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Social Work (Oxford University Press website)

Chapter 1: Introduction to the Decision Tree and the Text
1. Which one of the following steps of the decision tree deals with the legal context of social
work practice?
a. Step one: fiduciary model-assure client safety
b. Step two: meet urgent need
c. Step three: meet need in a timely manner
d. Step four: case and class advocacy
2. The first standard in overarching cultural principles is to:
a. Adhere to professional ethics and values
b. To recognize the relativity, rather than the universality of one"s own cultural
framework e.g. world views
c. To acquire cross-cultural knowledge and skills through one"s professional
education.
d. To demonstrate ethical leadership in the promotion of tolerance
3. All of the following are TRUE about Standard 6: Empowerment, EXCEPT:
a. Practitioners must be knowledgeable about how each method constructs power
b. Practitioners must be knowledgeable about how each theory constructs power
c. Practitioners must be knowledgeable about the power balance in the worker-
client relationship
d. Practitioners must never use power when engaged in social work practice; only
clients may.
4. All of the following ways of knowing are considered valid aspects of competent practice
EXCEPT:
a. Empirical evidence; Science
b. Opinion and unexamined ideology
c. Philosophical proof; moral reasoning
5. All of the following are TRUE about generalist practice EXCEPT:
a. It is based on open assessment
b. It examines systems of different sizes
c. It is multi-method
d. It is multi-theory
e. Its use is not appropriate in direct practice
6. According to the text, all of the following are criteria for competent practice EXCEPT:
a. Open assessment of all system sizes
b. Selective use of one or more methods and theories in the same case
c. Screening of methods, theories, and evidence for their cultural relevance
d. Use of moral reasoning, values analysis and theories of social justice
e. All of the above
7. All of the following are criteria of evidence-based practice EXCEPT:
a. It is relevant only in indirect practice.
b. It requires the ability to access or conduct systematic reviews
c. It requires appraisal of the levels of evidence according to the rigor of the
research designs
d. It relies on statistical evidence to determine what works and which intervention
is better than another.
8. Which one of the following steps of the decision tree deals with the legal context of social
work practice?
a. Step one: fiduciary model-assure client safety
b. Step two: meet urgent need
c. Step three: meet need in a timely manner
d. Step four: case and class advocacy
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Chapter 2: Fiduciary Responsibilities
1. Which one of the following steps of the decision tree deals with the legal context of social
work practice?
a. Step one: fiduciary model-assure client safety
b. Step two: meet urgent need
c. Step three: meet need in a timely manner
d. Step four: case and class advocacy
2. In the United States the client"s right to sue if a professional discloses information learned
in therapy without the client"s consent was established by which one of the following court
cases?
a. MacDonald v. Clinger
b. Schloendorff v. Society of New York Hospital
c. Wigmore v. Barbre
d. Agnes v. Jones
3. Informed consent refers to:
a. Client"s written consent to release information to another person or agency
b. Clients" right to grant permission to treat
c. Clients right to refuse treatment
d. Client"s right to be apprised of the effectiveness of proposed treatment options
e. All of the above
4. All of the following are TRUE about standards of care and customary practices EXCEPT:
a. The practitioner has a duty to practice within professional standards
b. The standards of care are used in suits alleging malpractice
c. Standards include current trends, experimental treatments, and practice
innovations
d. Standards include established treatment guidelines, manuals, and empirically
supported treatments.
5. All of the following are TRUE about an affidavit EXCEPT:
a. It is a legal document
b. It is expert opinion
c. It is a sworn written statement
d. It is information that would have been presented in testimony.
6. All of the following statements are TRUE about exceptions to the rule of confidentiality
EXCEPT:
a. A court order requires the release of information
b. The information is essential to safeguard the health of others (duty to protect;
warn)
c. The information is probative of guilt or innocence in a criminal matter.
d. There are never exceptions to the rule of confidentiality
7. Which of the following criteria are used by Wigmore to establish privileged communication?
a. The communication originates in a confidence that it will not be disclosed
b. Confidentiality is essential to the maintenance of the relationship
c. The injury to the relationship must be greater than the benefit gained for the
correct disposal of litigation
d. All of the above are criteria
8. Assent to treatment refers to:
a. a minor"s capacity to consent to treatment under emancipated minor standards
or statutes
b. a minor"s capacity to consent to treatment under the mature minor rule
c. an alternative to legal consent because of the client"s status as a minor
d. a parent"s consent to treatment on behalf of the minor.
9. All of the following are categories of child abuse EXCEPT
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a. Physical Injury
b. Exposure to parental domestic abuse
c. Refusal to secure life-saving medical treatment for a child because of religious
beliefs
d. Incest
e. Exposure to parental drug and alcohol abuse
10. All of the following are categories of child neglect EXCEPT?
a. Use of unlicensed daycare.
b. Health neglect: failure to get child immunized, seek proper medical attention
c. or comply with medical directives.
d. Failure to provide proper nutrition, housing, clothing
e. Failure to provide supervision (children left unattended)
11. Elder abuse must be reported in all of the following instances EXCEPT:
a. When an elder tells a professional health care worker or social worker that
abuse has occurred
b. When an elder has fallen and suffered an injury.
c. When you have witnessed an incident of abuse
d. When there is evidence that leads you to suspect that abuse has occurred.
12. Which of the following cases established the principle of duty to warn?
a. MacDonald v. Clinger
b. Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California
c. Schloendorff v. Society of New York Hospital
d. Agnes v. Smith.

Chapter 3: Context of Practice

1. _____All of the following are TRUE statements about the Keynesian Welfare Model
EXCEPT:
a. Profitable growth and full employment are possible in a closed national
Economy
b. Government seeks to reduce social expenditures and curtail social programs
c. Capitalism is the principal method of distributing social and economic resources
d. The model seeks to rectify market failures but not eradicate the market
System
2. ____The Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act (1996) reflects
which one of the following models of social policy?
a. The Keynesian Welfare National State KWNS
b. The Schumpterian Model
c. The Chambers analytical framework
d. The Postmodern approach to welfare
3. ____The desired end goals of social policies can be found in:
a. An agency"s operational manual
b. An agency"s organizational structure
c. An agency"s mission statement
d. An agency"s catchment area
4. _____The scope and prevalence of social problems (population needs) are determined by:
a. Values- theories of social justice
b. Science-empirical research
c. Normative prescriptions
d. Philosophical proof
5. ____ Indirect practice consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Face-to-face delivery of concrete services
b. Social policy analysis, development, and advocacy
c. Administration and supervision of agency programs
d. Social activism
e. Community organizing
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6. _____All of the following are requirements for social work licensing, EXCEPT
a. BSW or MSW degree from an accredited school of social work
b. Passage of a licensing exam
c. A PHD or DSW degree from an accredited school of social work
d. On-the-job supervision by an licensed clinical social worker for a specified
period of time.
7. ____Social workers practice under all of the following auspices EXCEPT
a. Public
b. Not-for-profit
c. For-profit
d. Media
8. ____An agency"s catchement area refers to:
a. a geographical area served by an agency
b. a client"s route to service
c. a policy-based program of services
d. a political district

Chapter 4: Communication Skills Needed for Clinical Practice

1. is the most frequently used skill in social work

a. Needs assessment
b. The interview
c. Goal setting
d. The determination of eligibility
2. All of the following are TRUE about the social work interview EXCEPT:
a. It is purposeful
b. It has a formally determined time, meeting place and duration
c. The worker"s actions are planned, deliberate, and consciously selected to
further the interview
d. It is similar to a personal conversation with a friend
3. Oral communication formats in clinical social work practice consist of:
a. An agency"s operational manual
b. An agency"s organizational structure
c. An agency"s mission statement
d. An agency"s catchment area
4. The scope and prevalence of social problems (population needs) are determined by:
a. Case conferences
b. Team meetings
c. Worker-client sessions
d. Student-instructor supervisory sessions
e. All of the above
5. All of the following are TRUE about words EXCEPT
a. Words reflect a storehouse of information on how the world is organized
b. Words have the same meaning for everyone-Webster"s Dictionary
c. Words impose an order on perception
d. Words suggest categories and the values of such categories
6. All of the following are TRUE about Ethnographic interviewing EXCEPT:
a. It is guided by theory-based inquiries
b. It relies on the client as a cultural guide
c. The practitioner acquires a mental lexicon taught by the client
d. The focus is on cover terms used by the client that are unfamiliar to the
worker
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7. Descriptive knowledge specific to different racial, cultural, and ethnic groups is referred to
as:
a. Ethno-psychotherapy
b. Ethnic sensitive practice
c. Sensitivity training
d. Matching
8. The following are guidelines for using a translator, EXCEPT
a. Use a family member if at all possible
b. Keep the interview short
c. Look at the client, not the translator
d. Write a summary of the meeting as soon as it is finished
9. "Tell me about" is an example of:
a. An open-ended question
b. A closed-ended question
c. An ethnographic interviewing technique
d. Theory-guided inquiry
10. Leaning forward, saying ummm, nodding, are examples of which one of the following
interviewing techniques?
a. Paraphrasing
b. Prompting
c. Furthering
d. Checking
11. Theory-based techniques that assume that communication (verbal and non- verbal) is
motivated by both conscious and unconscious dynamics come from which one of the
following theory-based lines of inquiry?
a. Cognitive-behavioral
b. Task-focused/Structure-functional
c. Behavioral
d. Strengths-based
12. Which one of the following theories guides the determination of eligibility for concrete
services?
a. Cognitive-behavioral
b. Task"focused/Structure-functional
c. Behavioral
d. Strengths-based
13. Which of the following client populations need modification of interviewing techniques:
a. Infants, children, and adolescents (developmental)
b. Those whose expressive language is compromised by physical illness i.e.
dementia, Alzheimers disease
c. Those whose communication is compromised by developmental disorders i.e.
autism, retardation
d. Those whose communication is compromised by psychosis such as
Schizophrenia, the presence of hallucinations and delusions
e. All of the above
14. Which of the following interviewing techniques are appropriate for communicating with less
verbal client populations?
a. Observation
b. Play therapy
c. Activities
d. Ethnographic techniques
e. All of the above
15. "Can you tell me why this band is so popular among your age group?" is an example of:
a. Psychodynamic inquiry
b. A task-focused inquiry
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c. An ethnographic inquiry
d. A strengths-based inquiry

Chapter 5: Communication Skills for Policy, Advocacy, Management and Community

practice
1. The type of communication that conveys the legal parameters within which macro
practitioners work is called:
a. Fiduciary communication
b. Task communication
c. Public relations communication
d. Persuasive speech communication
2. In policy practice, agency-specific guidelines for implementing a policy- based program
are contained in:
a. Public Law
b. Authorizing legislation
c. Agency operational manual
d. Court rulings
3. Fiduciary misconduct in community practiceconsists of:
a. An agency"s operational manual
b. An agency"s organizational structure
c. An agency"s mission statement
d. An agency"s catchment area
4. The scope and prevalence of social problems (population needs) are determined by:
a. Falsification of data
b. Failure to comply with National, state, regional or local planning regulations and
procedures
c. Failure to establish and abide by a fair and democratic planning process
d. The use of bribery and undue power to undermine a fair process
e. All of the above
5. In management practice, fiduciary responsibilities are contained in
a. mission statements
b. job descriptions
c. employee contracts
d. safety protocols and grievance procedures
e. All of the above
6. To fulfill their fiduciary responsibilities agencies must:
a. Comply with social work licensing standards
b. Comply with regulatory standards of all organizations having oversight
authority
c. Be fiscally accountable to all funding sources
d. Convene annual meetings with the client populations they serve (the
stakeholders).
7. Which of the following informs the desired end-goal of a proposed policy initiative
a. Empirical evidence of need
b. Psychodynamic theory
c. Theories of social justice
d. Solution-focused techniques
8. All of the following theories inform advocacy practice EXCEPT:
a. Social exchange theory
b. Cognitive-behavioral theory
c. Conflict theory
d. Theories of social justice
e. Empowerment theory
9. Policy advocacy is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
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a. Incremental change
b. Revolutionary and radical change
c. Conflict negotiation
d. Consensus building
10. Social goals advocacy is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Consciousness raising
b. The mobilization of small and large groups
c. Civil disobedience
d. Promotion of community cohesion and tolerance

Chapter 6: Use of Self in Clinical Practice

1. Clinical social workers have been variously described as:
a. Psychotherapists/counselors
b. Case managers
c. Direct practitioners
d. Traitors to the profession
e. All of the above
2. Fiduciary misconduct in community practiceconsists of:
a. Empirically supported treatment
b. Empathy
c. Warmth
d. Acceptance
e. Genuine interest in the client
3. A working relationship has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
a. Observable ability of the worker and the client to work together
b. A committed belief in the helping relationship
c. A psychodynamic theory-base
d. A contract to work together realistically and collaboratively
4. All of the following are characteristics of efficacystudies EXCEPT
a. Therapist actions are controlled by a protocol or treatment manual
b. Therapist flexibility is encouraged
c. The treatment is applied to a homogeneous client population
d. The research design relies on random selection and random assignment to a
treatment or control condition.

Chapter 7: Use of Self in Macro Practice: Leadership

1. All of the following are TRUE about macro practice EXCEPT:
a. It targets societal dysfunction directly
b. It targets social forces that marginalize subpopulations
c. Its beneficiary system consists of populations and subpopulations
d. It delivers face-to-face concrete services to individuals and families
2. All of the following are methods of intervention in macro practice EXCEPT:
a. Empirically supported treatment
b. Empathy
c. Warmth
d. Acceptance
e. Genuine interest in the client
3. A working relationship has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
a. Policy
b. Advocacy
c. Management
d. Community
e. Non-clinical groups All of the above
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4. The declarative knowledge needed for macropractice consists of all of thefollowing
EXCEPT:
a. Theories of causality associated with functional or dysfunctional social forces
b. Theories of causality associated with functional or dysfunctional social
structures
c. Theories of causality borrowed from sociology, political science and economics
d. Theories of personality development and life cycle family development
5. All of the following are types of bad leadership EXCEPT
a. Ineffective leadership
b. Unethical leadership
c. Effectively unethical leadership
d. Unethical followers
e. All of the above
6. Which one of the following professional degrees represents the degree needed to exercise
leadership in policy, advocacy, management and community practice?
a. Ineffective leadership
b. Unethical leadership
c. Effectively unethical leadership
d. Unethical followers
e. All of the above
7. All of the following elements are aspects of Weber"s typology of bureaucracy EXCEPT:
a. Bureaucracies produce individuals who exercise conscientious autonomy
b. Bureaucracies are designed as a top-down hierarchy
c. Bureaucracies rely on unexamined compliance with authority
d. Bureaucracies are designed to be efficient
8. The _____________experiment showed that individuals will quickly resort to the use of
coercive tactics when in a closed culture.
a. The Milgram experiment
b. The Zimbardo experiement
c. The Hawthrone experiment
d. The Rawl"s experiment
9. Which one of the following types of leadership depicts an emotional transaction between
leader and led?
a. Legitimate
b. Authoritarian
c. Inspirational
d. Rational
10. Followers often suspend critical thinking and moral judgment under all of the following
conditions EXCEPT
a. Emotional arousal
b. The obligation to comply with authority
c. Personal gain
d. Transformative leadership
11. The following is a definition of what type of leadership? "That occurrence where one or
more persons engage with others in such a way that leaders and followers raise one
another to higher levels of motivation and morality"
a. Legitimate
b. Coercive
c. Transformative
d. Charismatic
12. According to Kellerman, all of the following account for bad leadership EXCEPT:
a. Lack of skill training in leadership
b. Human nature- who we are
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c. Motivation- what we want
d. Bad followers
13. When attributions of flawed personality are made, bad leadership is linked to all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. Feelings of inferiority
b. Feelings of anxiety
c. Feelings of wanting to be liked
d. Feelings of ambition
14. According to Kellerman, followers follow bad leaders because of all of the following EXCEPT
a. Self-preservation or safety
b. Simplicity
c. Misguided loyalty
d. Certainty
15. Dysfunctional organizational cultures have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
a. Poor performance record
b. Polarized factions
c. Open and transparent discourse
d. Coercive tactics

Chapter 8: Clinical Crisis Intervention

1. All of the following elements define a crisis EXCEPT:
a. A sudden, shocking, intense, often catastrophic event
b. An event perceived as a crisis by those involved in it
c. An event of temporary duration
d. An event that overwhelms coping capacities and exceeds resources
e. All of the above
2. According to Regehr and Bober, how many people have died in the United States as a
result of natural disasters between 1980 and 2002?
a. 100,000
b. 300.000
c. 600,000
d. 1,000,000
3. There are small-scale events that can perpetuate a "crisis". All of the following are such
events EXCEPT:
a. tornado or flood
b. violent events such as child abuse, domestic abuse, crime
c. psychopathology that triggers a crisis i.e. suicide attempt, drug overdose
d. car accident, life-threatening illness
4. All of the following theories explain individual reactions to a crisis event EXCEPT:
a. Stress theory
b. Biology
c. Behavior modification
d. Cognitive-appraisal
e. Psychodynamic-resiliency and vulnerability
5. Individuals will appraise an event as a crisis if it has all of the following characteristics
EXCEPT:
a. the event has mass casualties
b. the event threatens one"s identity and integrity
c. the event threatens one"s assumptive world
d. all of the above
6. All of the following are elements of basic crisis intervention EXCEPT:
a. It is a brief model of talk therapy
b. It is action oriented and directive
c. Its purpose is to prevent or reduce psychological harm to those exposed to a
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crisis
d. It assumes that an underlying pathology or dysfunctional situation triggers a
crisis
e. All of the above
7. Basic crisis intervention consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Intervention occurs off-site
b. Basic needs for food, shelter, and safety are met
c. Individuals are assessed for risk- danger to self or others
d. Individuals are assessed for transient symptoms of crisis reaction
8. Advanced crisis intervention includes of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. The provision of traditional and crisis-related resources
b. Counseling related to coping in the crisis aftermath
c. Counseling is off-site and may be brief (9-12 sessions)
d. Debriefing is offered to inoculate against a future crisis.
9. Applied crisis intervention differs from the other crisis models in that it:
a. Offers counseling
b. Offers concrete services
c. Recognizes a pre-existing condition or circumstance that underlies a flare-up
that creates a crisis or emergency situation
d. Engages in triage, assessing risk of danger to self and others.
10. In the crisis aftermath individuals may suffer:
a. Loss of resources
b. Bereavement
c. Stress in the recovery phase
d. All of the above
11. The following definition is true of which model of crisis intervention? "Destabilization or
flare-ups create an acute crisis that requires an immediate response followed by ongoing
interventions to maintain or sustain recovery and prevent the recurrence of another crisis".
a. Pre-crisis; prevention
b. Basic crisis intervention
c. Advanced crisis intervention
d. Applied crisis intervention
12. When a crisis results in bereavement, all of the following approaches to bereavement
should be considered EXCEPT:
a. Bereavement is a normal process that will run its course
b. Complicated grieving requires intervention
c. Bereavement counseling, when needed, is best conducted one on-one.
d. Crisis related bereavement should always be considered traumatic grief
13. The client population for crisis intervention consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Ordinary people who experience extraordinary events
b. Individuals who are sent into harms way (military, first responders)
c. Individuals with a pre-existing volatile condition or living circumstance
d. Those who bear witness to the trauma of others
e. Mental health professionals who serve high-risk clients or who respond to
critical incidents. All of the above

Chapter 9: Crisis Management

1. All of the following are TRUE about disasters EXCEPT
a. A disaster may be domestic or international
b. A disaster may be caused by nature or have human origins
c. A disaster always receives widespread media coverage.
d. A disaster may have a known and gradual onset
2. Disasters frequently result in all of the following EXCEPT
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a. Damage to the ecological environment
b. Displacement of populations
c. Destruction of a population"s homeland
d. Sustained public attention during the recovery phase
3. Social workers skilled in crisis management work:
a. tornado or flood
b. violent events such as child abuse, domestic abuse, crime
c. psychopathology that triggers a crisis i.e. suicide attempt, drug overdose
d. car accident, life-threatening illness
e. With all of the above
4. According to the United Nations between 1992 and 2000 there were approximately ____
disasters per year throughout the world
a. 100
b. 300
c. 500
d. 800
5. According to Reza et al, the number of people who have lost their lives in the 25 largest
violent events of the 20th century number:
a. Almost 1 million
b. Almost 10 million
c. Almost 100 million
d. Almost 200 million
6. Responsibility for securing the scene, preserving life and treating the wounded is the
responsibility of:
a. First responders
b. Mental health professionals
c. Social workers who specialize in crisis management
d. All citizens
7. There are nine tasks in the of disaster management. All of the following are tasks of this
model EXCEPT:
a. Assess secondary social problems such as health epidemics, displaced persons
b. Counsel those who have suffered trauma and bereavement
c. Control rumors, provide accurate information
d. Provide security; prevent looting, protect person and property
8. Which one of the following theories of disaster management informs organizational
readiness and response in a disaster?
a. Hobfoll"s theory of Conservation of Resources
b. The problem-solving"task model
c. Structure-functional theory
d. Theory of traumatogenic forces
9. The decision to offer humanitarian aid is determined by:
a. Theories of social justice
b. Deontological reasoning
c. Teleological reasoning
d. Socio-political factors
e. All of the above.
10. Conditions for the delivery of concrete goods and services at a disaster site include all of
the following EXCEPT:
a. Extreme climates; hot cold, wet, etc.
b. Crowded and cramped conditions for living and working
c. Lack of privacy, threat to safety
d. A clear demarcation of being on or off duty.
11. The play all of the following roles in covering a disaster EXCEPT:
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a. Shapes public sympathy by the amount and type of coverage
b. Problem-solves obstacles encountered in the delivery of relief
c. Identifies heroes
d. Attempts to assign blame related to the cause of the disaster or for failures in
response

Chapter 10: Case Management

1. Step three of the decision tree is concerned with:
a. Fiduciary responsibilities
b. Crisis Intervention
c. Case management to meet urgent need in a timely manner
d. Case and class advocacy
2. All of the following are tasks of case management EXCEPT:
a. Locate and broker services/resources
b. Monitor and expedite service delivery
c. Determine eligibility for services
d. Coordinate fragmented services from multiple disciplines
e. All of the above
3. Highly vulnerable client populations have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
a. A single problem of a temporary and acute nature.
b. Multiple needs requiring interventions from different disciplines
c. Multiple needs of a long-standing and ongoing nature
d. Needs and impairments that are outside the client"s volition for cause or
solution
e. All of the above
4. The ability of a highly vulnerable client to remain in the community depends on all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. Assessment of the client"s strengths
b. The provision of environmental accommodations
c. Skills training and empowerment practices
d. Correction of the primary condition
5. The desired outcomes of case management consist of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Cure of a primary condition
b. Environmental accommodations
c. Skill training and acquisition
d. Empowerment
6. All of the following are TRUE about system-driven case management EXCEPT:
a. The agency that serves highly vulnerable clients has a stake in maintaining its
own integrity.
b. Clients are considered stakeholders in the agency
c. Pre-determined programs require the establishment of client eligibility
d. Clients must conform to program procedures and routines
7. Consumer-driven case management is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Reliance on psychodynamic theory to enact the model
b. Reliance on critical theory and post-modern principles
c. Adherence to empowerment theory
d. The formation of a power alliance between worker and client.
8. All of the following are part of the declarative knowledge base of case managers, EXCEPT
a. Knowledge of resource availability
b. Knowledge of a client"s primary condition or situation
c. Knowledge of a client"s formal and informal networks
d. Knowledge of a clients strengths
e. All of the above
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9. As part of agency orientation, student interns should be educated in safety protocols. This
includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Theories of social justice
b. Knowledge of the legal statutes governing practice
c. Knowledge of how to avoid or deflect conflict
d. Knowledge of physiological or motoric cues that signal loss of control
10. Conditions for the delivery of concrete goods and services at a disaster site include all of
the following EXCEPT:
a. Extreme climates; hot cold, wet, etc.
b. Crowded and cramped conditions for living and working
c. Lack of privacy, threat to safety
d. A clear demarcation of being on or off duty.
11. The strengths perspective in case management is characterized by all of the following
EXCEPT
a. It focuses on resiliency over vulnerability
b. Saleebey has created a diagnostic strength"s manual as an alternative the DSM
IV.
c. Goals not deficits drive treatment
d. Assessment is bypassed in favor of a goal-directed treatment plan.
12. The task or role performance model of case management is based on all of the following
premises EXCEPT:
a. It is consistent with structure-function theory applied at the organizational
level
b. Worker"s are expected to use their authority to provide, deny, or withdraw
services based on a client"s compliance with assigned tasks
c. Worker"s are expected to form a power alliance with the client
d. Case managers have both a fiduciary and a humanitarian obligation to Clients

Chapter 11: Advocacy

1. Advocates use all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Fiduciary responsibilities
b. Crisis Intervention
c. Case management to meet urgent need in a timely manner
d. Case and class advocacy
e. All of the above
2. Broker case advocacy consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Knowledge of the language and power structures of societal institutions
b. Networking and negotiating skills
c. A client who lacks needed services or who has had services denied or
withdrawn
d. A marginalized population in need of services
3. All of the following indicate a need for adversarial advocacy, EXCEPT
a. When discriminatory practices occur
b. When services to which the client is entitled are not provided
c. When services to which the client is entitled are provided in a dehumanizing,
confrontational, or coercive manner
d. When gaps in services provide undue hardships
e. All of the above
4. All of the following are characteristics of effective advocates EXCEPT:
a. The social problems are unbounded
b. There is clarity as to cause and solution
c. The timeframe for resolution is uncertain
d. There is lack of clarity as to cause or solution
5. The declarative knowledge needed for advocacy policy practice consists of:
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a. Knowledge of social welfare policies and programs; past and current
b. Knowledge of political and organizational processes
c. Knowledge of analytical frameworks for purposes of evaluation
d. Knowledge of values frameworks for assessing desired end-goals
e. Knowledge of all of the above
6. Quantitative data documenting the prevalence and incidence of social problems come from
which discipline?
a. Biology
b. Psychology
c. Sociology
d. Political science
7. All of the following are aspects of the Capitalist-Puritan norm that influences American
social policy, EXCEPT:
a. It assigns low priority to the protection of wealth and property
b. It links work and benefits to a norm of reciprocity
c. It holds individuals responsible for their own successes and failures
d. It holds that a free market economy, though flawed, is the best mechanism for
economic growth
8. All of the following are aspects of the Humanitarian/Positivist/Utopian Norm that influences
American social policy, EXCEPT
a. It holds that no structural barriers limit individual opportunities
b. It holds that the primary purpose of society is to meet the material and
emotional needs of its citizens
c. It holds that scientific knowing can understand and correct flawed or
dysfunctional social dynamics
d. It holds that society is ultimately perfectible and therefore capable of change
9. As a grand abstraction, the construct of social justice refers to all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Egalitarianism
b. An ideal system of government
c. An ideal system of economic production and distribution
d. Freedom from discrimination and oppression
10. Social welfare policies and programs reflect all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Public opinion
b. Political referendum
c. Power alliances
d. Competing values held by different interest groups
e. A and C only
11. When policies compete with each other in the public arena, __________usually determines
which policy will be enacted.
a. Scientific evidence
b. Moral reasoning
c. A Theory of social justice
d. Power alignments
12. Consciousness raising consists of all the following elements EXCEPT:
a. Validation of shared experiential histories and views
b. Knowledge of group dynamics
c. Knowledge of the process of dialog, reflection and action
d. Knowledge of regulatory statutes and processes
13. Dialectic Dialog (consciousness raising):
a. Dialectic dialog challenges the dominant image of social reality
b. Dialectic dialog examines ideas, assumptions, and beliefs that are taken for
granted
c. Dialectic dialog explores individual and collective motives, needs, and interests
d. Dialectic dialog identifies values and ideologies that guide dominant and
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dominated group relations.
e. Dialectic dialog does all of the above
14. Which of the following is TRUE about dialectic dialog EXCEPT
a. It challenges the dominant image of social reality
b. It examines the ideas, assumptions, and beliefs that are taken for granted
c. It examines individual and collective motives, interests, and needs
d. It identifies values and ideologies that guide dominant and dominated group
relationships.
e. It does all of the above
15. Reflection in the dialectic process consists of all the following elements, EXCEPT
a. Members must locate themselves as members of oppressed and oppressor
group
b. Members must examine how they contribute to and maintain an oppressive
status quo
c. Members must consider becoming activists by joining a change agent system
d. Members from population groups that have a privileged status are not targets
of consciousness raising
16. Political social work consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. It is part of class advocacy practice
b. It pursues important short-term goals e.g. step by step legislative reform
c. Social worker"s lobby, hold office, work in State and National government
d. Social worker"s write, issues or respond to legislative alerts
e. It seeks to change the root causes that produce oppression
17. Social Institutions do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Accept diverse and flexible definitions of their structure and function
b. Organize work and production
c. Oversee the exchange and distribution of resources
d. Regulate civil and political rights and responsibilities
e. Set norms for reproduction, socialization and social control

Chapters 12 & 13: Work with Individuals

1. Individual therapy meets the standard of best practices when it includes all of the following
EXCEPT
a. Theory choice
b. Adherence and familiarity with only one theory
c. Determination of the cultural relevance of the selected theory
d. Appraisal of the empirical evidence for and against the selected theory for the
case at hand.
2. The interview accomplishes all of the following major social work tasks, EXCEPT:
a. The establishment of rapport
b. The gathering of information necessary for assessment
c. The enactment of a therapeutic process
d. The acquisition of declarative knowledge
3. A generic planned change process of social work practice consists of:
a. Rapport (establishment of a working relationship)
b. Assessment
c. Contracting
d. Goal Setting
e. All of the above
4. Historically direct social work practice has been conceptualized in all of the following ways
EXCEPT:
a. Casework
b. Case Management
c. Individual psychotherapy
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d. Generalist practice
e. Policy practice
5. Therapy has been informed by all of the following theories EXCEPT
a. Pharmacological
b. Psychodynamic
c. Cognitive-Behavioral
d. Narrative
e. All of the above
6. Indirect practice has been conceptualized overtime in all of the following ways EXCEPT:
a. As private practice
b. As administrative or management practice
c. As planning and organizational practice
d. As community organizing and social action practice
e. As policy practice
7. According to Biesteck, all of the following are core values in direct social work practice,
EXCEPT:
a. Acceptance
b. Non-judgmental attitude
c. Confidentiality
d. Client self-determination
e. All of the above
8. Declarative knowledge consist of all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Intuitive and creative knowing in the therapeutic moment
b. A cognitive map of learned (taught) concepts
c. Causal knowledge of individual resilience
d. Causal knowledge of individual vulnerability
9. All of the following are aspects of tacit knowingEXCEPT:
a. Use of highly disciplined and automatic procedural knowing
b. Self-regulated ability to reflect and adjust performance in the therapeutic
moment
c. Ability to reflect on action
d. Ability to reflect in action
10. Managing transference and counter-transference is critical in which one of the following
theory-based models of therapy?
a. Behavior modification
b. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
c. Psychodynamic models of therapy
d. Solution-focused models of therapy
11. Emphasis on the construction of reality is emphasized in which one of the following
theory-based models of therapy?
a. Behavior-Modification
b. Strengths-based model
c. Psychodynamic models
d. Power alignments
12. All of the following are indicators that the helping relationship or therapeutic process
is not going well EXCEPT:
a. The client frequently misses, cancels, or is tardy to appointments
b. The client asks questions and seeks information about which the worker is not
knowledgeable
c. The client rambles on at length; focuses on irrelevant matters or details
d. The client minimizes the problem or claims miraculous improvement Matching

Chapter 14: Family Therapy

1. In family therapy, the therapist must attend to all of the following EXCEPT:
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a. Each member of the family as an isolated individual
b. Each member of the family in interaction with each other family member
c. Subgroups within the family in interaction with each other
d. The family as a whole
2. A closed system includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Impermeable boundaries
b. Negative entropy
c. No exchange of energy/feedback
d. A structure devoid of subsystems
3. Which of the following terms is used to identify the system which is the target of
attention?
a. The focal system
b. The supra system
c. The subsystem
d. The individual system
4. All of the following are TRUE about Bowen"s approach to family therapy EXCEPT:
a. The therapeutic focus is on the transmission of emotional patterns of relating
from one generation to the next.
b. All members of the family are seen in the therapeutic session
c. It holds that relationship patterns in one"s family of origin are predictive of
relationship patterns in one"s family of formation
d. Differentiation is a key concept in this model
5. All of the following are therapeutic techniques in Bowen"s approach to family therapy
EXCEPT:
a. Drawing a genogram
b. Coaching
c. Boundary adjustment
d. Use of directives
6. All of the following are therapeutic techniques in Structural-Strategic Family therapy
EXCEPT:
a. Joining
b. Probes
c. Directives
d. Identification of family secrets
7. All of the following represent flawed patterns of interaction within a family EXCEPT:
a. Lack of or rigid family routines
b. Too much or too little flow of communication across boundaries.
c. Failure to engage in tasks necessary for family functioning
d. Division of labor among family members

Chapter 15: Use of Groups in Clinical Practice

1. The helping relationship in the delivery of welfare services to families requires all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. Execution of fiduciary responsibilities
b. The establishment of a working relationship; rapport
c. Selection of a theory "task (structure-functional), empowerment and/or post
modern principles to guide the relationship
d. The formation of a therapeutic alliance; relationship intensity
2. As a societal institution, the family is responsible for meeting the instrumental and
expressive needs of its members. This consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Procreation
b. Protection
c. Socialization
d. Education
e. All of the above
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3. Family welfare practice is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. It is consistent with assumptions that define family therapy
b. It is consistent with social conservatism and social control
c. It is consistent with the worker"s fiduciary obligation to meet the needs of the
family for basic goods; food shelter,
d. It is consistent with the fiduciary obligation to ensure the safety of family
members from abuse or neglect
4. All of the following are TRUE about Bowen"s approach to family therapy EXCEPT:
a. The therapeutic focus is on the transmission of emotional patterns of relating
from one generation to the next.
b. All members of the family are seen in the therapeutic session
c. It holds that relationship patterns in one"s family of origin are predictive of
relationship patterns in one"s family of formation
d. Differentiation is a key concept in this model
5. According to , which of the following is characteristic of families?
a. Implicit and explicit norms govern family interactions
b. Emotional transmission occurs from one generation to another
c. Vertical and horizontal stressors affect the family over its life cycle
d. Use of directives
6. According to the CWLA fact sheet of 2004 what percentage of poor children had a working
parent?
a. Approximately 5 %
b. Approximately 10%
c. Approximately 20%
d. Approximately 40%
7. All of the following statistics reflect Family violence EXCEPT
a. 1400 women per/day are victims of domestic violence
b. Approximately 900,000 children per/year are neglected in the United States.
c. There were approximately 1500 child fatalities reported in FY2003 in the United
States.
d. All of the above
8. Child neglect consists of :
a. Failure to provide for the child"s basic physical needs; food, shelter clothing
b. Failure to provide proper medical care for the child, including immunizations
c. Failure to assure school attendance
d. Failure to provide appropriate supervision
e. All of the above
9. Child sexual abuse consists of:
a. Sexual fondling by a family member or relative
b. Incest
c. Pornography
d. Prostitution or human sexual trafficking
e. All of the above
10. Which of the following structures are involved in the delivery of child welfare services?
a. The children"s bureau
b. Title IVB of the Social Security Act
c. State child welfare departments
d. All of the above
11. According to the literature, kinship foster care:
a. Meets the principles of permanency planning and lest restrictive environment.
b. Allows contact with the child"s biological parent(s)
c. Results in fewer placement moves
d. Results in lower rates of re-entry
e. Results in all of the above
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12. What percentage of reunified children return to care after two years?
a. 1%
b. 15%
c. 25%
d. 50%
13. Children are at-risk of outplacement due to all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Abuse
b. Neglect
c. Delinquency
d. Need for in-patient psychiatric care
e. An unsubstantiated report of child abuse or neglect

Chapter 16: Use of Groups in Clinical Practice

1. All of the following are characteristics of formed groups EXCEPT:
a. They have an identified purpose
b. They have a professionally trained leader
c. They come together spontaneously
d. They usually have some auspice e.g. agency, organization
2. Who among the following established group work as a method within the profession of
social work?
a. Mary Richmond
b. Charlotte Towle
c. Grace Coyle
d. Geisala Knopka
3. According to the text, all of the following are types of therapeutic groups EXCEPT
a. Sociodrama groups
b. Children"s play groups
c. Book club groups
d. Basketball groups
4. According to the text, all of the following are types of analytic groups EXCEPT:
a. Ego supportive groups
b. Life skills groups
c. Psycho-drama groups
d. Psychotherapy groups
5. All of the following are anti-group sentiments EXCEPT:
a. The group is unstructured
b. The group is not in control of its own process
c. The group shares common properties with all other groups
d. The group is an incomplete process
6. All of the following are common group properties EXCEPT:
a. All groups have a purpose
b. All groups go through stages of development
c. All groups have an analytic base
d. All groups have criteria for their composition
7. Group workers must attend to all of the following group structures, EXCEPT:
a. The group as whole
b. The roles individual members play in the group
c. Subgroups and/or cliques within the group
d. All of the above
8. According to Shulman, the person who blocks topics from group discussion is referred to
as:
a. The scapegoat
b. The monopolizer
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c. The gatekeeper
d. The deviant
9. Which one of the following captures implicit and explicit group communication and
interaction patterns?
a. A genogram
b. A cognitive map
c. An ecomap
d. A sociogram
10. When themes are the focus of attention in analytic groups, the following term is used to
describe the groups focus
a. Non-problems
b. Near problems
c. Door knob problems
d. All of the above
11. All of the following are indicators of anti-group phenomenon, EXCEPT:
a. Recapitulation of the primary group
b. High drop out rate
c. Excessive member absences
d. Abrupt ending of the group
12. All of the following are therapeutic elements in analytic groups, EXCEPT:
a. 1%
b. 15%
c. 25%
d. 50%
13. Children are at-risk of outplacement due to all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Interpretation/insight
b. Corrective interactions
c. Multiple transferences and counter-transferences
d. All of the above

Chapter 17: Use of Groups in Policy, Advocacy, Management and Community Practice
1. All of the following are necessary for practice with non-clinical groups, EXCEPT:
a. Knowledge of how groups work (cause-effect)
b. Ability to use moral reasoning and ethics to assess the group"s behavior and
desired end-goals
c. Knowledge of curative factors and mutual aid
d. Skills (theory-based) needed to manage group dynamics specific to each area
of non-clinical practice.
2. To promote social justice, macro practitioners use groups to do all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Raise consciousness
b. Challenge discriminatory institutional practices
c. Advocate for reform through legislation
d. Engage in armed conflict
3. Understanding group dynamics is important for management practice for all of the
following reasons EXCEPT:
a. Organizations are themselves group entities
b. Groups facilitate the work of agencies and organizations
c. Dysfunctional organizational cultures reflect inappropriate group dynamics
d. All of the above are reasons for understanding group dynamics in management
practice
4. All of the following are types of groups found in management practice EXCEPT:
a. Consciousness raising groups
b. Boards and cabinets
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c. Deliberative meetings
d. Committees and task groups
5. Which one of the following theories best explains how boards are formed and how they are
used?
a. Power-Conflict theory
b. Social Exchange theory
c. Bureaucracy theory
d. Human relations theory
6. The beginning stage of deliberative meetings requires all of the following EXCEPT:
a. A quorum
b. An agenda
c. Rules to govern interactive behavior (Robert"s Rules of order)
d. A method of validating the groups decision (voting)
e. All of the above
7. All of the following are indicators that a meeting has become a forum for the enactment of
organizational politics, EXCEPT:
a. Decisions on actionable items have been made prior to the meeting
b. Participants have formed power alliances and have scripted each other"s dialog
and participation
c. Well-documented position papers with alternative perspectives are presented
for the group"s consideration.
d. Procedural rules are used to foreclose discussion
8. All of the following are indicators that the deliberative meeting is focused on the common
good, EXCEPT:
a. Moral argument is used to advance a higher moral order
b. Subgroups view the discussion in terms of self-interest and personal gain
c. Opposing views are presented in well-argued position papers
d. Complete and undistorted facts are presented
9. All of the following are procedural tactics designed to interfere with rational discourse in
deliberative meetings EXCEPT:
a. Items are discussed in principle and in detail
b. Items are discussed in principle only- details are left to the administer
c. Procedural rules are used to limit time and prevent substantive discussion of
the issue
d. Procedures are used to defer decisions to other bodies that are composed to
produce a pre-determined outcome
10. Coverdale seeks to meet all of the following goals through its approach EXCEPT:
a. Cooperative team work
b. A pre-determined outcome
c. Maximum use of individual talent within each the task group
d. Ownership and by-in of the product
11. All of the following are TRUE about organizations EXCEPT:
a. Organizational dynamics have little in common with group dynamics
b. Organizations are themselves group entities
c. Organiztions engage in governance and decision making
d. Organizations are composed of smaller subgroups
e. Organizations permit members to influence their policies and procedures to
some extent
12. All of the following are sources of organizational discontent EXCEPT:
a. Competing interest of members of the organization
b. Irreconciable differences over positions and prerogatives
c. Differences over deeply held values and beliefs related to organizational goals
and programs
d. Polarization and the formation of power alliances
e. All of the above are sources of organizational discontent
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13. Groups have relevance to community practice in all the following ways EXCEPT:
a. Interactions between one community and another involve group dynamics;
distribution of goods and services
b. How subgroups within a community interact with each other involve group
dynamics; tolerance vs. divisiveness
c. How a subgroup interacts with the community as a whole is a matter of group
dynamics; public good vs. minority rights
d. All of the above are reasons that groups have relevance to community
practice.
14. All of the following are premises on community held by Etizioni, EXCEPT:
a. Order and chaos is inherent in the quest for community
b. Community values are valid if they are determined locally by consensus
c. Even if locally determined by consensus community values must be subject to a
universal ethical screen
d. The tyrannical potential of community must be weighed against the anarchical
danger of desiccation of community.
15. According to Etizioni all of the following are potentially TRUE about traditional
communities.
a. Traditional value-based communities may be authoritarian
b. Traditional value-based communities are by definition moral.
c. Traditional value-based communities can lead to particularistic evils such as
intolerance, oppression, group egotism, atavism
d. All traditional value-based communities need to be scrutinized against a
universal ethic.
16. Social goals organizing seeks to alter the relations of power through campaigns. All of the
following are organizing campaigns, EXCEPT:
a. Election campaign
b. Educational campaign
c. Fund raising campaign
d. Issue campaign
e. All of the above campaigns are designed to alter the balance of power in
relations
17. Social action goals (direct action organizing) does all of the following EXCEPT
a. Seeks incremental change within the system
b. Seeks radical and structural change
c. Uses small and large groups tactically to provoke conflict and polarization
d. D Tries to disrupt equilibrium and the status quo

Chapter 18:
1. Systematic reviews have all of the following in common EXCEPT:
a. Systematic reviews are focused on a single topic
b. The author(s) of a systematic review must document the criteria used to
include or exclude studies from the review.
c. Only studies related to clinical social work are included in systematic reviews.
d. Systematic reviews differ from narrative reviews in that they attend to the rigor
of the research design
2. All of the following are TRUE statements about the limitations of Empiricism EXCEPT:
a. Empiricism is necessary but not sufficient to build knowledge
b. No array of statistical techniques produces cumulative knowledge
c. Empirical data become knowledge when referred to theory for its
interpretations
d. Empirical significance is equivalent to clinical significance.
3. All of the following are TRUE about science as a way of knowing EXCEPT:
a. It is based on trust in reason (rules of discourse)
b. It builds on previous knowledge and is self-corrective
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c. It adheres to standards that allow for comparative analysis
d. All of the above are true
4. In science, knowledge is stated in such a way as to
a. Make it non-comparable.
b. To prove or disprove it
c. To integrate it
d. To generate and test new knowledge.
5. Which of the following are characteristic of qualitative research designs
a. Power-Conflict theory
b. Social Exchange theory
c. Bureaucracy theory
d. Human relations theory
6. The standard of scientific rigor consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Multiple studies
b. Replicated studies
c. Values-determined outcomes
d. Experimental, control group studies
7. In addition to science (theory and research) all of the following factors influence decision-
making in macro practice.
a. Moral philosophy " helps determine the desired-end goals of social work policies
and programs
b. Public and political opinion- both influence support for or funding for programs
c. Competing economic interests among population subgroups
d. All of the above influence decision-making in macro practice.
8. All of the following statements argue for evidence-based practice EXCEPT:
a. Treatment choice is now a condition of competent practice
b. Evidence-based practice guarantees a successful treatment outcome
c. Clients benefit when they are aware of theoretically sound and empirically
verified diverse treatments
d. Knowledge of what is the matter and possible solutions add to the client"s
ability to make an informed decision.