BLDG TECH PREBOARD

1. Which of the following floors would require the highest quality of levelness and flatness?

a. Gymnasium floors
b. Ice or skating rink
c. Movie/TV studios
d. Warehouse w/ air pallets
e. Carpet floors for office/comm’l bldgs

2. Which of the following does not constitute the types of basement wall structures?

a. Drained b. Externally tanked c. Internally tanked

d. Retaining e. Waterproof

3. A shingle-type roofing tile approximately semi-cylindrical in shape laid in courses with units
having their convex side alternately up and down.

a. Pantile b. Mission tile c. Roman tile

d. Spanish tile e. Tegula

4. A twisting force is called

a. Torsion b. Shear c. Moment

d. Axial e. Centrifugal

5. Lumber specification for S4S means

a. Smooth for surfacing

b. Square on four sides
c. First-class lumber
d. Smooth on four sides
e. None

6. A device for tightening bolts and nuts by means of rapidly repeated torque impulses produced
by electrical or mechanical energy.

a. Auger b. Pneumatic hammer c. Impact wrench

d. Router e. Swager

7. In Figure 1.0, identify “I”

a. Ceiling b. Eave c. Rake

d. Shed e. Soffit
8. A column feature projecting from a corner of a building.

a. Canton b. Engaged column c. Pier

d. Pilaster e. Quoin

PROBLEM FOR ITEMS 9 THRU 13: A building has 26 square columns 7.0m high with cross sectional
dimensions of 0.50m X 0.50m with 8 pieces 20mm main reinforcement. Provision states that lateral tie
spacing shall not exceed any of the ff: 1) 16X the longitudinal bar diameter; 2) 48X the lateral tie bar
diameter; and 3) the least dimension of the column. Provide 4.0cm. protective covering of concrete to
the reinforcement.

9. What is the spacing distance between ties?

a. 24cm. b. 30cm. c. 32cm.

d. 48cm. e. 50cm.

10. How many lateral ties are used in one column?

a. 15pcs. b. 17pcs. c. 23pcs.

d. 27pcs. e. 31pcs.

11. Using L = 2(A+B) + 20d, where length of tie is “L”, sides of tie are “A” and “B”, and diameter of
tie is “d”, how many 10mm bars will be needed using 6.0m commercial length?

a. 120pcs. b. 150pcs. c. 180pcs.

d. 200pcs. e. 300pcs.

12. Using 40.0cm tie wire, how many kilograms of tie wire is needed if 1kg of tie wire = 53 meters?

a. 27kg. b. 35kg. c. 37kg.

d. 43kg. e. 49kg.

13. Given a choice, what would be the most appropriate length of 10mm bar for use as lateral tie?

a. 6.0m b. 7.5m c. 9.0m

d. 12.0m e. Any length

14. The failure of retaining walls where the top portion of the wall slides first.

a. Drifting b. Sliding c. Shearing

d. Overturning e. Undermining

15. What is the simplest unit of a space frame, having only 6 structural members?

a. Dodecahedron b. Hexahedron c. Loosahedron

d. Octahedron e. Tetrahedron
16. A cantilever steel beam requires what kind of connection?

a. AISC Type 1 b. AISC Type 2 c. AISC Type 3

d. AISC Type 4 e. AISC Type 5

17. This kind of admixture is added to a concrete mix to act as “microreinforcing”. Its most common
use is to reduce plastic shrinkage cracking that sometimes occurs during curing of slabs. GFRC,
which is used for cladding panels, also makes use of this admixture.

a. Air-entraining admixtures b. Fly ash c. Fibrous admixtures

d. Extended set-control admixtures e. Superplasticizers

18. Metal decking that serves as permanent formwork for a reinforced concrete deck.

a. Cellular deck b. Composite deck c. Form deck

d. Roof deck e. Steel deck

19. A low or partial story between two main stories of a building, especially one that projects as a
balcony and forms a composition with the story beneath it.

a. Blindstory b. Piano nobile c. Half story

d. Loft e. Mezzanine

PROBLEM FOR ITEMS 20 THRU 23: A house has a rectangular footprint, with 6.5m frontage and 11.0m
depth. Exterior walls 2.75m high enclose the house, ready for plastering. There are five doors – one
90cm main door, two 80cm secondary doors, and two 2.50 wide sliding door – all standard 2.10m in
height. Windows consist of six 1.80X1.0 room windows and two 0.50X0.50 toilet windows. Assume all
dimensions of openings as effective measurements. Using Table 1.0, determine estimated quantities.

20. What is the effective area of the wall to be plastered?

a. 44.45sqm b. 69.20sqm c. 71.50sqm

d. 96.25sqm e. 169.58sqm

21. Using 12mm thick Class C plaster, how many bags of cement is needed?

a. 5 bags b. 7 bags c. 8 bags

d. 11 bags e. 19 bags

22. How much sand in cubic meters?

a. 0.5334 b. 0.8304 c. .858

d. 1.155 e. 2.035
23. If all openings (doors and windows) are placed offset at 10cm from exterior wall, how much
plaster area is added?

a. 2.85sqm b. 3.36sqm c. 4.85sqm

d. 6.21sqm e. 6.61 sqm

24. The visible rings in a cross section of a tree.

a. Heartwood b. Sapwood c. Springwood

d. Summerwood e. Cambium

25. A plate structure composed of thin, deep elements joined rigidly along their boundaries and
forming sharp angles to brace each other against lateral buckling.

a. Continuous plate b. Folded plate c. Isostatic plate

d. Lamella roof e. Space frame

26. Which among the masonry wall types connects to a structural frame such as wood or metal stud
walls?

a. Masonry veneer b. Grouted masonry c. Cavity wall masonry

d. Hollow unit masonry e. Solid masonry

27. A brick laid on its long edge, with its end exposed in the face of the wall.

a. Header b. Stretcher c. Soldier

d. Rowlock e. Sailor

28. If poured concrete passes a cylinder test at 1,400 psi, what is its expected compressive strength?

a. 1,400 psi b. 2,100 psi c. 2,800 psi

c. 3,000 psi e. 3,500 psi

29. The vernacular term for vertical stud is

a. Tabike b. Pabalagbag c. Kostilyahe

d. Sinturon e. Pilarete

30. A joint formed when a concrete surface hardens before the next batch of concrete is placed
against it.

a. Block out b. Cold joint c. Control joint

d. Isolation joint e. Contraction joint
PROBLEM FOR ITEMS 31 THRU 34: A wall partition measures 5.80m wide and 2.80m high with 2” X 3”
vertical studs at 60cm vertical spacing and 40cm horizontal spacing center-to-center distance.

31. How many pieces is needed using only 10ft. length of lumber?

a. 17pcs b. 19pcs c. 24pcs

d. 27pcs e. 29pcs

32. What is the total board-foot quantity?

a. 85 bd.ft. b. 95 bd.ft. c. 120 bd.ft.

d. 130 bd.ft. e. 135 bd.ft.

33. How many 1.20m X 2.40m plywood would be needed for covering both sides?

a. 8pcs b. 9pcs c. 10pcs

d. 11pcs e. 12pcs

34. Using Table 2.0, the estimated board-foot quantity would be

a. 85 bd.ft. b. 95 bd.ft. c. 120 bd.ft.

d. 130 bd.ft. e. 135 bd.ft.

35. The abbreviation "HSS" refers to

a. Heavy steel structure

b. High-strength steel
c. Hollow structural steel
e. Hot-worked structural steel
d. Horizontal shear section

36. In Figure 1.0, identify “D”

a. Cripple b. Hip c. Jack

d. Ridge e. Valley

37. Prior to designing a foundation for a building larger than a typical residential house, it is
necessary to determine the soil and water conditions beneath the site. What is the initial
investigation that can be undertaken?

a. Core test b. Cylinder test c. SPT

d. Test boring e. Test pit
38. At present, the steel construction industry uses 5 major welding processes. Which is a popular
process called "stick" welding?

a. Electroslag welding (ESW)

b. Flux cored arc welding (FCAW)
c. Gas metal arc welding (GMAW)
d. Submerged arc welding (SAW)
e. Shielded metal arc welding (SMAW)

39. The lateral deflection of structure is called

a. Buckling b. Camber c. Drift

d. Fatigue e. Flexure

40. Building multistory site-cast concrete walls with forms that rise up the wall as construction
progresses.

a. Lift slab b. Slip form c. Up-down

d. Tilt-up e. Top-out

41. Diaphragm Action is defined as a bracing action that derives from the stiffness of a thin plane of
material when it is loaded in a direction parallel to the plane. Which of the following does not
characterize diaphragm action?

a. Wall panels b. Sheathing c. Metal decking

d. Basement wall e. Truss

42. The major ingredient of glass is

a. Dolomite b. Glass cullet c. Limestone

d. Silica sand e. Soda ash

43. Double-strength glass is

a. 2.5 mm thick b. 3 mm thick c. Monolithic

d. Double-glazed e. Laminated

44. Single-strength glass is

a. 2.5 mm thick b. 3 mm thick c. Monolithic

d. Double-glazed e. Laminated

45. Which of the following is not a high-range sealant?

a. Acrylic foam b. Butyl c. Polysulfide

d. Polyurethane e. Silicone
46. Concrete (or sometimes mortar) conveyed through a hose and pneumatically projected at high
velocity onto a surface, as a construction technique.

a. Air lift b. Blowpipe c. Gunite

d. Pumpcrete e. Shotcrete

47. Resistant to high temperatures.

a. Adiabatic b. Autogenous c. Isotropic

d. Refractory e. Thixotropic

48. Among the paint ingredients, which is volatile?

a. Pigment b. Binder c. Solvent

d. Additive e. All of the choices.

49. Portland cement concrete (PCC) that contains less portland cement paste than a typical PCC.

a. Dry concrete b. Lean concrete c. Pervious concrete

d. Wet concrete e. Zero-slump concrete

50. Term for steel metal shapes such as angles, channels, flats, rounds, squares, etc. that are used
for shaping into different products.

a. Billet b. Formed steel c. Merchant bars

d. Reinforcing bars e. Steel bars

51. Aside from corrosion resistance as its most telling benefit, what is the second most important
benefit that stainless steel impart?

a. Aesthetics b. Ease of fabrication c. Fire/heat resistance

d. Hygiene e. Long term value

52. What is the best type of hinge to install for a door between a kitchen and a dining area?

a. Double acting gravity hinge

b. Drop-leaf hinge
c. Continuous hinge
d. Pivot hinge
e. Concealed hinge
53. A classroom with two doors shall specify the use of 3”x 6” door jamb. The clear opening for
each door is 3’x 7’ and the ordering of door jambs is at 18 ft. lengths. If 10 classrooms shall be
constructed, what would be the total board-foot requirement for the fabrication of the door
jambs?

a. 510 bd. ft. b. 525 bd. ft. c. 540 bd. ft.

d. 555 bd. ft. e. 570 bd. ft.

54. Distortion from shrinkage of sawn lumber depends on the position of the piece of lumber
occupied in the tree. Which sawing method produces the least distortion?

a. Plainsawn b. Quartersawn c. Quarter sliced

d. Rotary sliced e. Rotary sawn

55. Metal with maximum width of 0.005 inches.

a. Foil b. Plate c. Sheet

d. Strip e. Wire

56. Which of the following is not a bituminous material?

a. Asphalt b. Asphaltene c. Bentonite

d. Pitch e. Tar

57. The cost of construction.

a. First cost b. Life-cycle cost c. Estimated cost

d. Project cost e. Total cost

58. Placing the last member in a building frame.

a. First cost b. Shell-out c. Superstructure

d. Topping-out e. RFO

59. Which of the following locksets cannot be installed on the door edge?

a. Cylinder lock b. Reversible lock c. Mortise lock

d. Unit lock e. Rim lock

60. Which of the following paving systems fall under flexible paving?

a. Asphalt paving
b. Grasscret
c. Interlocking precast concrete
d. Stamped concrete paving
e. Stone paving
61. Overlay of portland cement concrete (PCC) over an existing flexible pavement such as hot mix
asphalt (HMA).

a. Full-depth asphalt b. Macadam c. Reblocking

d. Superpave e. Whitetopping

62. A critical path shows logic diagrams of activities and their relationships. What kind of activity
flow requires one activity to be complete before the next activity starts?

a. Dummy activities b. Parallel activities c. Pre-bid activities

d. Restraining activities e. Sequential activities

63. A critical path shows logic diagrams of activities and their relationships. What kind of activity
flow allows one activity to be carried out independently of others at the same time?

a. Dummy activities b. Parallel activities c. Pre-bid activities

d. Restraining activities e. Sequential activities

64. A critical path shows logic diagrams of activities and their relationships. Where all activities do
not have to wait for the preceding activities to be finished before they can be started, what is
this kind of activity flow?

a. Dummy activities b. Parallel activities c. Pre-bid activities

d. Restraining activities e. Sequential activities

65. Which of the following equipment can perform both excavation and finishing?

a. Backhoe-loader b. Dozer c. Gradall

d. Grader e. Scraper

66. This type of forming system, used to form walls and slabs that are concreted in one operation,
are suitable for repetitive use, such as those found in high-rise residential projects, and
particularly for cellular-type construction such as hotels, office buildings and hospitals.

a. Drawer forms b. Ganged forms c. Modular forms

d. Table forms e. Tunnel forms

67. A heavy-duty lifting machine that raises itself as the building rises.

a. Climbing crane b. Luffing boom crane

c. Hammerhead boom crane d. Mobile crane

68. Wood expands…

a. When humidity decreases b. When humidity increases c. When temperature decreases

d. When temperature increases e. When there is rain
69. What is the difference between nominal and actual dimensions for dimension lumber 8" and
above?

a. 1/4" b. 3/8” c. 1/2" d. 3/4" e. 1”

70. The Filipino term for rabbet

a. Asintada b. Palitada c. Vaciada d. Zocalo e. Tabika

71. In Fig. 2.0, which welding symbol indicates the use of backup bar to support the first pass of
weld?

a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E

72. Instrument or tool capable of vertical and horizontal line check is called

a. Plumb bob b. Spirit level c. Try square

d. Caliper e. Ruler

73. What is the appropriate paint material for G.I. sheet roofing?

a. Alkyd type b. Enamel type c. Latex type

d. Lacquer type e. Urethane type

74. What kind of shrinkage in logs is most pronounced?

a. Longitudinal shrinkage
b. Parallel-to-grain shrinkage
c. Radial shrinkage
d. Tangential shrinkage
e. Perpendicular-to-grain shrinkage

75. A high-speed rotary shaping hand power tool used to make smooth cutting and curving on solid
wood is called

a. Surface planer b. Dado plane c. Router

d. Lathe machine

76. Dressed lumber is described as

a. Lumber covered with plastic for shipment

b. Smoothed or planed lumber
c. Lumber of exact measurement
d. Lumber used for fine carpentry works
77. The term for removing concrete forms from the cured concrete.

a. Stripping b. Clearing c. Reshoring d. Deforming e. Finishing

78. A type of “hands of door” where the doorknob is at the left and the door leaf swings outside of
the room.

a. Right hand reverse b. Right hand c. Left hand reverse d. Left hand

79. What type of joint is used to install a glass into a lite of a French window?

a. Dado b. Rabbet c. Tenon d. Mortise e. Butt

80. Which of the following does not pertain to lumber as having achieved a seasoned quality?

a. Air-dried b. Kiln-dried c. Oven dry d. Surfaced dry e. None. All qualify.

81. For direct illumination (general lighting), what is the appropriate distance of light fixtures from
the wall using downlights (e.g. pinlights)?

a. 40 cm from the wall

b. Equal to the height of the room
c. 1/2 the height of the room
e. 1/4 the height of the room
d. 1/3 the height of the room

82. What is the act of excavating or filling of earth or any sound material or combination thereof, in
preparation for a finishing surface such as paving?

a. Cut and fill b. Grading c. Benching

d. Site preparation e. Backfill

83. The vernacular term for earthfill is

a. Eskombro b. Macadam c. Tambak

d. Larga Masa e. Lastilyas

84. Calcium sulfate dihydrate.

a. Cement b. Fly ash c. Gypsum

d. Lime e. Sand

85. In Figure 1.0, identify “C”

a. Eave b. Lookout c. Gable

d. Soffit e. Rake
PROBLEM FOR ITEMS 86 THRU 89: A shed roof 14.0m wide and 6.0m deep shall make use of 32”
corrugated G.I. sheets that are commercially available at sizes 5ft to 12ft (Refer to Table 3.0). Lapping
shall be 1-1/2 corrugations at sides and 30cm at ends.

86. How many sheets are needed in one row?

a. 16 b. 20 c. 22 d. 24 e. 40

87. What length/s of sheet will be used?

a. 6ft and 8ft b. 7ft c. 8ft and 12ft

d. 9ft and 12ft e. 10ft

88. The quantity of rivets needed (in pieces).

a. 640pcs b. 800pcs c. 880pcs

d. 960pcs e. 1,080pcs

89. How many rows of purlins are required?

a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11 e. 12

90. A beam that, if loaded to failure without lateral bracing of the compression flange, would fail by
buckling rather than in flexure.

a. Drop-in beam b. Edge beam c. Simple beam

d. Slender beam e. Spandrel beam

91. Continuous wire bar support used to support bars in the bottom of slabs.

a. Bat b. Bolster c. Chair d. Dowel e. Tripod

92. Which is the most appropriate curtain wall panel for a high-rise residential building?

a. Gypsum sheathing b. Glass curtain wall c. Metal and glass

d. Precast concrete e. Masonry

93. Brickwork laid with each course consisting of alternating headers and stretchers.

a. Flemish bond b. English bond c. Running bond

d. Common bond e. Stack bond
94. Brickwork laid with alternating courses each consisting entirely of headers and stretchers.

a. Flemish bond b. English bond c. Running bond

d. Common bond e. Stack bond

95. Wall claddings are designed to allow the structural frame of a building and the exterior skin
(cladding) of the building to move independently of one another. Soft sealant joints in the skin
panels make these attachments possible. Under which type of movement joint do you classify
this kind of attachment?

a. Building separation joints b. Surface divider joints

c. Working construction joints d. Structure/enclosure joints

96. A beam that runs along the outside edge of a floor or roof.

a. Girt b. Tie beam c. Grade beam

d. Spandrel beam e. Cantilever

97. A column whose load capacity is limited by buckling rather than strength.

a. Composite column b. Long column c. Short column

d. Slender column e. Tied column

98. What is the general term for a slab other than slab-on-grade?

a. Cast-in-place b. Reinforced slab c. Slabjacking

d. Superslab e. Suspended slab

99. With regards to concrete proportioning, which of the following characteristics considers water-
cement ratio as its measuring device?

a. Consistency b. Durability c. Heat generation

d. Placeability e. Strength

100. The performance of a concrete slab-on-grade depends on the integrity of both the soil-
support system and the slab. What is the recommended method for evaluating the ability of the
soil-support system to withstand loading?

a. Grade course b. Proof-rolling c. Soil boring test

d. SPT e. Tamping

101. What is a joint between two concrete placement where shrinking is a consideration?

a. Control joint b. Contraction joint c. Construction joint

d. Expansion joint e. Isolation joint
102. The compressive strength of steel reinforcement is how many times greater than that of normal-
strength concrete?

a. About twice b. About 5 times c. About 10 times

d. About 20 times e. Concrete is stronger.

103. The most common material used as interlayer in laminated glass.

a. Polyvinyl butyral b. Polyvinyl chloride c. Polyurethane

d. Ethyl vinyl acetate e. Celluloid

104. A short rafter, running perpendicular to the other rafters in the roof, which supports a rake
overhang.

a. Cripple b. Fly rafter c. Jack rafter

d. Lookout e. Girt

105. A ceiling with sufficient structural strength to support workers safely as they install and maintain
mechanical and electrical installations above the ceiling.

a. Access flooring b. Suspended ceiling c. Substructure

d. Interstitial ceiling e. Plenum

106. What is the main component in the production of glass mirrors?

a. Chromium b. Mercury c. Silver

d. Tin e. Zinc

107. A vertical bar between adjacent window or door units.

a. Astragal b. Mullion c. Muntin

d. Stile e. Sash

108. What is the purpose of placing a drip groove and/or capillary break at the bottom of a window sash,
along with a corresponding weatherstrip placed at bottom interior side of the same sash?

a. To provide a pressure equalization chamber

b. To prevent abrasion between sash and sill
c. To repel water caused by gravitational entry
d. To prevent insect penetration
e. To compensate for expansion
109. The opening through a parapet through which water can drain over the edge of a flat roof.

a. Gutter b. Scupper c. Plinth d. Roof drain e. Stack vent

110. The vernacular term for joist is

a. Biga b. Bolada c. Kostilyahe d. Suleras e. Guililan

PROBLEM FOR ITEMS 111 THRU 114: A bedroom area 4.20m X 3.40m shall be fitted out with 40cm X
40cm ceramic floor tiles, wall paint, gypsum board plain ceiling, and 1” X 4” baseboard and 1” X 3”
cornice. The room is provided with 0.70m door and 1.50m X 1.00m window. Ceiling height is 2.60m.
Determine the following:

111. Quantity of floor tiles.

a. 80pcs b. 86pcs c. 90pcs d. 94pcs e. 100pcs

112. Quantity of gypsum boards.

a. 4pcs b. 5pcs c. 6pcs d. 7pcs e. 8pcs

113. Board-foot quantity for baseboard and cornice.

a. 15 bd.ft. b. 17 bd.ft. c. 28 bd.ft. d. 30 bd.ft. e. 33 bd.ft.

114. If paint is done 3X (three coats), how many gallons is needed for painting the ceiling and wall?
Assume 25sqm per gallon coverage.

a. 2 gals b. 3 gals c. 4 gals d. 5 gals e. 6 gals

115. A piece of steel welded to the top of a steel beam or girder so as to become embedded in the
concrete fill over the beam and cause the beam and the concrete to act as a single structural unit.

a. Anchor belt b. Shear stud c. Moment stirrup

d. Spandrel e. Spline

116. A tall, narrow window alongside a door.

a. Ribbon window b. Bay window c. Mullion

d. Narrow light e. Sidelight

117. Which of the following is not a fire-rated glass?

a. Polished wired glass b. Ceramic glass c. Specially tempered glass

d. Transparent wall units e. Fritted glass
118. Individual pieces of glass are known as

a. Lites b. Panels c. Panes d. Plates e. Sheets

119. A flat steel plate used to connect the members of a truss.

a. Baseplate b. Stiffener plate c. Gusset plate

d. Anchor plate e. Washer

120. Which of the following reflects the visual characteristic of wood?

a. Anisotropic b. Autogenous c. Hygroscopic

d. Isotropic e. Thixotropic

121. A process for preserving wood by impregnating the cell with creosote under pressure

a. Bethell process b. Boliden salt process c. Boucherie process

d. Kyanizing e. Rueping process

122. Glue-laminated (Glulam) timber column is

a. Box column b. Built-up column c. Solid column

d. Spaced column e. Tapered column

123. This type of drill, powered by compressed air or hydraulic fluid, breaks rock into small particles by
impact from repeated blows.

a. Abrasion drill b. Churn drill c. Core drill

d. Percussion drill e. Shot drill

124. This is a type of drill designed for obtaining samples of rock from a hole, usually for exploratory
purposes.

a. Abrasion drill b. Blasthole drill c. Core drill

d. Downhole drill e. Percussion drill

125. A rotary drill consisting of a steel-pipe drill stem on the bottom of which is a roller-bit. As the bit
rotates, it grinds the rock.

a. Blasthole drill b. Churn drill c. Core drill

d. Diamond drill e. Downhole drill

126. Using a jackhammer falls under which type of drilling?

a. Abrasion drilling b. Core drilling c. Directional drilling

d. Percussion drilling e. Rotary drilling
127. This term refers to the fire-resistant material inserted into a space between a curtain wall and a
spandrel beam or column, to retard the passage of fire through the space.

a. Sleeve b. Firestopping c. Safing

d. Penetrant e. Fireproofing

128. Any of a number of devices for hoisting building materials on the end of a rope or cable.

a. Crane b. Derrick c. Lewis d. Boom e. Lift

129. The temporary formwork for an arch, dome, or vault.

a. Centering b. Scaffolding c. Staging d. Underframing e. Anchoring

130. The vernacular term for purlin is

a. Kilo b. Barakilan c. Reostra d. Tahilan e. Gililan

131. These materials have substances that swell as a result of heat exposure thus increasing in volume
and decreasing in density. In passive fire protection systems, these materials are used in a form of
coating or mastic that expands to form a stable, insulating char when exposed to fire. These materials
are said to be

a. Ablative b. Endothermic c. Inflammable

d. Intumescent e. Thixotropic

132. Refers to properties that are the same regardless of the direction that is measured, or properties
that are the same everywhere.

a. Adiabatic b. Autogenous c. Isotropic

d. Refractory e. Thixotropic

133. A reinforced-concrete system in which a slab is supported by and is often monolithic with
reinforced concrete beams.

a. Beam-and-slab floor b. Concrete flatwork c. Continuous slab

d. Drop panel e. Flat plate

134. Concrete culverts, pipes and poles are examples of which category of concrete?

a. Architectural concrete b. Central-mixed concrete c. Centrifugally-cast concrete

d. Cyclopean concrete e. Roller-compacted concrete
135. Concrete in which large stones, each of 50kg or more, are placed and embedded in the concrete as
it is deposited.

a. Cyclopean concrete b. Dense concrete c. Heavyweight concrete

d. Mass concrete e. Rubble cocnrete

136. Concrete of high cement content.

a. Lean concrete b. Monolithic concrete c. Negative-slump concrete

d. Rich concrete e. Zero-slump concrete

137. White rust is usually seen in

a. Concrete curing b. Chrome faucets c. G.I. sheets

d. Paint chalking e. Welded metal

138. Which of the following is not a semi-finished steel product?

a. Billet b. Bloom c. Clinker

d. Ingot e. Slab

139. Which is not a noble metal?

a. Gold b. Palladium c. Platinum

d. Silver e. Titanium

140. When a provision of specification requires action on the Contractor's part, what is the operative
word to use?

a. ‘may’ b. ‘must’ c. ‘shall’

d. ‘shal either… or’ e. ‘will’

141. In specification, if the Contractor is allowed to exercise an option, what is the operative word to
use?

a. ‘may’ b. ‘must’ c. ‘shall’

d. ‘shal either… or’ e. ‘will’

142. In specification, when limited alternatives are available to the Contractor, what is the operative
word to use?

a. ‘may’ b. ‘must’ c. ‘shall’

d. ‘shal either… or’ e. ‘will’
143. When the specification cites informational statements that involve the Owner, the operative word
to use is

a. ‘may’ b. ‘must’ c. ‘shall’

d. ‘shal either… or’ e. ‘will’

144. “Structural Conceptualization” means the act of conceiving, choosing and developing the type,
disposition, arrangement and proportioning of the structural elements of an architectural work. Which
of the following is not included in the considerations afforded for the above statement?

a. Aesthetics b. Cost-effectiveness c. Functionality

d. Safety e. Technical expertise

145. In BP 344, which among the building’s facilities and features is not required as “accessible/barrier-
free”?

a. Elevators b. Floor finishes c. Seating accommodations

d. Doors e. Windows

146. Of or pertaining to project scheduling in which the design and construction phases of a building
project overlap to compress the total time required for completion.

a. CPM b. Cross-over c. Fast-track

d. Top out e. Turn-key

147. An axonometric projection of a three-dimensional object inclined to the picture plane in such a
way that two of its principal axes are equally foreshortened and the third appears longer or shorter than
the other two.

a. Dimetric projection b. Isometric projection c. Oblique projection

d. Orthogonal projection e. Trimetric projection

148. The complete records of test conduction (slump, compression test, etc.) shall be preserved and
made available for inspection during the progress of construction and after completion of the project for
a period of not less than

a. 5 years b. 4 years c. 3 years d. 2 years e. 1 year

149. When a product, system, or process is specific, especially when one with a registered trademark, it
is described as

a. Branded b. Copyrighted c. Name-specific d. Non-variant

e. Proprietary
150. In specification, this word shall mean to place in position, incorporate in the work, adjust, clean,
and make fit for use.

a. Deliver b. Furnish c. Install d. Provide

e. Render

151. Plaster devoid of sand.

a. Grout b. Lean plaster c. Neat plaster d. Rich plaster

e. Stucco

152. Ceramic tile can be classified according to water absorption. What is the water absorption
classification for vitreous tile?

a. 0% water absorption b. 0.1% to 0.5% c. 0.5% to 3.0% d. 3.0% to 7.0%

e. More than 7%

153. Any of the wedge-shaped units in a masonry arch or vault, having side cuts converging at one of
the arch centers.

a. Extrados b. Intrados c. Keystone d. Springer

e. Voussoir

154. The process of forming brick and structural tile by extruding plastic clay through a die and cutting
the extrusion to length with wires before firing.

a. Baked-mud process b. Cold-form process c. Dry-press process d. Soft-mud process

e. Stiff-mud process

155. A rammed earth wall, it is a stiff mixture of clay, sand or other aggregate, and water, compressed
and dried within the wall forms.

a. Adobe b. Bisque c. Mudbrick d. Pise

e. Terra cotta

156. A steel or cast iron plate having a wafflelike pattern, usually used as metal floor for vehicles and
workshops.

a. Blackplate b. Checkered plate c. Hardware cloth d. Terneplate

e. Web plate

157. The portion of the joint where the members closest to each other shall be welded.

a. Bead b. Pass c. Root d. Toe

e. Throat
158. Screw with no head.

a. Cap screw b. Set screw c. Self-tapping screw d. Thumbscrew

e. None

159. If steel is the material for framing a tall building, the building’s lateral rigidity will depend much on
which structural system?

a. Raft foundation b. Moment connection framing c. Firewalls d. Spandrels

e. Floor diaphragm

160. In structural steel construction, who is the entity that produces the shop and erection drawings?

a. Erector b. Fabricator c. Specifier d. Steel detailer

e. Structural engineer

161. Which type of adhesive for engineered wood is least resistant to water?

a. Melamine formaldehyde resin (MF)

b. Methylene diphenyl diisocyanate (MDI)
c. Phenol formaldehyde resin (PF)
d. Polyurethane resin (PU)
e. Urea formaldehyde resin (UF)

162. Which of the following is not used as dimension lumber?

a. LSL b. LVL c. OSB d. OSL e. PSL

163. Which of the following is structural lumber?

a. Appearance lumber b. Boards c. Dimension lumber

d. Factory lumber e. Yard lumber

164. Which of the following is a fire-retardant wood?

a. Engineered wood b. Glass wood c. Glulam

d. Pressure-treated wood e. Wolmanized

165. Which of the following wood preservatives is commonly used as preservative for furniture?

a. Creosote b. Linseed oil c. Tung oil

d. White spirit e. Wolmanized

166. It is popularly called "synthetic stucco".

a. DAFS b. EIFS c. EPS d. ETICS

e. GFRS
167. To provide a hard, non-corrosive, electrolytic, oxide film on the surface of a metal, particularly
aluminum, by electrolytic action.

a. Anneal b. Anodize c. Galvanize d. Glaze

e. Weld

168. Which of the following is an insulating glass unit (IGU)?

a. Double-glazed window b. Laminated glass c. Low-e coated glass

d. Reflective coated glass e. All of the above

169. Which of the following is a tinted glass?

a. Laminated glass b. Low-e coated glass c. Reflective coated glass

d. Spandrel glass e. All of the above

170. Which of the following is not a coated glass?

a. Fritted glass b. Low-e coated glass c. Reflective coated glass

d. Self-cleaning glass e. None. All are coated

171. ASTM classifies dimension stone into six groups, two of which are "quartz based stone" and "other
stones". Which of the following is not part of the first four groups?

a. Granite b. Limestone c. Marble d. Sandstone

e. Slate

172. ASTM classifies dimension stone into six groups, sixth of which is "other stones". Travertine falls
under which group?

a. Granite b. Limestone c. Marble d. Sandstone

e. Slate

173. Which of the following is an igneous rock?

a. Granite b. Limestone c. Marble d. Quartz based stone

e. Slate

174. Which of the following is a sedimentary rock?

a. Granite b. Limestone c. Marble d. Sandstone

e. Slate

175. Which of the following is a metamorphic rock?

a. Granite b. Limestone c. Marble d. Sandstone

e. Slate
176. What is the standard size overlap for corrugated G.I. roofing?

a. 1 corrugation b. 1-1/2 corrugations c. 2 corrugations

d. 2-1/2 corrugations e. 3 corrugations

177. Of or pertaining to a flat or bowstring truss having inclined web members forming a series of
equilateral triangles.

a. Belgian truss b. Fink truss c. Howe truss d. Pratt truss

e. Warren truss

178. Of or pertaining to a flat or pitched truss having vertical web members in tension and diagonal
members in compression.

a. Belgian truss b. Fink truss c. Howe truss d. Pratt truss

e. Warren truss

179. Of or pertaining to a flat or pitched truss having vertical web members in compression and
diagonal members in tension.

a. Belgian truss b. Fink truss c. Howe truss d. Pratt truss

e. Warren truss

180. When a building has a roof of complex geometry such as a hyperbolic paraboloid shell, what
roofing membrane approach would be best chosen?

a. Built-up roof (BUR) b. Elastomeric roofing c. Fluid-applied roofing

d. Protected membrane roof e. Single-ply roofing

181. What is the primary purpose of roof sheathing?

a. To provide diaphragm support for the overall roof system.

b. To provide a roof membrane.
c. To provide a base for the installation of roofing material.
d. To provide thermal and moisture protection.
e. All of the choices.

182. What is the purpose of roof underlayment?

a. To provide diaphragm support for the overall roof system.

b. To provide a roof membrane.
c. To provide a base for the installation of roofing material
d. To provide thermal and moisture protection.
e. All of the choices.
183. Large prefabricated units of formwork incorporating supports, and designed to be moved from
place to place.

a. Climbing form b. Flying forms c. Ganged forms

d. Moving forms e. Slipform

184. A composite structural material comprising thin sections consisting of cement mortar reinforced by
a number of very closely spaced layers of steel wire mesh.

a. Ferrocement b. Lath and plaster c. Furring d. Sandwich panel

e. Veneer

185. A prefabricated panel that is layered composite, formed by attaching two thin facings to a thicker
core. For example, a precast concrete panel consisting of two layers of concrete separated by a
nonstructural insulating core.

a. Ferrocement b. Lath and plaster c. Furring d. Sandwich panel

e. Veneer

186. Voids left in concrete due to failure of the mortar to effectively fill the spaces among coarse-
aggregate particles.

a. Bug holes b. Entrained air c. Efflorescence d. Honeycomb

e. Laitance

187. A layer of weak material derived from cementitious material and aggregate fines either carried by
bleeding to the surface or separated from the mixture and deposited on the surface or internal cavities.

a. Bug holes b. Entrained air c. Efflorescence d. Honeycomb

e. Laitance

188. A system of reinforcement in flat-slab construction comprising bands of bars parallel to two
adjacent edges and also to both diagonals of a rectangular slab.

a. Curtain reinforcement b. Distribution-bar reinforcement

c. Two-way reinforcement d. Four-way reinforcement e. Web reinforcement

189. Transverse reinforcement, usually applied to ties, hoops and spirals in columns and column-like
members.

a. Auxiliary reinforcement b. Distribution-bar reinforcement

c. Dowel-bar reinforcement e. Shear reinforcement d. Lateral reinforcement
190. To avoid cracks on concrete slab-on-grade, where should temperature and shrinkage
reinforcement be positioned for maximum effectiveness?

a. At the upper third of slab thickness `

b. At the middle of slab thickness
c. At the bottom third of slab thickness
d. Anywhere within the slab thickness
e. Does not matter if control joints are sawn on the hardened slab.

191. Which building technique is the simplest?

a. Concrete construction
b. Light-gauge steel frame construction
c. Masonry construction
d. Steel frame construction
e. Wood light frame construction

192. Which of the following glass types offers the least noise reduction?

a. Double-strength glass b. Laminated glass c. Insulating glass

d. Transparent wall units e. Double-glazed glass

193. In cases where substantial noise reduction is required for sealed windows, which type of glazing is
the most sensible choice?

a. Solid single glazing

b. Laminated single glazing
c. Transparent plastic glazing (e.g. high-impact polycarbonate)
d. Double glazing
e. Triple glazing

194. The vertical framing member in a panel door.

a. Header b. Jamb c. Mullion d. Muntin

e. Stile

195. A curtain wall system that is largely assembled in place.

a. Composite system b. Mullion system c. Stick system

d. Unit system e. Unit-and-mullion system

196. Which of the following processes revolutionized the production of glass?

a. Autoclave process b. Crown process c. Cylinder process

d. Float process e. Lehr process
197. A large door consisting of horizontal, interlocking metal slats guided by a track on either side,
opening by coiling about an overhead drum at the head of the door opening.

a. Accordion door b. Double-acting door c. Overhead door

d. Revolving door e. Rolling door

198. SPT stands for

a. Soil penetration test b. Soil pit test c. Soil pressure test

d. Standard penetration test e. Standard Proctor test

199. Soil tests are undertaken by

a. Geodetic engineer b. Geotechnical engineer c. Sanitary engineer

d. Structural engineer e. Surveyor

200. In large-scale projects, site management considers possible transport of excavated earth or
materials within, into, and out of, the site. What is the proper term for this activity?

a. Cut-and-fill b. Earthworks c. Earthmoving d. Hauling

e. Tipping
A