Exercices Opt 2 WBC 14 011 2021

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Exercices

Rachid Saadane
Exercice 1
(5 pts) Wireless versus wired channel BER (Problem 1-3):

Fiber optic cable typically exhibits a probability of bit error of Pb 10−12 .


1
A form of wireless modulation, DPSK, has 𝑃𝑏 = in some wireless
2𝛾
channels, where 𝛾 is the average 𝑆𝑁𝑅. Find the average SNR required
to achieve the same Pb in the wireless channel as in the fiber optic
cable. Because of this extremely high required SNR, wireless channels
typically have 𝑃𝑏 much larger than 10−12 .
.
Exercice 2
Exploring the two-ray propagation model (Problem 2-4):

4𝜋ℎ𝑡 ℎ𝑟
Consider Eq. Δ𝜙 ≈ of the course reader
𝜆𝑑
𝑑1 − 𝑑0 = ℎ𝑡 + ℎ𝑟 2 + 𝑑2 − ℎ𝑡 − ℎ𝑟 2 + 𝑑2.
Assume that 𝐺𝑟0 = 𝐺𝑟1 = 1, 𝐺𝑡0 = 𝐺𝑡1 = 1, and that 𝑅 = −1, that is, the
reflected ray under goes a phase inversion upon reflection. Derive an approximate
expression for the distance values below the critical distance dc at which signal
nulls occur.
Exercice 2
Estimating path loss parameters (Problem 2-14): Table 1 lists a set of empirical path loss
measurements. Assume 𝑑0 = 1 m, and 𝑓𝑐 = 900 MHz.
(a) Find the parameters of a simplified path-loss model plus log-normal shadowing that best fit this data.
𝑃𝑟 𝑑0 𝛾
Hint: The simplified path-loss model 𝑃𝐿 = = 𝐾 has two parameters that must be estimated
𝑃𝑡 𝑑
based on the provided data: 𝐾 and 𝛾. Additionally, you must estimate the shadow-fading variance: 𝜎Ψ𝑑𝐵 .
(b) Find the path loss at 2 km based on this model.

Find the outage probability at a distance d assuming the received power at d due to path loss
alone is 10 dB above the required power for non-outage.
Exercice 4
Find the outage probability at 150 𝑚 for a channel based on the
combined path loss and shadowing models of 𝜎𝜓𝑑𝐵 = 3.65, assuming a
transmit power of 𝑃𝑡 = 10 𝑚𝑊 and minimum power requirement of
𝑃𝑚𝑖𝑛 = −110.5 dBm,10 log10 𝐾 = −31.46.
Quiz 1
1. What is the millimeter wave frequency band ?
a. 300 MHz-3 GHz b. 30 MHz-24 GHz c. 30 GHZ-300 GHz d. none of these.

2. Power received (p) from a transmit antenna varies with its distance (r) as
a. 𝑝 𝛼 1/𝑟 b. 𝑝 𝛼 1/𝑟 2 c. 𝑝 𝛼 𝑟 2 d. 𝑝 𝛼 𝑟 3

3. Atmospheric attenuation increases at mm-wave frequencies due to Oxygen resonances at


a. 22 GHZ & 60 GHz b. 22 GHZ & 118 GHz
c. 118 GHZ & 60 GHz d. 118 GHZ & 183 GHz

4. Attenuation due to rain at mm-wave frequencies


a. increases with frequency b. decreases with frequency
c. remains same with frequency d. first increases then decreases.
Quiz 1
1. What is the millimeter wave frequency band ?
a. 300 MHz-3 GHz b. 30 MHz-24 GHz c. 30 GHZ-300 GHz d. none of these.
Ans: (c) 30 GHZ-300 GHz
2. Power received (p) from a transmit antenna varies with its distance (r) as
a. 𝑝 𝛼 1/𝑟 b. 𝑝 𝛼 1/𝑟 2 c. 𝑝 𝛼 𝑟 2 d. 𝑝 𝛼 𝑟 3
Ans: (b) 𝒑 𝜶 𝟏/𝒓^𝟐
3. Atmospheric attenuation increases at mm-wave frequencies due to Oxygen resonances at
a. 22 GHZ & 60 GHz b. 22 GHZ & 118 GHz
c. 118 GHZ & 60 GHz d. 118 GHZ & 183 GHz
Ans: (c) 118GHZ & 60GHz
4. Attenuation due to rain at mm-wave frequencies
a. increases with frequency b. decreases with frequency
c. remains same with frequency d. first increases then decreases.
Ans: (a) increases with frequency
Quiz 2
5. Relation between emissivity and reflectivity
a. emissivity + reflectivity = 0 b. emissivity + reflectivity = 1
c. emissivity2 + reflectivity2 = 1 d. emissivity = 1+ reflectivity.

6. The printed circuit boards used for millimeter wave component realization should be
a. thick with low dielectric constant
b. thin with high dielectric constant
c. thin with lower dielectric constant
d. thick with high dielectric constant

7. Basic H-guide resembles NRD guide except that distance between two ground plane (a)
a. smaller than a wavelength b. smaller than a quarter wavelength
c. at least greater than two wavelength d. greater than a wavelength
Quiz 2
5. Relation between emissivity and reflectivity
a. emissivity + reflectivity = 0 b. emissivity + reflectivity = 1
c. emissivity2 + reflectivity2 = 1 d. emissivity = 1+ reflectivity.
Ans: (b) emissivity + reflectivity = 1
6. The printed circuit boards used for millimeter wave component realization should be
a. thick with low dielectric constant
b. thin with high dielectric constant
c. thin with lower dielectric constant
d. thick with high dielectric constant
Ans: (c) thin with low dielectric constant.
7. Basic H-guide resembles NRD guide except that distance between two ground plane (a)
a. smaller than a wavelength b. smaller than a quarter wavelength
c. at least greater than two wavelength d. greater than a wavelength
Ans: (d) greater than a wavelength
Quiz 3
15. When frequency increases, skin depth of a conductor
a. increases, b. decreases, c. remain same, d. not frequency dependent.

16. The loss that increases at millimeter wave frequencies due to skin effect is
a. conduction loss, b. dielectric loss, c. radiation loss, d. corona loss.

17. The problem that appears due high standing waves on a transmission line connected to
an antenna is that
a) Power lost in the transmission line increases, b) high power source cannot be used,
c) antenna gain decreases, d) power delivered to antenna decreases.

18. A transmission line has a capacitance of 15 pF / ft. and an inductance of 0.15 µH/ft.
Then the characteristic impedance of the line is
a) 100Ω , b) 75Ω , c) 77.5Ω, d) 50 Ω.
Quiz 3
15. When frequency increases, skin depth of a conductor
a. increases, b. decreases, c. remain same, d. not frequency dependent.
Ans: (b) decreases
16. The loss that increases at millimeter wave frequencies due to skin effect is
a. conduction loss, b. dielectric loss, c. radiation loss, d. corona loss.
Ans: (a) conduction loss
17. The problem that appears due high standing waves on a transmission line connected to
an antenna is that
a) Power lost in the transmission line increases, b) high power source cannot be used,
c) antenna gain decreases, d) power delivered to antenna decreases.
Ans: d) power delivered to antenna decreases.
18. A transmission line has a capacitance of 15 pF / ft. and an inductance of 0.15 µH/ft.
Then the characteristic impedance of the line is
a) 100Ω , b) 75Ω , c) 77.5Ω, d) 50 Ω.
Ans: a) 100 Ω
Quiz 4
1. The noise that affects performance of a channel most is
a. thermal noise b. shot noise c. flicker noise d. plasma noise.

2. Typical noise power of a two port device over a bandwidth of 100 MHz centered at 77 GHz ranges from
a. −120 dBm to −160 dBm b. −80 dBm to −120 dBm
c. −20dBm to −60 dBm d. 0 dBm to -40 dBm

3. Tick the wrong statement. The dynamic range of a millimeter wave active component depends on
a. noise floor b. saturation range
c. 3rd order intercept d. none of the above.

4. The flicker noise is likely to affect which part of the frequency spectrum?
a) It is uniform throughout the spectrum
b) It is high at high frequency
c) It is high at low frequency
d) It is high at mid band frequency
Quiz 4
1. The noise that affects performance of a channel most is
a. thermal noise b. shot noise c. flicker noise d. plasma noise.
Ans: a. thermal noise
2. Typical noise power of a two port device over a bandwidth of 100 MHz centered at 77 GHz ranges from
a. −120 dBm to −160 dBm b. −80 dBm to −120 dBm
c. −20dBm to −60 dBm d. 0 dBm to -40 dBm
Ans: b. −80 dBm to −120 dBm
3. Tick the wrong statement. The dynamic range of a millimeter wave active component depends on
a. noise floor b. saturation range
c. 3rd order intercept d. none of the above.
Ans: d. none of the above.
4. The flicker noise is likely to affect which part of the frequency spectrum?
a) It is uniform throughout the spectrum
b) It is high at high frequency
c) It is high at low frequency
d) It is high at mid band frequency
Ans: (c) It is high at low frequency
Quiz 5
5. Under which conditions the Rayleigh–Jeans approximation tends to fail
a. As bandwidth →∞, noise power →∞. b. As bandwidth →0, noise power →∞.
c. As bandwidth →∞, noise power →0. d. As bandwidth →0, noise power →0.

6. An amplifier with a gain of 12 dB, a bandwidth of 150 MHz, and a noise figure of 4 dB feeds a
receiver with equivalent noise temperature of 900 K. The noise figure of the overall system is
a. 0 dB b. 3dB c. 4dB d. 4.3dB

7. The front end of a millimeter wave receiver is formed by cascading a LNA (Ga = 10 dB, NF= 2 dB),
a bandpass filter (insertion loss = 1 dB), and a mixer (conversion loss = 3 dB, NF =4 dB). Then overall
noise figure of the front end is
a) 1dB b) 2dB c) 2.55dB d) 5.22dB

8. The front end of a millimeter wave receiver is formed by cascading a LNA (Ga = 10 dB, NF = 2 dB),
a bandpass filter (insertion loss = 1 dB), and a mixer (conversion loss = 3 dB, NF = 4 dB). Then overall
system gain is
a) 5.93 b) 3.95 c) 3.95dB d) 5.93dB
Quiz 5
5. Under which conditions the Rayleigh–Jeans approximation tends to fail
a. As bandwidth →∞, noise power →∞. b. As bandwidth →0, noise power →∞.
c. As bandwidth →∞, noise power →0. d. As bandwidth →0, noise power →0.
Ans: a. As bandwidth →∞, noise power →∞.
6. An amplifier with a gain of 12 dB, a bandwidth of 150 MHz, and a noise figure of 4 dB feeds a
receiver with equivalent noise temperature of 900 K. The noise figure of the overall system is
a. 0 dB b. 3dB c. 4dB d. 4.3dB
Ans: (d) 4.3dB
7. The front end of a millimeter wave receiver is formed by cascading a LNA (Ga = 10 dB, NF= 2 dB),
a bandpass filter (insertion loss = 1 dB), and a mixer (conversion loss = 3 dB, NF =4 dB). Then overall
noise figure of the front end is
a) 1dB b) 2dB c) 2.55dB d) 5.22dB
Ans: (c) 2.55 dB
8. The front end of a millimeter wave receiver is formed by cascading a LNA (Ga = 10 dB, NF
= 2 dB), a bandpass filter (insertion loss = 1 dB), and a mixer (conversion loss = 3 dB, NF =4 dB). Then
overall system gain is
a) 5.93 b) 3.95 c) 3.95dB d) 5.93dB
Ans: (c) 3.95 dB
Quiz 6
9. Considering source noise as zero, calculate the total noise power over a bandwidth of 100 MHz
generated by an amplifier with equivalent noise temperature of 510 K, power gain of 20 dB and
mid-band frequency of 60 GHz.
a) -71.5 dBm b) -82.2 dBm c) -101.5 dBm d) none of the above.

10. An antenna has antenna efficiency of 90% and is at a physical temperature of 300 K. Then the
equivalent noise temperature of the antenna is
a) 33.3 K b) 59 K c) 270 K d. 333.3 K

11. An amplifier is connected to a source which is an equivalent noise temperature of 300 K. If the
equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 450 K and available power gain = 20 dB, then the
operating noise figure of the amplifier is
a) 23.98 dB b) 26.5 dB c) 3.98 dB d) 2.39 dB
Quiz 6
9. Considering source noise as zero, calculate the total noise power over a bandwidth of 100 MHz
generated by an amplifier with equivalent noise temperature of 510 K, power gain of 20 dB and
mid-band frequency of 60 GHz.
a) -71.5 dBm b) -82.2 dBm c) -101.5 dBm d) none of the above.
Ans: (a) -71.5 dBm
10. An antenna has antenna efficiency of 90% and is at a physical temperature of 300 K. Then the
equivalent noise temperature of the antenna is
a) 33.3 K b) 59 K c) 270 K d. 333.3 K
Ans: a) 33.3 K
11. An amplifier is connected to a source which is an equivalent noise temperature of 300 K. If the
equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 450 K and available power gain = 20 dB, then the
operating noise figure of the amplifier is
a) 23.98 dB b) 26.5 dB c) 3.98 dB d) 2.39 dB
Ans: c) 3.98 dB
Quiz 7
12. Among the given components of a receiver, the most noisy
component is
a) LNA b) bandpass filter c) mixer d) IF amplifier

13. What is the value of emissivity for a perfect Black body?


a) 0 b) 1 c) 3 d. infinity

14. Reflectivity of ocean is given as 0.6 and is at a temperature of 37°C.


Then its equivalent noise temperature is
a) 186 K b) 174 K c) 124 K d. 116 K
Quiz 7
12. Among the given components of a receiver, the most noisy
component is
a) LNA b) bandpass filter c) mixer d) IF amplifier
Ans: c) mixer
13. What is the value of emissivity for a perfect Black body?
a) 0 b) 1 c) 3 d. infinity
Ans: (b) 1
14. Reflectivity of ocean is given as 0.6 and is at a temperature of 37°C.
Then its equivalent noise temperature is
a) 186 K b) 174 K c) 124 K d. 116 K
Ans: c) 124 K
Quiz 8
15. A material that closely resembles Black Body is
a) bare metal b) dry asphalt c) dry concrete d) hard packed dirt

16. The following outdoor imaging system can operate under severe weather
conditions like dense fog, sand storm, snow fall etc.
a) visible light imaging b) X-ray imaging c) Infrared imaging d) millimeter-wave imaging.

17. Super heterodyne receiver although being a very popular architecture, is not
usually preferred for hand held devices because
a) it requires bulky power amplifiers
b) it requires bulky LNAs
c) it requires many components in general and consumes high dc power
d) it is relatively an old technology
Quiz 8
15. A material that closely resembles Black Body is
a) bare metal b) dry asphalt c) dry concrete d) hard packed dirt
Ans: (d) hard packed dirt
16. The following outdoor imaging system can operate under severe weather
conditions like dense fog, sand storm, snow fall etc.
a) visible light imaging b) X-ray imaging c) Infrared imaging d) millimeter-wave imaging.
Ans: d) millimeter-wave imaging.
17. Super heterodyne receiver although being a very popular architecture, is not
usually preferred for hand held devices because
a) it requires bulky power amplifiers
b) it requires bulky LNAs
c) it requires many components in general and consumes high dc power
d) it is relatively an old technology
Ans: c) it requires many components in general and consumes high dc power
Quiz 9
18. The receiver that does not use any mixer is
a) super heterodyne architecture
b) homodyne architecture
c) six port architecture
d) heterodyne architecture.

19. The effect that possesses maximum problem for a homodyne receiver is
a) LO leakage to antenna port b) RF leakage to LO port
c) Poor antenna efficiency d) Small gain of the amplifier stage.

20. A six port receiver is popular at millimeter wave frequency because of its
a) accuracy b) higher SNR,
c) many passive components d) all of these.
Quiz 9
18. The receiver that does not use any mixer is
a) super heterodyne architecture
b) homodyne architecture
c) six port architecture
d) heterodyne architecture.
Ans: c) six port architecture
19. The effect that possesses maximum problem for a homodyne receiver is
a) LO leakage to antenna port b) RF leakage to LO port
c) Poor antenna efficiency d) Small gain of the amplifier stage.
Ans: a) LO leakage to antenna port
20. A six port receiver is popular at millimeter wave frequency because of its
a) accuracy b) higher SNR,
c) many passive components d) all of these.
Quiz 10
• What does 5G stand for?
1. Five gigabytes
2. Fifth gateway
3. Five gigabit
4. Fifth generation wireless
• 5G will offer latency of one millisecond or lower. What does latency refer to?
1. The time it takes to reboot a connection
2. The length of time devices will automatically connect to the network
3. The delay between an input and a desired outcome
4. The speed of detecting a disruption to the network
• To accommodate faster data transmission speeds, 5G has greater bandwidth. What other term is
synonymous with bandwidth?
1. Capacity
2. Speed
3. Connection
4. Strength
Quiz 10
• What does 5G stand for?
1. Five gigabytes
2. Fifth gateway
3. Five gigabit
4. Fifth generation wireless
• 5G will offer latency of one millisecond or lower. What does latency refer to?
1. The time it takes to reboot a connection
2. The length of time devices will automatically connect to the network
3. The delay between an input and a desired outcome
4. The speed of detecting a disruption to the network
• To accommodate faster data transmission speeds, 5G has greater bandwidth. What other term is
synonymous with bandwidth?
1. Capacity
2. Speed
3. Connection
4. Strength
Quiz 11
• Network slicing is a network management feature that 5G will allow. What does this mean users can have?
1. The ability to set up multiple connection points to one 5G network
2. The ability to create multiple virtual networks within a single 5G network
3. The ability to designate multiple passwords for one 5G network
4. The ability to utilize connections from other nearby networks
• To generate high speeds, 5G utilizes the band of spectrum between 30 GHz and 300 GHz. What is this band
of spectrum called?
1. Millimeter wave
2. Lower-frequency spectrum
3. Real-time spectrum
4. Radio-frequency band
• 5G will rely on compact, portable base stations that involve minimal power and can be placed in large
quantities throughout geographical areas. What are these called?
1. Miniature cells
2. Frequent cells
3. Short-range cells
4. Small cells
5. Message input message output
Quiz 11
• Network slicing is a network management feature that 5G will allow. What does this mean users can have?
1. The ability to set up multiple connection points to one 5G network
2. The ability to create multiple virtual networks within a single 5G network
3. The ability to designate multiple passwords for one 5G network
4. The ability to utilize connections from other nearby networks
• To generate high speeds, 5G utilizes the band of spectrum between 30 GHz and 300 GHz. What is this band
of spectrum called?
1. Millimeter wave
2. Lower-frequency spectrum
3. Real-time spectrum
4. Radio-frequency band
• 5G will rely on compact, portable base stations that involve minimal power and can be placed in large
quantities throughout geographical areas. What are these called?
1. Miniature cells
2. Frequent cells
3. Short-range cells
4. Small cells
5. Message input message output
Quiz 12
• A single 5G base station has the ability to send and receive signals from
over 22 times the amount of users, meaning it has massive MIMO. What
does MIMO stand for?
1. Message in message out
2. Multiple in multiple out
3. Multiple input multiple output
• During the testing phase, 5G broke records of spectrum efficiency. What
does spectrum efficiency measure?
1. How many base stations can communicate over one spectrum
2. How many bits of data can be transmitted to a certain number of users per second
3. How many users can connect to one network
4. How many connections can run securely at once
Quiz 12
• A single 5G base station has the ability to send and receive signals from
over 22 times the amount of users, meaning it has massive MIMO. What
does MIMO stand for?
1. Message in message out
2. Multiple in multiple out
3. Multiple input multiple output
• During the testing phase, 5G broke records of spectrum efficiency. What
does spectrum efficiency measure?
1. How many base stations can communicate over one spectrum
2. How many bits of data can be transmitted to a certain number of users per second
3. How many users can connect to one network
4. How many connections can run securely at once

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