1

Marks: 1

Under Republic Act No. 7160, all structures, personnel, and budgetary allocations from the provincial health level down to the barangays were devolved to the local government units (LGUs) to facilitate health service delivery. To whom should the Rural Health Unit (RHU) first go to for needed supplies? Choose one answer.
a.Governor b.President of the Philippines c.Department of Health Secretary d. Mayor - Mayor. The RA 7160 made LGUs responsible for the operation and provision of local health care services. Under this law, provincial governments operate the hospital system (i.e., provincial and district hospitals), while city/municipal governments operate the health centers, rural health units and barangay health stations. (DOH)

Correct Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question2
Marks: 1

The Integrated Management of Childhood Illnesses (IMCI) was established as a means to improve the delivery of comprehensive and essential health packages to children. Colors are used to categorize the child's condition to aid in the selection of the most appropriate action depending on the presenting signs and symptoms. This color category means that the child must immediately be referred to the nearest hospital: Choose one answer.
a.Green b.Pink - pink. Pink signifies that the child's condition is severe and must be urgently referred to a hospital. Yellow means the child's condition is moderate and that the child is to be given management at the rural health unit. Green means the child's case is mild and that the child is managed at home. There is no red category in the IMCI. (DOH)

c.Red

d.Yellow

Correct Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question3
Marks: 1

When assessing for cough or difficulty breathing, the mother must be asked how long the child has been experiencing cough or difficulty breathing. The child must also be observed for fast breathing, chest indrawing and stridor. A mother comes to you with her 4-year old daughter Arianne. Arianne shows no general danger signs. You noted no chest indrawing or stridor. Her respiratory rate is 41 per minute. According to the IMCI, where will you classify Arianne? Choose one answer.
a. Very Severe Disease b. Severe Pneumonia c.Pneumonia - Pneumonia. Pneumonia is presented by fast breathing or breathing of greater than 50 per minute in children 2-12 months old and greater than 40 per minute in children 12 months to 5 years old. Very Severe Disease or Severe Pneumonia is manifested by any general danger signs of pneumonia or severe disease. If the child has no danger signs, no fast breathing, chest indrawing or stridor, the child is classified as No Pneumonia. (IMCI)

d. No Pneumonia

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question4
Marks: 1

Stridor is one manifestation that warrants the classification of a child in the Severe Pneumonia category. It is a potentially life-threatening swelling of the larynx, trachea or epiglottis that interferes with the entrance of air into the lungs. Which of these describes stridor? Choose one answer.
a. a continuous, high-pitched whistling sound occurring during expiration b. a shrill high sound heard during inspiration - a shrill high sound heard during inspiration. A wheeze is a continuous, high-pitched whistling sound occurring during expiration caused by air passing through a constricted bronchus. The rhythmic waxing

and waning of respirations are Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Rales or crackles are fine, short, highpitched crackling sounds heard on inspiration caused by air passing through fluid or mucus in an air passage. (Kozier) c. rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations d. fine, short, high-pitched crackling sounds heard on inspiration

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question5
Marks: 1

One problem faced in community health is the insufficient number of nurses and other health workers to carry out health activities in immunization. The nurse has an important role in immunization because every child immunized decreases the susceptibility of the population to the target diseases. Which of the following is NOT a role of the nurse in the delivery of immunization services in the community? Choose one answer.
a. Actively include in the master list the infants eligible for vaccination in the community. b. Observe clean technique on immunization and maximize the use of the syringe in order to cut costs. - Observe clean technique on immunization and maximize the use of the syringe in order to cut costs. The aseptic technique must be observed and 1 syringe and needle must be used per child to reduce the risk of blood-borne diseases and promote safe injection practices. The rest are roles of the nurse during delivery of immunization services. Other responsibilities of the nurse include immunizing infants following the recommended immunization schedule, route, dosage and following the proper cold chain storage of vaccines, disposing of used syringes and needles properly, informing, educating and communicating with the residents, conducting health visits to assess other health needs, recording the children given vaccination, submitting records and reports, and identifying and actively searching for cases and deaths of EPI target diseases. (DOH)

c. Identify cases of EPI target diseases per standard case definition.

d. Manage vaccines properly by following the recommended storage of vaccines.

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question6
Marks: 1

Dental caries and periodontal disease are the main oral health problems in the Philippines. Unfortunately, oral health is inadequately integrated into the country's national health care system and there is no currently sustainable basic oral care service being adopted. Which of the following is an example of a preventive service of the DOH's Oral Health program? Choose one answer.
a. Pit and fissure sealant program - Pit and fissure sealant program. Preventive service promote oral health and provide specific protection from the occurrence of dental caries and other oral diseases. The pit and fissure sealant program is a non-invasive preventive and control measure against tooth decay for children. Other preventive services include oral examination, oral hygiene and the Fluoride Utilization program. Curative/Treatment services are remedial measures applied to halt the progress of oral disease and restore the condition of the teeth and supporting tissues. Examples of curative services include permanent filling, gum treatment, atraumatic restorative treatment, temporary filling, extraction, treatment of post-extraction complications, and drainage of localized oral abscesses. Promotive services such as health education activities are directed to the priority groups. (DOH)

b. Gum treatment c.Extraction d. Health education

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question7
Marks: 1

The Adolescent Health Program is aimed at those between 10 and 20 years of age. This age group has developed physiologic resistance and is at the peak of their health. Health issues surrounding this age group are related to matters on sexuality, smoking and illegal drugs. Which of the following is NOT a strategic thrust of the Adolescent Health Program for 2005-2010? Choose one answer.
a. Come up with models for adolescent-friendly health services and adolescent-friendly

environments. b. Conduct simulation activities that let adolescents experience parenthood to allow them to realize the consequences of irresponsible and unprotected sex. - Conduct simulation activities that let adolescents experience parenthood to allow them to realize the consequences of irresponsible and unprotected sex. This is not a strategic thrust for the Adolescent Health Program of the DOH. The Essential Health Care Package for the adolescent and youth include the management of illness, counseling on substance abuse, sexuality and reproductive tract infections, nutrition and diet counseling, mental health, family planning and responsible sexual behavior, and dental care. (DOH)

c. Organize and build the capability of young people to promote healthy lifestyles, including sound reproductive health practices, accident prevention and the promotion of sound policies on work to improve their health and quality of life. d. Continue fertility awareness activities among high school teachers and students to reduce the proportion of unwanted pregnancies and unmet need for family planning among young people. e. None of the above.

Correct Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question8
Marks: 1

Breastfeeding can be used as a temporary family planning method. This method can be used immediately after childbirth and does not need other supplies or procedures. A 23-year old woman has just given birth to her second child. She asked you for some information regarding the Lactational Amenorrhea Method. Which statement will be excluded from the discussion? Choose one answer.
a. This can protect her from pregnancy for at least 6 months and as long as 9 to 12 months if she continues to breastfeed very often. b. This method has no hormonal side effects. c. The baby should be fed food other than breast milk at least 50% of the time. - The baby should be fed food other than breast milk at least 50% of the time. The

woman is naturally protected from pregnancy when at least 85% of the infant's feeding comes from breast milk. Chances of getting pregnant increase when the menstrual period returns, the baby gets more food other than breast milk and when the baby is more than 6 months old. (Ultimate Learning Guide) d. If the baby is more than 6 months old, the chances of getting pregnant increase.

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question9
Marks: 1

Smokers often find cessation of the habit a difficult task. Smoking cessation activities are not often effective and pharmacological treatment is expensive and inaccessible to many. Strategies that support a smoke-free environment are essential for the establishment and enforcement of supportive policies. Which of the following is NOT descriptive of a pillar established by the WHO for successful anti-tobacco programs? Choose one answer.
a. Distribution of flyers regarding the negative consequences of smoking on health b. Physical harassment of those caught smoking in designated non-smoking areas. - Physical harassment of those caught smoking in designated non-smoking areas. Physical harassment is never used as a strategy for the implementation and enforcement of health programs. The distribution of flyers is an example of the pillar on aggressive information dissemination. Increased tax fees is under the pillar ontaxation of tobacco products. The collection of fines is under the pillar ofgovernment-supported and multicultural programs to encourage and help smokers break free of their addiction to smoking. Another pillar is the building of antitobacco coalitions to help governments, individuals, and sectors to rid tobacco from their systems. (DOH)

c. Increased tax fees for tobacco products d. Collection of fines for disobedience related to smoking laws

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question10
Marks: 1

Like other chronic diseases, mental illness is followed up with home care management. After being managed in psychiatric facilities, patients are sent home and it becomes part of the community nurse's responsibility to monitor the progress of the patient's reorientation to the community. Under which responsibility of the nurse does encouraging the patient to express his/her anxieties fall under? Choose one answer.
a. Mental health promotion b. Prevention and control - Prevention and control. To clear up the client's fears and misconceptions, he/she is encouraged to express his/her anxieties as part of the prevention and control of mental illness. Other tasks under prevention and control of mental illness include recognizing mental health hazards and stress situations, recognizing pathological deviations from normal so that diagnosis and treatment could be done early, being aware of the potential causes of breakdown and take possible preventive acting when necessary, helping the family to cope with the situation, help the patient set goals to achieve and sharing information and guidance about the treatment regimen of the patient. (DOH)

c.Rehabilitation d. Research and Epidemiology

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question11
Marks: 1

Leprosy is a leading cause of permanent physical disability among communicable diseases. It affects mainly the skin, peripheral nerves, eyes and mucosa of the upper respiratory tract. Which of the following statements regarding leprosy is INCORRECT? Choose one answer.
a. BCG vaccination decreases one's susceptibility to leprosy infection.

b. Late signs and symptoms of leprosy include gynecomastia, madarosis and lagophthalmos. c. The Slit Skin Smear (SSS) is a compulsory diagnostic exam for leprosy suspects. - The Slit Skin Smear (SSS) is a compulsory diagnostic exam for leprosy suspects. The slit skin smear is an optional procedure done only when clinical diagnosis is doubtful. Diagnosis of leprosy is based on history and clinical signs and symptoms. Gynecomastia, madarosis (loss of eyebrow), lagophthalmos (inability to close eyelids), clawing of fingers and toes, contractures, sinking of the nose bridge and chronic ulcers are late signs of leprosy. The causative agent Mycobacterium leprae is transmitted via airborne and prolonged skin-to-skin contact. Means of preventing leprosy transmission include avoidance of prolonged skin-to-skin contact with lepers, BCG vaccination, good personal hygiene, adequate nutrition and health education (DOH)

d. Leprosy can be transmitted through inhalation of droplets or prolonged skin-to-skin contact.

Correct Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question12
Marks: 1

Primary Health Care is defined by the WHO as the essential health care made universally accessible to individuals and families in the community by means acceptable to them through their full participation and at a cost that the community and country can afford at every stage of development. Which of the following is NOT a cornerstone/pillar of Primary Health Care? Choose one answer.
a. Active community participation b. Intra and inter-sectoral linkages c.Conscientious bioethical consideration - Conscientious bioethical consideration. The four (4) cornerstones/pillars of Primary Health Care are active community participation, intra and inter-sectoral linkages, use of appropriate technology and support mechanism made available. (DOH)

d. Support mechanism made available

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question13
Marks: 1

Drug compliance is one of the biggest issues in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis (PTB). Because the bacteria can develop resistance to most drugs, it is very important that patients undergoing treatment comply with the treatment regimen. One of the residents in your assigned barangay has been newly diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis. He expressed nervousness regarding the side effects of the medications. Which of the following is an adverse effect of Streptomycin? Choose one answer.
a. orange discoloration of secretions and urine b. tinnitus - tinnitus. Streptomycin has been known to cause damage to the 8th cranial nerve. Iftinnitus and hearing impairment are experienced, Streptomycin must be discontinued and should be referred to a health professional. Orange discoloration of secretions and urine, as well as gastric irritation are side effects of Rifampicin. Visual impairment is an adverse effect of Ethambutol and warrants discontinuation of the drug. (Ultimate Learning Guide)

c. gastric irritation d. visual impairment

Correct Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question14
Marks: 1

Rabies is an acute viral encephalomyelitis caused by the rhabdovirus that causes widespread changes throughout the central nervous system. At which stage or phase of the rabies infection is delirium manifested? Choose one answer.
a.Prodromal Phase b. Stage of Invasion c. State of Excitement - State of Excitement. This stage is characterized by marked excitation, delirium and even terror. Delirium can occur accompanied by involuntary twitching and generalized convulsions. It is in this stage that hydrophobia manifests. In the prodromal phase or the stage

of invasion, the person complains of fever, malaise, anorexia, nausea and vomiting aches and pains in different parts of the body and sensitivity to light, sound and changes in temperature. In the paralytic phase, the patient becomes quiet unconscious and bladder and bowel control is lost. Respiratory paralysis occurs leading to death. (San Lazaro compilation) d.Paralytic Phase

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question15
Marks: 1

Malaria is spread by the through the saliva of the Anopheles mosquito and is transmitted to humans via the mosquito bite. It remains to be a public health problem in the Philippines and the 2 major strategies addressing this disease include theprevention of transmission through vector control and the detection and early treatment of cases. Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of malaria? Choose one answer.
a.hepatomegaly b.splenomegaly c. petechiae - petechiae. Petechiae is a sign of dengue hemorrhagic fever. After infection, the infective state of the Plasmodium, the protozoa, moves to the liver cells where it multiplies and causes hepatomegaly. Soon after, it reaches the blood cells where it multiplies resulting in splenomegaly. When the infected red blood cells burst, fever and chills begin. Other signs and symptoms of malaria include headache, nausea, vomiting, muscle pain, anemia, bloody stools, jaundice, convulsions and coma. (Mullins)

d. recurrent chills

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question16
Marks: 1

Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the causative agent of diphtheria, can be killed by heat and most disinfectants but is resistant to drying and remains viable in the environment for weeks. The diphtheria toxin is extremely potent and can block the production of protein in human cells, possibly causing fatality. One of your patients, a 30-year old mother of two has just recovered from diphtheria. Which of the following statements made by the client would warrant further teaching? Choose one answer.
a. "We will need to ensure that the milk my children drink is pasteurized to avoid diphtheria infection." b. 'It is highly likely that I now have persistent immunity from diphtheria." c. "Diphtheria is transmitted through sexual contact with an infected person." - "Diphtheria is transmitted through sexual contact with an infected person." The causative agent of diphtheria, Corynebacterium diphtheriae is transmitted through contact with a patient, a carrier or articles soiled with discharges of infected persons. Milk has also been known to be a vehicle for infection. Infants born of mothers who have had diphtheria are relatively immune but the immunity disappears before the 6th month and recovery from an attack of diphtheria is usually followed by persistent immunity. (DOH)

d. "If I have another child, he/she will be immune from diphtheria for 6 months."

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question17
Marks: 1

Cholera's causative agent Vibrio el tor is found in the vomitus and feces of infected persons and feces of healthy carriers. It is transmitted through food and water contaminated with these infected vomitus and feces. Which of the following food should be temporarily removed from the diet of a client recovering from cholera? Choose one answer.
a.mashed potatoes b.coconut water c.banana

d.cabbage

- cabbage. Cholera is characterized by a sudden onset of acute and profuse colorless diarrhea, vomiting, severe dehydration, muscular cramps, cyanosis and collapse. Stools of patients with cholera have been found to contain potassium. Foods rich in potassium would be needed to replace the amount of the electrolyte lost. Cabbage is an example of food low in potassium content. (DOH)

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question18
Marks: 1

Paragonimiasis is a chronic parasitic infection endemic in Mindoro, Camarines Sur, Camarines Norte, Sorsogon, Samar, Leyte, Negros Islands, Albay, Cebu, and Basilan. It is caused by the Paragonimus westermani and other reservoir hosts include cats, dogs, rats, pigs and other domestic animals. Which of the following statements regarding Paragonimiasis is true? Choose one answer.
a.Manifestations of Paragonimiasis closely resemble signs and symptoms of pulmonary tuberculosis. - Manifestations of Paragonimiasis in the chronic phase closely resemble signs and symptoms of pulmonary tuberculosis (PTB). The immature flukes penetrate the intestines and travel to the lungs where they develop into adult flukes (Mullins). In the acute phase, clinical manifestations include diarrhea, abdominal pain, fever, and enlarged liver and spleen. Common signs and symptoms of paragonimiasis (chronic) are a cough of long duration, hemoptysis, chest/back pain, and other PTB like-symptoms which do not respond to PTB medications. Paragonimiasis is often misdiagnosed as PTB and treatment delayed. It is transmitted through the ingestion of improperly cooked crabs and other crustaceans or the drinking of water contaminated with metacercariae. Diagnosis is usually through stool and sputum examination. Praziquantel is the drug of choice for Paragonimiasis. (DOH)

b.Paragonimiasis can be transmitted through the ingestion of raw or improperly cooked fish. c. Quinine is the drug of choice for Paragonimiasis. d.Paragonimiasis is usually diagnosed with chest x-ray.

Correct Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question19

Marks: 1

Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning or Red Tide is a syndrome of characteristic symptoms occurring within minutes or several hours after ingestion of poisonous shellfish. In the Philippines, it is most commonly caused by the Pyromidium bahamanse found around Manila Bay, Samar, Bataan and Zambales. Which of the following should NOT be included in the health teaching regarding Red Tide? Choose one answer.
a. Poison victims who survive the first 12 hours after ingestion of the toxic shellfish have a greater chance of survival. b. Drinking pure coconut milk weakens the toxic effect of red tide sodium bicarbonate in the early stage of poisoning. c. Vomiting is induced once it is determined that contaminated shellfish is ingested. d. The medication of choice for - The medication of choice for red tide is Bithionol. There is no definite medicationindicated for red tide poisoning. Bithionol is red tide is Bithionol. an alternative drug for paragonimiasis.Vomiting is induced to manage the poisoning and pure coconut milk has been known to decrease the toxic effect of he poison. However, if given in the later stages, pure coconut milk can aggravate the patient's condition. Poison victims who survive the first 12 hours after ingestion of the toxic shellfish have a greater chance of survival. (DOH) Clinical manifestations include tingling of the lips and tongue which spreads to the face, neck, fingertips and toes, headache, dizziness and nausea. In severe cases, muscular paralysis and breathing difficulty may occur, leading to respiratory arrest. (Navales)

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question20
Marks: 1

Scabies is a skin infection caused by Sarcoptes scabiei, a mite that burrows beneath the epidermis to lay eggs, causing irritation. It is manifested by itching (more pronounced at night), lesions such as vesicles, papules, pustules and crusts, and bacterial super infections. As a community nurse, you noted that scabies is a common problem in the families in your assigned barangay. You conduct a mothers' class to discuss the means of controlling and preventing infection. Which of the following health teachings should you include? Choose one answer.

a. Personal hygiene is important. Ensure that the members of the family take daily baths, wash hands before and after eating and after using the toilet and cut their fingernails. b. Towels and beddings should be washed and changed regularly. c. Encourage the members of the family to eat food rich in vitamins A and C like green leafy vegetables and fruits. d. All mentioned. - All mentioned. Scabies is transmitted by direct transmission from infected individuals and may be transmitted through sleeping in an infested bed or wearing infested clothing. Other means of preventing and controlling infection include improving the sanitation of surroundings, reporting skin irritations to health professionals immediately and avoiding close contact with infected persons. (DOH, Navales)

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question21
Marks: 1

Hepatitis B is considered to be the most serious due to the possibility of severe complications such as massive liver damage and hepatocarcinoma of the liver. Which of the following is least likely to contract a Hepatitis B infection? Choose one answer.
a. Tonton, a 19-year old college student who has heroin "sessions" with his friends every week. b. LJ, a 26-year old call center agent who - LJ, a 26-year old call center agent who donates blood at the Philippine Red donates blood at the Philippine Red Cross every 6 months. Hepatitis B is transmitted through Cross every 6 months. contact with infected blood, vaginal and seminal secretions, sharing of personal items with an infected person, blood products, use of contaminated instruments and through leaks in the placenta during delivery. High risk groups include newborns, infants and children of infected mothers, health workers exposed to handling blood/blood products, persons

undergoing frequent blood/plasma transfusion, sexually promiscuous heterosexuals and homosexuals and drug addicts using intravenous drugs. LJ is least likely to contract an infection because he does not receive any blood transfusions and participates in blood drives of a legitimate institution. Tonton can contract the infection from shared needles. Kate can get an accidental needle prick from a contaminated needle. Maan can get the infection from an infected partner. (DOH) c. Kate, a 32-year old bedside nurse at a hospital catering to patients with infectious illnesses. d. Maan, a 23-year old socialite who likes to engage in unprotected one-night stands.

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question22
Marks: 1

Those at high risk for HIV infection must undergo a regular blood screening to determine if they have the infection. One negative result may not necessarily mean that the person is not infected. The person may only be in a window period. Theconfirmatory test for HIV diagnosis is: Choose one answer.
a. ELISA (Enzyme-linked ImmunoSorbent Assay) b. Western blot - Western blot. It confirms HIV infection through the detection of antibodies of a specific mobility. The ELISA is a diagnostic test for HIV and can indicate enzyme substrate reaction. The EIA is a screening test for HIV wherein enzymes are used to label induced antigen-antibody reactions. C4 Complement Component is animmunodiagnostic study done as a follow-up test when total complement levels are abnormally decreased. It can be used to confirm hereditary angioedema. (Fischbach)

c. EIA (Enzyme ImmunoAssay) d. C4 Complement Component

Correct Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question23
Marks: 1

The Health Care and Referral System is divided into 3 levels: Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Level. Which of the following is an example of a health institution delivering secondary level of care? Choose one answer.
a. San Juan Municipal Hospital - San Juan Municipal Hospital. Secondary level of care is given by physicians with basic health training. These services are usually given in health facilities such asinfirmaries, municipal and district hospitals and out-patient departments of provincial hospitals. Secondary facilities are referral centers for primary health facilities and are capable of performing minor surgeries and simple laboratory examinations. Primary level of care is provided by health center physicians, public health nurses, rural health midwives, barangay health workers, traditional healers,barangay health stations and rural health units. Tertiary level of care is rendered by specialists in facilities such as medical centers, regional and provincial hospitals and specialized hospitals. The tertiary health facility is the referral center for secondary care facilities. (DOH)

b. Barangay Putingbuhangin Health Center c. Philippine General Hospital d. Mang Tuklaw's Hilot Center

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question24
Marks: 1

HIV/AIDS is a contagious disease that compromises the immune system. It is caused by a retrovirus that affects the T cells of the immune system and the T cells alter its DNA to replicate that of the HIV, causing T cells to create more HIV when they replicate. There is no known cure for AIDS, only anti-viral agents and chemotherapeutic agents that can lengthen the lives of infected individuals. Which of the following precautions must health workers take against HIV/AIDS infection? Choose one answer.
a. Take extreme care to avoid accidental wounds from sharp instruments contaminated with potentially infectious material from

AIDS patients. b. Hands should be washed thoroughly and immediately if they become contaminated with blood from suspected or known AIDS patients. c. Blood spills should be cleaned up promptly with disinfectant solutions such as household bleach. d. All mentioned. - All mentioned. When handling all patients, universal precautions must be taken. Other precautions to be taken are: avoid contact of open skin lesions with material from AIDS patients; wear gloves when handling specimens, bloodsoiled items, body fluids, and other surface materials exposed to these; wear gowns when clothing may be soiled with body fluids or blood; label blood and other specimens, as well as articles prominently with a special warning; sterilize instruments with lenses after use in AIDS patients; discard needles properly after use; isolate patients with active AIDS; do not allow sharing of personal articles (razors, toothbrushes, etc.); use one (1) thermometer for 1 patient only. (DOH)

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question25
Marks: 1

As a public health nurse, it is one of your responsibilities to identify cases of highly infectious diseases such asmeningococcemia. The causative agent of meningococcemia is Neisseria Meningitidis which is transmitted via respiratory droplets from the nose and throat of infected individuals. Meningococcemia, therefore requiring you to be familiar with the clinical manifestations of this illness. Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of meningococcemia? Choose one answer.
a. high grade fever in the first 24 hours b.hemorrhagic rash c.respiratory depression - respiratory depression. Signs and symptoms of meningococcemia are high grade fever in the first 24 hours, weakness, joint and muscle pain, hemorrhagic rash (beginning with a few petecchiae then progressing to widespread purpura and ecchymoses), and meningeal irritation (headache,

nausea, vomiting, stiff neck, bulging fontanel in infants, seizure or convulsions, sensorial changes). (DOH) d. stiff neck

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question26
Marks: 1

When meningococcemia is accompanied by adrenal medullary hemorrhage, there is a rapid development of the petechiae to purpuric and ecchymotic spots in association with shock. This condition is known as: Choose one answer.
a.Creutzfeldt-Jakob Syndrome b.Waterhouse Friederichsen Syndrome - Waterhouse Friederichsen Syndrome. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Syndrome presents as myoclonic jerks, seizures, dementia, aphasia, paralysis, visual disturbances and primitive reflexes. Crocodile Tears Syndrome is manifested by tear pour from the affected eye after eating, occurring after recovery from Bell's Palsy. Conn's Syndrome is primary aldosteronism due to an aldosterone secreting adenoma manifesting as hypertension, muscular weakness, hyporeflexia, paresthesia, arrhythmias and tetany. (Ultimate Learning Guide)

c. Crocodile Tears Syndrome d. Conn's Syndrome

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question27
Marks: 1

Most often, pneumonia is caused by bacterial infection although virus and fungi may also cause it. The most common causative agent of pneumonia in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae. Pneumonia is characterized by a cough with greenish or yellow mucus, hemoptysis, fever and shaking chills, sharp chest pain, rapid and shallow breathing, difficulty breathing, headache, excessive sweating, loss of appetite and fatigue. Which of the following is NOT an independent nursing intervention in response to pneumonia?

Choose one answer.

a. Administering antibiotics - Administering antibiotics. Giving medications is a collaborative intervention. It needs an explicit order and prescription from the attending physician before it is carried out. The other interventions can be done without an order from the physician and are therefore independent nursing actions (Mullins).

b. Encouraging bed rest c. Ensuring adequate salt, fluid, calorie and vitamin intake d. Providing tepid sponge bath

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question28
Marks: 1

Bird flu or Avian Influenza is an infectious disease of birds caused by the H5N1 virus. This viral type has been known to be transmitted from infected birds to humans. A poultry farm worker came to you to the health center complaining that he has not been feeling well for the past 3 days. Which of the following symptoms that the client experienced would alert you that he may have bird flu? Choose one answer.
a. body weakness and muscle pain - body weakness and muscle pain. Signs and symptoms of bird flu include fever, body weakness and muscle pain, cough, sore throat, difficulty of breathing (in severe cases), chills, headache, and sore eyes. (DOH, Ultimate Learning Guide)

b. tinnitus c. nausea and vomiting d. chest pain

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question29
Marks: 1

John Tomarro defined Environmental Health as a branch of public health that deals with the study of preventing illnesses by managing the environment and changing people's behavior to reduce exposure to biological and non-biological agents of disease and injury. Man, disease agent and the environment are linked together. Which strategy in the Man-Disease AgentEnvironment triad suggests means such as encouraging the use of safe drinking water for drinking and cooking? Choose one answer.
a. Change people's behavior - Change people's behavior. Changing people's behavior to manipulate the environment and reduce exposure to disease agents is best exemplified by the use of food safety practices such as the use of safe water, hand washing, proper food preparation and storage. Another strategy, the prevention of the production of disease agents through the manipulation of the environment is exemplified by the treatment of wastewater. The third strategy which is increasing man's resistance to disease agents is demonstrated in immunization and nutrition programs. (DOH)

b. Develop community-based models of health care c. Prevent production of disease agents d. Increase man's immunity or resistance to disease agents

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question30
Marks: 1

Environmental health and sanitation is one of the leading problems in the Philippines. Poor sanitation can result in various illnesses such as diarrhea, pneumonia, tuberculosis, schistosomiasis, intestinal parasitism, malaria, dengue, etc. Which of the following laws/decrees is the Sanitation Code of the Philippines? Choose one answer.
a. RA 8749 b. PD 996 c. PD 856 - PD 856. RA 8749 is the Clean Air Act. PD 996 is the decree on the compulsory immunization of children below 8 years old against immedicable diseases. PD 825 is the law against improper garbage disposal. (DOH, Ultimate

Learning Guide) d. PD 825

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question31
Marks: 1

The DOH advocates the use of 10 herbal plants found to be effective in the treatment of common ailments. This is in response to the increasing cost of drugs and rising costs of health services. You are assigned in a far-flung community whose residents rely mostly on traditional medical methods. One resident asks you which medicinal plant is useful for his gouty arthritis. Which herbal plant will you recommend? Choose one answer.
a.Akapulko b. Tsaang Gubat c.Bayabas d.Ulasimang Bato - Ulasimang Bato. The ulasimang bato (Peperonia pellucida) is a weed with heart-shaped leaves that grow in shady parts of the garden and is used to lower uric acid. Akapulko(Cassia, alata L.) has antifungal uses for Tinea flava, ringworm, athlete's foot and scabies infections. Tsaang Gubat (Carmona retusa) is a shrub that grows in wild areas and forests used for the management of diarrhea and stomachache. Bayabas(Psidium guajava L.) is a tree with tiny white flowers and oval fruits used for washing wounds and for diarrhea. (DOH)

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question32
Marks: 1

The DOH's 10 advocated medicinal plants each have various uses and purposes depending on the preparation. Another community resident came to you asking what herbal medicine can be used for menstrual pain. Which medicinal plant will you suggest? Choose one answer.
a.Sambong b. Yerba Buena - Yerba Buena. The Yerba Buena (Mentha cordifelia) is a small aromatic herb used formanaging pain in different parts of the

body such as headaches, stomachaches, rheumatism, swollen gums and menstrual pain. Sambong (Blumea balsamifera) can be used as an anti-edema, diuretic and anti-urolithiasis. Bawang/Garlic is used fortoothaches, hypertension and decreasing cholesterol levels in the blood.Lagundi (Vitex negundo) is commonly used for asthma, cough, fever, dysentery, colds, skin diseases, headache, rheumatism, etc. (DOH) c.Bawang d.Lagundi

Correct Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question33
Marks: 1

The Health Emergency Preparedness and Response Program of the DOH aims to promote health emergency preparedness among the general public and to strengthen the health sector capability and response to emergencies and disasters. The law on Strengthening the Philippine Disaster Control Capability and Establishing the National Program on Community Disaster Preparedness is: Choose one answer.
a.PD 1566 - PD 1566. This law mandated the creation of the National Disaster Coordinating Council (NDCC) and multi-level organizations and the funding for a 2% reserve for calamities. The NDCC is the lead agency in coordinating, integrating, supervising and implementing disaster related functions. RA 7600 is the Rooming-in and Breastfeeding Act. RA 7305 is the Magna Carta for Public Health Workers. PD 603 is the Child and Youth Welfare Code. (DOH, Ultimate Learning Guide)

b.RA 7600 c.RA 7305 d.PD 603

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question34
Marks: 1

The nursing process is a systematic, scientific, dynamic and on-going interpersonal process with a series of actions that lead toward a particular result It is central to all nursing actions and results in the optimal health care for the clients. In which phase of the community health nursing process does the public health nurse document the responses to nursing action?

Choose one answer.

a. Assessment phase b. Planning phase c.Implementation phase - Implementation phase. Contact is initiated in the assessment phase. Mutual trust and confidence is developed at this phase and data is collected from all possible sources. Health problems are identified and data are analyzed and interpreted. In the planning phase of the CHN process, needs are prioritized and goals are determined. A plan of action is developed, along with the evaluation parameters. The implementation phase is where the nursing plan is put to action. Care and services are coordinated, resources utilized, and tasks delegated. The public health nurse supervises and monitors the health services provided and health education and training are given. At this phase, the responses to nursing actions are documented. The evaluation phase is where nursing audit is done. Care outcomes are assessed and reassessment of problems is done. Alterations need are identified and plans are revised as necessary. (DOH)

d. Evaluation phase

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question35
Marks: 1

Disaster management must be an integral part of national development plans and objectives. In disaster management, the first priority is the protection of people at risk. Next is the protection of critical resources and systems that the community depend on. This is defined as any phenomenon which has the potential to cause disruption or damage to humans and their environment: Choose one answer.
a. Disaster b. Risk c.Emergency d. Hazard - Hazard. A hazard is any phenomenon which has the potential to cause disruption or damage to humans and

their environment. An example of a hazard is an oil spill in a body of water close to a residential area. A disaster is a serious disruption of the functioning of a society, causing widespread losses which exceed the affected society's ability to cope. An example of a disaster is the Hiroshima and Nagasaki bombings in 1945. Risk is the level of loss or damage that can be predicted from a particular hazard affecting a particular place at a particular time from the point of view of the community. Two components of risk are susceptibility (factors of the hazard which allows it to cause an emergency, i.e. magnitude of an earthquake) and vulnerability(factors of the community which allows it to cause a disaster, i.e. unstable infrastructures in the community). (DOH)

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question36
Marks: 1

The National Voluntary Blood Services Program envisions a network of modernized national and regional blood centers operating on a fully voluntary, non-remunerated blood donation system. Which of the following volunteers is NOT eligible to be a blood donor? Choose one answer.
a. Ryan, 21 years old and weighs 135 pounds. b. Eric, 65 years old and in good physical health. c. James, 17 years old and weighs 125 pounds. - James, 17 years old and weighs 125 pounds. To be eligible for blood donation, one must be between the ages of 18 and 65. Those interested to donate blood but are 16-17 years old must have parental consent. One must also weigh more than 100 pounds and have a hemoglobin level of at least 125 g/L to be eligible to donate blood. Good physical health and a blood pressure between 90-160/60100 are also required. (DOH)

d. Grace, 26 years old and has a hemoglobin level of 130 g/L.

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question37
Marks: 1

Rural health units must have a list of walking blood donors who are volunteers that can easily be tapped or are on call when their blood type is needed. You are screening volunteers to be Walking Blood Donors. Which of the following statements made by a potential donor would disqualify him/her from donating? Choose one answer.
a. "My aunt on my father's side of the family died from colon cancer." b. "I used to be a heroin addict but I - "I used to be a heroin addict but I stopped using it about stopped using it about a year a year ago." Conditions that prevent one from donating blood are: diabetes, cancer hyperthyroidism, ago." cardiovascular diseases, severe psychiatric disorder, epilepsy/convulsions, severe bronchitis and other lung disorders such as TB, AIDS, syphilis and other STDs, malaria, kidney and liver diseases, prolonged bleeding and the use of prohibited drugs. (DOH) Even though he said that he has stopped using intravenous drugs, he could have contracted an infection that is just on a window period. c. "My father has diabetes mellitus." d. "I have not had any episodes of seizures or convulsions."

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question38
Marks: 1

The Botika ng Barangay project aims to ensure the availability and accessibility of affordable and safe quality essential drugs to all, especially the indigent members of society. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the establishment of a Botika ng Barangay? Choose one answer.
a. Licensed pharmacist b. Two (2) Barangay Health Workers trained as Botika ng Barangay Aides c. Licensed Physician - licensed physician. A licensed pharmacist is tasked to supervise the Botika ng Barangay operations. Two (2) Barangay Health Workers trained as Botika ng Barangay Aides and community-sourced funds at least 1/3 of the initial capital

requirements are also needed. Other requirements for the operation of a Botika ng Barangay include management by an established community organization, submission of a master list of indigent members of the community and a barangay socio-economic profile, and available space. (DOH) d.Community-sourced funds at least 1/3 of the initial capital requirements

Correct Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question39
Marks: 1

A health problems preventive potential refers to the nature of future problems that can be avoided by appropriate intervention. Which of the following factors affecting the preventive potential of a health problem is defined as the presence and appropriateness of intervention measures taken to enhance wellness or respond to the problem? Choose one answer.
a. Current management - Current management. If the current method of management utilized is appropriate, the preventive potential increases. The gravity of the problem is the extent of damage caused by the problem. The damage caused has an indirect relationship with the preventive potential. If the duration of the problem or the length of time it has been present is longer, the preventive potential increases. An exposure of the vulnerable or high-risk group also increases the preventive potential of the problem. (Maglaya)

b. Gravity or severity of the problem c. Duration of the problem d. Exposure of vulnerable group

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question40
Marks: 1

In the formulation of goals and objectives, it is very important that the client/family is involved. This ensures their commitment to the accomplishment of these goals and objectives. Which of the following is the best statement of an objective? Choose one answer.
a. After nursing intervention, the family will be able to select a method of family planning most acceptable to them. - After nursing intervention, the family will be able to select a method of family planning most acceptable to them. An objective is a specific statement of the desired outcomes of care. The other statements are goals which are less specific outcomes of care. (Maglaya)

b. After nursing intervention, the family will take the appropriate measures to manage or prevent hypertension. c. After nursing intervention, the family will be able to manage or prevent the member's anxiety. d. After nursing intervention, the possibility of crossinfection of head lice will be minimized or eliminated.

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question41
Marks: 1

When addressing the problems of an individual/family, the interventions selected must target the areas of skill, knowledge and attitude. Which of the following objectives addresses the attitude component of a patient with emphysema? Choose one answer.
a. The client will be able to use the oxygen tank and mask correctly on his own. b. The client will verbalize understanding of the possible causes of emphysema. c. The client will verbalize understanding of the pathophysiology of emphysema. d. The client verbalized willingness to stop smoking. - The client verbalized willingness to stop smoking. A willingness to quit smoking in a patient with emphysema implies a change in attitude. The proper use of an oxygen tank and mask addresses the skill area while an understanding of the causes and

pathophysiology of emphysema addresses the knowledge component (Maglaya).

Correct Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question42
Marks: 1

Community partnerships are relationships between collaborating groups aiming to achieve both individual and group benefits. They recognize the value of community members and health care providers coming together to create new health care systems. Which of the following is an issue to be addressed in building community partnerships? Choose one answer.
a. Finding the right mix of ownership and control among partners b. Recognizing the assets of all partners c. Valuing all partners at the table d. Resolving ethnic, cultural and ideological differences between partners. e. All mentioned. - All mentioned. All the aforementioned are issues that need to be addressed in building partnerships. Diverse interests of partners can lead to the existence of cultural gaps. For this reason, building partnerships require time and effort. (Pender)

Correct Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question43
Marks: 1

The community diagnosis is a tool used by a community nurse to investigate the health problems of a community and the causes or predisposing factors of these problems. Her diagnoses of these problems become the basis of her interventions to address the health issues and problems. Which of the following is NOT an element of a comprehensive community diagnosis? Choose one answer.
a.Demographic variables b. Socio-Economic and Cultural variables

c. Political and Leadership patterns d. All are components. - All are components. A comprehensive community diagnosis gives a picture of thegeneral status of the community. Demographic variables show the statistics of the community in terms of size, composition and geographical distribution of the population. Socio-Economic and Cultural variables include income, employment rates, transportation, traditional beliefs, etc. Political and leadership patternspresents formal and informal power structures in the community, peoples responses towards the authority figures, etc. Other elements include health and illness patterns (causes of morbidity, mortality, etc.) and health resources (manpower and material resources). (Dones)

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question44
Marks: 1

The census is an official and periodic enumeration of population. This demographic information is one of the most commonly in community diagnosis. The data collected from the census is used to present and explain trends, and consequently plan programs and services based on them. Which of the following is the method used when people are assigned to the place where they usually live regardless of where they are at the time of census? Choose one answer.
a. de jure - de jure. De facto method is when people are assigned to the place where they are physically present at the time of the census regardless of their usual place of residence. Asample survey is less expensive means of getting the data one might get from a census. The demographic information is taken from a small group of the population instead of the whole. The data gathered from the sample is used as a generalization for the entire population. (Dones)

b. de facto c.sample survey d. None of the choices.

Correct Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question45
Marks: 1

The home visit is a family-nurse contact that allows the nurse a glimpse of the home and family situations so that the necessary nursing care can be provided. Which of the following statements regarding the home visit is NOT true? Choose one answer.
a. A home visit must have a purpose or objective. b. The home visits must follow a strict and rigid schedule. - The home visits must follow a strict and rigid schedule. The plan and schedule must be flexible and should meet the needs of the family. There must be room for revisions and alterations in the plan as necessary. A purpose and an objective is needed so that the client's needs can be achieved and the best results can be observed. Client involvement motivates them to assume responsibility for their care. (DOH)

c. In planning for a visit, the essential needs of the individual and family must be considered and given priority. d. Planning and delivery of care should involve the individual and family.

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question46
Marks: 1

Vital Statistics is the systematic study of vital events such as births, illnesses, marriages, divorce, separation and deaths. It is used as an index of the health status of a community and serves as basis for the formulation of community health nursing programs and services. Which of the following measures the proportion of the population which exhibits a particular disease at a particular time, and deals with the number of both old and new cases? Choose one answer.
a.Incidence rate b.Prevalence rate - prevalence rate. The prevalence rate is the number of old and new cases of a certain disease at a particular time divided by the total number of persons examined at a same given time multiplied by 1000. The incidence rate is the measure of the frequency of occurrence of the phenomenon during a given period of time. It deals with only new cases of a disease.

The attack rate, which is a more accurate measure of the risk of exposure, is the number of persons acquiring a disease in a given year over the number of exposed to the same disease in the same year multiplied by 1000. The Case Fatality ratio is the index of a killing power of a disease. (DOH) c. Attack rate d. Case Fatality ratio

Correct Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question47
Marks: 1

The bag technique is a tool utilized by the nurse during her visit that allows him/her to render effective nursing care with ease while saving time and effort. You are a clinical instructor to a group of nursing students in their community experience. Prior to the exposure, you asked one of the students to report regarding the bag technique. Which statement she makes should you call her attention on and correct? Choose one answer.
a. "The bag technique does not have a strict process. It can vary depending on the agency policy or home situation." b. "The arrangement of the contents of the bag should be the one most convenient to the user, to facilitate efficiency and avoid confusion." c. "Upon arrival at the client's home, put the bag down on the nearest flat surface." - "Upon arrival at the client's home, put the bag down on the nearest flat surface." The bag must be placed on a table lined with a clean paper (to be brought by the nurse) to prevent contamination of the bag. The bag technique can vary as long as principles avoiding transfer of infection are always observed. (DOH)

d. "The bag and its contents should be cleaned very often, the supplies replaced, and ready for use at any time."

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question48

Marks: 1

The Ottawa Charter defines health promotion as "the process of enabling people to increase control over and to improve their health." Which of the following is an action area enumerated by the Ottawa Charter on Health Promotion? Choose one answer.
a. Build healthy public policy b. Create supportive environments c. Develop personal skills d. Reorient health services e. All mentioned. - All mentioned. The 5 Action Areas according to the Ottawa Charter on Health Promotion are build public health policy, create supportive environments, strengthen community action, develop personal skills, and reorient health services. Building public health policy combines various approaches such as legislation, taxation and organizational change. This coordinated action leads to health, income and social policies that foster greater equity. Supportive environments mean that the overall guiding principle for the world, nations, regions and communities is the need to encourage reciprocal maintenance -to take care of each other, our communities and our natural environment. Strengthening community action or empowering communities so that they have control over their own endeavors. The development of personal skills is made possible by health promotion as it supports personal and social development through providing information, education for health and enhancing life skills. Reorienting health services means that the role of the health sector must move towards the direction of health promotion, beyond its responsibility for providing clinical and curative services. (DOH)

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question49
Marks: 1

Epidemiology is the study of occurrences and distribution of diseases, and the distribution and determinants of health states or events in a specified population, and the application of this study to the control of health problems. Which of the following is NOT a use of epidemiology?

Choose one answer.

a. for the study of the history of the health population and the rise and fall of diseases and changes in their character. b. for the estimation of the risk of disease, accident, defects and the chances of avoiding them. c. for identifying syndromes by describing the distribution and association of clinical phenomena in the population d. for studying the work of health services with a view of improving them e. None of the mentioned - None of the mentioned. All of the mentioned are uses for epidemiology. Other uses are the diagnosis of the health of the community and the condition of people to measure the distribution and dimension of illness in terms of incidence, prevalence, disability and mortality, to complete the clinical picture of chronic disease and describe their natural history, and to search for causes of health and disease by comparing the experience of groups that are clearly defined by their composition, inheritance, experience, behavior and environments. (DOH)

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question50
Marks: 1

The DOH's program on Infant and Young Child Feeding aims to improve the survival of infants and young children by improving their nutritional status, growth and development through optimal feeding. You conduct a health teaching with Mrs. Reyes regarding feeding and nutrition. Which of the following statements by the mother indicates that she has understood the health teaching on nutrition for her 1-year old daughter? Choose one answer.
a. "If I give my child other foods aside from the breast milk, she might become overweight." b. "Product from animals like milk and eggs are good for my child as these will make her grow stronger and livelier." "Product from animals like milk and eggs are good for my child as these will make her grow stronger and livelier." Food from animal

sources are rich in protein and zinc which help in growth, repair of tissues and provide energy. After 6 months, a child needs complementary foods aside from breast milk so that she may receive all her required nutrients. When a child is sick, she must be encouraged to eat and drink more to help her recover quickly. Thick liquids give more energy to the child as compared to thin liquids which are easier to aspirate on (DOH). c. "If my daughter is sick, I should not give her very little amounts of food because she might vomit and aspirate." d. "Thick liquids are dangerous for my child because she might suffer from aspiration."