6090 Unit 502 - Application of Fundamental Principals of RACHP

Systems

Sample Test

V2.0 – Dec 2018

Tutor/Candidate Information
The live version of this test has a duration of 120 minutes
Number of question: 60
Marks out of 60
Grade: P/M/D
Other instructions:
A3 psychrometric chart must be provided.
A 300mm ruler, fine point pen/pencil and calculator should be used.

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Candidate Name Date DD/MM/YY

1. What is the SI base unit for temperature?

A. Fahrenheit.
B. Celsius.
C. Kelvin.
D. Rankine.

2. What is the derived SI unit of the measurement of the rate of energy flow?
A. Watt.
B. Joule.
C. Kelvin.
D. Newton.

3. What is the same when two bodies are in thermal equilibrium?

A. Their energy content.
B. Their temperature.
C. Their thermal conductivity.
D. Their mass.

4. Which is an absolute temperature scale?

A. Fahrenheit.
B. Celsius.
C. Centigrade.
D. Kelvin.

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5. What happens to molecules at absolute zero?
A. They vibrate very fast.
B. They vibrate very slowly.
C. They are motionless.
D. They change state.

6. What is 62°C converted to Kelvin?

A. 228 K.
B. 258 K.
C. 288 K.
D. 335 K.

7. Which thermodynamic law states that energy cannot be created or

destroyed, but only converted?
A. Boyle's law.
B. Charles' law.
C. First law.
D. Second law.

8. Which thermodynamic law describes ice melting in a glass of warm water?

A. Second law.
B. Boyle's law.
C. First law.
D. Charles' law.

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9. The heat from the sun travels to Earth by which process or processes?
A. Radiation.
B. Radiation and convection.
C. Conduction.
D. Conduction and convection.

10. What is the SI unit for energy?

A. Pascal.
B. Joule.
C. Watt.
D. Kelvin.

11. What are the units for work done over time?
A. Kilojoules per kilogram.
B. Kilocalories.
C. Kilojoules.
D. Kilowatts.

12. What is the result of 6000 J being removed from a product in two minutes?
A. 30 W.
B. 50W.
C. 3kW.
D. 12kW.

13. What is the process called when a liquid changes to a vapour?

A. Fusion.
B. Sublimation.
C. Evaporation.
D. Condensation.
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14. Where is sensible heat gained in a refrigeration system, under normal
conditions?
A. Suction line.
B. Liquid line.
C. Hot gas line.
D. Discharge line.

15. What is the approximate difference between the values of the specific heat
capacity of a solid compared to a liquid?
A. Four times.
B. Half.
C. A quarter.
D. Double.

16. What happens when latent heat is removed from a substance?

A. It causes a change in temperature but not in phase.
B. The substance becomes subcooled.
C. It causes a change in phase but not in temperature.
D. The substance becomes superheated.

17. If 8 kg of water has a heat input of 215 kJ, how much will its temperature rise,
given the specific heat capacity of water as 4.2 kJ/kgK?
A. 0.156 K.
B. 0.248 K.
C. 4.73 K.
D. 6.40 K.

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18. What is force divided by area better known as?
A. Torque.
B. Temperature.
C. Stress.
D. Pressure.

19. What is 1 N/m2 equivalent to?

A. 1 Torr.
B. 1 Pascal.
C. 1 PSI.
D. 1 Atmosphere.

20. What is a pressure of 10 mm Hg equal to?

A. 1 atmosphere.
B. 1 Pascal.
C. 1 millibar.
D. 10 000 microns.

21. What is a common description of a vacuum?

A. A pressure between plus 1.0 bar to minus 1.0 bar.
B. Any pressure well below normal atmospheric pressure.
C. A negative absolute pressure.
D. When no pressure is being exerted.

22. P1 x V1 = P2 x V2 is the formula for which law?

A. Boyle’s.
B. Ideal Gas.
C. Charles’.
D. Gay-Lussac’s.
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23. What is the formula for Dalton’s Law for a cylinder containing three gases?
A. PT = P1 x P2 x P3.
B. PT =P1 x P2 + P3.
C. PT = P1 + P2 + P3.
D. PT = P1 + P2 - P3.

24. What is the resulting volume if 0.08 m3 of a gas at 300 K and a pressure of
700 kN/m2 is increased to 500 K and a pressure of 500 kN/m2?
A. 0.057 m3.
B. 0.133 m3.
C. 0.187 m3.
D. 0.428 m3.

25. What causes flash gas in the line after a partially blocked filter drier?
A. The heat of compression.
B. The reduction in pressure.
C. The increase in pressure.
D. The removal of heat.

26. What must be present for the pressure temperature relationship to be

correct?
A. Superheated vapour.
B. Saturated liquid and vapour.
C. Subcooled liquid.
D. Subcooled vapour and superheated liquid.

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27. What effect does subcooled liquid have on system performance?
A. Increased cooling capacity.
B. Increased discharge temperature.
C. Decreased discharge temperature.
D. Decreased motor current.

28. What is a function of the compressor?

A. To maintain the pressure in the evaporator.
B. To increase the pressure in the evaporator.
C. To reduce the pressure in the liquid line.
D. To increase the pressure in the suction line.

29. Using the A3 pressure enthalpy (Ph) chart provided separately, plot the
vapour compression cycle with a condensing temperature of 45°C, evaporating at
+5°C with 10 K of sub-cooling and vapour entering the compressor at 15°C.

What is the enthalpy value at the evaporator inlet?

A. 150 kJ/kg.
B. 165 kJ/kg.
C. 300 kJ/kg.
D. 340 kJ/kg.

30. Using the A3 pressure enthalpy (Ph) chart provided separately, plot the
vapour compression cycle with a condensing temperature of 45°C, evaporating at
+5°C with 10 K of sub-cooling and vapour entering the compressor at 15°C.

If the condensing pressure drops by 15 K, and all other values remain constant, what
is the revised compressor work done?

A. 42kJ/kg.
B. 28 kJ/kg.
C. 18 kJ/kg.
D. 10 kJ/kg.

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31. Using the A3 pressure enthalpy (Ph) chart provided, plot the vapour
compression cycle with a condensing temperature of 45°C, evaporating at +5°C
with 10 K of sub-cooling and vapour entering the compressor at 15°C.

If the evaporating pressure drops by 15 K, and all other values remain constant,
what is the effect on evaporator cooling capacity?

A. It remain the same.

B. It will decrease by 10 kJ/kg.
C. It will increase by 10 kJ/kg.
D. It will increase by 20 kJ/kg.

32. What is the source of the total heat rejected by the condenser?

A. The compressor work done, suction line superheat and liquid line
sub-cooling.
B. The refrigeration effect, compressor work done and suction line superheat.
C. The refrigeration effect, liquid line sub-cooing and suction line superheat.
D. The suction line superheat, liquid line sub-cooling and compressor work
done.

33. What happens to the system refrigerant during compression?

A. The temperature and enthalpy increase, the entropy remains constant.
B. The pressure, temperature and entropy increase.
C. The enthalpy and temperature increase, the entropy decreases.
D. The enthalpy and pressure decrease, and the entropy remains constant.

34. What is the benefit of having superheated vapour at the compressor inlet?
A. It ensures that no liquid enters the compressor.
B. It ensures the compressor oil is free flowing.
C. It prevents frost formation on the compressor body.
D. It evaporates condensate around the compressor.

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35. Which points shown on the PH chart identify the refrigerant flow through the
expansion device?
A. C to D.
B. D to E.
C. C to F.
D. D to F.

36. What does sub-cooled liquid reduce when it enters the expansion device?
A. Flash gas.
B. Refrigeration effect.
C. Evaporating pressure.
D. Compressor work done.

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37. What is the most likely reason for the PH plot of a cooling system, shown as
ABCD on the chart, to change to AEFG?
A. High ambient temperature.
B. High suction superheat.
C. Heavy cooling load.
D. Increase in crankcase temperature.

38. What would cause the cycle shown as ABCD on the PH chart to
change to cycle EFGH?

A. Worn suction and discharge reed valves.

B. Low ambient air temperature.
C. Failed condenser fan.
D. High cooling load.

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39. What would cause the cycle shown as ABCD on the PH chart to change to
the cycle shown as EFGH?
A. High ambient temperature.
B. Condenser fan failure.
C. Evaporator fan failure.
D. Excessive suction line superheat.

40. What happens to moist air when it passes through the indoor unit of an air
conditioning system?
A. As air is cooled, moisture vapour stays at the same temperature.
B. As the air temperature falls, the moisture content stays the same.
C. The combined air and moisture vapour begin to condense.
D. The air is cooled and some of the moisture vapour condenses.

41. What is the specific volume of standard air with a specific density of
1.8 kg/m³?
A. 0.12 m³/kg.
B. 0.56 m³/kg.
C. 0.75 m³/kg.
D. 0.83 m³/kg.

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42. When measuring an air sample using wet and dry bulb thermometers, what
indicates that the air is at maximum humidity?
A. The wet and dry bulb temperatures are slightly different.
B. The dry bulb temperature is much lower than the wet bulb temperature.
C. The wet bulb temperature is much lower than the dry bulb temperature.
D. The wet and dry bulb temperatures are the same.

43. How is a wet bulb thermometer kept moist?

A. By gravity feed of water from a reservoir.
B. By a pumped cold water spray.
C. By immersion in a water reservoir.
D. By a wick tube connected to a reservoir.

44. Using the A3 psychrometric chart, what is the specific volume of an air sample
at 40% saturation, with a dew point temperature of 20°C?
A. 0.52 m³/kg.
B. 0.66 m³/kg.
C. 0.77 m³/kg.
D. 0.89 m³/kg.

45. Using the A3 psychrometric chart what are the wet bulb temperature,
specific volume and enthalpy values when an air condition of 18.5°C db and
a moisture content of 0.007 is plotted??
A. 12°C wb, 0.835 m³/kg, 35 kJ/kg.
B. 13°C wb, 0.835 m³/kg, 36.5 kJ/kg.
C. 14°C wb, 0.84 m³/kg, 33 kJ/kg.
D. 15°C wb, 0.84 m³/kg, 36.5 kJ/kg.

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46. Which describes the process path on the psychrometric chart from point 1 to
point 4?
A. Cooling and dehumidification.
B. Cooling and humidification.
C. Heating and humidification.
D. Heating and dehumidification.

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47. The moisture removed can be found by using which points on the
psychrometric chart?

A. 1 minus 2.
B. 3 minus 4.
C. 4 minus 5.
D. 6 minus 7.

48. What feature is available from a standard wall mounted split AC system?
A. Re-humidification of supply air.
B. Preheating of fresh air.
C. Control of air volume.
D. Simultaneous heating and cooling.

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49. What is the effect of reducing the evaporator saturation temperature?
A. Increased air moisture content.
B. Air moisture content unchanged.
C. Air moisture content reduced.
D. Increase in air moisture density.

50. What defines the total heat output of a heat pump system?

A. AE + BA.
B. DE + BA.
C. BC + DE.
D. AE + BC.

51. What describes the term 'temperature difference’ for a ground source heat
pump?
A. It is the difference between the ground and collector coil temperatures.
B. It is the difference between the evaporator and collector coil
temperatures.
C. It is the difference between the condenser and evaporator temperatures.
D. It is the difference between the ground and condensing temperatures.

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52. What is the difference between the heat outputs of a gas boiler, with an
efficiency of 80%, compared to a heat pump with an EER of 4.0?
A. The heat pump gives off 1.6 times as much heat/kW input.
B. The heat pump gives off twice as much heat/kW input.
C. The heat pump gives off 4.0 times as much heat/kW input.
D. The heat pump gives off 5.0 times as much heat/kW input.

53. What occurs when refrigerant vapour flows around a short radius bend?
A. Pressure decreases.
B. Temperature increases.
C. Vibration decreases.
D. Vapour density increases.

54. What is the result of high pressure drop in the liquid line of an RAC system?

A. Reduced cooling capacity.

B. Oil return rate will increase.
C. Condensing pressure will reduce.
D. Mass flow rate will increase.

55. What is the impact of installing undersized pipework?

A. A decrease in cooling capacity.
B. An increase in mass flow rate.
C. A decrease in flash gas formation.
D. An increase in refrigeration effect.

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56. What ensures oil returns to the compressor under full load conditions?
A. Pipes are sized for correct velocity.
B. Use of mineral oil in the compressor.
C. Pipes are sized to give minimum pressure drop.
D. A miscible oil is used in the compressor.

57. What effect will a reduction in refrigerant velocity have on system

performance?
A. Increased oil return to the compressor.
B. Decreased discharge temperature.
C. Decreased oil return to compressor.
D. Increased discharge temperature.

58. Where is aluminium commonly found in a domestic refrigerator?

A. Condenser.
B. Evaporator.
C. Discharge line.
D. Condensate drain.

59. What materials should be used with ammonia systems?

A. Copper.
B. Steel.
C. Bronze.
D. Brass.

60. What is zinc coating used for?

A. To allow for flux free brazing.

B. It increases heat transfer rate.
C. As a primer for UV resistant paint.
D. To provide corrosion protection.

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Mark Scheme –Unit 502 - Application of Fundamental Principals of RACHP Systems
Test Test
Question Specification Key Question Specification Key
Reference Reference
1 202.1.1 C 31 203.1.1 B
2 202.1.1 A 32 203.1.2 B
3 202.2.1 B 33 203.1.3 A
4 202.2.2 D 34 203.1.4 A
5 202.2.3 C 35 203.1.5 D
6 202.2.4 D 36 203.1.6 A
7 202.2.5 C 37 203.5.1 A
8 202.2.5 A 38 203.5.2 A
9 202.2.7 A 39 203.5.2 C
10 202.2.8 B 40 202.7.1 D
11 202.2.9 D 41 202.7.2 B
12 202.2.10 B 42 202.7.3 D
13 202.3.1 C 43 202.7.4 D
14 202.3.2 A 44 202.7.6 D
15 202.3.3 B 45 202.7.8 B
16 202.3.4 C 46 203.3.1 A
17 202.3.5 D 47 203.3.1 D
18 202.4.1 D 48 203.3.2 C
19 202.4.2 B 49 203.3.3 C
20 202.4.3 D 50 203.4.1 A
21 202.4.4 B 51 203.4.1 B
22 202.4.5 A 52 203.4.2 D
23 202.4.6 C 53 203.2.1 A
24 202.4.7 C 54 203.2.2 A
25 202.5.1 B 55 203.2.3 A
26 202.5.2 B 56 203.2.4 A
27 202.5.3 A 57 203.2.5 C
28 202.6.1 A 58 202.8.1 B
29 202.6.2 A 59 202.8.1 B
30 202.6.3 C 60 202.8.2 D

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