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NMAT VERBAL SIMULATIONS (MOCK 3R)

DIRECTIONS: Select the best answer to each of the following questions and blacken the appropriate space on your answer
sheet.

I. Analogies
13. Flexor : Extensor :: Levator :
1. Languorous : Energetic :: Lukewarm : a. Adductor c. Supinator
a. Friendly c. Indifferent b. Depressor d. Constrictor
b. Tap d. Hostile
14. Series : Current :: Parallel :
2. Gymnast : Somersault :: Escape artist : a. Voltage c. Capacitance
a. Hypnotize c. Entertain b. Resistance d. Inductance
b. Entrap d. Vanish
15. Electric field between plates : Capacitor ::
3. Truck : Delivery :: Spy : Magnetic field within coils :
a. Betrayal c. Hostility a. Transistor c. Inverter
b. Infiltration d. Warfare b. Resistor d. Inductor

4. University : College :: Country : 16. Clark Kent : Lois Lane :: Othello :

a. Land mass c. Nation a. Desdemona c. Viola
b. Continent d. Province b. Ophelia d. Cleopatra

5. Laconic : Brief :: Fatuous : 17. American : Madonna :: British :

a. Stout c. Foolish a. Elvis Presley c. The Corrs
b. Wordy d. Senile b. Spice Girls d. A-ha

6. Ventriloquist : Doll :: Fencer : 18. Allied : Churchill :: Axis

a. Fence c. Mask a. Roosevelt c. Mussolini
b. Foil d. Sword b. Stalin d. Lenin

7. Chauvinist : Women :: Homophobe : 19. Revelations : Apocalypse :: Sun :

a. Men c. Female a. Energy c. Moon
b. Homosexuals d. Afro-Americans b. Heat d. Sol

8. Prologue : Introduction :: Anecdote : 20. Scroll : Dead Sea :: Pyramid :

a. Short story c. Novel a. Mummy c. Giza
b. Poem d. Epilogue b. Desert d. Cairo

9. Secretary : Boss :: Apprentice :

a. Parent c. Idol II. Reading Comprehension
b. Mentor d. Sorcerer
PASSAGE 1:
10. Album : Singer :: Movie : Arteries of the heart blocked by plaque can
a. Actor c. Producer reduce the flow of blood to the heart possibly resulting in
b. Director d. Cameraman heart attack or death. Plaque is actually fat and
cholesterol that accumulates on the inside of the arteries.
11. Ionic : Corinthian :: Jurassic : The arteries of the heart are small and can be blocked by
a. Precambrian c. Cretaceous such accumulations. There is a medical procedure that
b. Triassic d. Quarternary creates more space in the blocked artery by inserting and
inflating a tiny balloon into the blood vessel. It is called
12. Cnidaria : Hydra :: Annelida : coronary balloon angioplasty. Angioplasty means “blood
a. Taenia c. Lumbricus vessel repair.” When the balloon is inflated, it compresses
b. Ascaris d. Cypraea

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the plaque against the wall of the artery, creating more 24. The angioplasty procedure begins with
space and improving the flow of blood. a. A thin catheter being inserted into the femoral artery
Many doctors choose this technique, because it is b. A balloon being inflated in the heart
less invasive than bypass surgery. Yes, both involve c. A special dye being injected into the bloodstream
entering the body cavity, but in bypass surgery, the chest d. A healthy artery being removed from the calf
must be opened, the ribs must be cut, and the section of
the diseased artery must be removed and replaced. To 25. It can be inferred from the passage that
replace it, the patient’s body is opened, once again, to a. A healthy artery is removed and awaits possible bypass
acquire a healthy section of the artery. Usually, this blood surgery
vessel is removed from an artery located in the calf of the b. Patients have trouble accepting the idea that a tiny
leg. This means the patient now has two painful incisions balloon will cure the problem
that must heal at the same time. There is far more risk in c. 3 – 5% of the patients refuse to undergo this procedure
such bypass surgery than in angioplasty, which involves d. Surgeons do not take even 2% chance of death lightly
threading a thin tube, called a catheter, into the
circulatory system and working it to the damaged artery. 26. Which one of the following statements is true?
Angioplasty may take between 30 minutes to 3 a. The plaque that has caused the problem is not removed
hours to complete. It begins with a distinctive dye that is during angioplasty.
injected into the blood stream. A thin catheter is then b. The risk of dying during an angioplasty procedure is 3 –
inserted into the femoral artery of the leg, near the groin. 5%.
The doctor monitors the path of the dye using x-rays. He c. The coronary balloon angioplasty is a separate
moves the tube through the heart and into the plaque- procedure from inflating a balloon into a blocked artery.
filled artery. He inflates the balloon, creating more space, d. All of the above statements are true.
deflates the balloon, and removes the tube. It is important
to note that the plaque has not been removed; it has just
been compressed against the sides of the artery. PASSAGE 2:
Sometimes, a stent may be implanted, a tiny tube of The lives of the Ancient Greeks revolved around
stainless steel that is expandable when necessary. Its eris, a concept by which they defined the universe. They
function is to keep the artery open. believed that the world existed in a condition of opposites.
There is good news and there is bad news. The If there was good, then there was evil, if there was love,
good news is that the statistics compiled are superb. then there was hatred; joy, then sorrow; war, then peace;
Ninety percent of all angioplasty procedures are and so on. The Greeks believed that good eris occurred
successful. The risk of dying during an operation of this when one held a balanced outlook on life and coped with
type is less than 2%. The risk of heart attack is also small: problems as they arose. It was a kind of ease of living that
3 – 5%. Yet heart surgeons do not take any risk lightly; came from trying to bring together the great opposing
therefore, a team of surgeons stands ready to perform forces in nature. Bad eris was evident in the violent
bypass surgery if needed. The length of hospitalization is conditions that ruled men’s lives. Although these things
only three days. The bad news is twofold. were found in nature and sometimes could not be
First, this procedure treats the condition but does controlled, it was believed that bad eris occurred when
not eradicate the cause. In 20% of the cases, there is a one ignored a problem, letting it grow larger until it
recurrence of plaque. Second, angioplasty is not destroyed not only that person, but his family as well. The
recommended for all patients. The surgeons must consider Ancient Greeks saw eris as a goddess: Eris, the Goddess
the patient’s age, physical history, how severe the of Discord, better known as Trouble.
blockage is, and finally, the degree of damage to the One myth that expresses this concept of bad eris
artery before they make their determination. deals with the marriage of King Peleus and the river
goddess Thetis. Zeus, the supreme ruler, learns that
21. When coronary arteries are blocked by plaque, one of Thetis would bear a child strong enough to destroy its
the results could be father. Not wanting to father his own ruin, Zeus convinces
a. stroke c. hospitalization Thetis to marry a human, a mortal whose child could
b. heart attack d. femoral artery deterioration never challenge the gods. He promises her, among other
things, the greatest wedding in all of Heaven and Earth
22. According to the passage, angioplasty is defined as and allows the couple to invite whomever they please.
a. a tiny balloon c. blood vessel repair This is one of the first mixed marriages of Greek
b. a plaque-laden artery d. bypass surgery Mythology and the lesson learned from it still applies
today. They do invite everyone… Except Eris, the Goddess
23. It can be inferred from the passage that invasive most of Discord. In other words, instead of facing the problems
closely means brought on by a mixed marriage, they turn their backs on
a. Entering the body cavity them. They refused to deal directly with their problems
b. Causing infection and the result is tragic. In her fury, Eris arrives, ruins the
c. Resulting in hospitalization wedding, causes a jealous feud between the three major
d. Requiring a specialist’s opinion goddesses over a golden apple, and sets in place the
conditions that lead to the Trojan War. The war would
take place 20 years in the future, but it would result in the

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death of the only child of the bride and the groom, probe can stimulate individual neurons electrically or
Achilles. Eris would destroy the parents’ hope for their chemically and then record responses. Preliminary results
future, leaving the couple with no legitimate heirs to the suggest that the micro-probe telemetry systems can be
throne. permanently implanted and replaced damaged or missing
Hence, when we are told, “If you don’t invite nerves.
trouble, trouble comes,” it means that if we don’t deal The tissue-compatible microprobes represent an
with our problems, our problems will deal with us… with a advance over the typical aluminum wire electrodes used in
vengeance! It is easy to see why the Greeks considered studies of the cortex and other brain structures.
many of their myths learning myths, for this one teaches Researchers accumulate much data using traditional
us the best way to defeat that which can destroy us. electrodes, but there is a question of how much damage
they cause to the nervous system. Microprobes, which are
27. According to the passage, the ancient Greeks believed about as thin as a human hair, cause minimal damage and
that the concept of eris defined the universe disruption of neurons when inserted into the brain.
a. As a hostile, violent place In addition to recording nervous system
b. As a condition of opposites impulses, the microprobes have minuscule channels that
c. As a series of problems open the way for delivery of drugs, cellular growth factors,
d. As a mixture of gods and man neurotransmitters, and other neuroactive compounds to a
single neuron or to groups of neurons. Also, patients who
28. Most specifically, bad eris is defined in the passage as lack certain biochemical could receive doses via
a. The violent conditions of life prostheses. The probes can have up to four channels,
b. The problems that man encounters each with its own recording/stimulating electrode.
c. The evil goddess who has a golden apple
d. The murderer of generations 33. One similar feature of microprobes and wire electrodes
is
29. It can be inferred that Zeus married Thetis off because a. A minimal disturbance of neurons
a. He needed to buy the loyalty of a great king of mankind b. The density of the material
b. He feared the gods would create bad eris by competing c. The capacity for multiple leads
over her d. Their ability to generate information
c. He feared the Trojan War would be fought over her
d. He feared having an affair with her and, subsequently, 34. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of
a child by her the passage?
a. Microprobes require further technological advances
30. It can also be inferred that Zeus did not fear a child before they can be used in humans.
sired by King Peleus because b. Wire electrodes are antiquated as a means for
a. He knew that the child could not climb Mt. Olympus delivering neuro-active compounds to the brain.
b. He knew that the child would be killed in the Trojan c. Microprobes have great potential to help counteract
War neural damage.
c. He knew that no matter how strong a mortal child was, d. Technology now exists that may enable repair of the
he couldn’t overthrow an immortal god nervous system.
d. He knew that Thetis would always love him above
everyone else. 35. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as
potential uses for prostheses except
31. According to the passage, Achilles a. Transportation of medication
a. Defeated Zeus during the Trojan War b. Induction of physical movement
b. Dies during the Trojan War c. Transportation of growth factor
c. Was born 20 years after the war because of the d. Removal of biochemical from the cortex
disruption Eris caused at the wedding
d. Was the illegitimate son of Peleus 36. The initial function of microprobe channels is to
a. Create pathways
32. Which of the following statements is the message b. Disrupt neurons
offered in the myth? c. Replace ribbon cables
a. Do not consider a mixed marriage. d. Study the brain
b. Do not anger the gods.
c. Do not ignore the problems that arise in life.
d. Do not take myths seriously. PASSAGE 4:
I. The atmosphere forms a gaseous, protective
envelope around Earth. It protects the planet from the
PASSAGE 3: cold of space, from harmful ultraviolet light, and from all
By using tiny probes as neural prostheses, but the largest meteors. After traveling over 93 million
scientists may be able to restore nerve function in miles, solar energy strikes the atmosphere and Earth’s
quadriplegics and make the blind see or the deaf hear. surface, warming the planet and creating what is known
Thanks to advanced techniques, a single small, implanted as the biosphere, the region of the Earth capable of

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sustaining life. Solar radiation in combination with the 37. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of
planet’s rotation causes the atmosphere to circulate. the passage?
Atmospheric circulation is one important reason that life a. The circulation of the atmosphere, threatened by global
on Earth can exist at higher latitudes because equatorial warming and pollution, protects the biosphere and makes
heat is transported poleward, moderating the climate. life on Earth possible.
II. The equatorial region is the warmest part of the b. If the protective atmosphere around the earth is too
earth because it receives the most direct and, therefore damaged by human activity, all life on Earth will cease.
strongest radiation. The plane in which the earth revolves c. Life on Earth is the result of complex interdependent
around the sun is called the ecliptic. Earth’s axis is incline events of nature, and some of these events are a result of
23 1/3 degrees with respect to the ecliptic. This inclined human intervention.
axis is responsible for our changing seasons because, as d. The circulation of the atmosphere is the single most
seen from the earth, the sun oscillates back and forth important factor in keeping the biosphere alive, and it is
across the equator in an annual cycle. On or about June constantly threatened by harmful human activity.
21 each year the sun reaches the Tropic of Cancer, 23 1/3
degrees north latitude. This is the 3 northernmost point 38. Which of the following best represents the
where the sun can be directly overhead. On or about organization of the passage?
December 21 of each year, the sun reaches the Tropic of a. I. Definition and description of the circulation of
Capricorn, 23 1/3 degrees south latitude. This is the the atmosphere
southernmost point at which the sun can be directly II. How the atmosphere affects heat and water in
overhead. The Polar Regions are the coldest parts of the the biosphere
earth because they receive the least direct and, therefore, III. How the circulation of the atmosphere works
the weakest solar radiation. Here solar radiation strikes at IV. What will happen if human activity destroys
a very oblique angle and thus spreads the same amount the atmosphere and other life-sustaining
of energy over a greater area than in the equatorial mechanisms
regions. A static envelope of air surrounding the earth b. I. Origin of the atmosphere and ways it protects
would produce an extremely hot, uninhabitable equatorial the biosphere
region, while the Polar Regions would remain inhospitably II. How the circulation of the atmosphere affects
cold. the equator and the poles
III. The transport of water vapor in the atmosphere III. How the circulation of the atmosphere
is an important mechanism by which heat energy is interrelates with other events in nature to protect
redistributed poleward. When water evaporates into the life on Earth
air and becomes water vapor, it absorbs energy. At the IV. Threats to life in the biosphere
equator, air saturated with water vapor rises high into the c. I. Definition and description of the circulation of
atmosphere where winds aloft carry it poleward. As this the atmosphere
moist air approaches the Polar Regions, it cools and sinks II. Protective functions of the circulation of the
back to earth. At some point, the water vapor condenses atmosphere
out of the air as rain or snow, releasing energy in the III. Relationship of the circulation of the
process. The now-dry polar air flows back toward the atmosphere to other life-sustaining mechanisms
equator to repeat the convection cycle. In this way, heat IV. Threats to nature’s interconnectedness in the
energy absorbed at the equator is deposited at the poles biosphere
and the temperature gradient between these regions is d. I. The journey of the atmosphere 93 million miles
reduced. through space
IV. The circulation of the atmosphere and the II. How the atmosphere circulates and protects
weather it generates is but one example of the many the biosphere
complex, interdependent events of nature. The web of life III. How the atmosphere interrelates with
depends on the proper functioning of these natural weather in the biosphere
mechanisms for its continued existence. Global warming, IV. How damage to the biosphere threatens life
the hole in the atmosphere’s ozone layer, and increasing on Earth
air and water pollution pose serious, long-term threats to
the biosphere. Given the high degree of nature’s 39. Which of the following is the best description of the
interconnectedness, it is quite possible that the most word biosphere as it is used in the passage?
serious threats have yet to be recognized. a. The protective envelope formed by the atmosphere
around the living earth
b. That part of the earth and its atmosphere in which life
can exist
c. The living things on Earth whose existence is made
possible by circulation of the atmosphere
d. The circulation of the atmosphere’s contribution to life
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40. Which of the following sentences from the passage throughout the body, causing the blood glucose levels to
best supports the author’s point that circulation of the rise. In response to this rise, the hormone insulin is
atmosphere is vital to life on Earth? released into the bloodstream and signals the body tissues
a. The equatorial region is the warmest part of the earth to metabolize or burn the glucose for fuel, which causes
because it receives the most direct and, therefore, blood glucose levels to return to normal. The glucose that
strongest solar radiation. the body does not use right away is stored in the liver,
b. The circulation of the atmosphere and the weather it muscle, or fat.
generates is but one example of the many complex, In both types of diabetes, however, this normal
interdependent events of nature. process malfunctions. A gland called the pancreas, found
c. The atmosphere protects Earth from the cold of space, just behind the stomach, makes insulin. In people with
from harmful ultraviolet light, and from all but the largest insulin-dependent diabetes, the pancreas does not
meteors. produce insulin at all. This condition usually begins in
d. A static envelope of air surrounding the earth would childhood and is known as Type I (formerly called
produce an extremely hot, uninhabitable equatorial region, juvenile-onset) diabetes. These patients must have daily
while the Polar Regions would remain inhospitably cold. insulin injections to survive. People with non-insulin
dependent-dependent diabetes usually produce some
insulin in their pancreas, but their bodies’ tissues do not
ADDITIONAL EXERCISES. DO NOT ANSWER respond well to the insulin signal and, therefore, do not
THE FOLLOWING ITEMS. metabolize the glucose properly, a condition known as
insulin resistance.
Insulin resistance is an important factor in non-
41. Based on the passage, which of the following is insulin dependent diabetes, and scientists are searching
directly responsible for all temperature changes on Earth? for the cause of insulin resistance. They have identified
a. Variations in the strength of solar radiation two possibilities. The first is that there could be a defect in
b. Variations in the amount of ultraviolet light the insulin receptors on cells. Like an appliance that needs
c. Variation of biologic processes in the biosphere to be plugged into an electrical outlet, insulin has to bind
d. Variation in global warming to a receptor in order to function. Several things can go
wrong with receptors. For example, there may not be
42. The first paragraph of the passage deals mainly with enough receptors to which insulin may bind, or a defect in
which of the following effects of the atmosphere on the the receptors may prevent insulin from binding. The
earth? second possible cause of insulin resistance is that,
a. Its sheltering effect although insulin may bind to the receptors, the cells do
b. Its reviving effect not read the signal to metabolize the glucose. Scientists
c. Its invigorating effect continue to study these cells to see why this might
d. Its cleansing effect happen.
There’s no cure for diabetes yet. However, there
are two ways to alleviate its symptoms. In 1986, a
PASSAGE 5: National Institute of Health panel of experts recommended
There are two types of diabetes, insulin- that the best treatment for non-insulin dependent diabetes
dependent and non-insulin-dependent. Between 90 – 95% is a diet that helps one maintain a normal weight and pays
of the estimated 13 – 14 million people in the United particular attention to a proper balance of the different
States with diabetes have non-insulin dependent, or Type food groups. Many experts, including those in the
II, diabetes. Because this form of diabetes usually begins American Diabetes Association, recommend that 50 – 60%
in adults over the age of 40 and is most common after the of daily calories come from carbohydrates, 12 – 20% from
age of 55, it used to be called adult-onset diabetes. Its protein, and no more than 30% from fat. Foods that are
symptoms often develop gradually and are hard to identify rich in carbohydrates, like breads, cereals, fruits, and
at first; therefore, nearly half of all people with diabetes vegetables, break down into glucose during digestion,
do not know they have it. For instance, someone who has causing blood glucose to rise. Additionally, studies have
developed Type II diabetes may feel tired or ill without shown that cooked foods raise blood glucose higher than
knowing why. This can be particularly dangerous because raw, unpeeled foods. A doctor or nutritionist should
untreated diabetes may cause damage to the heart, blood always be consulted to more of this kind of information
vessels, eyes, kidneys, and nerves. While the causes, and for help in planning a diet to offset the effects of this
short-term effects, and treatments of the two types of form of diabetes.
diabetes differ, both types can cause the same long-term
health problems.
Most importantly, both types affect the body’s
ability to use digested food for energy. Diabetes does not
interfere with digestion, but it does not prevent the body
from using an important product of digestion, glucose
(commonly known as sugar), for energy. After a meal, the
normal digesting system breaks some food down into
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43. According to the passage, what may be the most 51. Based on the information in the passage, which of the
dangerous aspect of Type II diabetes? following best describes people with Type I diabetes?
a. Insulin shots are needed daily for treatment of Type II a. They do not need to be treated with injections of
diabetes. insulin.
b. Type II diabetes may go undetected and, therefore, b. They comprise the majority of people with diabetes.
treated. c. Their pancreases do not produce insulin.
c. In Type II diabetes, the pancreas does not produce d. They are usually diagnosed as adults.
insulin.
d. Type II diabetes interferes with digestion. 52. What is the closest meaning of the word offset in the
final sentence of the passage?
44. Which of the following are the same for Type I and a. counteract c. soothe
Type II diabetes? b. cure d. erase
a. Treatments c. Short-term effects
b. Long-term health risks d. Causes
PASSAGE 6:
45. According to the passage, one place in which excess An upsurge of new research suggests that
glucose is stored is the animals have a much higher level of brainpower than
a. Stomach c. Pancreas previously thought. If animals do have intelligence, how
b. Insulin receptors d. Liver do scientists measure it? Before defining animals’
intelligence, scientists defined what not intelligence is.
46. A diet dominated by which of the following is Instinct is not intelligence. It is a skill programmed into an
recommended for non-insulin-dependent diabetics? animal’s brain by its genetic heritage. Rote conditioning is
a. Protein c. Carbohydrates also not intelligence. Tricks can be learned by repetition,
b. Fat d. Raw foods but no real thinking is involved. Cuing, in which animals
learn to do or not to do certain things by following outside
47. Which of the following is the main function of insulin? signals, does not demonstrate intelligence. Scientists
a. It signals tissues to metabolize sugar. believe that insight, the ability to use tools, and
b. It breaks down food into glucose. communication using human language are all effective
c. It carries glucose throughout the body. measures of the mental ability of animals.
d. It binds to receptors. When judging animal intelligence, scientists look
for insight, which they define as a flash of sudden
48. Which of the following statements best summarizes understanding. When a young gorilla could not reach fruit
the main theme of the passage? from a tree, she noticed crates scattered about the lawn
a. Type I and Type II diabetes are best treated by near the tree. She piled the crates into a pyramid, then
maintaining a high-protein diet. climbed on them to reach her reward. The gorilla’s insight
b. Type II diabetes is a distinct condition that can be allowed her to solve a new problem without trial and
managed by maintaining a healthy diet. error.
c. Type I diabetes is an insidious condition most harmful The ability to use tools is also an important sign
when the patient is not taking daily insulin injections. of intelligence. Crows use sticks to pry peanuts out of
d. Adults who suspect they may have Type II diabetes cracks. The crow exhibits intelligence by showing it has
should immediately adopt a high-carbohydrate diet. learned what a stick can do. Likewise, otters use rocks to
crack open crab shells in order to get at the meat. In a
49. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as series of complex moves, chimpanzees have been known
a possible problem with insulin receptors in insulin- to use sticks and stalks in order to get at a favourite snack
resistant individuals? – termites. To make and use a termite tool, a chimp first
a. Overeating causes the receptors to function improperly. selects just the right stalk or twig. He trims and shapes
b. There may be an overabundance of receptors present. the stick, then finds the entrance to a termite mound.
c. A defect causes the receptors to bind with glucose. While inserting the stick carefully into the entrance, the
d. A defect hinders the receptors from binding with chimpanzee turns it skilfully to fit the inner tunnels. The
insulin. chimp attracts the insects by shaking the twig. Then it
pulls the tool out without scraping off any termites.
50. According to the passage, in normal individuals, which Finally, he uses his lips to skim the termites into his
of the following processes occur immediately after the mouth.
digestive system converts some food into glucose? Many animals have learned to communicate
a. The glucose is metabolized by body tissues. using human language. Some primates have learned
b. Insulin is released into the bloodstream. hundreds of words in sign language. One chimp can
c. Blood sugar levels rise. recognize and correctly use more than 250 abstract
d. The pancreas manufactures increased amounts of symbols on a keyboard. These symbols represent human
insulin. words. An amazing parrot can distinguish five objects of
two different types. He can understand the difference
between the number, color, and kind of object. The ability
to classify is a basic thinking skill. He seems to use

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language to express his needs and emotions. When ill and 55. The concluding paragraph of this passage infers which
taken to the animal hospital for his first overnight stay, of the following?
this parrot turned to go. “Come here!” he cried to a a. There is no definitive line between those animals with
scientist who works with him. “I love you. I’m sorry. intelligence and those without.
Wanna go back?” b. Animals are being given opportunities to display their
The research on animal intelligence raises intelligence.
important questions. If animals are smarter than once c. Research showing higher animal intelligence may fuel
thought, would that change the way humans interact with debate on ethics and cruelty.
them? Would humans stop hunting them for sport or d. Animals are capable of untrained thought well beyond
survival? Would animals still be used for food, clothing, or mere instinct.
medical experimentation? Finding the answer to these
tough questions makes a difficult puzzle even for a large- 56. According to the passage, which of the following is
brained, problem-solving species like our own. true about animals communicating thought the use of
human language?
53. Crows use stick to pry peanuts out of cracks. Which of a. Parrots can imitate or repeat a sound.
the following is the kind of intelligence or conditioning the b. Dolphins click and whistle.
situation describes? c. Crows screech warnings to other crows.
a. Rote learning c. Communication d. Chimpanzees and gorillas have been trained to use sign
b. Tools d. Instinct language or geometric shapes that stand for words.

54. The word upsurge, as it is used in the first paragraph 57. In the third paragraph, what conclusion can be
of the passage, most nearly means reached bout the chimpanzee’s ability to use a tool?
a. An increasingly large amount a. It illustrates high intelligence because he is able to get
b. A decreasing amount his food and eat it.
c. A well-known amount b. It illustrates instinct because he faced a difficult task
d. An immeasurable amount and accomplished it.
c. It illustrates high intelligence because he stored
knowledge away and called it up at the right time.
d. It illustrates high intelligence because termites are
protein-packed.

58. Which of the following is not a sign of animal

intelligence?
a. Shows insight c. Uses tools
b. Cues d. Makes a plan

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NMAT INDUCTIVE REASONING SIMULATIONS (MOCK 3)

I. Figure Series
Directions: In each item below, the series of figures at the left shows a continuously changing pattern. Discover this pattern
of change. From the five figures at the right, choose the one which should come next in the series.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

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7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

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II. Figure Grouping
Directions: Each item in this section consists of five figures. The task is to find the principle involved which makes four of the
five figures similar to each other. The figures that is different from the other four is the answer to the item.

13.

14.

15.

16.

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17.

18.

19.

20.

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21.

22.

23.

24.

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25.

26.

27.

III. Number and Letter Series

28. 2 3 5 7 11 13 31. zb xd vf th

a. 9 d. 19 a. rj d. pi
b. 15 e. 10 b. si e. ti
c. 17 c. qj

29. A C F J 32. 1 2 √𝟕 √𝟏𝟎 √𝟏𝟑

a. K d. O
b. N e. L a. 3 d. √19
c. M b. √15 e. 5
c. 4

30. ab ef kl 33. 5 15 12 36 33

a. st d. yz a. 30 d. 99
b. uv e. tu b. 96 e. 45
c. wx c. 39

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34. 5 16 19 28 33 40 ADDITIONAL EXERCISES. DO NOT ANSWER
THE FOLLOWING ITEMS.
a. 46 d. 49
b. 47 e. 45 41. −𝟏 𝟏⁄𝟐 𝟏 𝟏⁄𝟐 𝟑 𝟏⁄𝟐 𝟐 𝟐⁄𝟒 𝟓 𝟏⁄𝟒 𝟓 𝟒⁄𝟑 𝟔 𝟏⁄𝟕
c. 48
a. 3 3⁄10 d. 2 2⁄11
1
b. 10 ⁄3 e. 3 10⁄3
35. 1 2/6 3/15 4/28 5/45 c. 9 5⁄4

a. 6/60 d. 6/79
42. 71 84 82 93 89 98
b. 6/72 e. 6/69
c. 6/66
a. 94 d. 89
b. 92 e. 104
36. W I S K P N L P c. 91

a. U d. I
b. V e. J 43. 7 4 8 13 7 14
c. H
a. 6 d. 22
b. 7 e. 28
37. an ob cp qd er sf gt c. 23

a. vi d. uh
b. iv e. tu 44. 123 142 281 321 442 583 623
c. hu
a. 663 d. 721
38. YW HJ US MO QO RT b. 762 e. 667
c. 742
a. WY d. NL
b. MK e. PR
c. QS 45. YZ TS QR LK IJ

a. AB d. BA
39. a d i p b. DC e. HI
c. CD
a. s d. z
b. t e. w
c. y 46. WYW RWT WMO HJW

a. DWE d. BWE
40. HVX QSH LHN HGI b. EWE e. WWE
c. CWE
a. BDH d. ADH
b. BDE e. BEH
c. BDF 47. CZE GXI KVM OTQ

a. TSV d. SRU
b. RST e. TQU
c. STU

48. ZX RT NL FH

a. AB d. AY
b. DA e. ZA
c. BZ

7|P age
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NMAT QUANTITATIVE SIMULATIONS (MOCK 3R)

DIRECTIONS: Select the best answer to each of the following questions and blacken the appropriate space on your answer sheet.

I. Fundamental Operations

1. 18 – 15  (8 – 5) x 3 + 7 = 7. Which radical is in simplest form?

a. 0 c. 10 a. √32𝑥 7 𝑦 5
12
c. √9𝑥 3 𝑦 7
5

b. 6 d. 15 b. √1024𝑥 𝑦
8 11 6 d. √𝑦 6
12

2. Find the value of “n” in 52n+1 = 125. 1

a. 1 c. 3 8. 1 − 1 =
1− 1
b. 2 d. ½ 1−1−𝑎
a. 1 c. 1+a
3. (9√𝑥 + 2)(5√𝑥 − 3) = b. 1 – a d. 0
a. 45𝑥 − 10√𝑥 − 6 c. 45𝑥 − 17√𝑥 − 6
b. 5𝑥 − 17√𝑥 − 6 d. 18𝑥 − 10√𝑥 − 15 1 1
(81 2 )(272 )
9. √ =
3√3
4. (5𝑥+5 + 5𝑥+2 ) ÷ (5𝑥+4 − 5𝑥+1 ) =
52𝑥+7 a. 1 c. 3
a. c. 25 b. √3 d. 9
52𝑥+5
315
b. 5 d.
62 10. (3𝑖 − 2)(6𝑖 + 4) =
a. -26i c. 24 – 26i
𝑚3 −𝑛3 𝑚2 +𝑚𝑛+𝑛2 b. 24i – 26 d. -26
5. 3 3 ÷ =
𝑚 +𝑛 𝑚2 −𝑚𝑛+𝑛2
𝑚2 −𝑛2 2𝑛+1 ×128
a. -1 c. 11. =
𝑚2 +𝑛2 2𝑛−1 ×4
𝑚2 +𝑚𝑛+𝑛2 𝑚−𝑛
b. 2 d. a.322n c. 22n
𝑚 −𝑚𝑛+𝑛2 𝑚+𝑛 b. 128 d. 32
6. 13 x 6 ÷ 2 x 24 ÷ 8 =
12. The value of -4 + [-2 + 15 ÷ (-1 – (-4))] ÷ (-3) is
a. 203 c. 72
a. 9 c. -4
b. 117 d. 13
b. 1/3 d. -5

II. Problem Solving

13. A sum of money is divided among Leah, Clark, Yna, 15. The scores of 8 students in a math quiz are 75, 79,
and Kardo in the ratio 3 : 7 : 11 : 15, respectively. If the 73, 83, 87, 90, 93, and 96. What is the average score of
share of Kardo is P 300 more than the share of Leah, then the students?
what is the total amount of money of Clark and Yna a. 88 c. 84.5
together? b. 90.2 d. 83.7
a. P 1,500 c. P 450
b. P 1,450 d. P 1,800 16. Arturo can do a job in 4 hours that Billy can do in 3
hours and Vhong can do in 6 hours. If the three work
14. The weight of a flask is 25% of the weight of the flask together, in how many hours will they finish the job?
when filled with water. After filling up the flask, some of 1
a. hour
1
c.1 hours
12 3
the water got spilled during transportation. Now, the flask, 2 3
b. 1 hours d. 1 hours
along with the remaining water, weighs only seven-tenths 3 4
of the original weight. What fractional part of the water
has been spilled? 17. The average age of a husband and wife and their pet
a. 2/5 c. 1/4 dog is 21 years. If the average age of the husband and
b. 4/5 d. 3/4 wife is 26 years, how old is the dog?
a. 21 c. 15
b. 26 d. 11
1|P age
18. If 6 boys can paint their classroom in 8 hours, how 24. The length of a rectangle is 3 cm more than its width.
many hours would it take 10 boys, working at the same If the perimeter of the rectangle is 58 cm, how many
rate, to paint the classroom? square centimeters are in the area of the rectangle?
a. 13
1
c. 4
4
a. 104 c. 162
2 5
1 1 b. 186 d. 208
b. 8 d. 4
4 2
25. The ages of Boy and Manny are in the ratio of 3 : 2,
19. A chemist has 30 mL of a 19% alcohol solution. How respectively. After 8 years, the ratio of their ages will be
many mL of a 13% alcohol solution does she need to 4 : 3. What is the age of Manny now?
make a 16% alcohol solution? a. 24 c. 19
a. 60 mL c. 35 mL b. 21 d. 16
b. 30 mL d. 48 mL
26. There are 60 students in the canteen. If two-thirds of
20. Find the value of x in log(𝑥 + 1) = 1 these students are boys and three-fifths of the boys weigh
a. -1 c. 2 below 50 kg, how many boys weigh above 50 kg?
b. 1 d. 9 a. 40 c. 24
b. 36 d. 16

21. In the figure below, the radius of the large circle is R 27. If the numerator of a fraction increases by 250% and
and the radius of each small circle is r. Write, in terms of the denominator is decreased by 7, the resultant fraction
R and r, a formula that can be used to find the area of the is 7/9. What is the original fraction if the denominator is
shaded portion. 625% of the numerator?
a. 3𝜋 2 − 𝜋𝑅 2 a. 7/9 c. 4/25
𝜋𝑟2
b. b. 4/9 d. 1/10
7
c. 𝜋𝑅2
− 3𝜋𝑟 2
d. 𝜋𝑟 − 3𝜋𝑅 2
2 28. An auditorium can accommodate 975 persons. About
72% of the available concert tickets were sold. How many
22. If the chance that an event will happen is 2/5, what is tickets were unsold for the concert?
the probability that it will NOT take place? a. 702 c. 573
a. 4/5 c. 3/5 b. 975 d. 273
b. 1 d. 6/25
29. In a race, the first runner-up receives 3/4 of the
23. Find the likelihood of drawing 4 Queens and a King champion’s prize, while the second receives 2/5 of what
from a standard deck of cards. the champion received. What is the difference between
a. 1/(52C5) c. 4/(52C5) the prize of the first runner-up and the second runner-up
b. ((52C4)( 52C1))/( 52C5) d. (52C5)/(( 52C4)( 48C1)) given that the champion’s prize money is P 20,000?
a. P 7,000 c. P 6,000
b. P 5,000 d. P 4,000

30. How many meters of wire will a famer need for

fencing a rectangular field 0.38 km by 0.57 km?
a. 2,280 m c. 950 m
b. 1,900 m d. 216.6 m

2|P age
III. Data Interpretation

Concert Ticket Sales for the Year

600

500

Number of Tickets
400

300

200

100

0
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec

Local Concert Foreign Concert

31. What is amount of the total sales of local concert 33. By how many percent more are the number of local
tickets for the year? concert ticket sales in January when compared with the
a. 3,710 c. 3,650 number of foreign concert ticket sales in June?
b. 3,220 d. 3,380 a. 50%
2
c. 166 %
3
32. Which among the following months had the least total b. 25% d. 100%
sales?
a. September c. March
b. November d. February

Tablets and Capsules Consumed in Metro Manila from 2000 to 2009

4.5
Number of Tables and Capsules (in millions)

4
3.5
3
2.5
2
1.5
1
0.5
0
1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

Tablets Capsules

34. Which of the following periods observes a doubling in 36. What is the rate of growth of the number of capsules
the number of capsules consumed? consumed in 2000 to 2009?
a. 2006 – 2007 c. 2001 – 2002 a. 1,200% c. 2,000%
b. 2004 – 2005 d. 2003 – 2004 b. 1,900% d. 1,300%

35. The number of tablets consumed in 2006 is 37. In which year did the biggest difference in the number
approximately what percent of the total tablets of tablets and the number of capsules consumed?
consumed? a. 2006 c. 2001
a. 30% c.19% b. 2004 d. 2000
b. 14% d. 11%

3|P age
38. The number of Malaysian
diabetics ages 30 – 39 accounts for
Malaysian Diabetics Ages 0 to 69 Years Old what percent of the total number of
25 Malaysian diabetics?
a. 25% c. 15%
Number of Malaysian Diabetics
b. 12% d. 22%
20
39. The number of Malaysian
diabetics ages 50 – 59 is how many
15 more than the number of Malaysian
diabetics ages 10 – 19?
a. 4 c. 6
10 b. 8 d. 10

40. The number of Malaysian

5 diabetics ages 0 – 29 is how much
less than the number of Malaysian
diabetics ages 40 – 69?
0
a. 32 c. 34
0 to 9 10 to 19 20 to 29 30 to 39 40 to 49 50 to 59 60 to 69 b. 22 d. 25
Age Group

4|P age
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NMAT PERCEPTUAL ACUITY SIMULATIONS (MOCK 3)

I. Hidden Figures
Directions: Each item below is made up of simple figure at the left and five complicated drawings at the right. Select the complicated
drawing that contains the simple figure. The hidden figure may appear in different positions but it must have the same size and shape
as the simplest figure.
1.

2.

3.

4.

1|P age
5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

2|P age
10.

11.

12.

II. Mirror Figures:

Directions: Each item below consists of a figure of word followed by five options. Select from the options. Select from the options the
mirror image of the given figure or word.
13.

14.

3|P age
15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

4|P age
20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

5|P age
25.

SECTION III : Identical Information

26. Use as dietary supplement to help reduce the risk of 29. Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin, is necessary for
heart disease & lower bad cholesterol. production of prothrombin in the liver.
A. Use as dietary supplement to help reduce the risk of A. Vitamin K, the antihemorhagic vitamin, is necessary
heart disease & lower bad cholesterol. for production of prothrombin in the liver.
B. Use as dietary supplement to help reduce the risk of B. Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin, is necessary
heart disease and lower bad cholesterol. for production of prothrombon in the liver.
C. Use as dietary suplement to help reduce the risk of C. Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin, is necessary
heart disease & lower bad cholesterol. for production of prothrombin on the liver.
D. Use as dietary supplement: to help reduce the risk of D. Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin, is necessary
heart disease & lower bad cholesterol. for production of prothrombin in the liver.
E. Use as dietary supplement: to help reduce the risk of E. Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin is necessary
heart diseas & lower bad cholesterol. for production of prothrombin in the liver.

27. Salapatek,P.,Bechtold, A.G., Bushness,E.W.(1976). 30. Contains EPA (eicosapentaenoic acid) 180 mg,DHA
Infant visual acuity as a function of viewing distance. (docosahexaenoic acid) 120 mg
Child Development,47,860-863. A. Contains APA (eicosapentaenoic acid) 180 mg,DHA
A. Salapatek,P.,Bechtold, A.G., Bushness,E.W.(1976). (docosahexaenoic acid) 120 mg
Infant visual acuity as a function of viewing distance. B. Contains EPA (eicosapentaenoic acid) 108 mg,DHA
Child Development,47,860-866. (docosahexaenoic acid) 120 mg
B. Salapatek,P.,Bechtold, A.G., Bushiness,E.W.(1976). C. Contains EPA (eicosapentaenoic acid) 180 mg,DHA
Infant visual acuity as a function of viewing distance. (docosahexanoic acid) 120 mg
Child Development,47,860-863. D. Contains EPA (eicosapentaenoic acid) 180 mg,DHA
C. Salapatek,P.,Bechtold, A.G Bushness,E.W.(1976). (docosahexaenoic acids) 120 mg
Infant visual acuity as a function of viewing distance. E. Contains EPA (eicosapentaenoic acid) 180 mg,DHA
Child Development,47,860-863. (docosahexaenoic acid) 120 mg
D. Salapatek,P.,Bechtold, A.G., Bushness,E.W.(1976).
Infant visual acuity as a function of viewing distance. 31. Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of anxiety in
Child Development,47,860-863. psychophysiological reactions. A.M.A. Arch. Neurol. Psychiat.,
E. Salapatek,B.,Bechtold, A.G., Bushness,E.W.(1976). 81:227-232.
Infant visual acuity as a function of viewing distance. A. Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of anxiety in
Child Development,47,860-863. psychophysiological reaction. A.M.A. Arch. Neurol.
Psychiat., 81:227-232.
28. Clarke, R.P., Heredity, B. Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of anxiety in
3rd Edition, Prentice Hall physiopsychological reactions. A.M.A. Arch. Neurol.
Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963. Psychiat., 81:227-232.
A. Clarke, R.P., Heredity, C. Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of anxiety in
3rd Edition, Prentice Hall psychophysiological reactions. A.W.A. Arch. Neurol.
Englewood Cliffs, N.Y., 1963. Psychiat., 81:227-232.
B. Clarke, R.P., Heredity, D. Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of anxiety in
3rd Edition, Prentice Hall psychophysiological reactions. A.M.A. Arch. Neurol.
Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963. Psychiat., 81:227-232.
C. Clark, R.P., Heredity, E. Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of anxiety in
3rd Edition, Prentice Hall psychophysiological reactions. A.M.A. Arch. Neuro.
Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963. Psychiat., 81:227-232.
D. Clarke, R.P., Heredity,
3rd Edition, Prentice Hale
Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963.
E. Clarke, P.R., Heredity,
3rd Edition, Prentice Hall
Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963.
6|P age
32. Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating phthalic 36. Phosphorous acid, H3PO3, can be prepared by the action
anhydride in the presence of sulfuric acid. of water upon P 4O6, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.
A. Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating pthalic A. Phosphorous acid, H3PO3, can be prepared by the
anhydride in the presence of sulfuric acid. action of water upon P4O6, P3Cl, PBr3, or PI3.
B. Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating phthalic B. Phosphorous acid, H3PO3, can be prepared by the
anhydride in the absence of sulfuric acid. action of water upon P6O4, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.
C. Phenophthalein is obtained by heating phthalic C. Phosphorous acid, HPO3, can be prepared by the
anhydride in the presence of sulfuric acid. action of water upon P4O6, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.
D. Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating phthalic D. Phosphorous acid, H3PO3, can be prepared by the
anhydride in the presence of sulfurus acid. action of water upon P4O6, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.
E. Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating phthalic E. Phosphouros acid, H3PO3, can be prepared by the
anhydride in the presence of sulfuric acid. action of water upon P4O6, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.

33. Books in China Rare & O/P. Also Japan & SE Asia. Latest 37. The end product of glycolysis is pyruvic acid, is an
catalogue from Oxus Books, 121 Astonville St., London SW important source of energy in all aerobic cells.
18. A. The end product of glycolyses is pyruvic acid, is an
A. Books in China Rare & O/P. Also Japan & SE Asia. important source of energy in all aerobic cells.
Latest catalogoe from Oxus Books, 121 Astonville St., B. The end product of glycolysis is pyruvic acid, is an
London SW 18. important source of energy in all airobic cells.
B. Books in China Rare & O/P. Also Japan & SE Asia. C. The end product of glycolysis is pryuvic acid, is an
Latest catalogue from Oxus Books, 121 Astonvilla St., important source of energy in all aerobic cells.
London SW 18. D. The end product of glycolysis is pyruvic acid, is an
C. Books in China Rare & O/P. Also Japan & SE Asia. important source of energy in all aerobic cells.
Latest catalogue from Onus Books, 121 Astonville St., E. The end products of glycolysis is pyruvic acid, is an
London SW 18. important source of energy in all aerobic cells.
D. Books in China Rare & O/P. Also Japan & SE Asia.
Latest catalogue from Oxus Book, 121 Astonville St., 38. Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store Cubao Branch No. 3
London SW 18. 2369 Aurora Blvd., Q.C.
E. Books in China Rare & O/P. Also Japan & SE Asia. A. Ku Chai Tong Chinese Drug Store Cubao Branch No. 3
Latest catalogue from Oxus Books, 121 Astonville St., 2369 Aurora Blvd., Q.C.
London SW 18. B. Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store Cubao Branch No. 3
2396 Aurora Blvd., Q.C.
34. Isolation and antimicrobial therapy are essential to abort C. Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store Cubao Branch No. 3
epidermic infantile diarrhea. 2369 Aurora Blvd, Q.C.
A. Isolation and antimicrobial therapy are essential to D. Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store Cubao Branch No. 8
abort epidermic infantile diarhea. 2369 Aurora Blvd., Q.C.
B. Isolation and antimicrobial therapy are essential to E. Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store Cubao Branch No. 3
abort epidermic infantile diarrhea. 2369 Aurora Blvd., Q.C.
C. Isolation and antimicorbial therapy are essential to
abort epidermic infantile diarrhea. 39. Beijing Medical College: Xue Huan Lu, Northern Suburb,
D. Isolation and antimicrobial therapy are esential to Beijing, China
abort epidermic infantile diarrhea. A. Beijing Medical College: Sue Huan Lu, Northern
E. Isolation and antimicrobial therapy were essential to Suburb, Beijing, China
abort epidermic infantile diarrhea. B. Beijing Medical College: Xue Huan Lee, Northern
Suburb, Beijing, China
35. Skye, 13 miles off the northwest coast of Scotland, is the C. Biejing Medical College: Xue Huan Lu, Northern
largest and most famous of the Hebrides. Suburb, Beijing, China
A. Skye, 13 miles off the northeast coast of Scotland, is D. Beijing Medical College: Xue Huan Lu, Northern
the largest and most famous of the Hebrides. Suburd, Beijing, China
B. Skye, 13 miles off the northwest coast of Scotland is E. Beijing Medical College: Xue Huan Lu, Northern
the largest and most famous of the Hebrides. Suburb, Beijing, China
C. Skye, 13 miles of the northwest coast of Scotland, is
the largest and most famous of the Hebrides. 40. Depigmentation is a feature of old burn, scars, leprosy, and
D. Skye, 13 miles off the northwest coast of Scotland, is vitiligo.
the largest and most famous of the Hebriles. A. Depigmentation is a feature of old burn, scars, leprosy
E. Skye, 13 miles off the northwest coast of Scotland, is and vitiligo.
the largest and most famous of the Hebrides. B. Depigmentation is a feature of old burns, scars, leprosy,
and vitiligo.
C. Depegmentation is a feature of old burn, scars, leprosy,
and vitiligo.
D. Depigmentation is a feature of old burn, scars, leprosy,
and vitiligo.
E. Depigmentation is a feature of old burn, scars, leprosy,
and witiligo.

7|P age
NMAT BIOLOGY MOCK 3 SIMULATIONS (1116) 7. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to
an investigation at the population level?
DIRECTIONS: Select the best answer to each of the a. What is the effect of diminished resources on an
following questions and blacken the appropriate space on individual's life span?
your answer sheet. b. What is the relationship between resource availability
and birthrate?
1. Which of the following are important biotic factors that c. What factors influence the distribution of tropical
can affect the structure and organization of biological forests?
communities? d. How long does it take for carbon to be cycled from the
a. Nutrient availability, soil pH, light intensity atmosphere into living tissue?
b. Precipitation, wind, temperature
c. Predation, competition, disease 8. An open stomata leads to
d. all of the above I. increased photosynthesis
II. increased transpiration
2. Which of the following areas receives little III. decreased chlorophyll
precipitation? a. I only c. I and II only
a. the equator b. II only d. I and III only
b. near 30o north or south latitude
c. near 60o north or south latitude 9. The energy pyramid shows the decreasing pattern of
d. all of the above receive a lot of precipitation energy from producers to consumers and from one trophic
level to another. Producers are placed at the base of the
3. The prayer plant, Maranta leuconeura, folds up its pyramid because _____________.
leaves each night in accordance with a circadian rhythm. a. they are used up at a faster rate
If we were to ship this plant halfway around the world to b. they have the most amount of energy available
a location where it is daytime there when it is night here, c. they can be found in aquatic and terrestrial ecosystem
the plant will d. they have pigments available in producing their own
a. slowly adjust to synchronize with the new day-night food
cycle.
b. immediately switch to a new cycle and begin to open 10. The response of stems growing upward is referred to
leaves in day and close them at night. as
c. detect the change but remain on its original cycle and a. negative gravitropism c. negative phototropism
therefore still fold leaves in day and open them at night. b. positive gravitropism d. positive phototropism
d. not detect the change and therefore remain on its
original cycle. 11. Introduced species
a. Can disrupt the balance of the natural species with
4. Which of the following would be most likely to exhibit which they become associated with
uniform dispersion? b. Often fail to colonize the new area
a. Cattails, which grow primarily at the edges of lakes and c. Can become common enough to become part of the
streams natural species
b. dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of d. Often become sterile due to not being able to adapt.
forest trees
c. Tassel-eared squirrels, which are non-territorial 12. Resource partitioning is best described by which of the
d. Red squirrels, which hide food and actively defend ff. statements?
territories a. Species diversity is maintained by switching between
prey species
5. Environmental signals influence the distribution of an b. A climax community is reached when no new niches are
auxin in a plant by available
a. decreasing the cell's sensitivity to the auxin c. Slight variations in niche allow similar species to coexist
b. causing auxin to migrate to the lighted portion d. Two species can coevolve and share the same niche
c. destroying the auxin
d. causing auxin to migrate into the shaded portion 13. Which of the following statements is consistent with
the competitive exclusion principle?
6. Which of the following is characteristic of a fast-moving a. Density of one competing species will have a positive
stream ecosystem? impact on the population growth of the competing
a. High levels of dissolved oxygen species.
b. High salinity b. Two species with the same fundamental niche will
c. Large numbers of anaerobes exclude other competing species.
d. Eutrophication c. Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually
lead to the elimination of inferior species.
d. Evolution tends to increase competition between related
species.

1
14. In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes 22. Succession is
found? a. series of physical changes that occur in an area
a. thylakoid membrane b. development of biotic communities on a bare area
b. plasma membrane c. series of biotic communities that appear in a previously
c. inner mitochondrial membrane bare area
d. A and C d. replacement of old individuals by new individuals of a
species
15. The main difference between primary and secondary
succession is that… 23. Which of the following is an example of a
a. primary succession occurs in the year before secondary characteristic of life known as metabolism found in plants?
succession a. A plant produces seeds, perpetuating the species.
b. primary succession occurs on barren, rocky areas and b. An unattended potted plant that gets knocked over in
secondary succession does not the greenhouse produces a shoot that bends toward the
c. secondary succession ends in a climax species while light and away from the pull of gravity.
primary succession ends in a pioneer species c. Cell division occurring in the apical meristem of the
d. secondary succession occurs on barren, rocky areas and stem and root extends the length of these modules.
primary succession does not. d. Sunlight energy is captured by a plant leaf through the
process called photosynthesis.
16. Which of the following does not represent a potential
threat to biodiversity? 24. Where does a plant obtain the carbon that contributes
a. Importing a European insect into the Philippines to to its mass?
control an undesirable weed a. The carbon enters the roots in solution.
b. Letting previously used farmland go fallow and begin to b. The carbon is taken up from soil particles.
fill with weeds and shrubs c. The carbon is fixed by symbiotic bacteria.
c. harvesting all of the oysters from an oyster bed off the d. The carbon enters the leaves as a gas.
Atlantic coast
d. Shooting wolves because they pose a threat to cattle 25. A population of horses is split into two populations by
farmers a new riverbed that forms after a flood. After many
generations, the river changes course and the populations
17. Whether a land area supports a deciduous forest or mix again. Which of the following indicates that the two
grassland primarily depends on… populations have formed two separate species?
a. changes in temperature a. The populations refuse to cross the dry riverbed to
b. latitude north or south of the equator interbreed.
c. consistency of rainfall from year to year b. The populations mix and mate and offspring are
d. changes in length of the growing season produced, although they are sterile.
c. One population has twice as many horses with white
18. Sexually reproducing species can have a selective spots as the other.
advantage over asexually reproducing species because d. Both populations are primary consumers.
sexual reproduction.
a. is more energy efficient. 26. Which of the following factors does not help determine
b. allows for more genetic diversity. biotic potential?
c. decreases the likelihood of mutations. a. maximum number of offspring
d. always decreases an offspring’s survival ability. b. number of times that a species reproduces each year
c. favorable light and temperature conditions
19. Which of the following would not qualify as an d. number of offspring that reach reproductive age
ecosystem service?
a. rain falling on land 27. Biologist Charles Darwin emphasized that evolution
b. squirrels burying acorns can be best be explained as a consequence of natural
c. leaves falling on the forest floor selection. Which of the following statements correctly
d. blowfly larvae infesting a dear carcass describes Darwin’s “Natural Selection”?
a. Chance events results in a change of allele frequencies.
20. Under water stress, the leaves of plants are found to b. As the conditions of nature change, individuals that are
contain higher concentrations of fittest and most adaptable will survive and evolve.
a. Giberillin c. Cytokinins c. Populations exchange members to converge toward one
b. Auxin d. Abscissic Acid another.
d. As the organism continues to use a certain part of its
21. The carrying capacity of a population is defined as: body, it enlarges or elongates.
a. the maximum number of individuals that can be
supported indefinitely in an ecosystem 28. Growth pattern in pollen tube is similar to that of
b. the maximum number of offspring a species could fungal hyphae or root hairs in exhibiting
produce if resources are unlimited a. oscillated elongation of tube
c. the nutrient that is in the least supply and limits the b. tip-oriented growth
population size c. multiple-oriented growth
d. the limited range of abiotic factors range within which d. predetermined path of growth
an organism can survive
2
29. The increased productivity of lakes and streams 37. All plants exhibit alternation of generations. This
brought about by nutrient enrichment is known as means their life cycle
a. greenhouse effect c. eutrophication a. includes both haploid and diploid gametes.
b. biomagnification d. bioaugmentation b. shows only asexual reproduction.
c. has both a multicellular haploid stage and a multicellular
30. Competition is the most severe between two diploid stage.
a. closely related species growing in different niches d. does not include meiosis
b. closely related species growing in the same habitat
c. distantly related species growing in the same habitat 38. A tree’s growth in uniform environmental conditions
d. distantly related species growing in different niches such as those which grow near the equator throughout
the year will
31. Primary productivity is likely to be lowest in which a. not show secondary growth
biome? b. not reveal annual rings with distinct spring and autumn
a. Desert b. Forest c. Grassland d. Lake wood
c. have annual rings which can be used to date the tree
32. The energy pyramid shows the decreasing pattern of d. have only phloem formed by the activity of the
energy from producers to consumers and from one trophic cambium
level to another. Producers are placed at the base of the
pyramid because _____________. 39. Development of shoot and root is determined by:
a. they are used up at a faster rate a. Cytokinin and auxin ratio c. Enzymes
b. they have the most amount of energy available b. Temperature d. Plant nutrients
c. they can be found in aquatic and terrestrial ecosystem
d. they have pigments available in producing their own 40. Students were asked to collect data on the plant
food Trifolio petalia. Two students reported finding a plant with
flowers having four petals instead of the usual 3. Which of
33. Fifteen years ago, your parents hung a swing from the the ff. explains this observation?
lower branch of a large tree growing in your yard. When a. Unusual findings such as this usually occurs and can
you go and sit in it today, you realize it is exactly the easily be disregarded
same height off the ground as it was when you first sat in b. All plants having 3 petals produce some flowers with 4
it 15 years ago. The reason the swing has not grown taller petals
as the tree has grown is that c. These flowers are actually the result of a new species
a. the tree trunk is showing primary growth. and in a few years, this group of plants will have formed 2
b. the tree trunk shows primary apical growth of the plant, species.
but apical elongation should not occur in that part of the d. Slight variation in the number of petals may occur due
tree. to accidental changes during development
c. trees lack apical meristems and so do not get taller.
d. you are hallucinating, because it is impossible for the 41. When O2 is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is
swing not to have gotten taller as the tree grew a byproduct of which of the ff.?
a. reducing NADP+
34. Mosses are thought to resemble the primitive plants b. splitting of H2O molecules
that first inhabited the land. Interestingly, these plants c. the electron transfer systems of Photosystem I and II
lack a vascular system. Therefore they should lack d. chemiosmosis
a. mesophyll cells. c. shoots.
b. phloem. d. collenchyma. 42. All of the following statements regarding
characteristics of predator-prey relationships are correct
35. Ecological pyramids can be inverted when.. EXCEPT:
a. they represent number of organisms a. A rise in the population of prey is often followed by a
b. they represent energy content of organisms rise in population of predators.
c. they represent biomass of organism b. A rise in the population of predators is followed by a
d. both a and c are correct decrease in the population of prey.
c. Camouflage is an adaptation that protects prey.
36. In the angiosperms, the d. The population of predators most often eliminates the
a. gametophyte is prominent, and the sporophyte is population of prey.
dependent upon the gametophyte.
b. sporophyte is prominent, with the sporophyte and 43. A few seconds after touching the Mimosa pudica plant,
gametophyte living independently. its leaflets fold together. It takes about 10 minutes or
c. sporophyte is prominent, and the gametophyte is more for the plant to region and restore the natural form
dependent upon the sporophyte. of the leaf. A good explanation for this is:
d. gametophyte is prominent, and the sporophyte stage a. Cells suddenly become flaccid after stimulation because
has disappeared. of the loss of K+
b. Cells suddenly become turgid after stimulation because
of loss of Na+
c. Cells suddenly become flaccid after stimulation because
of the loss of Na+
d. none of these
3
44. A food chain includes oak trees  squirrels  foxes -
mushrooms. Which role is unfilled in this chain?
a. secondary consumer
b. tertiary consumer
c. primary consumer
d. decomposer

45. Consider the following statements associated with the

germination of an angiospermous seed:
a. As the seed gets hydrated and germinates, enzymatic
activity slows and picks up speed as the plant grows
b. The respiration rate of the germinating seed increases
along with the increased enzymatic activity
c. The increase in the respiratory rate continues till
senescence
d. Rate of enzymatic activity decreases

46. On a sunny day, the closing of stomata in plant leaves

results in
a. a decrease in CO2 intake
b. a shift from C4 photosynthesis to C3 photosynthesis
c. an increase in transpiration
d. an increase in the concentration of CO2 in mesophyll
cells

47. Which of the following factors is most important in the

movement of water up a tall tree?
a. Guttation c. Capillarity in the phloem
b. Air pressure d. Leaf transpiration

48. Guard cells open stomata in response to the light.

What would happen if you kept the plant in a dark room
until 2 hours after dawn?
a. the stomata would open anyway
b. the stomata would stay closed until they received the
light stimulus
c. Photosynthesis would increase
d. Chlorophyll would degrade

49. A hermit crab will often place a sea anemone on its

shell, carrying the anemone with it whenever it goes.
When the crab outgrows its shell, it finds a larger one to
move into, carefully transferring the anemone to the new
shell. The crab is protected from predators by the
anemone’s stinging tentacles, while the anemone eats
food particles left by the crab. This is an example of
a. parasitism c. predation
b. mutualism d. commensalism

50. Which of the following best explains why there are

seldom more than five trophic levels in a food chain?
a. Most carnivores function at more than one trophic level.
b. Trophic levels above this number contain too many
individuals.
c. Top carnivores are too few in number to prey
effectively.
d. The ecosystem contains too much biomass.
e. Energy is lost from each trophic level.

4
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NMAT PHYSICS SIMULATIONS (MOCK 3R)

DIRECTIONS: Select the best answer to each of the following questions and blacken the appropriate space on your answer
sheet.

1. Of the following, which graph shows the motion of an 5. When a car accelerates along a road, what force
object with a constant non-zero acceleration? actually moves the car forward?
a. The road pushes the car forward as the tires push
backward.
b. Air resistance pushes the car forward as the car ejects a
stream of gases backward.
c. The normal force pushes the car forward as friction
counteracts this force in the backward direction.
d. The driver’s feet on the gas pedal alone gives enough
force to push the car forward.

6. From the table below, which substance requires the

greatest amount of heat to increase its temperature of its
unit mass by one degree Celsius?
Latent Latent Heat
Specific
Heat of of
Substance Heat
Fusion Vaporization
(J/g*C )
0
(J/g) (J/g)
2. Given the following velocity versus time graph: Water 4.19 334 2256
Ethanol 2.428 104.2 854
Copper 0.390 134 5069
Lead 0.130 24.5 871
a. Water c. Copper
b. Ethanol d. Lead

For numbers 7 to 11, observe the set-up below:

How many meters did the object travel in the interval from
2 seconds to 9 seconds?
a. 0 m c. 95 m
b. 25 m d. 105 m

3. Extremely high gravitation causes time to:

a. Speed up c. Exhibit no change
b. Slow down d. Fluctuate between fast and
slow

4. A heavy stone and a light feather fall side by side in a 7. What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit?
vacuum. Which of the following statements about the a. 10  c. 13 
situation is FALSE? b. 9  d. 16 
I. In the vacuum, equal forces of gravity act on
both the stone and the feather. 8. The total current passing through the circuit?
II. The two objects accelerate equally because a. 8 A c. 15 A
the ratios of their weights to masses are equal. b. 4 A d. 3 A
III. Air resistance is not present and so the two
objects accelerate at the same rate. 9. What is the power of the whole circuit?
IV. The two objects have equal masses and equal a. 16 watts c. 225 watts
weights. b. 8 watts d. 90 watts
a. I and IV c. IV only
b. II and III d. All are true. 10. What is the voltage at R1?
a. 18 V c. 45 V
b. 4 V d. 9 V

1
11. What is the voltage at R2? 17. Consider the electromagnetic spectrum:
a. 15 V b. 30 V c. 20 V d. 6 V

12. Gravitational force and electrostatic force both depend

on _____. From the diagram shown above, the wavelength of
a. The same constant c. Charge components U and V compared to components S, T, and
b. Mass d. Distance microwave are:
a. Shorter c. The same
13. Which of the following us TRUE when the magnetic b. Longer d. Cannot be determined
flux through a coil at 200 turns is reduced from 1 weber to
0.5 weber in 0.5 second? 18. Based on the diagram below, the voltmeter should
a. The induced emf in the coil is 200 volts. read:
b. The induced emf in the coil is 300 volts.
c. The induced emf in the coil is 500 volts.
d. The induced emf in the coil is 600 volts.

14. A uniform magnetic field 10 tesla exists in the –x

direction. An electron shoots through the field in the +y
1×106 𝑚
direction with a speed of .
𝑠

a. 31/6 V c. 11 V
b. 120/29 V d. 29 V

For numbers 19 to 21, consider this scenario. A 25-kg

metallic ball is elevated to a height of 1 km. It is released
Find the magnitude of the force and the direction and falls straight down. Let g = 10 m/s2. Air resistance is
negligible.
experienced by the electron.
a. 1.0 x 10-5 N, to the –y axis
b. 1.0 x 10-5 N, to the +y axis 19. What is the potential energy after travelling 5
c. 1.6 x 10-12 N, to the –z axis seconds?
a. 25 kJ c. 218.75 kJ
d. 1.6 x 10-12 N, to the +z axis
b. 31.25 kJ d. 250 kJ
15. Based on the figure, book X is on top of book Y which
20. What is its kinetic energy halfway through the trip?
is on top of a table. If the books and the table are all at
a. 2.5 kJ c. 250 kJ
rest, which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE?
I. The force exerted by book Y on book X is equal b. 125 kJ d. 125,000 kJ
in magnitude to the weight of book X.
21. How many seconds does it take for the ball to hit the
II. The force exerted by the table on book Y is
equal in magnitude to the total weight of the ground?
a. 28.2 s c. 17.6 s
table, book Y, and book X.
b. 21.2 s d. 14.1 s
III. The force exerted by the table on book Y is
equal in magnitude to the force exerted by book
22. A 100 g copper initially at 750C is put inside an
X on book Y.
aluminium container with a piece of silver amounting to a
mass of 200 grams and with water at 100C. Which of the
following statement/s given must be TRUE?
I. The final temperature of the system will be less
than 800C.
II. Copper loses heat while silver and water
absorbs heat.
III. The temperature of silver and water
increases and the temperature of copper
a. I only c. I and III only decreases.
b. I and II only d. I, II, and III IV. The temperature of copper, silver, and water
will eventually be equal.
16. Two identical balls collide head on. If the initial a. I and II only c. I, II, and III only
velocity of the first ball is 2 m/s while the other one is 0.5 b. I and III only d. I, II, III, and IV
m/s, what will be the final velocity of the second ball if the
first ball stopped when they collide?
a. 0 m/s c. 2 m/s
b. 1.5 m/s d. 2.5 m/s

2
23. A straight pipe has a constriction in it as shown in the 29. Based on the diagram below, F is the focal length of
figure below. the convex lens.

There will be image projected on the screen if an object is

placed:
At point A the diameter is 20 cm, while at point B it is only I. Between F and the lens IV. At 3F
4 cm. At point A, vA = 10 m/s and PA = 420 kPa. Find vB. II. At F V. At 4F
a. 40 m/s c. 150 m/s III. At 2F
b. 100 m/s d. 250 m/s a. I only c. III, IV, and V only
b. III only d. I and II only
24. Given below are different nuclear reactions. Which of
the following beta and alpha decay, respectively? 30. Jannette shoots a projectile from a gun making an
angle of 150 with the horizontal. The initial velocity of the
I. 226
88𝑅𝑎 → 42𝐻𝑒 + 222
86𝑅𝑛
bullet is 100 m/s. Assume that g = 10 m/s2. After 5
seconds, what is the bullet’s acceleration along the x-axis?
II. 60
27𝐶𝑜 → 60
28𝑁𝑖 + 𝛽− a. 0.00 m/s2 c. 96.6 m/s2
b. 10.0 m/s2 d. 100.00 m/s2
III. 59
28𝑁𝑖 + 𝑒− → 59
27𝐶𝑜 +𝑣
31. Prior to analysing a liver sample, Ceres places it in an
IV. 137 137 eppendorf tube and proceeds to centrifuge it. If the
56𝐵𝑎 → 56𝐵𝑎 +𝛾
centrifuge has a diameter of 50 cm and the tube is
a. III and I only c. III and IV only experiencing an acceleration of 25,600 m/s2 towards the
b. II and I only d. III, II, and I only center of the machine, what speed is the tube undergoing
as it rotates?
25. Wavelength is inversely proportional to: a. 80 m/s b. 510 m/s c. 800 m/s d. 6,400 m/s
a. Wave speed c. Both A and B
b. Frequency d. Neither A nor B 32. Vincent places a clock inside a moving vehicle. For an
observer at rest outside the vehicle, the clock would:
26. Which of the following is the correct equation to a. Run at the same rate as a clock at rest
calculate specific heat, c? b. Run faster than a clock at rest
Q = amount of heat energy absorbed of released c. Run slower than a clock at rest
T = temperature change d. Fluctuate between running fast and running slow
m = mass of the body absorbing or releasing heat
33. What kind of spherical mirror must be used, in order
∆𝑇 to give an inverted image 1/3 as large as an object placed
a. 𝑐 = 𝑚∆𝑄∆𝑇 c. 𝑐 =
𝑚∆𝑄 15 cm in front of it?
∆𝑄 𝑚
b. 𝑐 = d. 𝑐 = a. Convex mirror c. Plane mirror
𝑚∆𝑇 ∆𝑇∆𝑄
b. Concave mirror d. Pocket mirror
27. Which of the following cannot create or induce a
magnetic field? 34. A 5 cm object is placed 15 cm in front of a convex lens
a. A moving charge whose focal length is 12 cm. Which of the following
b. A straight current-carrying conductor describes the image formed?
c. A circular current-carrying loop a. It is 20/9 cm long and inverted.
d. None of the above b. It is 20/9 cm long and upright.
c. It is 20 cm long and upright.
28. Consider the figure below. d. It is 20 cm long and inverted.

Assuming g = 10 m/s2, what is the magnitude of the static

frictional force exerted by the surface on the box
if S = 0.1?
a. 0.5 N c. 10 N
b. 5 N d. 100 N

3
35. Based on the table below, which of the following Use the following graphs for 42 and 43.
statement/s is/are TRUE?
Substance Index of Refraction
Air 1.00029
Ice 1.31
Sodium Chloride 1.54
Diamond 2.419
I. Light travels fastest in diamond.
II. Light travels slowest in air.
III. Light travels faster in ice as compared in
sodium chloride.
IV. Light travels slower in diamond as compared
in air.
V. Light travels faster in sodium chloride as
compared in ice.
a. I only c. III and IV only 42. Given the graphs, which represents an increasing
b. I, II, and V only d. II, III, and IV only speed?
a. I and IV c. IV only
36. Why are doorknobs placed at the edge of a door b. I, III, and IV d. I only
rather than at the center?
a. To help give more momentum to the door 43. Which one represents a constant speed?
b. It is closer to the edge of the doorway a. I b. II c. III d. IV
c. To increase the force on the door
d. To increase the lever arm 44. Suppose a car moving in a straight line steadily
increases its speed each second, first from 35 to 40 kph,
37. Apparently, the loss of weight of objects immersed in then from 40 to 45 kph, then from 45 to 50 kph. What can
a fluid is due to _____. you say about its acceleration?
a. Archimedes’ principle c. Newton’s theory a. It has a different acceleration at different time intervals.
b. Specific gravity d. Buoyant force b. It has an increasing acceleration.
c. It has a constant acceleration.
38. After a stone is dropped into a cylindrical container d. It has a decreasing acceleration.
filled with 100 cm3 of water, the water rises and the new
reading is 106.5 cm3. What is the volume of the stone? 45. Which of the following is FALSE for a projectile
a. 10.65 cm3 b. 6.5 cm3 c. 60.65 cm3 d. 60.5 cm3 motion?
a. The horizontal component for a projectile is completely
39. If you lower the frequency of a wave in a string you independent of the vertical component of the motion.
will: b. The vertical component for a projectile is completely
a. Lower its speed c. Lower its amplitude independent of the horizontal component of motion.
b. Shorten its period d. Increase its wavelength c. In a projectile motion, gravity both acts on the
horizontal and vertical component of motion.
40. An apple that weighs 1 N falls to the ground. The d. The combined effects of the vertical and horizontal
apple hits the ground with an impact force of about components produce a variety of curved paths that
_____. projectiles follow.
a. 4 N b. 1 N c. 10 N d. 2 N
46. At the instant a horizontally held gun is fired, a bullet
41. A car moves in a clockwise direction in a circular track. at the gun’s side is released and drops to the ground.
It moves with a velocity of 2 m/s all throughout its course. Which bullet strikes the ground first?
Which of the following is true about the speed and velocity a. The bullet from the gun
of the car? b. The bullet which was released downward
a. It has a changing speed and a constant velocity. c. Both bullets strike at the same time
b. It has a constant speed and a changing velocity. d. It depends upon the mass of the bullets
c. It has a constant speed and a constant velocity.
d. Both the speed and the velocity are changing. 47. If both the net force and the mass are doubled, the
acceleration will:
a. Be doubled
b. Remains the same
c. Be reduced to ½ of its original value
d. Be four times the original value

4
48. Which of the following is FALSE about the friction?
a. Friction exists between materials that touch as they
move past each other.
b. If friction is absent, a moving object would need a force
to keep it in motion.
c. If friction is absent, an object moving horizontally would
move forever.
d. If friction is present, a force is needed to keep an
object moving.

49. If the external unbalanced force is zero, then a system

I. At rest remains at rest
II. In uniform motion moves in a straight line at
constant speed
III. Has no acceleration
IV. Has an internal force that will cause it to accelerate
a. I only c. I and II only
b. I, II, and III only d. IV only

50. A box is pulled with a force at an angle shown.

The force caused the box to be displaced at a certain

distance to the right. Which of the following is true about
the force which caused the box to move?
a. The horizontal component of the net force F causes the
box to be displaced to the right.
b. The vertical component of the net force F causes the
box to be displaced to the right.
c. The net force F causes the box to be displaced to the
right.
d. The net force F increases as the box is displaced to the
right

5
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NMAT SOCIAL SCIENCE AND PSYCHOLOGY SIMULATIONS (MOCK 3R)

DIRECTIONS: Select the best answer to each of the 9. Which of the following personality theories generally
following questions and blacken the appropriate space on tends to be pessimistic about human nature?
your answer sheet. a. Trait theory c. Humanistic theory
b. Behavioral theory d. Psychoanalytic theory
1. What do you call the historical, economic, social, and
cultural factors that influence mental processes and 10. According to Freud, which structure of personality
behaviour? consists of instincts and is completely unconscious?
a. Social desirability c. Context a. Ego c. Superego
b. Sociocultural structure d. Ethnicity b. Id d. Libido

2. Who do most historians credit when establishing the 11. Freud believed there are two basic drives that guide
first scientific laboratory dedicated to studying behaviour? and shape human behaviour. What did he call these two
a. Wilhelm Wundt c. Ivan Pavlov drives?
b. Carl Jung d. Sigmund Freud a. Superego and alter ego c. Agape and psyche
b. Id and ego d. Eros and thanatos
3. One evening, Genie jumps into a pool and shivers at
the coldness of the water. After five minutes, however, 12. Shane has strong aggressive – even violent –
she has gotten used to the cold and is “ignoring” it as she tendencies. To prevent himself from possibly doing harm
does laps across the pool. This is an example of what? to others, he chooses to engage in American football and
a. Sensory deprivation c. Habituation boxing as outlets. What defense mechanism did he use?
b. Sensation seeking d. Operant conditioning a. Repression c. Regression
b. Sublimation d. Rationalization
4. Howard is an expert wine-taster. He can tell vintage
wines apart with just single drops upon his tongue, no 13. Which of the following statements is false?
matter how similar the samples taste. This demonstrates: a. Convergence is a monocular cue for depth perception in
a. Reaction formation c. Difference threshold which the eyes turn more inward as an object gets closer.
b. Classical conditioning d. Absolute threshold b. Binocular cues are depth cues based on the
simultaneous working of both eyes.
5. Which of the following EEG patterns occur in awake c. Linear perspective is an example of monocular depth
individuals? cue.
I. Alpha waves III. Delta waves d. Gestalt psychologists believe that the whole is not equal
II. Beta waves IV. Theta waves to the sum of its parts.
a. II and IV c. III and IV
b. I and III d. I and II 14. A cheerleading squad found out that the cheers they
have been practising for a competition had been “stolen”
6. As a boy, John was bitten by a large red ant and by their previous captain from another squad. The group
developed a phobia for ants. However, he also developed must decide whether they should change their routine or
a fear of all insects. In classical conditioning, this is an stick to the stolen one. Eliza thinks they should create a
example of what? new routine. However, since the competition was just a
a. Generalization c. Discrimination few days, everyone else said they should just do the old
b. Spontaneous recovery d. Extinction one. Eliza, despite her personal opinion, then pretends
that she also feels they should do the old routine. This
7. Classical conditioning mainly consists of the relationship clearly demonstrates _____.
between _____ and _____; operant conditioning a. Groupthink c. Conformity
emphasizes the relationship between _____ and _____. b. Deindividuation d. Anonymity
a. behaviour; response; stimulus; consequence
b. stimulus, behaviour; behaviour; consequence 15. Which of the following best defines “behaviour?”
c. stimulus; consequence; stimulus; response a. Thoughts, feelings, and motives that each of us
d. behaviour; consequence; stimulus; behaviour experiences privately but cannot be directly observed
b. Everything we do that can be directly observed
8. Which type of parenting will raise children who lack c. A set of disciplines that studies human association
self-control and who always expect to get their way? d. The scientific study of mental processes in context
a. Indulgent parenting c. Authoritative parenting
b. Neglectful parenting d. Authoritarian parenting

1
16. Little Ros wants to keep a piece of paper from flying 24. The difference between anorexia nervosa and bulimia
away. The only available heavy object nearby is a large is that:
drinking glass. However, she does not think of using it a. The former is psychosomatic, while the latter is
since she knows the purpose of the glass is for drinking; biological.
thus, she tries to look for other actual paperweights. What b. The former is biological, while the latter is
has not been able to overcome? psychosomatic.
a. Deductive reasoning c. Learning set c. The former involves starvation, while the latter follows a
b. Functional fixedness d. Representative heuristic binge-and-purge eating pattern.
d. The former follows a binge-and-purge eating pattern,
17. In an experiment, what occurs when the expectations while the latter involves starvation.
of a participant, not the experimental treatment, produce
the desired outcome? 25. Which branch of Industrial/Organizational (I/O)
a. Placebo effect c. Double-blind study psychology focuses on the design of machines that
b. Bias d. Psychosomatic phenomenon workers can use to perform their jobs, and on the
environment in which humans function to make it safer
18. Which of the following time frames of memory can and more efficient?
hold information from the world in its original sensory a. Environmental psychology
form for a brief instant? b. Organizational psychology
a. Short-term memory c. Long-term memory c. Industrial psychology
b. Sensory memory d. None of the above d. Human factors psychology

19. Which of the following learning differences involves 26. Which statement is TRUE?
deficits in doing arithmetic? a. Rapport talk is talk that is designed to give information.
a. Dyscalculia c. Organic retardation b. Exceptional learners include students with physical and
b. Dyslexia d. Cultural-familial retardation health problems, a learning disability, mental retardation,
communication problems, and behavioural problems; also
20. Which of the following approaches in therapy does not included are gifted and talented students.
work with individuals in the context of a larger system? c. Biofeedback is the system of thought and form of
a. Encounter groups c. Couple therapy practice that incorporates exercises to attain bodily or
b. Community psychology d. Gestalt therapy mental control and well-being as well as enlightenment.
d. Antidepressant drugs are commonly called tranquilizers.
21. Which of the following best represents positive
reinforcement? 27. Ethology is:
a. Alden rubs ointment on scratches >> Scratches slowly a. The study of the biological basis of behaviour in natural
disappear >> Alden uses more ointment habitats
b. Meng slaps her playmate Vice >> Meng is spanked by b. The study of ethical practices in psychology
her mother >> Meng decreases hostile behaviour c. The study of feelings and emotions in various contexts
c. Allan asks Vic a question >> Deep in thought, Vic d. The study of the social basis of cognitive behaviour
ignores him >> Allan does not ask again
d. Jade tells Robert a joke >> Robert laughs and responds 28. A person is deemed fit to be part of society
with interest >> Jade tells Robert many more jokes a. During puberty
b. When s/he learns and applies acceptable norms
22. Which of the following is not a paraphilia? c. Upon finishing academic training
a. Fetishism c. Voyeurism d. When s/he interacts with those around him/her
b. Transvestism d. Incest
29. Which of the following is one of two major macro-level
23. Which of the following specific disorders are not theories (theories that focus on large-scale social units
correctly paired with the general type of disorder to which and are used to view contemporary American
they belong? psychology)?
I. Phobic disorder – anxiety disorder a. Exchange theory c. Conflict theory
II. Obsessive compulsive disorder – personality b. Symbolic interactionism d. Ethnomethodology
disorder
III. Hypochondriasis – somatoform disorder 30. What do you call mores that define what must not be
IV. Amnesia – dissociative disorder done?
V. Bipolar disorder – mood disorder a. Taboos c. Immoralities
VI. Substance-use disorder – personality disorder b. Laws d. Illegalities
a. I and V c. II and IV
b. III and IV d. II and VI 31. Subcultures that conflict with general societal norms
give rise to what?
a. Neocultures c. Pseudocultures
b. Countercultures d. Anticultures

2
32. Given the following two situations: 42. Which term refers to the number of children the
I. Maggie wears the latest in fashion. average woman can bear during her childbearing years?
II. Maggie is required to wear some form of a. Natality b. Fecundity c. Mortality d. Fertility
clothing.
Respectively, what norms do the above two situations 43. Which statement would a structural-functionalist most
reflect? likely make in viewing science?
a. Mores; laws c. Folkways; mores a. Science is not a neutral benefactor of society.
b. Mores; folkways d. Folkways; laws b. Science may bring benefits, but these are incidental.
c. Science facilitates understanding of the social and
33. Biological sex is an example of what kind of status? physical world that helps society deal with its problems.
a. Ascribed status c. Reciprocal status d. Science is a tool used in the service of the relatively few
b. Master status d. Achieved status members of the ruling class.

34. Charlene, an English teacher, maintains friendly 44. In Sweden, the government operates key sectors such
relationships with her students. However, she is expected as education, while some other economic activities are
to give objective evaluations and grades for their carried out by private organizations. What economic
performances in their upcoming speech delivery exams. system is this?
This can, on Charlene’s part, lead to: a. Socialist Economy c. Hybrid economy
a. Role conflict c. Status conflict b. Laissez-Faire economy d. Capitalist economy
b. Role strain d. Status strain
45. What is the difference between a political revolution
35. What is the difference between prejudice and and a coup d’etat?
discrimination? a. A political revolution has economic basis; a coup d’etat
a. The former is achieved, the latter is ascribed. has military basis.
b. The former is ascribed, the latter is achieved. b. A political revolution attempts to overthrow the existing
c. The former is behaviour, the latter is an attitude. political system to replace it with a new one; a coup d’etat
d. The former is an attitude, the latter is behaviour. only seeks to overthrow the leader/s of the system, which
will not be changed.
36. The secessionist movement in Mindanao reflects what c. A political revolution is mastermind by civilians; a coup
form of intergroup interaction? d’etat is masterminded by the military.
a. Annihilation c. Domination d. A political revolution has more altruistic motives than
b. Segregation d. Pluralism does a coup d’etat.

37. What form of kinship system is prevalent in 46. Which form of religious organization has a leadership
contemporary Filipino families? based more on personal charisma than on bureaucratic
a. Patrilineal descent c. Bilateral descent structure?
b. Matrilineal descent d. Double descent a. Church c. Cult
b. Denomination d. Sect
38. To which sector of economy do lawyers and doctors
belong? 47. What do you call a societal system of ranking
a. Primary sector c. Tertiary sector categories in a form of hierarchy and is characteristic of
b. Secondary sector d. Peripheral sector the society, not the individual?
a. Social integration c. Social wedging
39. What is another term for an active crowd? b. Social differentiation d. Social stratification
a. Mob c. Expressive crowd
b. Casual crowd d. Conventional crowd 48. What is the mechanism through which a society’s
heritage is transmitted from generation to generation?
40. Which of the following, according to social area a. Dissemination c. Socialization
analysis, are the factors that govern residential choices? b. Acculturation d. Folklore sharing
I. Family status
II. Educational background 49. In which of the following stratification systems is social
III. Social standing mobility most impossible, or at least nearly so?
IV. Race and ethnicity a. Caste system c. Feudal system
a. I, II, and III c. II, III, and IV b. Class system d. None of the above
b. I, II, and IV d. I, III, and IV
50. What are the three dimensions of Weber’s notion of
41. Places such as Metro Manila, New York, Paris, and social class?
Tokyo are most likely to be described as what type of a. Political power; educational attainment; social prestige
community? b. Economic resources; educational attainment; social
a. Gemeinschaft community prestige
b. Megalopolis c. Economic resources; political power; social prestige
c. Gesellschaft community d. Economic resources; political power; educational
d. Rural community attainment

3
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NMAT CHEMISTRY SIMULATIONS (MOCK 3R)

DIRECTIONS: Select the best answer to each of the following questions and blacken the appropriate space on your answer
sheet.

1. Given:
𝑃 → 𝑃𝐻3 + 𝐻2 𝑃𝑂2 − (alkaline) For numbers 10 and 11, consider this situation. Paul found a
When balanced, what will be the sum of the coefficients of certain unknown compound to be 31.0% carbon, 5.2%
the products? hydrogen, 27.6% oxygen, and 36.2% nitrogen. The
a. 3 b. 4 c. 13 d. 14 molecular weight was experimentally determined to be
approximately 460.
2. Which of the following is not a conjugate acid-base pair? Atomic Weights:
a. 𝑁𝐻4 +, 𝑁𝐻3 c. 𝐻2 𝑂, 𝑂𝐻 − H=1 C = 12
b. 𝑁𝐻3 , 𝑁𝐻2 −
d. 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 , 𝑂𝐻 − N = 14 O = 16

3. What nuclear process occurred if 226

88𝑋 results from the 10. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
emission of particle by 226
89𝑌 ? a. C3H6O2N3 c. C6H10O5N5
a.  decay b. - decay c. + decay d. K-electron capture b. C5H2ON3 d. C10H20O7N10

4. In the combustion of ethyne in oxygen, 8 g of O2 was 11. Which is a possible molecular formula for the
present. Ideally, what amount of ethyne could have reacted compound?
with all that O2, and how much CO2 could have been a. C4H2O(NO)5(CO)2(NH2)5(CH)6(OH)2
produced? b. C4(NO)4(CO)2(NH2)8(CH)6(OH)2
a. 13 g ethyne; 11 g CO2 c. C18H2O2(CO)2(NH2)4(CH3)4(OH)2
b. 2.3 g ethyne; 7.3 g CO2 d. C18H2(CO)2(NH2)6(CH3)4(OH)2
c. 3.2 g ethyne; 6.4 g CO2
d. 2.6 g ethyne; 8.8 g CO2 For numbers 12 and 13 consider this situation. A sample of
0.025 M KOH stands at 250C, where 100.4  2.5
5. What kind of particle was emitted if 258
101𝐴 underwent
decay and the result was 254
99𝐵 ? 12. What is the pH of this sample?
a. alpha particle c. positron a. 1.6 c. 13
b. electron d. gamma ray b. 12.4 d. 13.6

6. Fusion is most likely to occur with the: 13. What is the pOH of this sample?
a. Combination of 2 1H nuclei a. 1.6 c. 13
b. Combination of 2 2H nuclei b. 12.4 d. 13.6
c. Splitting apart of a single 244
95𝐴𝑚 nucleus
d. Splitting apart of a single 245
95𝐴𝑚 nucleus
14. Given this graph:

7. Mike can prepare methanol from bromomethane by

adding _____ to the latter.
a. Hydrogen gas c. Sulfuric acid
b. Sodium hydroxide d. Heat energy and light

8. At 250C in the equilibrium

𝑁2 (𝑔) + 𝑂2 (𝑔) ↔ 2𝑁𝑂
Kp = 4.8 x 10-31
which species will dominate?
a. NO and O2 c. N2 and O2
b. N2 and NO d. None

9. If the equilibrium constant KC for

What type of reaction does the forward reaction represent?
𝐹2 (𝑔) ↔ 2𝐹 (𝑔)
a. Endothermic c. Both A and B
At a certain temperature is 7.3 x 10-13, what is KC for
1 b. Exothermic d. Neither A nor B
𝐹2 (𝑔) ↔ 𝐹 (𝑔)?
2
a. √7.3 × 10−13 c. 1.37 x 10-12
b. 3.65 x 10-13 d. 7.3 x 10-13
1
15. NO2 is a gas whose density is 73.5 g/L. What pressure 21. What happens to aluminium in the reaction:
will it exert at a temperature of 270C? 2𝐴𝑙 + 3𝑁𝑖(𝑁𝑂3 )2 → 2𝐴𝑙(𝑁𝑂3 )3 + 3𝑁𝑖
a. 43.05 atm c. 86.10 atm
b. 81.81 atm d. 1808.10 atm a. Reduced and its oxidation number increases
b. Reduced and its oxidation number decreases
16. If 25
13𝐾𝑦 emits a gamma ray, then the daughter nucleus c. Oxidized and its oxidation number increases
is: d. Oxidized and its oxidation number decreases
a. 24
13𝐾𝑦 c. 21
11𝑁𝑐
b. 13𝐾𝑦
25
d. 24
14𝑆ℎ𝑓 22. The Law of Multiple Proportions applies to what pair of
For numbers 17 and 18, refer to the following periodic table. compounds?
a. KCl and KClO3 c. H2O and H2O2
b. MgSO4 and MnSO4 d. NaBr and NaCl

23. Which procedure is most likely to increase the solubility

of a gas in a liquid?
a. Constant stirring c. Adding more solvent
b. Heating the solution d. Increasing the pressure

24. Along a row in the periodic table, elements have the

same:
17. Which pair of elements below has the highest and a. Energy level c. Atomic radius
lowest electron affinities, respectively? b. Electronegativity d. Ionization energy
a. He and Rn c. Ac and F
b. F and Fr d. Li and Nb 25. What is the correct identity of X in the reaction:
91𝑃𝑎 → 𝑋 + −1𝛽 ?
234 0

18. Which of the following are all metalloids? a. 92𝑈

234
c. 90𝑇ℎ
234

a. Sc, Lr, Zn, Uub c. Ge, As, Te b. 235

92𝑈 d. 232
90𝑇ℎ
b. B, O, F, Ne d. Ne, Ar, Kr
26. The half-life, t1/2, of radioactive phosphorous, 32P, is 14
19. What will be the product of the following reaction? days. Given 1.0 mg 32P, how much will remain after 42
days?
a. 0.5 mg c. 0.125 mg
b. 1.25 mg d. None

27. Which statement is NOT true?

a. An element melts at a definite temperature.
b. An element is changed into another substance by heat in
the absence of air or another substance.
c. An element may combine with another to form a
compound.
d. An element is made of the same kind of atom.

28. Which of the following is a property of all metals?

a. All are hard.
b. All are combined easily with oxygen.
c. All are solids at room temperature.
d. All are conductors of heat and electricity.

29. No two electrons in the same atom can have the same
set of quantum numbers is the statement of:
a. Hund’s Rule of Multiplicity
b. Dalton’s Atomic Theory
c. Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle
d. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle

30. As you enter a building, you observe a beam of light

20. In which substance is the oxidation state of nitrogen from the glass roof. What is the phenomenon?
zero? a. Brownian movement c. Tyndall effect
a. N2 c. NO2 b. Peptization d. Adsorption
b. NH3 d. N2O

2
31. Which of the following substances will exhibit the 39. The molecular weight of a substance is 128 and its
highest boiling point? equivalent weight in a particular reaction is 24. A 1.0 M
a. CCl4 c. CH4 solution of this substance will have a normality of:
b. CO2 d. Cl2HCCHCl2 a. 5.33 N b. 0.50 N c. 2 N d. 0.25 N

32. Which of the following is/are true? 40. What volume of 0.1 M NaOH is needed to neutralize 25
a. At 1 atm the boiling point of water is 1000C. mL of 0.1 M H2SO4?
b. The vapour pressure of 40 mL of water heated at 400C is a. 12.5 mL b. 25 mL c. 50 mL d. 100 mL
twice the vapour pressure of 20 mL of water heated at the
same temperature. 41. What is the normality of an acid solution if 50 mL of the
c. Generally, non-polar substances have higher boiling solution requires 48.16 mL of 0.1879 N alkali for
points than polar substances. neutralization?
d. Choices a and b are true. a. 0.4000 N c. 0.1827 N
b. 0.2678 N d. 0.1274 N
33. Which substance evaporates more rapidly at a given
temperature? 42. Which is the conjugate base of H2SO4?
a. Substance that has high vapour pressure at room a. SO3-2 b. S-2 c. HSO3- d. HSO4-
temperature
b. Substance with molecules having strong forces of 43. Which statement best describes a solution with a pH of
attraction 3?
c. Substance with high boiling temperature a. It has an H+ concentration of 1 x 103 and is acidic.
d. Substance with high heat of vaporization b. It has an H+ concentration of 1 x 10-3 and is acidic.
c. It has an H+ concentration of 1 x 103 and is basic.
34. What is the maximum number of grams of water at d. It has an H+ concentration of 1 x 10-3 and is basic.
100C that can be heated to 300C by the addition of 40
calories of heat? 44. Which of the following will produce a solution with a pH
a. 1.0 c. 20 less than 7?
b. 2.0 d. 30 a. KCN b. K2SO4 c. NH4Cl d. NaNO3

35. Exothermic is a term used to describe a reaction: 45. In any of the p, d, or f orbitals, electrons tend to occupy
a. That occurs at a low temperature separate orbitals before any orbital can have two electrons.
b. For which heat is a reactant This principle is referred to as:
c. For which heat is a product a. de Broglie’s Principle c. Aufbau’s Principle
d. That occurs at a high temperature b. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle d. Hund’s Principle

36. Which type of reaction does the Haber process below 46. If 75% of the isotopes of an element have a mass of 35
represent? amu and 25% of the isotopes have a mass of 37 amu, what
𝑁2 (𝑔) + 3𝐻2 (𝑔) → 2𝑁𝐻3 (𝑔) + 𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡 is the atomic mass of the element?
a. Exothermic, with an increase in entropy a. 35 amu c. 36 amu
b. Exothermic, with a decrease in entropy b. 35.5 amu d. 37 amu
c. Endothermic, with an increase in entropy
d. Endothermic, with a decrease in entropy 47. Which of the following molecules is the most acidic?
a. CH3COOH c. CHCl2CH2COOH
37. Which change would most likely increase the rate of a b. CH2ClCOOH d. CH3CCl2COOH
chemical reaction?
a. Decreasing the reactants’ concentration 48. If propylene is shaken with cold neutral KMnO4 solution,
b. Decreasing the reactants’ surface the primary organic compound will be:
c. Cooling the reaction mixture a. CH3CH(OH)CH2OH c. CH3CH2CH2OH
d. Adding a catalyst to the reaction mixture b. CH3CH2CH2MnO4 d. CH2(OH)CH(OH)CH2OH

38. Given the reaction below at equilibrium. 49. When propyne reacts with 2 moles of HBr, the major
𝑋2 (𝑔) + 2𝑌2 (𝑔) ↔ 2𝑋𝑌2 (𝑔) + 80 𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙 product formed is :
The equilibrium point will shift to the left if the pressure is: a. 1,1-dibromopropane c. 2,2-dibromopropane
a. Increased and the temperature is increased b. 1,2-dibromopropane d. 1-bromopropane
b. Increased and the temperature is decreased
c. Decreased and the temperature is increased 50. Which compound contains double bonds, does not
d. Decreased and the temperature is decreased decolorize bromine water, and reacts with chlorine in the
presence of ferric chloride?
a. Ethyl alcohol c. Benzene
b. Butane d. Cyclohexene