Philosophy of Mind is Very Different Now (guest post)
A field of study may change over time, but since, whatever a field of study is, it’s made up of various kinds of things—researchers, norms, institutions, publications, questions, assumptions—its components may not change at the same rate, or in the same ways.
In the following guest post, Joshua Knobe (Yale) draws our attention to this dynamic in philosophy of mind. But there are parallels in other subfields of philosophy, and I encourage discussion from readers outside of philosophy of mind to reflect on whether and how this plays out in their areas of research.
(A version of this post first appeared at The Experimental Philosophy Blog.)
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Philosophy of Mind is Very Different Now
by Joshua Knobe
A few decades ago, it felt like almost the entire field of philosophy of mind was focused on a pretty narrow range of questions (the mind-body problem, consciousness, the nature of intentionality, etc.). Insofar as anyone wanted to work on anything else, they often justified those interests by trying to explain how what they are doing could be connected back to this “core” of the field.
Clearly, things have changed a lot. These days, people are working on all sorts of different things that don’t connect back in any obvious way to the short list of topics that so dominated the field a few decades ago.
But if you look at various institutions that govern the field, it seems that there is a lag. Many of the norms and institutions we have in place don’t really make sense given the way the field is right now. They are just holdovers from the way the field used to be.
I bet that many readers will agree with the very general point I’ve been making thus far, but there’s room for lots of reasonable disagreement about exactly where our norms are showing a lag and where things need changing. I thought it might be helpful to write this post just to start that conversation. I’m going to suggest a few specific things, but I’d be very open to alternative views.
1. These days, many people in philosophy of mind are engaged in a broadly empirical inquiry into questions about how some specific aspect of the mind actually works: how visual perception works, how racism works, how memory works, how emotions work, and so forth.
When these people apply for jobs in philosophy of mind, it feels like there’s often a vague feeling that what they are doing is somehow “marginal” or “peripheral,” that it doesn’t really fall in the core of the field. But this no longer makes any sense! Contrast a person who is an expert on all the latest experimental studies about implicit bias with a person who is doing purely a priori work in the metaphysics of mind. Given the way the field works right now, there is no sense in which the former is less at the core of things than the latter. To the extent that the latter is seen as having a special status, this is just a residue from the way things were decades ago.
2. People working in philosophy of mind often want to learn about the history of the philosophy of mind. But what exactly is this history? For example, of all the things that Spinoza wrote, what should we call “Spinoza’s philosophy of mind”?
The traditional answer was basically: Of all the things that people in the history of philosophy wrote about the mind, the only ones that count as “history of philosophy of mind” are the ones that relate to the narrow list of questions discussed in late 20th century analytic philosophy. This involved excluding almost everything that figures in the history of philosophy said about the mind.
But again, this doesn’t make sense anymore. If people want to look at Spinoza’s philosophy of mind, I fear they would tend to look only at the discussion of the mind-body problem in Ethics, Book 2, i.e., the part that connects to this stuff discussed in 20th century philosophy of mind. But this is such a narrow way of thinking about discussions of the mind in the history of philosophy. Surely, Spinoza’s contributions to philosophy of mind go way beyond that; it’s just that most of his contributions are about how various specific things in the mind work. So these contributions might not be very closely related to things that philosophers of mind were working on in 1994, but they are extremely closely related to various things that philosophers of mind are working on in 2024.
3. Knowledge of mathematical or formal work is often helpful in philosophy, but we recognize that philosophers cannot possibly master all of the different formal methods that might be relevant to them in their work. So we always face questions of the form: Given that philosophers can’t know everything that would possibly be relevant, which methods do they absolutely need to know?
Now consider a graduate student working in philosophy of mind, and suppose that this student could either (a) take a course in logic but never take any courses in statistics or (b) take a course in statistics but never take any courses in logic.
It feels like there’s a norm in the field that (a) is more acceptable than (b). But does that really make sense anymore? I certainly agree that this is the background that would have been more essential a few decades ago, but if you look at what philosophers of mind are doing right now, it seems that statistics is used much more often than logic.
4. We have certain norms about which things philosophers are allowed to remain ignorant about and which they absolutely have to know. For example, a moral philosopher might say: “I am a consequentialist, and I think that non-consequentialist theories are mistaken.” But we would find it completely unacceptable for a moral philosopher to say: “I am a consequentialist, so I don’t know anything about recent work in non-consequentialist theories. I couldn’t even teach those theories at an undergraduate level.”
A question now arises about which norms would make sense in contemporary philosophy of mind. In many parts of philosophy of mind, the majority of people are using some kind of empirical approach, while a minority are using purely a priori approaches. We can imagine a person saying: “I am pursuing these questions using purely a priori methods, and I think it is a mistake to use empirical methods to address them.” But suppose someone said: “I don’t know anything about recent empirical studies on these questions. In fact, I couldn’t even teach a class about these studies at the undergraduate level.” Should we regard this sort of ignorance as acceptable? And if we do regard it as acceptable right now, might that just be a holdover from norms that really did make sense thirty years ago?
Again, I certainly don’t mean to be dogmatic about any of these four points, and I also don’t mean to suggest that these are the four most important areas in which we are facing a lag. Regardless of whether you agree or disagree about these for specific things, it does seem that the field has changed considerably, and I would love to hear your thoughts about how our norms should be evolving in light of that.
At what point (if any) do you think empirical work stops being philosophy and becomes science? Given that there are many institutional spaces for scientists and far fewer for philosophers, it makes sense that philosophers often resist science’s increasing encroachment on philosophy.
Yes! Disciplinary boundary policing makes sense in some circumstances.
Agreed. I think we ought to be wary of excessive physics-envy in philosophy.
I also agree with this. And even about some methodological tools. I mean, for example, logic–at least parts of logic–are very clearly part of philosophy; while of course formal logics are used for all sorts of things, philosophical logic seems… squarely part of philosophy. I don’t necessarily think every student should have to take logic, but the “why not statistics instead of logic” misses out on the fact that statistics is, at least historically, not a part of philosophy, and might be part of the science-encroachment if it is treated as anything other than “something it is helpful for all intellectuals to know about” (which I think it is!) and more like a tool of the methodology of philosophy…
I think discipline boundary policing DOES make sense here, and that it is always worth asking: what is philosophical about this? Of course lots of philosophy of science is deeply philosophical. But some of the new philosophy of science (including mind-y philosophy of science) reads like basic science reporting with almost no added or no content (sometimes literally none at all!), or some tiny pointing out of some methodological point that is transparently obvious from just looking at the science itself. It’s not just that science isn’t necessarily philosophy; it’s that some of the worst work in philosophy of science seems like neither right now, since no new science is being done either.
Is there an account of the relevant disciplinary boundaries — other than one referencing highly contingent institutional and economic circumstances — sufficient to inform the envisaged boundary policing?
I doubt there’s an uncontentious account of “what philosophy is” more informative than “the sort of thing done in philosophy departments,” or “the sort of thing published in these journals” etc., and I doubt substantive methodological or theoretical questions ought be decided on such grounds.
precisely for this reason it seems to me that the best strategy for those of us (I know not you!) who aren’t into the new work is to argue that it is bad rather than that it is not philosophy. Still, I think it is worth having a discussion about when boundary policing might be reasonable even without a demarcation of philosophy (after all, we boundary police science constantly–and rightly so–despite the demarcation problem being unsolvable!).
I keep trying to post a link to this paper and my comment keeps not getting posted, so I’ll just say (and Justin can attest that I am not the author of this paper) that papers like Peter Epstein’s “In Defense of the Armchair: Against Empirical Arguments in the Philosophy of Perception” are models of the way those of us who don’t love new empirical work should argue (at least, internally to the field). Even though I agree with the above commentators, I still think that philosophers who don’t like some methodological shift in a giant subfield should deal with that by, well, philosophically arguing against it, not just moaning on blog posts (though obviously I am willing to do that too!).
I am puzzled by this bit:
We can imagine a person saying: “I am pursuing these questions using purely a priori methods, and I think it is a mistake to use empirical methods to address them.” But suppose someone said: “I don’t know anything about recent empirical studies on these questions. In fact, I couldn’t even teach a class about these studies at the undergraduate level.”
If the first statement is acceptable, why isn’t the second?
Interesting questions!
On #4, there’s an important disanalogy between the cases that may be worth flagging. Consequentialist and non-consequentialist theories offer rival answers to one and the same question. If you’re interested in a philosophical question, it would seem objectionably narrow-minded to remain clueless about the candidate answers offered by other colleagues in the discipline.
By contrast, I take it that empirical and aprioristic philosophers of mind are typically interested in very different questions. That doesn’t by itself settle whether they should know more about each other’s work, of course. But it at least suggests we shouldn’t be too quick to assume the answer must be the same as our answer to the ethical theory example.
(A closer analogy might be an ethical theorist saying they don’t know anything about bioethics. Which wouldn’t seem that surprising, perhaps?)
Hi Richard,
This is a nice objection to what I said in my original post. I’m very open to changing my mind about this, and I would love to continue the conversation.
My sense is that the norm right now is that philosophers are supposed to have a kind of general knowledge of work in their area of specialization. Suppose you are a philosopher of mind who is focused on cutting-edge empirical studies about implicit bias. The norm would be that you are still supposed to have some knowledge of, e.g., key ideas from traditional work in the metaphysics of mind. Perhaps it’s clear that you will never use any of these ideas within your own research, but still, it’s not acceptable for you to be completely ignorant of this stuff. For example, you should be able to teach about it at the undergraduate level.
Then the point I made in my original post was: Some subfields of philosophy of mind are now dominated by empirically-informed work. So if we apply this familiar norm, we get the conclusion that even the philosophers within those fields who are working on questions that are not susceptible to empirical inquiry should still have some basic knowledge of empirical work in those fields. For example, suppose you specialize in philosophy of perception and are working on purely a priori questions for which knowing about empirical work on perception could not be directly relevant. Given the way the field of philosophy of perception works right now, one might think that you still need to have some basic knowledge of empirical work. The reason is just: you should not be completely ignorant about the main things happening in your area of specialization. For example, even if you yourself reject the dominant approach to working in philosophy of perception, you should still be able to teach this approach at the undergraduate level.
But I would be open to the idea that this claim is mistaken. One might instead think that it is perfectly acceptable for someone doing a priori work in philosophy of perception not to know anything about empirical work on perception. However, if one does think that, then surely the conclusion should be applied symmetrically. That is, one should also think that people doing more empirically-informed work for which knowledge of a priori metaphysics is unlikely to be helpful should not be required to study the metaphysics of mind just on the ground that all philosophers are supposed to have general knowledge of work in their areas of specialization.
This last thought sounds reasonable – except of course, I don’t really know the scope of “ought”. Do you mean “ought” in order to teach a philosophy of perception or mind class? To get a job in philosophy of mind or perception? to talk to one’s colleagues in philosophy? to talk to one’s colleagues in psychology? to do research in philosophy of mind or perception?
Suppose they are separate enough research questions that the a priori philosopher can answer questions without knowing much about the empirical and vice versa. It might turn out, for example, that most philosophers (who don’t work in philosophy of perception) have more overlap with a philosopher of perception who works on more a priori claims and so be more likely to hire them (and vice versa for a psychology department…)
I find it very reassuring that this seems an indication that philosophy of mind (and other areas as well?) will finally be breaking out of 20th century analytic narrowness!
I think it’s fair to ask if studies about implicit bias, etc., are philosophy of mind, as opposed to say, something more in line with sociology or psychology. The moral aspect is philosophy, of course, but that’s not phil mind either.
I agree with Richard that it is important to consider that different philosophers (and philosophers of mind, in particular) are often interested in different questions, rather than different answers to the same questions. The post has a bit of the feel of “why aren’t more people aware that the empirical kind of questions that I’m interested in are the better ones”.
re: 1: I would be interested in empirical evidence that the diversity of areas contemporary philosophers of mind are interested in counts against them in “phil mind” jobs.
re: 3: would also be interested in whether most philosophers think knowledge of formal logic – eg., meta logic, computability etc. is more important for a philosopher of mind than knowledge of statistics (assuming one can’t have both).
My sense is that – for better and for worse – traditional “advanced logic” requirements have been replaced in many programs with something like the option of a “statistics” or “probability” course (at least they have at my program).
On the other hand, if the field is changing (and I agree there have been changes), then there will naturally be a “lag” in the norms, hiring, etc.. But some of the “lag” you describe might just be from people that are more interested in the “traditional phil mind topics” compared to the exciting new areas. A case has to be made to the outsiders as to why they should find the new topics of interest, of course. These things take time. And in some cases, it is good for the “traditionalists” to push back against whatever the sexy new trends are.
From my exposure, much of what flies under “philosophy of mind” is now just “philosophy of cognitive science”. Sometimes, the philosophy part is missing, other times the philosophy part means “as applied to a philosophical problem.” Too often it means philosophizing within and about some set of assumptions in cognitive science.
Is this still still continuous with much of 20th and early 21st century philosophy of mind? I don’t think so.
Huh. And here I was thinking that the whole stats / “Bayesian everything everywhere” thing was just a fad that is already on its way out and logic is back in. Mind isn’t my area, but ever since AIs turned from logic to stats to algebra, I’m seeing less and less of Bayesian epistemology or decision theory, and again more of logico-formal analyses (predominantly with a normative bent).
I’m not saying this to be snarky. Perhaps this shows that even our sub-areas have become so diversified that we cannot make out consistent norms anymore, but instead have norms stratified across sub-sub-areas.
If you apply for a “Mind” job at one place, they might not hire you if you do xphi because it is not “core”; and for a job with the same ad over at another place, they might only hire you if you do xphi because it is not “traditionalist”.
The same seems to be true for the rest of the “core” areas: is that Language job for someone working on Reference or political speech? Is what you are doing “not relevant” because it does not tackle the foundational questions about meaning etc, or is it “not relevant” because it has no friction with anything empirical?
Is that Epistemology job for defining knowledge or virtue epistemology? That Metaphysics job for what chairs are or social constructivism?
Who knows anymore.
Curiously (perhaps ironically?) lacking in empirical content. Where’s the data supporting the claim that “these days many people” are taking these approaches, or that this affects academic job prospects?
Lots of great points, but I especially loved the history one. I definitely see this for the topic of attention, which was discussed frequently prior to the 20th century, but then largely absent outside of phenomenology until the last 15 years or so, a strange discontinuity (https://philarchive.org/rec/JENTPL-2). A question: how much do you think these tensions have to do with history versus philosophy of mind’s odd positionality, with connections to topics in both philosophy of science and LEMM? (See page 9 of http://philsci-archive.pitt.edu/21226/1/Contreras%20Kallens-Networks%20in%20philosophy.pdf for an attempt to get at this empirically)
I thought the big change in the philosophy of mind was that panpsychism has become a respected option and even idealist views are sometimes allowed a hearing!
To those who understand what’s going on in phil mind:
Suppose X is some broadly mind-ish phenomenon.
Does asking how X works presuppose X is (or is part of) a mechanism?
If so, does presupposing X is (or is part of) a mechanism exclude certain conceptions of and investigations into X? Like, is any conception of a mechanism necessarily a conception of something knowable only empirically?
If so, is that exclusion “empirically based?” Like, are there empirical reasons to antecedently exclude conceptions of X that are not conceptions of a mechanism?
(I’m asking these questions because I don’t know what the phrases “how racism works,” “how implicit bias works,” and their kin are supposed to mean. So I know neither the sense in which nor the extent to which they’re supposed to be “empirical.” So I’m having a hard time assessing the main claims of the original post.)
Thanks in advance for any answers and explanations.
Should we manufacture norms to match innovations in a field of study? Of course norms lag innovation. That’s a good thing. When norms are hard to change our fields are resistant to recency bias and faddish upheaval. When innovation is encouraged our fields are resistant to dogmatism and stasis. Either without the other seems a great hinderance to progress. Another way to put it: it is good both that innovation happens purposively and that norm-change does not.
Sincere question:
Why did mind folks interested primarily in empirical stuff and secondarily in theoretical stuff (or mind folks interested equally in both), decide to go into philosophy and urge philosophers to accommodate their empirical interests, rather than go into (e.g) psychology and urge psychologists to accommodate their secondary interest in theoretical stuff?
Because academic philosophy is much more (which is not to say very) accommodating of unorthodox work than academic psychology.