Term Exam-3
Term Exam-3
Term Exam-3
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FSP1-Term_Exam-2020_Test_03_S1
SECTION - I
Multiple Choice Questions : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Question : 1
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
A cosθ = = =
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Question : 2
A uniform semicircular disc has radius R, the distance of centre of mass from its centre ‘O’, is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
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Question : 3
A block of mass 3 kg starts from rest from point P and slides down a fixed curved path as shown in figure. If it reaches the
bottom with a speed of 4 m/s, then work done against friction is (g = 10 m/s2)
Options:
60 J
36 J
24 J
40 J
Solution :
Answer (2)
mgR = Wf + mv2
⇒ 3 × 10 × 2 = Wf + × 3 × (16)
⇒ Wf = 36 J
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Question : 4 (skipped)
Three identical bricks of length L are arranged as shown in figure. The distance of centre of mass of system of three bricks
from the wall is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
x1 = , x2 = L, x3 = L
Xcm =
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Question : 5
A particle is acted upon by a variable force such that the position of the particle of mass 2 kg varies with time as x = 4t2 + t,
where x is in metre and t in second. The work done by the force in first 2 s is
Options:
144 J
128 J
288 J
512 J
Solution :
Answer (3)
x = 4t2 + t
u = 8t + 1
v1 = 1 m/s
v2 = 17 m/s
∴W= ×m = 288 J
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Question : 6 (skipped)
Options:
28 J
16 J
22 J
38 J
Solution :
Answer (4)
= =
= =
∴W= .Δ = 38 J
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Question : 7
A small ball of mass m is released from rest from the position shown. All contact surfaces are smooth. The speed of the ball
when it reaches its lowest position is [wedge is fixed]
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
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Question : 8
Two blocks of masses m and 2m are connected with an ideal spring of spring constant k and placed at rest on smooth
horizontal surface. They are then given velocities as indicated in figure. The velocity of centre of mass of system, is
Options:
v0
Solution :
Answer (1)
vcm = = v0
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Question : 9
A particle of mass 2m moving along x-axis with velocity v0 collides with another particle of mass m moving along y-axis with
velocity 2v0. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, then kinetic energy of system after collision, is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
(3m) × vc = × 2mv0 ...(i)
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Question : 10 (skipped)
In the given arrangement, block A is held at rest and spring is in its natural length. Block B is of mass M and is at rest on
floor. What should be the minimum mass of block A, so that when it is released, the block B leaves contact with the floor?
Options:
2M
Solution :
Answer (3)
kx0 = Mg ...(i)
(mA)g × x0 = kx02
⇒ mA =
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Question : 11 (skipped)
A simple pendulum of length l is suspended vertically as shown. What should be the minimum velocity v, so that tension in
the string can be zero at some instant?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
For T to be zero, the bob should reach the point where the string is horizontal.
∴ vmin =
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Question : 12 (skipped)
The potential energy of a particle moving along x-axis is given by U = J, where x is in metres. The
Options:
x=4m
x = –2 m
x= m
x = –4 m
Solution :
Answer (2)
= x2 – 4 = 0
⇒x=±2
= 2x
∴ x = – 2, U is maximum
⇒ Unstable equilibrium.
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Question : 13 (skipped)
A ball is dropped from height of 20 m on a floor. It is found that the ball rises up to 5 m after second bounce, then coefficient
of restitution for the collision between the ball and the floor is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
hn = (e2n) × h0
⇒ h2 = e4 × h0
⇒ 5 = e4 × (20)
⇒e=
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Question : 14 (skipped)
Ball P of mass m, moving with velocity v0, collides with another stationary ball Q of mass m elastically and head-on. The
loss of kinetic energy of the ball P due to collision is
Options:
54%
74%
69%
100%
Solution :
Answer (4)
Velocity gets interchanged.
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Question : 15 (skipped)
Two identical blocks A and B, each of mass m, are connected with a spring of spring constant K and are placed at rest on a
smooth horizontal surface. Two more identical blocks C and D, each of mass m, moving with velocities as indicated, hit the
blocks A and B simultaneously and stick with them respectively. The kinetic energy of system just after collision, is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
⇒ xm =
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Question : 16 (skipped)
A small ball of mass m is released from rest from the position shown in figure. The wedge is fixed and friction is absent
everywhere. The normal reaction exerted on the ball when it reaches the lowest position is
Options:
5mg
2mg
4mg
3mg
Solution :
Answer (4)
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Question : 17 (skipped)
Two uniform solid hemisphere of equal mass and equal radius R are joined as shown in figure. The distance of centre of
mass from point O is
Options:
Zero
Solution :
Answer (2)
By symmetry COM will be at O.
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Question : 18 (skipped)
A boy of mass 40 kg is standing in a boat at a distance of 20 m from the shore. The mass of boat is 160 kg. The boy moves
4 m on the boat in a direction away from the shore. The distance of boy, now from the shore is
Options:
22.8 m
23.2 m
24.0 m
21.6 m
Solution :
Answer (2)
Xboat =
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Question : 19 (skipped)
A force = acts on a particle moving in x-y plane. Starting from the origin, the particle is taken along positive x-
axis to the point (2, 0) and then parallel to y-axis to the point (2, 2). The total work done by the force is
Options:
2 units
4 units
6 units
8 units
Solution :
Answer (2)
dw = y dx + x dy
∴w= =4
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Question : 20 (skipped)
In the arrangement, friction is absent. The acceleration of centre of mass of the blocks is (g = 10 m/s2)
Options:
1 m/s2
2 m/s2
m/s2
m/s2
Solution :
Answer (4)
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FSP1-Term_Exam-2020_Test_03_S2
SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions : This section contains 5 numerical value type questions ranging from 00 to 99. The answer
will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer to question
numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively.
Question : 21 (skipped)
Work done to stretch an ideal spring from its natural length by 1 mm is 10 J. The amount of work required to stretch the
spring further by 1 mm in joules, is______.
Options:
30
Solution :
Answer (30)
Ui = k x2
Uf = k (2x)2
∴ W = Uf – Ui
=3× = 30 J
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Question : 22 (skipped)
A particle of mass m is taken from point A to B very slowly by force F parallel to x-axis along smooth circular track of radius
R in vertical plane. If m = 2 kg, g = 10 m/s2 and R = 1.5 m then the work done by force F, in joules, is equal to_____.
Options:
30
Solution :
Answer (30)
WF + Wmg = 0
⇒ WF = –Wmg = mgR
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Question : 23 (skipped)
A particle attached at one end of a vertical ideal string whose other end is kept fixed in vertical x-y plane is given velocity
If the speed of the particle at its maximum height is , then the value of p is________
Options:
01
Solution :
Answer (01)
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Question : 24 (skipped)
A particle (moving in horizontal plane) of mass m collides elastically with smooth circular disk of same mass m and radius R
placed over smooth horizontal surface. If then angle of deviation of the point mass due to the collision is The
value of n is_______
Options:
03
Solution :
Answer (03)
V2 = 0,
V3, V1 ≠ 0
Deviation α = 60°
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Question : 25 (skipped)
Potential energy of uniform chain (M, L) hanging vertically, with respect to the reference line shown is where p and
Options:
05
Solution :
Answer (05)
U=
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FSP1-Term_Exam-2020_Test_03_S1
SECTION - I
Multiple Choice Questions : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Question : 26
The value of root mean square speed of H2 gas at –223°C is same as the most probable speed of O2 gas at
Options:
527°C
800°C
1200°C
927°C
Solution :
Answer (4)
⇒ T = 1200 K
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Question : 27
Two moles of a gas confined in a 5 L container exerts a pressure of 8 atm at temperature 300 K. Then
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Z= = 0.81
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Question : 28
Options:
Only I
Only II
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
Solution :
Answer (2)
– Vapour pressure increases on increasing temperature.
Normal boiling point at 1 atm and standard boiling point at 1 bar.
TNBP > TSBP
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Question : 29
A container contains a mixture of He gas and CH4 gas in the mass ratio 1 : 2 at a 10 atm pressure. A very fine hole is made
into the container, the ratio of masses of He gas to that of CH4 gas coming out through the hole initially is
Options:
1:2
2:1
1:1
4:1
Solution :
Answer (3)
∴ =4
∴ =4
⇒ = =1
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Question : 30 (skipped)
If a sample of ideal gas has density 'd1' at temperature 300 K and pressure 3 atm then what will be the density in terms of
d1 at 450 K and 4.5 atm?
Options:
d1
10 d1
2 d1
Solution :
Answer (1)
d2 = d1
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Question : 31
The temperature at which the van der Waals' gas constants (a & b) for a real gas are negligible for a certain range of
pressure
Options:
Critical temperature
STP
Boyle’s temperature
Inversion temperature
Solution :
Answer (3)
At Boyle’s temp., a real gas behaves as an ideal gas for a certain range of pressure.
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Question : 32
Options:
Only I
Only II
Only I and II
Solution :
Answer (4)
Surface tension and viscosity of a liquid decreases and vapour pressure increases on increasing temperature.
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Question : 33
A closed vessel contains ozone, dinitrogen and dihydrogen gas and exert a pressure of P(mmHg). If sample consists of
equal number of atoms of oxygen, nitrogen and hydrogen then what will be the pressure when ozone is removed?
Options:
0.75 P
0.67 P
1.33 P
Solution :
Answer (1)
If number of atoms of each type = N
If O3 is removed,
⇒ = 0.75 P
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Question : 34
Which of the following has highest value for van der Waals" constant 'a'?
Options:
CO2
H2
NH3
He
Solution :
Answer (3)
NH3 has highest value of ‘a’ among given species.
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Question : 35
Which of the following sample of ideal gas has highest translational kinetic energy?
Options:
3.2 g O2 (300 K)
3 g H2 (300 K)
4 g He (300 K)
Solution :
Answer (2)
KE =
Since the number of moles H2 is highest that is 1.5 moles, KE of H2 sample is highest.
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Question : 36
The compression process of 5 moles of a noble gas proceeds so that gas pressure increases in inverse proportion to its
volume. The entropy change of the gas in this process if its volume decreases to half reversibly its original value is
Options:
28.8 JK–1
11.2 JK–1
–28.8 JK–1
–11.2 JK–1
Solution :
Answer (3)
ΔU = q + W = 0
q = –W
and
= –2.303 nR log2
= –2.303 × 5 × 8.314 × 0.3010
= –28.8 JK–1
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Question : 37 (skipped)
Options:
Only Cl2(l)
Solution :
Answer (4)
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Question : 38 (skipped)
In the reversible adiabatic expansion of an ideal monatomic gas, final volume is 8 times the initial volume. The ratio of final
temperature to initial temperature is
Options:
8:1
4:1
1:2
1:4
Solution :
Answer (4)
For reversible adiabatic process,
PV = constant
TV –1 = constant
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Question : 39 (skipped)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
P, T, V are indeed state functions q and W are path functions, S and H both are extensive.
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Question : 40 (skipped)
For a spontaneous process if volume and entropy are constant then ΔU for the system must
Options:
Be zero
Remains constant
Be positive
Be negative
Solution :
Answer (4)
dU < Tds – Pdv
⇒ dUs,v < 0
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Question : 41 (skipped)
From the following given curves between parameters mentioned (assume parameters not mentioned to be constant) select
the one which is not possible for an ideal gas.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
∴ PV = nRT
⇒
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Question : 42 (skipped)
A mixture containing He gas and CH4 gas in equal mass ratio in a container is allowed to effuse through a small orifice
made in container. The mass percentage of He gas in the mixture coming out initially is
Options:
33.33%
66.67%
88.89%
80%
Solution :
Answer (2)
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Question : 43 (skipped)
The root mean square speed of a gas at 3 atm pressure is 300 m/s. The density of the gas is
Options:
3.38 g/cm3
10.1 kg/L
3.38 g/L
10.1 g/cm3
Solution :
Answer (3)
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Question : 44 (skipped)
The average kinetic energy of He gas at a temperature TºC is K. The temperature at which H2(g) will have same value of
average kinetic energy is (assume the same mol of He and H2).
Options:
2 TºC
TºC
Solution :
Answer (4)
Avg. K.E. of an ideal gas is dependent on temperature only.
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Question : 45 (skipped)
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to kinetic theory of gases?
Options:
There is no force of attraction between the particles of a gas at ordinary temperature and pressure
During any collision between gas molecules, exchange of energy does not take place
Solution :
Answer (2)
During collisions between gas molecules, exchange of energy may take place.
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FSP1-Term_Exam-2020_Test_03_S2
SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions : This section contains 5 numerical value type questions ranging from 00 to 99. The answer
will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer to question
numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively.
Question : 46 (skipped)
respectively. If the magnitude of enthalpy of polymerisation per mole of ethene is X kJ mol–1, then the value of is
Options:
20
Solution :
Answer (20)
Let n = 1
Then,
One double bond is broken and net two single bonds (C — C) are formed
So ΔH = B·E(R) — B·E(P)
=
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Question : 47 (skipped)
Find enthalpy change (in kJ) for the change: . The average S – F bond enthalpy is 50
kJ/mol, first ionisation enthalpy of S is 300 kJ/mol, electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is –100 kJ/mol and bond dissociation
enthalpy of F2 is 40 kJ/mol. If the change in enthalpy of the reaction is X kJ, then the value of is
Options:
36
Solution :
Answer (36)
ΔH = Heat (given) – Heat (released)
= [4 × 50 + 300] – [40 + 100]
= 200 + 300 – 140
= 500 – 140 = 360 kJ
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Question : 48 (skipped)
Consider the following statements. The number of given statements which are false (F) is
(a) Molar entropy of vaporization of ice is –ve
(b) At absolute zero, entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is zero
(c) In adiabatic expansion carried out in two steps (two finite steps) PV = constant
(d) Efficiency of Carnot engine is always unity
(e) Carnot cycle efficiency is independent of nature of gas being taken in cyclic process
(f) for isothermal compression
Options:
04
Solution :
Answer (04)
(a) Vapourisation involves increase in randomness, so entropy will increase hence ΔS = +ve
(b) This is third law of thermodynamics
(c) PV = constant is true only for reversible adiabatic process
(d) Efficiency of Carnot engine can never be 1
(e) Efficiency of Carnot engine is independent of nature of gas
(f) In isothermal compression |W1 step| > |W2 step| > |W3 step|
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Question : 49 (skipped)
The enthalpy of hydrogenation of benzene is –51.0 kcal/mol. If enthalpy of hydrogenation of 1,4-cyclohexadiene and
cyclohexene is –58 kcal/mol and –29 kcal/mol respectively, then what is the magnitude of resonance energy of benzene in
kcal/mol?
Options:
36
Solution :
Answer (36)
So,
So R·E = –87 + 51
= –36 kcal/mol
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Question : 50 (skipped)
A one litre open vessel containing an ideal gas is heated from 35 ºC to 112 ºC. The percentage of gas remaining in the
vessel is
Options:
80
Solution :
Answer (80)
P and V will remain same
∴ n1T1 = n2T2
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FSP1-Term_Exam-2020_Test_03_S1
SECTION - I
Multiple Choice Questions : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Question : 51
Options:
6084
3042
650
1950
Solution :
Answer (3)
(n – 12)(n + 13) = 0
i.e. n = 12
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Question : 52 (skipped)
Three numbers whose sum is 45 are in A.P. If 5 is subtracted from the first number and 25 is added to the third number, the
numbers are in G.P. Then numbers are
Options:
10, 15, 20
8, 15, 22
5, 15, 25
12, 15, 18
Solution :
Answer (1)
Let numbers be a – d, a, a + d ⇒ a = 15
∴ 15 – d, 15 and 15 + d + 25 are in G.P.
⇒ 225 = (10 – d) (40 + d)
⇒d=5
∴ The numbers are 10, 15, 20.
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Question : 53 (skipped)
Options:
3e – 1
2e + 1
Solution :
Answer (1)
Tn =
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Question : 54
Options:
501
503
505
656
Solution :
Answer (2)
Number of zeroes at the end of 2020! is equal to exponent of 5.
Exponent of 5 =
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Question : 55 (skipped)
The sum of the series 32 + 62 + 92 + 122 + ... up to n terms is Sn, then S20 is equal to
Options:
720
1780
1260
630
Solution :
Answer (4)
Sn = 32[12 + 22 + 32 + 42 + ... ]
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Question : 56 (skipped)
If z be a complex number satisfying |z – 4 + 8i| = 4, then the least and the greatest value of |z + 2| are respectively (where i
= )
Options:
7 and 16
8 and 17
6 and 14
5 and 13
Solution :
Answer (3)
|z + 2| = |z + 2 – 4 + 8i + 4 – 8i|
|z + 2| = |z – 4 + 8i + 6 – 8i|
|z + 2| ≤ |z – 4 + 8i| + |6 – 8i|
≤ 4 + 10 = 14
|z + 2| = |z + 2 – 4 + 8i + 4 – 8i|
≥ |z – 4 + 8i| – |6 – 8i|
≥ 4 – 10 = 6
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Question : 57
If |z1| = 1, |z2| = 2, |z3| = 3 and |z1 + 2z2 + 3z3| = 5, then the value of |z2z3 + 8z1z3 + 27z1z2| is equal to
Options:
20
30
40
60
Solution :
Answer (2)
|z2z3 + 8z1z3 + 27z1z2|
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Question : 58
Options:
Zero
One
Two
Solution :
Answer (3)
= 6 ⇒ 2x = 6 ⇒ x = 3
= 25 ⇒ x2 + y2 = 25 ⇒ y = ±4
∴ z = 3 + 4i and z = 3 – 4i
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Question : 59 (skipped)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
= =1
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Question : 60 (skipped)
The value of ‘r’ for which the coefficients of (2r + 5)th term and (r + 1)th term in the expansion of (1 + x)31 are equal, is
Options:
10
11
Solution :
Answer (2)
Coefficient of Tr + 1 in (1 + x)31
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Question : 61
If the sum of all the coefficients in the expansion of (1 – 4x + 7x2)n is ‘a’ and the sum of the coefficients of (1 + x + 2x2)n is
‘b’, then
Options:
a = 4b
a = 3b
a = 2b
a=b
Solution :
Answer (4)
Put x = 1 ⇒ (1 – 4 + 7)n = 4n = a
Put x = 1 ⇒ (1 + 1 + 2)n = 4n = b
Which gives a = b
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Question : 62
Options:
– 831
– 2401
– 2451
2401
Solution :
Answer (3)
(1 + 3x – 2x3)6
When p + q + r = 6 and q + 3r = 6
∴ Coefficient of x6
= 60 – 3240 + 729
= –2451
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Question : 63 (skipped)
Six letter words are formed using all the letters of the word ‘NUMBER’. If these words are arranged in the order of
dictionary, then the rank of the word ‘NUMBER’ is
Options:
465
467
469
471
Solution :
Answer (3)
Arrange the letters in alphabetical order as
BEMNRU.
Words starting with B = 5!
Words starting with E = 5!
Words starting with M = 5!
Words starting with N B = 4!
Words starting with N E = 4!
Words starting with N M = 4!
Words starting with N R = 4!
Words starting with N U B = 3!
Words starting with N U E = 3!
Then number appears.
∴ The rank of word = 469.
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Question : 64 (skipped)
Options:
23C
5
23C
6
22C
7
25C
8
Solution :
Answer (1)
20C + 20C + 2(20C + 20C ) + 20C + 20C
15 16 16 17 17 18
21 21 21 21
= C16 + C17 + C17 + C18
= 22C17 + 22C18
= 23C18
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Question : 65 (skipped)
The total number of ways of selecting four letters from the letters of the word ‘BARBOSSA’, is
Options:
26
28
30
32
Solution :
Answer (1)
b – 2, a – 2, s – 2, r, O
∴ Coefficient of x4 in (1 + x + x2)3(1 + x)2
Coefficient of x4 in [(1 + x)3 + 3x2(1 + x)2
+ 3x4 (1 + x) + x6] (1 + x)2
= 6 + 14 + 6 = 26
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Question : 66 (skipped)
is
Options:
12
16
24
Solution :
Answer (2)
∴ Degree of polynomial = 12
40/45
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Question : 67 (skipped)
The number of six digit numbers which are formed using digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 and are divisible by 4, no digit being
repeated, is
Options:
144
108
168
126
Solution :
Answer (1)
__ __ __ __ 0 4 → 24
__ __ __ __ 1 2 → 18
__ __ __ __ 2 0 → 24
__ __ __ __ 2 4 → 18
__ __ __ __ 3 2 → 18
__ __ __ __ 4 0 → 24
__ __ __ __ 5 2 → 18
Total formed numbers = 144
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 68 (skipped)
Total number of ways in which 17 identical toys can be distributed among 5 persons, so that each of them gets atleast 3
toys, is
Options:
20
15
10
Solution :
Answer (2)
x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 = 17, xi ≥ 3
⇒ y1 + y2 + y3 + y4 + y5 = 2
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Question : 69 (skipped)
Options:
I quadrant
II quadrant
III quadrant
IV quadrant
Solution :
Answer (1)
Given expression
= = 4 + 3i
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Question : 70 (skipped)
Options:
x∈R
x ∈ [3, ∞)
x ∈ (3, ∞)
x∈
Solution :
Answer (2)
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FSP1-Term_Exam-2020_Test_03_S2
SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions : This section contains 5 numerical value type questions ranging from 00 to 99. The answer
will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer to question
numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively.
Question : 71
Let then is
Options:
11 11
Solution :
Answer (11)
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Question : 72 (skipped)
Let a and b are two positive numbers such that a + b = 10 then maximum value of ab is
Options:
25
Solution :
Answer (25)
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Question : 73
Options:
70 70
Solution :
Answer (70)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 74 (skipped)
Number of 5 digit numbers greater than 23000 that can be formed using digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 when no digit is repeated is
Options:
90
Solution :
Answer (90)
Total ways = (3 × 3 × 2 × 1) + (3 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1)
= 18 + 72 = 90
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Question : 75
The number of ways in which any three letters of the word “INDIA” can be arranged, is
Options:
33 20
Solution :
Answer (33)
A, D, I, I, N
n
(2 like + 1 diff.) =
n = 4C · 3! = 24
(all different) 3
n = 33
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