Calvinism
Calvinism
Calvinism
Simply put, Calvinism is a theological system that teaches that God directly causes people to be
saved without them having a choice in the matter, and puts people in eternal hellfire without them
ever having a real opportunity to repent and believe. Adherents of Calvinism can use all the
confusing terminology and accusations of misrepresentation they like, but that doesn’t change
what Calvinism is.
Calvin never gave a testimony of the new birth; rather he identified with his Catholic infant
baptism. Note the following quotes from his Institutes: “At whatever time we are baptized, we
are washed and purified once for the whole of life. By baptism we are ingrafted into the body of
Christ ... infants are to be baptized ... children of Christians, as they are immediately on their birth
received by God as heirs of the covenant, are also to be admitted to baptism” (Institutes, IV). It
would be absurd to think that a person who makes those statements is a Christian.
Calvin was more like a roaring lion rather than a lamb when it came to those who opposed his
teachings. Four men who disagreed with him on who should be admitted to the Lord’s Supper
were beheaded and their body parts hung in strategic locations in Geneva as a warning to others.
He also burned Michael Servetus for rejecting infant baptism and for denying Christ’s deity.
Would a real Christian react that way to those who oppose him?
Calvin freely acknowledged that his authority was Augustine. Consider the following quotes: “If
I were inclined to compile a whole volume from Augustine, I could easily show my readers, that I
need no words but his” (Institutes, Book III, chap. 22).
“Augustine is so wholly with me, that if I wished to write a confession of my faith, I could do so ...
out of his writings” (Calvin, “A Treatise on the Eternal Predestination of God,” trans. by Henry
Cole, Calvin’s Calvinism, Grandville, MI: Reformed Free Publishing, 1987, p. 38; cited in
Laurence Vance, The Other Side of Calvinism, 1999, p. 38).
WHO WAS AUGUSTINE? The Roman Catholic Church has claimed him as one of its “doctors.”
He taught that Mary did not commit sin. He believed in purgatory. He was one of the fathers of
the heresy of infant baptism, claiming that unbaptized infants were lost, and calling all who
rejected infant baptism “infidels” and “cursed.”
Calvinists normally would accuse non-Calvinists as Arminians. This is a tactic used to distract
people from the real issue at hand. The fact is that these two viewpoints represent two extreme
views, but the truth is somewhere in between. A real bible believer is neither a Calvinist nor an
Arminian. Salvation is neither God zapping you into being a believer, nor that you must work
your way to heaven.
CALVINISM ≠ SOVEREIGNTY
It further must be pointed out that Calvinism does not equate to belief in God’s sovereignty. This
is another false claim made by Calvinists. Bible believers believe God is sovereign, but we don’t
believe people are robots that are zapped into heaven and banished to hell with out a “fair”
opportunity from a sovereign, just and righteous creator.
Calvinism took God’s sovereignty to an unbiblical level that actually makes God unjust. Is a god
that puts people in hell without ever having had a chance at eternal life, the loving God of the
scriptures? What a cold thought to consider God indiscriminately damning folks to eternal torment
who never had a real chance to believe. Calvinism may be loosely construed to fit God's
sovereignty, but it doesn't fit the nature of His heart.
To teach salvation by works in the age of grace is heresy, but salvation by eternal decree is just as
bad. Either of these views are outright perversions of the gospel. The true gospel focuses on the
amazing gift of salvation offered to all from God that is received by simple belief. The biblical
picture of a lowly sinner accepting the free gift of salvation is the power of the Christian gospel.
God warns against philosophy and about leaving the simplicity of Christ (Col. 2:8; 2 Cor. 11:3).
In the case of Calvinism, Calvin goes beyond the actual statements of Scripture and creates
doctrine by human reasoning/philosophy. Thus, Calvinism is not simple; it is very complicated.
Consider some of the terms that Calvinists use: compatibalism, monergism versus synergism,
electing grace vs. irresistible grace, effectual calling vs. general calling, effective atonement vs.
hypothetical atonement, libertarian free will vs. the bondage of the will. Other Calvinists speak of
objective grace and subjective grace, natural ability and moral ability, mediate vs. immediate
imputation of Adam’s sin, supralapsarianism, sublapsarianism, infralapsarianism, desiderative vs.
decretive will, and antecedent hypothetical will. Because of all these high-sounding terminology,
Calvinists appear to be intellectuals and therefore impresses young believers, which brings us to
our next point.
The appearance of intellect intimidates young believers into believing Calvinism has merit,
especially since they do not truly understand all that Calvinism entails. Young believers are
exposed to the “sovereign grace book club” and indoctrinated into following Calvin. They are
shown all the men that followed Calvin since the reformation as proof of its merit. Calvinists focus
almost exclusively on God’s sovereignty. Unfortunately, there is a whole dark caldron of
theological thinking that goes with it, which is overlooked by young believers.
If the sinner is not elected, he cannot believe. On the other hand, if the sinner is sovereignly chosen,
he will get saved no matter what. Then what’s the use of witnessing? No wonder, there are lots
of Calvinists who are lazy when it comes to soul-winning!
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Also, personal evangelism is very difficult for a Calvinist. Since Calvinism teaches that Jesus
Christ died only for the elect, He cannot tell the sinner he is witnessing to that Jesus died for him.
How could he? What if he is not one of the elect? Thus, Calvinists shy away from personal one-
on-one witnessing. They would rather preach to a crowd.
TULIP
The Bible says “prove all things; hold fast to that which is good” (1 Thess. 5:21). The Bible itself
is the test of truth, not some man’s systematic theology. We have the responsibility to test every
theology by the Bible. That’s what this study will do. We will examine each of the five points of
Calvinism or what is known as the TULIP Theology.
The Total Inability passed to us makes it impossible for us to comply with the command to
believe in Christ. The most obvious fault with this doctrine is that it makes the gospel an
unreasonable demand. How can God, who is perfectly just, "command all men everywhere to
repent" (Acts 17:30), knowing the command is impossible to obey by those who are not elected?
Calvinist: Man is totally depraved and incapable of exercising faith in Christ. Salvation therefore
is dependent on God who must first sovereignly regenerate the lost (give man life) before he can
believe in Christ, which only happens if he is one of the elect.
Challenge a Calvinist to give you even one Scripture that teaches their claim. The Scriptures they
quote do not really teach their doctrine, and in order to make the verses say what they claim, one
would have to go beyond the actual words of Scripture. There is nothing in the verses they quote
about the Calvinist doctrine that the sinner is unable to believe, that he cannot exercise his will in
receiving or rejecting salvation. Following are key passages that are used by Calvinists to support
the doctrine of Total Depravity:
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Jeremiah 17:9 - The heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately wicked: who can
know it?
This verse addresses the sinner’s heart but not his will. It tells us plainly that the sinner’s
heart is deceitful and desperately wicked; but it does not tell us that the sinner cannot believe the
gospel. It says nothing about the condition of the sinner’s will in regard to exercising faith.
1 Corinthians 2:14--“But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God:
for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are
spiritually discerned.”
This verse teaches that the unsaved man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God
and has no natural ability to discern spiritual things; however, it says nothing about the condition
of the unsaved man’s will, or whether he can believe the gospel or not. Yes, no sinner would
respond to the Gospel apart from divine enlightenment, but as we will discuss under irresistible
grace and limited atonement, God does enlighten every man.
Isaiah 64:6 - But we are all as an unclean thing, and all our righteousnesses are as filthy
rags; and we all do fade as a leaf; and our iniquities, like the wind, have taken
us away.
7 - And there is none that calleth upon thy name, that stirreth up himself to take
hold of thee: for thou hast hid thy face from us, and hast consumed us, because
of our iniquities.
Notice first of all that the passage refers to Israel. The Jews are the people of God (v. 9),
Israel’s holy cities, Zion and Jerusalem, lay waste (v. 10), their holy and beautiful houses were
burned up with fire (v. 11). Obviously, God has hid his face from US (Jews) and hast consumed
US (Jews) because of OUR (Jews’) iniquities. Even if we apply the passage to fallen men in
general, and say that fallen man has no righteousness that is acceptable before God and that even
his alleged righteousness are as filthy rags, that there is none that calls upon the name of the Lord
or stirs himself up to take hold of Him, still the passage does not equate to the Calvinists claim
that the sinner is unable to respond to God’s grace and that he cannot believe the gospel.
Gen. 6:5 - every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually
There is no doubt that man is depraved. The Bible teaches that man is morally corrupt (Jer.
17:9; Rom. 3:10-18) and spiritually blind (1 Cor. 2:14). Scores of other passages similar to the
above teach that man is evil and his works are evil. That is why he needs a Saviour! The issue is
not whether he is depraved or not, because he is. The question is whether or not a man can believe
and accept the gospel in his depraved condition.
SPIRITUAL DEATH
Ephesians 2:1 - And you hath he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins;
2 - Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world,
according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the
children of disobedience:
3 - Among whom also we all had our conversation in times past in the lusts of
our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind; and were by nature
the children of wrath, even as others.
Paul was reminding the Ephesian believers of their condition before they got saved. There
is no question that an unsaved man is spiritually dead. But the verse does not say that the spiritually
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dead man cannot believe the gospel. One has to read the Calvinist doctrine of “total depravity”
into the verse.
In their argument, the Calvinists insist that an unbeliever is just like a corpse; he cannot
respond to anything – therefore, he cannot receive the Lord Jesus Christ. The picture they present
is one of death – physical death; thus, they say –
“ … We are like Lazarus in his tomb; we are bound hand and foot; corruption has taken hold upon
us. Just as there was no glimmer of life in the dead body of Lazarus, so there is no inner receptive
spark in our hearts.”1
However, the comparison of spiritual death to physical death, as all comparisons, only
deals with certain issues--not with every part. For instance, a corpse cannot move around, but a
lost person can. A corpse cannot think, argue, or reason out, but a lost person can. To extend the
analogy between a corpse and a lost man to the will is not a good form of proof. Even the lost soul
in hell (Luke 16) understood what his brothers needed in order to be saved. He was responding to
his brothers’ need of salvation.
The Calvinist’s whole doctrine of the total depravity of man is founded on the lost man’s
comparison to a corpse. They argue that just like a corpse, a spiritually dead man is incapable of
receiving Jesus Christ’s gift of salvation. But this assumption is irrational in the extreme. In the
same way that a corpse cannot receive, a corpse cannot reject as well.
QUICKENING
Eph. 2:1 - and you hath he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and in sins . . .
According to the Calvinists, until man is quickened by the Holy Spirit and given spiritual
life, man cannot believe. God has to give man spiritual life before he can believe. How can a dead
man accept Jesus Christ, a Calvinist argues? Well, if we are going to take the “corpse” analogy
literally, a corpse can’t reject Jesus Christ either. To take the condition of the lost man beyond the
actual teaching of the Bible is to move from truth to error.
Yes, Paul was telling the Ephesian believers that they, who were dead, were quickened!
They are no longer spiritually dead, but spiritually alive. But Paul did not say they were quickened
so they will be able to receive Jesus Christ. Paul does not say that they were quickened because
they were elected.
Paul gives us a picture of the “before and after” in Ephesians 2. Paul contrasted the
condition of these Ephesians who were dead (v. 1), who were at that time, without Christ (v. 12),
but now in Christ Jesus (v. 13), things have changed. The time marker is Jesus Christ. At that
time they were without Christ, they were spiritually dead, but now in Christ Jesus, they are
spiritually alive. Therefore, quickening (the giving of spiritual life) is connected with Jesus Christ.
AFTER RECEIVING
John 3:6 -- That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
7 -- Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again.
John 3 is the main passage regarding being born again (regeneration). In verse 3 Jesus
teaches Nicodemus that he must be born again or he cannot see the kingdom of God. Then, in v.
1
W. J. Seaton, The Five Points of Calvinism, (1979; Great Britain), p. 7.
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6, Jesus clarifies the birth as spiritual birth (that which is born of the spirit is spirit). When do
sinners experience the second or spiritual birth?
Jn. 1:12 - But as many as received him, to them gave He power to become the Sons of
God, even to them that believe on his name...
13 – Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of
man, but of God
This is the famous Calvinistic passage used to prove that in his depraved condition man is
unable to believe. But that is just taking the text out of the context. If you take verse 12 together
with verse 13, you will see that that is not the case.
Who are given power to become the sons of God? Answer: Those who receive Him. What
happens when they receive Him? Answer: They are given the power to become the sons of God.
If the power to become the sons of God is given to "as many as received Him," then you are not
born again until after you receive the Son. If receiving comes first, then those who receive the
Son, do so in their natural fallen state. They are not born again until they receive the Son; therefore,
their depraved state did not render them incapable of receiving Jesus Christ.
In order to become the sons of God, one needs to be born again. This spiritual birth puts
one into the spiritual family of God. This is what Jesus explained to Cornelius when he came to
Jesus by night. The second birth (regeneration) is the spiritual birth that would render him
spiritually alive.
What is not “of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man?” Do you see the plain truth
here? It is not receiving, but the birth that is not of the will of the flesh nor the will of man. This
birth is not of blood because it is not physical but spiritual. No man can will this birth for
anyone because this birth cannot be inherited nor transferred -- neither can it be done by proxy.
This birth is of God! But you receive this birth after you receive the Son!
Clearly, God willed that those who receive the Son (of their own free will) be born into
the family of God (which is God's will).
AFTER REPENTING
Col. 2:13- and you being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he
quickened together with him, HAVING FORGIVEN you all trespasses ...
The verse tells us that a sinner, having been forgiven, is quickened. Quickening then takes
places after a sinner is forgiven. This proves that a spiritually dead man can repent. Why would
he have been forgiven - unless he repented?
AFTER RESPONDING
John 5:24 - Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him
that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is
passed from death unto life.
To make it simpler: He that [heareth my word, and] believeth on him that sent me[, hath
everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but] is passed from death unto life. Clearly
the verse tells us that the spiritually dead man who responds by hearing and believing is passed
from death unto life.
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John 5:40 - And ye will not come to me, that ye might have life.
The verse simply tells us that a spiritually dead man will have to come to Christ in order to
have life. If he does not come to him, he won’t have life.
John 6:53 - Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the
flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you.
Notice the word “except.” The spiritually dead Jews had to respond by spiritually eating
the flesh and spiritually drinking his blood. Except they do that, they remain spiritually dead –
have no life in themselves.
I Jn. 5:12 -- He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not
life.
As we have seen in Ephesians 2, a spiritually dead man cannot have spiritual life apart from
the Son. How can anyone be quickened (given life) before he can receive Jesus Christ when it is
very clear that only those who have the Son have this life? A spiritually dead man has to receive
the Son before he can have life because this life is in the Son.
POINT TWO: UNCONDITIONAL ELECTION
Calvinist: Election was based solely upon the purpose or plan of God, so that the decision
on whether one goes to heaven or hell is wholly and completely the decision of God.
1 Thessalonians 5:9--“For God hath not appointed us to wrath, but to obtain salvation by
our Lord Jesus Christ.”
Arthur W. Pink says, “To say that God ‘hath not appointed us to wrath’, clearly implies
that there are some whom He has ‘appointed to wrath’...” (The Sovereignty of God, p. 98). Again,
the Calvinists are reading things into the verse that’s not there. Based on the verse, they teach that
God unconditionally appointed some to wrath (hell) and some to salvation (heaven).
The context of the passage is the second coming of the Lord Jesus Christ (v. 1-2) and the
tribulation that follows (v. 3). Apparently, there are false teachers who are troubling the
Thessalonian believers (2 Thess. 2:1-3). In fact, Paul wrote Timothy about the same problem (2
Tim. 2:18). Paul wanted to comfort the believers (1 Thess. 4:18, 5:11), by assuring them that they
will not experience the wrath that will be poured out in the Great Tribulation (Rev. 15:7, 16:1).
Before this wrath is poured out, Jesus will come for them!
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Notice that the election is not unto salvation. It was not that Jacob was sovereignly chosen
for heaven and Esau was indiscriminately chosen to go to hell. The election here is for servitude
- it is that one will serve the other. It is not even individual, but national.
Gen. 25:23 - … and the Lord said unto her, two nations are in thy womb, and two manner
of people shall be separated from thy bowels; and the elder shall serve the younger
Here, (from where Romans 9:12 was quoted) we find that the election is not between two
individuals but two nations. The election of Jacob over Esau concerns the election of the nation
that descended from Jacob over the nation that descended from Esau. It is the election of the nation
Israel (the younger) over Edom (the elder). God did not elect the nation Israel to go to heaven and
the nation of Edom to go to hell.
We recognize the sovereignty of God. We acknowledge that He can act in which ever way
He pleases. But would God in His sovereign justice hate one without any basis but His whim and
arbitrarily choose him to go to hell? Would He, in his sovereign justice hate one without a cause?
Matt. 5:22 - But I say unto you, that whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause
shall be in danger of the judgment ...
Why would God warn men not to be angry without a cause? If it is wrong for man to be
angry without a cause, would it be right and just for God to hate Esau without a cause? Yes, God
is sovereign in that nobody can thwart His purposes and plan. His sovereign power is limitless.
He has no limits except those imposed by His own nature. God is limited in that He cannot sin.
His perfect nature prohibits Him from being wrong and unjust.
Lk. 6:27 - But I say unto you which hear, love your enemies ...
God tells man to love even his enemies (people who have done him wrong), while he
chooses to hate those who have not even done anything that would have incurred his anger. It
does not make sense. If God is good and God is love, why did He create people without any hope?
If you are not one of the elect, then God does not love you and has no intention of saving you from
the terrible suffering in hell. You mean nothing to him. In fact, he would delight and find glory
in your eternal torture in hell based upon nothing but His whim. Don’t you find this morally
offensive?
Mk. 10:21 - Then Jesus, beholding him loved him ..
According to the Calvinists, Jesus loved only the elect and hated the non-elect. In this text,
Jesus is said to love a man who was not willing to give up his riches for him. Did Jesus love this
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rich man because he was one of the elect? If he was, why is it that from all indications in the
passage, he didn't get saved?
COMPARATIVE LOVE
Lk. 14:26 - If any man come to me and hate not his father, mother, and wife, and children,
and brethren, and sisters, yea, and his own life also, he cannot be my disciple ...
The same God who tells you to hate your wife also tells you to love her even as Christ
loved the church and gave himself for it (Eph. 5). How do you reconcile two contradicting
commands? How can you love and hate at the same time? You don't. You only love more and
love less. Your love for God should be so great that your love for others would seem to be hate in
comparison.
Matt. 10:37 - He that loveth father or mother more than me is not worthy of me; and he
that loveth son or daughter more than me is not worthy of me..
The above passage clarifies the problem. You are not to actually hate them, but we are to
love God more than we love them. So, we see that despising our families was not what the Lord
was commanding. Hate was not literal in the sense of despising or having animosity with, but it
was said in a comparative sense.
We should not define terms and expressions outside their biblical usage, especially when
that puts them in direct contradiction to a vast body of other Scriptures. This is a figure of speech
used to show the loving of one above another. The same figure of speech is used in Genesis 29,
where it is said that Jacob loved Rachael more than Leah (v. 30). In the next verses, however, the
Lord said that Jacob hated her (v. 31-32). Obviously, this was not literal hate, but rather loving
one above another. The same comparison is used in Romans 9 in the case of Jacob and Esau.
Mal. 1:1 - the burden of the word of the Lord to Israel by Malachi
2 - I have loved you, saith the Lord. Yet ye say, wherein hast thou loved us?
Was not Esau Jacob's brother? Saith the Lord yet I loved Jacob
3 - and I hated Esau, and laid his mountains and his heritage waste for the
dragons of the wilderness
Again, the passage is not concerned with the two individuals, Jacob and Esau, but with two
nations, Israel and Edom. When God prophesied the servitude of Esau to Jacob, it was not fulfilled
in their lifetime. Esau did not serve Jacob. It was the descendants of Esau (Edomites) who served
the descendants of Jacob (Israel) under King David (II Sam. 8:14,1 Chron. 18:13).
The prophecy pronounced on the twin brothers was fulfilled in the twin nations. In proving
God's love for Israel, Malachi reminds them of their election in Jacob. God loved Israel so much
that His love for the twin nation seemed like hate. Malachi goes on to show the privileges accorded
to Israel. Israel is a chosen nation, and not even Edom, the twin nation could come close in
comparison to the privileges accorded to Israel.
Again, the election did not concern soul salvation for each Jew. The election of Israel
concerned their preservation as a nation and the fulfillment of God's plan and purpose for Israel to
occupy their land and reign over all the other nations in the millennial kingdom.
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WHEN GOD ORDAINS
Acts 13:48 - and when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of
the Lord: and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed...
This is a pet Calvinist verse. The Calvinist says, “See, here is a plain statement that those
who believe are those who are sovereignly ordained unconditionally.” The problem is that’s not
what the verse actually states. The Calvinists have to read that into the text. The Calvinist doctrine
is read into the verse to make it say, “...as many as were unconditionally elected believed.” But
there is nothing in the verse itself to require such an interpretation.
The Calvinists have tied up Acts 13:48 with Romans 9:12 in order to erect the doctrine of
unconditional election. They say, that based upon nothing (based on the election of Jacob over
Esau), God ordained some to eternal life and some to eternal damnation. But what does the word
"ordain" really mean?
Pre-Fixation?
I Cor. 9:14 - Even so hath the Lord ORDAINED that they which preach the Gospel
SHOULD live of the gospel.
The context of the passage is supporting the preachers (7-13). Paul gives the example of
the soldier going to war, the vineyard worker, the ox treading out the corn and even the temple
workers in the Old Testament. Then he concludes with “even so hath the Lord ordained.”
God has ordained that preachers be supported by the church. It was how it should be, but
Paul did not allow it to be so in his case (v. 15). Those familiar with the life of Paul know very
well that Paul waived the right to be supported by the church in order to silence his critics. Only
Calvin was forced against his will to walk on a pre-fixed path, determined before hand. Paul had
a little more liberty. Look at how the word ORDAIN does not take away Paul’s choice.
2 Cor. 12:13 -- For what is it wherein ye were inferior to other churches, except that I
myself was not burdensome to you? Forgive me this wrong...
Paul knew what he did was wrong because it was not what God has ordained, yet he did it
anyway. So, the word ORDAIN does not fix something absolutely so that there is no choice. When
something is ordained of God, it is how it SHOULD be. The word should is not pre-fixation.
Eph. 2:10 -- For we are His workmanship created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which
God had before ORDAINED that we SHOULD walk in them ...
God ordained beforehand that when a man is IN Christ, he should walk in the path of good
works (Titus 2:14). The good works were prepared by the Lord ahead of time for those who would
become a part of Christ. Again, the word to notice is SHOULD.
God has ordained what we should do, but it is up to us to do it. The Christians should walk
in a path of good works (that’s what God has ordained), but many Christians don't. The churches
should support their preachers (that’s what God has ordained), but many churches don't and many
preachers like Paul waive the right to be supported. You see, the word ORDAIN did not pre-fix
anything irrespective of free will.
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Directive?
Rom. 13:1 - Let every soul be subject unto the higher powers. For there is no power but
of God: the powers that be are ORDAINED of God ...
The term "higher powers" as used here refers to the constituted or civil powers of
government (look at v. 3 – rulers). Yes, the powers that be are ordained of God, but if you think
God actively directed Herod, Hitler and their breed to rule the way they did, then you are mistaken.
God did not and does not actively direct the wickedness in these powers. He did not cause these
powers to do the heinous acts that they committed!
Rom. 13:3 -- for rulers are not a terror to good works, but to the evil ..
When God instituted human government, the first law was capital punishment – whosoever
sheds man’s blood by man shall his blood be shed (Gen. 9:6). God has ordained the powers of
government to be a terror to the evil. But we know that there have been tyrants and wicked rulers,
who did not fulfill the role that God ordained for them to do. Instead of protecting the good and
being a deterrent to the evil, they did the opposite. That’s not what God has ordained!
Since we have seen that the word ORDAIN neither pre-fixes nor directs things, then who
are these people who believed who were said to be ordained to eternal life?
Here is a very important truth to notice. In response to Cornelius’ prayers and alms, God
sent Peter to tell him how to be saved and Cornelius did get saved. Was he one of the elect and
thus was ordained to eternal life? But contrary to the doctrine of unconditional election, God’s
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response to Cornelius was due to his good works. Cornelius was a Gentile continuing in well-
doing just like the men in Rom. 2:6-7.
Acts 8:27 -- And he arose and went: and, behold, a man of Ethiopia, an eunuch of great
authority under Candace queen of the Ethiopians, who had the charge of all her
treasure, and had come to Jerusalem for to worship,
Here is another example of a Gentile continuing in well-doing (Rom. 2:7). This Gentile
must be a proselyte to the Jewish religion because he had come to Jerusalem for to worship. How
did God respond to this Gentile who was worshipping God according to the light that he had? He
sent Philip to him. When Philip came to him, the Eunuch was reading Isaiah (8:30). So, Philip
began at the same Scripture, and preached unto him Jesus (8:35). As a result, the Ethiopian Eunuch
believed.
The Ethiopian Eunuch (Acts 8) and Cornelius (Acts 10) were both continuing in well-
doing, according to the knowledge that they had at that time, and God saw to it that they were
given a chance to hear the gospel and believe. Remember that in Acts 8, 10 and 13, the Gospel is
going from the Jews to the Gentiles.
Acts 10:34 - Then Peter opened his mouth and saith, of a truth, I perceive that God is
no respecter of persons
35 - but in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is
accepted with him ...
In the original commission, the apostles were forbidden from going to anyone else but the
Jews (Matt. 10:5-6). However, in Acts 10, God showed Peter that God’s dealing was changing.
If in the Old Testament, under the law, a Jew cannot go unto one of another nation (10:28), now
God has put no difference between the Jews (us) and the Gentiles (them) (15:9).
Acts 13:46 - Then Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, It was necessary that the
word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you,
and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles
In the context, Paul told the Jews that God wanted to give them everlasting life, but they
rejected it (even though they were part of the elect nation). Here, we see that salvation is associated
with man’s response to the gospel. According to the plain teaching of this verse, these Jews put
the word of God from them and thereby judged themselves unworthy of everlasting life. It was
their decision, not God’s. So, Paul and Barnabas turned to the Gentiles (v. 46).
Since Jacob (Israel) was elected apart from works, the Calvinists have concluded that those
people in Acts 13:48, were unconditionally elected to eternal life. The Calvinists have ignored the
fact that the election of Jacob was not individual and not unto salvation. The proper cross-
reference to Acts 13:48 has to be Rom. 2:6-7, as both passages deal with Gentiles and both
passages deal with eternal life as an ordained consequence.
Jude 4 -- for there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old
ORDAINED to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of God into
lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, ...
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God ordained ungodly men to condemnation and there's nothing wrong with that. For God
to ordain ungodly men to condemnation is just. The thing to notice is the fact that God did not
arbitrarily ordain specific men to be condemned. God ordained any and all ungodly men (who
deny the Lord) to condemnation. It is what the justice of God requires. Condemnation is the
ordained consequence of being ungodly. It is the ordained consequence for denying the Lord God.
This is just like everything that God has ordained. It is what SHOULD be because it is what is
right and just.
Rom. 9:15 – For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I
will have compassion on whom I will have compassion
16 – So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God
that showeth mercy
This passage has been elaborated endlessly to prove Calvin's theology that God arbitrarily
chooses from among the unsaved those whom God would bestow mercy and thereby save. Based
on the above passage, the Calvinists teach that God's mercy is unconditionally given to the elect.
That if God shows mercy to a sinner, it is purely out of God's own preference. Once again, we
need to look at the context and for that we need to go back to this particular event in the life of
Moses.
Exo. 33:18 – And he said, I beseech thee, show me thy glory.
19 – And he said, I will make all my goodness pass before thee, and I will
proclaim the name of the LORD before thee; and will be gracious to whom I
will be gracious, and will show mercy on whom I will show mercy.
There are three things we need to see in the passage. First, the mercy shown here is not
mercy shown to an unsaved sinner. It was mercy shown to someone who was already following
God. Second, the mercy shown toward Moses is not something God decided on His own. God
did it because Moses requested it. God responded by granting Moses’ request. Third, the mercy
here is connected with Moses’ request to see God’s glory. It has nothing to do with salvation. So
that to read unconditional election to salvation in Romans 9:15-16, is to read something out of
context.
Exo. 33:20 -- And he said, Thou canst not see my face: for there shall no man see me,
and live.
21 -- And the LORD said, Behold, there is a place by me, and thou shalt stand
upon a rock:
22 -- And it shall come to pass, while my glory passeth by, that I will put thee in
a clift of the rock, and will cover thee with my hand while I pass by:
23 -- And I will take away mine hand, and thou shalt see my back parts: but my
face shall not be seen.
When Moses requested to see God’s glory, He actually wanted to see God face to face.
But that was not possible because no man can literally see God’s face and live (v. 20).
Nevertheless, God granted a special privilege to Moses by allowing him to see His back parts only
(v. 23). That’s the best God can do to accommodate Moses’ request without him having to die
physically (v. 20). In essence, God bent over backwards (so to speak) to give Moses what He
asked. When God showed Moses His glory, it was a very special privilege. God does not do that
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for everybody not even to everyone that loves Him and keeps His commandment (Exo. 20:6).
[Give spiritual application here].
It is very interesting to note that God chose to show mercy to Moses in this instance, but
refused to show him mercy in another instance. Remember, God did not allow Moses to enter the
promised land because Moses disobeyed God's command to speak to the rock (Numbers 20:8).
Moses was allowed to view the land (Deut. 34; 1-4) but he was not allowed to enter the land.
Deut. 3:24 – O Lord GOD, thou hast begun to show thy servant thy greatness, and thy
mighty hand: for what God is there in heaven or in earth, that can do according
to thy works, and according to thy might?
25 – I pray thee, let me go over, and see the good land that is beyond Jordan,
that goodly mountain, and Lebanon.
26 – But the LORD was wroth with me for your sakes, and would not hear me:
and the LORD said unto me, Let it suffice thee; speak no more unto me of this
matter.
God showed Moses mercy by allowing him to see His glory, but when Moses disobeyed
his instruction to speak to the rock, God refused to show him mercy by not allowing him to enter
the Promised Land although he begged God to let him go over. All the passages we have discussed
do not deal with soul salvation and therefore do not support Calvinism’s unconditional election.
Throughout the Bible, there are various passages where God either showed mercy or did not show
mercy, but none of them were arbitrary.
Exo. 20:6 - And showing mercy unto thousands of them that love me, and keep my
commandments.
How do you reconcile Romans 9:15 and Exodus 20:6? See also Deut. 5:10, 7:9, I Ki. 3:6,
8:23, Neh. 1:5, Ps. 103:11, Daniel 9:4, Luke 1:50. Contrary to Calvinism, it is not that God
unconditionally bestowed mercy first, which, in turn, enabled these people in the passage to love
God and keep his commandments. Without reading anything into the verses, we see that God
shows mercy to people that love Him and keep his commandments.
Proverbs 28:13 -- He that covereth his sins shall not prosper: but whoso confesseth and
forsaketh them shall have mercy.
Isaiah 55:7 -- Let the wicked forsake his way, and the unrighteous man his thoughts: and
let him return unto the LORD, and he will have mercy upon him; and to our God,
for he will abundantly pardon.
It is not that God first unconditionally bestows mercy so they would be able to repent from
their sins. According to these passages, who receives God’s mercy? They first confess and forsake
their sins, and then God bestows mercy! That’s the order of events. The unconditional mercy
extended to Moses is not a proper proof text, because the mercy extended to Moses did not have
anything to do with soul salvation. It is not that God decided to show Moses mercy, so he can be
saved and go to heaven regardless of anything.
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WHEN JESUS CAME
The Shift
John 10:27 - My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:
28 - And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither
shall any man pluck them out of my hand.
29 - My Father, which gave them me…
The Calvinist reads his doctrines of Unconditional Election and Irresistible Grace here.
They say that the Father unconditionally selects those that He gives to the Son and these chosen
ones cannot resist to follow the voice of the Son, although it does not say that in the verse.
Who are these whom the Father gave to the Son? The antecedent noun of the pronoun
THEM is the sheep in v. 27. Who are these sheep whom the Father gave to the Son? We should
look at the background and what is happening at this time. Why did Jesus say these things and to
whom was He speaking?
In the Old Testament, the Jews believed and followed Jehovah. When Jesus came, the
focus shifted from the Father to the Son. Note that every time Jesus would rebuke the unbelieving
Jews, Ho would point them back to the instructions of the Father and how that they are not in
accord with those instructions.
John 5:38 - And ye have not his word abiding in you: for whom he hath sent, him ye
believe not
In rebuking the Pharisees, Jesus told them that there is something wrong with their heart.
If they had Jehovah’s Word abiding in them, then they would believe Jesus, whom the Father hath
sent. The Jews, especially the Scribes and Pharisees were only pretending to follow the Father.
We see the fact that those who had a real, genuine relationship with the Father, when they see the
Son and hear His voice, they will follow Him. If they reject the Son, it’s proof that they didn’t
really belong to the Father. You think about that -- it makes sense.
John 8:42 - Jesus said unto them, If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I
proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me.
If these Jews had a real relationship to God the Father, then they will believe and accept
the Son. If they had a true relationship with the Father, they will make that shift. The sheep of v.
27 have a spiritual relationship with the Father and therefore are rightfully the Father’s sheep.
Now, Jesus is ushering in a new dispensation and the Father is turning over his sheep to the Son.
That’s what’s happening! [Spiritual Application: If your heart is not right with God, you will not
see the truth in God’s Word.]
The firstborn
Rom. 8:29 - For whom He did foreknow. He also did predestinate to be conformed to
the image of His Son, that He might be the FIRSTBORN AMONG MANY
BRETHREN
The "brethren" here cannot be his physical brethren, the Jews. The Jews started with
Abraham, Isaac, Jacob and the 12 tribes of Israel - thousands of years before Christ was born. The
"brethren" here have to be the spiritual "sons" of God who are spiritually born into the spiritual
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family of God (Jn. 1:12, Jn. 3:3) by spiritual birth. This is one of the new things that Jesus ushered
in when He came in the flesh.
Many have failed to notice that Christ's birth is two-fold. When he was born physically, he
was also born spiritually. Jesus' two births were simultaneous so that Jesus was not born dead in
trespasses and in sins. Every other man born in the flesh is born spiritually dead. Technically,
Adam was the first spiritually alive person to set foot on this earth. But he was not born. He was
a direct creation of God.
Jesus is the first born in the flesh that is not spiritually dead because He did not have a
human father. If he is the firstborn, then no one in the Old Testament could have been born into
this family; otherwise, Jesus would not be the firstborn. If no one in the Old Testament was born
again, then no one in the Old Testament was given spiritual life or quickened.
Another Comforter
Jn. 7:39 - but this spake he of the Spirit which they that believe on him should receive; for
the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified ...
At this time, the giving of the Holy Spirit was still an anticipated event. The Bible clearly
states that it was not yet given. Yet, there were many who have already believed. That’s why
Jesus said, the spirit which they that believe . . . should receive. The should receive the Holy Spirit
but have not because Jesus was not yet glorified!
Jn. 14:6 -- And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he
may abide with you for ever;
Jesus promised to send the Holy Spirit after He left. It was only after the resurrection (the
glorification of Christ) that the Holy Spirit was given. After Jesus Christ ascended to Heaven –
on the day of Pentecost – the Holy Spirit came. How then can those who have believed before this
time possibly be quickened when the Holy Spirit was not yet given?
Calvinist: The atonement was limited as Christ only died for particular persons. They contend
that if Christ's blood was shed for the whole world and the whole world does not get saved, then
that would involve wasted sufferings on the part of the Lord Jesus Christ, which renders the
atonement of Christ a partial failure since, some people for whom he died for will not get saved.
Because a true Calvinist believes that Christ’s death is not for everyone, it would be very
difficult for him to engage in personal soul winning. He cannot personalize the death of Christ to
his prospect. He cannot say, “Christ died for YOU.” What if his prospect is not one of the elect?
Then, he would be lying! That’s the dilemma of a Calvinist! That is why it is hard for a true
Calvinist to be an effective soul winner. In his personal evangelism, he could only generalize he
cannot personalize.
For Paul
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Gal. 2:20 - and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God,
who loved me and gave himself for me …
The claim for limited atonement is arrived at because of similar verses, which seem to
apply the death of Christ for particular people. When Paul said that Christ died for him, did he
mean that Christ died for him alone? Of course, no one will dare say that. All will agree that Paul
was only one of those for whom Christ died!
If Christ died only for the church (the bride of Christ), what about those who do not belong
to the church? The "Baptist Briders" who are Calvinists are in trouble here. They believe that
only the Baptist church is the bride of Christ and all the Christians who are members of other
churches are just guests. What about the believers who are members of other denominations?
What about believers who are not even members of any denomination? What about the unsaved
members of the Baptist church?
To clarify matters, it should be understood that the church here is not the physical church,
but the spiritual church entered into by spiritual baptism not water baptism.
I Cor. 12:13 - For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or
Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one
Spirit.
Col. 2:12 - Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the
faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.
This spiritual church is Christ’s body (Col. 1:18 - And he is the head of the body, the church: 24
- Who now rejoice in my sufferings for you, and fill up that which is behind of the afflictions of Christ in my
flesh for his body's sake, which is the church:). This one body is composed of saved Jews and Gentiles.
But the joining of the Jews and Gentiles in one body is not possible in the Old Testament.
Eph. 2:13- BUT NOW in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by
the blood of Christ
14 - For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the
middle wall of partition between us;
15 - Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of Commandments
contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so
making peace;
16 - And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having
slain the enmity thereby:
If Christ died exclusively for the church and not one drop of blood was shed for anyone
else, then no one in the Old Testament could have been saved because the church (which is Christ's
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body) did not exist before the death of Christ on the cross. Notice the phrase BUT NOW! Before
NOW, the ONE BODY was not in existence.
The formation of the one body and the joining of Jews and Gentiles into this one body was
only made possible by the blood of Christ (v. 13) and by the death of Christ on the cross (v. 16).
So, before the cross, the Jews and the Gentiles were not in ONE BODY.
Therefore, no one in the Old Testament was a part of the body of Christ (the church) in
which case Christ did not die for any of those people (if the Calvinist doctrine is correct). Jesus
Christ did not even die for John the Baptist because according to John's own testimony, he was
only a friend of the bridegroom and not part of the bride of Christ.
There can be no waste since the Lord’s death is not quantifiable. Jesus would have died
the same death regardless of the number of men He was going to save because He was dying as
the last Adam, the second federal head.
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Notice the comparison between the two men as the two Adams. Jesus, as the last Adam,
is the second federal head of the human race.
Rom. 5:17 - For if by ONE man's offense death reigned by one; much more they which
receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by
ONE, Jesus Christ.
18 - Therefore, as by the offense of ONE judgment came upon ALL men to
condemnation; even so by the righteousness of ONE the free gift came upon
ALL men unto justification of life ...
19 - For as by ONE man's disobedience MANY were made sinners, so by the
obedience of ONE shall MANY be made righteous...
The passage emphasizes the effect of one man's action on the entire human race. Death
extended to each and every man by ONE man's offence. Why? Because Adam was the federal
head of the whole human race! Consequently, it takes a second federal head to reverse the effect
of Adam's sin on the human race. When Jesus took the sinner's place on the cross, he did not have
to die, as many times as those who would get saved. He only had to die once because he died as
the federal head of mankind.
When dealing with the judgment to condemnation and the free gift unto justification of life,
it was attributed to ALL MEN (v. 18). No one can argue that judgment came upon ALL MEN by
the offense of Adam. The phrase “EVEN SO” will not allow us to change the meaning of ALL
MEN in the comparison. In the same way that judgment to condemnation came upon all men by
the offense of Adam (the first federal head), the free gift unto justification of life came upon ALL
MEN (not just the elect) by the righteousness of Jesus Christ (the second federal head). Therefore,
just as judgment came upon all men (without exception), even so the free gift came upon all men
(without exception).
NOW notice the change in number from ALL MEN to MANY (v. 19). When dealing with
who “shall be made righteous”, it changed from “ALL MEN” to “MANY.” Why? Because
although the free gift unto justification of life came upon all men, not all men will receive
justification of life. That’s why “by the obedience of one” only “many” (not all men) SHALL BE
made righteous. Only those who will receive Jesus Christ shall be made righteous. As always, if
you just take the Word of God (don’t tamper with it) it will make sense.
Calvinists tend to cite John 17:9 as a proof-text that God did not die for the world and
therefore does not pray for the world but only for those whom the Father had given to Him. By
necessity, they make those whom the Father gave to the Son refer to the elect. We have already
discussed the shift from the Father (Old Testament) to the Son (New Testament). Additionally,
we will look at passages that show the atonement is not limited using the venn diagram.
I Tim. 5:8 – “But if any provide not for his own, and specially for those of his own
house, he hath denied the faith, and is worse than an infidel.”
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"His own" is a general group (consisting of all the members of his household which could
include extended families) whom the father should provide for. "His own house" is a special group
(consisting of his wife and children) within the general group, which is to be the first and foremost
recipients of his provision. Just the same, everybody in the group (whether in the general or
special) should be a recipient of the father’s provision.
I Tim. 5:17 – “Let the elders that rule well be counted worthy of double honor, especially they
who labour in the word and doctrine”
In the church, there are people we call elders. These elders could be serving tables (like
Philip and Stephen) or they could be laboring in word and doctrine (like Peter and the other
apostles). Nonetheless, all elders who rule well (whatever their work is) should be counted worthy
of double honor, but especially those elders who labor in word and doctrine. Get it?
Gal. 6:10 -- As we have therefore opportunity, let us do good unto all men, especially
unto them who are of the household of faith.
The household of faith is not the totality of people we need to be good to, but just the subset
of it. Thus, we cannot limit “all men” to the same parameters as the “household of faith.” We
need to do good unto ALL (every) man, especially to those who belong to the household of faith
(the subset of ALL). Now, compare the above passages to the following:
I Tim. 4:10 – “For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the
living God, who is the Saviour of ALL men, specially of those that believe.”
There are moderate Calvinists, who accept the truth that God is the Savior of all men
because of numerous similar passages. Still, the staunch Calvinists refuse it. Some resort to
changing the translation of the verse to, who is the Savior of all men, THAT IS, of those who believe.
Others argue that the term "Saviour" is used in a temporal and not an eternal sense – just like God
giving rain to both righteous and the sinners.
If you limit ALL men in the above verse to the elect, it will read "because we trust in the
living God, who is the Savior of all elected men, especially of those elected men that believe." Do
you see what happened? Leaving the verse as is, here’s what you get. “God is the Savior of all
men (the general group – the entirety), especially of those that believe (special group – the subset).
A staunch Calvinist cannot accept Jesus as the Saviour of all men because in His theology
it would result in universal salvation. But that is not the case. The effects of Jesus’ atonement are
not automatic. This is clearly seen in the typology of the brazen serpent.
John 3:14 -- And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son
of man be lifted up:
15 -- That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life.
16 -- For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that
whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
Consider why Jesus Christ must be lifted up even as Moses lifted up the serpent in the
wilderness. Why? THAT WHOSOEVER believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal
life! If the term “world” (v. 16) is made to mean anything other than the whole world of men
needing to be saved, the term “whosoever” becomes meaningless. You cannot disengage v. 16
from vs. 14 and 15. The universality of “world” in the passage is clear from the term “whosoever,”
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which is used twice in the context. If the “WORLD” refers only to the ELECT, then what does
WHOSOEVER refer to?
The universality of the “world” in this passage is clear from the typology that is used. In
the comparison, the “brazen serpent” is the source of salvation for all who were bitten (it is literally
the savior for all who were bitten), but its healing properties are only released to the individual as
they looked at it (Num. 21:8-9). In the same way (EVEN SO), Jesus lifted up on the cross on
Calvary is the savior of every sinner dead in sin, but only those who believe shall receive the life
that the atonement on Calvary provides. That’s where the term WHOSOEVER comes in.
Whosoever looks (the subset) from among those who were bitten (the set), will live. Even so,
whosoever believes (the subset) from the world (the set), will have everlasting life.
Of course, Jesus did not pray for the world in v. 9. How could he? He was praying for
oneness. For this particular request, Jesus only prayed for a particular group of men: these men
have kept God's word (v. 6); they have received God's word and they have believed that Jesus
came from God (v. 8). While Jesus was WITH THEM in the world, He kept them, so none of
them is lost but the son of perdition (v 12). These are men whom God had sent into the world (18).
They were the men who were with Jesus that night in the garden of Gethsemane - they are the
apostles! The fulfillment of v. 12 is found in the next chapter.
John 18:8 -- Jesus answered, I have told you that I am he: if therefore ye seek me, let
these go their way:
9 -- That the saying might be fulfilled, which he spake, Of them which thou
gavest me have I lost none.
Jesus was praying for the apostles who were with him when he was arrested. He was not
praying that they would be kept safe from hell, but that they would be kept alive. So when Jesus
was arrested, He made sure that the apostles would be let go. The saying was fulfilled because
none of the apostles died, except Judas. It was imperative that these apostles stay alive. Why?
Because they still had a mission. They needed to witness the death, burial and resurrection of the
Lord Jesus Christ, so they can testify about it. Look at the next part of Jesus’ prayer.
Jn. 17:20 – Neither pray I for THESE alone, but for THEM also which shall believe
on me through their word;
21 – That they all may be one; as thou. Father, art in me, and I in thee, that
they also may be one in us: that the WORLD may believe that thou hast sent
me.”
The thing to notice is the fact that Jesus' prayer was not made exclusively for THESE
(apostles) alone. Jesus also prayed for THEM who shall believe on Jesus through THEIR
(apostles') word. Jesus prayed that those who will believe through the apostles' witness would also
be one. Why did Jesus pray this prayer? That the WORLD may believe.
Now, the Calvinists teach that Jesus did not pray for the world (17:9) because they were
not elected. That won't work because although Jesus did not pray for the WORLD to be one even
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as Jesus and the Father is one, He prayed that through the apostles’ word, the WORLD may believe
(17:21). The term "world" appears in the same context, but to maintain their theology, the
Calvinist is forced to make the world of v. 9 refer to "the world of the non-elect" and then the
world of verse 21 to refer to the "the world of the elect". However, it you just let the term “world”
stand as is, there is no problem. Jesus did not pray for the world (of the ungodly) when he was
praying for the oneness of the apostles, but He did pray that the world (of the ungodly) may believe
the on Jesus through the witness of the apostles!
APPLICATION: Because His prayer was for unity, Jesus couldn’t pray for the world!
This tells us that the unity Jesus wanted for us is not the ecumenical movement. The world and
the believers cannot be one. We cannot allow the world into our lives, into our families, or into
our churches much less integrate with them. We don’t have to waste our time praying for
Christians and the world to get along. It is impossible for the world and the believers to have
fellowship or communion (2 Cor. 6:14-15). Instead, the believer should concentrate on separating
from the world (2 Cor. 6:17-18). We should always bear in mind that friendship with the world is
enmity with God (James 4:4).
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Matt Slick explains it away by changing the verse to say: having concluded this, that one
died for all, therefore all died. They change the verse to avoid the obvious truth presented in the
passage. First, there is a premise, and then a conclusion, just like you have when you are solving
mathematical and scientific problems.
The premise is, if Christ died for all (universally), then the inescapable conclusion would
be that all were dead (universally). The opposite would be: If Christ did not die for all
(universally), then not all were dead (universally)! Then, the premise would lead to a wrong
conclusion, because the Bible tells us that ALL (universally) are dead. Do you see why ALL has
to mean ALL (without exception)?
II Cor. 5:15 – “And that he died for ALL, that they which live should not henceforth live
unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.”
Verse 15 continues the thought began in verse 14. If one died for ALL, then were ALL
dead. He died for ALL, that THEY which live . . . The pronoun "they" refers to the antecedent
"ALL". If you make the word ALL mean "only the elect", you will have the same problem as you
have in “I Timothy 4:10.” Plainly, we have a general group (all who are dead for whom Christ
died), and within the general group is a sub-group (they which live). It won’t make sense if you
make ALL to mean only the elect because then you will be saying that some of the elect don’t live.
Rom. 11:32 -- For God hath concluded them ALL in unbelief, that he might have mercy
upon all.
John Calvin made ALL to mean elected Jews and Gentiles instead of the whole human race
(Calvin’s New Testament Commentaries: Romans and Thessalonians, p.258). While it is true that
the pronoun THEM refers to Jews and Gentiles, we cannot limit the passage to only the elect
because “THEM” is modified by “ALL”. Did God conclude in unbelief -- only the elect Jews and
Gentiles or all Jews and Gentiles? If all Jews and Gentiles, then it is the whole human race, since
the whole human race is comprised of Jews and Gentiles. If you are not a Jew you are a Gentile.
It would be very difficult to get away with the verse because there are two ALLs in the
verse. If the “all” of the first half of this verse refers to all men (not just the elect), as it obviously
does, then it is impossible to interpret the latter half of the verse in any other sense. The passage
gives us a purpose for why God did something. Why did God conclude THEM ALL in unbelief?
THAT he might have mercy upon ALL! Do you see why all cannot mean “the elect” only?
Heb. 2:9 – “That he by the grace of God should taste death for every man”
In order to defend their theology, the Calvinists would stretch the scriptures to read the
elect into the passage. Do you realize how much stretching of the scriptures it would take to
maintain this theology? Instead of Jesus tasting death for every man, the Calvinist reads, “Jesus
tasted death for only the elect.”
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John 1: 9 -- That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into
the world.
In order to avoid the implications of the verse, the Calvinist would have to change the
verse and of course, they did. But the verse says what it says. God lights every man that cometh
into the world (and that is all mankind). Every man (not just the elect) comes into the world! If
atonement is limited, why would God light every man that cometh into the world?
How do you explain the fact that the Scriptures express the atonement in general and
universal terms, as you can see from the following verses:
Luke 19:10 - For the Son of man is come to seek and to save that which was lost (but
only the elect).
Romans 5:6 -- For when we were yet without strength, in due time Christ died for the
ungodly (but not all ungodly, only the elect).
Matthew 9:13 -- I am not come to call the (non-elect) righteous, but sinners (only the
elect, however) to repentance
There is no suggestion that only a certain elect group among the “lost...ungodly...[and]
sinners” is intended. There is simply no qualifier. To sustain the Calvinistic argument, however,
one would have to add qualifiers and stretch other Bible verses as well. Someone made this
remarkable concession: "If Christ really did die for all men, then I don’t know how the Bible could
say it any clearer than it does." How true!
Whosoever means anyone within the group; therefore, whatever is being offered is
available for the entire group, but only those who receive the offer will get what is offered.
Whosoever among the athirst can take the water of life freely! There’s no way you can make
“HIM” refer to only the elect and there is no way you can make “WHOSOEVER” apply only to
the elect.
The offer for the water of life is genuine, which the athirst can either accept or reject. There
is nothing in the passage or in any other context (i.e., John 3:16) to suggest that Christ offers
salvation to anyone less than "whosoever." When anyone reads these verses, one has to believe
that these are genuine offers that anyone can accept or reject. Unlike a scrupulous businessman,
there are no fine prints. What it says is what is intended!
Galatians 3:22 -- But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith
of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.
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This verse, too, gives a purpose for why something was done. Why did the Scripture
conclude ALL under sin?
John 1:29 -- The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb
of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.
Contrary to what Packer says, Paul tells us that the heart of the gospel message which he
preached to unsaved Corinthians (including many non-elect Corinthians) was this: "how that Christ
died for OUR SINS (yours and mine)." See 1 Corinthians 15:1-3. If this was the gospel Paul
preached, should it not be the gospel we preach? We would like to ask J.I. Packer and others who
limit the atonement this question: Are you able to approach an unsaved person and say from your
heart sincerely, "My friend, I have good news for you. Jesus Christ died for you. He paid the
penalty for your sins"?
The gospel is "Christ died for our sins" (1 Cor. 15:3) but if Christ did not die for those who
are not elect, then there is no gospel or good news for them. But the Bible makes it clear that there
is good news and there is a Saviour for all men (Luke 2:10-11), and that it is possible for this good
news to be rejected and for this gospel to be disobeyed (2 Thess. 1:8). Men do not perish because
there was no Saviour who died for them; they perish because they have rejected the Saviour who
died for them. He is the Saviour of all men, especially of those who believe (1 Tim. 4:10).
1 Tim. 2:1 -- I exhort therefore, that, first of all, supplications, prayers, intercessions,
and giving of thanks, be made for all men;
2 -- For kings, and for all that are in authority; that we may lead a quiet and
peaceable life in all godliness and honesty.
3 -- For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour;
4 -- Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the
truth.
5 -- For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man
Christ Jesus;
6 -- Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.
Look at the context of the verse and the natural progression of the passage. The command
is that prayers be made for ALL MEN (v. 1). Does the all men here (v. 1) mean only “the elect?”
The next verse (v. 2), makes it clear that ALL MEN (v. 1) cannot mean “the elect.” Why? Praying
for them will lead us to live a quiet and peaceable life (v. 3) (not just with the elect but with all
men we deal with) and this is acceptable in the sight of our Saviour, who will have ALL MEN to
be saved (v. 4). Then it continues with “the mediator between God and men (v. 5) giving himself
a ransom for ALL (v. 6).” Do you see why ALL MEN cannot mean the elect only? Would the
ALL MEN in vs. 4 and 6 mean any different than the context?
"Who WILL NOT have all men to be saved, nor come to the knowledge of the truth." Isn’t
that more than a little out of place in the context? "Who WILL have all men to be saved," would
have to mean ALL MEN for the passage to make sense.
Dispensationalists have endeavored to follow this rule of Biblical interpretation: When the
plain sense makes good sense seek no other sense lest it result in nonsense! But others have
abandoned a literal approach when it comes to certain areas of Scripture. Limited redemptionists,
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for example, seem to have followed another rule: When the plain sense contradicts our theological
system seek some other sense lest we end up contradicting our particular brand of Calvinism.
If you would, do but tell me, what words can you devise or would you wish more plain for
it than are there used? Is it not enough that Christ is called the Saviour of the World? You’ll say,
but is it of the whole World? Yes, it saith, He is the propitiation for the sins of the whole World.
Will you say, but it is not for All men in the World? Yes it saith he died for All men, as well as for
all the World. But will you say, it saith not for every man? Yes it doth say, he tasted death for
every man. But you may say, It means all the Elect, if it said so of any Non-Elect I would believe.
Yes, it speaks of those that denied the Lord that bought them, and bring upon themselves swift
destruction. And yet all this seems nothing to men prejudiced.
II Pet. 2:1 – “but there were false prophets among the people, even as there shall be false
teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying
the Lord that bought THEM, and bring upon THEMSELVES swift
destruction.”
The Calvinists try to avoid the truth by claiming that the false prophets are those who went
out with the children of Israel from Egypt. That the verse does not refer to Christ's atoning death
on Calvary, but the redemption by blood from Egypt.
There were false prophets even as, there shall be false teachers
among the people among YOU who shall bring in heresies
even denying the Lord that
bought THEM
False prophets existed in the past (among Israel), EVEN AS there shall be false teachers
among YOU (the Christians to whom Peter was writing presently). Then, notice the switch in
pronouns. It is not "the Lord that bought YOU - but "the Lord that bought THEM. The antecedent
of the pronoun THEM is “false teachers”. Who were bought? The false teachers were bought.
Who bought them? The Lord bought them. What did the Lord buy the false teachers with? He
bought them with his own blood, of course. The inescapable conclusion therefore is that the blood
of Jesus Christ was shed for everybody, including the false teachers. There is no other way to read
the passage, because the pronoun THEM could neither refer to Peter nor his readers in view of the
next part of the sentence. These people (who were bought) brought upon THEMSELVES swift
destruction. Do you see how there is no other way to read the passage?
How can we preach the gospel to every creature (Mark 16:15) if Christ did not die for every
creature? If the good news of the cross is only for some, then how can we preach it with sincerity
to all? As L.S. Chafer asks, "How can a universal gospel be preached if there is no universal
provision? To say on the one hand that Christ died only for the elect and on the other hand that His
death is the ground on which salvation is offered to all men is perilously near contradiction"
God’s redemptive love as demonstrated on the cross was lavished upon all men, rendering
all without excuse. How tragic that there will be those for whom Christ died who will perish. But
the reason for this is not that no provision was made and no gift was given. Rather, the gift has
been rejected and the love has been spurned. "Wonderful grace of Jesus, reaching to all the lost!"
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POINT FOUR: IRRESISTIBLE GRACE
Irresistible Grace is the idea that the elect, those who Calvinists believe have been
unconditionally elected to eternal life, cannot resist the grace of God and heaven's determination
to save them. As those elected to damnation can do nothing about it, those who are elected to
salvation can do nothing to resist. The grace of God overwhelms them in such a way that even if
they wanted to, they could not repel it.
Acts 16:14 - And a certain woman named Lydia, a seller of purple, of the city of Thyatira,
which worshipped God, heard us: whose heart the Lord opened, that she attended
unto the things which were spoken of Paul.
The way this passage is often taught by Calvinists is that prior to God opening Lydia’s
heart, she was closed to God and Jesus Christ, closed to salvation, closed to the gospel, and closed
to the message of eternal life. But when God opened her heart, she could not resist. Thus, she
attended unto the things which were spoken by Paul.
However, the text says something different. The text says that she was on the Sabbath, she
was down at the riverbanks where people met to pray (Acts 16:13). Before Paul and Silas had
even spoken to her, she was said to already worship God.
In this way, Lydia is a female version of Cornelius. Like Lydia, Cornelius was a God-
fearing Gentile. He was a man who worshipped and obeyed God according to the knowledge he
had at that time. And the text indicates that as a result of Cornelius’ prayers and alms, God sent
Peter to preach a more specific revelation about the person and work of Jesus Christ whereby he
could be saved. Review the case of Cornelius and the Ethiopian Eunuch.
Considering that Acts is a transition book from law to grace, we find a lot of people having
incomplete knowledge of the Gospel of Grace as preached by Paul. So when the text says that
God opened Lydia’s heart, God helped her see the truth of the Gospel of Grace that Paul was
preaching. This is not much different from what happened to the disciples in Acts 19:2-5, who
have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost. All they knew was John’s baptism,
but after Paul taught them about Jesus Christ, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
The act of God opening her heart was an act of illumination by the Spirit to help her see,
understand, and grasp the Scriptures in a new way, of making the puzzle pieces fit together in the
person and work of Jesus Christ. In this way, what happened to Lydia is not much different than
what happened to Apollos when Priscilla and Aquila explained the way of God more fully to him
(Acts 18:24-26).
The TULIP theology hinges on the sovereignty of God as their cornerstone, either directly,
or as they build on the other points. They believe that whatever God wills and desires will come
to pass, so that if God desires to save all men, then all men must get saved. They are under the
impression that if man is free to choose or reject God’s offer of salvation, it would mean God is
not sovereign. But what if God is the one who has decided to give man the freedom to choose?
Does that make him any less sovereign?
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When you discuss matters of theology with a Calvinist, almost inevitably, the conversation
turns to them saying, “That’s because of God’s sovereignty,” or “that undermines God’s
sovereignty.” For them, everything happens because God decreed it to happen beforehand.
Isa. 14:24 – The Lord of hosts hath sworn, saying, surely as I have thought so shall it
come to pass; and as I have purposed, so shall it stand
27 – for the Lord of hosts hath purposed and who shall disannul it? And his
hand is stretched out, and who shall turn it back?
The question is not whether or not God’s purposes shall stand but what did God purpose
to do in the verse? Did He purpose to elect some to heaven and reprobate others to hell? Did He
purpose not to give His creatures free will? Look at the context –
Isa. 14:25 – That I will break the Assyrian in my land, and upon my mountains tread
him under foot: then shall his yoke depart from off them, and his burden depart
from off their shoulders.
26 – This is the purpose that is purposed upon the whole earth: and this is the
hand that is stretched out upon all the nations.
The purpose which God purposed upon the whole earth, which no man can disannul is
the breaking of the Assyrian. It says nothing about man not having free will and God choosing
some to heaven, while damning the rest to hell. Once again, the Calvinists are reading
something into the text that is not there.
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that they turn from their evil ways and live. How do you reconcile this with “my counsel shall
stand and I will do all my pleasure?”
Isa. 65:12 – “therefore will I number you to the sword, and ye shall all bow down to the
slaughter; because when I called, ye did not answer; when I spake, ye did not
hear; but did evil before mine eyes, and did choose that wherein I delighted not
Why did God number them to the sword? Because they did not answer when He called
and did not hear when He spake! How then do you reconcile Isa. 65:12 and Isa. 46:10? Obviously,
God does permit man to choose the things wherein God does not delight because that’s what
happened here. When God permits man to choose, does it make God less sovereign?
First, Isa. 65:12 tell us that there are things that God decrees to happen. These are things
that God will cause to happen by His own omnipotence and nobody and nothing can prevent it
from happening. This is sometimes called directive will or decretive will. Included in God’s
directive will is the second coming. Because God wills it, then He will make it happen.
Ezek. 33:11 and Isa. 46:10 have to do with what He desires for man to do and is primarily
concerned with man’s obedience to His word and precepts. Some call this God’s preceptive will.
As we can see from the verses, what God wills preceptively does not always happen because man
sometimes chooses that where God does not delight. Throughout the Scripture, we see God’s
creatures are allowed to act in ways contrary to the desire and wish of the Creator, and this we call
sin. (We will discuss the author of sin later). The question is: Will God permit man to choose
wherein He does not delight in some matters, but not in the matter of salvation?
Others refer more generally to “God’s permissive will.” Example for this is I Corinthians
16:7-For I will not see you now by the way, but I trust to tarry with you, if the Lord permit. God’s
permissive will allows both bad and good things to occur. This would include what happened
during the Holocaust! Most Christians would agree that heinous crimes occur by God’s permission
not by God’s direction.
John Piper insists that sovereignty means God decrees and wills every evil choice and event
in human history-and does so irresistibly. Although he uses the term “permissive will”, in his
theology, his permissive will and directive will are essentially the same because he believes that
God has decreed every thought, desire and choice in man. For him, God’s foreordaining mind is
the author and origin of everything that occurs. So in actuality, the thing that God permits man to
do is not really man’s choice, but God’s choice.
1 Sam. 13:13 – “And Samuel said to Saul, Thou hast done foolishly; thou hast not kept
the commandment of the Lord thy God, which he commanded thee: for now
WOULD the Lord HAVE established thy kingdom upon Israel forever.
14 – “BUT NOW, thy kingdom shall not continue: The Lord hath sought him a
man after his own heart, and the Lord hath commanded him to be captain over
his people, because thou hast not kept that which the Lord commanded thee ...
God WOULD HAVE established Saul's kingdom upon Israel forever, but because he
disobeyed God, Saul was rejected from being King. God "would have" means God really
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intended to establish the kingdom upon Saul. If God really intended to establish the kingdom
upon Saul, then when God allowed Saul to disobey, it was by permission, not by direction.
So what we see in this example is that God is sovereign. But men are nonetheless free in
the greatest sense that any creature of God could be free – we make choices -- choices that have
real effects and consequences.
SOVEREIGN GRACE
The reformed view of Calvinism teaches that before a person can choose Christ, he must
be born again. They believe that without the REGENERATING GRACE of the Holy Spirit, the
sinner is neither able nor willing to believe.
2 Timothy 3:15 -- ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus
Since they became children of God by faith, then it follows that faith precedes
regeneration. If the elect must be regenerated before they have faith, then after they are
regenerated, they remain unsaved until they receive the Son. Their regeneration still leaves them
unsaved. What regeneration is this that doesn’t save?
Even Spurgeon, in spite of his claim of being a staunch Calvinist said this: If I am to
preach faith in Christ to a man who is regenerated, then the man, being regenerated, is saved
already, and it is an unnecessary and ridiculous thing for me to preach Christ to him, and bid
him to believe in order to be saved when he is saved already, being regenerate. Am I only to
preach faith to those who have it? Absurd, indeed! Is not this waiting till the man is cured and
then bringing him the medicine? This is preaching Christ to the righteous and not to sinners.
(C.H. Spurgeon, “The Warrant of Faith” (Pasadena, TX: Pilgrim Publications, 1978).
If regeneration saves, then faith precedes regeneration because a sinner is saved through
faith. In that case, a sinner can exercise faith without being regenerated first.
Ephesians 2:8 -- For by grace are ye saved through faith, and that not of yourselves, it
is the gift of God,
9 -- not of works, lest any man should boast.
This is a pillar proof text for a Calvinist. The Calvinists argue that believing or faith is a
work in itself, and that by saying that the sinner can believe on Christ of his own will is to say
that he contributes to his salvation. They argue that since salvation is 100% of God, the only
way for anyone to be saved apart from works is for God to enable him to believe by regenerating
him first. But is believing work?
Romans 4:5 -- But to him that worketh NOT, but believeth on him that justifieth the
ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
The contrasting conjunction “BUT” plainly shows that “to believe is not to work.”
Therefore, to require that a sinner believe the gospel is not to require the sinner to do some sort
of works for salvation.
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Luke 7:9 -- When Jesus heard these things, he marvelled at him, and turned him about,
and said unto the people that followed him, I say unto you, I have not found so
great faith, no, not in Israel.
Mark 9:19 -- He answereth him, and saith, O faithless generation, how long shall I be
with you? how long shall I suffer you? bring him unto me.
If faith is given to men sovereignly by God as part of the package of sovereign grace in
sovereign election, why did Jesus marvel at the centurion’s faith and commended HIS faith to the
Jews? If man is not responsible for exercising faith, what is there to marvel at? Why would
Jesus praise the man’s “great faith” if it were merely something that God had sovereignly
enabled him? Similarly, if man is not responsible for exercising faith, what is there to complain
about people being faithless?
John 2:23 -- Now when he was in Jerusalem at the Passover, in the feast day, many
believed in his name, when they saw the miracles which he did.
John 4:39 -- And many of the Samaritans of that city believed on him for the saying of
the woman, which testified, He told me all that ever I did.
John 11:45 -- Then many of the Jews which came to Mary, and had seen the things
which Jesus did, believed on him.
The instances above show people believed in Jesus in response to the word or his miracle.
That’s why the Jews seek for a sign before they would believe.
Matthew 9:29 -- Then touched he their eyes, saying, According to YOUR faith be it
unto you
Luke 7:50 -- And he said to the woman, THY faith hath saved thee; go in peace.
Unquestionably, to receive the gift of eternal life, one must simply believe the gospel. In
saying “Your faith” and “thy faith,” Jesus was attributing faith to those who exercised it,
implying their ability to believe of their own accord.
Yes, Jesus gives light, the Holy Spirit convicts and we must share the gospel; but the
sinner must believe. Jesus gave the blind man his sight in response to his faith and healed the
woman in response to her faith. Likewise, we are given the power to become a child of God in
response to our faith!
Acts 16:30 -- What must I DO to be saved?
How much clearer does it have to be? The keeper wanted to know the action he himself
(not God) must do, in order to be saved. Paul and Silas answered, “Believe on the Lord Jesus
Christ and thou shalt be saved.”
Faith is the hand, which reaches out to accept God’s gift of eternal life (Rom. 6:23).
Contrary to Calvinist reasoning, to accept a gift is not a work and there is nothing in receiving
the gift that gives the recipient bragging rights. A gift is 100% from the one who purchased and
offered it. All the recipient can do when he receives a wonderful, expensive gift is be grateful!
Romans 3:26 -- To declare, I say, at this time His righteousness: that he might be just,
and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus. Where is boasting then? It is
excluded. Buy what law? Of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
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If someone purchases an expensive gift for me and I accept it, do I have anything to boast
of? If I am in prison on death row for my crimes and the governor mercifully offers me a pardon
and I accept it, have I done anything that I could boast of? If I am drowning in the ocean and a
boat pulls alongside and offers to rescue me and I allow them to do that, have I done something I
could boast of? Of course not! When the sinner hears that Christ loves him and died for him and
rose from the dead and offers him eternal salvation and the sinner joyfully receives that great
salvation, that is not works that merits salvation and the sinner has nothing to boast about.
Calvinism teaches that God chose some people to be saved (not on account of any foreseen
faith in them) and unconditionally predestined the reprobates to hell, based solely on his sovereign
good pleasure.
Romans 2:4 -- Or despisest thou the riches of his goodness and forbearance and
longsuffering; not knowing that the goodness of God leadeth thee to repentance?
Now, who would you consider good? Do you think a good person would do something
like ignore people in terrible suffering and in danger of death when he could help them?
Remember the story of the Good Samaritan? That’s exactly how Calvinism pictures God – a deity
who passes over and does nothing to help the dying sinner, when He can very well save him!
Isa. 45:19 – I the LORD speak righteousness, I declare things that are right.
How was it fair for God to choose to save some and then send everyone else to hell? That
is a question that a Calvinist must answer and their answer is: You don’t want fair. Fair would
mean we all get what we deserve and what we all deserve is hell. Fair = hell. But how is God just
in light of his electing some and not electing others when they are all deserving of hell?
And whenever you raise this point with Calvinists, all they say is that you should just be
grateful God chose you! It’s like, ‘as long as your eternal destiny is secure, who cares about
anyone else!’ How can you be okay with that? How can anyone be okay with that? Why do these
Calvinists not find this morally offensive?”
God is not only sovereign, but he is also righteous. God declares things that are right! Will
a holy and just God take pleasure in condemning men to hell for not believing, when they are
incapable of belief anyway?
Prov. 1:24 – Because I have called, and ye refused; I have stretched out my hand, and no
man regardeth;...
26- “I will also laugh at your calamity, I will mock when your fear cometh ...
Would God mock a man for refusing to hear His call when that man cannot respond
positively to Him? Does that sound like the Lord? This is similar to the illustration of Dr. Ben M.
Bogard of a blind man being commanded to look and see and being slapped across the face for not
seeing when the one giving out the punishment knew fully well that the man is blind and therefore
do not have the ability to see. Is that justice?
Even human courts see the injustice of condemning someone like the one pictured by the
Calvinists. They refuse to convict the insane, the mentally retarded, etc. They are declared “not
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guilty” by reason of mental defect or insanity. Likewise, is it right and just to convict someone
for not believing, when he cannot believe in the first place and then consigns him eternally in the
most dreadful place ever?
Matthew 18:8 - Wherefore if thy hand or thy foot offend thee, cut them off, and cast them
from thee: it is better for thee to enter into life halt or maimed, rather than having
two hands or two feet to be cast into everlasting fire.
Isn’t the above verse supposed to serve as a warning to unsaved men? The passage is
telling man the extent they should go in order to avoid being cast into everlasting fire. Why
would God warn men if they wouldn’t be able to do anything about their fate (if they are not
elected)? What is the purpose of the warning?
John Piper says, “Every time the gospel is preached to unbelievers, it is a mercy of God
that gives this opportunity for salvation.” John Piper and Pastoral Staff, “TULIP: What We
Believe About the Five Points of Calvinism: Position Paper of the Pastoral Staff” (Minneapolis,
MN: Desiring God Ministries, 1997), p. 14. How will preaching the gospel give opportunity for
salvation to those for whom Christ did not die, whom God never had any intention of saving and
whom He in fact has already predestined to eternity in the Lake of Fire. That is the height of
contradiction. How is that an opportunity for salvation? How could you even call that mercy?
Consider the horror of the place we call hell and why God wants us to avoid going there.
It is a place of eternal torment, filled with the searing wrath of God. Would God
unconditionally reprobate a good portion of the human race to spend an eternity in a place so
dreadful for no other reason than his sovereign pleasure? Is that a good, just God? The Calvinist
would say that God’s goodness and justice do not directly correspond to human notions of
goodness and justice. But what exactly do they mean when they say God is good? In what sense
was God good if he had done something like creating people so he could damn them in hell to
show off his glory and power? If a human sovereign did this, we would call his actions morally
repugnant and capricious.
Austin Fischer wrote “…what God does to the reprobate … He does not appear to have
any of these qualities in any sense analogous to what we (as human beings) understand them to
mean? Can we agree that this act so deeply violates our human understandings of love, justice,
and goodness … If God could unconditionally predestine people to hell—and I was supposed to
call this and the God who did it good—then my rational equipment was so broken that God was
utterly unknowable… (Young, Restless, No Longer Reformed: Black Holes, Love, and a Journey
In and Out of Calvinism.)
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If Calvinism were true, however, there could be no genuine striving at all. For the
Calvinist, God strives with no one, because the salvation or doom of all is a matter of His having
predestined them to one or the other. There would be neither purpose nor need for God to strive
or plead with man if the eternal destiny of both elect and non-elect has been fixed from a past
eternity by God’s decree.
All through the Bible, however, we see God striving and pleading with man until, at
various times and with various persons, we are told that because of man’s continued rebellion
God ceased to strive with him: so, he gave them up.
Ps. 81:12 -- So I gave them up unto their own hearts' lust: and they walked in their own
counsels
To “give them up” indicates there was a time when God was genuinely striving to
convince and win them and had not given them up. But a change has come in God’s actions
toward them, a change not in God’s heart or desire—which are unchangeable—but a change in
his dealings with those who have so hardened their hearts toward Him that there is no point for
Him to further strive with them.
Rom. 1:21 – “Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither
were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart
was darkened.
22 – Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,
24 -- Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness . . .
26 -- For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections
28 – And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave
them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient
Reprobate is the technical term used to describe those humans, who, according to
Calvinism, have been unconditionally predestined to hell before they even existed. In the passage
however, the reprobate are those whom God gave up. It is not arbitrary or out of whim on the part
of God but it is a result of God’s reaction to their action. Their foolish heart was darkened because
of their own actions.
Darkness is just the absence of light. This is best illustrated in the sun. The sun is not the
cause of darkness that follows the setting of the sun, but only the occasion. Once the sun has set,
darkness would inevitably follow. The sun did not bring the darkness. On the contrary, the
presence of the sun dispels the darkness. If the sun does not set, darkness will not be present. In
this way, we can say that the sun is the occasion, which brings darkness. In fact, it is not the sun
that leaves, but it is the earth that turns. People are in darkness because they choose to reject the
Light -- the Lord Jesus Christ.
John 12:35 – Then Jesus said unto them, Yet a little while is the light with you. Walk
while ye have the light, lest darkness come upon you: for he that walketh in
darkness knoweth not whither he goeth.
36 – While ye have light, believe in the light, that ye may be the children of
light. These things spake Jesus, and departed, and did hide himself from them.
Notice Jesus’ warning: Walk while ye have the light, LEST darkness come upon you.
They had the light; yet they did not believe in the light. Of course, when the light departed, they
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were inevitably left in darkness. That is an appropriate recompense for their actions, don't you
think?
Jn. 1:9 - That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world
The Light referred to is Jesus Christ. In v. 7, we read that John the Baptist bore witness of
that Light that ALL MEN through him might believe (1:7). Yes, men are in darkness because of
sin. That is the very reason why they need this Light. Jesus lights every man that cometh into the
world, but what they do with the Light is up to them. That is why they have the warning: while
you have the light, believe on the light. Why? Because light rejected becomes lightning.
RECOMPENSE (PAYBACK)
Rom. 1:27 – And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned
in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly,
and receiving in themselves that recompense of their error which was meet.
The passage talks about men, who knew God, but refused to glorify him as God; thus, their
foolish heart was darkened (1:21). These are men who changed the truth of God into a lie (1:25)
and men who did not like to retain God in their knowledge (1:28) because they refuse to change
their ways. So, they were recompensed for their stubborn deeds.
"Recompense" means pay back and "meet" means proper, appropriate, just. In the above
passage, Paul testifies that the recompense rendered was meet - meaning appropriate. Shall not
the Judge of all the earth do right? (Gen. 18:25) Even when God would pay back the sinner, he
still does right.
Rom. 11:7 – “What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the
election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded
8 – (According as it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber, eyes
that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear;) unto this day.
9 – And David saith, Let their table be made a snare, and a trap, and a
stumblingblock, and a RECOMPENSE unto them:
10 – Let their eyes be darkened that they may not see, and bow down their back
alway.
Note the word “SHOULD” in v. 8. People claim that God had given them the spirit of
slumber so that their eyes cannot see and their ears cannot hear. But note that the blinding of the
nation Israel was “a recompense”; it was not arbitrary. God did not decide to blind them out of
whim. God paid back Israel's stubbornness by blinding them. A close look at the history of
Israel reveals this truth.
Matt. 13:11 – “He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know
the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given.
12 – For whosoever hath, to him shall be given, and he shall have more
abundance: but whosoever hath not, from him shall be taken away even that he
hath.
13 – Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and
hearing they hear not, neither do they understand.
14 – And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing
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ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not
perceive:
Previous to this he spoke and preached the Word of God plainly. In chapter 13, He spoke
to them in parables for the first time. The apostles asked Him why and Jesus’ answer was v. 13.
If you read chapter 12, Jesus was teaching and performing miracles. But what was the reaction
of the people especially the Pharisees? Jesus was accused of doing miracles by the name of
Belzeebub.
Matt. 12:24 – But when the Pharisees heard it, they said, This fellow doth not cast out
devils, but by Beelzebub the prince of the devils.
Jesus saw that these people are not ready yet for the plain Word of God that is why he
spoke in parables. Jesus saw there is the danger of the Pharisees arresting Him for treason for what
he taught the people. So that when God decided not to give it to them, “to them it is not given,” it
is not arbitrary but it is because of their hard heart.
The principle is simple: if a child learns his arithmetic, he is given a chance at Algebra and
if he learns his Algebra, he is given a chance at Calculus (v. 12). The disciples have obeyed "John's
baptism", and they have followed Christ and listened to Him. Thus, they are going to learn
something that the Pharisees are not going to learn. The truth of the parables will not be learned
by Israel (nationally) because even though they are seeing and hearing people, they see and hear
not the teachings of Jesus (v. 13).
Matt. 13:15 – For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing,
and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes
and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be
converted, and I should heal them.
Waxed gross (Matt. 13:15) implies grown heavy in the sense of thick layers of fat (Isa.
6:10) covering the heart so that it is rendered unfeeling. Dull of hearing (in Matthew) describes a
man so weighted down (heavy ears in Isaiah) with hearing big things to the point where they no
longer are interested in hearing anything true. The shut/closed eyes indicate going to sleep.
Isaiah 6:9 – “And he said, Go, and tell this people, Hear ye indeed, but understand not;
and see ye indeed, but perceive not
10 – “Make the heart of this people fat, and make their ears heavy, and shut
their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand
with their heart, and convert, and be healed.”
When Jesus began to teach in parables, He explained that this is the fulfillment of Isaiah's
prophecy (Matt. 13:14). God commanded Isaiah to prophesy these words against a specific people
("tell this people ... make the heart of this people"). "This people" is none other than the nation
Israel. Isaiah's prophecy did not concern the non-elect. It concerned the elect nation, Israel. God
blinded Israel for being stubborn. . It is not individual but national.
Bear in mind that these passages are before the Dispensation of Grace. It was during the
time when God was dealing with the nation Israel. God did not blind any specific individual - He
blinded a nation. As a recompense for their stubborn refusal to recognize Jesus, God blinded them.
Nevertheless, even during the official blinding of the nation - many individual Jews believed.
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The thing that we should remember here is that the nation Israel is the elect nation and yet
He judicially blinded them. Their election is not for them to go to heaven or hell but for them to
be a peculiar people and separated unto God as a nation where the Messiah will come from and
nation to rule in the millennial kingdom. Their election has something to do with God’s covenant
with Abraham.
Paul just preached Jesus to the Jews (13:16, 26), rehearsed their history starting from their
deliverance in Egypt (13:17) and reminded them that the nation fulfilled the prophecies of the
prophets by killing Jesus (13:27). Now, Paul was warning them against not believing. He told
them to beware, LEST that which is spoken of in the prophets come upon them. Notice Paul used
the word LEST.
Acts 13:45 – But when the Jews saw the multitudes, they were filled with envy, and
spake against those things which were spoken by Paul, contradicting and
blaspheming.
46 – Then Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, it was necessary that the
word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you,
and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles
It was necessary that the word of God should first be spoken unto the Jews, why?
Because they were the elect nation! The next Sabbath, when the Jews saw the multitudes they
were filled with envy and they contradicted Paul's message and blasphemed. The Jews were
given a chance to acknowledge Jesus. They didn't. Consequently, God said you don't want it, I'll
give it to somebody else who wants it. That's why they are blinded as a nation and God turned to
the Gentiles.
Acts 28:25 – And when they agreed not among themselves, they departed, after that
Paul had spoken one word, Well spake the Holy Ghost by Esaias the prophet
unto our fathers,
26 – Saying, Go unto this people, and say, Hearing ye shall hear, and shall not
understand; and seeing ye shall see, and not perceive:
27 – For the heart of this people is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of
hearing, and their eyes have they closed; lest they should see with their eyes,
and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and should be
converted, and I should heal them.
28 – Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the
Gentiles, and that they will hear it.
Because they have rejected the Messiah, the apostle Paul told them that they blinded
themselves as prophesied by Isaiah. And now salvation is given to the Gentiles. God does not
arbitrarily blind people. He blinds them after they reject the truth -- after they reject the light that
is being given unto them.
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After Rejecting the Truth
2 Thess. 2:10 - And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish;
because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved
11 -- And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should
believe a lie:
Here is another instance where God is said to be the cause for people's blinding. God shall
send them strong delusions, that they should believe a lie. Why? God does not arbitrarily delude
people into believing a lie. They are stubborn people who receive not the love of the truth. FOR
THIS CAUSE -- Consequently, God shall send them strong delusion. Without a doubt, when God
blinds anyone, it is causative not arbitrary.
Predestination
Calvinists believe that all things have been determined and fixed by the sovereign will of
God so that no human choice is possible. They teach that God is the only Being in time and
eternity with absolute freedom to will. As such, God has laid out a plan, which includes both
election and reprobation. According to this theology, man has no real choice. However, we
must insist that we were given the capacity to make free and meaningful choices with real
consequences; otherwise, we will fall into the error of fatalism.
Calvinism teaches that God has predetermined the fate or destiny of all men by an
immutable decree, such that from eternity past, every man’s lot in life has been fixed and
determined by the arbitrary power of God. Although Calvinists go out of their way to distance
themselves from fatalism, they are in essence teaching the same thing.
So, what is Biblical predestination? Did God predetermine the destiny of men? Did God
predestinate the elect to heaven and the reprobate to hell?
Eph. 1:5 – “Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to
Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will...”
The word predestinate is a New Testament term mentioned 4 times in two books
(Romans 8:29-30 and Ephesians 1:5, 11). Predestinate means "to determine before hand or
ahead of time". In the above passage, Paul is talking to the believers at Ephesus and telling
them that they have been predestinated according to the good pleasure of His will. Does this
mean they were unconditionally predestinated to receive Jesus Christ as their Lord and
Savior? Is that what predestinated unto adoption of children mean?
Rom. 8:23 – “And not only they, but ourselves also, which have the firstfruits of the
Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, waiting for the adoption, to
wit, the redemption of our body.”
Here, Paul is writing to the saints in Rome. In other words, Paul was writing to
Christians – people who have been redeemed by the blood of the Lord Jesus. But notice that
they are still WAITING for the adoption. It is clear then that these saved people are waiting for
another kind of salvation and the verses tells us exactly what kind of redemption they are waiting
for. These redeemed people are waiting for the redemption of their bodies!
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Soul salvation : regeneration
Physical salvation : adoption
When a sinner receives the Lord Jesus Christ, he is born again (regenerated).
Regeneration is a past event in the Christian’s life but adoption is still future. Christians are
predestinated to adoption – that is, their physical bodies will be redeemed! What will happen to
our body when it is adopted (redeemed)?
Phil. 3:21 – “Who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his
glorious body, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all
things unto himself.”
Believers today do not have this glorious body yet. The apostle Paul was encouraging the
believers at Philippi that when the Lord appears (at his second coming) our vile bodies will be
fashioned like the resurrected (glorious) body of the Lord Jesus Christ.
1 John 3:2 – “Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we
shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we
shall see him as he is.”
When Jesus appears (at His coming), we shall be like him! Paul writes in I Corinthians
15, that at Jesus’ coming, we shall all be changed, in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the
last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall
be changed (vs. 51-52). Our physical bodies will be changed: it will be fashioned like unto
Jesus’ glorious body. Thus, we shall be like him. In I Corinthians 15, Paul explains it as, And
as we have borne the image of the earthy (Adam), we shall also bear the image of the heavenly
(Jesus Christ) (v. 49).
Rom. 8:29 – “For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to
the image of His Son that he might be the firstborn among many brethren...”
The saints in Rome were predestinated to be conformed to the image of His Son –
Jesus Christ! All these passages complement each other in showing us what
predestination is all about. To be predestinated to adoption (Eph. 1:5) and predestinated to
be conformed to the image of Jesus Christ (Rom. 8:29) refer to one and the same thing:
that is, when Christ appears, the believer’s vile body will be changed to conform to the
glorious body of Jesus Christ through adoption.
Notice, also, the order of events: first foreknowledge, then predestination. What did God
foreknow? God predestinated those whom he knew beforehand to this wonderful benefit. Know
in the Bible is not just factual knowledge but also relational. To know can also mean to have an
intimate relationship. Example: Adam knew Eve.
Matt. 7:23 – “and then I will profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye
that work iniquity.
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What did Jesus mean when He said, "I never knew you"? Jesus knew who they were. He
knew they were workers of iniquity, so it could not mean Jesus had no idea who they were. He
was saying these people did not have a relationship with Him.
So that when the Scriptures use the term foreknow, it does not necessarily mean factual
knowing but could include relational knowing. Since those predestinated to adoption are
regenerated individuals, then God foreknowing them must be in a relational sense. For whom
he did foreknow (relationally), he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of His Son
(adoption). In God’s foreknowledge, He knew them and thus predestinated them to adoption.
ELECTION
2 Thess. 2:13 – “But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for you, brethren beloved
of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation
through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth:”
To be elected is to be chosen. Based on the above passage, the Calvinists concluded that
God has chosen to save some from hell despite of the fact that the word "salvation" does not
always refer to the redemption of the soul. Review the redemption of the body at the rapture;
then, notice the context of 2 Thessalonians 2.
2 Thess. 2:1 – “Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ,
and by our gathering together unto him,”
Paul talks about the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ (v. 1), which he also calls the day of
Christ (v. 2). Then Paul talks about the Anti-Christ (vs. 3-9). Then he talks about those who will
be left behind and how God will send them strong delusion because they received not the love of
the truth (v. 12). On the other hand, the Christians are bound to give thanks always to God
because they have been chosen to salvation. The context of this salvation that Paul was talking
about is the second coming of the Lord Jesus Christ!
Rom. 13:11 – “And that, knowing the time, that now it is high time to awake out of sleep:
for now is our salvation nearer than when we believed.”
Isn't Paul already saved at this writing? He was already an apostle at this time, wasn't he?
Not only that, Paul mentions a time in the past when he and the people he was writing to
exercised faith - that is, they believed. Isn't Paul's gospel "believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and
thou shalt be saved?" They believed and so they must be saved already. Their souls have already
been redeemed through regeneration. So what was he referring to when he said, now is our
salvation nearer than when we believed?
When Paul said, knowing the time, what time was he referring to? He then continues
with the night is far spent, the day is at hand. What day is at hand? In 2 Thessalonians Paul
calls the second coming as the day of Christ. So, the day they are looking forward to is the
coming of the Lord Jesus Christ! Since the Lord's coming is nearer, it follows that their physical
salvation is also nearer. They are looking forward to the redemption of their bodies (Rom. 8:23).
Eph. 1:4 – According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world,
that we should be holy and without blame before him in love,
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5 – having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ unto
Himself
Bear in mind that Jesus is the firstborn in this family (Rom. 8:29) and therefore no Old
Testament believer could have been born into this family. Also bear in mind that these spiritual
brothers are members of Christ's body - the church. This church did not exist before the death of
Christ on the cross and therefore the old testament believers were not part of this spiritual body -
the church.
At the second coming of the Lord, this spiritual body (the church) will be raptured and
will be married to Christ. Therefore, those who will get saved after the church is raptured cannot
be a part of this body. Putting all these truths together, you will arrive at the conclusion that only
the believers in the dispensation of grace will be part of this body - the church and therefore, they
are the only ones chosen, elected and predestinated to adoption. The saints from other
dispensations will get their eternal physical life from another source.
Rev. 2:7 – “ He that hath an ear, let him hear .... To him that overcometh will I give to
eat of the tree of life, which is in the midst of the paradise of God
22:14 – “Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right
to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.”
Remember that the tree of life was among the free trees, which Adam could have eaten
before the fall. If Adam was not spiritually dead before the fall, then what would the tree of life
have given him? The only other life it could have given Adam was eternal physical life (Gen.
3:2). In the above passage, the right to eat of the tree of life is given to the overcomers during a
period of time after the church has been raptured. The Christian does not get eternal physical life
from a tree; he gets it by adoption.
IN HIM
Eph. 1:4 – “according as he hath chosen us IN HIM before the foundation of the world .
In the passage above, the prepositional phrase "in him" modifies the verb chosen and
answers the question "where?" Where did God make his choice? In Christ! This is one
insurmountable block that the Scripture has placed in its Word so that this cannot be applied in
any other way. The choosing was made “in Christ.”
The Christian before he got saved was without Christ, without hope, and without God
(Eph. 2:12). They, therefore, were never in Christ until the day they received Him. No unsaved
man was ever in Christ.
When do all the above operations take place? When did you become a new creature?
When did you become complete? When were you accepted? When were you created unto good
works? The answer to all these questions is: when you were put "in Christ". None of these
things can be true in a person’s life unless he is IN CHRIST. Once we are in Christ, we become
a new creature, we become complete, we are accepted and we become His workmanship!
2 Tim. 1:9 – “Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to
our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us IN
CHRIST JESUS before the world began ..”
Before the world began, God gave us (the believers in the dispensation of grace) certain
things; but these things were only given to us "in Christ", and so to get them, we have to be in
Christ. Jesus Christ is to be the medium through which all these things will be dispensed.
When Peter wrote, elect according to the foreknowledge of God, and Paul wrote, whom
God foreknew, he also did predestinate, they both laid out the order: foreknowledge first, then
election/predestination. Before the world began, God foreknew (relationally) the believers IN
CHRIST and according to this foreknowledge he elected them. The believers IN CHRIST
whom God foreknew (relationally), he predestinated to adoption. The believers in other
dispensations (those NOT in Christ) are not predestinated to this blessing. They get their eternal
physical life from the Tree of Life.
I Peter 1:2 -- Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, THROUGH
sanctification of the Spirit,
II Thess. 2:13 – . . . because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation
THROUGH sanctification of the Spirit
Compare the use of the word "through" in Eph. 2:8. If you are saved through faith, then
you cannot be saved unless you exercise faith. In the same way, if you are chosen or elected
through sanctification of the spirit, you cannot be chosen or elected unless you are sanctified of
the Spirit! The natural question would be, when are you sanctified – before or after you get
saved?
I Cor. 1:2 – “Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified IN
CHRIST JESUS, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the
name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both theirs and ours:”
Once again, there is the inescapable block that the Word of God has placed in these
operations. If you are sanctified IN CHRIST, then your sanctification cannot take place before
you are in Christ. In other words, you are not elected or chosen before you belonged to Christ
because sanctification sets you apart for Christ.
Exo. 13:3 - sanctify unto me all the firstborn, ... it is mine ..
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1 Corinthians 3:23 -- And ye are Christ's;
To sanctify is to set apart or mark off for God so that whatever or whoever is sanctified
now belongs to God. That is exactly what happens to someone who believes in Christ. If you
are saved, then you are Christ’s! God's seal of ownership is put on you and you now belong to
Him.
Eph. 1:13 – “In whom also AFTER that ye believed, ye were sealed ...”
Notice the time element of these events. You are sealed IN HIM, after you believed. In
other words, belief comes first before sanctification or sealing. Therefore, belief comes first
before election or choosing because election or choosing is through sanctification of the Spirit.
The passage is very clear – you were sealed after you believed. This is in line with the rest of the
passage.
II Thess. 2:13 – “But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for you, brethren
beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to
salvation THROUGH sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth:
In the above passage, we see the two elements through which election is effected. Of
course, sanctification of the Spirit is God’s part, while belief of the truth is man’s part. If you are
chosen THROUGH belief of the truth, then belief in the truth is the medium through which you
are sanctified. It’s not that you believed the truth because you were chosen. It’s the other way
around. It’s through your belief of the truth that your sanctification and thereby election is
effected.
Illustrate: sanctification as the casting of vote by God, belief is the filing of candidacy by
man. Not all those who believe get elected. In the same way that not all those who file their
candidacy get elected. The Voter (in this case, God) must cast his vote for the candidate of his
choice (through sanctification), but the candidate must first file his candidacy (by believing).
In summary, the candidates were all the saints or believers in every dispensation from
among whom God will make His choice and God chose the saints in the dispensation of grace.
Biblical election then is God electing from among the believers (candidates) those who will get
predestinated unto adoption. As we have seen last week, the saints in other dispensations will
get their eternal physical life by partaking of the tree of life.
Gen. 3:24 -- So he drove out the man; and he placed at the east of the garden of Eden
Cherubims, and a flaming sword which turned every way, to keep the way of the
tree of life
The tree of life was among the trees that Adam and Eve could have eaten before the fall.
After the fall, they were driven out of the garden and kept away from the tree of life? Why? In
their fallen condition, they are no longer fit to live forever! The intimation is that they would
have been fit to live forever physically before the fall.
I Cor. 15:35 -- But some man will say, How are the dead raised up? and with what body
do they come?
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In answer to that question, Paul compared the resurrection to the planting of the seed (vs.
37-38). Then he lists the different kinds of flesh (v. 39) and contrasts the terrestrial body
(earthy) from the celestial body (heavenly) (v. 40). These different bodies have glories of their
own (v. 41). Then he concludes in v. 42:
The intimation is that, the resurrection bodies will not all be the same. For sure, those
who are predestinated to adoption will have bodies like that of Jesus Christ. It is very possible
that those who are not adopted, will have bodies like that of Adam before the fall and just like
Adam, they will have to partake of the tree of life to make them immortal.
2 Peter 1:10 -- Wherefore the rather, brethren, give diligence to make your calling and election
sure: for if ye do these things, ye shall never fall:
If election is God unconditionally choosing to send men either to heaven or to hell, then
like other warnings, the above warning makes no sense. How do you make your calling and
election sure? What can a non-elect do, if he realizes that he was not elected?
Proverbs 23:14 -- Thou shalt beat him with the rod, and shalt deliver his soul from hell.
Matthew 5:29 -- And if thy right eye offend thee, pluck it out, and cast it from thee: for
it is profitable for thee that one of thy members should perish, and not that thy
whole body should be cast into hell.
30 -- And if thy right hand offend thee, cut it off, and cast it from thee: for it is
profitable for thee that one of thy members should perish, and not that thy
whole body should be cast into hell.
Matthew 18:9 -- And if thine eye offend thee, pluck it out, and cast it from thee: it is
better for thee to enter into life with one eye, rather than having two eyes to be
cast into hell fire.
If man’s eternal destiny has been predetermined by God’s arbitrary will, then what do
these warnings mean? Why even give these instructions? These instructions are useless because
it won’t have any bearing in the salvation or damnation of anyone.
He knows all things that will happen because he ordains everything that does happen.
This is crucial to our understanding of God’s omniscience.
The reason why we can trust that all things work together for good is because God is in
control. How is God in control of everything that happens?
GOD’S OMNISCIENCE
Acts. 15:18 – “Known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world.”
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God's foreknowledge includes knowing what his creatures would do even before they
thought of doing them. As far as God is concerned, what He foreknows is fixed and final, not
because He directed His creatures but because He knew what His creatures would do. This is the
reason why God can give accurate predictions. His prophecies are 100% sure.
It simply does not follow that because God foreknows something, it is fixed, and
therefore was fixed by God. It is certainly true that if God foreknows something , then that
“something” is certain to come to pass. But there is no reason to make the leap that the events
were by God’s decree.
Gen. 18:18 – “Seeing that Abraham shall surely become a great and mighty nation, and all
the nations of the earth shall be blessed in him?”
19 – “For I know him, that he will command his children and his household after
him, and they shall keep the way of the LORD, to do justice and judgment; that the
LORD may bring upon Abraham that which he hath spoken of him.”
This is God's foreknowledge in action. Even before Abraham had any son, God already
knew that he would perform his duty as a father and would command his children to keep the
way of the Lord. God was going to use one family and Abraham was the perfect father to lead
that family. God's basis for blessing Abraham was his foreseen obedience.
Prov. 21:21 -- He that followeth after righteousness and mercy findeth life, righteousness,
and honour.
Prov. 23:14 -- Thou shalt beat him with the rod, and shalt deliver his soul from hell.
God wants everyone to be saved but not everyone is going to be saved. In some sense,
God is not going to get what God wants. We (humans) are used to not getting what we want.
But how can God want something and not get it? If God wants everyone to be saved, why
doesn’t God save everyone?
WHAT ABOUT PAUL’S TESTIMONY?
1 Cor. 9:19 -- For though I be free from all men, yet have I made myself servant unto all,
that I might gain the more.
Paul testifies that he made himself a servant unto all. All who? All the elect? That he
might gain what? That he might gain THE MORE! The more what? The more elect?
1 Cor. 9:22 -- To the weak became I as weak, that I might gain the weak: I am made all
things to all men, that I might by all means save some:
Paul further testifies that he is made all things to all men, that he might by all means save
some? Some what? Some elect? Paul’s testimony is that he is willing to go to great lengths so
that he might save some. But isn’t the salvation of the elect already assured without Paul’s help?
How could anything he did in his life and ministry make any difference, if election is sovereignly
predetermined?
Rom. 9:3 - For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my
kinsmen according to the flesh.
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Romans 10:1 -- Brethren, my heart's desire and prayer to God for Israel is, that they might
be saved.
Remember that Paul wrote the epistles that these Calvinists use as proof text. The vast
majority of doctrine for the church age was revealed to him. If Paul were a Calvinist, he would
know that the salvation of the elect is guaranteed! He would also know that there is nothing he
can do to get the non-elect Jews saved. So why is Paul trying to gain more? Why is he desiring
and praying that Israel MIGHT be saved? It seems to me that Paul is willing to sacrifice himself
just to see his kinsmen saved! What a strange Calvinist Paul was.
It was not a pleasurable experience for God to see His creatures commit idolatry. He
suffered while seeing them serve idols. He displayed his longsuffering while permitting them to
have their own ways.
Acts 17:30 – “and the times of this ignorance God winked at; but NOW commandeth all
men everywhere to repent ...”
God winked at the people's idolatry before, BUT NOW he won't. God closed His eyes for
a moment, so He will not judge their sin at once. God may permit man to have his own way, but
that will not be forever. Time will come when man will have to turn from his own ways or else
suffer the consequences of his stubbornness. There is a coming judgment (v. 31). God will not
wink forever.
If man has no free will and everything that happens (including sin) has been foreordained
by God in His sovereignty. Why cause mankind to sin in order to forgive them? In Calvinism,
God becomes like the person who sets a forest on fire, put it out, and be a hero. Then Satan, his
own intentional creation is His enemy?
Without the power to make genuine choices man could not be a morally responsible being
accountable to his Creator. All through the Bible, man is called upon to choose between time and
eternity, between Satan and God, between evil and good, between self and Christ.
God directs?
Proverbs 16:9--“A man’s heart deviseth his way: but the LORD directeth his steps.”
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Although the Calvinist uses the verse as proof text, this verse does not support Calvinism.
God directing man is not contrary to the doctrine that man has a will whereby he can accept or
reject God’s dealings with him.
Proverbs 3:6 -- In all thy ways acknowledge him, and he shall direct thy paths.
For man to acknowledge God in all his ways is to forsake his own humanistic
“understanding”. When He does, then God steps in to direct his steps. Both passages say
nothing about irresistible grace. The above passage clarifies the order: man acknowledges God
first, then God directs his paths.
Proverbs 19:21-- there are many devices in a man’s heart; nevertheless the counsel of
the LORD, that shall stand.
Proverbs 21:1-- The king’s heart is in the hand of the LORD, as the rivers of water: he
turneth it whithersoever he will.
Proverbs 21:30-- there is no wisdom nor understanding nor counsel against the LORD.
Psalm 33:11-- the counsel of the LORD standeth for ever, the thoughts of his heart to all
generations.
Again, these verses do not support Calvinism. These passages teach the simple and
important doctrine that though man has a will that he exercises on his own, they will never be
able to thwart God’s counsel and purpose. For example, there were many enemies of the Gospel
who tried to stop Paul from preaching the Gospel in Rome. Of their own free will, they tried to
kill Paul, but God’s purpose and counsel cannot be thwarted by men, so God protected Paul.
God worked everything out so Paul would ultimately get to Rome! That’s God’s sovereignty at
work.
GOD’S DEALINGS
Why would God need to foreordain something in order to foreknow it? Obviously, if
God can only know what He himself has decreed, and would be taken by surprise if man had free
choice, then His knowledge would not be infinite. He would not be omniscient. (David S. West,
The Baptist Examiner, March 18, 1989, p. 5, cited in Lawrence M. Vance, The Other Side of
Calvinism (Pensacola, FL: Vance Publications, rev. d. 1999), p. 255
On the contrary, God does not have to decree human thoughts and actions to foreknow
them. He knows all beforehand because He is omniscient.
Acts 15:18--“Known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world.”
There can be no doubt as to God’s foreknowledge. But foreknowledge is not
foreordination. God does not foreknow because he has foreordained. He does have complete
foreknowledge and intervenes in history.
This verse simply says that God knows all of His works and has always known them. It
says nothing one way or the other about any of the points of TULIP. That God knows all of His
works from the beginning of the world is not to say that men are sovereignly elected to salvation
or reprobation. It is not to say that man has no choice.
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BEFORE THE FALL
No one will argue that God is sovereign. But just because he is sovereign, does it follow
that everything that happens is God’s directive will? Didn’t God give his creatures the free will
to choose to obey or disobey Him?
Although consistent Calvinists believe that God ordained the fall, they hesitate to say that
God put the first sinful impulse in Adam. But if it didn’t come from God where else could it
have come from? If God is the all-determining reality and ordained the fall, and yet it won’t just
bite the bullet and admit that God ordained the first sinful impulse in Adam. They appeal to
mystery.
How does a sinless human in a sinless world choose to sin? God’s creatures are allowed
to act in ways contrary to the desire and wish of the Creator. This we call sin, and God is not the
author of sin. God did not want Adam to eat of the forbidden fruit as indicated in His command
to the contrary (Gen. 2:16-17), but God allowed Adam to partake of the fruit of his own free will.
Calvinist’s free will is called compatibilism, and it means that you are free so long as you
are doing what you want. This is how they explain the fall. God foreordained Adam and Eve’s
sin, but they still sinned freely because they were doing what they wanted. God can unilaterally
determine your inclinations so that you must do what he ordains for you to do, and yet you still
freely did it. So, if God determines that you will want to reject Jesus, you are still freely rejecting
him even though God determined it and you could not have done otherwise.
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AFTER THE FALL
According to Calvinism, if man can resist God or thwart His purposes then God is no
longer a Sovereign God and man must be Sovereign. Thus, they claim that it is impossible that
man could accept or reject God’s salvation. But the fact is that the Bible says God does allow
man to resist and reject Him on every hand, and this has been going on since the earliest days of
his history.
Cain saw Abel’s sacrifice was accepted while his sacrifice was rejected. What did God
mean when he told Cain, “If thou doest well, shalt thou not be accepted?” Do you remember the
testimony of Peter regarding Cornelius (Acts 10)? Do you remember what God will render to
those who continue in well-doing according to Romans 2:7?
God spoke to Cain and urged him not to act on the jealous anger that was burning in his
heart, and yet Cain ignored Him. God gave Cain a clear choice. There is nothing in this passage
that would make us conclude that God had predetermined that Cain disobey.
We see that God wanted to save Israel and continually reached out to them, but God’s
salvation was resisted and rejected. Yet, if they were resisting Him, was He not still convicting
them? There is no need to resist that, which has no draw of any sort upon you. Therefore, the
Holy Spirit was continuing to convict these Jews even though they constantly and continually
resisted Him.
Matthew 23:37--“O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, thou that killest the prophets, and stonest them
which are sent unto thee, how often would I have gathered thy children together,
even as a hen gathereth her chickens under her wings, and ye would not!”
Here we see that the sovereign Son of God, who desired to save Israel throughout her
history and who often sent His prophets to her, was refused. It is not that they COULD not, but
that they WOULD not!
Lk. 19:41 – and when he was come near, he beheld the city, and wept over it,
42 – saying, if thou hadst known, even thou at least in this thy day, the things
which belong unto thy peace; but now they are hid from thine eyes ...
Does this teach irresistible grace? Does this teach that man has no free will? Why did Jesus
weep? Did He just cry crocodile tears as a token of goodwill or was he really heartbroken? If
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Jesus was sincere when he cried, then He really wanted them to repent and avoid their impending
judgment (v. 43).
As we have seen, Israel continuously rejected God’s will for them. When the Psalmist
recounts the experience of Israel in the wilderness, he emphasizes the fact that Israel did not do
God’s will. He describes them as “a stubborn and rebellious generation” (Psa. 78:8) who “refused
to walk in his law” (Psa. 78:10). He then makes this amazing statement: “they limited the Holy
One of Israel” (Psa. 78:41).
According to Calvinist thinking, this is not possible and if it were possible it would mean
that God is not sovereign. For God to make man in His own image with a will and an ability to
make real choices and for God to allow man to exercise his will even in the matter of receiving
salvation does not make God any less sovereign than had He created a robot. If man can resist and
reject and limit God in any way and God can still be God, then God can still be God if He offers
salvation to all and some receive it and some reject it. It would be absurd to allow man to be able
to resist God in some things but not in the matter salvation, which is the most important issue in
the whole of the Bible.
How is it that even before a man gets saved (when a man is given life), he is irresistibly
drawn to God and obeys His will; but after he gets saved (still in possession of spiritual life), he is
no longer irresistibly drawn to God and he then is able to resist God’s will? Why is it that God’s
grace is only irresistible before salvation and not afterwards? If God’s counsel shall stand and
God’s decrees cannot be resisted, why are so many Christians not walking according to God’s
ordained will?
What would prevent God, in His sovereignty, to give man the ability to choose and a chance
to receive Him of his own volition? Nothing! He could if He wanted to, right? Would God’s
sovereignty be any less, just because He gave man a choice? In fact, that’s the whole point of the
Bible -- that man is capable of right and wrong, and choice. Why else would He warn man over
and over again?
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THE DECREES OF GOD
Loraine Boettner has said, "everything was infallibly determined and immutably fixed by God
from the beginning, and all that happens in time is but the accomplishment of what was ordained
in eternity. In other words, God prefixed everything by decree – that man just fulfills what God
has decreed for him. But wouldn’t man be just like a robot if that is the case?
Ephesians 1:11 -- In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated
according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his
own will.
It is a marvelous verse and tells us how great God is, but it says nothing about whether God
has given man a will and to what extent he can exercise that will. It says nothing about whether a
sinner can believe on Christ. To say that God worketh all things after the counsel of his own will
is not contrary to the doctrine that God created man with a will and with the ability to respond to
God or to reject God. It is the Calvinist that creates this alleged “problem” and then answers it by
his own logic rather than by the plain teaching of Scripture.
The passages teach that there is no ultimate counsel against the Lord and that He always
has the final say. We know from other Scriptures that the devil and sinners have made many
counsels against the Lord, but that counsel cannot stand. Yes, the counsel of the Lord stands
forever, and we know that it does, but it does not mean that God could not have sovereignly
determined to create man with a will that he can exercise and with the ability even to go so far as
to believe in God or not to believe in God.
ROMANS 9
First of all, let us consider the context of Romans 9. What issue is Paul dealing with?
All that Paul has said up until this point is to answer this issue: What is God doing with Israel?
Has God forsaken his first chosen people (Israel) for a new chosen people (Gentiles)? If so,
hasn’t God been unfaithful to his promises to Israel? To settle the issue with regards to Israel,
Paul starts from the beginning and rehearses the history of Israel.
9:9 -- For this is the word of promise. At this time will I come, and Sarah shall have a
son.
The nation Israel descended from a specific line from Abraham to Isaac. Abraham had
other sons: 1 from Hagar and 6 from Keturah (Gen 25:1). But the nation Israel was to descend
from the promised son through Sarah. It was specific so that the other children of the flesh of
Abraham are not included.
9:10 - And not only this; but when Rebecca also had conceived by one, even by our father
Isaac;
9:11 - (For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the
purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that
calleth;)
9:12 -- It was said unto her, The elder shall serve the younger.
Isaac's son by Rebecca was to be the progenitor of the nation Israel, but he had twins. They
cannot be both the progenitor of one nation. God had to choose one and he chose Jacob. We have
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already discussed this part - that this election is not individual but national and not unto soul
salvation but unto special honor. Jacob was chosen or given the special privilege to be the
progenitor of the nation Israel. In choosing Jacob, God exercised his prerogative to choose.
From our previous lesson, we have shown how God made concessions to accommodate
Moses' request by showing Moses his back parts so Moses will not die. Is there something wrong
with that? He did not do any injustice to anyone when He granted this special privilege to Moses.
God has commissioned Moses to a very frustrating task of leading a very stubborn nation to the
Promised Land. What is wrong with God showing Moses this special mercy?
Another case in point is that Romans 9 goes on to say that Pharaoh was raised up to resist
God. The Calvinist would say that God is referring to making or forming Pharaoh into his enemy,
possibly from a young age, by eternal decree before he was even born. In doing this they are
building upon the erroneous conclusions they have drawn from the prior passages on Jacob and
Esau and applying them here. But this is not what the passage is saying. It is saying that God
“raised up” Pharaoh to a position of power. This is probably in the sense of uplifted and sustained,
rather than getting him there, but either view does not libel God’s character. It says nothing about
Pharaoh’s personal choices throughout life.
If you go back to Exodus 8 and 9 where God’s dealing with Pharaoh during his rule, you
will see that Pharaoh is being hardened by his actions. This is obviously what Paul is referring to
here in Romans 9. God is actively using Pharaoh for his purposes, which is the point of Romans
9, but he is not predetermining to damn Pharaoh and failing to provide a mechanism through which
he could repent, believe, and be saved. This is an extra biblical presumption forced on the passage
by someone stuck within a Calvinistic paradigm.
What does it mean to raise up Pharaoh? What does the raising up all about? What does it
entail? In what way? In what manner? For what purpose was Pharaoh raised up? Was Pharaoh
molded into an evil and stubborn person for the purpose of condemning him to hell? No! Pharaoh
was raised up in that he was given an official position. He was raised to a position of power. This
raising can be seen in the case of the Chaldeans.
Hab. 1:6 – For, lo, I raise up the Chaldeans, that bitter and hasty nation, which shall
march through the breadth of the land, to possess the dwelling places that are
not theirs.
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7 – They are terrible and dreadful: their judgment and their dignity shall
proceed of themselves.
God has raised up the Chaldeans just like he raised Pharaoh. Look at the description of this
nation. It is a bitter and hasty nation. Its people are terrible and dreadful. Did God make this nation
bitter and hasty? Did God make this people terrible and dreadful? Why did God raise it up? God
raised them up so that they will be in a position of power just like Pharaoh.
Hab. 1:12 – Art thou not from everlasting, O LORD my God, mine Holy One? we shall
not die. O LORD, thou hast ordained them for judgment; and, O mighty God,
thou hast established them for correction.
God ordained these powers. (Remember the study on the word "ordain"). God raised up
certain nations or kings to power so that they can be God's instruments for judgment. He lets them
or allows them to rise to power for a reason. He could have crushed them right away but God said,
no, I will even raise you up to power -- for what purpose? So that He can use them for judgment
and correction for the nation Israel. God has raised Nebuchadnezzar, Sennacherib, etc. to a
position where they can defeat Israel; thereby, through them, Israel could be judged; and Israel can
learn her lesson.
God allowed the evil designs of Pharaoh so He can use him to judge and teach Israel, and
exalt His own name in the process. What created a lot of confusion is not the fact that God raised
up Pharaoh to power but the fact that God hardened Pharaoh's heart.
His Hardening
Exo. 3:19 – And I am sure that the king of Egypt will not let you go, no, not by a mighty
hand.
Here, before anything else, before Moses faced Pharaoh, God already knew that Pharaoh
would not let Israel go. In fact, God was SURE that He would have to force Pharaoh into letting
Israel go by displaying his mighty hand. God then decreed to permit Pharaoh to work his evil
desires and then use it to demonstrate His power. Clearly, foreknowledge preceded Pharaoh's
hardened heart. In his foreknowledge, God knew what Pharaoh would do. Based on this
foreknowledge, God warned Moses.
Exo. 4:21 – And the LORD said unto Moses, When thou goest to return into Egypt, see
that thou do all those wonders before Pharaoh, which I have put in thine hand:
but I will harden his heart, that he shall not let the people go.
22 – And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith the LORD, Israel is my son,
even my firstborn:
23 – And I say unto thee, Let my son go, that he may serve me: and if thou
refuse to let him go, behold, I will slay thy son, even thy firstborn.
We find Moses being briefed by God at this point. God gives him an idea on what to
expect when he encounters Pharaoh. The last plague, which is the death of the firstborn is
included in the instructions at this very early stage (v. 22). Since Moses is a pessimistic person,
God saw it fit to let him know what's going to happen.
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Exo. 8:15 – But when Pharaoh saw that there was respite, he hardened his heart, and
hearkened not unto them; as the LORD had said.
Exo. 9:34 – “And when Pharaoh saw that the rain and the hail and the thunders were
ceased, he sinned yet more, and hardened his heart, he and his servants.
God knew Pharaoh's heart; he knew that Pharaoh was full of pride. When he thinks he can
get away with it, he tries to do it, and thus sins yet more against God. The main issue between God
and Pharaoh is not just the departure of Israel from Egypt. The real battle between them is the
breaking of Pharaoh's pride. Remember that it took 10 plagues to break Pharaoh’s pride. God
could have just crashed Pharaoh into allowing Israel right there in the very beginning because He
was sovereign. Why did it take 10 plagues?
Exo.10:3 – And Moses and Aaron came in unto Pharaoh, and said unto him, Thus
saith the LORD God of the Hebrews, How long wilt thou refuse to humble
thyself before me? let my people go, that they may serve me.
God was demonstrating his power not only to the nation Israel but to Pharaoh himself. The
thing that we should notice and remember here is that even before God decided or decreed to
harden Pharaoh’s heart, God already knew what Pharaoh is going to do based on God’s
foreknowledge in chapter 3. Why is this important? Because there is really such a thing as judicial
hardening; God decreeing to harden somebody’s heart.
Judicial hardening happens where God deals with a man and the man resists until God says,
"Now you have shut your eyes to the truth, I will......" God appeals to him, warns him, and thus
lead him into situations where a hardening of heart will inevitably follow.
Israel’s table was made a snare and a trap. The table is supposed to be the place where we
sit down and feast. But that is not what happened to them. Everything that they had on their table,
which were supposed to be a blessing became a curse. Why? It was a recompense unto them!
Recompense means payback.
The nation Israel were given opportunity after opportunity to repent and God sent them
prophets after prophets to tell them the truth. Because they kept refusing and rejecting God, they
were blinded. The nation Israel is the elect nation and yet God judicially blinded them. Their
election is not for them to go to heaven or hell but for them to be a peculiar people and separated
unto God as a nation where the Messiah will come from and a nation to rule in the millennial
kingdom. Their blinding is not arbitrary based upon God’s whim. God paid back Israel's
stubbornness by blinding them.
11:25 – For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be
wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness
of the Gentiles be come in.
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The word “IN PART” shows the partial hardening of Israel and the word “UNTIL” shows
that it was not permanent. As a recompense to Israel’s stubbornness, Israel was partially and
temporarily blinded. As we look at the parallel in Pharaoh and Israel’s hardening, we will note
that Israel’s hardening is not a decree of reprobation and neither is Pharaoh’s. Israel can be grafted
back in if they will not continue in their unbelief.
11:23 - And they also, if they abide not still in unbelief, shall be grafted in: for God is able to graft
them in again.
In Romans 11, Paul used the image of an olive tree, to demonstrate that God is not yet done
with Israel (Rom. 11:1-2). Paul says that the Jews have been broken off because of their unbelief
whereas the Gentiles have been grafted in because of their faith (11:20). These are not statements
about how God deals with each individual regarding salvation. Rather these are statements on
how God has dealt with Israel in pursuing his plan for this elect nation in relation to the Gentiles.
11:30 -- For as ye in times past have not believed God, yet have now obtained mercy
through their unbelief:
11:31 -- Even so have these also now not believed, that through your mercy they also may
obtain mercy.
11:32 -- For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon
all.
All that has been said comes down to this. God extended mercy to the elect nation, so he
can show mercy to the Gentiles and vice-versa. What God was doing was making his mercy
available to all – Jew or Gentile. God’s mercy is made available to everyone, but it is not
automatic. God made it so that He can extend mercy to anyone who will ask for mercy.
9:19 – Thou wilt say then unto me. Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his
will?
It's like Paul is reading the mind of the Jews. He anticipates their argument. The line of
questioning was with regards to God’s dealing with the nation Israel in relation to the Gentiles.
This is the issue that is being discussed here. God hath mercy on whom he will have mercy that is
- he can extend mercy on the Gentiles if he wanted to. Likewise, whom he will, he hardens. That
is, he can harden the elect nation, which he did. In all that he did, neither one has grounds for
complaint. The elect nation cannot complain even when God extended mercy to the Gentiles,
because God extended mercy to them even when they did not deserve it. The Gentiles cannot
complain that they were not the elect nation, because God extended the same mercy to them as he
did the elect nation.
9:20 – “Nay but, 0 man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed
say to him that formed it. Why hast thou made me thus?”
9:21 – Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel
unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
Of course, the Calvinists see this as God foreordaining, preparing, and bringing to pass the
eternal damnation of non-elect individuals. Grammatically we know that “fitted” can be an
adjective or a verb. As an adjective it means “appropriate for” destruction. But even as a verve,
you do not have to assess all this Calvinistic bias on the passage. Let’s look at the background.
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Jer. 18:3 – “Then I went down to the potter's house, and, behold, he wrought a work on
the wheels.
5 – “Then the word of the LORD came to me, saying,
6 – “O house of Israel, cannot I do with you as this potter? saith the LORD.
Behold, as the clay is in the potter's hand, so are ye in mine hand, O house of
Israel.”
The context of the passage is the clay in the potter’s house, after it is on the table (where it
is molded) and there is no mention of the clay before it is dug out of the hill and brought to the
potter's house. The subject concerns not just any clay, but the clay, which is specifically in the
potter's house and in the potter’s hand. This is very important, as it should alert us to the fact that
this molding has nothing to do with soul salvation. The potter was molding something that already
belonged to him.
Isa. 64:8 – But now, O LORD, thou art our father; we are the clay, and thou our potter;
and we all are the work of thy hand.
9 – Be not wroth very sore, O LORD, neither remember iniquity for ever:
behold, see, we beseech thee, we are all thy people.
Notice, the potter is their Father and the clay is the potter’s people. So soul salvation is not
the issue. There is already ownership and relationship here. Also, it is not talking of an individual
but of a nation. The context of the passage in Isaiah is Israel being afflicted because of their sin.
Affliction is a refinery, which produces beautiful vessels. God does it as His means to develop in
us something that we need, our character, patience, etc. And because the nation Israel is
undergoing affliction, Isaiah used the illustration of clay being molded by the potter.
Jeremiah 18:4 -- And the vessel that he made of clay was marred in the hand of the
potter: so he made it again another vessel, as seemed good to the potter to make
it.
We find here that the potter cannot mold the clay to conform to what the potter wants to
make of it because it was marred. In this illustration, to be marred is to be in sin. And because
the clay is marred, the potter remolds it again and made it another vessel as seemed good for the
potter to make it. What does this tell us? The clay has free will. The potter adjusted to the clay.
God remolded the clay into another vessel, not the kind of vessel that the potter originally wanted
it to be. Isn’t this a picture of permissive will?
As the clay is marred in the potter's hand, the potter makes it again another vessel. So even
if God is already in the process of making Israel into a vessel unto honor, He can still decide to
make Israel into a vessel unto dishonor depending on the nation’s attitude towards God.
Jer. 18:7 – “At what instant I shall speak concerning a nation, and concerning a
kingdom, to pluck up, and to pull down, and to destroy it;
8 – “If that nation, against whom I have pronounced, turn from their evil, I will
repent of the evil that I thought to do unto them.
9 – “And at what instant I shall speak concerning a nation, and concerning a
kingdom, to build and to plant it;
10 – “If it do evil in my sight, that it obey not my voice, then I will repent of the
good, wherewith I said I would benefit them.”
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That's exactly what happened to the nation Israel. God was already in the process of
molding the nation into a vessel unto honor, but because of their disobedience, God had to
remold it into another vessel. Today, Israel is not in a place of honor because of their attitude
towards Christ. Israel cannot demand that God continue to make them a vessel unto honor if they
are not willing to repent and mend their ways. The nation Israel cannot complain.
Similarly, the kind of vessel we are going to be whether unto honor or unto dishonor
depends entirely on our attitude towards God. Israel, the clay, was given freedom of choice
whether to repent or go on with their sin, but if Israel doesn't repent, God will change their
blessings into cursing.
The same is true in our relationship with God as our potter. When we got saved, we were
brought into the potter’s house to be molded into a vessel unto honor. However, if we are
marred because of sin, God will remold us into another vessel.
II Tim. 2:21 – “If a man therefore purge himself from these, he shall be a vessel unto
honour, sanctified, and meet for the master's use, and prepared unto every good
work.”
This text again talks about the responsibility and accountability of man. The kind of vessel
you are going to be (whether unto honor or dishonor) depends on whether you purge yourself from
sin or not. It is not an arbitrary choice on God's part. And once again, all the vessels are God's
vessels — There is a relationship that exists between the potter and the clay. Not all Christians
are vessels unto honor because the sinning Christian is not meet for the master’s use!
9:22 -- What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured
with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
9:23 – “And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy,
which he had afore prepared unto glory,
9:24 – “Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
“Fitted to destruction” means the vessels of wrath deserved to be punished and destroyed.
Who are the vessels of wrath? The Jews! They are the clay God was molding unto honor. But
because of stubbornness, disbelief and their rejection of the Messiah, they became vessels of wrath.
The history of Israel shows God’s wrath poured out on Israel. They were given over to their
enemies – under Babylon, under Persia, under Rome. God would have been justified in punishing
or destroying them totally.
Isa. 1:9 – “Except the LORD of hosts had left unto us a very small remnant, we should
have been as Sodom, and we should have been like unto Gomorrah.”
God “endured with much long suffering” (9:22). The phrase tells us how painful it must
have been for God to see Israel in continued disobedience. This is not to say that God is tolerating
their sin. The reason he endures them with much longsuffering is so he can demonstrate the riches
of His glory on the vessels of mercy (9:23). As it turns out, the vessels of mercy are the Christians.
Even us, refers to the church, which is composed of both Jews and Gentiles (v. 24).
Rom 9:25 – “As he saith also in Osee, I will call them my people, which were not my
people; and her beloved, which was not beloved.
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26 – “And it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them. Ye are not
my people; there shall they be called the children of the living God.
After stating that the vessels of mercy are the Christians (both Jews and Gentiles), not the
Jews only (nationally), Paul points them to God's promise in Hosea. The book of Hosea deals
primarily with the temporary rejection of Israel as a cast-off wife, who will later be reconciled to
her husband. Paul found it necessary to remind them that God is not through with Israel yet. He
pointed out that Israel's rejection, as the people of God, is only temporary.
The apostle Paul in using this illustration of the vessels of wrath and the vessels of mercy
and the passage in Hosea to show them once again that the rejection of the nation Israel is not
permanent. Although today, as they were set aside and they are not God’s people (God’s people
today is the Church--the Christians), they will be called the children of the living God in future
time appointed by God when the Lord Jesus Christ returns and rules.
You see, Romans 9 has nothing to do with Calvinism. It is about God’s dealing with Israel,
the Gentiles and the church.
GOD’S WORK
Of course, salvation is of God. This is a no brainer. We all believe that. This is all God’s work.
He initiated it, He planned it, He executed it and He finished it. Without it man can never be
saved. Man can do anything he wants or he can put His faith in Christ but without God saying so
or establishing salvation that way it is, he can never be saved. Salvation is of the Lord!
His Workmanship
The Arminians did the same trick here as the Calvinists did with the previous one. They
took the text out of its context. By isolating verse 12 from verse 13, the Arminians developed a
theology where sinners work AT getting saved. On the other hand, the Calvinists teach that it is
God who wills for you and that the reason a sinner wills to receive Christ is because God works
IN him so that he can will to receive Christ.
Both arrived at the wrong conclusion because both applied the verse to an unsaved man.
Paul was talking to his beloved, to the Christians. These people are already saved. He was
exhorting the Christians to work out their own salvation. You cannot work "OUT" something
that is not first worked IN you.
How is v. 13 possible? God is already IN us because we have the Holy Spirit indwelling
in us so that He is working IN us both to will and to do of His good pleasure. God is working
within not from the outside. This is not for an unbeliever that God is doing this so he can be
saved. It is for a saved person whom God is working within him through the Holy Spirit.
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Salvation must first be in you before you can work it out. The passage is addressed to
Christians and the apostle Paul instructs them to work out the salvation they have so it will be
demonstrated.
Heb. 13:21 – “Make you perfect in every good work to do his will, working in you that
which is wellpleasing in his sight, through Jesus Christ; to whom be glory for
ever and ever. Amen.”
The working IN is through Jesus Christ. It is not a working power in a sinner so that he
will believe in Christ. It is a working power in those who have Christ so they can please God.
The working of God's mighty power in us is wrought in Christ. And because Christ is in us. He
can work through us.
Eph. 2:10 – “For we are his workmanship created in Christ Jesus unto good works,
God works in us; thus, we are referred to as "his workmanship. But we, as his
workmanship, are created in Christ Jesus. This is talking again of a saved person who has Christ
in him. And because he is a saved person, he is God’s workmanship and God can work in him
and produce whatever God wants in him.
Arminian: Because man is saved by his own work of faith, then it follows that he can be lost by
changing his mind about Christ.
Calvinist: Since man's salvation is entirely up to God, then men will persevere simply because
God will make him persevere.
Problem in Terminology
Eph. 6:18 – “Praying always with all prayer and supplication in the Spirit, and watching
thereunto with all perseverance and supplication for all saints;”
The passage deals with [watching and praying] and has nothing to do at all with keeping
one's salvation. The Bible teaches that Christians have eternal security and that they will never
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lose their salvation. But the Christian's assurance of salvation is not based on perseverance. A
Christian does not remain saved because he perseveres. The better term is…
Preservation
The word "preserved" means to be kept safe, to be kept secure, to be protected. Are the
Christians preserved?
Jude 1:1 – “Jude, the servant of Jesus Christ, and brother of James, to them that are
sanctified by God the Father, and preserved in Jesus Christ, and called”
I Thess. 5:23 – “And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your
whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our
Lord Jesus Christ.”
Preservation is connected with sanctification and is effected in Christ. Those who are in
Christ are sanctified (set apart), which ensures his preservation. We are preserved because God
sanctified us or sets-us apart because we are His children.
2 Peter 1:10 - Wherefore the rather, brethren, give diligence to make your calling and
election sure: for if ye do these things, ye shall never fall.
Regardless of whether this verse is interpreted as applying to the saved or the unsaved, the
question for the Calvinist is, “How can sovereign calling and election be made sure by man?”
Calvinism teaches that election for salvation is determined solely by God and that He imparts it
irresistibly to the sinner through sovereign regeneration. What, then, does this verse mean? Can
a non-elect do something to remedy his condition, just in case?
1 Cor. 9:19 - For though I be free from all men, yet have I made myself servant unto all,
that I might gain the more.
22 - To the weak became I as weak, that I might gain the weak: I am made all
things to all men, that I might by all means save some.
Paul sacrificed and went to great efforts so that more men would be saved. If election is
sovereignly fore-determined and irresistibly given, this makes no sense. If man in his depraved
condition is unable to believe, then how could Paul’s actions “gain more” converts? How could
his actions “save some”?
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SALVATION CAN BE NEGLECTED
Heb. 2:3 - How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began
to be spoken by the Lord, and was confirmed unto us by them that heard him;
This exhortation makes no sense in light of Calvinist doctrine. If election is as the Calvinist
teaches and it is a matter of an individual being sovereignly chosen by God, how could the elect
neglect salvation and how could the non- elect do anything other than neglect salvation?
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