinders. The pedal cylinder has a diameter
of 0.500 cm and each wheel cylinder has a
diameter of 2.50 cm. Calculate the magnitude of
the force F2 created at each of the wheel cylinders.
A. F2 = 1.50×104N C. F2 = 1.75×104N
B. F2 = 1.25×104N D. F2 = 1.72×104N
Solution:
F1 F 2
Pascal’s principle applied to hydraulic systems is given by = :
A1 A2
2
A2 π r2
F 2 = F 1= 2 F 1
A1 π r1
(1.25 cm)2
= x 500 N
(0.250 cm)2
F2 = 1.25×104N
[Link] a 60.0-kg woman floats in fresh water with 97.0% of her volume submerged
when her lungs are full of air. What is her average density?
A. Pperson = 975kg/m3 C. Pperson = 970kg/m3
B. Pperson = 920kg/m3 D. Pperson = 980kg/m3
[Link] hoses used in major structural fires have an inside diameter of
6.40 cm (Figure 14.8.5 ). Suppose such a hose carries a flow of
40.0 L/s, starting at a gauge pressure of 1.62 x 106 N/m2. The
hose rises 10.0 m along a ladder to a nozzle having an inside
diameter of 3.00 cm. What is the pressure in the nozzle?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4
Solution:
Bernoulli’s equation is
where subscripts 1 and 2 refer to the initial conditions at
ground level and the final conditions inside the nozzle, respectively. We must first find the
speeds v1 and v2. Since Q = A1v1, we get
Similarly, we find
v2=56.6m/s
This rather large speed is helpful in reaching the fire. Now, taking h1 to be zero, we solve
Bernoulli’s equation for p2
Substituting known values yields
[Link] any two industries in which the principles of thermodynamics are used.
A. aerospace and information technology (IT) industries and industrial
manufacturing and aerospace
B. mining and textile industries and mining and agriculture industries
C. aerospace and information technology (IT) industries and mining and textile industries
D. industrial manufacturing and aerospace and agriculture industries
[Link] temperature” is generally defined to be 25 oC. What is room temperature in oF?
A. 75o F B. 77o F C. 78o F D. 80o F
Solution:
[Link] is true about Volume Expansion and Coefficient of Volume Expansion
I. The volume of a solid substance increases if its temperature is increased is called
volume expansion.
II. Thermal expansion is the tendency of matter to change in volume in response to a
change in temperature
III. The degree of expansion divided by the change in temperature is called the material’s
coefficient of thermal expansion
IV. It generally varies with temperature
A. I and II B. I Only C. I and III D. I, II, III, IV
[Link] main span of San Francisco’s Golden Gate Bridge is 1275 m long at its coldest. The
bridge is exposed to temperatures ranging from −15∘C to 40∘C. What is its change in length
between these temperatures? Assume that the bridge is made entirely of steel.
A. 0.84m B. 0.85m C. 0.87m D. 0.86m
Solution:
Plug all the known values into the equation to solve for ΔL.
39.A 20 kg metal rod is heated 100∘C with 2000 J of energy. What is the specific heat of a
metal?
A. 51.02m B. 50.02m C. 52m D. 55
[Link] statement is false?
A. The density of a gas is constant as long as its temperature remains constant.
B. Gases can be expanded without limit.
C. Gases diffuse into each other and mix almost immediately when put into the same
container.
D. The molecular weight of a gaseous compound is a non-variable quantity.
41.A sample of oxygen occupies 47.2 liters under a pressure of 1240 torr at 25oC. What volume
would it occupy at 25oC if the pressure were decreased to 730 torr?
A. 27.8 L B. 29.3 L C. 32.3 L D. 80.2 L
[Link] the PV diagram shown, points A and B represent two
states of a given mass of an ideal gas. This gas is taken from
state A to state B in two different ways:
I. An isobaric process first and an isochoric (constant
volume) process next.
II. An isochoric process first and an isobaric process
next.
III. If the work done by the gas in cases (i) and (ii) are
respectively W1 and W2, pick out the most suitable
statement:
A. W1> W2 B. W2> W1 C. W1= W2
D. W1= W2/2
Explanation:
In both cases the gas expands and therefore work is done by the gas. You should remember that no
work is done in the case of an isochoric process. So, no work is done in the processes indicated by
PB and AQ (Fig.).
Work is done by the gas during the processes indicated by AP and QB. Since the work done is equal
to the area under the PV curve, more work is done during the process AP. Therefore, W1> W2.
[Link] the average pressure at which the gas was while it was being compressed as well
as the change in volume of the gas during the compression.
A. W = 800000J B. W = 720000J C. W = 750000J D. W = 770000J
Solution:
We have been given the following quantities:
P=500,000 PaP=500,000 Pa
ΔV=0.5 m3−2 m3=−1.5 m3ΔV=0.5 m3−2 m3=−1.5 m3
Step 2: Multiply the pressure by the change in volume to determine the work done on the gas.
Therefore, the work done on the gas is:
W=−PΔV=−(500,000 Pa)(−1.5 m3)=750000 JW=−PΔV=−(500,000 Pa)(−1.5 m3)=750000 J
During this time, the work done on the gas is +750,000 J meaning that energy went into the gas.
44. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between?
A. Heat and word C. various properties of the system
B. Heat, work and properties of the system D. various thermodynamic process
45. The given diagram shows four processes i.e., isochoric, isobaric,
isothermal, and adiabatic. The correct assignment of the process, in the
same order is given by
A. D A C B B. A D C B C. A D B C D. D A B C
Explanation:
isochoric → process d
isobaric → process a
Adiabatic slope will be more than isothermal so
Isothermal → process b
Adiabatic → process c
order → d a b c
46.A heat engine requires 800J of added heat to produce 50cal of work. What is the efficiency of
the engine?
A. e = 0.2616, then the heat engine has an efficiency of approximately 26%
B. e = 0.25, then the heat engine has an efficiency of approximately 25%
C. e = 0.29.9, then the heat engine has an efficiency of approximately 30%
D. e = 0.22, then the heat engine has an efficiency of approximately 22%
Solution:
Step 1: Identify the input energy QINQIN (also referred to as the heat added to the engine.
QIN=800J
QOUT=50cal
Step 2: Check your units. The input energy and the output energy should have the same units. If
they do not, convert the units of the input energy to the units of the output energy or convert the
units of the output energy to the units of the input energy.
Since the input energy is in joules and the output energy is in calories, we convert the joules into
calories by using the conversion 1J=0.2389cal. Our input energy is 800 × 0.2389
= 1.9112 ×102 calories
2
QIN=1.9112×10 cal
QOUT=50cal
Step 3: If the problem is asking for the efficiency e, substitute these values into the equation:
Qout
e=
Q¿ ❑
Using the above equation, calculate the efficiency e.
50 cal
e= 2
1.9112×1 0
e=0.2616
Step 4: This step is not needed for this question.
Step 5: This step is not needed for this question.
Since e = 0.2616, then the heat engine has an efficiency of approximately 26%.
[Link] is a quasi-static process?
A. Irreversible C. In equilibrium at every state
B. Reversible D. Not involving friction
[Link] spontaneous adsorption of gas
A. ΔS is negative so ΔH should be highly positive
B. ΔS is negative so ΔH should be highly negative
C. ΔS is positive so ΔH should also be highly positive
D. ΔS is positive so ΔH should be negative
[Link] of the following processes is used to do maximum work done on the ideal gas that is
compressed to half of its initial volume?
A. Isothermal C. isobaric
B. Isochoric D. adiabatic
[Link] the entropy change for 1.00 mol of an ideal gas expanding isothermally from a
volume of 24.4 L to 48.8 L.
A. ΔS = 5.85J/K C. ΔS = 5.76J/K
B. B. ΔS = 5.80J/K D. ΔS = 5.75J/K
Solution: Recognizing that this is an isothermal process,