All MCQ Qaqt

STATISTICS 8: CHAPTERS 7 TO 10, SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. If two events (both with probability greater than 0) are mutually exclusive, then:
A. They also must be independent.
B. They also could be independent.
C. They cannot be independent.

2. If two events (both with probability greater than 0) are mutually exclusive, then:
A. They also must be complements.
B. They also could be complements.
C. They cannot be complements.

3. Suppose that the probability of event A is 0.2 and the probability of event B is 0.4. Also, suppose that
the two events are independent. Then P(A|B) is:
A. P(A) = 0.2
B. P(A)/P(B) = 0.2/0.4 = ½
C. P(A) × P(B) = (0.2)(0.4) = 0.08
D. None of the above.
4. Which of the following is an example of a relative frequency probability based on measuring a

representative sample and observing relative frequencies of possible outcomes?
A. According to the late Carl Sagan, the probability that the earth will be hit by a civilization-
threatening asteroid in the next century is about 0.001.
B. If you flip a fair coin, the probability that it lands with heads up is ½.
C. Based on a recent Newsweek poll, the probability that a randomly selected adult in the US
would say they oppose federal funding for stem cell research is about 0.37.
D. A new airline boasts that the probability that its flights will be on time is 0.92, because 92% of all
flights it has ever flown did arrive on time.
5. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between a parameter and a statistic?
A. A parameter has a sampling distribution with the statistic as its mean.
B. A parameter has a sampling distribution that can be used to determine what values the statistic is
likely to have in repeated samples.
C. A parameter is used to estimate a statistic.
D. A statistic is used to estimate a parameter.
6. A sampling distribution is the probability distribution for which one of the following:
A. A sample
B. A sample statistic
C. A population
D. A population parameter
7. Which of the following is the most common example of a situation for which the main parameter of
interest is a population proportion?
A. A binomial experiment
B. A normal experiment
C. A randomized experiment
D. An observational study
8. Which statement is not true about confidence intervals?
A. A confidence interval is an interval of values computed from sample data that is likely to include
the true population value.
B. An approximate formula for a 95% confidence interval is sample estimate  margin of error.
C. A confidence interval between 20% and 40% means that the population proportion lies between
20% and 40%.
D. A 99% confidence interval procedure has a higher probability of producing intervals that will
include the population parameter than a 95% confidence interval procedure.
9. Which statement is not true about the 95% confidence level?

A. Confidence intervals computed by using the same procedure will include the true population value
for 95% of all possible random samples taken from the population.
B. The procedure that is used to determine the confidence interval will provide an interval that
includes the population parameter with probability of 0.95.
C. The probability that the true value of the population parameter falls between the bounds of an
already computed confidence interval is roughly 95%.
D. If we consider all possible randomly selected samples of the same size from a population, the 95%
is the percentage of those samples for which the confidence interval includes the population
parameter.
10. In a random sample of 50 men, 40% said they preferred to walk up stairs rather than take the elevator.
In a random sample of 40 women, 50% said they preferred the stairs. The difference between the two
sample proportions (men – women) is to be calculated. Which of the following choices correctly
denotes the difference between the two sample proportions that is desired?
A. p1 − p2 = 0.10
B. p̂1 − p̂ 2 = 0.10
C. p1 − p2 = −0.10
D. p̂1 − p̂ 2 = −0.10
11. Which of the following statements is correct about a parameter and a statistic associated with repeated
random samples of the same size from the same population?
A. Values of a parameter will vary from sample to sample but values of a statistic will not.
B. Values of both a parameter and a statistic may vary from sample to sample.
C. Values of a parameter will vary according to the sampling distribution for that parameter.
D. Values of a statistic will vary according to the sampling distribution for that statistic.
12. Five hundred (500) random samples of size n=900 are taken from a large population in which 10% are
left-handed. The proportion of the sample that is left-handed is found for each sample and a histogram
of these 500 proportions is drawn. Which interval covers the range into which about 68% of the
values in the histogram will fall?
A. .1  .010
B. .1  .0134
C. .1  .0167
D. .1  .020
13. A randomly selected sample of 400 students at a university with 15-week semesters was asked
whether or not they think the semester should be shortened to 14 weeks (with longer classes). Forty-
six percent (46%) of the 400 students surveyed answered "yes." Which one of the following
statements about the number 46% is correct?
A. It is a sample statistic.
B. It is a population parameter.
C. It is a margin of error.
D. It is a standard error.
14. Which of the following examples involves paired data?

A. A study compared the average number of courses taken by a random sample of 100 freshmen at a
university with the average number of courses taken by a separate random sample of 100
freshmen at a community college.
B. A group of 100 students were randomly assigned to receive vitamin C (50 students) or a placebo
(50 students). The groups were followed for 2 weeks and the proportions with colds were
compared.
C. A group of 50 students had their blood pressures measured before and after watching a movie
containing violence. The mean blood pressure before the movie was compared with the mean
pressure after the movie.
D. None of the above.
15. A poll is done to estimate the proportion of adult Americans who like their jobs. The poll is based on a
random sample of 400 individuals. What is the “conservative” margin of error of this poll?
A. 0.10
B. 0.05
C. 0.04
D. 0.025
16. The expected value of a random variable is the

A. value that has the highest probability of occurring.
B. mean value over an infinite number of observations of the variable.
C. largest value that will ever occur.
D. most common value over an infinite number of observations of the variable.
17. The payoff (X) for a lottery game has the following probability distribution.
X = payoff $0 $5
probability 0.8 0.2
A. What is the expected value of X= payoff?

B. $0
C. $0.50
D. $1.00
E. $2.50
18. Which one of these variables is a continuous random variable?

A. The time it takes a randomly selected student to complete an exam.
B. The number of tattoos a randomly selected person has.
C. The number of women taller than 68 inches in a random sample of 5 women.
D. The number of correct guesses on a multiple choice test.
19. Heights of college women have a distribution that can be approximated by a normal curve with a
mean of 65 inches and a standard deviation equal to 3 inches. About what proportion of college
women are between 65 and 67 inches tall?
A. 0.75
B. 0.50
C. 0.25
D. 0.17
20. Which one of these variables is a binomial random variable?

A. time it takes a randomly selected student to complete a multiple choice exam
B. number of textbooks a randomly selected student bought this term
C. number of women taller than 68 inches in a random sample of 5 women
D. number of CDs a randomly selected person owns
21. Suppose that vehicle speeds at an interstate location have a normal distribution with a mean equal to
70 mph and standard deviation equal to 8 mph. What is the z-score for a speed of 64 mph?
A. −0.75
B. +0.75
C. −6
D. +6
22. Pulse rates of adult men are approximately normal with a mean of 70 and a standard deviation of 8.
Which choice correctly describes how to find the proportion of men that have a pulse rate greater than
78?
A. Find the area to the left of z = 1 under a standard normal curve.
B. Find the area between z = −1 and z = 1 under a standard normal curve.
C. Find the area to the right of z =1 under a standard normal curve.
D. Find the area to the right of z = −1 under a standard normal curve.
23. The probability is p = 0.80 that a patient with a certain disease will be successfully treated with a new
medical treatment. Suppose that the treatment is used on 40 patients. What is the "expected value" of
the number of patients who are successfully treated?
A. 40
B. 20
C. 8
D. 32
24. Suppose that a quiz consists of 20 True-False questions. A student hasn't studied for the exam and will
just randomly guesses at all answers (with True and False equally likely). How would you find the
probability that the student will get 8 or fewer answers correct?
A. Find the probability that X=8 in a binomial distribution with n = 20 and p=0.5.
B. Find the area between 0 and 8 in a uniform distribution that goes from 0 to 20.
C. Find the probability that X=8 for a normal distribution with mean of 10 and standard deviation of
5.
D. Find the cumulative probability for 8 in a binomial distribution with n = 20 and p = 0.5.
25. The normal approximation to the binomial distribution is most useful for
finding which of the following?
A. The probability P(X = k) when X is a binomial random variable with large n.
B. The probability P(X  k) when X is a binomial random variable with large n.
C. The probability P(X = k) when X is a normal random variable with small n.
D. The probability P(X  k) when X is a normal random variable with small n.
26. A lottery ticket displays the probabilities of winning various prizes on the back of
the ticket. These probabilities are examples of:
A. Relative frequency probabilities based on long-run observation.
B. Relative frequency probabilities based on physical assumptions.
C. Personal probabilities.
D. Random probabilities.
27. A climate expert was asked to assess the probability that global warming will
make some cities uninhabitable in the next 100 years. The answer to this question
for the expert is an example of:
A. A relative frequency probability based on long-run observation.
B. A relative frequency probability based on physical assumptions.
C. A random probability.
D. A personal probability.
28. Imagine a test for a certain disease. Suppose the probability of a positive test result is
.95 if someone has the disease, but the probability is only .08 that someone has the
disease if his or her test result was positive. A patient receives a positive test, and the
doctor tells him that he is very likely to have the disease. The doctor's response is:
A. An example of "Confusion of the inverse."
B. An example of the "Law of small numbers."
C. An example of "The gambler's fallacy."
D. Correct, because the test is 95% accurate when someone has the disease.
29. Which one of the following probabilities is a "cumulative" probability?

A. The probability that there are exactly 4 people with Type O+ blood in a sample of 10
people.
B. The probability of exactly 3 heads in 6 flips of a coin.
C. The probability that the accumulated annual rainfall in a certain city next year,
rounded to the nearest inch, will be 18 inches.
D. The probability that a randomly selected woman's height is 67 inches or less.
30. A medical treatment has a success rate of .8. Two patients will be treated with this
treatment. Assuming the results are independent for the two patients, what is the
probability that neither one of them will be successfully cured?
A. .5
B. .36
C. .2
D. .04 (this is (1 – .8)(1 – .8) = (.2)(.2) = .04)
CORRELATION &
REGRESSION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
In the following multiple-choice questions, select the best answer.

1. The correlation coefficient is used to determine:
a. A specific value of the y-variable given a specific value of the x-variable
b. A specific value of the x-variable given a specific value of the y-variable
c. The strength of the relationship between the x and y variables
d. None of these
2. If there is a very strong correlation between two variables then the correlation coefficient must be
a. any value larger than 1
b. much smaller than 0, if the correlation is negative
c. much larger than 0, regardless of whether the correlation is negative or positive
d. None of these alternatives is correct.
3. In regression, the equation that describes how the response variable (y) is related to the
explanatory variable (x) is:
a. the correlation model
b. the regression model
c. used to compute the correlation coefficient
4. The relationship between number of beers consumed (x) and blood alcohol content (y) was studied
in 16 male college students by using least squares regression. The following regression equation
was obtained from this study:
!= -0.0127 + 0.0180x
The above equation implies that:

a. each beer consumed increases blood alcohol by 1.27%
b. on average it takes 1.8 beers to increase blood alcohol content by 1%
c. each beer consumed increases blood alcohol by an average of amount of 1.8%
d. each beer consumed increases blood alcohol by exactly 0.018
5. SSE can never be

a. larger than SST
b. smaller than SST
c. equal to 1
d. equal to zero
1
6. Regression modeling is a statistical framework for developing a mathematical equation that
describes how
a. one explanatory and one or more response variables are related
b. several explanatory and several response variables response are related
c. one response and one or more explanatory variables are related
d. All of these are correct.
7. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is the

a. response, or dependent, variable
b. independent variable
c. intervening variable
d. is usually x
8. Regression analysis was applied to return rates of sparrowhawk colonies. Regression analysis was
used to study the relationship between return rate (x: % of birds that return to the colony in a given
year) and immigration rate (y: % of new adults that join the colony per year). The following
regression equation was obtained.
! = 31.9 – 0.34x
Based on the above estimated regression equation, if the return rate were to
decrease by 10% the rate of immigration to the colony would:
a. increase by 34%
b. increase by 3.4%
c. decrease by 0.34%
d. decrease by 3.4%
9. In least squares regression, which of the following is not a required assumption about the error
term ?
a. The expected value of the error term is one.
b. The variance of the error term is the same for all values of x.
c. The values of the error term are independent.
d. The error term is normally distributed.
10. Larger values of r2 (R2) imply that the observations are more closely grouped about the
a. average value of the independent variables
b. average value of the dependent variable
c. least squares line
d. origin
11. In a regression analysis if r2 = 1, then

a. SSE must also be equal to one
b. SSE must be equal to zero
c. SSE can be any positive value
d. SSE must be negative
12. The coefficient of correlation
a. is the square of the coefficient of determination
b. is the square root of the coefficient of determination
c. is the same as r-square
d. can never be negative
13. In regression analysis, the variable that is used to explain the change in the outcome of an
experiment, or some natural process, is called
a. the x-variable
b. the independent variable
c. the predictor variable
d. the explanatory variable
e. all of the above (a-d) are correct
f. none are correct
14. In the case of an algebraic model for a straight line, if a value for the x variable is specified, then
a. the exact value of the response variable can be computed
b. the computed response to the independent value will always give a minimal residual
c. the computed value of y will always be the best estimate of the mean response
d. none of these alternatives is correct.
15. A regression analysis between sales (in $1000) and price (in dollars) resulted in the following
equation:
! = 50,000 - 8X
The above equation implies that an

a. increase of $1 in price is associated with a decrease of $8 in sales
b. increase of $8 in price is associated with an increase of $8,000 in sales
c. increase of $1 in price is associated with a decrease of $42,000 in sales
d. increase of $1 in price is associated with a decrease of $8000 in sales
16. In a regression and correlation analysis if r2 = 1, then

a. SSE = SST
b. SSE = 1
c. SSR = SSE
d. SSR = SST
17. If the coefficient of determination is a positive value, then the regression equation
a. must have a positive slope
b. must have a negative slope
c. could have either a positive or a negative slope
d. must have a positive y intercept
18. If two variables, x and y, have a very strong linear relationship, then
a. there is evidence that x causes a change in y
b. there is evidence that y causes a change in x
c. there might not be any causal relationship between x and y
19. If the coefficient of determination is equal to 1, then the correlation coefficient

a. must also be equal to 1
b. can be either -1 or +1
c. can be any value between -1 to +1
d. must be -1
20. In regression analysis, if the independent variable is measured in kilograms, the dependent
variable
a. must also be in kilograms
b. must be in some unit of weight
c. cannot be in kilograms
d. can be any units
21. The data are the same as for question 4 above. The relationship between number of beers
consumed (x) and blood alcohol content (y) was studied in 16 male college students by using least
squares regression. The following regression equation was obtained from this study:
!= -0.0127 + 0.0180x
Suppose that the legal limit to drive is a blood alcohol content of 0.08. If
Ricky consumed 5 beers the model would predict that he would be:
a. 0.09 above the legal limit
b. 0.0027 below the legal limit
c. 0.0027 above the legal limit
d. 0.0733 above the legal limit
22. In a regression analysis if SSE = 200 and SSR = 300, then the coefficient of determination is
a. 0.6667
b. 0.6000
c. 0.4000
d. 1.5000
23. If the correlation coefficient is 0.8, the percentage of variation in the response variable explained
by the variation in the explanatory variable is
a. 0.80%
b. 80%
c. 0.64%
d. 64%
24. If the correlation coefficient is a positive value, then the slope of the regression line
a. must also be positive
b. can be either negative or positive
c. can be zero
d. can not be zero
25. If the coefficient of determination is 0.81, the correlation coefficient

a. is 0.6561
b. could be either + 0.9 or - 0.9
c. must be positive
d. must be negative
26. A fitted least squares regression line

a. may be used to predict a value of y if the corresponding x value is given
b. is evidence for a cause-effect relationship between x and y
c. can only be computed if a strong linear relationship exists between x and y
27. Regression analysis was applied between $ sales (y) and $ advertising (x) across all the branches
of a major international corporation. The following regression function was obtained.
! = 5000 + 7.25x
If the advertising budgets of two branches of the corporation differ by

$30,000, then what will be the predicted difference in their sales?
a. $217,500
b. $222,500
c. $5000
d. $7.25
28. Suppose the correlation coefficient between height (as measured in feet) versus weight (as
measured in pounds) is 0.40. What is the correlation coefficient of height measured in inches
versus weight measured in ounces? [12 inches = one foot; 16 ounces = one pound]
a. 0.40
b. 0.30
c. 0.533
d. cannot be determined from information given
e. none of these
29. Assume the same variables as in question 28 above; height is measured in feet and weight is
measured in pounds. Now, suppose that the units of both variables are converted to metric (meters
and kilograms). The impact on the slope is:
a. the sign of the slope will change
b. the magnitude of the slope will change
c. both a and b are correct
d. neither a nor b are correct
30. Suppose that you have carried out a regression analysis where the total variance in the response is
133452 and the correlation coefficient was 0.85. The residual sums of squares is:
a. 37032.92
b. 20017.8
c. 113434.2
d. 96419.07
e. 15%
f. 0.15
31. This question is related to questions 4 and 21 above. The relationship between number of beers
consumed (x) and blood alcohol content (y) was studied in 16 male college students by using least
squares regression. The following regression equation was obtained from this study:
!= -0.0127 + 0.0180x
Another guy, his name Dudley, has the regression equation written on a scrap
of paper in his pocket. Dudley goes out drinking and has 4 beers. He
calculates that he is under the legal limit (0.08) so he decides to drive to
another bar. Unfortunately Dudley gets pulled over and confidently submits
to a road-side blood alcohol test. He scores a blood alcohol of 0.085 and gets
himself arrested. Obviously, Dudley skipped the lecture about residual
variation. Dudley’s residual is:
a. +0.005
b. -0.005
c. +0.0257
d. -0.0257
32. You have carried out a regression analysis; but, after thinking about the relationship between
variables, you have decided you must swap the explanatory and the response variables. After
refitting the regression model to the data you expect that:
a. the value of the correlation coefficient will change
b. the value of SSE will change
c. the value of the coefficient of determination will change
d. the sign of the slope will change
e. nothing changes
33. Suppose you use regression to predict the height of a woman’s current boyfriend by using her own
height as the explanatory variable. Height was measured in feet from a sample of 100 women
undergraduates, and their boyfriends, at Dalhousie University. Now, suppose that the height of
both the women and the men are converted to centimeters. The impact of this conversion on the
slope is:
a. the sign of the slope will change
b. the magnitude of the slope will change
c. both a and b are correct
d. neither a nor b are correct
34. A residual plot:
a. displays residuals of the explanatory variable versus residuals of the response variable.
b. displays residuals of the explanatory variable versus the response variable.
c. displays explanatory variable versus residuals of the response variable.
d. displays the explanatory variable versus the response variable.
e. displays the explanatory variable on the x axis versus the response variable on the y axis.
35. When the error terms have a constant variance, a plot of the residuals versus the independent
variable x has a pattern that
a. fans out
b. funnels in
c. fans out, but then funnels in
d. forms a horizontal band pattern
e. forms a linear pattern that can be positive or negative
36. You studied the impact of the dose of a new drug treatment for high blood pressure. You think
that the drug might be more effective in people with very high blood pressure. Because you
expect a bigger change in those patients who start the treatment with high blood pressure, you use
regression to analyze the relationship between the initial blood pressure of a patient (x) and the
change in blood pressure after treatment with the new drug (y). If you find a very strong positive
association between these variables, then:
a. there is evidence that the higher the patients initial blood pressure, the bigger the impact
of the new drug.
b. there is evidence that the higher the patients initial blood pressure, the smaller the impact
of the new drug.
c. there is evidence for an association of some kind between the patients initial blood
pressure and the impact of the new drug on the patients blood pressure
d. none of these are correct, this is a case of regression fallacy
Question 37:
A variety of summary statistics were collected for a small sample (10) of bivariate
data, where the dependent variable was y and an independent variable was x.
X = 90  (Y − Y)(X − X) = 466
 (X − X ) = 234
2
Y = 170
 (Y − Y ) = 1434
2
n = 10
SSE = 505.98
37.1 Use the formula to the right to compute the sample correlation coefficient:
a. 0.8045
b. -0.8045
c. 0
d. 1
37.2 The least squares estimate of b 1
equals a. 0.923
b. 1.991
c. -1.991
37.3 The least squares estimate of b 0

equals a. 0.923
b. 1.991
c. -1.991
d. -0.923
37.4 The sum of squares due to regression (SSR)

is a. 1434
b. 505.98
c. 50.598
d. 928.02
37.5 The coefficient of determination

equals a. 0.6471
b. -0.6471
c. 0
d. 1
37.6 The point estimate of y when x = 0.55

is a. 0.17205
b. 2.018
c. 1.0905
d. -2.018
e. -0.17205
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON MANAGEMENT SCIENCE
1. The term “Operation Research” was coined by :

a. Mc Closky and Trefthen
b. Arthur Clark
c. Churchman, Ackoff and Arnoff
d. George B Dantzig
2. Management Science came into existence in a ..................... context.
a. Business
b. Academic
c. Military
d. Religious
3. By the beginning of ........................., the industries in USA realised the importance of
Management Science in solving business and management problems.
a. 1930s
b. 1940s
c. 1950s
d. 1960s
4. In India, Operations Research came into existence in the year ..............
a. 1940
b. 1947
c. 1949
d. 1950
5. In India, first Operations Research unit was set up at .................................
a. Regional Research Laboratory, Hyderabad
b. Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkotha
c. Indian Institute of Science and Technology, Bengaluru
d. Indian Institute of Science and Technology, Mohali
6. In India, first Operations Research application was made by ...........................
a. Pranab K Sen
b. Prof. Mahalonobis
c. Samarendra Nath Roy
d. Raghu Raj Bahadur
7. Operations Research Society of India was formed in the year ..................
a. 1950
b. 1955
c. 1957
d. 1960
8. Who defined Operations Research as “the art of giving bad answers to problems which
otherwise have worse answers”?
a. H M Wagner
b. H A Taha
c. T L Saaty
d. Arthur Clark
9. .................... defined Operations Research as “the art of winning wars without actually
fighting.”
a. H M Wagner
b. H A Taha
c. T L Saaty
d. Arthur Clark
10. Operations Research is a very powerful tool for ........................
a. Operations
b. Research
c. Decision making
d. None of these
11. Who defined Operations Research as scientific approach to problem solving for executive
management.
a. E L Arnoff
b. H M Wagner
c. Churchman
d. None of these
12. The term “Operations Research” was coined in the year ...................
a. 1930
b. 1940
c. 1950
d. 1960
13. The innovative science of Operations Research was discovered during ......................
a. Civil war
b. World war I
c. World war II
d. Industrial Revolution
14. Operations Research has the characteristic that it is done by a team of .....................
a. Scientists
b. Mathematicians
c. Academicians
d. Politicians
15. Operations Research emphasises on the overall approach to the system. This characteristic of
Operations Research is often referred to as .................................
a. System orientation
b. System approach
c. Inter-disciplinary
d. Team approach
16. Operations Research cannot give perfect .................... to the problem.
a. Answers
b. Solutions
c. Both a and b
d. Decisions
17............................ models involve the allocation of resources to activities in such a way
that
some measure of effectiveness is optimised.
a. Sequencing
b. Allocation
c. Queuing theory
d. Decision theory
18. In ................... models, everything is defined and the results are certain.
a. Probabilistic
b. Deterministic
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
19models involve more risks and uncertainties.
a. Probabilistic
b. Deterministic
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
20models are obtained by enlarging or reducing the size of the items.
a. Iconic models
b. Analogue models
c. Symbolic models
d. None of these
21. The word.................... may be defined as some actions that we apply to some problems or
hypothesis.
a. Research
b. Operations
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
22are representations of reality.
a. Phases
b. Models
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
23are called mathematical models.
a. Iconic models
b. Symbolic models
c. Analogue models
d. None of these
24. Probabilistic models are also called ...........................
a. Deterministic models
b. Dynamic models
c. Stochastic models
d. None of these
25. ........................ models assume that the values of the variables do not change with time during
a particular period.
a. Dynamic
b. Static
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
26....................... models consider time as one of the important variable.
a. Dynamic
b. Static
c. Botha and b
d. None of these
27. ........................may be defined as a method of determining an optimal program of
interdependent activities in view of available resources.
a. Goal programming
b. Linear programming
c. Decision making
d. None of these
28...................... are expressed in the form of equations
a. Objectives
b. Constraints
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
29. If there are more than one optimal solutions for the decision variables, the solution is ...........
a. Infeasible
b. Unbounded
c. Alternative
d. None of these
30. Dual of the dual s a ..........................
a. Dual
b. Primal
c. Alternative
d. None of these
31. The quantitative approach to decision analysis is a ..........................
a. Logical approach
b. Rational approach
c. Scientific approach
d. All of the above
32. A model is a ...........................
a. An essence of reality
b. An approximation
c. An idealisation
d. All of the above
33. The dummy source/destination in a transportation problem is added to ........................
a. Satisfy rim constraints
b. Prevent solution from becoming degenerate
c. Ensure total cost does not exceed a limit
d. None of the above
34. The solution to a transportation problem with ‘m’ rows and ‘n’ columns is feasible if the
number of positive allocations are:
a. m + n
b. m x n
c. m +n – 1
d. m +n + 1
35. The method used for solving an assignment problem is:
a. Reduced matrix method
b. MODI method
c. Hungarian method
d. None of these
36. An assignment problem can be solved by .........................
a. Simplex method
b. Transportation method
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
37. For salesman who has to visit ‘n’ cities, which of the following are the ways of his tour plans:
a. n !
b. (n+1) !
c. (n-1) !
d. n
38. The assignment problem is:
a. Requires that only one activity be assigned to each resource
b. Is a special case of transportation problem
c. Can be used to maximise resource
d. All the above
39. The Hungarian method for solving an assignment problem can also be used to solve:
a. A transportation problem
b. A travelling salesman problem
c. A linear programming problem
d. Both a and b
40. All the parameters in the linear programming model are assumed to be .....................
a. Variables
b. Constraints
c. Functions
d. None of these
41. Graphic method can be applied to solve a liner programming problem when there are only
........................... variables
a. A one
b. Two
c. Three
d. More than three
42. If the feasible region of a linear programming problem is empty, the solution is ....................
a. Unbounded
b. Infeasible
c. Infeasible
d. Alternative
43. The variables whose coefficient vectors are unit vectors, are called ......................
a. Unit variables
b. Basic variables
c. Non-basic variables
d. None of these
44. Any column or row of a simplex table is known as .........................
a. Key column
b. Key row
c. Vector
d. None of these
45..................... is considered as the pioneer of Linear Programming Technique.
a. churchman
b. D W Miller
c. James Lundy
d. George B Dantzig
46. A minimisation problem can be connected into maximisation problem by changing the signs
of coefficients in the ...........................
a. Constraints
b. Objectives
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
47. In an LPP, if the solution of a variable can be made infinitely large without violating the
constraints, then the solution is ..............................
a. Infeasible
b. Alternative
c. Unbounded
d. Unique
48. In maximisation cases, ....................... are assigned to the artificial variables as their
coefficients in the objective function.
a. + m
b. – m
c. 0
d. None of these
49. In simplex method, we add ........................... in the case of constraints with sign “=”
a. Surplus variable
b. Artificial variable
c. Slack variable
d. None of these
50. In simplex method, ........................ should be selected when there is tie between slack/surplus
variable and decision variable.
a. Slack variable
b. Decision variable
c. Surplus variable
d. None of these
51. When at least one of the basic variables is zero, then the basic feasible solution to a Linear
Programming Problem is said to be ..............................
a. Infeasible
b. Unbounded
c. Degenerate
d. Non-degenerate
52. In Linear Programming Problem, degeneracy occurs in .................. stages.
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
53. Every Linear Programming Problem is related to another Linear Programming Problem,
called ..........................
a. Primal
b. Dual
c. Non-linear Programming
d. None of these
54. In a maximisation assignment problem, the objective is to maximise .............................
a. Profit
b. Cost
c. Optimisation
d. None of these
55. Operations Research does not give perfect solution to a problem, but it helps to improve the
......................... of the solution.
a. Quality
b. Clarity
c. Look
d. None of these
56. Operations Research makes a ........................ attack on complex problems to arrive at optimal
solution.
a. Scientific
b. Systematic
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
57. Operations Research uses models to help the management in determining its ....................
scientifically.
a. Policies
b. Actions
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
58. Operations Research is a ................................
a. Science
b. Art
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
59deals with making sound decisions under conditions of certainty, risk and
uncertainty.
a. Game theory
b. Network analysis
c. Decision theory
d. None of these
60deals with the concepts such as critical path, float, events, etc.
a. Game theory
b. Decision theory
c. Queuing theory
d. Network analysis
61is used to imitate an operation prior to actual performance.
a. Inventory control
b. Simulation
c. Game theory
d. Integrated Production Model
62. ............................... is concerned with determination of the most economic replacement
policy.
a. Probabilistic programming
b. Linear programming
c. Search theory
d. Replacement theory
63. The O R technique which helps in minimising total waiting and service cost is:
a. Game theory
b. Queuing theory
c. Both a and b
d. Decision theory
64. Linear Programming technique is a:
a. Constrained optimisation technique
b. Technique for economic allocation of resources
c. Mathematical technique
d. All of the above
65. A constraint in a Linear Programming Model restricts:
a. Value of objective function
b. Value of decision variable
c. Use of available resources
d. All of the above
66. Before formulating a formal L P model, it is better to:
a. Verbally identify decision variables
b. Express the objective function in words
c. Express each constraint in words
d. All of the above
67. Linear Programming Technique helps to find an optimal use of:
a. Machine
b. Money
c. Manpower
d. All of the above
68. Which of the followings is an assumption of Linear Programming Technique?
a. Divisibility
b. Additivity
c. Proportionality
d. All of the above
69. Which of the following is true with regard to a Linear Programming Model?
a. No guarantee to get integer valued solution
b. The relationship among decision variables is liner
c. Both a and b
d. None of the these
70. The graphical method if LPP uses:
a. Linear equations
b. Constraint equations
c. Objective function
d. All of the above
71. Constraints in an LPP are treated as active, if they:
a. Do not consume all the available resources at optimality
b. Represent optimal solution
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
72. While solving a LPP graphically, the area bounded by constraints is called .................
a. Feasible region
b. Infeasible region
c. Unbounded region
d. None of these
73. While solving an LPP, infeasibility may be removed by:
a. Removing a variable
b. Removing a constraint
c. Adding a variable
d. Adding a constraint
74........................ variables are fictitious and cannot have any physical meaning.
a. Slack variables
b. Surplus variables
c. Artificial variables
d. Decision variables
75. An optimal solution is considered as the..................... among the feasible solutions.
a. Worst
b. Best
c. Ineffective
d. None of these
76........................... method is used to solve an assignment problem.
a. American method
b. Hungarian method
c. German method
d. British method
77. The allocated cells in the transportation table are called ..............................
a. Occupied cells
b. Empty cells
c. Unoccupied cells
d. None of these
78. In transportation Problems, VAM stands for .........................
a. Value Addition Method
b. Vogel’s Approximation Method
c. Virgenean Approximation Method
d. None of these
79. Initial feasible solution to a transportation Problem can be found out by .........................
a. VAM
b. MODI Method
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
80.........................is applied to determine optimal solution.
a. NWCR
b. VAM
c. MODI Method
d. None of these
81. A Transportation Problem is said to be unbalanced when total supply is not equal to ............
a. Total cost
b. Total demand
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
82. For a minimisation Transportation Problem, the objective is to minimise:
a. Profit
b. Cost
c. Solution
d. None of these
83. ....................... is an important Operations Research Technique to analyse the queuing
behaviour.
a. Game theory
b. Waiting line theory
c. Decision theory
d. Simulation
84. An organisation chart is an example of ...........................
a. Iconic model
b. Mathematical model
c. Analogue model
d. None of these
85. ........................ model is a map which indicates roads, highways, towns and inter-
relationships
a. Iconic model
b. Analogue model
c. Mathematical model
d. None of these
86. Operations Research techniques help to find ..................... solution.
a. Feasible solution
b. Infeasible solution
c. Optimal solution
d. None of these
87. Operations Research Techniques involves....................... approach.
a. Team approach
b. Critical approach
c. Individual approach
d. None of these
88. A LPP model doesnot contain:
a. Decision
b. Constraints
c. Feasible solution
d. Spread Sheet
89. Straight lines shown in a linear programming graph indicates ...........................
a. Objective function
b. Constraints
c. Points
d. All of the above
90. Non-negativity constraints are written as ......................
a. Equality
b. Non-equality
c. Greater than or equal to
d. Less than or equal to
91. PERT stand for:
a. Performance Evaluation Review Technique
b. Programme Evaluation Review Technique
c. Programme Evaluation Research Technique
d. None of these
92. An activity which must be completed before commencement of one or more other activities is
called.................................
a. Successor activity
b. Predecessor activity
c. Dummy activity
d. None of these
93. In network diagram, events are commonly represented by .........................
a. Arrows
b. Nodes
c. Triangles
d. None of these
94is activity oriented network diagram.
a. CPM
b. PERT
c. Histogram
d. Ogive
95is an event oriented network diagram.
a. CPM
b. PERT
c. Histogram
d. Ogive
96. An activity which does not consume either resource or time is called .............................
a. Predecessor activity
b. Successor activity
c. Dummy activity
d. Terminal activity
97......................... is a series of activities related to a project.
a. Network
b. Transportation Model
c. Assignment model
d. None of these
98. An event which represents the beginning of more than one activity is a :
a. Merge event
b. Net event
c. Burst event
d. None of these
99. Activities lying on critical path are called ............................
a. Critical activities
b. Non-critical activities
c. Dummy activities
d. None of these
100. Activities that cannot be started until one or more of the other activities are completed, are
called..........................................
a. Dummy activities
b. Initial activities
c. Successor activities
d. Predecessor activities
101 ............................ is the sequence of activities which determines the total project
duration.
a. Critical path
b. Network
c. Non-critical activities
d. None of these
102. PERT emphasises on ...........................
a. Activity
b. Time
c. Cost
d. None of these
103. ..................... is the duration by which an activity can be delayed without delaying the
completion of the project.
a. Earliest Start Time
b. Earliest Finish Time
c. Latest Start Time
d. Latest Finish Time
104. The EST + activity duration = ..............................
a. Earliest Finish Time
b. Latest Start Time
c. Latest Finish Time
d. None of these
105 is the latest time by which an activity can be finished without delaying the
completion of the project.
a. LST
b. LFT
c. EFT
d. EST
106 is a scheme or design of something intended to do.
a. Network
b. Float
c. Project
d. Program
107. In a network diagram, activity is denoted by ............................
a. Node
b. Arrow
c. Triangle
d. None of these
108. .......................... is the duration by which an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project.
a. Slack
b. Total float
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
109. The maximise criteria is ...........................
a. Optimistic
b. Pessimistic
c. Neutral
d. None of these
110. Decision making under certainty refers to........................situation.
a. Deterministic
b. Probabilistic
c. Competitive
d. None of these
111 .......................... is known as father of game theory.
a. Von Neumann
b. A K Erlang
c. George b Dantzig
d. Arnoff
112. Which of the following is an assumption of game theory?
a. The players act rationally and intelligently
b. Each payer has a finite set of possible courses of action
c. The players attempt to maximise gains or minimises losses
d. All of the above
113. Each participant of the game is called...................
a. Strategist
b. Winner
c. Player
d. Loser
114. The outcome of a game is known as....................
a. Profit
b. Loss
c. Pay off
d. None of these
115. A matrix which shows the gains and losses resulting from moves and counter moves is
called..................................
a. Cost matrix
b. Pay off matrix
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
116. When all the players of the game follow their optimal strategies, then the expected pay off of
the game is called.......................
a. Gain of the game
b. Loss of the game
c. Value of the game
d. None of these
117. The position in the pay off matrix where the maximin coincides with the minimax.
a. Saddle point
b. Break even point
c. Pivot point
118. A game is said to be fair if the value of the game is.........................
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Zero
119. In a ........................ game the amounts won by all winners together is equal to the sum of the
amounts lost by all losers together.
a. Non-zero sum game
b. Zero sum game
c. Rectangular game
d. None of these
120. Which of the following method is used to solve mixed strategy problems:
a. Probability method
b. Graphic method
c. Linear Programming method
d. All of the above
121. A queue is formed when the demand for a service:
a. Exceeds the capacity to provide that service
b. Is less than the capacity to provide that service
c. a or b
d. None of these
122. Queuing theory is also termed as ............................
a. Game theory
b. Replacement theory
c. Waiting line theory
d. None of these
123. In queuing theory, ....................... refers to those waiting in a queue or receiving service.
a. Service provider
b. Customer
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
124. In queuing theory, ....................... is a person by whom service is rendered.
a. Customer
b. Server
c. a or b
d. none of these
125. In waiting line theory, number of customers waiting in the queue is referred to as ................
a. Traffic intensity
b. Queuing system
c. Service pattern
d. Queue length
126. Number of customers in the queue per unit of time is called ......................
a. Queuing system
b. Length of queue
c. Average length of queue
d. None of these
127. The ration between mean arrival rate and mean service rate is called ...................
a. Idle period
b. Average length of queue
c. Traffic intensity
d. None of these
128. Commonly assumed probability distribution of arrival pattern is .......................
a. Poisson distribution
b. Binomial distribution
c. Normal distribution
d. None of these
129. Commonly assumed probability distribution of service pattern are .......................
a. Poisson distribution
b. Exponential distribution
c. Erlang distribution
d. b and c
130. a customer’s behaviour of leaving the queue when he does not like to wait in the queue due to
lack of time or space is called .....................
a. Jockying
b. Reneging
c. Collusion
d. Balking
131. A customer’s behaviour of leaving the queue due to impatience is called .......................
a. Jockying
b. Reneging
c. Collusion
d. Balking
132. A customer’s behaviour of jumping from one queue to another is called ............................
a. Jockying
b. Reneging
c. Collusion
d. Balking
133. In queuing theory, ............................. stands for mean arrival rate of customers.
a. μ
b.λ
c.t
d.none of these
134. In queuing theory, ............................. stands for mean service rate.
a. μ
b. λ
c. t
d. none of these
135 ............................ is a method of analysing the current movement of the some
variable
in an effort to predict the future movement of the same variable.
a. Goal programming
b. Queuing theory
c. Markov Analysis
d. Replacement theory
136. In queuing theory, FCFS stand for ..............................
a. First Cum First Served
b. First Customer Fist Served
c. Fast Channel First Served
137. Initial feasible solution to a transportation problem arrived through which of the following
method is very near to the optimal solution:
a. NWCM
b. LCM
c. VAM
d. None of these
138. In Transportation Problem, NWCM stands for .............................
a. North West Cost Method
b. Net Worth Corner Method
c. North West Corner Method
d. None of these
139. In Transportation Problem, LCM stands for .............................
a. Lowest Common Multiplier
b. Least Cost Method
c. Lowest Cell Method
d. None of these
140. Matrix Minima Method to find initial feasible solution to a TP is also called .......................
a. NWCM
b. LCM
c. VAM
d. None of these
141. MODI Method to test the optimality of a feasible solution to TP is also called...............
a. Stepping Stone Method
b. u. v. Method
c. both a and b
d. none of these
142. ............................refers to the manner in which the customers behave while being in the
queue.
a. Service pattern
b. Service pattern
c. Queue discipline
d. None of these
143. Excess of service facilities over and above the number of customers results:
a. Idleness of service capacity
b. Queues
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
144 .............................. was the first person who developed a viable queueing theory
a. Von Neumann
b. Morgenstern
c. H M Wagner
d. Simeon Dennis Poisson
145. Traffic intensity in Queuing Theory is also called...........................
a. Service factor
b. Arrival factor
c. Utilisation factor
d. None of these
146. Traffic intensity is computed by using the formula:
a. λ/μ
b. μ/λ
c. 1- λ/μ
d. 1- μ/λ
147. Game theory became popular when the book “Theory of Games and Economic Behaviour”
was published in 1944 by ..............................
a. Von Neumann
b. Mc Closky
c. Von-Neumann and Mc Closky
d. Von-neumann and Morgenstern
148. Which of the following is a characteristic of a dual problem:
a. Dual of a dual is primal
b. If dual has a finite optimal solution, then the primal also has finite optimal solution
c. If dual has no feasible solution, then the primal also has no feasible solution
d. All of the above
149. Shadow price is also called ......................
a. Dual price
b. Unit price
c. Total cost
d. None of these
150 ............................... is that element of the simplex table which lis both in the key row
and
key column.
a. Key element
b. Pivot element
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
151. Transportation model was first introduced by ................... n the year 1941.
a. T C Koopman
b. George B Dantzig
c. Von-neumann
d. F L Hitchcock
152. VAM is also called........................
a. Matrix Minima Method
b. Penalty Method
c. MODI Method
d. None of these
153. Which of the following methods is used to solve an assignment problem:
a. Enumeration Method
b. Hungarian Method
c. Simplex Method
d. All of the above
154. Hungarian method was developed by ........................
a. T C Koopman
b. F L Hitchcock
c. D Konig
d. George B Dantzig
155 ................... is the popular method for solving an assignment problem.
a. Hungarian Method
b. Enumeration Method
c. Simplex Method
156. The outlet where the services are being provided to the customers is called.................
a. Waiting line
b. Service facility
c. Idle facility
d. Traffic intensity
157. The variables which can be manipulated by the decision maker are called....................
a. Controllable variables
b. Uncontrollable variables
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
158. The variables which cannot be manipulated by the decision maker are called....................
a. Controllable variables
b. Uncontrollable variables
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
159. Controllable variables are also called..................................
a. Slack variables
b. Surplus variables
c. Artificial variable
d. Decision variables
160. If a simplex table shows the values 2, -3, 0 against “θ”, which should be taken as the replacement ratio.
a. 2
b. -3
c. 0
d. None of these
DECISION SCIENCE
1. Decision Science approach is

a. Multi-disciplinary
b. Scientific
c. Intuitive
d. All of the above
2. For analyzing a problem, decision-makers should study
a. Its qualitative aspects
b. Its quantitative aspects
c. Both a & b
d. Neither a nor b
3. Decision variables are
a. Controllable
b. Uncontrollable
c. Parameters
4. A model is
a. An essence of reality
b. An approximation
c. An idealization
d. All of the above
5. Managerial decisions are based on
a. An evaluation of quantitative data
b. The use of qualitative factors
c. Results generated by formal models
d. All of the above
6. The use of decision models
a. Is possible when the variables value is known
b. Reduces the scope of judgement & intuition known with certainty in decision-making
c. Require the use of computer software
7. Every mathematical model
a. Must be deterministic
b. Requires computer aid for its solution
c. Represents data in numerical form
d. All of the above
8. A physical model is example of
a. An iconic model
b. An analogue model
c. A verbal model
d. A mathematical model
9. An optimization model
a. Provides the best decision
b. Provides decision within its limited context
c. Helps in evaluating various alternatives
d. All of the above
10. The quantitative approach to decision analysis is a
a. Logical approach
b. Rational approach
c. Scientific approach
d. All of the above
11. The qualitative approach to decision analysis relies on
a. Experience
b. Judgement
c. Intuition
d. All of the above
12. The mathematical model of an LP problem is important because
a. It helps in converting the verbal description & numerical data into mathematical expression
b. Decision-makers prefer to work with formal models
c. It captures the relevant relationship among decision factors
d. It enables the use of algebraic technique
13. Linear programming is a
a. Constrained optimization technique
b. Technique for economic allocation of limited resources
c. Mathematical technique
d. All of the above
14. A constraint in an LP model restricts
a. Value of objective function
b. Value of a decision variable
c. Use of the available resources
d. All of the above
15. The distinguishing feature of an LP model is
a. Relationship among all variables is linear
b. It has single objective function & constraints
c. Value of decision variables is non-negative
d. All of the above
16. Constraints in an LP model represents
a. Limitations
b. Requirements
c. Balancing limitations & requirements

d. All of the above
17. Non-negativity condition is an important component of LP modelbecause
a. Variables value should remain under the control of the decision-maker
b. Value of variables make sense & correspond to real-world problems
c. Variables are interrelated in terms of limited resources
18. Before formulating a formal LP model, it is better to
a. Express each constrain in words
b. Express the objective function in words
c. Verbally identify decision variables
d. All of the above
19. Maximization of objective function in an LP model means
a. Value occurs at allowable set of decisions
b. Highest value is chosen among allowable decisions
c. Neither of above
d. Both a & b
20. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the LP model
a. Alternative courses of action
b. An objective function of maximization type
c. Limited amount of resources
d. Non-negativity condition on the value of decision variables.
21. The best use of linear programming technique is to find an optimal use of
a. Money
b. Manpower
c. Machine
d. All of the above
22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the LP
a. Resources must be limited
b. Only one objective function
c. Parameters value remains constant during the planning period
d. The problem must be of minimization type
23. Non-negativity condition in an LP model implies
a. A positive coefficient of variables in objective function
b. A positive coefficient of variables in any constraint
c. Non-negative value of resources
24. Which of the following is an assumption of an LP model
a. Divisibility
b. Proportionality
c. Additivity
d. All of the above
25. Which of the following is a limitation associated with an LP model
a. The relationship among decision variables in linear
b. No guarantee to get integer valued solutions
c. No consideration of effect of time & uncertainty on LP model
d. All of the above
26. The graphical method of LP problem uses
a. Objective function equation
b. Constraint equations
c. Linear equations
d. All of the above
27. A feasible solution to an LP problem
a. Must satisfy all of the problem’s constraints simultaneously
b. Need not satisfy all of the constraints, only some of them
c. Must be a corner point of the feasible region
d. Must optimize the value of the objective function
28. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the optimal solution of an LP
problem
a. Every LP problem has an optimal solution
b. Optimal solution of an LP problem always occurs at an extreme point
c. At optimal solution all resources are completely used
d. If an optimal solution exists, there will always be at least one at a corner
29. An iso-profit line represents
a. An infinite number of solutions all of which yield the same profit
b. An infinite number of solution all of which yield the same cost
c. An infinite number of optimal solutions
d. A boundary of the feasible region
30. If an iso-profit line yielding the optimal solution coincides with a constaint line, then
a. The solution is unbounded
b. The solution is infeasible
c. The constraint which coincides is redundant
31. While plotting constraints on a graph paper, terminal points on both the axes are connected
by a straight line because
a. The resources are limited in supply
b. The objective function as a linear function
c. The constraints are linear equations or inequalities
d. All of the above
32. A constraint in an LP model becomes redundant because
a. Two iso-profit line may be parallel to each other
b. The solution is unbounded
c. This constraint is not satisfied by the solution values
33. If two constraints do not intersect in the positive quadrant of the graph, then
a. The problem is infeasible
b. The solution is unbounded
c. One of the constraints is redundant
34. Constraints in LP problem are called active if they
a. Represent optimal solution
b. At optimality do not consume all the available resources
c. Both a & b
35. The solution space (region) of an LP problem is unbounded due to
a. An incorrect formulation of the LP model
b. Objective function is unbounded
c. Neither a nor b
d. Both a & b
36. While solving a LP model graphically, the area bounded by the constraints is called
a. Feasible region
b. Infeasible region
c. Unbounded solution
37. Alternative solutions exist of an LP model when
a. One of the constraints is redundant
b. Objective function equation is parallel to one of the constraints
c. Two constraints are parallel
d. All of the above
38. While solving a LP problem, infeasibility may be removed by
a. Adding another constraint
b. Adding another variable
c. Removing a constraint
d. Removing a variable
39. If a non-redundant constraint is removed from an LP problem then
a. Feasible region will become larger
b. Feasible region will become smaller
c. Solution will become infeasible
40. If one of the constraint of an equation in an LP problem has an unbounded solution, then
a. Solution to such LP problem must be degenerate
b. Feasible region should have a line segment
c. Alternative solutions exist
41. The initial solution of a transportation problem can be obtained by applying any known
method. However, the only condition is that
a. The solution be optimal
b. The rim conditions are satisfied
c. The solution not be degenerate
d. All of the above
42. The dummy source or destination in a transportation problem is added to
a. Satisfy rim conditions
b. Prevent solution from becoming degenerate
c. Ensure that total cost does not exceed a limit
43. The occurrence of degeneracy while solving a transportation problem means that
a. Total supply equals total demand
b. The solution so obtained is not feasible
c. The few allocations become negative
44. An alternative optimal solution to a minimization transportation problem exists whenever
opportunity cost corresponding to unused route of transportation is:
a. Positive & greater than zero
b. Positive with at least one equal to zero
c. Negative with at least one equal to zero
45. One disadvantage of using North-West Corner rule to find initial solution to the transportation
problem is that
a. It is complicated to use
b. It does not take into account cost of transportation
c. It leads to a degenerate initial solution
d. All of the above
46. The solution to a transportation problem with ‘m’ rows (supplies) & ‘n’ columns (destination)
is feasible if number of positive allocations are
a. m+n
b. m*n
c. m+n-1
d. m+n+1
47. If an opportunity cost value is used for an unused cell to test optimality, it should be a. Equal
to zero
b. Most negative number
c. Most positive number
d. Any value
48. During an iteration while moving from one solution to the next, degeneracy may occur when
a. The closed path indicates a diagonal move
b. Two or more occupied cells are on the closed path but neither of them represents a corner
of the path.
c. Two or more occupied cells on the closed path with minus sign are tied for lowest
circled value
d. Either of the above
49. The large negative opportunity cost value in an unused cell in a transportation table is chosen
to improve the current solution because
a. It represents per unit cost reduction
b. It represents per unit cost improvement
c. It ensure no rim requirement violation
50. The smallest quantity is chosen at the corners of the closed path with negative sign to be
assigned at unused cell because a. It improve the total cost
b. It does not disturb rim conditions
c. It ensure feasible solution
d. All of the above
51. When total supply is equal to total demand in a transportation problem, the problem is said to
be
a. Balanced
b. Unbalanced
c. Degenerate
52. Which of the following methods is used to verify the optimality of the current solution of the
transportation problem
a. Least cost method
b. Vogel’s approximation method
c. Modified distribution method
d. All of the above
53. The degeneracy in the transportation problem indicates that
a. Dummy allocation(s) needs to be added
b. The problem has no feasible solution
c. The multiple optimal solution exist
d. a & b but not c
54. An assignment problem is considered as a particular case of a transportation problem because
a. The number of rows equals columns
b. All xij = 0 or 1
c. All rim conditions are 1
d. All of the above
55. An optimal assignment requires that the maximum number of lines that can be drawn through
squares with zero opportunity cost be equal to the number of
a. Rows or columns
b. Rows & columns
c. Rows + columns – 1
56. While solving an assignment problem, an activity is assigned to a resource through a square
with zero opportunity cost because the objective is to
a. Minimize total cost of assignment
b. Reduce the cost of assignment to zero
c. Reduce the cost of that particular assignment to zero
d. All of the above
57. The method used for solving an assignment problem is called
a. Reduced matrix method
b. MODI method
c. Hungarian method
58. The purpose of a dummy row or column in an assignment problem is to
a. Obtain balance between total activities & total resources
b. Prevent a solution from becoming degenerate
c. Provide a means of representing a dummy problem
59. Maximization assignment problem is transformed into a minimization problem by
a. Adding each entry in a column from the maximization value in that column
b. Subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column
c. Subtracting each entry in the table from the maximum value in that table
d. Any one of the above
60. If there were n workers & n jobs there would be
a. n! solutions
b. (n-1)! solutions
c. (n!)n solutions
d. n solutions
61. An assignment problem can be solved by
a. Simplex method
b. Transportation method
c. Both a & b
62. For a salesman who has to visit n cities which of the following are the ways of his tour plan a.
n!
b. (n+1)!
c. (n-1)!
d. n
63. The assignment problem
a. Requires that only one activity be assigned to each resource
b. Is a special case of transportation problem
c. Can be used to maximize resources
d. All of the above
64. An assignment problem is a special case of transportation problem, where
a. Number of rows equals number of columns
b. All rim conditions are 1
c. Values of each decision variable is either 0 or 1
d. All of the above
65. Every basic feasible solution of a general assignment problem, having a square pay-off matrix
of order, n should have assignments equal to
a. 2n+1
b. 2n-1
c. m+n-1
d. m+n
66. To proceed with the MODI algorithm for solving an assignment problem, the number of
dummy allocations need to be added are
a. n
b. 2n
c. n-1
d. 2n-1
67. The Hungarian method for solving an assignment problem can also be used to solve
a. A transportation problem
b. A travelling salesman problem
c. A LP problem
d. Both a & b
68. An optimal solution of an assignment problem can be obtained only if
a. Each row & column has only one zero element
b. Each row & column has at least one zero element
c. The data is arrangement in a square matrix
69. Customer behavior in which the customer moves from one queue to another in a multiple
channel situation is a. Balking
b. Reneging
c. Jockeying
d. Altering
70. Which of the following characteristics apply to queuing system
a. Customer population
b. Arrival process
c. Both a & b
d. Neither a nor b
71. Which of the following is not a key operating characteristics apply to queuing system
a.Utilization factor
b. Percent idle time
c. Average time spent waiting in the system & queue
72. Priority queue discipline may be classified as
a. Finite or infinite
b. Limited & unlimited
c. Pre-emptive or non-pre-emptive
d. All of the above
73. The calling population is assumed to be infinite when
a. Arrivals are independent of each other
b. Capacity of the system is infinite
c. Service rate is faster than arrival rate
d. All of the above
74. Which of the cost estimates & performance measures are not used for economic analysis of a
queuing system
a. Cost per server per unit of time
b. Cost per unit of time for a customer waiting in the system
c. Average number of customers in the system
d. Average waiting time of customers in the system
75. A calling population is considered to be infinite when
a. All customers arrive at once
b. Arrivals are independent of each other
c. Arrivals are dependent upon each other
d. All of the above
76. The cost of providing service in a queuing system decreases with
a. Decreased average waiting time in the queue
b. Decreased arrival rate
c. Increased arrival rate
77. Service mechanism in a queuing system is characterized by
a. Server’s behavior
b. Customer’s behavior
c. Customers in the system
d. All of the above
78. Probabilities of occurrence of any state are
a. Collectively exhaustive
b. Mutually exclusive
c. Representing one of the finite numbers of states of nature in the system
d. All of the above
79. In a matrix of transition probability, the probability values should add up to one in each
a. Row
b. Column
c. Diagonal
d. All of the above
80. In a matrix of transition probability, the element aij where i=j is a
a. Gain
b. Loss
c. Retention
81. In Markov analysis, state probabilities must
a. Sum to one
b. Be less than one
c. Be greater than one
82. State transition probabilities in the Markov chain should
a. Sum to 1
b. Be less than 1
c. Be greater than 1
83. If a matrix of transition probability is of the order n*n, then the number of equilibrium
equations would be
a. n
b. n-1
c. n+1
84. In the long run, the state probabilities become 0 & 1
a. In no case
b. In same cases
c. In all cases
d. Cannot say
85. While calculating equilibrium probabilities for a Markov process, it is assumed that
a. There is a single absorbing state
b. Transition probabilities do not change
c. There is a single non-absorbing state
86. The first-order Markov chain is generally used when
a. Transition probabilities are fairly stable
b. Change in transition probabilities is random
c. No sufficient data are available
d. All of the above
87. A problem is classified as Markov chain provided
a. There are finite number of possible states
b. States are collectively exhaustive & mutually exclusive
c. Long-run probabilities of being in a particular state will be constant over time
d. All of the above
88. The transition matrix elements remain positive from one point to the next. This property is
known as:
a. Steady-state property
b. Equilibrium property
c. Regular property
d. All of the above
89. Markov analysis is useful for:
a. Predicting the state of the system at some future time
b. Calculating transition probabilities at some future time
c. All of the above
d None of the above
.
90 Which of the following is not one of the assumptions of Markov analysis:
.
a There are a limited number of possible states
.
b A future state can be predicted from the preceding one
.
c There are limited number of future periods
.
d All of the above
.
91 An advantage of simulation as opposed to optimization is that
.
a Several options of measure of performance can be examined
.
b Complex real-life problems can be studied
.
c It is applicable in cases where there is an element of randomness in a system
. d. All of the above
92 The purpose of using simulation technique is to
.
a Imitate a real-world situation
.
b Understand properties & operating characteristics of complex real-life problems
.
c Reduce the cost of experiment on a model of real situation
.
d All of the above
.
93 Which of the following is not the special purpose simulation language
.
a BASIC
.
b GPSS
.
c GASP
.
d SIMSCRIPT
.
94 As simulation is not an analytical model, therefore the result of simulation must be viewed as
. a. Unrealistic
b Exact
.
c Approximation
.
d Simplified
.
95 While assigning random numbers in Monte Carlo simulation, it is
.
a Not necessary to assign the exact range of random number interval as the probability
.
b Necessary to develop a cumulative probability distribution
.
c Necessary to assign the particular appropriate random numbers
.
d All of the above
.
96 Analytical results are taken into consideration before a simulation study so as to
.
a Identify suitable values of the system parameters
.
b Determine the optimal decision
.
c Identify suitable values of decision variables for the specific choices of system
. parameters
d.All of the above

97 Biased random sampling is made from among alternatives which have
.
a Equal probability
.
b Unequal probability
.
c. Probability which do not sum to 1
98. Large complicated simulation models are appreciated because
a. Their average costs are not well-defined
b. It is difficult to create the appropriate events
c. They may be expensive to write and use as an experimental device
d. All of the above
99. Simulation should not be applied in all cases because it
a. Requires considerable talent for model building & extensive computer programming efforts
b. Consumes much computer time
c. Provides at best approximate solution to problem
d. All of the above
100. Simulation is defined as
a. A technique that uses computers
b. An approach for reproducing the processes by which events by chance & changes are
created in a computer
c. A procedure for testing & experimenting on models to answer what if , then so & so
types of questions
d. All of the above
101. The general purpose system simulation language
a. Requires programme writing
b. Does not require programme writing
c. Requires predefined coding forms
d. Needs a set of equations to describe a system
102. Special simulation languages are useful because they
a. Reduce programme preparation time & cost
b. Have the capability to generate random variables
c. Require no prior programming knowledge
d. All of the above
103. Few causes of simulation analysis failure are
a. Inadequate level of user participation
b. Inappropriate levels of detail
c. Incomplete mix of essential skills
d. All of the above
104. To make simulation more popular, we need to avoid
a. Large cost over runs
b. Prolonged delays
c. User dissatisfaction with simulation results
d. All of the above
105. The important step required for simulation approach in solving a problem is to
a. Test & validate the model
b. Design the experiment
c. Conduct the experiment
d. All of the above
ANOVA
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
In the following multiple-choice questions, select the best answer.
1. Analysis of variance is a statistical method of comparing the ________ of several

populations.
a. standard deviations
b. variances
c. means
d. proportions
e. none of the above
2. The ______ sum of squares measures the variability of the observed values
around their respective treatment means.
a. treatment
b. error
c. interaction
d. total
3. The ________ sum of squares measures the variability of the sample treatment
means around the overall mean.
a. treatment
b. error
c. interaction
d. total
4. If the true means of the k populations are equal, then MSTR/MSE should be:
a. more than 1.00
b. close to 1.00
c. close to 0.00
d. close to -1.00
e. a negative value between 0 and - 1
f. not enough information to make a decision
5. If the MSE of an ANOVA for six treatment groups is known, you can compute
a. df1
b. the standard deviation of each treatment group
c. the pooled standard deviation
d. b and c
e. all answers are correct
6. To determine whether the test statistic of ANOVA is statistically significant, it can be

compared to
a critical value. What two pieces of information are needed to determine the critical
value?
a. sample size, number of groups
b. mean, sample standard deviation
c. expected frequency, obtained frequency
d. MSTR, MSE
7. Which of the following is an assumption of one-way ANOVA comparing

samples from three or more experimental treatments?
a. All the response variables within the k populations follow a normal
distributions.
b. The samples associated with each population are randomly selected and
are independent from all other samples.
c. The response variable within each of the k populations have equal variances.
d. All of the above.
8. The error deviations within the SSE statistic measure distances:

a. within groups
b. between groups
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of the above
e. between each value and the grand mean
9. When the k population means are truly different from each other, it is likely that
the average error deviation:
a. is relatively large compared to the average treatment deviations
b. is relatively small compared to the average treatment deviations
c. is about equal to the average treatment deviation
e. differ significantly between at least two of the populations
10. As variability due to chance decreases, the value of F will

a. increase
b. stay the same
c. decrease
d. can’t tell from the given information
11. In a study, subjects are randomly assigned to one of three groups: control,
experimental A, or experimental B. After treatment, the mean scores for the
three groups are compared. The appropriate statistical test for comparing
these means is:
a. the correlation coefficient
b. chi square
c. the t-test
d. the analysis of variance
12. In one-way ANOVA, which of the following is used within the F-ratio as a
measurement of the variance of individual observations?
a. SSTR
b. MSTR
c. SSE
c. MSE
13. When conducting a one-way ANOVA, the _______ the between-treatment

variability is when compared to the within-treatment variability, the _______
the value of FDATA will be tend to be.
a. smaller, larger
b. smaller, smaller
c. larger, larger
d. smaller, more random
e. larger, more random
14. When conducting an ANOVA, FDATA will always fall within what range?
a. between negative infinity and infinity
b. between 0 and 1
c. between 0 and infinity
d. between 1 and infinity
15. If FDATA = 5, the result is statistically significant

a. Always
b. Sometimes
c. Never
16. If FDATA= 0.9, the result is statistically significant

a. Always
b. Sometimes
c. Never
17. You obtained a significant test statistic when comparing three treatments in a one-
way ANOVA. In words, how would you interpret the alternative hypothesis HA?
a. All three treatments have different effects on the mean response.
b. Exactly two of the three treatments have the same effect on the mean
response.
c. At least two treatments are different from each other in terms of
their effect on the mean response.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
18. You carried out an ANOVA on a preliminary sample of data. You then collected
additional data from the same groups; the difference being that the sample sizes
for each group were increased by a factor of 10, and the within-group variability
has decreased substantially. Which of the following statements is NOT correct.
a. The degrees of freedom associated with the error term has increased
b. The degrees of freedom associated with the treatment term has increased
c. SSE has decreased
d. FDATA has changed
e. FCRIT has changed
19. If the sample means for each of k treatment groups were identical (yes, this is
extremely unlikely), what would be the observed value of the ANOVA test
statistic?
a. 1.0
b. 0.0
c. A value between 0.0 and 1.0
d. A negative value
e. Infinite
20. If FDATA follows an F distribution with df1=4 and df2=5, what is the boundary
value of F where P(FDATA < F) = 0.95?
a. 0.05
b. 5.1922
c. 6.2561
d. 15.5291
e. 11.3919
21. Suppose the critical region for a certain test of the null hypothesis is of the form F
> 9.48773 and the computed value of F from the data is 1.86. Then:
a. H0 should be rejected.
b. The significance level is given by the area to the left of 9.48773 under
the appropriate F distribution.
c. The significance level is given by the area to the right of 9.48773
under the appropriate F distribution.
d. The hypothesis test is two-tailed
e. None of these.
22. Assuming that the null hypothesis being tested by ANOVA is false, the probability
of obtaining a F-ratio that exceeds the value reported in the F table as the 95th
percentile is:
a. less than .05.
b. equal to .05.
c. greater than .05.
23. Assuming no bias, the total variation in a response variable is due to error
(unexplained variation) plus differences due to treatments (known variation). If
known variation is large compared to unexplained variation, which of the
following conclusions is the best?
a. There is no evidence for a difference in response due to treatments.
b. There is evidence for a difference in response due to treatments.
c. There is significant evidence for a difference in response due to treatments
d. The treatments are not comparable.
e. The cause of the response is due to something other than treatments.
24. What would happen if instead of using an ANOVA to compare 10 groups, you
performed multiple t-tests?
a. Nothing, there is no difference between using an ANOVA and using a t-test.
b. Nothing serious, except that making multiple comparisons with a t-test
requires more computation than doing a single ANOVA.
c. Sir Ronald Fischer would be turning over in his grave; he put all
that work into developing ANOVA, and you use multiple t-tests
d. Making multiple comparisons with a t-test increases the probability
of making a Type I error.
25. What is the function of a post-test in ANOVA?

a. Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred.
b. Describe those groups that have reliable differences between group
means.
c. Set the critical value for the F test (or chi-square).
26. An investigator randomly assigns 30 college students into three equal size study
groups (early-morning, afternoon, late-night) to determine if the period of the day
at which people study has an effect on their retention. The students live in a
controlled environment for one week, on the third day of the experimental
treatment is administered (study of predetermined material). On the seventh day
the investigator tests for retention. In computing his ANOVA table, he sees that his
MS within groups is larger than his MS between groups. What does this result
indicate?
a. An error in the calculations was made.
b. There was more than the expected amount of variability between groups.
c. There was more variability between subjects within the same
group than there was between groups.
d. There should have been additional controls in the experiment.
27. In ANOVA with 4 groups and a total sample size of 44, the computed F statistic is
2.33 In this case, the p-value is:
a. exactly 0.05
b. less than 0.05
c. greater than 0.05
d. cannot tell - it depends on what the SSE is
28. Assume that there is no overlap between the box and whisker plots for three drug
treatments where each drug was administered to 35 individuals. The box plots for
these data:
a. provide no evidence for, or against, the null hypothesis of ANOVA
b. represent evidence for the null hypothesis of ANOVA
c. represent evidence against the null hypothesis of ANOVA
d. can be very misleading, you should not be looking at box plots in this setting
29. ANOVA was used to test the outcomes of three drug treatments. Each drug was
given to 20 individuals. The MSE for this analysis was 16. What is the standard
deviation for all 60 individuals sampled for this study?
a. 6.928
b. 48
c. 16
d. 4
30. A fisheries researcher wishes to test for a difference in mean weights of a single
species of fish caught by fishermen in three different lakes in Nova Scotia. The
significance level for the test will be 0.05. Complete the following partial
ANOVA table and use it to answer questions 31.1 to 31. 4
Source d.f. SS MS F
Treatment 17.04
Error 9
Total 31.23
30.1 The null hypothesis for this analysis is:

a. Not all the fish populations have the same mean.
b. At least one of the fish populations has a different mean.
c. µ1=µ2=µ3
d. µ1=µ2=µ3=0
e. None of these.
30.2 The value of FDATA for this test is:

a. 8.52
b. 5.39
c. 2.00
d. 0.1854
30.3 The value of FCRIT for this test is:

a. 3.5874
b. 3.8625
c. 3.9824
d. 4.2565
30.4 If you pooled all the individuals from all three lakes into a single group, they
would have a standard deviation of:
a. 1.257
b. 1.580
c. 3.767
d. 14.19
30.5 What is the appropriate interpretation of this test?

a. Reject H0: All three fish populations have different mean weights.
b. Reject H0: Exactly two of the three fish populations have the same means.
c. Reject H0: At least one of the fish populations differs from the
others in terms of their mean weight.
e. Fail to reject H0: The mean weights of the fish in these three populations are
the same
d. Fail to reject H0: There is insufficient evidence for differences in mean
weights of the fish from these three populations.
QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES FOR BUSINESS – I
1. Which one of the following is not a function of statistics?

(a) To simplify complexities (b) To compare data with respect to time and date
(c) To forecast the future (d) To pass a bill
2. Statistical methods are
(a) Collection of data (b) Analysis of data
(c) Classification of data (d) All of these
3. In sense, statistics refers to a set of methods and techniques used for
collection, tabulation, analysis and interpretation of statistical data.
(a) Normal (b) Singular
(d) Plural (d) Varied
4. Which branch of statistics is used to make generalisation about the population based
on the samples?
(a) Descriptive Statistics (b) Inferential Statistics
(c) Empirical Statistics (d) General Statistics
5. Statistics can
(a) Prove anything (b) Disprove anything
(c) Neither prove nor disprove anything: but is a tool (d) solve everything
6. Statistical results are
(a) Absolutely correct (b) Universally Correct
(c) True on an average (d) Not correct
7. Distrust of statistics arises on account of
(a) Lack of Knowledge and limitation of its uses (b) Science of statistics
(c) Collection of data by skilled persons (d) Complete disclosure of data collected
8. Which one of the following is not true?
(a) Statistics does not study the individual cases
(b) Statistical results are true only an average
(c) Statistics reveal the entire story of the problem
(d) Statistics are only one of the methods of studying a problem
9. Primary data as compared to secondary data are
(a) less reliable (b) equally reliable
(c) not actual data (d) more reliable
10. Data collected from “The Hindu” newspaper is an example of
(a) Primary data (b) Secondary data
(c) Continuous data (d) None of these
11. is a suitable method of collecting data in cases where the informants are
literate and spread over a vast area
(a) Mailed Questionnaire (b) Direct personal Interview
(c) Observation Method (d) Schedule method
12. The data collected on the height of a group of students after recording their heights
with a measuring tape are
(a) Primary data (b) Secondary data
(c) Discrete data (d) Continuous data
13. If all the units of the universe under study are considered for data collection, this
method of data collection is called
(a) Sampling method (b) Survey method
(c)Primary method (d) Census method
14. Which method of data collection is suitable when data to be collected are
confidential?
(a) Mailed Questionnaire (b) Direct personal Interview
(c) Observation Method (d) Schedule method
15. Data originally collected for an investigation is called
(a) Discrete data (b) Secondary data
(c) Primary data (d) Continuous data
16. Which one of the following is not true about census method?
(a) It is suitable when population is heterogeneous
(b) Census method possess high degree of accuracy
(c) Census method helps in intensive study of a problem
(d) It is cheap and is less time consuming
17. The technique of inspecting or studying only a selected representative and adequate
fraction of the population and drawing conclusions based on the study for the entire
universe is called..
(a) Sampling (b) Survey
(c)Primary method (d) Census
18. The listing of all units in the population under study is called
(a)List (b) stub
(c)Frame (d) Caption
19. Ton, kilogram, Rupees, hour etc are examples of
(a) Simple units (b) Composite units
(c) Primary unit (d) Complex units
20. Primary Data are in the nature of from which the investigator draws
conclusions by applying statistical methods for analysis and interpretations
(a) Raw materials (b) Finished products
(c) Work in progress (d) Closing stock
21. Secondary data are in the nature of as they have already passed
through the statistical machine.
(a) Raw materials (b) Finished products
(c) Work in progress (d) Closing stock
22. Which type of data goes through further analysis and changes its shape in the course
of its use?
23. Which type of data requires less precaution at the time of collection but more at the
time of analysis?
24. Which one of the following is not a method of primary data collection?
(a) Observation Method (b) Schedules sent through enumerators
(c) Indirect oral investigation (d) Publications of Trade associations
25. The group of individuals under study is known as
(a) Sample (b) Data
(c) Population (d) None of the above
26. Which method of data collection is free from sampling errors?
(a) Census Method (b) Sample Survey
(c) Non random sampling (d) None of the above
27. Which method of sampling uses random selection to generate representative samples
from population?
(a) Non – Probability Sampling (b) Non random sampling
(c) Probability sampling (d) None of the above
28. Which one of the following is not a method of simple random sampling?
(a) Lottery Method (b) Table of random numbers
(c) Grid System (d) Quota Sampling
29. Which one of the following is not a method of Non Probability Sampling?
(a) Convenient Sampling (b) Quota Sampling
(c) Snowball Sampling (d) Cluster Sampling
30. is a method of stratified sampling in which selection within strata is
non-random.
(a) Convenient Sampling (b) Quota Sampling
(c) Snowball Sampling (d) Cluster Sampling
31. Presenting numerical facts in rows and columns is known as
(a) Classification (b) Coding
(c) Editing (d) Tabulation
32. In this type of interview the interviewer does not follow any list of pre-determined
questions
(a) Structured (b) Unstructured
(c) Depth (d) focused
33. A population containing definite number of object is called
(a) Finite Population (b) Infinite Population
(c) Destructive Population (d) Universe
34. Random sampling under restricted sampling technique is called
(a) Lottery method (b) Cluster sampling
(c) Complex random sampling (d) Random number method
35. Under this method samples are drawn stage by stage.
(a) Cluster sampling (b) Multi stage sampling
(c) Random sampling (d) Judgement sampling
36. Table numbers are given for identification and
(a) Attractiveness (b) Promptness
(c) Future reference (d) Brevity
37. refers to the techniques, procedures and methods used for checking and
adjusting data for omissions, errors, consistency and legibility.
(a) Coding (b) Tabulation
(c) Editing (d) Classification
38. is an analytical process in which data, both in quantitative form or
qualitative form are categorised to facilitate analysis.
39. The process of arranging the data in groups or classes according to resemblances and
similarities in order to make the data clear and meaningful is called .
40. Column headings are called
(a) Stubs (b) Captions
(c) Source Note (d) Head Note
41. Row headings are known as
(a) Stubs (b) Captions
(c) Source Note (d) Head Note
42. In tabulation source of the data, if any, is shown in the
(a) Footnote (b) Body
(c) Stub (d) Caption
43. The primary data are collected by
(a) Interview Method (b) Schedule
(c) Observation (d) All of these
44. Investigator’s knowledge about the population is the basis in
(a) Purposive Sampling (b) Stratified Sampling
(c) Random Sampling (d) Systematic Sampling
45. Sampling errors are present only in
(a) Complete enumeration survey. (b) Sample Survey
(c) Both sample and census surveys (d) None of the above
46. Sampling errors can be reduced by

(a) Convenient Sampling (b) Increasing the sample Size
(c) Decreasing the sample Size (d) None of the above
47. In chronological classification data are classified on the basis of
(a) Attributes (b) Class intervals
(c) Time (d) Locations
48. What is the difference between the upper limit and lower limit of the class known as?
(a) Class Limit (b) Class Frequency
(c) Class Interval (d) Class mark
49. Under which method of forming class intervals, the upper limit of one class interval is
the lower limit of the next class?
(a) Exclusive method ` (b) Inclusive method
(c) Statistical series (d) None of the above
50. A collection of items, which cannot be exactly measured, but placed within certain
limits is called
(a) Continuous series (b) Discrete series
(c) Individual series (d) Class limits
51. The methods of finding out the average value of a statistical series is called measures
of
(a) Dispersion (b) Frequency
(d) Central Tendency (d) Positions
52. Which one of the following is not a positional average?
(a) Median (b) Quartiles
(c) Mode (d) Harmonic Mean
53. Which one of the following is not a mathematical average?
(a) Arithmetic mean (b) Median
(c) Geometric mean (d) Harmonic mean
54. The arithmetic mean of observations 14,13,32,41 and 55 is:
(a) 23 (b) 25
(c) 31 (d) 32
55. Which of the following is not affected by extreme values?

56. Which one of the following is a positional average?
57. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(a) Mean is rigidly defined (b) Mean is not affected due to sampling fluctuations
(c) Mean has some mathematical properties
(d) Mean is not affected by extreme values
58. For averaging the speed of a vehicle the best average is
59. Quartiles divide the given data into
(a) Four equal parts (b) Two equal parts
(c) Five equal parts (d) Ten Equal parts
60. Median can be determined graphically by using
(a) Histogram (b) Frequency Polygon
(c) Ogive (d) Pie Diagram
61. Median from the observations (15, 13, 3, 18, 21, 2) is
(a) 14 (b) 21 (c) 3 (d) 18
62. Mode of the observations (5, 12, 13, 11, 2, 5, 12, 7, 5)
(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 7 (d) 5
63. Which of the following cannot be calculated if any observation is Zero?
(a) Arithmetic Mean (b) Harmonic Mean
(c) Geometric Mean (d) Median
64. Mean of 3 items is 20. The first two items are 25 and 15. What is the third item?
(a) 20 (b) 15
(c) 25 (d) 18
65. Mean and median of a series are 20. What is mode?

(a) 40 (b) 15
(c) 20 (d) Cannot identify
66. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Median = 3 Mode – 2 Mean
(b) Mean = 3 Median – 2 Mean
(c) Mode = 3 Mean – 2 Median
(d) Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean
67. If mode is 10, the highest value of the observation is increased by 5. What will be the
new mode?
(a) 20 (b) 15
(c) 10 (d) 5
68. Which of the measure of central tendancy based on all the observations
(a) Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) Quartile
69. For determination of mode, the class intervals should be
(a) Uniform (b) Maximum
(c) Minimum (d) None
70. The value of a set of observation that occurs most is called
(a) Mean (b) Median
71. Second quartile is also known as
(a) Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) Percentile
72. When 10 is added to all the observations in a series, then mean is
(a) Increased by 10 (b) Decreased by 10
(c) Same (d) Zero
73. For a moderately asymmetrical distribution, which of the following relationship is
correct?
(a) Mean – Mode = 3 (Mean – Median)
(b) Mean – Mode = 3 (Median – Mean)
(c) Mean – Median = 3 (Mean – Median)
(d) Mean – Mode = 3 (Mode – Median)
74. If median is 20 and mean is 22.5 in a moderately skewed distribution, then compute
approximate value of mode?
(a) 21 (b) 15
(c) 22.5 (d) 20
75. Mutually exclusive classification
(a) Excludes both the class limits
(b) Exclude the upper class limit but includes the lower class limit
(c) Includes the upper class limit but excludes the upper class limit
(d) Either (b) or (c)
76. Mode of a distribution can be obtained from
(a) Histogram (b) Less than type ogives
(c) More than type ogives (d) Frequency polygon
77. Median of a distribution can be obtained from
(a) Frequency polygon (b) Histogram
(c) Less than type ogives (d) None of these
78. The number of observations falling within a class is called
(a) Density (b) Frequency
(c) Class Size (d) Class Interval
79. Difference between the maximum and minimum value of a given data is called
(a) Width (b) Size
(c) Range (d) None of the above
80. Class: 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
Frequency: 5 10 11 6 2
What is the cumulative frequency of the class 20-30?
(a)11 (b) 15
(c)34 (d) 26
81. Find the arithmetic mean of the following distribution(10,15,20,25,30,35)
(a) 20 (b) 22.5
(c)25 (d) 17.5
82. The point of intersection of the ‘less than’ and ‘more than’ ogives corresponds to
(a) Median (b) Mode
(c) Mean (d) Percentile
83. In a symmetrical distribution mean is median and mode.
(a) Greater than (b) Less than
(c) Equal to (d) greater than or equal to
84. is the reciprocal of the arithmetic average of the reciprocal of values of
various items in the variable.
(a) Geometric Mean (b) Arithmetic Mean
(c) Harmonic Mean (d) Median
85. If in a moderately asymmetrical frequency distribution, the values of the median and
arithmetic mean are 72 and 78 respectively, estimate the value of the mode.
(a) 74 (b) 76
(c) 78 (d) 60
86. is defined as the N th root of the product of N items.
(a) Geometric Mean (b) Arithmetic Mean
87. Q2, second quartile is better known as
(a) Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) Percentile
88. The sum of the deviations of the items from the arithmetic mean, taking into account
plus and minus signs, is always
(a) Positive (b) negative
(c) Zero (d) Greater than 1
89. Which type of average is usually used to calculate growth rates like population growth
or interest rates.
(a) Arithmetic Mean (b) Geometric Mean
90. Which measures are also called averages of the ‘second order’?
(a) Measures of Dispersion (b) Measures of Frequency
(d) Measures of Central Tendency (d) Measures of Positions
91. indicates the extent to which the individual values fall away from the
average or central value.
(a) Dispersion (b) Frequency
(d) Central Tendency (d) Positions
92. Dispersion is the measure of of the items
(a) Average (b) Normality
(c) Position (d) Variation
93. Which of the following is not correct about measure of dispersion?
(a) It is capable of algebraic treatment
(b) It indicates degree of variations
(c) It helps in comparison
(d) It is affected by extreme values
94. Relative measures of dispersion is also known as?
(a) Co-efficients of dispersion (b) Absolute dispersion
(c) Cumulative dispersion (d) None of the above
95. Which of the following measures of dispersion is not a positional measure?
(a) Range (b) Inter Quartile Range
(c) Quartile Deviation (d) Mean Deviation
96. Which of the following measures of dispersion is a positional measure?
(a) Mean Deviation (b) Quartile Deviation
(c) Standard Deviation (d) Lorenz Curve
97. Which of the following is/are algebraic measures of dispersion?
(a) Mean Deviation (b) Standard Deviation
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
98. The difference between the two extreme values of a series is called?
(a) Frequency (b) Range
(c) Mean Deviation (d) Standard Deviation
99. Which of the following measures of dispersion is a graphic method based on
cumulative frequency?
(a) Range (b) Median
(c) Mean deviation (d) Lorenz Curve
100. From the following distribution ascertain the value of range?
Days: Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday
Price: 200 280 150 400 500
(a) 300 (b) 350
(b) 500 (d) 500
101. From the following series determine the value of range?
Marks: 10 20 30 40 50 60 70
No of students 3 5 7 8 1 5 1
(a)7 (b) 8
(c) 70 (d) 60
102. is defined as the difference between the two extreme quartiles of a series
(c) Inter Quartile Range (d) Quartile Deviation
103. Inter Quartile range represents the difference between the third quartile and
(a) First Quartile (b) Second Quartile
(c) Range (d) Fourth Quartile
104. is defined as the average of the difference between the two extreme
quartiles of a series
(c) Inter Quartile Range (d) Quartile Deviation
105. Semi Inter Quartile Range is also called by the name
(a) Standard Deviation (b) Mean Deviation
(c) Quartile Deviation (d) Co-efficient of Quartile Deviation
106. Quartile deviation gives the average amount by which the two quartiles differ from the
.
(a) Range (b) Mean
(c) Median (d) Mode
107. What is defined as the arithmetic average of the deviations of items of a series taken
from its central value ignoring the plus and minus sign?
(a) Range (b) Mean Deviation
(c)Quartile Deviation (d) Standard Deviation
108. Mean deviation can be calculated from which of the following measures of central
tendency?
(a) Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) All of the above
109. The square root of the arithmetic average of the squares of deviation taken from the
arithmetic average of a series is called?
(c)Quartile Deviation (d) Standard Deviation
110. Which measure of dispersion is also known as ‘root-mean-square deviation’?
(c) Quartile Deviation (d) Standard Deviation
111. Standard deviation can be calculated from which of the following measures of central
tendency?
(a) Arithmetic Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) All of the above
112. Mean deviation is based on simple average of the sum of
(a) Absolute deviations (b) Squared Deviations
(c) Positive Deviations (d) Negative deviations
113. Standard deviation is based on simple average of the sum of
(a) Absolute deviations (b) Squared Deviations
(c) Positive Deviations (d) Negative deviations
114. The ratio of Standard deviation to actual mean expressed in percentage is called
(a) Co-efficient of Mean (b) Co-efficient of Quartile Deviation
(c) Co-efficient of Variation (d) None of the above
115. is the mean of the squares of deviations of all observations of a
series from their mean.
(a) Co-efficient of Variation (b) Variance
(c) Range (d) Standard deviation
116. The square of standard deviation is called
(a) Coefficient of Variation (b) Mean
(c) Variance (d) Co-efficient of Quartile Deviation
117. The graphical method of showing deviation of size of items from the average is called
(a) Histogram (b) Ogive
(c) Polygon (d) Lorenz Curve
118. The extend of symmetry or asymmetry in a distribution is called
(a) Kurtosis (b) Moments
(c) Skewness (d) Variance
119. In a series with positive skewness
(a) Mean = Median = Mode (b) Mean is negative
(c) Mean > Median > Mode (d) Mean < Median < Mode
120. In a series with negative skewness
(a) Mean = Median = Mode (b) Mean is negative
(c) Mean > Median > Mode (d) Mean < Median < Mode
121. If the value of mean is greater than mode, skewness will be
(a) Symmetric (b) Positive
(c) Negative (d) Zero
122. If the value of mean is less than mode, skewness will be
(a) Symmetric (b) Positive
123. The arithmetic average of a certain power of deviations of the items from their
arithmetic mean is called as .
(a) Moments (b) Skewness
(c) Kurtosis (d) Variance
124. The first central moment will be always
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) One (d) Zero
125. means the degree of the extent of peakedness of a distribution
compared to a normal distribution.
(a) Moments (b) Skewness
(c) Kurtosis (d) Variance
126. What is called for a frequency curve which is more peaked than the normal curve?
(a) Leptokurtic (b) Mesokurtic
(c) Platykurtic (d) Isokurtic
127. A normal curve which is neither too peaked nor too flat is called
128. When a frequency curve is more flat topped than the normal curve, it is called as
129. Measures of dispersion means measurement of
(a) Scatterness of data (b) Concentration of data
(c) Similarity of data (d) Both (a) and (b)
130. Measurement based on extreme values in the series is ;
(a) Range (b) Standard deviation
(c) Quartile Deviation (d) All of these
131. Sum of the deviations from mean is;
(a) Negative (b) Least
(c) Positive (d) Zero
132. Which of the following measure is considered for comparison of two or more set of
observations?
(a) Mean Deviation (b) Standard Deviation
(c) Coefficient of variation (d) All of these
133. Which of the following measure is based on all the observations?
(a) Range (b) Inter Quartile Range
(c) Quartile Deviation (d) Standard Deviation
134. The range of the observation, 20, 31, 15,8, 39, 42 is;
(a) 34 (b) 24
(c) 26 (d) 15
135. Standard deviation of a set of observation is 8. If all the observations are multiplied by
5, then the new standard deviation would be,
(a) 13 (b) 40
(c) 8 (d) 3
136. The degree to which numerical data tend to spread about an average value is called;
(a) Variation (b) Dispersion
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) None of these
137. When Q1 is 15 and Q3 is 24, the value of quartile deviation is:
(a) 9 (b) 19.5
(c) 4.5 (d) 12
138. Range of a set of values is 12 and its highest value is 35, then its lowest value is
(a) 23 (b) 15
(c) 47 (d) 11.5
139. The less the co-efficient of variation of a distribution, the is the
consistency.
(a) Less (b) More
(c) zero (d) Minimum
140. A distribution is said to be symmetric when its:
(a) Mean = Median = Mode (b) Mean = Median + Mode
(c) Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean (d) Mean, median and mode are not equal
141. Skewness refers to:
(a) Peakedness (b) Asymmetry
(c) Symmetry (d) Flatness
142. For a symmetric distribution the value of skewness is
(a) One (b) Greater than 1
143. Bowley’s coefficient of skewness is based on
(a) Quartiles (b) Mode
(c) Range (d) None of these
144. If each of the items of a series is multiplied by a common factor, the value of standard
deviation is;
(a) Unaffected (b) decreased
(c) Increased (d) Zero
145. Two basic statistical laws concerning a population are
(a) The law of statistical irregularity and the law of inertia of large numbers
(b) The law of statistical regularity and the law of inertia of large numbers
(c) The law of statistical regularity and the law of inertia of small numbers
(d) The law of statistical irregularity and the law of inertia of small numbers
146. The the size of a sample more reliable is the result.
(a) Medium (b) Smaller
(c) Larger (d) none
147. The more the mean moves away from the mode, the larger the
(a) Symmetry (b) Kurtosis
(c) Median (d) Skewness
148. Which of the following is not true about skewness?
(a) It refers to lack of symmetry
(b) Skewness will be always positive
(c) It is always used as a relative measure
(d) It studies the concentration of the data either in lower or higher values
149. The absolute measure of skewness is based on the difference between
(a) Mean and Mode (b) Mean and Median
(c)Median and Mode (d) None
150. Relative measure of skewness is also known as
(a) Mean Variation (b) Co-efficient of skewness
(c) Coefficient of Variance (d) Kurtosis
151. Bowley’s Co-efficient of skewness is also known as
(a) Range co-efficient of skewness (b) Percentile Co-efficient of skewness
(c) Mean co-efficient of skewness (d) Quartile Co-efficient of skewness
152. refers to the insertion of an intermediate value is a series of items.

(a) Interpolation (b) Extrapolation
(c) Moments (d) None
153. refers to the projection of a value for the future
154. helps us in forecasting.
155. gives us the missing link.
156. Name the statistical technique used for estimating the population of 2012, if
population of 2010 and 2015 is known?
157. refers to estimating values for future period.
158. Statistics is an art as well as
(a) Average (b) Theory
(c) Science (d) None
159. is the most commonly used measure of central tendency?
(a) Mean (b) Median
160. When the distribution is of open end classes which average may be appropriate?
(a) Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) None
161. Geometric mean is useful in
(a) Finding average % increase in sales, production (b) Finding index numbers
(c) Both (d) None
162. The formula for finding Quartile Deviation is
(a) (Q3-Q1)/2 (b) (Q2-Q3)/2
(c) (Q2-Q1)/2 (d) (Q3 + Q1)/2
163. Standard Deviation was first introduced by
(a) Karl Pearson (b) Horas Secrist
(c) Lorance (d) Spearman
164. Moments are used to find a measure of
(a) Central tendency (b) Dispersion
(c) Skewness (d) All these
165. Statistical methods are most dangerous tools in the hands of
(a) Expert (b) Inexpert
(c)Business man (d) All of them
166. is used whenever the relative importance of the items in a series differs.
(a) Simple arithmetic mean (b) Weighted arithmetic mean
(c) Geometric mean (d) None
167. Median is a average.
(a) Mathematical (b) Neutral
(c) Arithmetical (d) Positional
168. Which of the following is not a mathematical average?
(a) Arithmetic Mean (b) Harmonic Mean
(c) Geometric Mean (d) Mode
169. divides the data into four equal parts?
(a) Range (b) Mean
(c) Quartiles (d) Median
170. Which of the following cannot be computed from an open ended distribution?
(a) Range (b) Mean
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
171. Measures of dispersion are statistical devices to measure the in a series.

(a) Variability (b) Convertibility
(c) Flexibility (d) None
172. Squares of is known as variance
(a) Standard Deviation (b) Mean
(c) Mean Deviation (d) Median
173. In standard deviation, deviations are measured from
(a) Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) None
174. A measure of dispersion is an average of
(a) Variance (b) Skewness
(c) Median (d) Deviation
175. When first quartile (Q1) is 20 and third quartile (Q3) is 40, What will be the quartile
deviation?
(a) 5 (b) 30
(c) 10 (d) 25
176. If the range of a series is 20 and its lowest value is 10. What will be the highest value
in the series?
(a) 20 (b) 30
(c) 40 (d) 200
177. Statistics is defined in terms of numerical data in
(a) Singular sense (b) Plural sense
(c) Both (d) None
178. Measures of central tendency is also known as measures of
(a) Central calculation (b) Central location
(c) Central information (d) Central data
179. Short cut method for calculating arithmetic mean also known as
(a) Assumed average method (b) Assumed variable method
(c) Assumed mean method (d). Arithmetic variable method
180. There are equal numbers of observation on the right and on the left of _ value.
(a) mean (b) median
(c) mode (d) 1st Quartile
181. is the percentage variation in mean.
(a) Variance (b) S.D
(c) Co-efficient of variation (d) M.D
182. Which of the following is an absolute measure of dispersion?
(a) Co-efficient of variation (b) Standard deviation
(c) Co-efficient of quartiles (d) Co-efficient of mean deviation
183. Standard deviation is always than mean deviation.
(a) Smaller (b) greater
(c) Negative (d) Nuetral
184. Average is a measure of .
(a) Correlation (b) Dispersion
(c) Central Tendency (d) Skewness
185. In kurtosis, the normal curve is termed as .
(c) Platokurtic (d) None
186. Lorenz curve is a geometric method of measuring
(a) Variability (b) flexibility
(c) Normality (d) Skewness
187. percentage of values of a series are less than Q1.
(a) 10 (b) 25
(c) 50 (d) 15
188. Random sampling is also referred to as sampling
(a) Probability (b) Non Probability
(c) Purposive (d) Easy
189. Classification is the step in tabulation.
(a) Final (b) First
(c) Second (c) Third
190. Harmonic mean is the of the arithmetic mean of the values.
(a) Square (b) negative
(c) Opposite (d) Reciprocal
191. The sum of squares of deviations is least when measured from
(a) Median (b) Mean
(c) Mode (d) Zero
192. The quartile deviation includes the
(a) First 50% (b) Last 50 %
(c) Central 50 % (d) None
193. According to Bowely, “Statistics may rightly be called the science of
(a) Numbers (b) Figures
(c) Averages (d) Arithmetics
194. Which sampling provides separate estimate for population means for different
segments and also an overall estimate?
(a) Multistage sampling (b) Stratified Sampling
(c) Simple Random Sampling (d) Systematic Sampling
195. Which sampling is subjected to the discretion of the sampler?
(a) Systematic Sampling (b) Purposive Sampling
(c) Quota Sampling (d) Random Sampling
196. Determine the value of median from the following items
Runs : 110, 115, 140, 117, 109, 113, 120
(a) 140 (b) 117
(c) 115 (d) 120
197. Which of the following is not a partition value?
(a) Quartiles (b) Percentiles
(c) Deciles (d) Mode
198. The value of median is 141 and mean is 140 in a moderately assymmetrical
distribution. Find the value of mode?
(a) 140 (b) 141
(c) 142 (d) 143
199. Which of the following is not a characteristic of measure of dispersion?

(a) It is capable of algebraic treatment (b) It indicates degree of variation
(c) It is affected by extreme values (d) It Helps in comparison
200. Which measure is based on only the central fifty percent of the observations?
(a) Standard Deviation (b) Mean Deviation
(c) Quartile Deviation (d) Range
MCQs : Introduction to Network:- Shortest path / max-flow /
Minimum spanning tree
This set of Data Structures & Algorithms Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Minimum Spanning Tree”.
1. Which of the following is false in the case of a spanning tree of a graph G?
a) It is tree that spans G
b) It is a subgraph of the G
c) It includes every vertex of the G
d) It can be either cyclic or acyclic
2. Every graph has only one minimum spanning tree.

a) True
b) False
.
3. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____ spanning trees.
a) 15
b) 8
c) 16
d) 13
4. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________

a) A spanning tree
b) A minimum spanning tree
c) Bellman – Ford algorithm
d) DFS traversal
.
6. Consider a undirected graph G with vertices { A, B, C, D, E}. In graph G, every edge has
distinct weight. Edge CD is edge with minimum weight and edge AB is edge with maximum
weight. Then, which of the following is false?
a) Every minimum spanning tree of G must contain CD
b) If AB is in a minimum spanning tree, then its removal must disconnect G
c) No minimum spanning tree contains AB
d) G has a unique minimum spanning tree
7. If all the weights of the graph are positive, then the minimum spanning tree of the graph
is a minimum cost subgraph.
a) True
b) False
8. Consider the graph shown below. Which of the following are the edges in the Minimum
Spanning Tree of the given graph?
a) (a-c)(c-d)(d-b)(d-b)
b) (c-a)(a-d)(d-b)(d-e)
c) (a-d)(d-c)(d-b)(d-e)
d) (c-a)(a-d)(d-c)(d-b)(d-e)
9. Which of the following is not the algorithm to find the minimum spanning tree of the
given graph?
a) Boruvka’s algorithm
b) Prim’s algorithm
c) Kruskal’s algorithm
d) Bellman–Ford algorithm
10. Which of the following is false?
a) The spanning trees do not have any cycles
b) MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges
c) Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge in
the same cut, then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph
d) Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected
Maximum Flow Problem Multiple Choice Questions and

Answers (MCQs)
11. What does Maximum flow problem involve?
a) finding a flow between source and sink that is maximum
b) finding a flow between source and sink that is minimum
c) finding the shortest path between source and sink
d) computing a minimum spanning tree
12. A network can have only one source and one sink.
a) False
b) True
13. What is the source?
a) Vertex with no incoming edges
b) Vertex with no leaving edges
c) Centre vertex
d) Vertex with the least weight
14. Which algorithm is used to solve a maximum flow problem?
a) Prim’s algorithm
b) Kruskal’s algorithm
c) Dijkstra’s algorithm
d) Ford-Fulkerson algorithm
15. Does Ford- Fulkerson algorithm use the idea of?
a) Naïve greedy algorithm approach
b) Residual graphs
c) Minimum cut
d) Minimum spanning tree
16. The first step in the naïve greedy algorithm is?
a) analysing the zero flow
b) calculating the maximum flow using trial and error
c) adding flows with higher values
d) reversing flow if required
17. Under what condition can a vertex combine and distribute flow in any manner?
a) It may violate edge capacities
b) It should maintain flow conservation
c) The vertex should be a source vertex
d) The vertex should be a sink vertex
18. Find the maximum flow from the following graph
a) 22
b) 17
c) 15
d) 20
19. A simple acyclic path between source and sink which pass through only positive
weighted edges is called?
a) augmenting path
b) critical path
c) residual path
d) maximum path
20. How many constraints does flow have?
a) one
b) three
c) two
d) four
MCQ`s : Integer Programming Problem

21. In a mixed-integer programming problem
(a) all of the decision variables require integer solutions
(b) few of the decision variables require integer solutions
(c) different objective functions are mixed together
(d) none of the above
22. The use of cutting plane method
(a) reduces the number of constraints in the given problem
(b) yields better value of objective function
(c) requires the use of standard LP approach between each
cutting plane application
(d) all of the above
23. The 0 – 1 integer programming problem

(a) requires the decision variables to have values between
zero and one
(b) requires that all the constraints have coefficients between
zero and one
(c) requires that the decision variables have coefficients
between zero and one
24. The part of the feasible solution space eliminated by plotting

a cut contains
(a) only non-integer solutions
(b) only integer solutions
(c) both (a) and (b)
25. While solving an IP problem any non-integer variable in the

solution is picked up in order to
(a) obtain the cut constraint
(b) enter the solution
(c) leave the solution
26. Branch and Bound method divides the feasible solution space
into smaller parts by
(a) branching
(b) bounding
(c) enumerating
27. Rounding-off solution values of decision variables in an LP
problem may not be acceptable because
(a) it does not satisfy constraints
(b) it violates non-negativity conditions
(c) objective function value is less than the objective function
value of LP
28. In the Branch and Bound approach to a maximization integer
LP problem, a node is terminated if
(a) a node has an infeasible solution
(b) a node yields a solution that is feasible but not an integer
(c) upper bound is less than the current sub-problem’s lower
bound
29. Which of the following is the consequence of adding a new cut
constraint to an optimal simplex table
(a) addition of a new variable to the table
(b) makes the previous optimal solution infeasible
(c) eliminates non-integer solution from the solution space
30. In a Branch and Bound minimization tree, the lower bounds on
objective function value
(a) do not decrease in value
(b) do not increase in value
(c) remain constant
31. The situation of multiple solutions arises with
(a) cutting plane method
(b) branch and bound method
32. The corners of the reduced feasible region of an integer LP
problem contains
(a) only integer solution
(b) optimal integer solution
(c) only non-integer solution
33. While applying the cutting-plane method, dual simplex is used
to maintain
(a) optimality
(b) feasibility
34. A non-integer variable is chosen in the optimal simplex table
of the integer LP problem to
(a) leave the basis
(b) enter the basis
(c) to construct a Gomory cut
35. Modifications made for the mixed-integer cutting plane method
are:
(a) value of the objective function is bounded
(b) row corresponding to an integer variable serve as a sourcerow
(c) top most rows of the simplex table contains integer variables
MCQ : Simulation; Queuing Problems

1.Which of the following are the disadvantages of using Modelling and Simulation?
A. Simulation requires manpower and it is a time-consuming process.
B. Simulation results are difficult to translate. It requires experts to understand
C. Simulation process is expensive
D. All of the above
Explanation: All of the above are the disadvantages of using Modelling and
Simulation.
2. ____________ of a system is the operation of a model in terms of time or space,
which helps analyze the performance of an existing or a proposed system.
A. Modelling
B. Control Systems
C. Simulation
D. Radar
3. Which of the following is Step 1 for Performing Simulation Analysis?

A. choose input variables
B. create entities for the simulation process
C. prepare a problem statement
D. determine the output variables
4. Which of the following is Step 1 for Developing Simulation Models?

A. Design the problem
B. Identify the problem
C. Collect and start processing the system data
D. Develop the model using network diagrams
.
5. Which of the following statements are NOT true of simulation?
A. Simulation model cannot prescribe what should be done about a problem

B. Simulation models can be used to study alternative solutions to a problem
C. Simulation models the behaviour of a system
D. The equations describing the operating characteristics of the system are known
6. Select the valid reasons for using simulation.

A. Relationship between the variables is nonlinear
B. Optimized solutions are obtained
C. Conduct experiments without disrupting the real system
D. Answers 1 and 3
7. Monte Carlo simulation gets its name from which of the following?
A. Data collection
B. Model formulation
C. Random-number assignment
D. Analysis
8. Simulation models can be used to obtain operating characteristic estimates in less

time than with the real system using a feature of simulation called:
A. Microseconds
B. Warp speed
C. Time compression
D. None of the above
9. Which of the following statistical methods are commonly used to analyze simulation
results?
A. Regression analysis
B. t-tests
C. Analysis of variance
D. All of the above

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STATISTICS 8: CHAPTERS 7 TO 10, SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

4. Which of the following is an example of a relative frequency probability based on measuring a

9. Which statement is not true about the 95% confidence level?

14. Which of the following examples involves paired data?

16. The expected value of a random variable is the

A. What is the expected value of X= payoff?

18. Which one of these variables is a continuous random variable?

20. Which one of these variables is a binomial random variable?

29. Which one of the following probabilities is a "cumulative" probability?

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

In the following multiple-choice questions, select the best answer.

The above equation implies that:

5. SSE can never be

7. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is the

11. In a regression analysis if r2 = 1, then

The above equation implies that an

16. In a regression and correlation analysis if r2 = 1, then

19. If the coefficient of determination is equal to 1, then the correlation coefficient

25. If the coefficient of determination is 0.81, the correlation coefficient

26. A fitted least squares regression line

If the advertising budgets of two branches of the corporation differ by

37.3 The least squares estimate of b 0

37.4 The sum of squares due to regression (SSR)

37.5 The coefficient of determination

37.6 The point estimate of y when x = 0.55

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON MANAGEMENT SCIENCE

1. The term “Operation Research” was coined by :

1. Decision Science approach is

c. Balancing limitations & requirements

d.All of the above

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

In the following multiple-choice questions, select the best answer.

1. Analysis of variance is a statistical method of comparing the ________ of several

6. To determine whether the test statistic of ANOVA is statistically significant, it can be

7. Which of the following is an assumption of one-way ANOVA comparing

8. The error deviations within the SSE statistic measure distances:

10. As variability due to chance decreases, the value of F will

13. When conducting a one-way ANOVA, the _______ the between-treatment

15. If FDATA = 5, the result is statistically significant

16. If FDATA= 0.9, the result is statistically significant

25. What is the function of a post-test in ANOVA?

30.1 The null hypothesis for this analysis is:

30.2 The value of FDATA for this test is:

30.3 The value of FCRIT for this test is:

30.5 What is the appropriate interpretation of this test?

1. Which one of the following is not a function of statistics?

46. Sampling errors can be reduced by

55. Which of the following is not affected by extreme values?

65. Mean and median of a series are 20. What is mode?

152. refers to the insertion of an intermediate value is a series of items.

171. Measures of dispersion are statistical devices to measure the in a series.

199. Which of the following is not a characteristic of measure of dispersion?

2. Every graph has only one minimum spanning tree.

4. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________

Maximum Flow Problem Multiple Choice Questions and

MCQ`s : Integer Programming Problem

23. The 0 – 1 integer programming problem

24. The part of the feasible solution space eliminated by plotting