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Fourier Series & Dirichlet's Theorem

This document contains the solution to a quiz question about Fourier series. It asks to show that two infinite sums equal specific values. The solution first uses Dirichlet's Theorem to show that the first sum equals π2/8. It then uses the Fourier coefficients and Parseval's equality to evaluate the integral of the function and relate it to the second sum, showing that the second sum equals π4/96.

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Zakaria Mohd
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202 views2 pages

Fourier Series & Dirichlet's Theorem

This document contains the solution to a quiz question about Fourier series. It asks to show that two infinite sums equal specific values. The solution first uses Dirichlet's Theorem to show that the first sum equals π2/8. It then uses the Fourier coefficients and Parseval's equality to evaluate the integral of the function and relate it to the second sum, showing that the second sum equals π4/96.

Uploaded by

Zakaria Mohd
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

MATH 513- Quiz 1

KFUPM, Department of Mathematics and Statistics

Kroumi Dhaker, Winter 2019


 1 + x/π if − π ≤ x < 0
The Fourier Series of f (x) = is given by
 1 − x/π if 0 ≤ x ≤ π

∞
1 4 X cos((2n + 1)x)
+ .
2 π 2 n=0 (2n + 1)2
P∞ 1 π2
P∞ 1 π4
show that n=0 (2n+1)2 = 8
and n=0 (2n+1)4 = 96
.

Solution

1. For the first sum, all we need is to apply the Dirichlet’s Theorem:
∞ ∞
f (0+ ) + f (0− ) 1 4 X cos((2n + 1)0) 1 4 X 1
= + 2 = + .
2 2 π n=0 (2n + 1)2 2 π 2 n=0 (2n + 1)2

Now, by using the definition of the function f , we have

f (0+ ) = lim+ f (x) = lim+ (1 − x/π) = 1


x→0 x→0

and
f (0− ) = lim− f (x) = lim+ (1 + x/π) = 1.
x→0 x→0

Then, we conclude that


∞ ∞ ∞
1 4 X 1 4 X 1 1 X 1 π2
1= + 2 ⇔ = ⇔ = .
2 π n=0 (2n + 1)2 π 2 n=0 (2n + 1)2 2 n=0
(2n + 1)2 8

1

4

π 2 (2l+1)2
if n = 2l + 1
2. The coefficients of the Fourier series are a0 = 1, bn = 0 and an =
 0 if n = 2l
By Parseval’s equality, we have
π ∞
a2 X 2
Z
1
|f (x)| dx = 0 +
2
(an + b2n ).
π −π 2 n=1

Starting with the integral, we have


π
1 0 1 π
Z Z Z
1 2 x 2 x 2
|f (x)| dx = 1+ dx + 1− dx
π −π π −π π π 0 π
Z 1 Z 1
2 2
= u du + v 2 du = .
0 0 3

For the first integral, we take u = 1+x/π and for the second integral, we take v = 1−x/π.
In the other hand, we have
∞ ∞
a20 X 2 1 16 X 1
+ (an + b2n ) = + 4
2 n=1
2 π n=0 (2n + 1)4

Then, we conclude that


∞ ∞
1 16 X 1 2 X 1 π4
+ = ⇔ = .
2 π 4 n=0 (2n + 1)4 3 n=0
(2n + 1)4 96

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