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ESP MULTIPLE CHOICE TEST- BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION- 2014

1. Management is the process of
a. maintaining the status quo.
b. planning, organizing and staffing, leading, and
controlling. c. keeping labor from taking over.
d. facilitating groups.

2. Crafting a strategic vision is typically the responsibility of a

a. first-level manager.
b. middle-level manager.
c. staff professional.
d. top-level manager.

3. Conducting most of the coordination activities within the firm is the task of a
a. first-level manager.
b. middle-level
manager. c. staff
professional.
d. top-level manager.

4. The job of vary substantially in terms of responsibility and income.

a. first-level manager.
b. middle-level
manager. c. staff
professional.
d. top-level manager.

5. Supervising operatives is the responsibility of a

a. first-level manager.
b. middle-level manager.
c. staff professional.
d. top-level manager.

6. help shape the attitudes of new employees toward the firm.

a. first-level managers.
b. middle-level managers.
c. staff professionals.
d. top-level managers.

7. The process of providing employees with opportunities to make their own decisions
with regards to their tasks is
a. management.
b.
empowerment. c.
leadership
d. controlling
8. The process of ensuring that a business’s actual costs do not exceed predetermined
acceptable limits is
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a. cost
control. b.
cost limit.
c. quality control.
d. cost saving.

9. involves an understanding of and proficiency in a specific activity that

involves methods, processes, procedures, or techniques
a. Technical
skill
b. Interpersonal skill
c. Conceptual skill
d. Political skill

10. Developing marketing campaign for a product can also be regarded as a

a. Technical skill
b. Diagnostic skill
c. Conceptual skill
d. Political skill

11. is a manager’s ability to work effectively as a team member and to build

cooperative effort in the unit.
a. Technical skill
b. Interpersonal
skill c. Conceptual
skill
d. Political skill

12. With respect to managers, poor interpersonal skills

a. have a neutral impact on performance.
b. can lead to job
failure.
c. are not important because "Nice guys and gals finish last."
d. only create problems at the first two levels of management.

13. An important subset of interpersonal skills for managers is the ability to

work effectively and conduct business with people from different cultures.
a.
multiculturalism b.
bilingualism
c. diversity
d. multinationalism

14. Communication skills are an example of an important .

a. Technical skill
b. Interpersonal
skill c. Conceptual
skill
d. Political skill
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15. skill is needed to understand how the various parts of the organization
fit together.
a. Technical skill
b. Interpersonal skill
c. Conceptual skill
d. Political skill

16. Visualizing the relationship of the individual business to the industry, the community,
the political, social and economic forces of the nation as a whole is an example of .
a. Technical skill
b. Interpersonal skill
c. Conceptual skill
d. Political skill

17. skill involves investigating a problem and then choosing a course of

action to solve it.

a. Technical
b. Diagnostic
c. Conceptual
d. Political

18. skills include establishing connections and impressing the right

people.
a. Technical skill
b. Interpersonal skill
c. Conceptual skill
d. Political skill

19. Political skills should be regarded as a

a. supplement to job competence.
b. way to overcome job incompetence.
c. way of creating ambiguity on the job.
d. privilege of top management.

20. Negotiating and forming alliances are example of a .

a. Technical skill
b. Interpersonal skill
c. Conceptual skill
d. Political skill

21. John Smith is considering the right person for the new job. He is working on the
aspect
a. human resources
b. financial resources
c. physical resources
d. information resources
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22. The resources of a business organization are profits and investments from
stockholders.
a. human
b.
financial c.
physical
d. information

23. Vendors supply many of the resources needed to achieve organizational

goals.
a. human
b. financial
c. physical
d. information

24. Sherri Jackson is a sales manager. She searches the Internet to find new potential
markets for her products. Jackson is most directly making use of resources.
a. human
b. financial
c. physical
d. information
25. involves setting goals and figuring out ways of reaching them.
a. leading
b. controlling
c. planning
d. organizing and staffing

26. Decision making is usually a component of .

a. leading
b. controlling
c. planning
d. organizing and staffing

27. The process of making sure the necessary human and physical resources are available
to carry out a plan and achieve organizational goals is called .

a. leading
b. controlling
c. planning
d. organizing and staffing

28. Another major aspect of is grouping activities into departments or some

other logical subdivision.
a. leading
b. controlling
c. staffing

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d. organizing

29. Hiring people for jobs is typical activity.

a. leading
b. planning
c. staffing
d. organizing

30. Which function of management is most involved with energizing, directing, activating,
and persuading others?
a. leading
b. controlling
c. planning
d. organizing and staffing

31. Controlling is primarily concerned with

a. making rational decisions.
b. comparing actual performance to a predetermined
standard. c. influencing people to perform better.
d. laying out work in a logical manner.
II.

32. A distinguishing feature of a multinational corporation is that it

a. exports some of its products and services.
b. pays comparable wages wherever it conducts business.
c. has a culturally diverse group of executives.
d. has units in two or more countries in addition to its own.

33. A key characteristic of multicultural workers is that they

a. have worked for one or more multicultural organizations.
b. believe in the importance of a favorable balance of trade.
c. are convinced that all cultures are equally good.
d. can speak at least two languages fluently.

34. Cultural sensitivity is

a. awareness of local and national customs
b. being extra-respectful of rank.
c. realizing the importance of local customs in effective interpersonal relationships.
d. both a & c

35. You have good global leadership skills when you can
a. go on an overseas business trip without developing culture shock.
b. effectively lead people from other cultures.
c. get diverse members of your group to work well together.
d. speak two or more languages fluently.

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36. To be effective as a global leader, the manager must

a. inspire others.
b. develop good interpersonal relationships.
c. show good initiative and be oriented toward success and understanding cultural
differences.
d. a, b and c

37. A major effect of a weak currency is that companies based in the country with the
weak currency
a. can export more readily.
b. find it more difficult to export.
c. are forced to increase their wages.
d. are forced to decrease their wages.

38. A country’s balance of trade is

a. the trade deficit..
b. a trade surplus.
c. the difference between exports and imports in both goods and
services. d. the lowering of the value of currency

39. A country’s trade deficit is expressed as

a. Exports minus imports.
b. Imports minus
exports c. Exports time
imports.
d. Domestic jobs minus jobs sent offshore

40. The trade deficit can be attributed to

a. the preference for Americans to purchase lower-priced goods
b. increase in the price of imported petroleum products..
c. the preference to take vacations in foreign countries.
d. all of the choices

41. An individual manager might want to contribute to the national economy by

a. importing more than exporting
b. both exporting and importing a lot
c. exporting more than importing
d. importing but not exporting

42. are considered as violation of human rights

a. Hiring undocumented aliens at the below minimum wages
b. Maintaining substandard and dangerous working conditions
c. Child labour
d. All of these
43. by foreign officials is a popular ethical and legal problem that the
international manager faces when doing business abroad.
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a. Corruption
b. Decision- making
c. Investment
d. Intervention
44. negotiators are willing to spend many days negotiating a deal.

a. American
b. Asian
c. All
d. Both American and Asian

45. A major problem for the international business manager is

a. converting currency from one country to another.
b. revenue lost due to pirating in other countries.
c. finding countries with a large enough consumer base.
d. finding Spanish-speaking workers in the United States.

46. The symptoms of culture shock usually stem from

a. an intense dislike for foreign cultures.
b. an electrifying experience in another country.
c. being abruptly placed in a foreign culture.
d. being forced to learn a foreign language quickly.

47. A success factor for businesses in the global marketplace is to

a. think globally, act locally.
b. diversify into quite different product markets.
c. staff most key positions with people from your own country.
d. conduct almost all business in English.

48. A major success factor in building a business in another country is

a. to hire citizens from the United States.
b. to judge candidates based on U.S. perceptions and criteria.
c. to sell American products.
d. to hire talented citizens of that country to fill important positions.

49. A contributing factor to success in global markets is

a. to hire citizens from the United States.
b. to judge candidates based on U.S. perceptions and criteria.
c. to sell American products.
d. to hire multicultural workers .

50. A basic success strategy in international market is to acquire valid information about
a. the firm’s target market.

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b. the firm’s domestic market.

c. the firm’s partners.
d. the firm’s rivals.

51. To succeed in the global market, companies

a. should not change their strategies and tactics
b. should change their strategies and
tactics c. should stay domestic
d. should maintain their strategies and tactics
52. The person is less concerned with getting things done, but more
interested in building and maintaining good relationships with people and ensuring others are
comfortable with the interactions.

a. Task- oriented
b. Content - oriented
c. Relationship -
oriented d. Export -
oriented

53. Planning is
a. a complex and comprehensive process involving interrelated
stages. b. organizing, implementing, and controlling.
c. finding the best person for a job.
d. communicating effectively with stakeholders.

54 Strategic plans are designed to

a. implement operational plans.
b. establish day-by-day procedures.
c. shape the destiny of the firm.
d. carrying out the functions of management.

55. The purpose of tactical planning is to

a. establish a general purpose for the organization.
b. translate strategic plans into specific goals and plans for organizational
units. c. tell entry level workers what to do on a daily basis.
d. compensate for past mistakes.

56. identifies the specific procedures and actions required at lower levels in
the organization.
a. Tactical planning
b. Strategic planning
c. Long-range planning
d. Operational
planning

57. includes measuring success and examining internal capabilities and

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external threats.
a. Defining the present situation
b. Implementing the plan
c. Controling the plan
d. Developing the buget

58. consists of the specific steps necessary to achieve a goal or objective.

a. A strategic plan
b. An action plan
c. A long-range plan
d. A vision plan

59. A study of CEO failure indicated that 70 percent of the time their failures were
attributed to
a. poorly developed plans.
b. poor execution, not poor
planning. c. over-ambitious plans.
d. lack of adequate cost controls.

60. A manager controls the plan when he or she

a. creates a vision statement.
b. creates a mission statement.
c. establishes a budget to pay for the action plan.
d. checks to see how well goals are being attained.

61. A contingency plan is implemented if the

a. strategic plan is too modest.
b. control processes do not work.
c. original plan cannot be
implemented. d. action plan succeeds.

62. Planning does not end with , because plans may not always
proceed as conceived.

a. action plans
b. controlling
c.
implementation d.
Budgets

63. Many planners develop a set of plans to be used in case things do

not proceed as hoped.
a. back-
up b.
action
c. primary
d. budget
64. is an alternative plan to be used if the original plan cannot be
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implemented or a crisis develops.

a. An action plan
b. A contingency
plan c. A budget plan
d. A financial plan

65. Contingency plans are often developed from in earlier steps in

planning
a. responsibilities
b. tasks
c. missions
d.
objectives

66. might be part of the contingency plan.

a. An action plan
b. A business plan
c. An exit
strategy
d. A financial plan

67. The framework for planning can be used to develop and implement .
a. strategic plans
b. tactical plans
c. operational plans
d. all of these

68. A is an integrated overall concept and plan of how the organization will
achieve its goals and objectives.
a.
strategy b.
plan
c. mission
d. model

69. A Strategy involves .

a. downsizing
b. performing work more efficiently
c. outsourcing
d. more than operational effectiveness or being efficient through such
means as downsizing, performing work more efficiently, and
outsourcing

70. means deliberately choosing a different set of activities to deliver a

unique value.
a. Comparative strategy
b. Competitive
strategy c. Business
strategy
d. Political strategy

71. Which one of the following is a component of true business strategy?

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a. a high level of operational effectiveness

b. a set of activities common to other firms
c. giving customers trade-offs
d. having quite different activities to make similar products for different markets

72 A problem is technically defined as a discrepancy between the

a. past and present.
b. future and present.
c. person's wishes and desires.
d. ideal and actual
conditions.

73. The purpose of decision making is to

a. analyze a problem.
b. solve a
problem. c.
collaborate..
d. involve people in the decisions.

74 is a decision that is repetitive, or routine, and made according to a specific

procedure
a. A programmed decision
b. A business decision
c. A nonprogrammed decision
d. An alternative decision

75. is a decision that is difficult because of its complexity and the fact that
the person faces it infrequently.

a. A programmed decision
b. A business decision
c. A nonprogrammed decision
d. An alternative decision

76. A well - planned and highly structured organization reduces the number of
.
a. programmed decisions
b. business decisions
c. nonprogrammed decisions
d. alternative decisions

77. According to a long-term study, being systematic about decision making

helps

a. analyze a problem.
b. avoid bad decisions
c. collaborate..
d. involve people in the decisions.
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78. Most instances of decision-making failure were attributed to , including not

exploring enough alternatives, and not obtaining enough input from group members.
a. poor tactics
b. poor mamagement
c. poor performance
d. poor structure

79. The first step in problem solving and decision making is

a. To identify and diagnose the problem
b. To evaluate alternative solutions
c. To implement the decision
d. To choose one alternative solution

80. The second step in problem solving and decision making is

a. To choose one alternative solution
b. To evaluate alternative solutions
c. To implement the decision
d. To develop alternative solutions

81. involves comparing the relative value of the alternatives

a. Choosing one alternative solution
b. Evaluating alternative solutions
c. Implementing the decision
d. Developing alternative solutions

82. The alternative chosen should be the one that .

a. is simple to achieve
b. is complex to achieve
c. appears to come closest to achieving it
d. can not be achieved

83. A fruitful way of evaluating the merit of a decision is to observe its .

a. implementation
b. appearance
c. performance
d. prospect

84. Evaluating and controlling your decisions will help you improve
a. your decision-making skills
b. your communication skills
c. your negotiation skills
d. your presentation skills

85. In making a decision, the alternative should be chosen that most clearly.
a. is favored by top management.
b. achieves the goal of the decision.
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c. saves the organization money.

d. leads to innovation.

86. A major reason that decision making is often not such a rational process is that there
are
a. too many stages in decision making for most people to cope with.
b. natural biases against diagnosing problems.
c. few bounds to human decision-making capability.
d. limits to how much information people can process and recall.

87. The purpose of a heuristic in decision making is to

a. simplify the decision-making process.
b. find a rapid way to explore more alternatives.
c. obtain input from a large number of people.
d. evaluate whether a decision was effective.

88. To say that a decision is based on political considerations means that it is not based on
a. alliances with others.
b. thoughts of acquiring power.
c. both sides of an issue.
d. the objective merits of the situation.

89. Emotional intelligence generally deals with the ability to

a. connect with people and understand their emotions.
b. stay in control while taking tests.
c. knowing how to throw a tantrum for effect.
d. using common sense to earn a living.

90. Billy is usually heavily influenced by the first information he receives on a topic. He
is under the influence of a process called
a. anchoring.
b. rationalizing.
c. trial and error.
d. emotional intelligence.

91. A recommendation for becoming more adept at making decisions under crisis
conditions is
a. to establish a special committee.
b. to avoid taking risks.
c. to anticipate crises
d. to avoid speaking to the media.

92. Julio was going to recommend a new billing system for the hospital where he works.
However, he does not want to upset the executive who installed the system, so he does not
make the recommendation. Julio has fallen into the
a. overconfidence trap.
b. status quo trap.
c. anchoring trap.
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d. creativity rut.

93 A frequent decision-making error during a crisis is to

a. methodically search for alternatives
b. become less rational and more emotional.
c. become more rational and less emotional.
d. welcome differences of opinion.

94. The purpose of visualization for making better decisions under crisis is to
a. rehearse in your mind how you will react to the crisis.
b. think of all the times you have failed in the past.
c. engage in a pleasant fantasy to reduce your stress.
d. imagine how angry your boss will be if your fail.

95. Marketing executive Jasmine likes to make a decision quickly as soon as enough
information is available, and she also likes to generate lots of options. Her decision-making
style is therefore characterized as,
a. decisive.
b. flexible.
c. hierarchic.
d. integrative.

96. Information technology executive Darryl likes to pore over a lot of information before
making a decision, and he also likes to commit to one course of action. His decision-making
style is therefore characterized as
a. decisive.
b. flexible.
c. hierarchic.
d. integrative.

97. A bureaucracy is a rational, systematic, and precise form of organization in which

are specifically defined
a. rules
b. regulations
c. techniques of control
d. all of these

98 The essence of bureaucracy can be identified by

a. hierarchy of authority
b. unity of command
c. task specialization
d. all of these

99. The organization structure best suited to gaining the advantage of specialization is
departmentalization.
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a. functional
b. geographic
c. product
d. matrix

100. A disadvantage of product-service departmentalization is that

a. customer needs may be neglected.
b. field units lack authority.
c. it often leads to duplication of effort.
d. employees rarely identify with the field units.

101 A key advantage of geographic departmentalization is that it allows for

a. decision making at a local level
b. consideration of the local culture.
c. a & b
d. a one size fits all strategy

102. A matrix organization can be described as a(n) structure superimposed on a

structure.
a. project; functional
b. product; territorial
c. process; product
d. informal; formal

103. A wide span of control is advised when

a. there is considerable flux in the work setting.
b. group members perform similar tasks.
c. group members are physically dispersed.
d. group members and the manager are highly capable.

104. Downsizing is the most likely to be successful when

a. high-value activity is eliminated first.
b. information about the pending layoff is held back from employees.
c. it is part of the business strategy to improve the company.
d. it is a stopgap measure to save the company money.

105. Companies such as Dell purchase complete designs for some digital devices from
Asian developers. This is called
a. division of labor
b. outsourcing
c. implementing
d. scenario planning
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106. Outsourcing may

a. save money
b. acquire expertise not available in-house
c. build loyal workforce
d. Both a and b

107. An example of a horizontal organization structure would be a

a. department producing an engine.
b. team assembling components for company machines.
c. purchasing department.
d. team responsible for filling orders.

108. In a horizontal structure, all team members focus on

a. a specialized task
b. accomplishing a process
c. profitability
d. Both a and c

109. To become part of the informal organization structure, you should

a. study the company organization chart carefully.
b. become a temporary worker.
c. send your résumé to key managers.
d. establish a network of contacts to help you accomplish work.

110. Determinants of Organizational Culture are

a. values of the founder or founders.
b. administrative practices of the founder or founders.
c. personality of the founder or founders.
d. all of these

111. The foundation of an organizational culture is the organization's

a. relative diversity.
b. values.
c. resource allocation and rewards.
d. degree of change.

112. The dimension or organization culture called a sense of ownership, typically comes
about when
a. the company helps employees purchase houses.
b. employees develop pride in the company.
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c. the company helps employees get out of debt.

d. employees purchase stock in the company.

113. The allocation of money and other resources exerts a critical influence on
a. culture
b. development
c. image
d. outlook

114. In the Model for Change, involves reducing or eliminating resistance

to change.
a. Refreezing
b. Changing
c. Thawing
d. Unfreezing .

115. In the Model for Change, includes rewarding people for implementing
the change.
a. Refreezing
b. Changing
c. Thawing
d. Unfreezing .

116. People resist changes for such reasons as

a. Fear of unfavorable outcome
b. Not wanting to break old habits
c. Personality factors such as rigidity, not having right skills
d. All of these

117. A recommended technique for gaining support for change is to

a. discuss and negotiate sensitive issues.
b. figure out what to do as one goes along.
c. discourage worker participation in the changes.
d. avoid discussion about financial consequences.

118. Involving employees in the change process is

a. To gain support for change
b. To resist change
c. To create change
d. To plan change

119. An important emphasis of a Six Sigma program is to

a. prevent problems.
b. punish employees who perform sloppy work.
c. minimize the behavioral aspects of achieving high quality.
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d. base quality standards on individual differences.

120. Human resources executive Sarah says, "I finally have a seat at the table." She most
likely is implying that
a. she is allowed into the executive dining room.
b. her work is tied in with company business strategy.
c. she no longer has to stand in the back of the room during meetings.
d. she will be allowed to negotiate with the labor union.

121. A specific way in which human resources contributes to business strategy is by

a. helping to build high-performance work practices.
b. organizing company picnics.
c. making PowerPoint presentations to top management.
d. helping to prepare job descriptions.

122. The general purpose of strategic human resource planning is to

a. develop selection systems to meet the needs of the firm.
b. control costs in carrying out the human resource function.
c. identify skills needed for the success of the business.
d. ensure that business strategy does not neglect people.

123. Strategic human resource planning consists of

a. Planning for future needs and Planning for future turnover
b. Planning for recruitment, selection, and layoffs
c. Planning for training and development
d. All of these

124. Recruiting is the process of

a. attracting job candidates.
b. finding candidates with the right characteristics and skills to fill job openings.
c. both a & b
d. training job candidates.

125. A major purpose of recruiting and selection is

a. to find qualified employees who fit well into the culture of the organization
b. to promote the company image
c. to promote the brand image
d. to advertise the company

126. A job specification describes the

a. working conditions encountered on the job.
b. pay and benefits associated with the job.
c. demands of the job.
d. qualifications needed for the job.

127. Organizations often expect workers , to meet the need for rapid
change.
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a. to occupy flexible roles rather than specific positions

b. to apply for new jobs
c. to learn a language
d. to change

128. Recruiting sources are

a. Present employees and Referrals by present and former employees
b. External sources other than online approaches
c. Online recruiting including company Web sites
d. All of these

129. Online recruiting

a. now accounts for about 80% of external hires.
b. occurs on social networking Web sites such as Facebook, LinkedIn, and Twitter.
c. is considered discriminatory because they require computer literacy.
d. suffers from not attracting a large enough number of inquiries.

130. An example of a knock out question for a flight attendant would be

a. "Would you want a child of yours to be an airplane pilot?"
b. "Are you currently employed?"
c. "Who invented the airplane?"
d. "Are you afraid of flying?"

131. Psychological tests used in employment screening are:

a. Achievement tests and Aptitude tests
b. Personality tests
c. Honesty and integrity tests
d. All of these

132. Achievement tests are designed to measure

a. applicant’s knowledge and skills
b. potential for performing satisfactorily on the job, given sufficient training
c. personal traits and characteristics that could be related to job performance
d. person’s honesty or integrity as it relates to job behavior

133. Aptitude tests are designed to measure

a. applicant’s knowledge and skills
b. potential for performing satisfactorily on the job, given sufficient training
c. personal traits and characteristics that could be related to job performance
d. person’s honesty or integrity as it relates to job behavior

134. Personality tests are designed to measure

a. applicant’s knowledge and skills
b. potential for performing satisfactorily on the job, given sufficient training
c. personal traits and characteristics that could be related to job performance
d. person’s honesty or integrity as it relates to job behavior

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135. Honesty and Integrity tests are designed to measure

c.
a. applicant’s knowledge and skills
b. potential for performing satisfactorily on the job, given sufficient training
c. personal traits and characteristics that could be related to job performance
d. person’s honesty or integrity as it relates to job behavior

136. An employee orientation program

a. introduces company culture
b. guides employees around the company
c. acquaints new employees with the company and imparts information about the
corporate culture.
d. introduce new employees

137. Performance, as measured in performance evaluation systems, appears to have the

three following components:
a. task performance, interpersonal performance, and mental performance
b. task performance, citizenship performance, and counterproductive performance
c. past performance, present performance, and future performance
d. performance related to customers, the manager, and coworkers

138. Forced rankings

a. evaluate employees against a performance standard.
b. measure employees against one another.
c. select an outstanding performer.
d. both a & b.

139. A performance evaluation (or appraisal) is a formal system for

a. measuring performance
b. evaluating performance
c. reviewing performance
d. all of the choices

140. 360-degree feedback is

a. a performance appraisal.
b. an evaluation using a sampling of all the people with whom an employee interacts.
c. both a & b
d. a selection tool.

141. A major purpose of performance evaluation is to decide whether an employee should

a. receive merit increases and the relative size of the increases
b. have potential for promotion
c. have opportunities for training
d. Both a and b

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142. Management
a. relies on universal skills, such as planning, budgeting, and controlling
b. is a set of explicit tools and techniques, based on reasoning and testing
c. involves getting things done through other people
d. All of these

143. Leadership
a. involves having a vision of what the organization can become
b. requires eliciting cooperation and teamwork from a large network of people and
keeping the key people in that network motivated
c. places more emphasis on helping others to achieve the common vision.
d. All of these

144. Power is
a. the ability to get others to do things
b. the ability to control resources
c. the formal right to accomplish the same ends
d. Both a and b

145. Types of power include

a. Legitimate power and Reward power
b. Coercive power and Expert power
c. Referent power and Subordinate power
d. All of these

146. A key aspect of leading by example is for the leader to

a. set high goals for group members.
b. be assertive with group members.
c. appeal to the rationality of group members
d. show a consistency between actions and words.

147. A coalition is a specific arrangement of parties working together to combine their power
a. a specific arrangement of parties working together to combine their power
b. a working team
c. a production team
d. a sales team

148. When a leader empowers employees, the leader accepts them as

a. part of his or her zone of indifference.
b. workers with higher rank than himself or herself.
c. partners in decision making.
d. leaders by example.

149. To encourage self-leadership managers should

a. set an example of self-leadership
b. give encouragement and instruction in self-leadership skills
c. reward accomplishment in self-leadership
d. All of these
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150. Empowerment as a leadership technique

a. works better in some cultures than in others.
b. works in all cultures.
c. works to the extent that cultural values support power sharing.
d. both a & b

151. A major characteristic of high achieving leaders is that they are

a. somewhat indifferent about the technology around them.
b. passionate about their work.
c. low on achievement motivation.
d. medium with respect to emotional intelligence.

152. For best results, the leader should combine self-confidence with
a. humility.
b. arrogance.
c. dishonesty.
d. a little sarcasm.

153. Under a policy of open-book management, workers are

a. expected to be totally honest with management.
b. exposed to financial details of the firm.
c. empowered to set their own wage rates.
d. expected to manage the financial aspects of their organizational units.

154 . Feedback is considered very important as a way of

a. influencing behavior.
b. developing charisma.
c. manipulating team members.
d. exerting coercive power.

155. Which one of the following is the least likely to be an effective leadership behavior?
a. giving and receiving frequent feedback
b. setting high performance standards for group members
c. being the opposite of a servant leader
d. quick recovery from setbacks

156. A major part of effective crisis leadership is for the leader to

a. present a plan for working out of the crisis.
b. point blame for the crisis in the right direction.
c. be excitable and angry.
d. delay decision making until a study of the crisis is completed.

157. Participative leadership can take the form of

a. consultative leader
b. consensus leader
c. democratic leader
d. All of these
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158. retain most of the authority for themselves and make most decisions
unilaterally
a. Participative leaders
b. Autocratic leaders
c. Consensus leaders
d. Democratic leaders

159. According to the Leadership Grid, which style of leadership leads to trust and respect?
a. authoritarian management.
b. sound management.
c. extraverted management.
d. crisis management

160. In Situational Leadership II, leaders adapt their behavior to the level of and
of a particular subordinate on a given task.
a. intelligence, personality
b. competence, commitment
c. goals, motives
d. knowledge, experience

161. Situational Leadership II explains that effective leadership depends on two

independent behaviors:
a. delegating and empowering
b. trusting and believing
c. supporting and directing.
d. directing and coaching

162. A notable characteristic of an entrepreneurial leader is a(n)

a. patient, plodding approach to problems.
b. passion for hierarchy and bureaucracy.
c. exceptional degree of enthusiasm.
d. exceptional degree of pessimism.

163. Transformations take place when the transformational leader

a. raises awareness of the importance of certain rewards.
b. helps people go beyond a focus on minor satisfactions.
c. gets people to look beyond self-interest.
d. all of the choices.

164. Charismatic leaders are able to

a. inspire others.
b. intimidate group members.
c. get coworkers to support each other.
d. get group members to compete against one another.

165. To developing charisma,

a. be laid back and aloof.
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b. have low self-efficacy.

c. keep emotions under tight control.
d. make everybody feel important.

166. An example of a leadership skill would be

a. extraversion.
b. motivating others.
c. emotional stability.
d. conscientiousness.

167. leads to high productivity and performance.

a. Strong motivation
b. Ability and Skills
c. The right equipment
d. All of these

168. According to recent evidence about employee engagement, most American workers
are
a. so engaged in their work they risk becoming alcoholics.
b. usually engaged in their work for the first four hours of the day.
c. so unengaged in their work they are a liability to their employer.
d. not fully engaged in their work.

169. The first group of needs in Maslow's need hierarchy is

a. physiological needs.
b. esteem needs.
c. self-actualizing needs.
d. social needs.

170. The final group of needs in Maslow's need hierarchy is

a. physiological needs.
b. esteem needs.
c. self-actualizing needs.
d. social needs.

171. A factor contributing today to the relevance of the need hierarchy is that
a. job security has reached new heights in recent years.
b. money is no longer a significant motivator.
c. so many workers have to worry about satisfying basic needs.
d. many companies sponsor programs of self-actualization.

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172. Successful executives typically have

a. stronger needs for achievement and power than for affiliation
b. equal needs for achievement and power as for affiliation
c. stronger needs for achievement than for power
d. Both b and c

173. Making employees feel important can satisfy

a. the achievement need
b. the power need
c. the affiliation need
d. the recognition need

174. Striving to experience most likely stems from the desire to satisfy the
needs for self-esteem and self-fulfillment
a. the need for risk -taking
b. the emotion of pride
c. the need for affiliation
d. the need for achievement

175. The willingness to take risks and pursue thrills is

a. the need for affiliation
b. the need for achievement
c. the need to be proud
d. the need for risk taking and thrill seeking

176. Job satisfiers or motivators, according to the two-factor theory, relate to the
a. financial bonuses associated with the job.
b. internal aspect of job
c. working conditions surrounding the job.
d. benefits associated with the job.

177. Which of the following job factors is most accurately classified as a dissatisfier?
a. opportunity for advancement
b. recognition for good work
c. working conditions
d. responsibility

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178. Which one of the following job factors is considered important for motivating the
young generation of workers?
a. close monitoring of work such as through time clocks
b. limited vacations
c. minimizing feedback
d. loads of responsibility

179. Cross-cultural differences in standards of living also influence

a. working conditions
b. work performance
c. the effectiveness of recognition awards
d. Both a and b

180. A goal is most likely to improve performance when it is

a. relatively easy.
b. specific rather than general.
c. not used to evaluate performance.
d. not linked to rewards.

181. Which one of the following statements is not True?

a. Goals are more effective when they are used to evaluate performance
b. Goals should be linked to feedback and rewards
c. Group goal setting is not as important as individual goal setting
d. For goals to improve performance, the employee must accept them

182. is the idea that people live up to the expectations set for them.
a. Pygmalion effect
b. Side effect
c. Law of effect
d. Negative effect

183 A potential problem with relying on goals to motivate workers is that

a. they might use unethical means to attain goals.
b. they might receive praise from a supervisor.
c. they might receive a sense of satisfaction from a job well done.
d. it might lead to turnover.
184 is behavior that leads to positive consequences tends to be repeated, while
behavior that leads to negative consequences tends not to be repeated.
a. Law of business
b. Law of effect c.
Law of supply d.
Law of demand

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185. increases the probability that the behavior will be repeated by rewarding
people for making the right response.
a. Negative reinforcement
b. Modification
c. Change
d. Positive reinforcement

186. Which of these are helpful when attempting to use positive reinforcement on the job
a. use appropriate rewards
b. make rewards contingent on good performance
c. reward groups and teams as well as individuals
d. All of these

187. Luis, a commercial real estate agent, says "I'm almost sure that if I close this deal the
company will give me a bonus." Luis is demonstrating a high
a.
b.
c. valence.
d. need for affiliation.

188. Expectancy theory helps pinpoint what a manager must do

a. to motivate group members
b. to diagnose motivational problems
c. to solve a problem
d. Both a and b

189. give workers supplemental income based on the profitability of the entire firm
or a selected unit.
a. Profit sharing plans
b. Business plans
c. HR management plans
d. Both b and c

190. Gainsharing is
a. a program allowing employees to participate financially in the productivity gains
they achieved.
b. the same as stock options.
c. a type of empowerment.
d. a management style.

191. Stock options give the people granted the option the opportunity to
a. purchase stock at a later date at a price established now.
b. share directly in the profits of the firm.
c. purchase company stock anytime at a specific discount.
d. purchase stock of any company through online trading.

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192. Communication is the process of

a. sending messages.
b. exchanging information.
c. listening and observing.
d. influencing others.

193. Sylvia is gathering her thoughts to send a message to a difficult customer. She is going
through the process of
a. transmitting.
b. using nonverbal communication.
c. decoding.
d. encoding.

194. The process in which the receiver interprets the message and translates it into
meaningful information is
a. transmitting.
b. using nonverbal communication.
c. decoding.
d. Encoding.

195. The process in which the message is sent over a communication medium such as
voice, e-mail, instant message, Web log, or telephone is
a. transmission.
b. Feedback.
c. decoding.
d. Encoding.

196. The general purpose of nonverbal communication is to

a. get through to people who have difficulty receiving verbal messages.
b. express the feeling behind a message.
c. control the reactions of the receiver.
d. repeat what was expressed verbally.

197. Aspects of nonverbal communication include

a. hand and body gestures.
b. voice quality.
c. body placement.
d. all of the choices

198. The Web log or blog is frequently used by companies as a

a. informal communication channel.
b. formal communication channel.
c. form of nonverbal communication.
d. form of lateral communication.

199. . Which one of the following is an example of downward communication?

a. open-door policy
b. complaint program
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c. town-hall meeting
d. a message from the CEO sent to all employees

200. Leaders make extensive use of informal networks to accomplish goals including
a. operational networking
b. personal networking
c. strategic networking
d. all of the choices

201. Chance encounters between managers and employees work well as a(n)
a. formal communication channel.
b. informal communication channel.
c. substitute for management by walking around.
d. substitute for a bulletin board.

202. A recommended way for company management to combat rumors is to

a. fire the person who started the rumor.
b. deny that the rumor has any truth at all.
c. start an even more interesting rumor.
d. enhance formal communication about the topic.

203. is the transmission of messages from lower to higher levels

a. Upward communication
b. Downward communication
c. Horizontal communication
d. Diagonal communication

204. Companies have developed mechanisms to facilitate upward communication, including

a. the open-door policy
b. town hall meetings
c. complaint programs and hotlines and Web logs
d. All of these

205 is is the sending of messages among people at the same organizational level.
a. Upward communication
b. Downward communication
c. Horizontal communication
d. Diagonal communication

206 is the transmission of messages to higher or lower organizational levels in

different departments.
a. Upward communication
b. Downward communication
c. Horizontal communication
d. Diagonal communication

207. Barriers to communication include

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a. Low motivation and interest

b. Inappropriate Language
c. Information overload
d. All of these

208. A major purpose of defensive communication is to

a. overcome communications barriers.
b. prevent others from blaming you for mistakes.
c. get even with other workers.
d. protect one's self-esteem.

209. If verbal communication is not supplemented by , messages may not be

convincing.
a. nonverbal communication
b. language
c. skills
d. knowledge

210. occurs when an individual receives so much information.

a. Low motivation and interest
b. Inappropriate Language
c. Information overload
d. All of these

211. is needed to understand the receiver, and also helps build rapport
a. Empathy
b. Sympathy
c. Nothing
d. Money

212. Informative confrontation is a technique of inquiring about

a. discrepancies
b. conflicts
c. mixed messages
d. All of these

213. Two-way communication reduces barriers because a dialogue helps reduce

by communicating feelings as well as facts
a. misunderstanding
b. stress
c. confusion
d. pressure

214. Active listening means listening for full meaning without making
a. concessions
b. premature judgments or interpretations
c. promises
d. Both a and c
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215. To implement overcoming communication barriers by uniting with a common

vocabulary, the manager must first
a. hire only employees with the same native tongue.
b. convert from a hierarchical to a team structure.
c. develop a computer network for the organization.
d. identify the core work of a business.

216. To overcome culturally based communication barriers,

a. be sensitive to their presence.
b. show respect for all workers.
c. be alert to cultural differences in customs and behavior.
d. a,b,c are all correct.

217. Business ethics deals primarily with

a. social responsibility.
b. the pricing of products and services.
c. moral obligation.
d. being unfair to the competition.
218. Ethics are important because
a. suppliers prefer to deal with ethical companies.
b. customers prefer to deal with ethical companies.
c. employees prefer to deal with ethical companies.
d. all of the choices.
219. According to the concept of moral intensity, a worker is most likely to behave ethically and legally
when
a. a manager observes his or her behavior closely.
b. the worker has intense morals.
c. the consequences of the act are minor.
d. the consequences of the act are substantial.

220. When attempting to decide what is right and wrong, managerial workers can focus….
a. consequences
b. duties, obligations, and principles
c. integrity
d. all of the choices
221. Pierre takes a utilitarian viewpoint of ethics. He will therefore judge a business decision to be ethical
so long as
a. more good than bad results from the decision.
b. everybody is treated fairly.
c. certain rights are not violated.
d. he has good character and integrity.
222. Small-business owner Jason is thinking about giving a potential customer an expense paid vacation to
Las Vegas for her and her husband. When asked if he is being ethical, Jason replies, "Look whatever
works, works." Which ethical principle is Jason most likely using?
a. focus on the rights of individuals
b. pragmatism
c. utilitarianism (consequences)
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d. focus on integrity (virtue ethics)

223. The deontological approach is based on universal principles based on moral philosophies
such as…..
a. honesty
b. fairness and justice
c. respect for persons and property.
d. all of the choices

224. If the person in question has…………….., he or she is behaving ethically.

a. good character
b. genuine motivation
c. genuine intentions
d. all of the choices

225. Which statement is true?

a. Values are closely related to ethics.
b. A person’s values also influence which kind of behaviors he or she believes are
ethical.
c. Values are important because the right values can lead to a competitive advantage.
d. all of the choices

226. Bonita is an ethically centered production manager so she will ship a product
a. only after all its problems have been eliminated.
b. only if the shipping people use packing material that does not harm the environment.
c. only after an ethics committee has approved it.
d. as quickly as she can to meet the customer's schedule.
227. An ethically centered manager is…………………, because he or she is primarily concerned about
customer satisfaction.
a. more concerned about the completion dates of a project than high quality
b. more concerned about high quality than the completion dates of a project
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b

228. The ethical dilemma of choosing between two rights refers to

a. choosing between the lesser of two evils.
b. deciding which of two employee rights is the most important.
c. deciding to offer a bribe or lose out on an important opportunity.
d. choosing between the two types of sexual harassment.
229. Which statement is False?
a. Corporate social responsibility is the idea that firms have obligations to society
beyond their economic obligations to owners or stockholders and also beyond
those prescribed by law or contract
b. Both ethics and social responsibility relate to the goodness or morality of
organizations.
c. The stakeholder viewpoint is the traditional perspective on social responsibility
that a business organization is responsible only to its owners and stockholders
d. To behave in a socially responsible way, managers must be aware of how their

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actions influence the environment

230. The stockholder viewpoint of social responsibility holds that business firms are responsible
only to their …………….
a. employees and customers.
b. owners and stockholders.
c. all interested parties.
d. all those who might sue the organization.

231 The stakeholder view of social responsibility states that organizations must respond to the needs of
a. employees and customers.
b. shareholders and owners.
c. all interested parties.
d. all those who might sue the organization.
232. A firm is said to have good corporate social performance when
a. stockholders invest in socially responsible causes.
b. charitable deductions are automatically deducted from pay without the consent of
employees.
c. the company has not been convicted of ethical violations for five consecutive years.
d. stakeholders are satisfied with its level of social responsibility.

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