OPHTHALMOLOGY

ANATOMY. DEVELOPMENT & CLINICAL 14. Critical period of development of fixation reflex
EXAMINATION is - (AI 95)
a) 2-4 months of age b) 6-8 months of age
1. Anteroposterior stability of eyeball is provided by c) 2 years d) 3 years
all except - (AIIMS May 09) 15. Keratometry is useful in measuring -(PGI June 05)
a) Suspensory ligament of the eye ball a) Comeal curvature b) Comeal thickness
b) Superior oblique c) Comeal diameter d) Depth of anterior chamber
c) Superior rectus 16. Curvature of cornea can be measured by -
d) Orbital fat a) Keratometry (PGIDec 05, June 05)
2. The length of the eye ball is - (AI 94) b) Direct ophthalmoscopy
a) 12mm b)16mm c) Retinoscopy
c) 20mm d)24mm d) Perimetry
3. The following ocular structure is not derived from 17. Gonioscopy is used to study - (PGI June 97)
surface ectoderm - (AIIMS May 06) a) Ant. Chamber b) Post chamber
a) Crystalline lens c) Angle of anterior chamber d) Retina
b) Sclera 18. The thickness of cornea is measured by using -
c) Corneal epithelium a) Schiotz tonometer b) Keratometer (UPSC 04)
d) Epithelium of lacrimal glands c) Pachymeter d) Aesthesiometer
4. Surface ectoderm gives rise to all of the following 19. Tonography helps you to determine - (AI 02)
structures except - (AIIMSMay 03, Punjab 11) a) The rate of formation of aqueous
a) Lens b) Corneal epithelium b) The facility of outflow of aqueous
c) Conjunctival epithelium d) Anterior layers of iris c) The levels of intraocular pressure at different times.
5. Smooth muscle of the IRIS is developed d) None of the above
from- (COMED06) 20. Facility of aqueous outflow is__________________ 1/
a) Surface Ectoderm b) Mesoderm min/mm Hg. - (Maharashtra 10)
c) Neural Crest d) Neural Ectoderm a) 0.8 b)0.6
6. Cornela endothelium is embryologically derived c) 0.4 d)0.2
from - (AIIMS May 09) 21. Inverted Purkinje image is seen on-(AIIMS Nov 93)
a) Neural crest b) Ectoderm a) Anterior surface of cornea
c) Mesoderm d)Endoderm b) Anterior surface of lens
7. Retinal blood vessels are developed from -(AMU 05) c) Posterior surface of cornea
a) Surface ectoderm b) Paraxial mesoderm d) Posterior surface of lens
c) Endoderm d) Neuro ectoderm 22. Area of fundus seen with direct ophthalmoscope
8. Coloboma, most common site -(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Superotemporal b) Inferonasal ': a) 1 DD b). 2 DD
c) Inferotemporal d) Superonasal c) 3 DD d) 4 DD
9. Which continues to grow in the Iifetime-(fera/a 03) 23. The magnification obtained with a direct
a) Cornea b)Iris ophthalmoscope is - (AI 06, AIIMS May05)
c) Lens d) Retina a) 5 times b) 10 times
10. Axial length of eye ball at birth is_______ % of adult c) 15 times d) 20 times
eye - (Maharashtra 10) 24. Image seen by indirect ophthalmoscopy is- (PGIDec
a) 100 b) 90 a) Inverted + Virtual b) Erect+Virtual 00)
c) 70 d)40 c) Inverted + Real d) Erect+Real
11. All statements are true about the eye of a newborn 2 5. Image formed in direct opthalmoscopy is-(PGIDec 09,
except - (AI93) a) Real and erect b) Real and inverted Punjab 11)
a) Optic nerve is myelinated only upto lamina cribrosa c) Virtual and erect d) Virtual and inverted
b) Orbit is more divergent than adult 2 6. Magnification in Indirect ophthalmoscopy-
c) Apart from macular area the retina is fully differentiated a) Depends on power of lens used (PGI Dec 06)
d) New bom is usually myopic by -2 to -3D b) Depends on refractive error of pt
12. Refractive condition of the eye at birth is- (PGIJune c) Independent of refractive error of pt
a) Hypermetropia of 2D b) Myopia of 2 D 99) 27. Periphery of retina is visualized by - (PGIDec 02)
c) Hypermetropia of 5D d) Myopia of 5D a) Indirect ophthalmoscopy
13. Infant Eye is - (AIIMS Sep 96) b) Direct ophthalmoscopy
a) Myopic b) Astigmatism c) Goniocopy
c) Hypermetropic d)None d) Contact lens

l)a 2)d 3)b 4)d 5)b 6)a 7)b 8)b 9)c 10)c ll)d 12)a 13)c 14)a
15) a 16) a 17)c 18)c 19)b 20)d 21)d 22)b 23)c 24)c 25)c 26)a,b 27)a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 892 ]

28. Indirect opthalmoscopy detects A/E -(AIIMS Sep 96) 40. Perimetry is a test to assess the - (Karn 11)
a) Examination of ora serrta a) Visual acuity b) Intraocular pressure
b) Retinal periphery c) Visual field d) Depth of the anterior chamber
c) Examination of vitreous base 41. True about visual testing in a child - (PGI Dec 06)
d) Examination of fovea a) Visual evoked potential
29. Indirect ophthalmoscopy is done for - (PGIJune 97) b) Teller’s acquity card test
a) Central retina b) Periphery of retina c) Perimetry
c) Sclera d) Angle of ant. chamber b) Keratometry
30. All are true about indirect ophthalmoscope except - 42. All except one are tests for macular fucntions-
a) Image is real and inverted (PGI June 97) a) Laser interferometry (AIIMS Dec 97)
b) Details of fundus can be seen even with slightly
b) Two point discrimination
hazy media
c) Maddox rod test
c) Magnification is more than direct ophthalmoscope
d) Retinal ERG Electrorectinogram
d) Used for seeing periphery of fundus
31. Distant direct ophthalmoscopy is done at a distance of-
43. Amsler grid is used in - (PGI Dec 00)
a) 20 cm b) 25 cm (AI99, AIIMS Dec 94) a) Detecting maculopathy b) Optic disc examination
c) 50 cm d) 100 cm c) Squint d) Retinal examination
32. Fluorescent dye for ophthalmological diagnosis 44. Coloured halos are seen in all, except -
is injected in - (AI 97) a) Cataract (AIIMS Nov 93)
a) Antecubital vein b) Popliteal vein b) Angle closure glaucoma
c) Femoral vein d) Subclavian vein c) Corneal edema
33. Fluorescein angiography is used to identify lesions d) Corneal opacity
in all EXCEPT - 45. Coloured halo is seen in all except - (PGI June 99)
a) Retina b) Lens a) Open angle glaucoma b) Closed angle glaucoma
c) Optic nerve head d) Iris c) Cataract d) Any of the above
34. The periphery of retina is visualized with - 46. Coloured halos are seen in all, except -
a) Indirect binocular ophthalmoscopy (PGIDec 01) a) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis (AIIMS Dec 90)
b) Direct opthalmoscopy b) Acute anterior uveitis
c) Contact lens c) Tetracycline
d) Goldman’s three mirror contact lens d) Glaucoma
e) Hruby lens 47. Floaters can be seen in following except-(AHMSMay 95)
35. Indocyanine Green Angiography (ICG Angiography) a) Vitreous haemorrhage b) Retinal detachment
is most useful in detecting - (AI 09) c) Uveitis d) Ac. congestive Glaucoma
a) Occult Choroidal Neovascularization (Occult CNV) 48. Sudden painful loss of vision seen in - (PGI Dec 04)
b) Classic choroidal neovascularization(Calssic CNV)
a) Angle closure glaucoma
c) Angioid streaks with choroidal Neovascularization
b) Central retinal artery occlusion
(CNV)
c) Acute uveitis
d) Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy
36. Which type of tonometer is best for measuring IOT-
d) Endopthalmitis
a) Schiotz tonometer (Kerala 01) e) Retinal detachment
b) Applantation tonometer 49. Painful loss of vision is seen in - (PGI Dec 06)
c) Pulse air tonometer a) Senile cataract
d) Intendation tonometer b) Primary open angle glaucoma
37. Corneal endothelial cell count is done by - c) Primary angle closure glaucoma
hhtfSfy Specular tmcxosco^^^f^^ET^JNB Pattern)^ d) Anterior uveitis
50. Painless sudden visual loss is seen in all
except - (AIIMS May 05)
d) Slit%mp" a) CRAO b) Retinal detachment
c) Vitreous hemorrhage d) Angle closure glaucoma
a) Pigmented epithelium b) Rods a 51. In the normal human right eye, the peripheral field
c) Ganglion cell d) Bipolar cell of vision is usually least - (AI 02)
39. Arden index is related to - (AI 10) a) On the left side (nasally)
a) ERG (Electroretinogram) b) In the downwad direction
b) EOG (Electroculogram) c) In the upward direction
c) VER (Visual Evoked response) d) On the right side (temporally)
d) Perimetry

28) d 29) b 30) c 31)b 32) a 33) b 34) a 35) a 36) b 37) a 38) b 39) b 40) c 41) a,b
42) d 43) a 44) d 45) None >a 46)b,c 47) d 48)a,c,d 49)c,d 50) d 51) c
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 893 ]

ELEMENTARY OPTICS 64. Pseudopapillitis is seen in - (DPG 10)

a) Myopia b) Hypermetropia
52. Power of a reduced eye is normally - (A197)
c) Squint d) Presbyopia
a) 20-D b)35-D
65. Hypermetropia - True is - (Manipal 08)
c) 18-D d)58-D
a) Accommodative convergent squint may develop in
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
children
| | $ | | | t|p1 / J|| 8p§ b) Light fals in front of retina
|;§M^ c) Corrected with concave glasses
54. Refractive index of cornea is - (AIIMS Dec 97)
d) Short sight
a) 133 b) 1.37
66. A child presented with difficulty in seeing the
c) 1.42 d) 1.45
blackboard in school. His teachers say that
55. Most important factor determining convergence
he frequently squeezes his eyes. Most probable
of light rays on retina is - (AI97)
cause is- (ARMS Nov 00)
a) Length of eyeball
a) Hypermetropia b) Myopia
b) Dioptre power of lens
c) Presbyopia d) Astigmatism
c) Refractive index of cornea
67. True in myopes - (PGI Dec 06)
d) Physical state of vitreous
56. Most important factor determining convergence
a) Use diverging lens
of light rays on retina is - (ARMS May 95) b) Image formed in front of retina
a) Physical state of vitreousb) Diopter power of lens c) Far point becomes near
c) Curvature of cornea d) Length of eyeball d) Fundus normal
ill 1 Whicfrcomponentof the eyehas maximumrefractive 68. The most common cause of myopia is - (MAHE 07)
a) A-P diameter is increased
a) Anterior surface of the lens Pattern) b) The thickness of lens is increased
c) The viscosity of squous humour is increased
c) Centre or the lens d) The viscisity of vitous humour is increased
d) Cornca , .
69. Fundal picture in myopia - (Jipmer 03)
58. Refractive power of eye depends upon mainly a) Soft exudate
following factor/ factors - (PGI Dec 02) b) Hard exudates
a) Lens b) Cornea c) Cystoid degeneration
c) Vitreous haemorrhage d) Aq. Humours d) Flame shaped hemorrhages
e) Axial length of the eye 70. Foster’s fusch’s spots are seen in - (NEET/DNB
59. If the axial length of the eyeball is changed by 1 mm a) Hypermetropia b) Myopia Pattern)
then the power changes by - (ARMSMay 02) c) Astigmatism d) None
a) 1 diopter b) 2 D 71. Which is the most common complication of
c) 3D d)4D pathological myopia? (DPG10)
a) Glaucoma b) Cataract
c) Haemorrhage d) Retinal detachment
c) Center of lens to cornea d) None
72. Which one of the following is the serious
ERRORS OF REFRACTION complication of degenerative myopia in the eye -
61. Anisometropia means - (SGPGI05) a) Retinal detachment (UPSC02)
a) Both the eye are not oriented in the same parallel b) Vitreous liquification
axis c) Myopic crescent
b) There is high difference of refractive errors d) Posterior staphyloma
between the two eye 73. Which of the following is used for treatment of
c) Subluxation of one of the eye Myopia- (Jipmer04)
d) Difference in image sizes a) Nd-YAG LASER b)Excimer Laser
62. Unequal eye power is known as - (MAHE 05) c) Carbamazepine d)SSRI
a) Anisometropia b)Emmetropia 74. The most accepted modality of treatment of 2D
c) Ametropia d) Astigmatism myopia in a 13 year old girl is - (UPSC 05)
63. A man, 35 yrs of age complains of poor near vision a) Spectacles b) Excimer laser
Distant vision is normal. Retinoscopy at 1 meter c) Contact lens d) Radial keratotomy
shows + 2D spherical lens. He has - (ARMSNov 99) 75. Soft contact lens is used - (APPG 06)
a) Hypermetropia b) Presbyopia a) High myopia b) Astigmatism
c) Myopia d) Accommodation paralysis c) Presbyopia d) Keratoconus

52) d 53) c 54) b 55)c 56)c 57)c 58)a,b,e 59)c 60)b 61)b 62)a 63)a 64)b 65)a
66) b 67) a,b,c,d 68) a 69) c 70) b 71) d 72) a 73) b 74) a 75) a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 894 ]

76. Astigmatism is due to - (SRMC 02) 86. A 35 years old hypermetrope is using 1.50D sphere
a) Irregularity of curvature of cornea both eyes. Whenever his glasses slip downward on
b) Irregularity of curvature of lens his nose he will feel that his near vision - (AI 02)
c) Forward displacement of the lens a) Becomes enlargedb) Becomes distorted
d) Backward displacement of lens c) Becomes decreased d) Remains the same
77. In simple astigmatism, foci of image formed on - 87. A 30 year old man has 6/5vision each eye, unaided.
a) Both image are formed in front of retina His cyclopegic retinoscopy is + 0.0 D sph. at 1 metre
distance. His complaints are blurring of newsprint
b) Both image are formed behind retina (PGIDec 08)
at 30 cm, that clears up in about two minutes. The
c) One image front & other behind the retina
most probable diagnosis is - (AI 05)
d) One on retina, other behind the retina a) Hypermetropia b) Presbyopia
e) One on retina, other front of the retina c) Accommodative inertia d) Cycloplegia
78. A55-years-old male with a limbal scar presents to 88. Retinoscopy is done on a 0.5D myopic patient at
the ophthalmology clinic with markedly defective a distance of 1 metre. Movement of the image will -
vision for near and far. Clinical examination reveals a) Move with the mirror (AIIMS Nov 01)
a wide & deep anterior chamber, iridodonesis and b) Move opposite to the mirror
a dark pupillary reflex. A vision of 6/6 is achieved c) No movement of image with mirror
with correcting lens of+11D. Which of the following d) Image can move to any side
is the most likely diagnosis - (AI 12) 89. On performing refraction using a plane mirror on
a) Aphakia a patient who has a refractive error of -3 D sphere
b) Pseudophakia with-2 D cylinder at 90° from a distance of 1 metre
c) Hypermetropia under no cycloplegia, the reflex would be seen to
d) Posterior Dislocation of Lens move- (AIIMS May 04)
79. Treatment of choice in aphakia - (AI 98,96, UP 07, a) With the movement in the horizontal axis and
a) Contact lens b) Spectacles 06) against the movement in the vertical axis
c) IOL d) Laser therapy b) With the movement in both the axes
80. Jkpk in feoi scotoma is seen affeF .correction c) Against the movement in both the axes
Aphakia by - (NEET/DNB Pattern) d) With the movement in the vertical axis and against
a) IOL b) Spectacles ’ the movement in horizontal axis
V? c) Contact lens fif n "' • 90. In retinoscopy for refractive error at 1 m we add ID
81. Aniseikonia means - (AIIMSMay 03) if done at distance of 66 cm, the addition factor
a) Difference in the axial length of the eyeballs will be- (PGI Dec 99)
b) Difference in the size of corneas a)-2 b) -1.5
c) Difference in the size of pupils c) -0.5 d)-5
d) Difference in the size of image formed by the m Objective assessment of the refractive state of the
eye is termed -(Corned 08, NEET/DNB Pattern)
two eyes
82. ? Accommodation is due to -I5 y0pET/DNB ~Pattern) a) Retinoscopy b) Gonioscopy
a) Relaxation of ciliary muscles c) Ophthalmoscopy , d) Kcratoscopy
Till
b) Gontractiohofciliarymusclps ; Duochrome test is for - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
MS c) Contraction ofdilatorpupillae </ ' G M / M . / a) Subjective verification of refraction
mm b) Subjective refinement, of refraction
d) None WM
83. True about presbopia - (PGI June 04)
a) Age related defect of refraction
b) Defect in accommodation 93. Cross cylinders is - (PGI June 05)
c) Concave lens used a) One plus cylinder and one minus cylinder of equal
d) Convex lens used strength
84. Treatment of presbyopia - (PGI Dec 02) b) One plus cylinder and one minus cylinder of
a) LASIK b) Concave lens unequal strength
c) Convex lens d) Radial keratotomy c) Two plus cylinders
d) Both minus cylinders
85. A14 yrs old boy complains of pain during reading.
e) One spherical & one cylindrical lens
On examination, his both eyes are normal and vision
94. The Most convenient form of cross cylinder is a
with Snellen’s reading is 6/5. He still complains of
combination of - (Maharashtra 10)
pain on occluding one eye. The diagnosis
a) -0.5 Diopter sphere with+1 Diopter Cylinder
is- (AIIMSMay 01)
b) +0.5 Diopter sphere with -1 Diopter Cylinder
a) Myopia b) Pseudomyopia
c) +0.25 Diopter sphere with-0.5 Diopter Cylinder
c) Hyperopia d) Emmetropia d) -0.25 Diopter sphere with +0.5 Diopter Cylinder

76) a 77) d,e 78) a 79) c 80) b 81)d 82) b 83)b,d 84) c 85) b 86) a 87) c 88) a 89) c
90) b 91) a 92) b 93)a,e 94) a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 895 ]

95. Agent used for dilatation of pupil in children is - 105. A soft contact lens user presents to you with pain,
a) Atropine (AIIMS Feb 97, watering, photophobia and a white spot in the centre
b) Homatropine AI96, AIIMS Dec 98) of the cornea. What will be you initial management?
c) Tropicamide a) Start frequent antibiotic eye drops after
d) Phenylephrine discontinuing the contact lens (AIIMS May 04)
b) Pad & bandage the eye for 12 hours
96. A patient Mohan, aged 60 yrs* needs an eye
c) Frequent instillation of artificial tears
examination. He needs a drug which will dilate his
d) Topical non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs
eyes but not paralyse his ciliary muscles- (AIIMS (NSAIDS)
a) Atropine b) Phenylephrine Nov01) 106. A soft contact lens users has corneal keratitis cause
c) Cyclopentolate d) Tropicamide is- (AIIMS June 99)
97. All of the following are cycloplegics except - (AI 97) a) Acanthamoeba - ulcer b) Erosion of cornea
a) Phenylephrine b) Atropine c) Pseudomonas infection d) Herpes infection
c) Homatropine d) Cocaine 107. Commonest cause of keratitis in soft contact lens
98. All of the following are examples of mydriatics except- users is - (PGI June 98)
a) Atropine b) Homatropine (AI 97) a) Acanthamoeba b) Staph aureus
c) Tropicamide d) Pirenzepine c) Naegleria d) Herpes
99. Mydriatic used in 3 years old child for refraction 108. An otherwise healthy Person who wears contact
lenses develops a small ulceration of eye. what is the
is - (AI 99)
cause - (HP 2006)
a) 1 % Atropine drops
a) Acanthamoeba b) Cytomegalovirus
b) 1% Atropine ointment c) Toxocama d) Toxoplasma
c) 1% Homoatropine drops 109. A person with prolonged usage of contact lenses
d) 1% Tropicamide drops presented with irritation of left eye. After examination
100. For refraction in a hypermetropic child, which is the a diagnosis of keratitis was made and corneal scrapings
best drug - (AIIMS May 93) revealed growth of pseudomonas aeroginosa. The
a) Phenylephrine b) Atropine ointment bacteria were observed to be multidrug resistant.
c) Atropine drops d) Homatropine Which of the following best explains the mechanism
101. Soft contact lens is made up of - (AIIMS May 94) of antimicrobial resistance in these isolated
a) PMMA b) HEMA pseudomonas aeroginosa strains - (AI 10)
c) Glass d) Silicone a) Ability to transfer resistance genes from adjacent
102. Contact lens wear is proven to have deleterious commonsal flora
b) Improper contact lens hygiene
effects on the corneal physiology. Which of the
c) Frequent and injudicious use of topical antibiotics
following statements is incorrect in connection
d) Ability of pseudomonas to produce biofilms
with contact lens wear ? (AI 05) 110. Treatment modalities for myopia are - (PGIDec 00)
a) The level of glucose availability in the corneal a) Radial keratotomy b) LASER Keratomileusis
epithelium is reduced c) Epikeratophakia d) LASER Keratoplasty
b) There is a reduction in hemidesmosome density 111. Refractive power of eye can be changed
c) There is increased production of C02 in the by- (PGI Dec 02, June 02)
epithelium a) Radial keratotomy b) Keratomileusis
d) There is a reduction in glucose utilization by c) IOL d) LASIK
corneal epithelium. e) Photocoagulation
103. Complications of soft contact lens are A/E - 112. Radial keratotomy is used as treatment modality for-
a) Giant papillary conjunctivitis (PGIDec09) a) Small degree in myopia (PGI Dec 9 7)
b) Progressive non healing ulcer
b) Folliculosis
c) High astigmatism
c) Corneal vascularization d) High hypermetropia
d) Corneal erosion 113. LASIK is used in - (Manipal 06)
e) Acanthomeba keratitis a) Myopia b) Hypermetropia
104. A patient with contact lens is diagnosed to have c) Astigmatism d) Presbyopia
overweare syndrome. He has symptoms of 114. A lady wants LASIK surgery for her daughter. She
photophobia, redness, blurring of vision, Treatment asks for your opinion. All the following things are
should be - (AIIMS June 00) suitable for performing LASIK surgery except -
a) Antibiotic + cyclopegic a) Myopia of 4 Diopters (AI 03)
b) Avoid wearing of contact lens for 48 -72 hours b) Age of 15 years
c) Removal of contact lens and wear new lens c) Stable refraction for 1 year
d) Send the lens for culture sensitivity d) Corneal thickness of600 microns

95) a 96) b 97)a 98)c 99)b 100)b 101)b 102)a 103)b 104)a 105)a 106)c 107)a 108)a
109)d 110)a,b lll)a,b,c,<i 112)a 113)a>b,c,d 114)b
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 896 ]

CONJUNCTIVA 128. Conjunctivitis is seen in all except- (ARMS98)

a) CMV b) Adenovirus
115. Conjunctival epithelium is- (PGIJune05) c) CoxsackieA-24 d)Entero70
a) Pseudostratified 129. Which of the following does not cause hemorrhagic
b) Stratified columnar conjunctivitis - (AI 95)
c) Stratified non keratinized squamous a) Adenovirus b) Coxsackie - 24
d) Transitional c) Enterovirus - 70 d) Papilloma virus
116. Maximum density of globlet cells is seen in -(AI04) 130. Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis occurs with- (ARMS
a) Superior conjunctiva b) Inferior conjunctiva a) Herpes zoster b) Herpes simplex May 94)
c) Nasal conjunctiva d) Temporal conjunctiva c) Enterovirus d) Picomavirus
117. Staphylococcal conjunctivitis is associated with - 131. A patient complains of pain in both eyes with
a) Corneal margin infiltration (PGI Dec 01) congestion. Blurring of vision, photophobia and
b) Phylctenular conjunctivitis mucopurulent discharge since one day. Many cases
c) Vernal conjunctivitis have been reported from the same community. The
d) Hordeolum causative agent is probably - (ARMSMay 01)
e) Follicular conjunctivitis a) Adenovirus b) Enterovirus 70
118. Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by-(PGIDec 03, c) Herpes simplex d) ECHO virus
a) Gonorrhoea b) H. Influenzae 02) 132. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is seen
c) Chlamydia d) Pseudomonas with- (DPGFeb. 09)
e) Staph, aureus a) Adenovirus b)Staphylococcal
119. Neonatal conjunctivitis is caused by ail c) Pneumococcus d) Hemophilus
except- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 133. Seen in trachoma are/ is - (PGIDec 00)
a) Gonococcus : h) Chlamydia a) Papillary hypertrophy b) Follicles
c) Aspergillus d), Pseudomonas c) Pannus formation d) Herbert’s pits
120. Unilateral watery discharge from the eye of a new e) Ropy discharge
born, with no edema or chemosis is due to - (AI 00) 134. Pathognomonic of trachoma is - (Jipmer 03)
a) Chamydia b) Gonococcus a) Bulbar papillae b) Palpebral papillae
c) Sticky eye d) Chemical conjunctivitis
c) Bulbar follicles d) Palpebral follicles
121. Which of the following is not given in ophthalmia
135. Herbert’s pits are seen in -(MH10, ARMS May 95)
neonatorum - (ARMS May 94)
a) Trachoma b) Spring catarrh
a) Erythromycin locally b) Tetracycline 1%
c) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis d) Sarcoidosis
c) Penicillin locally d) Silver nitrate
e) Molluscum contagiosum
122. Inclusion body conjunctivitis true is all except- :
136. Arlt’s line is seen in - (AI 04, PGI June 02)
a) Self limiting (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis b) Pterygium
b) Present only in infants \
c) Occurs while passage from birth canal c) Ocular pemphigoid d) Trachoma
137. Which of the following is/are caused by trachoma -
d) Caused by chlamydia ,
123. Angular conjunctivitis is caused by -(PGI June 00) a) Entropion b) Ectropion
a) Moraxella b) Virus c) Pinguecula d) Corneal opacity
c) Bacteroides d) Fungus e) Dry eye
124. Angular conjunctivitis is caused by - 138. All are seen in stage HI trachoma except - (DPG10)
a) H. influenza (SRMCv NEE^^^^^^^k
: a) Tarsal epitheliofibrosis
b) Adenovirus type 3 2 p b) Trachomatous pannus
.: c)/:Morax-axenfield bacillus c) Herbert’s pits
d) Disappearance of Bowman’s membrane
: d) Brahnmella
125. The specific topical remedy suggested for angular 139. All are features of TVachoma stage HI, except -
conjunctivitis is - (ARMS June 92) a) Herbert’s pits (PGI Dec 08)
a) Dexamethasone b)Sulphacetamide b) Pannus
c) Zinc sulphate d) Penicillin c) Necrosis in scar
126. In membranous conjunctivitis membrane is found d) Scar on tarsal conjunctiva
in- (TN03) 140. All statements are true about trachoma except-
a) Limbus b) Palpebral conjunctiva a) Trachoma is caused by bedsonian organism of
c) Bulbar conjunctiva d) Cornea psittacosis - lymphogranuloma - trachoma (PLT)
127. Pseudomembranous conjunctivitis is caused by- group.
a) Gonococcus (PGI 90) b) Strains mainly responsible are A, B, Ba and C
b) Staphylococcus c) Marked papillary hyperplasia with limbal follicles
c) Streptococcus are seen in stage III
d) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca d) Mature follicles are seen in stage Ha

115) c 116)c 117)a,b 118)a,c,d,e 119)c 120) d 121) d 122)b 123) a 124) c 125) c 126)b 127)a,b,c
128) a 129) d 130)c,d 131)b 132)a 133)a,b,c,d 134)c 135)a 136)d 137)a,d,e 138)b 139)b 140)c
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 897 ]

141. In the grading of trachoma, trachomatous b) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis

inflammation -follicular is defined as the presence c) Trachoma
of- (AIIMS Nov 02) d) Viral conjunctivitis
a) 5 or more follicles in the lower tarsal conunctiva 152. A/E seen in spring catarrh - (PGIDec 06)
b) 3 or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva a) Follicles b)Pseudogeronto
c) 5 or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva c) Shield’s ulcer d) Tranta’s spot
d) 3 or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva 153. Features of vernal keratoconjunctivitis are -
142. Follicles of a diameter of 5mm are typically seen in-
a) Papillary hypertrophy (PGI Dec 05, June 03)
a) Pharyngoconjunctival fever (Karn 11)
b) Follicular hypetrophy
b) Trachoma
c) Drug induced follicular conjunctivitis c) Herbert’s pits
d) Ophthalmia neonatorum d) Trantra’s Spot
143 , Drug of choice of trachoma is - (AIIMS Dec 90) e) Ciliary congestion
a) Penicillin b) Sulfonamide 154. Seen in vernal catarrh are - (PGI Jun 03)
c) Tetracycline d) Chloramphenicol a) Papillary hypertrophy b) Follicles
144 Tetracycline ointment for mass prophylaxis - c) Pannus formation d) Shield ulcer
a) 0.1% ■ . b) 0.5% (NEET/DNB Pattern) e) Ropy discharge
c) l % d) 5% , 155. Trantas spots are seen in - (UP 08, AIIMS June 98,
145 , Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by - (PGINov 08) a) Vernal conjunctivitis May 93, AI 96)
a) Chlamydia trachomatis b) Chlamydia psittaci b) Eczematous conjunctivitis
c) Herpes d) Gonorrhea c) Ophthalmia nodosa
mm d) Tularemia
a) Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction Pattern ) 156. Cobblestone appearance of conjunctiva is typically
seen with - (AIIMS Feb 97, Dec 94, PGI Dec 99,
C) Type III a) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis June 98)
d) Type IV
xm “Ropy discharge” from the eye is seen in - (AI91,
b) Foreign body
c) Spring catarrh
a) Phylectenular conjunctvitisA'A7iT//}.VZ? Pattern)
d) Trachoma
c) Spring catarrh 157. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis - (Manipal09)
d) Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis a) Is usually unilateral
148. Features of vernal conjunctivitis ar z-(PGI May 10) b) Eosinophil is common in the papillae
a) Shield ulcer b) Homer-Tranta’s spots c) Is commoner in adult than children
c) Papillary hypertrophy d) Herbert pits d) Causes corneal melt
e) Pannus 158. Complication of vernal kerato conjunctivitis -
149. Ramu, age 10, yr present with itching in his eye, a) Cataract (NEET/DNB Pattern)
foreign body sensation, & ropy discharge since b) Keratbconus ' - s - ■ r? j 14 i (- ■’
several months. These symptoms are more c) Retinal detachment
prominent in summer. Most probable diagnosis is - d) Vitreoiis hemorrhage 81B 1 r
a) Vernal conjunctivitis (AI04, AIIMS Nov 01) 159. Treatment of vernal keratoconjunctivitis includes
b) Fungal keratoconjunctivitis
• all except - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Viral conjunctivitis
a) Steroids b) Chromoglycate
d) Trachoma
150. A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring c) Olopatadine d) Antibiotics
with the onset of hot weather in young boys with 160. Topical sodium cromoglycate is used in treatment
symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with of- (COMED09)
polygonal raised areas in the palpebral conjunctiva a) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
is - (AI03) b) Vernal catarrh
a) Trachoma c) Subconjunctival haemorrhage
b) Phylctenular conjunctivitis d) Trachoma
c) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis 161. Type IV hypersensitivity to Mycobacterium
d) Vernal kerato conjunctivitis tuberculosis antigen may manifest as - (AI 03)
151. A 12 years old boy presents with recurrent a) Iridocylitis
attacks of conjunctivitis for the last 2 years with b) Polyarteritis nodosa
intense itching and ropy discharge. The diagnosis c) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
is- (AIIMS May 01) d) Giant cell arteritis
a) Vernal conjunctivitis

141)c 142) b 143) c 144)c 145)a 146)a 147)c 148)a,b,c 149)a 150)d 151)a 152)a 153)a,d 154)a,d,e
155) a 156) c 157)b 158)b 159)d 160)b 161)c
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 898 ]

162. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis false is - (Manipal 09) 172. The histology of pterygium includes - (Manipal 09)
a) The most common cause is tuberculosis a) Elastotic degeneration
b) The lesions are typically found near the limbus b) Epithelial inclusion bodies
c) Predominantly affects children c) Precancerous changes
d) Is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction d) Squamous metaplasia of the epithelium
163. Phlycten is due to - (PGI Dec 98) 173. Stocker’s line is seen in - (AIIMS Nov 10)
a) Exogenous allergy b) Endogeneous allergy a) Pinguencula
c) Viral keratitis d) Fungal keratitis b) Pterygium
164. Phlyctencular conj unctivitis is associated with - c) Congenital Ocular Melanosis
a) Tuberculosis (UPSC-110) d) Conjunctival epithelial melanosis
b) Syphilis 174. Visual impairment in pterygium is due to -
c) Stevens Johnson syndrome a) Astigmatism b) Myopia (Jipmer 11)
d) Leprosy c) Hypermetropia d) Hazy cornea
165. A malnourished child from a poor socioeconomic 175. Subconjunctival hemorrhage occurs in all
status, residing in overcrowded and dirty areas conditions except - (Jipmer 04)
presents with a nodule around the limbus with a) Passive venous congestion
hyperemia of surrounding conjunctiva in his left b) Pertusis
eye. He is also observed to have axillary and cervical c) Trauma
lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the d) High intraocular tension
most likely diagnosis - (A1 12) 176. Subconj unctival cyst is seen m-(NEET/DNBPattern)
a) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
b) Foreign body granuloma
c) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis 177. Parenchymatous xerosis of conjunctiva is caused by-
d) Episcleritis a) Trachoma (PGI 02)
166. Papillae are seen in - (Manipal 08) b) Vitamin A deficincy
a) Trachoma b) Viral conjunctivitis c) Vernal catarrh
c) Spring catarrh d) All the above d) Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis
e) Alkali bums
167. Follicular conjunctivitis are found in all except -
a) Herpes simplex conjunctivitis (PGI Nov. 10)
CORNEA
b) Drug induced
c) Adult inclusion conjunctivits 178. True about anatomy of adult cornea - (PGI June 09,
d) Allergic conjunctivits a) Horizontal diameter is 12 mm Dec 07)
e) Molluscum contagiosum b) Horizontal diameter is 10 mm
168. Giant Papillary Conj unctivitis is caused by - c) In megalocomea diameter is > 12mm
a) Contact Lens wear (Karnataka 04) d) In microcomea diameter < 10mm
b) Ocular Prosthesis e) Vertical diameter > Horizontal diameter
c) Protruding corneal sutures 179. True about cornea - (PGI Nov. 10)
d) All of the above a) Power is 43 D
169. Giant papillary conjunctivitis is seen - (APPG 06) b) Majority of refraction occur at air - tear interface
a) Trachoma c) With the rule astigmatism is present because vertical
b) Contact lens meridian more steep than horizontal meridian
c) Phlytenular conjunctivitis d) Spherical structure
d) Vernal kerato conj unctivitis e) Refractive index 1.334
170. Pterygium is - (AIIMSMay 08) 180. Corneal epithelium is composed of - (PGI Dec 01)
a) A vascular anomaly a) Stratified keratinized epithelium
b) A connective tissue degeneration b) Stratified non- keratinized epithelium
c) An inflammatory condition c) Columnar epithelium
d) Associated with Vit. A deficiency d) Pseudostratified epithelium
171. Pterygium all are true except - (PGI June 08) e) Transitional epithelium
181. This layer of cornea has no regenerating capacity -
a) Arise from any part of conjunctiva
a) Stroma/Bowman’s membrane (Manipal 08,
b) Can cause astigmatism
b) Endothelium UP 08)
c) Surgery is treatment of choice
c) Epithelium
d) UV exposure is risk factor
d) Descemet’s membrane
e) Stromal defect seen

162) a 163) b 164)a 165)a 166)d 167)None 168)d 169)b 170)b 171)a 172)a 173)b 174)a 175)d
176)b 177) a,e 178)a,d 179)a,b,c 180)b 181)a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 899 ]

182. Avascular coat in eye is - (PGI Dec 99) 194. All are features of fungal keratitis, except -
a) Sclera b) Cornea a) Less symptoms, more signs (ARMSNov 93)
c) Retina d) Choroid b) Infected hypopyon
183. Metabolically active layer of cornea is - (AI91) c) Early vascularisation of cornea
a) Endothelium b) Stroma d) Dry white slough
c) Descemet membrane d) Epithelium 195. True about fungal corneal ulcer - (PGIDec 04)
184. Corneal transparency is maintained by all except - a) Symptoms are severe b) Dry looking ulcer
a) Relative dehydration (AHMS Nov 07) c) Satellite lesion d) Shifting hypopyon
b) Increased mitotic figures in centre of cornea e) Immunogenic ring
c) Unmyelinated nerve fibres 196. A young man aged 30 years, presents with difficulty
d) Uniform spacing of collagen fibrils in vision in the left eye for the last 10 days. He is
185. The corneal transparency is maintained by - a rural community and gives history of trauma to
a) Keratocytes (AIIMSNov05) his left eye with vegetative matter 10-15 days back.
b) Bowman’s membrane On examination, there is an ulcerative lesion in
c) Descement’s membrane the cornea, whose base has raised soft creamy
d) Endothelium infiltrate. Ulcer margin is feathery and hyphate.
186. Corneal transparency is due to all except - (WB 98) There are a few satellite lesions also. The most
a) Na+ -K+ pump probable etiological agent is - (A1IMS May 04)
b) Normal IOT a) Acanthamoeba b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
c) Hypercellular stroma c) Fusarium d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Peculiar arrangement of lamella 197. A 30 year old male presents with a history of injury
187. Ionic pump in corneal endothelium is necessary for to the eye with a leaf 5 days ago and pain, photopho-
maintaining deturgescence of the cornea and thus bia and redness of the eye for 2 days. What would be
transparency. It can be blocked by -(A1IMS Nov 07) the most likely pathology ? (ARMSNov 02)
a) Inhibition of anaerobic glycolysis a) Anterior uveitis b) Conjunctivitis
b) Activation of anaerobic glycolysis c) Fungal corneal ulcer d) Corneal laceration
c) Inhibition of Kreb's cycle 198. Microscopy of corneal ulcer showed branching
d) Inhibition of HMP pathway septate hyphae. The probable diagnosis - (ARMS 2K)
188. Corneal layer responsible for deturgescence - a) Candida b)Mucormycosis
a) Bowman’s membrane (MAHE 05) c) Aspergillus d) Histoplasma
b) Endothelium 199. Which of thefollowingis the drug of choice of treatment
c) Epithelium of corneal ulcers caused by filamentous fungi ? a)
d) Stromal Itraconazole b) Natamycin (AI06)
189. Which of the following organism can penetrate c) Nystatin d) Fluconazole
the normal cornea - (PGIDec 02) 200. Topical antifungal used in corneal fungal
a) Gonococcus b) Pseudomonas infection - (ARMS May 08)
c) Diphtheria d) Streptococcus a) Silver sulfadiazine b) Neomycin
e) Staphylococcus epidermidis c) Natamycin d) Griseofulvin
190. | 201. Which of the following will be the most important
adjuvant therapy in a case of fungal corneal ulcer -
a) Atropine sulphate eye ointment (AI 04)
i 91. Ulcer serpens is caused by - (DPG10) b) Dexamethasone eye drops
a) Pseudomonas pyocynaeceous c) Pilocarpine eye drops
b) Pneumococcus d) Lignocaine eye drops
c) Corynebacteria 202. Satellite nodules are seen in -(UP 08, ARMS Feb 97,
d) Gonorrhoea niesseria a) Fungal corneal ulcer ARMS Sep 96, Dec 95,
192. True about fungal corneal ulcer - (PGI June 08) b) Tuberculosis AI 95)
a) Satellite lesion b) Symptoms more than signs c) Sarcoidosis
c) Purulent ulcer d) Hypopyon d) Viral ulcer
e) Dry ulcer e) All
193. Features of fungal ulcer - (PGI June 06, Dec 05)
a) Symptoms more than signs
b) Dry ulcer
c) Diffuse corneal edema
d) Hyphated margins

182)b 183)a,b 184)b 185)d 186)c 187)a 188)b 189)a,c 190)a 191)b 192)a,d,e 193)b,d 194)c
195)b,c,e 196)c 197)c 198)c 199)b 200)c 201)a 202)a 203)c
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 900 ]

204. (AIIMS Dec 95)

Steroid are contraindicated in - 216. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus is predictor of-
a) Herpes keratitis b) Atropic dermatitis a) Leukemia b) Lymphoma
c) Fungal corneal ulcer d) Exposure keratitis c) HIV d) Disseminated T.B
205. Steroids are contraindicated in - (AI95) e) Metastasis (PGI Dec. 03, June 03)
a) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis 217. Which of the following statement is true regarding
b) Granular conjunctivitis Acanthamoeba keratitis?
c) Mooren’s ulcer a) For the isolation of the causative agent, corneal
d) Dendritic ulcer scraping should be cultured on a nutrient agar
plate
b) The causative agent, Acanthamoeba is a helminth
a) Stromal Keratitis b) Dendritic Ulcer
whose normal habitat is soil
c) Keratitis due to Acanthamoeba is not seen in the
Pattern)
immunocompromised host
a) HSV b) HTV d) Acanthamoeba does not depend upon a human
c), HBV d) Rubella host for the completion of its life-cycle
208. A dendritic ulcer is caused by- (PGI98, AIIMS 94, 218. A17 year old girl with keratitis and severe pain in
a) Mycetoma b) Herpes simplex 93, 91) the eye came to the hospital and acanthamoeba
c) Staphylococcus d) Pneumococcus keratitis was suspected. The patient gave the history
e) Gonococcus of following 4 points. Out of these which is not a risk
209. '^porttgal factor for acanthamoeba keratitis- (AIIMSNov 02)
a) Herpes simplex b) Conjunctivitis AI 96) a) Extended wear contact lens
b) Exposure to dirty water
210. Corneal sensation is diminished in - (COMED09) c) Comeal trauma
a) Band Keratopathy b) Exposure keratitis d) Squamous blepharitis
c) Phylectenular keratitis d) Dendritic keratitis 219. Kallu, a 25 yr male pt. presented with a red eye and
211. Which of the following is true of dendritic ulcer- complains of pain, photophobia, watering and blurred
a) Caused by Herpes simplex virus (PGI Dec 01) vision. He gives a history of trauma to his eye with a
b) Topical corticosteroid given suppresses the vegetable matter. Corneal examination shows a dendritic
symptoms ulcer. A corneal scraping was taken and examined.
c) Oral acyclovir is effective in treatment Microscopy showed macrophages like cells on
d) Topical acyclovir is effective in treatment culturing the corneal scrapings over a non-nutrient
e) Heals spontaneously agar enriched with [Link], there were plaque
formations. Which organism is most likely -
212. Rx of dendritic ulcer - (PGI Dec 03, 02)
a) Herpes simplex b) Acanthameba (AIIMS May
a) Acyclovir b) Idoxuridine
c) Candida d)Adenovirus 02)
c) Steroid d) Tetracycline
220. A regular contact lens user presents with complaints
e) Trychophyton cains
of servere pain, redness, photophobia and blurring
213. Ocular symptom not seen in Herpes zoster is-(AI 01)
of vision for more than two weeks not responding
a) Nummular keratitis b) Glaucoma to standard treatment On examination, a paracentral
c) Uveitis d) Cranial nerve palsies ring shaped lesion with stromal infiltrates and
214. A 56 year old man has painful weeping rashes over overlying epithelial defects is observed in the affected
the upper eyelid and forehead for the last 2 days eye. Which of the following is the most likely
along with ipsilateral acute punctate keratopathy. diagnosis - (AI 12)
About a year back, he had chemotherapy for a) Bacterial keratitis b)Acanthomoeba keratitis
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. There is no other c) Viral keratitis d) Fungal keratitis
abnormality. Which of the following is the most 221. A soft contact lens wearer developed pain and itching
likely diagnosis? (AIIMS Nov 04) of the eye and showed a reticular pattern on the
a) Impetigo corneal epithelium the cause could be - (Orissa 98)
b) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus a) Comeal dystrophy b) Acanthamoeba
c) Herpes Zoster c) Pseudomonas d) Recurrent
d) Pyoderma gangrenosum 222. A patient using contact lens develops corneal
215. In Herpes zoster keratitis all occurs except- infection. Laboratory diagnosis of acanthamoeba
a) Pseudodendritic keratitis (AIIMS Nov 11) keratitis was established. The following is the best
b) Anterior endothelial keratitis/Uveitis drug for treatment - (AI 03)
c) Sclerokeratitis a) Propamidine b) Neosporine
d) Endothelitis c) Ketoconazole d)Polyhexamethylenebiguanide

204)c 205)d 206)c 207)a 208) b 209)a 210)d 211)a,d 212)a,b 213)d 214)c 215)c 216)all 217)d
218)d 219) b 220) b 221)b 222)d
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 901 ]

223. Neurotrophic keratopathy is caused by - (Al93) 235. Fleischer ring is characteristic of -(AIIMSNov 93,
a) Bell’s palsy a) Megalocomea b) Diabetes Punjab 11)
b) Facial and trigeminal nerve palsy both c) Chalcosis d) Keratoconus
c) Trigeminal nerve palsy 236. Munsoh-ssignis seen in^P^jifc^OSf^E^/DNti
d) All of the above ~ | §g a) Keratoconus §| ‘
224. Corneal dystrophies are usually - (AIIMS May 12)
Bfif
a) Primarily unilateral
237. Keratoconus is associated with all except-
b) Primarily bilateral
a) Down’s syndrome (Manipal 09)
c) Primarily unilateral without systemic disease
b) Ehlers-Danlos’ syndrome
d) Primarily bilateral with systemic disease
225. Corneal dystrophies are - (PGI Dec 08) c) Marfan’s syndrome
a) Macular b) Granular d) Usher’s syndrome
c) Lattice d) Moorens Plgp
e) Fuchs a) Antibiotics b) Cycloplegics Pattern)
226. Which of the following is the least common corneal
dystrophy - (Al 10) 239. Interstitial keratitis is seen in all except -
a) Macular dystrophy a) Syphilis (PGI Nov. 10)
b) Lattice type I b) Acanthamoeba
c) Lattice type III c) Chlamydia Trachomatis
d) Granular corneal dystrophy d) HSV
227. Which one of the following stromal dystrophy is e) HZV
a recessive condition ? (Al 06) 240. Salmon patch is seen in - (Jipmer 11)
a) Lattice dystrophyb) Granular dystrophy a) Interstitial keratitis b) Disciform keratitis
c) Macular dystrophy d) Fleck dystrophy c) Acne rosacea d) Phlectenular keratitis
|||||\. Recu^h^&S^niSofi^n in-(AIINfSJune 98, 241. Band shaped keratopathy is caused by~(AIIMSMay 06)
a) Corneal dystrophy NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Amyloid b) Calcium
j||| liSil llflfllIKgll c) Monopolysaccharide d) Lipid
242. Sarcoidosis is associated with - (Al 08)
d) Peutz- anomalies' a) Band keratopathy b) Systemic amylodosis
229. Posterior polymorphous dystrophy - (Manipal 09) c) Angioid streaks d) Cataracta nigra
a) Causes corectopia 243. Band shaped keratopathy seen in ? (APPG 08)
b) Is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion a) JRA b)RA
c) Causes blindness in over 90% of sufferers c) SLE d)DLE
d) Can be treated with lamellar corneal grafts 244. Corneal vascularisation is/are caused by-
230. Thining of cornea occurs in - (UPSC 02) a) Graft rejection (PGINov 09, June 09, 07)
a) Megalocomea b) Bullous keratopathy b) Chemical bum
c) Endothelial dystrophy d) Keratoconus
c) Contact lens use
231. In Keratoconus, all are seen except - (PGI June 00)
d) Vitreous haemorrhage
a) Munson’s sign
e) Viral infection
b) Thinning of cornea in center
245. All of the following may lead to corneal opacity in
c) Distortion of corneal reflex at center
newborn except - (Al 93)
d) Hypermetropic refractive error
a) Endothelial dystrophy
232. TVue about keratoconus - (PGI Dec 02)
b) Sclerocomea
a) Munson sign seen
b) Protrusion of anterior cornea c) Mucopolysaccharidosis
c) Protrusion of posterior cornea d) Droplet keratopathy
d) Fleisher’s sign positive 246. Corneal deposits are seen in all except -(Kerala 94)
233. TVeatment option for keratoconus includes - a) Reis- bucklers comeal dystrophy
a) Spectacles (PGINov 09, June 08) b) Endothelial dystrophy of fuchs
b) Contact lens c) Hunters disease
c) Kerotoplasty d) Hurler’s disease
d) LASIK 247. The central nebular corneal opacity is easily treated
e) IOL with- (DPGEE 08)
234. IVue about keratoconus - (PGI June 04) a) Lamellar keratoplasty
a) T curvature of cornea b) Astigmatism b) Penetrating keratoplasty
c) K.F. ring seen d) Thick cornea c) Gas permeable contact lens
e) Soft contact lens used d) Soft contact lens

223) c 224) b 225)a,b,c,e 226) a 227) c 228) a 229) a 230) d 231)d 232)a,b,d 233)a,b,c 234) a,b 235) d
236) a 237) d 238) d 239) b 240) a 241) b 242) a 243) a 244)a,b,c,e 245) d 246) a 247) a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 902 ]

248. 0.1 to 0.2 mm nebular corneal opacity is treated by - 260. Enlarged corneal nerves may be seen in all of the
a) Penetrating keratoplasty (AMU 05) following except- (AI 05)
b) Lamellar keratoplasty a) Keratoconus b) Herpes simplex keratitis
c) Enucleation c) Leprosy d) Neurofibromatosis
d) Evisceration 261. Prominent corneal nerves are seen in all
249. A 20 year student has a myopia of -2.0D and a post except- (Manipal 09)
traumatic nebular corneal opacity in her right eye. a) Ectodermal dysplasia b) Ichythyosis
Which of the following is the best refractive surgery c) Refsum’s syndrome d) Macular dystrophy
option for her? (AIIMS Nov 04) 262. Pigment deposition on cornea seen in -(PGI Dec 0 7)
a) Photorefractive keratectomy b)LASIK a) Chloroquine b)Digoxin
c) Radial keratotomy d) Epikeratoplasty
c) Ranitidine d) Amiodarone
250. Photophthalmia is seen with - (AI95)
263. A patient on amiodarone is diagnosed to have
a) Ultraviolet rays b) Infra red rays
cornea verticillate. What should be management-
c) Gamma rays d) X-rays
251. Snow blindness is caused by - (AI 97) a) Stop the drug b) Penetrating keratoplasty
a) Ultravoilet rays b) Infrarads c) Lamellar keratoplasty d) Observation
c) Microwaves d) Defect in mirror e) Steroids (PGI Nov. 10)
252. Treatment of photophthalmia includes-fPG/ May 10) 264. A 28 year old male complains of glare in both eyes.
a) Irrigation with saline water The cornea shows whorl like opacities of the
b) Padding & Bandaging epithelium. He also gave a history of long term
c) Cold compresses treatment with amiodarone. The most likely
d) Lubricant eyedrop diagnosis is - (Corned 08)
e) Analgesics a) Terrain’s marginal degeneration
253. Treatment for photophthalmia- (PGI01) b) Cornea verticillata
a) Flush with saline b) Apply pad and bandage c) Band shaped keratophathy
c) Topical antibiotics d) Steroid eye drops d) Arcus juvenalis
e) Reassurance 265. Dellen is - (Manipal 06)
254. In human corneal transplantation, the donor tissue a) Localized thinning of peripheral cornea
is- (AIIMS May 05) b) Raised lesions in comeo limbal junction
a) Synthetic polymer c) Age related macular degeneration
b) Donated human cadaver eyes d) Marginal keratitis
c) Donated eyes from live human beings 266. Megalocornea is associated with A/E - (Punjab 11)
d) Monkey eyes a) Down syndrome b) Turner syndrome
255. Which of the following statements regarding
c) Marfan syndrome d) Ehler danlos syndrome
corneal transplantation is true - (AI 10)
267. Topical antiviral drugs not indicated in -(PGI Dec 04)
a) Whole eye needs to be preserved in tissue culture
a) Dendritic ulcer
b) Donor not accepted if age > 60 years
b) Metaherpetic ulcer
c) Specular microscopy analysis is used to assess
c) Stromal necrotizing keratitis
endothelial cell count
d) HLA matching is mandatory d) Neuroparalytic keratitis
256. For transplatation cornea is preserved \n-(AUMS 95) e) Disciform keratitis
a) Modified MK medium b) Glycerine medium SCLERA
c) Wet medium d) None of the above
257. Signs of graft rejection are all except - (PGI 05) 268. Sclera is thinnest at - (AIIMS Nov 09, May 09,
a) Krachmer spots b) Khodadoust line a) Limbus Corned 08)
c) Oedema d) Epithelial line b) Equator
e) Foster spot c) Anterior to attachment of superior rectus
258. What is percentatage of endothelial cell loss during d) Posterior to attachment of superior rectus
Descemet’s stripping automated endothelial 269. Staphlyoma involvement - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
keratoplasty - (AIIMS Nov 11) a) Iris with conjunctiva .
a) 0 -5% b) 10-20% b) Conjunctiva with cornea
c) 30-40% d)50-60% c) Choroid with retina
transplantation, most common d) Iris with cornea
infection occur - (NEET/DNB Pattern) 270- Most common cause of posterior staphyloma -
• ■: ■ ■ a) Trauma b) Glaucoma (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Myopia d) Scleritis

248) b 249) a 250)a 251)a 252)b,c,d,e 253)b,c,e 254)b 255)c 256)a 257)e 258)c 259)a 260)b 261)d
262) a,d 263) a 264) b 265) a 266) b 267) b,c 268) d 269) d 270) c
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 903 ]

271. Blue sclera is seen in -

a) Alkaptonuria ...with arthritis-fAZLUSDec 98, NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Osteogenesis imperfecta ||| Ankylosing spondylitis^ b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Ehler - Danlos syndrome
d) Kawasaki syndrome 283. Uveitis is associated most commonly with - (ABMSMay
272. The most common systemic association of scleritis
a) Rheumatoid arthritis b) Systemic JRA 02)
is- (AIIMSNov 05)
a) Ehlers - Danlos syndrome c) Pauciarticular JRA d) Polyarticular JRA
b) Disseminated systemic sclerosis 284. Iridocyclitis is a feature of - (AIIMSDec 97)
c) Rheumatiod arthritis a) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis with systemic
d) Giant cell arteritis involvement
273. In scleritis all are true except- (Manipal 09) b) Seropositive, pauciarticular, juvenile rheumatoid
a) Scleromalacia perforans are more commonly arthritis
associated with systemic diseases than posterior c) Seronegative pauciarticular juvenile rheumatoid
scleritis arthritis
b) Pain is not a prominent feature d) Seropositive, polyarticular juvenile rheumatoid
c) Retinal detachment is a known complication arthritis
d) Glaucoma is a known complication 285. Pauciarticular JRA is characterised by all except -
a) Uveitis b) Scleritis (AIIMS Dec 98)
UVEALTRACT c) Cataract d) Keratopathy
286. Signs of uveitis - (PGI June 07)
274. Circulus iridis major is seen at - (AIIMSDec 91) a) Generalized conjunctival congestion
a) Ciliary body b) Root of iris b) Circumciliary congestion
c) Colaretteofiris d) Pupillary margin of iris c) Cells and flare in aqueous
275. Granulomatous uveitis is seen in -(PGI Nov. 10) 287. Anterior uveitis is characterized by A/E -
a) Vogt- Koyanagi - Harada disease a) Aqueons flare (AIIMS Jun 97)
b) Fuch’s disease b) Shallow anterior chamber
c) Bechet’s syndrome c) Circumcomeal cangestion
d) Sarcoidosis d) Miosis
e) Psoariasis 288. Pupil in acute attack of Ant. Uveitis is-
276. All are causes of chronic granulomatous uveitis a) Semidilated (AIIMS Dec 95)
except- (UP 07) b) Large and fixed
a) Sarcoidosis c) Irregular & constricted
b) Tuberculosis d) Constricted & sluggish reacting
c) Brucellosis 289. In acute anterior uveitis, pupil is - (AIIMSMay 93)
d) Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis a) Oval b) Circular
277. Chorioretinitis is caused by - (PGIDec 06) c) Small, irregular d) Any of the above
a) Toxoplasmosis b)CMV 290. The type of synechiae in iris bombe is -
c) Rubella d) Oncocerca volvulus a) Ring b) Totaled/ 94, AIIMS 90)
e) Adeno virus c) Goniform d) Filiform
278. Uveitis is caused by - (PGI June 04) 291. Mutton fat keratic precipitates are not seen in -
a) T.B b) Staphylococcus a) Tuberculosis (Manipal 09)
c) Streptococcus d) Klebsiella b) Fuch's heterochromia cyclitis
e) [Link] c) Sarcoidosis
279. Uveitis is seen in all except - (CMC 05) d) Fungal infection
a) Leprosy b)Ankylosing spondylitis 292. Pathognomic sign of Acute Iridocyclitis is - (UP 08)
c) Sarcoidosis d) Reiter’s syndrome a) Aquous flare b) Keratic precipitates
280. A10 yr boy present with b/1 chronic uveitis. Which c) Small pupil d) All of the above
investigation should be ordered - (PGIMay 10)
a) Hemogram b) X-ray of sacroiliac jt.
c) HIV test d) Mantoux test
281. The investigation of anterior uveitis of a young
boy are - (PGIDec 03, June 03)
a) HLAB27 b) X-ray sacroiliac joint
c) TORCH agents d) ELISA for HIV
e) USG abdomen

271)b,c 272)c 273)b 274)b 275)a,d 276)d 277)a,b,c,d 278)a,b,c 279)None 280)d 281)a,b 282)a 283)c
284) c 285) b 286) b,c 287) b 288) c,d 289) c 290) a 291) b 292) b 293) b 294) b
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 904 ]

295. Which of the following indicates activity of ant 303. What is the most common complication in
uveitis - ^ (NEET/DNB i Pattern) recurrent anterior uveitis - (AlIMSMay 93)
a) Cells in anterior chamber a) Staphyloma b) Glaucoma
b) Circumcomeal congestion c) Cataract d) Vitreal haemorrhage
v. V c) Keratic precipitate • • . 304. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
d) Comeal edema • , pthisis bulbi ? (AI 2006)
296. Ali are seen in acute Iridocyclitis except (PGA June 2K) a) The intraocular pressure is increased
a) Pain b) Ciliary congestion b) Calcification of the lens is common
c) Mucopurulent discharge d) Small pupil c) Sclera is thickened
297. A patient has miotic pupil, IOP=25, normal anterior d) Size of the globe is reduced
chamber, hazy cornea and a shallow anterior chamber Metamorphopsia is seen in M (JJEET/DNB pattern)
in fellow eye. Diagnosis is - (AlIMSMay 01, June 99, a Anterior uveitis b Posterior uveitis
a) Acute anterior uveitis AI01) 1^--Apataradfl I ? d)Glau<#ma :
b) Acute angle closure glaucoma onPattern)
c) Acute open angle glaucoma a) Cornea b). Conjunctiva
d) Senile cataract _ s
7, ■ ■ . . d
... )Retina
298. Lallo, 25 yr old man, presented with h/o of pain, 307.
.. ....
redness & watering of left eye for last 1 day. There | is seep to - (APPG 06| NEET/BNB Pattern}
is also intolerance to light. Most probable diagnosis
is- (AIIMSNov 00) b) Non-granulomatous uveitis
a) Keratitis
b) Acute anterior uveitis
c) Acute posterior uveitis 308. " .Snow banking is typically seen jiH
d) Epidemic kerato conjunctivitis §Sm *- - - ->— ®—
299. A 25 - year old male gives a history of redness, pain c) Coat’s disease d)Eale’sdis£
and mild diminution of vision in one eye for past 3 309. Commonest complication of pars
[Link] is also a history of low backache for the
past one year. On examination there is circumcomeal
congestion, cornea is clear apart form a few fine 310. Panuveitis involves - (AMU 95)
keratic precipitates on the corneal endothelium, a) Iris b) Choroid
there are 2+ cells in the anterior chamber and the c) Iris, ciliary body, choroid d) None
intraocular pressure is within normal limits. The 311. Treatment of choice for acute anterior uveitis is -
patient is most likely suffering from - a) Local steroids b) Systemic steroid
a) Acute attack of angle closure glaucoma c) Local NS AIDS d) Systemic NS AIDS
b) HLA B -27 related anterior uveitis(AIIMS May 04) 312. Atropine is drug of choice in - (AIIMS Dec 92)
c) JRA associated uveitis a) Chorioretinitis b) Lens induced glaucoma
d) Herpetic keratitis c) Iridocyclitis d) Close angle glaucoma
300. A 25 year old lady presents with severe sudden onset 313. Drug of choice for acute iridocyclitis is-(DPGFeb 09)
of pain, corneal congestion, photophobia and deep a) Steroids b)Acetazolamide
anterior chamber in the right eye. The left eye is c) Atropine d) Antibodies
normal. X-ray pelvis shows sacroilitis. The diagnosis 314. Primary objective of use of atropine in anterior
is- (AlIMSMay 01) uveitis - (AIIMS June 00)
a) Anterior uveitis b) Posterior uveitis a) Rest to the ciliary muscle
c) Intermediate uveitis d)Scleritis b) Increase supply of antibody
301. In patients with anterior uveitis, decrease in vision c) Increase blood flow
due to posterior segment involvement can occur d) Prevents posterior synechia formation
because of - (AIIMS May 12) 315. Mainstay of treatment of uveitis - (Jipmer 11)
a) Visual floaters a) Antibiotics and cycloplegics
b) Inflammatory disc edema b) Steroids and cycloplegics
c) Exudative retinal detachment c) Antibiotics and steroids
d) CME d) Surgery
302. Complication of acute anterior uveitis are all 316. In a case of hypertensive uveitis, most useful drug to
EXCEPT- (AIIMS June 98) reduced intraocular pressure is - (AI 02)
a) Secondary glaucoma b) Cataract a) Pilocarpine b) Latanosprost
c) Retinal detachment d) Macular oedema c) Physostigmine d) Dipiveffine

295) a 296) c 297)a 298)a 299)b 300)a 301)d 302)c 303)c 304)a 305)b 306)c 307)a 308)a
309) b 310)c 311) a 312)c 313)a 314)a 315)b 316)d
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 905 ]

317. Uveitis with raised intraocular tension is best 329. In heterochromic cyclitis - (Manipal 09)
managed by - (AIIMSJune 97) a) 60% of patients develop glaucoma
a) Timolol b) Atropine b) Show a good response when treated with steroids
c) Pilocarpine d) Steroid c) Lens implantation following cataract surgery is
318. Drug of choice for increased IOT in acute anterior contraindicated
uveitis - (A1IMS Dec 97) d) Hyphaema during cataract surgery is due to iris
a) Atropine b) Timolol neovascularization
c) 5% Epinephrine d) 2% Pilocarpine 330. True about heterochromic uveitis- (NEET/DNB
319. In anterior uveitis with secondary glaucoma, all a) Involves posterior surface of iris Pattern)
mydriatics can be given, except - (AlIMSMay 94)
a) Pilocarpine b) Homatropine c) Involves posterior chamber
c) Epinephrine d) Tropicamide d) P^sSiiJf syriechiae HE
320. Anterior uveitis in hypertensive patient, Drug 331. A young patient presents to the ophthalmic outpatient
of choice to decrease IOP - (AIIMSJune 00) department with gradual blurring of vision in the
a) Lanatoprost b) Pilocarpine left eye. Slit lamp examination reveals fine stellate
c) Epinephrine d) Timolol keratatic precipitates and aqueous flare and a typical
321. Which should not be used in raised IOT associated complicated posterior subcapsular cataract. No
with uveitis - (PGI June 99) posterior synechiae were observed. The most likely
a) Timolol b) Pilocarpine diagnosis is - (AI 12)
c) Atropine d)Acetazolamide • a) Intermediate Uveitis (Pars Plants)
322. All the following drugs are used in acute anterior b) Heerfordt’s disease
uveitis except - (AI95) c) Heterochromic Iridocyclitis of Fuch’s
a) Pilocarpine b) Atropine d) Subacute Iridocyclitis
c) Timolol d) Propranolol 332. Skin depigmentation b/1 uveitis and tinitus are
323. All are given in anterior uveitis except -(Manipal 08) features of - (AIIMS June 98)
a) Pilocarpine b) Atropine a) Vogt Koyanagi harada syndrome
c) Cyclophosphamide d) Corticosteroids b) Waadenberg Syndrome
324. Drug of choice of choroiditis is - (AIIMS Dec 90) c) Alport Syndrome
a) Cycloplegic (atropine) b) Analgesic d) Werner’s Syndrome
c) Steroid d)Antibotic 333. The Uveitis associated with vitiligo & auditory
325. Endop hthalmitis involves inflammation of all of the defects occurs in - (AIIMS June 98)
following, Except - (AI 10) a) Bechet’s syndrome
a) Sclera b)Uvea b) Steven’s Johnson syndrome
c) Retina d) Vitreous c) Vogt- Koyanagi syndorme
326. Late onset endothalmitis after lens implantation is d) Ankylosing - spondylitis
caused by- (AI 11) 334. Vogt Koyanagi - Harada (VKH) syndrome is-(NEET/
a) Staphylococcus epidermidis a) Chronic granulomatous uveitis DNB Pattern)
b) Pseudomonas b) Chronic non-granulomatous uveitis
c) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Acute purulent uveitis
d) Propionibacterium acne
327. A 60-year old diabetic patient has an uneventful 335. In which of the following, intraocular pressure is
phacoemulsification with IOL implantation. He very high and inflammation is minimum? (MH10)
presented with pain, diminution of vision, redness, a) Acute iridocyclitis
watering and a grayish yellow pupillary reflex on b) Glaucomatocyclic crises
the third postoperative day. Examination revealed c) Angle closure glaucoma
circumcorneal congestion, aqueous cells 4+, hypopyon d) Hypertensive uveitis
in the anterior chamber with posterior synechinae 336. All the following are true regarding acute anterior
and retrolental flare. The most likely diagnosis is- uveitis in ankylosing spondylitis EXCEPT -
a) Keratitis b) Glaucoma a) More common in female (SGPGI05)
c) Endophthalmitis d) Postoperative cyclitis b) Recurrent attacks occur
328. Uveal effusion syndrome may be associated with all c) Fibrous reaction in anterior chambers
of the following, Except - (AI 09) d) Narrowing of joint spaces and sclerosis of the
a) Myopia sacroiliac joints
b) Ciliochoroidal detachment 337. Drug of choice for Herpes simplex Enophthalmitis is-
c) Structural defect in Sclera a) Acyclovir b) Vidarabine (UPSC 05)
d) Nanophthalmos c) Amantidine d) Interferon

17) d 318) b 319) a 320)d 321)b 322)a 323)a 324)c 325)a 326)d 327)c 328)a 329)d 330)b
331)c 332) a 333)c 334)a 335)b 336)a 337)a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 906 ]

338. Histological changes in lens induced uveitis 351. Cataract is caused by all except - (PGI Dec 01)
include- (Manipal 09) a) Ultraviolet radiation b)MRI
a) Ghost cells b) Giant cell reaction c) Infrared radiation d) Microwave radiation
c) Amyloid in the cornea d) Vasculitis e) Ionizing radiation
339. Choroidal neurovascularization is seen in all 352. Cataract is seen in following except -
except - (AIIMS May 08) a) Gluocorticoid administration (AIIMS May 95)
a) Trauma b) Angiod streak b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Myopia d)Hypermetropia c) Hypoparathyroidism
d) Galactosemia
340. Drug used in LUMINATE programme for non-
353. All are causes of cataract except - (Manipal 08,
infectious uveitis is - (AIIMS Nov 11)
a) Smoking b) Diabetes mellitus MAHE07)
a) Cyclosporine b) Voclosporin c) Hypertension d) Epilepsy
c) Methotrexate d) Infliximab 354. All are causes of cataract except - (Manipal 08)
a) Galactosemia b) Neurofibromatosis
LENS c) Myotonic dystrophy d) Fabrey’s disease

341. Equatorial diameter of the lens is - (J&K2001)

a) 7mm b)8mm f§ Cataract || b) Cataract ifrG^qtoslmia
c) 9mm d)10mm
342. Lens contains the oldest cells in - (AIIMSMay 02) loss mm which
a) Nucleus |g|Sj|l ,^0PMT/D^B Paiterfp
b) Anterior surface of lens ijs^lfecfeif^bnular c&taract §f8
c) Posterior surface of lens
d) Nucleo- cortical junction d) Posterior polar cataract
357. Most common cataract in new born is - (PGIDec 98)
343. The capsule of the crystalline lens is thinnest at -
a) Zonular b) Morganian
a) Anterior pole b) Posterior pole (UP08)
c) Ant. Polar d) Post. Polar
c) Equator d)None
cataract
344. The crystalline lens derives its nourishment from - is- ' (AIIMS June 91, NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Blood vessels (AIIMSMay 06)
b) Connective tissue c) Corailiform d) Blue dot
c) Aqueous and vitreous 359. Commonest type of cataract is- (PGI Dec 98)
d) Zonules a) Blue dot b) Zonular
345. The major function of Major Intrinsic Protein 26 c) Cupuliform d) Cuneiform
(MIP-26) is - (AI08) 360. Congenital cataract commonly associated with visual
a) Glucose transport in lens defect- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Transport of water in lens a) Punctate Cataract b) Blue dot cataract
c) Diffusion barrier - * c).Zonular cataract d)Fusiformcataract
d) Capsule of lens 361. An infant present with bilateral white pupillary
346. Which does not handle free radicals inside reflex. On slit lamp examination a zone of opacity
lens - (AIIMS May 10, 07, May 08, AI07) is observed arround the fetal nucleus with spoke
like radial opacities. The most likely diagnosis is-
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin C
a) Cataracto Centralis Pulverulenta (AI 12)
c) VitaminE d) Catalase
b) Lamellar cataract
347. Transport of Ascorbic acid to lens is done by -(AI 07) c) Coronary cataract
a) Myoinositol b) Choline d) Posterior polar cataract
c) Taurine d) Na-K ATP ase 362. Rider’s cararact is seen in - (AI 91)
348. Commonest cause of cataract -(PGI June 04, Dec 05) a) Blue dot cataract b) Zonular cataract
a) Hereditary b) DM c) Anterior capsular cataract d) Coronary cataract
c) Trauma d) Age related 363. A child has got a congenital cataract involving the
e) Radiation visual axis which was detected by the parents right
349. Causes of cataract - (PGI May 10) at birth. This child should be operated -
a) Infrared b) Microwaves a) Immediately (DPG10, AI 03)
c) UV rays d) Obesity b) At 2 months of age
350. Cataract can be caused by - (PGIDec 06) c) At 1 year of age when the globe becomes normal sized
a) HypoCa2+ b) Obesity d) After 4 years when entire ocular and orbital growth
c) Steroids c) Chloroquine becomes normal

338)b 339)d 340)b 341)d 342)a 343)b 344)c 345)b 346)a 347)?>d 348)d 349)a,b,c,d 350)a,b,c,d
351) b 352) b 353)d 354)d 355)b 356)a 357)a 358)d 359)d 360)c 361)b 362)b 363)a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 907 ]

364. A two week old child presents with unilateral 374. Second sight phenomenon is seen in - (77V03)
cataract. Which of the following statement a) Nuclear cataract b) Cortical cataract
represents the best management advice - (A104) c) Senile cataract d) Iridocyclitis
a) The best age to operate him to get the best visual 375C'^?^^le^^te'^a'ct;cab cause *(NEEf01^iPciit&tii)l
results is four weeks M ^b)'TTyperopki Afffe
b) The best age to operate him to get the best visual \giif
results is four months 376. Uniocular polyopia is seen in which stage of cataract-
c) The best age to operate him to get the best visual a) Incipient b) Itumescent (AP 97)
results is four years c) Mature d) Hypermature
d) The eye is already lost, only cosmetic correction 377. The most common complication of hypermature
is required sclerotic cataract is - (ARMSMay 01)
365. To avoid amblyopia, congenital cataract should be a) Dislocation of the lens
ideally operated within the age of- (MH11) b) Phakomorphic glaucoma
a) 6 weeks b) 6 months c) Uveitis
c) 12 months d) 24 months d) Neovascularization of retina
366. Treatment of choice in a new born child with 378. Which type of senile cataract is notorious for
cataract - (PG1 June 08) glaucoma formation - (ARMS June 00)
a) ICCE b) Pars plana lansectomy a) Incipient cataract b) Hypermature morgagni
c) EGCE d) Vitrectomy c) Intumescent cataract d) Nuclear cataract
e) Aspiration 379. Fluctuating refractive errors with cataract are
367. Treatment of choice for congenital cataract is - seen in - (ARMS June 92)
a) Pharmacotherapy (DPGMar. 09) a) Morgagnian cataract b) Diabetic cataract
b) Combined cataract surgery and Goniotomy c) Intumescent cataract d) Traumatic cataract
c) Cataract surgery with IOL implant and primary 380. Cataract in a diabetic patients is because of
posterior capsulotomy accumulation of sorbital in lens. The enzyme
d) Pars plana lensectomy with no IOL implant responsible for this is - (ARMS Nov 99)
368. Treatment of congenital cataract is - (PGIDec97) a) Hexokinase
a) Needing and aspiration b) NADPH+ dependant aldolase reductase
b) Intracapsular extraction c) Glucokinase
c) Extracapsular extraction d) Phosphofructo isomerase
d) Cryotherapy 381. Typical appearance of diabetic cataract is-
369. Treatment of paediatric cataract - (PG1 June 04)
a) Needle aspiration r;: b) ;Br|adcrumb'' typen^^^^^NEEl^NjB^ Pattern)
b) Discission
c) Intra- ocular lens implantation
d) Lensectomy 382. Polychromatic lusture is seen m~(NEET/DNB Pattern)
e) Phacoemulsification a) Complicated cataract b)Diabetes mellitus A!04)
370. The biochemistry of cataract formation is - (UP 0 7) c) Post radiation cataract d) Congenital cataract
a) Hydration intumescence 383. Polychromatic Lustre is seen in - (ARMS Sep 96)
b) Denaturation of lens proteins a) Posterior cortical cataract
c) Slow sclerosis b) Zonular cataract
d) All of the above c) Cupuliform cataract
371. Which morphological type of cataract is most d) Posterior subcapsular
visually handicapping ? (ARMS Nov 02) 384. Clinical features of complicated cataract are all,
a) Cortical b) Nuclear EXCEPT- (ARMS Dec 91)
c) Posterior subcapsular d) Zonular a) Polychromatic lusture
372. Good vision in dim light and clusmy in day lights b) Axial spread of opacity
seen in- (PGI DEC 98) c) Opacity along sutures
a) Cortical cataract b) Morgagnian cataract d) Posterior subcapsular opacity
c) Nuclear cataract d) Steroid induced cataract 385. Causes of anterior polar cataract - (PGI June 09,07)
373. A 55 year old patient complains of decreased distance a) DM b) Perforating corneal injury
vision. However, now he does not require his near c) Irradiation d) Chalcosis
glasses for near work. The most likely cause is - 386. Steroid induced cataract is - (AI96)
a) Posterior subcapsular cataract (AI1MS Nov 05) a) Posterior subcapsular cataract
b) Zonular cataract b) Anterior subcapsular cataract
c) Nuclear sclerosis c) Nuclear cataract
d) Anterior subcapsular cataract d) Cupuliform cataract

364) a 365) a 366)c>b,d,e 367) c 368) c 369)c,d,e 370) a,b 371)c 372)a,c,d 373) c 374) a 375) a 376) a
377) a 378) c 379)b 380)b 381)d 382)a 383)a 384)c 385)b 386)a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 908 ]

387. Sunflower type cataract is characteristically seen 400. Method followed to decrease post-op infection in
in - (A197, NEET/DNB Pattern) cataract surgery - (PGI 96)
a) Chalcosis b) Diabetes a) Pre-op antibiotics
c) Stragardt’s disease d) Congenital syphilis b) Intra op antibiotics
388. Sunflower cataract is seen in - (A194) c) Post op subconjuctival gentamicin injection
a) Hypertension b) Diabetes d) Post op IV antibiotics
c) Trauma d) SLE 401. Which of the following is the most important factor
389. Sun flower cataract is seen in - (AIIMSMay 95) in the prevention of the endophthalmitis in cataract
a) Galactosemia surgery? (AIIMSMay 06)
b) Injuries a) Preoperative preparation with povidone iodine
c) Laurence Moon Biedel syndrome b) One week antibiotic therapy prior to surgery
d) Wilson’s disease c) Trimming of eyelashes
390* Christmastree y/i d) Use of intravitreal antibiotics
(PGI June 99, NEET/DNB Pattern) 402. Postcataract infection can be prevented by -
a) Preop oral antibiotics (PGI May 10)
b) Postop oral antibiotics
391. Rubella cataract is seen as - (COMED09) c) Intraop IV antibiotics
a) Posterior polar cataract b) Nuclear cataract d) Postop topical antibiotics
c) Blue dot cataract in young d) Cuneiform cataract 403. Extra capsular cataract extraction (ECCE) is -
392. Rosette cataract seen in ? (APPG 08, MH11) a) Posterior capsulectomy only (AIIMS May 94)
a) Ocular trauma b) Diabetes b) Lens extracted with posterior capsule left behind
c) Wilsons d)None c) Posterior capsulectomy with no lens removal
393. Hypovitaminosis - D causes - (MAHE07) d) Anterior capsulectomy with no lens removal
a) Zonular cataract b) Blue - Dot cataract 404. All are indications of intracapsular cataract
c) Rosette cataract d) Cupliform cataract extraction except - (PGI June 98)
394. Most common type of cataract following radiation a) Mature cataract in age group above 45 years
is- (PGI93) b) Immature cataract
a) Posterior subcapsular b) Anterior subcapsular c) Subluxated and dislocated lens
c) Tear drop cataract d) Diffuse cataract d) Mature cataract in age group of 30-45 years
395. Spontaneous absorption of lenticular material is 405. The standard sutureless cataract surgery done with
seen in - {Corned08) phaco- emulsificaton and foldable IOL has an incision
a) Myotonic dystrophy of- (AIIMS Nov 2002)
b) Hallermann Streiff syndrome a) 1mm-1.5mm b) 2mm-2.5mm
c) Aniridia c) 3mm-3.5mm d) 3.5mm -4.5mm
d) Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous 406. Phacoemulsification includes - (PGIJune 08)
396. In preoperative assessment of cataract patient a) Hydrodissection
following is to be done - (PGI Dec 05; PGI Dec 03) b) Hydrodelineation
a) Axial length of eyeball b) Corneal thickness c) Continuous curvilinear capsular incision
c) Keratometry d) Thickness of the lens d) IOL
e) Corneal curvature e) Aspiration of lens matter
397. Cataract is evaluated by - (PGI June 03) 407. Recovery in cataract surgery is fastest with which
a) Gonioscopy b) Tonometry of the following - (Mahara 02)
c) Stereoacuity d) Contrast a) ICCE b)ECCE
e) Clour vision c) Phacoemulsification d) ECCE with ICI
398. Power of Intraocular lens is determined by? 408. The best irrigating fluid during ECCE is -
a) Keratometry (APPG 08) a) Ringer lactate (AIIMS May 02)
b) Retinoscopy b) Normal saline
c) Ophthalmoscopy c) Balanced salt solution
d) Gonioscopy/Biometry d) Balanced salt solution + glutathione
399. Infective complication in cataract operation can 409. Which of the following instrument is NOT used in
be decreased by - (PGI 01) intracapsular extraction of lens - (AIIMS Jun 98)
a) Antibiotic eye drops a) Cryo b) Elschning’s forceps
b) Intracamarel instillation of antibiotics at the end c) Phaco-emulsifier d) Van-graefe’s cataract knife
of the operation 410. In Cataract, spectacles are advised for following
c) Intraoperative antibiotics number of weeks after operation - (AI9 7)
d) Preoperative antibiotics a) 6 weeks b) 10 weeks
e) Post operative oral antibiotics c) 12 weeks d) 14 weeks

387) a 388) c 389)d 390)c 391)b 392)a 393)a 394)a 395)b 396)a,c,e 397)a,b,d,e 398)a 399)a,b,c,d
400)a,b 401)a 402)d 403)b 404)c>a,b 405)c 406)A11 407)c 408)d 409)c 410)a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 909 ]

411. Whichisnota cataract Hnrgeryr(NEET/DMB Pattern) 423. A 56 year old patient presents after 3 days of cataract
surgery with a history of increasing pain and
c) Phacoemulsification ,. ^d) IOL diminution of vision after an initial improvement.
412. Treatment of traumatic cataract in children - The most likely cause would be - (ARMS Nov 03)
a) Endophthalmitis
| lllti c) €opitact lens Mattefy) b) After cataract
413. Most appropriate position for intraocular implant c) Central retinal vein occlusion
in extracapsular extraction is - d) Retinal detachment
a) Capsular (PGI June 01, AIIMS 94; June 97) 424. A 60 years old male patient operated for cataract 6
b) Posterior chamber
months back now complains of floaters and sudden
c) Anterior chamber
loss of vision. The diagnosis is - (AIIMS May 01)
d) Any of the above
a) Vitreous hemorrhage
414. Best site for IOL implantation-fZJPG Feb. 09, PGI 01)
b) Retinal detachment
a) Iris b) Capsular bag
c) Anterior chamber d) Sulcus c) Central retinal artery occlusion
415. Best IOL is - (PGI Dec 98) d) Cystoid macular edema
a) Ant chamber b) Post chamber 425. Common complications of IOL lens are except -
c) Iris supported d) Angle supported a) Corneal dystrophy (PGI June 00)
416. Intraocular lenses are made up of - (AIIMS June 01) b) Glaucoma
a) PMMA b) HEMA c) Anisocoria
c) Glass d) Plastic d) macular edema
417. Modern IOL is made up of - (PGI June 03) 426. In which of the follwoing uveitic conditions it is
a) Acrylic acid b) PMMA contraindicated to put in an intraocular lens after
c) PML d) Silicon cataract surgery ? (AI06)
e) Glass a) Fuch’s heterochromic cyclitis
418. Complications of cataract surgery - (PGI Dec 04) b) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
a) Endophthalmitis b) Optic neuropathy c) Psoriatic arthritis
c) Retinal detachment d) Vitreous loss d) Reiter’s syndrome
e) Lagophthalmos 427. Ring of Sommerring is seen in - (AIIMS May 94)
419. Leaving the capsule behind in cataract surgery is a) Galactosemia
advantageous because it - (PGI Dec 01) b) Dislocation of lens
a) Prevents cystoid macular edema c) Acute congestive glaucoma
b) Decreases endothelial damage d) After cataract
c) Progressively improves vision
428. Which laser is used in the management of after
d) Decreased chance of retinal detachement
cataracts- (AIIMS May 05; AIIMS May 93;
e) Decreased chance of endophthalmitis
a) Argon AIIMS Dec 92, NEET/DNB Pattern)
420. Advantages of extracapsular cataract extraction
h) Krypton
(ECCE)- (PGI Jun 01)
a) Less chance of vitreous h’ge & RD c) Nd-YAG
b) Decreased chances of CME (cystoid macular d) Kxeirrier
edema) 429. Laser used in cutting out cataract capsule
c) Can be used in traumatic lens dislocation is- (AIIMS Dec 91)
d) Minimal endothelial damage a) Nd: YAG laser b) Argon laser
e) Sutureless surgery c) DYE laser d) Diode
421. Most common complication of extracapsular cataract 430. In posterior capsular cataract, treatment
surgery is - (PGI 95) is- (AIIMS May 94)
a) Retinal detachment a) Krypton Laser b) Nd - YAG Laser
b) Opacification of posterior capsule c) Argon Laser d) C02 Laser
c) Vitreous haemorrhage 431. A patient presents to the emergency department
d) None with uniocular diplopia. Examination with oblique
422. The complication of extra capsular extraction of lens illumination shows golden crescent while
is- (PGI June 97) examination with co-axial illumination show a dark
a) Cystoid macular oedema crescent line. Which of the following is the most
b) Opacification of capsule likely diagnosis - (AI 12)
c) Iritis a) Lenticonus b) Coloboma
d) Glaucoma c) Microspherophakia d) Ectopia lentis

411)b 412)a 413)a,b 414)b 415)b 416)a 417)a,b,d 418)a,c,d 419)a,b,d,e 420)a,b,d,e 421)b 422)a,b,c,d
423) a 424) b 425) c 426) b i 427) d 428) c 429) a 430) b 431)d
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 910 ]

43’2;,iDisldcati^niofiI^a$ is seen<iii^UfthefQllow[ng 445. Which of the following is primary glaucoma -

h . conditions except - (AI2000, NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Juvenile glaucoma (PGIDec 08)
<} r March^%^^d|o^ b) Steriod induced glaucoma
i S^Ho®^ystiiii^|aj; jgtjj c) Pigmentary glaucoma
433. Ectopia lentis is seen in - (PGINov. 10) d) Congenital glaucoma
a) Marfan’s syndrome b) Congenital rubella e) Infantile glaucoma
c) Homocystinuria d) Sulfite oxidase deficiency 446. Ratio of incidence of open angle to closed angle
e) Myotonic dystrophy
glaucoma is - (DPG Feb. 09, PGI 93)
434. Eye lens dislocation seen in - (PGIDec 06)
a) 1:1 b) 2:1
a) Marfan’s sydrome b) Homocystinuria
c) Down’s syndrome d) Klinefelter syndrome c) 3:1 d)4:l
435. Dislocation of lens is seen in - (PGI June 98) 447. Rapid change of presbyopic glass is a feature of -
a) Trachoma b) Diabetes mellitus a) Senile cataract b) Retinal detatchment
c) Homocystinuria d) Turner’s syndrome c) Intumescent cataract d) Open angle glaucoma
436. Typically bilateral inferior subluxations of the lens 448. Open angle glaucoma causes - (COMED09)
is seen in - (AI06) a) Sudden loss of vision
a) Marfan’s syndrome b) Homocystinuria b) Difficulty in dark adaptation
c) Hyperinsulinemia d) Ocular trauma c) Amaurosis fiigax
437. In Mafan’s syndrome lens dislocation is commonly d) Uniocular diplopia
seen- {Corned 07) 449. In POAG (primary open angle glaucoma) which is
a) Upwards b) Downwards not seen - (PGIDec 06)
c) Supero-temporally d) Nasally a) Horizontal cupping
438.. ‘^enssuW^ (NEET/DNB b) Bayonetting sign (crossing of vessels)
. 7 aj Inferotempc^lpf|5^^^^^^W^^^lf^ c) Macular oedema
d) Dot sign
439. Traumatic dislocation of lens is diagnosed by - 450. Early sign of glaucoma includes following
a) Direct ophthalmoscopy (DPG Feb. 09) except- (PGI97)
b) Indirect ophthalmoscopy a) Nerve fibre atrophy b) Splinter hemorrhage
c) Distant direct ophthalmoscopy c) Vertical cup d) Horizontal cup
d) Slit lamp examination 451. Earliest field defect in open angle glaucoma is -
440. Which prominent ocular manifestation is associated a) Contraction of the all isopters (UP08)
with Marfan’s syndrome - (AI 04) b) Enlarged blind spot
a) Microcomea b) Microspherophakia c) Nasal tip
c) Megalocomea d) Ectopia lentis d) Arcuate scotoma
441. Anterior lenticonus is found in - (AI 96) 452. Earliest visual field change in open angle glaucoma
a) Lowe’s syndrome b) William’s syndrome is- (AIIMS Dec 91)
c) Alport’s syndrome d) Down’s syndrome a) Paracentral scotoma b) Ring scotoma
442. Cataract associated with convulsion is seen in - c) Siedel’s scotoma d) Arcuate scotoma
a) Toxoplasmosis (AIIMS Dec 94) 453. Earliest field defect in primary open angle
b) Tay Sac's disease glaucoma- (AIIMSFeb 97)
c) Galactosemia a) Reidel’s scotoma
d) Birth asphyxia with prematurity b) Scotoma in Bjerrumns field
c) Arcuate scotoma
GLAUCOMA
d) Nasal spur
454. First sign seen in open angle glaucoma -
443. Regarding aqueous humor which one of them are
a) Arcuate scotoma (PGI June 00)
correct - (PGI June 02)
b) Extension above blind spot
a) It is secreted at rate of 2-3 microL/min
c) Roene’s nasal step
b) Secreted by ciliary process
d) Siedel’s scotoma
c) Has less protein than plasma
455. You have been referred a middle-aged patient to rule
d) Provides nutrition
e) Normal pressure is 5-15 mm Hg out open angle glaucoma. Which of the following
444. The conversion of C02 and H20 into carbonic acid findings will help in the diagnosis - (AI 02)
during the formation of aqueous humour is catalysed a) Cupping of the disc
by which one of the following enzymes- (AIIMS b) Depth of anterior chamber
a) Carboxylase b) Carbamylase May05) c) Visual acuity and refractive error
c) Carbonic anhydrase d) Carbonic deoxygenase d) Angle of the anterior chamber

432) a 433) a,c,d 434) a,b 435) c 436) b 437) c 438) b 439) d 440) d 441) c 442) c 443)a,b,c,d 444) c
445) a,d,e 446) None 447) d 448) b 449) a,c 450) d 451) a 452) a 453) b 454) b 455) a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [911]

456. In open Angle Glaucoma which investigation is least

useful- (AIIMS Sep 96)
a) Indirect opthalmoscopy b) Tonometry
c) Direct opthalmoscopy d) Perimetry
457. A 75-year old patient presents with deterioration of
vision. On examination the pupillary reflex is observed
to be sluggish and the Intraocular pressure is 469. Which one of the following procedures is most likely
normal. Optic disc evaluation shows a large and to increase intraocular pressure of glaucoma patient-
deep cup and primarily shows paracentral scotomas. a) Use of atropine (AIIMS 86)
The most likely diagnosis is - (AI 12) b) Decreased pressure in jugular vein
a) Primary Narrow Angle glaucoma
c) High does of vitamin C
b) Normal Tension Glaucoma
d) Dark environment
c) Neovascular Glaucoma
e) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.
d) Absolute Glaucoma
470. Which of the following is not a feature of Acute
458. Which of the following drugs is not used topically for
treatment of open angle glaucoma - (All India 06) congestive glaucoma - (PGI June 05)
a) Latanoprost b) Brimonidine a) Deep angle
c) Acetazolamide d) Dorzolamide b) Painful condition
459. Which one of the following is NOT used in c) Vertically oval pupil
glaucoma - (AIIMS May 04) d) Increased intraocular pressure
a) Timolol b)Physostigmine e) Non reactive pupil
c) Donepezil d) Dipivefrine

J |i§-;-0\Timolol Pattern)
b) Atropine
i itg y§ iiiiii ^ _____ ............
d) Prostaglandin analogue 472. A woman complains of coloured haloes around lights
461. Drug used in glaucoma is - (PGI June 9 7) in the evening, with nausea and vomiting, IOP is
a) Propranolol b) Atenolol normal Diagnosis is - (AI 01)
c) Timolol d) Pindolol a) Incipent stage glaucoma open angle
462. Topical beta blocker is the drug of choice of - b) Prodromal stage, closed angle glaucoma
a) Angle closure glaucoma (Karnataka 03) c) Migraine
b) Open angle glaucoma d) Cluster Headache
c) Hypopyon corneal ulcer 473. A patient presents with h/o evening halos and
d) Ac granulomatous uveitis occasional headache for some months. His
463. The first line of treatment of open angle glaucoma examination shows normal IOP but shallow AC. He
is in which stage of glaucoma - (AIIMSNov 09)
a) Acute b) Absolute
f,j5:U^“^Ejpinephrme, \1 c) Prodrome d) Constant instability
464. Most ideal drug in open angle glaucoma with
474. A patient has complaint of seeing coloured holoes in
myopia is- (UPSC 04)
the evening and blurring of vision for last few days
a) 2% pilocarpine b) 10% phenylephrine
with normal IOP - (AIIMS Nov 99)
c) 0.5% timolol d) Atropine
a) Prodromal phase of acute angle closure glaucoma
465. Argon Laser trabeculoplasty is done in - a)
Open angle glaucoma (Corned 08, AP 08) b) Acute angle closure glaucoma
b) Secondary glaucoma c) Chronic glaucoma
c) Angle recession glaucoma d) Epidemic dropsy
d) Angle closure glaucoma 475. Acute angle closure glaucoma - (PGI Dec 05)
466. All except one predispose to angle closure a) Colored halos present b) Flashes of light seen
glaucoma - (AIIMS Nov 00, NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Deep anterior chamber d) Vertically oval pupil
* a) Small cornea,' b) Flat cornea ~ ;, e) Increased IOP
,%£Shallo^yA^ , £: dVsjiortaxiallengtjtuyfeyeb|Jl; 476. Kusum lata presents with acute painful red eye and
467. True about primary angle closure glaucoma - mild dilated vertically oval pupil. Most likely
a) More common in females (PGINov 10) diagnosis is - (AI 02, AIIMS June 00)
b) Shallow anterior chamber is a risk factor a) Acute retrobulbar neuritis
c) Deep anterior chamber is a risk factor b) Acute angle closure glaucoma
d) Shorter diameter of cornea is a predisposing factor c) Acute anterior uveitis
e) Common in myopes d) Severe kerato- conjunctivitis

456) a 457) b 458) c 459) c 460) a 461) c 462) b 463) a 464) c 465) a 466) b 467)a,b,d 468) c 469) a,d
470) a 471) c 472) b 473) c 474) a 475)a,d,e 476) b
OPHTHALMOLOGY[912 ]

477. Mild dilated fixed pupil seen in - (AIIMS Dec 97) P8§ Drug of choice for acute congestive glaucoma is -
a) Acute congestive glaucoma a) 1-2% pilocarpine (ARMSDec 99, 94; AI 96,
b) Iridocyclitis b) Timolol NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Chronic congestive glaucoma c) Levobunanol
d) Open angle glaucoma
Li .
489. A 55 year old female comes to the eye casualty with
is- (PGJJune 97, NEET/DNBPattern) history of severe eye pain, redness and diminution
of vision. On examination the visual acuity is 6/60,
^rcidar ‘ " ^ 4)t§litJ|^ev,v”;r
there is circumcorneal congestion, corneal oedema
479. A 30 year old woman with sudden right- sided painful
and a shallow anterior chamber, Which of the
red eye associated with nausea, vomiting and
headache. The diagnosis is - (PGI June 99) following is the best drug of choice -(ARMS Nov 05)
a) Acute congestive glaucoma a) Atropin ointment
b) Endophthlmtis b) I.V. Mannitol
c) Eale’s disease c) Ciprofloxacin eye drops/
d) Trachoma d) Betamethasone eye drops
480. The most reliable provocative test for angle 490. Earliest drug used in acute angle closure
closure glaucoma - (ARMS 95) glaucoma - (AIIMS June 98)
a) Homatropine mydratic test a) Diamox b) Pilocarpine
b) Mydriatic - miotic test c) Atropine d)DFP
c) Water drinking test 491. The treatment of choice of angle closure glaucoma is-
d) Dark room test a) Parasympathomimetic drugs (SGPGI05)
481. In a case of acute attack of glaucoma Vogt’s triad b) Iridectomy
excludes - (ARMS Feb 97) c) Trabeculoplasty
a) Iris atrophy b) Goniosynechiae d) Timolol
c) Pigment dispersal d) Glaucoma floaters 492. Treatment of choice for the other eye in open angle
482. A 60 year male presented with the feature of coloured glaucoma is - (PGI June 97)
halos was examined with fincham’s test, which a) Tabeculectomy b) Laser iridotoomy
revealed that halos split and then reunion, Diagnosis c) Laser trabeculoplasty d) Peripheral iridectomy
is- (ARMS Dec 98) 493. The treatment of choice of fellow eye of acute angle
a) Acute congestive glaucoma closure glaucoma is - (ARMS Sept 96, Dec 94, June
b) Open angle glaucoma a) Pilocarpine 92, PGI June 02, Dec 97, 93)
c) Senile immature cataract b) Nd: YAG laser iridotomy
d) Mucopurulant conjunctivitis c) Peripheral iridectomy
483. Fincham’s test differentiates cataract from - d) Careful follow up
a) Conjunctivitis (ARMSDec 95) 494. Prophylactic peripheral iridectomy is done in -
b) Iridocyclitis a) Narrow angle glaucoma (PGIDec 97)
c) Open angle Glaucoma b) Ac. Congestive glaucoma
d) Ac. Congestive Glaucoma c) Congenital glaucoma
484. Drug used in acute congestive glaucoma are all d) Secondary glaucoma
except- (PGINov 09, Dec 08) 495. Congenital glaucoma present as - (TN 03)
a) Atropine b) Pilocarpine a) Microopthalmos b) Photophobia
c) Acetozolamide d) Mannitol c) Leucoria (white reflex) d)Pain
e) Timolol 496. Photophobia in an infant could be due to-(PGI June 99)
485. Treatment of acute congestive glaucoma includes a) Buphthalmos b) Lid coloboma
all except - (PGI Nov 09) c) Cataract d) Any of the above
a) Sclerectomy b)Trabeculectomy497. True about Buphthalmos - (PGI June 04)
c) Trabeculoplasy d) Vitrectomy a) Large cornea b) Haab’s stria
e) Iridotomy c) Shallow AC d) Glaucoma
486. Treatment of choice in acute congestive glaucoma -
e) Medical treatment helps
a) Pilocarpine (AI 99, 98, NEET/DNB Pattern)
498. In Buphthalmos, seen are all except - (PGIDec 98)
b) Laser iridotomy '
a) Subluxated lens b) Large cornea
tA ~ 3 E) Timolol *■ r" - ^
c) Small cornea d)Big eye ball
d) Trabeculoplasty
499. In buphthalmos, lens is - (PGI Dec 98)
487. Treatment of primary angle closure glaucoma is -
a) Anteroposterior flat b) Small
a) Trabeculectomy b) Pilocarpine (AI 96)
c) Large d) None of the above
c) Timolol d) Iridectomy

477)a 478)b 479)a 480)d 481)d 482)c 483)d 484)a 485)c,d 486)b 487)d 488)a 489)b 490)a
491) b 492) b 493) b 494) b 495) b 496) a 497)a,b,d 498)a,b,d 499) a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 913 ]

500. Habb’s striae are seen in - (PGI June 02) 511. Rubeosis iridis is seen in all except - (Jipmer 11)
a) Angle closure glaucoma b) Infantile glaucoma a) Open angle glaucoma b) Diabetic maculopathy
c) Stargardt disease d) Disciform keratitis c) CRVO d) Uveitis
e) Leber’s disease 512. The laser procedure, most often used for treating
501. A neonate, 30 days old, presented with excessive iris neovascularization is - (AIIMS May 06)
lacrimation and photophobia. He has a large and hazy a) Goniophotocoagulation
cornea. His both lacrimal duct systems are normal. b) Laser trabeculoplasty
The diagnosis is - (AIIMSMay 01) c) Panretinal photocoagulation (PRP)
a) Megalocomea b) Keratoconus d) Laser iridoplasty
c) Congenital glaucoma d) Hunter’s syndrome 513. Malignant glaucoma is seen in - (PGIDec 04)
502. Babloo a 5 yrs old child presents with large cornea, a) Anterior chamber normal
lacrimation and photophobia; Diagnosis is-(AI 01) b) Misdirected aqueous flow
a) Megalocomea b) Congenital glaucoma c) Pilocarpine is the drug of choice
c) Congenital cataract d) Anterior uveitis d) Management is medical only
503. A child presents with lid lag and an enlarged cornea e) Atropine is also given
with a diameter of 13mm. Examination of the eye 514. Malignant glaucoma is seen in - (PGIDec 99)
reveals double contoured opacities concentric to a) Malignancy
the limbus. Which of the following is the most b) After surgery for cataract or glaucoma
likely diagnosis - (AI 12) c) Trauma
a) Superficial keratitis b) Deep keratitis d) Thrombosis
c) Thyroid Endocrinopathy d) Congenital Glaucoma 515. In which type of glaucoma the coloured haloes are
504. The treatment of congenital glaucoma is - NOT seen - (AIIMS June 98)
a) Essentially topical medications a) Phacomorphic glaucoma
b) Trabeculoplasty (AIIMS May 03) b) Pigmentary glaucoma
c) Trabeculotomy with trabeculectomy c) Glaucoma of epidemic dropsy
d) Cyclocryotherapy. d) Steroid induced glaucoma
505. Treatment of choice for congenital glaucoma with 516. Krukenberg spipdles - ggg§|| /0EEP/DNB Pattern)
corneal ulcer - (CUPGEE 99)
a) Trabeculotomy b)Goniotomy
c) Miotics d) Steroids ' c) Involves posterior: surface of cornea
506. On mutation, which of the following may give rise to
hereditary glaucoma. (AIIMS May 03) 517. Pigmentary glaucoma- findings seen is -
a) Optineurin b) Ephrins a) Fevy line (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) RBA8 d) Huntingtin
507. A male patient with a history of hypermature cataract c) Hadson hauti line
presents with a 2 day history of ciliary congestion, gH d) Kjmkeriberg's spmdles^^^ ^ f- l|t?;
photophobia, blurring of vision and on examination 518. iridocorneal endothelial syndrome is associated
has a deep anterior chamber in the right eye. The with- (AIIMSMay 08)
left eye is normal. The diagnosis is-(AIIMSMay 01) a) Progressive atrophy of iris stroma
a) Phakomorphic glaucoma b) Bilateral stromal edema of iris & cornea
b) Phakolytic glaucoma c) Deposition of collagen in Descemef s membrane
c) Phakotoxic glaucoma d) Deposition of glycosaminoglycan in Descemet's
d) Phakoanaphylactic uveitis membrane
508. False about phacolytic glaucoma - (NEET/DNB 519. Intractable secondary glaucoma is seen in - (AI 08)
a) Due to contact of iris to lens Pattern) a) Diffuse iris melanoma
\ Open angle glaucoma - ||||g§i| || fl|§ b) Nodular iris melanoma
c) Seen in hypermature stage of cataract c) Melanocytic deposits in anterior part of iris
d) Lens'induced glaucoma d) Melanocyte proliferation in posterior uveal tissue
509. Neovascularization of iris is frequently seen in all / 520. In haemolytic glaucoma the mechanisms are all
except- (MP 04) except- (PGI 95)
a) CRVO a) Siderosis of trabeculae
b) Diabetic retinopathy b) Deposition of haemosiderin
c) Fuch’s heterochromic cyclitis c) RBC clogging the trabeculae
d) Congenital cataract d) Inflammation
510. Rubeosis iridis is not seen in - (PGI June 99) 521. Hypersecretory glaucoma is seen in - (AI 94)
a) CRVO b)CRAO a) Epidemic dropsy b) Marfan’s syndrome
c) Diabetic retinopathy d) Neovascularization c) Hypertension d) Diabetes

500) b 501) c 502) b 503) d 504) c 505) a 506) a 507) b 508) a 509) d 510) None >b 511) a 512)c
513)b,e 514)b 515)None>d 516)c 517)d 518)a 519)a 520)d 521)a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 914 ]

522. Treatment option for glaucoma includes all 534. Which of the following antiglaucoma medication is
except- (PGI June 08) UNSAFE in infants - (DPG 09)
a) Trabeculectomy b) Trabeculotomy a) Timolol b) Brinzolamide
c) Vitrectomy d) Viscoanulostomy c) Latanoprost d) Dorzolamide
e) Iridectomy 535. Anti-glaucoma drug that is long acting and used
523. Latanoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily once daily- (MH11)
acts by - (A104) a) Bromonidine b) Dorazolamide
a) Decreasing aqueous humour formation c) Latanoprost d) Timolol
b) Increasing uveoscleral outflow 536. Side effects of Pilocarpine are A/E - (DPG 09,
c) Releasing pupillary block a) Shallow anterior chamber ARMS Dec 97)
d) Increasing trabecular outflow b) Punctate stenosis
524. The following anti glaucoma drug increases c) Follicular conjunctivitis
uveoscleral outflow - (JIPMER 2002) d) Posterior synechia
a) Latanoprost b) Timolol 537. False statement about depth of anterior chamber -
c) Pilocarpine d)Acetazolamide a) Less in women than men (PGI Nov. 10)
525. Hyperosmolar agents in glaucoma acts by ? b) Correspondent to volume of anterior chamber
a) Increasing aqueous outflow (APPG 08) c) Increase with age
b) Decreasing vitreous volume d) More in myopes
c) Decrease aqueous production e) Less in hypermetropes
d) Facilitate uveoscleral outflow 538. Shallow Anterior Chamber is seen in all except -
526. Which of the following antiglaucoma medications a) Old age (TN 03)
can cause drowsiness? (AI06) b) Steroid induced cataract
a) Latanoprost b) Timolol c) Hypermetropia
c) Brimonidine d) Dorzolamide d) Angle closure glaucoma
527. A patient of glaucoma with bronchial asthma
presents to the emergency with status asthamaticus,
causative agent might have been - (ARMSNov 99)
a) Pilocarphine eye drop b) Timolol eye drop to ’ g ima
c) Betaxolol eye drop d) Levobunolol eye drop mmSBBBM rileni
528. A patient having glaucoma develops
blepharoconjunctivitis after instilling some VITREOUS
antiglaucoma drug. Which of the following drug can
be responsible for it - (AI 02) 540. Mucopolysaccharide hyaluronic acid is present
a) Timolol b) Latanosprost in - (ARMS May 10, 07, Nov 06,AI 07)
c) Dipiverine d) Pilocarpine a) Vitreous humor b) Cornea
529. Contraindication of topical beta blockers - c) Blood vessels d) Lens
a) Hypertension b) Asthma (PGIJune 04) 541. A vitreous aspirate has been collected in an
c) Tachycardia d) Hypotension emergency at 9 pm. What advice you like to give to
e) Depression the staff on duty regarding the overnight storage of
530. All of the following conditions are contraindicated the sample - (AI 03)
or likely to women in a case of Primary Open Angle a) The sample should be kept at 4°C
glaucoma, when treated with Timolol maleate 0.5% b) The sample should be incubated at 37° C
eye drops, except - (ARMS Nov 03) c) The sample should be refrigerated in deep freezer
a) Hypertenison b) Hypercholesterolemia d) The sample should be refrigerated for the initial
c) Depression d) Bronchial asthma 3 hours and then incubated at 37°C
531. Which of the following is not used in glaucoma in a 542. Persistent primary hyperplastic vitreous (PHPV)
hypertensive patients - (ARMS Nov 00) is associated with - (AI 08)
a) Dipiverffine b) (3-blockers a) Patau syndrome b) Edward syndrome
c) Alpha agonist d) Trabeculoplasty c) Trisomy 14 d) Downs syndrome
532. Epinephrine not used in - (ARMS Dec 97) 543. Which one of the following statements, concerning
a) Uveitis glaucomab) Open angle glaucoma persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV) is
c) Aphakic glaucoma d) Neovascular glaucoma not true? (ARMS May 06)
533. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a a) It is generally unilateral
patient with history of sulfa allergy presenting with b) Visual prognosis is usually good
an acute attack of angle closure glaucoma - c) It may calcify
a) Glycerol b) Acetazolamide (ARMS Nov 05) d) It is most easily differentiated from retinoblastoma
c) Mannitol d) Latanoprost by the presence of exophthalmos or cataract

522) c 523) b 524) a 525) b 526) c 527) b 528) a 529) b 530) a 531)c 532) c 533) b 534) b 535) c>d
536) b 537)b,c 538)b 539)b 540) a 541) a 542) a 543)b,c,d
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 915 ]

544. The most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in 554. True about fovea centralis - (PGI May 10)
adults is - (AI06) a) Cones present b) Visual acquity lowest
a) Retinal hole b) Trauma c) Optic nerve passes d) Rods present
c) Hypertension d) Diabetes e) Visual acquity highest
545. A 25 year old male gives history of suddden 555. The following are true about optic disc -
painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. a) Forms an absolute scotoma in the eye field
There is no history of trauma. On examination the b) Optc disc measures vertically 1.84 mm &
anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal horizontally 1.76 mm (PGIDec 07)
glow. Which one of the following is the most likely c) Approx. 1 million nerve fiber
cause? (AI 05)
d) Supplied by central retinal artery
a) Vitreous haemorrhage
e) Fovea centralis situated nasally
b) Optic atrophy
556. True about Optic disc - (PGI June 09)
c) Development cataract
a) Horizontal diameter 1.76 mm
d) Acute attack of angle closure glaucoma.
In a young patient presenting with recurrent vitreous
b) Vertical diameter 1.88 mm
546.
hemorrhage, diagnosis is - (PGI June 02) c) Contain 1 million nerve fibre
d) Central retinal artery directly supplies this area
a) Eale’s disease b)CRVO
557. Diameter of the optic disc is - (J &. K O I )
c) Proliferative retinopathy d) Coat’s disease
a) 0.5mm b) 1.5 mm
e) Episcleritis
c) 2.5mm d) 3.5 mm
547.
558. Broadest neuroretinai rim is seen in - (NEET/DNB

c) Recurrent pcriphelbitis retinae

559. The retina receives its blood supply from all,
except- (AI 06)
548. Eale’s disease is - f (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Posterior ciliary artery
% If!jllg§|p||||§!|S \
b) Central retinal artery
c); Conjunctival hemorrhage ||1 c) Retinal arteries
d) Plexus of Zinn and Haller arteries
-,w , 'rvv‘Jh''34' i . • ..
560. Strongest force of bonding b/w retina and RPE -
549. All of the following are true of Eale’s disease except-
a) Vitreous gel pressure (JIPMER 06)
a) Occurs in the young (AI 94)
b) Intraocular fluid pressure
b) Vitreous hemorrhage is present
c) Retinal detachment c) RPE water transport
d) Optic neuritis d) IPM
561. Which of the following is not seen in the
550. A 25year old male presents with painless sudden
interphotoreceptor matrix - (AI08)
loss of vision, ocular and systemic examination
a) Metalloproteinase
is not contributory. What is probable diagnosis-(^ZZMS'
b) Sialoprotein Associated with Rods and Cones
a) Retinal detachment b) Eale’s disease Nov 10)
(SPARC)
c) Glaucoma d) Cataract
c) Tissue Inhibitors of metalloproteinases (TIMP)
RETINA d) Memicane
562. Soft exudates are found in - (PGI Dec 07)
551. The average distance of the fovea from the temporal a) DM b)HTN
margin of the optic disc is - (AI 06) c) Toxemia d) Coat’s disease
a) 1 disc diameter b) 2 disc diameter e) All
c) 3 disc diameter d) 4 disc diameter 563. Cotton wool spots are commonly seen in-(PGI June 01)
552. Regarding fovea, which of the following statements a) AIDS b) DM
is true- (PGIDec 01) c) Hypertension d) CMV
a) Has the lowest threshold for light 564. Cotton wool spots are commonly seen in A/E -
b) Contains only cones a) HIV b) DM (PGI Dec 00)
c) Contains only rods c) Hypertension d) CMV
d) Maximum visual acuity 565. Which of the following are differential diagnosis
e) Is located at apex of optic nerve for cotton wool spots in fundus- (PGI2K)
553. Most sensitive part of retina is - (AIIMSJune 98) a) AIDS b) Diabetic retinopathy
a) Macula b) Fovea-centralis c) Hypertension d) Eales’s disease
c) Optic disc d) Peripheral - retina e) Coat’s disease

544) d 545) a 546) a 547) c 548) b 549) d 550) b 551) b 552)a,b,d 553) b 554) a,e 555)a,b,c,d 556)a,b,c
557) b 558) b 559)a 560)d 561)d 562)e 563)a,b,c 564)d 565)a,b,c,d
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 916 ]

566. Cotton wool spot is /are seen in - (PGIMay 10) 578. A 30 year old patient with history of recurrent
a) DR b) Hypertensive retinopathy headache was sent for fundus evaluation. He was
c) AIDS d) Retinoblastoma found to be having generalized arterial attenuation
e) Toxaemia of pregnancy with multiple cotton wool spots and flame shaped
567. Hard exudates not seen in - (PGI June 08) haemorrhages in both eyes. The most likely casue
a) Hypertension b)DM is- (AIIMSNov 05)
c) Toxemia of pregnancy d)SLE a) Diabetic retinopathy
e) Coat’s disease b) Hypertensive retinopathy
568. Hard exudates seen in - (PGI June 00) c) Central retinal artery occlusion
a) CRVO b) DM d) Temporal ateritis
c) HTN d) Neovascularization 579. All the following changes are caused in the retina
569. Hard exudates are seen in all except -(PGINov 09) by benign hypertension except - (AI 94)
a) Diabetic retinopathy a) Narrowing of arterioles b) Exudates
b) Retinitis pigmentosa c) Cotton wool spots d) Retinal hemorrhage
c) Eale’s disease 580. All of the following take part in the pathogenesis of
d) Retinal artery macroaneurysm macular edema in diabetic retinopathy except -
e) Choroidal neovascularisation a) Retinal pigment epithelium dysfunction
570. Cherry red spot found in - (PGI June 04) b) Oxidative stress (AIIMS May 08)
a) Gangliosidosis c) VEGF
b) Retinopathy of prematurity d) Increased protein kinase-C
c) Tay- Sach’s disease 581. Degree of diabetic retinopathy depends on -
d) Gaucher’s disease a) Type of disease (AIIMS May 93)
e) Retinal detachment b) Duration of disease
571. Cherry Red spot is found in all of the following c) Severity of disease
except- (AI07) d) Retinal involvement
a) Nimen Pick’s disease 582. First retinal abnormality in diabetic retinopathy -
b) GM1 gangliosidosis a) Microaneurysm (PGI June 09, 00, PGI Dec 07,
c) Krabbe’s disease b) Hard exudates AIIMS 91, Punjab 11)
d) Multiple sulfatase deficiency c) Soft exudates
572. Cherry red spot is seen in all except - (AI 10) d) Cotton wool spots
a) Niemann pick disease b) GMI gangliosidosis 583. Which of following is not a feature in diabetic
c) Tay sach’s disease d) Gaucher’s disease retinopathy on fundus examination - (AI 01)
573. Cherry red spot is seen in -(MAHE 07, SGPGI05, AI a) Microaneurysmsb) Retinal hemorrhages
a) Eale’s disease . 94, NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Arteriolar dilatation d) Neovascularisation
b) Retinitis pigmentosa 584. Features of non - proliferative DR is all except -
:Efj:plsjE) Central retinal arterylhrombos^^^p|5g|^i^||ii a) Neovascularisationb) Soft exudate
| H111 d) Central retinal c) Hard exudate d) Vitreous detachment
574. Cherry red spot is seen in - (AI 98, 96) e) Cotton - wool spot (PGI May 10)
a) CRVO b) Blunt Trauma 585. Diabetic retinopathy is characterized by-
c) Diabetes mellitus d) Retinitis pigmentosa a) Hard exudates b) Neovascularisation
575. Cherry red spot at macula is not seen in - c) Glaucoma d) Cataract
a) Macular infarction (AIIMS Jun 97) e) Retinal detachment (PGI June 08)
b) Niemann picks disease 586. Diabetic retinopathy is characterized by-(PGIDec 97)
c) Commotio retinae a) Hard exudates, dot haemorrhage and microaneurysm
d) CRVO b) Flame shaped haemorrhages, soft exudates
576. Cherry red spot is seen in - (PGIDec 97) c) Deep haemorrhage only
a) Retinitis pigmentosa d) Hard exudates only
b) Retinopathy of prematurity 587. One of the following is NOT a sign of diabetic
c) Metachromatic leukodystrophy retinopathy- (DPGMar. 09)
d) CRV occlusion a) Microaneurysms
577. Cherry red spot on retina is seen in A/E- b) Cotton wool spots
a) CRAO b)CRVO c) Hard exudates
c) Nieman - pick disease d) Tay- sach’s disease d) Choroidal neovascularization

566)a,b,c,e 567)c 568)a,b,c,d 569)b 570)a,c,d 571)None>c 572)None>d 573)c 574)b 575)d 576)c
577) b 578)b 579) c 580) a 581)b 582) a 583) c 584) a,d 585)AH 586) a,b 587) d
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 917 ]

588. Diabetes mellitus can lead to - (PGI June 02) 598. Treatment of diabetic retinopathy neovascularisation
a) Vitreous haemorrhage b) Rubeosis iridis is/are - (PGI June 09)
c) Retinal detachment d) HI, IV and VI nerve palsy a) Retinal laser photocoagulation
e) Hypermetropia b) Pars plana vitrectomy
589. A 40 year old male with diabetes presents with c) Phacoemulsion
vitreous hemorrhage. What is the cause? d) AntiVEGEAb
a) Posterior retinal detachment (AIIMS May 12) e) LASIK
b) Neovascularization at disc 599. Grid laser photocoagulation is indicated in -
c) Central retinal vein occlusion a) Ischaemic maculopathy (COMED 09)
d) Trauma to central retinal artery b) Clinically significant macular oedema
590. A 29 years old man with IDDM for the last 14 years c) Macular hole
develops sudden vision loss, has non- proliferating d) Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
diabetic retinopathy, cause is - (AIIMSNov 99) 600. Panretinal photocoagulation is indicated in -
a) Macular oedema b) Vitreous haemorrhage a) Macular edema (DPGMar. 09)
c) Subretinal haemorrhage d) Retinal traction b) Retinal breaks
591. Commonest cause of loss of vision in non- c) Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
proliferative diabetic retinopathy is - (AIIMS 99) d) Tractional retinal detachment
a) Vitreous heamorrhage b) Macular edema 601. A case of Non - Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
c) Detachment of retina d) Subretinal haemorrhage (NIDDM) with a history of diabetes for one year
592. A 35 year old insulin dependent diabetes should have an ophthalmic examination? (AI 06)
mellitus(lDDM) patient on Insulin for the last 10 a) As early as feasible
year complains of gradually progressive painless b) After 5 years
loss of vision. Most likely he has - (AIIMS Nov 04) c) After 10 years
a) Cataract d) Only after visual symptoms develop
b) Vitreous haemorrhage 602. Child with Type I Diabetes. What is the advised time
c) Total rheugmatogenous retinal detachment for fundus examinations from the time of diagnosis?
d) Tractional retinal detachment not involving the a) After 5 years b) After 2 years
macula c) After 10 years d) At the time of diagnosis
593. Causes of floaters in DM is- (PGIMay 10, 01, 96) 603. In NIDDM, fundus examination is done -
a) Vitreous hemorrahage b) Vitreous detachment a) At the time of diagnosis (PGI Dec 01)
c) Maculopathy d) Infarction b) 5 year after diagnosis
| | | | i n diabeficjrefittbpathy |§§| c) At diagnosis & 5 years after diagnosis
^i§jg d) At 2 years
604. In maturity onset diabetes mellitus, ophthalmoscopy
should be done at - (AIIMS June 00)
d) None a) Immediately b) After 5 years
595. Diabetic retinopathy is treated by- c) After 10 years d) After 15 years
a) Strict glycemic control (PGI Dec 03, June 03) 605. In recently reconised IDDM patient examination
b) Panphotocoagulation of fundus is done at - (PGI 96)
c) Antihypertensive a) Immediately b) At 1 year
d) Cyclophotocoagulation c) At 5 year d) None of the above
596. Treatment of advanced proliferative diabetic 606. Diabetic retinopathy, most likely present with -
retinopathy with extensive vitreoretinal fibrosis and a) IDDM with 2 years duration (AIIMS Dec 98)
tractional retinal detachment involves all of the b) NIDDM with 2 years duration
following except - (AI09) c) Juvenile diabetes
a) Reattachment of detached or tom retina d) Gestational diabetes
b) Removal of epiretinal membrane 607. ETDRS vision chart study is done in patients with
c) Vitrectomy diabetic retinopathy. ETDRS stands for-
d) Exophotocoagulation a) Extended therapy for diabetic retinopathy & its
597. Treatment of diabetic retinopathy - (PGI June 07) sutdy
a) Phocoemulsification b) Emergency treatment for diabetic retinopathy and
b) Retina laser photocoagulation study (AIIMS Nov 01)
c) LASIK c) Eye testing or rotatory drum & its study
d) Pars plana vitrectomy d) Early treatment for diabetic retinopathy study

588)All 589) b 590) a 591) b 592) a 593) a 594) b 595)a,b,c,d 596) d 597) b,d 598) a,d 599) b 600) c
601) a 602)a 603)a 604)a 605)c 606)b 607) d
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 918 ]

608. Which of the following agents is not used in the c) Pulse Methyl Prednisolone for three days and then
treatment of Diabetic Macular Edema/ Retinopathy- taper
a) Ruboxistaurim b) Pyridazinones (AI11) d) Just wait and watch for spontaneous recovery
c) Benfotiamine d) Tamoxifen 617. A young adult male presented with sudden painless
609. A young patient presented with sudden painless loss loss of vision. He recovered spontaneously within 3
of vision with systolic murmur over chest, ocular months Most likely cause of his blindness is -
examination reveals - cherry red spot in macula with a) Central serous retinopathy
clear AC, with perception of light, diagnosis - b) Macular hole
a) Central retinal artery occlusion (AIlMSNov99) c) Myopic crescent
b) Central retinal vein occlusion d) Vitreous haemorrhage
c) Macular choroiditis with infective endocarditis 618. Enlarging dot sign in fundus fluorescein scanning
d) Central serous retinopathy is seen in - (PGI June 99)
610. An elderly male with heart disease presents with a) Cystoid macular edema
sudden loss of vision in one eye; examination reveals b) Central serous retinopathy
cherry red spot; diagnosis is - (AI 01) c) Significant macular edema
a) Central retinal vein occlusion d) Coat’s disease
b) Central retinal artery occlusion 619. In central serous retinopathy - (Manipal 09)
c) Amaurosis fugax a) Often shows focal leakage on fluorescein fundus
d) Acute ischemic optic neuritis photography
611. On fundoscopic examination of a patient of giant b) A macular hole is a common end result
cell arteritis, who has had history of sudden & c) The image perceived by the patient on the affected
painless loss of vision two days back, the surgeon side in unilateral cases is bigger than on the normal
finds orange reflex. He also notices segmentation side
of blood column in vessels. These vessels are - & d) A dense central scotoma is the most common
patient had suffered from - (AI 93) presentation
a) Retinal arteries & Central Retinal Artery occlusion
b) Retinal veins & CRAO
c) Retinal veins &CRVO
d) Retinal arteries & CRVO
612. Following are seen in CRA occlusion except -
a) Gradual loss of vision (PGI June 98)
b) Headache 621. Commonest type of Retinal detachment - (MH10)
c) Sudden loss of vision a) Rheugmatogenous b) Choroidal hemorrhage
d) Retained central vision c) Exudative d) Tractional
613. Cattle track appearehce,r 1$S||| 622. Retinal detachment seen in - (PGI Dec 07)
a) CRVO b) CRAO a) Myopia b) Hypermetropia
c) Diabetic retinopathy d) Syphilitic retinopathy c) Eale’s disease d) Cataract extraction
614. All of the following may be used to differentiate e) Nd Yag photocoagulation
Central Retinal Venous Occlusion (CRVO) from 623. Risk factors for Retinal detachment are -
ocular Ischemic syndrome due to carotid artery a) Diabetic retinopathy b) Myopia (PGI Nov 09)
stenosis, Except - (AI 09) c) Hypermetropia d)CRVO
a) Dilated retinal vein b) Tortuous retinal vein e) Retinopathy of prematurity
c) Retinal artery pressure d) Opthalmodynamometry 624. Cause of exudative retinal detachment are -
615. Neovascularisation is seen in - (AIIMS June 98) a) Scleritis (PGI June 09, PGI Dec 08)
a) Central vein obstruction b) Toxaemia of pregnancy
b) Central retinal artery obstruction c) Dysthyroid eye disease
c) Branch retinal vein obstruction d) Central serous retinopathy
d) All of the above e) Sickle cell retinopathy
616. A 25 year old executive presents with 625. Causes of exudative retinal detachment -
metamorphopsia in his right eye. On examination a) Central retinal artery occlusion (PGI June 07)
the fundus shows a shallow detachement at the b) Hypertensive retinopathy
macula. The fluorescein angiography shows a c) Harada’s sydrome
“smoke stack” sign. Which of the following d) Coat’s disease
management should be given ? (AIIMSNov 03) 626. Retinal detachment is not seen in - (Kerala 03)
a) Topical antibiotic- corticosteroid combination a) High myopia b) Aphakia
b) Systemic corticosteroid for two weeks and then taper c) Choroiditis d) Hypermetropia

608) d 609) a 610)b 611)b 612)a 613)b 614)a 615)a 616)d 617)a 618)b 619)a 620)c 621)a
622) a,c,d 623)a,b,e 624)a,b,d 625) c,d 626) d
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 919 ]

627. A patient with detachment of retina with photopsia 636. In rheugmatogenous retinal detachment,all are true
with floaters in the eye. Diagnosis is - (A12000) except- (CUPGEE02)
a) Vitreous haemorrhage a) Holes are seen b) Scleral buckling is done
b) Exudative retinal detachment c) Follows trauma to eye d) Occurs in myopia
c) Rheugmatogenous retinal detachments 637. A patient presented with sudden onset of floater &
d) Tractional retinal detachment perception of falling of a curtain (veil) in front of the
628. Photopsia seen in ? (APPG 08, Jipmer 11) eye which one of the following is the most appropriate
a) Choroiditis b) Retinitis diagnosis- (AI -11)
c) Retinal detachment d)All a) Retinal detachment b) Eale’s disease
629. All are features of early retinal detachment except - c) Vitreous hemorrhage d) Glaucoma
a) Retroorbital pain (Manipal 08) 638. Exudative retinopathy in hypertensive is due to -
b) Photopsia a) Co- arctation of aorta (ARMS June 00)
c) Floaters b) Type I Takayasu’s arteritis
d) Darkened peripheral field of vision c) Renal artery stenosis
630. Features in retinal detachment all except - d) Diabetic atherosclerosis
a) Field defect (PGI June 08) 639. Retinitis Pigmentosa is associated with all except -
b) Retinal tears a) Usher Syndrome (ARMS May 08)
c) AAV vitreous haemorrhage b) Marfan’s Syndrome
d) Greyish - brown fundus c) Kearns-Sayre Syndrome
e) Defective vision d) Bussen - Komzweig Syndrome
640. Retinitis pigmentosa is a feature of all except -
a) Retinitis pigmentosa b) Retinal detachment a) Refsum’s disease (ARMS Nov 10)
b) Hallervorden-Spatz disease
632. RD is diagnosed by - (PGI June 03)
c) NARP
a) + 90D
d) Abetalipoproteinemia
b) Hurby lens
641. The ocular features of retinitis pigmentosa include-
c) 3 mirror contact lens
d) Direct ophthalmoscopy a) Bony corpuscular appearanced (Korn 11)
e) Indirect ophthalmoscopy b) Waxy pallor of the optic disc
633. A 60 year old male patient operated for cataract 6 c) Attenuation of the retinal arterioles
months back now complains of floaters and sudden d) All of the above
loss of vision. The diagnosis is - (AIIMS May 01) 642. Retinitis pigmentosa is due to defect in which
a) Vitreous hemorhage
b) Retinal detachment
c) Central retinal artery occlusion
d) Cystoid macular edema 643. All are true about retinitis pigmentosa EXCEPT -
634. An 18 years old girl who was using spectacles for a) Genetic inheritence (X-linked) (ARMS Nov 99)
last 10 years, came with the history of photopsia and b) Early diagnosis and treatment
sudden loss of vision in right eye. Which one of the c) Visual acuity not diminished till late in course
following clinical examinations should be performed d) Associated with systemic abnormalities
to clinch the diagnosis ? (AIIMSNov 04) 644; Earliest symptom ofretinitis pigmentosar pf§f
S^
a) Cycloplegic refraction
b) Indirect Ophthalmoscopy
c) Schiotz tonometry
d) Gonioscopy 645. A patient presented with peripheral Held loss and
635. A friend of yours has a spectacle correction of -6.0 fundus examination shows waxy exudates & pale disc
and-8.0. He telephones you one morning and tells
with pigmentation around retinal vessels, diagnosis
that he has started seeing some opacities floating in
is - (ARMS June 99)
front of his eye and that his vision has decreased
a) Behcet’s syndrome b) Chorio- retinitis
slightly over the last few days. As an intern in the
c) Open angel glaucoma d) Retinitis - pigmentosa
ophthalmology section, what would you do -
a) Reassure (ARMS Nov 02) 646. Attenuated retinal vessels with bony corpuscular
b) Refraction and prescribe a new spectacle like lesion seen in - (APPGE 04)
c) Direct opthalmoscopy a) Diabetes mellitus b) Hypertension
d) Indirect opthalmoscopy c) Retinitis pigmentosa d) Eales disease

627)c 628)c 629)a 630)c 631)b 632)A11 633)b 634)b 635)d 636)None 637)a 638)c 639)b 640)b
641) d 642) b 643) b 644) b 645) d 646) c
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 920 ]

647. A young adults presents with night blindness and weighing 1500gm. How soon will you request fundus
tubular vision. On examination, Intraocular Pressure examination by an ophthalmologist ?(ARMSNov 02)
was observed to be 18mm and the anterior segment a) Immediately
was unremarkable. Fundoscopy showed attenuation b) 3- 4 weeks after delivery
of arterioles and waxy pallor of the optic disc with c) At 34 weeks gestational age
bony corpuscles like spicules of pigmentation in d) At 40 weeks gestational age
mid peripheral retina. Ring scotomas were observed 660. A 70-year-old man presents with deterioration of
on perimetry. Which of the following is the most vision 3 weeks after cataract extraction and IOL
likely diagnosis - (AI 12) implantation. Slit lamp examination shows
a) Pigmentary Retinal Dystrophy honeycomb maculopathy and Fluorescin angiography
b) Primary Open Angle Glaucoma (FA) shows ‘flower petal’ hyperfluorescence. The
c) Lattice degeneration of Retina most likely diagnosis is - (AI 12)
d) Diabetic Retinopathy a) Age related macular degeneration (ARMD)
648. Retinal inflammatory diseases which give to b) Central serous Retinopathy (CSR)
pseudoretinitis pigmentosa type of picture are all except- c) Macular Dystrophy
a) Rubella b) Syphilis (J&K05) d) Cystoid Macular Edema
c) Toxocara d) Toxoplasma 661. Macular edema is caused by all except-(PGIDec 98)
649. Most characteristic finding of retinitis pigmentosa - a) Microaneurysm b) Cap dilatation
a) Ring scotoma b) Peripheral field defect (AI 02) c) Neovascularization d) None
c) Central scotoma d) Diplopia 662. Which of the following has autosomal dominant
650. The most frequent cataract type seen in adult inheritance - (ARMSMay 10,07, Nov 06, AI 07)
Retinitis pigmentosa patient is - (J&K 05) a) Best’s disease
a) PSC b) Anterior polar b) Gyrate atrophy
c) Cortical d) Mixed c) Laurence Moon Biedl syndrome
651. In Retinitis pigmentosa, following are true except - d) Bassen-Komzweig’s disease
a) Pigments present b) Pale waxy disc 663. Which is not an AR disorder - (Jipmer 04)
c) Narrowing of vessels d) ERG- normal a) Gyrate atrophy
652. Fundus?inretinitis;Pigmentosais b) Goldmann syndrome
a) White spots with red disc , (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Bardet - Biedi syndrome
d) Butterfly macular dystrophy
c) No pigmentation mm 664. Best diagnostic test for Best disease is - (Jipmer 99,
d) Dilatation of arterioles a) Dark adaptation b) ERG CMC 01)
653. Ring scotoma is seen in - (PGI June 98) c) BOG d) Gonioscopy
a) Retinitis pigmentosa b) Glaucoma 665. Coat’s disease - (Manipal 09)
c) Cataract d) Retinal detachment a) Has equal sex incidence
654. Ring scotoma is a feature of - (A1IMS Jun 97) b) Caused by peripheral neovascularization
a) Blue dot cataract b) Diabetic retinopathy c) Is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern
c) Nuclear cataract d) Retinitis pigmentosa d) Can be treated with laser
655. Idiopathic nyctalopia is due to a hereditary - 666. All of the following statements are true about
a) Absence of rod function (AIIMSNov 05) Juxtafoveal Retinal Telangiectasias, Except -
b) Absence of cone function a) Variant of Coat’s disease
c) Absence of rod and cone function b) Associated with telangiectasias in the macula
d) Decrease of cone function c) Associated with structurally abnormal Retinal Vessels
656. Photoretinitis is due to - (AP 96) d) Associated with peripheral telangiectasias
a) Ultravoilet rays b) Infrared rays 667. What is the treatment of threshold ROP?
c) X-rays d) Gamma rays a) Laser photocoagulation (ARMS Nov 10)
657. A 10 year old boy after watching the sun during b) Slow reduction in oxygen
eclipse in the apparent twilight developed persistant
c) Retinal reattachment
negative after image of the sun. He was taken to an
d) Antioxidants
ophthalmic surgeon who examined his fundus and 668. Baby born prematurely at 29 wks, on examination at
found it normal. Most probable diagnosis is - (AI 93)
42wks with ROP both eyes shows stage 2 zone 1
a) Malingering b) Photophthalmia ‘plus’ disease, how will u manage the patient?
c) Photoretinitis d) Light induced maculopathy
a) Examine the patient after 1 week (ARMSMay 11)
658. Retinopathy in neonate is due to - (PGI June 00)
b) Laser photocoagulation of both eyes
a) Prematurity < 1500 gm b) 02 toxicity
c) Laser photocoagulation of worse eye, follow up
c) Trauma d) Diabetes
of other eye
659. While working in a neonatal ICU. Your team delivers
d) Vitreoretinal surgery
a preamature infant at 27 weeks of gestation and

647) a 648) c 649) a,b 650) a 651)d 652) b 653) a,b 654) d 655) a 656) None >a 657) c 658) a 659) c
660) d 661) d 662)a 663) d 664)c 665) d 666) d 667)a 668) b
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 921 ]

669. “Photodynamic therapy” is used in the eye for the 682. A 60 yr old man has both HTN and DM for 10 yrs.
following disease - (AI04) There is reduced vision in one eye. On fundus
a) Cataract examination there is a central bleed and the fellow
b) Glaucoma eye is normal. The diagnosis is - (AIIMS Nov 10)
c) Uveitis a) Retinal tear
d) Wet AMD (Age related macular degeneration) b) Optic neuritis
670. Angioid streaks in the eyes are seen in - c) Diabetic retinopathy
a) Pseudoxanthoma elasticum (AIIMS Nov 05) d) Hypertensive retinopathy
b) Tendinous xanthoma 683. Mizuo-phenomenon is seen in - (AIIMS Nov-11)
c) Xanthelasma
a) Fundus albipathicusb) Fundus flavimaculatus
d) Eruptive xanthoma
c) Oguchi’s disease d) Choroideremia
671. In a patient with AIDS chorioretinitis is typically
684. Which retinal layer is most radioresistant-
caused by - (AI 03; AIIMS Nov 02)
a) RPE (AIIMS Nov 11)
a) Cytomegalovirus
b) Toxoplasma gondii b) Layer of rods and cones
c) Crytococcus neoformans c) Bipolar cell layer
d) Histoplasma capsulatum d) Ganglion cell layer
685. ‘Sea-Fan’ retina is seen in- (MH 11)
a) CRAO b) SLE
c) Congenital syphilis d) None: c) Sickle cell disease d) Gaucher’s disease
673. Sauce and cheese retinopathy is seen in-(AIIMSNov 686. Central Retinal artery occlusion is known to be
a) CMV b) Rubella 93; June 92) associated with - (AI 12)
c) Toxoplasmosis d) Congenital syphilis a) Panophthalmitis b) Diabetic Retinopathy
674; H^a^^hfin feg appeari^ceS«^B tff^!' p|§§ c) CMV retinitis d) Orbital mucormycosis

c) Toxocara d) Herpes •Pattern) NEURO-OPHTHALMOLOGY

675. Bull’s eye lesion seen with -(TGI Nov 09, Dec 07, June
a) Chloroquine b) Dapsone 99, AIIMS Nov 93, 687. All are true about optic nerve except - (PGIMay 10)
c) Rifampicin d) Ethambutol Jipmer 11) a) Arises from axons of bipolar neurons
e) Gold b) 4 cm long
676. Roth spots are seen in - (COMED09) c) Covered by 3 layers continuous with meninges
a) Hypertension b) Septicemia d) Crossed by ophthalmic artery
c) Diabetes d) Central retinal occlusion 688. Optic nerve is - (DPGEE 08)
677. Roth spots are seen in - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Second order neuron b) First order neuron
a) Bacterial endocarditisb) HTN retinopathy
c) Fourth order neuron d) Third order neuron
c) DM retinopathy d) None
689. The visual pathway consists of all of these except -
678. ‘Snow ball’ Opacity in vitreous is seen in-(PGIDec 03,
a) Pars planitis b) Sarcoidosis June 03) a) Optic tract (PGI June 02)
c) Juvenile RA d) Toxplasmosis b) Geniculocalcarine tract
e) Fuch’s lesion c) Inferior colliculus
679. Lattice retinal degeneration seen in-(AIIMSDec 98) d) Lateral geniculate body
a) Myopia b)Hypermetropia e) Pretectal region
c) Presbyopia d) Anisocoria 690. Components of pupillary reflex are - (PGI June 01)
680. Peripheral retinal degeneration is most common in a) Retina
case of - (AIIMSMay 93) b) Pretectal nucleus
a) Myopia b) Presbyopia c) Lateral geniculate body
c) Hypermetropia d) Astigmatism d) Edinger- westphal nucleus
681. A patient with clinically significant diabetic macular e) Calcarine sulcus
edema with non progressive diabetic retinopathy was 691. The afferent pathway for light pupillary reflex
treated with Macular grid photocoagulation. The is- (AIIMSMay 06)
patient still has vitreo macular traction. What is the a) Trigeminal nerve b) Optic nerve
preferred treatment? (AIIMS May 11) c) Abducent nerve d) Ciliary nerve
a) Intravitreal bevacizumab 692. In pupillary reflex nerve tested is - (PGI Dec 98)
b) Pars plana vitrectomy a) 2nd b) 3rd !
c) Repeat macular grid photocoagulation nd
c) Both 2 and 3 rd d)4th
d) Augmented macular photocoagulation

669) d 670) a 671) a 672) c 673) a 674) b 675) a 676) b 677) a 678) a,b 679) a 680) a 681) b 682) c
683) c 684) b 685) c>b 686) d 687) a,b 688) a 689) c,e 690)a,b,d 691) b 692) c
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 922 ]

693. A patient presented with normal eyesight and absence 704. Loss of convergence with slight light reflex is
of direct and consensual light reflexes. Which of seen in - (PGIDec 01)
the following cranial nerves is suspected to be a) ARP b) Holme Adie’s pupil
lesioned? (AIIMS May 04) c) Marcs gun pupil d) Wimecke’s pupil
a) Occulomotor b) Trochlear 705. Homonymous hemianopia is seen in - (PGIDec 97)
c) Optic d) Abducent a) Pituitary adenoma b) Optic nerve damage
694. Which is not a part of the pupillary light reflex - c) Post chiasmic damage d) Cortical lesion
a) Lateral geniculate body 706. Homonymous hemianopia is seen in lesion of -
b) Pre- tectal area a) Optic tract b) Optic chiasma
c) Retina c) Optic radiation d) Optic nerve
d) Edinger- Westphal nucleus e) Occipital cortex (PGI Dec 03, 02)
695. In unilateral Afferent pupillary defect, when light is 707. Homonymous hemianopia is seen in all except -
moved from normal to affected eye, there is - a) Optic nerve lesion (SGPGI05)
a) Dilatation in affected side and constriction in normal b) Optic tract lesion
eye c) Lesions of lateral geniculate body
b) Dilatation in normal eye and constriction in affected d) Visual cortex lesion
side 708. Lesion of right optic tract will leads to -
c) Dilatation in both pupils
d) Constriction in both pupils
696. Relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) is c) «pSlp
characteristically seen in damage to - (A110)
a) Optic nerve b) Optic tract 709- defect fee
c) Lateral geniculate body d) Occulomotor nerve itlSIl m
697. Swinging light test is positive in - (NEET/DNB * 5.;;

' a) Conjunctivitis b) Glaucoma Pattern) c) Pituitary tumour

710. Site of lesion in Bitemporal hemianopia is
c) Retrobulbar neuritis d) Keratoconus
698. Marcus Gunn Pupil is due to - (MAHE 05)
| jb)\Qptic tract t
a) Defect anterior to optic chiasma
b) Defect at optic chiasma
d| O^ticradiaflon ■
c) Defect posterior to optic chiasma r
711. Headache with bitemporal hemianopia with 6/6 vision
d) Defect in ciliary muscles is seen in - (AIIMS Nov 09)
699. Wernicke’s hemianopic pupillary reponse is seen
a) Optic neuritis b) Trauma
in lesions at- (AI02, NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Chiasmal lesion d) Bilateral cavernous lesion
a) Optic tract b) Optic chiasma 712. Field defect seen in pituitary adenoma -
c) Optic radiation d) Lateral geniculate body a) Bitemporal hemianopia (PGI Jun 01)
700 Pupil that responds to convergence but light reflex b) Binasal hemianopia
is absent - (DPG 10, UP 04, PGI Dec 99) c) Quadrantanopia
a) Adies pupil b) Argyl Robertson pupil d) “Pie in sky” defect
c) Hutchison pupil d) Myotonic pupil e) Amaurosis in one eye & temporal hemianopia in
701. All of the following statements about Argyll other eye
Robertson Pupil are correct, Except - (AI 11) 713. Visual field defect in pituitary tumour with
a) Near Reflex Normal supracellar extension is - (AIIMS June 00,
b) Direct light Reflex Absent a) Bitemporal hemianopia Jipmer 11)
c) Consensual Light Reflex Normal b) Binasal hemianopia
d) Visual Acuity Normal c) Homonymous hemianopia
702. Light reflex absent but accommodation reflex present d) Pie in the sky vision
is seen in - (PGI June 97) 714. Visual defect in optic chiasmal lesion -
a) Hutchison’s pupil b) Argyl Robertson pupil a) Bitemporal hemianopia (PGI June 04)
c) Adies pupil d) Homer’s syndrome b) Binasal hemianopia
703. In Holmes-Adie pupil all are true except - c) Homonymous upper temporal hemianopia
a) There is absent or retarded pupil reactions to light d) Homonymous upper nasal hemianopia
and near (Manipal 09) e) Homonymous lower temporal hemianopia
b) Most cases are bilateral 715. Lesion in the optic chiasma causes - (PGIDec 05)
c) Causes reduced or absent accommodation a) Bitemporal hemianopia b) Upper nasal
d) Constricts with 2.5% methacholine c) Lower nasal d) Upper temporal
e) Lower temporal

693) a 694) a 695) c 696) a 697) c 698) a 699) a 700) b 701) c 702) b 703) b 704) b 705) c,d 706)a,c,d
707) a 708) c 709) c 710) c 711)c 712)a,b,c,d 713) a 714)a,b,c,e 715)a,d,e
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 923 ]

716. Which of the following can cause Superior 725. All satements are true about papilloedema except -
quadrantopia - (AI94; AIIMS Dec 98) a) Collection of extra - cellular fluid (AI 0 7)
a) Temporal lobe tumor b) Fontal lobe tumor b) Disruption of neurofilament
c) Pituitary tumor d) Craniopharyngioma c) Stasis of axoplasmic transport
717. A homonymous upper quadrantic field defect is d) Swelling of the axon
typical of lesion in - (AIIMS June 92) 726. Fundoscopic features of papilledema include all the
following except - (AI 94)
a) Parietal lobe b) Temporal lobe
a) Ill-defined disc margin
c) Occipital lobe d) Optic chiasma
b) Deep physiological cup
718. A lesion of the optic radiation involving the Meyer’s
c) Absent venous pulsation
loop casues - (AIIMS May 02) d) Bending of blood vessels
a) Homonymus hemianiopia 727. In papilledema, all the following are true except -
b) Superior quadratopia a) Blurring of the disc (AI94)
c) Inferior quadrantopia b) Congestion of retinal veins
d) Central scotoma. c) Soft white exudates around the disc
719. In a patient presenting with headache and d) Sudden loss of vision
eye complaints, Examination of right eye reveals: 728. Increased ICT is associated with all of the following
Right eye superotemporal quadrotpsia. Left eye exept- (AI99)
reveals: Left eye superotemoral quadrotopsia Left a) Disc - oedema b) Macular oedema
eye reveals: Left eye centrocecal scotoma. Likely c) Normal vision d) Afferent pupillary defect
site of lesion is - (AI 98) 729. All are seen in papilledema after a head injury
a) Left optic nerve + chiasma except - (AIIMS Nov 01)
b) Left optic tract + chiasma a) Blurring of disc margin b) Hyperemia
c) Afferent pupillary defect d) Filling of cup
c) Right optic nerve + chiasma
730. All the following are true about Papilledema except*
d) Right optic tract + chiasma
a) It is a purely non-inflammatory phenomenon
720. Optic tract lesions presents with - (SGPGI05) b) Transient loss of vision occurs (AI 95)
a) Bitemporal hemianopia c) First sign is blurring of the nasal side of the optic disc
b) Binasal hemianopia d) Sudden loss of vision with painful eye movement
c) Homoymous hemianopia 731. Field defect seen in papilledema - (Karnataka 04)
d) Superior quadraopia a) Seidel's scotoma
721. Field defect seen in pituitary adenoma is - (DPG10) b) Constriction of peripheral fields
a) Bitemporal hemianopia c) Centro-caecal scotoma
b) Binasal hemianopia d) None of the above
c) Quadrantanopia 732. Features of papilloedema are all except-
d) “Pie in sky” defect a) Loss of vision (CUPGEE 02)
722. Macular sparing is seen in the affection of - b) Normally reacting pupil
a) Optic nerve b) Optic tract (Jipmer 03) c) Peri pupillary congestion
c) Optic chiasma d) Occipital lobe d) Increased IOT
723. TVue regarding cortical blindness - 733. Acute Papilloedema present with AM-(AIIMS Sep 96)
a) Direct and consensual reflexes are present in both a) Post neuritic atrophy b) Increase blind spot
c) Severe loss of vision d) Hypermic field
the eyes (AIIMS Nov 00, Dec 94)
734. All are seen in papilloedema except-(AIIMSJune98)
b) Direct and consensual reflexes absent in both the
a) Hyperemia of disc b) Sudden vision loss
eyes c) Post - neuritic atrophy d) Macular fan
c) Direct reflex is present and consensual absent on 735. Papilloedema is characterised by all of the following
the normal side except - (AIIMS June 92)
d) Direct reflex is absent on normal side and a) Loss of retinal venous pulsations
consensual reflex present b) Transient obscurations of vision
724. A female presented with loss of vision in both eyes c) Sudden painless loss of vision
and on examination has normal pupillary responses d) Disc oedema
and normal fundus, Her visually evoked response 736. Significant loss of vision in a patient with hypertension
(VER) examination shows extinguished responses. can occur due to all of the following, except -
The most likely diagnosis is - (AIIMS Nov 05) a) Occipital infarct (AIIMSNov 02)
a) Hysteria b) Cortical blindness b) Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
c) Optic neuritis d) Retinal detacment c) Papilloedema
d) Retinal hemorrhage

716) a 717) b 718) b 719) a 720)c 721) a 722)d 723)a 724)b 725)b 726)b 727)d 728)d 729)c
730) d 731)b 732) a 733) a,c 734) b 735) c 736) c
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 924 ]

737. Papilloedema is characterised by all except - 747. All of the following can cause Optic Neuritis,
a) Sudden loss of vision (UP 08) except- (AI 2000)
b) Blurred vision a) Rifampicin b) Digoxin
c) Hyperaemic disc c) Chloroquine d)Ethambutol
d) Venous engorgement marked 748. Which of the following ATT drugs is associated with
738. Ispilateral optic atrophy with contralateral visual deterioration - (AI 95)
papilloedema is a feature of - (AI99) a) INH b) Rifampicin
a) Fischer syndrome c) Capreomycin d) Ethambutol
b) Foster kennedy syndrome 749. Optic neuritis is seen in all except - (PGIJune 2000)
c) Vogt- kayanagi- Harada syndrome a) DM b) Methanol poisoning
d) WAGR syndrome c) Multiple sclerosis d)SLE
739. Foster Kennedy syndrome is - (AI 99) e) None
a) I/L Papilloedema C/L optic atrophy 750. Visible range of electromagnetic spectrum of human
b) I/L Optic atrophy C/L papilloedema eye- (PGI June 04)
c) I/L Optic atrophy and papilloedema a) 370 - 740 nm b) 740-1140 nm
d) I/L Papilloedema C/L Papilitis c) 200-370 nm d)200-370nm
SB Unilateral papilloedema with optic atrophy on the e) 370-770 nm
other side is a feature of - (DPGEE 08, NEET/DNB 751. The colours best appreciated by the central cones of
a) Foster kennedy syndrome Pattern) our foveo- macular area are - (AI 02)
: b) Fisher syndrome a) Red and blue b) Blue and green
c) Vogt-koyanagi harada syndrome c) Red and green d) Blue and yellow
752. Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination is
Iflfe'd):WAGR;syiidrome -
seen in all except - (AI 01)
741. A 40 year old lady presents with bilateral
Papilloedema. CT scan shows normal ventricles.
a) Syphilis
b) Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy
Diagnosis is - (AI 2000)
c) Post papilledema optic neuritis
a) Benign intracranial hypertension
d) Traumatic injury to the optic nerve
b) Malignant hypertension
753. Fundoscopy of a patient shows chalky white optic
c) Papillus
disc with well defined margins. Retinal vessels and
d) Raised intraocular pressure
surrounding Retina appears normal. Which of the
742. In Optic neurities in children all symptoms are
following is the most likely diagnosis -
present EXCEPT - (AIMS Sep 96) a) Primary Optic Atrophy (AI 12)
a) Afferent pupillary defect b) Post-neuritic secondary optic atrophy
b) Headache and vomiting c) Glaucomatous optic atrophy
c) Pain on movements of eye ball d) Consecutive optic atrophy
d) Sudden vision loss 754. In optic atrophy, the optic disc appears to pale is
743. A child presents with sudden loss of vision with index of- (UP 08)
painful ocular movements. The eye is white and there a) Atrophy of the nerve fibre b) Los of vasculature
are no obvious signs on ophthalmoscopy. The most c) Gliosis d) All of the above
likely diagnosis is - (AI 96) 755. Consecutive optic atrophy is seen in -
a) Optic nerve glioma b) Retrobulbar neuritis a) Papilloedema (UP 07, NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Craniopharyngioma d) Papillitis , b) Papilitis
744. 'y^l^iinln B deficiency is likely to cause r (AI?0J, c) Retinal detachments;
a) Bitemporal heminanopia NEET/DNB Pattern) d) Retihitis-pigmcntosa
b) Binasal hemianopia 756. A15 year old boy has bilateral optic atrophy, diabetes
!§§ c) Heteronymous hemianqpia;
d) Centrocecal scotoma
mellitus and diabetes insipidus. The diagnosis is-
a) Kjer syndrome b) Behr syndrome (AI93)
745. All are true regarding optic neuritis except - c) Wolff am syndrome d)None
a) Decreased visual acuity (AI 01) 757. An optic nerve injury may result in all the following
b) Decreased pupillary reflex except - (AIMS May 03)
c) Abnormal electroretinogram a) Loss of vision in that eye b) Dilatation of pupil,
d) Abnormal visual evoked response retinogram c) Ptosis d) Loss of light reflex.
746. Optic neuritis causes - \ (NEET/DNB Pattern) 758. First sign of optic nerve disease is -
a) Gradual painless loss of vision a) Papilloedema (SGPGI05, AIMS Nov 93)
b) Sudden painless loss of vision b) Colour blindness
c) Gradual painful loss of vision. c) Afferent pupillary defect
d) Sudden painful loss of vision d) Efferent pupillary defect

737) a 738) b 739) b 740) a 741) a 742) b 743) b 744) d 745) c 746) d 747) a 748)d>a749)e 750) a
751) c 752) c 753) a 754)b 755) d 756) c 757) c 758) c
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 925 ]

759. Best investigation for optic nerve damage amongst 768. Regading color blindness true - (PGIDec 07)
the following is - (AI9 7) a) Mainly congenital
a) Opthalmoscopy b)Flourscence angiograhy b) Can be tested with Fansworth 100 hue test
c) Ultrasound d) Perimetry c) Isihara chart test red/ green color blindness
760. A case of injury to right brow due to a fall from d) Jerlin- Merlin cotton wool tests it
scooter present with sudden loss of vision in the 769. Enlargement of blind spot is indicative of - (AI 93)
right [Link] pupil shows absent direct reflex but a a) Papillitis b) Papilloedema
normal consensual pupillary reflex is present. The c) Avulsion of optic nerved) Retinal detachment
fundus is normal. The treatment of choice is - 770. Anisocoria in dim light is maximally seen in -
a) Intensive intravenous corticosteroids as a) 3rd nerve palsy (NEET/DNB Pattern)
prescribed for spinal injuries to be institued within
b) Pharmacological mydriasis
six hours
c) Humer syndrome
b) Pulse methyl Prednisolone 250 mg four times daily
d) Parasympathetic paralysis
for three days
771. In case of anisocoria when 1 % pilocarpine is instilled
c) Oral Prednisolone 1.5 mg/kg body weight
into the eye with abnormally dilated pupil, pupil
d) Emergency optic canal decompression
remains dilated. Cause of anisocoria may be -
761. A young man with blurring of vision in right eye,
a) Adies pupil (AIIMS Nov II)
followed by left eye after 3 months, showing disc
b) Pharmacological blockage
hyperemia, edema, circumpapillary telangiectasia
c) Uncal herniation
with normal pupillary response with centrocecal
d) Diabetic III cranial nerve palsy
scotoma on perimetry, the cause is -(AIIMS May 09)
772. Unilateral sudden complete loss of vision (Amaurosis
a) Typical optic neuritis
fugax) is due to lesion in - (Jipmer 11)
b) Acute Papilledema
a) Internal carotid artery b) Middle cerebral artery
c) Toxic optic neuropathy
c) Anterior cerebral artery d) Basilar artery
d) Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy
773. Amaurosis fugax is due to - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
762. The most common condition of inherited blindness
a) TIA b) Tobacco
due to mitochondrial chromosomal anomaly is -
c) Optic neuritis d) Papilloedema
a) Retinopathy of prematurity (AI 04)
b) Leber’s Hereditary Optic neuropathy
OCULAR MOTILITY
c) Retinitis pigmentosa
d) Retinal detachment
774. Dilator pupillae is supplied by - (AIIMS Nov 11)
763. Leber’s optic neuropathy - (Manipal 09)
a) Post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers from
a) Typically presents in the fourth decade of life
Edinger Westphal nucleus
b) Males do not transmit the disease
b) Post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers from cervical
c) Is inherited in autosomal X-link fashion
sympathetic chain
d) The optic disc is pale early in the disease
c) IIIrd nerve
764. True about color blindness - (PGI Dec 05, 04)
b) Sympathetic fibers from fronto-orbital branch of V
a) Age related b) Hereditary
nerve.
c) Males only d) Female only
775. Longest and thinnest extrocular muscle - (NEET/
e) Can be treated
a) SR b)IR DNB Pattern)
765. A person has defective blue colour appreciation. His
c) SO d)IO
condition is better named as - (AI 93)
776. Distance of medial rectus from limbus - (NEET/
a) Deuteranomalous b) Deuteranopia
a) 4.5 mm b) 5.5 mmDNB Pattern)
c) Tritanopia d) Tritanomalous c) 7.0 mm d)10mm
766. Protonopes have defect in identifying which
777. Action of superior oblique muscle is/are -
colour- (AIIMSMay 02)
a) Extorsion b) Abduction
a) Red b)Blue
c) Intorsion d) Depression
c) Green d) Black
e) Elevator (PGI Nov 09)
767. Any spectral colour can be matched by a mixture of
778. Superior oblique muscle performs action of - (PGI
three monochromatic lights (red, green, blue) in
a) Intortion b) Extortion June 97)
different proportions. If a person needs more of one
c) Elevation d) Medial rotation
of the colour for matching than a normal person,
779. Function of superior oblique muscle - (PGIDec 04)
then he has a colour anomaly. More red colour is
a) Intortion b) Extortion
needed in the case of - (AI 02)
c) Lateral rotation d) Upward rotation
a) Deuteranomaly b) Tritanomaly
e) Downward rotation
c) Protonomaly d) Tritanomaly

759) d 760) a 761) d 762) b 763) b 764) a,b 765) d 766) a 767) c 768)a,b,c 769) b 770) c 771) b 772) a
773) a 774) b 775) c 776) b 777)b,c,d 778) a,d 779) a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 926 ]

780. Action of superior oblique is following except - 794. In complete 3rd Nerve palsy- (PGI June 03)
a) Extortion b) Depression (AIIMS a) Eye Deviated Medially
c) Abduction d) Intortion June 97) b) Superior and inferior recti affected
781. Function of superior oblique muscle is - (AI99) c) Dilated pupil
a) Elevation with eye rotated outwards d) Ptosis
b) Elevation with eye rotated downwards e) Conversion/accommodation is lost
c) Depression with inward rotation 795. All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except-
d) Depression with outward rotation a) Ptosis b) Diplopia (AIIMSNov II)
782. Which muscle is intorter of eye - (AIIMSMay 99) c) Miosis d) Outward deviation of eye
a) Inferior oblique b) Inferior rectus 796. Left sided sixth nerve palsy would lead to - (AIIMS
c) Superior rectus d) Medial rectus a) Accommodation paresis of left eye Nov 08)
783. Downward and lateral gaze is action b) Ptosis of left eye
of- ^ V (ARMSDec92^NEET/DlpPattem) c) Adduction weakness of left eye
a) Inferior oblique b) Medial rectus d) Diplopia in left gaze
\ cJlu^fi^jMqueV;^ d) Lateral rectus^ 797. Clinical featues of sixth nerve palsy is -
784. Elevators of eye - (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Convergent squint (AIIMS June 98)
a) SR and IO b)!OandSO b) Divergent squint
JR anas ^ J ^^d)sd^R;j4l;>;,1 c) Limitation in upward movement
785. Yolk muscle pair is - (NEET/DNB Pattern) d) Limitation in downward movement
a) Rt MR & Rt LR b) Rt MR & Lt LR 798. A 30 year old man came ot the outpatient department
c) Rt SO & Lt IO d) Rt SR & Lt SR because he had suddenly developed double vision.
786. 3rd cranial nerve supplies - (PGI Dec 04) On examination it was found that his right eye, when
a) Lateral rectus at rest, was turned medially. The most likely
b) Medial rectus, Levator palpabrae superioris anatomical structures involved are - (AI 03)
c) Superior rectus a) Medial rectus and superior division of oculomotor
d) Superior oblique nerve
e) Inferior oblique b) Inferior oblique and inferior division of
787. Occulomoter nerve palsy affects all of the following oculomotor nerve
muscles, EXCEPT - (AI 02) c) Lateral rectus and abducent nerve
a) Medial rectus b) Inferior oblique d) Superior rectus and trochlear nerve
c) Lateral rectus d) Levator pelpabrae superioris 799. In right lateral rectus palsy all of the following are
788. The superior oblique muscle is supplied by - (AI 05) seen except - (AIIMS Feb 97)
a) 3rd cranial nerve b) 4th cranial nerve a) Face turned to left
th
c) 5 cranial nerve d) 6th cranial nerve b) Medial convergent squint.
789. Superior oblique is supplied by - (PGIDec 99) c) Inability to abduct right eye
a) Upper branch of 3rd N b) Lower branch of 3rd N d) Diplopia
c) Trochlear d) Abducens 800. A patient presented with his head tilted towards left.
790. All are characteristics of 3rd nerve except On examination, he was having left hypertropia
a) Carries parasympathetic nerve (AIIMS Nov 06) which increased on looking towards right or
b) Supplies inferior oblique medially. The muscle which is most likely paralyzed
c) Enters orbit through the inferior orbital fissure is - (AIIMS May08)
d) Causes miosis a) Left superior oblique b) Left inferior oblique
791. Ill nerve palsy causes all of the following except - c) Right superior oblique d) Right inferior oblique
a) Ptosis (AI 99) 801. Action of right superior oblique muscle is-(PGI 93)
b) Mydriasis a) Dextro depression b) Dextro elevation
c) Medial deviation of eyeball c) Laevo elevation d) Levo depression
d) Pupillary reflex lost 802. Diplopia in Superior Oblique palsy is most correctly
792. Which action of extra-ocular muscle is spared in described as - (AI II)
involvement of Occulomotor nerve - (AI2000) a) Vertical on looking down
a) Abduction b)Depression b) Vertical on looking up
c) Elevation d) Adduction c) Horizontal on looking in
793. Eye is deviated laterally and downwards; patient is d) Horizontal on looking out
unable to look up or medially; likely nerve involved 803. The reciprocal inhibition of antagonist muscle upon
is- (AI01) lateral gaze is explained by - (AIIMS May 08 )
a) Trochlear b) Trigeminal a) Sherrington’s law b)Hering’s law
c) Oculomotor d) Abducent c) Laplace law d) Hick’s law

780)a 781)c 782)c 783)c 784)a 785)b 786)b,c,e 787)c 788)b 789)c 790)c 791)c 792)a 793)c
794) b,c,d,e 795) c 796) d 797) a 798) c 799) a 800) a 801) d 802) a 803) a
OPHTHALMOLOGY[927]

STRABISMUS 813. Iris cyst are induced by - (SGPGI02)

804. Pseudoconvergent squint is seen with - (PGI93) a) Atropine b) Pilocarpine
a) Thyrotoxicosis c) Phenylephrine d) Ecothiopate
b) Broad epicanthus 814. Iris cysts are prevented by - (KA 01)
c) Abducent squint a) Atropine b) Pilocarpine
d) Narrow interpupillary distance c) Phenylephrine d) Ecothiopate
805. Child with mild squint Intrauterine, birthhistory, 815. Diplopia is not a presenting feature in-(PGI June 98)
developmental history till date all normaL Corneal a) Manifest squint b) Paralytic squint
reflex normal. All other eye parameters normal c) Latent squint d) Anisometropia
except exaggerated^epicnii^b^£olds' 816. Uncrossed diplopia in seen in - (AIIMS Jun 97)\
a) Pseudostrabismus . (NEET/DNB a) Exotropia b) Exophoria
iCfSSMJ:
b) Accomrn^datiy^r.squmC3ir; <hr&z c) Esotropia d) Esophoria
$00 c) Exopbqim u iBp' 817. Lateral rectus palsy is characterized by - (AJ 9 7)
\0M d) Esophoria - ‘ a) Crossed diplopia
806. Latent squint is also known as - (MH 11) b) Uncrossed diplopia
a) Hyperphoria b) Exophoria
c) Suppression of eye ball
c) Heterophoria d)Esopheria
d) Upward rotated eye ball
807. True about infantile esotropia - (PGI June 08)
a) Presented from birth 818. All are true about paralytic strabismus EXCEPT -
b) Large angle of deviation a) Binocular diplopia
c) Inferior oblique muscle hyperactivity b) False orientation
d) Variale angle of deviation c) Primary deviation = Secondary deviation
e) A/W refractive error d) False projection
808. Which of the following are features of congenital 819. Manifestation of squint in children are all
esotropia- (PGI June 05) EXCEPT- (AIIMSDec 98, Sept 96)
a) Present since birth a) Diplopia b) Confusion
b) Abduction abnormality c) Deviation of eye d) Stereopsis
c) Inferior oblique involved 820. What is incorrect about paralytic squint -
d) Surgery is treatment of choice a) Deviation is more on radial side (AIIMS May 94)
e) Small angle squint b) Deviation is same in all directions
809. Rx of Accommodative squint in children is - c) Deviation is more on lateral side
a) Surgery (AIIMS Dec 95) d) There is no deviation
b) Occlusion of one eye
821. All are TRUE about paralytic squint, EXCEPT -
c) Convergent exercise
a) Head tilt b) Lateral deviation
d) Correction of refractory error
810. A 3 year- old child presents with a right convergent c) Diplopia d) Amblyopia (AIIMSDec 92)
squint of 6 months duration. What is the appropriate 822. What is not a feature of paralytic squint -
management ? (AIIMS May 04) a) Diplopia (AIIMS Dec 94)
a) Immediate surgical correction followed by b) Decreased visual acuity
amblyopia therapy c) Limited movement of eye ball
b) Proper refractive correction, amblyopia therapy d) Change of head posture
followed by surgical correction 823. A feature of paralytic squint is - (AIIMS Dec 94)
c) Prescrible spectacles and defer surgery until the a) Detected by cover uncover test
child is 5 year old b) Always divergent
d) Botulinum toxin injection followed by occlusion c) Clinically called tropia
therapy d) Associated with decreased vision
811. A 3 years old child with 15° esotropia management 824. In concomitant squint - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
of the child will be - (PGIDec 05) a) Primary deviation > Secondary deviation
a) Refraction correction b) Prism cover test
b) Scondary deviation > Primary deviation
c) Surgery alignment d) Wait and watch
c) Primary deviation - Secondary deviation
812. TVue regarding accommodative esotropia is -
a) Glasses are used when miotics ineffective J^w ? - V' " ^
b) Miotics are used when glasses are ineffective 825. Angle of squint is measured by -(NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Use of both together salvage patient who does V ^sQbmo^d0^(" '"a b) Prism < -
not respond to one (PGI 96) c) Retinoscopy d) Keratometry
d) Miotics are used in high AC/ A ratio

804)b 805)a 806)c 807)b,c 808)c,d 809)d 810)b 811)a,c 812)d 813)d 814)c 815)c 816)c 817)b
818)c 819)d 820)b 821)d 822)b 823)a,c 824)c 825)b
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 928 ]

826. A12 year old boy presented with right eye vision 6/ 836. The only cranial nerve which supplies a
36 and left eye vision of 6/6 after maximum contralateral muscle is - (SCTIMS 98)
correction retinoscopy shows fundus and anterior a) Third b) Fourth
chamber is normal - (AI02, A1IMS June 00) c) Seventh d) Tenth
Right eye = +4.5 Din both axis 837. A patient presents with diplopia with limitations of
Left eye = + 1.5 D in both axis adduction in the left eye and abducting saccade in
Cause of decreased vision in right eye is
the right eye. Convergence is preserved. Most likely
a) Refractive error
etiology is - (AIIMSMay 09)
b) Amblyopia
c) Optic neuritis a) Partial 3rd nerve palsy
b) Intemuclear ophthalmoplegia
d) Occipital lobe infaraction
827. Amblyopia should be corrected by the- c) Duane’s reactionary syndrome
(AIIMS
a) < 5 year of age b) 5-8 year June 91) d) Absence of medial rectus muscle
c) 8-12 year d) 10-15 year 838. Internuclear opthalmoplegia is caused due to lesion
828. Treatment of choice,for amblyopia is - ^ in - (AIIMS May 02)
a) Convergent exercises 94, NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Occipital lobes
b) Spectacles b) Pretectal fibres
c) Surgery c) Medial longitudinal fasciculus
d) Parapontine reticular fibres
829. Amblyopia is treated by - (PGI June 03) 839. Lesion in unilateral medial longitudinal fasciculus
a) Optical correction b) Occlusion causes - (SGPGI05)
c) Orthoptic exercise d) Pleoptic exercise a) Hemiplegia
830. Regarding amblyopia which of following is true - b) Hemianopia
a) Reversible loss of vision c) Internal ophthalmoplegia
b) Associated with squint d) Intemuclear ophthalmoplegia
c) Defect in refractive error 840. A 26 yrs old male with restriction of eye movements
d) Surgery is treatment of choice in all directions &moderate ptosis but with no
e) Exercise is done diplopia or squint. Diagnosis is - (AIIMS Nov 09)
831. Regarding ambylopia which of the following is true- a) Thyroid ophthalmopathy
a) Spectacles should be used (PGI June 05) b) Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia
b) T/t with occlusion method c) Myasthenia gravis
c) Surgery is the TOC d) Multiple cranial nerve palsies
d) Idiopathic condition 841. Ophthalmoplegic migraine means -
832. A16 year old boy complains of pain in the right eye. a) Headache with irreversible loss of ophthalmic
After refractometry, he was prescribed a+3.5 D nerve function (AI 11, AIIMS May 03)
sphere lens. The cover test is normal. There is no b) Recurrent transient 3rd nerve palsy associated with
heterophoria. The diagnosis is - (AIIMSMay 01) headache
a) Organic amblyopia c) Headache associated with 3rd, 4th & 6th nerve palsy
b) Anisometric amblyopia d) Headache associated with optic neuritis
c) Emmetropic amblyopia Si® Ataxia, nystagmus and ophthalmoplegia is seen in -
d) Toxic amblyopia a) Mysthenia gravis (NEET/DNB Pattern)
833. True stereopsis is perceived due to the following -
a) Overlay of contours (AIIMSMay 06)
b) Motion parallax a) None
c) Bi-nasal disparity 843. Which of the following best defines the “Saccade” -
d) Linear perspective a) Voluntary slow eye movements
834. Which of these can cause 3rd nerve paralysis - b) Involuntary slow eye movement
a) Posterior communicating artery (PCA) aneurysm c) Abrupt, involuntary slow eye movements
b) Tolosa - Hunt syndrome (PGI June 02) d) Abrupt, involuntary rapid eye movements
c) Midbrain infarct 844. All horizontal movements of eye are affected by
d) Pons Infarct lesions in the - (AIIMSMay 93)
e) Lateral medullary lesion a) Cerebellum b) Midbrain
835. HI nerve palsy with pupillary sparing is seen in - c) Cerebrum d) Pons
a) Craniopharyngioma (AIIMSNov 09, May 95) 845. Final centre for horizontal movements of eye is-(AI 08)
b) Hypertension a) Abducent nucleus b) Trochlear nucleus
c) Aneurysm of post, communicating artery c) Oculomotor nucleus d) Vestibular nucleus
d) DM

826) b 827) a 828)d 829)a,b,d 830)a,b,c,e 831)a,b 832)b 833)c 834)a,b,c 835)d 836)b 837)b 838)c
839) d 840)b 841)c 842)b 843) d 844)d 845) a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 929 ]

846. Left sided lateral gaze is affected in lesion of-(AI 01) 858. The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in
a) Right frontal lobe b) Right occipital lobe adults - (ARMS Nov 05; AI 06)
c) Left occipital lobe d) Left frontal lobe a) Nerurofibroma b) Meningioma
847. Down beat nystagmus could be due to-(PGI June 99) c) Cavernous haemangioma d) Schwannoma
a) Cerebellar lesion b)Amold-Chiari malformation 859. MC orbital tumor - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Optic neuritis d) Pontine lesion a) Nerve sheath tumor b) Hemangioma
848. A patient has a right homonymous hemianopia with c) Lymphoma d) Meningioma
saccadic pursuit movements and defective 860. Most commonorbital tumor has its origin from -
optokinetic nystagmus. The lesion is most likely to a) Blood vessels, (NEET/DNB Pattern)
be in the - (ARMS Nov 05) b) Nerves . '*?
a) Frontal lobe b) Occipital lobe c) Muscle
c) Parietal lobe d) Temporal lobe 4) Lymph node
849. Weakness of both Adduction and Abduction is 861,
seen in- (AI1MS May 12) a) Squamous cell Ca (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Duane's Retraction Syndrome Type 1 b) Basal cell ca ISM
b) Duane's Retraction syndrome Type 2
d) Lymphoma
c) Duane's Retraction syndrome Type 3
862. As regards to intraocular retinoblastoma, which one
d) All
of the following statements is fsdse-(AIIMSMay 06)
a) 94% of cases are sporadic
TUMORS b) Patients with sporadic retinoblastoma do not pass
their genes to their offsprings
850. Most common intraocular tumour in adult - c) Calcification in the tumor can be detected on
a) Metastasis (ARMSMay 93) ultrasound scan
b) Retinoblastoma d) Reese-Ellsworth classification is useful in
c) Malignant melanoma predicting visual prognosis following radiotherapy
d) Vitreous tumour 863. Knudson’s two stage hypothesis is for -
851. Most common orbital tumor in chRdren-(AIlMSJime97) a) Glaucoma (PGI Dec 00, PGI Dec 99)
a) Rhabdomyosarcoma b) Retinoblastoma b) Retinoblastoma
c) Melanoma d)Chloroma c) Optic glioma
852. The commonest malignant tumor of the orbit in the d) Meningioma
1st decade is - (ARMS June 92) 864. Familial retinoblastoma - (PGI June 02)
a) Retinoblastoma b) Neuroblastoma a) Has autosomal recessive inheritance
c) Rhabdomyosarcoma d)Chloroma b) More commonly bilateral
853. The most common malignant orbital tumor in c) Due to mutation
children is - (AI11) d) More common than sporadic retinoblastoma
a) Rhabdomyosarcoma b) Cavernous Hemangioma e) Poorer prognosis than sporadic type
c) ALL d)AML 865. Pseudorosettes are seen in - (PGI June 98)
854. In which of the following, orbital metastasis is a) Retinoblastoma b) Ophthalmic nodosa
c) Phakolytic glaucoma d) Trachoma
common - (ARMS May 95,94,93)
866. Rosettes are characteristically seen in - (AI 08)
a) Hypernephroma b) Hepatoma
a) Dysgerminoma b) Melanoma
c) Neuroblastoma d) Melanoma
c) Retinoblastoma d) Lymphoma
855. Most common tumor to extend from intracranial to
867. Calcification is pathognomonic feature of -(Kara H)
orbit is - (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Malignant melanoma of choroid
a) Astrocytoma b) Retinocytoma
b) Pituitary adenoma ■?}./ r. * .,*■ r,- / ■ c) Retinoblastoma
c) Craniopharyngioma d) Angiomatosis retinae
d) Sphenoidal wing meningioma 868. All are presentation of retinoblastoma except -
856. The most common primary cause of intraocular a) Leucocoria b) Squint (ARMS Feb 97)
tumor in children -(SGPGI05, NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Cataract d) Glaucoma
a) Retinoblastoma b) Rhabdomyosarcoma 869. Increased LDH in Aqueous Humor suggest a
c) Neuroblastoma d) Melanoma diagnosis of - (AI 09)
857. Most common eye ball tumour is - (ARMS Dec 95) a) Galactosemia b) Retinoblstoma
a) Retinoblastoma b) Sarcoma c) Glaucoma d) Gyrate atrophy
c) Medulloblastoma d) Malignant melanoma

846) a 847) a,b 848) c 849) c 850) a 851) a 852) c 853) a 854) c 855) d 856) a 857) d 858) c 859)b
860) a 861) a 862) b 863) b 864)b,c,e 865) a 866) c 867) c 868) c 869) b
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 930 ]

870. The most common mode of spread of Retinoblstoma 880. A patient with known mutation in the‘RB gene’ is
is - (AI 12) ‘disease free’ from Retinoblastoma. The patient is
a) Hematogenous b) Lymphatogenous at highest risk of developing which of following
c) Optic nerve d) Trans-scleral malignancies- (AI 10)
871. All of the following can cause a white pupillary reflex a) Renal cell carcinoma b) Osteosarcoma
except- (AI 04) c) Pinealoblastoma d) Chondrosarcoma
a) Retinoblastoma b) Cataract 881. A child with a unilateral white reflex raised IOP.
c) Retrolental fibroplasias d) Glaucoma The required investigations are - (PGI Dec 05)
872. The differential diagnosis of retinoblastoma would a) USG b) Observation under anaesthesia
c) Tonometry d) X-ray
include all except - (A11MS May 03)
882. Management of retinoblastoma - (PGI June 03)
a) Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous
a) Enucleation b) Chemotherapy
b) Coat’s disease
c) Radiotherapy d)USG
c) Retinal astrocytoma e) Fluorescein angiography
d) Retinal detachment 883. A one year old child having leucocoria was detected
873. Leucocoria seen is - (PGI Dec 06) to be having a unilateral, large retinoblastoma filling
a) PHPV b) Coat’s disease half the globe. Current therapy would involve -
c) RD. d) Retinopathy of prematurity a) Enucleation (AI03)
874. Leucokoria can be seen in all except - b) Chemotherapy followed by local dyes
a) Persistant hyperplastic primary vitreous c) Direct Laser ablation using photodynamic
b) Congenital glaucoma (AIIMS Nov 01) cryotherapy
c) Fungal endopthalmitis d) Scleral radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy.
d) Retinoblastoma 884. Ideal treatment of B/L retinoblastom2l -(PG1 June 04,
875. Pseudoglioma differs from Retinoblastoma in that a) Enucleation Jipmer02)
pseudoglioma is associated with - (AI 95) b) Radiation
a) Decreased intraocular pressure c) Chemotherapy
b) Blurring of vision d) Cyclophotocoagulation
c) Enlargement of the optic foramen 885. Most B/L multifocal retinoblastoma require -
d) All of the above a) Chemotherapy (CMC03)
876. The mother of a one and a half year old child gives b) Radiotherapy
history of a white reflex from one eye for the past 1 c) Enucleation
month. On computed tomography scan of the orbit d) Multimodality therapy
886. In retinoblastoma, after enucleation, which tissue
there is calcification seen within the globe. The most
is sectioned to find out systemic metastasis -
likely diagnosis is - (AI 05)
a) Central retinal artery (AIIMS June 99)
a) Congenital cataract b) Retinoblastoma
b) Sclera and episclera
c) Endophtalmitis d) Coats disease
c) Optic nerve
877. A 2 year old child presented with leucocoria in the
d) Vortex vein
right eye since 2 months. On examination a total 887. Treatment of metastatic disease in retinobastoma
retinal detachment was present in the same eye. is - (UP 03)
Ultrasound B scan revealed a heterogenous a) Chemotherapy b) Enucleation
subretinal mass with calcification. The most likely c) Radiotherapy d)Cryo
clinical diagnosis is - (AIIMS Nov 02) 888. Treatment of small tumour of retinoblastoma is -
a) Coats- disease b) Retinoblastoma a) Enucleation b) Eviceration (UP 07)
c) Toxocariasis d) Retinal tuberculoma c) Brachytherapy d) Chemotherapy
878. One year old male child with cat’s eye reflex and 889. A 5 yr old boy presented with leukocoria in right
raised IOT - (PGI Dec 00) eyeball diagnosed to be retinoblastoma involving full
a) Toxplasma gondii infection eyeball, while other eye had 2-3 small lesions in the
b) Toxcara canis periphery. What will be the ideal management for
c) Retinoblastoma this patient? (AI 11)
d) Retinopathy of prematurity a) Enucleation of both eyes
e) Noorie’s disease b) Enucleation of right eye & conservative
879. The most common second malignant in survivors of management of the other eye
retinoblastoma is - (AI 06) c) Enucleation of right eye and focal therapy of the
a) Thyroid cancer b) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma other eye
c) Optic glioma d) Osteosarcoma d) 6 cycles of chemotherapy

870)c 871)d 872)None 873)a,b,c,d 874)b 875)a 876) b 877)b 878)c 879)d 880)b 881)a,b,c,d
882) a,b,c,d 883) a 884) b 885) d 886) c 887) a 888) c>d 889) c
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 931 ]

890. True about Retinobastoma - (PGI June 09) ORBIT

a) Leucocoria is most common presentation
b) Always unilateral 900. Commonest cause for bilateral proptosis in children
c) May have family history is- (All!)
d) Enucleation is the only treatment a) Cavernous hamangioma b)Chloroma
e) Most common age group affected is 1-2 yr c) Fibrous histiocytoma d) Rhabdomyosarcoma
891. Retinoblastoma- (Manipal 09) 901. Which of the following tumours present with
a) Is inherited in 50% of cases proptosis - (PGI June 05)
b) Is caused by deletion of 1 lql4 a) Neuroblastoma b) Nephroblastoma
c) Rosettes suggest good prognosis c) Germ cell tumour d) Medulloblastoma
e) Meningioma
d) Causes death in 60% of sufferers in the UK
902. Proptosis is seen in - (DPG 09, PGI Dec 97)
892. Which of the following is not of prognostic
a) Neuroblastoma c) Meningioma
significance to choroidal melanoma? (AJIMSMay 06)
c) Sympathetic ophthalmia d) Injuries
a) Presence of retinal detachment 903. Childhood malignancy producing proptosis is/are-
b) Size of the tumour a) Neuroblastoma b) Chloroma (PGIDec
c) Cytology of the tumor cells c) Optic nerve glioma d) Retinoblastoma 05)
d) Presence of extraocular extension e) Wilm’s tumour
893. Vortex Vein invasion is commonly seen in -(AI03) 904. A patient presented with unilateral proptosis which
a) Retinoblastoma b) Malignant melanoma was compressible and increases on bending forward.
c) Optic nerve gliomas d) Medullo-epitheliomas No thrill or bruit was present. MRI shows a
894. Most common type of optic nerve glioma is- retroorbital mass with enhancement. The likely
a) Gemistocytic b) Fibrous (AIIMS 98) diagnosis is - (AIIMSMay 10,12)
c) Protoplasmic d) Pilocytic a) AV malformations b) Orbital encephalocoecle
895. Which one of the following statements is incorrect c) Orbital varix d) Neurofibromatosis
about Optic glioma? (AI 06) 905. Most common cause of intermittent proptosis -
a) Has a peak incidence in first decade a) Orbital varices ■* (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Arises from oligodendrocytes
c) Causes meningeal hyperplasia c) Cavernous sinus thrombosid
d) Is associated with type I neurofirbromatosis d) Retinoblastoma ci • ^
896. A child age 5 years, presents with loss of vision and 906. Most common cause of unilateral proptosis is -
mild proptosis of left eye. On examination direct a) Thyrotoxicosis (AIIMS 93)
light reflex is absent but consensual is present in b) Retinoblastoma
left eye. He is - (AIIMS Nov 00) c) Intraocular haemorrhage
d) Raised intracranial tension
a) Optic nerve glioma b) Optic sheath meningioma
907. Kamla, age 48 yrs, presents with unilateral mild
c) Retinoblastoma d) Optic disc angioma
axial proptosis. There is no redness or pain.
897. 20 yrs old female presents with proptosis and
Investigation of choice is - (AIIMS Nov 00)
Abducens nerve palsy. On MRI scan, hyperintense
a) T3 & T4 measurement to rule out thyrotoxicosis
lesions were seen on T2 weighted images which b) CT scan to rule out meningioma
showed intense homogenous contrast enhancement. c) Doppler to rule out hemangioma
Most probable diagnosis is - (AIIMS Nov 08, 10) d) USG to rule out orbital pseudotumor
a) Meningioma b) Astrocytoma 908. Dysthyroid ophthalmopathy all are true except -
c) Schwannoma d) Cavernous hemangioma a) Proptosis b) Myopathy (PGI Dec 98)
898. In Von Hippel - Lindau Syndrome, the retinal c) Exophthalmos d) Optic neuritis
vascular tumour are often associated with 909. Thyroid ophthalmopathy a/w- (PGI June 04)
intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which one of the a) External ophthalmoplegia
following regions is associated with such vascular b) Internal ophthalmoplegia
abnormalities in the syndrome? (AI 05) c) Proptosis
a) Optic radiation b) Optic tract d) Large extra- ocular muscle
c) Cerebellum d)Pulvinar e) Lid lag
899. Retinal astrocytoma is seen m-(NEET/DNB Pattern) 910, The most common ocular motility problem in thyroid
a) Tuberous sclerosis myopathyis due to involvement of-
(AIIMS June 92, NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Medial rectus b) Sueprior rectus
d)Kbne c) Inferior rectus d) Inferior oblique

890)a,c,e 891)c 892)a 893)b 894)d 895)c 896)a 897)a 898)c 899)a 900)b 901)a,b,e 902)a,b,e
903) All 904) c 905) a 906) a 907) a 908) d 909)a,c,d,e 910)c
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 932 ]

911. True statement about dysthyroid eye disease (grave’s 919. Which of the following are orbital tumours -
opthalmopathy) is - (AI93) a) Glioma b) Lymphoma
a) Decreased power of divergence c) Chloroma d) Meningioma
b) Most common casue of U/L proptosis in <25 years c) Schwannoma (PGI Dec 08)
age group 920. All of the following type of lymphoma are commonly
c) Extreme exopthalmos is usually seen in seen in the orbit except - (AIIMS May 03)
hypothyroidism a) Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma, mixed lymphocytic &
d) On looking upwards lower lid does not follow eye histiocytic.
movements b) Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma, lymhocytic poorly
912. All the following signs could result from infection differentiated.
within the right cavernous sinus except- c) Burkitt’s lymphoma
a) Constricted pupil in response to light d) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b) Engorgement of the retinal veins upon 921. A tumor has the following characteristics
ophthalmoscopic examination (AIIMSMay 03) retrobulbar location within the muscle cone, well
c) Ptosis of the right eyelid defined capsule, presents with slowly progressive
d) Right ophthalmoplegia proptosis,easily resectable, occurs most commonly
913. Paralysis of 3rd, 4th, 6th nerves with involvement of in the 2nd to 4th decade. Most likely diagnosis is -
ophthalmic division of 5th nerve, localizes the lesion a) Capillary hemangioma (AIIMS May 08)
to- (AI 05) b) Cavernous hemangioma
a) Cavernous sinus b) Apex of orbit c) Lymhangioma
c) Brainstem d) Base of skull d) Hemangiopericytoma
914. All the following signs could result from infection 922. Structures passing through superior orbital fissure-
within the right cavernous sinus, except- a) 2nd CN b) 3rd CN
a) Loss of pupillary light reflex (AIIMS Nov 03) th
c) 4 CN d) 6th CN
b) Loss of comeal blink reflex e) Lacrimal nerve (PGI Nov 10)
c) Ptosis 923. Ayoung man following RTA presented with proptosis
d) Right ophthalmopegia and pain in right eye after four days. On examination
915. All the following signs could result from infection there is bruise on forehead and right eye. What is
within the right cavernous sinus except - the diagnosis - (AIIMS Nov 11)
a) Constricted pupil in response to light a) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
b) Engorgement of the retinal veins upon b) Internal carotid artery aneurysm
ophthalmoscopic examination c) Carotico-cavemous fistula
c) Ptosis of the right eyelid (AIIMS May 03) d) Fracture of sphenoid
d) Right Ophthalmolegia 924. A young adult presents with proptosis and pain in
916. A19 year old young girl with previous history of eye after 4 days of trauma to eye. Chemosis,
repeated pain over medial canthus and chronic use conjunctival congestion and extraocular muscle
of nasal decongestants, presented with abrupt onset palsy with inability to move eye are seen. Investigation
of fever with chills & rigor, diplopia on lateral gaze, of choice - (AIIMS Nov-11)
moderate proptosis & chemosis. On examination a) MRI b) Digital subtraction angiography
optic disc is congested. Most likely diagnosis c) CT d) MR angiography
is- (AI 11, AIIMS Nov 09) 925. A 8 year old boy presented with swelling in the
a) Cavernous sinus thrombosis left eye of 3months, examination revealed
b) Orbital cellulitis proptosis of left eye with preserved vision. Right eye
c) Acute Ethmoidal sinusitis is normal. CT scan revealed intraorbital extraconal
d) Orbital apex syndrome mass lesion. Biopsy revealed embryonal
917. Unilateral proptosis with bilateral VIth nerve palsy, rhabdomyosarcoma. Metastatic work up was normal
diagnosis is - (AIIMS Dec 91) The standard line of treatment is - (AIIMS Nov 02)
a) Grave’s disease a) Chemotherapy only
b) Retinoblastoma b) Wide local excision
c) Pseudotumour of orbit c) Enucleation
d) Cavernous sinus thrombosis d) Chemotherapy and Radiaton therapy
918. Orbital apex syndrome constitutes all except -
LIDS
a) Ptosis (MP 06)
b) CSF rhinorrhea
c) Ophthalmoplegia
d) Pain over distribution of optic nerve

911)c 912)a 913)a 914)None 915)a 916)a 917)d 918)b 919)All 920)d 921)b 922)b,e 923)c 924)b
925)d 926)d
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 933 ]

927. Chalazion of lid is - , (AIIMSMayOS, NEET/DNB 939. Shanti, aged 27 yrs presented with complaints of
a) Caseous necrosis Pattern) difficulty in reading near print. There is ptosis and
b) Chronic nonspecific inflammation diplopia in all directions. She is h L\mg-(AUMSNov 00)
c) Chronic lipogranuloraatpus inflammation a) III CN palsy b) Myasthenia gravis
d) Liposarcoma c) Presbyopia d) VI CN palsy
928. Chalazion is/are - (PGI Dec 02) 940. Ptosis with weakness of orbicularis- oculi is an early
a) True meibomian cyst b) Mucous cyst feature of - (AI 99)
c) Sebaceous cyst d) Cyst of hair follicle
a) Fisher syndrome b) Myasthenia gravis
e) Obstruction of meibomian gland
c) Eaten lambert syndrome d) Thyrotoxicosis
929. Which among the following statements is true
regarding chalazion - (PGI Dec 01) 941. Fasanella Servan operation is specifically indicated
a) Mucous cyst in- (AI03)
b) Sebaceous cyst a) Congenital ptosis b) Steroid induced ptosis
c) Due to staphylococcal infection c) Myasthenia gravis d) Homer’s syndrome
d) Recurrence may imply malignancy 942. Lid lag on the ptotic side on down gaze is
e) Occlusion of Meibomian gland characteristic of - (PGI June 97, AIIMS June 92)
930. TVue about Chalazion treatment - (PGI Dec 05) a) Congenital ptosis b) Traumatic ptosis
a) Intralesional steroid b) Laser c) Myogenic ptosis d) Synkinetic ptosis
c) Curettage d)I&D 943. A patient with ptosis presents with retraction of the
e) Medical treatment ptotic eye lid on chewing. This represents - (AI 10)
931. Treatment of chalazion - (PGI June 04) a) Marcus Gunn Jaw winking sydrome
a) Incision & drainage b) Curettage b) Third nerve misdirection syndrome
c) Intralesion steroid d) Pressure bandage c) Abducent palsy
e) Antibiotics d) Occulomotor palsy
932. A recurrent chalazion should be subjected to
944. * Loss of eyelashes is - f r ^
histopathologic evalution to exclude the possibility
a) Tylosis §j|j
of- (AIIMS May 06, AI12)
a) Squamous cell carcinoma c) Trichiasis
Mostcommohma
Iftlfl
b) Sebaceous cell carcinoma
c) Malignant melanoma
d) Basal cell carcinoma b) Basal cell carcinoma i
933. Recurrent chalazion is predisposed to develop - fe) Squamous cell ca __
a) Squamous cell carcinoma (AIIMS May 02) d) Malignant melanoma
b) Basal cell carcinoma The operation of plication of inferior lid retractors
c) Adenocarcinoma is indicated in - (AI 03)
d) Epidermoid carcinoma a) Senile ectropion b) Senile entropion
934. Fusion of palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva is- c) Cicatrical entropion d) Paralytic entropion
a) Symblepharon b) Trichiasis (NEET/DNB 947. All of the following are the features of Horner’s
c) Ectropion d) Tylosis Pattern) syndrome Except - (AIIMS Nov 08)
935. Eyelid drooping is 7 are seen in - (PGI Nov. 16) a) Ptosis and Miosis in ipsilateral eye
a) Damage to edinger - westphal nucleus b) Anhydrosis of ipsilateral face
b) Damage to motor part of facial nerve c) Hetrochromia irides
c) Damage to sympathetic nerve supply
d) Apparent exophthalmos
d) Damage to motor root of occulomotor nerve
948. Horner’s syndrome consists of - (AIIMS May 02)
e) Damage to lacrimal nerve
936. Ptosis results from trauma to which nerve - a) Miosis and enophthalmos
a) vn b)'vm (AIIMS Feb 97) b) Miosis and exophthalmos
c) m d)VI c) Miosis and proptosis
937. Bilateral ptosis is not seen in- (AI 01) d) Miosis and ptosis
a) Marfan’s syndrome b) Myaesthenia gravis 949. Features of Horner’s syndrome include all of the
c) Myotonic dystrophy d) Kearns sayre syndrome following except- (AI 98, Punjab 11)
938. Weakness of extraocular muscle may be seen in all a) Miosis b) Ptosis
of the following conditions except - (AI 99) c) Anhydrosis d) Exopthalmos
a) Polymyositis 950. All of the following are components of Horner’s
b) Myasthenia-gravis syndrome except - (AI 96)
c) Eaten-lambert-myasthenic syndrome a) Ptosis b) Exophthalmos
d) Thyrotoxicosis c) Anhidrosis d) Loss of cilio- spinal reflex

927) c 928) a,c,e 929)b,d,e 930)a,c,d,e 931)a,b,c,e 932) b 933) c 934) a 935) c,d 936) c 937) a 938) a
939) b 940) b 941) d 942)c 943)a 944)b 945)b 946)b 947)d 948)d 949)d 950)b
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 934 ]

951. Horner’s syndrome, all are true except-(PGI June 00) 962. MC ocular manifestation of mumps \s-(AHMSDec 97)
a) Unilateral loss of sweating b) Enophthalmos a) Dacryoadenitis b) Chorioretinitis
c) Mydriasis d) Ptosis c) Anterior uveitis d) Memb. conjunctivitis
952, Madarosis is seen in - (NEET/DNB Pattern) 963. Crocodile tears are seen in - (PGI June 98)
a) Addison’s disease b) Hypothyroidism a) Frey’s syndrome
'}k$ Acromegaly 'None •: b) Conjunctivitis
LACRIMAL APPARATUS c) Lacrimal tumour
d) Abnormal VII nerve regeneration
953. Mucin layer tear flilm deficiency occurs in -
a) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (AIIMS May 06, OCULAR TRAUMA
b) Lacrimal gland removal Dec 95)
c) Canalicular block
964. In blunt injury to eye, following changes are seen
d) Herpetic keratitis
EXCEPT- (AIIMS Dec 98)
954. A two months old child presents with epiphora and
regurgitation. The most probable diagnosis is - a) Macular hole b) Berlin’s edema
a) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis c) Subluxation of lens d) Soft exudates
b) Buphthalmos 965. Traumatic eye lesion can causes - (PGI Dec 08)
c) Congenital dacryocystitis a) Vitreous haemorrhage
d) Encysted mucocele b) Comeal opacity
955. Treatment of chronic dacrocystitis - (PGIDec 05,00) c) Exudative retinal detachment
a) Dacrocystorhinostomy b) Antibiotics d) Glaucoma
c) Probing d) Massage e) Cataract
956. Treatment of dacrocystitis includes all except - 966. Which of the following is not seen in blunt trauma
a) Probing b) Syringing to eye - (AIIMS Feb 97)
c) Endoscopic DCR d) DCR (PGI Nov 09) a) Retinal detachment
e) Dacryocystectomy (DCT) b) Double perforation in iris
957. Treatment of nasolacrimal duct obstruction - c) Hyphaema
a) Syringing b) Probing (PGI June 08) d) Iridiodialysis
c) DCR d) Dacryocystectomy 967. Voissius ring is seen in the - (AI 96, AIIMS 94)
e) Antibiotic a) Cornea
958. Initial treatment of congenital dacryocystitis - b) Anterior capsule of the lens
a) Massaging b) Probing (PGI 05) c) Posterior capsule of the lens
c) DCR d)Ointment d) Iris
e) No treatment required 968. Vossius ring occurs in - (AIIMSDec 90)
959. A mother noticed mucopurulent discharge from the
a) Lens dislocation b) Concussion injury
right puncta of her 3 month old child. There is h/o
c) Penetrating injury d) Extra capsular extraction
watering from his right eye, t/t is -(AIIMS Nov 99)
a) Syringing 969. Vossius ring is seen in - (Corned 07)
b) Probing with syringing a) Cornea b)Lens
c) Sac massage with topical antibiotics c) Vitreous d) Retina
d) Dacryocysto- rhinostomy 970. Rosette shaped cataract is seen in - (PGI June 00)
960. Epiphora is- (AI02) a) Trauma b) Radiation
a) Cerebrospinal fluid running from the nose after c) DM d) Iridocyclitis
fracture of anterior cranial fossa 971. Secondary glaucoma associated with angle
b) An epiphenomenors of a cerebral tumor recession is seen in - (AIIMS Dec 94)
c) An abnormal overflow of tears due to obstruction a) Concussion injury b) Radiation injury
of lacrimal duct c) Penetrating injury d) Chemical injury
d) Eversion of lower eyelid following injury 972. An 18 year old boy comes to the eye casuality with
961. A 60 year old man presented with watering from his history of injury with a tennis ball. On examination
left eye since 1 year. Syringing revealed a patent there is no perforation but there is hyphaema. The
drainage system. Rest of the ocular examination was most likely source of the blood is - (AI 05)
noraml. A provisional diagnosis of lacrimal pump a) Iris vessels
failure was made. Confirmations of the diagnosis b) Circulus iridis major
would be by- (AIIMS Nov 02) c) Circulus iridis minor
a) Dacryoscintigraphy b) Dacryocystography d) Short posterior ciliary vessels
c) Pressure syringing d) Canaliculus irrigation test

951)c 952) b 953) a 954)c 955)a,b,c,d 956)None 957) All 958)a 959)c 960)c 961)a 962)a 963)d
964)d 965)All 966)b 967)b 968)b 969)b 970)a 971)a 972)b
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 935 ]

973. In which of the following conditions Berlin’s edema 983. In sympathetic ophthalmitis first sign is -
is seen - (AIIMS May 06, Sept 96, PGIDec 98) a) Presence of KPs (PGI June 98, Feb 97,
a) Open angle glaucoma b) Retrolental flare AIIMS 94, Punjab 11)
b) After cataract surgery c) Presence of aquous flare
c) After concussional trauma d) Constriction of pupil
d) Diabetic retinopathy 984. First sign in sympathetic ophthamilis is - (AI 97)
974. 6D’ shaped pupil is seen in - (JIPMER 93) a) Presence of aquous flare
b) Presence of precipitates
a) Glaucoma b) Dislocation of lens
c) Constriction of pupil
c) Iridodialysis d) Iridocyclitis d) Retrolental flare
975. A boy gets hit by a tennis ball in the eye following 985. Dalen fuch’s nodule is seen in-(PGIDec 99, AIIMS 97)
which he has complaints of decreased vision. Which a) Sympathetic ophthalmitis b) Myopia
of the following tells that blunt injury is due to the c) Retinal detachment d) Spring catarrah
baU? (AI11) 986. Sympathetic ophthalmitis is characterized
a) Optic neuritis b) Pars planitis by- (Corned 07)
c) Vitreous base detachment d) Equatorial edema a) Lisch nodules b) Busacca nodules
976. A patient sustained blunt trauma to eye after that c) Koepee nodules d) Dalen Fuch’s nodules
the developed sudden loss of vision with deep anterior 987. Sympathetic ophthalmitis results due to -
chamber, Most likely cause is - (AIIMS June 99) a) Penetrating injury of ciliary body (PGIDec 97)
a) Lens dislocation b) Uveitis
b) Berlin’s oedema c) Glaucoma
c) Retinal haemorrhage d) Trachoma
d) Recession of angle of AC 988. Two weeks after an injury to his right eye, a boy
presents with bilateral pain and redness, most
977. Globe rupture due to blunt trauma is indicated by -
probable diagnosis is - (AIIMS Nov 00)
a) Blow out fracture (AIIMS Dec 91)
a) Sympathetic ophthalmitis b) Endophthalmitis
b) Lens subluxation
c) Optic neuritis d) Glaucoma
c) Contusion + haemorrhage + low intraocular 989. A 20 year old man complains of difficulty m reading
pressure the newspaper with his right eye, three weeks after
d) Proptosis and decreased mobility of muscle sustaining a gun shot injury to his left eye. The
978. A patient presented with pain in left eye associated most likely diagnosis is - (AI 03)
with visual distrubance, also a history of blunt a) Macular edema
trauma to eye 4 month back, first investigation of b) Sympathetic ophthalmitis
choice is - (AIIMS June 99) c) Optic nerve avulsion
a) Introcular tension b) Ophthalmoscopy d) Delayed viterous hemorrhage
c) Perimetry d) Ultrasound 990. Common feature between sympathetic Ophthalmitis
979. After blunt trauma to eye a pt. develops and vogt Kanayagi Harada syndrome -(PGI June 07)
circumcorneal congestion. The further test done a) Autoimmune etiology b) Injury
is - (AIIMS June 99) c) Uveitis d) Vitiligo
a) Perimetry 991. MC retained foreign body intraocularly -
b) Direct opthalmoscopy a) Airgun pellets b) Iron (AIIMS Dec 95)
c) Glass d) Chisel and hammer
c) Ultrasonography
992. Most common occular foreign body is - (AI 98)
d) Intraocular pressure measurement
a) Chiesel and hammer b) Glass
980. Dangerous area of eye - (AIIMS Nov 07) c) Plastics d) Stone
a) Ciliary body b) Optic nerve 993. Chalcosis is seen with - (AIIMS Dec 97)
c) Sclera d) Choroid a) Pb b)Cu
981. Sympathetic ophthalmitis is - (AIIMSMay 95) c) Fe d) Hg
a) U/L suppurative uveitis 994. What is deposited in Kyser-Fleischer ring -
b) B/L suppurative uveitis a) Copper b) Lead (NEET/DNB
c) U/L non- suppurative uveitis c) Mercury d) Heme - Pattern)
d) B/L non- suppurative uveitis 995. Blow out fracture of the orbit, most commonly leads
982. Earliest symptom of sympathetic ophthalmitis is - to fracture of - (AIIMS Nov 09)
a) Photophobia (AIIMS Dec 91) a) Posteromedial floor of orbit
b) Pain b) Medial wall of orbit
c) Loss of near vision c) Lateral wall of orbit
d) Loss of distant vision d) Roof of orbit

973)c 974)c 975)c 976)a 977)c 978)a 979)d 980)a 981)d 982)a 983)a 984)b 985)a 986) d
987) a 988) a 989) b 990) a,c 991) b 992) a 993) b 994)? 995) a
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 936 ]

996. "Blow out" fracture of orbit involve - (PGI03) 1007. A patient is on follow - up with you after enucleation
a) Floor b) Medial wall of a painful blind eye. After enucleation of the eyeball,
c) Lateral wall d)Roof a proper sized artificial prosthetic eye is advised
e) Apex after a postoperative period of - (AI 03)
997. Blow out # orbit is characterized by - (PGI 01) a) About 10 days b) About 20 days
a) Diplopia b) “Tear drop” sign c) 6-8 weeks d) 12-24 weeks
c) Forced duction test d) Exophthalmos 1008. Peripheral iridectomy is indicated in-
998. A boy presents with diplopia and restriction of eye a) Acute angle closure glaucoma (PGI Dec 05, 04)
movements following blunt trauma to his eye. X- ray b) Open angle glaucoma
reveals [Link] fracture of orbit. Which part of
c) Malignant glaucoma
orbit is most likely damaged - (A1IMS Nov 01)
d) InICCE
a) Superior wall b) Inferior wall
e) Pupil block glaucoma
c) Lateral wall d) Medial wall
1009, YAG laser is used in - (PGI Dec 99)
999. TVue about blow out # orbit - (PGI Dec 06)
a) Herniates into maxillary antrum a) Retinal detachment b) Diabetes
b) Movements restricted c) After-cataract d) Refractive errors
1010, Laser used in LASIK- (MH 11)
c) Looking down is easy
a) Excimer b) Argon
d) Silastic better for correction
c) Holmium d) Nd-yag
e) Diplopia
1011. The wavelength of laser (in nanometers) for shaping
1000. Most common cause of fracture of roof of
orbit- (AIMS May 09) cornea in refractive surgery is - (AI 12)
a) Blow on back of head b) Blow on parietal bone a) 193 nm b) 451 nm
c) Blow on the forehead d) Blow on the upper jaw c) 532 nm d) 1064 nm
1001. Traumatic eye with late presentation of hyper aemic
1012. Wavelength of ND: Yag laser - (PGI June 07)
a) 1040nm b) 1040mm
sclera with unilateral proptosis is due to -
c) 1040 cm d) 1040 m
a) Retrobulbar hematoma (AIMS June 00)
1013. Xerophthalmia is caused by - (PGI Nov. 10)
b) Retrobulbar cellulites
c) Carotico- cavernous fistula a) Vit C deficiency b) Small bowel resection
c) Cystic fibrosis d) Chronic alcoholism
d) Pneumo- orbit
1002. Unilateral lacrimal gland destruction may be caused
e) Glomerulonephritis
1014. Vit A deficiency produces - (PGI Dec 05)
by- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Inferior orbital fissure fracture a) Bitots Spots b) Trantas spots
b) Fracture of roof of orbit c) Keratomalacia d) Xerophthalmia
c) Fracture of lateral wall e) Colorblindness
1015. Cornea melts without inflammation in which
d) Fracture of sphenoid
condition - (TN 03)
1003. Alkali causes - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Symblepharon b) Papilloedema a) Gout b) Sarcoidosis
c) Keratomalacia d) Rheumatoid arthritis
c] Optic neuritis * * d) Retinal detachment
1016. Keratomalacia is - (PGI Dec 00)
MISCELLANEOUS a) Occurs due to Vit-A deficiency
b) Relatively benign condition
c) First feature ofVit- A deficiency
1004. Enucleation means - (PGIDec 97)
a) Removal of the contents of globe d) Also seen in retinitis pigmentosa
1017. Which of the following is true about Bitots spots -
b) Removal of the contents of globe and sclera except
a frill around the optic nerve a) Predispose to pingecula (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Removal of entire globe along with portion of optic b) Caused by hyperplasia of goblet cells
nerve c) Seen with fat malabsorption
d) Most common site is nasal site of conjunctiva
d) Removal of the entire contents of orbit
1018. Keratomalacia is associated with - (PGI June 01)
1005. Enucleation is done for - (PGI June 02)
a) Retinoblastoma b) Malignant melanoma a) Measles b) Mumps
c) Rubella d) Diarrhoea
c) Glaucoma d) Pthisis bulbi
e) Vitreous hemorrhage e) Chicken pox
1006. Enucleation of the eyeball is contraindicated 1019. Most common cause of blindness in India
(AI 98, NEET/DNB Pattern)
in- (AIMSMay 03)
a) Trachoma b) Vit-A deficiency
a) Endophthalmitis b) Panophthalmitis
c) Cataract d) Mypopia
c) Intraocular tumours d) Painful blind eye

996)a,b 997)a,b,c,d 998)b 999)a,b,d,e 1000)c 1001)a 1002)b 1003)a 1004)c 1005)a,b,d 1006)b 1007)c
1008) a,d,e 1009)c 1010)a 1011)a 1012)a 1013)b,c,d 1014))a,c,d 1015)c 1016) a 1017)c 1018) a,d 1019)c
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 937 ]

1020. Most common cause of blindness in children in India wm

except -(AIMS May 10, AI07,AIMS Nov 06, May 07) a) Neurofibromatosis b) Dov
a) Malnutrition b) Ophthalmia neonatorum c) Tuberous s
c) Glaucoma d) Congenital dacryocystitis 1034. Lamina cribrosa is absent in - (AI 07)
1021. Blindness in a child is most commonly due to - a) Morning glory syndrome
a) Keratomalacia b) Congenital cataract b) Nanophthalmia
c) Glaucoma d) Injuries (PGIJune97) c) Colobama of retina
1022. Most common cause of blindness in children in d) Optic nerve agenesis
India is - (AIMS Dec 92) 1035. A young patient presents to the ophthalmology
a) Trachoma b) Cataract clinic withloss of central vision. There is no obvious
c) Injury d) Vitamin A deficiency family history. ERG and EOG were observed to be
1023. Which is the commonest casuse of occular morbidity normal which of the following is the most likely
in the community - (AIMS Nov 02) diagnosis- (AI II)
a) Cataract b) Refractive error a) Stargardt’s disease
c) Occular injury d) Vitamin A deficiency b) Best’s Vitelliform Dystrophy
1024. The commonest cause of low vision in India is-(AI 03) c) Retinitis Pigmentosa
a) Uncorrected refractive errors b) Cataract d) Cone- Rod Dystrophy
1036. A young patient presents to the ophthalmology
c) Glaucoma d) Squint
clinic with loss of central vision. ERG is normal but
1025. Under the school eye screening programme in
EOG is abnormal. Which of the following is the most
India, the initial vision screening of school children
likely diagnosis - (AI 11)
is done by - (AIMS May 03)
a) Stargardt’s disease
a) School teachers b) Primary level health workers
b) Best’s Vtielliform Dystrophy
c) Eye specialists d) Medical officers c) Retinitis Pigmentosa
1026. The eye condition for which the World Bank assistance d) Cone- Rod Dystrophy
was provided to the National Programme for Control 1037. A young patient present with significant loss of
of Blindness (1994-2001) is - (AIMS May 03) central vision and a normal ERG There is no obvious
a) Cataract b) Refractive errors family history of similar presentation. The most
c) Trachoma d) Vitamin A deficiency likely diagnosis - (AI11)
1027. All of the following conditions are immediate a) Best’s disease b) Stargardt’s disease
priorities in the WHO’s “Vision - 2020: The Right c) Retinitis Pigmentosa d) Cone Rod Dystrophy
to sight” except- (AIMSMay 08) 1038. Aniridia is associated with - (AIMS Nov 09)
a) Trachoma b) Epidemic conjunctivitis a) Retinoblastoma b) Hepatoblastoma
c) Cataract d) Onchocerciasis c) Nephroblastoma d) Medulloblastoma
1028. All of the following are given global prominence in 1039. Von recklinghausen disease is associated with-
the VISION 2020 goals, except - (AIMSMay 03) a) Glaucoma (AI08)
a) Refractive errors b) Cataract b) Optic nerve glioma
c) Trachoma d) Glaucoma c) Neurofibroma of the lids
1029. | *8’ component of SAM} |||| Pattern) d) All the above
1040. Von recklinghausen disease is associated with-
a) Glaucoma (AI08)
1030. Under the WHO ‘Vision 2020’ programme, the b) Choroidal hemangioma
c) Sub-retinal neovascularization
‘SAFE’ strategy is adopted for which of the following
d) Anterior chamber angle malformation
diseases - (AI 05, AIMS 07)
1041. Telecanthus means - (AIMSMay 08)
a) Trachoma b) Glaucoma
a) Widened interpupillary distance
c) Diabetic retinopathy d) Onchocerciasis
b) Widened root of nose with normal interpupillary
1031. On SAFE strategy false is -
distance
a) Screening (AI 07, AIMS Nov 06, Nov 08) c) Widely separated medial orbital wall
b) Antibiotics d) Widely separated nose and medial canthi
c) Facial hygiene 1042. Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediatd by-
d) Environmental modification a) Vagus nerve (All India 06)
1032. Abnormaliy f eccentric placed pupil is b) Facial nerve
called - (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Trigeminal nerve
a) Polycoria b) Corectopia d) Glossopharyngeal nerve
V^r§?) Ahisbtpna *<-<- ^Mctogi^lqutis'f

1020)d 1021) a 1022)d 1023)b 1024)a 1025)a 1026)a 1027)b 1028)d 1029)b 1030)a 1031)a 1032)b 1033)b
1034) a 1035) a 1036)b 1037)b 1038)c 1039)d 1040)a>d 1041)b 1042)c
OPHTHALMOLOGY [ 938 ]

1043. All are ocular emergencies except - (AI04) 1052. -Thefedmmonestcdmplications aLtopicalistercfidfc
a) Angle closure glaucoma ; .. .is- > || (AI95:NEET/DNBPattern)
b) Central serous retinopathy
c) Retinal detachment
d) Central retinal arterial occlusion 1053. Topical steroids can be used in - (PGI Dec 06)
1044. Ocular manifestation of HIV are all except - a) Herpetic keratitis b) Herpetic dendritic keratitis
a) Predispose to viral, bacterial & fungal function c) Disciform keratitis d) Ant. uveitis
b) Kaposi sarcoma (PGI Nov 09) e) Parsplanitis
c) CMV retinitis 1054. Brown skin cornea is seen in - (PGI June 98)
d) Cotton wool spot a) Siderosis b) Mustard gas exposure
c) Chalcosis d) Argyrosis
e) Intraocular lymphoma
1055. Which drug can cause macular toxicity when given
1045. Ocular manifestations in AIDS - (PGI Dec 07)
intravitreally ? (All India 06)
a) Kaposi sarcoma b) Retinitis
a) Gentamicin b) Vancomycin
c) Lymphoma d) Tuberculosis c) Dexamethasone d) Ceftazidime
e) Herpes 1056. Peribulbar injection is given in- (PGI Dec 98)
1046. Waardenburg’s syndrome following are seen a) Subtenon space b) Outside muscle case
except- (PGIDec 98) c) Periorbital space d) Subperiorbital space
a) Widening of the eyebrow 1057. Macula involvement is common in - (PGIDec 97)
b) Short palpebral fissure a) Toxoplasma b) Malaria
c) Interstitial keratitis c) CMV d) Syphilis
d) heterochromia iridis 1058. Commonest infection causing blindnesss in adult
1047. Common ocular manifestation in Trisomy 13 is - man- (AIIMSNov 00)
a) Capillary hemangioma (AIIMSMay03) a) Toxocara b) Plasmodium
b) Bilateral microphthalmos c) Toxoplasma gondii d) Tenia solium
c) Neurofibroma 1059. River blindness is caused by - (AIIMS Feb 9 7)
d) Dermoid Cyst a) Drinking river water without boiling
1048. Epidemic dropsy is characterised by all except - b) Oncocerca volvulus
a) Disc- edema (AIIMS Dec 98) c) Toxoplasma canis
b) Hard- exudates d) Glaucoma
c) Peri-retinal haemorrhage 1060. A young female presents with sudden, severe
d) Tortuous - retinal vessels bilateral loss of vision more so on right side with no
1049. Hypersecretory glaucoma is seen in - (AI 94) perception of light Rest of the examination including
pupillary reflex, fundus & optokinetic nystagmus
a) Epidemic dropsy b) Marfan’s syndrome
are normal. She was able to touch tips of her Anger
c) Hypertension d) Diabetes
with right eye closed but not with left eye closed.
1050. Most common allergic manifestation of tuberculosis
Most likely diagnosis - (AIIMS Nov 11)
is- (AIIMSNov 01)
a) Optic neuritis b) Anterior ischaemic optic neuritis
a) Phyctenular conjunctivitis b) Koeppe’s nodule c) CMV retinitis d) Functional visual loss
c) Retinopathy d)Scleritis
„ mm
1061. A young adult presented with diminished vision.
On examination he has anterior uveitis, vitritis,
focal necrotizing granuloma, macular spot. What
■ b) Glaucoma ■. ■ - ■■ - - '; •• ■■ is the most probable diagnosis? (AIIMS May 12)
C) uveitis ; a) Proteus syndrome b) White dot syndrome
c) Multifocal chorioditis d) Ocular toxoplasmosis

1043)b 1044) None 1045)A11 1046)c>a 1047)b 1048)b 1049)a 1050)b 1051)b 1052)a 1053)c,d,e 1054)a,c
1055) a 1056)b 1057)a,c,d 1058) c 1059) b 1060) d 1061) d